Q1 Not Attempted | Easy | 2s

With reference to the Hepatitis, consider the following statements:

1. It is a general term used to describe inflammation of the liver.
2. It cannot spread through contact with body fluids of a diseased person.
3. It can occur when the body's immune system attacks the liver.
How many of the above statements are correct?

a. Only one
b. Only two Correct Answer

c. All three

d. None

Avg Time Taken : 56s +2 -0.66

Solution
According to the Global Hepatitis Report 2024 released by the World Health Organisation (WHO), India is
one of the countries with the highest burden of viral hepatitis.
Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver.
It can be an acute (short-term) infection or a chronic (long-term) infection.
There are different types of hepatitis, with different causes:
 Viral hepatitis: It is the most common type and caused by one of several hepatitis viruses A, B, C, D and
E.
Alcoholic hepatitis which is caused by heavy alcohol use.
Toxic hepatitis can be caused by certain poisons, chemicals, medicines, or supplements.
Autoimmune hepatitis is a chronic type in which your body's immune system attacks your liver. The
cause is not known, but genetics and your environment may play a role.
How is viral hepatitis spread?
Hepatitis A and E usually spread through contact with food or water that is contaminated with an
infected person. You can also get hepatitis E by eating undercooked food.
Hepatitis B, C and D spread through contact with the blood of someone who has the disease.
Hepatitis B and D may also spread through contact with other body fluids. This can happen in many
ways, such as sharing drug needles or having unprotected sex.
Symptoms: Some people with hepatitis do not have symptoms and do not know they are infected.
Common symptoms include: Fever, Fatigue, Loss of appetite, Nausea and/or vomiting etc.
Treatment: Treatment for hepatitis depends on which type you have and whether it is acute or chronic.
Acute viral hepatitis often goes away on its own. There are different medicines to treat the different
chronic types of hepatitis.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

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Q2 Not Attempted | Easy | 0s

Consider the following statements with reference to the Coordinated

Lunar Time:
1. It provides a time-keeping benchmark for lunar spacecraft and satellites.
2. It has been developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only Correct Answer

b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Avg Time Taken : 56s +2 -0.66

Solution
Recently, the US White House officially directed the National Aeronautics and Space Administration
(NASA) to create a time standard for the Moon, which different international bodies and private companies
can use to coordinate their activities on the lunar surface.
 It will provide a time-keeping benchmark for lunar spacecraft and satellites that require extreme
precision for their missions.
It will also synchronise the communication between satellites, astronauts, bases and the Earth.
A unified time standard would be essential for coordinating operations, ensuring the reliability of
transactions and managing the logistics of lunar commerce.
Why there is need of LTC?
As there is less gravity on the Moon, time ticks slightly faster there relative to the time on the Earth.
In other words, for someone on the Moon, an Earth-based clock will appear to lose on average 58.7
microseconds per Earth day with “additional periodic variations.
It can create problems for situations such as a spacecraft seeking to dock on the Moon, data
transferring at a specific time, communication, and navigation.
How does Earth’s time standard work?
Most of the clocks and time zones of the world are based on Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) which is
essentially internationally agreed upon standard for world time.
It is set by the International Bureau of Weights and Measures in Paris, France.
It is tracked by a weighted average of more than 400 atomic clocks placed in different parts of the globe.
Atomic clocks measure time in terms of the resonant frequencies — the natural frequency of an object
where it tends to vibrate at a higher amplitude — of atoms such as cesium-133.
In atomic time, a second is defined as the period in which a caesium atom vibrates 9,192,631,770 times.
As the vibration rates at which atoms absorb energy are highly stable and ultra-accurate, atomic clocks
make for an excellent device for gauging the passage of time.
To obtain their local time, countries need to subtract or add a certain number of hours from UTC
depending on how many time zones they are away from 0 degree longitude meridian, also known as the
Greenwich meridian.
If a country lies on the west of the Greenwich meridian, it has to subtract from the UTC, and if a country
is located on the east of the meridian, it has to add.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

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Q3 Not Attempted | Hard | 0s

With reference to disposal of property under Section 451 of the CrPC,

consider the following statements:
1. Property under this Section includes property regarding which an offence
appears to have been committed.
2. The property can be disposed of by either destruction, confiscation or
giving the property to a person claiming to be entitled to such property.
3. The court has no jurisdiction to direct the disposal of any property without
producing it before the court in either physical or symbolic form.
How many of the above statements are correct?
 a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three Correct Answer

d. None

Avg Time Taken : 56s +2 -0.66

Solution
The Supreme Court recently held that approaching the High Court under Articles 226/227 of the
Constitution for the release of the seized vehicle would not be a proper remedy without approaching the
magistrate under Section 451 of Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
About Section 451 of CrPC:
The title of the section states, “order for custody and disposal of property pending trial in certain
cases”.
It deals with the interim disposal of property before finally concluding the case.
The provision provides that when any property is producedbefore any criminal court, the court may
order for proper custodyof the propertypending the conclusion of the inquiry and trial,and seeing the
nature of the property,i.e., speedy or natural decay, the court may order its sale or disposal.
For the purpose of this section, property includes:
Property of any kind or document which is produced before the Court or which is in its custody.
Any property regarding which offence appears to have been committed or which appears to have
been used for the commission of any offence.
The court can issue orders, including interim ones, for the proper custody and disposal of property or
documents which fall within any one of the above categories.
The nature of the property should be seen before disposing of or deciding the custody of the property.
It empowers the court to dispose of the perishable properties first and retain properties that
are needed for the purpose of trial.
Section 451 is not confined to natural decay alone but extends to other ways of damage which require
expedient disposal.
The court holds discretionary power to decide the method of disposal according to the facts and the
circumstances of the case.
Methods of disposal: The property can be disposed of by either destruction, confiscation or
delivering or giving the property to a person claiming to be entitled to such property and thus restoring
it to the dispossessed, selling it off, etc.
The court, however, has no jurisdiction to direct the disposal of any property without producing it
before the court in either physical or symbolic form. The symbolic production is done by filing records
or reports about such a seizure.
The order under Section 451 of the CrPC is an interlocutory one in nature but not final. This is because
it needs to be revised in some occasions, depending on the circumstances.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
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Q4 Not Attempted | Hard | 0s

With reference to the Higgs Boson, consider the following statements:

1. It is the fundamental force-carrying particle of the Higgs field, responsible
for granting fundamental particles their mass.
2. It is one of the elementary particles that make up the Standard Model of
particle physics.
3. It has a positive charge with zero spin.
How many of the above statements are correct?

a. Only one
b. Only two Correct Answer

c. All three

d. None

Avg Time Taken : 56s +2 -0.66

Solution
Nobel prize-winning British physicist Peter Higgs, who proposed the existence of a mass-giving particle, which
became known as the Higgs boson or the "God particle", has died aged 94.
About Higgs Boson:
The Higgs boson is the fundamental force-carrying particle of the Higgs field, which is responsible for
granting fundamental particles their mass.
This field was first proposed in the mid-sixties by Peter Higgs, for whom the particle is named.
The particle was finally discovered on July 4, 2012, by researchers at the Large Hadron Collider (LHC),
the most powerful particle accelerator in the world, located at the European particle physics laboratory
CERN, Switzerland.
The LHC confirmed the existence of the Higgs field and the mechanism that gives rise to mass and
thus completed the standard model of particle physics.
It is one of the 17 elementary particles that make up the Standard Model of particle Physics, which is
scientists' best theory about the behaviors of the universe's most basic building blocks.
Higgs boson plays such a fundamental role in subatomic physics that it is sometimes referred to as the
"God particle."
Features:
The Higgs boson has a mass of 125 billion electron volts, meaning it is 130 times more massive than a
proton.
It is also chargeless with zero spin, a quantum mechanical equivalent to angular momentum.
 It is the only elementary particle with no spin.
What is a Boson?
A boson is a "force carrier" particle that comes into play when particles interact with each other, with
a boson exchanged during this interaction. For example, when two electrons interact, they exchange a
photon, the force-carrying particle of electromagnetic fields.
Because quantum field theory describes the microscopic world and the quantum fields that fill the
universe with wave mechanics, a boson can also be described as a wave in a field.
So, a photon is a particle and a wave that arises from an excited electromagnetic field, and the Higgs
boson is the particle or "quantized manifestation" that arises from the Higgs field when excited.
That field generates mass via its interaction with other particles, and the mechanism carried by the
Higgs boson called the Brout-Englert-Higgs mechanism.
Particles that interact — or "couple" — with the Higgs field more strongly are granted greater masses.
Even the Higgs boson itself gets its massfrom its own interaction with the Higgs field.
One particle not granted massby the Higgs fieldis the basic particle of light, the photon. This is because
spontaneous symmetry breaking doesn't happen for photons as it does for its fellow force-carrying
particles.
This mass-granting phenomenon also only applies to fundamental particles like electrons and
quarks. Particles like protons, made up of quarks, get most of their mass from the binding energy that
holds their constituents together.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

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Q5 Not Attempted | Hard | 0s

Consider the following statements with reference to the Tons River:

1. It is the largest tributary of the Yamuna.
2. It primarily flows through the Garhwal region of Himachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only Correct Answer

b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Avg Time Taken : 56s +2 -0.66

Solution
Two people recently drowned in the Tons River while bathing in UP’s Ballia.
About Tons River:
 It is the largest and most important tributary of the Yamuna.
It is one of the most perennial rivers emerging from the Himalayas.
Course:
Tons River originates at a height of 6,315 metres from the Bandarpunch Mountain in Uttarakhand.
It flows through the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand and touches Himachal Pradesh.
Surging from that great height, the glacier-fed river’s course ends when it meets the Yamuna River.
It joins Yamuna near Kalsi in the Dehradun district, Uttarakhand.
It has a length of about 200 km.
Along the way, the river cuts through deep gorges, tranquil valleys, and dense forests.
Tons, even being a tributary, contribute more water than Yamuna itself possesses at the point of
meeting.
Tributaries: The Pabbar and Asan rivers are the main tributaries of the Tons River.
The Tons Valley is also culturally significant, inhabited by indigenous communities like the Jaunsari and
Bhotiya tribes, who have their own unique traditions, dialects, and lifestyles.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

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Q6 Not Attempted | Hard | 0s

With reference to curative petition, consider the following statements:

1. Article 137 of the Constitution of India provides for curative petition.
2. It can be admitted if the petitioner establishes there was a violation of the
principles of natural justice.
3. It is usually decided by judges in the chamber.
How many of the above statements are correct?

a. Only one
b. Only two

c. All three Correct Answer

d. None

Avg Time Taken : 56s +2 -0.66

Solution
Recently, the Supreme Court has invoked curative writ petition in reviving the 2019 Delhi High Court
judgment that partially set aside the Delhi Metro arbitration award, is a sparingly used judicial innovation to
correct a “grave miscarriage of justice”.
 It is the final and last option for the people to acquire justice as mentioned and promised by the
Constitution of India.
It is a way to ask the court to review and revise its own decision, and it is filed after a review petition is
dismissed or used.
Objective: It is meant to ensure there is no miscarriage of justice and to prevent abuse of process.
Background
The concept of curative petition originated from the case of Rupa Ashok Hurra Vs. Ashok Hurra and
another case (2002) where the following question arose before the court of law: 'whether an aggrieved
person is entitled to any relief against the final judgment/order of the Supreme Court, after the dismissal
of a review petition?'.
In this case, a five-judge constitution bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held that in order to
rectify gross miscarriage of justice, the court will allow the curative petition filed by the victim.
Constitutional Background
The Article 137 of the Indian Constitution broadly supports the idea of a curative petition.
It states that the "Supreme Court has the power to review any judgment pronounced (or order made) by
it if the matter concerns the laws and rules made under Article 145".
These petitions can be entertained if the petitioner establishes there was a violation of the principles of
natural justice, and that he was not heard by the court before passing an order.
It will also be admitted where a judge failed to disclose facts that raise the apprehension of bias.
Hearing of Curative petitions
A curative petition must first be circulated to a bench of the three senior-most judges and
the judges who passed the concerned judgment, if available.
Only when a majority of the judges conclude that the matter needs hearing should it be listed, as far as
possible, before the same bench.
A curative petition is usually decided by judges in chamber, unless a specific request for an open-court
hearing is allowed.
It shall be open to the Bench at any stage of consideration of the curative petition to ask a senior counsel
to assist it as amicus curiae.
In the event of the bench holding at any stage that the petition is without any merit and vexatious, it may
impose exemplary costs on the petitioner.
Hence option c is the correct answer.

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Q7 Not Attempted | Hard | 0s

Consider the following statements regarding Invasive Alien Species:

1. They act as disruptors in the food chain and disturb the balance of the
ecosystem.
2. They can survive on various food types and in a wide range of
environmental conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2 Correct Answer

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Avg Time Taken : 56s +2 -0.66

Solution
In a bid to manage the teeming population of invasive chital (spotted deer) in Ross Island the Andaman and
Nicobar Islands administration recently sought help from the Wildlife Institute of India.
These are the species whose introduction and/or spread outside their natural past or present distribution
threaten biological diversity.
These include animals, plants, fungi, and even microorganisms, and can influence all kinds of
ecosystems.
These species need an introduction either through natural or human intervention, survive on native
food resources, reproduce at a fast rate, and edge out native species in the competition over resources.
Invasive species act as disruptors in the food chain and disturb the balance of the ecosystem. In habitats
where there is no competition, invasive species can dominate the entire ecosystem.
Characteristics: Common characteristics of IAS include rapid reproduction and growth, high dispersal
ability, phenotypic plasticity (ability to adapt physiologically to new conditions), and ability to survive on
various food types and in a wide range of environmental conditions.
Areas more susceptible for Invasive Alien species are;
Native ecosystems that have undergone human-induced disturbance are often more prone to alien
invasions because there is less competition from native species.
Islands are especially vulnerable to IAS because they are naturally isolated from strong competitors and
predators.
Islands often have ecological niches that have not been filled because of the distance from colonizing
populations, increasing the probability of successful invasions.
The list of invasive wildlife in India is dominated by certain species of fish such as the African
catfish, Nile tilapia, red-bellied piranha, and alligator gar, and turtle species such as the red-eared
slider.
Hence both statements are correct.

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Q8 Not Attempted | Hard | 0s

Consider the following statements with reference to the Baobab tree:

1. It is a long-lived deciduous tree found in Africa and Australia.
2. It is a keystone species vital for storing water in arid environments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2 Correct Answer

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Avg Time Taken : 56s +2 -0.66

Solution
In a groundbreaking conservation endeavour, the Global Society for the Preservation of Baobabs and
Mangroves (GSPBM) has initiated a mission to rejuvenate the iconic baobab trees in Madagascar.
It is a long-lived deciduous, small to large tree with broad trunks and compact tops which is also known
as the upside-down tree.
Distribution:
There are 9 species of baobab tree. Two are native to mainland Africa, six to Madagascar, and one
to Australia.
Mandu, in the Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh, is perhaps the only place in India where baobab trees
are found in abundance.
Features:
It can live to become thousands of years old.
They only have very faint growth rings. Mature trees have massive trunks that are bottle-shaped or
cylindrical and tapered from bottom to top.
The fruit of the tree is round or oval-shaped and is highly nutritious.
It is also known as ‘Tree of Life’.
Ecological significance
Baobabs are keystone species in Madagascar's unique landscapes.
Their massive trunks and extensive root systems are vital for storing water in arid
environments, providing a critical resource for both the trees and the surrounding ecosystem during
drought periods.
This ability to store water enables baobabs to support a wide array of life, from microorganisms to larger
animals, fostering biodiversity in their habitats.
Hence both statements are correct.

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Q9 Not Attempted | Hard | 0s

Consider the following statements with reference to the Fast-Moving

Consumer Goods (FMCG) sector:
1. It is characterized by high-volume sales and quick inventory turnover.
2. It is the second-largest sector in the Indian economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only Correct Answer

b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Avg Time Taken : 56s +2 -0.66

Solution
The Rs 5-trillion domestic fast-moving consumer goods (FMCG) market still faces hurdles on its path to
complete recovery from the current slowdown.
About Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG):
FMCG, or Consumer Packaged Goods (CPG), are products sold quickly and at a relatively low cost.
The FMCG industry is characterized by high-volume sales, quick inventory turnover, and various
products catering to consumer needs.
These goods include essential everyday items such as food and beverages, toiletries, cleaning supplies,
and other low-cost household items.
FMCGs have a short shelf life because of high consumer demand (e.g., soft drinks and confections) or
because they are perishable (e.g., meat, dairy products, and baked goods).
FMCG Industry in India:
The FMCG sector is the fourth-largest sector in the Indian economy.
In 2022, the urban sector accounted for 65% of the overall annual FMCG sales, while rural India
contributed over 35%.
Household and personal care products make up 50% of the industry’s sales, healthcare claims 31-32%,
and food and beverage products account for the remaining 18-19%.
It provides employment to around 3 million people, accounting for approximately 5% of the total factory
employment in India.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

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Q10 Not Attempted | Hard | 5s

With reference to the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF),

consider the following statements:
1. It is India’s first-ever Sovereign Wealth Fund (SWF).
2. It invests in greenfield, brownfield and stalled projects.
3. It is majority-owned by institutional investors and is independent in its
investment decisions.
How many of the above statements are correct?

a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three Correct Answer

d. None

Avg Time Taken : 56s +2 -0.66

Solution
The NIIF has invested $200 million in iBUS Network and Infrastructure Pvt Ltd., a connectivity technology
firm, to support the growth of India’s digital infrastructure.
About the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF):
NIIF is a fund manager that invests in infrastructure and related sectors in India.
It is India’s first-ever Sovereign Wealth Fund (SWF), which was set up in 2015.
An institution anchored by the Government of India, NIIF is a collaborative investment
platform for international and Indian investors with a mandate to invest equity capital in domestic
infrastructure.
NIIF invests across asset classes such as infrastructure, private equity, and other diversified sectors in
India, with the objective of generating attractive risk-adjusted returns for its investors.
It invests in greenfield (new), brownfield (existing) and stalled projects.
NIIF is 49% owned by the Indian Government and has more than $4.9 billion in assets under
management, making it the country’s biggest infrastructure fund.
NIIF benefits from its association with the Government yet is independent in its investment decisions.
It is majority-owned by institutional investors and managed professionally by a team with experience
in investments and infrastructure.
The funds are registered as Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) with the Securities Exchange Board of
India (SEBI) and are currently raising capital from domestic and international institutional investors.
NIIF manages capital invested currently through four funds:
NIIF Master Fund: This fund primarily invests in infra-related projects such as roads, ports, airports, and
power. It is the largest infrastructure fund in India.
NIIF Private Markets Fund: Invests in funds managed by third-party managers in infrastructure and
associated sectors.
 NIIF Strategic Opportunities Fund: It invests and develops large-scale businesses and greenfield
projects that are of strategic importance to the country.
India-Japan
Fund: NIIF’s first bilateral fundinvests in environment preservation in India.
It also seeks to enable opportunities for collaboration between Indian and Japanese companies in India.
The Fund has a target corpus of US$600 million, with the Government of India contributing 49% and
the remaining 51% contributed by the Japan Bank for International Cooperation, a policy-based
financial institution wholly owned by the Government of Japan.
Hence option c is the correct answer.

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