SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING

Directions (Q.53-Q.84): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.

Passage (Q.53-Q.57): In 2017, a nine-judge bench of the court spoke in one voice as it held the right to privacy
to be a constitutionally guaranteed fundamental right implicit in Article 21 of the constitution, and indeed, a
synoptic reading of various other enumerated rights in the constitution. It held that privacy in the digital age
cannot be enforced or protected as an individual interest at all unless it is consecrated and fortified as a
fundamental right.

Most modern notions of privacy in the digital age use the term ‘privacy’ as shorthand to refer to a bundle of
several concomitant rights over personal information – the right of access, the right of erasure, the right to have
a say in the manner of its processing, the right of accuracy, the right of control of third-party access, etc. However,
this universally celebrated ruling has had little impact on the state’s behaviour.

The mobile phone is the treasure trove of one’s entire private life. But neither parliament nor any of the law
enforcement agencies have seen the need or desirability to evolve any guidelines on how and when they could
search the contents of a suspect’s mobile phone; or of its seizure, of the extraction of data from it or the manner
in which it is produced or proved before a trial court.

Mobile phones also contain data about other people – contact information, text messages, and emails. When
police search a mobile phone, they gain access to this third-party data without the knowledge or consent of the
other people involved.

In addition to privacy, there arises the perspective of the right against self-incrimination, protected under Article
20(3) of the constitution – also known as the ‘right to silence’. The issue arises in several ways in relation to the
production of devices by persons accused. However, the concern has generally been about the compulsion to
divulge credentials, such as a password or a PIN.

[Extracted with revisions from https://thewire.in/law/device-seizures-making-a-mockery-of-landmark-privacy-

ruling ]

53. John, a journalist, is conducting an investigation on a specific government department corruption. He has
gathered evidence on his mobile phone, which includes confidential documents and sources' contact information.
The government authorities, suspecting John's involvement, want access to his phone without a search warrant.
John cites his right to privacy and the right against self-incrimination as reasons for refusing access. Choose
which of the following rights are conflicting in this situation.
(a) The government's right to access evidence and John's right to protect confidential sources.
(b) The government's right to privacy and the government's duty to uphold the law by searching his phone for
confidential material
(c) The government's right to search for evidence and John's right against self-incrimination
(d) John's right to self-incrimination and the government's responsibility to investigate corruption.

54. Anna is a suspect in a cybercrime case, and her mobile phone may contain evidence related to the alleged crime.
The police request access to her phone without a search warrant. Anna, invoking her right to privacy and the
right against self-incrimination, refuses to provide access or the phone's password. The police still go ahead and
forcibly take her phone. Anna’s phone is now in the possession of the police. Is the police in violation of any
right mentioned in the passage?
(a) Yes, because the police have violated Anna's right to privacy and her right to destroy self-incriminating
evidence.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 16 of 36
 (b) Yes, because the police has Anna's right to privacy and her right to silence with respect to the ongoing
proceedings against her
(c) No, because the police has the right to access evidence and the right to property while conducting a criminal
investigation
(d) Yes, because the police have to manage the right to access evidence and the protection of third-party data.

55. Corporate espionage is stealing proprietary information, trade secrets, or intellectual property from a business
and giving or selling it to another. Emily was suspected to have engaged in corporate espionage by stealing the
proprietary information of her company and selling it to a rival company. Police investigation commenced
against her and Emily was asked to provide access to her company laptop. Emily refuses to provide the password
to her encrypted laptop to the police. She argues that doing so would violate her right to privacy and protection
against self-incrimination. Mark a decision on whether or not the police can compel Emily to provide the
password to her encrypted laptop?
(a) Yes, Emily's right to privacy and protection against self-incrimination are relevant, making it a complex legal
issue.
(b) No, Emily's refusal to provide the password is obstruction of justice and not related to constitutional rights.
(c) Yes, the police's need for evidence overrides Emily's privacy and self-incrimination rights.
(d) No, the police cannot compel Emily to provide the password as that would infringe her fundamental rights
under Articles 21 and 20(3) of the Constitution.

56. Mariam worked in the document verification department in ABC bank. Concerns have emerged that ABC Bank
ended up giving huge loans without any security to a number of businessmen. Now these businessmen have
defaulted and they have not repaid their loans. This was made possible because one of the employees of the bank
was suspected to have bypassed the verification procedure while vetting the documents for granting the loan.
Mariam has been asked by the authorities to unlock her smartphone and laptop, which are believed to contain
evidence related to the financial fraud case. She hesitates, as she fears self-incrimination. Is the right against self-
incrimination applicable in this situation?
(a) Yes, the right against self-incrimination is applicable being a fundamental right, and Mariam can choose not
to unlock her smartphone and remain silent.
(b) No, the right against self-incrimination only applies to the accused and here the defaulters of the loan are the
accused and not Mariam
(c) Yes, Mariam must unlock her smartphone and laptop as the right against self-incrimination does not apply
in this context as it is concerned with public interest since money of the public is involved
(d) No, because the right against self-incrimination is a fundamental right but all fundamental rights are subject
to reasonable restrictions

57. Jack works for a tech company, and his employer provides him with a company email address for work-related
communications. One day, Jack accidentally sends a personal email to a colleague using his work email account.
He had logged onto both of his email accounts simultaneously and did not realise that he was sending the email
from the work account. His employer politely reminds him that they should use personal email accounts for non-
work-related messages. In this situation, has Jack's right to privacy been violated by his employer?
(a) Yes, Jack's right to privacy is violated because his colleague read his personal email.
(b) No, Jack's right to privacy is not violated as his colleague was only providing a reminder.
(c) Yes, Jack's right to privacy is violated because his employer should not monitor personal emails sent using
the company email address.
(d) No, Jack's right to privacy is not violated because the colleague's reminder was a reasonable response to the
situation.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 17 of 36
 Passage (Q.58-Q.62): The Supreme Court’s decision to reform the process of making appointments to the
Election Commission has once again sparked the debate surrounding the status of citizens’ right to vote. “What
is important is that the Court noted in Anukul (supra) that holding of free and fair elections constitute a basic
feature of the Constitution and approved of the view apparently that the Right to Elect is fundamental to
democracy. Even if it is treated as a statutory right...the right is of the greatest importance and forms the
foundation for a free and fair election, which, in turn, constitutes the right of the people to elect their
representatives. We would for the purpose of the lis in question rest content to proceed on the said basis,” Justice
Joseph, writing for the majority said. Supreme Court has recognized the right to vote as a fundamental right and
any law that restricts this right must be necessary, reasonable, and proportionate to a legitimate aim. Thus, the
four judges advanced to "demystify" Article 326 of the Constitution. They found that if a person is a citizen of
India and not below eighteen years of age, and if he does not incur the disqualifications (prescribed in Article
326), he becomes entitled to be entered in the electoral roll. Such person, as is indicated in Article 326, indeed,
has a right, which can be said to be a Constitutional Right, which may be right subject to the reasonable
restriction. Section 62(1) of the 1951 Act, as we have noticed, gives also the Right to Vote to such a person.
Source: “ECI Case Right To Vote A Part Of Fundamental Rights, Says Justice Rastogi; Majority Judgment
Opines It's A Constitutional Right”, Live Law, March 3, 2023

58. A State Government has passed a law which restricts the right to vote of individuals who have been convicted
of any criminal offense, including those which are not related to electoral malpractices. The law applies to all
citizens of the state who have been convicted, regardless of the severity of the offense or the length of the
sentence served. Does the State Government's law restricting the right to vote of individuals who have been
convicted of any criminal offense violate the fundamental right to vote as recognized by the Supreme Court?
(a) Yes, the law violates the fundamental right to vote as recognized by the Supreme Court.
(b) No, the law does not violate the fundamental right to vote as recognized by the Supreme Court.
(c) The law violates the fundamental right to vote only if the individuals who have been convicted of any
criminal offense were not given a fair trial.
(d) The law violates the fundamental right to vote only if the individuals who have been convicted of any
criminal offense were not given the opportunity to appeal their conviction.

59. A political party has filed a petition challenging a State Government's decision to disqualify individuals who are
unable to provide proof of citizenship from the electoral roll. The political party argues that the right to vote is a
Constitutional Right and cannot be restricted based on citizenship status. Does the State Government's decision
to disqualify individuals who are unable to provide proof of citizenship from the electoral roll violate the Right
to Elect as a Constitutional Right?
(a) No, as the State Government's decision is correctly based on the requirements mentioned in article 326.
(b) Yes, the Right to Elect is a Constitutional Right and cannot be restricted based on citizenship status.
(c) The Right to Elect is a Constitutional Right but cannot be restricted based on citizenship status if it is
necessary to ensure free and fair elections.
(d) The Right to Elect is a statutory right but cannot be restricted based on citizenship status as it would violate
the principles of democracy.

60. Amit, a 19-year-old Indian citizen, is excited to vote for the first time in the upcoming elections. He meets all
the criteria mentioned in Article 326, including being an Indian citizen, not being below 18 years of age, and not
incurring any disqualifications. However, Amit is unsure whether his right to vote is a constitutional right or a
statutory right. Based on the passage, which statement correctly identifies Amit's right to vote?
(a) Amit's right to vote is solely a constitutional right.
(b) Amit's right to vote is solely a statutory right.
(c) Amit's right to vote can be considered both a constitutional right and a statutory right.
(d) Amit's right to vote cannot be classified as either a constitutional right or a statutory right.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 18 of 36
61. The government of a state has made changes to the election laws, which the opposition parties claim are aimed
at rigging the elections in their favor. The opposition parties approach the Supreme Court, arguing that holding
free and fair elections is a basic feature of the Constitution, and the changes made by the government violate this
basic feature. Can the opposition parties challenge the changes made by the government to the election laws on
the grounds that holding free and fair elections is a basic feature of the Constitution?
(a) No, the government has the power to make changes to the election laws.
(b) Holding free and fair elections is not a basic feature of the Constitution, and therefore, the changes made by
the government cannot be challenged.
(c) The power to make changes to the election laws lies with the Election Commission, and therefore, the
opposition parties cannot challenge the changes made by the government.
(d) Yes, holding free and fair elections is a basic feature of the Constitution, and the changes made by the
government can be challenged.

62. A state government has introduced a law that disqualifies a certain section of citizens from voting in the
upcoming elections arbitrarily. A group of affected citizens approaches the High Court, arguing that the Right
to Vote is a fundamental right under the Constitution, and the government's law violates this right. Can the group
of affected citizens challenge the government's law on the grounds that the Right to Vote is a fundamental right
under the Constitution?
(a) No, the Right to Vote is not a fundamental right under the Constitution.
(b) The Right to Vote is a statutory right, and therefore, any law that violates this right can be challenged.
(c) Yes, the Right to Vote is a fundamental right under the Constitution, and any law that violates this right can
be challenged.
(d) The Right to Vote is a constitutional right, but the government has the power to make laws that can restrict
this right.

Passage (Q.63-Q.68): Generally, attempt to commit a crime is been defined as an extremely difficult and
intricate branch of a crime. The accused either prepares intentionally or unintentionally to commit a crime or
just commits it in a spur of the moment. In these sudden committed crimes, stages of preparation and attempt
overlap and fuse into one another. An attempt could be seen as the direct movement to commit the crime just
after the preparation is completed. An attempt can also be understood as an “intentional prepared action”. If a
man has committed an intentional action to seek a certain object that is to say- the completion of the crime, and
if that objective or completion of crime fails due to any reason that is independent of commissioner’s own will,
then it is said that the man has attempted to commit that crime. “An act or a series of acts constitutes an attempt
if the following are fulfilled:

If all the intentional steps of the offence or all the important steps of the offence have been completed other than
the consequences of the offence.

If the offender has not completed all the necessary steps needed to complete the crime but has proceeded far
enough to entitle punishment in order to protect society.

In the case of Om Parkash vs. State of Punjab, the Supreme Court of India held that “just as stated in Section
511 and in Section 307 as well, the act towards the crime need not be the penultimate act. In this case, the act of
the accused to accelerate the death of his wife by denying her food for several days amounts to an act under
Section 307.”
[Source:https://lawbhoomi.com/attempt-and-preparation-under-ipc/]

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 19 of 36
63. Amar was a notorious criminal who was always involved in a lot of illegal and criminal things all the time. He
had some issues with one Rajeev with whom he would regularly get into fights and they had ended up in the jail
quite a few times as well. One time Amar found out that Rajeev was planning to put him in jail by intimating the
police, he got scared a bit and then decided to kill Rajeev. He went to a shop and bought some rat poison, and
then he went to Rajeev’s house and put poison in his food and then started walking away. Which part of the
whole thing can be called as a final act for the purpose ofattempt?
(a) The act of buying poison can be called as attempt because he was attempting to kill Rajeev.
(b) The act of going to Rajeev’s house can be called as an attempt because he was attempting to kill Rajeev.
(c) The act of putting the poison in Rajeev’s food is an attempt because there was no going back after.
(d) There can be no attempt until Rajeev puts the food in his mouth, then only it can be called as an attempt.

64. Asgar was a notorious criminal and a terrorist, he was also associated with a very infamous terrorist group called
ISIC. ISIC was responsible for a lot of terrorist attacks throughout the country of Alibia. In Alibia there was also
a huge reward given if Asgar was found. Asgar and his team however, were planning to blast the parliamentary
building because the parliament was going to pass a bill that was going to be very important for the country. He
went there and planted a bomb at the main entrance. When he was leaving he forgot to put the wire in and the
bomb became moot. Can this be called attempt?
(a) No, because he forgot to put the wire in that means that the attempt failed.
(b) He was still in his preparation stage as he forgot to put the wire in and the bomb was useless.
(c) Yes, it would be an attempt because he had moved past the preparation stage.
(d) It would be preparation because the bomb would have burst if he had put the wire in.

65. Renu was married to Rajpal for ten years. They had three daughters and Rajpal was not happy with this, he
wanted a son for a long time, but they could not bear a son, despite trying many times. Renu was depressed and
Rajpal did not really care about it. One time he went to Thailand for a week for his business purposes. He knew
Renu would not eat or take care of herself, and he was the one who brought groceries for home, but he did not
do so this time. He left without giving the family food in the hopes that Renu would go buy food out of necessity
as he knew that Renu was competent to do so. Will this be called an attempt from Rajpal’s side?
(a) No, because Renu was very well capable of getting food herself and so no attempt to kill has been made.
(b) Yes, because he knew his wife was depressed and still did not get her food.
(c) No, because out of necessity Renu should have gone out and gotten food, he is not responsible.
(d) He is responsible because his family was dependent on him and he did not fare well on it.
66. Suppose in the previous question, Rajpal knew that Renu needed her anti-depressants to work properly. He
bought her medication and forgot to give her. He realised halfway that he needed to give the medicines to his
wife but he thought it would be better if she did not take it and tried to do well on her own. Will this be an attempt
to murder?
(a) No, because there was no intention on his part to kill his wife.
(b) Yes, because he knew the medication was very important for his wife.
(c) No, he had bought them for her only and had forgotten to give them to her.
(d) Yes, because he could have given them to her when he realised but he did not.
67. Zahir was a smuggler. He used to mix some drugs in the packets of washing powder that was being manufactured
in one of the local units. He used to smuggle his drugs in a mini van that was not registered in his name. He used
to steal the mini van from a garage and then would take his drugs in it and mix them in the detergent powder
boxes. Once he was caught while he was on his way to take the mini van from the garage and the police caught
him while he was putting the key in the keyhole. Will this be an attempt at theft or preparing to steal?
(a) He would be held responsible for attempt to steal because he was about to steal and was busted by the police.
(b) He would not be held responsible for attempt to steal because he had just put the keys in and had not moved
the mini van.
(c) He would be held responsible for preparation because he was preparing to steal the mini van.
(d) He could be held responsible for either preparing to steal the mini van or an attempt to steal the mini van.
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 20 of 36
68. Assume the scenario from the previous question and say that instead of being caught while trying to take the car,
he was caught while he was walking in the detergent manufacturing unit with a big packet of drugs. He mixed
the drugs. He was caught just before he could smuggle them out of the country, will this be called an attempt or
a preparation?
(a) It would be called a preparation because he was still in the preparing stage of mixing drugs.
(b) It would be called an attempt because he had finished past the preparation stage.
(c) It would have been an attempt if he was caught while mixing the drugs in the packets.
(d) It would be preparation because he could still have walked back from the place and not attempted it.

Passage (Q.69-Q.74): The Cambridge Dictionary defines ‘Good Samaritan’ as someone who helps people in
trouble. Duty to rescue, assist and the obligation of being a good Samaritan was in existence in Vedic India.
However, today India has limited laws to the extent of imposing the duty on an individual to assist or rescue
another in peril or danger. In India, there is recognition of good Samaritan laws in case of an accident. An
individual has a duty to inform the police or emergency services about a person who met with a road accident.
But there is lack of imposition of duty on a bystander or witness to a crime to assist the victim in any whatsoever
manner possible.

The Supreme Court in Savelife Foundation v. Union of India incorporated guidelines for protection of good
Samaritans from harassment at hospitals, Police Stations and Courts who assisted road accident victims, and also
incorporated standard operating procedures for examination of good Samaritans by Police and during the trial.

The Karnataka Good Samaritan and Medical Professional (Protection and Regulation During Emergency
Situations) Act, 2016 provides protection to Good Samaritans and Medical Professionals from civil and criminal
liabilities. Section 3 of the Act protects good Samaritans from civil and criminal liability for any act or omission
in good faith while providing emergency care to an injured person. Protection from civil liability is not applicable
if the good Samaritan is grossly negligent or reckless in connection with the act done or omission while providing
emergency care.

The Good Samaritans are exempted from:

• Furnishing their personal information such as name, telephone number, address at the hospital, unless
provided voluntarily
• Fulfilling any procedure relating to the admission of an injured person at the hospital.
• Bearing any medical expenses for the treatment of an injured person at the hospital.
[Extracted with revisions from
https://www.scconline.com/blog/post/2023/06/15/a-multi-jurisdictional-approach-on-duties-of-bystanders-
legal-news/ ]

69. Sarah, a passerby with no medical training, witnesses a person collapse on the street. She noticed that a lot of
people have gathered around the collapsed person but no one is doing anything to help the person. She
immediately calls for an ambulance but she notices that the person is not breathing. Without any hesitation, she
performs CPR on the person until medical help arrives. Since she is not a trained person, it is possible that her
CPR may be inadequate because she is performing an emergency medical procedure without any prior training.
If there is any improper care or negligence at this time, would Sarah be protected from civil liability?
(a) Yes, Sarah is protected from civil liability because she administered CPR properly
(b) No, Sarah is not protected from civil liability because she did not administer CPR improperly
(c) Yes, Sarah is protected from civil liability because she was acting as a good Samaritan
(d) No, Sarah is not protected from civil liability because she did not act as a good Samaritan

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 21 of 36
70. Emily, a medical student, encounters a person in need of emergency care. She was walking on the footpath when
she saw an old man suddenly fall down while coughing. The man looked visibly distressed and uncomfortable.
Emily went up to him and immediately called an ambulance. She also asked the man to give his phone so that
she could contact his family members. However, she herself did not provide any medical treatment or perform
any medical procedure. Although she has learned some basic first aid techniques in her course, she is hesitant to
provide assistance due to her lack of experience. In this scenario, if the man were to suffer, can Emily be held
responsible for the same?
(a) No, Emily has protection from civil and criminal liability because she acted in good faith.
(b) Yes, Emily has protection from civil and criminal liability because she lacks experience.
(c) No, Emily does not have protection from civil and criminal liability because she did not call for help.
(d) No, Emily does not have protection from civil and criminal liability because she did not provide any medical
care

71. Alex witnesses a physical altercation between two individuals on a crowded street. Concerned for their safety,
Alex intervenes and uses reasonable force to separate the individuals and prevent further harm. However, in the
process, Alex unintentionally causes a minor injury to one of them. Now, the person who was injured wants to
take criminal action against Alex. Is Alex protected from criminal liability under Section 3 of the Good Samaritan
Act?
(a) Yes, Alex is protected from criminal liability as he acted in good faith to prevent harm.
(b) No, Alex is not protected from criminal liability because he caused injury while intervening.
(c) No, Alex is not protected from criminal liability because he did not report the incident to the authorities.
(d) No, Alex is not protected from criminal liability because he did not have formal self-defense training.

72. In the previous question, consider the following. Once Alex stopped the fight, he noticed that one of the two men
who were fighting, i.e., Sam was injured on his shoulder. Sam's shoulder was bleeding and it appeared to be
fractured because of the way he was screaming in pain. Alex immediately helped Sam into his car and drove him
to the hospital. He informed the doctor about the situation and asked him to help Sam. The doctor asked him to
complete the formalities of the hospital. The hospital asked for an upfront payment of Rs. 50,000 to admit Sam.
Is Alex liable to pay this amount?
(a) Yes, because as a good Samaritan he is expected to bear the cost of treatment
(b) No, because as a good Samaritan he is not expected to bear the cost of treatment
(c) Yes, because he is exempt from civil and criminal liability
(d) No, because he is not exempt from monetary liability

73. In the previous question, Alex did not end up paying the admission fee because Sam informed the hospital that
his medical insurance directly covers all upfront costs including the cost of admission. However, now Alex was
asked to fill the admission form. Since there was no one else with Sam and he was the one who brought him to
the hospital, the staff asked him to put down his personal details in case the same is required in the future. Alex
is hesitant to do so because he does not want to be caught up with anything and he believes he has already
fulfilled his duty by getting Sam to the hospital. Based on your reading of the passage, is Alex required to put
down his personal details on the form?
(a) Yes, because as a good Samaritan Alex is obligated to be available at the hospital whenever he is required
(b) Yes, because mentioning his personal details is part of his duty as a good Samaritan
(c) No, because mentioning his personal details is not part of his duty as a good Samaritan
(d) No, because Alex is exempt from civil and criminal liability for being a good Samaritan

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 22 of 36
74. Maria, a trained paramedic, encounters a person in distress on the street. She suspects that the individual may be
experiencing a drug overdose. In an attempt to help, Maria administers naloxone, an antidote for opioid overdose,
without having a valid prescription. It is possible that the person may experience some side effects as a result. Is
Maria protected from criminal liability?
(a) Yes, Maria is protected from criminal liability as she acted in good faith to save a life.
(b) No, Maria is not protected from criminal liability because she administered medication without a
prescription.
(c) No, Maria is not protected from criminal liability because she did not call for emergency medical assistance.
(d) No, Maria is not protected from criminal liability because she did not provide consent to the individual.

Passage (Q.75-Q.79): The Supreme Court dismissed petitions challenging the Delhi High Court judgment which
upheld the Agnipath scheme for recruitment to the armed forces. Some of the petitioners included candidates
who were shortlisted in the earlier recruitment process to Army and Air Force. Advocate Prashant Bhushan who
appeared for some of these candidates told the apex court that their names appeared in a provisional list for
recruitment to Air Force but the recruitment process was cancelled when Agnipath scheme was notified. He
argued that the government must be directed to complete the old process citing the doctrine of promissory
estoppel.

Promissory estoppel is a concept developed in contractual laws. A valid contract under law requires an agreement
to be made with sufficient consideration. A claim of doctrine of promissory estoppel essentially prevents a
“promisor” from backing out of an agreement on the grounds that there is no “consideration.” The doctrine is
invoked in court by a plaintiff (the party moving court in a civil action) against the defendant to ensure execution
of a contract or seek compensation for failure to perform the contract.

In a 1981 decision in Chhaganlal Keshavalal Mehta v. Patel Narandas Haribhai, the SC lists out a checklist for
when the doctrine can be applied. First, there must be a clear and unambiguous promise. Second, the plaintiff
must have acted relying reasonably on that promise. Third, the plaintiff must have suffered a loss.

Bhushan’s argument invoking the doctrine essentially means that the government’s actions of putting up a
shortlist etc would be a “promise” made by it. The other party here — the candidates acted based on that promise
— they refused other jobs in CRPF, BSF etc and now must be compensated for their loss.
[Extracted with revisions from
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/what-does-promissory-estoppel-mean-8552259/ ]

75. Johnny Boy owns a small business and is looking to expand his operations. He meets with Sarah, a supplier, and
they discuss the terms of a contract. Sarah promises to provide Johnny with all the necessary materials for his
expansion project within a month, and Johnny agrees to pay her a certain amount upon delivery. However, a
week before the agreed-upon delivery date, Sarah informs Johnny that she won't be able to fulfill her promise
due to unforeseen circumstances. Feeling deceived, Johnny decides to take legal action for the losses occurred.
Which of the following statements regarding the application of promissory estoppel is correct?
(a) Johnny can invoke promissory estoppel to hold Sarah accountable for her promise and loss occurred to him
based on her promise.
(b) Johnny cannot invoke promissory estoppel since there was no written contract.
(c) Johnny cannot invoke promissory estoppel because he did not provide any consideration.
(d) Johnny can invoke promissory estoppel since he suffered a loss.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 23 of 36
76. Emma is in desperate need of a car for her daily commute to work. She visits a car dealership and speaks to
Mark, a salesperson. After seeing all the cars and understanding their features, Emma picks a specific car model,
the "Megatron". But only one such car was available in the dealership and Emma did not have the requisite
documents to make an immediate purchase. Mark assures Emma that he will hold Megatron for her until the end
of the week. Emma, excited about the prospect, informs Mark that she will return in two days to finalize the
purchase. However, when Emma returns to the dealership past her due date, she is informed that the Megatron
has been sold to another customer. Feeling deceived, Emma decides to take legal action. Can she invoke the
doctrine of promissory estoppel?
(a) No, Emma cannot invoke promissory estoppel since there was no valid written contract between parties.
(b) No, Emma cannot invoke promissory estoppel because she did not act on the promise.
(c) Yes, Emma can invoke promissory estoppel based on Mark's clear promise and her loss of the car.
(d) Yes, Emma can invoke promissory estoppel only if she can prove fraudulent intent.

77. Sana is a homeowner who is planning a renovation project. She contacts a construction company and discusses
the scope of the project with their representative, Prakash. Prakash assures Sana that his company has the
expertise and resources to complete the renovation within three months. Relying on Prakash's promise, Sana
signs a contract with the construction company and pays a deposit. However, as the months pass, the construction
company delays the project and fails to meet the agreed-upon timeline. Frustrated with the situation, Sana decides
to take legal action. Which of the following statements regarding the application of promissory estoppel is
correct?
(a) Sana cannot invoke promissory estoppel since there was no consideration given by her.
(b) Sana cannot invoke promissory estoppel because she has already received partial performance from the
construction company.
(c) Sana can invoke promissory estoppel based on Prakash's clear promise and her reliance, seeking
compensation for the project delays.
(d) Sana can invoke promissory estoppel only if she can prove that the construction company intentionally
misrepresented their capabilities.

78. Alex and Lisa are friends who often go on hiking trips together. One day, Alex expresses interest in purchasing
a new hiking backpack but is short on funds. Lisa offers to lend Alex Rs. 2000 to buy the backpack, stating that
he can repay her within a month. Relying on Lisa's promise, Alex goes ahead and purchases the backpack.
However, a month later, when Alex tries to repay Lisa, she tells him that she has changed her mind and no longer
expects repayment. Feeling betrayed, Alex considers taking legal action. Which of the following statements
regarding the application of promissory estoppel is correct?
(a) Alex cannot invoke promissory estoppel since there was only a verbal agreement.
(b) Alex cannot invoke promissory estoppel because he did not suffer a loss.
(c) Alex can invoke promissory estoppel based on Lisa's clear and unambiguous promise and his reasonable
reliance.
(d) Alex can invoke promissory estoppel only if he can prove that Lisa intended to deceive him.

79. A war has broken out between a country and its neighbour. It is a tense situation for all the citizens. During this
time, X who is the landlord of a certain residential apartment, promised to accept only half of the ground rent
from the tenant Y during the wartime period due to difficulties in finding tenants. However, after the war ended
and the flats became occupied, the landlord sued the tenant for outstanding rent from the wartime period. The
court, applying the principle of promissory estoppel, held that the landlord was not entitled to the arrears rent for
the wartime period. If the landlord were to appeal the decision of the court, would he be successful?
(a) Yes, because the landlord is entitled to collect the full arrears rent since there was no written agreement.
(b) Yes, because the tenant must pay the full arrears rent despite the wartime promise made by the landlord.
(c) No, the landlord is barred from collecting the arrears rent due to the application of promissory estoppel.
(d) No, the tenant is not obligated to pay any rent to the landlord based on the wartime promise made.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 24 of 36
 Passage (Q.80-Q.84): A notable inclusion in the proposed Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is a clause addressing
the use of “deceitful means” to falsely promise marriage to a woman. Such a provision is absent in the current
IPC of 1860. The issue of false promises of marriage has been a recurring topic in courts, currently addressed
under various IPC sections.

Clause 69 of the proposed bill specifies that anyone who, through deceit or by falsely promising marriage,
engages in sexual intercourse with a woman (not amounting to rape) will face up to ten years in prison and a
fine. The clause defines “deceitful means” as including false promises of employment, promotion, or concealing
one’s identity.

The term “false promise to marry” typically refers to cases where a woman's consent for sexual intercourse was
obtained under the pretense of a later marriage that was not honored. Such consent, obtained through a “false
promise”, is argued to be equivalent to rape as per the definition of the rape law. IPC Section 375 defines rape
and lists conditions under which consent would be considered violated. Allegations of “false promise to marry”
arise from interpreting Sections 375 and 90 of the IPC together. Section 90 states that consent given under “fear
of injury, or under a misconception of fact” is invalid.

Courts have frequently debated whether consent based on a “misconception of fact” equates to rape under Section
375. In 2003, the Supreme Court in ‘Uday vs. State of Karnataka’ ruled that a false promise to marry could not
be seen as a misconception of fact. The court established two conditions for Section 90 IPC's application: consent
must be given under a misconception of fact, and the person obtaining consent must be aware of this
misconception.

Differentiating between a false promise to marry and a breach of promise, a 2019 Supreme Court ruling in
‘Pramod Suryabhan Pawar vs. State of Maharashtra’ stated that a false promise is one made without any intention
of being honored from the outset. In contrast, a breach of promise is made in good faith but is not fulfilled later.

In 2021, the Supreme Court in ‘Sonu alias Subhash Kumar vs. State of UP and Another’ summarized that for
consent to be vitiated by a “misconception of fact”, the promise of marriage must be false and made in bad faith,
and this false promise must be directly related to the woman's decision to engage in sexual relations.

On January 30, the apex court in ‘Naim Ahmad vs. State’ emphasized that not every breach of a promise to
marry constitutes rape. The court acknowledged that unforeseen circumstances might prevent someone from
fulfilling a genuine promise to marry.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/new-clause-false-promise-to-marry-proposed-law-
8888473/

80. Rohit and Ananya had been in a long-standing relationship for two years. Ananya, with dreams of a settled life,
felt on top of the world when Rohit solemnly promised her marriage. Acting on this promise, they shared intimate
moments. However, to Ananya's shock, Rohit later confessed that he never intended to marry her since he was
already betrothed to another. Is Rohit liable to face legal repercussions based on his actions?
(a) No, because Ananya willingly consented to the relationship.
(b) Yes, due to his deceitful act of promising marriage to win over Ananya's intimacy.
(c) No, because Rohit's promise wasn't documented in written form.
(d) Yes, but it hinges on whether Ananya decides to legally challenge his actions.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 25 of 36
81. Ayesha and Sameer shared a profound emotional connection. Due to mounting family pressures, Sameer, albeit
uncertain, vowed to build a future with Ayesha. Their belief in this promise led to intimacy. However, family
complications arose, and Sameer retracted his promise. In the eyes of the law, did Sameer make a "false promise"
or commit a "breach of promise"?
(a) False promise
(b) Breach of promise
(c) Both a false promise and a breach of promise
(d) Neither a false promise nor a breach of promise

82. Tanya, enthusiastic about climbing the corporate ladder, was elated when her supervisor, Vivek, proposed a
promotion in exchange for them initiating a romantic relationship. Enticed by the offer, Tanya consented.
However, her aspirations were crushed when months rolled by without any promotion. Further investigations
revealed that Vivek never had the jurisdiction to offer such a promotion in the first place. Can Vivek face legal
consequences based on his deceptive actions?
(a) Yes, his deceit lured her into a romantic relationship.
(b) No, the deceit was grounded in professional promises, not marital ones.
(c) Yes, Vivek acted duplicitously by concealing his incapacity to grant the promotion.
(d) No, Tanya's choice to enter the relationship was made voluntarily.

83. Sana met a man online named Aryan, who told Sana that he is the owner of a big MNC named “Jupiter” and also
proposed marriage. After becoming close, she discovered 'Aryan' was just a fake name and his real name was
Rajiv. Despite this, Rajiv still wanted to marry her. Is Rajiv's use of a fake name considered deceit?
(a) Yes, he hid his true name and identity.
(b) No, he genuinely wanted to marry her.
(c) Yes, using a fake name while proposing is wrong.
(d) No, many people use fake names online.

84. Jyoti found herself head over heels for Karan after a whirlwind three-month courtship. When Karan, despite his
internal apprehensions, proposed marriage to Jyoti, he genuinely hoped their bond would strengthen with time.
They indulged in intimate moments, believing in their shared future. However, as time progressed, Karan's
doubts intensified, making him realize their incompatibility, leading him to retract his promise. Is Karan guilty
of obtaining consent based on a "false promise"?
(a) Yes, he reneged on his commitment.
(b) No, his original proposal was anchored in optimism for their future.
(c) Yes, their intimacy was predicated on his marriage assurance.
(d) No, since his initial assurance wasn't infused with deceit or malintent.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 26 of 36
 SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING

Directions (Q.85-Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.

Passage(Q.85-Q.89): In order to limit the risk to the broader financial system, US authorities have intervened
aggressively in the case of Silicon Valley Bank. Government and the regulators have taken the extraordinary
step to guarantee that depositors get access to “all their money”, even the uninsured deposits. This bold move
was aimed at lowering the risk and shoring up confidence in the banking system. However, the ripple effects
from the collapse of SVB continue to be felt across the financial system. As per some reports, depositors are
turning to the larger US banks. And late Monday, Moody’s Investors Service placed the ratings of six US banks
on review for possible downgrades over concerns about the health of regional financial firms.

At its core, SVB’s problems can be traced to tightening financial conditions. In an era of low interest rates, the
bank had parked its deposits in safe securities. But with the US Federal Reserve aggressively hiking rates to
tackle inflation, the bonds held by the bank fell in value. In order to meet the surge in withdrawal demands, the
bank announced that it had to sell securities it held at a loss and that it would also have to raise money to shore
up its finances. This triggered panic among customers who rushed to withdraw their money, causing the bank to
collapse. In a highly globalised world, the ripple effects from SVB’s sudden demise were felt across markets.
But, SVB isn’t alone. As per the FDIC, at the end of 2022, unrealised losses at US banks stood at $620 billion.
This episode raises troubling questions. For one, considering that a large share of the depositors in SVB were
concentrated in a particular sector, and that 93 per cent of the deposits were uninsured with the Federal Deposit
Insurance Corporation according to some reports (the FDIC insures deposits up to $2,50,000), shouldn’t this
have raised regulatory concerns? And while it is difficult to ignore the political economy implications of this
move, guaranteeing all depositors money in excess of deposit insurance also raises questions over the pricing of
risk and moral hazard.

The implications of SVB’s collapse will be felt beyond the tech and start-up ecosystem. Considering the rapid
increase in interest rates by the US Fed, there is a possibility of similar episodes causing stress to the financial
system fructifying as per analysts. In view of this, there is an increasing likelihood that the Fed will now rethink
its approach to monetary policy. Prior to this episode, there were indications of the Fed hiking rates by 50 basis
points when it meets next. But, market expectations now seem to have changed. Concerns over financial stability
may trump inflation management. Considering the heightened uncertainty, policymakers across the world should
be careful as they navigate this challenging period.

85. Which of the following is the primary argument of the author?

(a) The ripple effects of the collapse of Silicon Valley Bank continue to be felt across the financial system in
the US, pushing the depositors towards larger banks.
(b) The Silicon-Valley-Bank-fiasco has raised questions over the regulatory approach adopted by the US
authorities.
(c) The Silicon-Valley-Bank-fiasco shows that policymakers need to walk to a fine between managing inflation
and maintaining financial stability.
(d) The Silicon-Valley-Bank-fiasco poses grave danger to other sectors in the US as unrealised losses at US
banks stood at $620 billion.

86. What is the implication of the collapse of Silicon Valley Bank according to the passage?
(a) The collapse has no ripple effects on the financial system.
(b) The collapse highlights the stability of the banking system.
(c) The collapse raises concerns about regulatory issues and the pricing of risk.
(d) The collapse is beneficial for the tech and start-up ecosystem.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 27 of 36
87. The author of the passage would agree with which of the following?
(a) Banks should not park its deposits in safe securities when interest rates are low.
(b) It is not wise for the banks to park majority of their funds in one particular sector.
(c) The US authorities should not have risen the interest rates to control inflation.
(d) The collapse of Silicon Valley Bank had no impact on the global financial system.

88. What is the reason behind the collapse of Silicon Valley Bank?
(a) The bank's customers rushed to deposit more money, causing financial instability.
(b) The bank invested in risky securities and suffered losses.
(c) The bank was affected by a cyber attack, leading to a collapse.
(d) The bank faced regulatory scrutiny and had to close down.

89. Which of the following is the author most likely to disagree with?
(a) The US Federal Reserve should continue to hike interest rates aggressively to combat inflation.
(b) The government's decision to guarantee all depositors' money in excess of deposit insurance was a wise
move.
(c) The collapse of Silicon Valley Bank has implications beyond the tech and start-up ecosystem.
(d) The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation should insure all deposits, regardless of the amount.

Passage (Q.90-Q.94): The joint appearance by the leaders of the United States, the United Kingdom and
Australia, at the Naval Base Point Loma, U.S., this week, and their detailing about their “AUKUS” trilateral
defence pact are significant in optics and substance, suggesting a new chapter in the global great power rivalry.
There will be three phases in the agreement in the Indo-Pacific region, first announced in September 2021.
Beginning this year, the U.S. and the U.K. navies will embed Australian personnel, and increase port visits to
Australia to train together. In the second phase, U.S. and U.K. nuclear submarines will travel rotationally to
Australia, and the U.S. will sell Australia up to five nuclear-powered Virginia-class submarines. Subsequently,
a new submarine called the SSN-AUKUS, will be built and used by all three navies, with interoperable workings.
The deal, the biggest for Australia, using British design and U.S. technology, is expected to cost $368 billion. It
is not hard to imagine who the target of such an alliance is. In his speech, U.K. leader Rishi Sunak said that the
most recent challenges to the world have come from “Russia’s illegal invasion of Ukraine, China’s growing
assertiveness [and] the destabilising behaviour of Iran and North Korea”. The new alliance is seen as a counter
to China exerting its claims on Taiwan, with the idea that a naval fleet including nuclear-powered submarines
based in Australia would be able to reach the South China Sea quickly.

Predictably, Beijing’s opposition has been the toughest — a “wrong and dangerous path” — while Russia has
raised questions over nuclear proliferation as per the Non-Proliferation Treaty, as Australia would join a group
of countries that use nuclear-powered submarines. In response, U.S. President Joe Biden insisted that the
submarines would be nuclear-powered, but not nuclear-armed. New Zealand, Malaysia and Indonesia have
indicated more muted discomfort. India has not reacted yet, in part due to the fact that the AUKUS countries
have no doubt kept New Delhi briefed. For New Delhi, which has always seemed hesitant to explore more
strategic and defence aspects in the Quad, AUKUS gives it a breather in the Indo-Pacific military calculus. India,
as a voice for the global south, must do what it can to ensure that the announcement does not exacerbate already
sharp divides between U.S.-led alliances and the Russia-China combine, and proves to be a deterrent rather than
accelerating global conflict instead.

90. The statement “In response, U.S. President Joe Biden insisted that the submarines would be nuclear-powered,
but not nuclear-armed” is based on the assumption that
(a) The provisions of Non-Proliferation Treaty apply when use of nuclear technology
(b) Transfer of nuclear technology to another country is banned under Non-Proliferation Treaty.
(c) Sale of nuclear arms is not banned as per the provisions of Non-Proliferation Treaty.
(d) The provisions of Non-Proliferation Treaty don’t apply when sale of arms is not involved.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 28 of 36
91. Which of the following weakens Joe Biden’s insistence that that the submarines would be nuclear-powered, but
not nuclear-armed?
(a) Material used to fuel nuclear submarine is not enough to pose a nuclear threat to any country.
(b) China and Russia claim that the US has the technology to convert nuclear fuel into nuclear weapons.
(c) Nuclear enabled countries also have nuclear weapons to protect their territory from nuclear threats.
(d) Nuclear submarines are powered by weapons-grade enriched uranium fuel that can be converted into nuclear
weapons.

92. Which of the following best describes the main idea of the passage?
(a) The AUKUS trilateral defense pact is an agreement between Australia and the United States to build nuclear-
powered submarines.
(b) The AUKUS trilateral defense pact is an agreement between the United States, the United Kingdom, and
Australia aimed at countering China's growing assertiveness in the Indo-Pacific region.
(c) The AUKUS trilateral defense pact is an agreement between China, Russia, and North Korea aimed at
destabilizing the Indo-Pacific region.
(d) The AUKUS trilateral defense pact is an agreement between India, the United States, and Australia aimed at
building a new submarine called the SSN-AUKUS.

93. What can be inferred about India's reaction to the AUKUS agreement according to the passage?
(a) India has expressed concern over the AUKUS agreement's potential to exacerbate tensions between the US-
led alliances and the Russia-China combine.
(b) India has expressed support for the AUKUS agreement as it provides a breather in the Indo-Pacific military
calculus.
(c) India has not reacted to the AUKUS agreement yet but is likely to express concern over nuclear proliferation.
(d) India has not reacted to the AUKUS agreement and is unlikely to not express any concern over it.

94. Which of the following statements supports the author's argument that India must work to ensure that the
AUKUS announcement does not escalate global conflict?
(a) India should join the AUKUS trilateral defense pact to counter China's growing assertiveness in the Indo-
Pacific region.
(b) India should align with Russia and China to oppose the AUKUS trilateral defense pact.
(c) India as a voice for the global south has the ability to promote peaceful coexistence and de-escalation of
tensions.
(d) India has remained neutral and not take any action regarding the AUKUS trilateral defense pact.

Passage(Q.95-Q.99): The American intelligence community has submitted a report to the lawmakers which says
that under Prime Minister Narendra Modi, India is more likely than in the past to respond with military force to
“perceived or real” provocations from Pakistan.

This is not a very accurate assessment of the situation. It is true that India no longer responds to the attacks by
Pakistan-sponsored terrorists merely by strongly condemning ‘dastardly deeds’; four years ago, Balakot followed
Pulwama. Our diplomats have also worked hard to convince the world that Pakistan is the jihad factory, funding
and training Mujahidin terrorists all over the world.

At the same time, the Government is leaving no stone unturned to neutralize sleeper cells and stop terror finance.
The effects are also visible; in the last many years, there have been no major terror strikes against civilians, as
was the case in the 2000s.

According to the South Asian Terrorism Portal, in 2001, there were 1,067 fatalities of civilians and 590 of
security personnel. In 2005, the corresponding figures were 521 and 218, and in 2019 (the last year till which

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 29 of 36
 these figures are available) 40 and 78. It needs to be mentioned here that the efforts to boost national defence
and internal security never made India a bellicose neighbour to either Pakistan or China.

PM Modi did his best to improve ties with Islamabad. He invited his Pakistani counterpart Nawaz Sharif to his
first swearing-in ceremony in May 2014. In December 2015, he made an unscheduled trip to attend Sharif’s
granddaughter's wedding.

Yet, he neither lowered his guard nor let the personal bonhomie to eclipse security concerns. So, 11 days after
the Uri attack that killed 18 Indian soldiers, he ordered the Indian Army carry out surgical strikes on the night of
September 28-29, 2016, resulting in the killing of a large number of terrorists.
Therefore, while it is correct that India’s response to the “real” provocations from Pakistan has been swift and
severe, there would be no jingoistic action occasioned by any “imaginary” threat.

Either from Pakistan or from China. This becomes evident from the fact that before the Chinese perfidy in June
2020 in Galwan, PM Modi made all efforts to improve relations with Beijing. He met Chinese President Xi
Jinping 18 times till Galwan. And even after June 2020, he took real measures like banning Chinese apps and
bolstering security at the Line of Actual Control rather than firing verbal salvos at China.

More importantly, he gave an unprecedented impetus to the Quad, the security arrangement involving India, the
US, Japan, and Australia. This is a real and efficacious measure to check the dragon which has been running
amok under Xi. China’s unease with it is visible; it has blamed the Quad of ‘encirclement’, of being ‘an Asian
Nato.’ In a nutshell, PM Modi has, to a large extent, transformed India’s approach to national defence and
security. The approach of New India is firm without being chauvinistic.

95. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) India's response to any provocation from Pakistan or China will be swift and severe.
(b) PM Modi's efforts to improve relations with Pakistan and China have been unsuccessful.
(c) India's approach to national defence and security is chauvinistic.
(d) China is not concerned about the Quad security arrangement involving India, the US, Japan, and Australia.

96. Based on the passage, which of the following statements is a valid conclusion about the approach of the Indian
government towards national defense and security?
(a) The Indian government is becoming increasingly aggressive towards neighboring countries like Pakistan and
China.
(b) The Indian government is making efforts to maintain peaceful relations with neighboring countries like
Pakistan and China.
(c) The Indian government is solely relying on military force to address any perceived threats from neighboring
countries.
(d) The Indian government is neglecting its internal security and solely focusing on external threats.

97. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the author's arguments regarding India's approach to
national defence and security?
(a) India's efforts to neutralize sleeper cells and stop terror finance have been largely unsuccessful.
(b) PM Modi's personal bonhomie with Pakistani counterpart Nawaz Sharif was a political ploy aimed at
improving his image in the international community.
(c) The Indian intelligence community has reported an increase in terrorist activities in the country over the past
year.
(d) China's growing military assertiveness and territorial claims have caused anxiety among India's neighbours,
including Bhutan and Nepal.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 30 of 36
98. The author’s argument is based on the assumption that
(a) India’s approach of responding to perceived or real threat from Pakistan has been the same as before.
(b) Military response to perceived or real threat from Pakistan is not the only option available to India.
(c) Other response options to perceived or real threat from Pakistan are not as good as military response.
(d) Both India’s approach and Pakistan’s approaches have transformed towards each other.

99. Which of the following external statements is most consistent with the author's views on India's national defense
and security approach as described in the passage?
(a) "India's aggressive stance towards Pakistan is bound to escalate tensions in the region."
(b) "The Indian government's efforts to improve relations with China are commendable but may not be enough
to deter China's assertiveness."
(c) "India's emphasis on defense and security measures reflects a paranoid and jingoistic mindset."
(d) "India's response to terrorism has been weak and ineffective, leading to continued attacks on civilians."

Passage (Q.100-Q.104): Augustine was the most instrumental of the Church fathers in articulating the theology
governing the relationship between human beings and demons. Miracles are allowed by God and wrought by
faith, not by incantations and spells. Marvels not performed for the honour of God are illicit sorcery
accomplished by the deceitful tricks of malignant demons. Magic took place when humans made deals with
demons in order to carry out particular deeds such as divination, casting spells, love magic, raising storms, and
astrology. Demons feasted on the smoke, incense and odour of blood rising into the clouds from animal
sacrifices. They craved blood, so, in order to lure demons, people mixed gore with water or offered up burnt
sacrifices. This exchange created a contract by which humans could enlist demons to do their bidding. Feasting
on sacrificial flesh in cultic ceremonies was not the only way to attract demons. Any ritual activity that resembled
pagan worship – following other than mainstream religion, such as honouring idols, casting spells or worshipping
in the outdoors – regardless of intention – was magic. The Christian clergy had to be ever vigilant that the people
under their care were not inadvertently interacting with demons.

In its attempt to distinguish itself from the many cults and belief systems that formed a veritable mosaic in the
ancient world, early Christians had to confront demons, the magic they facilitated, and the contumely of other
religionists. That was an awesome task because magic was ubiquitous. One of the earliest undertakings of
Christian apologists was to counter slurs against Jesus and his apostles that they were nothing more than
charlatans taking advantage of the superstitious disposition of the ignorant. Pagans slang insults at Christians for
passing off tricks as miracles. The 2nd-century pagan philosopher Celsus referred to Christian miracles as
masquerades for scandalous ‘trickery’, less impressive than the stunts of jugglers who performed in the
marketplace.

The foundational metaphors of Christianity and paganism differed and conflicted with one another. The
importance of place emerged for Christians as they crafted a new identity and a way to express it through ritual.
Pagans looked to the natural world for meaning. Christian identity, on the other hand, was manifest in human-
made consecrated structures such as churches and shrines. The new place of worship had to be one where demons
did not feel welcome. When Christians established consecrated sites (the settings of ritual), they were often
competing with pagan holy places that abounded in the world of nature – spots near lakes, beneath trees, at
hallowed rocks, and in forests. Although Near Eastern and Mediterranean religions were temple-oriented with a
sophisticated concept of enclosed ceremonial, the common person did not, as a rule, enter the hallowed domain,
and most popular ritualistic, religious activity took place in the fields or outside the temple precinct – in short,
out of doors.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 31 of 36
100. In the context of early Christian theology as articulated by St. Augustine and other Church fathers, which of the
following statements most accurately describes the nature and purpose of miracles?
(a) Miracles were divine interventions facilitated by faith and intended for God's glory.
(b) Miracles were magical phenomena that occurred through human interaction with demons.
(c) Miracles were the means through which Christians could counter the accusations of pagans.
(d) Miracles were essentially illicit sorcery and an indication of demonic influence.

101. According to the passage, which of the following actions was likely to attract demons, according to the
theological perspective of St. Augustine and other early Church fathers?
(a) Engaging in Christian rituals in the outdoors.
(b) Performing acts of charity in the name of God.
(c) Participating in pagan rituals, such as casting spells or worshipping idols.
(d) Establishing new places of worship on hallowed pagan grounds.

102. Which of the following pieces of additional information would most strengthen the author's argument about the
theological perspective of early Christianity on magic and demons?
(a) Most early Christians refrained from any pagan practices.
(b) The works of St. Augustine contain explicit teachings against engaging with demons.
(c) Early Christians often faced accusations of trickery from pagans.
(d) The popularity of pagan belief systems diminished with the rise of Christianity.
103. What can be reasonably inferred from the passage about the establishment of early Christian places of worship?
(a) They were primarily established in natural settings to attract a larger following.
(b) They were carefully chosen to create a space devoid of any perceived demonic influence.
(c) They were built in proximity to pagan holy places to assert Christian dominance.
(d) Their construction was often delayed due to fear of possible demonic activities.
104. According to the passage, which of the following describes how pagans could potentially engage with demons?
(a) By offering sacrifices in enclosed, hallowed domains.
(b) By performing miracles in the name of their deities.
(c) By trafficking with demons in activities such as divination and casting spells.
(d) By enlisting the clergy to interact with demons on their behalf.

Passage (Q.105-Q.108): The United States and China are the world's biggest military spenders, but dollar for
dollar the U.S. spends far more. It's not only spending more than China, but the U.S. spends almost as much on
its military as the eight other nations on the top 10 list of military spenders combined. China spent $250 billion
on its military in 2018, an increase of 83% during the period from 2009 through 2018. Although it is agreed that
China is rapidly modernising its army, there is some doubt surrounding the exact amount it is spending. It could
be argued that China actually outspends the U.S. on its military when personnel costs and purchasing power are
taken into account. The U.S. spent $649 billion on its military in 2018, according to a report published in 2019
by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute. That's significantly more than China, second on the list
of top military spenders. Chinese military spending has risen consistently since at least 1989. The figure for that
year was $18 billion. Based on the current level of military growth, statistics suggest that China’s defence
spending could overtake America’s by 2030.

105. Consider the following statements and choose the best option:
Figures released by the Government of China may be misleading-
(a) Probably true.
(b) Definitely true.
(c) Probably false.
(d) Definitely false.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 32 of 36
106. Which of the following is a hidden assumption that has been made by the author in the above passage?
(a) US army’s personnel costs and purchasing power has not been taken into consideration in the military
spending.
(b) US army’s personnel costs and purchasing power has been taken into consideration in the military spending.
(c) Army of the United States has already been modernized.
(d) United State will defeat the Chinese army in the war.

107. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the information given in the passage?
(a) The United States and China are the world's biggest military spenders.
(b) U.S. spends almost as much on its military as the eight other nations on the top 10 list of military spenders
combined.
(c) China’s defense budget could overtake the defense budget of United States by the year 2030.
(d) China spent $250 billion on its military in 2018.

108. The author’s statement that “Chinese military spending has risen consistently since at least 1989”-
(a) Forms premise of the author’s idea that China’s defence spending could overtake America’s by year 2030.
(b) Forms conclusion of the author’s idea that China’s defence spending could overtake America’s by year 2030.
(c) Forms premise of the author’s idea that the United States and China are the world's biggest military spenders.
(d) Forms conclusion of the author’s idea that the United States and China are the world's biggest military
spenders.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 33 of 36