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Reasoning Day -21 (Eng)
Reasoning Aptitude
Directions (1-5): Study the following information a) As many persons attend a marriage between
carefully and answer the following questions. S and W
In a three generations family of eight members – b) Three
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W attend a marriage c) As many persons attend a marriage after T
event in four different months of the same year d) Both a) and c)
viz.- January, April, August, and November on e) None of these
two different dates viz.- 9 and 12 but not
necessarily in the same order. Only one person 3) Who among the following person attends a
attended the marriage on each date. Three marriage immediately after V’s uncle?
married couples are there in the family. One a) P’s wife
married couple has no child. b) The one who attends three persons after S
Q’s father-in-law attends a marriage event on an c) V
even date of the month which has 30 days. S d) W’s father
attends a marriage event on August 12. Q is the e) None of these
mother of V. W is the only daughter of Q’s father-
in-law and attends a marriage event three 4) Four of the following five are alike in a certain
persons before S. P is the father of T, who is way based on the given arrangement and thus
married to U. U is the only sister-in-law of S. form a group. Which one of the following doesn’t
Three persons attend a marriage event between belong to the group?
U and S’s son. U attends a marriage on an odd a) V’s mother
date and immediately before Q. As many b) The one who attends immediately before T
persons attend a marriage between P and V as c) W’s mother
after P’s wife. d) S's brother
1) How W is related to the one who attends a e) R’s husband
marriage on January 9?
a) Mother 5) Which of the following statement is/are not
b) Sister-in-law true?
c) Aunt a) S is the father of V
d) Brother b) Three persons attend between T and R’s
e) None of these husband
c) V attends on August 9
2) How many persons attend a marriage event d) W is the aunt of V
between Q and S’s father? e) None of these
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7) Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are of

Directions (6-10): Each of the questions below different heights. Who is the tallest person
consists of statements below it. You must decide among them?
whether the data provided in the statements are a) Q is shorter than S who is shorter than P. U is
sufficient to answer the question and mark the shorter than T who is not the second shortest
appropriate option as answer. person. At least two persons are taller than P.Q
6) Six different vegetables viz., Carrot, Potato, is not the shortest person.
Tomato, Onion, Brinjal and Pumpkin were b) Exactly three persons are shorter than U but
purchased on different days from Monday to taller than R. S is taller than Q but shorter than P
Saturday, then which of the vegetable was as well as T.
purchased on Wednesday? c) P is taller than S. P is shorter than at least two
a) Tomato was purchased after Thursday. Only persons. Only one person is shorter than Q who
two vegetables were purchased between Tomato is shorter than S. U is neither the tallest nor the
and Onion. Brinjal was purchased before shortest person.
Pumpkin. d) P is taller than T who is taller than only two
b) Pumpkin was purchased on Thursday. Only persons. Q is taller than S who is the shortest
one vegetable was purchased between Pumpkin person. R who is not the tallest person, is taller
and Onion. Two vegetables were purchased than U who is not the second shortest person.
between Onion and Tomato. Potato was e) P is taller than S and T. R is taller than S. Q is
purchased before Carrot. not the shortest person.
c) Only one vegetable was purchased before
Potato. Onion was purchased two days after 8) Seven persons J, K, L, M, N, O and P are in a
Potato. As many vegetables were purchased family of three generation. A single person
after Tomato is same as before Brinjal. doesn’t have a child. There are three married
d) Only two vegetables were purchased between couples. How is N related to L?
Brinjal and Carrot. Onion was purchased four a) M is the father-in-law of K. L is the mother of
days after Carrot. Pumpkin was purchased N. J is not in the third generation. P is the sister
before Tomato. in law of K.
e) Carrot was purchased before Wednesday. b) L is the mother of N. M is the grandfather of N
More than two vegetables were purchased who is married to O. K is not married to M and is
between Onion and Pumpkin. Brinjal was not the son of M. K doesn’t have a sibling.
purchased before Pumpkin but after Potato. c) N and J are married couples. L is the child of
Pumpkin was not purchased on Saturday. M. P is the brother in law of K.

d) N is the grandchild of M. K is the daughter of 10) Eight persons G, H, I, J, K, L, M and N sit

L. O is not married to N. around a circular table facing towards the centre.
e) J is the mother of L who is the mother of N. K Who sits to the immediate right of H?
is not married to J. O is a female member and a) M sits second to the right of K who sits third to
doesn’t have siblings. P is the maternal aunt of the right of J. L sits second to the right of G who
N. sits adjacent to K. H sits adjacent to J.
b) J and I are the neighbors of L.Only one person
9) Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G live on sits between J and M. K sits second to the right
different floors of a seven storey building. The of M. N sits adjacent to K.
bottommost floor is numbered as 1 and the c) N sits second to the right of L. M sits fourth to
topmost floor is numbered as 7. Who lives the right of N.I sits second to the left of G. I sits
immediately above B? adjacent to N.K sits opposite to L.
a) A lives on an odd numbered floor and d) J sits sixth to the left of L. I sits second to the
immediately above C. There are two floors right of J. Only two persons sit between M and I.
between A and D. F lives two floors below D. G sits to the immediate right of K. N doesn’t sit
b) D lives two floors above F. The number of adjacent to I. M faces H.
floors above D is the same as the number of e) H sits fourth to the right of the person, who sits
floors below C. G lives above E who lives above to the immediate left of M. L sits second to the
B. right of P. K sits adjacent to I.
c)F lives two floors above C. There are three
floors between C and D. B lives two floors below Directions (11-15): Study the following
E. G lives two floors above E who doesn’t live on information carefully and answer the below
even numbered floor. A doesn’t live above E. questions
d) D lives on even numbered floor. E lives three Certain number of persons are sitting around a
floors below D. G lives above B but neither on circular table of diameter 273cm. All the persons
fourth floor nor fifth floor. F lives three floors are facing outside the table. The distance
below G. between the adjacent persons is different and is
e) The number floors above C is one more than a consecutive multiple of eleven in a clockwise
the number of floors below F. F doesn’t live direction. The minimum distance between each
below C. D lives three floors above F. person is 11cm. The number of persons sitting
A lives immediately below C. around the table is divisible by six also not
exceeding fifteen.
A sits 165cm to the left of G. The number of
persons sitting between A and G is a prime

number. D sits third to the left of B. One person 14) If Z sits fourth to the right of B, then what is
sits between D and E. As many persons sit the distance between Z and C when measuring
between B and E when counted from the left of B from the left of Z?
as between G and D when counted from the right a) 210cm
of G. The distance between E and D is same as b) 280cm
the distance between F and C when counted c) 297cm
from the right of both D and C. Neither F nor C is d) 209cm
sitting adjacent to E. e) None of these
11) Who among the following sits third to the left
of A? 15) How many persons are sitting at the table?
a) G a) Eleven
b)The one who sits to the immediate left of F b) Fourteen
c) B c) Twelve
d) The one who sits sixth to the right of D d) Thirteen
e) None of these e) None of these
12) What is the distance between G and E when Directions (16-20): Read the given passage
measuring from the right of G? carefully and answer the questions based on the
a) 165cm same respectively
b) 143cm In scenes reminiscent of the Arab Spring, (A)
c) 121cm citizens stormed the residences of Sri Lanka’s
d) 132cm president and prime minister in Colombo, (B)
e) None of these forcing both leaders to announce that they would
quit their respective offices. President Gotabaya
13) Which of the following statements is/are true Rajapaksa, the main target of the protests that
with respect to the final arrangement? erupted in April over food and fuel shortages and
a) A sits second to the right of F have continued since, promised to resign by
b) B sits third to the right of G Wednesday. The Speaker of Sri Lanka’s
c) E sits adjacent to A parliament, Yapa Abeywardena, is expected to
d) All are true take over as acting president and prime minister,
e) None of these and facilitate, possibly, the setting up of a
national unity government. Gotabaya’s
resignation could bring down the temperature
and help the authorities to persuade the

protestors to return home. Though the marches a) The people of Sri Lanka have lost trust in their
and sit-ins in Galle Face and elsewhere have leadership
been largely peaceful, the recent violent events b) Gotabaya’s presence in the government has
suggest that the people, battling acute shortage sparked ire
of essentials, including milk, baby food, petrol, c) People of the island country have become
are on the edge. Only a new leadership can win anxious
back public trust in government and steer the d) Both (a) and (b)
island nation’s economy out of choppy waters. e) None of the given options
16) Which of the given options provides the
correct relationship between sentences A and B? 19) Which of the given statements can most
a) A is the cause and B is its effect likely be taken as an ‘assumption’?
b) A is the effect and B is one of the causes a) The speaker takes over the roles of the
c) Both A and B are causes estranged leaders till the government is formed
d) Both A and B are effects of independent b) An island country can only be ruled by a unity
causes government
e) A is the effect and B is its cause c) Violent protests were the only way left before
the people to show their agony
17) Which of the following can be a probable d) The last resort to save the economy was to
‘Course Of Action’ to pacify the anxious people? oust their leaders out of power
a) All the protestors should be jailed so that more e) All statements can be assumed
people don’t join the protests
b) The protestors should be promised with free 20) Which of the following can be ‘concluded’
food and basic facilities for all of them from the given paragraph?
c) Present heads of the country should resign a) It is only the citizens who can bring the country
with immediate effect out of the severe trouble
d) A new government should take charge and try b) A new political leadership is needed to steer
to restore the trust of the people Sri Lanka out of present impasse
e) The protestors should be given employment c) The violent protests are a result of the
which would ensure consistent money flow negligence of the government
d) The food scarcity is a proof that the country
18) Which option can be marked as an was being mismanaged
‘Inference’ as per the contents of the given e) Graft had taken the centre stage and the
paragraph? economy was in doldrums while the government
enjoyed

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Answer Key with Explanation

Directions (1-5): in case (2) Q’s father-in-law attends a
1) Answer: B marriage event on 12 November.
2) Answer: C  W is the only daughter of Q’s father-in-law
3) Answer: A and attends a marriage event three
4) Answer: D persons before S.
5) Answer: B  S attends a marriage event on August 12.
Based on the above given information we have:
We have:
 Q’s father-in-law attends a marriage event
For Blood Relation:
on an even date of the month which has
30 days.
 Q is the mother of V.
That means, in case (1) Q’s father-in-law
attended the marriage event on 12 April,

For Blood Relation:
Case (1a) is not valid as no place left for S’s son.

Again, we have:
 Since, one married couple has no child
Again, we have: and three married couples are there in the
 P is the father of T, who is married to U. family.
 U is the only sister-in-law of S. Thus, Q must be married to S and V is the
That means, U must be married to S’s son of S.
brother.  As many persons attend a marriage
 Three persons attended the marriage between P and V as after P’s wife.
event between U and S’s son. That means, in case (1) R attended the
 U attends a marriage on an odd date and marriage event on 12 November, case (2)
immediately before Q. is not valid.
That means, in case (1) & case (2) U Based on the above given information we have:
attended marriage on January 9, case
(1a) is not valid
Based on the above given information we have:
Case (2) is not valid as many persons attend a

marriage between P and V as after P’s wife.
For Blood Relation:

 Q is taller than S who is the shortest

person.
 R who is not the tallest person, is taller
than U who is not the second shortest
person.
P is the tallest person.
6) Answer: E
We have,
 Carrot was purchased before
Wednesday.
 More than two vegetables were
purchased between Onion and Pumpkin.
 Brinjal was purchased before Pumpkin
but after Potato.
 Pumpkin is not purchased on Saturday. 8) Answer: E
From the above conditions Case1 and Case2a We have,
gets eliminated. Hence Case2 shows the final  J is the mother of L who is the mother of
arrangement. N.
Potato was purchased on Wednesday.  K is not married to J.
 O is a female member and doesn’t have
siblings.
 P is the maternal aunt of N.
From the above conditions N is the son of L.
7) Answer: D
9) Answer: C
We have,
We have,
 P is taller than T who is taller than only
 F lives two floors above C.
two persons.

 There are three floors between C and D.  N doesn’t sit adjacent to I.

 B lives two floors below E.  M faces H.
 G lives two floors above E who doesn’t From the above conditions Case2 gets
live on even numbered floor. eliminated. Hence Case1 shows the final
 A doesn’t live above E. arrangement.
From the above conditions Case2 gets I sits to the immediate right of H.
eliminated. Hence Case1 shows the final
arrangement.
F lives immediately above B.
Directions (11-15):
11) Answer: B
12) Answer: D
13) Answer: A
14) Answer: D
15) Answer: C
Final arrangement:
10) Answer: D
We have,
 J sits sixth to the left of L.
 I sits second to the right of J.
 Only two persons sit between M and I.
We have,
Since, diameter of the table = 273cm.
Thus, circumference = 2 x 22/7 x 273/2 =
Again we have,
858cm.
 G sits to the immediate right of K.

 A sits 165cm to the left of G.  The distance between E and D is same

 The number of persons sitting between A as the distance between F and C when
and G is a prime number. counted from the right of both D and C.
From the above conditions, there are two  Neither F nor C is sitting adjacent to E.
possibilities So Case 1, Case 2 and Case 2a get eliminated,
hence Case 1a shows the final arrangement.
Again we have,
 D sits third to the left of B.
 One person sits between D and E.
 As many persons sit between B and E
when counted from the left of B as
between G and D when counted from the
right of G.
16) Answer: E
The first sentence ie; A talks about the crowd
that barged into the residences of the President
and the PM. If we wonder, what made them do
the same? We get our answer for this is B which
says that the citizens wanted that these two
leaders should leave their offices. So, we can
say that; because of B  A took place…
We can clearly understand that, A is the effect
and B is the cause. We have two options, (b)
and (e) to confuse from.
If we go with (b) which says B is one of the
causes, the other causes than this one should
also be mentioned which is not the case. B is the
Again we have,
only immediate cause that has been quoted.

So, this makes option (e) the best choice for the Towards the end of the paragraph, it has been
answer. given that a new government can restore the
trust of the people to inspire them to stop their
17) Answer: D violent protests. From this, we can infer that the
A Course of Action should always be inclined first option should be correct.
towards lessening the problem and never an It has been given that Gotabaya’s resignation
extreme step. The option that one chooses would bring down the anger. From this we can
should either solve the issue given in the context infer that his presence in the government has
or at least lessen the intensity of the same. sparked a rage in the country.
The first option is an extreme step which should Thus, of the three options, we can clearly see
be avoided as it won’t make any difference. that the first two can be inferred and the third
Option (b) is not a solution as it would put a lot of can be left out. So, the correct answer is option
pressure on the country and increase the (d).
problem indirectly.
It has been given in the paragraph that the 19) Answer: A
people have become anxious as they have no An assumption should be chosen in the reverse
access to even the basic necessities so as per order. We must start with the options and try to
the content above, it has been said that a new find that if the particular option were assumed,
leadership should quickly take charge. Option (c) would that lead us to any conclusion given in the
could be correct had the issue been stopping the paragraph or the sentences given. Like for
protests. But the issue asked is mentioned at the example;
end of the paragraph. (e) becomes superfluous If we take the first option to be an assumption,
looking at the situation given in the paragraph. we can very well conclude the point given in the
So, the correct answer is option (d). paragraph that the speaker Yapa would be
taking over the charge till the government is
18) Answer: D formed. So, this is correct.
An Inference is something that can be deduced Option (b) cannot be taken as an assumption as
on the basis of some known fact. It is not nothing about the same or related to the same
something that is directly given in the paragraph. has been clearly mentioned. It has nowhere
This becomes the reason that we cancel the been mentioned that the violent protests were
third option as it has been discussed directly at the only way out. Even the statement in (d)
multiple places in the paragraph. doesn’t count for an assumption as it has directly
been discussed as an issue in the paragraph.

So, the best would be to mark option (a) as the governance as they have been left at the mercy
answer. of no one.
The first option is superfluous and can be ruled
20) Answer: B out. Option (c) is correct as given in the
A conclusion is logically deduced based on the paragraph but it cannot be taken as the
contents of the given passage. The whole conclusion. Same goes for option (d).
paragraph revolves around one single idea that We have no clue about graft and corruption
the issues that have led to protests can be which makes it wrong for us to mark option (e).
addressed only with the change in the So, it can be eliminated.
government. The people have lost trust in their Thus, the correct answer is option (b).

Quantitative Aptitude Day -21 (Eng)
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (01 - 04): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
There are five families [A, B C, D and E]. There are six members [father, mother, daughter, son,
grandfather and grandmother] in each family. The given table charts show the age of the grandfather, the
ratio of age of grandfather and grandmother, the ratio of age of the father and mother, the age of the
daughter and the age of the son. Some values are missing.
1) The age of the daughter of family A is 10% 2) The ratio of the age of son and daughter of the
less than the age of the son of that family. The family B is 11:12. The sum of the ages of the
difference between the age of the father in family daughter and grandfather in family B is (25*4+8)
A and the age of his mother is equal to (40% of years. The age of a mother is 3 years older than
50 years). The age of the mother is double the 56.25% of the age of a grandmother. The age of
age of the son after 2 years, and the grandfather the father is 2 years less than the age of the
is 4 years older than the grandmother. Find the mother. If the difference between the ages of
possible average age of family A where y is father and grandfather is x, what is the possible
equal to 7.5. difference between the ages of son and
I.8y-15 daughter?
II.7y-21 I.(x/19)
III.3y+22.5 II.0.4x-13.2
a) Only I and II III.0.9x-32.4
b) only III a) Only II and III
c) only I and III b) only I
d) only II and III c) Only II
e) only II d) only I and II

e) only I and III and grandfather of D is 123. The age of the

daughter of family E is half of the father's age 5
3) The age of the father of family C is years ago.
(45*2.5*2/(7.5*15)) times the age of the son. The Statement II: The age of the grandfather of family
age of the mother of the same family is 140% E and the age of the grandmother of family D is
more than the age of the daughter. The average the same. The present Age of the daughter of
age of the father and grandfather and the family D is half of the age of the mother of E after
average age of the grandmother and mother of 10 years. The age of the mother of the families D
family C are the same, i.e., ___ years. The and E is the same.
difference between grandfather's and A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to
grandmother's ages is ___ years. answer the question, while the data in statement
Determine the possible values that will fill in the II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
given blanks respectively. B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to
a) 76, 2 answer the question, while the data in statement
b) 70, 2 I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
c) 78, 4 C. The data either in statement I alone or in
d) 82, 5 statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
e) More than one option question
D. The data given in both statements I and II
4) Find the sum of the ages of the daughters of together are not sufficient to answer the question
families D and E. E. The data given in both statements I and II
Statement I: The ratio of the age of sons in family together are necessary to answer the question.
D and E is 8:9. The sum of the ages of the father
The given pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total expenditure of five different companies in
the year 2022.

Note- Each company makes profit of 25% in the year 2022. The income of Company D in the year 2022
is 135 lakhs. The ratio of the total income of each company in 2022 and 2023 is 5:6 and every company
makes profit of 25% in 2022 and 2023. Profit = [Income – expenditure] *100/expenditure
5) Find which of the following is true? b) 67.2%
I. The average expenditure of A in 2022 and c) 12.5%
2023 is 88 lakhs. d) 66.66%
II. The average expenditure of C in 2022 and e) 19.32%
2023 is 103.25 lakhs.
III. The average expenditure of B in 2022 and 7) The income of Company B in 2022 is _______
2023 is 96.2 lakhs. % less than the income of Company E in 2022
a) only II and the income of Company E in 2023 is
b) only I and II ______% more than the income of Company C in
c) only I 2023.
d) only II and III Find which of the following satisfies the blank?
e) only I and III a) 22.5%, 12.5%
b) 25%, 16.66%
6) The ratio of income of Company C in 2022 c) 16.66%, 25%
and 2021 is 5:6. The ratio of expenditure of d) 12.5%, 22.5%
Company C in 2022 and 2021 is 4:3. Find the e) None of these
decrease in profit percentage of Company C
from 2021 to 2022? 8) The ratio of income of Company E and F in
a) 62.55% 2022 is 7:8 and the ratio of income of Company

E and F in 2023 is 4:7. The profit percentage of b) 92

Company F in 2022 and 2023 is 25% and 40% c) 88
respectively. Find the difference between the d) 94
expenditure of F (in lakhs) in 2022 and 2023? e) None of these
a) 82
The given chart shows the number of fruits (in kg) sold by four different shops [A, B, C and D].
Note – The quantity of papaya sold in shop A lies between 80 and 90. Quantity of apples sold in shop A
lies between 85-95. Yellow, red, blue and green colours represent shops A, B, C and D respectively.
The quantity of fruits sold by all the shops is in multiples of five
9) The quantity of grapes sold in A is 20% more c) 33
than the quantity of apples sold in the same d) 39
shop. The ratio of the quantity of grapes sold in A e) 40
and B is 2:3. The average quantity of grapes sold
in B and C is 102 kg. Find the difference 10) The difference between the quantity of
between apples and grapes sold in C? papayas and oranges sold in B is x and the
a) 32 difference between the quantity of apples sold in
b) 37 A and D is 2y. Find which of the following is true?

I. The total quantity of fruits sold in B is 8x. A. Quantity: I < Quantity: II

II. The total quantity of fruits sold in C is B. Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II
7.5x+13.5. C. Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
III. The total quantity of oranges sold in all shops D. Quantity: I > Quantity: II
is 10y+25. E. Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
a) II and III true established
b) I and II true
c) only I true 12) The average number of papayas sold in
d) I and III true shops A and E, apples in shops C and E and
e) only II true oranges in shops D and E is 92 kg, 84 kg and 81
kg respectively. Find the difference between the
11) Quantity: I The total quantity of papayas sold total quantity of fruits sold in B and E?
in A and B together is what percent of the total a) 79
quantity of oranges sold in C and D together? b) 69
Quantity: II The total quantity of apples sold in B c) 99
and C together is what percent of the total d) 74
quantity of papayas sold in C and D together? e) None of these
Directions (13- 16): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The given bar graph shows the number of Math books (ssc+bank) and English books (ssc+bank) sold in
a shop for first five months respectively.

Note – In Each month, math books for SSC and Bank sold in the ratio of 3:2 respectively and English
books for SSC and Bank sold in the ratio of 3:1 respectively.
13) The number of reasoning books sold in the total math books sold for bank in April and
February for SSC is 25% more than the number May together is 28.
of math books sold in February for SSC. The II. The difference between the total number of
number of reasoning books sold in February for math and English books sold in April is 5.
the Bank is 25% less than the total number of III. The total number of English books sold for
English books sold in February. Find the total Bank in all months together is 118.
number of reasoning books sold in February? a) only I true
a) 128 b) only I and II true
b) 119 c) only II and III true
c) 123 d) none is true
d) 113 e) only II true
e) 133
15) The price of a Math book for SSC sold in
14) Find which of the following is true? March is Rs. 320 and the price of a math book
I. The difference between the total English books for bank sold in March is Rs.280. The price of an
sold for the bank in April and May together and English book for SSC sold in March is Rs. 260

and the price of an English book for bank sold in 18) x2-px+48=0 and x2-qx+130=0. q is 17 more
March is Rs.240. Find the total revenue earned than p. The smaller root of the first equation is 1
by the shop in March? more than the smaller root of the second
a) 44520 equation, larger root of the second equation is
b) 43680 26. Find the equation whose smaller root is equal
c) 49620 to larger root of the first equation and larger root
d) 47620 is equal to the value of p?
e) None of these a) x2-22x+120=0
b) x2-18x+112=0
16) The total number of Math books sold in June c) x2-20x+112=0
is 20% more than the number of math books sold d) x2-22x+112=0
in May and the total number of English books e) x2-22x+102=0
sold in June is 25% more than the number of
English books sold in May. If the total number of 19) x2-px+42=0 and x2-38x+q=0. The sum of the
books sold for the Bank (in both months) is the roots of the first equation is 23 and the
same then find the ratio of the number of math multiplication of the roots of the second equation
and English books sold for SSC in June? is 325. Find the equation whose one root is p
a) 1:1 and another root is q/13.
b) 1:2 a) x2-(2q/5)x + 575 = 0
c) 2:1 b) x2-(q/5 -2)x + 575 = 0
d) 5:6 c) x2-(2q/5 -2)x + 575 = 0
e) can’t be determined d) x2-(2p/5 -2)x + 575 = 0
e) None of these
17) I. x2-16x+63=0 and II. x2-Px+221=0
The larger root of the first equation is 4 less than 20) The sum of roots of equation x2-px+132=0 is
the smaller root of the second equation. Find the 28. The larger root of equation x2-qx+r=0 is 9
multiplication of the value of p and larger root of less than the larger root of the first equation and
the second equation? the smaller root is 2 more than the smaller root of
a) 720 the first equation. Find the value of q+r=?
b) 630 a) 125
c) 510 b) 129
d) 910 c) 120
e) 240 d) 123
e) None of these


1) Answer: C II.0.4x-13.2=0.4*38-13.2=2
The age of the son of family A is 18*100/90 = 20
years. 3) Answer: B
The mother's age is [20+2]*2 = 44 years. The age of the father of family C is
The age of the grandmother is 72-4=68. =25*[45*2.5*2/(7.5*15)] =25*2=50 years
Age of father is = 68 - [40*50/100] =68-20=48 The age of the mother of family C is =
So, the average age is = 20*240/100 = 48 years.
[72+68+48+44+20+18]/6 = 270/6 = 45. If we use the values given in option (b)
=8y-15=3y+22.5 The age of the grandfather is = 70*2-50 = 90.
The age of the grandmother is = 70*2-48 = 92.
2) Answer: D So, the difference is 92-90=2.
The age of the daughter of family B is = So, it's satisfying.
22*12/11 = 24.
Age of grandfather is = 25*4+8-24=108-24=84 4) Answer: E
The age of the grandmother is = 84*20/21 = 80. From single statements, we cannot calculate the
The mother's age is equal to 80 * 56.25/100 + 3 answer.
= 45 + 3 = 48 years. From both statements,
The age of the father is 48-2=46. The age of the grandmother of family D is 80.
So, x=84-46=38 The age of the grandfather of D is 80*15/16=75.
So, the difference between the ages of son and The age of the father of family D is 123-75=48.
daughter is 24-22, or 2 years. The age of the mother of family D is
So, I. x/19 = 38/19 = 2. 48*14/16=42.

The age of the mother of family E is 42 years. 6) Answer: D

The age of the father of family E is 42*15/14=45. Profit in 2021 is = [120*6/5] – [96*3/4]=144-
The age of the daughter of D is = [42+10]/2=26. 72=72
The daughter of family E is [45-5]/2 = 20 years Profit in 2022 is = 120-96=24
old. So, decrease percentage = [(72-
So, the required sum is 26+ 20 = 46. 24)]*100/72=66.66%
Directions (05 - 08): 7) Answer: B

The income of company D in 2022 is 135 lakh. The income of company B in 2022 is [140-
Expenditure of company D in 2022 is = 105)*100/140]=25% less than the income of
135*100/125=108 lakh. company E in 2022
So, the total expenditure of all company is = The income of company E in 2023 is [(168-
108*100/22.5=480 lakh 144)/144]*100=16.66% more than the income of
So, expenditure of A in 2022 is = company C in 2023.
480*16.67/100=80 lakh
Total income of A in 2022 is = 80*125/100=100 8) Answer: A
lakh. Expenditure of F in
The income of A in 2023 is = 100 *6/5=120 lakh. 2022=[140*8/7]*100/125=128
Expenditure in A in 2023 is = 120*100/125=96 Expenditure of F in 2023 =[168*7/4]*100/140=
lakh. 210
Similarly, we can calculate others' values also. So, the difference is = 210-128=82 (in lakhs)
Directions (09 - 12):
5) Answer: C
I. The average expenditure of A in 2022 and
2023 is =[80+96]/2=88 lakhs.
II. The average expenditure of C in 2022 and
2023 is =[96+115.2]/2=105.6 lakhs. 9) Answer: C
III. The average expenditure of B in 2022 and The quantity of grapes sold in A is =
2023 is [84+100.8]/2=92.4 lakhs 90*120/100=108

The Quantity of grapes sold in B is = So, required difference = 279-[75+75+50]=279-

108*3/2=162 200=79
The Quantity of grapes sold in C is = 102*2-
162=204-162=42 Directions (13- 16):
So, The required difference = 75-42=33 The number of Math books sold in January,
February, March, April and May is
10) Answer: D =120, [200-120] =80, [290-200] =90, [400-290]
The difference between the quantity of papayas =110, 520-400=120 respectively.
and oranges sold in B is x = 75-50=25 Number of English books sold in January,
The difference between the quantity of apples February, March, April and May is =96, [180-96]
sold in A and D is 2y = 90-50=40, y=40/2=20. =84, [244-180] =64, [364-244] =120, 460-364=96
I. Total quantity of fruits sold in B is respectively.
=75+75+50=200=8*25=8x. The number of Math books sold for SSC in
II. Total quantity of fruits sold in C is = January is = 120*3/5=72
50+75+75=200 The Number of math books sold for Bank in
= 7.5*25+13.5=201=7.5x+13.5. January is = 120-72=48
III. The total quantity of oranges sold in all shops The Number of English books sold for SSC in
is = 25+50+75+75=225=10y+25. January is = 96*3/4=72
The Number of English books sold for Bank in
11) Answer: A January is = 96-72=24
Quantity I Similarly, we can calculate the others values
Required percentage = [(85+75)/(75+75)]*100 = also.
106.66%
Quantity II
Required percentage = [(75+75)/(50+75)]*100 =
120%
Quantity I < Quantity II
12) Answer: A
The total quantity of fruits sold in shop E is
= [92*2-85] + [84*2-75] + [81*2-75]
13) Answer: C
= 99+93+87=279
The total number of reasoning books sold in
February is

=48*125/100 + 84*75/100= 123 The smaller root of the second equation is

9+4=13
14) Answer: D Let the larger roots of the second equation be y.
I. The Difference between the total English So, y+13=p
books sold for bank in April and May together And 13y=221
and the total math books sold for bank in April Or, y=17
and May together is =[44+48-30-24]=38. So, p=17+13=30
II. The Difference between the total number of So, the required value = 30*17=510
math and English books sold in April is =90+30-
66-44=120-110=10. 18) Answer: D
III. Total number of English books sold for Bank So, q-p=17
in all months together is 24+21+16+30+24=115. Let the roots of first equation be I and J and the
15) Answer: B roots of the second equation be m and n. and
The total revenue earned by the shop in March also consider I>J and m>n
is So, I+J=p and I*J=48, m+n=q, m*n=130
= 320*54+280*36+260*48+240*16=43680 Or, J-n=1, m=26, so, n=130/26=5
So, j=5+1=6
16) Answer: E So, q=26+5=31, p=31-17=14
The total number of Math books sold in june So, I=14-6=8
= 120*120/100 = 144 The sum of roots of the required equation is
The total number of english books sold in june 8+14=22
96*5/4 =120 The multiplication of roots is 8*14=112
Total number of books sold for bank = 72 So, the equation is x2-22x+112=0
But , we cannot find the total number of math
and English books for ssc in june from the given 19) Answer: E
information so answer is E So ATQ, p=23 and q=325
So, the sum of roots of the required equation is
17) Answer: C 23+325/13=23+25=48
x2-16x+63=0 Multiplication of roots of the required equation is
or, x2-9x-7x+63=0 = 23*25=575
or, (x-9)(x-7)=0 So, the required equation is = x2-48x+575=0
so, x=9,7. 20) Answer: A
II. x2-Px+221=0 The sum of roots of equation x2-px+132=0 is 28.

So, p=28 The larger root of the second equation is 22-

So, x2-28x+132=0 9=13 and the smaller root is 6+2=8.
Or, x2-22x-6x+132=0 So, q=13+8=21
Or, (x-22)(x-6)=0, x=22, 6 And, r=13*8=104
So, q+r=104+21=125

English Day - 21
English Language
Directions (1-5): In the following passage, some observed. The tech workforce has found new
of the words have been left out, each of which is love with remote working, giving them freedom
indicated by a number. Find the suitable word and productivity that requires HR to be more
from the options given against each number and trusting, it said adding that unengaged or
fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make (4)___________ employees will find alternatives
the paragraph meaningful. faster and exit faster than pre-pandemic times."It
With the COVID-19 pandemic bringing is interesting to observe how the fast
unprecedented changes in work life, a study has (5)__________ 'Future of Work' is getting past the
revealed that 82% of (1)__________ admitted that world of conventional HR and transforming into
they prefer working from home to going back to an ecosystem that now involves people beyond
the office.The remote work trend was initially the confines of company payroll and office
forced on employees due to the pandemic, boundaries.
however, after two years remote working has 1. Fill in the blank (1)
become a new normal and as things (2)________ a) Responses
down new habits have formed.The Talent Tech b) Respondents
Outlook 2022 study is an analysis of inputs from c) Senators
100 plus C-suite and human capital leaders d) Employee
across four continents, done by surveys, social e) Spectators
media inputs, interviews and panel
discussions.The study further (3)_________ that 2. Fill in the blank (2)
64% employees said they are more productive a) Settled
working from home and feel less stressed.The b) Drowned
new normal for HR shifted from engaging face to c) Fell
face to engaging with remote employees whom d) Sorted
they meet only virtually most of the time, it e) Resolved
stated.More than 80% of the HR managers
admitted that hiring employees for full-time office 3. Fill in the blank (3)
presence is getting more difficult, the study a) Said
said.Working from home is no longer a choice b) Left out
but a new normal that every tech talent expects c) Revealed
from their employer and the employers not willing d) Concealed
to adapt will face challenges in hiring good talent e) Wrote
and retaining those already employed, it

English Day - 21
4. Fill in the blank (4) I. George Federick is the present incumbent and
a) Impolite he has three more years to serve.
b) Undeserving II. She felt it incumbent on her to be there for her
c) Inappropriate cousin during the surgery.
d) Involved III.The incumbent has been awarded a new
e) Underutilised contract despite the heavy competition.
a) Only I
5. Fill in the blank (5 ) b) Only II
a) Running c) Only III
b) Forwarding d) Both II and III
c) Moving e) All are correct
d) Evolving
e) Proceeding 8. AMBIVALENT
I. She remained ambivalent on her promotion as
Directions (6-10): In each of the following she loves both her career and family.
questions, a highlighted word is given followed II. Ambivalent decisions always lead to disaster
by three sentences. Choose the sentence(s) that or failure because of the lack of confidence.
has/have the wrong usage of the highlighted III.There is ambivalency among men when a
word. woman or girl rides a gear bike.
6. DISPARATE a) Only I
I. The people in the community are so disparate b) Only II
that their ideologies are very distinct and difficult c) Only III
for any other common man to understand. d) Both I and III
II. Ravi became disparate after the thief stole his e) All are correct
wallet and ran away.
III.She has always got disparate ideas for which 9. LIGHTNING
she has recently been awarded by the corporate. I. It was a lightning strike by Sir Ravindra Jadeja
a) Only I with the last two balls.
b) Only II II. The thunder lightning was so heavy and bright
c) Only III that the huge neighbourhood tree was struck and
d) Both I and II burst into flames.
e) All are correct III.E-commerce site Amazon offers lightning
7. INCUMBENT deals that have a pre-set time limit to place the
order.

English Day - 21
a) Only I defending champion Gujarat Titans with

b) Only II Ravindra Jadeja thumping the winning runs in a
c) Only I and II final that was spread over three days.
d) Both II and III (D) The weather may have been fickle with a
e) All are correct summer night yielding rain but there was no
mistaking the inevitable air around Chennai
10. CALLED Super Kings (CSK) lifting the Indian Premier
I. The marriage was called off after the dowry League (IPL) Trophy on a Monday night that
issue. spilled over to Tuesday.
II. I called her around 9:30 AM in the morning but (E) The target was revised to 171 following a
she was busy and told me to send a text rain-break but CSK proved equal to the task
message. (even though Dhoni fell for a duck) as Jadeja’s
III.I was called down by my mother for not putting long-handle did the trick.
the clothes to wash. 11. Which of the following is the
a) Both I and II INTRODUCTORY sentence after the
b) Both II and III rearrangement ?
c) Both I and III a) A
d) All are wrong b) B
e) All are correct c) C
d) D
Directions (11-15): Rearrange the following five e) E
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper
sequence to form a coherent paragraph and then 12. Which of the following is the FOURTH
answer the questions given below. sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) Sunday was a washout and on Monday, the a) A
rains intervened and delayed the climax b) B
into the early hours of Tuesday. c) C
(B) CSK prised out Shubman Gill for 39 with d) D
Dhoni’s lightning stumping delivering the fatal e) E
blow, but once Sai Sudharsan hammered a 96 —
the player hails from Chennai — the Titans 13. Which of the following is the SECOND
finished with 214 for four before the intervention. sentence after the rearrangement ?
(C) At Ahmedabad’s Narendra Modi Stadium, a) A
CSK pulled off a last-over heist against b) B

English Day - 21
c) C e) No error
d) D
e) E 17. Sita told Ram that/A she felt ignored as she
was counting on him/B to be there at her 25th
14. Which of the following is the CONCLUDING birthday party/C that was held last thursday/D.
sentence after the rearrangement ? a) A
a) A b) B
b) B c) C
c) C d) D
d) D e) No error
e) E
18. A large number of sim cards have/A never
15. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence being used and people stopped recharging
after the rearrangement ? them/B, so, the company has decided to call
a) A off/C its business as a service provider/D.
b) B a) A
c) C b) B
d) D c) C
e) E d) D
e) No error
Directions (16-20): Read the sentence to find out
whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, 19. Because there is no support by/A the society
will be in one part of the sentence. The letter to eliminate the most inhuman of professions/B,
corresponding to that part will be your answer. If manual scavenging still persist/C which is really
the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the saddening/D.
answer as ‘No Error’. a) A
16. The Indian cricket player was injured b) B
heavily/A while the bowler threw the ball/B c) C
straight on his face/C but he claimed it to be an d) D
accident/D. e) No error
a) A 20. I have recently used/A the services of his
b) B travel agency to/B book a cruise ship for a family
c) C trip to Atlanta/C, which was started two decades
d) D before/D.

English Day - 21
a) A d) D
b) B e) No error
c) C

1. Answer: B Settled down is a phrasal verb with meaning ‘to
The blank needs a collective noun. get comfortable’ or ‘to get used to’
With the COVID-19 pandemic bringing The remote work trend was initially forced on
unprecedented changes in work life, a study has employees due to the pandemic, however, after
revealed that 82% of respondents admitted that two years remote working has become a new
they prefer working from home to going back to normal and as things settled down new habits
the office. have formed.
Respondent - a person who answers a question Other options don’t fit the blank for the following
or provides a response for a survey. reasons :
Other options don’t fit the blank for the following Drowned - to die in water/to sink
reasons : Fell down - to collapse
Responses - is not the right pick because the Sorted - organised/dealt correctly
sentence has ‘they’ referring to a set of people. Resolved - to fix something
Senator - person working for the government All these words have a meaning that is different
Employee - is in singular form(singular noun) from the context of the sentence which has the
and hence doesn’t fit the blank. blank.
Spectator - a person who is watching an event
3. Answer: C
2. Answer: A Revealed fits the blank correctly.

English Day - 21
The study further revealed that 64% employees Deserving, inappropriate, involved all these three
said they are more productive working from words will change the original meaning of the
home and feel less stressed. sentence.
Revealed - is to let out some information, here it
means the study further provided the information 5. Answer: D
that 64% of employees said they are comfortable Fast-evolving is the right way to put.
with wfh concept. It is interesting to observe how the fast evolving
Other options don’t fit the blank for the following 'Future of Work' is getting past the world of
reasons : conventional HR and transforming into an
Using said will cause redundancy in the ecosystem that now involves people beyond the
sentence and it is not the best option too. confines of company payroll and office
Left out - to leave something/fail to include boundaries.
Concealed - to hide something Running, moving, proceeding and forwarding are
Wrote is an inappropriate word and makes the actions of motion but fast evolving fits the blank
sentence meaningless. perfectly.
Evolving - to develop/to grow
4. Answer: E
The blank (4) needs a negative word because it 6. Answer: B
is preceded by a negative word unengaged. Disparate means ‘to be different’. The word is
The tech workforce has found new love with correctly used in sentence I and III.But usage of
remote working, giving them freedom and the word ‘disparate’ is completely wrong in
productivity that requires HR to be more trusting, sentence II because the disparate should be
it said adding that unengaged or underutilised replaced with desperate. ‘Ravi became
employees will find alternatives faster and exit desperate’ would be the correct way instead the
faster than pre-pandemic times. word disparate is used - which does not add
Underutilised - to not use something/someone meaning to the sentence.
up to the level
Other options don’t fit the blank for the following 7. Answer: E
reasons : All the sentences are correct and have the
Impolite cannot fit the blank because the context correct usage of the word incumbent.
here is about the employees contribution and not Incumbent - an official/a person who holds a
about their qualities/character. position/a business

English Day - 21
Be incumbent - to feel that it is necessary to be took place providing the opponent team
with someone/to do something at the right time. information and it also adds the message that
the final was delayed for a period of three
8. Answer: C days.The third sentence is ‘A’ as it is revisiting
The sentence III is absolutely wrong because the context of the introductory statement and
‘ambivalency’ must be replaced with explains the reason for delay.This is followed by
‘ambivalence’. sentence ‘B’ as it has a clue ‘intervention’ - from
Sentence I and II are correct as it is.The that we may conclude that the Gujarat Titans
meaning of the word ambivalent/ambivalence - was the first to bat and set a target for CSK.The
to have a mixed feeling or emotion towards last sentence is ‘E’ which talks about the target
something or someone. and the rain break(which is a continuation of
sentence ‘B’) and how the team still managed to
9. Answer: E lift the trophy.
All the given sentences are right as it is.The
word lightning is used in a correct way and the 12. Answer: B
sentences are contextually and grammatically The correct sequence after rearrangement is
correct and meaningful. DCABE.
The first or the introductory sentence should be
10. Answer: E ‘D’ which provides the first information of CSK
All the given sentences are correct and lifting the IPL trophy, the sentence gives more
meaningful. information on the weather and also mentions
Called off - to cancel the details of the days.The second sentence is
Called down - to be angry or be severe ‘C’ because it elaborates the cricket match that
took place providing the opponent team
11. Answer: D information and it also adds the message that
The correct sequence after rearrangement is the final was delayed for a period of three
DCABE. days.The third sentence is ‘A’ as it is revisiting
The first or the introductory sentence should be the context of the introductory statement and
‘D’ which provides the first information of CSK explains the reason for delay.This is followed by
lifting the IPL trophy, the sentence gives more sentence ‘B’ as it has a clue ‘intervention’ - from
information on the weather and also mentions that we may conclude that the Gujarat Titans
the details of the days.The second sentence is was the first to bat and set a target for CSK.The
‘C’ because it elaborates the cricket match that last sentence is ‘E’ which talks about the target

English Day - 21
and the rain break(which is a continuation of information on the weather and also mentions
sentence ‘B’) and how the team still managed to the details of the days.The second sentence is
lift the trophy. ‘C’ because it elaborates the cricket match that
13. Answer: C information and it also adds the message that
information on the weather and also mentions that we may conclude that the Gujarat Titans
the details of the days.The second sentence is was the first to bat and set a target for CSK.The
‘C’ because it elaborates the cricket match that last sentence is ‘E’ which talks about the target
took place providing the opponent team and the rain break(which is a continuation of
information and it also adds the message that sentence ‘B’) and how the team still managed to
the final was delayed for a period of three lift the trophy.
days.The third sentence is ‘A’ as it is revisiting
the context of the introductory statement and 15. Answer: A
explains the reason for delay.This is followed by The correct sequence after rearrangement is
sentence ‘B’ as it has a clue ‘intervention’ - from DCABE.
that we may conclude that the Gujarat Titans The first or the introductory sentence should be
was the first to bat and set a target for CSK.The ‘D’ which provides the first information of CSK
last sentence is ‘E’ which talks about the target lifting the IPL trophy, the sentence gives more
and the rain break(which is a continuation of information on the weather and also mentions
sentence ‘B’) and how the team still managed to the details of the days.The second sentence is
lift the trophy. ‘C’ because it elaborates the cricket match that
14. Answer: E information and it also adds the message that

English Day - 21
that we may conclude that the Gujarat Titans The word ‘being’ must be replaced with
was the first to bat and set a target for CSK.The ‘been’.The sentence is in passive voice whereas
last sentence is ‘E’ which talks about the target ‘being’ is used only for continuous tense.
and the rain break(which is a continuation of The correct sentence is : A large number of sim
sentence ‘B’) and how the team still managed to cards have never been used and people stopped
lift the trophy. recharging them, so, the company has decided
to call off its business as a service provider.
16. Answer: B 19. Answer: C
While must be replaced with when. Replace persist with persists.
The correct sentence is : The Indian cricket The correct sentence is : Because there is no
player was injured heavily when the bowler support by the society to eliminate the most
threw the ball straight on his face but he claimed inhuman of professions, manual scavenging still
it to be an accident. persists which is really saddening.
When - at what time
While - during the time 20. Answer: D
The error is in part ‘D’ - he started the agency
17. Answer: E two decades before is wrong, replace ‘before’
The given sentence is correct as it is.There is no with ‘ago’.
error. The correct sentence is : I have recently used
the services of his travel agency to book a cruise
18. Answer: B ship for a family trip to Atlanta, which was started
two decades ago.

Reasoning Aptitude
Directions (1-5): Study the following information b) The one who sits opposite to R
carefully and answer the c) The one who belongs to Uttar Pradesh
below questions. d) Both c and e
Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are e) The one who sits second to the right of S
sitting around a square table in such a way that
four of them are sitting at the corners while four 2. Who among the following person sits at the
of them are sitting in the middle of the sides, all corner of the table?
facing towards the centre. All of them belong to I) The one who sits opposite to T
different states i.e. Himachal Pradesh, Andhra II) P
Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, III) The one who sits second to the right of Q
Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and IV) R and V
Manipur. All the information is not necessarily in a) Only I and II
the same order. b) Only III and IV
V sits third to the left of one who belongs to c) Only I and III
Himachal Pradesh. Only one person sits d) Only II and IV
between the one who belongs to Himachal e) Only I and IV
Pradesh and the one who belongs to Arunachal
Pradesh. U, who belongs to Arunachal Pradesh 3. ____ sits immediate left of _____ who sits
is an immediate neighbor of P and sits opposite opposite to _____.
of Q. As many persons sit between U and Q as a) U, the one who sits opposite to T, R
between the one who belongs to Mizoram and S, b) U, the one who belongs to Mizoram, S
who belongs to Manipur. Either P or Q belongs to c) S, W, Q
Mizoram. The one who belongs to Uttarakhand d) W, the one who sits second to the right of Q, U
sits second to the right of T. R sits opposite to e) R, T, S
the one who sits immediate right of T. W is sitting
adjacent to one who belongs to Uttar Pradesh. 4. If all the persons interchange their positions
The one who belongs to Madhya Pradesh sits with the persons sitting opposite to them, then
opposite to the one who sits immediate right of who is an immediate neighbor of one who
W, who doesn’t sit in the middle of the table. belongs to Himachal Pradesh?
1. Who among the following person sits fourth to a) Both c and d
the right of one, who sits opposite to the one who b) U
belongs to Uttar Pradesh? c) S
a) S d) R

e) None of these then which of the number yields the resultant

which is an even number?
5. How many persons sit between the one who a) 2343545
belongs to Uttar Pradesh and one who belongs b) 4322324
to Madhya Pradesh? c) 2346548
a) One d) 6532429
b) Two e) 7656987
c) Three a) Only I and II
d) More than three b) Only III and V
e) None of these c) Only I and III
d) Only II and IV
6. If 2 is subtracted from all the odd digits and 1 e) Only I and V
is added to all the even digits of a number, then
add all the digits within the number , which of the 9. In the following words, the vowels are
following number yields composite number? changed to next letters and consonants are
a) 23435 changed to the previous letter in the alphabetical
b) 43566 order and all the letters are arranged in the
c) 32534 alphabetical order from the left (within the word)
d) 32545 what is the third letter from the left end of the
e) 45366 newly formed words respectively?
I. Dream
7. If all the digits are added within the number, II. Reality
then in which of the following resultant obtained III. Focus
will be a prime number after adding the highest a) fqp
and lowest numbers thus formed in each option? b) fjp
a) 234, 354, 325 c) jpf
b) 432, 566, 854 d) pjf
c) 332, 245, 384 e) qfp
d) 326, 735, 645
e) 234, 345, 364 10. If all the vowels are arranged first in an
alphabetical order followed by all consonants are
8. If in the given numbers, the digits at odd written in an alphabetical order, then which of the
positions from the right are dropped and the following letters remain at their original position
remaining digits are added within the numbers, in all the words respectively?

I. Patience 45K#A. The number of persons sitting to the right

II. Perseverance of one who earns 45k is one less than the
III. Dedication persons sitting to the left of one who earns 48k.
a) IN, EE, EI H@F. The one who earns 4k less than 50k sits
b) P, EE,IE to the right of one who earns 33k more than 46 k
c) I, EE, IE but not immediate right. The one who earns 79k
d) E, EE, II doesn’t sit at the extreme ends. F%D. The one
e) A, EE, EE who earns 66k sits immediate left of B. The
number of persons sitting to the right of G is one
Directions (11-15): Study the following more than the number of persons sitting to the
information carefully and answer the questions left of the one who earns twice of A.
given below. 11) How many persons are sitting between E
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are and the one whose earning is
sitting in a straight line and all are facing north 96k?
but not necessarily in the same order. Each of a) More than four
them earn different amounts which are in the b) Same as between H and E
multiples of 1000s. Their earning amount is c) As many persons sit to the right of A
mentioned in the coded format as follows. d) Two
A@B- Means the earning amount of B is half of e) None
the prize amount of A.
A*B -Means the earning amount of B is 55,000 12) If all the persons’ earning are arranged in the
more than that of A. ascending order from left,
A%B- Means the difference between the earning then how many persons sit to the right of one
amounts of A and B is 20,000 where B>A who earns79k?
A#B- Means the sum of the earning amounts of a) One
A and B is 93,000 b) As many persons sit between D and C
Only four persons sit between B and E, who sits c) Four
second from the extreme ends. As many persons d) As many persons sit to the right of G
sit to the left of B as to the right of the one whose e) None of the above
earning is 37000. C sits second to the right of H,
where E*H. Neither H nor C sits at the extreme 13) G sits ____ of one whose earning is 4k less
ends of the row. C doesn’t sit adjacent to B. As than 70k.
many persons sit to the left of one whose earning a) Immediate right
is 92k as between the who earns 45k and H. b) Seventh to the right

c) Fifth to the right two floors below W. S, who is the only daughter
d) Second to the right of W lives immediately below Q. U is the wife of
e) None of the above P and lives four floors below the mother of S. U
is the grand–daughter of R, who don’t have
14) If all the persons are facing south direction, siblings. Q belongs to the same generation as
then what is the position of F that of W but unmarried person. T, who is the
with respect to the one whose earning is half of daughter-in-law of W, doesn’t have any son and
B? lives two floors above her husband. V, who is not
a) Immediate right a male member of the family, lives adjacent floor
b) Second to the left to X. U is not the daughter of W’s daughter. V is
c) Third to the left the sister-in-law of P. Y, who belongs to the
d) Immediate left same generation as T, is not the nephew of Q
e) Fourth to the left and has no kids. Only three persons live between
U’s husband and S’ husband, who lives above
15) _____ sits second to the right of one whose his wife’s sister-in-law but below V’s brother-in-
earning is _____. law.
a) E, 92K 16) Four of the following five are alike in a certain
b) C, 96K way based on the given arrangement and thus
c) A, 66K form a group. Which one of the following does
d) H, 66k not belong to the group?
e) F, 79k a) U and Y’s wife
b) V and P’s wife
Directions (16-20): Study the following c) T and The one who lives immediately above P
information carefully and answer the below d) U’s husband and the one who lives on 1st floor
questions. e) The one who lives on 10th floor and T
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, and Y are living on
different floors of the ten storey building where 17) If T is related to S and R is related to Q in a
lowermost floor is numbered one and the floor certain way, then in the same way person ___ is
immediately above it is numbered two and so on. related to _____ respectively.
No two persons live on the same floor. They are a) U and the one who lives immediately above
related to each other through some blood U’s husband
relations. b) T and the one who lives on 2nd floor
Only five floors are between W and R who is the c) P and W
husband of W. Q, who is the male member, lives d) T’s husband and W’s husband

e) None of the above a) T’s son-in-law

b) X’ brother-in-law
18) The number of floors are between the Q and c) None
R’s wife is two less than the d) T’s sister-in-law
number of persons live below ____ . e) The one who lives on 8th floor
a) The one who lives immediately below T
b) Q 20) Find the next pair.
c) The one who lives on the 4th floor WU PS’ husband W’ sibling R __
d) W a) TV
e) None of the above b) S X’s wife
c) U U’s husband
19) If all persons are made to sit in alphabetical d) V the one who lives on 5th floor
order from top to bottom, then who among the e) QX
following remain unchanged in their position?

Directions (1-5):
1) Answer: D
2) Answer: C
3) Answer: B
4) Answer: A
5) Answer: C
Final arrangement is:
We have,

 V sits third to the left of one who belongs to  The one who belongs to Uttarakhand sits
Himachal Pradesh. second to the right of T.
 Only one person sits between the one who  R sits opposite to the one who sits immediate
belongs to Himachal Pradesh and the one who right of T.
belongs to Arunachal Pradesh.
From above conditions, we have four
possibilities.
Again we have
 W is sitting adjacent to one who belongs to
Uttar Pradesh.
 The one who belongs to Madhya Pradesh sits
Again we have opposite to the one who sits immediate right of
 U, who belongs to Arunachal Pradesh is an W, who doesn’t sit in the middle of the table.
immediate neighbor of P and sits opposite of Q.

 As many persons sit between U and Q as
between the one who belongs to Mizoram and S,
who belongs to Manipur.
 Either P or Q belongs to Mizoram.
6. Answer: D
a) 23435
31513 = 3+1+5+1+3 = 13
b) 43566
51377 = 5+1+3+7+7 = 23
c) 32534
13315 = 1+3+3+1+5 = 13
d) 32545
Again we have 13353 = 1+3+3+5+3 = 15

e) 45366 I. Dream – cqfbl

53177 = 5+3+1+7+7 = 23 bcflq
II. Reality – qfbkjsx
7. Answer: C Bfjkqsx
a) 234, 354, 325 III. Focus – epbvr
9, 12, 10 Beprv
9+12 = 21
b) 432, 566, 854 10. Answer: A
9, 17, 17 I. Patience =aeeicnpt
9+17 = 26 II. Perseverance = aeeeecnprrsv
c) 332, 245, 384 III. Dedication = aeiiocddnt
8, 11, 15
8+15 = 23 Directions (11-15):
d) 326, 735, 645 11) Answer: C
11, 15, 15 12) Answer: D
11+15 = 26 13) Answer: C
e) 234, 345, 364 14) Answer: E
9, 12, 13 15) Answer: D
9+13 =22 Final arrangement is:
8. Answer: E
a) 2343545
334= sum is 10 We have
b) 4322324  Only four persons sit between B and E, who
223= sum is 7 sits second from the extreme ends.
c) 2346548  As many persons sit to the left of B as to the
463= sum is 13 right of the one whose earning is 37000.
d) 6532429  C sits second to the right of H, where E*H.
225= sum is 9  Neither H nor C sits at the extreme ends of the
e) 7656987 row.
866= sum is 20  C doesn’t sit adjacent to B.
From above conditions, we have three
9. Answer: B possibilities.

Again, we have
 As many persons sit to the left of one whose Again, we have
earning is 92k as between the who earns 45k  F%D- Means the difference between the prize
and H. amounts of F and D is 20,000 where D>F. As
 45K#A i.e. A= 48k. F=46k therefore D=66k.
 The number of persons sitting to the right of  The one who earns 66k sits immediate left of
one who earns 45k is one less than the persons B.
sitting to the left of one who earns 48k.
Again, we have
Again, we have
 The number of persons sitting to the right of G
 H@F- Means the earning amount of F is half of
is one more than the number of persons sitting
the earning amount of H i.e. 46k
to the left of the one who earns twice of A.
 The one who earns 4k less than 50k sits to the
After applying the above conditions case-2a(1)
right of one who earns 33k more than 46 k but
gets eliminated because there is no place left for
not immediate right.
G and the one who earns twice of A as per the
 The one who earns 79k doesn’t sit at the
given data. Hence, case-2a shows the final
extreme ends.
arrangement.

 Only five floors are between W and R who is

the husband of W.
 Q, who is the male member, lives two floors
below W.
 S, who is the only daughter of W lives
immediately below Q.
From above conditions, we have five
Directions (16-20): possibilities.
16) Answer: D
17) Answer: A
18) Answer: C
19) Answer: D
20) Answer: B
Final arrangement:
Again we have
 U is the wife of P and lives four floors below
the mother of S.
 U is the grand–daughter of R, who don’t have
siblings.
 Q belongs to the same generation as that of W
but unmarried person.
We have

 Y, who belongs to the same generation as T, is

not the nephew of Q and has no kids.
Again we have
 T, who is the daughter-in-law of W, doesn’t
have any son and lives two floors above her
husband.
 V, who is not a male member of the family,
lives adjacent floor to X.
Again we have
 Only three persons live between U’s
husband and S’ husband, who lives
above his wife’s sister-in-law but below
V’s brother-in-law.
After applying the above conditions, case-3
and case-2a get eliminated because there is
no place left for P and Y with three persons
gap. Also, case-5 gets eliminated because Y
lives below T. Hence, case-2 shows the final
arrangement.
Again we have
 U is not the daughter of W’s daughter.
 V is the sister-in-law of P.


Directions (1-4): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
There are five colleges [A, B, C, D and E]. There are three streams [science, Arts and commerce] in each
college. The given below table shows total number of students in the college, Percentage of students in
science stream, Number of students in Arts stream, Ratio of boys and girls in commerce stream, Number
of boys in science stream and Number of girls in Arts stream.
1) Number of girls in the science stream of A.66

college A is half of the number of students in the B.70
Arts stream of the same college. Number of boys C.75
in Arts stream of college A is 1/4th of the number D.80
of boys of commerce stream of the same E.50
college. Find the number of girls in the Arts
stream of college A. 3) Number of boys in science stream of college
A.80 C is 20% less than the number of girls in Arts
B.85 stream of college B. Number of girls in
C.70 commerce stream of college C is 25% of the
D.60 number of boys in science stream of college C.
E.65 Then find the percentage of girls in commerce
stream of college C out of total number of
2) Ratio of the number of students of Arts stream students in commerce stream of college C?
to commerce streams of college B is 15:13. A.25.32%
Number of girls in commerce stream of college B B.16.66%
is 78. If 33.33% of the total number of students of C.20%
science stream of college B is boys, then find the D.15%
number of girls in science stream of college B. E. None of these

4) Number of boys in commerce stream of A. The data in statement I alone are sufficient to
college D is 5 more than the number of boys in answer the question, while the data in statement
science stream. Number of Arts students in II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
college D is 20% less than the total number of B. The data in statement II alone are sufficient to
commerce stream students in college D. Then answer the question, while the data in statement
find the number of students in the science I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
stream of college D,if 60% of the total students C. The data either in statement I alone or in
are from Arts and commerce streams. statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
A.240 question.
B.252 D. The data given in both statements I and II
C.236 together are not sufficient to answer the
D.221 question.
E. None of these E. The data in both statements I and II together
are necessary to answer the question.
Directions (5-8): Following questions contain two
statements the statement I and statement II. You 6) There are three different mixtures of milk and
have to determine which statement/s is/are water P, Q and R. Find the ratio in which all three
necessary to answer the question and give an mixtures must be mixed together so that average
answer as, price of the resultant mixture is Rs. 62 per litres.
5) A certain number of students gave at least Statement I: Price of the mixture P and Q is Rs.
one of the two exams i.e., Physics and 40 per litres and Rs. 75 per litres, respectively.
Chemistry. Find total number of students who Statement II: Price of 15 litres of mixture R is Rs.
gave the exam if all the students who gave the 900.
exam passed it. A. The data in statement I alone are sufficient to
Statement I: 73(1/3)% of the students passed in answer the question, while the data in statement
Chemistry and 59(2/3)% of students passed in II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Physics and number of students who passed in B. The data in statement II alone are sufficient to
both the exam is 396. answer the question, while the data in statement
Statement II: Number of students who passed I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
only in Physics and only in Chemistry are 76 less C. The data either in statement I alone or in
and 88 more, respectively, than the number of statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
students who passed in both the exams. Total question.
number of students who passed in Physics is
716.

D. The data given in both statements I and II Statement II: B and C together complete work in
together are not sufficient to answer the 20/3 days. A alone complete the work in 10 days.
question. D is 25% more efficient than A.
E. The data in both statements I and II together A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to
are necessary to answer the question. answer the question, while the data in statement
II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
7) What is the difference between the length of B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to
the platform and the train itself? answer the question, while the data in statement
Statement I: The train running at a speed of 54 I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
kmph can cross a bus going in the same C. The data either in statement I alone or in
direction at a speed of 36 kmph in 20 seconds. statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
Statement II: Time taken by the bus to cross the question
platform is 30 seconds more than the time taken D. The data given in both statements I and II
by the train to do the same. together are not sufficient to answer the question
A. The data in statement I alone are sufficient to E. The data given in both statements I and II
answer the question, while the data in statement together are necessary to answer the question.
II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
B. The data in statement II alone are sufficient to Directions (9-12): Study the following information
answer the question, while the data in statement carefully and answers the questions based on it.
I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. In a Car Expo in the New Delhi, there are a total
C. The data either in statement I alone or in of 67,200 visitors who visited the car expo. The
statement II alone are sufficient to answer the ratio of number of males to number of females
question. who visited in the car expo is 9: 7 respectively.
D. The data given in both statements I and II All the visitors who visited the car expo, visits the
together are not sufficient to answer the six different car company pavilion namely Ford,
question. Maruti, Volkswagen, Toyota, Honda and Nissan.
E. The data in both statements I and II together Total number of visitors who visited Ford pavilion
are necessary to answer the question. is 16,128 which is (__P%__) of the total number
of visitors. Number of female visitors who visited
8) Find the number of days taken by A and C Maruti pavilion is (__Q%__) of the total number of
together to complete the work? female visitors who visited car expo and 10,983
Statement I: Efficiency of A is 20% more than the less than the total number of visitors who visited
efficiency of B. D completes the work in 8 days. Ford pavilion.
Ratio of efficiency of D and C is 15:8.

Number of male visitors who visited Honda C.49

pavilion is 15%of the total male visitors. Number D.18
of male visitors who visited Volkswagen pavilion E. None of these
is 1890 more than male visitors who visited
Honda pavilion and is(__R%__)of the total 10) Find the value of Q?
number of male visitors who visited car expo. A.17.5
Number of male visitors who visited Maruti B.10.25
pavilion is 1/3rd of the number of female visitors C.21
who visited Maruti pavilion. D.33.33
Number of female visitors who visited Toyota E. None of these
pavilion is 7³ more than the number of male
visitors who visited Maruti pavilion and is 11) Find the value of S and T respectively?
(__S%__) of the female visitors who visited A.17 and 20
Maruti pavilion. Number of female visitors who B.51 and 27
visited Nissan pavilion is 4410 which is (__T%__) C.32 and 22
of the total number of female visitors who visited D.40 and 15
car expo. E. None of these
Number of male visitors who visited Toyota
pavilion is 3 times of the number of female 12) Find the value of [(Q × S × T) – (P × R ×
visitors who visited same pavilion. Total number T)]/100?
of visitors who visited Honda pavilion is 22% of A.23
total visitors. The ratio of male to female visitors B.17 (5/7)
who visited Nissan pavilion is 9: 5 respectively. C.33
9) Find the value of P? D.16 (2/3)
A.37 E. None of these
B.24
Directions (13-16): Study the table given below carefully and answer the following questions.
The given pie chart shows the percentage distribution of students who paid fees for semester exams in 5
different years. The given table shows the percentage of students who paid the fees by online mode in
five different years.
Note: Fees are paid through online and offline modes.
Total number of students who paid fees = 6,00,000.

13) Number of students who paid their fees 14) Number of students who paid fees through
through offline in 2016 and 2017 together is how online in 2015 is equal to the average of students
much more/less than the number of students who paid through online in 2019 and 2020
who paid fees through online in the years 2018 together and the number of students who paid
and 2019 together? fees through online is 3⁄4th of the total number of
A.54750 students in 2015. Then find the total students in
B.57450 2015.
C.54450 A.43000
D.52389 B.44000
E.54455 C.40500
D.45500
E.44500

15) Students who paid fees through offline in 16) Find the average number of students who
2020 is what percent of the students who paid paid their fees through online in the years 2016,
fees through online in 2018? 2017 and 2019 together?
A.140% A.36000
B.145% B.34560
C.150% C.36850
D.160% D.36750
E.135% E.37750
There are five cities. In each, there are three types of cars are registered, i.e., Petrol, Diesel, and Electric.
Sum of the number of petrol and diesel cars and difference of the number of petrol and diesel cars
registered in five cities are given in the below graph.
Note: -
a) Number of petrol cars registered in cities A, C, and E is more than the number of diesel cars registered
in the same cities, in other cities the number of diesel cars is more than the number of petrol cars.
b) Percentage of electric cars out of the total cars registered in cities A, B, C, D, and E is 20%, 20%,
30%, 25%, and 20% respectively.
17) Find the difference between the 20% of A.50
petrol cars registered in cities D and E together B.55
and 10% of electric cars registered in cities A C.75
and C together. D.45

E.26 number of Tata company’s registered cars in city

A?
18) If the number of registered diesel and electric A.94.94%
cars of all cities is represented individually in a B.84.84%
pie chart then find the difference of central angle C.74.74%
formed by the number of diesel car register in C D.64.64%
and central angle formed by the number of E. None of these
electric car register in city B?
A.20̊ 20) Find which one is true.
B.85̊ I) 75% of the number of diesel cars registered in
C.65̊ city A is equal to the number of electric cars
D.15̊ registered in city B.
E.45̊ II) 20% of the total number of electric cars
registered in city D and city E together is equal to
19) Number of all registered petrol and diesel 20% less than the total number of electric cars
cars are from only three companies, i.e., Maruti, registered in city E.
Hyundai, and Tata in city A. No electric cars in A. Only I is true
city A are from these companies. Ratio of petrol B. Only II is true
cars and diesel cars from companies Maruti, C. Both are true
Hyundai and Tata are 4:3:5 and 2:1:2 in city A. D. None is True
Find the total number of Maruti company's E. Can’t be determined
registered cars is what percent of the total

1) Answer: C

Total number of students in science stream of Number of boys in commerce stream of college
college A =150+(100/2)=200 D =120+5=125
Total number of students in commerce stream of Total number of students in commerce
college A = 500-100-200=200 department is =125*8/5=200
Number of boys in commerce stream of college Total number of student in science stream is =
A =200*3/5=120 {[200+160]/60} *40=240
Number of boys in Arts stream of college A
=120/4=30 5) Answer: C
Number of girls in Arts stream of college A =100- Statement I,
30=70 Let total number of students who gave exam be
2) Answer: D 100x
Let the number of Arts and commerce students Number of students who passed only in Physics
of college B be 150x and 130x. = 26(2/3)% of 100x = 80x/3
So, 130x*3/5=78 Number of students who passed only in
Or, 78x=78, x=1 chemistry = 40(1/3)% of 100x = 121x/3
The number of Arts and commerce students of So according to question,
college B is 150 and 130. 80x/3 + 121x/3 + 396 = 100x
So, number of student in science stream is = 300x – 80x + 121x = 2412
[280/70] *30= 120 99x = 1188
Number of boys in science stream is = 120* (1/3) x = 12
=40 Required number of students = 12 × 100 = 1200
So, number of girls in science stream of college Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer
B is = 120-40=80 the question.
Statement II,
3) Answer: E Let number of students who passed in both
Number of boys in science stream of college C is exams be x
=100*80/100=80 Number of students who passed only in Physics
Number of girls in commerce stream of college C = x – 76
is =80*25/100=20 Number of students who passed only in
Total number of students in commerce stream is Chemistry = x + 88
= 300-150-100=50 x + x – 76 = 716
So, required percentage = [20/50]*100=40% 2x = 792
4) Answer: A x = 396

Required number of students = x – 76 + x + 88 + If L is the length of the train, then,

x = 3x + 12 = 3 × 396 + 12 = 1200 L = 5 × 20 = 100 meter.
Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer Data in statement I alone is not sufficient to
the question. answer the question.
Therefore, the data either in statement I alone or Statement II,
in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the Let the length of the platform be xmeter.
question. Time taken by the bus to cross the platform =
{x/(36 × 5/18)} = x/10 sec
6) Answer: D Time taken by the train to cross the platform =
Statement I, {(L + x)/(54 × 5/18)} = (L + x)/18 sec
Price of the mixture P and Q is Rs. 40 per litres Now,
and Rs. 75 per litres, respectively x/10 – (L + x)/15 = 30
Data in statement I alone is not sufficient to Data in statement II alone is not sufficient to
answer the question. answer the question.
Statement II: Combining statement, I and II,
Price of one liter of mixture R = 900/15 = Rs. 60 L = 100
Data in statement II alone is not sufficient to x/10 - (L + x)/15 = 30
answer the question. x/10 – (100 + x)/15 = 30
Combining statement, I and II we get (3x – 200 – 2x)/30 = 30
Let ratio in which mixture P, Q and R are mixed x – 200 = 900
is a:b:c x = 1100meter
62 = {(40 × a + 75 × b + 60 × c)/(a + b + c)} Required difference = 1100 – 100 = 1000 meter
62a + 62b + 62c = 40a + 75b + 60c So, data in statement I and II together are
22a + 2c = 13b sufficient to answer the question.
Since, we cannot find the value of a, b and c.
So, the data given in both statements I and II 8) Answer: E
together are not sufficient to answer the From statement I,
question. C completes the work in 8*15/8= 15 days.
But we cannot calculate the number of days
7) Answer: E taken by A to complete the work.
Statement I, From statement II,
Relative speed between the train and the bus =
(54 – 36) = 18 kmph = 18 × 5/18 = 5 m/s

A alone complete the work in 10 days. But we Number of male visitors who visited Volkswagen
cannot calculate the number of days taken by C pavilion = 5670 + 1890 = 7560
to complete the work. So, the percentage of male visitors who visited
By combining I and II, Volkswagen pavilion is,
A alone can complete the work in 10 days = 7560/37,800 × 100 =>20 (Value of R)
C alone can complete the work in 15 days Number of male visitors who visited Maruti
= 1/10 + 1/15 = 6 days pavilion = 5145 × 1/3 = 1715
From both statements we can get the number of Number of female visitors who visited Toyota
days taken by A and C together to complete pavilion is = 1715 + 7³ = 1715 + 343 => 2058
work. So, the percentage of female visitors who visited
Hence, the data given in both statements I and II Toyota pavilion is,
together are necessary to answer the question. = 2058/5145 × 100 =>40 (Value of S)
Number of female visitors who visited Nissan
Directions (9-12): pavilion = 4410
Total number of visitors who visited the car expo So, the percentage of female visitors who visited
is = 67,200 Nissan pavilion is,
Total number of male visitors who visited car = 4410/29,400 × 100 =>15 (Value of T)
expo = 67,200 × 9/16 => 37,800 Number of male visitors who visited Toyota
Total number of female visitors who visited car pavilion = 3 × 2058 =>6174
expo = 67,200 × 7/16 => 29,400 Total number of visitors who visited Honda
Total number of visitors who visited Ford pavilion pavilion = 67,200 × 22/100 => 14,784
= 16,128 Number of male visitors who visited Nissan
So, the percentage of visitors who visited Ford pavilion = 4410 × 9/5 =>7938
Pavilion is, Number of female visitors who visited Honda
= 16,128/67,200 × 100 =>24 (Value of P) pavilion = 14,784 – 5670 => 9114
Number of female visitors who visited Maruti Number of male visitors who visited Ford
pavilion = 16,128 – 10,983 => 5145 pavilion is,
So, the percentage of female visitors who visited = 37,800 – (5670 + 1715 + 7560 + 7938 + 6174)
Maruti pavilion is, = 37,800 – 29,057 =>8743
= 5145/29,400 × 100 =>17.5 (Value of Q) Number of female visitors who visited Ford
Number of male visitors who visited Honda pavilion = 16,128 – 8743 => 7385
pavilion = 37,800 × 15/100 = 5670 Number of female visitors who visited
Volkswagen pavilion is,

= 29,400 – (9114 + 5145 + 4410 + 7385 + 2058) = 168000

= 29,400 – 28,112 => 1288 Number of students who paid fees through
For question 11: online in 2018 & 2019 together = 600000 *
9) Answer: B (20/100 * 62.5/100 + 15/100 * 42.5/100)
From the above common explanation it is clear = 60 * (1250+637.50)
that, = 113250
The value of P is = 24 Required difference = 168000-113250=54750
Hence, the required answer is = 24.
14) Answer: D
10) Answer: A Number of students who paid through online in
From the above common explanation it is clear 2015 = 1/2 * 600000 * (15/100 * 42.5/100 +
that, 25/100 * 20/100)
The value of Q is = 17.5 = 30 * (637.5 + 500)
Hence, the required answer is = 17.5 = 34125
Therefore Total number of students in 2015 =
11) Answer: D 34125 * 4/3 = 45500
From the above common explanation it is clear
that, 15) Answer: D
The value of S and T is = 40 and 15 Required percentage = (600000 * 25/100 *
Hence, the required answer is = 40 and 15 80/100)/(600000 * 20/100 * 62.5/100) * 100 =
160%
12) Answer: C
Value of [(Q × S × T) – (P × R × T)]/100 16) Answer: D
= [(17.5 × 40 × 15) – (24 × 20 × 15)]/100 Required average = 1/3 * 600000 (16/100 *
= (10,500 – 7200)/100 37.5/100 + 24/100 * 25/100 + 15/100 * 42.5/100)
= 3300/100 => 33 = 36750
13) Answer: A Directions (17-20):

Number of students who paid fees through The total number of petrol cars and diesel cars
offline in 2016 & 2017 together registered in city A is 400 and the difference
= 600000 * (16/100 * 62.5/100 + 24/100 * between petrol and diesel cars registered in city
75/100) A is 200.
= 60 * (1000+1800)

We know the number of petrol cars register is Central angle of diesel cars in C = [360/900]
more than number of diesel cars registered in *150 = 60̊
city A. so we can say the number of petrol cars Total number of electric cars registered = 100 +
register = [400 + 200]/2= 300 75 + 150 + 150 + 125 = 600
Number of diesel cars registered = [400 - 200]/2 Central angle of electric cars in B = [360/600] *
= 100 75 = 45̊
Percentage of electric cars registered in city A is So, the required difference = 15̊
20%, so the number of electric cars registered in
city A = [400/80] * 20 = 100 19) Answer: B
Similarly, we can also calculate the value of For City A:
other cities. Total number of Maruti cars registered in the city
= [300 * 4/12] + [100 * 2/5] = 100 + 40 = 140
Total number of Tata cars registered in the city =
[300 * 5/12] + [100 * 2/5] = 125 + 40 = 165
Required percentage = [140/165] *100 = 84.84%
20) Answer: A
75% of the number of diesel cars registered in
city A = 100 * 75/100 = 75
17) Answer: C
Number of electric cars registered in city B = 75
Required difference = [(150 + 350) * 20/100] –
So, this statement is true.
[(100 + 150) * 10/100] = 75
20% of the total number of electric cars
registered in city D and E together = [150 + 125]
18) Answer: D
* 20/100 = 55
Total number of diesel cars registered = 100 +
20% less than the total number of electric cars
200 + 150 + 300 + 150 = 900
registered in city E = 125 * 80/100 = 100
So, this statement is false.

English Day - 22
English Language
Directions (1-5) : In each of the following d) deployed, drives
questions given below, there is a sentence in e) No changes required
which two words are highlighted. They may or
may not be grammatically and contextually 4) When burnt, CNG produces fewer greenhouse
correct. Choose the best alternatives among the gas emissions, particulate matter, and other
four given options to replace those words. If no pollutants that addition to air pollution and
replacement is required choose option (e) as climate change.
your answer. a) combusted, contributed
1) The Article had gave special rights and b) fired, add
advantages to the people of Jammu and Kashmir c) blazed, governed
since 1954 in accordance with the Instrument of d) ignited, increased
Accession. e) No changes required
a) give, opportunities
b) accorded, privileges 5) Some drones also have automatic capabilities
c) grant, freedom that allow them to perform pre-programmed
d) awarded, rights tasks, follow flight paths, or use advanced
e) No changes required algorithms to navigation and make decisions
based on sensor inputs.
2) Many private banks have an international a) different, decide
presence, allowing clients to assess services and b) advancing , fly
investment opportunities in many jurisdictions. c) free, sail
a) access, multiple d) autonomous, navigate
b) availing, few e) No changes required
c) use, numerous
d) enable, most Directions (6-10): Seven sentences are given
e) No changes required below out of which one sentence is either
irrelevant or inappropriate (odd one out).
3) Blood pressure is the force exerted by the Rearrange the remaining six sentences in a
blood against the walls of the arteries as the proper sequence so as to form a coherent
heart pumps it throughout the body. paragraph and then answer the questions given
a) released, pushes below.
b) on, pulls
c) applied, sends

English Day - 22
(A) Tightening compliance and the post- a) FG

pandemic rebound in economic activity have b) FA
helped improve revenues from the GST. c) GF
(B) Marking the occasion, Finance Minister d) CA
Nirmala Sitharaman emphasised that the GST e) EB
has moved the country towards a unified market
from a situation where each State mandated 7) Fill in the blanks based on the sequence of
different indirect tax structures and procedures. rearrangement. The following represents the first
(C) GST Compensation cess levies have been five sentences.
extended till at least March 2026, instead of the F_D_ _
initial five-year tenure, due to the transitory shock a) AEB
of COVID-19 lockdowns on revenues. b) EBG
(D) Introduced soon after the demonetisation c) BEG
shock/A, the GST was viewed as another d) EAG
disruptor/B for the informal economy and its e) ABG
initial technical, structural/C and procedural
challenges took a while to sorting out/D. No 8) Which is the odd one out sentence among the
error/E given options ?
(E) starting this August, and that there has a) A
been(P) now that all businesses with annual b) B
turnover of ₹ 5 crore(Q) indicates that firms have c) C
gradually embraced the change(R) no ostensible d) E
pushback from smaller businesses over this,(S) e) G
will have to generate e-invoices(T)
(F) India’s tryst with the Goods and Services Tax 9) Choose the erroneous part in sentence D as
(GST), launched at a special midnight Parliament your answer.
session with unusual fanfare, completed six a) A
years this month. b) B
(G) The Revenue Department’s crackdown on c) C
fake invoicing and other techniques deployed by d) D
tax evaders may compel the few outliers to fall in e) No error
line too.
6) Which of the following options represents the 10) Sentence E is divided into five parts namely
First and the last sentence after rearrangement ? P, Q, R, S and T which may or may not be in

English Day - 22
correct order, rearrange them if necessary to the ideal population size of a family, a
form a proper meaningful sentence. Choose the community, a country and even the world ought
correct sequence of rearrangement as your to be. It is important to understand that there are
answer. no ideal numbers or figures.
a) PQRST Population stability comes when reproductive
b) RPQST and sexual health decisions are free of
c) TRPQS discrimination, coercion(B) and violence, that
d) STRPQ reproductive and sexual health services are
e) QTPSR affordable, acceptable, accessible and of high
quality, and that women and couples are
Directions (11-17): Read the given passage and supported to have the number of children they
answer the following questions based on the want, when they want them. On World
passage. Some words are highlighted to help Population Day (July 11), India deserves to be
you locate while answering the questions. commended for its family planning initiatives,
The theme of this year’s World Population Day, where despite the many challenges, the aim is to
i.e., ‘Unleashing the power of gender equality: provide an increasingly comprehensive package
Uplifting the voices of women and girls to unlock of reproductive health services to every potential
our world’s infinite possibilities’, could not be beneficiary — with a focus on the provision of
more apt for India. When we unlock the full modern short and long-acting reversible
potential of women and girls, encouraging and contraceptives, permanent methods, information,
nurturing their desires for their families and counselling, and services, including emergency
themselves, we galvanise(A) half the leadership, contraception.India’s commitment towards the
ideas, innovation, and creativity available to Family Planning 2030 partnership includes
societies. In India, the world’s most populous expanding its contraceptive basket. The inclusion
nation, the template for women-led development, of new contraceptive options advances women’s
be it in science, technology, agriculture, rights and autonomy, leading to a spike in
education or health care, must also include modern contraceptive prevalence. Access to
reproductive autonomy at its core.For far too long timely, quality and affordable family planning
the world has been obsessed with population services is crucial because unspaced
numbers and targets. Instead of ensuring pregnancies may have a detrimental influence on
reproductive autonomy for each woman, we are the new-born’s health as well as major effects on
obsessed with total fertility rates; instead of maternal mortality, morbidity, and health-care
ensuring that family planning services reach all expenditure. The Indian government’s health,
those who want it, we are obsessed with what population and development programmes have

English Day - 22
shown steady progress over the years. Life importantly, the focus on gender equality helps
expectancy at birth has significantly increased in shift the focus away from the notion of
the country over the years. Compared to the ‘population stabilisation’ to ‘population dynamics’
1990s, Indians are currently living a decade based on reproductive choices people make.
longer. In terms of maternal health, India has India has a significant opportunity to advance
made impressive strides. The current rate of gender equality and grow its economy. In fact,
maternal mortality is 97 (per 100,000 live births in raising the women’s labour force participation by
a year), down from 254 in 2004. Another triumph 10 percentage points might account for more
of these programmes is gender empowerment. than 70% of the potential GDP growth
Since the beginning of 2000, India has cut the opportunity ($770 billion in additional GDP by
number of child marriages by half. Teen 2025). The path to such a bright future is clear.
pregnancies, too, have dramatically decreased. Focusing on gender equality-centred growth,
Access to vital services, including health, rights, and choices promises to help all achieve
education, and nutrition, has also improved. their aspirations. Gender equality can be ensured
However, this progress has a fine print too. Many by making investments in a woman’s life at every
women continue to lack physical autonomy. stage, from childbirth to adolescence to maturity.
According to the most recent National Family Engaging with women, girls and other
Health Survey (NFHS-5), just 10% of women in marginalised people and formulating legislation
India are independently able to make decisions and policies that empower them to asset their
about their own health, and 11% of women rights and to taking life changing personal
believe that marital violence is acceptable if a decisions(X) are the first steps in this
woman refuses to have sex with her husband. direction.World Population Day this year is an
Nearly half of all pregnancies in India are opportunity to reaffirm our commitment to putting
unplanned, as they are globally. Advancing individual rights, particularly women’s rights and
gender equality is not just about women but also well-being, at the centre of the population and
about populations as a whole. In ageing societies development discourse(C). Gender-just
that worry about labour productivity, achieving approaches and solutions are the fundamental
gender parity in the workforce is the most building blocks of a more prosperous India, and
effective way to improve output and income indeed the world.
growth. And in countries experiencing rapid 11) According to the given passage, which of the
population growth, women’s empowerment following contributes to the growth of the
through education and family planning can bring economy ?
enormous benefits by way of human capital and
inclusive economic development. More

English Day - 22
I. Empowering women through education and 13) Which of the following best conveys the
creating awareness to them may help in meaning of the sentence “Life expectancy at
achieving good economic growth. birth has significantly increased in the country
II. By achieving equal contribution of women and over the years” in the passage ?
men in the workforce which is considered as the a) Expected life period of the infant during birth
most effective way to improve the economy. has increased over the years.
III. Focusing more on gender equality and equal b) Infant mortality rate has increased over the
rights may also contribute to the growth of the years.
nation in terms of economy. c) Expected life period of the mother during birth
a) Only I has increased over the years.
b) Only II d) Both a and c
c) Both I and III e) None of these
d) Both II and III
e) All I, II and III 14) Which of the following questions cannot be
answered after reading the given passage ?
12) Which of the following given statements a) What is the main motive or agenda behind
is/are true and correct as per the context of the celebrating world population day every year ?
passage ? b) What should India as a nation must focus on
I. Every year India celebrates Population day on other than population numbers and targets ?
July 11th and this year the theme is Unleashing c) In what way men are superior to women when
the power of gender equality. it comes to work ?
II. Most of the women in India find it difficult to d) What are the steps to achieve inclusive
make independent decisions because they are economic development ?
dependent on others and accept everything e) None of these
including violence against them.
III. For every 100,000 childbirths 97 women die 15) Which of the following best replaces the
but this is an improved figure as India has highlighted phrase (X) in the above passage to
focused on population, health and development make the sentence grammatically and
programmes for the past years. contextually correct and meaningful ?
a) Only I a) take life changing decisions on the assets and
b) Only II rights
c) Only III b) assert there rights and take personal changes
d) Both I and III that will change life
e) Both II and III

English Day - 22
c) asset their right and takes life changing COLUMN 1 COLUMN 2

personnel decisions (A) galvanise (D) dialogue
d) assert their rights and take life changing
personal decisions (B) coercion (E) energise
e) to take their assets through rights and making

(C) discourse (F) oppression
life changing decisions
a) A-E, B-D, C-F
b) A-D, B-E, C-F
16) Three statements are given below, you are
c) A-E, B-F, C-D
required to mark the statements as TRUE OR
d) A-F, B-D, C-E
FALSE in accordance with the information given
e) None of the above
in the passage.
I. Child marriages In India have been reduced by
Directions (18-22) : Read each question to find
half in numbers with the base year as 2000.
out whether they are erroneous , errors if any,
II. Increasing the men’s labour force participation
will be in two parts of the sentence. Choose the
by 25% percentage points might account for
option that represents the incorrect parts as your
more than 70% of the potential GDP growth
answer. If there is no error, mark(e) as your
opportunity
answer.
III. India’s Family Planning 2030 partnership
18) NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope has
includes new contraceptive options.
discovered/A the furthest individual star/B ever
a) True, False, False
seen, an enormous big blue stellar/C body
b) True, false, True
nicknamed Icarus located over halfway across
c) False, False, True
the universe/D. No error/E
d) False, True, False
a) AB
e) True, True, False
b) BC
c) BD
17) Three words have been highlighted in the
d) CD
given passage namely (A), (B) and (C). Two
e) No error
columns are given below with column 1 having
the highlighted words and column 2 having the
19) The report sites research that shows/A that
synonyms of the words. You are required to
gender gaps cause an average income loss/B of
match the words with their appropriate
15 percent in the OECD economies,/C 40
synonyms.
percent of which is since entrepreneurship
gaps/D. No error/E

English Day - 22
a) AC companies dealing in crypto currencies/D.No

b) AD error/E
c) BC a) AC
d) CD b) BC
e) No error c) BD
d) CD
20) Manipuri ponies which are central/A to the e) No error
game are facing a very precarious/B situation of
possible extinction/C sooner rather than 22) In most countries, a combustible mixture/A of
later/D.No error/E authoritarianism, unemployment and youth/B has
a) AD given rise to disaffection of strongmen/C rulers
b) BC which has in turn spill over into uprising/D.No
c) BD error/E
d) CD a) AB
e) No error b) AC
c) BD
21) The central bank issues a circular/A three d) CD
months ago, banning all financial institutions/B e) No error
under its control by providing service to/C

1. Answer: B Replace ‘gave’ with ‘accorded’ and ‘advantages’
with ‘privileges’ to make the sentence correct
and meaningful.

English Day - 22
‘Had gave’ is wrong - hence it needs Many private banks have an international
replacement, similarly the word ‘privileges’ is presence, allowing clients to access services
more suitable to the context of the sentence than and investment opportunities in multiple
‘advantages’. jurisdictions.
Accorded - to give something to somebody
Privileges - a right or advantage 3. Answer: E
Option a - give is wrong, opportunities sound No replacement required, the highlighted words
inappropriate are correct and are used appropriately in the
Option c - grant wrong form of usage(not a past sentence.
tense) Exerted - to make a big effort
Option d - rights is wrong because it is
redundant(special rights and rights - wrong) 4. Answer: A
Hence, Option b is the best answer. Replace ‘burnt’ with ‘combusted’ and ‘addition’
The sentence after replacement : with ‘contributed’ to make the given sentence
The Article had accorded special rights and meaningful and correct.
privileges to the people of Jammu and Kashmir Combusted - consumed/destroyed by fire
since 1954 in accordance with the Instrument of CNG - compressed natural gas can be
Accession. consumed(combusted), other options like fired,
blazed and ignited seem inappropriate and
2. Answer: A hence we discard them.
Replace assess with access(because assess is Option a - combusted and contributed are the
to judge or test), similarly replace many with right words that can be used to replace the
multiple. highlighted word in the sentence.
Access - to use The sentence after replacement :
Multiple - more in number When combusted, CNG produces fewer
Option b - to availing is incorrect, few is greenhouse gas emissions, particulate matter,
inappropriate because the sentence talk and other pollutants that contribute to air
Option c - numerous in incorrect to the context of pollution and climate change.
the sentence
Option d - clients don't enable services(client will 5. Answer: D
access the service), most is also inappropriate Replace ‘automatic’ with ‘autonomous’ and
Hence, option a is the right answer. ‘navigation’ with ‘navigate’ to make the sentence
The sentence after replacement : correct.

English Day - 22
Automatic and navigation are either incorrect or first because A seems to be a concluding
inappropriate in the sentence. sentence because it has taken a generic form.
Autonomous - one’s own So, the sequence of the coherent passage
Navigate - to use map and travel formed is FBDEGA.
Option a - different is not relevant, to decide and C is the odd one out because it is irrelevant to
make decisions(makes no sense) the passage as it talks about the compensation
Option b - advancing wrong form of word, cess which is not the main idea of the passage.
navigate is a better word than fly in this context Although it comes under the vast topic ‘GST’,
Option c - free and sail(both are inappropriate in having a look at the other sentences, sentence C
the sentence) seems to be deviating and hence is the odd one
The sentence after replacement : out.
Some drones also have autonomous capabilities 6. Answer: B
that allow them to perform pre-programmed The first sentence after rearrangement is ‘F’ and
tasks, follow flight paths, or use advanced the last sentence is ‘A’.
algorithms to navigate and make decisions
based on sensor inputs. 7. Answer: C
Directions (6-10): BEG is the correct answer because B is the
The correct sequence of rearrangement is second sentence, E is the fourth sentence and G
FBDEGA (C is the odd one out) is the fifth sentence.
Sentence ‘F’ is the first sentence as it gives
proper introduction to the passage with 8. Answer: C
information that it’s been 6 months since the Sentence C is the odd one out sentence.
launch of GST. The other sentences do not
seem to be a starter of the passage. The second 9. Answer: D
sentence would be ‘B’ because ‘marking the The error is in part d of the given sentence D.
occasion the Finance Minister has said…’ this Replace the word ‘sorting’ with ‘sort’ to make the
phrase makes it clear that sentence B succeeds sentence correct.
sentence F. The third sentence is ‘D’ as it talks ‘To sorting’(wrong) instead it must be ‘to sort’.
about the initial phase of GST introduction, how Introduced soon after the demonetisation shock,
it was a shock then and its challenges. The the GST was viewed as another disruptor for the
fourth sentence is ‘E’ which explains that the informal economy and its initial technical,
firms/companies have adapted to change(GST). structural and procedural challenges took a while
Between the sentences G and A, G will come to sort out.

English Day - 22
10. Answer: E II - Attaining gender parity meaning equal

QTPSR is the correct sequence of workforce of men and women will lead to good
rearrangement. economic growth, it is also proven that women
P - cannot be the first fragment because ‘starting workforce are more productive in nature.
this august and’ cannot be the first part of the III - Women are deprived of basic human rights
sentence and equality which acts as a hindrance for their
Q- Good starter starting with ‘now’, it can be a growth, by providing equal rights to all, everyone
continuation to the previous sentence in the can contribute to the nation and for its growth.
coherent passage. This is followed by T, now the So, all the three statements hold true and hence
firms have to generate invoices.Now comes ‘P’ option (e) is the right answer.
as the third fragment. Following P comes S
‘there has been no ostensible pushback’(joining 12. Answer: E
P and S). Lastly it is R to end the sentence in a Both the statements II and III are true according
correct way. to the information given in the passage.
Now that all businesses with annual turnover of Statement I is wrong because July 11th is World
₹ 5 crore will have to generate e-invoices population day and it is not specific to India.
starting this August, and that there has been no II and III are information that are inferred from
ostensible pushback from smaller businesses the given passage and are true and valid.
over this, indicates that firms have gradually Hence, option (e) is the correct answer for this
embraced the change. question.
11. Answer: E 13. Answer: A

According to the given passage, all the three Life expectancy at birth means the average
statements I , II and III contribute to the number of years a newborn infant is expected to
economic growth of a nation or country. live based on the prevailing patterns of mortality
I - Women empowerment plays a major role in rate.
the economic development of a nation, all So, only option (a) conveys the exact meaning of
women must be given good education and the highlighted phrase as given in the passage.
awareness about every difficulty they face and
how they can face and voice out their 14. Answer: C
opinions.According to the passage, empowered All the questions a,b and d can be answered
women can contribute really well to the society. with the information given in the passage above
as the passage contains relevant and

English Day - 22
appropriate information regarding all these topics Option c is the correct answer.
of discussion. Synonym of galvanise is energise
Question in option (c) cannot be answered Synonyms of coercion is oppression
because there is no such discussion made in the Synonym of discourse is dialogue
passage and the data/information is inadequate Galvanise - to stimulate or excite
to answer the question. Coercion - the use of force to persuade
Hence, option(c) is the correct answer for this someone to do something
question. Discourse - long serious discussion
15. Answer: D 18. Answer: B

Only phrase/fragment d is correct and can Part B and C has errors.
possibly replace the highlighted part (X) to make B - Replace ‘furthest’ with ‘farthest’(furthest -
the respective sentence correct and meaningful. higher degree, farthest - actual physical
Assert - to be clear/confident/bold distance)
Options a,c and e are wrong because they talk C - enormous big is incorrect as both the words
about assets which is not even a part of the have the same meaning
discussion in the given passage. The correct sentence : NASA’s Hubble Space
Option b is wrong because ‘there’ is incorrect Telescope has discovered the farthest individual
and the statement is inappropriate and incorrect star ever seen, an enormous blue stellar body
by itself. nicknamed Icarus located over halfway across
the universe.
16. Answer: B
Statement I is true, II is false and III is true 19. Answer: B
according to the given passage. The errors are in part A and D of the given
II is false because the passage has got the sentence.
information only regarding the women,i.e, by Replaces ‘sites’ with ‘cites’ in part A (site - a
increasing the women’s labour force participation piece of land, cite - to mention)
by 10% percentage points might account for Change ‘since’ to ‘due to’ in part D (since in
more than 70% of the potential GDP growth incorrect here)
opportunity. The correct sentence : The report cites research
Hence, the correct answer is Option (b). that shows that gender gaps cause an average
income loss of 15 percent in the OECD
17. Answer: C

English Day - 22
economies, 40 percent of which is due to service to companies dealing in crypto

entrepreneurship gaps. currencies.
20. Answer: E 22. Answer: D

The given sentence is correct and error free, Errors are in part C and D of the given sentence.
hence we go for option (e) as our answer. C - ‘disaffection of’ is incorrect instead it must be
‘disaffection with’, one gets disappointed with
21. Answer: A something/someone not ‘of someone/something’
The erroneous parts are A and C. (change the preposition used to make the part
The circular had been issued three months ago - correct)
so replace ‘issues’ with ‘issued’. D - has in turn spilled over(replace spill with
Banning institutions from providing services is spilled to make it correct, use past tense)
the correct way to put the phrase(banning by is The correct sentence : In most countries, a
wrong, it should be banning from) combustible mixture of authoritarianism,
The correct sentence : The central bank issued unemployment and youth has given rise to
a circular three months ago, banning all financial disaffection with strongmen rulers which has in
institutions under its control from providing turn spilled over into uprising.

Reasoning Aptitude
Direction (1-5): Study the following information number of shoes. No one lives to the east of K,
carefully and answer the given questions who has 4 shoes less than L. The difference
Eight persons - I, J, K, L, M, N, O and P are living between the number of shoes with I and J is 3. J
on four different floors of a four storey building has the number of shoes which is reverse of the
where the lowermost floor is numbered one and number of shoes with M. The difference between
the floor immediately above it is numbered two the number of shoes with O and K is 15. No one
and so on. lives to the east of the one who has the number
Note-I: Each floor has two type of flats viz., Flat- of shoes which is a multiple of 5.
A and Flat-B, where Flat A is to the west of Flat 1. What is the sum of the number of shoes with
B. L, N and P?
Note-II: Flat B of floor 2 is immediately above a) 110
Flat B of floor 1 and immediately below Flat B of b) 96
floor 3 and so on. Similarly, Flat A of Floor 2 is c) 133
immediately above Flat A of floor 1 and d) 109
immediately below Flat A of floor 3 and so on. e) 113
Note-III: Area of each flat on each floor is equal.
Note-IV: Only two persons live on each floor and 2. Which of the following statements is/are not
only one person lives in each flat. false as per the given arrangement?
Note V: Each person has different number of a) The difference between the number of shoes
shoes with them, which is a two digit number. No with J and O is a prime number
one has more than 50 shoes. b) The one who lives immediately above the flat
The one who has 27 shoes lives two floors above of I has an odd number of shoes
the flat of N, who lives on an odd numbered floor, c) M has 20 shoes less than K
has 8 shoes less than L. The number of floors d) All the given statement is true
below N is one less than the number of floors e) All the given statement is false
above I, who has the number of shoes which is a
multiple of seven. Only one floor is between I and 3. Who among the following person lives two
the one who has 17 shoes less than P, and both floors above J?
are living in the same type of flat. M, who has a a) The one who lives immediately below the flat
prime number of shoes, lives two floors above of M
the flat of L. Both M and P neither live on the b) P
same floor nor in the same type of flat. Only one c) I
floor is between K and P, who has a square d) The one who has 46 shoes

e) Both a and c I. H$T

II. R@L
4. Which of the following combination is true? III. Q$P
a) Floor number 4, Flat B - M a) Only conclusion I is true
b) Floor number 2, Flat A - P b) Only conclusion II is true
c) Floor number 3, Flat A - I c) Both conclusions I and II are true
d) Floor number 1, Flat B - J d) Only conclusion III is true
e) Floor number 4, Flat A - K e) Both conclusions II and III are true
5. If the rate of each shoe bought by the person 7. Statements:

who lives in flat A is Rs.1000 and Flat B is A@B&C%D$E; G%F$D#H$I; L$H&J&K%M
Rs.500, then who among the following person Conclusions:
spent the highest amount to buy shoes? I. K@B
a) Both N and K II. L$G
b) O III. E#M
c) Both P and M a) Only conclusion I is true
d) L b) Only conclusion II is true
e) Both J and I c) Both conclusions I and II are true
d) Only conclusion III is true
Directions (6-10): In the given questions, the e) None is true
relationship between different elements is shown
in the statements followed by some conclusions. 8. Statements:
Find the conclusion which is definitely true. K@L%J&H#G; A&S%Y$D@F; E#L$T%Y@O
A#B means B is neither greater than nor equal to Conclusions:
A I. F&K
A$B means B is neither smaller than nor equal to II. H$A
A III. J#O
A%B means B is neither greater than nor less a) Only conclusion I is true
than A b) Only conclusion II is true
A&B means B is not greater than A c) Both conclusions I and II are true
A@B means B is not smaller than A d) Only conclusion III is true
6. Statements: e) Both conclusions II and III are true
Q@W$E%R&T; U&E@I%O$P; H#O@G%L#A
Conclusions: 9. Statements:

Z$X%K&O#V; S&H%K$L@C; A#S@D#F$G Row 2 contains numbers which is a consecutive

Conclusions: multiple of 19 from left to right starting from 57
I. X$G Row 3 contains numbers which is a consecutive
II. A#V even numbers from left to right starting from 28
III. K&G Row 4 contains numbers which is a consecutive
a) Only conclusion I is true multiple of 13 from left to right starting from 13
b) Only conclusion II is true Row 5 contains numbers which is a consecutive
c) Both conclusions I and II are true prime numbers from left to right starting from 41
d) Either conclusion I or III is true Conditions:
e) Both b and d are true I. If the outcome is less than 500, we get Rs.90
as cashback
10. Statements: II. If the outcome is between 501 and 1300, we
P@L@M%N&B; S@W#A%E@R; A%V$N#C$X get Rs.200 as cashback
Conclusions: III. If the outcome is between 1301 and 2200, we
I. P@R get Rs.450 as cashback
II. W#C IV. If the outcome is between 2201 and 3500, we
III. E$X get Rs.700 as cashback
a) Only conclusion I is true V. If the outcome is between 3501 and 5000, we
b) Both conclusions I and II are true get Rs.1500 as cashback
c) None is true Note: The amount of money we receive will differ
d) Only conclusion II is true depending on the outcome we receive from the
e) Both conclusions I and III are true string
For the outcome of the string:
Direction (11-15): Study the following information A. If an odd number is followed by a non-prime
carefully and answer the given questions. number, then the sum of both numbers is
There is a 5x5 matrix that is used to get cash multiplied by 3
back amount while using credit card in POS. The B. If an even number is followed by a prime
row of the matrix is denoted as 1 to 5 from top to number, then find the difference between both
bottom and the column of the matrix is denoted numbers and cube the sum of the digits of the
as @, #, $, % and & from left to right resultant.
respectively. C. If an odd number is followed by a prime
Row 1 contains numbers which is a consecutive number, then the sum of the unit digits of both
multiple of 17 from left to right starting from 34. numbers is multiplied by 7

D. If an even number is followed by a non-prime c) 4

odd number, then the difference between the unit d) 8
digits of both numbers is multiplied by 9. e) 9
E. If an even number is followed by an even
number, then multiply the unit digit of both 14. How much cash back will get from the
numbers and square the resultant. outcome of the given string?
11. How much cashback will get from the sum of 1% 4@ 3& 5$
the outcome of both strings? a) Rs.90
I. 2# 5% 1& b) Rs.200
II. 3@ 2$ 4% c) Rs.450
a) Rs.90 d) Rs.700
b) Rs.200 e)Rs.1500
c) Rs.450
d) Rs.700 15. Find the difference between the cash back
e) Rs.1500 we get from the outcome of each string given
below.
12. What is the product of the outcome of the I. 1%5#2&
below strings? II. 2@3#4$
I. 2% 3& 1# a) Rs.90
II. 4@ 3% 5$ b) Rs.210
a) 2420 c) Rs.110
b) 2320 d) Rs.150
c) 2220 e) Rs.100
d) 2520
e) 2120 Direction (16-20): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
13. If the rate of one chocolate is Rs.40, then Ten persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are
how many chocolates can buy using the cash sitting around a circular table, where some of
back will get from the sum of the outcome of both them are facing towards the centre while some of
strings? them are facing away from the centre.
I. 1@ 3$ 4# Note: Consecutive alphabetically named persons
II. 5& 1$ 5@ are not sitting opposite to each other.
a) 3 G sits fourth to the right of B, where both are
b) 5 facing opposite directions. Immediate neighbours

of B are facing the opposite direction to him.

Two persons sit between G and H, where both 18. What is the position of E with respect to I in
are facing the same direction. J and H are sitting the given arrangement?
immediate right of each other. The number of a) Third to the left
persons sitting between J and A is one less than b) Seventh to the right
the number of persons sitting between A and C, c) Fourth to the left
when counted from the left of both J and A d) Third to the right
respectively. Three persons sit between I and D. e) Fifth to the left
E sits to the immediate right of D. Both I and F
are facing the opposite direction of E. The one 19. If J and B interchanged their position,
who sits to the immediate right of F is facing similarly D and H interchanged their position,
away from the centre. then who among the following person sits third to
16. Who among the following pair of persons the left of D?
facing the same direction? a) F
a) GJ b) C
b) HI c) B
c) CE d) J
d) DJ e) G
e) FH
20. As many persons sit between G and __ as
17. Who among the following person sits fourth between C and __, when counted left of both G
to the right of F? and C.
a) E a) J, H
b) The one who sits opposite to H b) I, A
c) A c) A, E
d) I d) H, F
e) The one who sits second to the right of E e) D, J


Directions (1-5): From the above conditions, we have two
1. Answer: C possibilities:
2. Answer: A
3. Answer: E
4. Answer: D
5. Answer: D
Final arrangement:
Again we have,
 Only one floor is between I and the one
who has 17 shoes less than P, and both
are living in the same type of flat.
 M, who has prime number of shoes, lives
We have, two floors above the flat of L.
 The one who has 27 shoes lives two  Both M and P neither live on same floor
floors above the flat of N, who lives on an nor in the same type of flat.
odd numbered floor, has 8 shoes less  Only one floor is between K and P, who
than L. has a square number of shoes.
 The number of floors below N is one less  No one lives to the east of K, who has 4
than the number of floors above I, who shoes less than L.
has the number of shoes which is a
multiple of seven.

 If K has 12 shoes, then L may have 16

shoes and if K has 42 shoes then L may
have 46 shoes (L=K+4)
 If L has 46 shoes then N may have 38
shoes and if L has 16 shoes, then N may
have 8 shoes, which is not possible (Only
Again we have, two digit number)
 The difference between the number of  Thus, we may conclude, O=27, K=42,
shoes with I and J is 3. L=46, N=38
 J has the number of shoes which is While applying above conditions, case 2 gets
reverse of the number of shoes with M. eliminated, because no one should live to the
 The difference between the number of east of the one who has the number of shoes
shoes with O and K is 15. which is a multiple of 5. Thus, case 1 gives the
 No one lives to the east of the one who final arrangement.
has the number of shoes which is a
multiple of 5.
Calculations:
 M (Prime) – Taking all the prime numbers
from 11 to 50, we can find the number of
shoes had by J, who has the reverse of
the shoes had by M.
 Then we can find the number of shoes
6. Answer: E
had by P by using J (P=J+17, P has
I. H$T -> T>H (T≤R=E≤I=O<H) -> False
square number of shoes)
II. R@L -> L≥R (R=E≤I=O≤G=L) -> True
 By this, we can conclude: M=23, J=32
III. Q$P -> Q<P (P>O=I≥E>W≥Q) -> True
and P=49.
 Next, I-J is 3 (i.e. I=35/29), but I has
7. Answer: D
number of shoes which is multiple of 7, so
I. K@B -> B≥K (K≤J≤H<D=C≤B) -> False
I=35.
II. L$G -> G>L (G=F<D>H>L) -> False
 We know O has 27 shoes, so K may have
III. E#M -> M<E ( E>D>H≥J≥K=M) -> True
12 or 42 shoes (K-O is 15)
8. Answer: B
I. F&K -> F≥K (K≤L<T=Y<D≤F) -> False

II. H$A -> A>H (H≤J=L<T=Y=S≤A) ->True 13. Answer: B

III. J#O -> O<J (J=L<T=Y≤O) -> False I. 1@3$4# -> 34 32 26
By condition E: square of (4*2) = 64
9. Answer: E By condition E: square of (4*6) = 576
I. X$G -> X<G (X=K=H≤S≤D>F<G) -> False II. 5&1$5@ -> 59 68 41
II. A#V -> V<A (V<O≤K=H≤S<A) -> True By condition A: (59+68)*3 = 381
III. K&G -> K≥G (X=K=H≤S≤D>F<G) -> False By condition C: (1+1)*7 = 14
Combining I and III, we can say either Sum of both the strings= 590. Thus, cashback
conclusion I or III is true we get is Rs.200, so we can buy 5 chocolates.
10. Answer: C 14. Answer: E

I. P@R -> P≤R (P≤L≤M=N>V=A=E≤R) -> False 1%4@3&5$ -> 85 13 36 47
II. W#C -> W>C (C<N>V=A<W) -> False By condition C: (5+3)*7 = 56
III. E$X -> E<X (X>C<N>V=A=E) -> False By condition E: square of (6*6) = 1296
By condition B: (1296-47) = 1249 =Cube of
11. Answer: B (1+2+4+9) = 4096
I. 2#5%1& -> 76 53 102
By condition B: 76-53=23 -> 2+3 -> cube of 5 = 15. Answer: C
125 I. 1%5#2& -> 85 43 133
By condition A: (125+102)*3 = 681 By condition C: (5+3)*7 = 56
II. 3@2$4% -> 28 95 52 By condition D: (6-3)*9 = 27
By condition D: (8-5)*9 =27 We get Rs.90 as cashback.
By condition A: (27+52)*3 =237 II. 2@3#4$ -> 57 30 39
Sum of both strings=681+237 = 918 By condition A: (57+30)*3 = 261
By condition A: (261+39)*3 = 900
12. Answer: D We get Rs.200 as cashback.
I. 2%3&1# -> 114 36 51 Hence, difference between the two cashback is
By condition E: square of (6*4) = 576 Rs.110
By condition D: (6-1)*9 = 45
II. 4@3%5$ -> 13 34 47
By condition A: (13+34)*3 = 141
By condition C: (1+7)*7 = 56
Product of both strings: 45*56=2520

Again we have,
 The number of persons sitting between J
and A is one less than the number of
Directions (16-20): persons sitting between A and C, when
16. Answer: C counted from the left of both J and A
17. Answer: E respectively.
18. Answer: D  Three persons sit between I and D.
19. Answer: D  E sits to the immediate right of D.
20. Answer: B
Final arrangement:
Again we have,
 Both I and F are facing the opposite
direction of E.
 The one who sits to the immediate right of
F is facing away from the centre.
We have, While applying the above condition, case 1 gets
 G sits fourth to the right of B, where both eliminated, because the one who sits to the
are facing opposite directions. immediate right of F should face away from the
 Immediate neighbours of B are facing the centre. Thus, case 2 gives the final arrangement.
opposite direction to him.
 Two persons sit between G and H, where
both are facing the same direction.
 J and H are sitting immediate right of
each other.
From the above conditions, we have two
possibilities:


Directions (1 – 4): Study the given information a. 30

carefully and answer the given questions. b. 60
The table given below shows the number of runs c. 36
scored by three different players – P, Q, and R d. 48
against five different teams. Some data is e. None of these
missing you have to find the missing data and
answer the questions given below. 3. If Q scored 25% more runs against New
Zealand then find the percentage increase in the
total runs scored by P, Q, and R together against
New Zealand.
a. 7%
b. 12%
c. 5%
Note: Runs scored by Q against England are d. 15%
less than the runs scored by R against England. e. None of these
1. Runs scored by Q against England are only by
hitting 6s and 4s. If the number of 4s hit by Q is 2 4. The strike rate of P against Australia and
less than the double number of 6s hit by Q. Find Pakistan is 80 and 50 respectively. Find the
the runs scored by Q by hitting 4s. difference between the number of balls faced by
a. 96 P against Australia and Pakistan.
b. 120 Note: Strike Rate = ((Number of runs scored) /
c. 112 (Number of balls faced)) * 100
d. 80 a. 30
e. None of these b. 12
c. 16
2. Q played 4 matches against Pakistan and 6 d. 24
matches against England. Find the average runs e. None of these
scored by Q against England is what percentage
of his average runs scored against Pakistan.
Directions (5 – 8): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

In school X different numbers of students are studying in class – 6th, 7th, 8th, 9th, and 10th in 2022. The first
pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of students in given classes. The second pie
chart given below shows the percentage distribution of the number of girls in given classes.

Note: i. Total number of students in 9th class is 50% more than the total number of students in 7 th class.
ii. The ratio of the total number of students in the 6th class to the 7th class is 5 : 3.
5. Rs.62 has been divided among students of 8. Number of girls in class 6th and 9th together
class 10 in such a way that each boy gets 50% are what percent of the number of students in
more amount than each girl gets. Find the class 8th and 10th together.
amount got by each girl. a. 25%
a. Rs.0.75 b. 60%
b. Rs.0.25 c. 50%
c. Rs.0.60 d. 40%
d. Rs.0.40 e. None of these
e. None of these
Direction (9 – 12): Study the given information
6. 60% of students from class 6th have carefully and answer the given questions.
participated in a dance competition. 3/5th of the Four students – P, Q, R, and S have scored
boys from class 6th have participated in the different marks in five subjects – Mathematics,
dance competition. Find the number of girls who Science, English, Hindi, and Computer inthe
participated in the dance competition. board exam 2022. The table given below shows
a. 50 the average marks scored by P, Q, R, and S,
b. 75 Marks scored by P as a percentage of marks
c. 60 scored by Q, the Difference between average
d. 80 marks scored by P and S together, and average
e. None of these marks scored by R and S together, marks scored
by S in five subjects.
7. 15% of students from class 8th and 25% of
students from class 9 failed in 2022. Find the
number of students in class 9thin 2023 if no new
admission takes place in 2023.
a. 274
b. 244
c. 296
d. 288 Note: Only in Mathematics R scored more marks
e. None of these than P. In other subjects, P scored more marks
than R

9. The average marks scored by P, Q, and S 11. Average marks scored by P in Hindi, R in
together in English is what percent more than the Computer, and S in Mathematics together are
average marks scored by P, Q, R, and S what percent of the sum of marks scored by Q in
together in Computer? Mathematics and S in Computer together?
a.15% a. 44.44%
b.12.5% b. 36.36%
c.10% c. 37.5%
d.17.5% d. 50%
e. None of these e. None of these
10. In Computer, R fails by 12 marks. If the 12. Find the difference between the sum of
passing mark is 40% of the maximum marks marks scored by P, R, and S in Hindi and the
then find the maximum marks in Computer. average marks scored by P, Q, and S in English.
a. 120 a. 134
b. 180 b. 96
c. 130 c. 112
d. 150 d. 146
e. None of these e. None of these
Direction (13 – 14): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
In a laptop store, laptops of three brands – Dell, HP, and Lenovo have been sold in five months –
January, February, March, April, and May. The bar graph given below shows the total number of laptops
sold. The table given below shows HP laptops sold as a percentage of Lenovo laptops sold, the
percentage of Lenovo laptops sold out of the total number of laptops sold in the given month.

13. Find the ratio of the sum of the number of b. 75%

Dell laptops sold in January and HP laptops sold c. 83.33%
in April together to the sum of HP laptops sold in d. 88.88%
March and Lenovo laptops sold in February e. None of these
together.
a. 5 : 7 Direction (15 – 17): Study the given information
b. 7 : 9 carefully and answer the given questions.
c. 9 : 8 Three friends – P, Q, and R have invested
d. 8 : 11 different sums in four businesses – A, B, C, and
e. None of these D.
The sum invested by R in business D is Rs.’b’.
14. The average number of Dell laptops sold in Sum invested by Q in business D is 75% of the
February and March together is what percent of sum invested by R in business D which is 1/9th
the sum of Dell laptops sold in January and HP less than the sum invested by P in business D.
laptops sold in April together? Sum invested by Q in business C is Rs.’a’. Sum
a. 87.5% invested by P in business B is 20% more than

the sum invested by Q in business C. The ratio of d. 8137

the sum invested by Pin Business B to the sum e. None of these
invested by R in Business A is 6 : 7. The Sum
invested by P in Business A is 1/3rd more than 17. In business D, 25% of the total profit is
the sum invested by R in Business D. The ratio donated to charity and the rest of the profit is
of the sum invested by P, Q, and R in business A distributed among P, Q, and R as per their
is 8 : 6 : 7 respectively. R invested 50% more investment. P received Rs.3348 as his profit
sum in business C than Q invested in business share. Find the total profit at the end of 1 year.
C. The ratio of the sum invested by P and the a. 11408
sum invested by R in business C is 5 : 6 b. 9454
respectively. R invested 33.33% less sum in c. 12658
business B than he invested in business C. Q d. 10852
invested Rs.6000 more in business B than R e. None of these
invested in business B. P, Q, and R together
invested Rs.75000 in business C. Direction (18 – 20): Study the given information
15. In business C, R withdraws his sum after 8 carefully and answer the given questions.
months from the start of business. At the end of 18. Find the value of P, Q, and R in the given
1 year, the total profit is Rs.5681. Find the profit series and choose the correct relation among
share of Q. them.
a. 1576 I. 10, 10, 17, 43, 106, P, 445
b. 1748 II. 36, 71, Q, 1059, 7412, 81531
c. 1864 III. 22, 30, 46, 78, R, 270, 526
d. 1654 a. P > Q > R
e. None of these b. P > Q < R
c. P < Q < R
16. In business A, Q increases his investment by d. P < Q > R
25% after 6 months from the start of the e. None of these
business and after 3 more months, P withdraws
his investment. At the end of 1 year, P got 19. Find the value of P, Q, and R in the given
Rs.2472 as his profit share. Find the total profit series and choose the correct relation among
at the end of 1 year. them.
a. 6472 I. 81, 85, P, 137, 201, 301
b. 6792 II. 47, 48, 50, 56, Q, 200, 920
c. 7537 III. 508, 339, 218, 137, R, 63, 54

a. P > Q > R I. 38, 42, P, 76, 125, 246, 415

b. P > Q < R II. 18, 35, Q, 409, 2041, 12241
c. P < Q < R III. 24, 26, 32, 44, 64, 94, R
d. P < Q > R a. P > Q > R
e. None of these b. P > Q < R
c. P < Q < R
20. Find the value of P, Q, and R in the given d. P < Q > R
series and choose the correct relation among e. None of these
them.

Directions (1 – 4): Runs scored by P against Sri Lanka = 540 –
Runs scored by P, Q, and R together against Sri (162 + 270)
Lanka = 540 = 108
The ratio of runs scored by Q and R against Sri The ratio of runs scored by Q and R against
Lanka = 60 : 100 Australia = 75 : 100
=3:5 =3:4
Difference between runs scored by Q and R Difference between runs scored by Q and R
against Sri Lanka = 108 against Australia = 48
Runs scored by Q against Sri Lanka = (108/(5 – Runs scored by Q against Australia = (48/(4 – 3))
3)) * 3 *3
= 162 = 144
Runs scored by R against Sri Lanka = (108/(5 – Runs scored by R against Australia = (48/(4 – 3))
3)) * 5 *4
= 270 = 192

Runs scored by P against Australia = ((144 + The ratio of runs scored by Q and R against New
192)/84) * 16 Zealand = 70 : 100
= 64 = 7 : 10
Runs scored by P against Pakistan = 400 * Total runs scored by Q and R together against
(12/100) New Zealand = 800 – 256
= 48 = 544
The ratio of runs scored by Q and R against Runs scored by Q against New Zealand = 544 *
Pakistan = 120 : 100 (7/17)
=6:5 = 224
Total runs scored by Q and R together against Runs scored by R against New Zealand = 544 *
Pakistan = 400 – 48 (10/17)
= 352 = 320
Runs scored by Q against Pakistan = 352 *
(6/11)
= 192
Runs scored by R against Pakistan = 352 *
(5/11)
= 160
Runs scored by P against England = 600 * 1. Answer: B
(19/100) Runs scored by Q against England = 216
= 114 Let the number of 6s hit by Q against England
Total runs scored by Q and R together against be x.
England = 600 – 114 Then, number of 4s hit by Q against England =
= 486 2x – 2
Runs scored by Q against England = (486 – According to the question,
54)/2 6 * x + 4 * (2x – 2) = 216
= 216 6x + 8x – 8 = 216
Runs scored by R against England = 216 + 54 14x = 224
= 270 x = 16
Runs scored by P against New Zealand = 800 * Number of 4s hit by Q against England = 2 * 16 –
(32/100) 2
= 256 = 30
Runs scored by Q against England by 4s = 30 *
4

= 120 Number of balls faced by P against Pakistan =

(48/50) * 100
2. Answer: E = 96
Runs scored by Q against Pakistan = 192 Difference between the number of balls faced by
Average of Q against Pakistan = 192/4 P against Australia and Pakistan = 96 – 80
= 48 = 16
Runs scored by Q against England = 216
Average of Q against England = 216/6 Directions (5 – 8):
= 36 From i,
Required percentage = (36/48)*100 = 75% Total number of students in 9th class = ab2
Total number of students in 7th class = a2b
3. Answer: A Then, (ab2)/(a2b) = 3/2
Runs scored by P against New Zealand = 256 b/a = 3/2
Runs scored by Q against New Zealand = 224 From ii,
Runs scored by R against New Zealand = 320 Total number of students in 6th class = a2c
Total runs scored by P, Q, and R together Total number of students in 7th class = a2b
against New Zealand = 256 + 224 + 320 Then, (a2c) / (a2b) = 5/3
= 800 c/b = 5/3
New runs scored by Q against New Zealand = a = 2, b = 3, c = 5
224 * (5/4) Total number of students in class 6th = 800 *
= 280 (20/100) = 160
New total runs scored by P, Q, and R together Total number of students in class 7th = 800 *
against New Zealand = 256 + 280 + 320 (12/100) = 96
= 856 Total number of students in class 8th = 800 *
Percentage increase = ((856 – 800)/800) * 100 (35/100) = 280
= 7% Total number of students in class 9th = 800 *
(18/100) = 144
4. Answer: C Total number of students in class 10th = 800 *
Runs scored by P against Australia = 64 (15/100) = 120
Runs scored by P against Pakistan = 48 Number of girls in class 6th = 500 * (25/100) =
Number of balls faced by P against Australia = 125
(64/80) * 100 Number of girls in class 7th = 500 * (18/100) = 90
= 80

Number of girls in class 8th = 500 * (32/100) = Number of students from class 6th who has
160 participated in dance competition = 160 *
Number of girls in class 9th = 500 * (15/100) = 75 (60/100)
Number of girls in class 10th = 500 * (10/100) = = 96
50 Number of boys from class 6th who has
Number of boys in class 6th = 160 – 125 = 35 participated in dance competition = 35 * (3/5)
Number of boys in class 7th = 96 – 90 = 6 = 21
Number of boys in class 8th = 280 – 160 = 120 Number of girls from class 6th who has
Number of boys in class 9th = 144 – 75 = 69 participated in dance competition = 96 – 21
Number of boys in class 10th = 120 – 50 = 70 = 75
7. Answer: A
Number of students in class 8th = 280
Number of students fail in class 8th = 280 *
(15/100)
= 42
Number of students fail in class 9th = 144 *
5. Answer: D
(25/100)
Number of boys in class 10th = 70
= 36
Number of girls in class 10th = 50
Number of students in class 9th in 2023 = (280 –
Let each girl in class 10 get Rs.x.
42) + 36
Each boy in class 10 gets Rs.1.5x.
= 274
Then, 70 * 1.5x + 50 * x = 62
105x + 50x = 62
8. Answer: C
155x = 62
x = 62/155
x = 0.40
The amount got by each girl is Rs.0.40.
Reqd. percentage = ((125 + 75)/(280 + 120)) *
6. Answer: B
100
= (200/400) * 100
Number of boys in class 6th = 35
= 50%

Direction (9 – 12): =4:5

Total marks scored by P, Q, R, and S together in Difference between marks scored by P and R =
Mathematics = 71.5 * 4 3*2=6
= 286 Let the marks scored by P be 4b and the marks
Total marks scored by P, Q, R, and S together in scored by Q be 5b.
Science = 72.75 * 4 Marks scored by R = 4b – 6
= 291 Then, 4b + 5b + 4b – 6 + 76 = 291
Total marks scored by P, Q, R, and S together in b = 17
English = 73 * 4 Marks scored by P in Science = 4 * 17 = 68
= 292 Marks scored by Q in Science = 5 * 17 = 85
Total marks scored by P, Q, R, and S together in Marks scored by R in Science = 68 – 6 = 62
Hindi = 64.75 * 4 The ratio of marks scored by P to marks scored
= 259 by Q in English = 140 : 100
Total marks scored by P, Q, R, and S together in =7:5
Computer = 64 * 4 Difference between marks scored by P and R =
= 256 4*2=8
The ratio of marks scored by P to marks scored Let the marks scored by P be 7c and marks
by Q in Mathematics = 70 : 100 scored by Q be 5c.
= 7 : 10 Marks scored by R = 7c – 8
Difference between marks scored by P and R = Then, 7c + 5c + 7c – 8 + 72 = 292
5 * 2 = 10 c = 12
Let the marks scored by P be 7a and the marks Marks scored by P in English = 7 * 12 = 84
scored by Q be 10a. Marks scored by Q in English = 5 * 12 = 60
Marks scored by R = 7a + 10 Marks scored by R in English = 84 – 8 = 76
Then, 7a + 10a + 7a + 10 + 84 = 286 The ratio of marks scored by P to marks scored
24a = 192 by Q in Hindi = 80 : 100
a=8 =4:5
Marks scored by P in Mathematics = 7 * 8 = 56 Difference between marks scored by P and R =
Marks scored by Q in Mathematics = 10 * 8 = 80 2*2=4
Marks scored by R in Mathematics = 7 * 8 + 10 = Let the marks scored by P be 4d and the marks
66 scored by Q be 5d.
The ratio of marks scored by P to marks scored Marks scored by R = 4d – 4
by Q in Science = 80 : 100 Then, 4d + 5d + 4d – 4 + 68 = 259

13d = 195 = 72
d = 15 Average of marks scored by P, Q, R, and S
Marks scored by P in Hindi = 4 * 15 = 60 together in Computer = (54 + 90 + 48 + 64)/4
Marks scored by Q in Hindi = 5 * 15 = 75 = 64
Marks scored by R in Hindi = 60 – 4 = 56 Reqd. percentage = ((72 – 64)/64) * 100
The ratio of marks scored by P to marks scored = 12.5%
by Q in Computer = 60 : 100
=3:5 10. Answer: D
Difference between marks scored by P and R = Marks scored by R in Computer = 48
3*2=6 Passing marks in Computer = 48+12 = 60
Let the marks scored by P be 3e and the marks Maximum marks of Computer exam = 60 *
scored by Q be 5e. (100/40)
Marks scored by R = 3e – 6 = 150
Then, 3e + 5e + 3e – 6 + 64 = 256
11e = 198 11. Answer: A
e = 18 Marks scored by P in Hindi = 60
Marks scored by P in Computer = 3 * 18 = 54 Marks scored by R in Computer = 48
Marks scored by Q in Computer = 5 * 18 = 90 Marks scored by S in Mathematics = 84
Marks scored by R in Computer = 54 – 6 = 48 Marks scored by Q in Mathematics = 80
Marks scored by S in Computer = 64
Average of mark scored by P in Hindi, R in
Computer, and S in Mathematics = (60 + 48 +
84)/3
= 64
9. Answer: B
Reqd. percentage = (64/144) * 100
Marks scored by P in English = 84
= 44.44%
Marks scored by Q in English = 60
Marks scored by S in English = 72
12. Answer: C
Marks scored by P in Computer = 54
Marks scored by P in Hindi = 60
Marks scored by Q in Computer = 90
Marks scored by R in Hindi = 56
Marks scored by R in Computer = 48
Marks scored by S in Hindi = 68
Marks scored by S in Computer = 64
Marks Scored by P in English =84
Average of marks scored by P, Q, and S
Marks Scored by Q in English = 60
together in English = (84 + 60 + 72)/3

Marks Scored by S in English = 72 Dell laptops sold in April = 819 – (234 + 195) =
The sum of marks scored by P, R, and S in Hindi 390
= 60 + 56 + 68 Lenovo laptops sold in May = 700 * (35/100)
= 184 = 245
Average of marks scored by P, Q, and S in HP laptops sold in May = 245 * (4/5)
English = (84 + 60 + 72)/3 = 196
= 72 Dell laptops sold in May = 700 – (245 + 196) =
Reqd. difference = 184 – 72 259
= 112
Direction (13 – 14):

Lenovo laptops sold in January = 660 * (40/100)
= 264
HP laptops sold in January = 264 * (87.5/100) 13. Answer: C
= 231 Number of Dell laptops sold in January = 165
Dell laptops sold in January = 660 – (264 + 231) Number of HP laptops sold in April = 195
= 165 Number of HP laptops sold in March = 128
Lenovo laptops sold in February = 576 * (1/3) Number of Lenovo laptops sold in February =
= 192 192
HP laptops sold in February = 192 * (3/4) Reqd. ratio = (165 + 195) : (128 + 192)
= 144 = 360 : 320
Dell laptops sold in February = 576 – (192 + 144) =9:8
= 240
Lenovo laptops sold in March = 704 * (1/4) 14. Answer: D
= 176 Number of Dell laptops sold in February = 240
HP laptops sold in March = 176 * (8/11) Number of Dell laptops sold in March = 400
= 128 Number of Dell laptops sold in January = 165
Dell laptops sold in March = 704 – (176 + 128) = Number of HP laptops sold in April = 195
400 Average of number of Dell laptops sold in
Lenovo laptops sold in April = 819 * (2/7) February and March together = (240 + 400)/2
= 234 = 320
HP laptops sold in April = 234 * (5/6)
= 195

The sum of the number of Dell laptops sold in The ratio of investment P, Q, and R in business
January and HP laptops sold in April together = C = 25000 * 12 : 20000 * 12 : 30000 * 8
165 + 195 =5:4:4
= 360 Profit share of Q = 5681 * (4/13)
Reqd. percentage = (320/360) * 100 = 1748
= 88.88%
16. Answer: D
Direction (15 – 17): The ratio of investment P, Q, and R in business
The sum invested by R in business D = b A = 32000 * 9 : 24000 * 6 + 30000 * 6 : 28000 *
The sum invested by Q in business D = 3b/4 12
The sum invested by P in business D = 9b/8 = 24 : 27 : 28
The sum invested by Q in business C = a Total profit at the end of 1 year = 2472 * (79/24)
The sum invested by P in business B = 6a/5 = 8137
The sum invested by R in business A = 7a/5
The sum invested by P in business A = 4b/3 17. Answer: A
The sum invested by P in business A = 8a/5 The ratio of investment of P, Q, and R in
Then, 4b/3 = 8a/5 business D = 27000 * 12 : 18000 * 12 : 24000 *
a/b = 5/6 12
The sum invested by Q in business A = 6a/5 =9:6:8
The sum invested by R in business C = 3a/2 Profit received by P, Q, and R in business D
The sum invested by P in business C = 5a/4 after charity = 3348 * (23/9)
The sum invested by R in business B = a = 8556
The sum invested by Q in business B = a + 6000 Total profit occur in business D after 1 year =
According to the question, 8556 * (4/3)
5a/4 + a + 3a/2 = 75000 = 11408
a = 20000
b = 20000 * (6/5) = 24000 18. Answer: A
From I,
10 +(1)3 – 1 = 10
10 + (2)3 – 1 = 17
17 + (3)3 – 1 = 43
15. Answer: B 43 + (4)3 – 1 = 106
106 + (5)3 – 1 = 230

230 + (6)3 – 1 = 445 200 + 6! = 920

The value of P is 230. The value of Q is 80.
From II, From III,
36 * 2 – 1 = 71 508 – (13)2 = 339
71 * 3 – 1 = 212 339 – (11)2 = 218
212 * 5 – 1 = 1059 218 – (9)2 = 137
1059 * 7 – 1 = 7412 137 – (7)2 = 88
7412 * 11 – 1 = 81531 88 – (5)2= 63
The value of Q is 212. 63 - (3)2 = 54
From III, The value of R is 88.
22 + 8 = 30 Hence, P > Q < R
30 + 16 = 46
46 + 32 = 78 20. Answer: C
78 + 64 = 142 From I,
142 + 128 = 270 38 + (2)2 = 42
270 + 256 = 526 42 + (3)2 = 51
The value of R is 142. 51 + (5)2 = 76
Hence, P > Q > R 76 + (7)2 = 125
125 + (11)2 = 246
19. Answer: B 246 + (13)2 = 415
From I, The value of P is 51.
81 + (2)2 = 85 From II,
85 + (4)2 = 101 18 * 1 – 0 = 18
101 + (6)2 = 137 18 * 2 – 1 = 35
137 + (8)2 = 201 35 * 3 – 2 = 103
201 + (10)2 = 301 103 * 4 – 3 = 409
The value of P is 101. 409 * 5 – 4 = 2041
From II, 2041 * 6 – 5 = 12241
47 + 1! = 48 The value of Q is 103.
48 + 2! = 50 From III,
50 + 3! = 56 24 + (1 * 2) = 26
56 + 4! = 80 26 + (2 * 3) = 32
80 + 5! = 200 32 + (3 * 4) = 44

44 + (4 * 5) = 64 The value of R is 136.

64 + (5 * 6) = 94 Hence, P < Q < R
94 + (6 * 7) = 136

English Day - 23
English Language
Directions (1-3): In the following questions, two C. Only (A-D)
sentences are given in which some highlighted D. Only (B-D)
words are given, you have to identify if these E. No replacement required
words are used correctly or not. If not, then swap
word with another to make the sentence 3)
meaningful. I. The summit is being held largely (A) because
1) some member states, including India, were coup
I. The Dalai Lama, now 87, is recognized globally (B) to share a platform with Myanmar’s junta,
as a man of peace who has faced religious and which has shown no signs of moving the country
political-cultural conflict with great guidance(B), towards democracy.
patience, and non-violence. II. The summit on March 30 will be a virtual affair,
II. The Dalai Lama, who describes himself with virtually (C) because of concerns among member
pride as a “son of India”, has ensured the states about the situation in Myanmar following
intellectual(C) and emotional lineage of Lord last year’s military reluctant (D).
Buddha is flourishing under his poise (D). A. Both (A-C) and (B-D)
A. Both (A-D) and (B-C) B. Both (A-B) and (C-D)
B. Both (A-C) and (B-D) C. Only (A-C)
C. Only (B-C) D. Only (B-D)
D. Only (B-D) E. No replacement required
E. No replacement required
Directions (4-10): The passage given below
2) carries information based on which questions
I. Adolescents and young adults are particularly have been framed. You must read the same
vulnerable (A) to feeling complex (B) about their carefully and Answer: the questions that follow:
lives the more they use social media, according One consequence of lockdowns imposed across
to a study the world to cope with Covid was the quickening
II. The link between social media use and mental pace of economic transactions shifting from
well-being is clearly very worse(C); changes physical to digital marketplaces. Eighteen
within our bodies, such as brain development, months since the pandemic hit societies have
and in our social circumstances appear to make irrevocably moved towards more engagements
us susceptible (D) at particular times of our lives. online. However, regulatory architecture hasn’t
A. Both (A-C) and (B-D) kept pace. It has large gaps when it comes to
B. Both (A-D) and (B-C) dealing with digital markets. This isn’t new. The

English Day - 23
regulatory architecture always bagged There’s one key piece of the architecture that’s in
technological advances. But now we have limbo. The Personal Data Protection Bill was
reached a stage where the slow pace of introduced in Parliament in December 2019 and
regulatory retooling may have an adverse impact referred to a joint committee of both Houses.
on the nature of digital markets. After 66 sittings, a report still hasn’t come in. The
Digital markets have a set of unique features that inaction in regulatory space means that early-
make the need for a new regulatory architecture mover advantages accruing to some firms may
essential. They offer hitherto unavailable weaken the competitive nature of the market. Ad
economies of scale where following a high initial hoc regulations covering platforms in standalone
cost; incremental customers can be added at areas such as e-commerce may create new
practically no cost. This makes for the so-called distortions. A sector-specific approach is a bad
network effect: Increase in the number of idea. What India needs is a comprehensive
participants concurrently enhances the value of a umbrella legislation to cover digital platforms. A
service. Also, the ability to accumulate huge delay could lead to irreversible distortions.
amounts of data on users offers economies of 4) Which of the following has been mentioned as
scope inconceivable for a dominant firm in a the problem associated with major digital
traditional industry like steel or cement. To advancements in general?
illustrate, Amazon started as an online bookstore A. They have resulted as a major consequence
less than three decades ago and is now among of the lockdown imposed due to covid restrictions
the world’s top five firms by sales. B. They have unique requirements and hence
If unique features of digital markets allow for a the speed with which the digital marketplace
remarkable pace of growth, they also confer a grows is not proportional to the laws regulating
set of advantages to first movers that can them
potentially choke competition. In this context, the C. They come as advancements but create
danger comes from large digital platforms that problems in the beginning because of the not so
start off as mere intermediaries but later also tech-savvy citizens
compete against businesses using their platform. D. All digital platforms have unique features and
There’s an inherent conflict of interest in hence they take more time than needed for
simultaneously being player and referee. These people to adopt them
platforms or digital gatekeepers as they are E. Advancements are always good and they
referred to, have been the focus of standalone must be welcomed with open arms
laws. It’s an area where India’s regulatory
architecture is non-existent. 5) What has been described as a ‘conflict of
interest’ as per the passage?

English Day - 23
A. Large digital platforms that start off as mere III. Amazon is the world’s top six companies by
intermediaries later also compete against sale
businesses using their platform A. Only (ii)
B. A common law that will regulate all the digital B. Only (i)
platforms will be more of a compulsion than just C. Only (iii)
being regulators D. Both (i) and (iii)
C. The followers of the regulations becoming the E. None is correct
creators or the rules
D. Both (a) and (c) 9) What is the central idea being discussed by
E. None of the above the author?
A. There is a serious need for the government to
6) Which of the following is the best synonym for come up with data protection laws
the word ‘hitherto’ as used in the passage? B. New customers who are willing to come to
A. Subsequently digital platforms should be charged for the
B. Later services
C. Previously C. We need an umbrella law for platforms as
D. Unprecedented digital markets are fast expanding.
E. None of the above D. The gatekeepers should not convert their core
business into that of the payment gateways
7) Which word from the options can correctly E. None of the above
replace the word ‘bagged’ in the passage above?
A. Amazed 10) What do we understand by the network effect
B. Speculated that is being discussed by the author?
C. Sacked I. The first-movers have an advantage and that
D. Lagged makes it difficult for the companies to compete
E. Other than the given options II. The large amount of data helps the companies
to grow because of the huge customer base they
8) Which of the statements given below is correct already have developed.
as per the passage? III. Increase in the number of participants
I. Lockdowns have given rise to digitization concurrently enhances the value of a service.
II. After 65 sittings the report on the Bill has still A. Only (i)
not come into force B. Both (i) and (iii)
C. Only (iii)
D. None of the three

English Day - 23
E. All (i), (ii) and (iii) (I) Indian farming conditions are characteristically
______ by droughts and floods.
Direction (11-13): Two sentences I and (II) The book is overly long, and is ________ by a
sentences II are given with a blank in it. Choose considerable amount of repetition of the
a word from the given options that would fill both theoretical argument.
the blanks in the given sentences. A. nourished
11) B. deployed
(I) Increasing ____________ of groundwater is C.marred
lowering groundwater levels in most regions D. devoid
besides creating soil salinity. E. fragile
(II) The whole world has been mapped out into
oil areas and spheres of influence, and no corner Direction (14-16): In the following questions, a
of the earth can escape their exploration and sentence has been given in which a part of the
___________. sentence has been eliminated. From the given
A. demand options, choose the most appropriate alternative
B. elevation that fits correctly in the given sentence
C.exploitation grammatically and contextually. If none of the
D. appraisal alternatives is correct, choose option E as your
E. depreciation answer.
14) A woman suffered a panic attack after Air
12) India staff allegedly denied her entry at the
(I) The Jal Shakti Ministry focuses on the revival boarding gate of her flight.
and conservation of wetlands in the river basins ____________________ out of the airport instead
and _________ the alarming levels of river of calling for medical assistance.
pollution. A. However, as a responsible airline, we have to
(II) Technology is a contributory factor in adhere to rules laid down by the regulatory
_________ many problems. authorities
A. tackling B. But she began feeling better and declined any
B. alienating medical or wheelchair assistance.
C. measuring C. Further, her nephew alleged that the staff
D. rectify called security and forced the heart and diabetes
E. threatening patient
13)

English Day - 23
D. According to Air India, the woman and her two C. Naidu said Modi is impatient to slow progress
accompanying passengers reported to the and wants everything to be accelerated
boarding gate D. Modi was able to win polls due to his
E. None of these communication skills as he communicated with
the people and they had trust in him
15) Banned from leaving India by the E. None of these
Enforcement Directorate (ED), Bollywood actor
Jacqueline Fernandez has sought permission Directions (17-18): In the questions given below,
from a Delhi court _______________________. five sentences have been given which use words
A. was stopped by the immigration authorities at that have been highlighted. One of these
the Mumbai International Airport from going sentences uses a word that is unrelated to the
outside the country. rest. You are required to choose the same as
B. the Sri Lanka-born actor has also sought your answer.
permission to visit France and Nepal during the 17)
trip. A. And judging by the repeated glances the
C. who is being investigated by the ED in the Rs woman gave the sky, she too was cognizant of
200-crore extortion case involving. the failing light.
D. to travel to Abu Dhabi to attend the B. The new reporter was apprised of
International Indian Film Academy (IIFA) awards. developments in this story.
E. None of these C. Good reporters are keenly observant of
everything around them.
16) Asserting that even detractors of Prime D. I wasn't even conscious of what was
Minister Narendra Modi agree that he is a happening.
“phenomenon”, Vice President M Venkaiah E. Authors are famously ignorant about the
Naidu on Wednesday said that while Mahatma realities of publishing.
Gandhi took the freedom struggle out of the
hands of the elite to turn it into a mass 18)
movement, __________________. A. Other companies are in an even worse
A. Modi is fully conversant with the struggles of predicament than ourselves.
the poor and India had them in good numbers B. Opposition leaders this week implored the
when he was young president to break the deadlock.
B. Modi had converted developmental initiatives C. The police have announced a breakthrough
into mass movements in the murder case.

English Day - 23
D. Kate found herself in a dilemma when her two A. Only (i)

best friends were fighting. B. Only (ii)
E. The imbroglio seemed to be on the floor, on C. Both (a) and (b)
the other side of the table, near the wall. D. Only (iii)
E. Both (ii) and (iii)
Directions (19-20): In the questions given below,
two sentences have been given. These might be 20)
separate sentences or parts of the same  young students at the prestigious Institute of
sentence. Three starters below the same have International Relations here on Saturday
also been given. You are required to use those  President Kovind said India’s approach is
starters so that the given two sentences can be based on cooperation and collaboration and is
connected into one and choose the option with elaborated through the vision of SAGAR
the same as your answer. I. Interacting with…
19) II. Addressing…
 highest standards and commitment to ethical III. Speaking at…
conduct of anti-militancy operations, A. Only (i)
 the court martial proceedings were then B. Both (iii) and (ii)
initiated against Captain Bhoopendra Singh C. Only (ii)
I. According to… D. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
II. Maintaining its… E. Both (i) and (ii)
III. However…

1) Answer: D

English Day - 23
(B-D) – ‘Poise’ means – marked by balance or 3) Answer: A

equilibrium, according to the context of sentence (A-D) – ‘The summit is being held’, the context
(I), Dalai Lama, faced conflicts with great explains where the meeting held, ‘largely’ is
balance. And in sentence (II), the right context is incorrect, instead of ‘largely’, ‘virtually’ will be
‘Buddha is flourishing under his guidance’ used
The right sentence is - (I) - The Dalai Lama, now (B-D) – ‘Military coup’ is the right context, which
87, is recognized globally as a man of peace means – the sudden, violent overthrow of an
who has faced religious and political-cultural existing government by a small group
conflict with great poise, patience, and non- The right sentence is - (I) - The summit is being
violence. held virtually because some member states,
(II) - The Dalai Lama, who describes himself with including India, were reluctant to share a
pride as a “son of India”, has ensured the platform with Myanmar’s junta, which has shown
intellectual and emotional lineage of Lord no signs of moving the country towards
Buddha is flourishing under his guidance. democracy.
(II) - The summit on March 30 will be a virtual
2) Answer: B affair, largely because of concerns among
(A-D) – According to the context of sentence (I), member states about the situation in Myanmar
adolescents and young adults are susceptible to following last year’s military coup.
the use of social media.
Meaning of ‘susceptible’ – likely to be influenced 4) Answer: B
(B-C) – ‘Very worse’ is grammatically incorrect, it Read the lines give below to get a closer
should be ‘very complex’ understanding of the correct Answer::
The right sentence is - (I) - Adolescents and However, regulatory architecture hasn’t kept
young adults are particularly susceptible to pace. It has large gaps when it comes to dealing
feeling worse about their lives the more they use with digital markets. This isn’t new. The
social media, according to a study regulatory architecture always lagged
(II) - The link between social media use and technological advances.
mental well-being is clearly very complex; Option (b) explains the lines highlighted above to
changes within our bodies, such as brain explain the same as the correct Answer: option.
development and puberty, and in our social
circumstances appear to make us vulnerable at 5) Answer: A
particular times of our lives Large digital platforms that start off as mere
intermediaries but later also compete against

English Day - 23
businesses using their platform. There’s an (iii) Amazon is world’s top five should be correct
inherent conflict of interest in simultaneously So, option (b) is the correct choice.
being player and referee.
Option (a) encapsulates the meaning of the 9) Answer: C
highlighted line as the reason for the required Points (a) and (d) are given in the passage but
question. they cannot be called as the complete central
Hence, option (a) should be correct. idea in themselves. They are simply aspects that
are covered under the central idea.
6) Answer: C The actual issue around which almost all the
The line where the word has been used talks paragraphs are revolving is that one common
about the ‘economies of scale’ in the digital law that would regulate all the digital platforms in
spectrum that were previously unavailable or the country before it is too late.
missing until the point in time under discussion. Option (b) is not directly being discussed so can
Of the given options (a) and (b) will be the be ruled out.
antonyms of the meaning explained. Hence, option (c) is the correct Answer:
So, option (c) fits the best…
10) Answer: E
7) Answer: D The link of the context goes like this:
Bagged  succeed in securing something The digital businesses have an advantage
(which is not the case here) because;
Amazed and sacked are both out of context so  The number of users/customers
can be eliminated. increases
The line where the word is used means that the  The companies gain a large database
regulatory advancements are not able to match  The existing companies have a huge
their pace with the technological advancements. database already which makes it difficult
So, ‘lagged: slowed down, will be the correct for the new companies to compete as the
usage and hence, option (d) will be correct. existing ones already have a good
number of customers.
8) Answer: B Looking at all the points above, we can conclude
Of the three statements just the first statement that, all the given points are correct.
goes well as it is given at various places in the So, option (e) is the correct Answer:.
passage.
(ii) After 66 sittings should be correct 11) Answer: C

English Day - 23
● Exploitation means “the action of making ● Rectify means “put right”. Rectify cannot
use of and benefiting from resources.” be the answer, as a verb of continuous
● In sentence I, exploitation is used to refer tense is required.
to the usage of groundwater. ● Threatening means “having a hostile or
● In sentence II, exploitation is used to refer deliberately frightening quality or manner”.
to the usage of oil areas. ● Alienating, measuring and threatening are
● Demand means “require; need” contextually incorrect.
● Elevation means “the action or fact of
raising or being raised to a higher or more 13) Answer: C
important level, state, or position.” ● Marred means “to ruin or diminish the
● Appraisal means “an act of assessing perfection or wholeness of; spoil”
something or someone.” ● Sentence I says Indian farming conditions
● Depreciation means “the reduction or are spoiled.
underestimation of the worth or ● Sentence II says that the theoretical
importance of something.” argument spoiled the book.
● Except option C other options are ● Nourished means “provide with the food
contextually incorrect. or other substances necessary for growth,
health, and good condition.”
12) Answer: A ● Deployed means “move (troops or
● Tackling means “make determined efforts equipment) into position for military
to deal with (a problem or difficult task)”. action.”
● In sentence I, ‘tackling’ is used to refer to ● Devoid means “entirely lacking or free
the efforts to deal with the alarming levels from.”
of river pollution. ● Fragile means “(of an object) easily
● Sentence II says, technology is used to broken or damaged.”
deal with many problems.
● Alienating means “cause (someone) to 14) Answer: C
feel isolated or estranged”. ● The above given paragraph is about a
● Measuring means “estimate or assess the woman who had a panic attack at Delhi
extent, quality, value, or effect of airport after she was allegedly denied
(something).” entry at the boarding gate of her flight by
Air India staff. She was asked to leave the
airport instead of being offered medical

English Day - 23
assistance, as per the nephew's account. informed about things. ‘Observant’ and
Only option C carries the theme of the ‘Conscious’ are synonyms of ‘cognizant’ and
paragraph aptly, hence option C is the ‘apprised’. The word ‘ignorant’ however is the
correct answer. opposite of the given words as it means being
unaware of things.
15) Answer: D Therefore, the best answer is option (e).
● The above given paragraph is about a
bollywood actor Jacqueline Fernandez 18) Answer: C
who sought permission from a Delhi court Predicament is a difficult, unpleasant, or
to travel to Abu Dhabi to attend the embarrassing situation.
International Indian Film Academy A deadlock means to come to a point where no
awards. So only option D carries the progress can be made because of fundamental
theme of the paragraph aptly, hence disagreement.
option D is the correct answer. A dilemma is a difficult situation or problem.
An imbroglio an extremely confused,
16) Answer: B complicated, or embarrassing situation.
● The above given paragraph is about our A breakthrough is a sudden discovery that
Vice President M Venkaiah Naidu solves a problem. This word is different from the
releasing the book “Modi@20 Dreams others as all the other words are synonyms of
Meet Delivery” on Wednesday in New each other.
Delhi. Where he compares two great
leaders. He said that Modi’s dreams and 19) Answer: B
Mission India have been shaped by his The sentence is of the tone that the trend of
extensive travels and insightful, court martial continues with this Bhoopendra
experiential journey. So option B carries Singh issue. The connected sentence looks like;
the theme of the paragraph aptly, Maintaining its highest standards and
remaining options have no direct commitment to ethical conduct of anti-militancy
connection with the given paragraph operations, the court martial proceedings were
hence option B is the correct answer. then initiated against Captain Bhoopendra
Singh.
17) Answer: E Therefore, the best is to go with option (b).
Being aware or knowing things is what is meant
by being ‘cognizant’. ‘Apprised’ means being 20) Answer: E

English Day - 23
The sentences can best be connected with the Addressing young students at the prestigious
help of the first two starters only and not the third Institute of International Relations here on
as the third is grammatically incorrect. Saturday, President Kovind said India’s
The sentences after joining will look like: approach is based on cooperation and
Interacting with young students at the prestigious collaboration and is elaborated through the
Institute of International Relations here on vision of SAGAR.
Saturday, President Kovind said India’s Therefore, the best answer that should be
approach is based on cooperation and marked is option (e).
collaboration and is elaborated through the
vision of SAGAR.

Reasoning Aptitude
Directions (1-5): Study the following information a) 27
carefully and answer the below questions b) 25
Eleven chocolate boxes- Lindor, Cadbury, c) 24
Nestle, Galaxy, Lindt, Snickers, Toblerone, Twix, d) 26
Mars, Kinder and Guylian are kept in twelve e) 22
different shelves but not necessarily in the same
order. The lowermost shelf is numbered as 1, 2) Which of the following statement is true
shelf just above it is numbered as 2 and so on till according to the Vacant shelf?
the topmost shelf isnumbered as 12. One shelf is I) No boxes kept between Vacant and Twix box
Vacant. II) Vacant shelf is three shelves below the box
Twix is kept two shelves above the shelf which is which is kept two boxes above Mars
immediately above Cadbury which is kept at odd III) The vacant shelf is kept three shelves above
number shelf. The number of shelves kept above Kinder box
Twix is one more than the number of shelves IV) Even number shelf is vacant
kept below Snickers which is kept at an even a) Only (III) and (IV)
number shelf. The Galaxy box is kept two b) Only (I) and (II)
shelves above the shelf which is three shelves c) Only (II) and (III)
below Lindor. The number of boxes kept d) Only (II)
between Lindor and Twix is one more than the e) All (I), (II) and (III)
number of boxes kept between Cadbury and
Snickers. The Galaxy box is neither kept 3) As many boxes kept between Lindor and
adjacent to Twix box nor the Snickers box. Snickers is one more than the number of boxes
Nestle box is kept three shelves below the shelf kept between Toblerone and _____?
which is immediately above Vacant shelf. The a) Cadbury
number of boxes kept below Toblerone is one b) The box which is kept on the fourth shelf
less than the number of boxes kept above c) The box which is kept on the seventh shelf
Guylian. Guylian box does not kept adjacent to d) The box which is kept immediately below
Snickers. Guylian box is kept above Toblerone Galaxy box
box. The sum of the shelf number of Nestle and e) The box which is kept two boxes below
Kinder is equal to the shelf number of Guylian. Snickers box
Mars does not kept at odd number shelf.
1) What is the sum of the shelf number of the 4) Which of the following pair of chocolate boxes
Mars, Kinder, and Galaxy boxes? are kept on an adjacent shelf of Vacant shelf?

a) Lindt, Guylian three months before Q’s only male child. P does
b) Kinder, Mars not have more than three kids. O is neither
c) Lindt, Snickers spouse of T nor parent of N. P is not spouse of Q
d) Mars, Twix both O. At least one person renewals license
e) Nestle, Toblerone after the third generation persons. S is the only
daughter of the one who is renewal immediately
5) How many boxes are kept between the box before S who is not child of Q. The number of
which is kept immediately above Kinder and the persons renewing before Q’s father-in-law is one
box which is kept on the second shelf? less than the number of persons renewing after
a) More than four R’s daughter. The number of months between
b) Three R’s spouse and M’s nephew is three less than
c) Four the number of months between N’s father and
d) One S’s Cousin
e) Two 6) How many months between the one who
renewals immediately before R’s spouse and the
Directions (6-10): Study the following information one who is T’s sister?
carefully and answer the given questions. a) Two
Nine persons- L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T b) One
belong to the same family of three generations c) Three
and they renewal their license in different d) Four
months- January, March, April, May, June, e) Five
August, September, November and December of
the same year but not necessarily in the same 7) As many person renewals before P’s spouse
order. is the same as the number of person renewals
T is the daughter of O’s father-in-law and after ____?
renewals in the month which has 31 days. R a) M
renewals three persons after the one who b) The one who renewals in March
renewals two months before T. P is the mother- c) The one who renewals in November
in-law of the one who is the father of N. M is not d) T’s spouse
a married person. The number of persons e) The one who renewals immediately before R
renewals before R is one more than the number
of person renewals after the only brother of T. T 8) How S is related to the one who renewals in
is the Sister-in-law of R’s spouse. M is the only April and which month does M’s niece renew the
brother of N’s mother and T’s sister. L renewals license?

a) Daughter, September 11) What is the conclusion of the statement

b) Niece, January N<L=S≤O; E>M≥S; E<V=K≤J; R>L?
c) Cousin, November
d) Daughter, June
e) Niece, September
a) Both I and VI follow

9) Which of the following statement is true?
b) Both II and VI follow
a) More than three-persons renewal license
c) Both III and IV follow
before N
d) Both III and V follow
b) No one renewal between O’s spouse and L’s
e) Both I and IV follow
spouse
c) P renewals in December
12) What is the conclusion of statement
d) T is the daughter of the one who renewed in
J>E≥B≥M; N>X<T; F>N≤W≤M; X>Y=A?
March
e) All the statement is true
10) How many female members renewed their

licenses in a month which has an even number a) Both I and VI follow
of days? b) Both II and VI follow
a) Two c) Both III and IV follow
b) One d) Both III and V follow
c) None e) Both I and IV follow
d) Three
e) More than three 13) What is the conclusion of statement
M>O≥B≥Z; G<E≤S ; B>N≤D≤J; S<F=O?
Directions (11-15): Each of the questions below

consists of two columns and three statements
are given you have to decide which of the
following combination are to be the conclusion of a) Both I and VI follow
given statements. The statements given below in b) Both II and VI follow
column 1 can be used along with the statement c) Both III and IV follow
given below in column 2. No statement is d) Both III and V follow
combined together in the same column. e) Both I and IV follow

14) What is the conclusion of statement c) Both I and II

N=O≤B<Z; A<R≤M ; B<Q≤P≤W; A>L≥O? d) Both II and III
e) None
17) If all the letters in the given words are

arranged in alphabetical order from the left end,
a) Both I and VI follow then which of the following first letter of I from the
b) Both II and VI follow left end, the second letter of II from the left end,
c) Both III and IV follow and the third letter of III from the left end are
d) Both III and V follow remaining unchanged in its original position?
e) Both I and IV follow I. K I Y L G F
II. D N H T A Z
15) What is the conclusion of statement III. L C I R T D
X<Y≥S>W; I<A≤S; R<F<O≤Z; Y≤K≥Z? a) Only I
b) Both II and III
c) Only III
d) All I, II, and III
e) None
a) Both I and VI follow
b) Both II and VI follow
18) If the middle letter of all the words is taken
c) Both III and IV follow
and forms a meaningful word, then which of the
d) Both III and V follow
following does not form a meaningful word?
e) Both I and IV follow
a) Cache, Carry, Modem, Alarm
b) Beach, Micro, Refer, Alter
16) If in the given numbers all the digits are
c) Delay, Rapid, Rifle, Defer
arranged in ascending order with in the number
d) Apart, Alpha, Align, Candy
from the left end, then which of the following
e) Amend, Doubt, Early, False
number has more than two digits are unchanged
in its position?
19)If all the vowel letters in the word “DEPTH”
I. 28695423
are changed to the next letter in the alphabetical
II. 69826481
series and all the consonants are changed to the
III. 42862983
previous letter in the alphabet series. In the next
a) Only III
step, all the letters are changed to the next letter
b) Only II
in the alphabet series until each letter is not the

same as the original letters in the word. How number, then which of the following group of
many steps to complete the process? number has more than one even number?
a) Four I. 2624, 3647, 1654
b) Six II. 5263, 6843, 2576
c) Three III. 7365, 3153, 5438
d) Five a) Only I
e) Two b) Both I and II
c) Only II
20) If ‘1’ is added to the digit at the even position d) All I, II, and III
in the given group of number from the left end of e) None
each number, then added all the digits within the

Directions (1-5):
1) Answer: C
2) Answer: B
3) Answer: E
4) Answer: D
5) Answer: C
Final Arrangement

 The Galaxy box is kept two shelves above the

shelf which is three shelves below Lindor.
 The number of boxes kept between Lindor and
Twix is one more than the number of boxes kept
between Cadbury and Snickers.
 The Galaxy box is neither kept adjacent to
Twix box nor the Snickers box.
From the above condition, there are four
possibilities.
We have,
 Twix is kept two shelves above the shelf which
is immediately above Cadbury which is kept at
odd number shelf.
 The number of shelves kept above Twix is one
more than the number of shelves kept below
Snickers which is kept at an even number shelf.
From the above condition, there are three Again we have,
possibilities.  Nestle box is kept three shelves below the
shelf which is immediately above Vacant shelf.
 The number of boxes kept below Toblerone is
one less than the number of boxes kept above
Guylian.
 Guylian box does not kept adjacent to
Snickers.
 Guylian box is kept above Toblerone box.
From the above condition, case 3, Case-4, and
Case-1a get eliminated.
Again we have,

9) Answer: D
10) Answer: A
Final Arrangement
Again we have,
 The sum of the shelf number of Nestle and
Kinder is equal to the shelf number of Guylian.
 Mars does not kept at odd number shelf.
From the above condition, case-1b gets
eliminated. Case-1 shows the final arrangement.
We have,
 T is the daughter of O’s father-in-law and
renewals in the month which has 31 days.
 R renewals three persons after the one who
renewals two months before T.
 P is the mother-in-law of the one who is the
father of N.
 The number of persons renewals before R is
one more than the number of persons renewals
after the only brother of T.
From the above condition, there are three
possibilities.
Directions (6-10):
6) Answer: B
7) Answer: D
8) Answer: C

Again we have,
Again we have,  S is the only daughter of the one who
 T is the Sister-in-law of R’s spouse. renewals immediately before S who is not
 M is not a married person. child of Q.
 M is the only brother of N’s mother and  The number of persons renewing before
T’s sister. Q’s father-in-law is one less than the
 L renewals three months before Q’s only number of persons renewing after R’s
male child. daughter.
 P does not have more than three kids. Since, only three generations are in the
 O is neither spouse of T nor parent of N. family, and S is the daughter of O, thus L
 At least one person renewal after the third must be married to P.
generation persons.  The number of months between R’s
 P is not spouse of Q both O. spouse and M’s nephew is three less than
From the above condition, there are five the number of months between N’s father
possibilities. and S’s Cousin.
From the above condition, Case-1, Case-3,
Case-1a and Case-3a get eliminated. Case-2
shows the final arrangement.

F≥B(F=O≥B)
F≥Z(F=O≥B≥Z)
O>N(O≥B>N)
14) Answer: C
Both III and IV follow
O<P (O≤B<Q≤P)
R>N (R>A>L≥O=N)
L≥N(L≥O=N)
O<A (A>L≥ O)
15) Answer: D
Both III and V follow
Y≥A(Y≥S≥A)
S≤K(K≥Y≥S)
K>R(K≥Z≥O>F>R)
11) Answer: A I<Y(Y≥S≥A>I)
Both I and VI follow
N<E (N<L=S≤M<E) 16) Answer: E
L≤M (L=S≤M) I. 2869542322345689
R>N (N<L<R) II. 6982648112466889
S<J (S≤M<E<V=K≤J) III. 4286298322346889
12) Answer: B 17) Answer: C

Both II and VI follow I. K I Y L G FF G I K L Y
E≥N(N≤W≤M≤B≤E) II. D N H T A ZA D H N T Z
F>Y(F>N> X>Y) III. L C I R T D C D I L R T
W>X(X<N≤W)
T>A(T>X>Y=A) 18) Answer: C
a) Cache, Carry, Modem, AlarmCRDACard
13) Answer: C b) Beach, Micro, Refer, AlterACFTFact
Both III and IV follow c) Delay, Rapid, Rifle, DeferLPFF
M>S(M>O=F>S) d) Apart, Alpha, Align, CandyAPINPain

e) Amend, Doubt, Early, FalseEURLRule 20) Answer: D

I. 2624, 3647, 1654 2725, 3748, 175516,
19) Answer: A 22, 18
DEPTH II. 5263, 6843, 25765364, 6944, 267718, 23,
1. CFOSG 22
2. DGPTH III. 7365, 3153, 54387466, 3254, 5539 23,
3. EHQUI 14, 22
4. FIRVJ

Direction (1-4): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:
Three persons A, B and C have to type a book in five days Mon, Tue, Wed, Thu and Fri of a certain
week. Each of them typed a different number of pages on each of the given days.
Table given below shows the data related to number of pages typed by A, B and C in the given days.
Note:
1: Some data in the table is missing, which needs to be calculated in the questions.
2: The missing data can be different for each question.
1) If number of pages typed by B on Thu is one- Q: Total number of pages typed by C on Tue and
third of that typed by C on Thu and number of Wed together.
pages typed by B on Mon is 140% more than R: Ratio of the number of pages typed by A on
that typed by B on Thu, then find the number of Wed to that typed by C on Wed.
pages typed by C on Mon. a) Only P and Q
a) 16 b) Only Q and R
b) 21 c) None can be determined
c)18 d) Only P and R
d) 15 e) All P, Q and R
e) 12
3) If number of pages typed by B till Thu is 60%
2) If number of pages typed by B till Tue is 18, of that typed by A till Thu and ratio of number of
then find that which of the following can be pages typed by B on Fri to that typed by C on Fri
determined? is 2: 1, then find the average of number of pages
P: Difference between the number of pages typed by A and C till Fri?
typed by A on Wed and Thu. a) 84

b) 80 of classes A and B are 52 kg and 48 kg, then find

c)82 the average weight of all the boys of classes A
d) 86 and B?
e) 88 a) 51.5 kg
b) 55.5 kg
4) If number of pages typed by A on Mon is ___ c)53.5 kg
and number of pages typed by A till Tue is 30, d) 58.5 kg
then number of pages typed by C on Tue is 1 e) 52.5 kg
more than that typed by C on Thu.
Find the value, which can be filled in the blank? 6) Find that which of following statements is /are
a) 26 true?
b) 18 P: Average weight of all the students of classes
c) 30 B and C is more than 50 kg.
d) 20 Q: Difference between number of students in
e) 24 classes C and D is 15.
R: Ratio of average weight of class B to that of
Direction (5-8): Study the following data carefully class C is 10: 11.
and answer the questions: a) Only P and R
Data given below is related to the number of b) Only Q
students and their average weight of 4 different c)None is true
classes A, B, C and D in a school. d) All are true
Ratio of number of students in class A to those in e) Only Q
class D is 3: 5 and ratio of number of students in
class B to those in class C is 4: 3. Total weight of 7) If ratio of boys to girls in class D is 8: 7 and
class A is 2430 kg, which is 60.75% of total average weight of girls in class D is 50 kg, then
weight of class B. Ratio of total weight of class C find the difference between average weight of
to total weight of class D is 11: 12 and difference boys and that of girls in class D?
between total weight of classed C and D is 300 a) 3.75 kg
kg. Ratio of average weight of class A to average b) 2.75 kg
weight of class B is 27: 25 and average weight of c) 6.75 kg
class C is 7 kg more than the average weight of d) 5.75 kg
class D. e) 4.75 kg
5) If number of girls in classes A and B are 25
and 40 respectively and average weight of girls

8) In class C, when a student of weight 45 kg left a) 6

the class and another student of weight ‘M’ kg b) 8
joined the class, average weight of the class c)2
increased by 0.5 kg. Find the value of [20% of M d) 5
+ 16(2/3)% of (M – 15)]1/2? e) 4
Direction (9-12): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:
There are 5 mixtures of milk and water A, B, C, D and E and each mixture contains different quantities of
milk and water.
Table given below shows the following data.
Note:
1: Some data in the table is missing, which needs to be calculated in the questions.
2: Ratio of quantity of water in mixture B to that in mixture D is 5: 4.
9) If percentage of milk in mixture B is M% and what per cent more/less than the cost of mixture
percentage of milk in mixture D is N%, then find A?
the ratio of M to N? a) 16.67%
a) 9: 8 b) 15%
b) 21: 20 c)20%
c)18: 17 d) 12.5%
d) 16: 15 e) 25%
e) 12: 11
11) When mixtures B and C are mixed together,
10) If total quantity of mixture B is 90% of that of the cost of new mixture becomes ₹ 43.2 per L.
mixture E, then find that the cost of mixture E is Find the total quantity of mixture C.
a) 36 L

b) 30 L a) ₹ 37.9 per L
c) Data inadequate b) ₹ 41.9 per L
d) 24 L c)₹ 33.9 per L
e) 42 L d) ₹ 45.9 per L
e) ₹ 47.9 per L
12) When mixtures A, B and D are mixed
together, then what will be the cost of the new
mixture?
Directions (13–16): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Graph given below shows the number of students who cleared the exam, number of students who failed
the exam, and number of students who are in the waitlist of the exam in five different years. The students
which are in the waitlist will either clear the exam or will fail in the exam later on.
Note:
1. Total number of students = Number of students who cleared (fresh) the exam + Number of students
who failed (fresh) the exam + Number of students who are in the waitlist in the exam
2. Number of students who are in waitlist in the exam = Number of students who cleared (from waitlist)
the exam + Number of students who failed (from waitlist) in the exam.
3. Total number of students who cleared the exam = Number of students who cleared (fresh) the exam +
Number of students who cleared (from waitlist) the exam
4. Total number of students who failed the exam = Number of students who failed (fresh) the exam +
Number of students who failed (from waitlist) the exam
5. All the values (except the percent) in the below graph are in ’00.

Some pointers regarding above graph:

 Ceiling of the box shows the number of students who cleared (fresh) the exam.
 Floor of the box shows the number of students who are in the waitlist of the exam.
 Ceiling of the line shows the percent number of students who cleared the exam (from waitlist) out
of total students who cleared (fresh) the exam.
 Floor of the line shows the number of students who failed (fresh) the exam.
13) What is the ratio of total number of students B: Square of P is a perfect cube of an integer.
who cleared from (both fresh and waitlist) the C: Total factors of P are 6.
exam in 2014 to the number of students who a) Only B
cleared (fresh) the exam in 2017? b) All A, B, and C
a) 19: 15 c) Only A and B
b) 29: 25 d) Only C
c) 39: 35 e) Only B and C
d) 21: 17
e) 16: 11 15) If out total students appeared for the exam in
2015 and 2017, A% cleared (from fresh) the
14) If total number of students who failed (from exam and B% cleared (from waitlist) the exam
both fresh and waitlist) in the exam in 2015 is respectively, find the value of A + B.
P% of total students who appeared for the exam a)
in that year, find which of the following b)
statement(s) regarding ‘P’ is/are not TRUE? c)
A: P is a multiple of both 4 and 5. d)

e) cleared (from both fresh and waitlist) the exam in

that year what percent are boys?
16) If ratio of boys to girls who cleared (from a)
fresh) the exam in 2016 is 8: 7 and ratio of boys b) 36%
to girls who cleared (from waitlist) the exam in c)
that year is 2: 7, then out of total students who d) 30%
e) 25%
Directions (17–20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are five phones which have different number of apps in that. Apps can be either system or non-
system apps. Out of non-system apps, apps can be either gaming or payment or social media. Pie chart
given below shows the degree distribution of number of system apps in all the five phones.
Table given below shows the ratio of number of gaming to social media to the payment apps in all the five
phones. It also shows the total number of apps in all the five phones.

Note:
1. Total apps = System Apps + Non-system Apps
2. Non-system apps = Gaming apps + Social media apps + Payment apps
3. Some data in the above table is missing that need to be calculated.
4. Number of gaming apps in phone A and number of payment apps in phone D is same which is half of
the number of payment apps in phone B.
17)What percent of total apps in phones B, D, 19) Sum of total gaming apps and payment apps
and E together are system apps? together in phone B is what percent of total non-
a) 30% system apps in that phone?
b) 20% a)
c) 40% b)
d) 25% c)
e) 35% d)
e) None of these
18) If average of total apps in all the five phones
is 54, then how many integer values the variable
20) If total number of social media apps in all the
‘y’ can take and which of the following can never
five phones together is 65, then find the average
be the value of ‘y’?
number of payment apps in all the five phones
a) 6 and 14
together.
b) 7 and 14
a) 15
c) 6 and 77
b) 16
d) 7 and 77
c) 17
e) 6 and 49
d) 18
e) 19


1) Answer: A Number of pages typed by A on Wed = 50 – 30 =
Number of pages typed by C till Wed = 2 × 48 – 20
50 = 46 Number of pages typed by A on Thu = 75 – 50 =
Number of pages typed by C till Thu = 2 × 68 – 25
75 = 61 Required difference = 25 – 20 = 5
Number of pages typed by C on Thu = 61 – 46 = From Q:
15 Since, we can’t determine the number of pages
Number of pages typed by B on Thu = 15/3 = 5 typed by C on Tue.
Number of pages typed by B on Mon = 240% of So, we can’t determine the total number of
5 = 12 pages typed by C on Tue and Wed together.
Number of pages typed by A on Mon = 12 × From R:
(300/200) = 18 Number of pages typed by A on Wed = 50 – 30 =
Number of pages typed by C on Mon = 2 × 17 – 20
18 = 16 Number of pages typed by C till Wed = 2 × 48 –
50 = 46
2) Answer: D Number of pages typed by C till Tue = 26
Number of pages typed by B till Tue = 18 Number of pages typed by C on Wed = 46 – 26
Number of pages typed by A till Tue = 18 × = 20
(100/60) = 30 Required ratio = 20: 20 = 1: 1
Number of pages typed by C till Tue = 2 × 28 – Hence, only P and R can be determined.
30 = 26
From P: 3) Answer: B

Number of pages typed by A till Thu = 75 Let the number of students in classes A and D
Number of pages typed by B till Thu = 60% of 75 are 3x and 5x respectively.
= 45 Also let the number of students in classes B and
Number of pages typed by B till Fri = 70% of 90 C are 4y and 3y respectively.
= 63 Total weight of class A = 2430 kg
Number of pages typed by B on Fri = 63 – 45 = Total weight of class B = 2430 × (100/60.75) =
18 4000 kg
Number of pages typed by C on Fri = 18 × (1/2) Total weight of class C = 300 × [11/(12 – 11)] =
=9 3300 kg
Number of pages typed by A till Fri = 90 Total weight of class D = 3300 + 300 = 3600 kg
Number of pages typed by C till Thu = 2 × 68 – Average weight of class A = 2430/3x = (810/x)
75 = 61 kg
Number of pages typed by C till Fri = 61 + 9 = 70 Average weight of class B = 4000/4y = (1000/y)
Required average = (90 + 70)/2 = 80 kg
Average weight of class C = 3300/3y = (1100/y)
4) Answer: E kg
Number of pages typed by C till Wed = 2 × 48 – Average weight of class D = 3600/5x = (720/x)
50 = 46 kg
Number of pages typed by C till Thu = 2 × 68 – Since, ratio of average weight of class A to the
75 = 61 average weight of class B is 27: 25
Number of pages typed by C on Thu = 61 – 46 = So,
15 [(810/x)/(1000/y)] = 27/25
Number of pages typed by C on Tue = 15 + 1 = (810 × y)/(1000 × x) = 27/25
16 3y = 4x -------------(1)
Number of pages typed by A till Tue = 30 Since, average weight of class C is 7 kg more
Number of pages typed by C till Tue = 2 × 28 – than the average weight of class D.
30 = 26 (1100/y) – (720/x) = 7
Number of pages typed by C on Mon = 26 – 16 = 1100x – 720y = 7xy -------------(2)
10 From equation (1) and (2):
Number of pages typed by A on Mon = 2 × 17 – 1100x – 960x = 7x × (4x/3)
10 = 24 140x = 7x × (4x/3)
x = 15
Direction (5-8): From equation (1):

y = 20 Hence, all are true.
7) Answer: A
Total number of students in class D = 75
Number of boys in class D = 75 × [8/(8 + 7)] = 40
kg
Number of girls in class D = 75 – 40 = 35 kg
5) Answer: C
Total weight of girls = 35 × 50 = 1750 kg
Number of girls in class A = 25
Average weight of boys = (3600 – 1750)/40 =
Number of boys in class A = 45 – 25 = 20
46.25 kg
And total weight of boys in class A = 2430 – (25
Required difference = 50 – 46.25 = 3.75 kg
× 52) = 1130 kg
Number of girls in class B = 40
8) Answer: D
Number of boys in class B = 80 – 40 = 40
Total number of students in class C = 60
And total weight of boys in class B = 4000 – (40
Initial total weight of class C = 3300 kg
× 48) = 2080 kg
Initial average weight of class C = 55 kg
So, the average weight of all the boys of classes
So,
A and B:
(3300 – 45 + M)/60 = 55.5
(1130 + 2080)/(20 + 40) = 53.5 kg
M = 75
Now, the value of [20% of M + 16(2/3)% of (M –
6) Answer: D
15)]1/2
From P:
[20% of 75 + 16(2/3)% of 60]1/2 = [15 + 10]1/2 = 5
Average weight of all the students of classes B
and C:
Direction (9-12):
(4000 + 3300)/(80 + 60) = 52 kg (approx.)
Let the quantities of water in mixtures B and D
So, A is true.
are ‘5x’ L and ‘4x’ L respectively.
From Q:
So, quantity of milk in mixture B = (45 – 5x) L
Difference between number of students in
And quantity of milk in mixture D = (32 – 4x) L
classes C and D = 75 – 60 = 15
Let the cost of pure milk = ₹ y per L
So, B is true.
Since, the cost of mixture B = ₹ 40 per L
From R:
So,
Ratio of average weight of class B to that of
[(45 – 5x) × y]/45 = 40
class C = 50: 55 = 10: 11
y = 360/(9 – x) ------------(1)
So, C is true.

Since, the cost of mixture D = ₹ 37.5 per L Quantity of milk in mixture A = 60% of 40 = 24 L
So, So, the cost of mixture A = (24 × 60)/40 = ₹ 36
[(32 – 4x) × y]/32 = 37.5 per L
y = 300/(8 – x) ------------(2) Required percentage = [(42 – 36)/36] × 100 =
From equations (1) and (2): 16.67%
360/(9 – x) = 300/(8 – x)
48 – 6x = 45 – 5x 11) Answer: B
x=3 Let the total quantity of mixture C = ‘5c’ L
From equation (1): So, the quantity of milk in mixture C = 80% of
y = 360/(9 – 3) ‘5c’ = ‘4c’ L
y = 60 Total quantity of mixture B = 45 L
Cost of pure milk = ₹ 60 per Lit Quantity of milk in mixture B = 30 L
Quantity of water in mixture B = 5 × 3 = 15 L So,
Quantity of milk in mixture B = 45 – 15 = 30 L [(30 + 4c) × 60]/(45 + 5c) = 43.2
Quantity of water in mixture D = 4 × 3 = 12 L 1800 + 240c = 1944 + 216c
Quantity of milk in mixture D = 32 – 12 = 20 L c=6
9) Answer: D So, the total quantity of mixture C = 30 L
Percentage of milk in mixture B = M = (30/45) ×
100 = 66(2/3)% 12) Answer: A
Percentage of milk in mixture D = N = (20/32) × Total quantity of mixture A = 40 L
100 = 62.5% Quantity of milk in mixture A = 60% of 40 = 24 L
Required ratio = M: N = (200/3): (625/10) = Total quantity of mixture B = 45 L
(200/3): (125/2) = 16: 15 Quantity of milk in mixture B = 30 L
Total quantity of mixture D = 32 L
10) Answer: A Quantity of milk in mixture D = 20 L
Total quantity of mixture B = 45 L When mixtures A, B and D are missed together,
Total quantity of mixture E = 45 × (100/90) = 50 then the cost of the new mixture:
L [(24 + 30 + 20) × 60]/(40 + 45 + 32) = ₹ 37.9 per
Quantity of milk in mixture E = 70% of 50 = 35 L L
Since, the cost of pure milk = ₹ 60 per L
So, the cost of mixture E = (35 × 60)/50 = ₹ 42 Directions (13–16):
per L Number of students who cleared (fresh) the
Total quantity of mixture A = 40 L exam in 2014 = 4000

Number of students who failed (fresh) the exam Number of students who are in the waitlist in the
in 2014 = 1000 exam in 2017 = 4500
Number of students who are in the waitlist in the Number of students who cleared (from waitlist)
exam in 2014 = 2000 the exam in 2017 = 70% of 5000 = 3500
Number of students who cleared (from waitlist) Number of students who failed (from waitlist) the
the exam in 2014 = 45% of 4000 = 1800 exam in 2017 = 4500 – 3500 = 1000
Number of students who failed (from waitlist) the Number of students who cleared (fresh) the
exam in 2014 = 2000 – 1800 = 200 exam in 2018 = 3000
Number of students who cleared (fresh) the Number of students who failed (fresh) the exam
exam in 2015 = 4500 in 2018 = 1000
Number of students who failed (fresh) the exam Number of students who are in the waitlist in the
in 2015 = 1500 exam in 2018 = 2000
Number of students who are in the waitlist in the Number of students who cleared (from waitlist)
exam in 2015 = 3000 the exam in 2018 = 50% of 3000 = 1500
Number of students who cleared (from waitlist) Number of students who failed (from waitlist) the
the exam in 2015 = 60% of 4500 = 2700 exam in 2018 = 2000 – 1500 = 500
Number of students who failed (from waitlist) the
exam in 2015 = 3000 – 2700 = 300
Number of students who cleared (fresh) the
exam in 2016 = 3000
Number of students who failed (fresh) the exam
in 2016 = 1500
Number of students who are in the waitlist in the
exam in 2016 = 2500
Number of students who cleared (from waitlist)
the exam in 2016 = 60% of 3000 = 1800 13) Answer: B
Number of students who failed (from waitlist) the Total number of students who cleared from (both
exam in 2016 = 2500 – 1800 = 700 fresh and waitlist) the exam in 2014 = 4000 +
Number of students who cleared (fresh) the 1800 = 5800
exam in 2017 = 5000 Total number of students who cleared (fresh) the
Number of students who failed (fresh) the exam exam in 2017 = 5000
in 2017 = 2500 Required ratio = 5800: 5000
= 29: 25

Required sum = A + B
14) Answer: A
Total number of students who failed (from both
fresh and waitlist) in the exam in 2015 = 1500 +
300 = 1800
Total students appeared for the exam in 2015 = 16) Answer: C
9000 Number of boys who cleared (fresh) the exam in
According to the question: 2016 = = 1600

Number of girls who cleared (fresh) the exam in
2016 = = 1400
P = 20
Number of boys who cleared (from waitlist) the
P is multiple of both 4 and 5.
exam in 2016 = = 400
Total factors of P = 1, 2, 4, 5, 10, and 20 = 6
Number of girls who cleared (from waitlist) the
factors
exam in 2016 = = 1400
Square of P is 400 which is not a perfect cube of
any integer. Total number of boys who cleared the exam in
Hence, statement B is not TRUE. 2016 = 1600 + 400 = 2000

Total number of students who cleared the exam
15) Answer: E in 2016 = 3000 + 1800 = 4800

Required percent =
Total students appeared for the exam in 2015 =
9000
Total students who cleared (fresh) the exam in
2015 = 4500 Directions (17–20):
According to the question: System apps in phone A = = 20
System apps in phone B = = 15
A = 50 System apps in phone C = = 10
Total students appeared for the exam in 2017 = System apps in phone D = = 25
12000 System apps in phone E = =5
Total students who cleared (from waitlist) the Total apps in phone B = 60
exam in 2017 = 3500 Total non-system apps in phone B = 60 – 15 =
According to the question: 45
Gaming apps in phone B = = 15
Social media apps in phone B = = 20

Payment apps in phone B = = 10

Number of payment apps in phone D = =5
Number of gaming apps in phone D = = 25
Number of social media apps in phone D =
= 20
Total apps in phone D = 25 + (5 + 25 + 20) = 75
75 = 15x
x=5
Number of gaming apps in phone A = =5
17) Answer: D
Number of payment apps in phone A = =
Total apps in phones B, D, and E together = 60
15 + 75 + 45 = 180
Total apps in phone A = 10x = 50 Total system apps in phones B, D, and E
Non-system apps in phone A = 50 – 20 = 30 together = 15 + 25 + 5 = 45
Number of social media apps in phone A = 30 – Required percent =
5 – 15 = 10
= 25%
Total apps in phone E = 9x = 45
Non-system apps in phone E = 45 – 5 = 40
18) Answer: E
Number of gaming apps in phone E =
Total apps in all the five phones = 5 * 54 = 270
= 10 Total apps in phone C = 270 – (50 + 60 + 75 +
Number of social media apps in phone E = 45) = 40
=5 Non-system apps in phone C = 40 – 10 = 30
Number of payment apps in phone E = Ratio of social media apps to payment apps in
= 25 phone C = 7: 21 = 1: 3
We can calculate the exact number of apps for Case 1: When number of social media apps and
phone B. payment apps in phone C are 1 and 3
respectively.
Number of gaming apps in phone C = 30 – 1 – 3
= 26
According to the question:
26: 1: 3 = y: 7: 21
y = 182

Case 2: When number of social media apps and Case 6: When number of social media apps and
payment apps in phone C are 2 and 6 payment apps in phone C are 6 and 18
respectively. respectively.
Number of gaming apps in phone C = 30 – 2 – 6 Number of gaming apps in phone C = 30 – 6 –
= 22 18 = 6
According to the question: According to the question:
22: 2: 6 = y: 7: 21 6: 6: 18 = y: 7: 21
y = 77 y=7
Case 3: When number of social media apps and Case 7: When number of social media apps and
payment apps in phone C are 3 and 9 payment apps in phone C are 7 and 21
respectively. respectively.
Number of gaming apps in phone C = 30 – 3 – 9 Number of gaming apps in phone C = 30 – 7 –
= 18 21 = 2
According to the question: According to the question:
18: 3: 9 = y: 7: 21 2: 7: 21 = y: 7: 21
y = 42 y=2
Case 4: When number of social media apps and Hence, possible values of ‘y’ = 182, 77, 42, 14,
payment apps in phone C are 4 and 12 7, 2
respectively. Total values of ‘y’ = 6
Number of gaming apps in phone C = 30 – 4 – Hence, 49 cannot be the possible value of ‘y’.
12 = 14
According to the question: 19) Answer: B
14: 4: 12 = y: 7: 21 Sum of total gaming apps and payment apps
y = 24.5 [Invalid] together in phone B = 15 + 10 = 25
Case 5: When number of social media apps and Total non-system apps in phone B = 45
payment apps in phone C are 5 and 15 Required percent =
respectively.
Number of gaming apps in phone C = 30 – 5 –
15 = 10
20) Answer: C
According to the question:
Total number of social media apps in all the five
10: 5: 15 = y: 7: 21
phones together = 65
y = 14
Number of social media apps in phone C = 65 –
(10 + 20 + 20 + 5) = 10

Number of payment apps in phone C = = Required average =

30 = 17
Total number of payment apps in all the five
phones together = 15 + 10 + 30 + 5 + 25 = 85

English Day - 24
English Language
Directions (1-5): The following paragraph given policy responses to inflationary pressures. India’s
below has five blanks in which words from recent curbs on export of rice have _________ (D)
options given in each question would be filled in some alarm, with the prices of the regional staple
order to complete the paragraph meaningfully. reportedly nearing a 15-year high. The onset of
You must read the same carefully and choose an El Niño, which is historically associated with
the correct answer for each question. __________ (E) weather events, queers the
Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s whistle-stop ground further, and ASEAN leaders are justifiably
summit sojourn to the Indonesian capital of wary.
Jakarta earlier this week was __________ (A) 1) Which of the following words should fill the
aimed at deepening India’s engagement with the blank A in the given passage ?
economically significant grouping of 10 a) primarily
Southeast Asian nations. Coming on the eve of b) main
India’s hosting of the G-20 summit in New Delhi c) focused
as the current holder of the bloc’s presidency, d) thorough
Mr. Modi’s presence at the annual ASEAN-India e) abundantly
summit was an _________ (B) to cement
traditional ties with the neighbouring Asian 2) Which of the following words should fill the
economies at a time of heightened global trade blank B in the given passage ?
uncertainty. As the trade facilitation body a) coincidence
UNCTAD noted in its June 21 ‘Global Trade b) situation
Update’, the ‘outlook for global trade in the c) inviting
second half of 2023 is pessimistic as negative d) opportunity
factors including downgraded world economic e) incharge
forecasts, persistent inflation, financial
vulnerabilities and geopolitical tensions 3) Which of the following words should fill the
dominate. Against this backdrop, the joint blank C in the given passage ?
leaders’ statement on ‘Strengthening Food a) developing
Security and Nutrition in Response to Crises’ at b) emerging
the ASEAN-India summit underscores the shared c) happening
vulnerability the region perceives in the face of d) becoming
the ________ (C) heightened global food e) ongoing
insecurity, which has been exacerbated by the 4) Which of the following words should fill the
war in Ukraine, climate change and national blank D in the given passage ?

English Day - 24
a) enabled I. causing some delays in our travel plans

b) triggered II. as there were no flights available to the
c) turned on country
d) made III. making it difficult for the parents who were
e) produced hungry
a) Only I
5) Which of the following words should fill the b) Only II
blank E in the given passage ? c) Only III
a) pleasant d) Both I and III
b) awesome e) All I, II and III
c) disruptive
d) badly 8) The maid made so many mistakes while
e) good cleaning the house _____________.
I. and the house was neat and clean later
Directions (6-10) : In each question a sentence is II. that we had to spend extra time fixing things
given with a blank. You are provided with three afterward
fragments I, II and III. You have to identify which III. despite giving her many suggestions
statement/statements can carry forward the a) Only II
given sentence in the most logical way so as to b) Only III
make the sentence coherent and contextually c) Both I and II
correct. d) Both II and III
6) The family left for _____________ spend quality e) All I, II and III
time together.
I. Australia and has planned to 9) ___________________ fantastic time riding
II. a relaxing vacation by the beach to unwind thrilling roller coasters and enjoying all the
and entertaining shows and attractions.
III. purchase at the supermarket and
a) Only I I. I went to Germany for a presentation and had a
b) Only III II. I went to the zoo yesterday and spent
c) Both I and II III. I went to the theme park recently and had a
d) Both II and III a) Only II
e) All I, II and III b) Only III
7) The visa process took longer than expected, c) Both I and III
_____________________________. d) Both II and III

English Day - 24
e) All I, II and III

B. India’s recent 2. as negative factors
curbs on export of including downgraded
10) The dancers were incredibly talented and
rice have triggered world economic forecasts,
___________________.
some alarm, persistent inflation,
I. put on a mesmerizing performance financial vulnerabilities
II. managed to pull off a terrific show and geopolitical tensions
III. travelled to many countries to perform dominate.
a) Only I
b) Only II C. The Prime 3. which has no territorial
c) Only III Minister’s not-so- ambitions that could
d) Both II and III veiled message to discomfit them. India also
e) All I, II and III the ASEAN sought to position itself as

members is that a voice to amplify the
Directions (11-15): Given below are a few India is a more concerns of the Global
questions with a table given with two columns reliable long-term South, stressing that it
with highlighted connectors to be matched in strategic and would be mutually
order to make sentences contextually correct as economic partner, beneficial for all.
per the rules of connectors. If none of the options a) A-1, B-2, C-3
are correct then choose option E as your answer. b) A-2, B-3, C-1
11) c) A-2, B-1, C-3
d) A-3, B-1, C-2
e) None of these
A. As the trade 1. with the prices of the

facilitation body regional staple reportedly 12.
UNCTAD noted in its nearing a 15-year high. A. The report also 1. however, it does not
June 21 ‘Global dwells on the need to single out individual
Trade Update’, the reverse deforestation countries or provide a
‘outlook for global and the adoption of more granular analysis
trade in the second electric vehicles as of where the existing
half of 2023 is vital prongs to a clean shortcomings are in the
pessimistic energy economy; approach adopted by
countries to curtail
emissions.

English Day - 24
B. The United 2. that awaited the C. Now, with the 3. with a military wing
Nations’ Global major economies of the ASEAN move, it is that has joined hands
Stocktake, a report world even as it evident that the with some ethnic
that was released just presented little beyond regime stands separatist groups, thus
ahead of the G-20 what is already known. isolated, posing a challenge to the
meet, set out the junta.
scope of challenges
a) A-1, B-3, C-2
C. These are gaps 3. and an eschewal of b) A-3, B-2, C-1
unlikely to be filled fossil fuel sources such c) A-2, B-3, C-1
without a rapid as coal, oil and natural d) A-2, B-1, C-3
upscaling of gas. e) None of these
renewable energy
resources 14)
a) A-1, B-2, C-3 A. The government’s 1. but the days ahead
b) A-1, B-3, C-2 decision to hold the G- will be crucial in
c) A-2, B-1, C-3 20 summit two months cementing its legacy.
d) A-3, B-2, C-1 early,
e) None of these B. India’s G-20 2. instead of in

moment is already November, the practice,
13) memorable, has given officials less
A. Myanmar has seen 1. while the domestic time.
a security and situation remains
economic decline untenable.
B. The political 2. ever since the military

opposition has formed ousted the
a National Unity democratically elected
Government government of Aung San
Suu Kyi in February
2021.

English Day - 24
C. The global 3. such as climate C. The Rashtriya 3. but these labels of

economic headwinds, finance, and investment Swayamsevak Sangh pride have now been
exacerbated by the in health and poverty has been asking for weaponised for narrow
COVID-19 pandemic, alleviation. privileging the use of political ends.
meant a challenging Bharat over India for
environment for New long,
Delhi in ensuring that
a) A–1, B-3, C-2
all countries were b) A–2, B-3, C-1
willing to contribute c) A–3, B-1, C-2
resources for d) A–2, B-1, C-3
imperatives e) None of these
a) A-2, B-1, C-3
b) A-2, B-1, C-3 Directions (16-20) : In each of the questions
c) A-2, B-1, C-3 given below a phrase in the sentence has been
d) A-2, B-1, C-3 highlighted. It may or may not need replacement.
e) None of these Read the question carefully and choose an
option that would best replace the highlighted
15) part to make the sentence grammatically and
A. The Bharatiya 1. but the Opposition contextually correct. In case, the given sentence
Janata Party bloc’s decision to label is correct in its current form and there is no
government at the itself INDIA as an improvement needed, mark (e) as your answer.
16) The grocery stores on the country has a wide
Centre has decided to acronym also might
use Bharat instead of have influenced the variety of fresh produce and a great selection of
international foods.
India in some official BJP’s hurry in the
a) the grocery stores in the country have a wide
communication and naming exercise.
variety of
documents, a practice
b) the groceries stores in the country has a wide
B. India and Bharat 2. that its variety
have both evoked the representatives say will c) the grocery stores at the country have a wide
same emotions now expand. variety
among patriots for d) the grocery stores to the country have a wide
decades, variety
e) No changes required

English Day - 24
17) The president visited the hurricane- leaving them determined to come back stronger
devastated region to assess the damage and next season.
offer support to the affected communities. a) the team has performed well and feeling short
a) for assess the damage and to support to the b) the team has performed short and felt
b) to assessing the damage and supporting the perfromed
c) for assess damage and offering support c) the team had performed well and short and fell
d) by assessing and offering support d) the team have performed short and felt well
e) No changes required e) No changes required
18) On Teachers' Day, the students organized a 20) Rekha was in a hurry, so she quickly grab
special assembly to expressing there gratitude her belongings and dashed to the door, hoping to
and appreciation of their dedicated educators. catch her train before it departed.
a) by expressing their gratitude and appreciation a) so she quick grabbed her belongings and
of their dashed to
b) to express their gratitude and appreciation for b) so she quickly grabbed her belongings and
their dashed by
c) for expressing there gratitude and appreciation c) thus she quickly grabbed her belongings by
of there dashed out
d) to express the gratitude and appreciate their d) so she quickly grabbed her belongings and
e) No changes required dashed out
e) No changes required
19) The team had performed well but fell short of
winning the championship by a narrow margin,

English Day - 24

1) Answer: A Ongoing is the correct word that can fit in the
Primarily is the right word to fill the given blank A given blank.
of the passage. Option a - developing (no proper meaning
Option b - was main aimed (incorrect) conveyed and has positive meaning which seem
Option c - was focused aimed (incorrect) irrelavant)
Option d - was thorough aimed (incorrect and no Option b - emerging (positive meaning)
proper meaning) Option c - happening (irrelevant)
Option e - was abundantly aimed (incorrect and Option d - becoming (irrelevant)
no proper meaning)
4) Answer: B
2) Answer: D Triggered is the correct word that fits in the given
Opportunity is the correct word that fills the given blank making the respective sentence
blank in the most appropriate way. meaningful and correct.
Option a - an coincidence (wrong, ‘an’ must be Out of the given options triggered is the most
followed by a word starting with a vowel or ‘h’) appropriate word that conveys a proper
Option b - an situation (wrong, ‘an’ must be meaning.
followed by a word starting with a vowel or ‘h’)
Option c - was an inviting (no proper meaning) 5) Answer: C
Option e - was an incharge (no proper meaning) Disruptive is the right word that can fill the given
blank.
3) Answer: E Pleasant, awesome and good - positive tone
(irrelevant to the context)

English Day - 24
9) Answer: B
Badly is incorrect and hence discarded The statement or fragment III completes the
given sentence making it meaningful and
6) Answer: C correct.
Both the given fragments I and II complete the The sentence: I went to the theme park recently
given sentence in a meaningful way. and had a fantastic time riding thrilling roller
III - incorrect and causes grammatical error too coasters and enjoying all the entertaining shows
(hence discarded) and attractions.
The sentences:
The family left for Australia and has planned to 10) Answer: E
spend quality time together. All the given three fragments complete the given
The family left for a relaxing vacation by the sentence.
beach to unwind and spend quality time The sentences:
together. The dancers were incredibly talented and put on
a mesmerizing performance.
7) Answer: A The dancers were incredibly talented and
Only I complete the sentence in the most managed to pull off a terrific show.
meaningful way. The dancers were incredibly talented and
The sentence: The visa process took longer than travelled to many countries to perform.
expected, causing some delays in our travel
plans. 11) Answer: C
The correct option is ‘c’.
8) Answer: D A-2, B-1 and C-3 are the correct combinations
Both the fragments II and III complete the given that form meaningful sentences.
sentence. The sentences:
The sentences: As the trade facilitation body UNCTAD noted in
The maid made so many mistakes while its June 21 ‘Global Trade Update’, the ‘outlook
cleaning the house that we had to spend extra for global trade in the second half of 2023 is
time fixing things afterward. pessimistic as negative factors including
The maid made so many mistakes while downgraded world economic forecasts,
cleaning the house despite giving her many persistent inflation, financial vulnerabilities and
suggestions. geopolitical tensions dominate.

English Day - 24
India’s recent curbs on export of rice have These are gaps unlikely to be filled without a
triggered some alarm, with the prices of the rapid upscaling of renewable energy resources
regional staple reportedly nearing a 15-year and an eschewal of fossil fuel sources such as
high. coal, oil and natural gas.
The Prime Minister’s not-so-veiled message to
the ASEAN members is that India is a more 13) Answer: C
reliable long-term strategic and economic Option c is the right answer for this question
partner, which has no territorial ambitions that forming three meaningful sentences from the
could discomfit them. India also sought to combinations given.
position itself as a voice to amplify the concerns The sentences:
of the Global South, stressing that it would be Myanmar has seen a security and economic
mutually beneficial for all. decline ever since the military ousted the
democratically elected government of Aung San
12) Answer: A Suu Kyi in February 2021.
The right set of combinations that forms proper The political opposition has formed a National
meaningful sentences is A-1, B-2 and C-3. Unity Government with a military wing that has
The other combinations are discarded as they do joined hands with some ethnic separatist groups,
not form proper sentences. thus posing a challenge to the junta.
The sentences: Now, with the ASEAN move, it is evident that the
The report also dwells on the need to reverse regime stands isolated, while the domestic
deforestation and the adoption of electric situation remains untenable.
vehicles as vital prongs to a clean energy
economy; however, it does not single out 14) Answer: D
individual countries or provide a more granular Option d is the right answer for this question
analysis of where the existing shortcomings are forming three meaningful sentences from the
in the approach adopted by countries to curtail combinations given.
emissions. The sentences:
The United Nations’ Global Stocktake, a report The government’s decision to hold the G-20
that was released just ahead of the G-20 meet, summit two months early, instead of in
set out the scope of challenges that awaited the November, has given officials less time.
major economies of the world even as it India’s G-20 moment is already memorable, but
presented little beyond what is already known. the days ahead will be crucial in cementing its
legacy.

English Day - 24
The global economic headwinds, exacerbated by Option b - groceries stores and has - incorrect
the COVID-19 pandemic, meant a challenging Option c - at the country (incorrect)
environment for New Delhi in ensuring that all Option d - to the country (incorrect)
countries were willing to contribute resources for The sentence: The grocery stores in the country
imperatives such as climate finance, and have a wide variety of fresh produce and a great
investment in health and poverty alleviation. selection of international foods.
15) Answer: B 17) Answer: E

Option b is the right option forming three The highlighted phrase is correct and
meaningful and correct sentences. meaningful. No changes required.
A-2, B-3 and C-1 are the right combinations.
The sentences: 18) Answer: B
The Bharatiya Janata Party government at the The highlighted phrase is incorrect and needs
Centre has decided to use Bharat instead of replacement.
India in some official communication and The correct replacement phrase is given in
documents, a practice that its representatives Option b.
say will now expand. Option a - the given phrase in incorrect
India and Bharat have both evoked the same Option c - the phrase has grammatical error in it
emotions among patriots for decades, but these Option d - the phrase has grammatical error in it
labels of pride have now been weaponised for The sentence: On Teachers' Day, the students
narrow political ends. organized a special assembly to express their
The Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh has been gratitude and appreciation of their dedicated
asking for privileging the use of Bharat over India educators.
for long, but the Opposition bloc’s decision to
label itself INDIA as an acronym also might have 19) Answer: E
influenced the BJP’s hurry in the naming The highlighted phrase in the given sentence is
exercise. correct and meaningful. No replacement is
required.
16) Answer: A
The highlighted part of the sentence is 20) Answer: D
grammatically incorrect and needs replacement. The highlighted phrase is incorrect and needs
replacement.
The correct phrase is in option a.

English Day - 24
The phrase in option d is the right phrase for The sentence: Rekha was in a hurry, so she
replacement. quickly grabbed her belongings and dashed out
Option a - quick is incorrect the door, hoping to catch her train before it
Option b - dashed by - incorrect departed.
Option c - by dashed out - incorrect

Reasoning Aptitude
Directions (1-5): Study the following information c) 8
carefully and answer the given questions. d) 6
Step 1: Take the alphabets whose place value is e) None of these
an even number as per the English alphabetical
series and they are written in the reverse 2. If the last 15 elements are reversed, then how
alphabetical order from the left end. Then write many such consonants are there in the series
the vowels from the right end in alphabetical which is immediately preceded by a symbol and
order. not immediately followed by a vowel?
Step 2: After completing step 1, take the a) One
consecutive three digit odd numbers up to the b) Two
number 117 and add the digits within the number c) Three
till it becomes a single digit, then place the d) Four
resultant number one by one in the same order e) None
after every two letters from the left end.
Step 3: After completing step 2, the first 12 3. What is the sum of the numbers between the
elements from the left end are reversed and the third vowel from the right end and the fourth
following symbols “$, &, %, #, @, ©, *, ®, ∞”, are consonant from the left end?
placed (in the same order) in the series after a) 10
every three elements from the left end. b) 17
Step 4: After completing step 3, the letters which c) 12
are immediately preceded by a symbol and d) 14
immediately followed by a vowel are changed to e) 8
the immediate next letter as per the alphabetical
series. 4. In the given series, all the letters in the first
Step IV is the final step and answer the given sixteen elements are replaced by the
questions according to the final step. complementary paired letter in the English
1. If all the symbols are dropped from the series alphabetical series, then which among the
and all the numbers are arranged in ascending following letters are repeated more than once?
order from the right end then which of the a) E, D, M, U
following element will be 11th to the right of the 9th b) N, P, T, E
element from the left end? c) F, D, P, T
a) A d) Z, X, G, A
b) 9 e) I, C, A, F

5. In the given series, all the consonants which below input and answer the questions given
come before G and after T in the alphabetical below.
series are dropped, then how many symbols are
immediately preceded by a consonant and
immediately followed by a number? 6. What will be the resultant if the fourth digit
a) Two from the left end in step 1 is multiplied with the
b) One first digit from the right end in step 3 of the given
c) Four input?
d) Three a) 14
e) None b) 18
c) 16
Directions (6-10): Study the following information d) 24
carefully and answer the given questions. e) 20
The number arrangement machine, when given

an input, rearranges them by following a 7. What is the difference between the square
particular rule in each step. The following is the values of the two numbers in step 3 of the given
illustration of an input and rearrangement. input?

a) 200
b) 384
c) 250
d) 376
e) 380
8. What will be the output, if the second digit

from the left end in step 2 is doubled?
a) 6
b) 4
c) 10
d) 12
e) 8
9. If all the digits in step 1 are arranged in

Step 4 is the last and final step of the given input. ascending order from left to right, then how many
By following the same rules, find the steps for the digits remain unchanged in their position?

a) Three that A and B sit opposite to each other, then both

b) Two are sitting at the same table.
c) One F sits third to the right of B, who is facing the
d) Four centre of the table. One person sits between F
e) None and K. Two persons sit between J and the one
who faces K. H sits opposite to J. L sits second
10. What is the difference between the digits of to the right of the one who faces J. The number
the number in the penultimate step of the given of persons sitting between L and F is two less
input? than the number of persons sitting between J
a) Five and O, who does not face K. C is an immediate
b) Seven neighbour of both O and P. N sits second to the
c) Six left of the one who faces P. I sits to the
d) Eight immediate left of E. The number of persons
e) Four sitting between E and C is two more than the
number of persons sitting between B and A. M
Directions (11-15): Study the following does not face the centre of the table.
information carefully and answer the given 11. If all the persons sitting at the outer circular
questions table are rearranged in alphabetical order in a
Sixteen persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, clockwise direction starting from A, then how
L, M, N, O, and P are sitting around the two many persons remain unchanged except A?
concentric circular tables as one is inscribed in a) One
another one. Eight persons are sitting on the b) Two
dinner table facing away from the centre. Eight c) Three
persons are sitting on the outer table facing the d) Four
centre. Each person sitting on the outer table e) None
faces the person sitting on the dinner table and
vice versa. 12. If all the persons interchanged their positions
Note: with the person who is facing them, then who
i) The persons whose name’s place value is a among the following sits third to the right of L?
prime number as per alphabetical order are not a) The one who faces I
sitting adjacent to each other. b) N
ii) If it is given that A and B face each other, then c) The one who sits second to the left of D
both are sitting at different tables and if it is given d) A
e) G

13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain lowermost floor is numbered one and the floor
way based on the given arrangement and thus immediately above it is numbered two and so on.
form a group. Which one of the following does There are three lifts Lift I, Lift II, and Lift III from
not belong to the group? west to east in the basement of the building.
a) L Each delivery boy takes lifts to deliver the food.
b) D Not more than two persons delivered food on the
c) E same floor. Also, persons delivering on the same
d) B floor take different lifts.
e) A Note:
i) The person whose name’s place value is an
14. Which among the following pair of persons odd number as per the alphabetical series
are facing each other? delivered in an even numbered floor and the
I. KM person whose name’s place value is an even
II. AP number as per the alphabetical series delivered
III. GJ in an odd numbered floor.
a) Only I ii) No two persons delivered the food on the
b) Only II adjacent floors take the same lift.
c) Only I and II F delivered the food three floors above I, where
d) Only II and III neither of them uses the same lift nor uses lift II.
e) All I, II and III F did not deliver above floor number 6. Both N
and H delivered below I. J does not use lift II and
15. How many persons sit between P and the delivered two floors above H, where both of them
one who faces N when counted from the right of use the same lift. J and D delivered on the same
P? floor. The number of persons delivered the food
a) Two below D is three more than the number of
b) One persons delivered the food above C, who did not
c) Three use the same lift as N and J. Less than three
d) Four floors are between the floors on which C and G
e) None delivered the food. L delivered immediately
above the floor on which G delivered the food. G
Direction (16-20): Study the following information uses lift II. More than two floors are between the
carefully and answer the given questions. floors on which L and K delivered the food. The
Fourteen Zomato delivery boys – A to N number of floors between the floors on which K
delivered food in a ten storey building where the and I delivered the food is one less than the

number of floors between the floors on which F a) One

and M delivered the food. E delivered below A b) Two
but above B. E does not use lift III. c) Three
16. How many persons are using lift II? d) Four
a) Three e) Five
b) Four
c) Six 19. As many floors between B and N as between
d) Five _____ and _____.
e) Seven a) I and H
b) L and F
17. Who among the following person(s) delivered c) A and G
food to floor number 5? d) M and B
I. B e) C and G
II. D
III. F 20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
a) Only I way based on the given arrangement and thus
b) Only II form a group. Which one of the following does
c) Only I and III not belong to the group?
d) Only II and III a) L
e) All I, II and III b) C
c) M
18. How many persons delivered the food above d) E
E’s Floor? e) I

Directions (1-5): 8LN$6PR&4TV%2XZ#JH1@FD3

Step 1: Take the alphabets whose place value is ©CU5*PI7®FA9∞
an even number as per the English alphabetical 8LN6PR4TV2XZJH1FD3CU5PI7
series and they are written in the reverse FA9
alphabetical order from the left end. Then write LNPRTVXZJHFDCUPIFA987654
the vowels from the right end in alphabetical 321
order.
ZXVTRPNLJHFDBUOIEA 2. Answer: B
Step 2: After completing step 1, take the Given series:
consecutive three digit odd numbers up to the 8LN$6PR&4TV%2XZ#JH1@FD3
number 117 and add the digits within the number ©CU5*PI7®FA9∞
till it becomes a single digit, then place the 8LN$6PR&4TV%2XZ#JH1@F∞9A
resultant number one by one in the same order F®7IP*5UC©3D
after every two letters from the left end.
ZX2VT4RP6NL8JH1FD3BU5OI7 3. Answer: A
EA9 Given series:
Step 3: After completing step 2, the first 12 8LN$6PR&4TV%2XZ#JH1@FD3
elements from the left end are reversed and the ©CU5*PI7®FA9∞
following symbols “$, &, %, #, @, ©, *, ®, ∞”, are 4+2+1+3= 10
placed (in the same order) in the series after
every three elements from the left end. 4. Answer: E
8LN$6PR&4TV%2XZ#JH1@FD3 Given series:
©BU5*OI7®EA9∞ 8LN$6PR&4TV%2XZ#JH1@FD3
Step 4: After completing step 3, the letters which ©CU5*PI7®FA9∞
are immediately preceded by a symbol and 8OM$6KI&4GE%2CA#JH1@FD3
immediately followed by a vowel are changed to ©CU5*PI7®FA9∞
the immediate next letter as per the alphabetical
series. 5. Answer: D
8LN$6PR&4TV%2XZ#JH1@FD3 Given series:
©CU5*PI7®FA9∞ 8LN$6PR&4TV%2XZ#JH1@FD3
1. Answer: C ©CU5*PI7®FA9∞
Given series: 8LN$6PR&4T%2#JH1@3©5*PI7
®9∞

Directions (6-10): 12. Answer: D

6. Answer: D 13. Answer: C (All the persons face the centre of
7. Answer: B the table except option c)
8. Answer: E 14. Answer: E
9. Answer: E 15. Answer: B
10. Answer: A Final arrangement:
Step 1: The product of the first digit of the two
boxes and the product of the second digit of the
two boxes.
Step 2: The difference between the product of
the two digits of the first and second boxes and
the difference between the product of the two
digits of the second and third boxes.
Step 3: The sum of the squares of the two digits
within the box.
Step 4: The difference between the two numbers
of both boxes. We have,
Step 5: The sum of the two digits of the number.  F sits third to the right of B, who is facing
the centre of the table.
 One person sits between F and K.
 Two persons sit between J and the one
who faces K.
From the above conditions, we have two
possibilities,
Directions (11-15):
11. Answer: A

Again we have,
 H sits opposite to J.
 L sits second to the right of the one who Again we have,
faces J.  I sits to the immediate left of E.
 The number of persons sitting between L  The number of persons sitting between E
and F is two less than the number of and C is two more than the number of
persons sitting between J and O, who persons sitting between B and A.
does not face K.  M does not face the centre of the table.
 C is an immediate neighbour of both O We cannot place G in case 1. Hence it is
and P. eliminated. Thus, case 2 gives the final
 N sits second to the left of the one who arrangement.
faces P.

We have,
 F delivered the food three floors above I,
where neither of them uses the same lift
nor uses lift II.
 F did not deliver above floor number 6.
 Both N and H deliver below I.
 J does not use lift II and delivered two
floors above H, where both of them use
Directions (16-20): the same lift.
16. Answer: D After applying the above conditions, there are
17. Answer: C two possibilities.
18. Answer: E
19. Answer: B
20. Answer: A (All the persons use lift I except
option a)
Final arrangement:

 Less than three floors are between the

floors on which C and G delivered the
food.
 L delivered immediately above the floor
on which G delivered the food. G uses lift
II.
Again, we have
 J and D delivered on the same floor.
 The number of persons delivered the food
below D is three more than the number of
persons delivered the food above C, who
did not use the same lift as N and J.
Again, we have

 More than two floors are between the

floors on which L and K delivered the
food.
 The number of floors between the floors
on which K and I delivered the food is one
less than the number of floors between
the floors on which F and M delivered the
food.
 E delivers below A but above B.
 E does not use lift III.
After applying the above conditions, case 1 gets
eliminated because E does not use lift III, hence
case 2 shows the final arrangement.

The given below bar graph shows the number of mobile phones manufactured by five different
companies [A, B, C, D and E] in the month of June and also given the number of mobile phones
manufactured in the month of July is how much more or less then the number of mobile phones
manufactured by the same companies in June.
The table given below shows the ratio of 4G to 5G mobile manufactured by the company in each month
out of total number of mobile phones
manufactured by the company.
1) Out of the total number of 4G mobile phones mobile phones has 64GB memory and out of the
manufactured by company A in the month June, total number of 4G mobile phones manufactured
40% has 128GB memory and the remaining by company A in the month July, 60% has

128GB memory and the remaining mobile B.450

phones has 64GB memory. Find the total C.460
number of 64GB memory 4G mobile phones D.440
manufactured by company A in the months of E.None of these
June and July together.
A.920 4) Manufacturing cost of each 4G phone of
B.940 company C and D is Rs.4800 and Rs.6400
C.930 respectively and manufacturing cost of each 5G
D.960 phone of company C and D is Rs.5800 and
E.990 Rs.7000 respectively in both the months. Find
the difference (in thousand) of total
2) Ratio of snapdragon and Exynos processor in manufacturing cost in both months of company C
the 4G manufacturing phone of company B in the and D?
month of June is 3:2 respectively and Ratio of A.10100
snapdragon and Exynos processor in the 4G B.14200
manufacturing phone of company B in the month C.15200
of July is 1:4 respectively. Find the difference D.13500
between the total number of snapdragon E.None of these
processor 4G phone and total number of exynos
processor 4G phone manufactured by company 5) Number of defective mobile manufactured in
B in both months together?(Consider only month of June and July in company E is 20%
snapdragon and exynos processor is and 10% of total mobile manufactured in the
manufactured) company respectively and Number of defective
A.20 mobile manufactured in month of June and July
B.30 in company F is 10% and 10% of total mobile
C.40 manufactured in the company respectively. Find
D.0 the total defective mobile manufactured by
E.10 company E and F?
A.870
3) Find the difference between the total 5G B.820
phone manufactured in the month of June by all C.840
companies together and the total 5G phone D.850
manufactured in the month of July? E.None of these
A.420

6) A 720ml solution of sugar and water is E.None of these

prepared in the ratio 7:2 respectively. Another
800ml solution of sugar and water in the ratio of 8) Certain distance is covered by a boat in
1:7, the two solutions are mixed to form a new downstream in 9 hours and in upstream in 11
solution. Now 20% solution is taken out from the hours. Find the percentage of distance covered
new solution. Then some amount of sugar is the boat in 27 hours rowing downstream over the
added which equals to 20% of the sugar content distance coveredin55 hours while rowing
in the first solution initially and 32ml water is upstream?
added. Water in the final mixture is how much A.45%
more or less than the sugar content? B.60%
A.80 more C.50%
B.50 more D.40%
C.20 less E.None of these
D.60 more
E.None of these 9) Half of the sum of the ages of Rohit, his wife
and his daughter after 6 years will be 41 years.
7) Three friends A, B and C invested in a firm After 8 years, the age of his daughter will be half
6:9:8, respectively. One year later, A increased the present age of his wife. Rohit’s age after 18
his investment by 25%. After 2 years, years will be equal to his wife’s age 10 years
investments of B and C become twice and 1.5 later. What will be his daughter’s age after 3
times of their initial investments respectively. years?
Profit of Rs. 7650 is distributed among them after A.11 years
3 years. Find the profit amount received by B? B.13 years
A.Rs. 3245 C.21 years
B.Rs. 3540 D.31 years
C.Rs. 3240 E.None of these
D.Rs. 4240
Directions (10-13): Study the following data carefully and answer the given questions:
Data given below is related to the number of boys and girls studying in under-graduation (UG) and post-
graduation (PG) in 5 different colleges A, B, C, D and E.
Table given below shows the following information:

Note:
1: Total number of boys studying UG in all the 5 colleges together = 800
2: Total number of boys studying PG in all the 5 colleges together = 500
3: Some data in the table are missing, which needs to be calculated in the questions.
10) In college B, if the number of girls studying E.112
PG is 56 less than those in
UG, then find the average of number of boys 12) If the number of girls studying UG in college
studying PG in colleges A, B and E? E is equal to the number of boys studying UG in
A.100 college B, and ratio of boys to girls studying UG
B.80 in college E is 5: 6, then find the difference
C.75 between the total number of boys studying UG
D.120 and PG together in college E and the total
E.90 number of girls studying UG and PG together in
college E?
11) If the number of boys studying UG in college A.2
C is 168 less than those studying UG in college B.8
D and number of girls studying UG in college C C.4
is 16(2/3)% more than those studying UG in D.10
college A, then find the average number of boys E.6
and girls studying UG in college A?
A.102 13) If the average of number of girls studying PG
B.110 in colleges A and C is 115, then find the ratio of
C.108 the total number of students studying UG in
D.104 college C to those studying PG in college C?

A.24: 25 C.2834
B.4: 5 D.2323
C.16: 17 E.2258
D.8: 9
E.14: 15 15) In Village C, the number of people in the age
of below 50 years is 80 more than the number of
Directions (14-17): Study the following people in the age of above 50 years. What is the
information carefully and answer the given percentage of the number of people in the age of
questions. above 50 years in total population of Village C?
There are four different Villages – A,B,C and D. A.38.38%
The following facts are known about number B.54.54%
male & female population and number of people C.45.45%
below & above the age of 50 years. In Village B, D.64.56%
the number of male population is 100 more than E.68.87%
female population. Male population of Village B is
20% more than that of in Village A and female 16) Find the difference between the female
population of Village B is 20% less than that of in population of Villages A & C together and the
Village A. Total population in Village A is 1000. In male population of Villages B & D together?
Village C, Male population is 50 less than female A.70
population in Village A and female population is B.90
70 less than male population of Village A. In C.80
Village D, male population is 4% less than that of D.75
in Village C and female population is 10% more E.65
than male population of Village C. The ratio of
number of people in the age of below 50 years 17) Total number of people in the age of below
and above 50 years in Village A and D is same 50 years in villages A and D together is how
and its ratio is 3:2. much more than total number of people in the
14) If the ratio between the number of people in age of above 50 years in Villages A&D together?
the age of below 50 years and above 50 years in A.406
Villages B&C is 4:3 & 6:5 respectively. Find the B.687
total number of people in the age of below 50 C.577
years for all given Villages together? D.605
A.3232 E.543
B.3032

18) In the question two equations numbered I One of the roots of equations I and II are
and II are given. You have to solve both the common while value of A is a positive number.
equations and mark the answer. A.x < y
I: 2x2 – 3x – A = 0 B.x ≤ y
II: y2 – 20y + B = 0 C.x ≥ y
One root of equation I is the largest single digit D.x = y or relationship cannot be determined.
prime number and ratio of A to B is 7: 9. E.x > y
A.x < y
B.x ≤ y 20) In the question two equations numbered I
C.x ≥ y and II are given. You have to solve both the
D.x = y or relationship cannot be determined. equations and mark the answer.
E.x > y I: 2x – 525/x = 29
II: y2/ (36 – y) = 6
19) In the question two equations numbered I A.x < y
and II are given. You have to solve both the B.x ≤ y
equations and mark the answer. C.x ≥ y
I: 2x2 + 9x – 18 = 0 D.x = y or relationship cannot be determined.
II: 2 (y2 + 9) = Ay E.x > y

Directions (1-5): Total number of mobile phones manufactured by
Total number of mobile phones manufactured by company A in the month of July is 1200 + 800 =
company A in the month of June is 1200. 2000.

Number of 4G mobile phones manufactured by 3) Answer: B

company A in the month of June is 1200 * 5/8 = Required difference = [(450 + 400 + 1000 + 800
750 + 800 + 600) - (800 + 300 + 400 + 500 + 1000 +
Number of 5G mobile phones manufactured by 600)] = 450
company A in the month of June is 1200 - 750 =
450 4) Answer: A
Number of 4G mobile phones manufactured by Total cost of company C = 900 * 4800 + 1400 *
company A in the month of July is 2000 * 3/5 = 5800 = 12440000
1200 Total cost of company D = 2100 * 6400 + 1300 *
Number of 5G mobile phones manufactured by 7000 = 22540000
company A in the month of July is 2000 - 1200 = So, difference = 22540000 – 12440000 =
800 10100000 = 10100 thousands
Similarly, we can calculate the others value also.
5) Answer: A
Total defective mobile
= 1800 * 20/100 + 2500 * 10/100 + 1500 *
10/100 + 1100 * 10/100
= 870
6) Answer: A
According to question,
Total quantity of solution I = 720ml
Quantity of sugar: water in the mixture = 7:2
Sugar content in solution I = 560ml
1) Answer: C
Water content in solution I = 160ml
Total number of 64GB memory 4G phone
Total quantity of solution II = 800ml
manufactured by company A in the month June
Quantity of sugar: water in the mixture = 1:7
and July together = 750 * 60/100 + 1200 *
Sugar content in solution II = 100ml
40/100 = 930
Water content in solution II = 700ml
After combining the solutions,
2) Answer: D
Total sugar content = 660ml
Required difference = [600 * 3/5 + 200 * 1/5] -
Total water content = 860ml
[600 * 2/5 + 200 * 4/5] = 0
20% solution is taken out

Sugar added = 20% x sugar content in the first Certain distance is covered by a boat in
solution initially downstream in 9 hours and in upstream in 11
So, 112ml sugar is added hours
32ml water is added Downstream speed of boat = D/9 kmph
Thus, final sugar content = 660 – 132 + 112 = Upstream speed of boat = D/11 kmph
640ml Distance covered in 27 hours rowing
Final water content = 860 – 172 + 32 = 720ml downstream = D/9 x 27 = 3D km
Required difference = 720 - 640= 80 more Distance covered in 55 hours rowing upstream =
Hence, answer is option A D/11 x 55 = 5D km
Percentage of distance covered by the boat in
7) Answer: C 27 hours rowing downstream over the distance
According to question, covered in55 hours rowing upstream = 3D/5D x
Let the initial amount invested by A, B and C = 100 = 60%
6x:9x:8x Hence, answer is option B
One year later, A increased his investment by
25% 9) Answer: A
After 2 years, investment of B becomes twice Let the present age of Rohit, daughter and wife =
After 2 years, investment of C becomes 1.5 R, D and W years
times According to question,
Total profit after 3 years = Rs. 7650 After 6 years, [1/2 x (Rohit + wife + daughter +
So, total time period= 3 years 18) = 41 years]
Ratio of profit shares = [(6x * 1) + (125% * 6x * 1/2 x (R + W + D + 18) = 41
2)]: [(9x * 2) + (2 * 9x * 1)]: [(8x * 2) + (1.5x * 8 * R + W + D = 82 – 18
1)] = 21:36:28 R + W + D = 64 ……………….. (1)
Profit amount received by B = Rs. 36/85 x 7650 After 8 years the age of his daughter = 1/2 x
= Rs. 3240 present age of his wife
Hence, answer is option C D + 8 = 1/2 x W
W – 2D = 16 ……………….. (2)
8) Answer: B Rohit’s age after 18 years =Rohit’s wife’s age 10
Let the distance covered = ‘D’ km years later
Let the speed of boat = ‘B’ kmph R + 18 = W + 10
Let the speed of stream = ‘S’ kmph W – R = 8 ……………….. (3)
According to question, From three equations we get,

W = 32 years 12) Answer: A

R = 24 years Number of girls studying UG in college E =
D = 8 years Number of boys in UG in college B = 24% of 800
Rohit’s daughter age after 3 years = 11 years = 192
Hence, answer is option A Number of boys studying UG in college E = 192
* (5/6) = 160
10) Answer: A Number of boys studying PG in college E = 30%
Number of boys studying UG in college B = 24% of 500 = 150
of 800 = 192 Number of girls studying PG in college E = (2 *
So, number of girls studying UG in college B = (2 135) – 150 = 120
* 168) – 192 = 144 Required difference = (192 + 120) – (160 + 150)
Number of girls studying PG in college B = 144 – =2
56 = 88
And number of boys studying PG in college B = 13) Answer: B
(2 * 74) – 88 = 60 Number of boys studying PG in college A = 18%
Number of boys studying PG in college A = 18% of 500 = 90
of 500 = 90 Number of girls studying PG in college A = (2 *
Number of boys studying PG in college E = 30% 105) – 90 = 120
of 500 = 150 Number of girls studying PG in college C = (2 *
Required average = (60 + 90 + 150)/3 = 100 115) – 120 = 110
Number of boys studying PG in college C = 26%
11) Answer: C of 500 = 130
Number of boys studying UG in college D = 31% Total number of students studying PG in college
of 800 = 248 C = 130 + 110 = 240
So, number of boys studying UG in college C = Since, average of boys and girls studying UG in
248 – 168 = 80 college C = 96
Number of girls studying UG in college C = (2 * So, total number of students studying UG in
96) – 80 = 112 college C = 2 * 96 = 192
And number of girls studying UG in college A = Required ratio = 192: 240 = 4: 5
112 * (300/350) = 96
Since, number of boys studying UG in college A Directions (14-17):
= 15% of 800 = 120 Let the male population of village A is ‘x’ and
So, required average = (120 + 96)/2 = 108 female population is ‘y’

x + y = 1000 -------(1) The total number of people in the age of below

In village B, 50 years for all given Villages= 600 + 618 + 560
120*x/100 – 80*y/100 = 100 ---------(2) + 480 = 2258
By solving (1) and (2),
x = 450 15) Answer: C
y = 550 Let number of people in the age of above 50
In village B, years is ‘x’
Male population = 540 The number of people in the age of below 50
Female population = 440 years = 80 + x
In Village C, x + x + 80 = 880
Male population = 550 – 50 = 500 x = 400
Female population = 450 – 70 = 380 Required percentage = 400*100 / 880 = 45.45%
In Village D,
Male population = 500*96/100 = 480 16) Answer: B
Female population = 500*110/100 = 550 Female population of Villages A& C = 550+380 =
Number of people in the age of below 50 years 930
in Village A = 1000*3/5 = 600 Male population of Villages B&D = 540+480 =
Number of people in the age of above 50 years 1020
in Village A = 1000*2/5 = 400 Required difference = 1020 – 930 = 90
Number of people in the age of below 50 years
in Village D = 1030*3/5 = 618 17) Answer: A
Number of people in the age of above 50 years Total number of people in the age of below 50
in Village D = 1030*2/5 = 412 year in Villages A and D = 600 + 618 = 1218
Total number of people in the age of above 50
years in Villages A and D = 400 + 412 = 812
Required difference = 1218 – 812 = 406
14) Answer: E 18) Answer: A

The number of people in the age of below 50 I: 2x2 – 3x – A = 0
years in B = 980*4/7 = 560 We know that: Largest single digit prime number
The number of people in the age of below 50 =7
years in C = 880*6/11 = 480 2 * 72 – 3 * 7 – A = 0
98 – 21 = A

A = 77 2 * [(-6)2 + 9] = A * (-6)
2x2 – 3x – 77 = 0 90 = - 6A
2x2 – 14x + 11x – 77 = 0 A = -15 (Invalid)
2x * (x – 7) + 11 * (x – 7) = 0 Hence, 2 (y2 + 9) = 15y
(x – 7) * (2x + 11) = 0 2y2 + 18 – 15y = 0
x = 7 and -11/2 2y2 – 12y – 3y + 18 = 0
II: y2 – 20y + B = 0 2y * (y – 6) – 3 * (y – 6) = 0
A: B = 7: 9 (y – 6) * (2y – 3) = 0
77: B = 7: 9 y = 6 and 3/2
B = 99 When x = 3/2, y = 6; x < y
y2 – 20y + 99 = 0 When x = 3/2, y = 3/2; x = y
y2 – 11y – 9y + 99 = 0 When x = -6, y = 6; x < y
y (y – 11) – 9 (y – 11) = 0 When x = -6, y = 3/2; x < y
(y – 11) (y – 9) = 0 Hence, x ≤ y.
y = 11 and 9
When x = 7, y = 11; x < y 20) Answer: D
When x = 7, y = 9; x < y I: 2x – 525/x = 29
When x = -11/2, y = 11; x < y 2x2 – 525 = 29x
When x = -11/2, y = 9; x < y 2x2 – 29x – 525 = 0
Hence, x < y. 2x2 – 50x + 21x – 525 = 0
2x * (x – 25) + 21 * (x – 25) = 0
19) Answer: B (x – 25) * (2x + 21) = 0
I: 2x2 + 9x – 18 = 0 x = 25 and -21/2
2x2 + 12x – 3x – 18 = 0 II: y2/ (36 – y) = 6
2x (x + 6) – 3 (x + 6) = 0 y2 = 216 – 6y
(x + 6) (2x – 3) = 0 y2 + 6y – 216 = 0
x = 3/2 and -6 y2 – 12y + 18y – 216 = 0
II: 2 (y2 + 9) = Ay y (y – 12) + 18 (y – 12) = 0
Case 1: When ‘3/2’ is the common root. (y – 12) (y + 18) = 0
2 [(3/2)2 + 9] = A * (3/2) y = 12 and -18
45/2 = 3A/2 When x = 25, y = 12; x > y
A = 15 When x = 25, y = -18; x > y
Case 2: When ‘-6’ is the common root. When x = -21/2, y = 12; x < y

When x = -21/2, y = -18; x > y Hence, relationship between ‘x’ and ‘y’ cannot be
determined.

English Day - 25
English Language
Directions (1-7): Read the following passage and standard of living is measured by real income.
answer the questions given below. When actual incomes rise, the standard of living
Giving people the resources and ability to learn rises with them, and vice versa.
about how things are going in our economy is an In actuality, prices fluctuate at various rates.
extremely important thing. One issue that is Some, such as the prices of traded commodities,
especially prevalent in today’s economy is fluctuate on a daily basis; others, such as
inflation and how it affects the overall well-being contract-based pay, require longer to adjust. In
of the people in our country and around the an inflationary environment, unevenly growing
globe. This economic issue affects every prices lower some customers’ purchasing power,
member of our society, and it is especially and this erosion of real income is the single most
important that our citizens keep themselves well- significant cost of inflation.
educated on this topic. In a sound economy, Inflation can also affect the purchasing power of
costs will in general increase – this is known as fixed-interest rate receivers and payers over
inflation. While you probably won’t care for that time. Take, for example, retirees who are
as a buyer, price growth rising moderately is an guaranteed a 5% annual rise in their pension.
indication of a solid, developing economy. When inflation exceeds 5%, a retiree’s
The U.S. Federal Reserve currently considers a purchasing power decreases. A borrower paying
2% inflation rate to act as the best growth rate for a 5% fixed-rate mortgage, on the other hand,
the economy, which is about its present level. Be would gain from 5% inflation because the real
that as it may, a few financial analysts, including interest rate (fixed rate of mortgage minus
those at the Federal Reserve, stress the inflation rate) would be zero; servicing this debt
economy is debilitating, which would make would be even easier if inflation were greater, as
inflation dip under its objective, which is long as the borrower’s income kept up with
something that needs to be avoided at all costs. inflation. Of course, the lender’s real income
The most recent information, which was released drops as a result. When nominal interest rates
to the public on June 12, implied that this might aren’t adjusted for inflation, some people gain
be occurring. and others lose purchasing power.
Households are worse off if their nominal A moderate measure of inflation is commonly
income, which they receive in current money, viewed as an indication of a solid economy, in
does not rise at the same rate as prices because light of the fact that as the economy develops,
they can afford to buy fewer things. To put it the demand for goods and services grows. This
another way, their purchasing power or real growth of demand pushes costs somewhat
(inflation-adjusted) income decreases. The higher as providers attempt to make a greater

English Day - 25
number of what buyers and organizations need e. Only option b

to purchase. When inflation becomes excessively
low, or vice versa, a horrendous cycle can wreak 2. Which of the following topics best suit the
havoc upon our economy. High inflation has a context of the passage?
wide scope of negative ramifications for a. Overcoming the negative effects inflation using
economies. At the point when work the right economic strategies.
compensation is unable to stay in line with the b. Moderate inflation – An indication of a
inflation of retail costs, the power of purchasing declining economy
of the pay checks that workers receive quickly c. The varying effects of inflation
diminishes. This causes a huge problem for d. Exploring household economic issues
households that receive low income, because e. A guide to improving the purchasing power of
any increase in the price of any goods or a common man
services can have very serious negative effects.
Laborers’ requests for growth in their wages can 3. According to the passage, why do
prompt an expansion in costs of labor, bringing organizations suffer when the inflation rate of a
about lower benefits for organizations. These country increases?
impacts of expansion can make a high level of a. When inflation increases, the cost of raw
vulnerability in an economy, prompting materials increases which eventually results in
diminished venture from those who aim to start increased expenditures for the organizations.
their own businesses. b. When inflation increases, the government
1. Which of the following statement/statements tends to increase the taxes imposed on
is/are true according to the passage given production and distribution of products and this
above? could deplete the capital funds of the
a. When the rate of inflation falls below the organization.
recommended growth rate, the economy of a c. When inflation increases, customers tend to
country can begin to lose strength and vitality. prevent buying products due to a surge in the
b. Households can suffer when their income cost of goods and this could lead to losses for
does not change in sync with the moving inflation organizations that produce commodities for the
rates. public.
c. The purchasing power of every person d. When inflation increases, the laborers tend to
increases when the inflation rates increase even request wage compensations to make up for the
when the income of every person remains the increase in the price of basic commodities and
same. this could bring in increased expenses for the
d. Only options a and b organization.

English Day - 25
e. None of the above reasons is right. Directions (8-12): Given below are a set of
sentences in which only one of them is
4. According to the passage, what grammatically and contextually correct. Identity
section/sections of the society lose/loses the sentence that is error-free.
purchasing power after an increase in the rates 8.
of inflation? a. Both Rita and Sita are not considering taking
a. Borrowers who pay fixed rate mortgage the IAS exams this month since they were held
b. People with contract-based income options up at work for the last few months and eventually
c. Individuals who receive retirement benefits had no time for the exam preparations.
d. Only option c b. Arjun has been planning to marry whoever his
e. Options b and c mother chooses since he dislikes going against
his mother's words.
5. What is the antonym of the word ‘debilitating’? c. If Reena takes up the upcoming exams
a. invigorating seriously, she could pass the exams with flying
b. exhausting colors.
c. draining d. Doctors advise us to drink at least 8 glassfuls
d. enfeebling of water every day to keep ourselves hydrated
e. None of the above during the summers.
e. Deepthi was confused about how some of her
6. What is synonym of the word ‘horrendous’? money were missing, but later she realized that
a. calming she had lent 5000 rupees to her sister this
b. pleasant month.
c. non-threatening
d. formidable 9.
e. None of the above a. Meena offered to pay for the watch she had
chosen using two five hundred rupees notes, but
7. What is the right antonym for the word the shopkeeper wanted her to transfer the
‘ramifications’? amount through mobile banking apps since he
a. outcome had no change.
b. consequence b. My friend is okay with me borrowing her car for
c. implication a day or two since I am yet to purchase my
d. cause vehicle.
e. effect

English Day - 25
c. Rita exclaimed that she loved watching movies b. Eagerly waiting to get a much-needed break
more than me, but I had been an ardent movie from her everyday routine, Roopa was
buff since childhood. heartbroken heavily when her car broke down
d. Neither the students nor the teacher is happy minutes before she started to drive to the mall.
about how the school canceled the science c. She called me several times in the last four
exhibition at the last minute since the class weeks until I had agreed to set an appointment.
collectively put in a lot of hard work to create the d. Every student was assigned a part in the play
models. that was to be staged on the school's annual day
e. The new building constructed at the heart of to ensure that all students got equal opportunities
the city is three times taller than the LIC building to showcase their acting talents.
at Chennai's Mount Road. e. All sentences are incorrect
10. 12.
a. Teju had no doubt whether she would pass the a. He could have passed the English literature
upcoming exams, but I doubted that I would clear test and secured a job offer in the United States
mine. if his father had been an English professor.
b. Renu said that she performed yoga every day b. Many a student from the Science department
to maintain her body fitness and improve her is contesting in the elections conducted to select
mental health. the members of the Student Union.
c. Meera had been planning to meet up with c. Not only the newly recruited interns speak
Rahul since the time she had asked him to pair French, but they are also fluent in English.
up with her for the upcoming project. d. While addressing the gathering, the minister
d. I wish I can meet Reena today for old time's stated that he believed that the youth of his state
sake, but I am uncertain about my schedule after would become powerful and effective with the
today's classes. required training and exposure.
e. The road to the airport was blocked due to the e. None of the sentences are incorrect.
arrival of the President for the inauguration of the
new world-class multi-specialty hospital in Directions (13-17): The following sentence has
Chennai. one part that is highlighted in bold. This
highlighted part may or may not be
11. grammatically and contextually correct. Choose
a. Tanya was living in Chennai before she the best alternatives among the four options
received an offer to study and work in one of the given below such that it rightly replaces the
most prestigious colleges in the United Kingdom. highlighted part grammatically and contextually.

English Day - 25
If the part given in bold is grammatically and 16. Karan does not deserve to take a claim on
contextually right, then choose the option ‘No the profits owned by his family business since he
replacement required’. hardly turned up at the office and engaged in
13. The police department has clamped down of work in the last few months.
piracy to prevent the illegal streaming of newly a. deserve to make a claim to the profits
released films on various online platforms. b. deserve to stake a claim to the profits
a. have clamped down of piracy to prevent the c. deserve to stake a claim on the profits
b. has clamped down on piracy to prevent the d. deserve to make a claim on the profits
c. has clamped down against piracy to prevent e. No changes required
the
d. has clamped down on piracy for the prevention 17. Tanya was wet behind the ears since she
e. No change required had just graduated but was excited about
venturing into new job roles in the company of
14. He, I, and you are collectively at fault for not her choice.
submitting the project within the specified a. waiting behind in years since she did
deadline since we lost track of what we should b. wet behind in years since she had
do midway through the project. c. waiting behind in years since she had
a. I, he, and you are collectively at fault d. wet beyond in ears since she had
b. He, you, and I are collectively at fault e. No changes required
c. I, you, and he are collectively at fault
d. He, you, and I are collectively in fault Directions (18-22): The following set of questions
e. No corrections required are not arranged in the right order. These
sentences when arranged in the right order gives
15. Rahul felt ashamed when he got his working right to meaningful passage. Identify the right
papers after being found guilty of leaking the pattern of arrangement and answer the
company's information to the competitors in questions that follow.
return for a ransom. A. Such kind of activism positively affect the
a. He got his walking papers after being society, as they attract the public’s attention to a
b. He had gotten his walking papers after being topical issue.
c. He got his working papers after being B. Women account for one of the groups most
d. He got his working papers after been affected by the disparities in the legal system.
e. No changes required C. Subsequently, various standpoints are
expressed through different means of

English Day - 25
communication, calling for an equal approach to e. None of the above

justice for both sexes.
D. Therefore, this sphere has been an area of 20. Which sentence comes second after
intense interest for feminist researchers and arranging the set of sentences correctly to form a
activists. meaningful passage?
F. Accordingly, it can be concluded that the a. A
country is currently experiencing the b. B
phenomenon of mass female incarceration, c. C
which _________ the unfair side of the legal d. D
system. e. E
G. Reports suggest that the incarceration rate of
women in a particular country has grown at a 21. Which sentence comes fourth after arranging
quicker pace than a similar number of men. the set of sentences correctly to form a
18. Which of the following words is the best meaningful passage?
antonym for the word highlighted in the passage a. A
– disparities? b. B
a. inequality c. C
b. distinction d. D
c. indifference e. E
d. imparity
e. None of the above 22. Which sentence comes sixth after arranging
the set of sentences correctly to form a
19. What word best suits the blank in the given meaningful passage?
passage? a. A
a. matches b. C
b. reflects c. D
c. resonates d. E
d. reproduces e. F

English Day - 25

1. Answer: E some people (not every person) increases when
The context of option A is clearly stated in the inflation rates increase. Thus, option c is
second paragraph of that passage. But the incorrect.
financial analysts state that the inflation rate
could fall below the recommended growth rate 2. Answer: C
when economy tends to become weak and lose Option a is incorrect. Because the passage does
vitality. But option ‘a’ conveys describes the said not focus on disclosing or proposing economic
course of actions in the other way. Option a says strategies to overcome the negative effects of
that the economy of the country becomes weak inflation.
when the inflation rate dips below the Option b is incorrect. Because according to the
recommended growth rate which does not match passage, moderate inflation is described as an
the message conveyed through the passage. indication of a developing economy and not a
Thus, option a is incorrect. falling economy.
Option b talks about how households can suffer Option c is correct. Because the passage briefly
when their income does not change with the describes about how inflation can positively and
moving inflation rates. This statement is clearly negatively affect the people of a country.
stated in the third paragraph of the passage. Option d is incorrect. Because the passage does
Option c is incorrect. Since according to the fifth not solely focus on household economic issues
paragraph of the passage, people can gain and since topic is just one among the many
lose their purchasing power when the inflation discussed in the passage. For instance, the last
rates rise. But option c normalizes this statement paragraph of the passage also talks about the
to every person. The purchasing power of only issues organizations face as a result of laborers

English Day - 25
requesting wage compensations to tackle the get increased only after periodic intervals. Thus,
effects of inflation. the retirees would face financial challenges until
Option e is incorrect. Because the passage does the pension amounts gets renewed. Thus, option
not focus on improving the purchasing power of c is correct.
a common man but only explains how the Option b speaks about individuals with contract-
purchasing power of a common man gets affects based income options. Retirees are people with
when inflation rates change drastically. Also, the contract-based income options since they
passage does not explicitly state alternatives to receive contracted income options that increase
improve the purchasing power of a common only once in every year. Thus, option b is also
man. correct.
Thus, options b and c are correct.
3. Answer: D
According to the last paragraph of the passage, 5. Answer: A
it is clear that when the price of the commodities The word debilitating is an adjective which
increases, laborers tend to request wage means to impair the strength and vitality.
compensations and this could expand the costs Invigorating (adjective) – to impart strength and
of labor of the organization. Thus, option d is vitality
correct. Also, the passage does not explicitly talk Exhausting (adjective) – to have a debilitating
about how organizations get affected as a result effect
of increase in taxes, increase in the price of raw Draining (adjective) – to have a debilitating effect
materials, and less sales. Thus, options a, b, and Enfeebling (adjective) – to weaken
c are incorrect. The options b, c, and d are synonymous with
each other. The right answer is option a.
4. Answer: E
In the fifth paragraph of the passage, it is clearly 6. Answer: D
stated the borrowers who pay fixed rate The word ‘horrendous’ (adjective) means to
mortgage gain purchasing power when there is cause fear, dread, or terror.
an increase in the rate of inflation since in these Calming (adjective) – to be in a state of peace.
cases, their actual interest rates become zero. Pleasant (adjective) – calming and peaceful
Thus, option a is incorrect. Non-threatening (adjective) – not making feeling
In the same paragraph, it is stated that retirees nervous
lose purchasing power after an increase in the Formidable (adjective) – inspiring fear
rate of inflation because their pension amounts Thus, the right answer is option d.

English Day - 25
7. Answer: D ‘whomever’ is always used as an objective

The word ‘ramifications’ (noun) means the result pronoun. It is used as an object of a
of an event. verb/preposition in a sentence. Thus, whoever
The words outcome, consequence, implication, should be replaced with whomever in sentence
and effect are all nouns and they denote the B. The right sentence is:
result of an event. Thus, they are synonymous to Arjun has been planning to marry whomever his
the word ‘ramifications’. mother chooses since he dislikes going against
The word ‘cause’ (noun) indicates something his mother's words.
that encourages an event to occur. In simple The sentence C is a conditional sentence. The
contexts, the cause of an event is something that conditional part of the sentence is written in
happens before it and the outcome of an event simple present sentence. Thus, the main part of
happens after it. Thus, the word ‘cause’ is the the sentence should also be written in simple
right antonym for ramifications. present tense to follow uniformity. Thus, the use
of the word ‘could’ in the main part of the
8. Answer: D sentence is wrong since it is a simple past model
The sentence A uses the word ‘Both’ and ‘Not’ verb. The right choice of model verb (simple
together. The words ‘both’ and ‘not’ should not present) for this sentence is may/can. The right
be used together. In this case, it is advised to sentence is:
use ‘neither – nor’ with a singular or plural verb If Reena takes up the upcoming exams
according to the subject-verb agreement. The seriously, she can/may pass the exams with
right sentence is: flying colors.
Neither Rita nor Sita is considering taking the The sentence D is grammatically and
IAS exams this month since they were held up at contextually right.
work for the last few months and eventually had The sentence E uses the phrase ‘some of her
no time for the exam preparations. money’. The word money always takes singular
The sentence B has the word ‘whoever’. The form and thus, the verb that is used to describe
pronoun ‘whoever’ is always used as a money also takes singular form. Thus, the right
subjective pronoun. It is replaced as the subject sentence is:
of the verb in a sentence. But in this case, the Deepthi was confused about how some of her
pronoun is position to describe the object of the money was missing, but later she realized that
verb in the sentence, (i.e) the pronoun should be she had lent 5000 rupees to her sister this
positioned as an object of the verb (verb - month.
indicates who his mother chooses). The pronoun

English Day - 25
9. Answer: D the right first person subjective pronoun. The

The sentence A includes the phrase ‘two five right sentence is:
hundred rupees notes’ which is grammatically Rita exclaimed that she loved watching movies
incorrect. If the phrase is framed in the form – more than I, but I had been an ardent movie buff
‘number + unit + noun’ the unit mentioned here since childhood.
should take singular form. Here, the number is The sentence D is correct. Note that when there
‘five hundred’, unit is ‘rupees’ and noun is ‘notes. are two subjects separated by neither or nor,
The unit should take singular form. Thus, the then the verb should be inserted according to the
right sentence is: nearest subject like in the case of this sentence.
Meena offered to pay for the watch she had The sentence E speaks about comparisons.
chosen using two five hundred rupee notes, but When the word ‘times’ is used in the sentence, it
the shopkeeper wanted her to transfer the should not be followed by adjectives/nouns of
amount through mobile banking apps since he the comparative degree. Thus, ‘three times taller
had no change. than’ is grammatically incorrect. The comparison
The sentence B consists of a phrase ‘me is made using the phrase ‘as + positive degree
borrowing’ which is grammatically incorrect. If a adjective/verb + as’ to make it grammatically
pronoun is used before a gerund, the pronoun correct. The right sentence is:
should mandatorily take possessive form. Thus, The new building constructed at the heart of the
the word ‘me’ is an objective pronoun and hence city is three times as tall as the LIC building at
it is incorrect. The right word should be ‘my’ – Chennai's Mount Road.
possessive pronoun. The right sentence is:
My friend is okay with my borrowing her car for a 10. Answer: E
day or two since I am yet to purchase my The sentence A talks about exams. Sentences
vehicle. with the word ‘doubt/doubtful’ (unsure of
The sentence C compares the liking of two something) should be followed by the connectors
individuals. The comparison should be made ‘if/whether’ and the sentences with the word ‘no
between two similar entities, (i.e) here the doubt/not doubtful’ should be used with the
comparison is made between ‘she’ which a third connector ‘that’. Thus, the right sentence is:
person subjective pronoun and the speaker. Teju had no doubt that she would pass the
Thus, the speaker, begin the first person, should upcoming exams, but I doubted whether I would
be represented by a subjected pronoun as well. clear mine.
But ‘me’ is a first person objective pronoun. The sentence B speaks about the daily habit of
Thus, the word ‘me’ is incorrect. The word ‘I’ is Renu. The tense of a verb when describing a

English Day - 25
habitual event of a person does not change even I wish I could meet Reena today for old time's
in the case of reported speech. The tense of the sake, but I am uncertain about my schedule after
verb should be in simple present tense in indirect today's classes.
speech when describing about a habitual event The sentence E is grammatically and
of a person. Thus, ‘she performed yoga’ is wrong contextually correct.
and it must be changed to ‘she performs yoga’.
The right sentence is: 11. Answer: D
Renu said that she performs yoga every day to The sentence A speaks about two events. If
maintain her body fitness and improve her there are two events wherein one of the two
mental health. events was in progress in the past until the other
The sentence C consists of the word ‘since’. event occurred. In this case, the event that
Sentences with ‘since’ should be framed in such happened first should be written in past perfect
a way that the part of the sentence before the continuous tense. Thus, ‘Tanya was living in
word ‘since’ should be written perfect/perfect Chennai’ (lived-simple past) is incorrect. The
continuous tense, while the part of the sentence right use of verb should be in past perfect
after the word ‘since’ should be written in simple continuous tense ‘has been living’. The right
tense. In this sentence, the part of the sentence sentence is:
before ‘since’ is correctly framed with ‘had been Tanya had been living in Chennai before she
planning’ – past perfect continuous tense. But received an offer to study and work in one of the
the sentence after the word ‘since’ is not written most prestigious colleges in the United Kingdom.
in simple past. The correct form of the verb here In sentence B, the adverb ‘heavily’ is placed
should be ‘she asked’ and not ‘she had asked’. after the verb ‘heartbroken’. The adverb is
The right sentence is: normally placed before the verb to bring in
Meera had been planning to meet up with Rahul greater emphasis of the verb. Thus, the right
since the time she asked him to pair up with her sentence is:
for the upcoming project. Eagerly waiting to get a much-needed break
The sentence D includes the word ‘wish’. The from her everyday routine, Roopa was heavily
verb after the word ‘wish’ should always be heartbroken when her car broke down minutes
included in simple past form. Thus, ‘I wish I can’ before she started to drive to the mall.
is grammatically incorrect since the verb ‘can’ is In the sentence C, there are two actions. When
in simple present form. The right use of the verb there are two actions taking place, the one that
should be ‘could’. The right sentence is: had occurred first should be written in past
perfect tense and the action that follows that

English Day - 25
should be written in simple past tense. Thus, the students from the science department are’. The
use of verb ‘called’ is incorrect (action that right sentence is:
happened first) and it should be changed to past Many a student from the Science department is
perfect tense – ‘had called’. Also, for the action contesting in the elections conducted to select
that follow, the use of the verb ‘had agreed’ is the members of the Student Union.
incorrect and it should be replaced by ‘agreed’ The sentence D uses the phrases ‘not only – but
(simple past). Thus, the right sentence is: also’. This set of phrases makes use of the rule
She had called me several times in the last four of inversion. In this case, the sentence
weeks until I agreed to set an appointment. arrangement should follow this pattern : ‘not only
The sentence D is grammatically correct. + auxiliary verb +subject’. The right use of
phrase would be ‘Not only do the newly’. The
12. Answer: D right sentence is:
The sentence A talks about how the speaker Not only do the newly recruited interns speak
would have passed the English test if his father French, but they are also fluent in English.
was an English professor. But profession of his The sentence D is grammatically correct.
father is something that could not be changed. It
is impossible for his father to become an English 13. Answer: B
professor. Thus, the latter part of the sentence The sentence includes a phrasal verb that
talks about something unreal or impossible. should necessarily take the form ‘clamped down
Thus, the verb used here should be ‘were’ and on’. So the right use of preposition is ‘on’ and not
not ‘had been’. Thus, the right sentence is: ‘of’ or ‘against’. Thus, the options ‘a’ and ‘c’ are
He could have passed the English literature test incorrect. In option d, the phrase ‘for the
and secured a job offer in the United States if his prevention’ grammatically incorrect because the
father were an English professor. sentence after the highlighted part does not have
The sentence B starts with the word ‘many’ the preposition ‘of’ to rightly completely the
which should be immediately followed by a plural sentence. Thus, the right answer is option ‘b’.
noun in general cases. If the word ‘many’ is The right sentence is:
followed by ‘a’ then the noun that follows ‘Many The police department has clamped down on
a’ should be singular and the verb which follows piracy to prevent the illegal streaming of newly
the subject of the sentence should be plural. released films on various online platforms.
Thus, the right phrase should be ‘Many a student
from the science department is’ and not ‘Many a 14. Answer: C

English Day - 25
When the sentence speaks about the The sentence speaks about how a person
acceptance of guilt or grief, the order of the beings to claim the profits that he do not deserve
pronouns would be ‘first person, second person, in the first place since he had not worked for it.
and third person’. Thus, options a, b, and d are But the right use of preposition after claim in this
incorrect. The right order of pronouns is ‘I, you, context is ‘on’ and not ‘to’. The word claim
and he’. The right sentence is: follows the preposition ‘on’ when it speaks about
I, you, and he are collectively at fault for not something that the subject is not deserving of or
submitting the project within the specified have not rights on. Also, the right word that
deadline since we lost track of what we should should be used to denote the act of claiming
do midway through the project. properties or wealth is ‘stake’. Thus, the right
sentence is:
15. Answer: A Karan does not deserve to stake a claim on the
The sentence talks about how Rahul was fired profits owned by his family business since he
from his job after being found to be at fault for hardly turned up at the office and engaged in
selling company’s information. The sentence work in the last few months.
conveys this better with the use of the idiom ‘Got
your walking papers’ which means to ‘get fired 17. Answer: E
from the job’. Thus, the right use of word is The given sentence is grammatically and
‘walking’ and not ‘working’. Thus, options a and contextually right. The phrase or idiom ‘wet
d are incorrect. Also, the verb ‘had gotten’ is behind her ears’ means ‘young and lacking in
grammatically incorrect. Since the sentence is experience’.
written is simple past sentence but ‘had gotten’
is past participle. The use of ‘had gotten’ is 18. Answer: C
incorrect since these leads to non-uniformity Disparity is a noun which denotes inequality or
while considering about the tense of the difference in some respect.
sentence. Thus, option b is incorrect. Inequality (noun) – lack of equality
The right sentence is: Distinction (noun) – discrimination between
Rahul felt ashamed when he got his walking entities
papers after being found guilty of leaking the Imparity (noun) – lack of equality
company's information to the competitors in Thus, options a, b, and d are synonymous to the
return for a ransom. given word.
Indifference (noun) – the state of being
16. Answer: C unbiased, impartial, equal

English Day - 25
Thus, option c is the right answer. feminist researchers. Thus, sentence D should
come second in the arrangement. Since
19. Answer: B researchers have been brought into the picture
Matches (verb) – to coincide in characteristics they are bound to deliver viewpoints and
Reflects (verb) – to give evidence for a certain opinions on this issue. Thus, sentence C should
behavior or pattern come next since it contains the word
Resonates (verb) – to be similar to what ‘standpoints’ (noun) which means ‘viewpoints’.
someone believes of thinks Sentence C talks about the need for an equal
Reproduces (verb) – to replicate something approach to justice for both genders. An equal
Here, the sentence speaks about how a country approach to justice for both genders can bring
is experiencing mass female incarceration. The about a much required social equality. Thus, the
best choice of verb for this blank is ‘reflects’ sentence A should come next because it
since the mass female incarceration shows includes the phrase ‘such kinds of activism’ in
evidence for the unfairness in the legal system. the beginning wherein the word activism (noun)
Thus, the right sentence is: means a policy of actively campaigning to
Accordingly, it can be concluded that the country achieve a political or social goal. Now, there are
is currently experiencing the phenomenon of two sentences left, one of which speaks about,
mass female incarceration, which reflects the the incarceration rate of women has grown at a
unfair side of the legal system. quicker pace when compared to a similar
number of men and the other speaks about how
20. Answer: D something reflects the unfair side of the legal
The passage talks about the unfairness system. Also, the sentence F refers to the mass
observed against women. The sentence B incarceration of women that is introduced into
comes first because it introduces the topic to the the passage using the statistics of a report that is
readers. The sentence D talks about a certain mentioned in sentence G. Thus, sentence F
sphere sparks the interest of feminist follows sentence G.
researchers. The word sphere (noun) denotes a Thus, the right pattern of arrangement is:
particular aspect of an activity. The sentence A B-D-C-A-G-F
which talks about disparities in the legal system Thus, the second sentence after rearrangement
that work against women. Feminist researchers is D. The right answer is option d.
believe women should equal rights. Thus, the
disparities in the legal system that work against 21. Answer: A
women is that sphere that sparks the interest of

English Day - 25
The right pattern of arrangement is B-D-C-A-G- 22. Answer: E

F. Refer to the explanation given for question The right pattern of arrangement is B-D-C-A-G-
number 20 for a detailed solution for the F. Refer to the explanation given for question
rearrangement. Thus, the right answer is option number 20 for a detailed solution for the
a. rearrangement. Thus, the right answer is option
e.

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Bank Po Mains PDF Course 2024

Reasoning Day -21 (Eng)

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7) Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are of

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d) N is the grandchild of M. K is the daughter of 10) Eight persons G, H, I, J, K, L, M and N sit

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Answer Key with Explanation

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For Blood Relation:

Case (1a) is not valid as no place left for S’s son.

Case (2) is not valid as many persons attend a

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 Q is taller than S who is the shortest

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 There are three floors between C and D.  N doesn’t sit adjacent to I.

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 A sits 165cm to the left of G.  The distance between E and D is same

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e) only I and III and grandfather of D is 123. The age of the

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E and F in 2023 is 4:7. The profit percentage of b) 92

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I. The total quantity of fruits sold in B is 8x. A. Quantity: I < Quantity: II

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Answer Key with Explanation

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The age of the mother of family E is 42 years. 6) Answer: D

Directions (05 - 08): 7) Answer: B

Directions (09 - 12):

2023 is [84+100.8]/2=92.4 lakhs 90*120/100=108

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The Quantity of grapes sold in B is = So, required difference = 279-[75+75+50]=279-

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=48*125/100 + 84*75/100= 123 The smaller root of the second equation is

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So, p=28 The larger root of the second equation is 22-

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a) Only I defending champion Gujarat Titans with

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Answer Key with Explanation

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e) None of these then which of the number yields the resultant

=48125/100 + 8475/100= 123 The smaller root of the second equation is