Simulator Test

PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.1) With reference to the Internet Shutdowns Q.4) Recently, Kerala High Court while
in India, consider the following statements: addressing the menace of dog bites in Kerala
1. It has a statutory backing. and the incidents of unauthorised killing of
2. The power to impose internet shutdown is community dogs, directed the State Police
vested only with the Union government. Chief to issue circular clarifying that— “While
3. The order of imposition of internet the State Administration is taking necessary
shutdown is outside the purview of Judicial steps to contain the incidents of dog bites, the
review. citizenry shall also refrain from taking law into
How many of the statements given above are their own hands by inflicting unnecessary
correct? harm on community dogs.”
a) Only one Which of the following doctrines was invoked
b) Only two
by the concerned high court while addressing
c) All three
d) None the above-given issue?
a) Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
Q.2) With reference to Indian Constitution, b) Doctrine of Res Judicata
consider the following statements: c) Doctrine of Territorial Nexus
Statement-I: Preamble can be amended by the d) Doctrine of Parens Patriae
Parliament.
Statement-II: Preamble is considered as part Q.5) In context of Indian Polity, consider the
of the Indian Constitution. following statements:
Which one of the following is correct in 1. Under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution
respect of the above statements? the state can justify unequal treatment
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are between two similarly situated persons if
correct and Statement-II is the correct there is such a precedence of unequal
explanation for Statement-I treatment.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. Under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution,
correct and Statement-II is not the correct State is bound to impart equal treatment to
explanation for Statement-1 dissimilarly situated persons.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect correct?
a) 1 only
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
b) 2 only
correct
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.3) With reference to the Indian Constitution,
consider the following statements:
Q.6) This legal remedy is a command issued by
A Constitutional amendment bill under the
a higher court to compel a lower court,
provisions of Article 368-
government official, or public authority to
1. cannot be initiated in the State legislature.
perform a specific duty that they are legally
2. can only be introduced by a minister.
obligated to carry out. It is typically sought
3. has no provision for joint sitting of the
when there is a clear legal entitlement to the
houses for the passage of the bill.
performance of a duty and when no other
4. requires prior permission from the
adequate remedy is available. Notably, a recent
President for its introduction.
Supreme Court judgment clarified that it
5. cannot be sent back for reconsideration to
cannot be issued to state governments to
the Parliament by the President.
provide for reservations.
How many of the statements given above are
Which of the following legal writs is best
correct?
described in the above passage?
a) Only two
a) Certiorari
b) Only three
b) Quo-Warranto
c) Only four
c) Habeas corpus
d) All five
d) Mandamus
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[2]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.7) National Generic Document Registration 4. The President is obligated to provide

System (NGDRS) recently seen in news refer reasons for his/her decision while
to: exercising the pardoning power.
a) a digital platform for registration of 5. The exercise of pardoning power by the
properties and documents across the President is not immune from judicial
country. review.
b) a digital platform for seamless integration How many of the above statements are
of educational institutions. correct?
c) a digital platform launched by the Ministry a) Only two
of External affairs to provide online b) Only three
passport seva. c) Only four
d) a digital platform which is aimed at storing d) All five
the genome map of the country.
Q.10) Consider the following pairs with
Q.8) Consider the following statements with reference to various organization, coalition
reference to proclamation of National and declaration in news:
Emergency in India: International Description
1. It can be declared on the grounds of war, organization,
external aggression and internal coalition and
disturbance. declarations
2. Laws made by Parliament on state subjects 1. Atlantic By North Atlantic Treaty
during National emergency, becomes declaration Organization (NATO)
inoperative six months after its revocation. members to ensure rule-
3. The revocation of the National Emergency based order in the Atlantic
by the President of India, needs written Ocean
advice from the Union Cabinet. 2. First Movers Initiative of World
4. National Emergency in India has been Coalition Economic Forum (WEF) to
proclaimed only once. decarbonize the heavy
How many of the above statements are industries and long-
correct? distance transport sectors
a) Only one 3. Group of friends Initiative of India to
b) Only two promote accountability for
c) Only three crimes against United
d) All four Nations Peacekeeping
force
Q.9) Consider the following statements in 4. Clydebank Signed at COP 26 of
respect of Pardoning power of the President of declaration UNFCCC to promote the
India: establishment of green
1. The petitioner seeking mercy has the right shipping corridors
to an oral hearing before the President. How many of the above pairs are correctly
2. The Constitution of India provides specific matched?
guidelines to be followed by the President a) Only one
while exercising pardoning power. b) Only two
3. While the power to grant pardons rests c) Only three
with the President of India, it should be d) All four
exercised on the advice of the Union
Council of Ministers.
[3]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.11) Consider the following statements: Q.14) In the context of Indian history, consider
Statement I-: There are 28 states and 8 Union the following:
Territories in India, but only 25 High Courts. 1. The end of American Civil War resulted in
Statement-II: The Constitution of India the drop of prices of cotton.
provides for a high court for each state. 2. 50% increase in the land revenue demand
Which one of the following is correct in by the British government from the
respect of the above statements? peasants.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 3. A series of bad harvests during the period.
correct and Statement-II is the correct How many of the above are the causes of the
explanation for Statement-I Deccan riots of 1875?
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are a) Only one
correct, and Statement-II is not the correct b) Only two
explanation for Statement-I c) All three
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is d) None
incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is Q.15) Consider the following:
correct 1. To develop the spirit of enquiry
2. To respect the country’s national song
Q.12) Which of the following statements best 3. To have compassion for living creatures
reflects the balance between parliamentary 4. To abjure violence
sovereignty and judicial supremacy in India? 5. To value and preserve the country’s ancient
a) Supreme Courts power under article 142 to monuments
pass any order or decree for doing How many of the above are listed in Article 51-
complete justice. A (Fundamental duties) of the Indian
b) Complete separation of powers between Constitution?
the Judiciary and Legislature. a) Only two
c) Parliaments’ power to amend the b) Only three
Constitution except the part which c) Only four
constitutes the basic structure. d) All five
d) Parliaments power to impeach Judges.
Q.16) In the context of Judiciary, Bangalore
Q.13) Consider the following statements in the Principles are best related to:
context of Indian polity: a) Judicial appointments and promotions
Statement I-: The Governor of a state cannot b) Legal education and training
dismiss a minister without the consent of the c) Ethical conduct of judges
Chief minister of the state. d) Rights of arrested individuals
Statement-II: The Council of ministers of a
state hold office during the pleasure of the Q.17) Consider the following statements
Governor. regarding Non-Fungible Tokens (NFT):
Which one of the following is correct in 1. It is a digital asset that represents
respect of the above statements? ownership or proof of authenticity for a
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are specific item like digital content.
correct and Statement-II is the correct 2. It cannot be divided into smaller units.
explanation for Statement-I 3. One NFT can have only one owner at a
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are time.
correct and Statement-II is not the correct How many of the above statements are
explanation for Statement-I correct?
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is a) Only one
incorrect b) Only two
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is c) All three
correct d) None
[4]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.18) In which of the below cases ordinance How many of the above pairs are correctly
cannot be promulgated by the Governor of a matched?
state without the instructions from the a) Only one
President the President of India? b) Only two
1. provisions which endanger the c) Only three
constitutional position of the High Court. d) All four
2. subjects of concurrent list.
Select the correct answer using the code given Q.22) With reference to ancient Indian history,
below: consider the following elements:
a) 1 only 1. Janpada, Territory and the population
b) 2 only 2. Amatya, the ministers
c) Both 1 and 2 3. Shatru , Enemies of the state
d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Danda, Well-equipped Military
5. Durga, strategically located forts
Q.19) Which of the following Constitutional How many of the above elements were
Amendment Act further extended the included in the 'Saptanga theory of state'
reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok referred to by Kautilya in the Arthashastra?
Sabha and the State Assemblies from seventy a) Only two
years to eighty years? b) Only three
a) 79th Constitutional Amendment Act c) Only four
b) 95th Constitutional Amendment Act d) All five
c) 99th Constitutional Amendment Act
d) 104th Constitutional Amendment Act Q.23) With reference to the history of modern
India, which one of the following is correct
Q.20) Consider the following statements: regarding the ‘Theosophical Society’?
1. Betting and Gambling fall under Union List a) It was founded by Annie Beasant.
of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian b) It criticized the concept of Karma,
Constitution. suggesting it hinders the growth of
2. The Public Gambling Act of 1867 prohibits Hinduism as a Universal religion.
public gambling houses and all games of c) Its present headquarter is located in
chances in India. Chennai, India.
3. Goods and Services Tax (GST) is applicable d) It strongly opposed all the superstitious
on Betting and Gambling in India. practises associated with Hinduism.
How many of the above statements are
correct? Q.24) Sangeet Mimansa, Sangeetraj and Sudha
a) Only one Prabandh are the major works of which of the
b) Only two following rulers of medieval India?
c) All three a) Rana Sangha
d) None b) Krishna Deva Raya
c) Rana Kumbha
Q.21) With reference to institutions established d) Ahmad Shah Wali
to promote education in modern India,
consider the following pairs: Q.25) The Pugalur inscription and the
Institutions Founded by Patirruppattu literature belongs to which of
1. Calcutta Madrasa Lord Warren Hastings the following dynasties of ancient India?
2. Banaras Sanskrit David Hare a) Cheras
College b) Pandyas
3. Fort William Lord William Bentick c) Satavahannas
College d) Vakatakas
4. Dawn Society James Thomson
[5]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.26) With reference to E.V. Ramasamy Q.29) During the period of Gupta dynasty in
famously known as ‘Periyar’, consider the ancient India, the territory was divided into
following statements: various administrative units for efficient
1. He never joined Indian National Congress. administration. In that context consider the
2. He pioneered Self-respect movement to following:
secure social and political freedoms for 1. Vishayas
common people. 2. Bhukti
3. He was one of the founding members of 3. Grama
‘South Indian Liberal Federation’. 4. Vithi
4. His work ‘Cultivator’s Whipcord’ criticized Which of the following represents the correct
the so-called upper-caste leaders for vertical political hierarchy, from top to down,
preaching anti-colonial nationalism. of above given administrative units?
How many of the statements given above are a) 1-2-3-4
correct? b) 2-1-4-3
a) Only one c) 3-4-1-2
b) Only two d) 3-2-1-4
c) Only three
d) All four Q.30) Consider the following features of cities
of the Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC):
Q.27) With reference to the ‘Macaulay's Minute 1. The houses had windows at the ground
on Education’ proposed during colonial India, floor for natural lighting.
consider the following statements: 2. The upper towns (citadel) of IVC were
1. It was proposed as a result of the generally built on mud brick platform.
enactment of the Charter Act of 1853. 3. The houses in IVC generally had
2. It acknowledged the superiority of native bathrooms.
languages over English in the field of How many of the above statements are
literature. correct?
3. It recommended the British Government a) Only one
to assume responsibility for the education b) Only two
of masses in India. c) All three
4. It advocated English should be adopted as d) None
a medium of instruction in Indian schools.
How many of the statements given above are Q.31) In the context of Indian history, which of
correct? the following is correct about Vishishtadvaita
a) Only one philosophy?
b) Only two a) Brahman is the supreme, independent
c) Only three reality, while individual souls are
d) All four dependent on Brahman but are eternally
separate from it.
Q.28) Short stories named 'Sultana's Dream' b) The individual soul is part of Brahman,
and ‘Abarodhbasini’, criticizing the custom of essentially different from it but
purdah among Muslims, were written by inseparably bound to it.
which of the following female social reformer c) The individual self (Atman) is ultimately
during India's freedom struggle? identical with Brahman, and the apparent
a) Pandita Ramabai diversity of the world is considered an
b) Ismat Chughtaii illusion (Maya).
c) Begum Anisa Kidwai d) Brahman is the ultimate reality, and the
d) Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain individual souls are eternally dependent
on and inseparable from Brahman.
[6]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.32) With reference to Indian history, 3. The case pertains to the question of the
consider the following statements about legality of child marriage.
swadeshi movement: How many of the above statements are correct
1. The Peasant class participated in large regarding the Maharaj Libel Case of 1862?
numbers in the movement. a) Only one
2. The National Council of Education was b) Only two
established during the Swadeshi c) All three
movement. d) None
3. Samitis such as the Swadesh Bandhab
Samiti and Swadeshi Sangam were formed Q.35) In the context of Indian history, which of
to generate political consciousness among the following is correct regarding Prarthna
the masses. Samaj?
How many of the statements given above are a) Its emphasis was more on religious reform
correct? than social reform.
a) Only one b) Sarvajanik Sabha was the predecessor of
b) Only two Prathana Samaj.
c) All three c) It criticized the Bhakti movement for
d) None spreading superstitions among the masses.
d) Atmaram Pandurang was one of the
Q.33) Consider the following statements: founding members of Prarthana Samaj.
Statement I-: In late 19th and early 20th
century, generally in the industrial regions' Q.36) With reference to Shrenis (guilds) during
workers came from the nearby districts. Ancient India, consider the following
Statement-II: The ideal working conditions in statements:
the industries attracted the artisans and 1. The division of labour under the varna
peasants from the nearby areas. system was conducive to the emergence of
Which one of the following is correct in guild organization.
respect of the above statements? 2. They had their own laws regarding
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are production and fixation of prices of
correct and Statement-II is the correct commodities.
explanation for Statement-I 3. Jetthaka was the head of the guild.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 4. They acted as banks for the sole purpose of
correct and Statement-II is not the keeping the money safe and investing in
correct explanation for Statement-I commercial activities.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is How many of the above statements are
incorrect correct?
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II a) Only one
is correct b) Only two
c) Only three
Q.34) With reference to Indian history, d) All four
consider the following statements about
Maharaj Libel Case of 1862:
1. It was a libel suit against a newspaper
article published by Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
2. It laid down the principle that ‘what is
morally wrong cannot be theologically
right’
[7]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.37) Consider the following statements: Q.40) With reference to ‘Metaverse’, consider
Statement-I: Helium is used to dilute oxygen the following statements:
in the Sea diving apparatus. 1. It is a digital universe where users can
Statement-II: Helium is highly soluble in interact with each other and digital objects
oxygen. in real-time.
Which one of the following is correct in 2. Blockchain technology can be used in
respect of the above statements? metaverse to provide a secure way to
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are record ownership and transactions.
correct and Statement-II is the correct 3. At the present level of technology, its
explanation for Statement-I. applicability is limited to activities such as
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are gaming and socializing.
correct and Statement-II is not the correct How many of the above statements are
explanation for Statement-I. correct?
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is a) Only one
incorrect. b) Only two
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is c) All three
correct. d) None
Q.38) Consider the following statement with Q.41) Consider the following pairs:
regard to “direct to mobile” (D2M) Technology: Artificial Parent Companies
1. It’s an indigenous, made in India Intelligence (AI)
technology, and it is the first of its kind in tools
the world. 1. ChatGPT OpenAI
2. It allows transmission of multimedia 2. Gemini Microsoft
content to user’s smartphones without 3. Grok xAI
requiring an active internet connection. 4. Copilot Google
3. D2M services will operate at the same How many of the above pairs are correctly
frequency as Prasar Bharati uses for its matched?
digital terrestrial broadcasting channels. a) Only one
How many of the statements given above are b) Only two
correct? c) Only three
a) Only one d) All four
b) Only two
c) All three Q.42) Consider the following statements
d) None regarding Deep fake technology:
1. It can generate highly realistic but entirely
Q.39) Consider the following advantages: fabricated audio or video content.
1. Higher speed 2. It uses machine learning algorithm for
2. Higher internet traffic handling capacity switching the identities of two people.
3. Higher latency 3. It has potential applications in the
4. More efficient usage of spectrum entertainment industry, such as creating
How many of the above are advantages of 5G digital doubles for actors or enhancing
(Fifth Generation of Mobile Technologies) over special effects in movies.
4G (Fourth Generation of Mobile How many of the above statements are
Technologies)? correctly matched?
a) Only one a) Only one
b) Only two b) Only two
c) Only three c) All three
d) All four d) None
[8]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.43) This NASA mission designed to study one a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
of the largest moons of Jupiter. It will orbit correct and Statement-II is the correct
Jupiter and perform numerous close flybys of explanation for Statement-I.
this moon, gathering data on its composition, b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
geology, and potential for life-supporting correct and Statement-II is not the correct
environments. explanation for Statement-I.
Which of the following space mission’s is best c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
described in the above passage? incorrect.
a) VIPER d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
b) Hera correct
c) Europa clipper
d) JUICE Q.47) With reference to the difference
between Saturated and Unsaturated fats,
Q.44) Consider the following pairs: consider the following statements:
Diseases Caused by 1. Unsaturated fats are found primarily in
1. Athletes foot Fungi animal-based foods, whereas saturated fats
2. Kala azar Parasitic worm are found mainly in plant-based foods.
3. Lymphatic Protozoa 2. Saturated fats generally exist in solid state
Filariasis at room temperature, whereas unsaturated
4. Anthrax Virus fats exist in a liquid state.
How many of the above pairs are correctly 3. Saturated fats, compared to unsaturated
matched? fats, are healthier for humans.
a) Only one How many of the statements given above are
b) Only two correct?
c) Only three a) Only one
d) All four b) Only two
c) All three
Q.45) With reference to Gene drive d) None
technology, consider the following statements:
1. It is a technology that can prevent certain Q.48) The Schedule I of the National Green
genes to pass from a parent to its offspring. Tribunal Act, 2010, empowers a person to
2. It can be used to control diseases approach the National Green Tribunal (NGT)
transmitted by insects, particularly to seek relief and compensation for
mosquitoes. environmental damage in case of violation of
3. This technology can be applied to both certain acts. In this context, consider the
sexually as well as asexually reproducing following acts:
organisms. 1. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
How many of the above statements are 2. The Water (Prevention and Control of
correctly matched? Pollution) Act, 1974.
a) Only one 3. The Air (Prevention and Control of
b) Only two Pollution) Act, 1981.
c) All three 4. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
d) None 5. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
6. The Forest Rights Act, 2006.
Q.46) Consider the following statements: How many of the above acts are mentioned in
Statement I: Liquid ammonia is widely used as Schedule I of the National Green Tribunal Act,
a refrigerant in ice plants. 2010?
a) Only three
Statement II: Liquid ammonia has a relatively
b) Only four
high latent heat of vaporization.
c) Only five
Which one of the following is correct in
d) All six
respect of the above statements?
[9]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.49) With reference to Indian Economy, listed on international exchanges in GIFT-

consider the following statements: IFSC.
1. Narrowing trade deficit of India. How many of the above statements are
2. Indian economy would be more vulnerable correct?
to external shocks. a) Only one
3. Increased inflow of Foreign Direct b) Only two
Investment into India. c) All three
4. Expansion of Indian companies into d) None
foreign markets.
How many of the above are the most likely Q.52) Consider the following statements
outcome if India moves towards Full Capital regarding inflow of remittances in India:
Account convertibility in India’s Balance of 1. In 2023, India received the highest amount
Payment system? of remittance inflow in the world.
a) Only one 2. According to most recent Reserve Bank of
b) Only two India reports, among the Indian states,
c) Only three Kerela receives the highest inward
d) All four remittances.
3. Currently, the United States is the highest
Q.50) Consider the following statements with contributor of remittances to India.
reference to the Intellectual Property Rights How many of the above statements are
(IPR) regime in India: correct?
1. The use of the logo or name or brand of an a) Only one
Indian company by any other Indian b) Only two
company violates the Patents Act of 1970. c) All three
2. Geographical Indications are covered as a d) None
part of IPRs.
Which of the statements given above is/are Q.53) In the context of financial markets, what
correct? does the term "taper tantrum" best refer to?
a) 1 only a) A sudden decrease in foreign investment in
b) 2 only a country, leading to an increase in bond
c) Both 1 and 2 yields.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) The government announcing a large
infrastructure spending project, leading to
Q.51) Consider the following statements about a slight rise in bond yields due to increased
the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City borrowing.
International Financial Services Centre (GIFT- c) A sudden increase in bond yields triggered
IFSC): by a central bank announcement of
1. The international stock exchanges in GIFT- reducing the pace of its bond-buying
IFSC work under the regulatory supervision program.
of the Securities and Exchange Board of d) A central bank unexpectedly raising
India (SEBI). interest rates to combat inflation, leading
2. An unlisted Indian company cannot be to a significant rise in bond yields.
listed on the international exchanges in
GIFT-IFSC.
3. Only Indian Residents are allowed to trade
or invest in shares of Indian companies
[10]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.54) India has various certification marks for Q.57) Consider the following scenarios:
different products, to ensure that they meet 1. Reducing Revenue Expenditure of
safety, quality, and other standards. Consider Government
the following pairs with reference to these 2. Improving the Tax to GDP Ratio in
certification marks: economy
Certification Issued By/Under 3. Decreasing the Debt to GDP Ratio of
marks Government
1. ISI Mark Ministry of Consumer How many of the above given scenarios can
affairs, food and public lead to fiscal consolidation in India?
distribution a) Only one
2. Eco Mark Ministry of New and b) Only two
Renewable energy c) All three
3. AGMARK Ministry of Agriculture d) None
and Farmers Welfare
4. FPO Mark Ministry of Food Q.58) Consider the following:
Processing Industries 1. Import quota
How many of the above pairs are correctly 2. Sanitary and phytosanitary measures
matched? 3. Ad-valorem Duty
a) Only one 4. Local Content Requirement
b) Only two 5. Countervailing Duty
c) Only three How many of the above can be considered as
d) All four Tariff barriers in international trade?
a) Only two
Q.55) Which of the following reports is not b) Only three
released by the World Economic Forum c) Only four
(WEF)? d) All five
a) Global travel and tourism competitiveness
index Q.59) With reference to Priority sector lending
(PSL) norms in India, consider the following
b) Future of jobs report
statements:
c) Global gender gap report
1. The Ministry of Finance decides the
d) World investment report priority sectors.
2. Banks like scheduled commercial banks and
Q.56) With reference to the World Trade regional rural banks are mandated to set
Organization (WTO), consider the following aside 40% of their total annual lending to
statements: PSL sectors.
1. It is the only global international 3. As per latest PSL guidelines, loans to start-
organization dealing with the rules of trade ups up to 100 crores would be classified as
between nations. PSL.
2. In the WTO, developed countries have a 4. Banks that fail to meet the PSL lending
larger voting quota than developing and targets shall need to invest an amount
least developed countries. equivalent to the shortfall in funds like
3. The WTO governs the international trade in Rural Infrastructure Development fund.
both goods and services. How many of the above statements are
How many of the above statements are correct?
correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) Only three
c) All three d) All four
d) None
[11]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.60) Consider the following statements about Q.63) The ‘PM e-VIDYA' is a comprehensive
Credit rating agencies (CRAs) in India: education initiative launched by the
1. RBI accredits CRAs for credit ratings of Government of India to benefit crores of
bank loans in India. school going children across the country. In
2. Informerics Valuation and Rating is an this context consider the following
Indian CRA. statements:
1. DIKSHA platform to provide digital
Which of the statements given above is/are
educational content.
correct?
2. Swayam Prabha to deliver education
a) 1 only
through DTH channels.
b) 2 only
3. Digitally Accessible Information System
c) Both 1 and 2
(DAISY) to provide educational content for
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Visually impaired people
4. E-Abhyas to assist students in preparing
Q.61) Quotas are the building block of
for competitive exams.
International Monetary Fund’s (IMF) financial
5. Parent Teacher Board to increase the
and governance structure. In this regard
Pupil-Teacher ratio.
consider the following statements
How many of the above are components of the
1. An individual member country’s quota in
PM e-Vidya initiative?
IMF broadly reflects its relative position in
a) Only two
the world economy.
b) Only three
2. Quotas denote the maximum amount of
c) Only four
financial resources a member is obliged to
d) All five
provide to the IMF.
3. Any change in Quotas requires approval of
Q.64) The terms Salami slicing and Silkworm
two-third of the total vote in IMF.
eating strategy, sometimes seen in news are
4. A member's Quota in IMF cannot be
related to which of the following?
changed without the consent of the
a) American strategy of sanctions on Russia in
member itself.
the backdrop of Russia Ukraine war.
How many of the statements given above are
b) India’s strategy to counter USA’s sanction
correct?
of Russia and keep trading route open with
a) Only one
Russia.
b) Only two
c) China’s strategy to gradually occupy
c) Only three
contested territory from neighboring
d) All four
countries.
d) Iran’s strategy to counter sanctions put by
Q.62) With reference to the recent status of
USA and to keep selling its oil to other
India’s external trade, consider the following
countries.
statements:
1. India’s trade deficit with China has doubled
Q.65) With reference to various regions
in the last decade.
sometimes mentioned in the news, consider
2. The bilateral trade between India and the
the following pairs:
USA has steadily increased in the last five
years. Regions in the news Country
1. Kerman Province Iran
3. Bangladesh is the largest destination for
2. Agalega Mauritius
Indian exports in South Asia. 3. Rafah Yemen
How many of the statements given above are How many of the above pairs are correctly
correct? matched?
a) Only one a) Only one
b) Only two b) Only two
c) All three c) All three
d) None d) None
[12]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.66) With reference to Panchayati Raj b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
System, 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, correct and Statement-II is not the
1992, consider the following statements: correct explanation for Statement-I.
1. Panchayats at the intermediate level may c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
not be constituted in a district having a incorrect.
population not exceeding twenty lakhs. d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
2. The provisions for the maintenance of is correct
accounts of panchayats are decided by the
State Legislature. Q.69) With reference to Fair and Remunerative
3. The legislature of a State may authorize a Price (FRP) for sugarcane, consider the
Panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate following:
taxes, duties, tolls and fees. 1. Cost of production of sugarcane.
4. The legislature of a state can make 2. Recovery of sugar from sugarcane.
provision for reservation of seats in favor 3. Import price of sugarcane in the country.
of backward class. How many of the above are the factors taken
How many of the statements given above are into consideration while calculating FRP?
correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) All three
c) Only three d) None
d) All four
Q.70) Consider the following financial
Q.67) With respect to Indian economy, instruments of Indian Market:
consider the following: 1. Derivatives
1. Central Bank buying government 2. Certificate of Deposits.
securities in the open market. 3. Bonds
2. Banks holding higher Cash Reserve Ratio 4. Treasury Bill
(CRR) with the central bank. How many of the above are considered Money
3. Increasing the Capital Adequacy Ratio Market Financial Instruments?
(CAR) under Basel III norms for banks a) Only one
4. Increase in Time Deposits (TD) and b) Only two
Demand Deposits (DD) with the Bank. c) Only three
5. Decrease in operating costs of Bank. d) All four
How many of the above actions will reduce the
credit creation capability of a commercial Q.71) With reference to Indian culture,
bank? consider the following pairs:
a) Only two Religious Sects Primarily
b) Only three associated with
c) Only four 1. Varkari Shaivism
d) All five Sampradaya
2. Sthanakavasi Vaishnavism
Q.68) Consider the following statements: 3. Terapanthi Sikhism
Statement I: Photosynthesis is generally 4. Kukkutika Buddhism
limited up to 200 metre depth in the oceans How many of the above pairs are correctly
Statement II: The concentration of CO2 in matched?
oceans is negligible at greater depths. a) Only one
Which one of the following is correct in b) Only two
respect of the above statements? c) Only three
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are d) All four
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
[13]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.72) Consider the following statements

regarding the Indian Gharial: Q.75) Which of the following town has become
1. They reside in river habitats with deep and the first city in India to establish a solar-
fast-flowing waters. powered waste processing facility?
2. The snout of Indian Gharial is thickest a) Leh
amongst all the crocodilians. b) Indore
3. They are endemic to India. c) Pune
How many of the above statements are d) Shillong
correct?
a) Only one Q.76) Consider the following statements
b) Only two regarding ‘Grey Hydrogen’:
c) All three 1. It is produced using electrolysis of water
d) None with electricity generated by renewable
energy.
Q.73) Consider the following statements: 2. It is commonly used in the chemical
1. Kaziranga National Park is a UNESCO industry to make fertilizers.
World Heritage Site. 3. It releases only water as the byproduct
2. Ranthambore National Park has dry upon its combustion.
deciduous vegetation due to its proximity How many of the statements given above are
to Thar desert. correct?
3. Bandipur National Park is well-known for a) Only one
the conservation of a sub-species of the b) Only two
Indian swamp deer (Barasingha). c) All three
4. Keoladeo Ghana National Park is the only d) None
national park in India that is completely
enclosed by a boundary wall. Q.77) In the context of the present status of
How many of the above statements are the habitat of various species, consider the
correct? following statements:
a) Only one 1. Black tigers in India are found in wild in
b) Only two Simlipal Tiger Reserve only.
c) Only three 2. Asiatic lions in India are naturally found in
d) All four Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary
only.
Q.74) With reference to Guidelines on Green 3. Pygmy hogs in India are naturally found in
Deposits by Reserve Bank of India, which one Namdapha National Park only.
of the following statements is incorrect? 4. Hanguls in India are naturally found in
a) The green deposits are denominated in Askot Wildlife Sanctuary only.
Indian Rupees only. How many of the statements given above are
b) The green activities/ projects financed correct?
under the framework can be classified a) Only one
under the priority sector lending (PSL). b) Only two
c) As per RBI guidelines, it is mandatory for c) Only three
scheduled commercial banks in India to d) All four
raise certain levels of green deposits.
d) The green deposits of customers will be
covered by Deposit Insurance and Credit
Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)
regulations.
[14]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.78) Consider the following statements: observed in 1981 disappearing after 42 years
1. To be used in concrete production for and recently it was spotted again in a
building houses. protected area in India. Its habitat is restricted
2. To improve the agricultural productivity. to a single valley within this area. Its IUCN
3. To reclaim the land affected by mining status is critically endangered.
activities. Which of the following flying squirrels is best
4. To remove organic pollutants from water. described in the above passage?
5. To make embankments over places with a) Travancore flying squirrel
weak/poor sub-soils. b) Red giant flying squirrel
How many of the above activities can use fly c) Indian giant flying squirrel
ash in bulk? d) Namdapha flying squirrel
a) Only two
b) Only three Q.82) Which of the following dynasties is
c) Only four widely believed to start the practice of
d) All five donating land or village revenues for religious
purposes?
Q.79) With reference to the Basel III norms, a) Mauryas
consider the following statements: b) Pushyabhutis
1. They are a set of international banking c) Guptas
regulations designed by the World Bank to d) Satvahanas
improve capital adequacy of banks.
2. Net Stable Funds Rate (NSFR) is an Q.83) With reference to Bauxite Ore, consider
innovation of the Basel III norms that aims the following statements:
to increase capital requirements in good 1. Odisha is the leading producer of Bauxite
times and decrease the same in bad times. in India
3. Basel III norms are not applicable to any 2. Bauxite is the primary ore from which
National Financial Institution in India. aluminium is extracted.
How many of the above statements are 3. Bauxite forms when magma cools after
correct? volcanic eruptions.
a) Only one 4. Bauxites has potential to treat sewage
b) Only two wastewater treatment.
c) All three How many of the above statements are
d) None correct?
a) Only one
Q.80) Consider the following statements b) Only two
regarding the concept of ‘Climate c) Only three
Engineering’: d) All four
1. It encompasses various methods to
intentionally alter the climate system at the Q.84) Consider the following features:
planetary level to address climate change 1. Reduced wear and tear
impacts. 2. Safer charging
2. Deposition of iron or urea into the ocean to 3. Faster charging speed
stimulate the growth of phytoplankton is 4. Less expensive
an example of climate engineering. 5. Higher energy efficiency
Which of the statements given above is/are 6. Universal compatibility
correct? How many of the above are the
a) 1 only advantages/merits of Induction charging
b) 2 only compared to wired charging?
c) Both 1 and 2 a) Only three
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) Only four
c) Only five
Q.81) Recently this arboreal nocturnal species d) All six
of flying squirrel has been rediscovered. It was
[15]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.85) With reference to the social cost of 2. Under PM Surya Ghar Yojana a model solar
carbon, consider the following statements: village will be developed in each district of
1. It refers to the total amount of carbon the country.
dioxide emissions released by an individual Which of the statements given above is/are
or an organization. correct?
2. The concept of social cost of carbon was a) 1 only
developed by the United Nations b) 2 only
Environment Programme (UNEP). c) Both 1 and 2
3. Studies suggest that India's social cost of d) Neither 1 nor 2
carbon is estimated to be the highest in the
world. Q.89) Consider the following pairs on crops
How many of the above statements are grown in India and their salient features:
correct? Crops Salient features
a) Only one 1. Sesame It is the oldest indigenous
b) Only two oilseed crop.
c) All three 2. Barley Tolerant to saline and alkaline
d) None soil.
3. Mustard It can tolerate frost.
Q.86) With reference to maize crop grown in 4. Soyabean High tolerance to drought.
India, consider the following statements: How many of the above pairs are correctly
1. It requires temperatures between 21°C to matched?
27°C during the day. a) Only one
2. It grows well in old alluvial soil. b) Only two
3. It can withstand excess soil moisture and c) Only three
salinity stresses. d) All four
4. It can be used both as food and fodder.
How many of the statements given above are Q.90) Consider the following pairs on crops
correct? grown in India:
a) Only one Conventions Salient features
b) Only two 1. Minamata Addresses mercury pollution.
c) Only three convention
d) All four 2. Basel Seeks to regulate the
convention international movement of
Q.87) It grows well on well-drained fertile soils hazardous waste.
in the flood plains. High temperature is 3. Stockholm International treaty
required during its growth. It is referred to as convention governing the movements of
‘golden fibre’. living modified organisms
Which of the crops given below is discussed in (LMOs).
the above paragraph? 4. Rotterdam Regulates the international
a) Hemp convention trade of certain hazardous
b) Cotton chemicals and pesticides.
c) Jute How many of the above pairs are correctly
d) Silk matched?
a) Only one
Q.88) With reference to the government b) Only two
schemes, consider the following statements: c) Only three
1. PM KUSUM yojana (Pradhan Mantri Kisan d) All four
Urja Suraksha Evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan
Scheme) provides for the installation of
decentralized Grid Connected Renewable
Energy Power Plants on barren land.
[16]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.91) ‘Zero tillage farming’ is the process d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
where the crop seed will be sown through correct
drillers without prior land preparation results
in: Q.94) Cultural regions are geographical areas
1. reduced crop duration period having homogeneity in the way of life. In this
2. reduced use of herbicide. context, consider the following pairs:
3. increased sequestration of carbon dioxide Cultural regions of Associated States
in soils. India
How many of the statements given above are 1. Baghelkhand Chhattisgarh
correct? 2.Bundelkhand Uttar Pradesh
a) Only one 3. Khandesh Haryana
b) Only two 4. Marwar Rajasthan
c) All three 5. Vidarbha Maharashtra
d) None 6. Saurashtra Gujarat
How many of the pairs given above are
Q.92) Aspirational Block Programme focuses correctly matched?
on improving governance to enhance the a) Only three
quality of life of citizens in the most difficult b) Only four
and relatively underdeveloped blocks of India. c) Only five
It has identified themes that can create a d) All six
noticeable change in the quality of life of
people and are more output-oriented in their Q.95) Consider the following:
approach. In this context consider the 1. Vermicompost
following socio- economic themes: 2. Aquatic ferns
1. Health & Nutrition 3. Blue green algae
2. Basic infrastructure 4. Phosphate solubilizing microorganisms
3. Education 5. Azotobacter
4. Agriculture & Allied services How many of the above can be used as
5. Export promotion biofertilizers?
How many of the above themes are included in a) Only two
the 5 broad socio-economic themes to b) Only three
measure the progress of the blocks? c) Only four
a) Only two d) All five
b) Only three
c) Only four Q.96) Consider the following statements:
d) All five Statement I: Thar desert in India receives very
low rainfall.
Q.93) Consider the following statements: Statement II: There are no large perennial
Statement I-: Bay of Bengal has lower salinity rivers flowing through the Thar desert.
near the surface than Arabian Sea. Which one of the following is correct in
Statement-II: Both Bay of Bengal and Arabian respect of the above statements?
sea are located in the tropical belt. a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Which one of the following is correct in correct and Statement-II is the correct
respect of the above statements? explanation for Statement-I
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I explanation for Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
correct and Statement-II is not the correct incorrect
explanation for Statement-I d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is correct
incorrect
[17]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |
Q.97) With reference to Ancient Indian Q.100) Consider the following diseases/health
History, consider the following pairs: impacts:
Important Seaports Related Dynasty 1. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) or
1. Gandaksela Satavahanas Acquired Immunodeficiency (AIDS)
2. Korkai Pandyas Disease
3. Muziris Cheras 2. Increase of antimicrobial resistance
4. Puhar Rashtrakutas 3. Skin lesions and altered liver function due
5. Ganjam Cholas to exposure to dioxins
How many of the above pairs are correctly 4. Health hazards caused by exposure to
matched? radioactive waste
a) Only two How many of the above may be the likely
b) Only three impacts on human health due to the improper
c) Only four disposal of biomedical waste?
d) All five a) Only one
b) Only two
Q.98) With reference to Liquid Tree c) Only three
technology, consider the following statements: d) All four
1. It utilizes microalgae to improve air quality
through mimicking natural functions of
trees.
2. One liquid tree can capture equivalent
amount of CO2 as thousands of mature
trees can.
3. It can be used in highly polluted and
crowded zones in the cities due to its
compact size.
correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Q.99) With reference to Jet Streams, consider

the following statements:
1. They are high altitude winds that flow
between Stratosphere and Troposphere.
2. They are strongest during summers in
both the northern and southern
hemisphere.
3. They blow in an eastward direction in both
the hemispheres.
4. The strengthening of the Somali Jet
Stream leads to a strong monsoon over
peninsular India.
correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
[18]

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PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121404 |

Q.7) National Generic Document Registration 4. The President is obligated to provide

Q.49) With reference to Indian Economy, listed on international exchanges in GIFT-

Q.72) Consider the following statements

Q.99) With reference to Jet Streams, consider

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