Full Syllabus Test P01-Jee Main-020124 - (Q)

Rankers Academy JEE
CLASS: XII
FULL TEST − 01
JEE MAIN − 2024

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
Please read the instructions carefully.
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball
point pen.
2. Darken the appropriate bubbles with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided
separately.
5. Do not Tamper/mutilate the OMR or this booklet.
6. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work
7. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take
away this Test Booklet with them.
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme:

1. The Test Booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
2. There are 3 parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry &
Mathematics having 25 questions in each part of equal weightage.
3. For each question in PART A you will allotted +4 (four) marks for correct response.
Student will be awarded −1 Marks as penalty for each incorrect response.
4. For each question in PART C, you will allotted +4 (four) marks for correct response.
Student will be awarded −1 Marks as penalty for each incorrect response.
Enrollment No. : Batch :
Name :
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:
FIITJEE Limited, Chandigarh Centre, SCO-321-322, Sector 35-B, Chandigarh – 160 022 Ph. 0172 3010043, Fax: 4001003
Website: www.fiitjee.com Email: chandigarh@fiitjee.com
For More Material Join: @JEEAdvanced_2024

Rankers Academy JEE
FULL SYLLABUS TEST P01-JEE MAIN-020124-2 IITJEE-2024

IITJEE-2024
Rankers Academy JEE FULL SYLLABUS TEST P01-JEE MAIN-020124-3
SECTION – I: PHYSICS
PART − A
This Section contains 20 Single choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only
ONE is correct.
1. If electronic charge e, electron mass m, speed of light in vacuum c and Planck’s constant h are taken as
fundamental quantities, the permeability of vacuum 0 can be expressed in units of
 hc   h 
(A)  2 
(B)  2 
 me   me 
 h   mc 2 
(C)  2 (D)  2 
 ce   he 
→ → → →
2. A vector A is rotated by a small angle  radius ( <<1) to get a new vector B . In that case B− A is
→ 
2 
(A) 0 (B) | A | 1 − 
 2 
→ → →
(C) | A |  (D) | B | − | A |
3. A larger number (n) of identical beads, each of mass m and radius r are strung on a
thin smooth rigid horizontal rod of length L (L >> r) and are at rest at random
positions. The rod is mounted between two rigid supports (see figure). If one of the
beads is now given a speed v, the average force experienced by each support after
a long time is (assume all collisions are elastic):
mV 2 mV 2
(A) (B)
L − nr L − 2nr
2
mV
(C) (D) zero
2(L − nr)
4. A particle is moving in a circle of radius r under the action of a force F = r2 which is directed towards center of
the circle. Total mechanical energy (kinetic energy + potential energy) of the particle is (take penitential energy =
0 for r = 0):
1 3
(A) r3 (B) r
2
4 3 5 3
(C) r (D) r
3 6
Space for rough work

Rankers Academy JEE
bx
5. A uniform thin rod AB of length L has linear mass density (x) = a + , where x is measured from A. If the CM
L
 7 
of the rod lies at a distance of  L  from A, then a and b are related as:
 12 
(A) a = b (B) a = 2b
(C) 2a = b (D) 3a = 2b
6. A particle of mass 2 kg is on a smooth horizontal table and moves in a circular path of radius 0.6 m. The height of
the table from the ground is 0.8 m. If the angular speed of the particle is 12 rad s −1, the magnitude of its angular
momentum about a point on the ground right under the centre of the circle is:
(A) 8.64 kg m2s−1 (B) 11.52 kg m2s−1
−1
(C) 14.4 kg m s2 (D) 20.16 kg m2s−1
7. Which of the following most closely depicts the correct variation of the gravitation potential V(r) due to a large
planet of radius R and uniform mass density? (figures are not drawn to scale)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
8. A cylindrical block of wood (density = 650 kg m −3), of base area 30 cm2 and height 54 cm, floats in a liquid of
density 900 kg m−3. The block is depressed slightly and then released. The time period of the resulting oscillations
of the block would be equal to that of a simple pendulum of length (nearly):
(A) 65 cm (B) 52 cm
(C) 39 cm (D) 26 cm

IITJEE-2024
9. A beaker contains a fluid of density  kg/m3, specific heats S J/kgoC and viscosity . The beaker is filled up to
• 
height h. To estimate the rate of heat transfer per unit area  Q/ A  by convection when beaker is put on a hot
 
 S   1 
plate, a student proposes that it should depend on ,   and   when  (in C) is the difference in the
o
 h   g 
• 
temperature between the bottom and top of the fluid. In that situation the correct option for  Q/ A  is:
 
S  S   1 
(A)  (B)   
h  h  g 
S  S   1 
(C) (D)   
h  h   g 
10. An experiment takes 10 minutes to raise the temperature of water in a container from 0 oC to 100oC and another
55 minutes to convert it totally into steam by a heater supplying heat at a uniform rate. Neglecting the specific
heat of the container and taking specific heat of water to be 1 cal/goC, the heat of vaporization according to this
experiment will come out to be:
(A) 530 cal/g (B) 540 cal/g
(C) 550 cal/g (D) 560 cal/g
11. A thin convex lens of focal length ‘f’ is put on a plane mirror as shown in the figure. When
an object is kept at a distance ‘a’ from the lens-mirror combination, its image is formed at
a
a distance in front of the combination. The value of ‘a’ is
3
(A) f (B) 2f
3
(C) 3f (D) f
2
12. A pendulum with time period of 1s is losing energy due to damping. At certain time its energy is 45 J. If after
completing 15 oscillations, its energy has become 15 J, its damping constant (in s −1) is:
1 1
(A) n3 (B) n3
30 15
1
(C) 2 (D)
2

Rankers Academy JEE
13. In a Young’s double slit experiment with light of wavelength  the separation of slits is d and distance of screen is
D such that D >> d >> . If the Fringe width is , the distance from point of maximum intensity to the point where
intensity falls to half of maximum intensity on either side is:
 
(A) (B)
2 4
 
(C) (D)
3 6
14. A wire, of length L (= 20 cm), is bent into a semi-circular arc. If the two
equal halves, of the arc, were each to be uniformly charged with charges
Q, [|Q| = 103 0 Coulomb where 0 is the permittivity (in SI units) of free
space] the net electric field at the center O of the semi-circular arc would
be:
 
(A) (50 × 103 N/C) j (B) (25 × 103 N/C) i
 
(C) (25 × 103 N/C) j (D) (50 × 103 N/C) i
→
  

15. An electric field E =  25 i + 30 j  NC −1 exists in a region of space. If the potential at the origin is taken to be zero
 
then the potential at x = 2m, y = 2m is:
(A) −130 J (B) −120 J
(C) −140 J (D) −110 J

IITJEE-2024
16. In figure is shown a system of four capacitors connected across a 10 V battery.

Charge that will flow switch S when it is closed is:
(A) 5 C from b to a
(B) 20 C from a to b
(C) 5 C from a to b
(D) zero
17. In the electric network shown, when no current flows through the 4  resistor in
the arm EB, the potential difference between the points A and D will be:
(A) 3 V (B) 4 V
(C) 5 V (D) 6 V
18. The value of the resistor, RS, needed in the dc voltage regulator circuit shown here, equals:
(A) (Vi − VL)/n IL (B) (Vi + VL)/n IL

(C) (Vi − VL)/ (n + 1) IL (D) (Vi + VL)/ (n + 1) IL

Rankers Academy JEE
19. Two long straight parallel wires, carrying (adjustable) currents I 1 and I2, are kept at a distance d apart. If the force
‘F’ between the two wires is taken as ‘positive’ when the wires repel each other and ‘negative’ when the wires
attract each other, the graph showing the dependence of ‘F’, on the product I 1I2, would be:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
20. A wire carrying current I is tied between points P and Q and is in the shape of a
circular arch of radius R due to a uniform magnetic field B (perpendicular to the plane
of the paper, shown by xxx) in the vicinity of he wire. If the wire subtends an angle
20 at the center of the circle (of which it form an arch) then the tension in the wire is:
IBR
(A) IBR (B)
sin 0
IBR IBR0
(C) (D)
2 sin0 sin 0

IITJEE-2024
PART C Integer Based
This section contains five Numerical based questions, the answer of which is in single digit integer value and each
question carries +4 marks for correct answer and −1 Marks for incorrect answer.
1. A body of mass m = 10 kg is attached to one end of a wire of length 0.3 m. The maximum angular speed
(in rad s−1 ) with which it can be rotated about its other end in space station is (Breaking stress of wire = 4.8 × 107
Nm−2 and area of cross-section of the wire = 10−2 cm2 ) is
2. The distance x covered by a particle in one dimensional motion varies with time t as x2 = at2 + bt + c. If the
acceleration of the particle depends on x as x−n, where n is an integer, the value of n is __________
3. If one mole of monoatomic gas ( 5/3)  = is mixed with half mole of a diatomic gas ( 7/5),  = the value of  for the
mixture is a/b, then a – b is_______. {a & b are prime numbers}
4. A 100 W light bulb is placed at the center of a spherical chamber of radius 20 cm. Assume that 60% of the energy
supplied to the bulb is converted into light and that the surface of the chamber is perfectly reflecting
(assuming each photon reflected only once). The pressure exerted by the light on the surface of the chamber is
x × 10−7 Pa. Find x.
5. An ac source of angular frequency  is fed across a resistor R and a capacitor C in series. The current registered
is I. If the frequency of source is changed to /4 (maintaining the same peak voltage), the current in the circuit is
a
found to be halved. Let the ratio of reactance to resistance at the original frequency = then a + b is_____.
b
{a & b are whole numbers less than 5}

Rankers Academy JEE
SECTION – II: CHEMISTRY

PART − A
ONE is correct.
1.
2.
‘A’ is formed in the above reaction is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
3. A group 15 element, which is a metal and forms a hydride with strongest reducing power among group 15
hydrides. The element is:
(A) Bi (B) Sb
(C) As (D) P

IITJEE-2024
4.
5. Which of the following Lindlar catalyst?

(A) Partially deactivated palladised charcoal (B) Cold dilute solution of KMnO4
(C) Zinc chloride and HCl (D) Sodium and Liquid NH3
6. Match List−I with List−II
List − I (Test/Reagents/Observation(s) List−II (Species detected)
(a) Lassaigne’s Test (i) Carbon
(b) Cu(II) oxide (ii) Sulphur
(c) Silver nitrate (iii) N, S, P, and halogen
(d) The sodium fusion extract gives black precipitate with acetic acid and (iv) Halogen specifically
lead acetate
The correct match is:

(A) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii) (B) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
(C) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv) (D) (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)

Rankers Academy JEE
7. Arrange the following metal complex/compounds in the increasing order of spin only magnetic moment. Presume
all the three, high spin system.
Atomic numbers Ce = 58, Gd = 64 and Eu = 63
(a) (NH4)2 [Ce(NO3)6] (b) Gd (NO3)3 and (c) Eu(NO3)3
Answer is:
(A) (a) < (c) < (b) (B) (b) < (a) < (c)
(C) (c) < (a) < (b) (D) (a) < (b) < (c)
8. The secondary structure of protein is stabilized by:

(A) Peptide bond (B) Hydrogen bonding
(C) Glycosidic bond (D) Van der waals forces
9. The exact volume of 1 M NaOH solution required to neutralize 50 mL of 1 M H3PO3 solution and 100 mL of
2 M H3PO2 solution respectively, are:
(A) 100 mL and 50 mL (B) 100 mL and 200 mL
(C) 50 mL and 50 mL (D) 100 mL and 100 mL
10.
In the above conversion the correct sequence of reagents to be added is

(A) KMnO4, (ii) Br2/Fe, (iii) Fe/H+ ,(iv) Cl2
(B) Br2 / Fe, (ii) Fe/H+ , (iii) HONO, (iv) CuCl, (v) KMnO4
(C) (i) Fe/H+ , (ii) HONO, (iii) CuCl, (iv) KMnO4, (v) Br2
(D) (i) Br2 /Fe, (ii) Fe /H+ , (iii) KMnO4, (iv) Cl2
11. The bond order and magnetic property of acetylide ion are same as that of
(A) NO+ (B) O2−
(C) O2− (D) N2−

IITJEE-2024
12. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: SbCl5 is more covalent than SbCl3
Statement II: The higher oxides of halogens also tend to be more stable than the lower ones.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is incorrect
13. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: 5f electrons can participate in bonding to a far greater extent than 4f electrons
Reason R: 5f orbitals are not as buried as 4f orbitals
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A is false but R is true

(B) A is true but R is false
(C) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
14. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Boron is non-metal and extremely hard
Statement II: Boron has highest melting and boiling point compared to its other group members.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(A) Both statement I and Statement II are correct (B) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
15. The incorrect statement regarding the reaction given below is
(A) The product ‘B’ formed in the above reaction is p-nitroso compound at low temperature
(B) ‘B’ is N-nitro ammonium compound
(C) The electrophile involved in the reaction NO+
(D) The reaction occurs at low temperature

Rankers Academy JEE
16. In the following reaction ‘X’ is

CH3 ( CH2 )4 CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Anhy.AlCl
HCl
3
→ ’x’ major product

(A) CH3(CH2)4CH2Cl (B) Cl-CH2-(CH2)4-CH2-Cl
(C) (D)
17. ClF5 at room temperature is a:

(A) Colourless liquid with trigonal bipyramidal geometry
(B) Colurless liquid with square pyramidal geometry
(C) Colurless gas with trigonal bipyramidal geometry
(D) Colurless gas with square pyramidal geometry
18. D − (+) − Glyceraldehyde ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯

(i) HCN
+→
(ii)H2O /H
(iii)HNO3
The product formed in the above reaction are
(A) One optically inactive and one meso product (B) Two optically active products
(C) Two optically inactive products (D) One optically active and one meso product
19. Which of the following statements are not correct?

A. The electron gain enthalpy of F is more negative than that of Cl
B. Ionization enthalpy decrease in group of periodic table
C. The electronegativity of an atom depends upon the atom bonded to it.
D. Al2O3 and NO are example of amphoteric oxides
(A) A, B and D only (B) A, C and D only

(C) B and D only (D) A, B, C and D
20.
In the above reaction, left hand side and right hand side rings are names as ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively. They
undergo ring expansion. The correct statement for this process is:
(A) Finally both rings will become five membered each
(B) Finally both rings will become six membered each
(C) Ring expansion can go upto seven membered rings
(D) Only A will become 6 membered

IITJEE-2024
1. Two salts A2X and MX have the same value of solubility product of 4.0 × 10−12. The ratio of their molar solubilities
S ( A2X)
i.e = a. Report 0.1 × a. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
S (MX )
2. The equivalents of ethylene diamine required to replace the neutral ligands from the coordination sphere of the
trans-complex of CoCl3.4NH3 is……………….
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
3. The decomposition of formic acid on gold surface first order kinetics. If the rate constant at 300 K is 1.0 × 10−3 s−1
and the activation energy Ea = 11.488 kJ mol−1, the rate constant at 200 K is………. × 10−4 s−1. (Round off to the
nearest Integer).
[Given R = 8.314 J mol−1 K−1]
4. Sulphurous acid (H2SO3) has Ka1 = 1.7 × 10−2 and Ka2 = 6.4 × 10−8. The pH of 0.588 M H2SO3 is………….
(Round off to the nearest integer).
5. A 5.0 mmol dm−3 aqueous solution of KCl has a conductance of 0.55 mS when measured in a cell of cell constant
1.3 cm−1. The molar conductivity of this solution is 2a mS m2 mol−1. (Round off to the nearest integer). Report a.

Rankers Academy JEE
SECTION – III: MATHEMATICS

PART − A
ONE is correct.
1. Let A and B be two sets containing four and two elements respectively. Then the number of subsets of the set
A × B, each having at least three elements is:
(A) 219 (B) 256
(C) 275 (D) 510
2. A complex number z is said to be unimodular if |z| = 1. Suppose z 1 and z2 are complex numbers such that
z1 − 2z2
−
is unimodular and z2 is not unimodular. Then the point z1 lies on a:
2 − z1 z2
(A) straight line parallel to x-axis (B) straight line parallel to y-axis
(C) circle of radius 2 (D) circle of radius 2
1 2 2 
 
3. If A =  2 1 −2  is a matrix satisfying the equation AAT = 9I, where I is 3 × 3 identity matrix, then the ordered
a 2 b 
pair (a, b) is equal to:
(A) (2, –1) (B) (–2, 1)
(C) (2, 1) (D) (–2, –1)
4. The set of all values of  for which the system of linear equations:
2x1 − 2x 2 + x 3 = x1
2x1 − 3x 2 + 2x 3 = x 2
− x1 + 2x 2 = x 3
has a non-trivial solution,
(A) is an empty set (B) is a singleton
(C) contains two elements (D) contains more than two elements
5. The number of integers greater than 6,000 that can be formed, using the digits 3,5,6,7 and 8, without repetition,
is:
(A) 216 (B) 192
(C) 120 (D) 72

IITJEE-2024
( )
50
6. The sum of coefficients of integral powers of x in the binomial expansion of 1 − 2 x is:
(A)
2
(
1 50
3 +1 ) (B)
2
( )
1 50
3
(C)
2
(
1 50
3 −1 ) (D)
2
(
1 50
2 +1 )
7. If m is the A.M. of two distinct real number l and n (l, n, > 1) and G 1, G2 and G3 are three geometric means
between l and n, then G14 + 2G24 + G34 equals.
(A) 4 l2mn (B) 4 lm2n
2
(C) 4 lmn (D) 4 l2m2n2
13 13 + 23 13 + 23 + 33
8. The sum of first 9 terms of the series + + + .... is:
1 1+ 3 1+ 3 + 5
(A) 71 (B) 96
(C) 142 (D) 192
9. The normal to the curve, x2 + 2xy − 3y2 = 0 at (1, 1):

(A) does not meet the curve again
(B) meets the curve again in the second quadrant
(C) meets the curve again in the third quadrant
(D) meets the curve again in the fourth quadrant
dx
10. The integral  x (x 2 4
+ 1)3 / 4
equals:
1
 x4 + 1 4 1
(A)  4  +c (B) (x 4 + 1) 4 + c
 x 
1
1
 x4 + 1 4
(C) −(x + 1) + c
4 4 (D) −  4  +c
 x 

Rankers Academy JEE
11. The area (in sq. units) of the region described by {(x,y) : y2  2x and y  4x − 1} is:
7 5
(A) (B)
32 64
15 9
(C) (D)
64 32
dy
12. Let y(x) be the solution of the differential equation (x log x) + y = 2x log x,(x  1). Then y(e) is equal to:
dx
(A) e (B) 0
(C) 2 (D) Insufficient information
13. The number of points, having both co-ordinates as integers, that lie in the interior of the triangle with vertices (0,
0), (0, 41) and (41, 0), is
(A) 901 (B) 861
(C) 820 (D) 780
14. Locus of the image of the point (2, 3) in the line (2x − 3y + 4) + k(x − 2y + 3) = 0, k  R, is a:
(A) straight line parallel to x-axis (B) straight line parallel to y-axis
(C) circle of radius 2 (D) circle of radius 3
15. The number of common tangents to the circles x2 + y2 − 4x − 6y − 12 = 0 and x2 + y2 + 6x + 18y + 26 = 0, is:
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

IITJEE-2024
16. The area (in sq. units) of the quadrilateral formed by the tangents at the end points of the latera recta to the
x2 y2
ellipse + = 1, is:
9 5
27
(A) (B) 18
4
27
(C) (D) 27
2
17. Let O be the vertex and Q be any point on the parabola, x 2 = 8y. if the point P divides the line segment OQ
internally in the ratio 1 : 3, then the locus of P is:
(A) x2 = y (B) y2 = x
(C) y2 = 2x (D) x2 = 2y
x − 2 y +1 z − 2
18. The distance of the point (1, 0, 2) from the point of intersection of the line = = and the plane x –
3 4 12
y + z = 16, is:
(A) 2 14 (B) 8
(C) 3 21 (D) 13
19. The equation of the plane containing the line 2x – 5y + z = 3; x + y + 4z = 5, and parallel to the plane, x + 3y + 6z
= 1, is:
(A) 2x + 6y + 12z = 13 (B) x + 3y + 6z = - 7
(C) x + 3y + 6z = 7 (D) 2x + 6y + 12z = - 13
→ → → → →
→
1→ →→
20. Let a,b and c be three non-zero vectors such that no two of them are collinear and (a b)  c = b c a. If is
3
→ →
the angle between vectors b and c , then a value of sin is:
2 2 − 2
(A) (B)
3 3
2 −2 3
(C) (D)
3 3

Rankers Academy JEE
a10 − 2a8
1. Let  and  be the roots of equation x2 − 6x − 2 = 0. If an = n − n, for n  1, then the value of is
2a9
equal to:
(1 − cos 2x)(3 + cox)

2. lim is equal to:
x →0 x tan 4x

3. If the function. g(x) =  k x + 1, 0  x  3
 mx + 2 , 3  x  5
Is differentiable, then the value of k + m is:
 f(x) 
4. Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree four having extreme values at x = 1 and x = 2. If lim 1 + = 3, then f(2) is
x →0
 x 2 
equal to:
4
log x 2
5. The integral  log x
2
2
+ log(36 − 12x + x 2 )
dx is equal to:

Full Syllabus Test P01-Jee Main-020124 - (Q)

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Full Syllabus Test P01-Jee Main-020124 - (Q)

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Rankers Academy JEE

JEE MAIN − 2024

Please read the instructions carefully.

B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme:

Enrollment No. : Batch :

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:

For More Material Join: @JEEAdvanced_2024

For More Material Join: @JEEAdvanced_2024

Space for rough work

For More Material Join: @JEEAdvanced_2024

Space for rough work

For More Material Join: @JEEAdvanced_2024

Space for rough work

For More Material Join: @JEEAdvanced_2024

Space for rough work

For More Material Join: @JEEAdvanced_2024

16. In figure is shown a system of four capacitors connected across a 10 V battery.

(A) (Vi − VL)/n IL (B) (Vi + VL)/n IL

Space for rough work

For More Material Join: @JEEAdvanced_2024

Space for rough work

For More Material Join: @JEEAdvanced_2024

PART C Integer Based

Space for rough work

For More Material Join: @JEEAdvanced_2024

SECTION – II: CHEMISTRY

‘A’ is formed in the above reaction is

Space for rough work

For More Material Join: @JEEAdvanced_2024

5. Which of the following Lindlar catalyst?

6. Match List−I with List−II

List − I (Test/Reagents/Observation(s) List−II (Species detected)

(a) Lassaigne’s Test (i) Carbon

(b) Cu(II) oxide (ii) Sulphur

(c) Silver nitrate (iii) N, S, P, and halogen

The correct match is:

Space for rough work

For More Material Join: @JEEAdvanced_2024

(a) (NH4)2 [Ce(NO3)6] (b) Gd (NO3)3 and (c) Eu(NO3)3

8. The secondary structure of protein is stabilized by:

In the above conversion the correct sequence of reagents to be added is

Space for rough work

For More Material Join: @JEEAdvanced_2024

12. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: SbCl5 is more covalent than SbCl3

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Reason R: 5f orbitals are not as buried as 4f orbitals

(A) A is false but R is true

14. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Boron is non-metal and extremely hard

15. The incorrect statement regarding the reaction given below is

Space for rough work

For More Material Join: @JEEAdvanced_2024

16. In the following reaction ‘X’ is

17. ClF5 at room temperature is a:

18. D − (+) − Glyceraldehyde ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯

19. Which of the following statements are not correct?

(A) A, B and D only (B) A, C and D only

Space for rough work

For More Material Join: @JEEAdvanced_2024

PART C Integer Based

Space for rough work

For More Material Join: @JEEAdvanced_2024