PRE-FOUNDATION CAREER CARE

PROGRAMMES (PCCP)
ACADEMIC SESSION : 2023-24
OLYMPIAD
OLYMPIAD PATTERN
PATTERN PART TEST-04
CUMULATIVE TEST-04
CLASS-VI (CBSE PATTERN)
CLASS-VII (CBSE PATTERN)

PRE BOARD EXAMINATION

PRE BOARD EXAMINATION DETAILS PRE BOARD EXAMINATION SCHEDULE

TARGET TEST PATTERN SUBJECTIVE-PRE-BOARD

EXAMINATION
BOARD
FULL SYLLABUS TEST-01
TARGET YEAR 2023 TEST TYPE
(FST-01)
PAPER 1 SUBJECT SCIENCE
PAPER CODE 0 MAX. MARKS 80
CLASS X TEST DURATION 3 Hrs
COURSE NAME PINNACLE TEST DATE 13th JANUARY 2024
TEST DAY SATURDAY
COURSE CODE PX
Start: 08:30 AM
TEST TIME
PHASE CODE(S) End : 11:30 AM
TOTAL NO. OF
BATCH CODE(S)
PAGES IN PAPER 06
BOOKLET

PRE BOARD EXAMINATION BOOKLET INFORMATION

TEST PAPER DETAILS MARKING SCHEME

Qs. No. Section No. Subject Sequence Type No. Total Marks
of
Qs.

1-20 A SCIENCE(PCB) SCQ (Objective type questions) 3 20 × 1 = 20

21-26 B SCIENCE(PCB) STQ(Very short answer type) 4 6 × 2 = 12
27-33 C SCIENCE(PCB) STQ(Short answer type) 7 7 × 3 = 21
34-36 D STQ(Long Answer type) 3 3 × 5 = 15
SCIENCE(PCB)
37-39 E STQ(Source-based/Case-based) 3 12
SCIENCE(PCB)

TOTAL Qs. 39 MAXIMUM MARKS : 80

* STQ : SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION

 INSTRUCTIONS

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

iii. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.

iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions
should in the range of 30 to 50 words.

v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these
questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words

vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these
questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.

vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-
parts.
SECTION-A
Multiple Choice Questions (1 × 20 = 20 Marks)

1. Observe the diagram of an activity given below. What does it help to conclude, when the person
exhales into the test-tube?

(A) Percentage of carbon dioxide is more in inhaled air.

(B) Fermentation occurs in the presence of oxygen.
(C) Percentage of carbon dioxide is more in the exhaled air.
(D) Fermentation occurs in the presence of carbon dioxide.

2. Which one of the following reactions is categorised as thermal decomposition reaction?

(A) 2H2O(l)  H2(g) + O2(g) (B) 2AgBr(s)  2Ag(s) + Br2(g).
(C) 2AgCl(s)  2Ag(s) + Cl2(g) (D) CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)

3. A solution of FeSO4 in water is:

(A) colourless (B) blue (C) light green (D) brown

4. In which form zinc metal is used from laboratory to prepare hydrogen?

(A) Rod (B) Powder (C) Filing (D) Granules

5. Four test tubes marked I, II, III and IV were taken. 20 ml of Al 2(SO4)3 solution in water was poured in
each of the test tubes. A piece of zinc metal was placed in test tube I, an iron nail was put in test tube II,
copper turnings were put in test tube III and a clean aluminium strip was placed in test tube IV. No
change was observed in any of the test tubes. The correct inference drawn is :
(A) Copper is more reactive than Aluminium
(B) Zinc is more reactive than Aluminium.
(C) Zinc is more reactive than Copper
(D) Zinc, Iron and Copper are less reactive than Aluminium.

6. A student takes Na2CO3 powder in a test tube and pours some drops of acetic acid in it. He observes:
(A) No reaction in the test tube (B) Colourless gas with pungent smell
(C) Bubbles of a colourless and odourless gas (D) White fumes with smell of vinegar
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7. Zinc metal is added to dilute hydrochloric acid. The gas evolved is:
(A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen (C) Chlorine (D) Carbon dioxide

8. What is substance 'X' in the given experimental setup?

(A) Potassium hydroxide (B) Sodium bicarbonate

(C) Sodium carbonate (D) Potassium sulphate

9. In a flower, the parts that produce male and female gametes (germ cells) are
(A) stamen and anther (B) filament and stigma
(C) anther and ovary (D) stamen and style

10. Electric impulse travels in a neuron from

(A) dendrites axon axon end  cell body (B) cell body  dendrite axon axon end
(C) dendrite cell body axon axon end (D) axon end axon cell body dendrite

11. The ratio of the combination of characters in the F2 progeny of dihybrid cross is:
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 : 1 (D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

12. Filtration of blood occurs in

(A) Bowman’s capsule (B) loop of Henle (C) Neck of nephrons (D) renal papillae

13. Focal length of a lens is 50 cm. In diopter power of lens will be:
(A) 0.02 (B) 2 (C) 0.2 (D) 50

14. Which of the following mirror is used by a dentist to examine the patient teeth?
(A) Convex mirror (B) Concave mirror (C) Plane mirror (D) All the above

15. Preservation of the ozone layer in the upper layers of atmosphere is important because it helps to stop
most of the
(A) Gamma rays (B) UV rays (C) X-rays (D) visible rays

16. In food pyramid carnivores are placed at

(A) 1st trophic level (B) 2nd trophic level (C) 3rd trophic level (D) 4th trophic level

Question No.17 to 20 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is False but R is true

17. Assertion (A): Following is a balanced chemical equation for the action of steam on iron :
3Fe + 4H2O 4 Fe3O4 + 4H2
Reason (R): The law of conservation of mass holds good for a chemical equation.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

18. Assertion: (A) All the human female gametes will have only X-chromosome.
Reason(R) : Females are homogametic with two X-chromosomes.

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19. Assertion (A) : Light travels faster in glass than in air.
Reason (R) : Glass is denser than air.

20. Assertion: Polythene bags and plastic containers are non-biodegradable substances.
Reason: They can be broken down by microorganisms in natural simple harmless substances.

SECTION- B
Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each

21. What is observed when a solution of sodium sulphate is added to a solution of barium chloride in a test
tube ? Write equation for the chemical reaction involved and name the type of reaction in this case.

22. (a) Name the reproductive and non-reproductive parts of bread mould(Rhizopus)
(b) List any two advantages of vegetative propagation.

23. State the function of (i) Epiglottis and (ii) Cartilagenous rings on trachea.

OR
Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds?

24. What is 'dispersion of white light'? Draw a ray diagram to show the dispersion of white light by a glass
prism.

25. How is a voltmeter connected in the circuit to measure the potential difference between two points?

OR
What is the solenoid? Draw a sketch to show the magnetic field lines due to a current carrying
solenoid?

26. In the following food chain, 100 J of energy is available to the lion. How much energy was available to
the producer?
Plants → Deer → Lion

SECTION- C
Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each

Chemistry-27, 28 (Internal choice)

27. (A) Name any one metal each which can be extracted by:
(i) reduction with carbon (ii) electrolytic reduction
(iii) reduction with aluminium (iv) reduction with heat alone

(B) Write a chemical equation for any of the above four parts.

28. List three differentiating features between the processes of galvanization and alloying.

OR
Compare in tabular form the reactivities of the following metals with cold and hot water:
(a) Sodium (b) Calcium (c) Magnesium

29. A deer is in a scary situation.Its body has to prepare for either fighting or running away. State the
immidiate changes that take place in its body so that the deer is able to either fight or run?

30. Can you justify the statement that “Human males are responsible for determining the sex of the baby
and not females”?

31. What distance should an object be placed in front of a convex lens of focal length 0.4 m so that the
virtual image is thrice the size of the object?

32.(i) An electric bulb is connected to a 220 V generator. The current is 0.50 A. What is the power of the
bulb?

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(ii) An electric lamp, whose resistance is 20 , and a conductor of 4  resistance are connected to a 6 V
battery. Calculate (a) the total resistance of the circuit, (b) the current through the circuit, and (c) the
potential difference across the electric lamp and conductor.

4 20

A ()
6V

33.(i) Resistances of three resistors are given as R = 10 ohm, R = 20 ohm, R = 30 ohm Calculate the effective
1 2 3

resistance when they are connected in series. Also calculate the current flowing when the combination
is connected to a 6V battery.
(ii) Two lamps, one is rated 100 W at 220 V and the other 60 W at 220 V, are connected in parallel to a
220 V supply. Find the current drawn from the supply line.

SECTION- D
Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each

34. Soaps and detergents are both types of salts. State the difference between the two. Write the
mechanism of the cleansing action of soaps. Why do soaps not form lather (foam) with hard water?
Mention any two problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps.

OR
(A) Define indicator. Name two indicators obtained from plants.
(B) Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction that takes place when sodium oxide reacts with
water. How will this solution behave towards phenolphthalein and red litmus paper?
(C) State what happen when sodium hydroxide solution reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid. What is this
reaction called?

35.(a) Write the functions of following parts in human female reproduction system:
(i) Ovary, (ii) Oviduct, (iii) Uterus

(b) Describe in brief the structure and function of placenta.

OR
Give a reason to explain why:
(i) The use of iodised salt is advisable?
(ii) Secretions of growth hormone should be specific in the human body?
(iii) Some patients of diabetes are treated by giving injections of insulin.

36. Draw the ray diagram when the object lies between optical centre and infinity by concave lens.

SECTION- E
Q.no. 37 to 39 (carrying 04 marks each) are case - based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub -
parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.

37. Homologous series is a series of compounds with similar chemical propertis and same functional group
differing from the successive member by –CH2 unit. Carbon chains of vafying length have been
observed in ortganic compounds having the same general formula. Such organinc compounds that vary
from one another by a repeating unit and have the same general formula form a series of compounds.
Alkanes with general formula CnH2n+2, alkenes with general formula CnH2n and alkynes with general
formula CnH2n – 2 form the most basic homologous series in organic chemistry.
All the member belonging to this series have the same functional groups, they have similar physical
properties and follow a fixed gradation with increasing mass. This series has enabled scientist to study
different organic compounds systematically. They can predict the properties of organic compounds
belonging to a particular homologous series based on the data available from the other members of the
same series. The study of organic compounds has been simplified.
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(I) Which of these statements is correct about the members of a homologous series?
(A) They have same empirical formula (B) They have same general formula
(C) They have same molecular formula (D) They have same physical formula

(II) Two compounds CH3OH and C2H5OH are provided. The difference in its formulae and molecular
masses are I___ and II___.
(A) I-CH3, II-16 units (B) I-CH2, II-14 units
(C) I-CH4, II-18 units (D) I-CH3, II-12 units

(III) Write down characteristics of homologues series.

OR
Which to of the following compounds could belongs to the same homologoues series. C 2H6O2, C2H6O,
C2H6, CH4O

38. A person crossed pure-breed tall pea plants with pure-breed dwarf pea plants and obtained pea plants
of
F1-generation. He then performed two types of experiments. In the first, he self-crossed the plants of
F1-generation(experiment A) and in the second, he crossed the plants of F1-generation with the pure-
breed dwarf parent plants(experiment B).
Experiment A : F1 progeny×F1 progeny
Experiment B : F1 progeny×Homozygous dwarf plant
(i) What would be the phenotype of plants in the F1-generation?
(ii) What would be the phenotype and genotype ratio of F2-generation in experiment ‘A’?
(iii) How would the genotypic ratio in F2 generation different in experiment ‘B’?

OR
(iii) How do we describe the phenotypic character that is expressed in F1-generation? What is the term
given to the contrasting character?

39. The spherical mirror forms different types of images when the object is placed at different locations.
When the image is formed on screen, the image is real and when the image does not form on screen,
the image is virtual. When the two reflected rays meet actually, the image is real and when they appear
to meet, the image is virtual.
A concave mirror always forms a real and inverted image for different positions of the object. But if the
object is placed between the focus and pole. the image formed is virtual and erect.
A convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect and diminished image. A concave mirror is used as
doctor’s head mirror to focus light on body parts like eyes, ears, nose etc., to be examined because it
can form erect and magnified image of the object. The convex mirror is used as a rear view mirrors in
automobiles because it can form an small and erect image of an object.

(i) When an object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, the image formed is
(A) larger than the object (B) smaller than the object
(C) same size as that of the object (D) highly enlarged.

(ii) No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror is likely to be
(A) plane (B) concave (C) convex (D) either plane or convex.

(iii) A child is standing in front of a magic mirror. She finds the image of her head bigger, the middle portion
of her body of the same size and that of the legs smaller. The following is the order of combinations for
the magic mirror from the top.
(A) Plane, convex and concave (B) Convex, concave and plane
(C) Concave, plane and convex (D) Convex, plane and concave

OR
(iv) To get an image larger than the object, one can use
(A) convex mirror but not a concave mirror (B) a concave mirror but not a convex mirror
(C) either a convex mirror or a concave mirror (D) a plane mirror.

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