Translated from Azerbaijani to English - www.onlinedoctranslator.

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1.Fractures of the cheekbone and arch are considered fresh:

A) up to 5 days
B) up to 15 days
C) up to 10 days
D) up to 20 days
E) up to 30 days
2.Which of the following is true regarding fractures of the iliac arch?
A) In most cases, 2 fracture lines and 2 fracture fragments are observed.

B) In most cases, 2 fracture lines and 3 fracture fragments are observed.

C) In most cases, 4 fracture lines and 2 fracture fragments are observed.

D) In most cases, 3 fracture lines and 2 fracture fragments are observed.

E) In most cases, 3 fracture lines and 3 fracture fragments are observed.

3.Not typical for isolated fractures of the cheekbone:

A) Diplopia
B) Bleeding from the nose

C) Limited mouth opening

D) Hemorrhage to Konyukiva

E) Licorice
4.In which areas is the "step" symptom noted during isolated fractures of the
cheek bone?
A) On the upper edge of the eye socket, on the upper-outer edge of the eye socket, in the region of the cheekbone

B) On the inner edge of the eye socket, on the upper-outer edge of the eye socket, in the region of the cheekbone

C) On the lower edge of the eye socket, on the lower-outer edge of the eye socket, in the area of the apple arch

D) On the lower edge of the eye socket, on the inner edge of the eye socket, in the area of the apple arch

E) On the lower edge of the eye socket, on the upper-outer edge of the eye socket, in the region of the cheekbone

5.Fractures of the zygomatic bone and arch are considered to be nonunion:

A) After 30 days
B) up to 20 days
C) After 10 days
D) up to 30 days
E) after 20 days
6.Fractures of the cheekbone and arch are considered worn:
A) From the 11th day to the 30th day

B) After the 11th day

C) From the 21st day to the 30th day

D) from the 11th day to the 20th day

E) after the 30th day

7.Not typical for fractures of the cheekbone:
A) Hemorrhage to the mucous membrane in the transitional fold in the region of the upper small and large molars

B) Facial deformation

C) Numbness of the skin in the area under the eye socket

D) Having a feeling of numbness in the skin in the area above the eyebrow

E) Bleeding from the nose

8.Which of the following is a delayed complication of jaw fractures:

A) posttraumatic osteomyelitis

B) suppuration of a bone wound

C) hematogenous osteomyelitis

D) bleeding and hematomas

E) inflammatory processes in surrounding soft tissues

9.Which of the following refers to delayed complications of facial bone fractures:

A) suppuration of a bone wound

B) posttraumatic sinusitis

C) bleeding and hematomas

D) hematogenous osteomyelitis

E) inflammatory processes in surrounding soft tissues

10.Which of the following is a delayed complication of jaw fractures:

A) hematogenous osteomyelitis

B) inflammatory processes in surrounding soft tissues

C) suppuration of a bone wound

D) false joint
E) bleeding and hematomas

11.Not typical for fractures of the cheekbone:

A) Diplopia
B) Astigmatism

C) Limitation of the movements of the eyeballs

D) Chemosis

E) Haemorrhage into the conjunctiva

12.Posttraumatic sinusitis can occur:

A) After fractures of the articular eminence of the jaw

B) After fractures of the cheekbone

C) After fractures of the scaly part of the frontal bone

D) After fractures of the nasal bones

E) After isolated fractures of the iliac arch
13.During jaw fractures, it is formed as a result of disruption of the reparative osteogenesis
process:
A) Improper fusion of fracture fragments
B) Osteoparosis

C) False joint
D) Osteoporosis
E) Exostosis

14.Common causes of delayed consolidation of fragments in jaw fractures

include:
A) Pathological osteoporosis

B) Inflammatory complications in bone fragments

C) Poor fixation of fracture fragments

D) Soft tissue interposition

E) Osteosclerosis

15.Local causes of delayed consolidation of fragments during jaw fractures

include:
A) Absence of teeth in fracture fragments

B) Interposition of soft tissues

C) Avitaminosis

D) Reliable immobilization of fracture fragments

E) Disorders of protein metabolism

16.It is not formed as a result of disruption of the reparative osteogenesis process during jaw
fractures:
A) Delayed consolidation of fracture fragments
B) False joint
C) Improper fusion of fracture fragments
D) Creation of a bone defect at the fracture line

E) Nonunion of fracture fragments

17.Posttraumatic complications are more common during which fractures:

A) open fractures

B) closed fractures

C) hip fractures

D) jaw fractures

E) cheekbone fractures

18.Treatment tactics in the acute phase of posttraumatic osteomyelitis:

A) Extraction of a tooth located on the fracture line, immobilization of mobile fracture fragments, antibacterial, anti-
inflammatory and general strengthening treatment

B) Opening of pus, extraction of a tooth located on the fracture line, immobilization of mobile fracture fragments,
antibacterial, anti-inflammatory and general strengthening treatment
C) Sequestrectomy, immobilization of mobile fracture fragments, antibacterial, anti-inflammatory and general
strengthening treatment

D) Only antibacterial, anti-inflammatory and general strengthening treatment

E) Opening of pus, extraction of a tooth located on the fracture line, sequestrectomy, antibacterial, anti-inflammatory and general
strengthening treatment

19.Treatment tactics in the chronic phase of post-traumatic osteomyelitis include:

A) osteotomy
B) distraction osteosynthesis

C) osteoperforation

D) prosthesis
E) sequestrectomy

20.It does not belong to the factors contributing to the occurrence of post-traumatic osteomyelitis:

A) Location of the fracture line outside the tooth row

B) The presence of a chronic odontogenic infection in the fracture line

C) Nerve-vascular bundle damage

D) Multiple injuries of jaws
E) Failure to effectively reposition and fix fracture fragments
21.It does not belong to the factors contributing to the occurrence of post-traumatic osteomyelitis:

A) Failure of the patient to apply for specialized treatment on time

B) Weakening of local and general resistance of the organism

C) Satisfactory living conditions of the patient

D) Presence of common head trauma

E) Violation of the treatment regime by the patient

22.Treatment tactics in the chronic phase of post-traumatic sinusitis:

A) puncture of the hymoral cavity

B) removal of bone fragments and foreign bodies only

C) radical hymorotomy, with the creation of a rhinostomy

D) creation of oroantral connection

E) radical hymorotomy, without creating a rhinostoma

23.Fractures of the cheekbone and arch cannot be caused by:

A) diplopia
B) emphysema of the eye socket

C) restriction of mouth opening

D) dislocation asphyxia

E) posttraumatic sinusitis

24.The causes of secondary displacement of fracture fragments during fractures of the

bones of the facial skeleton do not include:

A) early functional loading

B) additional trauma in that area

C) weakening of the body's general resistance

D) lack of reliable fixation of bone fragments

E) violation of the treatment regime by the patient

25.Nosebleeds can be observed during which fractures of the bones of the facial
skeleton?
A) During fractures of the articular protrusion of the jaw

B) In case of isolated fractures of the iliac arch

C) During fractures of the angular region of the jaw

D) During fractures of the alveolar ridge

E) During fractures of the cheekbone

26.Determine suitability: I
Mechanical damage
II Physical damage
III Chemical damage
1) Thermal and radiation damage
2) Damage caused by acids, alkalis and toxic substances
3) Injuries caused by firearms and non-firearms
A) I-1, II-2, III-3
B) I-2, II-1, III-3
C) I-1, II-3, III-2

D) I-2, II-3, III-1

E) I-3, II-1, III-2

27. Common traumas:

A) damage to an organ or an organ segment under the influence of an external damaging factor
B) trauma caused by different damaging factors (mechanical trauma
+ burn)
C) repeated traumas in certain circumstances in the same population group over a certain period of time

D) the formation of a wound process in tissues and organs under the influence of a damaging agent

E) trauma of two different anatomical areas with the same damaging factor

28.Combined traumas:
A) trauma of two different anatomical areas with the same damaging factor

B) damage to an organ or an organ segment under the influence of an external damaging factor

C) repeated traumas in certain circumstances in the same population group over a certain period of time

D) the formation of a wound process in tissues and organs under the influence of a damaging agent

E) trauma caused by different damaging factors (mechanical trauma + burn)

29.Isolated traumas:
A) trauma caused by different damaging factors (mechanical trauma + burn)
B) the formation of a wound process in tissues and organs under the influence of a damaging agent

C) repeated traumas in certain circumstances in the same population group over a certain period of time

D) trauma of two different anatomical areas with the same damaging factor

E) damage to an organ or an organ segment under the influence of an external damaging factor

30.Multiple traumas:
A) the formation of a wound process in tissues and organs under the influence of a damaging agent

B) trauma caused by different damaging factors (mechanical trauma + burn)

C) trauma of two different anatomical areas with the same damaging factor

D) the same type of damage caused by an external damaging factor

E) repeated traumas in certain circumstances in the same population group over a certain period of time

31. Complications that occur immediately after trauma:

A) fainting, lack of heart and breath
B) eye weakness, diplopia, fear of light
C) contamination of the wound, sepsis, mediastenitis

D) violation of teeth, false joint, osteomyelitis

E) asphyxia, bleeding, shock

32.Identify compliance: I
obturational asphyxia
II stenotic asphyxia
III dislocation asphyxia
1) Narrowing or compression of the trachea by inflammatory edema or swelling

2) Obstruction of the trachea by a foreign object (bullet, projectile shrapnel, bone shrapnel and tooth)

3) Caused by displacement of damaged organs (jaw, tongue, larynx and tongue,

soft palate)
A) I-1, II-2, III-3

B) I-2, II-1, III-3

C) I-1, II-3, III-2

D) I-3, II-1, III-2

E) I-2, II-3, III-1

33.Identify compliance: I-
valve asphyxia
II aspiration asphyxia
III stenotic asphyxia
1) Valve formation as a result of tearing of the soft palate and, rarely, the
soft tissues of the face
2) Flow of blood, mucus, stomach secretions into the trachea
3) Narrowing and compression of the trachea due to inflammatory edema and bleeding,
emphysema of the pharynx, neck and tongue
A) I-3, II-1, III-2

B) I-1, II-2, III-3

C) I-1, II-3, III-2

D) I-2, II-3, III-1

E) I-2, II-1, III-3

34.Surgical treatment for a fracture of the upper jaw:

A) Different types of ligature fixation

B) Dento-dentodental Weber splint

C) Osteosynthesis with mini-titanium plates

D) Covering seam

E) Standard Vasiliev tire

35.Which of the following applies to the surgical treatment of jaw fractures?

A) mini plates made of titanium

B) Vankevic tire
C) Ivy
D) Hook tire
E) Weber tire

36.Ang is observed during fractures?

A) the presence of a fracture in the joint protrusion

B) dislocation of the jaw

C) damage to the lower alveolar nerve

D) damage to the mental nerve

E) violation of teeth

37.It is not observed during jaw fractures?

A) the presence of a fracture in the joint protrusion

B) lower alveolar damage

C) violation of teeth
D) opening of the himor cavity

E) damage to the mental nerve

38.In which of the following situations can a jaw fracture be considered an open fracture?

1) if it covers two anatomical areas of the jaw

2) if the fracture fragments violate the integrity of the skin

3) if the fracture line passes through the tooth row

4) if the fracture is in the articular protrusion

A) 1,2,3
B) 2,3

C) 1.3

D) 1.4

E) 1,2,4

39.In which of the following cases can a fracture of the jaw not be evaluated as an open fracture?

1) if it covers two anatomical areas of the jaw

2) if the fracture fragments violate the integrity of the skin

3) if the fracture line passes through the tooth row

4) if the fracture is in the articular protrusion

A) 1,2,3

B) 2,3

C) 1.4

D) 1,2,4

E) 1.3

40.In which of the following cases is a slight displacement of the fracture fragments
noted during a jaw fracture?
A) if the fracture line passes through the articular eminence

B) if the same number of jaw closing and opening muscles are attached to the fracture fragments

C) during firearm injuries

D) if the broken line passes through the left angle region

E) if a different number of muscles are attached to the fracture fragments

41.What is the main reason for the fracture fragments moving away from each other along the lower edge of
the jaw during fractures of the symphysis region of the jaw?

A) the effect of an intra-articular disc

B) m. accumulative effect of platysma

C) effect of biventricular muscle

D) the effect of chewing and chewing muscles

E) m. effect of orbicularis oris

42.During fractures of which anatomical region of the jaw, more displacement of

fracture fragments is observed?
A) fractures of the coronal protrusion

B) fractures of the symphysis region

C) body area fractures

D) fractures of the articular eminence

E) fractures of the mental region

43.What are the main muscles that ensure upward displacement of the small
fragment during fractures of the body region of the jaw?
A) inside and outside wing-like crush.
B) chewing and internal winged muscles.

C) chew and chew.

D) biventricular and mandibular-sublingual muscles.

E) biventricular and gicgah az.

44.What are the main muscles that ensure the internal displacement of the small
fragment during fractures of the body region of the jaw?
A) biventricular and mandibular-sublingual muscles.

B) inside and outside wing-like crush.

C) chewing and internal winged muscles.

D) biventricular and gicgah az.

E) chewing and chewing.

45.What is the reason for low displacement of fracture fragments during fractures of
the angular region of the jaw?

A) placement of wisdom teeth in the angular region

B) as a result of the tensile force of the sphincter muscles

C) as a result of the tensive effect of the biventricular muscle

D) joint of the tendons of the masticatory muscle in a large area in the angular region

E) as a result of the effect of the intra-articular disc

46.Which of the following symptoms can be observed during jaw fractures?

1) violation of the teeth
2) "glasses" symptom
3) hemasinus
4) Vincent cymotome
A) 3,4

B) 2.4

C) 1.3

D) 2,3

E) 1.4

47.Which of the following symptoms cannot be observed during jaw fractures?

1) violation of the teeth
2) "glasses" symptom
3) hemosinus
4) Vincent cymotome
A) 1.3

B) 2,3

C) 1.4

D) 3,4

E) 2.4
48.Is dislocation the main cause of asphyxia in jaw fractures?
1) violation of the teeth
2) the effect of impact force
3) tensive effect of muscles
4) the formation of a slice on the leg
A) 1.3

B) 1.4

C) 2,3

D) 2.4

E) 3,4

49.Complications such as dislocation asphyxia often occur during jaw fractures?

A) fracture of the right mental, left angular region

B) during fractures of the symphysis area

C) during unilateral mental region fractures

D) during fractures of bilateral mental regions

E) during fractures of bilateral articular processes

50.Which tactic is correct to check the symptom of pressure in fractures of the

symphysis area of the jaw?
A) it is necessary to apply pressure from the suborbital edge

B) it is necessary to apply pressure from the submandibular region

C) it is necessary to apply pressure from the body area of the jaw

D) it is necessary to apply pressure to both angular areas of the jaw from outside to inside

E) it is necessary to pressurize the external ear

51.When is the symptom of "dualization" observed during fractures of the jaw?

A) in the case of fractures of the symphysis region of the jaw during the back projection X-ray image

B) during frontal projection X-ray image in the case of fractures of the mental region of the jaw

C) lateral projection X-ray image during fractures of the body region of the jaw

D) in the case of fractures of the articular eminence of the jaw during the lateral projection X-ray image

E) during frontal projection X-ray image in the case of fractures of the crown of the jaw

52.What are the main clinical signs that occur if the fractures of the unilateral articular
process are accompanied by dislocation of the articular head?

1) Vincent's symptom
2) immobility in the joint
3) paresthesia on the cheek

4) Malevich symptom
5) depression in front of the ear canal

A) 3,4,5

B) 2.5
C) 1.3

D) 1,2,5

E) 1.4

53.If fractures of one-sided articular process are accompanied by dislocation of the articular
head, does it not belong to the main clinical signs that appear?

1) Vincent's symptom
2) immobility in the joint
3) paresthesia on the cheek

4) Malevich symptom
5) depression in front of the ear canal

A) 3,4,5

B) 1.3

C) 1,2,5

D) 2.5

E) 1,3,4

54.What about temporary immobilization methods for jaw fractures?

1) sling bandage
2) Tigerstedt tire
3) Vasiliev tire
4) standard transport tire
5) Pomeranseva-Urbansky bandage
A) 1,2,3

B) 1,2,5

C) 2,3,5

D) 1,4,5

E) 2,4,5

55.What about permanent immobilization methods for jaw fractures?

1) sling bandage
2) Tigerstedt tire
3) Vasiliev tire
4) standard transport tire
5) Pomeranseva-Urbansky bandage
A) 4.5

B) 2,3

C) 2,3,4

D) 2.5

E) 1,2,3
56.Determine eligibility:
a- temporary immobilization methods b-
permanent immobilization methods 1)
Tigerstedt splint
2) sling bandage
3) titanium mini plate

4) Vasiliev tire
5) Pomeranseva-Urbansky bandage ab

A) 1,5 2,3,4

B) 1,3,4 2,5

C) 2,4,5 1,3

D) 2,5 1,3,4

E) 1,3 2,4,5

57.Determine the compatibility: a-

Lefor I
b-Lefor II
1) starts from the nose-forehead seam

2) passes through alveolar comb

3) starts from the lower hole of the pear-shaped hole
4) goes at the level of the bottom of the himor cavity

5) passes through the lower part of the wing-like protrusions of the main bone ab

A) 1,2,5 3,4,5

B) 1,3,5 2,4

C) 3,4,5 1,2,5

D) 1,2,3 1,3,5

E) 1,2 3,4,5

58.Identify the match: a-jaw

fractures
b-most fractures

1) Vincent's symptom
2) fracture of the articular eminence

3) Lefor classification

4) Malevich symptom
ab
A) 1,2,3 2,4
B) 2,4 1,3,4

C) 1,2,4 3,4

D) 1.3 2.4

E) 3,4 2,3,4

59.Which of the following is not a common fracture?

A) Lefort classification

B) hemosinus

C) Wasmund's classification

D) Geren's fracture

E) Vincent's symptom

60.Determine compatibility:

I According to the vessels with the blood flow tube II

According to the blood flow time

III According to the location of blood accumulation after trauma

1) primary/secondary/primary (in the first 3 days after the injury)

2) arterial/venous/capillary/mixed bleeding
3) intra/external/internal bleeding
A) I-2, II-1, III-3

B) I-3, II-1, III-2

C) I-2, II-3, III-1

D) I-1, II-3, III-2

E) I-1, II-2, III-3

61. After the trauma, severe disturbance of the central nervous system, blood circulation, respiration and
metabolism is noted in the patient. What pathological condition does the patient have?

A) clinical death
B) posttraumatic disease
C) traumatic shock

D) traumatic collapse
E) long-term compression syndrome

62. The patient developed acute vascular insufficiency after trauma: decreased vascular tone and
decreased circulating blood volume. A sharp drop in arterial and venous pressure, hypoxia of the
brain and a decrease in the function of vital organs are observed. What pathological condition does
the patient have?
A) posttraumatic disease
B) long term compression syndrome

C) traumatic shock

D) traumatic collapse
E) clinical death

63. FIRST MEDICAL assistance is provided to patients in the HCW:

A) in the medical section of the battalion

B) in a separate medical institution of the battalion

C) in a specialized mobile field hospital

D) in the troop's medical station

E) on the battlefield

64. Patients are provided with medical care at the OCCU, UP TO THE FIRST DOCTOR:
A) on the battlefield
B) in a separate medical institution of the battalion
C) in the medical section of the battalion

D) in a specialized mobile field hospital

E) at the troop's medical station

65. The FIRST PHYSICIAN provides medical assistance to patients in the National Hospital:

A) on the battlefield
B) in a specialized mobile field hospital
C) in a separate medical institution of the battalion

D) in the medical part of the battalion

E) at the troop's medical station

66. Patients are provided PRIMARY SPECIALIZED medical care at the OCCU:

A) in a separate medical institution of the battalion

B) on the battlefield
C) in a specialized mobile field hospital

D) in the medical section of the battalion

E) at the troop's medical station

67. They provide PRIMARY SPECIAL medical assistance to patients in the National Hospital::

A) in the medical section of the battalion

B) on the battlefield
C) in a specialized mobile field hospital

D) in a separate medical institution of the battalion

E) at the troop's medical station

68. Provides FIRST MEDICAL aid on the battlefield:

A) epidemiological service
B) doctor
C) medical intelligence service of the army

D) sanitary
E) paramedic

69. In the medical part of the battalion, he provides assistance UP TO THE FIRST DOCTOR:

A) epidemiological service

B) doctor
C) sanitary
D) paramedic

E) medical intelligence service of the army

70. In the medical station of the troop, the FIRST AID doctor shows:

A) paramedic
B) sanitary
C) doctor

D) army medical intelligence service

E) epidemiological service

71.
The main issue of medical care provided to patients in case of injury to the
DOCTOR:
A) put a bandage
B) take to shelter
C) make the wounded drink

D) temporary cessation of bleeding

E) filling out a medical card

72.How many cycles are there in the clinical course of combined radiation injuries?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 2
D) 3
E) 6
73.FirstandHow is the primary radiation reaction prevented in the pre-medical
stages?
A) radioprotectors are given inside

B) autohemotherapy is performed

C) detoxification therapy is carried out

D) laxative is given

E) antibiotics are administered

74.How long can surgical interventions be postponed in combined radiation

injuries?
A) until the formation of false joints
B) until the end of the fever
C) until the elimination of the hot period of radiation sickness
D) until the formation of necrotic areas
E) until recovery of autoinfection
75.A sign of licorice is considered:

A) nosebleed
B) glasses symptom

C) positive symptom of nasal scarf

D) a positive symptom of fracture mobility
E) meeting eyesight

76.A sign of licorice is considered:

A) positive symptom of mobility of fracture fragments

B) exophthalmos

C) reduction of cerebrospinal fluid pressure

D) glasses symptom

E) headache
77.What is pre-hospital medical care for patients with a common head injury:

A) from II-cli surgical treatment

B) from trepanation of the skull
C) from the surgical treatment of I-cli
D) from combating shock, bleeding, asphyxia

E) permanent immobilization of fragments

78.How are gunshot wounds to the face different from wounds to other areas?
A) by the fact that the appearance of the injured does not correspond to his ability to live

B) with the rapid development of complications

C) with the characteristics of the wound canal

D) with the period of epithelization of the wound

E) with bleeding from the wound

79.What are secondary wounding shrapnel?

A) axial elements.
B) projectile shrapnel.

C) pneumatic bullets.

D) teeth, fragments of teeth and facial bones.

E) destructive bullets.

80.Classification of firearm injuries of the soft tissues of the face according to the nature of the
wound
A) combined injuries
B) penetrating, blind, touching
C) salivary gland injuries
D) deep and superficial burns

E) freezes
81.It depends on the nature of the wound

A) from the initial kinetic energy of the projectile

B) from the time of day and season

C) from the metal from which the projectile is made

D) from the body temperature of the injured

E) from the area of injury

82.It depends on the nature of the wound

A) from the material from which the projectile is made

B) from the preparation of the wounded

C) from the length of the pulsating gap and the zone of molecular shaking
D) from the temperature of the air and its pollution

E) from the physical condition of the injured

83.Its minimal disintegration during severe gunshot wounds is explained by:

A) with the shape of the collarbone

B) with the thin walls of the pelvic bone

C) with the proximity of the nasal bones

D) with the presence of mimic muscles

E) with the presence of eng sinus

84.What is explained by its maximum dispersal during severe gunshot wounds?

A) with thin walls of the iliac bone
B) with the proximity of the nasal bones

C) with the shape of the collarbone

D) with the presence of mimic muscles

E) with fragments of molar teeth and alveolar ridge

85.Features of blind injuries of the soft tissues of the face:

A) secondary deviation of the wound channel during probing is noted

B) entrance and exit holes of the wound are revealed

C) the wound is small on the surface, and wide deep

D) foreign bodies (shells, bullets), tooth fragments or blind pockets are noted during probing of the wound canal.

E) the wound bleeds a lot

86.Features of penetrating injuries of the soft tissues of the face

A) the wound bleeds a lot

B) inlet and outlet holes are approximately the same size

C) the inlet hole is much larger than the outlet hole

D) the wound always enters the oral cavity

E) the wound depends on the shape of the wounding projectile

87.Features of penetrating injuries of the soft tissues of the face:

A) practically no bleeding is observed in the wound

B) the edges of the wound are smooth

C) a damaging shrapnel is noted in the wound

D) cracks and fragments of bones are visible at the bottom of these wounds

E) wounds do not enter the oral cavity

88.What can cause fully erupted and displaced teeth in a gunshot wound to the jaw?

A) heavy bleeding

B) stenotic asphyxia

C) obturational asphyxia

D) valve asphyxia
E) dislocation asphyxia

89.What functions can be disturbed when the jaw is fractured by a firearm?

A) breathing, head movement, swallowing and pronunciation

B) breathing, chewing, swallowing and pronunciation

C) chewing, salivation, swallowing and pronunciation

D) breathing, vision, swallowing and chewing

E) chewing, digestion, swallowing, pronunciation

90.The jaw can be damaged during a penetrating injury

A) oral cavity

B) eyeball
C) pyramid of the pubic bone
D) nasal septum
E) skull base

91.What is wound canal deviation?

A) decrease in diameter

B) dispersion of microflora
C) change of direction
D) adhesion of their walls to each other

E) increase in diameter

92.What is the indication for primary complete wound closure?

A) high temperature of the patient

B) animal bite wound

C) wound suppuration

D) A "clean" wound for up to 24 hours

E) all
93.Duration of initial primary surgical treatment of facial wounds
A) In the first hours of injury
B) 48 hours

C) 72 hours

D) 24 hours

E) 8-12 hours
94.Duration of deferred primary surgical treatment of facial wounds
A) 24-48 hours

B) 8-12 hours

C) 3 days

D) the first hour of injury

E) 8 days

95.In what period is the delayed primary surgical treatment of traumatic injuries of the
face carried out?
A) 48 hours

B) 8-12 hours

C) 8 days

D) 10 days

E) 24 hours

96.Primary and secondary sutures are placed in traumatic injuries of the face

A) after the necrotic tissue breaks off and granulation tissue appears
B) 8-9 days
C) 4-5 days
D) after the wound is epithelized

E) 9-10 days
97.Secondary surgical treatment of traumatic wounds of the face-jaw region is performed

A) after necrotic tissue breaks off and granulation tissue appears

B) when the course of the wound process is long-term

C) when the rupture of necrotic tissues is slow

D) 9-10 days
E) when the wound is epithelized

98.The most effective antiseptic for the antiseptic treatment of the oral cavity

A) furacilin

B) iodinol

C) potassium permanganate

D) alcohol

E) chlorhexidine

99.In the case of gunshot wounds of the face, sutures are placed with plates

A) during contaminated wounds

B) when there are granulations in the wound

C) during extensive soft tissue defects

D) in case of blood diseases

E) when there is bleeding from the wound

100.Which of the following options corresponds to the reason for cutting and opening blind
tunnels during the primary surgical treatment of wounds with bone damage?
A) to cause arterial bleeding
B) for excision of necrotic tissues
C) for the removal of foreign bodies, teeth and bone fragments

D) to cause capillary bleeding

E) to cause venous bleeding
101.In wounds that pass into the oral cavity, tissues are sutured in the following order

A) muscle, skin, mucous membrane

B) muscle, mucous membrane, skin

C) skin, muscle, mucous membrane

D) mucous membrane, skin, muscle

E) mucous membrane, muscle, skin

102.What is the immediate complication of maxillofacial injury?

A) acute respiratory viral disease (CRV X)
B) asphyxia

C) salivary swishes

D) periodontitis

E) facial nerve neuritis

103.What are the delayed complications of maxillofacial injury?

A) traumatic osteomyelitis, suppuration of a bone wound

B) CVD, collapse

C) asphyxia

D) fracture of the bones of the facial skeleton

E) fracture of the temporomandibular joint

104.Obstruction of the airways with a foreign body is what type of asphyxia?

A) valved
B) dislocation

C) stenotic

D) obturation

E) aspiration

105.Asphyxia due to compression of the airways

A) aspiration

B) dislocation

C) valved
D) obturation

E) stenotic
106.What kind of asphyxia is a violation of the permeability of the respiratory tract with damaged and
displaced organs?

A) valved
B) aspiration

C) obturation

D) dislocation

E) stenotic

107.Asphyxia due to liquid wound contents and vomitus entering the respiratory
tract
A) aspiration

B) stenotic

C) valved
D) obturation

E) dislocation

108.Asphyxia caused by periodic obstruction of the airways with damaged tissues in

accordance with respiratory movements
A) aspiration

B) obturation

C) valved
D) dislocation

E) stenotic

109.It is damaged during a first degree burn.

A) skin and subcutaneous tissues

B) all layers of the epidermis

C) superficial epidermis

D) superficial epidermis and capillaries

E) all layers of the epidermis, with the preservation of skin derivatives

110.It is damaged during a second degree burn.

A) superficial epidermis and capillaries

B) all layers of the epidermis, with the preservation of skin derivatives

C) skin and subcutaneous tissues

D) all layers of the epidermis

E) superficial epidermis

111.It is damaged during a III ( A ) degree burn.

A) superficial epidermis and capillaries

B) superficial epidermis

C) all layers of the epidermis

D) skin and subcutaneous tissues

E) all layers of the epidermis, with the preservation of skin derivatives

112.It is damaged during a burn of the III (B) degree.

A) superficial epidermis and capillaries

B) skin and subcutaneous tissues

C) superficial epidermis

D) all layers of the epidermis

E) all layers of the epidermis, with the preservation of skin derivatives

113.It is damaged during IV degree burns.

A) all layers of the epidermis

B) superficial epidermis

C) skin and subcutaneous tissues

D) all layers of the epidermis, with the preservation of skin derivatives

E) superficial epidermis and capillaries

114.In the case of facial burns, the extent of assistance provided at the sites of injury

A) dressing adjustment, anti-shock treatment, preparation for evacuation

B) primary surgical treatment, skin transplantation

C) primary surgical treatment

D) adjusting the bandage, giving painkillers, antibiotics and cardiac drugs

E) dry aseptic bandage, pain reliever

115.Primary surgical treatment of a burn includes:

A) treatment of the skin around the burn with antiseptics, skin transplantation

B) excision of burned skin

C) treating the skin around the burn with antiseptics, opening large wounds, anti-burn ointments,
aerosols

D) skin transfer
E) use of primary plastic
116.Skin is transferred to the burn wound:

A) after the cartilage has broken off and granulation has developed

B) as late as possible

C) 5 days after the burn

D) from the period when epithelization begins

E) as soon as possible

117.Accelerates wound epithelization.

A) corglycon

B) analgin

C) synthomycin emulsion

D) Solcoseryl ointment
E) trimethyldifluoro paraamine

118.What degree of thermal damage does the appearance of blisters on the skin indicate?

A) II - III - IV degree

B) Grade I
C) III b - IV grade
D) grade IV
E) II-III grade a
119.It is not typical for combined trauma (radiation disease + facial trauma):
A) change in blood formula
B) mutually aggravating syndrome

C) rise in arterial pressure

D) gum bleeding, stomatitis

E) general weakness

120.In what condition is the injured person with a fractured jaw and brain injury taken from the
scene?
A) lying on the side
B) sitting

C) transporting the patient is prohibited

D) lying on the back

E) in any situation
121.Treatment tactics of patients with severe closed head trauma and
maxillofacial injury
A) primary surgical treatment of the wound, temporary or permanent immobilization of fractures

B) stop bleeding, improve external respiratory function, temporary immobilization, treat closed
head trauma
C) to treat closed head trauma first
D) Treatment of inflammatory complications, permanent immobilization of fragments

E) primary surgical operation

122.Treatment tactics for a patient with mild closed head trauma and maxillofacial
injury
A) stop bleeding, improve external respiratory function, temporary immobilization, treat closed
head injury
B) primary surgical treatment of the wound, permanent immobilization of fractures and drug treatment

C) Treatment of inflammatory complications, permanent immobilization of fragments

D) to treat closed head trauma first

E) stop bleeding, improve external respiratory function
123.It is characteristic of the combined injury of the face-jaw area.
A) auricotemporal syndrome

B) mutually aggravating syndrome

C) wing-palate ganglion syndrome
D) hypoglycemic syndrome

E) hyperglycemic syndrome

124.The scope of assistance provided in the maxillofacial surgery department of the hospital:

A) all types of conservative and operative immobilization

B) conservative methods of immobilization

C) operative methods of immobilization

D) struggle with asphyxia

E) temporary immobilization

125.Features of the primary surgical treatment of the wound in the maxillofacial surgery
department of the military hospital

A) partial dissection and economical excision of non-viable tissues, removal of foreign

bodies, fixation of fragments, use of primary plastic
B) antiseptic operation, cutting of necrotic tissues, wound suturing
C) antiseptic operation, placing of sutures and bandages

D) cutting necrotic tissues, removing blood clots, draining the wound

E) stopping bleeding, antiseptic treatment, sewing and dressing

126.The volume of assistance provided to the combined injuries of the face and jaw area in the
military hospital
A) artificial ventilation of the lung

B) permanent cessation of bleeding, removal from shock, treatment of radiation sickness, deactivation

C) preparation for primary surgical treatment of the wound and therapeutic immobilization, deactivation, taking into account
the degree of radiation damage

D) surgical treatment of the wound

E) evacuation to the rear hospital base

127.How are facial gunshot wounds different from other areas:

A) in the course of the wound process

B) with the presence of projectiles causing a secondary wound in the wound

C) with the rapid development of complications

D) with the presence of an inflammatory process

E) with the period of epithelization of the wound

128.What is the characteristic symptom of a bilateral fracture of the articular eminence of the jaw:

A) nosebleeds
B) tooth change in the molar region on the opposite side of the fracture

C) open bite
D) tooth change in the area of the molars on the fractured side

E) violation of the integrity of the mucous membrane of the alveolar protrusion

129.How the location of the fragments changes in a two-sided fracture of the jaw passing through the area of
canine teeth:

A) down

B) lateral

C) medial

D) distal

E) up
130.What are the signs of a fracture in the angular region of the jaw:

A) the large fragment has shifted to the lower side, and the smaller one to the upper side, therefore, the tooth is broken.
Lower lip swelling is observed

B) the fragments have not changed their place, there is no hardening, the bite is not broken

C) the bite is broken due to the displacement of the fracture fragments, there is numbness of the upper lip

D) the occlusion is broken, because the fracture fragments have shifted, there is no upper lip numbness

E) the large fragment has shifted to the upper side, and the smaller one to the lower side, therefore, the tooth is broken. Lower
lip swelling is observed

131.As a result of mechanical impact, which teeth are most likely to be dislodged:

A) upper premolars

B) lower frontal teeth

C) lower premolars

D) upper frontal teeth

E) upper and lower frontal teeth

132.What are tooth extractions?

A) complete, incomplete

B) complete, flashed

C) incomplete, confused

D) horizontal, vertical

E) complete, incomplete, flashed

133.Which of the following refers to mechanical damage:

A) combined injuries
B) soft tissue injuries and frostbite
C) injuries of soft and bone tissue
D) bone tissue injuries and burns
E) burns and frostbite

134.Which of the following describes the nature of a firearm injury:

A) burns and frostbite
B) combined injuries, burns and frostbite
C) blind and crazy
D) firearm injuries
E) combined injuries and burns
135.Primary surgical treatment of facial wounds can be carried out from the time of injury to
what period:
A) 72 hours

B) 24 hours

C) 48 hours

D) the wound is received in an hour

E) 8-12 hours

136.Delayed primary surgical treatment of facial wounds can be performed at what time
from the time of injury:
A) 3 days
B) in the hour of receiving the wound

C) 24-48 hours

D) 8-12 hours

E) 8 days

137.After how long can delayed primary surgical treatment of facial wounds be performed

A) 8-12 hours

B) 8 days
C) 48 hours

D) at the wounding hour

E) 3 days

138.When is the initial delayed suture placed in facial wounds:

A) in 6-7 days
B) in 10-15 days

C) in 7-8 days
D) in 4-5 days

E) in 8-9 days

139.When is a delayed secondary suture placed in facial wounds:

A) in 8-9 days
B) during the separation of necrotic tissues and the formation of granulation tissue

C) during scar formation

D) in 4-5 days

E) after epithelization of the wound

140.An important measure in the initial surgical treatment of facial wounds is the introduction of:

A) anti-tetanus serum
B) antirabic serum

C) beta-globulin

D) staphylococcal anatoxin
E) gamma-globulin

141.Disruption of the passage of the respiratory tract due to inhalation of the aqueous content of the wound is
called asphyxiation:

A) dislocation

B) aspiration

C) stenotic

D)
E) valve
E)obturation
142.What is the emergency treatment measure in stenotic asphyxia:

A) tracheostomy

B) foreign body removal

C) injection of a ventilator

D) restoration of the anatomical condition of the body

E) giving antibiotics
143.What is the planned therapeutic measure in dislocation asphyxia:

A) injection of the ventilator

B) giving antibiotics
C) foreign body removal

D) tracheostomy

E) restoration of the anatomical condition of the organ

144.Indicate the type of asphyxia during fractures of the mental region of the jaw:

A) dislocation

B) obturation

C) stenotic

D) valved
E) aspiration

145.What is the planned procedure for the prevention of asphyxia when the tissues of the
floor of the mouth are moved during surgery:
A) carrying out a tracheostomy

B) removal and construction of the language

C) prescribing antibiotics

D) placement of a bimaxillary splint

E) inhaler injection
146.Where is the tongue sewn for the prevention of asphyxia:

A) in the front third

B) at the root

C) in the middle third

D) in the lateral line

E) in the back third

147.Which of the methods of immobilization of the jaw belongs to osteosynthesis

A) supragingival splint or prosthetic year circular suture

B) attachment of jaw fragments to facial skeleton and skull bones

C) fixation with supraosseous mini-plates

D) reposition-fixing devices
E) bone fixation devices
148.Which of the osteosynthesis methods can be considered more perspective in the current period?

A) P-shaped metal device

B) through the Kirchner axis

C) with titanium mini-plates

D) bone suture with wire

E) covering seam with polyamide thread

149.0.5 cm of the neck of the articular protrusion of the jaw. What method is used to treat a
patient with an externally displaced fracture?
A) through a covering seam with a polyamide thread

B) through a bimaxillary supradental splint with intermaxillary rubber braces and an interdental spacer

C) through a smooth tire

D) osteosynthesis with bone suture

E) through a bimaxillary dental splint with intermaxillary rubber braces

150.Fracture line in Lefor type II fractures:

A) is the rupture of the upper jaw joint with the cheekbone

B) the root of the nose goes from the inner wall of the eye socket to the lower orbital fissure, from there it comes forward along the
lower wall of the orbit and passes through the forehead-cheekbone seam and the cheekbone arch

C) the root of the nose goes from the inner wall of the eye socket to the lower orbital fissure, from there it passes forward
along the lower wall of the orbit through the area where the cheekbone and the cheekbone meet, and ends at the wing-
like protrusion of the main bone

D) is a fracture of one of the upper jaw bones

E) passes over the alveolar ridge and hard palate, the edge of the pear-shaped hole, the level of the bottom of
the himor cavity and ends at the wing-like protrusion of the main bone

151.Fracture line in Lefor type I fractures:

A) is the rupture of the upper jaw joint with the cheekbone

B) is a fracture of one of the upper jaw bones

C) the root of the nose goes from the inner wall of the eye socket to the lower orbital fissure, from there it comes forward along the
lower wall of the orbit and passes through the forehead-cheekbone suture and the cheekbone arch

D) passes over the alveolar ridge and hard palate, the edge of the pear-shaped hole, the level of the bottom of
the himor cavity and ends at the wing-like protrusion of the main bone
E) the root of the nose goes from the inner wall of the eye socket to the lower orbital fissure, from there it passes forward
along the lower wall of the orbit through the area where the cheekbone and the cheekbone meet, and ends at the wing-
like protrusion of the main bone

152.Fracture line in Lefor III type fractures:

A) passes over the alveolar ridge and hard palate, the edge of the pear-shaped hole, the level of the bottom of
the himor cavity and ends at the wing-like protrusion of the main bone

B) fracture of the upper jaw with the cheekbone

C) is a fracture of one of the upper jaw bones

D) the root of the nose goes from the inner wall of the eye socket to the lower orbital fissure, from there it passes forward along
the lower wall of the orbit, passing through the area where the cheekbone meets the cheekbone, and ends at the wing-like
protrusion of the main bone.

E) the root of the nose goes from the inner wall of the eye socket to the lower orbital fissure, from there it comes forward along the
lower wall of the orbit and passes through the forehead-cheekbone suture and the cheekbone arch

153.A severe sagittal fracture is called:

A) complex Lefort I type fracture

B) fracture of only one of the clavicles

C) severe Lefort type III fracture

D) Lefort type II fracture without damage to the nasal bones

E) severe Lefort type II fracture

154."Symptoms of spectacles" that occur during a severe isolated fracture and fractures of the bones
of the base of the skull differ from each other:

A) according to the intensity of its color

B) due to the localization of anemia

C) to the time of formation and distribution

D) due to its spread and color intensity

E) is formed after trauma and has a limited nature
155."Glasses symptom" during severe isolated fracture:
A) occurs at least 24-48 hours after the trauma and is widespread
B) occurs immediately after the trauma and has a widespread nature

C) occurs at least 24-48 hours after the trauma and is limited in nature
D) occurs immediately after trauma and is limited in nature
E) occurs at least 12 hours after the trauma and does not extend beyond the circular muscle of the eye

156.In the double spot test:

A) the mixture turns brown and yellow on the napkin

B) only a yellow spot appears on the napkin

C) a yellow spot is formed in the center of the napkin, and a brown spot is formed in its periphery

D) blood forms a brown spot in the center of the tissue, and cerebrospinal fluid forms a yellow band in its periphery

E) only blood forms a brown stain on the napkin

157.The symptom of nasal congestion is used:

A) in the diagnosis of nasal bone fractures
B) in the diagnosis of fractures of the eye socket bones

C) in the diagnosis of skull base bone fractures

D) in the diagnosis of hip fractures

E) in the diagnosis of cheek bone fractures

158.Positive Malevich symptom:

A) is the spread of pain along the fracture line when pressing with the finger on the hook of the wing-like protrusion of the main
bone (from bottom to top)

B) is crepitation in the suborbital area

C) is a stair symptom in the area of the cheek-face seam

D) is a stair symptom in the suborbital area

E) "cracked bowl" sound is heard during percussion of the teeth on the damaged side

159.Why do children with maxillofacial injuries develop delayed concussion

symptoms?
A) children are easily traumatized

B) children do not pay attention to clinical symptoms

C) they cannot record all symptoms

D) trauma in children is less powerful than in adults
E) flexibility of the bones of the skull base and non-closure of labor

160.A symptom not specific to an isolated fracture of the cheekbone:

A) loading symptom
B) darkening of the skin of the sub-orbital area

C) "staircase" symptom in the middle of the lower edge of the eye socket

D) collapse of soft tissues in the cheek area

E) bleeding from the nose

161.Diplopia can occur when the cheekbone is significantly displaced in which

direction?
A) down

B) abroad

C) up
D) up and forward

E) forward

162.During a midline fracture of the jaw, its fragments are displaced:

A) sagittal

B) on the frontal surface and with frontal contact - with premolars and molars tilting towards the tongue

C) saggital and phrotal

D) on the frontal surface and with frontal contact - with the inclination of the premolars and molars to the cheek

E) on the frontal surface and with frontal contact - premolar to the tongue with the inclination of the molars to the cheek
163.In a central line fracture of the jaw, bumpy contact of the teeth occurs because:
A) extrudes the wing-like muscle fragment to the left (inwards).
B) turns the maxillo-hyoid muscle fragment inwards

C) special masticatory muscle turns the fragment outward

D) the special masticatory muscle turns the fragment outward, and the sphincter muscle upward

E) the sciatic muscle lifts the fragment

164.Bump contact of teeth in a central line fracture of the jaw:

A) premolars and molars are inclined to the tongue on the right, and on the cheek on the left

B) is a left tooth

C) premolars and molars are inclined towards the tongue

D) is the usual contact of antagonistic teeth

E) premolars and molars are inclined towards the cheek

165.In an oblique fracture of the jaw along the central line, the fragments change position:

A) the large fragment down, and the small fragment inside

B) the large fragment outwards, and the small fragment upward

C) large fragment out and down, and small fragment in and down

D) the large fragment is down and the small fragment is up

E) large fragment out, small fragment down

166.How do the fragments change position in a single fracture of the mandibular body?

A) the large fragment is upward and toward the fracture, and the small fragment is forward and inward

B) the large fragment down and to the side of the fracture, and the small fragment up, forward and inward

C) the large fragment down and to the side of the fracture, and the small fragment back and out

D) the large fragment down and out, and the small fragment to the side of the fracture

E) the large fragment down and out, and the small fragment up, back and in

167.How do the fragments change position in a single fracture of the jaw in the angular region?

A) they do not change their place

B) the large fragment down and out, and the small fragment up and in

C) the large fragment down and to the side of the fracture, and the small fragment up and out

D) the large fragment up and towards the fracture, and the small fragment down and inside

E) the large fragment down and towards the fracture, and the small fragment up and inside

168.During a fracture of the jaw branch:

A) The big fragment does not change its place, the small fragment changes its place inside

B) the large fragment moves downward and toward the fractured side, and the small fragment moves upward and inward

C) the large fragment moves outward, and the small fragment moves downward and inward

D) the large fragment moves inside, and the small fragment moves down

E) the large fragment moves down and in, and the small fragment moves up and out
169.What changes are observed in the bite during a fracture of the crown of the
jaw?
A) antagonistic teeth do not meet on the side of damage

B) all teeth do not meet

C) they meet in the position of left bite

D) changes in the teeth are not observed

E) antagonistic teeth meet only on the affected side

170.In case of multiple fractures of the middle zone of the face, the fracture fragments should be
initially fixed:

A) fragments present in the jaw

B) from active to inactive
C) fragments in soft tissues
D) fragments present in eng
E) between each other

171.During a bilateral fracture of the body, angle, branchial areas and articular protrusions of
the jaw, it is in contact:
A) frontal teeth only
B) teeth on one side only
C) there is no contact in the teeth

D) molars only
E) all teeth
172.In the case of a bilateral fracture of the jaw:

A) the middle fragment moves down and inside, the large and small fragments move up

B) the middle fragment moves down and inside, the large fragment moves to the injured side, the small fragment moves down and inside

C) the middle fragment moves down and inside, the large fragment moves to the injured side, the small fragment moves up and inside.

D) middle fragment moves up, large and small fragments move down

E) the middle fragment moves down and inside, the large and small fragments move down

173.Which tooth located on the fracture line can be temporarily saved?

A) intact tooth that helps to keep the fragment in the correct position

B) female with an inflammatory process

C) if the tooth is completely out of the socket, but its integrity is not disturbed

D) a retentive tooth that prevents the fragment from being kept in the correct position

E) tooth with broken roots

174.Isolated fractures of the iliac arch are not characteristic:

A) limitation of lateral movement of the jaw
B) darkening of the skin in the area under the eye socket

C) mouth sucking is limited and painful

D) deformation of the face
E) deposition of soft tissues in the cheek area
175.Instructions for osteosynthesis using mini-plates and screws:

A) left-sided fractures of the tooth crown

B) comminuted fractures of the lower jaw

C) fractures of the alveolar ridge of the upper jaw

D) comminuted fractures of the upper jaw

E) all fractures of the mandible, except comminuted fractures

176.Instruction for osteosynthesis:

A) unilateral fracture of the alveolar part of the lower jaw

B) erupted teeth
C) unilateral fracture of the alveolar ridge of the upper jaw

D) a fracture of the lower jaw and the general somatic condition of the patient is severe (shock, coma)

E) fractures of the edentulous mandible with sufficiently displaced fragments

177.A more suitable treatment method for toothless jaws:

A) intermaxillary ligature fixation

B) Vasiliev standard tires

C) reconstructive plate

D) smooth tire

E) itan mini-boards

178.The following symptoms occur during a fracture of the cheekbone:

A) Frey's symptom

B) staircase symptom

C) parchment rustling symptom

D) Vincent's symptom

E) loading symptom
179.Which of the following X-ray examinations is considered the most informative in the case of a
fracture of the apple-orbital complex:
A) X-ray image of the facial bones from the side projection
B) intraoral radiograph
C) computer tomogram of the bones of the facial skeleton
D) orthopantogram of jaws
E) contrast X-ray examination

180.It is not observed during a fracture of the apple-orbital complex:

A) enophthalmos

B) difficulty swallowing
C) limitation of mental opening

D) diplopia
E) paresthesia of the eye area
181.Show the bones that enter the middle zone of the face:
A) nose, forehead, cheekbone complex, orbit

B) nose, forehead, cheekbones, orbit

C) forehead, nose, base, cheek complex, orbit

D) nose, forehead, cheekbone, orbit

E) forehead, nose, base, cheek complex, orbit, ethmoidal bone

182.Show the counterforces in the middle zone of the face:

A) forehead-nose, cheekbones, palate-palate, palate

B) eng, apple, palate, palate

C) eng, apple, palate
D) nose, cheekbones, palate, palate
E) forehead, cheek, palate, tuberal
183.Tactics of treatment in the case of a hip fracture of the orbital-orbital complex:

A) osteosynthesis with reposition and wire suture

B) conservative

C) Reposition of the Highmore cavity by the method of dense tamponade

D) Limberg hook reposition

E) osteosynthesis with reposition and mini-plates

184.Indicate the instrument used for repositioning a fracture of the cheekbone and
clavicle:
A) Limberg hook
B) flat elevator

C) Volkov elevator
D) Kocher squeezer

E) Lecluse elevator

185.Cause of facial deformity 24 hours after trauma in case of cheekbone fracture:

A) depression of the cheekbones and under-eye area of the face

B) swelling of the cheekbones and undereye area

C) shortening of the middle zone of the face

D) flattening of the side of the face

E) lengthening of the face

186.The cause of facial deformity that occurs 7 days after a cheekbone fracture:

A) swelling of the cheekbones and the undereye area

B) shortening of the middle zone of the face

C) flattening of the face on the side

D) depression of the cheekbones and undereye area of the face

E) lengthening of the face

187.Which symptom is not an indication for repositioning the fragments of the apple complex
with a hook

A) sinking of the soft tissues of the cheek area

B) diplopia
C) violation of lateral movements of the jaw

D) limitation of mouth opening

E) numbing of the upper lip

188.Fractures of the clavicle and clavicle usually accompany which fracture:

A) humerus
B) frontal bone
C) of the chin

D) main bone
E) the pubic bone
189.During a fracture of the cheekbone, the darkening of the skin of the undereye, upper lip
and nasal wing indicates damage to which nerve:
A) cheek branch of the facial nerve

B) nasal branch of the trigeminal nerve

C) apple branch of the trigeminal nerve

D) cheek branch of the facial nerve

E) suborbital socket branch of the trigeminal nerve

190.During a fracture of the cheekbone, the skin thickening of the pubic area
indicates damage to which nerve:
A) apple branch of the trigeminal nerve

B) cheek branch of the facial nerve

C) the branch of the facial nerve

D) cheek branch of the facial nerve

E) infraorbital branch of the trigeminal nerve

191.Show the symptoms of a fracture of the cheek bone:

A) hemorrhage in the lower eyelid

B) hematoma in the cheek area

C) nasal deformation, hematoma

D) nosebleeds, dizziness
E) flattening of the pupil area, diplopia

192.Show the symptoms of a fracture of the cheekbone:

A) deformation of the nose, hematoma

B) hemorrhage of the lower eyelid

C) hematoma of the cheek area

D) nosebleeds, dizziness
E) staircase symptom, limitation of mouth opening

193.Show the symptoms of a fracture of the cheekbone:

A) bleeding of the lower eyelid
B) deformation of the nose, hematoma

C) staircase symptom, limitation of mouth opening

D) cheek area hematoma
E) nosebleeds, dizziness
194.The reason for the difficulty of opening the mouth during a fracture of the cheekbone:

A) hematoma

B) inflammatory response

C) arthritis of the temporomandibular joint

D) displacement of fracture fragments

E) damage to the chewing muscles

195.The cause of diplopia in the fracture of the cheekbone

A) displacement of the eyeball

B) intraorbital hematoma

C) inflammatory response

D) eyeball trauma
E) damage to the optic nerve

196.Show the delayed complications after the fracture of the cheekbones, nose
and cheekbones:
A) ankylosis

B) hyposalivation

C) paresis of the branches of the facial nerve

D) secondary deformation of the facial skeleton

E) ptosis

197.Show the method that will eliminate the post-traumatic deformation of the cheek
area:
A) bimaxillary splinting
B) radical hymorotomy, with reposition of the lobes

C) osteotomy of the cheekbone

D) contour plastic

E) Carrying out Kishner shafts by the Makienko method

198.How often is the presence of liquefaction detected during bleeding from the nose or
external ear:
A) Malevich's symptom

B) Wasserman's positive reaction

C) double stain positive test

D) decrease in the amount of albumin in the blood

E) detection of crepitation in the area of nipple-like projection

199.The main symptom of a fracture of the nasal bones:

A) mobility, deformation of nasal bones

B) emphysema, bleeding

C) nose deformation, bleeding

D) violation of nasal breathing, hematoma

E) deformation of the nose, hematoma

200.Indicate the instrument used for repositioning in case of fracture of the nasal bones:

A) flat elevator

B) Volkov elevator
C) Limberg hook
D) angled elevator

E) nose mirror
201.Show the method of fixation in case of fracture of the nasal bones:

A) nasal tamponade
B) nasal tamponade and external plaster dressing
C) sling bandage
D) osteosynthesis

E) external dressing plaster

202.Show the method of containment of the bleeding that occurs during the fracture of the nasal
bones:

A) only on the back bumper

B) in the back buffer, rarely in the front buffer

C) placement of a vasoconstrictor clamp

D) on the front bumper, rarely on the back bumper

E) only in the anterior tamponade

203.Where do we place the instrument during nasal bone repositioning?

A) to the lower nasal passage

B) to the upper nasal passage

C) to the upper or middle nasal passage

D) to the middle nasal passage

E) to the common nasal passage

204.Indication for reposition in the case of fracture of the nasal bones:

A) violation of nasal breathing

B) pain and nosebleeds
C) facial deformity and nosebleeds
D) facial deformation, nasal breathing disorder
E) epistaxis
205.When the nasal bones are fractured, it is possible to replace the bone
fragments with a finger in the following cases:
A) when the bone fragment is displaced outward
B) during a closed fracture of the nasal bones

C) during a subluxation fracture

D) when the back of the nose sinks in and its side sinks out
E) during an open fracture of the nasal bones

206.What kind of fracture does nasal discharge indicate:

A) ethmoidal and main bones

B) pubic bone
C) humerus
D) frontal bone
E) the parietal bone

207.Give a symptom of a concussion:

A) nosebleed
B) loss of consciousness for 20 minutes

C) fermentation

D) pain when bending the head

E) ear bleeding
208.Show the forms of head injuries:
A) shaking, crushing, crushing

B) shaking, crushing, crushing, hematoma

C) pressing, crushing, hematoma

D) shaking, pressure, hematoma

E) shaking, crushing, hematoma

209.Show a common head and brain injury:

A) trauma of facial skeleton, skull bones with several damage factors
B) trauma of the bones of the skull with several damage factors
C) trauma of facial skeleton, skull bones with several damage factors
D) trauma of the bones of the facial skeleton with an injury factor

E) trauma of the facial skeleton, cranial bones with an injury factor

210.Observed during concussion:

A) pain in upper teeth

B) deafness in the upper teeth

C) nausea, dizziness
D) hyperemia and swelling in cheek areas
E) hemorrhage in the area of the lower eyelid

211.What is the most important step in medical evacuation?

A) respiratory gymnastics

B) immobilization

C) closed cardiac massage

D) feed
E) collar zone massage
212.At what stage of evacuation does the dentist start working?
A) TTM

B) in the maxillofacial surgery department of the military hospital

C) ETT
D) HSCQ

E) BTM

213.At what stage of evacuation is specialized medical assistance provided?

A) in the maxillofacial surgery department of the military hospital

B) ETT
C) military field surgical hospital

D) BTM

E) TTM

214.At what stage of evacuation is advanced medical care provided?

A) TTM

B) BTM

C) in the maxillofacial surgery department of the military hospital

D) sorting station
E) ETT

215.What should be done to stop the bleeding temporarily for those injured in the maxillofacial
region at BTM?
A) occlusion of the vessel from the remote area

B) laying the jgut

C) suturing the vein in the wound

D) compression of the vein with a finger

E) hard tamponade of the wound

216.What should be done to permanently stop the bleeding in those injured in the maxillofacial
area at BTM?
A) compression of the vein with a finger

B) hard tamponade of the wound

C) closure of the vessel in the wound

D) closure of the vessel at the distance from the wound

E) applying a compression bandage

217.What to do in BTM during valve asphyxia?

A) language fixation

B) placing an air tube

C) valve excision and tracheotomy
D) intubation

E) cutting the valve or removing it by fixing the damaged tissues

218.What to do in BTM during dislocation asphyxia?
A) intubation

B) insertion of an air tube

C) tracheotomy

D) tongue protrusion and suture

E) artificial ventilation

219. ""Opposite triangular slices" plastic surgery was developed by this

scientist:
A) AE Raver
B) A.I. Yevdakimov

C) AA Limberg
D) VM Khitrov

E) NM Michelson

220.Skin slices used in free skin grafting in the maxillofacial area:

A) partial and complete

B) split and full-layered

C) full-layer

D) partial

E) fragmented

221.A type of graft used in free skin grafting that is more sensitive to unfavorable
conditions than others:
A) thin skin slice
B) full-layer skin slice

C) middle skin slice

D) partial slice

E) thick skin slice

222.The following changes occur in the cartilage implanted in the transplant bed:

A) ossifies
B) undergoes regeneration
C) does not undergo evaporation and regeneration
D) thickens but does not ossify

E) is exposed to evaporation

223.Transplantation of a person's own tissues into himself is called:

A) hemotransplantation

B) autotransplantation

C) implantation

D) heterogeneous transplantation

E) allotransplantation

224.The transfer of a layer of tissue (bone, cartilage, etc.) from one person to another is
called:
A) implantation

B) heterogeneous transplantation

C) autotransplantation

D) hemotransplantation

E) allotransplantation

225.The effect of arthroosteoplasty performed in childhood on the retardation of the

development of the operated side of the jaw and its deformation during the defect of
the jaw branch and articular protrusion in childhood:
A) causes weakening of the development of the tank and its deformation

B) can cause deformity in very rare cases

C) none of them

D) has no effect
E) depends on the technique of the operation

226.Plastic material (graft) used to eliminate the defect in the case of deformation of
the bony part of the nose (saddle-like nose):
A) skin without epidermis

B) bone
C) adipose tissue

D) cartilage

E) fascia
227.It is not used during contour plastic surgery:

A) bone
B) adipose tissue

C) titanium implants

D) cartilage

E) skin without epidermis

228.What is dysostosis:

A) is a developmental anomaly of muscle tissue

B) is an anomaly of nervous tissue

C) is a developmental anomaly of bone tissue

D) is an anomaly of the blood-vascular system

E) is a developmental anomaly of tooth groups

229.The operation to lift the bottom of the Highmore cavity is called:

A) hemisection

B) puncture of the hymoral cavity

C) hemorotomy
D) resection

E) sinus lifting

230.The purpose of the sinus lifting operation:

A) increasing pneumatization of the hypothalamic cavity

B) retention of upper molars

C) creation of conditions for implantation

D) treatment of sinusitis

E) removal of polyps
231.The source from which the transplanted autograft during reconstruction is
nourished after surgery:
A) from saliva
B) from the bone and ossification of the mother bed

C) from saliva and the pulp of neighboring teeth

D) at the expense of the graft's own vessels

E) from the pulp of neighboring teeth

232.What is the transplanted tissue to restore the lost tissue called:

A) allograft

B) alloplast

C) transplant
D) xenograft
E) implant

233.What types of transplants are xenogeneic transplants:

A) all answers are correct
B) a graft transferred from one anatomical area to another anatomical area of the same individual

C) transplant obtained by synthetic method

D) a graft obtained from different genetic individuals of the same species

E) transplants from different types of animals

234.What is a transplant from one anatomical area of the same individual to another
anatomical area called:
A) all answers are correct
B) isogenic graft
C) xenogeneic graft
D) autogenous graft
E) allogeneic transplant

235.A synonym for heterogeneous graft is:

A) allogeneic transplant

B) autogenous graft
C) xenogeneic graft
D) all answers are correct
E) isogenic graft
236.Which of the following is a synonym for homogeneous graft?
A) xenogeneic graft
B) autogenous graft
C) allogeneic transplant

D) isogenic graft
E) all answers are correct

237.During the transplantation of which bone grafts, living cells are formed in the 1st
phase of osteogenesis:
A) autogenous, alloplast

B) allogenic, xenogenic

C) alloplast, allogene

D) all answers are wrong

E) autogenous, allogenic

238.What is a transplant from different genetic individuals of the same species called?

A) allogeneic

B) autogenous

C) alloplast

D) isogenic

E) xenogeneic

239.What is the name of a graft transplanted from different types of living things

A) xenogeneic

B) autogenous

C) alloplast

D) isogenic

E) allogeneic

240.How many pairs of ribs are usually used for bone grafting
A) 3,4,5
B) 1,2,3

C) 4,5,6

D) 7,8,9

E) 5,6,7

241.What about local tissue and plastic surgery?

A) plasty with a flap with a lifting leg

B) plasticity of the tissue slice with rotation

C) plasticity with mobilization of wound edges

D) facing plastic of triangular tissue flaps

E) plasty with rotation of the tissue slice, plasty with mobilization of the wound edges, plasty with the meeting
of triangular tissue flaps

242.What is the local complication in plasty with leg flap?

A) myositis

B) neuritis

C) diplopia
D) necrosis

E) none of the above

243.What is the local complication in plasty with leg flap?
A) all of the above
B) myositis

C) hematoma

D) diplopia
E) neuritis

244.What is the local complication in plasty with leg flap?

A) myositis

B) diplopia
C) suppuration

D) neuritis

E) all of the above

245.What kind of treatment is carried out when the blood supply is disturbed after the operation in leg flap
plastic surgery?

A) compression bandage

B) hydromassage

C) physiotherapy

D) cryotherapy

E) electrocoagulation

246.Which of the following is less antigenic?

A) cardiac muscle
B) adipose tissue

C) cartilage

D) skin

E) bone
247.What is the best allogeneic transplant?
A) cornea
B) bone
C) skin

D) fascia
E) cartilage

248.What changes does the transplanted cartilage undergo in bed?

A) is resorbed
B) there is no regeneration and resorption

C) osseointegration

D) rapid regeneration

E) ossification

249.What is the name of injecting a foreign material into the human body for the purpose of restoring an
anatomical, functional or aesthetic defect?

A) autotransplantation

B) heterogeneous transplantation

C) homotransplantation

D) implantation

E) allotransplantation

250.What principle is the Limberg surgery based on?

A) Transplantation of triangular slices

B) mutual transplantation of triangular slices

C) preparation of the movable tongue.

D) forming triangular slices from the lip

E) formation of bridge-like slices
251.Optimum daily augmentation distance in bony distraction of the jaws
A) 2 mm per week
B) 1 mm in 2 days

C) 2 mm per day

D) 3 mm per day

E) 1 mm per day

252.Which osteotomy technique (method) is most often used in orthognathic

operations in the jaw branch?
A) From the Tesi method
B) from the Bezrukov method

C) From the Plotnikov method

D) From the Obwegzer-Dal-Pout method

E) Caldwell-Luke method

253.The most optimal graft for jaw reconstruction is:

A) autograft taken from femur
B) autograft taken from the iliac crest
C) autograft taken from the tibia
D) rib autograft
E) autograft with a vascular foot of the inguinal bone

254.What layer of skin is used in free skin grafting?

A) from the epidermis

B) full layer of skin

C) a layer of skin

D) subcutaneous layer

E) one and complete layer of skin

255.The osseointegration of the implant is:

A) local regeneration of the implant to the bone tissue

B) attachment of the implant to the bone

C) close contact of the implant with newly formed bone tissue

D) the presence of fibrous tissue between the bone and the implant

E) rigid connection of the implant

256.Two-stage implantation is carried out for this purpose (when):

A) when X-ray of bone tissue is bad

B) to reduce trauma.
C) in order to improve functional efficiency
D) with the aim of achieving osseointegration

E) to prevent fibrous integration

257.According to the new classification of the International Health Organization, implantation refers to:

A) allostatic transplantation

B) explantation

C) autotransplantation

D) heterotransplantation

E) isotransplantation

258.Explantation for reconstructive restoration of tooth rows is called:

A) autotransplantation

B) isotransplantation
C) replantation

D) heterotransplantation

E) implantation

259.Due to the property of adaptation to the bone, these implants belong to biotolerant materials:

A) aluminum oxide ceramics

B) tri-calciphosphate

C) nickelide titanium

D) stainless steel, cobalt-chromium crush

E) glass ceramics

260.These materials have a bioinert property due to their ability to adapt to bone:
A) hydroxylapatite

B) aluminum oxide ceramic, carbon, titanium, nickelide titanium

C) stainless steel
D) cobalt chromium crush

E) three calciphosphates

261.These implant materials are considered biactive due to their ability to adapt to the
bone:
A) cobalt-chromium alloy, carbon

B) carbon, titanium

C) three calciphosphates, hydroxylapatite, glass ceramics

D) nickelide titanium, stainless steel

E) stainless steel, aluminum oxide

262.This method of diagnostic examination is not used during implantation:
A) orthopantomogram
B) evaluation of models in the occluder.
C) computer tomography
D) X-ray examination

E) qualitative examination of saliva

263.Synonym of progeny:
A) lower retrognathia

B) low prognathia
C) upper retrognathia

D) laterogeny
E) upper prognathia

264.Synonym of prognathia:
A) low prognathia
B) upper retrognathia
C) lower retrognathia

D) laterogeny
E) upper prognathia

265.Synonym of Microgenia:
A) lower retrognathia

B) low prognathia
C) upper retrognathia

D) superior prognathia

E) laterogeny
266.Synonym of micrognathia:
A) low prognathia
B) superior prognathia

C) upper retrognathia

D) laterogeny
E) lower retrognathia

267.It is called by progeny:

A) underdevelopment of the jaw

B) lack of development
C) anomaly of the jaw bones, characterized by protrusion as a result of the overdevelopment of the jaw

D) anomaly of the jaw bones, characterized by protrusion as a result of overdevelopment of the jaw

E) placement of the symphysis area of the jaw outside the middle line

268.Microgeny is called:
A) anomaly of the jaw bones characterized by protrusion as a result of overdevelopment of the jaw

B) lack of development
C) anomaly of the jaw bones, characterized by protrusion as a result of overdevelopment of the jaw

D) location of the symphysis region of the jaw outside the midline

E) underdevelopment of the jaw

269.With prognathia, it is called:

A) location of the symphysis area of the jaw outside the middle line

B) an anomaly of the jaw bones characterized by protrusion as a result of overdevelopment of the jaw

C) underdevelopment of the jaw

D) anomaly of the jaw bones, characterized by protrusion as a result of overdevelopment of the jaw

E) lack of development
270.With micrognathia, it is called:

A) anomaly of the jaw bones characterized by protrusion as a result of overdevelopment of the jaw

B) lack of development
C) anomaly of the jaw bones, characterized by protrusion as a result of overdevelopment of the jaw
D) underdevelopment of the jaw

E) placement of the symphysis area of the jaw outside the middle line

271.Microgenia can be:

A) unilateral and bilateral

B) bilateral only
C) congenital and acquired
D) unilateral and bilateral, congenital and acquired

E) one-sided only

272.Progeny can be:

A) frontal and lateral teeth

B) only true
C) only liar
D) forehead and chin

E) true, false
273.Level retromolar osteotomy (split-osteotomy) is performed in the following areas
of the jaw:
A) in the body

B) in the articular eminence

C) in the mental area

D) in the symphysis

E) in the branch and body

274.The incision in the bone during the osteotomy performed for Engin's displacement is
shown below:
A) with the bony part of the nasal septum

B) LeFor II (middle) with a fracture line

C) LeFor I (inferior) with fracture line

D) LeFor III (upper) with fracture line

E) with the line of joining of two parts of the angle

275.The following teeth are usually extracted from fragmentary osteotomies performed in
Ang:
A) canine teeth

B) first premolars
C) central incisors
D) wisdom teeth

E) first molars
276.An example of an endoprosthesis can be considered:

A) xenograft
B) bone autograft
C) orthotopic allograft
D) Filatov bar
E) artificial joint head made of titanium or polymer material

277.An example of an exoprosthesis can be considered:

A) xenograft
B) allograft
C) earmolds made of silicone-type artificial materials
D) autograft
E) reconstructive titanium plate

278.It is used for fixation of exoprostheses:

A) implants and glasses frame

B) xenograft
C) allograft
D) autograft
E) retainer

279.Synonym of hemifacial microsomia:

A) ectodermal dysplasia
B) congenital lateral facial hypoplasia
C) Robben syndrome

D) aprosopia
E) chondrodystrophy

280.During orthognathic operations, orthodontic treatment is performed:

A) is carried out only during transposition of eng

B) before surgery
C) may need to be done before and after surgery
D) is not carried out

E) after surgery
281.Distraction osteogenesis is considered the founder of the treatment principle:

A) Kulagov SZ
B) Shvirkov MB

C) Chudakov OP

D) Sukachev VA

E) Ilizarov QA
282.The terms physiological and pathological bite were first used by the following
author:
A) Simon

B) Kantorovich
C) Sternfeld

D) Corkhouse

E) Bennett

283.It is used for endoprosthesis fixation:

A) cylindrical implant

B) mini implant

C) endoosseous implant

D) plate implant
E) subperiosteal implant
284.A specialist dealing with the restoration and correction of speech function of patients
with cleft lip and palate?
A) ENT
B) pediatrician

C) maxillofacial surgeon
D) psychiatrist

E) speech therapist

285.Bone autograft taken from where is mostly used in the restoration of the
alveolar ridge of the jaw?
A) spade
B) hip
C) base
D) hips and back
E) thigh
286.Autograft taken from which bone is less resorbed in the reconstruction of jaw
defects?
A) from the hip bone
B) from the bones of the skull
C) from the rib
D) from the reed bone
E) from the ulna