A Variant

9.1.
Complex odontomas are characterized with following typical histological structure:
A) mixed with dental tissue forming a unified conglomerate

B) thin fibrous capsule consisting of keratinized squamose epithelium
C) separate tooth-like structure
D) proliferated odontogenic epithelium
E) present different level of density
9.2. Simple odontomas are characterized with following histological structure:
A) a tooth-like structure presenting all dental tissues

B) different level of density
C) thin fibrous capsule consisting of keratinized squamoused epithelium
D) mixed with dental tissue forming a unified conglamerate
E) proliferated odontogenic epithelium
9.3. The clinical course of complex odontomas are characterized with:
A) no symptoms
B) jaw locking
C) fistula on the skin
D) periodic inflammatory reactions resembling periostitis
E) solid painful infiltration around several teeth
9.4. X-ray features of complex odontomas are:
A) limited radiopaque area in the form of tooth crown

B) focal destruction in the trabecular part of jaws
C) no bone changes in the area of odontoma
D) destruction along the cortex,
E) signs of inflammation
9.5. İndications for odotoma removal are:
A) clinical signs of the disease

B) distant metastasis
C) metasthasis in to regional limphatic nodules
D) big size
E) metasthasis
9.6. Which of the follow diseases is concern to obliqate precancers (increased tendency
toward malignization)
A) obrasive precancer cheilitis of Manganotti
B) erosive leukoplakia
C) papilloma of the palate
D) kerathoacantoma
E) keratinization of the skin
9.7. Which of the follow diseases is concern to obliqate precancers (increased tendency
toward malignization)
A) precancer hyperkeratosis of vermilion border
B) erosive leukoplakia
C) papilloma of the palate
D) kerathoacantoma
E) keratinization of the skin
9.8. Which one below does not belong to the non- osteoplastic malignant tumours?
A) malifantosteoclastoma
B) fibrosarcoma
C) micro sarcome
D) hemangiosarcoma
E) Youning’s sarcoma
9.9 Where does the primary metastasis of the lamina cancer occur?
A) in submaxillary absorbent glands
B) In deep cervical nodes
C) In surface cervical nodes
D) In parotid absorbent glands
E) All above is correct
9.10. Select odontogenic cysts
1) follicular cyst
2) epidermal cyst
3) non-odontogenic cyst
4) radicular cyst
5) globulomaxillary cyst
6) odontogenic cyst
A) 1;2;4;6
B) 1;2;3;4
C) 2;3;4;6
D) 2;4;5;6
E) 1;3;4;6
9.11. The patient has a 2 cm wide malignant tumour within the right cheek. The absorbent
gland is also felt at the same side. No metastasis is observed. Choose the correct TNM
formula of the disease described above.
A) Т3Н2М0
B) Т1Н2М0
C) Т2Н2М0
D) Т0Н1М1
E) Т3Н3М1
9.12. The patient has a 5-6 cm wide maligant tumour in the tongue. The absorbent glands
are felt at both sides. The further metastasis is not determined. Choose the correct TNM
formula of the disease described above.
A) T3N2M0
B) T1N2M 0
C) T2N2M0
D) T0N1M 1
E) T3N3M1
9.13. T1 N1 M0– choose the correct explanation on the nomenclature
A) The tumour is up to 2 cm wide, absorbent glands are felt on one side, the further metastasis is
not observed
B) The tumour is 2-4 cm wide, absorbent glands are felt on both sides, the further metastasis is
not observed
C) The tumour is up to 2 cm wide, absorbent glands are felt on both sides, the further metastasis
is not observed
D) The tumour is 4-7 cm wide, absorbent glands are felt on both sides, further metastasis is
observed
E) The far tumour has spread to the neighboring areas, absorbent glands are felt on both sides,
metastasis is observed
9.14. T2N2M0– choose the correct explanation on the nomenclature
A) The tumour is 2-4 cm wide, absorbent glands are felt on both sides, the further metastasis is
not observed
B) The tumour is up to 2 cm wide, absorbent glands are felt on one side, the further metastasis is
not observed
is not observed
D) The tumour is 4-7 cm wide, absorbent glands are felt on both sides, further metastasis is
observed
metastasis is observed.
9.15. T3N3M1– choose the correct explanation on the nomenclature
A) The tumour is 4 cm wider, immovable absorbent glands are felt, the further metastasis is
observed.
B) The tumour is up to 2 cm wide, absorbent glands are felt on one side, the further metastasis is
not observed
is not observed
D) The tumour is 4-7 cm wide, absorbent glands are felt on both sides, further metastasis is not
observed
the further metastasis is observed
9.16. Choose incorrect variant
A) osteoblastic sarcoma is the rarest one among non-epithelial malignant tumours
B) Bowman’s tumour always transfers to the squamous-cell epithelioma
C) Tongue cancer is more frequent than cancer of any other organ of the mouth cavity
D) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma occurs in every age, but only within the parotid salivary gland
E) Terminal duct carcinoma has hematogenous metastasis
9.17. Which of below mentioned refers to the pre-cancer obligate tumour which is likely to
transfer to the malignant one?
A) Bowen’s desease
B) Erosive leukokeratosis
C) Palate papilloma
D) keratoacanthoma
E) Keratinization of skin
9.18. Which of below mentioned refers to the Какаяизуказанныхотноситсяк epithelial
neoplasms?
A) adenoma
B) lymphangioma
C) neurinoma
D) lipoma
E) chondroma
9.19. What is the frequency of tumours within maxillofacial area?
A) 13%
B) 27%
C) 54%
D) 1%
E) 80%
9.20. Iceberg tumours are polymorphic adenomas localized in:
A) Retromandibular area
B) submaxillary gland
C) hard palate
D) retromolar area
E) soft palate
9.21. The monomorphic adenoma is not:
A) acinic cell carcinoma
B) basal-cell adenoma
C) Warthin'stumour
D) oxyphil cell adenoma
E) adenolymphoma (Warthin'stumour)
9.22. Choose the malignant tumour
A) mucoepidermoid carcinoma
B) lipoma
C) lymphangioma
D) neurinoma
E) haemangioma
9.23. Indicate benign tumor of salivary glads of epithelial origin.
1) Pleomorphic adenoma
2) haemangioma
3) adenolymphoma
4) lymphangioma
5) Monomorphic adenoma
A) 1; 2; 3
B) 1;2;3
C) 1;4;5
D) 2;4;5
E) 2; 3;4
9.24. Which of below mentioned is the benign salivary glands tumour of non-epithelial
origin.
1) Pleomorphic adenoma
2) haemangioma
3) adenolymphoma
4) lymphangioma
5) Monomorphic adenoma
A) 2; 4
B) 1;3;5
C) 3;4;
D) 1;3;5
E) 2; 5
9.25. Which branches of the facial nerve can be damaged during the subtotal
parotidectomy?
A) all
B) rami temporali
C) rami zigomatici
D) ramibuccalis
E) ramirr. colli
9.26. Which of below mentioned is a non-epithelial tumour of salivary glands.
A) haemangioma
B) lymphangioma
C) lipoma
D) adenolymphoma (Warthin’stumour)
E) Pleomorphic adenoma
9.27. What is a frequency of recurrence likelihood after the enucleation of salivary glands?
A) 30-40%
B) 10-15%
C) 3-6%
D) 60-70%
E) 80-90%
9.28. In which case the recurrence likelihood is higher after the enucleation of benign
tumor of salivary glands?
A) Pleomorphic adenoma
B) Monomorphic adenoma
C) adenolymphoma (Warthin’stumour)
D) haemangioma
E) lipoma
9.29. What is the main cause of the cyst of the salivary glands?
A) trauma
B) inflammatory process
C) inborn
D) virus infection
E) bacterial infection
9.30. Which cysts occur within the maxillofacial area?
A) odontogenic and nonodontogenic
B) odontogenic only
C) odontogenic,mucoepidermoid
D) odontogenic,salivary,tonsil
E) odontogenic,gingival
9.31. Which are odontogenic cysts?
1) follicular
2) epidermoid
3) maxillary
4) radicular
5) nasal alveolar
6) periodontal
A) 1;2;4;6
B) 1;2;3;4
C) 2;3;4;6
D) 2;4;5;6
E) 1;3;4;6
9.32. Which is incorrect?
A) osteoblastic sarcoma is the rarest one among non-epithelial malignant tumours
B) Bowman’s tumour always transfers to the squamous-cell epithelioma
C) Tongue cancer is more frequent than cancer of any other organ of the mouth cavity
D) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma occurs in every age, but only within the parotid salivary gland
E) Terminal duct carcinoma has hematogenous metastasis
9.33. T4N2M1choose the correct variant:
I. The tumour is up to 2 cm wide
II. The tumour has spread to the neighboring areas
III. absorbent glands are felt on both sides
IV. absorbent glands are with the affected side
V. the further metastasis is not observed
VI. the further metastasis is observed
A) II,III,VI
B) II,IV,VI
C) I,III,V.
D) I,III,VI
E) I,III,IV
9.34. The malignant tumour of fatty tissue is called:
A) liposarcoma
B) lipoma
C) hibernoma
D) haemangioma
E) fibroma
9.35. Malignant tumor of fat tissue:

A) liposarcoma
B) lipoma
C) hibernoma
D) haemangioma
E) fibroma
9.36. Which of the following is a Recklinghausen's tumour?

A) neurofibromatosis
B) papilloma
C) fibroma
D) neurinoma
E) malignant schwannoma
9.37. Which of the following is aAbrikosov’stumour?
A) rhabdomyoma
B) neurofibromatosis
C) neurinoma
D) fibroma
E) malignant schwannoma
9.38. Which benign disease occurs on the root of the tongue of the new-born babies mainly?
A) rhabdomyoma
B) lipoma
C) schwannoma
D) papilloma
E) fibroma
9.39. Which one is not non-osteogenictumour?
A) chondrosarcoma
B) fibrosarcoma
C) myxosarcoma
D) haemangiosarcoma
E) Young’s sarcoma
9.40. Which stage of toungue cancer is indicated: ulcer with 1 cm in diametr, no metastasis
in regional lymph nodes
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) all stages
9.41. Malignant tumor of filamentary connective tissue:
A) fibrosarcoma
B) fibroma
C) fibromatosis
D) rhabdomyosarcoma
E) lipoma
9.42. Which organ is most affected by the pleomorphic adenoma of

glandulaesalivariaeminores?
A) hard and soft palate
B) cheek
C) tongue
D) mucobuccal fold
E) lip mucosa
9.43. Which of the following cannot be the main diagnostics of the benign tumours of the
glandulasalivaria?
A) general blood test
B) USI
C) ptyalography
D) thermography
E) MRI
9.44. Which of the below is more likely to be affected by the
Вкакомизуказанныхслюнныхжелезчащевстречаетсяadenolymphom?
A) parotid salivary gland
B) submandibular salivary gland
C) sublingual salivary gland
D) palate salivary gland
E) cheek salivary gland
9.45. Which one below is most likely to recur after the surgical treatment of the benign
tumour?
A) pleomorphic adenoma of parotid salivary gland
B) monomorphic adenoma of parotid salivary gland
C) pleomorphic adenoma of submandibular salivary gland
D) monomorphic adenoma of submandibular salivary gland
E) adenolymphoma of all salivary glands
9.46. Arteria carotis externa can be closed during:
A) total parotidectomy
B) subtotal parotidectomy
C) partial parotidectomy
D) extirpation of the sublingual salivary glands
E) adenoidectomìa
9.47. Exogenic factor which is playing role in tumor development:

A) insufficient nutrition
B) primary immune deficiency
C) secondary immune deficiency
D) heredity
E) weakening of antioxidant system
9.48. Exogenic factor which is playing role in tumor development:

A) virus infection
B) primary immune deficiency
C) secondary immune deficiency
D) heredity
E) weakening of antioxidant system
9.49. The frequency of tumors occurance in maxillofacial pathology.
A) 13%
B) 35%
C) 58%
D) 2 %
E) 26 %
9.50. Tumours in maxillofacial area are described in the folloving way :
A) Odontogenic, salivary gland, mucous memtrane
B) Osteogenic, soft tissue, gum
C) Soft tissue, gum, odontogenic
D) Gum, odontogenic, salivary gland
E) Soft tissue, gum
9.51. Which chemical, cancerigenic substance plays role in tumor formation?
A) Palycyclic aromatic carbohydrates
B) Substances containing sulfur
C) Plastic substances without polymerization
D) Ionized substances
E) Genetically-modified food (Gm foods)
9.52. Which chemical, cancerigenic substance causes formation of tumors?
A) Nitrate compouns
B) Sulfur- containing substances
C) Non-polymerized plastic masses
D) Ionize substances
E) Genetically-modified food (Gm foods)
9.53. Which physical, cancinogen causes tumors?
A) Ultraviolet ray (beam)
B) Trauma
C) Sulfurcontaing substances
D) Non- polymerized plastic masses
E) Genetically-modified food
9.54. This exogenous factor causes tumors?
A) In adequate diet
B) Primary immunodeficiency
C) Secondry immunodeficiency
D) Hereditary factor
E) Weakness of antioxidant system
9.55. This exogenous factor induces tumors:
A) Viral infection
B) Primary immunodeficiency
C) Secondary immunodeficiency
D) Hereditary factor
E) Weakness of antioxidant system
9.56. The frequency of occuranse of vascular tumors on the face:
A) 80-82 %
B) 10-15%
C) 20-22%
D) 30-35%
E) 7-8%
9.57. Vascular tumors mostly occur at this age:
A) 0-1 year
B) 3-8 years
C) 10-15 years
D) 20-30 years
E) 50-60 years
9.58. Which tissues defect is hemangioma?
A) Blood vessels
B) Lymphatic vessels
C) Lymph nodes
D) Striated musdes
E) Fat layer
9.59. This from of hemangioma is located on the skin:
A) Capillary
B) Cavernous
C) Arterial
D) Mixed
E) Venous
9.60. Cavernoushemangioma is noted:
A) Filling emting symptom
B) Pasternatsky s symptom
C) Staircase sign
D) Irradiating pains
E) Symptom of diplopia
9.61. Temperature asymmetry in hemangioma manifests in this way :
A) By high temperature on tumor
B) By low temperature on tumor
C) No difference in temperature
D) High temperature in patients with hemangioma
E) Low temperature in patients with hemangioma
9.62. The main clinical signs of arterial hemangioma:
A) Pulsation inside of the tumor
B) Presence of phlebolits
C) Tenderness in palpation
D) Separation of capsula from healthy tissne s
E) Skin is independent on swellivy
9.63. One of the following methods may be chosen as treatment method of capillary
hemangioma.
A) Sclerosing, criodestructive, by laser
B) Medication, criodestructive, by laser
C) Surgicae, medication
D) Observation of the patient
E) Only conservative treatment
9.64. During covernonshemangioma injection with sclerosing substance is given.
A) By doing punction of the blood from cavities
B) To the healthy tissnes around the tumor
C) Directly into the swelling
D) Into efferent vessels
E) Into the skin
9.65. The fraqmency of lymphangiomaoccurance in children with benign tumors.
A) 10-12%
B) 1-2%
C) 30-35%
D) 45-50%
E) 60-65%
9.66. Clinical veriety of lymhangioma types
A) Simple, cavernous, cystous
B) Capillary, cavernous, cystous
C) Cavernous, intracostal, cystous
D) Intracostal, cystous, simple
E) Capillary, cavernous, mixed
9.67. Which tissue defect is lymohangioma?
A) Lymph vessels
B) Arterial vessels
C) Venous vessels
D) Striated muscles
E) Fat layer
9.68. Synonym of aspiration biopsy
A) Puncture biopsy
B) Excisional biopsy
C) Incisional biopsy
D) Cytology
E) Pathoshistological examination
9.69. Excisional biopsy
A) examination is carried out on all pathological neoplasms
B) Examination is carried out on superticial lymphatic nodes
C) Examination is carried out in dup lymphatic nodes
D) Only skin layer of pathological tissue is sent for examination
E) Blood is sent for examination
9.70. Incisional biopsy
A) Examination is carried out on the piece taken off the tumor
B) Examination is carried out on whole tumor
C) Examination is carried out on superticiallymphatic nodes
D) Examination is carried out on deep lymphatic nodes
E) Blood is taken for examination
9.71. Puncture biopsy examination
A) It is carried out on material taken out of tumor by
B) Examination is carried out on piece taken off the tumor
C) Examination is carried on superticial nodes
D) Examination is carried out in deep lymphatic nodes
E) Examination is carried out in deep lymphatic nodes
9.72. During nevus it is noted
A) Mole with melanin pigment on epidermis
B) Rednees of mucous membrance
C) Loose tooth of the second degru
D) Scrambled speech
E) Breathlessness
9.73. Location of nevus
A) On the skin
B) In the subcutaneous tissue
C) In the bone
D) In muscular layer
E) Periphericnevus endings
9.74. The main etiological factor in delopment of peripheric huge cellular granuloma
A) Chromic damage of mucous membrance in alveolar processes
B) Complications after extraction of the tooth
C) Reoccurance of radicular cyst
D) Aggravation of follicular cyst
E) Travmatic fracture of mandibula
9.75. Peripheric huge cellular granuloma is clinically charaterired by
A) Soft, painful, bluding neoplasm in the gum
B) Erosin of the gym that doesn’t bleed epithelize
C) Rough green –brownish tumor of soft consistency in the gum
D) Solid painless tumor on the wide base
E) Keratinizatian on the limited area of gym
9.76. Solid of fibroma os characterized
A) Unmaturated fibrous tissue
B) Fat fissue
C) Bone tissue
D) Solid scar tissue
E) Tissue enriched with collagen
9.77. What is the main treatment method of fibroma?
A) Surgical treatment
B) Combined treatment
C) Chemical treatment
D) Conservation treatment
E) Radiation treatment
9.78. Fibromatosis is often met
A) In pregnant nomen
B) In children
C) In cigarette addicts
D) In alchohal addicts
E) At old age
9.79. Does neuromatosisdevelop
A) As a result of in pairment during embrigenesis
B) As a result of infections disease
C) As a result of inadeguate diet
D) As a result of chronic, mechanic irritation
E) As a result of bad habits
9.80. Does lipoma often occur on the face?
A) On cheeks
B) On temporal area
C) On tongue area
D) On foreheed area
E) On parotid chenning area
9.81. The main treatment method of lipoma
A) Surgical
B) Mixed-combined
C) Radiation therapy
D) Chemical trerapy
E) Cryodestruction
9.82. Ameloblastoma refers to
A) Odontogenous tumors
B) Tumor-like swelling
C) Inflammatory diseases
D) Malignant odontogen tumors
E) Precanceric group
9.83. Ameloblastoma often occurs at this age
A) 20-45
B) 0-1
C) 1-7
D) 7-12
E) 45-60
9.84. Finally ameloblastoma is diagnosed
A) Due to pathohitological examination
B) Due to cytological examination
C) Due to interview
D) Due to cilinica-roentgenological examination
E) Due to blood analyses
9.85. Is it necessary to diffentiateameloblastoma?
A) By follicular cyst
B) Bysementoma
C) By odondoma
D) By radicular cyst
E) By chondroma
9.86. Ameloblastoma often occurs in this area
A) Mandibula
B) Cheek bone (zygomatic bone)
C) Jaw
D) Forehiead bone (frontal bone)
E) Hard palate
9.87. Odontoma refers to
A) Odontogenous tumors
B) Inflammatory diseases
C) Tumor –like neoplasms
D) Malignant odontogenuos tumors
E) Precaiceric group
88. Odontoma often occurs
A) At the age when permanent teeth grow
B) At the age when melk teeth grow
C) At middale age
D) In complete secondary adentia
E) At the age when teeth of wisdom grow
89. While working in the oral cavity dentist should pay attention to:
A) oral cavity and maxillofacial area
B) all teeth
C) teeth and gums
D) only treated tooth
E) treated tooth and antagonist teeth
9.90. Dentist advices the patient with neoplasm in the oral cavity:
A) to consult maxillofacial surgeon
B) no need for anxiety
C) to consult periodontologist
D) to consult endocrinologist
E) to consult implantologist
9.91. Lymphoangioma is described as following:
A) capillary,cavernous,cystic
B) cystic,spread
C) cavernous,cystic
D) capillary,cavernous,cystic,infracostal
E) cystic,infracostal
9.92. Papiloma:
A) it is formed by multilayer smooth epithelium
B) transverse striped muscular tumor
C) epidermoid tumor
D) dermoid tumor
E) it is located in subcutaneous fat layer
9.93. Synonym of neurofibromatosis:
A) Recklinhauzen’s disease
B) abrikosov’s tumor
C) Madelung’s disease
D) Malanchuk’s tumor
E) Bawmen’s disease
9.94. Clinical picture of papiloma looks like:
A) fibroma
B) paradontitis
C) fibromatosis of gums
D) retention cysts
E) hydrogossa
9.95. With substance takes part in pigmentation of nevus?
A) melanin
B) choline
C) hemoglobine
D) lizosin
E) organic substances
96. Instrumental examination of tumors in soft tissues are carried out by:
A) MRT test
B) KT test
C) R-scopy
D) laboratory tests
E) tympanometry
97. Synonym of neuroma:
A) schwannoma
B) rabdominoma
C) abrikosov’s tumor
D) Malanchuk’s tumor
E) Bowmen’s disease
9.98. More informative kind of examination in pathology of costal tissue:
A) KT
B) US (ultra sound) test
C) fluorography
D) tympanometry
E) reontgenoscopy
9.99. The treatment plan of the patient with oncology is composed by:
A) 3 specialists
B) radiologist
C) chemotherapist
D) surgeon
E) anesthesiologist
9.100. The main treatment method of oncology disease of maxillofacial area:
A) surgical, chemotherapy, radiation therapy
B) radiation therapy
C) chemotherapy
D) palliative therapy
E) surgical
9.101. The bloc resection of primary tumor with regional lymph nodes is based on:
A) ablastic principles
B) antiblastic principles
C) both principles
D) aesthetic principle
E) principle of sparing resection
9.102. Primary soft tissue reconstruction should be done after of malignant tumor resection
in:
A) soft and hard tissue of maxillofacial region
B) only in soft tissues
C) only in hard tissues
D) neither soft neither hard tissues
E) esthetic indications
9.103. Palliative treatment of patients with malignant tumor of maxillofacial area is:
A) radiation therapy
B) analgetics
C) using cardiac glycosides
D) radical surgery
E) physiotherapy
9.104. Symptomatic treatment of the patients with malignant tumor of maxillofacial area
is:
A) analgetics
B) laser coagulation
C) electrical coagulation
D) chemotherapy
E) radiation therapy
9.105. The obligate precancerous lesion of the skin is:
A) Bowen’s disease
B) lichenplanus
C) lupus
D) lupus erythematosus
E) keratoacanthoma
9.106. The most informative diagnostic method of obligate precancerous lesion is:
A) histopathological examination
B) ultrasound examination
C) computed tomography
D) thermoviziography
E) cytological examination
9.107. The treatment of obligate precancerous lesion of the skin face is:
A) surgical
B) laser coagulation
C) chemotherapy
D) laser magnetic treatment
9.108. The facultative precancerous lesion of the skin face is:
A) papilloma
B) dermatitis
C) psoriasis
D) radioepidermitis
E) Bowen’s disease
9.109. Melanoma of maxilla-facial area is mostly localized in:
A) face
B) hair part of head
C) neck
D) mucosa of oral cavity
E) frequency of occurrence is the same
9.110. For the cytological diagnosis of melanoma is used:
A) smear test
B) puncture of tumor
C) incisional biopsy
D) excisional biopsy
E) blind biopsy
9.111. Which of the following tumors belongs to the skin cancers:
A) basal cell carcinoma
B) papilloma
C) hemangioma
D) keratoakantoma
E) sarkoma
9.112. The frequency of occurrence of basal cell carcinoma among embryonic tumors is:
A) 60-80%
B) 5-10%
C) 90%
D) 20-35%
E) 40-50%
9.113. Which of the following is not the risk factor for development of oral mucosa cancer:
A) fatty foods
B) tabacco
C) alcohol
D) chronic injury
E) Herpes simplex
9.114. Which of the following tumors has the most bad prognosis:
A) melanoma
B) basal cell carcinoma
C) squamous cell carcinoma
D) botriomicoma
E) nevus
9.115. The main factor in development of skin cancer is:
A) UV
B) age
C) gender
D) nutrition
E) trauma
9.116. Cancer of oral cavity mucosa mostly occures :
A) among adults of 40-60 years old
B) among adults of 20-40 years old
C) among adults of 60-80 years old
D) among teenagers
E) regardless the age category
9.117. The most frequent clinical forms of cancer of the oral cavity mucosa:
A) infiltrative-ulcerous
B) papillar
C) ulcerous
D) infiltrative
E) submucosal
9.118. Which lymphatic nodes are more likely to host the metastasis of the oral mucosa
cancer:
A) neck
B) parotid
C) buccal
D) supraclavicular
E) mediastenal
9.119. Which of the following is used for the specification of diagnosis of oral mucosa
cancer:
A) histopathology
B) cystology
C) angiography
D) aspiration biopsy
E) general blood test
9.120. The basic treatment method of cancer of oral mucosa is:
A) combined
C) surgical
D) chemotherapy
E) palliative treatment
9.121. Which of the following lymph node is more likely to host the metastasis of lip cancer:
A) neck
B) parotid
C) buccal
D) temporal
E) parapharyngeal
9.122. The most frequent form of the malignant tumors of maxilla is:
A) cancer
B) osteosarkoma
C) chondrosarcoma
D) fibrosarcoma
E) angyosarcoma
9.123. Cancer of maxilla mostly develops from:
A) mucosa of maxilla
B) mucosa of oral cavity
C) cellsMalassa
D) epithelial cells of odontogenic cysts
E) mucosa of nose
9.124. The symptom of an early stage of maxilla cancer is:
A) asymptomatic
B) impaired vision
C) neurological disorder
D) tooth mobility
E) disturbance of nasal breathing
9.125. The first element of early stage of tongue cancer is:
A) ulcer
B) vesicle
C) hyperkeratosis
D) cleft
E) nodule
9.126. Tongue cancer is mostly differentiated from:
A) specific damage of tongue
B) tongue cyst
C) ranula
D) tongue abscess
E) xerostomia
9.127. Tongue cancers treatment at the stage T2N3M0 is:
A) a half-tongue resection and radical neck dissection
B) 2/3 tongue resection and fascio-circular neck dissection
C) a half-tounge resection and dissection of the upper neck
D) palliative
E) tumor resection within healthy tissues
9.128. The most frequent form of malignant tumors of the mandible is:
A) cancer
B) osteosarcoma
C) ameloblastoma
D) chondrosarcoma
E) fibrosarcoma
9.129. The cancer of the mandible is mostly:
A) secondary
B) primary
C) metastatic
D) disseminated
E) posttraumatic
9.130. Metastatic cancer of the mandible is differentiated from:
A) osteosarcoma
B) fibrousepulis
C) odontoma
D) retention cyst
E) cementoma
9.131. Sarcoma of maxillofacial area develops from:
A) muscular tissue
B) epidermis
C) papilloma
D) fatty tissue
E) dura mater
9.132. Sarcoma of the facial skeleton develops from:
A) bone tissue
B) gingival epithelium
C) cellsMalassa
D) dentine
E) cement
9.133. The obligateprecancers of lip is :
A) cheilitisManganotti
B) lichenplanus
C) pigmented nevus
D) syphiloma
E) exfoliativecheilitis
9.134. Fast growing of the obligate precancer of lips characteristic for:
A) malignization
B) hyperkeratosis
C) hyperplasia
D) inflammatory process
E) necrosis
9.135. The facultative lipprecancer is:
A) papillomatosis
B) actinic keratosis
C) simple wart
D) flat leukoplakia
E) retention cyst
9.136. The following is not used for treatment of lip precancer:
A) chemotherapy
B) conservative treatment
C) surgical treatment
D) laser surgery
E) radical surgery
9.137. The most frequently location of cancer of oral cavity is:
A) lip
B) floor of oral cavity
C) mucosa of maxilla
D) alveolar ridge of maxilla
E) alveolar ridge of mandible
9.138. The treatment method of the second stage of lip cancer is:
A) combined
B) palliative
C) symptomatic
D) Krayl surgery
9.139. Radiological signs of maxilla cancer are:
A) ossilitic process with maxillary sinus wall destruction
B) shadow of the ossification in the maxillary sinus
C) dome shaped depression in maxillary sinus
D) unhomogen disorder of maxillary sinus pneumatization with maintenance its borders
E) disorder of maxillary sinus pneumatization with liquid
9.140. Point the stage of the cancer, according to TNM classification, of flat keratinizing
ulcer with 2 cm diameter on mandible alveolar ridge and with one moving lymphatic node
with 1 cm diameter on the same side:
A) T1N0M0
B) T2N0M0
C) T2N1M0
D) T3N2M0
E) T4N3M0
9.141. Which of the following tumor is malignant:
A) osteosarcoma
B) osteochondroma
C) fibrous histiocytoma
D) osteoma
E) osteoid-osteoma
9.142. Which of the following hasn’t the capsule:
A) adenocarcinoma
B) lipoma
C) osteoma
D) chondromixoid fibroma
E) monomorphic adenoma
9.143. Which of the following is a benign tumor of muscular tissue:
A) mioma
B) miosarcoma
C) fibrosarcoma
D) fibroma
E) atheroma
9.144. Which of the following is not a way of metastasis:
A) infectious
B) implantation
C) hematogenouse
D) lymphogenouse
E) skip
9.145. Which of the following is not treatment method of cancer:
A) physiotherapy
C) chemotherapy
D) immunotherapy
E) surgery
9.146. Which of the following is not factor in the development of skin cancer:
A) seborea
B) UV
C) radiation
D) burns, scars
E) genetic diseases
9.147. Which of the following is the most frequent form of skin cancer:
A) basal cell carcinoma
B) squamous carcinoma
C) melanoma
D) merkelcell carcinoma
E) basalcell- squamous carcinoma
9.148. The “N” in TNM International classification of tumors means:
A) regional metastasis
B) the far metastasis
C) the size of tumor
D) existence of necrotic factor
E) neural invasive
9.149. The giant-cell tumor should be differentiated with:
A) ameloblastic fibroma
B) parodontitis
C) retention cyst
D) pleomorphic adenoma
E) osteomyelitis of the jaws
9.150. Precancerous lesion are:

A) distrophyc, nontumors, unstable proliferative lesion
B) ulcerative inflammatory infiltration
C) benign tumors with signs of inflammation
D) acute necrotic wound process of the soft tissues of the face
E) stomatitis
9.151. The patient complains on white-color plaque on oral mucosa of the cheeks which are
elevating over the mucosal surface and doesn’t have clear boundaries. On the background
of plaques one could determine red-color depressions. It is description of which type of
leukoplakia:
A) Tappeiner
B) simple
C) flat
D) erosive-ulcerative
E) soft
9.152. Patient has flat elements on the oral mucosa of the cheeks, reminds of the field of
burn with clear boundaries, white-gray colored, which is not disappear while intensive
scrubbing . It is description of which type of leukoplakia:
A) simple
B) Tappeiner
C) erosive-ulcerative
D) verrucous
E) soft
9.153. Young adult has soft inscribing raid of gray color on the background of elevation of
oral mucosa of the cheeks, the form is mosaic, the foci is loosen and covered by multiply
squama. Which type of leukoplakia is described:
A) soft
B) Tappeiner
C) Tappeiner
D) verrucous
E) flat
9.154. Which symptom is not the sign of malignant transformation of precancerous lesion:
A) pale skin
B) compaction in the region of the base of erosion
C) bleeding sickness
D) increasing of cornification of pathological lesion
E) erosions covered by pus raid
9.155. Patient has skin cancer T1N0M0. The stage of development is:
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
E) fifth
9.156. The cancer of the lower lip T2N0M0. The stage of development is:
A) second
B) first
C) third
D) fourth
E) fifth
9.157. The cancer of lower lip T3NOMO. The stage of development is:
A) third
B) first
C) second
D) fourth
E) fifth
9.158. The cancer of oral mucosa Т1 N1 МО. The stage of development is:
A) third
B) first
C) second
D) fourth
E) fifth
9.159. The facial skin cancer T2N1M0. The stage of development is:
A) third
B) first
C) second
D) fourth
E) fifth
9.160. The cancer of oral mucosa T3N1 МО. The stage of development is:
A) third
B) first
C) second
D) fourth
E) fifth
A) fourth
B) third
C) first
D) second
E) fifth
A) fourth
B) third
C) first
D) second
E) fifth
A) fourth
B) first
C) third
D) second
E) fifth
A) fourth
B) third
C) first
D) second
E) fifth
A) fourth
B) third
C) second
D) first
E) fifth
9.166. The cancer of oral mucosa T2N2M0. The stage of development is:
A) fourth
B) second
C) third
D) first
E) fifth
9.167. The facial skin cancer Т1 N1М1. The stage of development is:
A) fourth
B) second
C) third
D) first
E) fifth
9.168. The cancer of oral mucosa T2N3M0. The stage of development is:
A) fourth
B) second
C) third
D) first
E) fifth
A) fourth
B) second
C) first
D) third
E) fifth
9.170. Facial skin cancer T3N2M0. The stage of development is:
A) fourth
B) second
C) third
D) first
E) fifth

A) fourth
B) third
C) first
D) second
E) fifth

A) fourth
B) second
C) third
D) first
E) fifth

A) fourth
B) first
C) second
D) third
E) fifth
9.174. What percentage of surgical dental diseases constitute a tumor in the face, neck and
jaw?
A) 13-15%
B) 90%
C) 50 %
D) 60 %
E) 30 %
9.175. What is the reason of distinctiveness of tumor and tumor-like lesions on the face ,
neck and jaw ?
A) the close proximity of vital organs and the presence of teeth
B) constant exposure to direct sunlight
C) isolation of these areas
D) insufficient blood supply to these areas
E) a constant negative influence from the environment
9.176. ”IHCT” is:
A) International Histological Classification of Tumours
B) International Hemangiomas Classification of Tumours
C) International Histological Classification of Teratomas
D) International Hemangiomas Classification of Teratomas
E) Internal Histological Classification of Tumours
9.177. What are the three principles form the basis of the International Histological
Classification of Tumours ?
A) anatomical localization, histological type and nature of neoplasms
B) anatomicallokalizitsiya , color and consistency neoplasms
C) anatomical localization, histological type and size of tumors
D) the color , texture and size of tumor growths
E) anatomical localization, histological type and size of tumors
9.178. As all classified neoplasms maxillofacial and neck areas ?
A) true tumor , tumor-like lesions and cysts
B) primary and secondary
C) local and common
D) limited and spilled
E) true tumors and cysts
9.179. How long after treatment , patients with malignant tumors should be kept under
medical supervision ?
A) 5 years
B) 10 years
C) 1 year
D) 6 months
E) 1 month
9.180. How long after surgery , patients with benign tumors should be placed under the
supervision of clinic or hospital ?
A) at least 2-3 years
B) over 5 years
C) more than 15 years
D) 3-6 months
E) is not less than 2-3 months
9.181. Bone tumors arise primary:
A) bone
B) blood
C) skin
D) mucosa
E) lymph nodes
9.182. Bone tumors develop from the elements:
A) connective tissue
B) epithelial tissue
C) muscle tissue
D) blood
E) lymph
9.183. Malignant bone forming tumor is :
A) osteosarcoma
B) fibroma
C) osteoma
D) osteoidosteoma -
E) osteoclastoma
9.184. What kind of tumor , some authors do not consider to the true tumor , and believe
that it arises as a result of violations of fetal development and bone formation ?
A) osteoma
B) osteosarcoma
C) fibroma
D) sarcoma
E) hemangioma
9.185. What percentage of patients with bone tumors are patients with osteoma ?
A) 8%
B) 80 %
C) 20 %
D) 50 %
E) 40 %
9.186. Osteoma is:
A) peripheral and central
C) the correct and false
D) limited and diffuse
E) mature and recurrent
9.187. Depend on structure of tumor tissue, osteoma is in following types :
A) compact and spongy
C) the correct and false
D) limited and diffuse
E) homogeneous and inhomogeneous
9.188. Osteoma growth occures:
A) slowly and painlessly
B) quickly and with painful sensations
C) quickly and painlessly
D) slow and painful sensations
E) the pace of growth and properties depend on the state of the organism
9.189. What are the functional disorders may occur when osteoma located in the maxilla ?
A) diplopia and nasal breathing difficulty
B) lacrimation and hearing impairment
C) diplopia and impaired hearing
D) lacrimation and nasal breathing difficulty
E) hearing loss and nasal breathing difficulty
9.190. Which functional disorders may occur when osteoma located on the zygomaticarch ?
A) limitation of mouth opening
B) violation of swallowing
C) diplopia
D) hearing impairment
E) lacrimation
9.191. Unpleasant sensations in the behind the jaw area occures when osteoma is located in
:
A) styloidprocessus
B) zygomatic arch
C) maxilla
D) zygomatic arch and maxilla
E) styloidprocessus and zygomatic arch
9.192. " Haversian canals" also called as:
A) channels Osteon
B) channels osteosarcoma
C) channels fibroids
D) channels neuroma
E) channelshemangioma
9.193. Differential diagnosis of cancellousosteoma forms is carried out :
A) ossificans fibroma , chondroma and osteosarcoma
B) neurofibromatosis ,chondroma and osteosarcoma
C) ossificans fibroma , chondroma and neurofibromatosis
D) neurofibromatosis , neuroma and chondroma
E) neurofibromatosis , neuroma and osteosarcoma
9.194. In the cortical layer of the jaw develops :
A) osteoid-osteoma
B) osteoblastoma
C) neuroma
D) chondroma
E) hemangioma
9.195. In the spongy substance of the bone develops:
A) osteoblastoma
B) osteoid-osteoma
C) neuroma
D) chondroma
E) hemangioma
9.196. Size of osteoid-osteoma approximately:
A) 1 cm
B) 2-3 cm
C) 5 cm
D) 0,5 cm
E) 2,5-5 cm
9.197. Size of osteoblastoma size approximately:
A) 1-1,5 cm
B) 2-3 cm
C) 5 cm
D) 0,5 cm
E) 2,5-5 cm
9.198. A benign tumor which is found only in jaw bones is:
A) fibroosteoma
B) hemangioma
C) sarcoma
D) osteosarcoma
E) lymphangioma
9.199. Fibroosteoma clinically and radiographicallyoccures identical to :
A) fibrous dysplasia
B) hemangioma
C) sarcoma
D) lymphangioma
E) osteosarcoma
9.200. Fibroosteoma also called as:
A) fibromaossificans
B) desmoplastic fibroma
C) fibroadamantoblastoma
D) cementoblastoma
E) Osteosarcoma
9.201. Fibroosteomashouldbedifferentiatedfrom:
A) desmoplasticfibroma
B) ossificansfibroma
C) osteosarcoma
D) hemangioma
E) teratomas
9.202. Themostfrequent (50%) ofprimarybonemalignancies of jaws, is:
A) osteosarcoma
B) chondrosarcoma
C) cementoblastoma
D) Ewing'ssarcoma
E) giantcelltumor
9.203. Whatcanwe observe onpalpationofosteosarcoma:
A) immovable, dense consistency, mucousmembranestretched overit
B) mobile, denseconsistency, mucousmembranestretched overit
C) immovable, looseconsistency, mucousmembranestretched overit
D) immovable, denseconsistency, mucousmembrane is notstretched overit
E) mobile, looseconsistency, mucousmembraneisnotstretchedoverit
9.204. Whichmain variants of osteosarcoma may be chosen by itsX-raypicture ?
A) osteoplasticandosteolytic
B) osteoplasticandsclerotic
C) osteolyticandosteoclastic
D) changesarenotobservedradiographically
E) hyperplasticandosteoplastic
205. "Spicules" is:
A) boneneedles
B) bonecavities
C) boneflutes
D) bonycanals
E) cartilagebumps
9.206. Bone changes on radiogram as a "needle periostitis" are characteristic in
osteosarcoma:
A) osteoplastic form
B) osteolytic form
C) osteoclastic form
D) hyperplasic form
E) hypertrophic form
9.207. Bone changes on radiogram of irregular shape with fuzzy rough contours observed
in osteosarcoma:
A) osteolytic form
B) osteoplastic form
C) sclerotic form
D) hyperplasic form
E) hypertrophic form
9.208. Which neoplasm also called "osteo chondral exostosis"?
A) osteochondroma
B) osteosarcoma
C) osteoma
D) fibroma
E) hemangioma
9.209. Chondroma which is located centrally in the depth of the jaw, called:
A) enchondroma
B) ecchondroma
C) perichondroma
D) hypochondroma
E) hyperchondroma
9.210. Peripheral, periosteal or juxtacorticalchondroma, growing beyond the jaw, called:
A) ecchondroma
B) enchondroma
C) perichondroma
D) hypochondroma
E) hyperchondroma
9.211. Chondrosarcoma usually smite:
A) front department of maxilla
B) front department of the mandible
C) back department of the mandible
D) back department of maxilla
E) the body of the mandible
9.212. Grossly, the cut chondrosarcoma is as follows:
A) tumor tissue chondroid consistency, with blue and white color, with areas mucilaginized and
petrification
B) tumor tissue soft consistency with blue and white color, with areas mucilaginized and
petrification
C) fibrous tumor tissue type with blue and white color, with areas mucilaginized and
petrification
D) tumor tissue chondroid consistency with brown color, hypertrophy areas and petrification
E) tumor tissue chondroid consistency with brown color, atrophy areas and petrification
9.213. In the study of histology, what indicates the transformation of chondrosarcoma to
the fibrosarcoma ?
A) undifferentiated spindle cell tissue
B) foci of suppuration
C) plotsmucilaginized
D) such transformation is impossible
E) of mitotic cells
9.214. Osteoclastoma is:
A) a benign tumor that affects the various bones of the skeleton
B) a malignant tumor that affects the various bones of the skeleton
C) a benign tumor that affects only the jaw bones
D) a malignant tumor that affects only the jaw bones
E) benign tumor that affects only the soft tissues adjacent to the jaws
9.215. " giant cell tumor " is:
A) osteoclastoma
B) osteosarcoma
C) fibroma
D) osteoma
E) osteoidosteoma -
9.216. In the bone of the jaw, among all cases of bone tumors, the frequency of formation of
osteoclastoma :
A) 30 %
B) 5 %
C) 50 %
D) 3%
E) 55-60%
9.217. Osteoclastoma preferentially localized area is:
A) small molars of the mandible
B) mandibular incisors
C) small molars of the maxilla
D) molars of the maxilla
E) of the maxillary incisors
9.218. Which form of osteoclastomyradiographically differentiates?
A) cellular , cystic , lytic
B) cystic , cystoid, lytic
C) mesh like, cystoid , osteoid
D) cystic , cystoid , osteoid
E) mesh , cystic , osteoid
9.219. Malignant vascular tumor of maxillofacial bones are:
A) angiosarcoma
B) hemangioma
C) osteosarcoma
D) fibroma
E) osteoma
9.220. A benign vascular tumor of maxillofacial bones are:
A) hemangioma
B) angiosarcoma
C) fibroma
D) osteoma
E) Osteosarcoma
9.221. Grossly fibrosarcoma represents:
A) dense tumor tissue with gray-white color
B) friabla tumor tissue with gray-white color
C) dense tumor tissue with black color
D) friable tumor tissue with black color
E) friable brownish tumor tissue with areas of atrophy
9.222. Tumor-like lesions of bone which present focalanosteoplasia is :
A) fibrous dysplasia
B) osteoma
C) hemangioma
D) eosinophilic granuloma
E) fibroma
9.223. Among patients with bone tumors and tumor-like lesions of fibrous dysplasia is
found in :
A) 13%
B) 30%
C) 33 %
D) 50 %
E) 5 %
9.224. Specify the form of fibrous dysplasia:
A) monoossal and poliossal
B) monoossal and one-bone
C) poliossal and multi-bone
D) diossal and multi-bone
E) periossal and monoossal
9.225. Rarely occurring tumor-like lesions , which rapidly is increased and protrudes area
of bone , which can be painful it is :
A) aneurysmal bone cyst
B) fibrous dysplasia
C) osteoma
D) hemangioma
E) eosinophilic granuloma
9.226. " Solitary bone cyst " is:
A) simple or one chamber bone cyst
B) compound or multi chamber bone cyst
C) compound or one chamber bone cyst
D) simple or multi chamber bone cyst
E) simple or compound cyst – granuloma
9.227. Which of the following refers is about solitary bone cyst ?
A) histologically has no epithelial lining
B) development occurs with severe pain
C) complex bone cyst
D) the multi- bone cyst
E) bone wall covered with stratified epithelium
9.228. Osteoma:
A) benign tumor of mature bone
B) benign tumor of active cartilage tissue
C) malignant tumor of immature bone
D) congenital malformation of bone
E) precancer of bone
9.229. One should mark follow clinical form of osteoma:

A) central and perepherial
B) lytic and solid
C) cystic and cellular
D) osseoblastic and osseoclastic
E) hard and soft
9.230. Radiological picture of compact form of jaws osteoma:

A) fungi-like homogenic foci with clear boundaries
B) round shape non-homogenic foci with alternation of exhaustion and compaction regions
C) homogenic foci with multiply cavities inside separated by bonny trabecules
D) wide destruction of the bone with notched edges
E) absence of bonny changes on X-ray
9.231. Radiological picture of soft form of jaws osteoma:

A) round shape non-homogenic foci with alternation of exhaustion and compaction regions
B) fungi-like homogenic foci with clear boundaries
C) homogenic foci with multiply cavities inside separated by bonny trabecules
D) wide destruction of the bone with notched edges
E) absence of bonny changes on X-ray
9.232. Treatment of osteoma:

A) radical resection of the tumor withi healthy tissues
B) palliative intervension, if tumor is not difficult of access regions
C) radical resection out of healthy tissues with metastasis
D) excision of metastases only
E) radiotherapy only
9.233. Osteoma is differ from osteoid-ostem in maxillofacial region by:
A) upon radiological data
B) osteoma is developing slow, but osteoid-osteoma is growing very rapidly
C) by the treatment methods
D) both developing fcial skeleton deformities
E) osteoid-osteoma has low-diffiriantiated cells
9.234. Osteomas is not diffirintiated with:
A) neurophybroma
B) fibrouse dysplasia
C) odontoma
D) exosthoses, thoruses
E) osteoid-osteoma
9.235. Multiply osteomas of the facial skeleton as well flat and tubular bones, pluposis of
colon and rectum with high rate of malignisation, presence of supernumerary teeth and
odontomas is character to:
A) Gardner syndrome
B) Sjogren syndrome
C) Appert syndrome
D) Mirkelsone-Rosenthal syndrome
E) Mikulich syndrome
9.236. Indicate improper statement for osteoma localization:
A) inside frontal sinus and ethmoid complex and causes neuralgia of trigeminal nerve
B) ithin upper jaw and causes breathing by nose difficult
C) near to condylar process and causes TMJ disfunction
D) within hard palate and alveolar crest – difficulties in prosthetic treatment
E) in case of localization within orbit – limitations of eyeball movements, vision problems
9.237. Osteoid-osteoma:
A) benign tumor of osseouse productive tumors of connective tissue
B) malignant tumor of osseouse productive tumors
C) benign tumor with cartilage tissue origin
D) benign tumor with poor vascuarisation and tendency to metastasis disease
E) malignant type of giant cell tumor
9.238. Clinical picture of osteoid-osteoma:
A) pain in the jaw with no causes and increasing in night time
B) deformity of jaw bone and teeth mobility
C) presence of multiply fistulas on alveolar ridge
D) solid and painful infiltration within the region of several teeth
E) loose painfull and bleeding erosion of the gum
9.239. Radiological picture of osteoid-osteoma:
A) destruction foci with diameter of 0.5-1cm with unclear countures surround by sclering tissue
sheet
B)multiply osteolythic foci in the region of mandibular angels and ramuses
C) thinning-down of cortex with multiply custic fromations
D) diffuse enlargement of the bone with alternation of compaction and depression areas
E) garnetting of cortex by spotty cotton-like design
9.240. Treatment of osteoid-osteoma in maxillofacial region:

A) surgical excision within healthy tissues by the means of excohleation with reagions sclerosin
bone
B) decompression cystotomy
C) chemotherapy
D) concervative by cytostatics
E) dispenser follow-up
9.241. Enchondroma is localizing:
A) within bone
B) on the periphery of bone
C) both within and outside bone
D) within toth tissues
E) within soft tissue of the face
9.243. . Enchondroma is localizing:
A) on the outter plane of the bone
B) on the periphery of bone
C) both within and outside bone
D) within toth tissues
E) within soft tissue of the face
9.243. Is not character to ecnhondroma:
A) have spicules-bonny needles
B) one should diffirntiate exchondroma and enchondroma
C) could be single and multiply
D) prone to recurrence and methastasis
E) leading to jaw deformity
9.244. Differential diagnosis of enchondrma should be done with:
A) osteoma
B) carcinoma
C) multyossal fibrouse dysplasia
D) chondrosarcoma
E) polyossal fibrouse dysplasia
9.245. Chief clinical symptom of arterial hemangioma is:
A) puslation
B) presence of phlebolyths
C) pain on palpation
D) painful infiltration
E) erosions with tendency to bleeding
9.246. The main treatment methods of arterial hemangioma are:
A) embolization with follow exision
B) electrical coagulation
C) radiotherapy
D) sclerozing therapy
E) suturing
9.247. One should indicate follow clinical forms of lymphangioma
A) capillary, cavernouse, cystic
B) cellular, cystic, lythic
C) polymorphic, monomorphic, prolipherative
D) subperiostheal, periapical, ossifying
E) epithelial, conectiv, limphoid
9.248. Clinical signs of capillary hemangioma is similar to
A) nevi
B) lipoma
C) fibroma
D) papilloma
E) skin hyperpigmentation
9.249. Clinical signs of cavernouse hemangioma is similar to:
A) retention cyst
B) fibroma
C) papilloma
D) hyperpigmentation of the skin
E) nevi
9.250. Phlebolythes could be detected in case of thic form of haemangioma of maxillofacial
region
A) cavermouse
B) capillary
C) branchy
D) arterial
E) intramuscullar
9.251. Hamartoma:
A) dysontogenetic lesion
B) tumor composed by multiply capillary and surround spindle-like and round cells
C) tumor composed by vessels and filamentary connective tissue
D) tumor arising from endothelium of the vessels
E) vascular-connective tissue tumor
9.252. Sclerosing haemangioma:
A) vascular-connective tissue tumor
B) tumor composed by multiply capillary and surround spindle-like and round cells
E) dysontogenetic lesion
9.953. Haemangiopericytoma:
A) tumor composed by multiply capillary and surround spindle-like and round cells
B) vascular-connective tissue tumor
9.254. Haemangiofibroma :
A) tumor composed by vessels and filamentary connective tissue
C) tumor composed by multiply capillary and surround spindle-like and round cells
9.255. Haemangiendothelioma is:
A) tumor arising from endothelium of the vessels
C) tumor composed by multiply capillary and surround spindle-like and round cells
D) tumor composed by vessels and filamentary connective tissue
E) dysonthogenetic lesion
9.256. Intraosseouse haemangioma is dangerouse because of:
A) diffuse bleeding
B) rapid metasthasis
C) affects wide regions
D) lead to teeth mobility
E) patient complains includes heaviness feeling on physical load
9.257. To non-osteogenic tumors one should concern:
A) cement fibroma
B) osteoblastoma
C) osteoid-osteoma
D) giant cell tumor
E) ossifying fibroma
9.258. Synonym of ossifying fibroma of the jaw is:
A) fibroosteoma
B) osteoma
C) fibroma
D) compact osteoma
E) exosthosis
9.259. Ossifying fibroma has clinical course as:
A) fibrouse dysplasia
B) osteoma
C) osteosarcoma
D) fibrosarcoma
E) chondrosarcoma
9.260. Radiologically ossifying fibroma is similar to:
A) residual cyst
B) osteoma
C) osteosarcoma
D) chondrosarcoma
E) exosthosis
9.261. To osseosedysplasia one shouldn’t concern:
A) acromegalia
B) fibrouse dysplasia
C) cherubism
D) Albright syndorme
E) Padjet disease
9.262. Cherubism is:
A) polyossal fibrouse osseouse dysplasia
B) monoossal fibrouse osseouse dysplasia
C) disease character by deformity of femoral and tibial bones
D) hyperpigmentation of the skin
E) deformity of the asal bones
9.263. Followed symptoms are character to:
1) Unilateral multibone foci of fibrouse dysplasia
2) Hyperpigmintation of the skin
3) pubertas precox
A) Albright syndorme
B) Padjet syndrome
C) Crusone syndrome
D) Gardner syndrome
E) Miculich syndrome
1) Combinated affection of upper and lower jaw by fibrouse dysplasia
2) Angel with big eyes
3) Hereditary character
A) Cherubism
B) Padjet syndrome
C) Crusone syndrome
D) Gardner syndrome
E) Albright syndorme
1) Deformity of femur and tibia as well as vertebrae ad facial bones with marked
hyperosthosis
2) Bulge of zygoma bone and chin and falling back of bridge of the nose
3) Lion-like face, craniosclerosis
A) Padjet syndrome
B) Cherubism
C) Crusone syndrome
D) Gardner syndrome
E) Albright syndorme
9.266. In case of cherubism facial deformity by age is:
A) decreasing
B) increasing
C) not changing
D) first decreasing, then increasing
E) first not changing, then increasing
9.267. Tumor with brown color on cut, which is result of haemosiderine accumulation and
regions of necrosis and haemorrage with multiply custs is:
A) giant cell tumor
B) ameloblastoma
C) cherubism
D) osteodysplasia
E) osteodystrophia
9.268. Is not synonym of osteoblastoma:
A) osteoblastosarcoma
B) giant cell tumor
C) osteoblastoclastoma
D) central giant cell granuloma
E) giant cell reparative granuloma
9.269. Is not clinical and radiological form of osteoblastoma:
A) fibrouse
B) cystic
C) cellular
D) lythic
E) solid
9.270. Main method of odontoma treatment:
A) Tumor removal
B) Chemical therapy
C) tumor excochleation
D) combined treatment
E) block resection
9.271. Following of fibrose tissue is referred to tumors:
A) Soft fibroma
B) Follicular cyst
C) Gingival fibromatosis
D) Radicular cyst
E) Epulis
9.272. The following is peculiar to soft fibroma:

A) mature adipose and fibrose tissue
B) bone tissue
C) mature adipose tissue
D) mature fibrotic tissue
E) adipose tissue
9.273. The following is referred to fibtomatosis:
A) Tumor-like tumors
B) neoplasms
C) granulomas
D) Cysts
E) Fistulas
9.274. Fibromatosis develops as a result of:
A) chronic mechanical iritation

B) communicable disease
C) disturbance of emriogenesis
D) malnutrition
E) bad habits
9.275. Fibromatosis is mostly located on mucus:
A) mucolabial fold of vestibulum

B) Tongue
C) Bucca
D) upper lip
E) mouth floor
9.276. The main treatment methods for fibromatosis are:
A) excision of the tumor together with the bone

C) antibiotic therapy
D) mixed (combined)
E) Chemical therapy
9.277. The following is typical for the clinical manifestation of ameloblastoma:
A) painless swelling of jaw

B) 2-3 erosions on gingiva prone to bleeding and epithelial growth
C) painful deformation of maxillar bone
D) solid painful infiltration in the area of seferal teeth
E) soft bleeding gingival tumor
9.278. The following is peculiar to ameloblastoma radiology:
A) maxillar cortex resorbtion with clear boundaries and divided in to partitions

B) diffuse distruction along trabecular part of maxillar
C) “grundy glass” type bone changes
D) “melted sugar” type bone changes
E) no changes in the area of tumor
9.279. The main treatment method of ameloblastoma is:
A) Maxillar resection
B) Cystectomia
C) tumor membrane curetage
D) Chemical therapy
E) Radiological therapy
9.280. Soft odontoma is mostly located:
A) around lower molar

B) around upper molar
C) around lower premolars
D) around maxillar incisors
E) around mandibular incisors
9.281. Soft odontomas should be differentiated with:
A ameloblastoma
B) osteomielitis
C) paradontitis
D) hemangioma
E) polymorph adenoma
9.282. The main treatment method for soft odontoma is:
A) tumor membrane curetage

B) Chemical therapy
C) cystectomia
D) maxillar resection
E) radiological therapy
9.283. Synonym for soft odontoma:
A) Ameloblastic cyst
B) Cylindroma
C) Fibrose blastoma
D) Ameloblastoma
E) Ameloblastic fibroma
9.284. Is concern to obligate precancerous lesion:

A) xeroderma pigmentosum
B) papilloma
C) keratosis
D) meteorological cheilitis
E) keratoacanthoma
9.285. Is not concern to obligate precancerous lesion:

A) keratoacanthoma
B) xeroderma pigmentosum
C) Bowen's disease
D) limited hyperkeratosis of vermilion border
E) abrasive precancerous cheilitis of Manqanotti
9.286. Is concern to facultative precancerous lesion:

A) papilloma
B) abrasive precancerous cheilitis of Manqanotti
C) verrucous precancer
D) limited hyperkeratosis of vermilion border
E) Bowen's disease

A) chronic labial fissure of the vermilion border
B) Bowen's disease
C) abrasive precancerous cheilitis of Manqanotti
D) xeroderma pigmentosum
E) limited hyperkeratosis of vermilion border
A) keratoacanthoma
B) xeroderma pigmentosum
C) limited hyperkeratosis of vermilion border
D) Bowen's disease
E) abrasive precancerous cheilitis of Manqanotti

A) meteorological cheilitis
B) limited hyperkeratosis of vermilion border
E) Bowen's disease

A) keratosis
B) limited hyperkeratosis of vermilion border
E) Bowen's disease
9.291. Which method of investigation is not applicable for diagnosis of tumor and tumor-
like lesion of oral cavity and vermilion border of the lips?
A) myography
B) histological investigation
C) stomatoscopy
D) cytological investigation
E) radioisotopic examination
9.292. Which test is using during stomatoscopy:

A) Schiller test
B) Monteux test
C) Wasserman test
D) Reberg test
E) Kakovsky-Addis test
9.293. Is not concern to diagnosis biopsy:

A) surgical
B) incisional
C) punctional
D) excisional
E) trepanobiopsy
9.294. Is not concern to the types of leukoplakia:

A) firm
B) leukoplakia of smokers
C) simple (flat)
D) erosive- ulcerative
E) verrucous
9.295. Which type is provokes the pain increasing on meal:

A) erosive- ulcerative
B) verrucous
C) simple (flat)
D) leukoplakia of smokers
E) soft
9.296. What is indicated by TNM system:

A) degree of cancer growth
B) etiology of cancer growth
C) stage of cancer growth
D) sequence of cancer growth
E) the type of cancer spreading
9.297. The treatment of choice for precancerous lesion of oral mucosa:

A) surgical
B) conservative
C) radiation therapy
D) chemical therapy
E) palliative
9.298. Who should be responsible for the follow-up of the patient treated for obligate
precancerous lesion of the oral mucosa:
A) oncologist
B) dental surgeon
C) radiologist
D) chemical therapists
E) dentist
9.299. Who should be responsible for the follow-up of the patient treated for facultative
precancerous lesion of the oral mucosa:
A) dentist
B) dental surgeon
C) radiologist
D) chemical therapists
E) oncologist
9.300. For what time the patient treated for precancerous lesion of oral mucosa should be
on dispensary follow up:
A) 1 year
B) 6 month
C) 1 month
D) 3 year
E) 5 year
9.301. Indicate the lesion with highest potential of malignization:

A) leukoplakia
B) cheilitis of Manqanotti
C) chronic labial fissures
D) limited precancerous hyperkeratosis
E) Bowen's disease
9.302. The main etiological factor of development of precancerous lesion:

A) chronic irritation of oral mucosa
B) secondary adentia
C) acute inflammatory process of soft tissue of the face
D) acute inflammatory process of facial skeleton bones
E) infection

A) professional irritation
E) infection

A) bad habits
E) infection
9.305. Is character for morphological picture of precancerous lesion:

A) invasion to subepithelial tissue
B) presence of hyperkeratosis
C) absence of hyperchromatosis nuclei
D) absence of atypical cornification
E) sings of inflammation

A) atypical cornification
B) branching of myocytes
C) inflammatory infiltration
D) invasion to subepithelial tissue
E) absence of hyperchromatosis nuclei

A) hyperchromatosis nucle
D) secondary cheesy necrosis
E) invasion to subepithelial tissue

A) hyperkeratosis
D) secondary cheesy necrosis
E) invasion to subepithelial tissue
9.309. Are concern to precancerous lesion of the oral mucosa:

A) erythroplakia, leukoplakia, eritroplakiya, leykoplakiya, lupus erythematosus, lichen planus,
submucosa lichen
B) erysipelas
C) thermal and chemical burns
D) verrucous precancerous lesion, precancerous hyperkeratosis, cheilitis of Manganotti
E) Bowen's disease, xeroderma pigmentosum, actinic keratosis, precancerous melanosis
9.310. Are concern to precancerous lesion of the verimilion border of the lips:
A) verrucous precancerous lesion, limited precancerouse hyperkeratosis, cheilitis of Manganotti
B) thermal and chemical burns
C) erysipelas
D) Bowen's disease, xeroderma pigmentosum, actinic keratosis, precancerous melanosis
E) erythroplakia, leukoplakia, eritroplakiya, leykoplakiya, lupus erythematosus, lichen planus,
submucosa lichen
9.311. Is character to Bowen's disease clinical picture:

A) atrophic bulge covered by “Geographic”-like scab
B) 2-3 erosion prone to epithelization and bleeding
C) the ulcerative area with the signs of infiltration to adjacent tissues
D) nazik və sıx pulcukla örtülmüş,buynuzlaşmış məhdud sahə
E) superficial painful uneven node 3-5 mm off the epithelial surface
9.312. The treatment of choice for Bowen's disease:

A) surgical
B) chemical therapy
C) combined therapy
D) radiation therapy
E) excision with capsule
9.313. The treatment of choice for Bowen's disease:

A) cryotherapy
B) chemical therapy
C) combined therapy
9.314. Is character to clinical picture of the verrucous precancerous lesion of vermilion

border of the lip:
A) superficial painful uneven node 3-5 mm off the epithelial surface
B) the ulcerative area with the signs of infiltration to adjacent tissues
C) atrophic bulge covered by “Geographic”-like scab
D) the limited cornified area, covered by thin and firm squama
E) 2-3 erosion prone to epithelization and bleeding
9.315. Is character to clinical picture of the hyperkeratosis:

A) the limited cornified area, covered by thin and firm squama
D) 2-3 erosion prone to epithelization and bleeding
9.316. Is character to clinical picture of the cheilitis of Manganotti:
A) 2-3 erosion prone to epithelization and bleeding
D) the limited cornified area, covered by thin and firm squama
9.317. The treatment of choice for verrucous precancerous lesion of vermilion border is:
A) excision
B) manual
C) chemical therapy
D) combined therapy
9.318. The treatment of choice for limited hyperkeratosis of vermilion border is:
A) cryodestruction
B) chemical therapy
C) combined therapy
9.319. The treatment of choice for abrasive precancerous cheilitis of Manganotti is:
A) cryodestruction
B) chemical therapy
C) combined therapy
9.320. Peripheral giant-cell granuloma:
A) tumor-like lesion
B) osseouse tumor
C) soft tissue tumor
D) true odontogenic tumor
E) lipoma
9.321. The main etiological factor of development of the peripheral giant-cell tumor is:
A) chronic irritation of gingiva of alveolar process
B) recurrence of cyst
C) acute pulpitis
D) jaw fracture
E) infection
9.322. The main etiological factor of development of the peripheral giant-cell tumor is
chronic irritation of:
A) gingiva
B) tongue
C) jaw
D) inferior nasal meatus
E) lips
9.323. The final diagnosis of “Giant-cell tumor” could be establish upon:

A) cytology
B) anamnesis taking
C) histology
D) blood test
E) clinical-radiological investigation
9.324. The treatment of choice for giant-cell tumor of the jaw:

A) tumor resection within healthy tissues
B) chemical therapy
C) cryodestruction
D) combined therapy
E) tumor curettage
9.325. The treatment of choice for giant-cell tumor of the jaw:

A) EN-block resection of the jaw
B) chemical therapy
C) cryodestruction
D) combined therapy
E) tumor curettage
9.326. The treatment of choice for big size giant-cell tumor of the jaw:
A) tumor curettage
B) cryodestruction
C) combined therapy
D) chemical therapy
E) tumor curettage
9.327. The treatment of choice for big size giant-cell tumor of the jaw:
A) jaw resection and immediate bone reconstruction
B) EN-block resection of the jaw
C) tumor curettage
D) decompression cystotomy
E) chemical therapy
9.328. The features of the giant-cell tumor:

A) malignization
B) non-invasive development
C) metastasis to distant lymphatic nodes
D) metastasis to regional lymphatic nodes
E) provokes fever
9.329. Exophytic (papillary) form of cancer could be rare found on:

A) oral mucosa
B) lower lip
C) upper lip
D) facial skin
E) the skin of the neck
9.330. Facial skin cancer T4N1 МО. The stage of development is:
A) fourth
B) first
C) second
D) third
E) fifth
9.331. Infiltrative form of cancer could be rare found on:

A) oral mucosa
B) lower lip
C) upper lip
D) facial skin
E) the skin of the neck

A) fourth
B) first
C) second
D) third
E) fifth
9.333. Schwannoma is synonym of:

A) neurinoma
B) neurifibroma
C) neurinoma and neurifibroma
D) qanqlioneuroma
E) fibroma
9.334. Mesinchenoma – is a tumor composed form :

A) fat, fibrous, vascular and loose connective tissue
B) fat tissue
C) fibrous tissue
D) fat, fibrous and neurogenic tissue
E) primitive neurogenic tissue
9.335. Rhabdomyoma underwent malignant transformation is:

A) rhabdomyosarcoma
B) rhabdomyoma
C) undifferentiated sarcoma
D) angiosarcoma
E) fibrisarcoma
9.336. Indicate causes of neuralgia?
A) venous disease, traumatic brain injury, infectious diseases, chronic bacterial and viral
infections, endocrine diseases, endogenous infection.
B) jaw fracture, mental illness, cold water.
C) multiple radiographic examination
D) a loud sound
E) antibiotic therapy
9.337. How many types of neuralgia exists?

A) 2 types
B) 3 types
C) no types
D) 1 type
E) 6 types
9.338. What are the types of neuralgia?

A) I-th idiopathic, II-nd symptomatic
B) I-th
C) II-nd
D) III, IV
E) there are no types
9.339. Indicate early symptoms of neuralgia?

A) with sharp fighted pains
B) without pain
C) with purulent
D) with hyperemia
E) without any manifestations
9.340. How long does neuralgic pain lasts?

A) from several seconds to several minutes.
B) During the day
C) till the treatment
D) painless
E) hours
9.341. Indicate differentiate trigeminal neuralgia?

A) with acute pulpitis, periodontitis
B) with an abscess
C) with appendicitis
D) with nothing
E) with salivary gland diseases
9.342. What is the name of the nerve injury?

A) Neuritis
B) Neuralgia
C) Neuropathy
D) Sinusitis
E) Abscess
9.343. Indicate etiological factors of neuritis?

A) bacterial and viral infections, exogenous and endogenous intoxication, trauma,
allergic factors.
B) injury
C) bacterial infection
D) allergic factors
E) non of above answers are correct
9.344. What is the clinical manifestation of neuritis?

A) hyposensitivity, paresthesias
B) hypersensitivity
C) hypersensitivity, paresthesias
D) hyposensitivity
9.345. What is the cause of the inferior alveolar nerve injury

A) injury (complicated tooth extraction, anesthesia, jaw fracture)
B) Acute respiratory infections
C) bird influenza
D) non of above answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct
9.346. What is the cause of the superior alveolar nerve injury

A) complicated tooth extraction, sinusitis,postoperative
B) Acute respiratory infections
C) bird influenza
E) all of the answers are correct
9.347. How trigeminal neuritis diagnosis is approved ?

A) on the basis of clinical symptoms and medical history
B) only on the basis of clinical manifestations
C) only on the basis of anamnesis
E) on the basis of X-ray studies
9.348. The main symptom of trigeminal neuralgia is:

A) strong transient attacks of pain
B) Vincent symptom
C) long parasthesias
D) long-term pain
E) transient paresthesias
9.349. Trigtern areas called sections:

A) The irritation which provokes an attack of pain
B) paresthesias
C) hiposthesias
D) hypersensitivity
9.350. The characteristic symptom of trigeminal neuralgia:

A) Vallee pain points
B) tachycardia
C) lacrimation
D) irradiation of pain
9.351. What is neuralgia:

A) Neyron-nerve Algos-pain
В) Nevr- cell algiya-pain
C) Nevra- nucleos algiya- pain
E) there is no such term
9.352. Trigeminal neuralgia:

A) a chronic disease
B) an acute disease
C) a sharp seasonal disease
E) viral disease
9.353. The damage of trigeminal nerve branches may be:

A) unilateral and bilateral
B) only bilateral
C) Only unilateral
D) branch of the nerve is never affected
9.354. Indicate affected area in case of neuralgia of I branch V couple

A) brow area, the root bridge of the nose
B) wing of the nose
C) Intact teeth
D) mental area
9.355. What is facial hemiatrophy?

A) a disease characterized by a decrease in the size of the right or left half of
face
B) a disease characterized by a decrease in the size of the right or left half of
feet
C) disease characterized by enlargement of the right or left half
of face
D) disease characterized by enlargement of the right or left half
Of hands
9.356. Find correct answer?

A) facial hemiatrophy- a disease characterized by a decrease in the size of the right or left half of
face
B) facial hemiatrophy- a disease characterized by a decrease in the size of the right or left half of
feet
C) facial hemiatrophy- disease characterized by enlargement of the right or left half
of face
D) facial hemiatrophy- disease characterized by enlargement of the right or left half
Of hands
9.357. How eliminate the pain of peripheral neuralgia of II branch of the trigeminal nerve?
A) by using infra-orbital anesthesia
B) by using mandibular anesthesia
C) by using the solkosiril ointment
D) by Vitamin C usage
9.358. Which answer is right?

A) the pain of peripheral neuralgia of II branch of the trigeminal nerve is eliminated by using
infra-orbital anesthesia
B) the pain of peripheral neuralgia of II branch of the trigeminal nerve is eliminated by using
mandibular anesthesia
C) the pain of peripheral neuralgia of II branch of the trigeminal nerve is eliminated by using the
solkosiril ointment
D) the pain of peripheral neuralgia of II branch of the trigeminal nerve is eliminated by the
Vitamin C usage
9.359. In which kind of disease is used Finlepsin?

A) Neuralgia
B) Sinusitis
C) Abscess
D) Hipertony
E) there isn’t right answer
9.360. What is Karmazepin:

А) Finlepsin
В) seftriaxoni
С) Vitamin С
D) chocolate
Е) nerve
9.361. The usage of finlepsin in Neuralgia?

A) 1st day 0,1 q 2 times per a day, everyday 0,6-0,8q the dosage is increased , than the dosage is
decreased 0,1 q everyday, the treatment is 3-4 weeks
B) 2 times per day, 3 days
C) only 1 day
D) 1 year
E) isn’t used
9.362. What are the symptoms of neuritis of the trigeminal nerve ?

A) pain, sensitivity, and etc
B) only pain
C) painless
D) with the manifestation of body temperature
9.353. How is clinically characterized facial nerve damage?
A) paralysis and paresthesia of the facial muscles, impaired sensory and autonomic changes
B) no change
C) only paresthesia
D) only paresis
9.364. Which one is right?

A) facial nerve damage is clinically characterized with paralysis and paresis of the facial
muscles, impaired sensory and autonomic changes
B) facial nerve damage is clinically characterized with no change
C) facial nerve damage is clinically characterized with only paresthesia
D) facial nerve damage is clinically characterized with only paresis
9.365. In this picture:

А) baby face with central paresis of the facial nerve
В) baby face with cleft lip
С) baby face with cleft palate
D) baby face crying
9.366. In this picture:

A) A patient with trigeminal neuralgia during an attack
B) A patient with an abscess
C) patients with fractures of the facial skeleton
D) A healthy person
9.367 In this picture.:
A) A patient with infraorbitalis neuralgia during an attack
B) A patient with an abscess
C) patients with fractures of the facial skeleton
D) A healthy person
9.368. The main clinical manifestations of trigeminal neuralgia

A) Starting a pain attack, fading during the attack, attenuation of an attack
B) attenuation of an attack, beginning a pain attack, fading during the attack
C) fading during the attack, Starting a pain attack, attenuation of an attack
D), attenuation of an attack , Starting a pain attack
E) Starting a pain attack, attenuation attack, fading during the attack
9.369. What do you call this method of treatment of neuralgia:

A) Alcoholism
B) Radiation therapy
C) Antibiotic therapy
D) Chemotherapy
E) there is no such treatment
9.370. in the picture is the alcoholism of .........

А) Fist branch of trigimenal nerve
В) infraorbital nerve
С) submentalis nerve
D) nasal branch of infraorbitalis nerve
E) lingualis nerve

А) infraorbital nerve
В) Fist branch of trigimenal nerve
E) lingualis nerve
А) infraorbital nerve
E) lingualis nerve

А) submentalis nerve
С) infraorbital nerve
E) lingualis nerve

А) lingualis nerve
E) submentalis nerve

А) inferior alveolar nerve
E) submentalis nerve
9.376. in the picture is shown the landmark to find .........to alcoholism

А) foramen infraorbitalis
С) nervus alveolaris inferior
E) there isn’t such method
9.377. in the picture is shown the landmark to find .........to alcoholism
А) foramen palatinum
C) inferior alveolar nerve
E) there isn’t such method
9.378. İndicate the problem in patients right side of face:

А) facial hemiatrophy
В) the view after cleft palate surgery
С) the view after cleft lip surgery
D) аbsess
E) there isn’t correct answer
9.379. Causes of neuralgia of the glossopharyngeal nerve may be:

A) oropharynx tumors
B) leg tumor
C) breast tumor
D) hands tumor

A) compression of the nerve root
B) leg tumor
C) breast tumor
D) hands tumor

A) atherosclerotic changes
B) leg tumor
C) breast tumor
D) hands tumor

A) infection process (angina, influenza)
B) leg tumor
C) breast tumor
D) hands tumor
9.383. Where does glossopharyngeal nerve neuralgia begins:

A) with the base of the tongue
B) from head
C) from eye
D) from hands
9.384. How does glossopharyngeal nerve neuralgia begins:

A) with the throat pain
B) from head
C) from eye
D) from hands
9.385. How long does an attack of glossopharyngeal nerve neuralgia lasts:

A) 1-3 minutes
B) 1-3 hours
C) 1-3 years
D) 13 years
9.386.What does the patients with glossopharyngeal nerve neuralgia during an attack
suffers from:
A) dry throat
B) fever
C) cough
D) nothing
9.387. What treatment is prescribed for neuralgia of the glossopharyngeal nerve:

A) Conservative
B) Radiation therapy
C) Antibiotic therapy
D) Chemotherapy
E) no treatment
9.388.What is myoplasty?
A) a partial or complete muscle for transposition to the affected area
B) the partial or complete bone for transposition to the affected area
C) a partial or complete nerve for the transposition to the affected area
D) the partial or total use of a skin for transposition to the affected area
9.389. What is lagophthalmos?
A) expansion of the optic fissure
B) the restriction of the optic fissure
C) muscles extension
D) an extension of the skin
E) redness of the eye
9.390. What characterizes the lingual nerve neuralgia?

А) paroxysmal pain in the anterior part of the tongue
B) the restriction of the optic fissure
C) muscles extension
D) an extension of the skin
E) redness of the eye
9.391. The usage of corticosteroid in tregiminal neuralgia:

A) is used
B) is not used
C) is applied in the remission stage
D) used in the acute form
E) there is no right answer
9.392. Clinical manifestations of Eagle syndrome is similar with neuralgia:

A) glossopharyngeal nerve
B) trigeminal nerve
C) facial nerve
D) the trigeminal nerve and facial nerve
E) there is no correct answer
9.393. Fotergil disease is :

A) trigeminal neuralgia
B) abscess
C) sinusitis
D) neuritis of the trigeminal nerve
E) no right answer
9.394. Eagle syndrome is accompanied by:
A) headache, dizziness, nausea
B) temperature
C) cough
D) headache and always cough
E) there is no сorrect answer
9.395. Eagle Syndrome is appeared on x-ray as:

A) elongation of the styloid process
B) shortening of the styloid process
C) no change
D) elongation and sometimes shortening of the styloid process
E) there is no correct answer
Хирургическая стоматология. Робустовой 2003 (370)
9.396. Which nerves are innervate the temporomandibular joint?

A) ear-temporal nerve
B) inferior alveolar nerve
C) infraorbital nerve
D) Lingual nerve
E) buccal nerve
9.397.Which variant indicate way of spreading infection in TMJ ?

A) contact and hematogenic
B) lymphogenous
C) hematogenic
D) contact
E) contact, hematogenic, lymphogenous
9.398. Which movements are possible in TMJ ?

A) vertical, sagittal and transversal movement
B) sagittal
C) only vertical
D) vertical, sagittal
E) transversal (lateral)
9.399.Which disease of TMJ joint causes atrophy of masseter after chewing act ?
A) bilateral ankylosis
B) arthritis
C) bruksizm
D) arthrosis
E) dysfunction pain syndrome of TMJ
9.400. which layers does TMJ capsule consist of ?

A) Outer layer- fibrous, inner layer- endothelial
B) Outer layer – endothelial, inner layer -fibrous
C) Outer layer - the fibrous, inner layer - connective
D) Outer layer - connective, inner layer - fibrous
E) Outer layer – endothelial, inner layer - connective
9.401. The volume of the top part of TMJ :

A) 1.5ml
B) 0.5ml
C) 2.0ml
D) 2.5ml
E) 3.0 ml
9.402. The volume of the bottom of TMJ:

A) 0.5ml
B) 1.0 ml
C) 1.5ml
D) 2.0 ml
E) 2.5ml
9.403. Which parts is temporo mandibular joint cavity divided into?

A) into to two floors
B) into three separate cavity
C) into four walls
D) into three separate cavities
E) is not divisible
9.404. What is the form of TMJ?

A) ellipsoidal
B) flat
C) globular
D) conical
E) saddle
9.405. At what age is individual size and shape temporo mandibular joint formed ?
A) 6 - 7 years
C) 8 - 9 years
C) 10 - 12 years
D) 13 - 15 years
E) 16 - 18 years
9.406.Articular tubercle appears:

А) by the 7 th -8 th month of infant s life
В) by the 3 –rd th -4 th month of infant s life
С) by the 2-nd year of the child s life
D) by the 3 -rd year of the child s life
E) by the fourth year of the child s life
9.407. At what age is articular head completely formed?

А) at the age of 6-7 years
В) at the age of 1-2 years
С) at the age of 3-5 years
D) at the age of 6-7 years
Е) at the age 8-10 years
9.408. At what age is articular tubercle formed?
А) at the age of 6 -7 years
В) at the age of 3-4 month
С) at the age of 8-10 month
D) at the age of 1-2 years
Е) at the age of 3-4 years
9.409. Which kind of bite is characterized by thickened tubercle?

А) pincer ( straight) bite
В) overbite( deep) bite
С) open bite
D) oblique bite
Е) orthognathic bite
9.410. Which bite has the highest articular tubercle ?

A) orthognathic
B) overbite (deep)
C) princer (straight)
D) open
E) progenic
9.411.At what age is articular tubercle absent?

A) in newborns
B) age from 1-3 years
C) till the age of 5-7 years
D) till the age of 12 years
E) till the age of 16 years
9.412. The distance between cutting edges of upper and lower incisors should be in norm :
A) 40-50mm
B) 20 -30 mm
C) 30 -40 mm
D) 50 -60 mm
E) 60- 70 mm
9.413. How many types of temporo mandibular joints, are differentiated due to norm and
due to the kind of bite ?:
A) three
B) one
C) two
D) four
E) five
9.414. Which of bites is characterized moderately convex-concave joint?

A) orthognathic
B) crossing
C) deep
D) overbite (deep)
E) open
9.415. Which of the bites is characterized by flattened joint?

A ) princer ( straight)
B) overbite( deep)
C) squint
D) crossing
E) open
9.416. Which of bites is characterized by moderately convex-concave joint?

A) overbite (deep)
B) oblique
C) open
D) princer (straight)
E) crossing
9.417. Which laboratory researches (test) are associated with diagnostics of TMJ?
A) determination of total protein in the blood
C) determination C - reactive protein(CRP)
C) complete blood count
D) determination of sugar level
E) determination of prothronbin index
9.418. Which diseases are the organic changes of TMJ associated with?
A) arthrosis , ankylosis
B )bruxism
C) contracrure
D) pain syndrome of dysfunction
E ) internal impairments
9.419. Which of methods provides exact information on inflammatory activity in soft

tissues and as well as on costal changes in TMJ ?
A) MRT
B) USI
C) digital ortopantomoqramma
D) KT
E) tensometry
9.420. Which method is more informative TMJ?

A) MRT
B) USI
C) KT
D) tensometry
E) electromyography
9.421.Etiologicial factor of arthritis of TMJ may be

A) trauma , infections diseases
B) abscess of maxillary
C) sinusitis of maxillary sinus
D) parotid hyperhidrosis
E) acute lymphadenitis
9.422. Etiologicial factor of chronic arthritis

A) acute arthritis
B) paresis of the facial nerve
C) trigeminal neuralgia
D) otitis
E) fracture of the upper jaw
9.423. Acute arthritis is characterized by:

A) severe pain during ingestion ,especially solid food , and in movement by low jaw
B) dull pain ,aching
C) decrease of hearing (hearing loss)
D) gnashing and compression of teeth in a dream
E) crunch
9.424. Which symptoms mostly disturb patient in chronic arthritis ?

A) pain after long talk , stiffness in the joint at the end of the day
B) irradiation of the pain
C) hearing loss
D) headache
E) burning sensation
9.425.Which tissue is damaged in rheumatoid arthritis ?

A) connective
B) fibrous
C) epithelial
D) nervous
E) muscular
9. 426. How thick should rubber gaket be in gauze bandaging of chin parietal area in
patients with arthritis ?
A) 5-10 mm
B) 2-3 mm
C) 7-8 mm
D) 10-15mm
E) 15-20 mm
9.427. Which group of medication isn’t prescribed in acute arthritis ?

A) immunostimulatory
B) analgetics
C) antibiotic
D) nesteroid antiflammatories
E) sedative
9.428. Which surgical method is used in purulent exudate in joint cavity in purulent
arthritis ?
A) arthrotomy
B) arthrosyntesis
C) arthtroplastics
D) genioplastics
E) partial resection of the jaw
9.429.Which changes can be seen in X-ray research in chronic arthritis ?

A) joint space narrowing
B) deformation of mandibular head
C) costal structures of TMJ joint aren’t changed
D) flattening of articular tubercle
E) shortening of the neek of condylar process
9.430. Which changes can be seen in X-ray examination in purulent arthritis ?

A) extension of the joint space (without organic changes )
B) joint space narrowing
C) fracture of the articular head
D) reduction of the articular head
E) dislocation of the articular head out of fossa
9.431. Duration of chronic arthritis

A) treatment since a few months up to a few years
B) 1-2 month
C) 4-6 month
D) for 1 years
E) for years
9.432. Clinical symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis
A) limitation of month opening ,ingestion difficulty ,joint stiffness in talk ,not acute pains
B) flipping
C) crunch
D) acute pain
E) burning sensation in the mouth
9.433.What do the features of arthritis treatment depend of ?

A) on form of clinical course and causes of disease
B) on etilology
C) on form of clinical course
D) on presence of chewing teeth
E)on all above mentioned
9.434.Limitation is observed in maximal opening of the mouth

A) in acute arthrtis
B) in sclerosing arthrosis
C) in pain dysfunction
D) in chronic arthritis
E) in deforming arthrosis
9.435. In which diseases are pathological changes observed except articular head
A) rheumatoid arthritis
B) costral ankylosis
C) fibrous ankylosis
D) pain dysfunction of TMJ
E) arthrosis
9.436.Etiological factors of arthrosis

A) trauma
B) contracture of jaw
C) tumors
D) paresis of the facial nerve
E) myositis
9.437. When does overload of TMJ appear
A) in loss of central teeth
B) in loss of central and lateral incisors
C) in loss of molars
D) in loss of molars and premolars
E) in loss of incisors and canine
9.438. Which surgical method is used in limitation of low jaw movement and in progressing
of its deformation in patients with secondary deforming arthrosis
A) costal plastics
B) arthrosentesis
C) partial resection of the mandible in mental area
D) meniscectomy
E) arthrotomy
9.439.Clinical symptoms of arthtrosis

A) crunch ,stiffness in the joint in the morning
B) flipping
C) irradiation of the pain
D) burning sensation in the mouth
E) asymmetry of the face because of swelling
9.440. Which nerve is damaged in arthrosis of TMJ ?

A) ear – temporal
B) lower alveolar
C) infraorbital
D) buccal
E) lingual
9.441.Which course does TMJ arthrosis have ?

A) chronic
B) aggravated
C) chronic and aggravated
D) acute
E) acute ,aggravated and chronic
9.442.Which changes are observed in X-ray examination of arthrosis ?

A) deformation of mandibular head ,flattening of articular tubercle
B) narrowing of joint space
C) asymmetry of joint space
D) costal structures of TMJ don’t change
E) asymmetry of joint heads location
9.443.What causes development of ankylosis of TMJ?

A) mechanical trauma ,arthritis
B) abscess of parotid area
C) parotid hyperhidrosis
D) chronic infection
E) bruxism
9.444. Clinical symptoms of ankylosis

A) limitation of oral cavity ,indistinct speech
B) free mouth opening
C) increase of temperature
D) burning sensation in the mouth
E) pain at nights
9.445.Which main method of treatment is chosen in costal ankylosis ?

A) arthroplastics and osteotomy
B) arthrosynthesis
C) maxillary sinusotomy mandible
D) partial resection of mandible in mental area
E) meniscectomy
9.446. In which disease of TMJ ,joint doesn’t move

A) costal ankylosis
B) syndrome of pain dysfunction
C) fibrous ankylosis
D) arthritis
E) arthrosis
9.447.How many cm lower than edge of the jaw should incision be seen in arthroplastics of
ankylosis ?
A) 2 cm
B) 0.5 cm
C) 1.0 cm
D) 3 cm
E) 4cm
9.448. After which disease does chin shift backward and profile arises that is called «birds
face» ?
A) in bilateral ankylosis
B) in unilateral secondary deforming arthrosis
C) in bilateral secondary deforming arthrosis
D) in secondary arthritis
E) in bilateral rheumatoid arthritis
9.449.Two clinical forms (intra –articular) ankylosis

A) fibrous ,costal
B) fibrous , cartilageous
C) muscular , cartilageous
D) costal , cartilageous
E) muscular ,costal
9.450.Articular diseases involve

A) arthtritis,osteoarthrosis ,ankylosis
B) bruxism , arthtritis
C) osteoarthtrosis , ankylosis , contracture of masseter
D) arthritis , osteoarthtrosis , pain syndrome of TMJ
E) arthritis , ankylosis ,pain syndrome of TMJ
9.451. It is observed in X -ray examination of costal ankylosis of TMJ

A) shortening of mandibular branch is marked , joint space isn’t defined
B) fracture of the joint head
C) dislocation of the joint head
D) expansion of the joint space
E) reduction of the joint space
9.452. In which disease a patient snores in a dream and sleeps while sitting ?
A) ankylosis
B) arthrosis
C) contracture
D) pain dysfunction
E) arthritis
9.453. How many levels of inflammatory contracture exist ?

A) threee
B) four
C) five
D) two
E) one
9.454.The result of what disease is bruxism ?

A) syndrome of pain dysfunction of TMJ
B) acute arthritis
C) deforming arthrosis
D) sclerosing arthrosis
E) fibrous ankylosis
9.455. Clinical symptoms of pain dysfunction syndrome of TMJ

A) crunch , flipping in opening S – shaped movement of mandible
B) paresthesia of the mucous membrane of the oral cavity
C) increase of body temperature
D) asymmetry of the face caused by swelling
E) acute onset of the disease
9.456.Which changes are observed during X - ray test of TMJ in pain dysfunction
syndrome ?
A) asymmetry of location of joint heads and joint spaces , mainly there is no changes in costal
element of the joint
B) narrowing of joint space
C) expansion of joint space
D) flattening of articular tubercle
E) deformation of mandibular head
9.457.Syndrome Egle
A) lengthening of styloid process
B) neuralgia of the 1 –st branch of trigeminal verve
C) ganglionitis of pterygopalatine node
D) paresis of trigeminal nerve
E) neuralgia og the 2 –nd branch of trigeminal nerve
9.458.How long does it take to carry bus in treatment of pain dysfunction of TMJ
depending on age and severity of clinical symptoms
A) 3-12 mouth
B) for 30 days
C) 1-2 mouth
D) 3-4 mouth
E) more than a year
9.459.After which period of carring bus can the final prosthesis be prepared ?
A) not earlier ,than a year
B) for 8-10 mounth
C) for 6-8 mounth
D) for 4-6 mounth
E) for 2-3 mounth
9.460. Sclerosis of cortical bone of articular head and tubercle is observed in
A) arthrosis
B) pain dysfunction
C) chronic arthritis
D) acute arthritis
E) ankylosis
9.461. TMJ is pairing formed by mandibular and

A) temporal bones
B) occipital bones
C) sphenoid bones
D) frontal bones
E) maxillary bones
9.462. Is character to trigeminal neuralgia:

A) symptomatic
B) sclerotic
C) ischemic
D) trophic
E) specific
9.463. In which form trigeminal neuralgia appears:
A) acute
B) subacute
C) chronic
D) specific
E) excebration of acute
9.464. Which kind of pain is not character for trigeminal neuralgia:
A) dull pain
B) acute pain
C) boring pain
D) burning pain
E) strike pain
9.465. Which factor couldn’t be the cause of trigeminal neuralgia:
A) epilepsy
B) malocclusion
C) odontogenic and rhinogenic diseases
D) allegric-inflammatory reactions within nerve due to overcooling
E) changes of the vessels around intracranial and extracranial parts of the nerve
9.466. Which of the follow physiotherapeutic methods are not using in treatment of
trigeminal neuralgia:
A) Bernard currents
B) fluctorization
C) laser therapy
D) electrophoresis
E) fonophoresis
9.467. Which methods are using in surgical treatment of trigeminal neuralgia:
A) nuereseresis
B) alchogolization
C) nerve decompression in the regions of foramens
D) microvascular decompression
E) exision of trigeminal ganglion
9.468. Which medications shouldn’t be prescribed in treatment of trigeminal neuralgia:
A) corticosteroids
B) ɤ - aminooils containing medications
C) traqulizers
D) antidepressants
E) vasoactive substitudes (PP vitamin)
9.469. Which disease is character by “Meal intake dominance” symptom:
A) stomatalgia
B) neuralgia
C) neuropathia
D) dental plexilgia
E) miofacial facial pain syndrom
9.470. Which kind of neuralgia is character by nerve root compression by inferior cerebral
artery:
A) neuralgia of glosso-pharyngeal nerve
B) neuralgia of superior laryngeal nerve
C) neuralgia of pterygoid plexus
D) neuralgia of trigeminal nerve
E) neuralgia of auriculo-temporal nerve
9.471. In case of whih syndrom one could find herpetic papulas on the nose and forhead.
A) Openheim syndrome
B) Sluder syndrome
C) Charline syndrome
D) Fray syndrome
E) Chant syndrome
9.472. The location of Valleix points:
A) places where trigeminal nerve exit into the soft tissues
B) areas, where appear the clinical symptoms of neuralgia of the trigeminal nerve
C) the location of the 3-rd branch of trigeminal nerve
D) the location of the 2-nd branch of trigeminal nerve
E) the location of the trigger zones
9.473. With what diseases can be differentiated trigeminal neuralgia?
A) syndromesSluder, Oppenheim, Frey and Eagle
B) neuritis of the facial nerve
C) paresis of facial muscles
D) paralysis of facial muscles
E) paralysis and paresis of the facial muscles
9.474. On the face and teeth may be momentary and paroxysmal pain:
A) at trigeminal neuralgia
B) at Frey syndrome
C) at the syndrome Charlier
D) at the syndrome Oppenheim
E) at Eagle syndrome
9.475. What kind of pain are typical for neuritis of the trigeminal nerve?
A) spontaneous, constant and aching
B) aching and short
C) paroxysmal, aching and cutting
D) cutting and aching
E) constant, sharp and cutting
9.476. Which nerve fibers contains the facial nerve?
A) motor, sensory and vegetative
B) motor and sensory
C) only motor
D) the vegetative and motor
E) only vegetative
9.477. What clinical features are characteristic of neuritis of the facial nerve?
A) symptomsWartenberg, Ravil and Gowers
B) syndromes Frey Charles and Eagle
C) the above symptoms and syndromes
D) syndromesCharlier, Oppenheim and Sludera
E) symptomGowers and Frey syndrome
9.478. The clinical picture of lesions of the facial nerve is characterized by:
A) paresis and paralysis of the facial muscles, sensory and autonomic disorders
B) paralysis of facial muscles
C) paresis and paralysis of the facial muscles
D) paresis and paralysis of the facial muscles, sensory disorders
E) paresis of facial muscles
9.479. Parez facial muscles - is:
A) a decrease in force and range of motion of muscles
B) an increase in the strength and range of motion of muscles
C) complete absence of muscle movement
D) hyperkinesis and absence of muscle movements
E) muscle hyperkinesia
9.480. Hemiatrophy of the face is:
A) separate disease and as a symptom of main disease
B) separate disease
C) separate syndrome
D) symptom of the underlying disease
E) syndrome and symptom
9.481. At facial hemiatrophy show a variance:
A) on the skin, subcutaneous tissue, muscle and bone
B) on the skin and subcutaneous tissue
C) on the skin and muscles
D) on the subcutaneous tissue and muscle
E) on the skin and bones

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9.1.

Complex odontomas are characterized with following typical histological structure:

A) mixed with dental tissue forming a unified conglomerate

9.2. Simple odontomas are characterized with following histological structure:

A) a tooth-like structure presenting all dental tissues

9.3. The clinical course of complex odontomas are characterized with:

9.4. X-ray features of complex odontomas are:

A) limited radiopaque area in the form of tooth crown

A) clinical signs of the disease

9.35. Malignant tumor of fat tissue:

9.36. Which of the following is a Recklinghausen's tumour?

9.42. Which organ is most affected by the pleomorphic adenoma of

9.47. Exogenic factor which is playing role in tumor development:

9.48. Exogenic factor which is playing role in tumor development:

9.150. Precancerous lesion are:

9.171. Facial skin cancer T1N0M1. The stage of development is:

9.172. Facial skin cancer T3N3M0. The stage of development is:

9.173. Facial skin cancer T4N0M0. The stage of development is:

9.229. One should mark follow clinical form of osteoma:

9.230. Radiological picture of compact form of jaws osteoma:

9.231. Radiological picture of soft form of jaws osteoma:

9.232. Treatment of osteoma:

9.240. Treatment of osteoid-osteoma in maxillofacial region:

9.270. Main method of odontoma treatment:

9.271. Following of fibrose tissue is referred to tumors:

9.272. The following is peculiar to soft fibroma:

9.273. The following is referred to fibtomatosis:

9.274. Fibromatosis develops as a result of:

A) chronic mechanical iritation

9.275. Fibromatosis is mostly located on mucus:

A) mucolabial fold of vestibulum

A) excision of the tumor together with the bone

9.277. The following is typical for the clinical manifestation of ameloblastoma:

A) painless swelling of jaw

9.278. The following is peculiar to ameloblastoma radiology:

A) maxillar cortex resorbtion with clear boundaries and divided in to partitions

9.279. The main treatment method of ameloblastoma is:

A) around lower molar

9.281. Soft odontomas should be differentiated with:

9.282. The main treatment method for soft odontoma is:

A) tumor membrane curetage

9.283. Synonym for soft odontoma:

9.284. Is concern to obligate precancerous lesion:

9.285. Is not concern to obligate precancerous lesion:

9.286. Is concern to facultative precancerous lesion:

9.287. Is concern to facultative precancerous lesion:

9.289. Is concern to facultative precancerous lesion:

9.290. Is concern to facultative precancerous lesion:

9.292. Which test is using during stomatoscopy:

9.293. Is not concern to diagnosis biopsy:

9.294. Is not concern to the types of leukoplakia:

9.295. Which type is provokes the pain increasing on meal:

9.296. What is indicated by TNM system:

9.297. The treatment of choice for precancerous lesion of oral mucosa:

9.301. Indicate the lesion with highest potential of malignization:

9.302. The main etiological factor of development of precancerous lesion:

9.303. The main etiological factor of development of precancerous lesion:

9.304. The main etiological factor of development of precancerous lesion:

9.305. Is character for morphological picture of precancerous lesion:

9.306. Is character for morphological picture of precancerous lesion:

9.307. Is character for morphological picture of precancerous lesion:

9.308. Is character for morphological picture of precancerous lesion:

9.309. Are concern to precancerous lesion of the oral mucosa: