Mixifall Surgery 2022

AYHAM SYRIA iLovePDF
1. Which one from the below mentioned is nervous tissue tumor:

A) fibroma
B) neuroma
C) melanoma
D) osteoma
E) basaloma
2. T 1 N1 M0– ______________________:
A) the tumor is 4-7 cm wide, lymphatic nodes are felt on both sides, distant metastasis is
observed
B) the tumor is up to 2 cm wide, lymphatic nodes are felt on both sides, distant metastasis is
not observed
C) the tumor is up to 2 cm wide, lymphatic nodes are felt on one side, distant metastasis is not
observed
D) the tumor is 2-4 cm wide, lymphatic nodes are felt on both sides, distant metastasis is not
observed
E) the far tumor has spread to the neighboring areas, lymphatic nodes are felt on both sides,
metastasis is observed
3. Clinical picture of neuritis of the trigeminal nerve is characterized by:
A) long dull pain with a feeling of pressure and tension in the upper jaw, nasal discharge
B) short-term intense pain arising from random stimuli without sensitivity disorders
C) paroxysmal nocturnal pain lasting 15 to 30 minutes, radiating into the ear, temple
D) prolonged paroxysmal pain radiating to the ear, crackling in the temporomandibular joint
E) long, varying the intensity of pain, aggravated by pressure on the nerve
4. Which of below mentioned refers to the epithelial neoplasm:
A) lipoma
B) chondroma
C) lymphangioma
D) adenoma
E) neurinoma
5. If pleomorphic adenoma develops within minor salivary gland in case of which
localization the tumor growth will be assotiated with rigity?
A) hard palate
B) sublingual region
C) soft palate
D) cheek
E) retromolar region
6. The malignant tumor of fatty tissue is called:
A) haemangioma
B) fibroma
C) liposarcoma
D) lipoma
E) hibernoma
7. What is difference between lipoma and normal adiposus tissue:
A) equal sizes of lobes

B) unequal sizes of lobes
C) small and unequal sizes of lobes
D) big and euqal sizes of lobes
E) spheric shape of lobes
8. The facial skin cancer T1N2M0. The stage of cancer spread:
A) first
B) third
C) second
D) fifth
E) fourth
9. Which physical carcinogenic causes tumors:
A) non- polymerized plastic masses

B) genetically-modified food
C) sulfurcontaning substances
D) trauma
E) ultraviolet ray (beam)
10. Which drug is administered to the increasing dose to treat neuralgia:
A) promidol
B) vipraksin
C) glycine
D) finlepsin
E) Hydrocortisone
11. This exogenous factor induces tumors:
A) viral infection
B) primary immunodeficiency
C) hereditary factor
D) secondary immunodeficiency
E) weakness of antioxidant system
12. Radiation therapy in the preoperative period is referred on respect for the principle:
A) ablastic
B) asepsis
C) antiblastic
D) antiseptics
E) disinfection
13. The untime removal of odontomas at children leads to disturbution of:
A) mastication
B) formation and eruption of the teeth
C) formations of the face
D) development of the jaws
E) occlusion
14. Symptomatic treatment of the patients with malignant tumor of maxillofacial area is:
A) electrical coagulation
B) analgetics
C) chemotherapy
D) radiation therapy
E) laser coagulation
15. Myogenic contracture is a disease:
A) as a result of the violation of nervous regulation
B) caused by gross changes in the tissues surrounding the joint
C) occurs with the pain in the joint motion
D) caused by changes in the joint capsule or ligaments
E) as a result of changes in the muscles or after immobilization of the mandible (for fractures)
16. Point the stage of the cancer, according to TNM classification, of flat keratinizing
ulcer with 2 cm diameter on mandible alveolar ridge with one movable regional lymph
node with 1 cm diameter at the same side on the neck, distant metastasis isn’t
observed:
A) T2N1M0
B) T4N3M0
C) T2N0M0
D) T1N0M0
E) T3N2M0
17. to the tumors of salivary glands one shouldn’t concern:
A) cylindroma
B) monomorphic adenoma
C) acinic-celltumor
D) sialoadenosis
E) pleomorphic adenoma
18. Eosinophilic granuloma forms are distinguished:
A) With a holy place and diffuse
B) billion, focal, destroyed
C) Trabeculyar
D) Limited, focal, rolled
E) does not distinguish between forms
19. Patient has skin cancer T1N0M0. The stage of cancer spread:
A) first
B) second
C) fourth
D) fifth
E) third
20. Which stage of oral cavity cancer is hardly treatable:
A) I
B) III
C) IV
D) II
E) recidive
A) fourth
B) fifth
C) third
D) second
E) first
22. Changes in facial hemiatrophyinclude :
A) on the skin and subcutaneous tissue
B) on the subcutaneous tissue and muscle
C) on the skin and bones
D) on the skin and muscles
E) on the skin, subcutaneous tissue, muscle and bone
23. In case of dissection of the central trucnk of the facial nerve the parotidectomy
should be performed by the method of:
A) Bilroth
B) Calduell-Luc
C) Rhedon
D) Diffenbach
E) Kovtunovich
A) third
B) second
C) first
D) fourth
E) fifth
25. The X-ray picture of ameloblastic fibroma similar to the X-ray picture of:
A) odontoma
B) cementoma
C) sarcoma
D) ameloblastoma
E) intraosseous fibroma
26. Facial skin cancer T3N2M0. The stage of cancer spread:
A) first
B) second
C) fifth
D) third
E) fourth
27. Neuromatosis develop as a result of:
A) disturbance of embriogenesis
B) infections disease
C) inadeguate diet
D) chronic, mechanic irritation
E) badhabits
A) second
B) third
C) first
D) fifth
E) fourth
29. Typical sign of malignant tumors:
A) expansive growth
B) has clear boundaries
C) true capsule presence
D) slow growth
E) absence of clear boundaries
30. Typical sign of malignant tumors:
A) presence of a true capsule
B) slow growth
C) presence of atypical cells and tissues
D) has clear boundaries
E) expansive growth
31. What is myoplasty?
A) partial or complete muscle for transposition to the affected area

B) partial or complete nerve for the transposition to the affected area
C) partial or complete bone for transposition to the affected area
D) partial or total use of skin for transposition to the affected area
E) partial or complete muscle and skin for transposition to the affected area
32. Untypical sign of malignant tumors:
A) relatively autonomous growth
B) morphological atypia
C) presence of true capsule
D) infiltrative and invasive growth
E) TNM cclassification
33. Lip cancer is differentiated from:
A) ranula
B) syphilitic gumma
C) vascular tumors
D) leukoplakia
E) chronic inflammation
34. During localization of a myxoma on the maxilla can appears:
A) nasal bleeding
B) difficulty of the nasal breathing, exophthalm
C) xerophthalmiya
D) xerostomia
E) diplopia
35. In order to determine the names of the tumor which develops from epithelial tissue,
the following terms are used:
A) melanoma and sarcoma
B) carcinoma, adenocarcinoma
C) adenoma and papilloma
D) chondrosarcoma and osteosarcoma
E) sinovioma and fibroma
36. Specific TMJ arthritis is:
A) adolescent
B) brucellosis
C) purulent
D) traumatic
E) Stall's disease
37. Malignant tumors:
A) have tendency to metastasise and relapse
B) expansive growth only
C) clinical stages are absent
D) the absence of morphological and functional atypism
E) true capsule presence
38. The myxoma is usually localized in the area:
A) ramus and angle of a mandible
B) palatal processes of the maxilla
C) frontal bone
D) zygomatic bone
E) nasal bones
39. What determines the Kaposhi’s disease?
A) Excessive synthesis of prostaglandins

B) RNA synthesis distortion
C) Hypervitaminosis D
D) Inability of DNA to repair under ultraviolet radiation
E) Lack of Vitamin D with ultraviolet radiation
40. From connective tissue might develop:
A) nevus
B) papilloma
C) fibroma
D) adenoma
E) adenocarcinoma
41. Which one from the below mentioned is muscular tissue tumor:
A) leiomyoma
B) fibroma
C) melanoma
D) basaloma
E) osteoma
42. Which of the following tumors develop from muscular tissue:
A) leiomyoma
B) rhabdomyoma
C) osteoma and fibroma
D) leiomyosarcoma
E) rhabdomyosarcoma
43. Determine compliance:
Trigeminal neuralgia-
1 - the presence of trigger zones
2 - paroxysmal pain
3 - hyperhidrosis parotid-masticatory area
4 - tearing on the affected side
5 - hypersensitivity parotid-masticatory area
6 - redness of the parotid-masticatory area
A) 1, 2, 4
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 2, 3, 6
E) 3, 5, 6
44. Indicate the method of the surgical excision of parotid gland tumor:
A) byPhannelschtill
B) byBilroth
C) byCalduell-Luce
D) byMcBurney
E) byKavtumovich
45. Recurrence is:
A) patient's significant weight loss
B) development of the tumor with the same histological structure at the scar location after
perfomed radical treatment
C) the development of malignant tumors of other organs
D) worsening of current of cardiovascular system diseases
E) development of the tumor with different histological structure in stump location after
perfomed radical treatment
46. Point the types of cementoma, which treatment is carried out only by surgery:
A) the cementing fibroma

B) gigantoform cementoma and periapical displasia of cementum

C) periapical dysplasia of cement
D) the cementing fibroma and the benign cementoblastoma
E) gigantoforme cementoma
47. The tumor developing from connective tissue, more frequently spread by:
A) implantation
B) lymphogenous
C) ipsilateral lymphogenous
D) retrograde lymphogenous
E) hematogenous
48. Which method is used during investigation of paired organs tumor in order to
determine to which body part letter M applies to :
A) CT
B) blood chemistry
C) morphological study
D) MRI
E) PET
49. From epithelial tissue might develop:
A) osteoma
B) sarcoma
C) rhabdomyosarcoma
D) carcinoma
E) fibroma
50. Which one from the below mentioned is nervous tissue tumor:
A) osteoma
B) melanoma
C) basal cell carcinoma
D) schwannoma
E) fibroma
51. which one is not belong to local treatment in skin cancer:
A) cryotherapy
B) vitamin therapy
C) laser excising of tumor
D) excising of tumor
E) radiation therapy
52. In TNM classification letter N express:
A) metastases of regional nodes

B) primary tumor size
C) distant metastases
D) primary tumor color
E) primary tumor temperature
53. In TNM classification letter M express:
A) primary tumor size

B) primary tumor color
D) metastases of regional nodes
E) primary tumor temperature
54. Soft fibroma consists of:
A) collagen fibers, fibroblasts, histiocytes and fibroblasts

B) elementsofadiposetissue
C) fibrous connective and vascular tissue
D) fibrous connective and adipose tissue
E) fibroblasts or fibrocytes and large amount of collagen fibers
55. Which one from the below mentioned is considered to be malignant tumor:
A) lymphangioma
B) lipoma
C) liposarcoma
D) hemangioma
E) fibroma
56. Etiology distemper of mandibular pain syndrome
A) stress
B) diabetes mellitus
C) Ischemic stroke
D) Parkinson's illness
E) remission stage periodontitis
57. Incisional biopsy:

A) examination is done over the surface of lymph nodes
B) blood analysis
C) examination is done over all pathological lesion
D) examination is done over a part of tumor
E) examination is done deeply in lymph nodes
58. Puncture biopsy:
A) examination is done over all pathological lesion
B) tumor examination is done over a part of lesion
C) examination is done deeply in lymph nodes
D) examination is done over the material taken by syringe from lesion
E) examination is done over the surface of lymph nodes
59. An incisional biopsy refers to:
A) radiological method
B) pathohistological method
C) clinical method
D) biochemical methods
E) cytological method
60. In Treatment complications of radiation therapy everything listed, except:
A) sleep disorders
B) delicacies
C) leukopenias
D) Leukocytosis
E) nausea, vomitings
61. A trepan biopsy refers to:
A) clinical method
B) radiological method
C) biochemical method
D) cythological method
E) pathohistological method
62. In TNM classification letter T express:
A) metastases of regional nodes

B) primary tumor size
D) hematogenous metastases
E) nodal metastases
63. A smear examination refers to:
A) cytological methods
B) pathohisthological method
C) radiologicaly method
D) clinical methods
E) biochemical method
64. The incisional biopsy is carried out at:
A) cancer of the submandibular gland

B) cancer of the parotid gland
C) cancer of the thyroid gland
D) lymphadenopathy of cervical lymph nodes
E) cancer of the tongue
65. Patient E. H. 50 y. o presented with complains on swelling in the left half of the face.
Upon anamnesis the lesion has history of 3 years and showing slow growth. Clinically:
painless, movable, hard-elastic and movable lesion with clear boundaries and in size of
2x3 cm is detecting in left retromolar region; the overlying skin is not changed and
could be picket into the fold. The function of left Stenoni duct in not disturbed. The CT
scan data detecting lesion with clear boundaries within parenchyma of parotid gland.
Othe major salivary glands without changes. Establish clinical diagnosis:
A) Miculich disease
B) cyst of the excretory duct of the salivary gland
C) adenoma of salivary gland
D) calculousesialodenitis
E) bacterialsialodenitis
A) cancer of the parotid gland

B) lymphadenopathy of cervical lymph nodes
D) cancer of the submandibular gland
E) cancer of the oral cavity mucous
67. In the spongy substance of the bone develops:
A) chondroma
B) osteoblastoma
C) neuroma
D) osteoid-osteoma
E) hemangioma
68. The most informative method in diagnostics of obligate precancer of face skin:
A) thermovisiography
B) computer tomography
C) cytological
D) USM
E) pathohistological
69. The incisional biopsy isn’t carried out at:
A) lymphadenopathy of the cervical lymph nodes

B) cancer of the skin
C) cancer of the oral mucosa
D) cancer of the lower lip
E) cancer of the tongue
70. The patient suddenly developed following neurological symptoms in the right half
of the face: the patient can not raise an eyebrow, his eyes shut, to inflate the cheek,
mouth open in full, there is tearing right. The function of the nerve is broken:
A) of the trigeminal
B) n. oculomatorius
C) vestibular-cochlear
D) the optic
E) personal
71. Point the type of biopsy on the picture:
A) puncture
B) terepan
C) incisional
D) exicisional
E) FNA
72. The unit of measure of absorbed dose of radiation is:
A) roentgen;
B) kelvin.
C) curie;
D) selsi
E) Gray;
73. Point to the type of the biopsy, in which is carried out excision of the tumor and 2-3
mm of the surrounding tissue for pathohistological examination:
A) excisional biopsy
B) puncture biopsy
C) FNA
D) trepan biopsy
E) postoperative biopsy
74. The diagnosis of carcinoma is confirmed on the basis of:
A) pathohistological examination
B) laboratory examination
C) X-ray examination
D) microbiological examination
E) clinical examination
75. Indicate the surgical method of treatment of inferior lobe of parotid glad tumor:
A) sclerozation of the tumor
B) superficialparotidectomy with preserving of the branches of facial nerve
C) resection of inferior lobe
D) parotiectomy with preserving of the branches of facial nerve
E) enucleation of the tumor
76. The infiltrative tumor growth is typical for:
A) papilloma
B) nevrinoma
C) carcinoma
D) lipoma
E) fibroma
77. To benign tumors of the salivary glands, one shouldn't concern:
A) pleomorphic adenoma
C) sialoadenosis
D) cylindroma
E) oncocytoma
78. In contrast to the malignant tumors, benign tumor growth by ________way:
A) infiltrative
B) invasive
C) expansive
D) apposition
E) exudative
79. For malignant tumors is typical:
A) existence of the capsule

B) fast growth
C) without metastasis
D) slow growth
E) expansive development
80. It is obligate precancerous disease of lower lip:
A) leucoplagia
B) keratoacantoma
C) papilloma
D) lupus and erosive and hyperkeratous psoriasis
E) precancerous hiperkeratosis
A) hematogenous metastasis way

B) slow growth
C) expansive development
D) without metastasis
E) existence of the capsule
82. A puncture biopsy refers to:
A) pathohistological method
B) cytological method
C) radiological method
D) clinical method
83. The hematogenous metastasis way is more typical for:
A) lipoma
B) sarcoma
C) carcinoma
D) fibroma
E) papilloma
84. What are the clinical symptoms of benign tumors:
A) enlarged lymph nodes in palpation

B) fixed and jointed to surrounding tissues
C) painfull in palpation
D) having rounded shape and lobar structure
E) fluctuation over the tumor
85. In case of dissection of the perepherial branches of the facial nerve the
parotidectomy should be performed by the method of:
A) Bilroth
B) Rhedon
C) Calduell-Luc
D) Diffenbach
E) Kovtunovich
86. Which tumor’s synonim is pseudoeitheliomatous hyperplasia:
A) keratoacanthoma
B) Bowen's disease
C) cheilitis Manganotti
D) hyperkeratosis
E) liposarcoma
87. Clinically founds in patient:on lower lip’s mucosa 0,5 cm soft consistently lesion
withlarge pedincle, which occurs 3 month ago. Presented on picture. Doctor should:
A) therapy with antibiotics

B) remove one part of lesion and send to hystological examnation
C) punction of lesion and send to cytological examination
D) rinse mouth with antiseptics
E) remove full extent of lesion and send to hystological examnation
88. Keratoacanthoma grows:
A) quickly and painfully

B) quickly and painlessly
C) slow and painfully
D) slowly and painlessly
E) rate and charasteristic of the growth depends on the state of the organism
89. Papilloma develops from the elements of:
A) connective tissue
B) muscle tissue
C) blood
D) epithelial tissue
E) lymph
90. Papillomatosis is:
A) presence of papillomas on the skin, oral mucosa and vermilion border at the same time
B) multiple papillomas, which localized in definite area of the oral mucosa and skin
C) hyperkeratosis
D) several papillomas, which localized in different areas of the oral mucosa and skin
E) presence of several papillomas on the maxillofacial region
91. Paresthesia of facial muscles - is:
A) complete absence of muscle movement
B) decrease in force and range of motion of muscles
C) increase in the strength and range of motion of muscles
D) hyperkinesis and absence of muscle movements
E) musclehyperkinesia
92. Papilloma grows:
A) slowly and painlessly
B) quickly and painfully
C) quickly and painlessly
D) rate and charasteristics of the growth depends on the state of the organism
E) slow and painfully
93. Choose the row of benign tumors of salivary glands.
1) adenocarcinoma
2) pleomorphic adenoma
3) mucoepidermoid carcinoma
4) oncocytoma
A) 2, 4
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 2
E) 3, 4
94. Location of nevus:
A) in the subcutaneous fat layer
B) in the bone
C) periphericnerveendings
D) in muscular layer
E) on the skin
95. Fibroma develop from the elements of:
A) blood
B) muscle tissue
C) connective tissue
D) lymph
E) epithelial tissue
96. Which one of the following is considered to be specific TMJ arthritis:
A) adolescent
B) traumatic
C) purulent
D) syphilitic
E) Stall's disease
97. Hard fibroma consists of:
A) collagen fibers, fibroblasts, histiocytes and fibroblasts
B) adipose tissue and fibroblasts
C) fibroblasts or fibrocytes and large amount of collagen fibers
D) fibrous connective and adipose tissue
E) fibrous connective and vascular tissue

98. For 13 y. o. boy a diagnosis of monomorphic adenoma of the left salivary gland was
established. A boy is practically healthy. Determine treatment tactics:
A) radiotherapy
B) totalparotiectomy with preserving of the branches of the facial nerve
C) tumor resection within healthy tissues
D) observation
E) excochleation of the tumor
99. Angiofibroma of the skin consists of:
A) fibrous connective and adipose tissue
B) fibroblasts or fibrocytes and large amount of collagen fibers
C) fibrous connective and vascular tissue
D) elements of adipose tissue
E) collagen fibers, fibroblasts, histiocytes and fibroblasts
100. Fibromatous proliferation progresses at:
A) exhaustion
B) obesity
C) pregnancy
D) heart disease
E) the gastro-intestinal diseases
101. Prognostically the most unfavorable localization of floor of the mouth cancer:
A) alveololingual groove
B) posterior part with the transition to the root of the tongue
C) lateral part with the transition to language
D) anterior part
E) sublingual area
102. Fibromatosis of gum belongs to:
A) malign tumors
B) benign tumors
C) tumorlike lesions
D) sarkomatos process
E) precancer lesions
103. What kind of tumor , some authors do not consider to the true tumor , and believe
that it arises as a result of violations of fetal development and bone formation ?
A) osteosarcoma
B) fibroma
C) sarcoma
D) osteoma
E) hemangioma
104. Which is belong to tumors of fibrous tissue:
A) fibromatosis of gum
B) epulis
C) hard fibroma
D) eozinophilic granuloma
E) follicular cysts
105. How are called multiple lipomas:
A) fibrolipoma
B) hibernoma
C) lipomatosis
D) liposarcoma
E) nodulus lipoma
106. Fibromatosis of gum is formed, as a result of:
A) disturbance of embryogenesis
B) insoliation
C) hipersalivation
D) chronic mechanic irritation
E) dental implantation
107. The symptom of pseudofluctuationduring lipoma is observed:
A) when lipoma located near salivary glands
B) when lipoma located in deep of masseter muscle
C) when lipoma located near surface
D) in case of fibrolipoma
E) when lipoma’s capsule torned
108. During nevus it is noted:
A) scrambled speech
B) breathlessness
C) loose tooth of the second degree
D) rednees of mucous membrane
E) mole with melanin pigmented epidermis
109. How is called lipoma which developed fromvestigial brown fat:
A) fibrolipoma
B) mesenchimoma
C) desmoid
D) hibernoma
E) Madelung’s disease
110. The main treatment method of lipoma is:
A) surgical
B) mixed-combined
C) chemicaltrerapy
D) cryodestruction
111. The patient NA 38-year-old complaint of a violation of the right eyebrow mobility,
the violation of the mobility of the right upper eyelid. From anamnesis: the patient
underwent osteosynthesis of the right condyle of the mandible with pre-auricular
access 3 days ago. Clinically: dysmotility and ptosis of the right eyebrow, a violation of
the right upper eyelid mobility. Carried out electroneuromyographic study suggests
anatomical integrity of all branches of the facial nerve. What diagnosis can be made?
A) auricular-temporal syndrome
B) posttraumatic neuropathy temporal branch of the facial nerve
C) facial paresis of the right facial nerve
D) posttraumatic neuralgia III branch of the trigeminal nerve
E) paralysis of the right facial muscles
112. What is the name of soft tissue tumors, which developed from paragagnglionar
structures:
A) mesenchimoma
B) meningioma
C) chemodektoma
D) ganglionevrinoma
E) neurinoma and neurofibroma
113. Leiomyosarcoma is characterized by:
A) the formation in skin with clear contours, a smooth surface and a soft consistence
B) the formation of a soft consistence, pale color, with small areas of necrosis
C) the formation of a dense consistence, pale color, with small areas of necrosis
D) spherical shape, less movable and less painful
E) the formation of various sizes in the subcutaneous or deep tissues, soft consistence, less
painful
114. Synonym of neuroma is:
A) rabdomioma
B) Abrikosov’s tumor
C) Malanchuk’s tumor
D) schwannoma
E) Bowmen’s disease
115. Which of the following is a Recklinghausen's tumour:
A) neurinoma
B) fibroma
C) neurofibromatosis
D) malignant schwannoma
E) papilloma
116. is called contracture
A) Hyperfunction
B) hypofunction
C) restrictions of movements joint
D) vidperelomachelyust
E) parafunction
117. Complaint of 4 years old child’s mom: painless and gradually growing tumor on
child’stongue that occur 2 month ago. During the inspectionfounds lesion, which is painless
at palpation, soft-elastic consistently, located on large pedincle on tip of the tongue.
Which can beinitial diagnosis:
A) lipoma
B) fibroma
C) lymphangioma
D) hemangioma
E) papilloma
118. Malignant epithelial tumors of salivary glands
A) adenolymphoma
B) Warthin tumor
C) pleomorphic adenoma
D) adenocarcinoma
E) monomophic adenoma
119. Patient has complaint with lesion on tip of tongue. Anamnes: lesion occured 3
month ago,growth gradually. Clinically: lesion’s size is 6-7 mm, painless at palpation,
doesn’t bleeding, soft consistently, has a pedincle. Presents on picture. Doctor should:
A) remove one part of lesion and send to hystological examnation

B) punction of lesion and send to cytological examination
C) therapy with antibiotics
D) rinse mouth with antiseptics
E) remove full extent of lesion and send to hystological examnation
120. The facultative precancerous lesion of the skin face is:
A) dermatitis
B) papilloma
C) psoriasis
D) radioepidermitis
E) Bowen’s disease
121. For the cytological diagnosis of melanoma is used:
A) aspiration biopsy
B) incisional biopsy
C) excisional biopsy
D) blind biopsy
E) smear test
122. Fibrosarcoma is characterized by:
A) spherical shape, less movable and less painful
B) the formation of various sizes in the subcutaneous or deep tissues, soft consistence, less
painful
C) the formation with nodes of grayish-pink or brown color
D) the formation of a soft consistence, pale color, with small areas of necrosis
E) the formation of a dense consistence, pale color, with small areas of necrosis
123. Which of the following tumors has the most bad prognosis:
A) botriomicoma
B) nevus
C) squamous cell carcinoma
D) melanoma
E) basal cell carcinoma
I - Syndrome Frey
II - Neuritis of the trigeminal nerve
3 - dull persistent pain
4 - drop all kinds of sensitivity in the area of innervation
5 - tonic contractions of masticatory muscles
I II
A) 1, 2, 3 4, 5, 6
B) 1, 2, 4 3, 5, 6
C) 3, 5, 6 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 6 3, 4, 5
E) 2, 3, 4 1, 5, 6
125. Infiltrative form of cancer could be rare found on:
A) oral mucosa
B) lower lip
C) upper lip
D) the skin of the neck
E) facial skin
126. Facial skin cancer T4N2M0. The stage of development is:
A) first
B) third
C) fourth
D) second
E) fifth
127. Which main variants of osteosarcoma may be chosen by its X-ray picture ?
A) osteoplastic and sclerotic
B) hyperplastic and osteoplastic
C) osteoplastic and osteolytic
D) osteolytic and osteoclastic
E) changes are not observed radiographically
128. Location of nevus:
A) in muscular layer
B) on the skin
C) peripheric never endings
D) in the subcutaneous tissue
E) in the bone
129. Point chemical carcinogenic substance plays role in tumor formation:
A) plastic substances without polymerization
B) ionized substances
C) substances containing sulfur
D) polycyclic aromatic carbohydrates
E) genetically-modified food (Gm foods)
130. Which one is not related to skin cancer:
A) shwanoma
B) melanoma
C) bazal cell carsinoma
D) Mercel’s cell carsinoma

E) SCC
A) SCC
B) bazal cell carsinoma
C) nevus
E) melanoma
132. posttreatment of the patient with a malignant tumor, it is necessary to begin:
A) In the course of performing special therapy.
B) From the moment of diagnosis.
C) After the end of special therapy.
D) The 5th years later after the end of special treatment
E) 2 years later after the end of special treatment.
133. The facultative precancerous skin disease is:
A) Hishpron disease
B) Behcet disease
C) actinit kratosis
D) Kaposi’s diseases
E) Diubrale melanose
134. Typical X-ray picture of the ameloblastoma:
A) in the form of uni or multi cystic cavities
B) in the form of osteal defect with corroded edges
C) in the form of the ossification centers
D) in the form of osteoporosis with existence of sequesters
E) alternating of parts of osteosclerosis and osteoporosis
135. Good prognosis in skin cancer:
A) basal cell carcinoma

B) adenocarcinoma
C) solid carcinoma
D) small cell carcinoma
E) squamous cell carcinoma

136. Point the form of skin cancer which doesn’t give metastases and has local
destructive grow:
A) not keratizing squamous cell carcinoma

B) basal cell carcinoma
C) adenocarcinoma
D) not diffrentiated cancer
E) keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma
137. T2N2M0– _______________________:
A) the tumor is up to 2 cm wide, lymphatic nodes are felt on one side, distant metastasis is not
observed
B) the tumor is up to 2 cm wide, lymphatic nodes are felt on both sides, distant metastasis is
not observed
C) the tumor is 2-4 cm wide, lymphatic nodes are felt on both sides, distant metastasis is not
observed
D) the tumor is 4-7 cm wide, lymphatic nodes are felt on both sides, distant metastasis is
observed
E) the far tumou has spread to the neighboring areas, lymphatic nodes are felt on both sides,
metastasis is observed.
138. The obligate form of melanoma:
A) Behcet disease
B) intradermal nevus
C) Dubreuilh melanose
D) pigmented xeroderma
E) Bowen disease
139. Rarely occurring tumor-like lesions, which rapidly is increased and protrudes area
of bone , which can be painful it is :
A) osteoma
B) hemangioma
C) aneurysmal bone cyst
D) fibrous dysplasia
E) eosinophilic granuloma
140. The exogenousfactor which is playing role in tumor development:
A) secondary immune deficiency

B) heredity
C) virus infection
D) primary immune deficiency
E) weakening of antioxidant system

141. The main treatment method of patient with oncology disease of maxillofacial area:
A) chemotherapy
B) radiation therapy
C) palliative therapy
D) surgical, chemotherapy, radiation therapy
E) surgical
142. A fine needle aspiration biopsy refers to:
A) clinical method
B) pathohistological method
C) radiological method
D) cythological method
143. The most frequent clinical forms of cancer of the oral cavity mucosa:
A) papillar
B) ulcerous
C) infiltrative-ulcerous
D) infiltrative
E) submucosal
144. Patient NA 38-year-old complained of periodic appearance of pain, skin reddening
and perspiration droplets in the right parotid-masticatory area. From anamnesis: the
patient suffered parotidectomy maintaining branches of the facial nerve on the
pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid gland. Patient notes that the symptoms
manifested mainly when eating. Clinically: the skin redness in the right parotid-
masticatory area, linear postoperative scar. What diagnosis can be made?
A) auricular-temporal Frey's syndrome
B) trigeminal neuralgia
C) trigeminal nerve neuritis

D) arthritis of the temporomandibular joint
E) keloidscar
145. The main treatment method of oral mucosa cancer:
A) surgical
B) combined
C) chemotherapy
D) palliative treatment
146. Which of the following lymph node is more likely to host the metastasis of lip
cancer:
A) temporal
B) neck
C) parotid
D) parapharyngeal
E) buccal
147. Which form of osteoclastomy radiographically differentiates?
A) cystic , cystoid, lytic
B) mesh like, cystoid , osteoid
C) cystic , cystoid , osteoid
D) cellular , cystic , lytic
E) mesh , cystic , osteoid
148. Tongue cancers treatment at the stage T3N2M0 is:
A) a half-tongue resection and radical neck dissection
B) tumor resection within healthy tissues
C) 2/3 tongue resection and fascio-circular neck dissection
D) a half-tounge resection and dissection of the upper neck
E) palliative
149. Tongue cancers treatment at the stage T2N3M0 is:
A) a half-tounge resection and dissection of the upper neck
B) palliative
C) 2/3 tongue resection and fascio-circular neck dissection
D) tumor resection within healthy tissues
E) a half-tongue resection and radical neck dissection
150. Fast growing of the obligate precancer of lips characteristic for:
A) hyperplasia
B) malignization
C) hyperkeratosis
D) inflammatory process
E) necrosis
151. The most frequently location of cancer of oral cavity is:
A) alveolar ridge of maxilla
B) alveolar ridge of mandible
C) floor of oral cavity
D) mucosa of maxilla
E) tongue
152. The size of the primary tumor for T2 lip cancer:
A) up to 4 cm
B) up to 2 cm
C) tumor expanded to adjacent structures
D) more than 4 cm
E) basal layer is not invaded
153. Malignant tumor of the walls of blood vessels:
A) angiosarcoma
B) hemangioma
C) lymphangiosarcoma
D) rabdomioma
E) lymphosarcoma
154. The primary element of endophytic form of the initial stage of tongue cancer:
A) submucosal infiltration
B) hyperkeratosis
C) mucosa necrosis
D) fissure, ulcer on the mucosa
E) hyperplasia of mucosa
155. The simple odontoma is included:
A) germs of two teeth nearby standing

B) periodontium tissues
C) several germs of teeth
D) germ of one tooth

E) pulp tissues
156. The clinical picture of stage I tongue cancer is characterized by:
A) without symptoms
B) primary site up to 1 cm, spreading to the entire depth of the mucosa
C) ulcer up to 1. 5-2 cm, spreading to the muscular layer, single metastases
D) ulcer, spreading to adjacent organs, multiple regional and distant metastases
E) ulcer, spreading to adjacent anatomical structures, multiple metastases
157. It is non-malignant tumor of oral cavity:
A) adenocarcinoma
B) sarcoma
C) papilloma
D) squamouse cell carcinoma
E) melanoma
158. In 13 y. o. adolescence dentist detect enlargement and firmness of the right
parotid gland. During palpation the surface of the gland is irregular. The overlying skin
without changes. The lymphatic nodes are enlarged both sides; painless and not
sticked to the skin and adjacent tissues. Upon anamnesis, the lesion exisit over 1,5
month and showing reasonable growth. Indicate the investigation plan:
A) contrastsialography, sialometry, punctional biopsy
B) contrastsialography, radioizitope investigation, punctional biopsy
C) incisional biopsy, MRI, radioisotope investigation
D) US, radioisotope investigation, incisional biopsy
E) US, thermography, incisional biopsy
159. Which is right for 0 stage tongue cancer:
A) T3N2M0
B) T4N3M0
C) TisN0M0
D) T2N1M0
E) T1N0M0
160. X-ray picture of osteoblastoklastoma cellular form looks like:
A) focal destruction of cancellous bone throughout the jaw
B) osseous changes such as "melting sugar"
C) Cystic hearth with clear boundaries, which contains the rudiments of teeth
D) bony changes such as "frosted glass"
E) homogeneous hearth with a plurality of cavities separated by a bony trabeculae
161. The clinical picture of stage IV tongue cancer characterized by:
A) primary site up to 1 cm, spreading to the entire depth of the mucosa
B) ulcer up to 1. 5-2 cm, spreading to the muscular layer, single metastases
C) ulcer up to 2 cm, multiple metastases
D) without symptoms
E) ulcer, spreading to adjacent organs, multiple regional and distant metastases
162. At which stage of oral cancer 5-year survival rate is highest:
A) IV
B) II
C) at relapses
D) III
E) I
163. Point the type of biopsy on the picture:
A) exicisional
B) puncture
C) incisional
D) trepan
E) FNA
164. Typical for keratinized form of lower lip squamous cell carcinoma:
A) rapid growth, early metastasis
B) rapid growth, late metastasis
C) slow growth, early metastasis

D) rapid growth without metastasis
E) slow growth, late metastasis
165. Indicate malignant tumor of salivary gland
A) lipoma
B) limfangioma
C) neurinoma
D) mucoepidermod carcinoma
E) hemangioma
166. It is not a facultative precancerous diseases of lower lip:
A) keratous skin
B) papilloma
C) cheilitis
D) Bowen’s disease
E) leucoplagia
167. The clinical picture of stage I cancer of the lower lip is characterized by:
A) primary site up to 1 cm, spreading to the entire depth of the mucosa

B) ulcer, spreading to adjacent anatomical structures, multiple metastases
C) ulcer up to 2 cm, spreading to the muscular layer, single metastases
D) ulcer, spreading to adjacent organs, multiple regional and distant metastases
E) without symptoms
A) melanoma
B) SCC
C) bazal cell carsinoma
E) osteosarkoma
169. What is the main symptom of oral cancer involving secondary infection:
A) intoxication
B) mucosa necrosis
C) pain in primary site
D) fever
E) chronic diseases
170. The main principles of the developments of the Bowen disease:
A) Lack of Idodine
B) Lack of Vitamin C
C) Excessive intake of Aspirin
D) Ultraviolet radiation and contact with arsenic

E) Lead poisoning
171. The main clinical manifestation of floor of the mouth cancer is:
A) ulcer without edge infiltration
B) inflammatory infiltrate
C) erosion without edge infiltration
D) hyperemia and edema the mucosa
E) ulcerate infiltration, soldered to surrounding tissues
172. Prognostically the most favorable localization of floor of the mouth cancer:
A) anterior part
B) lateral part
C) sublingual area
D) alveololingual groove
E) posterior part
173. The most effective additional method of diagnosis of the tumors of salivary glands
A) isotopic investigation
B) thermoviziography
C) sialotomography
D) ultrasonund
E) cytology
174. Additional methods of examination for preliminary diagnose for floor of the mouth
cancer in a clinic:
A) radiological
B) cytology
C) ultrasound
D) tomography
E) clinical
175. The lymphagenous metastasis way is more typical for:
A) sarcoma
B) lipoma
C) papilloma
D) carcinoma
E) fibroma
176. Choose incorrect answer:
A) Bowen’s lesion always transfers to the squamous-cell carcinoma
B) tongue cancer is more frequent cancer of oral cavity
C) mucoepidermoid carcinoma occurs in every age, but only within the parotid salivary gland
D) fibrosarcoma is the malignant epithelial tumor
E) cylindroma gives metastasis by hematogen way
177. cause of contractures of a mandible
A) arthrosis
B) arthritis
C) a foreign body in muscle
D) pulpit
E) periodontitis
A) Angiosarcoma is the malignant epithelial tumor
B) tongue cancer is more frequent cancer of oral cavity
C) Bowen’s lesion always transfers to the squamous-cell epithelioma
D) mucoepidermoid carcinoma occurs in every age, but only within the parotid salivary gland
179. To the features of pleomorphic adenoma one should concern
A) primary destruction of the tumor
B) shows development with infiltration into adjacent tissues
C) has inflammatory compound
D) shows painless development
E) showsmulticentral growth
180. In many cases occurs:
A) Gipotonikov
B) in neonates
C) the loss of teeth
D) in pregnant women
E) Gipotonikov
181. The malignant tumor of nerve sheath is called:
A) fibrosarcoma
B) malignant Schwannoma
C) lymphosarcoma
D) retikuloendoteliosarkoma
E) Ewings sarcoma
182. Angiosarcomy is characterized by:
A) the formation of a dense consistence, pale color, with small areas of necrosis
B) spherical shape, sedentary and less painful
C) the formation of a soft consistence, pale color, with small areas of necrosis
D) the formation of various sizes in the subcutaneous or deep tissues, soft consistence, less
painful
E) the formation with nodes of grayish-pink or brown color
183. Liposarcomy is characterized by:
A) the formation of various sizes in the subcutaneous or deep tissues, soft consistence, less
painful
C) the formation with nodes of grayish-pink or brown color
D) spherical shape, less movable and less painful
E) the formation of a dense consistence, pale color, with small areas of necrosis
184. What is neuralgia:
A) Nevra - nucleosalgia- pain
B) nevra - nucleos, algia - sensitivity
C) Nevr – cell, algia-pain
D) Neyron – nerve, algos-pain
E) there is no such term
185. The malignant Schwannoma is characterized by:
A) spherical shape, less movable and less painful
C) the formation of a dense consistence, pale color, with small areas of necrosis
D) the formation of a with nodes of grayish-pink or brown color
E) the formation of various sizes in the subcutaneous or deep tissues, soft consistence, less
painful
186. Is character to clinical picture of the malignant tumor of salivary gland:
A) Albright syndrom
B) the node with minimal mobility and pain within gland
C) pain, enlargement of the gland, hyposalivation
D) slight firmness of the whole gland
E) pain, diminishing of the gland sizes, pypersalivation
187. Define the pathology of benign tumors of salivary glands.
A) mucoepidermoid carcinoma
B) initial malignant pleomorphic adenoma
C) carcinoma
D) pleomorphicadenoma
E) malignizated pleomorphi cadenoma
188. Malignant tumor of the walls of blood vessels:
A) angioendotelioma
B) hemangioma
C) lymphangiosarcoma
D) lymphosarcoma
E) rabdomioma
189. The exofitic form of cancer seen very rare:

A) skin of lower lip
B) skin of face
C) mucous membrane of oral cavity
D) skin of neck
E) skin of upper lip
190. This tumors doesn't belong to ameloblastomas:
A) true amelobstoma
B) ameloblastic fibroma
C) firm odontoma
D) adenoameloblastoma
E) odontoateloblastoma
191. Paresis - is:
A) the lack of coordination
B) lack of sensitivity
C) the lack of physical activity
D) the restriction of muscle activity
E) dysautonomia (violation of the autonomic functions n \ C)
192. Which ones are not belong Neuritis trigeminal nerve:
1 - smoothing nasolabial folds
2 - smoothing the frontal folds
6 - a burning sensation in the eye due to drying
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 6
E) 3, 5, 6
193. Synonym of the ameloblastic fibroma is:
A) gamartoma
B) сementoma
C) ossifying fibroma
D) firm odontoma
E) soft odontoma
194. The treatment of ameloblastoma consists of:
A) tumor enacluation
C) resection of a jaw together with a tumor within healthy tissues and reconstruction of the
resection site
D) corticosteroid therapy
E) treatment with drugs the stopping tumors grow
195. The ameloblastoma is differentiated with:
A) osteoma
B) fibroma
C) myxoma
D) odontoma
E) radicular cyst
196. Papilloma is:
A) papillary, malignant connective tissue tumor of the skin, vermilion border and mucosa
B) papillary, benign connective tissue tumor of the skin, vermilion border and mucosa
C) papillary, benign epithelial tumor of the skin, vermilion border and mucosa
D) lesion of skin, vermilion border and mucosa withpedincle
E) papillary,malignant epithelial tumor of the skin, vermilion border and mucosa
197. T4N2M1choose the correct variant:
I. the tumor is up to 2 cm wide
II. the tumor has spread to the neighboring areas
III. lymphatic nodes are felt on both sides
IV. lymphatic are with the affected side
V. the further metastasis is not observed
VI. the further metastasis is observed
A) I,III,IV
B) II,IV,VI
C) I,III,V.
D) II,III,VI
E) I,III,VI
198. The diagnosis of the ameloblastoma is confirmed by:
A) by poll
B) clinicoradiological research
C) patohistological research
D) cytology
E) blood test
199. Swallowing disorder called:
A) dysphagia
B) dysarthria
C) dystonia
D) dysplasia
E) dysphonia
200. The odontoma – is:
A) a tumor developing from malassa cell

B) a tumor developing from a bone tissue
C) malformation of tooth tissues
D) a tumor developing from a mature collagen and fibrous tissue
E) true tumor
201. The obligateprecancers of lip is:
A) syphiloma
B) lichenplanus
C) pigmented nevus
D) exfoliativecheilitis
E) cheilitis Manganotti
202. Find nonexistent type of the histological structure of a true ameloblastoma:
A) plexyfar
B) bazal-cellular
C) ossifying
D) acanthoz
E) follicular
203. The complex odontoma is included:
A) tissues of one tooth

B) tissues only cementum
C) tissues only periodontium
D) tissues only dentine
E) sets of correctly formed dental germs
204. The damage on which part of the facial nerve appears with the motion violation?
A) In the bone canal (the part till the place of separation with n. petrosusmajoris)
B) During nucleus damage
C) At the part that goes on till the separation from n stapedius
D) The roots facial nerves where they exit from the brain stump
E) At the exit of the holestylomastoid
205. Point to the most informative method for diagnosis of the odontoma:
A) laboratory
B) biochemical
C) sialography
D) clinical
E) radiological
A) metastasis
B) without metastasis
C) existence of the capsule
D) expansive development
E) slow growth
207. Point to tumor with the most dense tissue:
A) ameloblastoma
B) osteoma
C) osteoid osteoma
D) odontoma
E) cementoma
208. Tumor-like lesions of bone which present focal anosteoplasia is :
A) osteoma
B) eosinophilic granuloma
C) fibrous dysplasia
D) hemangioma
E) fibroma
209. Point to the cause of the odontoma recurrence:
A) not correctly established diagnosis
B) gross interventions of the doctor
C) not the remove of the capsule

D) wrong suturing of the wound
E) not the remove of part of the odontoma
210. Which of the following tumor is malignant:
A) osteoma
B) osteoid-osteoma
C) osteochondroma
D) osteosarcoma
E) fibrous histiocytoma
211. Pain in the chamber I branch of the trigeminal nerve are distributed:
A) across the face
B) in the lower third
C) in the occipital region
D) in the upper third of the face
E) in the middle third
212. Cementoma develops from:
A) vascular tissue
B) connecting tissue
C) nervous fibers
D) lymphatic vessels
E) epithelial tissue
A) malignizated pleomorphic adenoma
B) oncocytoma
C) carcinoma
D) mucoepidermoid carcinoma
E) initial malignant pleomorphic adenoma
214. The main method of diagnosis of cementoma:
A) lymphography
B) PET
C) clinical examination
D) x-ray
E) sialography
215. Coronal and root odontoma belong to _________ group of odontoma:
A) complex
B) incomplete
C) displaced
D) simple
E) full
216. The myxoma is a tumor, which is consist of:
A) connecting tissue
B) mucous tissue
C) vessels and nerves
D) epithelial tissue
E) muscular tissue
217. For 2 y. o. boy diagnosis of cystic form of lymphangioma of the right parotid and
neck region was established. Indicate treatment:
A) diathermocoagulation
B) sclerosing
C) concervative treatment – antibiotic therapy and physiotherapy
D) selectivephotothermolysis
E) surgical treatment including step-like cystotomy and cystoectomy
218. Palliative treatment of patients with malignant tumor of maxillofacial area is:
A) analgetics
B) radical surgery
C) using cardiac glycosides
D) physiotherapy
219. The treatment of the myxoma:
A) physiotherapeutic
B) enucleation of the tumor
C) rentgentherapy
D) chemotherapy
E) surgical – partial or full resection of the jaw
220. At what form of osteoblastoklastoma a rapid growth and bone destruction

followed by pathological fracture of the mandible?
A) solid
B) cellular
C) cystic
D) lytic
E) fibrous
221. The malignant ameloblastic fibroma metastasizes:
A) in regional lymph nodes and muscles

B) in regional lymph nodes and skin
C) in regional lymph nodes and internal organs
D) in regional lymph nodes and brain
E) in regional lymph nodes and bones
222. The most common histological form of oral mucosa cancer:
A) melanoma
B) squamous cell carcinoma
C) sarcoma
D) basal cells carcinoma
E) adenocarcinoma
223. Point to the type of the biopsy, in which is carried out excision of the small part of
tumor for pathohistological examination:
A) excisional biopsy
B) trepan biopsy
C) FNA
D) incisional biopsy
E) puncture biopsy
224. In odontogenic fibroma the impacted teeth:
A) is occasional
B) can be
C) with enamel dysplasia
D) with destruction of a crown
E) cann’t be
225. In which operation is most likely the damage of the facial nerve?
A) Removal of submandibular salivary gland
B) Cheiloplasty
C) Removal of sublingual salivary gland
D) Rhinoseptoplasty
E) Parotidektomy
226. The main method of diagnosis of odontogenic fibroma:
A) lymphography
B) sialography
C) PET
D) clinical examination
E) X-ray
227. From epithelial tissue might develop:
A) osteoma
B) sarcoma
C) rhabdomyosarcoma
D) fibroma
E) adenoma
228. Osteoblastoma is synonym for:
A) hemangioma
B) lipoma
C) osteoblastosarkoma
D) bazalioma
E) giant cell tumor
229. Surgical treatment of an adenoameloblastoma consists of:
A) resections of a certain area of a jaw with a tumor within healthy tissues

B) tumor curettage
C) radiation therapy
D) tumor enucleation
E) resection of the maxilla with excision the regional of lymph nodes
230. The facial skin cancer Т1 N1М1. The stage of cancer spread:
A) first
B) third
C) fifth
D) second
E) fourth
231. Point to the type of cementoma, which has capsule:
A) periapical cementoblastoma
B) the cementing fibroma and the benign cementoblastoma
C) benign cementodisplazia
D) gigantoforme cementoma
E) gigantoforme cementoma and periapical cementodisplazia
232. Which ones are not belong the paresis of the facial nerve central origin:
1 -as a result of stroke
2 - with malignancy in the brain
3 -after parotidectomy
4 - after the bullet wound of maxillofacial area
5 - in severe infection
6 - the removal of hemangioma parotid-masticatory area
A) 3, 4, 6
B) 4, 5, 6
C) 1, 5, 6
D) 2, 5, 6
E) 1, 2, 4
233. Indicate typical clinical feature of benign tumor of salivary gland:
A) by Albright syndrome
B) by pain, expansion of the gland, hyposalivation
C) by steadfastness of whole gland
D) by pain, reduction of the gland, hypersalivation
E) by presence of painless lesion within the gland which is not stick to adjacent tissues
234. Depend on structure of tumor tissue, osteoma is in following types :
A) compact and spongy
B) primary and secondary
C) the correct and false
D) limited and diffuse

E) homogeneous and inhomogeneous
235. Character of the growth of the cementoma:
A) imfiltirative
B) infitirative-invasive
C) destructive
D) invasive
E) expansive
236. Which functional disorders may occur when osteoma located on the zygomatic
arch ?
A) violation of swallowing
B) diplopia
C) limitation of mouth opening
D) hearing impairment
E) lacrimation
237. In which of the follow glands adenolymphoma occurs more frequently?
A) parotid gland
B) submandibular gland
C) sublingual gland
D) minor salivary glands of the palate
E) minor salivary glands of cheek
238. Differential diagnosis of cancellous osteoma forms is carried out :
A) neurofibromatosis , chondroma and osteosarcoma
B) ossificans fibroma , chondroma and neurofibromatosis
C) neurofibromatosis , neuroma and osteosarcoma
D) ossificans fibroma , chondroma and osteosarcoma
E) neurofibromatosis , neuroma and chondroma
239. Synonym of adeno-cystic carcinoma
A) mucoepidermoid tumor
C) acinic-cell tumor
D) pleomorphic adenoma
E) cylindroma
240. What can we observe on palpation of osteosarcoma:

A) immovable, dense consistency, mucous membrane stretched over it
B) immovable, loose consistency, mucous membrane stretched over it
C) mobile, dense consistency, mucous membrane stretched over it
D) mobile, loose consistency, mucous membrane is not stretched over it
E) immovable, dense consistency, mucous membrane is not stretched over it
241. Changes that occur in the body when Paget's disease:
A) actinic skin
B) dry mucous membranes
C) the occurrence of bone exostosis
D) bone deformation, bending, breaking
E) oral bleed
242. "Spicules" is:

A) bony canals
B) bone needles
C) bone flutes
D) bone cavities
E) cartilage bumps
243. Treatment of odontogenic fibroma consists of the following:
A) on the maxilla: a curettage or an enucleation; on the mandible: economical or segmentary

resection
C) chemotherapy
D) removal of the tumor with the capsule
E) symptomatic treatment
A) existence of the capsule

B) without metastasis
C) slow growth
D) lymphagenous metastasis way
E) expansive development
245. Chondroma distinguishes depending on location:

A) perichondroma and ecchondroma
B) enchondroma and hypochondroma
C) enchondroma and ecchondroma
D) hyperchondroma and hypochondroma
E) enchondroma and hyperchondroma
246. Is character for the contrast radiological picture of the benign tumor of salivary
gland:
A) narrowing of the all excretory ducts
B) defect of the filling of contrast substance with clear countures
C) equial filling of the ducts by contrast substance
D) the cavities within gland
E) defect of the filling of contrast substance with unclear countures
247. Osteoclastoma is:
A) a malignant tumor that affects the various bones of the skeleton
B) a benign tumor that affects only the jaw bones
C) a benign tumor that affects the various bones of the skeleton
D) benign tumor that affects only the soft tissues adjacent to the jaws
E) a malignant tumor that affects only the jaw bones
248. The odontogenic fibroma consists of:
A) collagen and epithelial tissue
B) nervous tissue
C) connecting tissue
D) muscular tissue
E) mucous tissue
249. Which factor can lead to malginization of nevus to melanoma:
A) Human papilloma virus

B) trauma
C) smoking
D) alcohol
E) Ebstain Bar virus
250. Grossly fibrosarcoma represents:

A) friabla tumor tissue with gray-white color
B) dense tumor tissue with black color
C) dense tumor tissue with gray-white color
D) friable tumor tissue with black color
E) friable brownish tumor tissue with areas of atrophy
251. The primary element of submucosal infiltrative form of the initial stages of tongue
cancer is:
A) hyperkeratosis
B) mucosa necrosis
C) gumma
D) hyperplasia of mucosa
E) submucosal infiltration
252. Specify the form of fibrous dysplasia:
A) poliossal and multi-bone
B) monoossal and poliossal
C) diossal and multi-bone
D) periossal and monoossal
E) monoossal and one-bone
253. Most of all corresponds to the term "operability":
A) the condition of patient allowing to execute symptomatic operation
B) the condition of patient allowing to execute partial operation
C) the condition of patient allowing to execute operation
D) the condition of patient allowing to execute radical operation
E) the condition of patient allowing to execute palliative operation
254. After which kind of the surgery auriculo-temporal syndrome could develop:
A) removal of submandibular gland
B) partialparotidectomy
C) osteosynthesis in mental region of the mandible
D) removal of ateroma of suprabrow region
E) totalparotiectomy of parotid gland
255. Cherubism is:
A) monoossalfibrous osteodisplasia
B) disease characterized by deformation of the femoral and tibial bones
C) hyperpigmentation of the skin

D) deformity of the nasal bones
E) poliossal fibrous osteodisplasia
256. Which substance takes part in pigmentation of nevus:
A) choline
B) lizosim
C) organicsubstances
D) hemoglobine
E) melanin
257. Neoplasm with a brown color with a cut occurring areas of necrosis, hemorrhage,
and many cysts with hemorrhagic content is:
A) ameloblastoma
B) giant cell tumor
C) osteodisplasia
D) cherubism
E) osteodystrophy
258. The source of inflammation in contact TMJ arthritis more frequently is:
A) TMJ injury
B) rhinogenous inflammation
C) otitis
D) odontogenic inflammation
E) inflammatory diseases of the oral mucosa
259. Myofascial pain dysfunction characteristic face:
A) hypoesthesia in the area of the affected muscles
B) hypersensitivity in the affected muscles
C) hypertrophy of the affected muscles
D) atrophy of the affected muscles
E) tenderness of the affected muscles during chewing and mouth opening
260. Clinicoroentgenological form of osteoblastoma is:
A) osteoblastic
B) polymorphic
C) fibrous
D) cellular
E) serous
261. Respect for the principles of zonalities when performing oncologic operations is
referred:
A) on providing an ablastic
B) on decreasing risk of postoperative complications
C) on decreasing of risk of surgical interventions
D) on providing an antiblastic
E) on the maximum conservation of function of the organ
262. The clinical picture by giant cell tumor is characterized:
A) dense infiltrate painful in a few teeth

B) asymptomatic contracture jaws
C) deformation of the jaw bone and tooth mobility in this area
D) loose painful bleeding gums erosions
E) the presence of multiple fistulas alveolar bone
263. Which one from the below mentioned is considered to be a metastasis:
A) development of hepatocellular liver cancer
B) dissemination of oral cancer to cervical lymph nodes
C) development of the tumor with different histological structure of the second breast
D) development of a lymphogranulomatosis
E) small cell lung cancer
264. Which triad is typical for Hunt syndrome?
A) herpetic rash, hiperacusion, xerophthalmia
B) pain, hyperesthesia, hiperacusion
C) xerophthalmia, hyperesthesia, hiperacusion
D) herpetic rash, pain, xerophthalmia
E) pain, herpetic rash, hyperesthesia

265. Show cause of hemorrhagic cyst formation:
A) because of bad habits
B) complication of tooth decay
C) in women during pregnancy
D) in light of the aging of the body's mineral deficiency
E) of the body to develop its mineral deficiency tense
266. Synonym of pleomorphic adenoma:

A) oncocytoma
B) lipoma
C) monomorphic adenoma
D) mixed tumor
E) adenolymphoma
267. Eosinophilic Granuloma – this
A) histiocytosis
B) malignant tumor
C) benign lesion limfaepitelial
D) is a type of cysts Radiculyar
E) is a type of syndrome Segren
268. Osteoma is:
A) peripheral and central
B) primary and secondary
C) limited and diffuse
D) the correct and false
E) mature and recurrent
269. Epulis on the clinical picture is the following
A) of acute, chronic
B) Angiomatoz, fibrosis
C) serous, purulent
D) fibrosis, granulomatous
E) destructive, productive
270. The first element of early stage of tongue cancer is:
A) hyperkeratosis
B) ulcer
C) cleft
D) nodule
E) vesicle
271. Paget's disease occurs:
A) mitotic disorder lymphocytes
B) the emergence of new basophils
C) violation of monocyte origin
D) violation of the occurrence of red blood cells
E) permanent destruction of osteoclast cells

272. Pain in neurology III branch of the trigeminal nerve are distributed:
A) across the face
B) in the upper third of the face
C) in the middle third
D) in the lower third
E) in the occipital region
273. Please note that non-odontogenic pathology:
A) sementoma
B) Ameloblastoma
C) Odontoma
D) Osteoblastoklastoma
E) Ameloblast fibroma
274. Radiation therapy is belongs to:
A) to local methods of impact on an organism
B) to systemic methods of impact on an organism
C) symptomatic to methods of impact on an organism
D) to regionarny methods of impact on an organism
E) to palliative methods of impact on an organism
275. Where does glossopharyngeal nerve neuralgia begins:
A) with the base of the tongue
B) from head
C) from hands
D) from neck
E) from eye
276. What is the location of the leukoplakia that reveals 60% of squamous cell cancer
diagnosis during the biopsy of tumor?
A) Not related to the location

B) Lips
C) bed of the mouth
D) Gingiva
E) Cheek
277. What is the main treatment method of fibroma:
A) conservative treatment
B) radiationtreatment
C) surgical treatment
D) chemical treatment
E) combined treatment
278. What determines the beginning of the Bowen disease on the closed parts of the
body?
A) Excessive intake of aspirin

B) Lead poisoning
C) Lack of iodine
D) Lack of Vitamin C
E) arsenic poisoning
A) third
B) second
C) fourth
D) fifth
E) first
280. The main symptom of a neuritis of the trigeminal nerve is:
A) long-term paresthesia
B) long-term, aching pains
C) short-term parasthesia
D) strong, short-term, paroxysmal pains
E) a symptom of Vincent
281. Main objective of radical radiation therapy:
A) call of death of the most sensory tumor cells
B) achievement of partial regression of tumor
C) leading of the greatest possible dose of radiation
D) achievement of full regression of tumor
E) depression of biological activity of tumor cells
282. The first symptom of early stage of oral cancer is:
A) smell
B) pain
C) metastasic lymph nodes

D) hypersalivation
E) ulcer
283. The urgent histological research at operation for a malignant neoplasm can be not
carried out if the diagnosis is confirmed:
A) morphological cytologic research
B) radiological
C) data of CT scan
D) clinical data
E) endoscopic investigations
A) hemangioma
B) lymphangioma
C) fibroma
D) lipoma
E) melanoma
285. Which disease cause so called "bird face" syndrome when the two halves of the
mandible lag behind in growth, and the chin is abnormally far back?
A) bilateral arthritis
B) unilateral arthritis
C) unilateral secondary deforming arthrosis
D) bruxism
E) bilateral secondary deforming arthrosis
286. In surgical treatment of patients with malignant neoplasms the basic principles is
keeping:
A) Use of anti-blastic methods
B) zonalities
C) care
D) Ablastic
E) Radicalism
287. Tumor of parotid gland which showing perineural growth:
A) cylindroma
B) monomorphc adenoma
C) pleomorphic adenoma
D) mucoepidermoid tumor
E) acinic-cell tumor
288. which one is not belong to local treatment in skin cancer:
A) radiation therapy
B) cryotherapy
C) antibacterial therapy
D) excising of tumor
E) laser excising of tumor
289. What is the name of soft tissue tumors, which developed of ganglions:
A) neurinoma
B) ganglioneurinoma
C) neurofibroma
D) chemodektoma
E) meningioma
A) first
B) fourth
C) second
D) fifth
E) third
291. Antiblastic is a complex of actions referred on:
A) prevention of hit of tumor cells in an operational wound
B) destruction of tumor cells which could get or got to an operational wound
C) keeping of an asepsis
D) keeping of antiseptics
E) keeping of a radical
292. The patient in the morning after sleeping noticed swelling of the lips, oral mucosa.
After a few hours' contorted face, "there was pain and difficulty in movement language.
On examination: swelling of the lips, tongue, peripheral paresis of the facial nerve.
Determine the syndrome:
A) Shingles
B) Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
C) Slader syndrome
D) Shegren's syndrome
E) herpetic stomatitis
293. The chemotherapy is belong to:
A) to systemic methods of impact on an organism
B) to regionarny methods of impact on an organism
C) to palliative methods of impact on an organism
D) to local methods of impact on an organism
E) symptomatic to methods of impact on an organism
294. Choose the right explanation of naming of pleomorph adenoma in mixed
adenoma.
A) Localization of epithelial and mesenchymal elementsin mixed form
B) Consisting of only epithelial elements
C) Becase of encountering only in parotid glands
D) Consisting of only mesenchymal elements
E) Becase of encountering only in submandibular glands
295. Surgical treatment of the cementoma consists of:
A) extraction of causal tooth
B) fragmentary resection of a jaw
C) jaw ex-articulation
D) excision of the block of an alveolar process with teeth and tumor
E) excision of the tumor
296. Radiation therapy isn't used:
A) as an independent method in treatment of malignant tumors;
B) in a combination with a surgical method in treatment of malignant tumors;
C) in treatment of cysts
D) in a combination with a chemotherapy in treatment of malignant tumors;
E) after surgery treatment of malignant tumors;
297. Radiological signs of chronic arthritis of the temporomandibular joint are:
A) expansion or narrowing of joint space, osteoporosis
B) no changes observed
C) joint space narrowing
D) disc displacement
E) the expansion of joint space

298. Radioisotope researches in clinical oncology are used for:
A) identifications of histological structure of tumor;
B) identifications of Cythologicaly structure of tumor
C) detection of primary tumor;
D) identifications nervously tumor invasions;
E) identifications of stage of differentiation of tumor;
299. For 14 y. o. girl diagnosis of pleomorphic adenoma of the right parotid gland was
established. Determine the complains of the patient on initial stages of the tumor
development:
A) usually no complains
B) acute pain in the region of affected gland
C) depression of the corner of the mouth on affected side
D) dull pain in the region of affected glend
E) felling of dryness in the oral cavity
300. Choose the row of benign tumors of non-epithelial origin of salivary glands.
1) neuroma
2) pleomorphic adenoma
3) hemangioma
4) lymphangioma
5) monomorphic adenoma
A) 3, 5
B) 2, 4, 5
C) 1, 5
D) 1,2, 4
E) 1, 3, 4
301. Are concern to precancerous lesion of the oral mucosa:
A) thermal and chemical burns
B) erythroplakia, leukoplakia, eritroplakiya, leykoplakiya, lupus erythematosus, lichen planus,

submucosa lichen
C) erysipelas
D) verrucous precancerous lesion, precancerous hyperkeratosis, cheilitis of Manganotti
E) Bowen's disease, xeroderma pigmentosum, actinic keratosis, precancerous melanosis
302. Show the pathology that includes sialographic form which is different from others
in case of benign tumors of salivary glands.
A) oncocytoma
B) polymorphic adenoma
D) hemangioma
303. Typical for non-keratinized form of lower lip squamous cell carcinoma:
A) slow growth, early metastasis
B) rapid growth, later metastasis
C) slow growth, late metastasis
D) slow growth without metastasis
E) rapid growth, early metastasis
304. Determine the compatibility.
1.Tumors of epithelial origin
2.Tumors of non-epithelial origin
a) mixed adenoma
b) lipoma
c) hemangioma
d) adenolymphoma
A) 1-b , d 2-a, c
B) 1-c, d 2- b
C) 1-a, d 2-b, c
D) 1-b, c 2- a, d
E) 1-c 2-a, b
305. The patient NA 38-year-old complaint of a violation of the mobility of the right
corner of his mouth when speaking and eating. From anamnesis: the patient underwent
osteosynthesis of the mandible in the right corner 3 days ago. Clinically: dysmotility
and ptosis of the right corner of his mouth when speaking, motility otalnyh facial
muscles retained. Electroneuromyographic conducted research says about the
anatomical integrity of all branches of the facial nerve. What diagnosis can be made?
A) paralysis of the right facial muscles
B) rightauricular-temporal syndrome
C) paresis of the right facial nerve
D) posttraumatic paresis of the right boundary branch of the facial nerve

E) posttraumatic neuralgia III branch of the trigeminal nerve
306. Contracture is caused by:
A) both extra- and intra-articular changes
B) systemic diseases
C) cranial anatomy
D) extra-articular changes
E) intra-articular changes
307. Choose the row of benign tumors of non-epithelial origin of salivary glands.
1) neuroma
3) hemangioma
4) pleomorphicadenoma
5) monomorphicadenoma
A) 1, 5
B) 4, 5
C) 3, 4
D) 1,2, 4
E) 2, 4, 5
308. Bone changes on radiogram as a "needle periostitis" are characteristic in
osteosarcoma:
A) osteoplastic form
B) osteolytic form
C) osteoclastic form
D) hyperplasic form
E) hypertrophic form
A) initial malignant pleomorphic adenoma
B) mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C) monomorphicadenoma
D) malignizated pleomorphic adenoma
E) carcinoma
310. Which of the following tumors belongs to the skin cancers:
A) keratoakantoma
B) sarcoma
C) hemangioma
D) basal cell carcinoma
E) papilloma
311. Benign tumors:
A) metastasize to ipsilateral lymph nodes
B) invade nearby tissues
C) do not cause metastasis
D) characterized by infiltrative growth
E) have local destructive effect
A) lipoma
B) initial malignant pleomorphic adenoma
C) mucoepidermoid carcinoma
E) carcinoma
313. İndicate the problem in patients right side of face:
A) the view after cleft lip surgery

B) postrinoplastic condition
C) the view after cleft palate surgery
D) facial hemiatrophy
E) аbsess
314. T2N2M0– indicate right variant for tumor of salivary gland:
A) tumor size is up to 2 cm, lymphatic nodes are palating on both sides, no distant metastasis
detecting
B) tumor size is up to 2 cm, lymphatic nodes detecting on one side, no distant metastasis
detecting
C) tumor growth-in into adjacent tissues, lymphatic nodes are palating on both sides, no
distant metastasis detecting
D) tumor size is up to 2-4 cm, lymphatic nodes are palating on both sides, no distant
metastasis detecting
E) tumor size is up to 4-7 cm, lymphatic nodes are palating on both sides, no distant
A) tongue cancer is more frequent cancer of oral cavity
B) Malignant Schwannoma arise from smooth muscles
C) mucoepidermoid carcinoma occurs in every age, but only within the parotid salivary gland
D) cylindroma gives metastasis by hematogen way
E) Bowen’s lesion always transfers to the squamous-cell epithelioma
316. The ameloblastic fibroma are treated by perfoming:
B) conservative therapy
C) tumor enucleation
D) jaw resections
E) curettage
317. Which of the follow tumors is concern to epithelial tumors of salivary glands?
A) lipoma
B) neurinoma
C) chondroma
D) lymphangioma
E) adenoma
318. Rising by a joint element doesn't give functional loads
A) dislocations of disk
B) mandible dislocation
C) clottage
D) to disturbance of trophicity of soft tissues of joint
E) injuries of a joint cartilage
319. Iceberg tumors are the pleomorphic adenomas that are localizing:
A) in retromandibular area
B) in submandibular region
C) on the hard palate
D) in retromolar region
E) on the soft palate
320. The chief complain of 14 y. o boy is deformity in the left parotid region, which
enlarging during last 2 month, and the slight pain over last month and depression of
the left corner of the mouth. The left parotid gland enlarged, has firm concictency,
irregularity, the overlying skin is not changed, during massage the normal saliva in
normal amount was detected. Regional lymph nodes enlarged, firmed, painless, sticked
to adjacent tissues. Determine reasonable additional investigations:
A) punctional biopsy of salivary gland, radiography of vertebrae
B) isotopic examination, thermovisiography
C) contrastsialography, punctional biopsy of salivary gland
D) thermovisiography, incisional biopsy of salivary gland
E) contrastsialography, isotopic examination
321. The combined radiation therapy means:
A) radiation in combination with a chemotherapy
B) splitting of a course of radiation therapy
C) use of two ways of radiation or two types of radiation
D) radiation in combination with surgery
E) radiation with radio modifiers
322. Which branches of facial nerve could be damaged during subtotal parotidectomy?
A) rr. temporalis
B) rr. colli
C) rr. buccalis
D) rr. zygomatici
E) all
A) mucoepidermoid carcinoma occurs in every age, but only within the parotid salivary gland
B) liposarcoma is the malignant epithelial tumor
C) tongue cancer is more frequent cancer of oral cavity
D) Bowen’s lesion always transfers to the squamous-cell carcinoma

324. Which of the follow methods couldn’t accepted as main in diagnosis of the
salivary glands tumors?
A) thermography
B) sialography
C) MRI
D) Ultrasound
E) blood test
325. Intraarticular ankylosis of the TMJ is:
A) fibrous and osseous
B) fibrous only
C) connecting
D) osseous only
E) epithelial
326. On syalogramm the pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid gland is apearing:
A) as accumulation of contrast in the center of tumor
B) as accumulation of contrast on the sides of the gland
C) as deformity and enlarging of the ducts around tumor localization
D) as diffuse accumulation of contrast on perepheria of the gland
E) as limited defect of filling of acinuses and ducts
327. Hight rates of recurrence of pleomorphic adenomas relatively to other epithelial
tumors relates to:
A) structure of salivary glands
B) mixed structure of the tumor
C) epithelial origin of the tumor
D) structure of the tumor capsule
E) high incidence rate within epithelial tumors
328. What are the functional disorders may occur when osteoma located in the maxilla?
A) diplopia and impaired hearing
B) hearing loss and nasal breathing difficulty
C) lacrimation and hearing impairment
D) lacrimation and nasal breathing difficulty
E) diplopia and nasal breathing difficulty
329. Is character for the contrast radiological picture of the malignant tumor of salivary
gland:
A) defect of the filling of contrast substance with unclear countures
B) narrowing of the all excretory ducts
C) the cavities within gland
D) equial filling of the ducts by contrast substance
E) defect of the filling of contrast substance with clear countures
330. The patient has a malignant tumor 2 cm in bucal area. The regional metastatic
lymphatic node is also felt at the same side on the neck (0,5 cm) . No distant metastasis
is observed. Choose the correct TNM system kod of the disease described above.
A) T1 N1 M0
B) T2 N1M1
C) T1 N1M1
D) T3N1M0
E) T2 N1M0
331. Is included into EN-bloc during benign tumor resection of the submandibular
gland:
A) one of the lobes of the gland
B) tumor with adjacent tissues
C) gland itself
D) only tumor
E) partial resection of the gland with total resection of the tumor
332. Which one from the below mentioned is a benign tumor:
A) osteosarcoma and liposarcoma
B) synovial sarcoma and leiomyosarcoma
C) fibroma and fibroadenoma
D) a lymphogranulomatosis and leukemia
E) melanoma and chondrosarcoma
333. Long-term local complication after parotidectomy:
A) neuritis of the mental nerve
B) paresthesia
C) palsy of the muscles of facial expression
D) salivary fistule
E) xserosthomia
334. Radiation therapy in the postoperative period is referred on respect for the
principle:
A) asepsis
B) antiseptics
C) antiblastic
D) ablastic
E) disinfection
335. The treatment of adenocystic carcinoma:
A) radiotherapy
B) combined
C) electroresection
D) chemotherapy
E) surgical
336. The ameloblastoma develops from:
A) connective tissues
B) dentine
C) nervous tissue
D) lymphatic vessels
E) prolifirative epithelial tissue
337. What is second name of lipomatosis:
A) Madelung’s disease
B) Burkitt lymphome
C) Bowen’s disease
D) Cheilitis Manqanotti
E) Pechet’s disease
338. Indicate the main treatment method for low-grade mucoepidermoid tumor:
A) combined
B) electroresection
C) radiotherapy
D) surgical
E) chemotherapy
339. mandible contracture etiology
A) fracture of a mandible
B) damage nerves
C) immobilization of the mandible for a long time
D) Parkinson's illness
E) diabetes mellitus
340. In which gland the rates of occurrence of pleomorphic adenoma is highest?
A) sublingual
B) minor salivary gland
C) submandibular
D) parotid
E) thyroid
341. "Giant cell tumor" is:
A) fibroma
B) osteosarcoma
C) osteoma
D) osteoid osteoma
E) osteoclastoma
342. Ablastica is a complex of the actions referred on:
A) prevention of hit of tumor cells in an operational wound
B) destruction of tumor cells which could get or got to an operational wound
C) keeping of an asepsis
D) keeping of antiseptics
E) keeping of a radical
343. Pleomorphic adenoma:
A) there is no capsule and reasonable infiltration to adjacent tissues
B) has reasonable capsule
C) there is no capsule
D) has thin capsule
E) capsuleexsist, but in some regions of tumor it doesn’t exsist
A) hemangioma
B) lymphangioma
C) fibroma
D) ostesarkoma
E) lipoma
345. Patient M/M/ 38 y. o. has been admitted to the hospital with complains on the
swelling in the right submandibular region. Upon anamnesis, these symptoms were
noted last 3 years assotiated with slow growth of the lesion. Clinically: painless,
movable, firm lesion in the right submandibular region with clear boundaries and
smooth surface; the overlying skin is not change in the color and could be picked into
the fold. The function of the right Warton’s duct is not disturbed. The CT scan data is
showing presence of the lesion with clear boundaries within parenchyma of the right
submandibular gland. Othermajorsalivaryglandswithioutchanges.
Indicateclinicaldiagnosis:
A) lymphadenitis of submandibular region

B) sialodochitis of the duct of the submandibular gland
C) Mikulich disease
D) adenoma of submandibular gland
E) calculousesialodenitis of submandibular gland
346. In which kind of disease is used Finlepsin?
A) abscess
B) neuralgia
C) flegmona
D) sinusitis
E) hipertony
347. High differentiated mucoepidermoid tumor of parotid gland characterizing by:
A) is painless
B) compromised mobility and stiffness with skin
C) presens of capsule
D) could be treat concervative
E) has favorable course
348. Mucoepidermoid tumor of parotid gland characterizing by:
A) local infiltrational growth
B) presence of capsule
C) is painless
D) has favorable course
E) could be treat concervative
349. Bone changes on radiogram of irregular shape with fuzzy rough contours
observed in osteosarcoma:
A) osteolytic form
B) sclerotic form
C) osteoplastic form
D) hyperplasic form
E) hypertrophic form
350. Adequate treatment of monomorphic adenoma of parotid gland includes:
A) parotidectomy with preserving of the brances of facial nerve
B) application of anticoagulants hrough excretory
C) radiotherapy
D) application of systemic antibiotics
E) enucleation of the tumor
351. This exogenous factor causes tumors:
A) hereditary factor
B) secondary immunodeficiency
C) in adequate diet
D) weakness of antioxidant system
E) primary immunodeficiency
352. What is the clinical manifestation of neuritis?
A) hyposensitivity
B) hypersensitivity
C) hypersensitivity, paresthesia
D) hyposensitivity, paresthesia
E) parestesia
353. Tumor-like lesion of the salivary glands is:
A) cylindroma
B) acinic-cell tumor
C) sialoadenosis
D) monomorphic adenoma
354. Determine the compatibility.
1.Tumors of epithelial origin
2.Tumors of non-epithelial origin
a) polymorphicadenoma
b) oncocytoma
c) hemangioma
d) lymphangioma
A) 1-c 2-a, b
B) 1-b , d 2-a, c
C) 1-a, b 2-c, d
D) 1-c, d 2- b
E) 1-b, c 2- a, d
355. To malignant tumors of salivary glands one shouldn’t concern:
A) sarcoma of the excretory duct
B) cylindroma
C) oncocytoma
D) mucoepidermoid carcinoma
E) acinic-cell tumor
356. The ameloblastoma is differentiated with:
A) radicular cyst
B) chondroma
C) follicular cyst
D) cementomy
E) odontoma
357. What is the name of soft tissue tumors, which developed frommembrans of
periphericalnerves:
A) meningioma
B) neurinoma and neurofibroma
C) mesenchimoma
D) chemodektoma
E) ganglioneurinoma
358. For 12 y. o. diagnosis of pleomorphic adenoma of the right parotid gland was
established. Child has also allergic bronchitis as co-disease. Determine treatment
tactics.
A) excision of the tumor within healthy margins
B) excochleation
C) totalparotidecotmy with preserving of the branches of the facial nerve
D) observation
E) radiationtheraphy
359. The source of arising of monomorphic adenomas is:
A) epithelium of the terminal parts of excretory ducts
B) elithelium of excretory ducts
C) stroma of the glands
D) epithelium of distal end of excretory ducts of salivary glands
E) epithelium and stroma of the terminal parts of excretory ducts of the glands
360. Lipoma of salivary gland consist from lipomatouse lobes:
A) regular form and similar sizes
B) regular form and non-similar sizes
C) irregular form and non-similar sizes
D) irregular form and similar sizes
E) undefined form and different sizes
361. Cherubism facial deformation with age:
A) first decreases and then increases
B) does not change at first, then increased
C) decreases
D) increases
E) not changed
362. Carcinoma of salivary glands arising from:
A) blood vessels
B) lymphatic vessels
C) stroma of the ducts
D) epithelium of the excretory ducts
E) nerve trunks
363. How does healthy side look during examination a child with unilateral secondary
deforming arthrosis?
A) rounded shaped
B) tumor-like growths observed
C) sunken and flattened

D) oval shaped
E) triangular shaped
364. Mother of 3m. o. child complain on the swelling in the left parotid region
assotiated with rapid growth. During investigation, the lesion with irregular surface,
clear boundaries and soft concistencewas detected in parotid region. The overlying
skin was not changed in color. The “vacillation” symptom is noting. The function of the
parotid gland is not disturbed. During punction turbid yellowing fluid achieved. Indicate
primary diagnosis:
A) lipoma of parotig region
B) adenoma of parotid gland
C) retention cyst of parotid gland
D) lymphangioma of the parotid region
E) hemangioma of parotid region
A) cancer of the parotid gland
B) cancer of the submandibular gland
D) lower lip cancer
E) lymphadenopathy of cervical lymph nodes
366. For14 y. o. boy a diagnosis of monomorphic adenoma of the left salivary gland
was established. Indicate the chief complains of the boy on initial steps of tumor
development:
A) usually there are no complains
B) acute pain whithin affected gland
C) depression of the corner of the mouth on affected side
D) dryness filling in the mouth
E) dull pain whithin affected gland
367. T3N3M1– indicate right variant for tumor of salivary gland:
A) tumor size is up to 4-7 cm, lymphatic nodes are palating on both sides, no distant
B) tumor size more than 4 cm, non-movable lymphatic nodes are palpating, distant metastasis
detecting
D) tumor size is up to 2 cm, lymphatic nodes detecting on one side, no distant metastasis
detecting
E) tumor size is up to 2 cm, lymphatic nodes are palating on both sides, no distant metastasis
detecting
368. For 13 y. o. boy a diagnosis of pleomorphic adenoma of parotid gland was
established. Which kind of influence have certain pathology on the function of the
gland?
A) no changes of the function
B) pus exudation detected
C) secretion decreased, the saliva troubled
D) no secretion detected
E) secretion increased, the saliva troubled
369. On contrast sialogramm of parotid gland of 12 y. o. boy one determine break of the
ducts and accumulation of contrast with irregular form within parenchyma of the gland.
Which sialographic picture is detected:
A) benign tumor of the gland
B) malignant tumor of the gland
C) vascular tumor of the gland
D) cyst of the gland
E) chronicparenchimatousparotit
370. Which of the following is the most frequent form of skin cancer:
A) squamous carcinoma
B) melanoma
C) Merkelcell carcinoma
D) basal cell carcinoma
E) basalcell- squamous carcinoma
371. Malignant tumors of salivary glands
A) monomorphic adenoma
B) oncocytoma
C) cylindroma
D) papillarycystoadenoma
372. Which of the following is not a way of metastasis:
A) implantation
B) hematogenouse
C) infectious
D) skip
E) lymphogenouse
373. On this picture:
A) baby face with cleft lip

B) baby face with cleft palate
C) baby`s face with trigeminal neuralgia
D) baby face crying
E) baby face with central paresis of the facial nerve
374. Has local-destructive growth
A) pleomorphic adenoma
C) mucoepidermoid tumor
D) acinic-cell tumors
E) adenolymphoma
A) initial malignant pleomorphic adenoma
B) mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C) carcinoma

E) oncocytic adenoma
376. Mixed tumor is called:
A) mucoepidermoid tumor
B) pleomorphic adenoma
C) acinic-cell tumor
D) monomorphic adenoma
E) cylindroma
377. Below is one of the ways of tumors growth:
A) metaplasive
B) embolic
C) organization
D) regenerative
E) invasive
378. Etiology of mandibular pain syndrome
A) Ischemic stroke
B) remission stage periodontitis
C) Parkinson's illness
D) diabetes mellitus
E) age, sex
379. Trismus - a spasm:
A) of the abdominal muscles
B) pharyngeal muscles
C) facial muscles
D) of the masticatory muscles
E) of the lower limb muscles
380. Benign mixed tumors of salivary glands
A) cylindroma
B) mucoepidermoid tumor
C) carcinoma
E) acinic-cell tumors
381. Paralysis of the facial nerve, makroheyliya and swelling of the tongue and lips -
are elements of a vegetative syndrome:
A) Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
B) stomalgiya
C) angioedema
D) Horton syndrome
E) Sjögren's syndrome
382. Aneurismal bone cyst or
A) Radikulyar cyst
B) Ameloblastoma
C) Arterio-venous malformation
D) Follicular cysts
E) Peripheral giant cell myeloma

A) Bowen’s lesion always transfers to the squamous-cell epithelioma
B) cylindroma gives metastasis by hematogen way
C) Leiomiosarcoma is the malignant epithelial tumor
D) tongue cancer is more frequent cancer of oral cavity
E) mucoepidermoid carcinoma occurs in every age, but only within the parotid salivary gland
384. In the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia are most effective:
A) neuroleptics
B) antiepileptic
C) antispasmodics
D) analgesics
E) tranquilizers
385. Which ones are not belongneuritis of the facial nerve:
A) 1, 5, 6
B) 3, 5, 6
C) 4, 5, 6
D) 3, 4, 5
E) 1, 2, 4
386. Which of the following symptoms is a priority in establishing the Melkersson-
Rosenthal syndrome:
A) cheilitis
B) corneal clouding
C) recurrent swelling of the face

D) facial paralysis
E) smooth tongue
387. T4N2M1 indicate right variant of malignan tumor of salivary gland
I. tumor size is up to 2 cm
II. tumor spread to adjacent organs
III. lymphatic nodes palpating on both sides
IV. lymphatic nodes are detecting on affected side
V. no signs of distan metastasis
VI. signs of distan metastasis noted
A) I,III,V.
B) I,III,VI
C) II,III,VI
D) I,III,IV
E) II,IV,VI
388. What is prozoplegiya:
A) limb paralysis
B) paralysis of facial muscles on the side of the face
C) paralysis of the masticatory muscles
D) flatness of nasolabial folds
E) the central facial paralysis
389. Neuropathy of the facial nerve is involved as an etiological factor in one of the
given syndromes:
A) Proteus
B) Dawn
C) Melkersson-Rosenthal
D) Horner
E) Tureth
390. The obligate skin precancerous disease is:

A) Bowen disease
B) Hishpron disease
C) Dubreuilh melanose
D) skin horn
E) actinic keratosis
391. Operative treatment of trigeminal neuralgia:
A) neurotomy
B) redressatsiya
C) maxillarysinusotomy
D) osteotomy
E) disarticulation
392. Meaning of "prosopalgia":
A) backache
B) facial pain regardless of its origin
C) headache
D) paresthesia in the form of a burning sensation and tingling in the tongue
E) a pain in the neck area
393. Prosopalgia - is:
A) the pain caused by lesion of the autonomic system
B) also known as neuralgia
C) a collective term(the pain face)
D) of the trigeminal nerve neuritis
E) is a systemic disease
394. Which ones are not belong trigeminal neuralgia?
2 - paroxysmal pain
3 - a symptom of Bell
6 - leakage of saliva and fluid on the affected side
A) 1, 2, 4
B) 1, 5, 6
C) 3, 5, 6
D) 2, 5, 6
E) 4, 5, 6
395. The main symptom of trigeminal neuralgia is:
A) long-term, aching pains
B) short-term paresthesia
C) strong, short-term, paroxysmal pains
D) a symptom of Vincent
E) long-term paresthesia
396. More often the ameloblastoma is localized:
A) on the mandible
B) in a malar bone
C) on the mandible distal part, area of an angle and a ramus
D) on the maxilla
E) in a frontal bone
397. Pain in neurology II branch of the trigeminal nerve are distributed:
A) across the face
B) in the lower third
C) in the upper third of the face
D) in the middle third
E) in the occipital region
398. Which is morphological symptom of keratoacanthoma:
A) polymorphism cells
B) multinucleated cells with light nuclei
C) phenomenon paraceratosis
D) skin defect filled with horny masses
E) an increased number of mitosis
399. Which term is not used in tumor names:
A) “oma”
B) blastoma
C) “lithiazis”
D) sarcoma
E) carcinoma
400. Treatment of trigeminal neuralgia is beginning :
A) with diagnostic blockades
B) with the appointment of sedatives
C) with physiotherapy
D) with antiepileptic drugs
E) with alcoholisation
401. Have development along nerve fibers
A) acinic-cell tumor
B) cylindroma
E) mucoepidermoid tumor
402. disease neuritis II-III branch often causes:
A) physiotherapy
B) cooling
C) the restriction of the bone pin holes
D) All the answers wrong
E) tumor sinuses
403. Which of the following is used for the specification of diagnosis of oral mucosa
cancer:
A) tomography
B) angiography
C) ultrasound
D) histopathology
E) general blood test
404. Determined at the initial stage of exophytic form of tongue cancer:
A) hyperplasia of mucosa
B) submucosal infiltration
C) gumma
D) hyperkeratosis
E) mucosa necrosis
405. The patient was operated on the cyst of the right parotid salivary gland, then the
patient has some of the following symptoms: can not collect in the crease frontal
muscle, there is a rare blinking, lacrimation from the right eye, the eyelids do not close,
smoothed the right nasolabial fold. Which nerve was damaged:
A) oculomotor
B) trigeminal
C) infraorbital
D) vestibular-cochlear
E) n. facialis
406. Patient AM 65-year-old complained of periodic appearance of paroxysmal pain in

the left lower jaw. From anamnesis: the pain appeared last 6 months. Initially, pain
attack lasted a few seconds later the attack duration increased. Attacks recur often
appeared in speaking and eating. Clinically: At the beginning of the conversation
patient any cutting, paroxysmal pain radiating to the neck, which lasted for 2 minutes.
During the pain the patient is stuck in a certain position. Autonomic symptoms are not
present. noted full second edentia. X-ray: significant atrophic changes of the
mandibular bone. the blockade was made inferior alveolar nerve on the affected side,
and then the pain stopped for 2-3 hours. What diagnosis can be made?
A) dislocation of the TMJ
B) neuralgia III branch of the trigeminal nerve
C) retention of third molars
D) auricular-temporal syndrome
E) arthritis of the temporomandibular joint
407. Patient cold sores in the right ear and the external auditor pain, the taste and
hypersthesia in the front 2/3 of the tongue, paresis of facial muscles on the right side of
the face. Determine the syndrome:
A) Shingles
B) trigeminal neuralgia
C) Slader syndrome
D) Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
E) Hunt syndrome
408. Should be perform during surgical treatment of the malignant tumors of the minor
salivary gland of the hard palate:
A) palatal resection
B) curretaje of the tumor
C) RTC of the adjacent teeth roots
D) enucleation
E) bouginage of the duct
409. Grossly, the cut chondrosarcoma is as follows:
A) tumor tissue chondroid consistency, with blue and white color, with areas mucilaginized
and petrification
B) fibrous tumor tissue type with blue and white color, with areas mucilaginized and
petrification
C) tumor tissue soft consistency with blue and white color, with areas mucilaginized and
petrification
D) tumor tissue chondroid consistency with brown color, atrophy areas and petrification
E) tumor tissue chondroid consistency with brown color, hypertrophy areas and petrification
410. The clinical picture of injury of the facial nerve is characterized by:
A) paralysis of facial muscles
B) paresis and paralysis of the facial muscles
C) paresis and paralysis of the facial muscles, sensory disorders
D) paresis and paralysis of the facial muscles, sensory and autonomic disorders
E) paresis of facial muscles
411. The treatment plan of the patient with oncology is composed by:
A) chemotherapist
B) surgeon
C) radiologist
D) 3 specialists
E) anesthesiologist
412. Hemiatrophy of the face is:
A) syndromeandsymptom
B) separate disease and as a symptom of main disease
C) separate disease
D) separate syndrome
E) symptom of the underlying disease
413. The characteristic symptom of trigeminal neuralgia:
A) irradiation of pain
B) tachycardia
C) Valle pain points
D) lacrimation
E) pain paravertebral poin
414. Choose the row of benign tumors of salivary glands.
1) adenolymphoma
2) adenocarcinoma
4) oncocytoma
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 3, 4
E) 1, 4
415. How is clinically characterized facial nerve damage?
A) only paresis
B) onlyhyperestesia
C) paralysis and paresthesia of the facial muscles, impaired sensory and autonomic changes
D) only paresthesia
E) no change
416. At an ameloblastoma it isn't observed:
A) mobility and dislocation of teeth in the area of the tumor

B) toothache
C) crunch and fluctuation
D) swelling of the certain part of a jaw
E) pathological fracture of a mandible
417. Find correct answer?
A) facialhemiatrophy- a disease characterized by a decrease in the size of the right or left half
of
feet
B) facialhemiatrophy- disease characterized by enlargement of the right or left half
of face
C) facialhemiatrophy- disease characterized by enlargement of the right or left half
of hands
D) facialhemiatrophy-disease characterized by decrease of the right or left half
ofbody
E) facialhemiatrophy- a disease characterized by a decrease in the size of the right or left half
of
face
418. Which is not typical for the damage of the facial nerve?
A) reducing the lacrimal secretions
B) Paralysis of the facial muscles
C) increased lacrimal secretions
D) pain
E) trigger zone
419. The patient NA 38-year-old complaint of a violationof mobility of the right corner of
his mouth when talking andeating, smoothing nasolabial folds, the violation of the right
upper eyelid mobility. From anamnesis: the patient had surgery of parotidecthomy
maintaining branches of the facial nerve on the pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid
gland 3 days ago. Clinically: dysmotility and ptosis of the right corner of his mouth
when speaking, smoothing nasolabial folds, the violation of the right upper eyelid
mobility. Carried out electroneuromyographic study suggests anatomical integrity of
all branches of the facial nerve. What diagnosis can be made?
A) posttraumatic neuralgia III branch of the trigeminal nerve
B) posttraumatic neuropathy temporal branch of the facial nerve
C) posttraumatic neuropathy facial nerve
D) auricular-temporal syndrome
E) posttraumatic paresis of the right boundary branch of the facial nerve
420. Which chemical carcinogenic substance causes formation of tumors:
A) sulfur- containing substances
B) non-polymerized plastic masses
C) ionize substances
D) genetically-modified food (Gm foods)
E) nitrate compounds
421. "Brown tumor" is:
A) fibroosteoma
B) osteoblastosarkoma
C) osteoid- osteoma
D) osteoblastoklastoma
E) osteodisplasia
paresis of facial nerve-
2 - paroxysmal pain
A) 1, 2, 4
B) 2, 5, 6
C) 4, 5, 6
D) 3, 5, 6
E) 1, 5, 6
423. Determine the level of damage of the facial nerve, if the patient is detected on the
left dry eye symptom of Bell, flattening the nasolabial folds, violation of taste on the
front 2/3 of the tongue, lagophthalmos, hyperacusis:
A) peripheral damage
B) the brain stem
C) internal capsule
D) channel of the facial nerve
E) region of the parotid gland
424. Which ones are not belong the paresis of the facial nervetraumatic origin:
1 -as a result of stroke
2 - with malignancy in the brain
3 -after parotidecthomy
4 - after the bullet wound of maxillofacial area
5 - in severe infection
6 - the removal of hemangioma parotid-masticatory area
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 3, 5, 6
E) 1, 2, 5
A) cancer of the thyroid gland

B) cancer of the submandibular gland
C) skin carcinoma
D) cancer of the parotid gland
E) lymphadenopathy of cervical lymph nodes
426. Which ones are not belong the paresis of the facial nerve:
2 - paroxysmal pain
A) 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 3, 4
C) 3, 5, 6
D) 1, 2, 4
E) 1, 2, 3
427. Are concern to precancerous lesion of the verimilion border of the lips:
A) erysipelas
B) thermal and chemical burns
C) Bowen's disease, xeroderma pigmentosum, actinic keratosis, precancerous melanosis
D) erythroplakia, leukoplakia, eritroplakiya, leykoplakiya, lupus erythematosus, lichen planus,

submucosa lichen
E) verrucous precancerous lesion, limited precancerouse hyperkeratosis, cheilitis of

Manganotti
Neuritis trigeminal nerve-
A) 3, 4, 5
B) 1, 5, 6
C) 3, 5, 6
D) 1, 2, 4
E) 4, 5, 6
429. Synonym of the true cementoma:
A) cementofibroma
B) heriditary cementoma
C) huge cementoma
D) periapical cement dysplasia
E) benign cementoblastoma
430. Roentgenologically fibroma ossificans reminds:
A) exostosis
B) residual cyst
C) chondrosarcoma
D) osteoma
E) osteosarcoma
I - Neuritis of the facial nerve
II - Frey's syndrome
I II
A) 1, 2, 3 4, 5, 6
B) 2, 3, 4 1, 5, 6
C) 3, 5, 6 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 6 3, 4, 5
E) 1, 2, 4 3, 5, 6
432. The cancer of oral mucosa Т1N1М0. The stage of cancer spread:
A) first
B) second
C) fourth
D) third
E) fifth

I - Neuritis of the facial nerve
II - Trigeminal neuralgia
4 - paroxysmal pain
I II
A) 1, 2, 3 4, 5, 6
B) 2, 3, 4 1, 5, 6
C) 1, 2, 6 3, 4, 5
D) 1, 2, 4 3, 5, 6
E) 3, 5, 6 1, 2, 4
434. Trigger (trigger) zones is:
A) areas which is painful during irritation
B) hypersthesia
C) hypoesthesia
D) paresthesia
E) place the output branches of the skull base
435. T1 N1 M0 – indicate right variant for tumor of salivary gland:
A) tumor size is up to 2 cm, lymphatic nodes are palating on both sides, no distant metastasis
detecting
B) tumor size is up to 2-4 cm, lymphatic nodes are palating on both sides, no distant
D) tumor size is up to 2 cm, lymphatic nodes detecting on one side, no distant metastasis
detecting
E) tumor size is up to 4-7 cm, lymphatic nodes are palating on both sides, no distant
436. What is Karmazepin:
A) seftriaxoni
B) chocolate
C) fitamin С
D) finlepsin
E) nerve
437. Treatment of odontomas consists of the following:
A) excision of the odontoma
B) excision of the odontoma together with the capsule
C) rentgenotherapy
D) enucleation of the tumor
E) jaw resection
438. Patient MM 55-year-old complained of constant aching pain in the right lower jaw,
as well as numbness in the right half of the lower lip. The patient noted irradiation of
pain in the lower jaw and neck. Autonomic symptoms and no trigger zones. From the
anamnesis: 2 weeks ago the patient was removed 35, 36 and 37th tooth and cyst which
extending to the mandibular canal. Pain also appeared one week later removing tooth.
After blockade of inferior alveolar nerve on the affected side, the pain was stoppedfor 3
hours. What diagnosis can be made?
A) neuritis of the facial nerve
B) auricular-temporal Frey's syndrome
C) neuralgia III branch of the trigeminal nerve
D) alveolitis
E) posttraumaticneuropathyof the n. alveolaris inferior
439. Scar contracture is a disease:
A) caused by gross changes in the tissues surrounding the joint
B) caused by changes in the joint capsule or ligaments
C) occurs with the pain in the joint motion
D) occurs as a result of changes in the muscles or after immobilization of the mandible (for
fractures)
E) as a result of the violation of nervous regulation
440. Malignant tumors of salivary glands
A) oncocytoma
C) lymphomatosis
D) adenocystic carcinoma
441. Neuropathy of the facial nerve is involved as an etiological feature in one of the
following syndromes:
A) Ramsey-Hunt
B) Horner
C) Down
D) Gien-Barre
E) Ivanov
442. Symptoms of traumatic bone cysts are:

A) In the area, collecting stones
B) Asymptomatic development
C) Tooth sense of elongation
D) Night pain
E) multiple of tooth decay
443. Which medicine is not used in the treatment of the facial neuritis?
A) anti-inflammatory
B) nicotinic acid
C) vasodilator
D) vasoconstrictor
E) anti-edema
444. Untypical sign of malignant tumors:
A) has clear boundaries
B) morphological atypism
C) relatively autonomous growth
D) infiltrative and invasive growth
E) TNM cclassification
445. Typical X-ray picture of the odontoma on the mandible:
A) an osteoporosis with the centers of its density
B) an osteal cavity the containing sequester
C) a homogeneous shadow of a certain form with an enlightenment stria on its periphery
D) osteal strips with a clear boundary
E) a homogeneous shadow of a certain form without enlightenment stria on its periphery
446. On the face and teeth may be momentary and paroxysmal pain:
A) at Frey syndrome
B) at the syndrome Oppenheim
C) at trigeminal neuralgia
D) at the syndrome Charlier
E) atEaglesyndrome
447. Unpleasant sensations in the behind the jaw area occures when osteoma is
located in :
A) maxilla
B) zygomatic arch and maxilla
C) zygomatic arch
D) styloid processus
E) styloid processus and zygomatic arch
448. Which sign is typical for Hunt syndrome?
A) a change of parties in violation of recurrent forms of paralysis n. facialis
B) keratoconjunctivitis sicca
C) retrobulbar neuritis
D) pain
E) cheilitis
449. The ameloblastic fibroma destroying a cortical plate and goes out:
A) on the buccal mucosa
B) on the mucosa of the mouth floor
C) on the mucosa of the mouth vestibule
D) on the labial fold
E) on the alveolar process in the form of soft -elastic mass
450. First clinical signs of facial nerve damage were investigated:
A) Hochkyn
B) Sharlen
C) Bell
D) Thomson
E) Hunt
451. The facultative precancerous skin disease is:
A) Hishporn disease
B) Behcet disease
C) Kaposi’s diseases
D) Manganotti cheilitis
E) skin horns
452. What does not belong to the neuropathy of facial nerve?
A) Smoothing nasolabial folds
B) Syndrome Hunt
C) The symptom “Stair”
D) Syndrome Melkersson-Rosenthal
E) Paresis or paralysis of facial muscles

453. What are the three principles form the basis of the International Histological
Classification of Tumours:
A) anatomical localization, histological type and size of tumors

B) anatomical localization , color and consistency neoplasms
C) anatomical localization, histological type and size of tumors
D) anatomical localization, histological type and nature of neoplasms
E) the color , texture and size of tumor growths
454. Cancer of mouth floor develops from:
A) muscle tissue
B) lymphatic tissue
C) epithelial tissue
D) nervous tissue
E) connective tissue
455. What it is the clinical course for osteoarthritis of the temporomandibular joint?
A) chronic
B) acute
C) aggravated
D) acute, aggravated and chronic
E) aggravate and chronic
456. Indicate benign tumors of non-epithelial origin of the salivary glands.
1) Pleomorphic adenoma
2) Hemangioma
3) Adenolymphoma
4) Limphangioma
5) Monomophic adenoma
A) 3;4;
B) 1;3;5
C) 2; 4
D) 2; 5
E) 1;3;5
457. What determines the particular treatment of arthritis?
A) the presence of posterior teeth in the mandible
B) the type of the clinical course
C) on the etiology (cause)
D) from all the previously mentioned factors
E) the type of the clinical course and causes of the disease
458. Keratoacanthoma develops from the elements of:
A) muscle tissue
B) lymph
C) epithelial tissue
D) blood
E) connective tissue
459. Neurogenic contracture is a disease:
A) caused by changes in the joint capsule or ligaments

B) occurs with the pain in the joint motion
C) caused by gross changes in the tissues surrounding the joint
D) as a result of changes in the muscles or after immobilization of the mandible (for fractures)
E) occur as a result of the violation of nervous regulation
460. Ankylosis can be:
A) intra-articular only
B) superficial
C) extra-articular only
D) profound
E) intra- and extra-articular
461. Signs that are typical lesions of the facial nerve:

1) dysphagia
2) Smoothness frontal and nasolabial folds
3) lagophthalmos
4) Symptom Bell
5) Difficulty protruding tongue
6) Symptom "sails"
7) The inability to whistle
8) Hyperacusia
9) Decrease superciliary reflex
A) 1,2,5,6,8
B) 1,2,5,7,8,9
C) 1,3,5, 6, 8
D) 1,5,6,8,9
E) 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9
462. Extra-articular ankylosis of the TMJ can be:
A) osseous only
B) connecting
C) fibrous and osseous
D) fibrous only
E) epithelial
Neuritis of the facial nerve-
A) 1, 2, 4
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 6
E) 3, 5, 6
464. Arthritis in children occur more frequently as a result of:
A) odontogenic cysts of the mandible

B) lymphadenitis in parotid-masticatory area
C) osteomyelitis of the mandible branch
D) tumors of mandible
E) systemic diseases
465. From connective tissue might develop:
A) papilloma
B) adenoma
C) fibrocarcinoma
D) adenocarcinoma
E) nevus
466. Howtrigeminalneuritisdiagnosisisapproved ?
A) with palpation
B) on the basis of X-ray studies
C) only on the basis of clinical manifestations
D) on the basis of clinical symptoms and medical history
E) only on the basis of anamnesis
467. Patient K. L. , 16 years old, complained about the restricted opening of the mouth,
violation of chewing function and speech. Anamnesis: pathology is observed for the
last 6 months and is connected with a history of middle ear inflammation. During visual
observation pathological changes in oral were not determined; defined central position
of intradental line and 1st class occlusion; mouth opening is 1. 5 cm. Palpation of
anterior auricular areas is painless, restriction of the right condyle excursions
compared with the opposite side noted. Mouth opening cause jaw's shift to the right
side. CT scan is given below. Determine a clinical diagnosis:
A) fracture of the right condyle

B) acute purulent arthritis of right TMJ
C) contracture of masticatory muscles
D) right TMJ ankylosis
E) unilateral dislocation of the TMJ
468. Early local complication after tumor ablasion within parotid gland:
A) xserosthomia
B) facial nerve palsy
C) neuritis of the mental nerve
D) palsy of the muscles of facial expression
E) salivary fistula
469. Which one of the following is a specific feature of contact TMJ arthritis:
A) the restriction of mouth opening
B) abscess formation in joint
C) irradiation of pain to the temple
D) radiologically observed expansion of joint space
E) pain in the affected joint
470. Typical X-ray picture of the adenoameloblastoma:
A) in the form of the ossification centers

B) in the form of osteal depression with existence of sequesters
C) in the form of osteal defect with corroded edges
D) a cystiform zone of an enlightenment with poorly defined borders
E) in a type of one or several osteal cavities
471. Which of the following is not the risk factor for development of oral mucosa
cancer:
A) alcohol
B) fatty foods
C) chronic injury
D) Herpes simplex
E) tabacco
472. Which one of the following is a specific feature of contact TMJ arthritiss:
A) the restriction of mouth opening
B) affection of one joint
C) radiologically observed expansion of joint space
D) pain in the affected joint
E) irradiation of pain to the temple
473. Operative treatment of trigeminal neuralgia:

A) disarticulation
B) nevrekzerez
C) redressatsiya
D) osteotomy
E) maxillarysinusotomy
A) diabetes mellitus
B) Ischemic stroke
C) Parkinson's illness
D) remission stage periodontitis
E) occlusion parafunksiya
475. To local methods of cancer therapy of a skin not to belong:
B) cryotherapy
C) excising of tumor
D) laser excising of tumor
E) systemic chemotherapy
476. The odontoma consists of:
A) mesenchymal component
B) connective component
C) epithelial component
D) epithelial and mesenchymal component
E) neurogenic component
A) Ischemic stroke
B) remission stage periodontitis
C) trauma
D) diabetes mellitus
E) Parkinson's illness
478. The differential diagnosis of "papilloma" should be carried out with:
A) atheroma
B) fibroma
C) hemangioma
D) mucosalcancer
E) lipoma
479. cause of contractures of a mandible-maxillo
A) arthrosis
B) pulpit
C) periodontitis
D) at the wrong time carrying out a miogimnastika at fractures of a mandible
E) arthritis
480. Pleomorphicadenomaofparotidglandusually:
A) give metastases to submental lymphatic nodes
B) do not give metastases
C) give metastases by hematogenic way
D) give metastases to deep cervical lymphatic nodes
E) give metastases into submandibular lymphatic nodes
A) Parkinson's illness
B) immobilization of the mandible for a long time
C) diabetes mellitus
D) fracture of a mandible
E) wrong reduction torusalny and mandibular anesthesia
482. mechanotherapy is carried out
A) to a mouth opener
B) anesthesia
C) antibiotics
D) systemEjuans
E) about the special screw figurative to mouth opener
A) fracture of a mandible
B) Parkinson's illness
C) diabetes mellitus
D) mandible tremor long time
E) emergencegematompterygo-mandibulyar
484. Which clinical picture is observed in joint after loss of premolars and molars ?
A) subluxation of the mandible
B) dislocation of the mandible
C) the head of the lower jaw is pulled out of the glenoid fossa
D) fracture of the mandible
E) the head of the lower jaw moves deeper into the glenoid fossa

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AYHAM SYRIA iLovePDF

1. Which one from the below mentioned is nervous tissue tumor:

A) equal sizes of lobes

A) non- polymerized plastic masses

26. Facial skin cancer T3N2M0. The stage of cancer spread:

A) partial or complete muscle for transposition to the affected area

A) Excessive synthesis of prostaglandins

A) the cementing fibroma

B) gigantoform cementoma and periapical displasia of cementum

A) metastases of regional nodes

A) primary tumor size

A) collagen fibers, fibroblasts, histiocytes and fibroblasts

57. Incisional biopsy:

62. In TNM classification letter T express:

A) metastases of regional nodes

A) cancer of the submandibular gland

A) cancer of the parotid gland

A) lymphadenopathy of the cervical lymph nodes

79. For malignant tumors is typical:

A) existence of the capsule

A) hematogenous metastasis way

A) enlarged lymph nodes in palpation

A) therapy with antibiotics

88. Keratoacanthoma grows:

A) quickly and painfully

E) fibrous connective and vascular tissue

A) remove one part of lesion and send to hystological examnation

A) spherical shape, less movable and less painful

D) Mercel’s cell carsinoma

A) basal cell carcinoma

E) squamous cell carcinoma

A) not keratizing squamous cell carcinoma

140. The exogenousfactor which is playing role in tumor development:

A) secondary immune deficiency

E) weakening of antioxidant system

C) trigeminal nerve neuritis

A) germs of two teeth nearby standing

D) germ of one tooth

C) slow growth, early metastasis

A) primary site up to 1 cm, spreading to the entire depth of the mucosa

168. Which one is not related to skin cancer:

D) Ultraviolet radiation and contact with arsenic

175. The lymphagenous metastasis way is more typical for:

189. The exofitic form of cancer seen very rare:

A) a tumor developing from malassa cell

A) tissues of one tooth

C) not the remove of the capsule

220. At what form of osteoblastoklastoma a rapid growth and bone destruction

A) in regional lymph nodes and muscles

A) resections of a certain area of a jaw with a tumor within healthy tissues

D) limited and diffuse

240. What can we observe on palpation of osteosarcoma:

242. "Spicules" is:

A) on the maxilla: a curettage or an enucleation; on the mandible: economical or segmentary

244. For malignant tumors is typical:

A) existence of the capsule

245. Chondroma distinguishes depending on location:

A) Human papilloma virus

250. Grossly fibrosarcoma represents: