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SYLLABUS FOR ADMISSION TEST
COURSE - 1 (For Students of Class 7 going to Class 8)

These few topics of Class 7 as well as the basic syllabus of Class 6
Sample Test Paper can be collected from BA campus. It is also available online at www.brothersacademy.co.in
Chemistry
COURSE -2 (For Students of Class 8 going to Class 9)

Chemistry
COURSE - 3 (For Students of Class 9 going to Class 10)

Chemistry
COURSE - 4 (For Students of Class 10 going to Class 11) : Engineering (IIT-JEE)
Chemistry
COURSE - 5 (For Students of Class 10 going to Class 11) : Medical (NEET)

Chemistry
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www.brothersacademy.co.in Admission Test (Course I) _ VII going VIII Students
ADMISSION TEST Code

A
Course I
Class VII going to Class VIII Students
Read the following Instructions very carefully before you proceed
 The paper is divided into THREE PARTS. PART - I contains 30 question of Basic Aptitude.
PART - II contains 60 question of Science (Physics - 20), (Chemistry - 20) and (Biology - 20).
Part - III contains 30 question of Mathematics.

OPY
It contains a total of 120 questions and 24 printed pages.

E C
For answering a question, an ANSWER SHEET is provided separately. Please fill your Reg. No.
L
P
and Paper set Properly in the space given in the ANSWER SHEET.
SAM
Please darken the entire circle that corresponds to your answer for each question. Use only HB
pencil or Ball Point Pen to mark answer, and erase pencil marks completely to make a change. Do
not scribble anything on the answer sheet.
Wrong way of filling Right way of filling
A B C D A B C D A B C D
 Full Marks 360. Total Time 3 Hrs.
 Marking Scheme : ONLY ONE correct option and each question carries 3 Marks and –1 will be
awarded for every wrong answer. (NEGATIVE MARKING).
Name : ________________________________________________ Reg. No. : _____________

{1}
PART – I (Basic Aptitude)
01. Which letter is exactly between R and V in the English alphabet?
(A) S (B) U (C) T (D) I
02. Which letter is exactly between the English alphabet ?
(A) M (B) N (C) L (D) No letter
03. Find the odd one out
(A) DE (B) GH (C) LM (D) ON
04. Which one is different from the others
(A) BDC (B) EGF (C) HIJ (D) NPO
05. Find the odd one out
(A) ZYX (B) WVU (C) LMN (D) TSR
06. Which one is different from the others.
(A) 234 (B) 345 (C) 456 (D) 657
07. Find the missing number in the place of '?' inthe following
1 4 ?
4 2 5
2 2 3
7 8 13
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

08. Insert the missing number
12 14 20 30 22 40
26 50 ?
(A) 58 (B) 60 (C) 62 (D) 64

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
{2}
09. Find the missing number in the place of '?' in the following
6 2 3
1 5 2 0 5 ?
123456 246802 579133
2 4 4 8 7 1
3 6 9
(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 9 (D) 1
10. Find the missing number in the place of ' ? ' in the following
30 44 64
10 32 ?
20 12 30
(A) 30 (B) 34 (C) 90 (D) 94

11. Find the missing number in the place of ' ? ' in the following
11 44 16 40 45 12
110 112 ?
22 33 24 32 23 34
(A) 114 (B) 134 (C) 190 (D) 124
{3}
12. Insert the missing number
10 14 16 22 30 39
36 58 ?
12 20 34
(A) 93 (B) 97 (C) 101 (D) 103

13. If the day before yesterday was friday, what day will fall on the day after tomorrow ?
(A) Friday (B) Thursday (C) Wednesday (D) Tuesday
14. If the second day of a 30 day month is a Friday, which of the following would be the last day of the next
month which has 31 days ?
(A) Sunday (B) Monday (C) Tuesday (D) Data inadequate
15. Which shape is the odd one out ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16. How many squares like can be there in the following shape without overlapping ?
(A) 12 (B) 15 (C) 10 (D) 20
{4}
17. Which shape does not fit in with these shapes ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
18. Observe the combined shapes and identify the missing figure in the square.
+ = + =
+ ? =
(A) (B) (C) (D)
+ = + =
+
? =
(A) (B) (C) (D)
{5}
20. Identify the shape that matches the subtraction of the figures given below
(A) (B) (C) (D)
21. Identify the shape after subtraction of the given figures.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 6

{6}
23. Identify the shape that matches the subtraction of the figures given below.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
24. Identify the shape when the second figure is subtracted from the first as shown in the figure below.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Direction for questions 25 to 30

Find the next letter in the series.
25. X W V U T ?
(A) Q (B) R (C) S (D) P
26. W V T Q M ?
(A) I (B) H (C) G (D) K
{7}
27. A B E J Q ?
(A) W (B) X (C) Y (D) Z
28. Z Y V Q J ?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
29. I J H K G ?
(A) E (B) F (C) L (D) M
30. T Y C F H ?
(A) J (B) I (C) K (D) L
{8}
PART – II (Science)
31. Choose from the options a, b, c and d given in Figure the figure which shows the correct direction of
current.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32. Choose the incorrect statement.

(A) A switch is the source of electric current in a circuit
(B) A switch help to complete or break the circuit
(C) A switch helps us to use electricity as per our requirement
(D) When the switch is open there is an air gap between its terminals
33. In the following arrangement shown in figure, the bulb will not glow if the ends A and B are connected with
(A) A steel spoon
(B) A metal clip
(C) A plastic clip
(D) A copper wire
{9}
34. Filament of a torch bulb is
(A) A metal case (B) Metal tip at the centre of the base
(C) Two thick wires (D) A thin wire
35. A marble tile would feel cold as compared to a wooden tile on a winter morning, because the marble tile
(A) is a better conductor of heat than the wooden tile
(B) is polished while wooden tile is not polished
(C) reflects more heat than wooden tile
(D) is a poor conductor of heat than the wooden tile
36. A beggar wrapped himself with a few layers of newspaper on a cold winter night. This helped him to keep
himself warm because
(A) Friction between the layers of newspaper produces heat
(B) Air trapped between the layers of newspaper is a bad conductor of heat
(C) Newspaper is a conductor of heat
(D) Newspaper is at a higher temperature than the temperature of the surrounding
37. Four arrangements to measure temperature of ice in beaker with laboratory thermometer are shown in
Figure (A, B, C and D). Which one of them shows the correct arrangement for accurate measurement of
temperature?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
{10}
38. Observe the pictures A and B given in figure carefully(Magnet on the car).
(A) (B)
Which of the following statement is correct for the above given pictures?
(A) In A, cars 1 and 2 will come closer and in B, cars 3 and 4 will come closer
(B) In A, cars 1 and 2 will move away from each other and in B, cars 3 and 4 will move away
(C) In A, cars 1 and 2 will move away and in B, 3 and 4 will come closer to each other
(D) In A, cars 1 and 2 will come closer to each other and in B, 3 and 4 will move away from each other
39. Three magnets A, B and C were dipped one by one in a heap of iron filing. Figure. Shows the amount of
the iron filing sticking to them
The strength of these magnets will be
(A) A > B > C (B) A < B < C (C) A = B = C (D) A < B > C
40. North pole of a magnet can be identified by
(A) Another magnet having its poles marked as North pole and South pole
(B) Another magnet no matter whether the poles are marked or not
(C) Using an iron bar

(D) Using iron filings
{11}
41. A bar magnet is immersed in a heap of iron filings and pulled out. The amount of iron filling clinging to the
(A) North pole is almost equal to the south pole (B) North pole is much more than the south pole
(C) North pole is much less than the south pole (D) Magnet will be same all along its length
42. The distance between Delhi and Mumbai is usually expressed in units of
(A) Decametre (B) Metre (C) Centimetre (D) Kilometre
43. Which of the following does not express a time interval?

(A) A day (B) A second
(C) A school period (D) Time of the first bell in the school
44. Figure shows a measuring scale which is usually supplied with a geometry box. Which of the following
distance cannot be measured with this scale by using it only once?
(A) 0.1 m (B) 0.15 m (C) 0.2 m (D) 0.05 m
45. Bholu and Golu are playing in a ground. They start running from the same point A in the ground and reach
point B at the same time by following the paths marked 1 and 2 respectively as shown in Figure.
Which of the following is/are true for the given situation.
As compared to Golu, Bholu covers a
(A) Longer distance but with a lower speed
(B) Longer distance with a higher speed
(C) Shorter distance with a lower speed
(D) Shorter distance with a higher speed
{12}
46. Observe the picture given in figure carefully. A patch of light is
obtained at B, when the torch is lighted as shown. Which of the
following is kept at position A to get this patch of light?
(A) A wooden board

(B) A glass sheet
(C) A mirror
(D) A sheet of white paper
47. Four students A, B, C and D looked through pipes of different shapes to see a candle flame as shown in
Figure
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48. Which of the following is/are not always necessary to observe a shadow?
(A) Sun (B) Screen (C) Source of light (D) Opaque object
{13}
49. Which of the following can never form a circular shadow?
(A) A ball (B) A flat disc (C) A shoe box (D) An ice cream cone
50. Two students while sitting across a table looked down on to its top surface. They noticed that they could
see their own and each other’s image. The table top is likely to be made of:
(A) Unpolished wood (B) Red stone

(C) Glass sheet (D) Wood top covered with cloth
51. An iron nail is kept in each of the following liquids. In which case would it lose its shine and appear dull?
(A) Mustard oil (B) Soft drink (C) Coconut oil (D) Pine
52. Pick one material from the following which is completely soluble in water.
(A) Chalk powder (B) Tea leaves (C) Glucose (D) Saw dust
53. Which among the following are commonly used for making a safety pin?
(A) Wood and glass (B) Plastic and glass

(C) Leather and plastic (D) Steel and plastic
54. Which of the following materials is not lustrous?
(A) Gold (B) Silver (C) Wood (D) Diamond
55. Which type of the following materials is used for making the front glass (wind screen) of a car?
(A) Transparent (B) Translucent (C) Opaque (D) All the above
56. The correct way of making a solution of acid in water is to
(A) Add water to acid (B) Add acid to water
(C) Mix acid and water simultaneously (D) Add water to acid in a shallow container
{14}
57. Products of a neutralisation reaction are always
(A) An acid and a base (B) An acid and a salt
(C) A salt and water (D) A salt and a base

58. Phenolphthalein is a synthetic indicator and its colours in acidic and basic solutions, respectively are
(A) Red and blue (B) Blue and red (C) Pink and colourless (D) Colourless and pink
59. When the soil is too basic, plants do not grow well in it. To improve its quality what must be added to the
soil?
(A) Organic matter (B) Quick lime (C) Slaked lime (D) Calamine solution
60. ‘Litmus’, a natural dye is an extract of which of the following?

(A) China rose (Gudhal) (B) Beetroot
(C) Lichen (D) Blue berries (Jamun)
61. Neutralisation reaction is a

(A) Physical and reversible change (B) Physical change that cannot be reversed
(C) Chemical and reversible change (D) Chemical change that cannot be reversed
62. Which of the following set of substances contain acids?
(A) Grapes, lime water (B) Vinegar, soap
(C) Curd, milk of magnesia (D) Curd, vinegar

63. Which of the following is not a natural fibre?
(A) Cotton (B) Jute (C) Nylon (D) Flax
{15}
64. The correct sequence to get cloth is :
(A) fibre  fabric  yarn (B) fibre  yarn  fabric
(C) fabric  yarn  fibre (D) yarn  fibre  fabric
65. Which of the following mixtures would you be able to separate using the method of filtration?
(A) Oil in water (B) Cornflakes in milk (C) Salt in water (D) Sugar in milk
66. In an activity, a teacher dissolved a small amount of solid copper sulphate in a tumbler half filled with water.
Which method would you use to get back solid copper sulphate from the solution?
(A) Decantation (B) Evaporation (C) Sedimentation (D) Condensation
67. Which of the following activity does not involve use of water?
(A) Washing clothes (B) Bathing (C) Cleaning utensils (D) Drying wet clothes
68. In which of the following case evaporation of water will be slowest?
(A) A tray of water kept in sunlight (B) A kettle of water kept on a burner
(C) A glass of water kept in a room (D) A bucket of water kept on rooftop
69. Transpiration is a process in which plants
(A) receive water from soil (B) absorb water vapour from air
(C) prepare food from water (D) release water vapour
70. What is not true about air?
(A) It makes the windmill rotate (B) It helps in the movements of aeroplanes
(C) Birds can fly due to presence of air (D) It has no role in water cycle
71. The process of digestion, absorption and utilization of food by the body is called as:
(A) Digestion (B) Absorption (C) Assimilation (D) Nutrition
{16}
72. Which of the following gases is released during photosynthesis:
(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Hydrogen
73. Which of these is not necessary for photosynthesis:
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Water (C) Oxygen (D) Sunlight.
74. In absence of photosynthesis, there would be no____on the earth:
(A) Plants (B) Animals (C) Living organisms (D) Air.
75. The portion of leaf that is not exposed to sunlight will not make:
(A) Fats (B) Protein (C) Glucose (D) Starch.
76. Which of the following is an insectivorous plants?
(A) Cuscuta (B) Drosera (C) Mistletoe (D) Lichen.
77. The process by which the food is taken inside the body is called as:
(A) Assimilation (B) Absorption (C) Digestion (D) Ingestion
78. The largest gland of the body is:
(A) Pancreas (B) Gall bladder (C) Liver (D) Stomach.
79. Carbohydrates gets broken down into:
(A) Glucose (B) Fatty acids (C) Glycerol (D) Amino acids.
80. The amount of humidity in the atmosphere is a measure of____in air:
(A) Heat (B) Temperature (C) Chemical (D) Moisture
81. Find the animal living in polar regions from the following:
(A) Monkey (B) Donkey (C) Polar bear (D) Gorilla
{17}
82. Monkeys have long tail for:
(A) Grasping the branches (B) Playing
(C) Swimming (D) None of these.
83. Which type of soil is best for growing cotton?
(A) Sandy (B) Clayey (C) Loamy (D) Sandy loam
84. Water logging can be expected in soil which is rich in:
(A) Sand (B) Clay (C) Silt (D) Humus
85. Oxidation of food in presence of oxygen is:
(A) Anaerobic oxidation (B) Aerobic respiration
(C) Bronchus (D) Both A and B
86. Which of the following is a by product of anaerobic respiration?
(A) Oxygen (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Ethyl alcohol (D) Ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide.
87. During inspiration the diaphragm:
(A) Moves down (B) Moves upwards (C) Moves side wards (D) None
88. Haemoglobin combined with oxygen is called:
(A) Carbaminohaemoglobin (B) Oxyhaemoglobin
(C) Respiration (D) Bronchus.
89. The tube containing pollen grain in it is called as:
(A) Pollen tube (B) U-tube (C) Ovule tube (D) Spore tube.
90. Which of the following contains the female gamete of the flowering plants?
(A) Ovule (B) Buds (C) Pollen (D) Spores.
{18}
PART – III (Mathematics)
91. One million is equal to
(A) 1 lakh (B) 10 lakh (C) 1 crore (D) 10 crore
92. The smallest 4-digit number having three different digits is
(A) 1102 (B) 1012 (C) 1020 (D) 1002
93. Number of whole numbers between 38 and 68 is (both excluded)
(A) 31 (B) 30 (C) 29 (D) 28
94. A whole number is added to 25 and the same number is subtracted from 25. The sum of the resulting
numbers is
(A) 0 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
95. Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) The HCF of two distinct prime numbers is 1
(B) The HCF of two co prime numbers is 1
(C) The HCF of two consecutive even numbers is 2
(D) The HCF of an even and an odd number is even.
96. The largest number which always divides the sum of any pair of consecutive odd numbers is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
{19}
97. LCM of 10, 15 and 20 is
(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 180
98. Every integer less than 0 has the sign
(A) + (B) – (C) × (D) ÷
99. Number of integers lying between –1 and 1 is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
100. The greatest integer lying between –10 and –15 is
(A) –10 (B) –11 (C) –15 (D) –14
101. The two consecutive integers between which the fraction lies are
(A) 5 and 6 (B) 0 and 1 (C) 5 and 7 (D) 6 and 7
102. When is written with denominator as 12, its numerator is
(A) 3 (B) 8 (C) 24 (D) 12
{20}
103. Following figures are formed by joining six unit squares. Which figure has the smallest perimeter ?
(A) (ii) (B) (iii) (C) (iv) (D) (i)
104. A square shaped park ABCD of side 100m has two equal rectangular flower beds each of size
10m  5m. Length of the boundary of the remaining park is
(A) 360m
(B) 400m
(C) 340m
(D) 460m
105. The side of a square is 10cm. How many times will the new perimeter become if the side of the square is
doubled?
(A) 2 times (B) 4 times (C) 6 times (D) 8 times
{21}
106. Two regular Hexagons of perimeter 30cm each are joined as shown in figure. The perimeter of the new
figure is
(A) 65cm
(B) 60cm
(C) 55cm
(D) 50cm
107. If each match box contains 50 matchsticks, the number of matchsticks required to fill n such boxes is
(A) 50 + n (B) 50n (C) 50 ÷ n (D) 50 – n
108. Which of the following equations has x = 2 as a solution?
(A) x + 2 = 5 (B) x – 2 = 0 (C) 2x + 1 = 0 (D) x + 3 = 6
109. Number of line segments in figure is
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20
110. In figure, if point A is shifted to point B along the ray PX such that PB = 2PA, then the measure of “BPY
is
(A) greater than 45°
(B) 45°
(C) less than 45°
(D) 90°
{22}
111. The number ‘x’ equals one fourth of its own reciprocal , then the value of ‘x’ is equal to
1 1
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D) 4
2 4
112. What should be added to the sum of x – 2y + z and 3y – 4x + 2z to yield 4x – y + 6z ?
(A) 3x  y  z (B) 7 x  2 y  3 z (C) 3x  y  3z (D) 7 x  2 y  3 z
113. The value of a2 - b2 , if a = 1, b = 2 is
(A) 1 (B) - 3 (C) 3 (D) 0
114. Find the mean of 1, 5, 8, –2, 3
(A) 5 (B) 19/5 (C) 3 (D) -19/5
115. What is the median of the following data 37, 31, 42, 43, 46, 25, 39, 45, 32
(A) 35 (B) 39 (C) 5 (D) 8
116. Mean of the data x  5,  x  7, 4, 5, 2 x  6, 2 x  5, 7,8 is
(A) 5.175 (B) 5.782 (C) 5.875 (D) 5.674
117. Division of rational number is
(A) Commutative (B) Associative
(C) Neither commutative nor associative (D) None of these
{23}
118. The product of two rational numbers is 15. If one of the numbers is –10 , then the other is
3 2 3 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) 
2 3 2 3
1 1 1
119. What should be added to     to get 3?
 2 3 5
58 59 59 59
(A) (B) (C) (D)
30 32 30 95
10 1 1
120. Subtract from the sum of and
11 2 11
2 4 3 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 4 2
{24}
ANSWER KEY
Course I
Class VII going to Class VIII Students
PART - I PART - II PART - III
01. C
02. D
31. B 51. B 71. C 91. B 111. A
03. D
32. A 52. C 72. B 92. D 112. B
04. C
05. C 33. C 53. D 73. C 93. C 113. B
06. D
34. D 54. C 74. C 94. C 114. C
07. C
35. A 55. A 75. D 95. D 115. B
08. C
09. B 36. B 56. B 76. B 96. B 116. C
10. B
37. A 57. C 77. D 97. B 117. C
11. A
12. D 38. D 58. D 78. C 98. B 118. C
13. D 39. A 59. A 79. A 99. A 119. C

14. B
40. A 60. C 80. D 100. B 120. D
15. C
16. C 41. A 61. D 81. C 101. B
17. B 42. D 62. D 82. A 102. A
18. D
43. D 63. C 83. A 103. D
19. C
20. A 44. C 64. B 84. D 104. B
21. A 85. B 105. A
45. B 65. C
22. A
46. C 66. B 86. D 106. D
23. B
24. C 47. D 67. D 87. A 107. B
25. C 108. B
48. A 68. C 88. B
26. B
49. C 69. D 89. A 109. B
27. D
28. A 50. C 70. D 90. A 110. B
29. C
30. B
www.brothersacademy.co.in Admission Test (Course II) _ VIII going IX Students
ADMISSION TEST Code

A
Course II
Class VIII going to Class IX Students

OPY

E C
L
P
SAM
Name : ________________________________________________ Reg. No. : _____________

{1}

01. Which group of letters, in its number position is at an interval of 6 ?
(A) GMSX (B) IOTZ (C) FLRX (D) GKQY
02. If every alternate letter in the alphabet is deleted, then how many letter will be left in the alphabert ?
(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 15
03. Which is the next shape ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
04. Which shape is next in this series of shapes ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
{2}
05. Which is the next shape ?
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
06. Which shape is next in the series ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
07. Observe the combined shapes and identify the missing figure in the square .
+ = +
? =
(A) (B) (C) (D)
{3}
+ = + ? =
+ =
(A) (B) (C) (D)

In each of the following questions which alternative will replace the question mark .
09. FB is to GD as PM is to ?
(A) RO (B) SP (C) RN (D) QO
10. NA is to LF as XN is to ?
(A) YS (B) VS (C) YM (D) WM
11. FH is to DF as UY is to ?
(A) SW (B) TX (C) RX (D) TW
12. KM is to OJ as VH is to ?
(A) AG (B) YF (C) ZE (D) YG
{4}
13. DI is to EE as RQ is to ?
(A) QN (B) TO (C) PP (D) SM
14. GH is to KL as PQ is to ?
(A) ST (B) TU (C) UV (D) UT
Find the letter which will end the first word and start the second word
15. BE AS
(A) T (B) G (C) Y (D) R
16. BOT URT

T
(A) L (B) O (C) H (D) P
17. SHAR RINT
(A) P (B) K (C) T (D) Y
18. CAME IGHT
(A) R (B) L (C) P (D) K
19. HAN ATE
(A) K (B) P (C) D (D) L
20. SAL ILL
(A) T (B) K (C) P (D) N
{5}
Select the correct letter code for the shape or pattern given at the end of each line.
21.
UI RO RI NL UL ?
(A) UL (B) NI (C) NO (D) RO
22.
DY AZ BY CY DZ ?
(A) AZ (B) CZ (C) AY (D) BY
23.
ER EQ FP GQ HR ?
(A) EP (B) GR (C) FR (D) HQ
{6}
24.
XL XN ZL YM ZO ?
(A) XM (B) YL (C) ZP (D) ZM
25.
EN FM GO FL HM ?
(A) GM (B) EO (C) GL (D) EL

Answer the following questions on the basis of the diagram given below.
C
E D
26. How many blocks does the block A touch ?

(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4
{7}
27. How many blocks does the block B touch ?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
28. How many blocks does the block C touch ?
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 3
29. How many blocks does the block D touch ?
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 6
30. How many blocks does the block E touch ?
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 4
{8}
31. If a rock is brought from the surface of the moon :
(A) Its mass will change (B) Its weight will change, but not mass.
(C) Both mass and weight will change (D) Its mass and weight will remain the same.
32. The hot air balloon rises because it is
(A) Denser (B) Less dense
(C) Equally dense (D) The given statement is wrong
33. 1 millibar is equal to
(A) 100 N m–2 (B) 10 N m–2 (C) 1 N m–2 (D) 5 N m–2
34. One hertz is equivalent to :
(A) One cycle per second (B) One second
(C) One metre per second (D) One second per metre
35. The speed of sound in air at 0°C is approximately :
(A) 332 ms–1 (B) 350 ms–1 (C) 530 ms–1 (D) 332 kms–1
36. Jewellers electroplate silver and gold on :
(A) Expensive metals (B) Less expensive metals
(C) All alkali metals (D) All of these
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37. Choose the colour which is different from the others.
(A) red (B) green (C) blue (D) yellow
38. The colour of light corresponds to its
(A) speed (B) frequency (C) wave length (D) none of these
39. Which of the following cannot be charged easily by friction?
(A) Plastic scale (B) Inflated balloon (C) Woollen cloth (D) All of these
40. Figure (A-D) shows a student reading a doctor’s thermometer. Which of the figure indicates the correct
method of reading temperature?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
41. Which of the following cannot be used for measurement of time?
(A) A leaking tap (B) Simple pendulum
(C) Shadow of an object during the day (D) Blinking of eyes
{10}
42. Two students were asked to plot a distance-time graph for the motion described by Table A and Table B.
Figure -1
The graph given in Figure-1 is true for
(A) both A and B (B) A only (C) B only (D) neither A nor B
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43. A bus travels 54 km in 90 minutes. The speed of the bus is
(A) 0.6 m/s (B) 10 m/s (C) 5.4 m/s (D) 3.6 m/s
44. If we denote speed by S, distance by D and time by T, the relationship between these quantities is
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
45. Observe figure The time period of a simple pendulum is the time taken by it to travel from
(A) A to B and back to A
(B) O to A, A to B and B to A
(C) B to A, A to B and B to O
(D) A to B
46. When an electric current flows through a copper wire AB as shown in Figure, the wire
(A) deflects a magnetic needle placed near it
(B) becomes red hot
(C) gives electric shock
(D) behaves like a fuse
47. Choose the statement which is not correct in the case of an electric fuse.
(A) Fuses are inserted in electric circuits of all buildings.
(B) There is a maximum limit on the current which can safely flow through the electric circuits.
(C) There is a minimum limit on the current which can safely flow in the electric circuits.
(D) If a proper fuse is inserted in a circuit it will blow off if current exceeds the safe limit.
{12}
48. Three bulbs A, B, C are connected in a circuit as shown in Figure. When the switch is ‘ON’
(A) bulb C will glow first.
(B) bulb B and C will glow simulaneously and bulb A will glow after some time.
(C) all the bulbs A,B and C will glow at the same time.
(D) the bulbs will glow in the order A, B and C.
49. Which of the following can be used to form a real image?
(A) Concave mirror only. (B) Plane mirror only.
(C) Convex mirror only. (D) Both concave and convex mirrors.
50. You are provided with a concave mirror, a convex mirror, a concave lens and a convex lens. To obtain
an enlarged image of an object you can use either
(A) concave mirror or convex mirror. (B) concave mirror or convex lens.
(C) concave mirror or concave lens. (D) concave lens or convex lens.
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51. Photochromic glass contains :-
(A) Silver bromide (B) Silver iodide (C) Silver chloride (D) All of these
52. Terra cotta is :-
(A) Kaolin (B) Clay
(C) Unglazed primitive pottery (D) Porcelain
53. Porcelain is made from :-
(A) Clay (B) Kaolin (C) Quartz (D) White clay
54. Which of the following metals is liquid at room temperature?
(A) Sodium (B) Mercury (C) Zinc (D) Aluminium
55. Which of the following is a good conductor of heat?
(A) Bromine (B) Chlorine (C) Mercury (D) Iodine
56. Which of the following is used to cut glasses?
(A) Lead (B) Iron (C) Graphite (D) Diamond
57. Which of the following are allotropes of carbon?
(A) Coal and charcoal (B) Graphite and diamond
(C) Coke and coaltar (D) All the above
58. Formation of coal from plant matter is called -
(A) Destructive distillation (B) Carbonisation (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
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59. Coal and petroleum are-
(A) Inexhaustible resources (B) Fossil fuels
(C) Renewable resources (D) All of these
60. Heating of coal in the absence of air is called -
(A) Destructive distillation (B) Carbonisation (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
61. Producer gas is a mixture of -
(A) CO and H2 (B) CO and N2 (C) CO and CO2 (D) None of these
62. The rearing of silkworms for obtaining silk is called
(A) cocoon (B) silk (C) sericulture (D) silviculture
63. Which of the following is not a type of silk?
(A) Mulberry silk (B) Tassar silk (C) Mooga silk (D) Moth silk
64. Phenolphthalein is a synthetic indicator and its colours in acidic and basic solutions, respectively are
(A) red and blue (B) blue and red (C) pink and colourless (D) colourless and pink
65. When the soil is too basic, plants do not grow well in it. To improve its quality what must be added to
the soil?
(A) Organic matter (B) Quick lime (C) Slaked lime (D) Calamine solution
66. ‘Litmus’, a natural dye is an extract of which of the following?
(A) China rose (Gudhal) (B) Beetroot (C) Lichen (D) Blue berries (Jamun)
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67. Which of the following is a physical change?
(A) Rusting of iron (B) Combustion of magnesium ribbon
(C) Burning of candle (D) Melting of wax
68. Which of the following is a chemical change?
(A) Twinkling of stars (B) Cooking of vegetables
(C) Cutting of fruits (D) Boiling of water
69. Which of the following are not the liquid forms of water?
(i) Snow (ii) Lake water (iii) River water (iv) Water vapour (v) Ice
Choose the correct combination from the options below.
(A) (i), (iv) and (v) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iv) only
70. Water cycle does not involve which of the following?
(A) Evaporation (B) Condensation
(C) Formation of clouds (D) Rainwater harvesting

71. Identify the term that is used to describe the science or practice of growing crops and covers all the
activities of animals and cultivation:
(A) Animal husbandry (B) Horticulture (C) Agriculture (D) Nurseries.
72. Which of the following are the uses of machinery in agriculture?
(A) Increase the quantity of crop yield
(B) Get the job done faster
(C) Reduce the dependency on human and animal labour
(D) Both (B) and (C)
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73. Which of the following processes involves transferring and combination of desirable characteristic features
into plants and multiply them?
(A) Eugenics (B) Plant breeding (C) Genetic engineering (D)Crop improvement
74. Which of these parts has nitrogen fixing bacteria in legumes?
(A) Leaves (B) Flowers (C) Root nodules (D) Stems
75. Which of the following factors are utlised to increase food production and to meet the demand of an
increasing population?
(A) Practicing efficient land management and development
(B) Continous research to ensure sustainable development
(C) Using more pesticides to control pests
(D) Both (A) and (B)
76. Which of the following are considered as modern technology in agriculture?
(A) Genetic engineering is used to produce high quality traits in livestock and poultry
(B) Application of synthetic chemicals to improve soil fertility
(C) Using agromachinery for planting harvesting and collecting agriculture produce
(D) All the above.
77. Which of the following components is/are present in the nervous system?
(A) Brain (B) Spinal cord
(D) Cranial and spinal nerves (D) All of these.
78. Which type of tissues support, defend and store food in animals?
(A) Epithelial (B) Connective (C) Nervous (D) Muscular.
79. Which of the following gives the cell its shape, maintains its size, protects the internal structures inside and
is selectively permeable?
(A) Cell wall (B) Nuclear membrane (C) Cell membrane (D) Tonoplast.
80. Which of the following is called the energy currency of the cell?
(A) MTP (B) FTP (C) ATP (D) All of these.
81. Which of the following is the non-living part of the plant cell?
(A) Nucleus (B) Cytoplasm (C) Mitochondrion (D) Cell wall
{17}
82. Fungi reproduces by:
(A) Fission (B) Fusion (C) Seed formation (D) Spore formation.
83. What process takes place when yeast is added to grape juice and left for a week?
(A) Decomposition (B) Fermentation (C) Distillation (D) Oxidation
84. Which of the following is/are caused due to uncontrolled deforestation?
(A) The destruction of habitats (B) Landslides
(C) Floods (D) All of these.
85. Which of the following shows a modern technology measure that helps preserve and conserve the
environment?
(A) The practising crop rotation (B) The recycling of paper, plastics and metal cans
(C) Using machines in agricultural industry (D) Converting industrial wastes into biogas
86. What prevents soil erosion?
(A) Allowing herbivorous animals to graze excessively
(B) Growing plants to form the soil cover
(C) Increasing fertility
(D) Making the land sloppy
87. Which of the following are living resources in nature?
(A) Flora (B) Fauna (C) Soil (D) Both (A) and (B)
88. Which of the following is/are paired structure in human reproductive system?
(A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Fallopian tube (D) All of these.
89. Which of the followng sequences is in the correct order?
(A) Zygote  Embryo  Foetus  Baby (B) Zygote  Embryo  Baby  Foetus
(C) Embryo  Zygote  Baby  Foetus (D) Foetus  Zygote  Embryo  Baby
90. What is the function of the amniotic fluid?
(A) It provides food to the foetus (B) It provides oxygen to the foetus
(C) It protects the foetus from shock (D) It protects the foetus from diseases.
{18}
91. Factorise (3 – 4y – 7y2)2 – (4y + 1)2
(A) (4 – 7y2) (2 – 8y – 7y2) (B) (7y2 – 4) (2 – 8y – 7y2)
(C) (4 – 7y2) (7y2 + 8y – 2) (D) (7y2 – 4) (7y2 – 8y – 2)
92. Factorise x2 – 1 – 2a – a2
(A) (x – a – 1) (x + a – 1) (B) (x + a + 1) (x – a – 1)
(C) (x + a + 1) (x – a + 1) (D) (x – a + 1) (x + a – 1)
93. A flagstaff 17.5 m high costs a shaded length of 40.25m. The height of the building which costs a shadow
of length 28.75 m under similar conditions will be :
(A) 10 m (B) 12.5 m (C) 17.5 m (D) 21.25 m
94. 36 men can complete a piece of work in 18 days. In how many days will 27 men complete the same
work?
(A) 12 (B) 18 (C) 22 (D) 24
95. The base of a parallelogram is twice its height, if the area of parallelogram is 512 cm2 find the base
and height :
(A) 32 cm, 16 cm (B) 30 cm, 16 cm (C) 20 cm, 30 cm (D) None of these
96. The area of a trapezium is 176 cm the distance between parallel sides is 8 cm and one of the parallel
sides 10 cm. Find the other :
(A) 21 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 30 cm (D) 34 cm
{19}
97. The radius of circle whose circum ference is 88 m.
(A) 14 m (B) 20 m (C) 25 m (D) 28 m
    
98. The value of       is :
 
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
99. The value of (3° – 4°) × 52 is :
(A) 25 (B) 0 (C) – 25 (D) 125
100. 
(A) x (B) x1/2 (C) x1/3 (D) x1/6
101. If  = 3a × then a equals :
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
102. The value of  is :
(A) 91 (B) 19 (C) – 91 (D) – 19
103. If (12 + 22 + 32 + .... + 102) = 385, then the value of (22 + 42 + 62 + .... + 202) is :
(A) 770 (B) 1155 (C) 1540 (D) (385 × 385)
{20}
104. A ribbon of length m is cut into small pieces each of length m. Number of pieces will be:
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
105. The number of trees in different parks of a city are 33, 38, 48, 33, 34, 34, 33 and 24. The mode of this
data is
(A) 24 (B) 34 (C) 33 (D) 48
106. The median of the data : 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 3, 4 is
(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
107. The solution of the equation ax + b = 0 is
(A) (B) – b (C)  (D)
108. In Figure,  ROS is a right angle and  POR and  QOS are in the ratio 1 : 5. Then,  QOS
measures
(A) 150°
(B) 75°
(C) 45°
(D) 60°
{21}
109. If  PQR is congruent to  STU in figure, then what is the length of TU?
(A) 5 cm
(B) 6 cm
(C) 7 cm
(D) cannot be determined
110. In figure, if PR = 12 cm, QR = 6 cm and PL = 8 cm, then QM is
(A) 6 cm
(B) 9 cm
(C) 4 cm
(D) 2 cm
111. 0.123 can be expressed in rational from as:
900 111 123 121

(A) (B) (C) (D)
111 900 10 900
1/ 4
 256 x16 
112.  4 
 81 y 
3y 2y 3y 4y
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4x4 6x4 8x 4 5x4
113. Which of the following sets of fraction is in ascending order ?
7 9 11 11 9 7 11 7 9 9 7 11
(A) , , (B) , , (C) , , (D) , ,
9 11 13 13 11 9 13 9 11 11 9 13
{22}
cab
114. If m  , then b equals:
ab
mca  b cab  ma 1 ma
(A) (B) (C) (D)
ca m 1 c m  ca
2
6 3
115. The value of  27  6  equals
 4
3 3 3 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 4 4
2
 1 3 1
116. If  a    9, then a  3 equals:
 a a
10 3
(A) (B) 3 3 (C) 18 (D) 7 7
3
2 1 1
117. If x  2  3, then the value of x  2 and
x 2  2 is:
x x
(A) 14,8 3 (B) 14, 8 3 (C) 14, 8 3 (D) 14,8 3
118. 2.6  0.82 is equal to:
182 181 99
(A) (B) (C) (D) None
99 99 182
{23}
119. One of the diagonals of a rhombus is equals to a side of the rhombus . The pair of unequal angles of the
rhombus are:
(A) 60,80 (B) 60,120 (C) 120, 240 (D) 100,120
120. In quadrilateral ABCD, BM and DN are drawn perpendicular to AC such that BM = DN. If BR = 8
cm , then BD is:
D C
M
R
N
A B
(A) 4 cm (B) 2 cm (C) 12 cm (D) 16 cm
{24}
ANSWER KEY
Course II
Class VIII going to Class IX Students
01. C
02. B
31. B 51. B 71. C 91. A
03. D 111. B
32. B 52. C 72. D 92. B
04. A
112. A
05. B 33. A 53. D 73. C 93. B
06. A 113. A
34. A 54. B 74. C 94. D
07. C 114. D
08. A 35. A 55. C 75. D 95. A
115. D
09. D 36. B 56. D 76. D 96. D
10. B 116. C
37. D 57. B 77. D 97. A
11. A 117. C
12. C 38. C 58. B 78. B 98. C
118. A
13. D 39. B 59. B 79. C 99. B
14. B 119. B
40. A 60. A 80. C 100. D
15. B 120. D
16. C 41. D 61. B 81. D 101. D
17. A 42. A 62. C 82. D 102. A
18. B
43. B 63. D 83. B 103. C
19. C
20. A 44. C 64. D 84. D 104. C
21. C 85. B 105. C
45. A 65. A
22. A
46. A 66. C 86. B 106. C
23. C
24. C 47. C 67. D 87. D 107. C
25. B 108. B
48. C 68. B 88. D
26. D
49. A 69. A 89. A 109. B
27. C
28. C 50. B 70. D 90. C 110. C
29. A
30. D
www.brothersacademy.co.in Admission Test (Course III) _ IX going X Students
ADMISSION TEST Code

A
Course III
Class IX going to Class X Students

OPY

E C
L
P
SAM
Name : ________________________________________________ Reg. No. : _____________

{1}

01. If the first half of the alphabet is written backwards , which letter is in the 13th position ?
(A) B (B) C (C) A (D) L
02. Which letter occurs twice in INDIA and twice in BRITAIN ?
(A) T (B) D (C) I (D) N
03. Identify the one that does not belong to the group.
(A) QR (B) NM (C) JI (D) PQ
04. Identify the one which is different from the others.
(A) XZ (B) VW (C) ST (D) PQ
05. If second saturday and all sundays are holidays in a 30 day month beginning on saturday , then how many
working days are there in that month ?
(A) 20 (B) 21 (C) 23 (D) 24
06. If 1st october is sunday, then 1st November will be
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday (D) Thursday
07. Saturday was a holiday for Republic Day. 14th of the next month is again a holiday for Shivratri. What day
was it on the 14th ?
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Thursday (D) Friday
{2}
(A) 12 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 8
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
11. Which figure is the odd one out ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
{3}
12. Which letter is the odd one out ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13. Find the figure which replaces the question mark
(A) (B) (C) (D)
14. Find the figure which replaces the question mark
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
{4}
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
{5}
17. Observe the combined shapes and identify the missing figure in the square
+ = + =
+ =
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
{6}
19. Identify tha shape when when the second figure is subtracted from the first as shown in the figure below.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
IF MEGHA is coded as NFHIB and PEARL is coded as QFBSM , then
21. Identify the code for VIHANG
(A) WJIBOI (B) WJIOBH (C) WIJBHO (D) WJIBOH
22. Identify the code for BHOOMI.
(A) CIPQNJ (B) CINPPJ (C) CIPPNJ (D) ICPPNJ

{7}
23. Identify the code for PRABHA
(A) QSBCIB (B) QSBCBI (C) QQBCIB (D) QSBCCI
24. Identify the code for AKHILESH
(A) BLIJMFTT (B) BLIJFMTI (C) BILJMFTI (D) BLIJMFTI
25. Identify the code for family
(A) GBNJMW (B) GBNJMZ (C) GBNMJVV (D) GBNWMJ

Answer the following questions on the basis of the diagram given below
E D
B
26. How many blocks does the block A touch ?

(A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 2
27. How many blocks does the block B touch ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
{8}
28. How many blocks does the block C touch ?
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 5
29. How many blocks does the block D touch ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 6
30. How many blocks does the block E touch ?
(A) 2 (B) 7 (C) 3 (D) 5
{9}
31. When an object undergoes acceleration :
(A) Its speed always increases (B) Its velocity always increases
(C) It always falls towards the earth (D) A force always acts on it
32. A force of 50 N is applied on a nail of area 1 sq. m. Then the pressure is
(A) 50 N/m2 (B) 100 N/m2 (C) 0.05 N/m2 (D) 10 N/m2
33. The SI unit of thrust is
(A) N (B) dyne (C) kg wt (D) N m–2

34. The net force acting on a body of mass 1 kg moving with a uniform velocity of 5 ms–1 is :
(A) 5 N (B) 0.2 N (C) 0 N (D) None of these
35. How many dynes are equal to 1 N?
(A) 106 (B) 104 (C) 105 (D) 103
36. Under normal conditions, the colour of the sky at noon is
(A) blue (B) red (C) yellow (D) none of these
37. Pascal is the unit for
(A) pressure (B) thrust (C) buoyant force (D) none of these
38. External forces are :

(A) Always balanced (B) Never balanced
(C) May or may not be balanced (D) None of these
{10}
39. In which medium sound travels faster?
(A) Solid (B) Liquid (C) Gas (D) None of these
40. A red rose appears red in
(A) white light (B) green light (C) yellow light (D) none of these
41. Human beings cannot see
(A) red light (B) yellow light (C) green light (D) ultraviolet light
42. The unit of quantity on which pitch of the second depends is :
(A) hertz (B) metre (C) metre/second (D) second
43. If the velocity of a body does not change, its acceleration is
(A) zero (B) infinite (C) unity (D) none of these
44. If the radius of the earth were to be increased by a factor of 3, by what factor would its density have to be
changed to keep 'g' the same ?
(A) 3 (B) 1/3 (C) 6 (D) 1/6
45. When the speed of a particle is doubled, its kinetic energy
(A) remains the same (B) gets doubled (C) becomes half (D) becomes four times
46. When the speed of a particle is doubled, the ratio of its kinetic energy to its momentum
(A) remains the same (B) gets doubled (C) becomes half (D) becomes four times
{11}
47. The crack of thunder is heard after few seconds the lightning flash, because:
(A) Crack of thunder and lightning are not produced at same time
(B) Light travels extremely fast as compared to sound
(C) Sound waves slow down on passing through air
(D) None of the above

48. Lightning is a heavy flow of charges between two oppositively charged :
(A) Clouds (B) Particles (C) Atoms (D) Graphite
49. When a body is charged by induction, the end farther away from the charged body acquires the :
(A) Positive charge (B) Negative charge (C) Same charge (D) All of these
50. Which of the following is a very good conductor of electricity?
(A) Wood (B) Rubber (C) Graphite (D) None of these
{12}
51. Which of the following has the strongest interparticle force at the room temperature?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Mercury (C) Iron (D) Chalk
52. Ice cream is an example of :
(A) True solution (B) Emulsion (C) Colloid (D) Suspension
53. What is volume of gases?
(A) Definite (B) Almost Nil
(C) Large (D) Take the volume of container
54. The overall charge on an ionic compound is equal to -
(A) Charge of the cation present (B) Zero
(C) Charge of the anion present (D) Sum of charges of the cation & anion
55. Greenhouse effect is causes due to excessive release of :
(A) Methane (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
56. Acid rain damages :
(A) Old monuments (B) Old statues (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
57. The chemical formula of the copper nitrate -
(A) Cu(NO3)2 (B) CuNO3 (C) Cu2(NO3)3 (D) Cu2NO3
{13}
58. The change of state from solid to liquid known as –
(A) Fusion (B) Boiling (C) Melting (D) None of these
59. Dry ice is –
(A) Water in solid state (B) Water in gaseous state
(C) CO2 in liquid state (D) CO2 in solid state
60. Number of valence electron in Ar are–
(A) 8 (B) 18 (C) 19 (D) 20
61. The major causes of air pollution include :
(A) Burning of coal and petroleum (B) Afforestation
(C) use of catalytic converters in automobiles (D) Recycling of paper
62. Rutherford's alpha-particle Scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of–
(A) Proton (B) Electron (C) Neutron (D) Atomic nucleus
63. Isotopes of an elements have –
(A) different chemical properties (B) different atomic
(C) The same physical properties (D) Different number of neutrons

64. Which is a zone of no combustion?
(A) Blue zone (B) Dark zone (C) Luminous zone (D) All of the above
{14}
65. Which is not used as a fire extinguisher?
(A) Water (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Oxygen (D) All of the above
66. Glass is :
(A) Non-combustible (B) Combustible (C) None of these (D) All of the above
67. Which of the following is used in endoscopy?
(A) Optical fibres (B) Glass fibres (C) Glass wool (D) None of these
68. Purple-blue coloured glass is obtained by the addition of :-
(A) Chromium salts (B) Ferrous oxide (C) Cobalt salts (D) None of these
69. Which of the following non-metals occurs as a solid?
(A) Sulphur (B) Carbon (C) Iodine (D) All of the above
70. Which of the following non-metal occurs as a gas?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Chlorine (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of the above
71. The prokaryotic component(s) within a eukaryotic cell is/are
(A) Nucleus (B) Mitochondria (C) Chloroplast (D) Both (B) & (C)
72. Oxysomes are present on the
(A) Cell membrane (B) Outer membrane of mitochondria
(C) Inner membrane of mitochondria (D) Cell wall
73. Power House of Cell is
(A) Mitochondria (B) Nucleus (C) ER (D) Golgi body
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74. Which are the two types of tissues?
(A) Meristematic and permanent (B) Meristematic and temporary
(C) Meristems and temporary (D) None of the above
75. Parenchyma is a type of ____________.
(A) Complex tissue (B) Simple tissue (C) Xylem (D) Phloem
76. Class is a category between
(A) Phylum and Order (B) Kingdom and Phylum
(C) Order and Family (D) Family and Genus
77. One of the following kingdoms includes many kinds of unicellular eukaryotic organisms
(A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Fungi (D) Animalia
78. Vitamin B12 causes
(A) Pernicious anaemia (B) Night blindness (C) Scaly and Itchy skin (D) Beriberi
79. The hardest constituent of the tooth is
(A) Enamel (B) Dentine (C) Bone (D) Pulp
80. Production of urea takes place in
(A) Liver (B) Pancreas (C) Stomach (D) Small intestine
81. Hydrogen is obtained by plants from
(A) Air (B) Soil (C) Water (D) All of these
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82. Farm labour animals are called
(A) Milch animals (B) Draught animals (C) Indigenous breeds (D) Exotic breeds
83. Rice is a
(A) Kharif crop (B) Rabi crop (C) Winter crop (D) Oil seed crop
84. Health deals with
(A) Physical fitness (B) Mental fitness (C) Social fitness (D) All of these
85. Washing hands is related to
(A) Personal hygiene (B) Public hygiene (C) Economic status (D) Social status
86. Which of the following is an acute disease ?
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Hypertension (C) Typhoid (D) Diabetes
87. One of the following factor is harmful for the soil.
(A) Sun (B) Water (C) Wind (D) Polythene bag
88. Biotic component of biosphere is not constituted by
(A) Producer (B) Consumer (C) Decomposer (D) Air
89. The membranous cover which closely surrounds the lungs is

(A) Hyaline cartilage (B) Parietal pleura (C) Pericardium (D) Visceral pleura
90. Glottis is located between
(A) Nasal chamber and pharynx (B) Pharynx and larynx
(C) Larynx and trachea (D) Buccal cavity and pharynx
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91. How many prime number are there between 0 and 30 :-
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 11
92. Two irrational numbers between 2 and 2.5 are :-
(A) &  (B) &  (C)  &  (D) None of these
93. The exponential form of is :-
(A) 61/2 (B) 61/3 (C) 61/4 (D) 6
94. The coefficient of x3 in the polynomial 5 + 2x + 3x2 – 7x3 is
(A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 7 (D) –7
95. The value of P(x) = x2 – 7x + 12 at x = 3 is :-
(A) 42 (B) 0 (C) 8 (D) –6
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96. If the polynomial 2x3 – 3x2 + 2x – 4 is divided by x – 2, then the remainder is :-
(A) –4 (B) 4 (C) –40 (D) 2
97. The value of k for which x – 1 is a factor of the polynomial 4x3 + 3x2 – 4x + k is :-
(A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) –3
98. The expanded form of (x + y + 2z)2 is :-
(A) x2 + y2 + 4z2 + 2xy + 2yz + 2zx (B) x2 + y2 + 4z2 + xy + 2yz + 2zx
(C) x2 + y2 + 4z2 + 2xy + 4yz + 4zx (D) x2 + y2 + 4z2 + 2xy + 2yz + 4zx
99. If x is a positive integer such that the distance between points P(x, 2) and Q(3, –6) is 10 units, then x =
(A) 3 (B) –3 (C) 9 (D) –9
100. The perimeter of a triangle field is 144 m and ratio of the sides is 3 : 4 : 5. Then the area of the field is
(A) 864 sq m (B) 764 sq m (C) 854 sq m (D) 754 sq m
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101. One side of an equilateral triangle is 8 cm. Its area is :-
(A) 16 cm2 (B) 12 cm2 (C) 8 cm2 (D) 4 cm2
102. The area of a triangle whose sides are 13 cm, 14 cm and 15 cm :-
(A) 84 sq cm (B) 64sq cm (C) 825sq cm (D) None
103. In the given figure, AM  BC and AN is the bisector of  A. Then  MAN is :
(A) 32
(B) 16
(C) 16°
(D) 32°
104. In  ABC,  B = 90°. If AB = 14 cm and AC = 50 cm then tan A equals :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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105. In figure, O is the centre of circle of radius 5 cm. OP  AB, OQ  CD, AB||CD, AB = 6 cm and
CD = 8 cm. Then, PQ is :
(A) 7 cm
(B) 8 cm
(C) 9 cm
(D) 7.5 cm
106. Chords of a circle which are equidistant from the centre are :
(A) Parallel to each other (B) Perpendicular to each other
(C) Equal to each other (D) None of these
107. If A : B : C = 2 : 3 : 4, then is equal to :
(A) 4 : 9 : 16 (B) 8 : 9 : 12 (C) 8 : 9 : 16 (D) 8 : 9 : 24
108. If A : B = B:C= and C : D = then the ratio A : B : C : D is :
(A) 4 : 6 : 8 : 10 (B) 6 : 4 : 8 : 10 (C) 6 : 8 : 9 : 10 (D) 8 : 6 : 10 : 9
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109. If  then the value of x is :
(A) 1.5 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 3.5
110. The curved surface area of a right circular cone of height 15 cm and base diameter 16 cm is :
(A) 60  cm2 (B) 68  cm2 (C) 120  cm2 (D) 136  cm2
111. If both 121 and 27 are the factors of the number 28 × 32 × 1311 × n, then the smallest such n is
(A) 66 (B) 363 (C) 242 (D) 81
112. x3 –3 = 0 has:
(A) One rational root (B) One integral root (C) One irrational root (D) None of these.
113. x 2  4x  0 has a root  and x2 + 4x = 0 has a root ( ) , then  can be:
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
114. Three points of a triangle ABC are A (4, 1), B (5, –1) and C (7, 2), the triangle lies in
(A) 1st and 2nd quadrant (B) 2nd and 3rd quadrant
(C) 1st and 4th quadrant (D) 2nd quadrant
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115. In the adjoining figure, find BP : PD (BCD  90)
(A) 1
(B) 1/2
(C) 3/2
(D) 4/2
116. Highest common factor of 21m + 4 and 14m + 3 (where m  N ) can be:
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 9 (D) None of these.
117. Certain divisor gives remainder 8, 9 and 4 when numbers 242, 698 and 940 respectively are divided by it.
The value of divisor is
(A) 13 (B) 12 (C) 11 (D) 14
EF
118. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram and F is mid-point of AD. What is ?
FG
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5/2
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119. If N  9  4 5  9  4 5 then N is equal to
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 5 (D) 9/2
120. (2x + 3y) is divisible by 17, then for what value of k; (6x + ky) is divisible by 17
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9
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ANSWER KEY
Course III
Class IX going to Class X Students
01. C
02. C
31. D 51. C 71. D 91. B 111. B
03. D
32. A 52. B 72. C 92. A 112. A
04. A
05. D 33. A 53. D 73. A 93. C 113. D
06. C
34. C 54. B 74. A 94. D 114. C
07. C
35. C 55. C 75. B 95. B 115. A
08. A
09. C 36. A 56. C 76. A 96. B 116. D
10. C
37. A 57. A 77. B 97. D 117. A
11. A
12. C 38. C 58. C 78. A 98. C 118. B
13. B 39. A 59. D 79. A 99. C 119. A

14. C
40. A 60. A 80. A 100. A 120. D
15. A
16. B 41. D 61. A 81. C 101. A
17. C 42. A 62. D 82. B 102. A
18. A
43. A 63. D 83. A 103. C
19. B
20. D 44. B 64. B 84. D 104. B
21. D 85. A 105. A
45. D 65. C
22. C
46. B 66. A 86. C 106. C
23. A
24. D 47. B 67. A 87. D 107. D
25. B 108. D
48. A 68. C 88. D
26. D
49. C 69. D 89. D 109. C
27. A
28. A 50. C 70. C 90. B 110. D
29. C
30. A
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www.brothersacademy.co.in Admission Test (Course IV) _ X going XI Students
ADMISSION TEST Code

A
Course IV
Class X going to Class XI Students
 The paper is divided into TWO PARTS. PART - I contains 30 question of Basic Aptitude.
PART - II contains 90 question of Section - I (Physics - 30), Section - II (Chemistry - 30) &
Section - III (Mathematics - 30).
 It contains a total of 120 questions and 20 printed pages.
 For answering a question, an ANSWER SHEET is provided separately. Please fill your Reg. No.
 Please darken the entire circle that corresponds to your answer for each question. Use only HB
Name : ________________________________________________ Reg. No. : _____________

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01. Find the wrong term in the series
3, 8, 15, 24, 34, 48, 63.
(A) 15 (B) 12 (C) 34 (D) 63
02. Complete the given series 4, 9, 13, 22, 35..............
(A) 57 (B) 70 (C) 63 (D) 75
03. Complete the given series 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, .............
(A) 81 (B) 82 (C) 83 (D) 85
04. Complete the given series 8, 24, 12, 36, 18, 54,.............
(A) 27 (B) 29 (C) 31 (D) 32
05. AZ, GT, MN, ........, YB
(A) KF (B) RX (C) SH (D) TS
06. Choose the missing term from the given options.
KM5, IP8, GS11, EV14, ...........
(A) BX17 (B) BY17 (C) CY18 (D) CY17
07. –b––b––––ab–––––
1––2–1––––2–––––
The last four terms in the series are
(A) 1 2 2 2 (B) 2 2 2 1 (C) 2 2 1 2 (D) 2 2 2 2
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08. acb––debca–c–edd–––
–2–35––––4––1––––––
The last five terms in the number series are
(A) 53214 (B) 35124 (C) 35531 (D) 53124
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 09-12) : Find which one word cannot be made from the letters of the given word.
09. UNCONSCIOUS
(A) SON (B) COIN (C) SUN (D) NOSE
10. CREDENTIAL
(A) DENTAL (B) CREATE (C) TRAIN (D) CREAM
11. CONTEMPORARY
(A) PARROT (B) COMPANY (C) CARPENTER (D) PRAYER
12. CHOCOLATE
(A) TELL (B) HEALTH (C) LATE (D) COOLER
13. Shoot is to Gun as Eat is to ........
(A) Hunger (B) Thirst (C) Dinner (D) Fruit
14. INTROVERT : EXTROVERT
(A) ANGLE : TANGENT (B) EXTREME : INTERIM
(C) AGAINST : FAVOUR (D) ACTION : LAW
15. Clever is to Beautiful as Sour is to ...........
(A) Lemon (B) Cunning (C) Loathing (D) Taste
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16. MAN : MAMMAL
(A) HALL : SNOW (B) NATIVE : INHABITANT
(C) OFFSPRING : FAMILY (D) LIBERTY : URBANISM
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17-18) : Abra is Rambo's daughter. Shintu is Rambo's sister. Shintu's daughter is called Cabra
and son is called Dadra. Limba is Cabra's maternal Aunt.
17. Abra is limba's
(A) Aunt (B) Nephew (C) Uncle (D) None of these
18. Cabra is Rambo's
(A) Nephew (B) Niece (C) uncle (D) Cannot say
19. Deepa moved a distance of 75 metres towards the north. She then turned to the left and then turned to the right
at an angle of 45o. In which direction was she moving finally ?
(A) North-east (B) North-west (C) South (D) South-east
20. Johnson left for his office in his car. He drove 15 km towards north and then 10 km towards west. He then turned
to the south and covered 5 km. Further, he turned to the east and moved 8 km. Finally, he turned right and drove
10 km. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point ?
(A) 2 km West (B) 5 km East (C) 3 km North (D) 6 Km South
21. You go North, turn right, then right again and then go to the left. In which direction are you now ?
(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West
22. A man leaves for his office from his house. He walks towards East. After moving a distance of 20 m, he turns
south and walks 10 m. Then he walks 35 m towards the west and further 5 m towards the north. He then turns
towards east and walks 15 m. What is the straight distance (in metres) between his initial and final position ?
(A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) Can't be determined
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23. A result of a survey of 1000 persons with respect to their knowledge of Hindi (H), English (E) and Sanskrit (S)
is given below :
What is the ratio of those who know all the three languages to those who do not know Sanskrit ?
1 1 10 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 10 17 27
24. A clock gains 5 minutes. in 24 hours. It was set right at 10 am on Monday. What will be the true time when the
clock indicates 10:30 am on the next Sunday ?
(A) 10 a.m. (B) 11 a.m. (C) 25 mins past 10 a.m. (D) 5 mins. to 11 a.m.
25. At what time between 3 and 4 O'clock are the hands of a clock together -
4 6 5 3
(A) 16 min. past 3 (B) 16 min. past 3 (C) 16 min. past 3 (D) 16 min. past 3
11 11 11 11
26.
(A) 96 (B) 120 (C) 144 (D) 100
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27.
(A) 16, 8 (B) 49, 7 (C) 36, 4 (D) 25, 5
28.
(A) 11 E (B) 28 G (C) 35 I (D) 48 F
29.
(A) 82 (B) 100 (C) 68 (D) 64
30.
(A) 47 (B) 45 (C) 37 (D) 35
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PART – II
Section - I (Physics)
31. The angle of incidence is the angle between
(A) the incident ray and the surface of the mirror (B) the reflected ray and the surface of the mirror
(C) the normal to the surface and the incident ray (D) the normal to the surface and the reflected ray
32. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. The distance between its image and the pole
is :
(A) equal to f (B) between f and 2 f (C) equal to 2 f (D) greater than 2 f
33. If an incident ray passes through the centre of curvature of a spherical mirror, the reflected ray will
(A) pass through the pole (B) pass through the focus
(C) retrace its path (D) be parallel to the principal axis
34. A ray of light goes from a medium of refractive index n1 to a medium of refractive index n2. The angle of
incidence is i and the angle of refraction is r. Then, sin i / sin r is equal to
(A) n1 (B) n2 (C) n1/n2 (D) n2/n1
35. A thin lens and a spherical mirror have a focal length of +15 cm each.
(A) Both are convex. (B) The lens is convex and the mirror is concave
(C) The lens is concave and the mirror is convex (D) Both are concave.
36. A convex lens forms a virtual image when an object is placed at a distance of 18 cm from it. The focal length
must be
(A) greater than 36 cm (B) greater than 18 cm (C) less than 9 cm (D) less than 18 cm
37. A lens has a power of +0.5 D. It is :
(A) a concave lens of focal length 5 m (B) a convex lens of focal length 5 cm
(C) a convex lens of focal length 2 m (D) a concave lens of focal length 2 m
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38. When the eye is focused on an object very far away, the focal length of the eye-lens is :
(A) maximum (B) minimum (C) equal to that of the crystalline lens
(D) half its maximum focal length
39. The potential at a point is 20 V. The work done in bringing a charge of 0.5 C from infinity to this point will be :
(A) 20 J (B) 10 J (C) 5 J (D) 40 J
40. Joule / coulomb is the same as
(A) watt (B) volt (C) ampere (D) ohm
41. An ammeter is always connected in ....... and a voltmeter in ...... . The suitable words, in order, for the blanks
are
(A) series; series (B) parallel; parallel (C) parallel; series (D) series; parallel
42. An electric current passes through a straight wire. Magnetic compasses are placed at the points A and B.
(A) Their needles will not deflect.
A i
(B) Only one of the needles will deflect. B
(C) Both the needles will deflect in the same direction.

(D) The needles will deflect in the opposite directions.
43. Which of the following involves electromagnetic induction ?
(A) A rod is charged with electricity (B) An electric current produces a magnetic field.
(C) A magnetic field exerts a force on a current-carrying wire.
(D) The relative motion between a magnet and a coil produces an electric current.
44. Which of the following describes the common domestic power supplied in India ?
(A) 220 V, 100 Hz (B) 110 V, 100 Hz (C) 220 V, 50 Hz (D) 110 V, 50 Hz
45. An electric fuse can prevent accidents arising from
(A) an overload but not due to a short circuit (B) a short circuit but not due to an overload
(C) an overload as well as a short circuit (D) neither an overload nor a short circuit
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46. A 10 mm long pin is placed vertically in front of a concave mirror. A 5 mm long image of the pin is formed at 30
cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this mirror is
(A) –30 cm (B) –20 cm (C) –40 cm (D) –60 cm
47. The resistance whose V – I graph is given below
5 3
V (volt)
(A)  (B) 
3 5
5 2 0
(C)  (D)  5 10 15 20
2 5 I (ampere)
48. A cooler of 1500 W, 200 volt and a fan of 500 W, 200 volt are to be used from a supply. The rating of fuse to be
used is
(A) 2.5 A (B) 5.0 A (C) 11 A (D) 20 A
49. One moving a charge of 20 coulomb by 2 cm, 2J of work is done, then the potential difference between
the points is
(A) 0.1 V (B) 8 V (C) 2V (D) 0.5 V.
50. If an ammeter is to be used in place of a voltmeter, then we must connect with the ammeter a
(A) Low resistance in parallel (B) High resistance in parallel
(C) High resistance in series (D) Low resistance in series
51. A wire when connected to 220 V mains supply has power dissipation P 1. Now the wire is cut into two
equal pieces which are connected in parallel to the same supply. Power dissipation in this case is P 2.
The P 2 : P1 is :
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 3
52. If in the circuit, power dissipation is 150 W, then R is :
(A) 2 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 4
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53. A 3 volt battery with negligible internal resistance is connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. The
current I, from the battery :
(A) 1 A
(B) 1.5 A
(C) 2 A
(D) 1/3 A
54. The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is :
(A) 4 A
(B) 2 A
(C) 1 A
(D) 6 A
55. An electric current is passed through a circuit containing two wires of the same material, connected in
4 2
parallel. If the lengths and radii are in the ratio of and , then the ratio of the current passing through
3 3
the wires will be :
(A) 8/9 (B) 1/3 (C) 3 (D) 2
56. The current I drawn from the 5 volt source will be :
(A) 0.33 A
(B) 0.5 A
(C) 0.67 A
(D) 0.17 A
57. In a Wheatstone's bridge, three resistances P, Q and R connected in the three arms and the fourth arm
is formed by two resistances S 1 and S2 connected in parallel. The condition for the bridge to be balanced
will be :
P 2R P R(S1  S2 ) P R(S1  S2 ) P R
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
Q S1  S2 Q S1S2 Q 2S1S2 Q S1  S2
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58. An electric bulb is rated 220 volt – 100 watt. The power consumed by it when operated on 110 volt will be
:
(A) 75 watt (B) 40 watt (C) 25 watt (D) 50 watt
59. Coumn -I Column - II
(Position of the object) (Nature and size of image formed by a concave mirror)
(A) At infinity (p) At C
(B) Beyond C (q) At infinity
(C) At C (r) At the focus F
(D) Between C and F (s) Behind the mirror
(E) At F (t) Between F and C
(F) Between P and F (u) Beyond C
(A) (A)-(t); (B)-(r); (C)-(p); (D)-(u); (E)-(q); (F)-(s) (B) (A)-(r); (B)-(t); (C)-(p); (D)-(u); (E)-(q); (F)-(s)
(C) (A)-(r); (B)-(t); (C)-(p); (D)-(u); (E)-(s); (F)-(q) (D) (A)-(r); (B)-(t); (C)-(u); (D)-(p); (E)-(q); (F)-(s)
(A) Speed (p) No unit
(B) Focal length (q) Dioptre
(C) Power of a lens (r) ms–1
(D) Refractive index (s) cm.
(A) (A)-(q); (B)-(p); (C)-(r); (D)-(s) (B) (A)-(s); (B)-(q); (C)-(p); (D)-(r)
(C) (A)-(r); (B)-(q); (C)-(p); (D)-(s) (D) (A)-(r); (B)-(s); (C)-(q); (D)-(p)
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Section - II (Chemistry)
61. What happens when copper rod is dipped in iron sulphate solution :
(A) copper displaces iron (B) blue colour of copper sulphate solution is obtained
(C) no reaction takes place (D) reaction is exothermic
62. Zn  H2SO4 (dil)  ZnSO 4  H2 , reaction is :
(A) decomposition reaction (B) single displacement reaction
(C) combination reaction (D) synthesis reaction
63. The reaction in which two compounds exchange their ions to form two new compounds is :
(A) a displacement reaction (B) a decomposition reaction
(C) an isomerization reaction (D) a double displacement reaction
64. In the equation, NaOH  HNO3  NaNO3  H2O nitric acid is acting as :
(A) an oxidising agent (B) an acid (C) a nitrating agent (D) a dehydrating agent
65. Hydrogen sulphide (H2S) is a strong reducing agent. Which of the following reaction shows its reducing action
(A) Cd(NO3 )2  H2 S  CdS  2HNO3 (B) CuSO4  H2S 

 CuS  H2 SO 4
(C) 2FeCI3  H2S 

 2FeCI2  2HCI  S (D) Pb(NO3 )2  H2 S  PbS  2CH3 COOH
66. The acid used in making of vinegar is :
(A) formic acid (B) acetic acid (C) sulphuric acid (D) nitric acid
67. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky. The solution contains
(A) NaCI (B) HCI (C) LiCI (D) KCI
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68. In a 0.250 M solution of Na3PO 4 , the concentration of the sodium ions would be :
(A) 0.250 M (B) 0.750 M (C) 0.0833 M (D) 1.00 M
69. Which among the following is the weakest base :
(A) NaOH (B) Ca(OH)2 (C) NH4 OH (D) KOH
70. Which of the following is not an atomic characteristic of metal :
(A) Malleable nature (B) Electropositive nature (C) Ductile nature (D) None of these
71. Heating of concentrated ore in absence of air for conversion into oxide ore is known as :
(A) roasting (B) calcination (C) reduction (D) none of these
72. Which reducing agent is used in chemical reduction :
(A) C (B) CO (C) Al (D) All of these
73. Sodium is obtained by the electrolysis of :
(A) an aqueous solution of sodium chloride (B) an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide
(C) fused sodium chloride (D) fused sodium sulphate
74. Alkynes are characterized by :
(A) C  C bonds (B) C  C bonds (C) C  C bonds (D) Cyclic structure
75. CH3CH2  CH  CH  CH2CH3 has the IUPAC name

CH3 CHO
(A) 2–sec Butylbutanal (B) 2, 3–Diethylbutanal
(C) 2–Ethyl–3–methylpentanal (D) 3–Methyl–2–ethylpentanal
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76. The functional group present in CH3 COOC2H5 is :
(A) Ketone (B) Aldehyde (C) Ester (D) Carboxylic acid
77. The functional group present in an organic acid is :
(A) – OH (B) –CHO (C) –COOH (D) >C = O
78. Which of the following reactions involves the combination of two elements :
1
(A) CaO  CO2  CaCO3 (B) 4Na  O2  2Na2O (C) SO 2  O2  SO3 (D) NH3  HCI  NH4 CI
2
79. When the gases sulphur dioxide and hydrogen sulphide are mixed in presence of water, the reaction is :
SO 2  2H2S  2H2 O  3S. Here hydrogen sulphide is acting as :
(A) an oxidising agent (B) a reducing agent (C) a dehydrating agent (D) a catalyst
80. The equation Cu  xHNO3  Cu(NO3 )2  yNO2  2H2O The values of x and y are :
(A) 3 & 5 (B) 8 & 6 (C) 4 & 2 (D) 7 & 1
81. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl 2 which is a solid with a high melting point. The X would
be most likely be in the same group of the Periodic Table as
(A) Na (B) Mg (C) Al (D) Si
82. The soaps are formed by the saponification of
(A) Alcohols (B) Simple ester (C) Carboxylic acids (D) Glycerides
83. The Functional group of butanone is
(A) Carboxylic (B) Ketone (C) Aldehyde (D) Alcohol
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84. The IUPAC name of is
(A) Pentan - 2,4 - dione B) Pent - 2, 4 - one
(C) Penta - 2, 4 - dione (D) Both (A) and (C)
85. The rectified spirit is
(A) 50% ethanol (B) 80% ethanol (C) 95% ethanol (D) 40 to 50% ethanol
86. The dilute alkaline KMnO 4 solution is better
(A) An oxidising agent (B) a reducing agent (C) a bleaching agent (D) drying agent
87. The by product in soap industry is
(A) Isoprene (B) Ethylene glycol (C) Glycerol (D) Butane
88. An example of soap is
(A) C15H31COONa (B) CH3COONa (C) C6H5COONa (D) C17H35OSO3Na
89. Which of the following is stronger acid
(A) R–SO3H (B) R–COOH
(C) R–OH (D) All are having equal acidic strength
90. Which of the following is the most prior functional group
(A) (B) (C) – COOH (D) –OH
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Section - III (Mathematics)
91. If two numbers when divided by a certain divisor give remainder 35 and 30 respectively and when their sum is
divided by the same divisor, the remainder is 20, then the divisior is
(A) 40 (B) 45 (C) 50 (D) 55
92. The least number which is a perfect square and is divisible by each of 16, 20 and 24 is :
(A) 240 (B) 1600 (C) 2400 (D) 3600
93. If the expression (x 2  x  c) when divided by (x  1) leaves remainder 3, then the value of c is :
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
94. If (x  1) and (x  2) are the factors of the expression (2x 3  px 2  x  q), then the values of p and q are given
by :
(A) p  5, q  2 (B) p  7, q  8 (C) p  7, q  10 (D) p  15, q  12
95. The value of k for which the polynomial 2x 3  x2  3x  k is divisible by (x  1) is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
96. x & y are 2 different digits. If the sum of the two digit numbers formed by using both the digits is a perfect
square, then value of x+y is :
(A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 13
97. If 3x  4y : x  2y  9 : 4, then 3x  5y : 3x  y is equal to :
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 7 : 1 (D) 1 : 7
98. If the roots of the given equation 2x 2  3 (   2)x    10  0 be equal in magnitude but opposite in sign,
then  =
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 2 / 3
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99. If the equation 2x 2  6x  p  0 has real and different roots, the values of p are given by :
9 9 9 9
(A) p  (B) p  (C) p  (D) p 
2 2 2 2
100. The roots of x 2  bx  c  0 are each decreased by 2. The resulting equation is x 2  2x  1  0 . Then
(A) b  6,c  9 (B) b  3,c  5 (C) b  2,c  1 (D) b  4,c  3
101. The number of terms of the series 5, 7, 9, ....... that must be taken in order to have sum of 1020 is :
(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 50
102. If a,b,c,d,e,f are in A.P., then e – c is equal to :
(A) 2(c  a) (B) 2(d  c) (C) 2(f  d) (D) (d  c)
103. If the nth term of an A.P. is given by an  5n  3, then the sum of first 10 terms is :
(A) 225 (B) 245 (C) 255 (D) 270
sin   cos 
104. If sin   cos   a and  b, then
sin  cos 
2a 2b
(A) b  (B) a  (C) ab  b2  1 (D) a  b  1
a2  1 b2  1
a sin   b cos 
105. If b tan   a, the value of
a sin   bcos 
ab ab a2  b2 a2  b2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
a2  b2 a2  b2 a2  b2 a2  b2
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106. If tan   sin   m and tan   sin   n , then the value of m2  n 2 is equal to :
(A) 4 mn (B) 2 mn (C) 4 mn (D) 2 m / n
107. If the mean of the numbers 27  x,31  x,89  x,107  x,156  x is 82, then the mean of
130  x,126  x,68  x,50  x,1  x is :
(A) 75 (B) 157 (C) 82 (D) 80
108. The number of observations in a group is 40. If the average of first 10 is 4.5 and that of the remaining 30 is 3.5,
then the average of the whole group is :
1 15
(A) (B) (C) 4 (D) 8
5 4
109. The top of a broken tree has its top touching the ground (shown in the adjoining figure) at a distance of 10 m
from the bottom. If the angle made by the broken part with ground is 30o, then the length of the broken part is:
(A) 10 3 cm
20
(B) m
3
(C) 20 cm
(D) 20 3 m
110. If the length of the shadow of a tower is 3 times that of its height, then the angle of elevation of the sun is :
(A) 15o (B) 30o (C) 45o (D) 60o
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111. The number of real solutions of x –   is :

 
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) Infinite
2
112. The number of real solutions of the equation 2 x  5 x  2  0 is :
(A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) None of these
113. Equation ax2 + 2x + 1 has one double root if :
(A) a = 0 (B) a = – 1 (C) a = 1 (D) a = 2
114. The greatest possible number with which when we divide 37 and 58, leaves the respective remainder of 2
and 3, is –
115. The largest possible number with which when 60 and 98 are divided, leaves the remainder 3 in each case, is-
116. The largest possible number with which when 38, 66 and 80 are divided the remainders remain the same is-
15
117. is equal to –
10  20  40  125
(A) 5(5  2) (B) 5(2  2) (C) 5( 2  1) (D) 5(3  2)
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118. In the figure AD = 12 cm, AB = 20 cm and AE = 10 cm. Find EC.
(A) 14 cm A
(B) 10 cm
E
D
(C) 8 cm 12
3°
(D) 15 cm 57°
B C
119. In the given fig, BC = AC = AD,  EAD = 81°. Find the value of x.
(A) 45° E
A
81°
(B) 54°
(C) 63°
x
(D) 36° B C D
120. If sin   cos   a, then sin 6   cos 6  is equal to :
3 3 3  4(a 2  1)2 3  3(a 2  1)2

(A) 1 + (a2 – 1)2 (B) 1 – (a2 – 1)2 (C) (D)
4 4 4 4
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ANSWER KEY
Course IV
PART - I PART - II
01. C
Section - I Section - II Section - III
02. A 31. C 61. C 91. B

32. C 62. B 92. D
03. C
33. C 63. D 93. B
04. A
34. D 64. B 94. C
05. C
35. A 65. C 95. D
06. D
36. B 66. B 96. B
07. C
37. C 67. B 97. C
08. C
38. A 68. B 98. B
09. D
39. B 69. C 99. A
10. D
40. B 70. D 100. A
11. C
41. D 71. B 101. B
12. D
42. D 72. D 102. B
13. D
43. D 73. C 103. B
14. C
44. C 74. C 104. A
15. B
45. C 75. C 105. D
16. C
46. B 76. C 106. C
17. D
47. B 77. C 107. A
18. B 48. A 78. B 108. B
19. D 49. A 79. B 109. B
20. A 50. C 80. C 110. B
21. C 51. B 81. B 111. A
22. B 52. B 82. D 112. B
23. D 53. B 83. B 113. C
24. A 54. A 84. A 114. B
25. A 55. B 85. C 115. C
26. C 56. B 86. A 116. A
27. A 57. B 87. C 117. C
28. B 58. C 88. A 118. A
29. B 59. B 89. A 119. B
30. C 60. D 90. C 120. B
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www.brothersacademy.co.in Admission Test (Course V) _ X going XI Students
ADMISSION TEST Code

A
Course V
Section - III (Biology - 30).
Name : ________________________________________________ Reg. No. : _____________

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01. Find the wrong term in the series
3, 8, 15, 24, 34, 48, 63.
(A) 15 (B) 12 (C) 34 (D) 63
02. Complete the given series 4, 9, 13, 22, 35..............
(A) 57 (B) 70 (C) 63 (D) 75
03. Complete the given series 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, .............
(A) 81 (B) 82 (C) 83 (D) 85
04. Complete the given series 8, 24, 12, 36, 18, 54,.............
(A) 27 (B) 29 (C) 31 (D) 32
05. AZ, GT, MN, ........, YB
(A) KF (B) RX (C) SH (D) TS
06. Choose the missing term from the given options.
KM5, IP8, GS11, EV14, ...........
(A) BX17 (B) BY17 (C) CY18 (D) CY17
07. –b––b––––ab–––––
1––2–1––––2–––––
The last four terms in the series are
(A) 1 2 2 2 (B) 2 2 2 1 (C) 2 2 1 2 (D) 2 2 2 2
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08. acb––debca–c–edd–––
–2–35––––4––1––––––
The last five terms in the number series are
(A) 53214 (B) 35124 (C) 35531 (D) 53124
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 09-12) : Find which one word cannot be made from the letters of the given word.
09. UNCONSCIOUS
(A) SON (B) COIN (C) SUN (D) NOSE
10. CREDENTIAL
(A) DENTAL (B) CREATE (C) TRAIN (D) CREAM
11. CONTEMPORARY
(A) PARROT (B) COMPANY (C) CARPENTER (D) PRAYER
12. CHOCOLATE
(A) TELL (B) HEALTH (C) LATE (D) COOLER
13. Shoot is to Gun as Eat is to ........
(A) Hunger (B) Thirst (C) Dinner (D) Fruit
14. INTROVERT : EXTROVERT
(A) ANGLE : TANGENT (B) EXTREME : INTERIM
(C) AGAINST : FAVOUR (D) ACTION : LAW
15. Clever is to Beautiful as Sour is to ...........
(A) Lemon (B) Cunning (C) Loathing (D) Taste
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16. MAN : MAMMAL
(A) HALL : SNOW (B) NATIVE : INHABITANT
(C) OFFSPRING : FAMILY (D) LIBERTY : URBANISM
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17-18) : Abra is Rambo's daughter. Shintu is Rambo's sister. Shintu's daughter is called Cabra
and son is called Dadra. Limba is Cabra's maternal Aunt.
17. Abra is limba's
19. Deepa moved a distance of 75 metres towards the north. She then turned to the left and then turned to the right
at an angle of 45o. In which direction was she moving finally ?
20. Johnson left for his office in his car. He drove 15 km towards north and then 10 km towards west. He then turned
to the south and covered 5 km. Further, he turned to the east and moved 8 km. Finally, he turned right and drove
10 km. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point ?
22. A man leaves for his office from his house. He walks towards East. After moving a distance of 20 m, he turns
south and walks 10 m. Then he walks 35 m towards the west and further 5 m towards the north. He then turns
towards east and walks 15 m. What is the straight distance (in metres) between his initial and final position ?
{4}
23. A result of a survey of 1000 persons with respect to their knowledge of Hindi (H), English (E) and Sanskrit (S)
is given below :
What is the ratio of those who know all the three languages to those who do not know Sanskrit ?
1 1 10 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 10 17 27
24. A clock gains 5 minutes. in 24 hours. It was set right at 10 am on Monday. What will be the true time when the
clock indicates 10:30 am on the next Sunday ?
(A) 10 a.m. (B) 11 a.m. (C) 25 mins past 10 a.m. (D) 5 mins. to 11 a.m.
25. At what time between 3 and 4 O'clock are the hands of a clock together -
4 6 5 3
(A) 16 min. past 3 (B) 16 min. past 3 (C) 16 min. past 3 (D) 16 min. past 3
11 11 11 11
26.
(A) 96 (B) 120 (C) 144 (D) 100
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27.
(A) 16, 8 (B) 49, 7 (C) 36, 4 (D) 25, 5
28.
(A) 11 E (B) 28 G (C) 35 I (D) 48 F
29.
(A) 82 (B) 100 (C) 68 (D) 64
30.
(A) 47 (B) 45 (C) 37 (D) 35
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PART – II
31. The angle of incidence is the angle between
(A) the incident ray and the surface of the mirror (B) the reflected ray and the surface of the mirror
(C) the normal to the surface and the incident ray (D) the normal to the surface and the reflected ray
32. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. The distance between its image and the pole
is :
(A) equal to f (B) between f and 2 f (C) equal to 2 f (D) greater than 2 f
33. If an incident ray passes through the centre of curvature of a spherical mirror, the reflected ray will
(A) pass through the pole (B) pass through the focus
(C) retrace its path (D) be parallel to the principal axis
34. A ray of light goes from a medium of refractive index n1 to a medium of refractive index n2. The angle of
incidence is i and the angle of refraction is r. Then, sin i / sin r is equal to
(A) n1 (B) n2 (C) n1/n2 (D) n2/n1
35. A thin lens and a spherical mirror have a focal length of +15 cm each.
(A) Both are convex. (B) The lens is convex and the mirror is concave
(C) The lens is concave and the mirror is convex (D) Both are concave.
36. A convex lens forms a virtual image when an object is placed at a distance of 18 cm from it. The focal length
must be
(A) greater than 36 cm (B) greater than 18 cm (C) less than 9 cm (D) less than 18 cm
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37. A lens has a power of +0.5 D. It is :
(A) a concave lens of focal length 5 m (B) a convex lens of focal length 5 cm
(C) a convex lens of focal length 2 m (D) a concave lens of focal length 2 m
38. When the eye is focused on an object very far away, the focal length of the eye-lens is :
(A) maximum (B) minimum (C) equal to that of the crystalline lens
(D) half its maximum focal length
39. The potential at a point is 20 V. The work done in bringing a charge of 0.5 C from infinity to this point will be :
(A) 20 J (B) 10 J (C) 5 J (D) 40 J
40. Joule / coulomb is the same as
(A) watt (B) volt (C) ampere (D) ohm
41. An ammeter is always connected in ....... and a voltmeter in ...... . The suitable words, in order, for the blanks
are
(A) series; series (B) parallel; parallel (C) parallel; series (D) series; parallel
42. An electric current passes through a straight wire. Magnetic compasses are placed at the points A and B.
(A) Their needles will not deflect.

A i
(B) Only one of the needles will deflect. B
(C) Both the needles will deflect in the same direction.
(D) The needles will deflect in the opposite directions.
43. Which of the following involves electromagnetic induction ?
(A) A rod is charged with electricity (B) An electric current produces a magnetic field.
(C) A magnetic field exerts a force on a current-carrying wire.
(D) The relative motion between a magnet and a coil produces an electric current.
{8}
44. Which of the following describes the common domestic power supplied in India ?
(A) 220 V, 100 Hz (B) 110 V, 100 Hz (C) 220 V, 50 Hz (D) 110 V, 50 Hz
45. An electric fuse can prevent accidents arising from
(A) an overload but not due to a short circuit (B) a short circuit but not due to an overload
(C) an overload as well as a short circuit (D) neither an overload nor a short circuit
46. A 10 mm long pin is placed vertically in front of a concave mirror. A 5 mm long image of the pin is formed at 30
cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this mirror is
(A) –30 cm (B) –20 cm (C) –40 cm (D) –60 cm
47. The resistance whose V – I graph is given below
5 3
V (volt)
(A)  (B) 
3 5
5 2 0
(C)  (D)  5 10 15 20
2 5 I (ampere)
48. A cooler of 1500 W, 200 volt and a fan of 500 W, 200 volt are to be used from a supply. The rating of fuse to be
used is
(A) 2.5 A (B) 5.0 A (C) 11 A (D) 20 A
49. One moving a charge of 20 coulomb by 2 cm, 2J of work is done, then the potential difference between
the points is
(A) 0.1 V (B) 8 V (C) 2V (D) 0.5 V.
50. If an ammeter is to be used in place of a voltmeter, then we must connect with the ammeter a
(A) Low resistance in parallel (B) High resistance in parallel
(C) High resistance in series (D) Low resistance in series
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51. A wire when connected to 220 V mains supply has power dissipation P 1. Now the wire is cut into two
equal pieces which are connected in parallel to the same supply. Power dissipation in this case is P 2.
The P 2 : P1 is :
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 3
52. If in the circuit, power dissipation is 150 W, then R is :
(A) 2 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 4
53. A 3 volt battery with negligible internal resistance is connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. The
current I, from the battery :
(A) 1 A
(B) 1.5 A
(C) 2 A
(D) 1/3 A
54. The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is :
(A) 4 A
(B) 2 A
(C) 1 A
(D) 6 A
55. An electric current is passed through a circuit containing two wires of the same material, connected in
4 2
parallel. If the lengths and radii are in the ratio of and , then the ratio of the current passing through
3 3
the wires will be :
(A) 8/9 (B) 1/3 (C) 3 (D) 2
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56. The current I drawn from the 5 volt source will be :
(A) 0.33 A
(B) 0.5 A
(C) 0.67 A
(D) 0.17 A
57. In a Wheatstone's bridge, three resistances P, Q and R connected in the three arms and the fourth arm
is formed by two resistances S 1 and S2 connected in parallel. The condition for the bridge to be balanced
will be :
P 2R P R(S1  S2 ) P R(S1  S2 ) P R
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
Q S1  S2 Q S1S2 Q 2S1S2 Q S1  S2
58. An electric bulb is rated 220 volt – 100 watt. The power consumed by it when operated on 110 volt will be
:
(A) 75 watt (B) 40 watt (C) 25 watt (D) 50 watt
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(Position of the object) (Nature and size of image formed by a concave mirror)
(A) At infinity (p) At C
(B) Beyond C (q) At infinity
(C) At C (r) At the focus F
(D) Between C and F (s) Behind the mirror
(E) At F (t) Between F and C
(F) Between P and F (u) Beyond C
(A) (A)-(t); (B)-(r); (C)-(p); (D)-(u); (E)-(q); (F)-(s) (B) (A)-(r); (B)-(t); (C)-(p); (D)-(u); (E)-(q); (F)-(s)
(C) (A)-(r); (B)-(t); (C)-(p); (D)-(u); (E)-(s); (F)-(q) (D) (A)-(r); (B)-(t); (C)-(u); (D)-(p); (E)-(q); (F)-(s)
(A) Speed (p) No unit
(B) Focal length (q) Dioptre
(C) Power of a lens (r) ms–1
(D) Refractive index (s) cm.
(A) (A)-(q); (B)-(p); (C)-(r); (D)-(s) (B) (A)-(s); (B)-(q); (C)-(p); (D)-(r)
(C) (A)-(r); (B)-(q); (C)-(p); (D)-(s) (D) (A)-(r); (B)-(s); (C)-(q); (D)-(p)
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61. What happens when copper rod is dipped in iron sulphate solution :
(A) copper displaces iron (B) blue colour of copper sulphate solution is obtained
(C) no reaction takes place (D) reaction is exothermic
62. Zn  H2SO4 (dil)  ZnSO 4  H2 , reaction is :
(A) decomposition reaction (B) single displacement reaction
(C) combination reaction (D) synthesis reaction
63. The reaction in which two compounds exchange their ions to form two new compounds is :
(A) a displacement reaction (B) a decomposition reaction
(C) an isomerization reaction (D) a double displacement reaction
64. In the equation, NaOH  HNO3  NaNO3  H2O nitric acid is acting as :
(A) an oxidising agent (B) an acid (C) a nitrating agent (D) a dehydrating agent
65. Hydrogen sulphide (H2S) is a strong reducing agent. Which of the following reaction shows its reducing action
(A) Cd(NO3 )2  H2 S  CdS  2HNO3 (B) CuSO4  H2S 

 CuS  H2 SO 4
(C) 2FeCI3  H2S 

 2FeCI2  2HCI  S (D) Pb(NO3 )2  H2 S  PbS  2CH3 COOH
66. The acid used in making of vinegar is :
(A) formic acid (B) acetic acid (C) sulphuric acid (D) nitric acid
67. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky. The solution contains
(A) NaCI (B) HCI (C) LiCI (D) KCI
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68. In a 0.250 M solution of Na3PO 4 , the concentration of the sodium ions would be :
(A) 0.250 M (B) 0.750 M (C) 0.0833 M (D) 1.00 M
69. Which among the following is the weakest base :
(A) NaOH (B) Ca(OH)2 (C) NH4 OH (D) KOH
70. Which of the following is not an atomic characteristic of metal :
(A) Malleable nature (B) Electropositive nature (C) Ductile nature (D) None of these
71. Heating of concentrated ore in absence of air for conversion into oxide ore is known as :
(A) roasting (B) calcination (C) reduction (D) none of these
72. Which reducing agent is used in chemical reduction :
(A) C (B) CO (C) Al (D) All of these
73. Sodium is obtained by the electrolysis of :
(A) an aqueous solution of sodium chloride (B) an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide
(C) fused sodium chloride (D) fused sodium sulphate
74. Alkynes are characterized by :
(A) C  C bonds (B) C  C bonds (C) C  C bonds (D) Cyclic structure
75. CH3CH2  CH  CH  CH2CH3 has the IUPAC name

CH3 CHO
(A) 2–sec Butylbutanal (B) 2, 3–Diethylbutanal
(C) 2–Ethyl–3–methylpentanal (D) 3–Methyl–2–ethylpentanal
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76. The functional group present in CH3 COOC2H5 is :
(A) Ketone (B) Aldehyde (C) Ester (D) Carboxylic acid
77. The functional group present in an organic acid is :
(A) – OH (B) –CHO (C) –COOH (D) >C = O
78. Which of the following reactions involves the combination of two elements :
1
(A) CaO  CO2  CaCO3 (B) 4Na  O2  2Na2O (C) SO 2  O2  SO3 (D) NH3  HCI  NH4 CI
2
79. When the gases sulphur dioxide and hydrogen sulphide are mixed in presence of water, the reaction is :
SO 2  2H2S  2H2 O  3S. Here hydrogen sulphide is acting as :
(A) an oxidising agent (B) a reducing agent (C) a dehydrating agent (D) a catalyst
80. The equation Cu  xHNO3  Cu(NO3 )2  yNO2  2H2O The values of x and y are :
(A) 3 & 5 (B) 8 & 6 (C) 4 & 2 (D) 7 & 1
81. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl 2 which is a solid with a high melting point. The X would
be most likely be in the same group of the Periodic Table as
(A) Na (B) Mg (C) Al (D) Si
82. The soaps are formed by the saponification of
(A) Alcohols (B) Simple ester (C) Carboxylic acids (D) Glycerides
83. The Functional group of butanone is
(A) Carboxylic (B) Ketone (C) Aldehyde (D) Alcohol
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84. The IUPAC name of is
(A) Pentan - 2,4 - dione (B) Pent - 2, 4 - one
(C) Penta - 2, 4 - dione (D) Both (A) and (C)
85. The rectified spirit is
(A) 50% ethanol (B) 80% ethanol (C) 95% ethanol (D) 40 to 50% ethanol
86. The dilute alkaline KMnO 4 solution is better
(A) An oxidising agent (B) a reducing agent (C) a bleaching agent (D) drying agent
87. The by product in soap industry is
(A) Isoprene (B) Ethylene glycol (C) Glycerol (D) Butane
88. An example of soap is
(A) C15H31COONa (B) CH3COONa (C) C6H5COONa (D) C17H35OSO3Na
89. Which of the following is stronger acid
(A) R–SO3H (B) R–COOH
(C) R–OH (D) All are having equal acidic strength
90. Which of the following is the most prior functional group
(A) (B) (C) – COOH (D) –OH
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Section - III (Biology)

91. The lining of intestinal wall from outside to inside is made up of
(A) Circular muscles 

 Longitudinal muscles 
 mucosa 
 Submucosa
(B) Longitudinal muscles 

 Circular muscles 
 Sub mucosa 
 Mucosa
(C) Mucosa 
 Submucosa 
 Circular muscles 
 Longitudinal muscles
(D) Sub-mucosa 
 Longitudinal muscles 
 circular muscles 
 mucosa
92. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the digestion and absorption of Protein
(A) The breakdown of Proteins to peptides is catalysed by pepsin in the stomach and by the pancreatic
enzymes trypsin and chymotrypsin in the small intestine
(B) Peptides are broken down into amino acids by pancreatic carboxypeptidase and intestinal dipeptidase
(C) Small peptides consisting of two or three amino acids can diffuse through epithelial cell and broken
down into carbon dioxide and ammonia which is released into blood
(D) Protein is digested in stomach in the presence of HCl
93. One haemoglobin carries how many molecules of O2
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 8
94. Read the following statements and select the correct ones
(i) Nodal tissue is specialised cardiac musculature in human heart which has the ability to generate
action potential due to an external stimuli
(ii) Position of SAN - right corner of right atrium
(iii) Position of AVN - right corners of ventricle
(iv) Purkinje fibres are modified cardiac muscle fibres that originate from the bundle of His and spread into
the two ventricles
(A) i & ii (B) i & iii (C) i & iv (D) All of these
95. How many characters of flowers of pea plant where selected by mendel for his experiment
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
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96. The living cells of xylem are
(A) Tracheids (B) Vessels (C) xylem fibre (D) xylem parenchyma
97. Which of the following teeth present in child, change in number in child and adult but never its number is
zero
(A) Premolar (B) Molar (C) Canine (D) incisor
98. Biggest (largest) animal cell is
(A) ostrich egg (B) nerve cell (C) Acetabularia (D) Phloem fibre
99. Animal cell differs from plant cell in not having the
(A) cell wall (B) plastids (C) plasmodesmata (D) All of these
100. Bacteria are considered plants as they
(A) Are green in colour (B) Have rigid cell wall (C) Have chlorophyll (D) Have stomata
101. Which is non membrane (not covered by membrane) organelle
(A) Centriole (B) Lysosome (C) Mitochondria (D) Chloroplast
102. Blue green Algace are
(A) Eubacteria (B) Cyanobacteria (C) Actinomycetes (D) Archaebacteria
103. Curd is more nutritious than milk as it contain
(A) Many amino acids which are absent in milk
(B) many vitamins which are absent or scanty in milk
(C) Many enzymes which are formed by bacteria
(D) many protozoans which are beneficial to protect our stomach from pathogen
104. Atmosphere of earth, just before the origin of life, consisted of
(A) water vapours, CH4, NH3 and oxygen (B) CO2, NH3 and CH4 only
(C) CH4, NH3, H2 and water vapours (D) CH4, O3, O2 and water vapours
105. The disease caused by viruses is
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Small pox (C) Cholera (D) Typhoid
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106. The balance between CO2 and O2
(A) Transpiration (B) Photosynthesis (C) C4 Pathway (D) Photorespiration
107. Leaves appear green because they
(A) Reflect green light (B) Absorb green light
(C) Both reflect and absorb green light (D) None of the above
108. BCG vaccine is used against
(A) TB (B) Leprosy (C) Food poisoning (D) None of these
109. Plants do not get benefit from
(A) N2 in air (B) O2 in air (C) CO2 in air (D) O3 in air
110. Number of bones in human body is
(A) 260 (B) 206 (C) 306 (D) 203
111. The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure in human is
(A) 40 mm Hg (B) 80 mm Hg (C) 120 mm Hg (D) 200 mm Hg
112. The valves which allow blood to flow from the right auricle to right ventricles
(A) Semilunar valve (B) Tricuspid valve (C) Aortic valve (D) None of these
113. Select the correct statement
(A) Heterotrophs do not synthesise their own food
(B) Heterotrophs utilise solar energy for photosynthesis
(C) Heterotrophs synthesise their own food
(D) Heterotrophs are capable of converting carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates
114. Which is the correct sequence of parts in human alimentary canal?
(A) Mouth  stomach  small intestine  oesophagus  large intestine

(B) Mouth  oesophagus  stomach  large intestine  small intestine
(C) Mouth  stomach  oesophagus  small intestine  large intestine
(D) Mouth  oesophagus  stomach  small intestine  large intestine
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115. Which part of alimentary canal receives bile from the liver?
(A) Stomach (B) Small intestine (C) Large intestine (D) Oesophagus
116. The most appropriate characteristic of a semipermeable membrane is that
(A) It has minute pores
(B) It has no pores
(C) It allows the solute to pass through but not the solvent
(D) It allows a solvent to pass through freely but prevents the passage of the solute
117. Wilting occurs due to excessive
(A) Guttation (B) Absorptin (C) Transpiration (D) Imbibition
118. Olfactory epithelium is responsible for sensing
(A) Taste (B) Pressure changes (C) Smell (D) Temperature changes
119. Which of the following is known as father of Genetics
(A) Mendel (B) Punnet (C) Aristotle (D) None of these
120. Which of the following is the largest part of brain
(A) Cerebrum (B) Pons (C) Hypothalamus (D) Pineal Gland
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ANSWER KEY
Course V
PART - I PART - II
01. C
02. A 31. C 61. C 91. B

32. C 62. B 92. C
03. C
33. C 63. D 93. A
04. A
34. D 64. B 94. C
05. C
35. A 65. C 95. B
06. D
36. B 66. B 96. D
07. C
37. C 67. B 97. B
08. C
38. A 68. B 98. A
09. D
39. B 69. C 99. D
10. D
40. B 70. D 100. B
11. C
41. D 71. B 101. A
12. D
42. D 72. D 102. B
13. D
43. D 73. C 103. B
14. C
44. C 74. C 104. C
15. B
45. C 75. C 105. B
16. C
46. B 76. C 106. B
17. D
47. B 77. C 107. A
18. B 48. A 78. B 108. A
19. D 49. A 79. B 109. D
20. A 50. C 80. C 110. B
21. C 51. B 81. B 111. A
22. B 52. B 82. D 112. B
23. D 53. B 83. B 113. A
24. A 54. A 84. A 114. D
25. A 55. B 85. C 115. B
26. C 56. B 86. A 116. D
27. A 57. B 87. C 117. C
28. B 58. C 88. A 118. C
29. B 59. B 89. A 119. A
30. C 60. D 90. C 120. A
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www.brothersacademy.co.in Admission Test (Course -VI) _ XII Appeared/Passed
ADMISSION TEST Code

A
Course VI
Class XII Appeared/Passed Students
Section - III (Mathematics - 30).
Name : ________________________________________________ Reg. No. : _____________

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{2}
+ = + =
+ ? =
(A) (B) (C) (D)
{3}
+ = + =
+
? =
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
{4}
Direction for questions 16 – 17: Abra is Rambo's daughter. Shintu is Rambo's sister. Shintu's daugh-
ter is called Cabra and son is called Dadra. Limba is Cabra's maternal Aunt.
16. Abra is limba's
18. Deepa moved a distance of 75 metres towards the north. She then turned to the left and then turned
to the right at an angle of 45o. In which direction was she moving finally ?
19. Johnson left for his office in his car. He drove 15 km towards north and then 10 km towards west.
He then turned to the south and covered 5 km. Further, he turned to the east and moved 8 km.
Finally, he turned right and drove 10 km. How far and in which direction is he from his starting
point ?

21. A man leaves for his office from his house. He walks towards East. After moving a distance of 20
m, he turns south and walks 10 m. Then he walks 35 m towards the west and further 5 m towards
the north. He then turns towards east and walks 15 m. What is the straight distance (in metres)
between his initial and final position ?
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22.
A B C D
(A) (B) (C) (D)
23.
A B C D
(A) (B) (C) (D)
24. What is the number of straight lines in the following figure?
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 17
25. How many parallelograms are there in the following figure?
(A) 20 (B) 24 (C) 28 (D) 30
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26. has mirror image:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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PART – II
31. Kinetic energy of an electron accelerated by a potential difference of 1000 V is
(A) 1.6 × 10–19 J (B) 1.6 × 10–16 J (C) 1.6 × 10–15 J (D) 1000 J
32. The effective capacitance of the combination between A and B is
3 F
6 F
A B
9 F
5 F
(A) 9  F (B) 4  F (C) 23  F (D) 12  F

33 Three point charges are placed at the three corners of an equilateral triangle as shown in figure. The
statement which is true for net electric potential V and the net electric field intensity E at the centre of
the triangle is
q
q –2q
(A) E = 0, V = 0 (B) V = 0, E  0 (C) V  0, E = 0 (D) V  0, E  0

34. If galvanometer shows null deflection in the given figure then the value of Y is
800 3V
12V Y G
100
200
(A) 100  (B) 200  (C) 300  (D) 400 

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35. A rectangular loop of dimensions a and b carrying current I is shown in figure. The magnetic field at
the centre O is
b
0I a 2  b2 2 0 I a 2  b2
(A)  (B)
 ab  ab a I
O
0I a 2  b2 0I a 2  b2
(C) .  (D) .
2 ab 2 ab
36. A uniformly charged ring of radius R carrying charge q is rotating with angular speed  . The magnetic
field at the centre of ring is
 0 q  0 q  0 q
(A) (B) (C) (D) Zero
2 R 4 R 8 R
37. The magnetism of the bar magnet is due to
(A) Earth’s magnetism (B) Cosmic rays
(C) The spin motion of electron (D) Pressure of big magnet inside the earth
38. A square loop of side 10 cm enters a magnetic field with 2 cm/s. The front edge enters the magnetic
field at t = 0, then which graph best depicts emf?
10 cm × × × × × × ×
× × × × × × × B = 1.2 T
× × × × × × ×
40 cm
v v
–3 –3
(A) 2.4 × 10 (B) 2.4 × 10
t t
O 5 20 25 O 5 20
v v
–3 –3
2.4 × 10 2.4 × 10
O 5 20 20 25
(C) t (D) t
25 O 5
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39. Magnification of a concave mirror
(A) Is always positive (B) Is always negative
(C) Can be positive as well as negative (D) Is always zero
40. A converging beam is incident on a convex lens of glass placed in air. The image formed is
(A) Real, erect and enlarged (B) Real, erect and diminished
(C) Virtual, erect and diminished (D) Virtual, erect and enlarged
41. The focal length of a concave lens is 50 cm, its optical power is
(A) 1 D (B) –2 D (C) 0.5 D (D) –4 D
42. A ray of light incident on an equilateral glass prism shows minimum deviation of 30°. Calculate the speed
of light through the glass prism
3
(A) 2 × 108 m/s (B) 1 × 108 m/s (C) 3  108 m/s (D)  10 8 m/s
2
43. Two light beams of intensity I & 4I are used to interference experiment. What is the resultant intensity,
when the two beams superimpose with a phase difference of p?
(A) 9I (B) I (C) 5I (D) 3I
44. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is doubled and the distance between
the plane of slits and screen is halved. The fringe width is
(A) Halved (B) Doubled (C) Quadrupled (D) Quartered
45. For Bohr’s first orbit of circumference 2r , the de-Broglie wavelength of the revolving electron will
be
1 1
(A) 2r (B) r (C) (D)
3r 4 r
46. For the production of characteristic K  X-rays the electron transition is from
(A) L to K (B) M to L (C) M to K (D) N to L
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47. The threshold wavelength of a photosensitive surface is  0 . The photoelectric effect will take place only
if
(A)    0 (B)    0 (C)   2 0 (D)   3 0
48. A proton and an electron are accelerated from rest by the same potential difference. If  e and  p
denote the de-Broglie wavelengths of the electron and proton respectively, then
(A)  e   p (B)  e   p (C)  e   p (D)  e  2  p
49. In a nuclear reaction which of the following conservation is valid?

(A) Charge conservation (B) Energy-mass conservation
(C) Momentum conservation (D) All of these
50. The mass of a photon of wavelength  is
h h hc h
(A) (B) (C) (D)
c c  c
51. Parallel beam of light is incident on the system of two convex lenses of focal lengths f1 = 20 cm and f2 = 10
cm. What should be the distance between the two lenses so that rays after refraction from both the lenses
pass underviated:
(A) 60 cm (B) 30 cm (C) 90 cm (D) 40 m

52. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and minimum
possible intensities in the resulting beam are:
(A) 5I and I (B) 5I and 3I (C) 9I and I (D) 9I and 3I
53. A charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q. The system of the three charges
will be in equilibrium if q is equal to:
Q Q Q Q
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
2 4 4 2
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54. Power generated across a uniform wire connected across a supply is H. If the wire is cut into n equal parts
and all the parts are connected in parallel across the same supply, the total popwer generated in the wire is:
H H
(A) (B) n 2 H (C) nH (D)
n2 n
55. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field with velocity vector at an angle of 45° with the magnetic
field. The pitch of the helical path followed by the particle is p. The radius of the helix will be:
p p 2p
(A) (B) 2p (C) (D)
2 2 
magnetic flux
56. Dimensions of are:
electric flux
(A) [LT 1 ] (B) [TL1 ] (C) [L3 T 2 A 2 ] (D) [M0 L0 T 0 ]

57. A choke coil should have:
(A) high inductance and high resistance (B) low inductance and low resistance
(C) high inductance and low resistance (D) low inductance and high resistance
58. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an
EM wave is:
(A) c : 1 (B) c2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) c :1

59. The probability of survival of a radioactive nucleus for one mean life is:
1 1 ln 2 ln 2
(A) (B) 1  (C) (D) 1 
e e e e
60. The combination of the gates shown in the figure produces:
(A) NOR gate (B) OR gate (C) AND gate (D) XOR gate
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61. Find the product of the following reaction :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
62. major product
(A) (B) (C) (D)
63. The relative rate of acid catalysed dehydration of following alcohols would be :
(A) (B) (C) (D)

64. Dehydration of following alcohols will be in order :
(A) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 (B) 4 > 3 > 1 > 2 (C) 4 > 2 > 1 > 3 (D) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2
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65. Mark out the correct order if dipole moment for the following compounds:
(A) I > II > III (B) II > III > I (C) III > II > I (D) III > I > II
66. Which of the following carbonyl compounds when treated with dilute acid forms a stable cation ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
67. Which of the following is a tertiary amine ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
CO2H
68. CH2 ; If (n = 4) , then dicarboxylic acid will be known as :
CO2H
(A) Malonic Acid (B) Succinic Acid (C) Adipic Acid (D) Oxalic Acid
69. There is no S–S bond in :
(A) S2 O42 (B) S2 O5 (C) S2 O32 (D) S2 O 7 2 
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70. How many coulomb of electricity will be consumed when 100 mA current is passed through a solution of
AgNO3 for half an hour during electrolysis
(A) 108 (B) 180 (C) 1800 (D) 18000
71. Cu+ is not stable and undergoes disproportion. Eo for Cu+ disproportionation.
(EoCu+2/Cu+ = + 0.153V, EoCu+/Cu = 0.53V)
(A) + 0.683V (B) -0.367V (C) +0.3415V (D) +0.367
72. Xenon crystallizes in face centre cubic lattice and the edge of the unit cell is 620 pm, then the radius
of xenon-atom is
(A) 438.5 pm (B) 219.25 pm (C) 536.94 pm (D) 265.5 pm
73. In closest packing of A type of atoms (radius, rA), the radius of atom B that can be fitted into octahedral
void is:
(A) 0.155 rA (B) 0.125 rA (C) 0.414 rA (D) 0.732 rA
74. Osmotic pressure of blood is 7.40 atm at 27 0C. Number of mol of glucose to be used per L for an
intravenous injection that is to have the same osmotic pressure as blood, is
(A) 0.3 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.1 (D) 0.4
75. With excess of Cl2, ammonia forms :
(A) NH4Cl (B) N 2 (C) NCl3 (D) NH3  NCl3
76. The pair having similar magnetic moment :
(A) Ti 3 , V 3 (B) Cr 3 , Mn 2  (C) Mn 2  , Fe3 (D) Fe 2  , Mn 3

77. In the following reaction :
x
yMnO 4  xH   C2 O4  yMn 2   2CO 2  H 2 O,
2
x and y are :
(A) 2 and 16 (B) 1 6and 2 (C) 8 and 16 (D) 5 and 12
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78. The number of unpaired electrons in Fe2+ (z =26) are :
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 3
79. If for any reaction , the rate constant is equal to the rate of the reaction at all concentration . The
order is :
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 3
80. The rate of the simple reaction 2NO + O 2 2NO2, when the volume of the reaction vessel is
doubled–
(A) will grow eight times of its initial rate (B) Rate reduce to one-eights of its initial rate
(C) will grow four times of its initial rate (D) Reduce to one-fourth of its initial rate
81. Which of the following oxyacid contains both P  H and P  P bond simultaneously ?
(A) H 4 P2 O5 (B) H 4 P2 O 7 (C) H 4 P2 O 6 (D) None
82. Which of the following compounds shows least tendency towards hydrolysis ?
(A) BF3 (B) BCl3 (C) BBr3 (D) BI3
83. The hydrolysis of Na 2SO3 makes the solution
(A) Alkaline (B) Acidic (C) Neutral (D) None of these
84 A  H2 O 
 B  HCl
B  H2 O 
 C  HCl
Compound (A), (B) and (C) will be respectively :
(A) PCl5 , POCl3 , H3PO 3 (B) PCl5 , POCl3 , H3PO 4
(C) SOCl 2 , POCl3 , H3 PO 3 (D) PCl3 , POCl3 , H3PO 4
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85. In the context of carbon, which of the following is arranged in the correct order of electronegativity :
(A) sp  sp 2  sp 3 (B) sp 3  sp 2  sp (C) sp 2  sp  sp 3 (D) sp 3  sp  sp 2
86. Among the following ions which one has the highest paramagnetism
(A) [Cr (H 2O) 6 ]3 (B) [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]2 (C) [Cu(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Zn((H2O)6]2+
87. Complexes [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 can be distinguished by
(A) conductance measurement (B) using BaCl2
(C) using AgNO3 (D) All
88. The two compounds [Co (SO 4 )( NH 3 ) 5 ]Br and [Co (SO 4 )( NH 3 ) 5 ]Cl represent:
(A) Linkage isomerism (B) Ionisation isomerism
(C) Co-ordination isomerism (D) No isomerism
89. Which ion has tetrahedral geometry:
(A) [Fe(CO)5] (B) [Co(NH3)6]2+ (C) [NiCl4]2– (D) [Ni(CN)4]2–
90. The number of donor sites in dimethyl glyoxime, glycinato, diethylene triamine and EDTA are respectively:
(A) 2, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 2, 3 and 6 (C) 2, 2, 2 and 6 (D) 2, 3, 3 and 6
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Section - III (Mathematics)
 ex 
91. If y = log  x  , then dy/dx equals-
 e  1
1 1 ex  1
2
(A) x (B) e x  1 (C) x (D) None of these
e 1   e 1
dy
92. If x 1  y  y 1  x  0, then equals-
dx
1 1 1
(A) 1  x 2 (B) – (C) (D) None of these
  1  x 2 1  x2
93. The period of | sin 2x | is -
(A)  / 4 (B)  / 2 (C)  (D) 2
x3
94. If f(x) = , then f [f {f (x)}] equals-
x 1
(A) x (B) 1/x (C) –x (D) –1/x
  2x  3 3x  5 4x  6 
95. The value of lim
x 
 3x 3  x  1  is -
 
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 8 (D) Does not exist
96. The value of lim

1  x  
2
1  x2
is :
x 0
x2
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) Does not exist
97. The equation of tangent to the curve y = sin x at the point  , 0  is -
(A) x + y = 0 (B) x + y =  (C) x– y =  (D) x–y = 0
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 x3  x 2  16x  20
 x2
98. If f(x) =   x  22 ,
x2
is continuous for all values of x, then the value of k is-
 k

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
99. f(x) = 2x3 – 21x2 + 36 x + 7 has a maxima at-
(A) x = 2 (B) x = 1 (C) x = 6 (D) x = 3
100. If x = p and x = q are respectively the maximum and minimum points of the function
x5 – 5x4 +5x3 – 10, then-
(A) p=0, q= 1 (B) p = 1, q = 0 (C) p = 1, q = 3 (D) p = 3, q = 1
101. If
z 2x  3

2
 x  1 x  1
then a is equal to

1
dx = log [(x–1) 5/2 (x2 + 1)a] – tan–1 x + k where k is any arbitrary constant,
2
(A) 5/4 (B) –5/3 (C) –5/6 (D) –5/4

 /2
cos x
102. 
 /2
1  ex
is equal to-

103. Let f be a positive function. If
k k
I1   xf {x(1  x)}dx I2   f [x(1  x)]dx

1 k 1 k
where 2k – 1 > 0 , then the value of I1 / I2 is equal to-

(A) 2 (B) k (C) 1/2 (D) 1
104. If 0  x   ; then the area bounded by the curve y = x and y = x + sin x is-
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 2  (D) 4 
105. If vectors 2 î – ĵ + k̂ , î + 2 ĵ – 3 k̂ and 3 î + a ĵ + 5 k̂ are coplanar, then the value of a is-
(A) 2 (B) – 2 (C) – 1 (D) – 4

106. If A = î – ĵ + 2 k̂ and B = 2 î + 3 ĵ – 4 k̂ then | AB | equals-
(A) 35 (B) 53 (C) 65 (D) 1
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3
107. If P (A) = , then find the odds in against of A -
8
(A) 3 : 5 (B) 4 : 5 (C) 3 : 4 (D) 5 : 3
108. If two dice are thrown together then what is the probability that the sum of their numbers is greater than
9.
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/4 (C) 1/6 (D) 2/6
 p q  r s
109. If A =   ,, B =   then -
 q p  s r 
(A) AB = BA (B) AB  BA (C) AB =  BA (D) None of these
a b a  b
110. b c b  c  0 , then a, b,c are in -
a  b b  c 0
(A) A.P. (B) G.P. (C) H.P. (D) None of these


111. A plane P passes through a point P(3, – 2, 1) and is perpendicular to the vector V  4î  7ˆj  4k̂ . The

distance between the plane P and the plane r ·( 4î  7ˆj  4k̂ )  33  0 , equals
28
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D)
9
 2 1 2 1
112.   3x tan x  x sec  dx is equal to
x
3 1 1 1 1
(A) x cos c (B) x 2 tan c 3
(C) x tan c 2
(D) x sec c
x x x x
dy
113. The general solution of the different equation  e x  y  x 2 e  y is
dx
y x x3
(A) e  e  c (B) e y  e x  2x  c (C) e y  e x  x 3  c (D) None of these
3
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114. If P (A  B) = 3/4 and P ( A ) = 2/3 then P ( A B) equals -
(A) 1/12 (B) 7/12 (C) 5/12 (D) 1/2
dx
115.  x x 2010
 1 is equal to
1 1
(A) ln 1  x 2010  c (B) ln 1  x 2010  c
2009 2010
1
(C) ln 1  x 2010  x  c (D)  ln 1  x 2010  c
2010
2/3
  dy 2  d2 y
116. The order and degree of the differential equation  4      are equal to
  dx   dx 2
(A) 2,2 (B) 3,3 (C) 2,3 (D) 3,2

117. The area contained between the curve xy = a2 , the vertical line x = a, x = 4a(a>0) and x-axis is
(A) a 2 ln 2 (B) 2a 2 ln 2 (C) a ln 2 (D) 2a ln 2
118. If the probability of solving a problem by three students are 1/2, 2/3 and 1/4 then probability that the
problem will be solved-
(A) 1/2 (B) 3/4 (C) 7/8 (D) 1/8
119. A pair of dice is thrown. If 5 appears on at least one of the dice, then the probability that the sum is 10
or greater, is-
(A) 11/36 (B) 2/9 (C) 3/11 (D) 1/12
         
120. If a and b are two vectors such that | a | 1 , | b | 4 , a ·b  2 . If c  ( 2a  b)  3b then angle between
 
b and c is
  2 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 3 3 6
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ANSWER KEY
Course VI
PART - I PART - II
01. D Section - I Section - II Section - III
02. B 31. B 61. A 91. A
03. A 32. A 62. B 92. B
04. C 33. B 63. A 93. B
05. D 34. C 64. C 94. A
06. B 35. A 65. C 95. C
07. D 36. B 66. C 96. A
08. C 37. C 67. B 97. B
09. A 38. C 68. C 98. C
10. D 39. C 69. D 99. B
11. B 40. B 70. B 100. C
12. D 41. B 71. D 101. D
13. C 42. D 72. B 102. C
14. A 43. B 73. C 103. C
15. A 44. D 74. A 104. A
16. D 45. A 75. C 105. D
17. B 46. C 76. C 106. B
18. D 47. B 77. B 107. D
19. A 48. B 78. A 108. C
20. C 49. D 79. A 109. A
21. B 50. B 80. B 110. B
22. D 51. B 81. D 111. A
23. D 52. B 82. A 112. C
24. D 53. B 113. A
83. A
25. B 54. B 84. B 114. C
26. D
55. C 85. A 115. D
27. C
56. B 86. B 116. C
28. B
57. C 87. D 117. B
29. A
58. C 88. D 118. C
30. C
59. A 89. C 119. C
60. B 90. B 120. D
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www.brothersacademy.co.in Admission Test (Course -VII) _ XII Appeared/Passed
ADMISSION TEST Code

A
Course VII
Section - III (Biology - 30).
Name : ________________________________________________ Reg. No. : _____________

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+ = + =
+ ? =
(A) (B) (C) (D)
{3}
+ = + =
+
? =
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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Direction for questions 16 – 17: Abra is Rambo's daughter. Shintu is Rambo's sister. Shintu's daugh-
ter is called Cabra and son is called Dadra. Limba is Cabra's maternal Aunt.
16. Abra is limba's
18. Deepa moved a distance of 75 metres towards the north. She then turned to the left and then turned
to the right at an angle of 45o. In which direction was she moving finally ?
19. Johnson left for his office in his car. He drove 15 km towards north and then 10 km towards west.
He then turned to the south and covered 5 km. Further, he turned to the east and moved 8 km.
Finally, he turned right and drove 10 km. How far and in which direction is he from his starting
point ?

21. A man leaves for his office from his house. He walks towards East. After moving a distance of 20
m, he turns south and walks 10 m. Then he walks 35 m towards the west and further 5 m towards
the north. He then turns towards east and walks 15 m. What is the straight distance (in metres)
between his initial and final position ?
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22.
A B C D
(A) (B) (C) (D)
23.
A B C D
(A) (B) (C) (D)
24. What is the number of straight lines in the following figure?
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 17
25. How many parallelograms are there in the following figure?
(A) 20 (B) 24 (C) 28 (D) 30
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(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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PART – II
31. Kinetic energy of an electron accelerated by a potential difference of 1000 V is
(A) 1.6 × 10–19 J (B) 1.6 × 10–16 J (C) 1.6 × 10–15 J (D) 1000 J
32. The effective capacitance of the combination between A and B is
3 F
6 F
A B
9 F
5 F
(A) 9  F (B) 4  F (C) 23  F (D) 12  F

33 Three point charges are placed at the three corners of an equilateral triangle as shown in figure. The
statement which is true for net electric potential V and the net electric field intensity E at the centre of
the triangle is
q
q –2q
(A) E = 0, V = 0 (B) V = 0, E  0 (C) V  0, E = 0 (D) V  0, E  0

34. If galvanometer shows null deflection in the given figure then the value of Y is
800 3V
12V Y G
100
200
(A) 100  (B) 200  (C) 300  (D) 400 

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35. A rectangular loop of dimensions a and b carrying current I is shown in figure. The magnetic field at
the centre O is
b
0I a 2  b2 2 0 I a 2  b2
(A)  (B)
 ab  ab a I
O
0I a 2  b2 0I a 2  b2
(C) .  (D) .
2 ab 2 ab
36. A uniformly charged ring of radius R carrying charge q is rotating with angular speed  . The magnetic
field at the centre of ring is
 0 q  0 q  0 q
(A) (B) (C) (D) Zero
2 R 4 R 8 R
37. The magnetism of the bar magnet is due to
(A) Earth’s magnetism (B) Cosmic rays
(C) The spin motion of electron (D) Pressure of big magnet inside the earth
38. A square loop of side 10 cm enters a magnetic field with 2 cm/s. The front edge enters the magnetic
field at t = 0, then which graph best depicts emf?
10 cm × × × × × × ×
× × × × × × × B = 1.2 T
× × × × × × ×
40 cm
v v
–3 –3
(A) 2.4 × 10 (B) 2.4 × 10
t t
O 5 20 25 O 5 20
v v
–3 –3
2.4 × 10 2.4 × 10
O 5 20 20 25
(C) t (D) t
25 O 5
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39. Magnification of a concave mirror
(A) Is always positive (B) Is always negative
(C) Can be positive as well as negative (D) Is always zero
40. A converging beam is incident on a convex lens of glass placed in air. The image formed is
(A) Real, erect and enlarged (B) Real, erect and diminished
(C) Virtual, erect and diminished (D) Virtual, erect and enlarged
41. The focal length of a concave lens is 50 cm, its optical power is
(A) 1 D (B) –2 D (C) 0.5 D (D) –4 D
42. A ray of light incident on an equilateral glass prism shows minimum deviation of 30°. Calculate the speed
of light through the glass prism
3
(A) 2 × 108 m/s (B) 1 × 108 m/s (C) 3  108 m/s (D)  10 8 m/s
2
43. Two light beams of intensity I & 4I are used to interference experiment. What is the resultant intensity,
when the two beams superimpose with a phase difference of p?
(A) 9I (B) I (C) 5I (D) 3I
44. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is doubled and the distance between
the plane of slits and screen is halved. The fringe width is
(A) Halved (B) Doubled (C) Quadrupled (D) Quartered
45. For Bohr’s first orbit of circumference 2r , the de-Broglie wavelength of the revolving electron will
be
1 1
(A) 2r (B) r (C) (D)
3r 4 r
46. For the production of characteristic K  X-rays the electron transition is from
(A) L to K (B) M to L (C) M to K (D) N to L
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47. The threshold wavelength of a photosensitive surface is  0 . The photoelectric effect will take place only
if
(A)    0 (B)    0 (C)   2 0 (D)   3 0
48. A proton and an electron are accelerated from rest by the same potential difference. If  e and  p
denote the de-Broglie wavelengths of the electron and proton respectively, then
(A)  e   p (B)  e   p (C)  e   p (D)  e  2  p
49. In a nuclear reaction which of the following conservation is valid?

(A) Charge conservation (B) Energy-mass conservation
(C) Momentum conservation (D) All of these
50. The mass of a photon of wavelength  is
h h hc h
(A) (B) (C) (D)
c c  c
51. Parallel beam of light is incident on the system of two convex lenses of focal lengths f1 = 20 cm and f2 = 10
cm. What should be the distance between the two lenses so that rays after refraction from both the lenses
pass underviated:
(A) 60 cm (B) 30 cm (C) 90 cm (D) 40 m

52. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and minimum
possible intensities in the resulting beam are:
(A) 5I and I (B) 5I and 3I (C) 9I and I (D) 9I and 3I
53. A charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q. The system of the three charges
will be in equilibrium if q is equal to:
Q Q Q Q
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
2 4 4 2
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54. Power generated across a uniform wire connected across a supply is H. If the wire is cut into n equal parts
and all the parts are connected in parallel across the same supply, the total popwer generated in the wire is:
H H
(A) (B) n 2 H (C) nH (D)
n2 n
55. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field with velocity vector at an angle of 45° with the magnetic
field. The pitch of the helical path followed by the particle is p. The radius of the helix will be:
p p 2p
(A) (B) 2p (C) (D)
2 2 
magnetic flux
56. Dimensions of are:
electric flux
(A) [LT 1 ] (B) [TL1 ] (C) [L3 T 2 A 2 ] (D) [M0 L0 T 0 ]

57. A choke coil should have:
(A) high inductance and high resistance (B) low inductance and low resistance
(C) high inductance and low resistance (D) low inductance and high resistance
58. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an
EM wave is:
(A) c : 1 (B) c2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) c :1

59. The probability of survival of a radioactive nucleus for one mean life is:
1 1 ln 2 ln 2
(A) (B) 1  (C) (D) 1 
e e e e
60. The combination of the gates shown in the figure produces:
(A) NOR gate (B) OR gate (C) AND gate (D) XOR gate
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61. Find the product of the following reaction :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
62. major product
(A) (B) (C) (D)
63. The relative rate of acid catalysed dehydration of following alcohols would be :
(A) (B) (C) (D)

64. Dehydration of following alcohols will be in order :
(A) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 (B) 4 > 3 > 1 > 2 (C) 4 > 2 > 1 > 3 (D) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2
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65. Mark out the correct order if dipole moment for the following compounds:
(A) I > II > III (B) II > III > I (C) III > II > I (D) III > I > II
66. Which of the following carbonyl compounds when treated with dilute acid forms a stable cation ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
67. Which of the following is a tertiary amine ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
CO2H
68. CH2 ; If (n = 4) , then dicarboxylic acid will be known as :
CO2H
(A) Malonic Acid (B) Succinic Acid (C) Adipic Acid (D) Oxalic Acid
69. There is no S–S bond in :
(A) S2 O42 (B) S2 O5 (C) S2 O32 (D) S2 O 7 2 
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70. How many coulomb of electricity will be consumed when 100 mA current is passed through a solution of
AgNO3 for half an hour during electrolysis
(A) 108 (B) 180 (C) 1800 (D) 18000
71. Cu+ is not stable and undergoes disproportion. Eo for Cu+ disproportionation.
(EoCu+2/Cu+ = + 0.153V, EoCu+/Cu = 0.53V)
(A) + 0.683V (B) -0.367V (C) +0.3415V (D) +0.367
72. Xenon crystallizes in face centre cubic lattice and the edge of the unit cell is 620 pm, then the radius
of xenon-atom is
(A) 438.5 pm (B) 219.25 pm (C) 536.94 pm (D) 265.5 pm
73. In closest packing of A type of atoms (radius, rA), the radius of atom B that can be fitted into octahedral
void is:
(A) 0.155 rA (B) 0.125 rA (C) 0.414 rA (D) 0.732 rA
74. Osmotic pressure of blood is 7.40 atm at 27 0C. Number of mol of glucose to be used per L for an
intravenous injection that is to have the same osmotic pressure as blood, is
(A) 0.3 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.1 (D) 0.4
75. With excess of Cl2, ammonia forms :
(A) NH4Cl (B) N 2 (C) NCl3 (D) NH3  NCl3
76. The pair having similar magnetic moment :
(A) Ti 3 , V 3 (B) Cr 3 , Mn 2  (C) Mn 2  , Fe3 (D) Fe 2  , Mn 3

77. In the following reaction :
x
yMnO 4  xH   C2 O4  yMn 2   2CO 2  H 2 O,
2
x and y are :
(A) 2 and 16 (B) 1 6and 2 (C) 8 and 16 (D) 5 and 12
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78. The number of unpaired electrons in Fe2+ (z =26) are :
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 3
79. If for any reaction , the rate constant is equal to the rate of the reaction at all concentration . The
order is :
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 3
80. The rate of the simple reaction 2NO + O 2 2NO2, when the volume of the reaction vessel is
doubled–
(A) will grow eight times of its initial rate (B) Rate reduce to one-eights of its initial rate
(C) will grow four times of its initial rate (D) Reduce to one-fourth of its initial rate
81. Which of the following oxyacid contains both P  H and P  P bond simultaneously ?
(A) H 4 P2 O5 (B) H 4 P2 O 7 (C) H 4 P2 O 6 (D) None
82. Which of the following compounds shows least tendency towards hydrolysis ?
(A) BF3 (B) BCl3 (C) BBr3 (D) BI3
83. The hydrolysis of Na 2SO3 makes the solution
(A) Alkaline (B) Acidic (C) Neutral (D) None of these
84 A  H2 O 
 B  HCl
B  H2 O 
 C  HCl
Compound (A), (B) and (C) will be respectively :
(A) PCl5 , POCl3 , H3PO 3 (B) PCl5 , POCl3 , H3PO 4
(C) SOCl 2 , POCl3 , H3 PO 3 (D) PCl3 , POCl3 , H3PO 4
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85. In the context of carbon, which of the following is arranged in the correct order of electronegativity :
(A) sp  sp 2  sp 3 (B) sp 3  sp 2  sp (C) sp 2  sp  sp 3 (D) sp 3  sp  sp 2
86. Among the following ions which one has the highest paramagnetism
(A) [Cr (H 2O) 6 ]3 (B) [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]2 (C) [Cu(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Zn((H2O)6]2+
87. Complexes [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 can be distinguished by
(A) conductance measurement (B) using BaCl2
(C) using AgNO3 (D) All
88. The two compounds [Co (SO 4 )( NH 3 ) 5 ]Br and [Co (SO 4 )( NH 3 ) 5 ]Cl represent:
(A) Linkage isomerism (B) Ionisation isomerism
(C) Co-ordination isomerism (D) No isomerism
89. Which ion has tetrahedral geometry:
(A) [Fe(CO)5] (B) [Co(NH3)6]2+ (C) [NiCl4]2– (D) [Ni(CN)4]2–
90. The number of donor sites in dimethyl glyoxime, glycinato, diethylene triamine and EDTA are respectively:
(A) 2, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 2, 3 and 6 (C) 2, 2, 2 and 6 (D) 2, 3, 3 and 6
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Section - III (Biology)
91. Ecotype is
(A) Transitional zone
(B) Genetically adapted ecological races of an area
(C) Genetically different individuals with same phenotype
(D) Genetically identical individual with same phenotype
92. The major biomes of india are
(A) Deciduous forest, desert, sea coast, tropical rain forest
(B) Sub tropical forest, desert, sea coast alpine region
(C) Tropical rain forest, sea coast, deciduous forest, alpine region
(D) None of the above
93. Norman Borlaug is associated with
(A) White revolution (B) Green revolution (C) Blue revolution (D) Yellow revolution
94. Norin - 10 gene is famous for
(A) Gigas effect (B) Dwarfine effect (C) Aromatic effect (D) Early maturation effect
95. In a grafted plant, stock has 48 chromosomes, while scion has 24 chromosomes, The chromosome number
for root cells and eggs are –
(A) 48 and 24 (B) 24 and 24 (C) 24 and 12 (D) 48 and 12
96. On culturing the young anther of a plant a botanist got a few diploid plants along with haploid plants, which
of the following might have given the diploid plants :
(A) Exine of pollen grains (B) Vegetative cell of pollen grain
(C) Cells of Anther wall (D) Generative cell of pollen grain

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97. The major use of embryo culture is in
(A) Induction of somaclonal variation (B) Overcoming hybridisation barrier
(C) Production of Alkaloids (D) Clonal propagation
98. Fructose is present in the secretion of
(A) Bartholins gland (B) Cowper's gland (C) Perineal gland (D) Seminal Vesicles
99. If the first cleavage furrow divides the zygote completely into two, the cleavage type is
(A) Radial (B) equatorial (C) Meroblastic (D) Holoblastic
100. Arrangement of nuclei in normal dicot embryo sac is
(A) 3+3+2 (B) 2+4+2 (C) 3+2+3 (D) 3+3+3
101. An easily disturbed ecosystem which can recover after some time after the stoppage of damaging factor is
of
(A) Low stability and high resilience (B) High Stability and high resilience
(C) Low stability and low resilience (D) High stability and low resilience
102. Severe Acute Respiratory syndrome (SARS)
(A) Is caused by a variant of pneumococcus pneumoniae
(B) Is caused by a variant of the common cold virus (corona virus)
(C) Is an acute form of Asthma
(D) Affects non-vegetarians much faster than the vegetarian
103. Addiction to Alcohol causes
(A) Cirrhosis (B) Epilepsy (C) Neurosis (D) Psychosis
104. Which one is green manure
(A) Sesbania (B) Maize (C) Rice (D) Oat

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105. Carcinogenic agent is
(A) x-ray radiation (B) U.V. raddiation (C) Nicotine (D) All the above
106. BT- cotton is resistant to
(A) Insect (B) Herbicides (C) Salt (D) Drough
107. The immunity obtained after the body has recovered from a disease is
(A) Active immunity (B) Passive immunity (C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) None of these
108. Which of the following is correct about allen's rule for mammals of colder climate
(A) Shorter ears and shorter limbs (B) Longer limbs and shorter ear
(C) Longer ears and shorter limbs (D) Longer limbs and longer ear
109. If DNA has 30% thymine, calculate the percent of cytosine in the DNA
(A) 30% (B) 40% (C) 60% (D) 20%
110. Which of the following group pf histone take part in formation of nucleosome
(A) H1,H2A,H3B,H4 (B) H2A,H2B,H3,H4 (C) H1,H2A,H2B,H3 (D) H1,H3,H4

111. Vegetative propagation in Pistia occurs by:
(A) Stolon (B) Offset (C) Runner (D) Sucker
112. Non-endospermic seeds are found in:
(A) Wheat (B) Castor (C) Barley (D) Bean
113. In human females, meiosis-II is not completed until:
(A) Uterine implantation (B) Birth
(C) Puberty (D) Fertilization
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114. The ‘Cells of Rauber’ are:
(A) Secretory cells of endometrium in uterus
(B) Inner cell mass of blastocoel
(C) Outer cells of trophoblast in contact with uterine wall
(D) Cells of trophoblast, in contact with inner cell mass of blastocyst
115. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilization is transferred into:
(A) Uterus (B) Fallopian tube (C) Fimbrae (D) Cervix
116. A man of B blood group marries a woman of AB blood group. Which type of progeny indicates that man
is heterozygous?
(A) O (B) B (C) A (D) AB
117. Barr body is present in:
(A) Sperm (B) Ovum
(C) Somatic cell of female (D) Somatic cell of man
118. Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma in molecular biology?
(A) HIV (B) Yeast (C) E.coli (D) Mucor
119. In a population of 1000 individuals360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa.
Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is:
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.6 (D) 0.7
120. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called:
(A) Vector (B) Selectable marker
(C) Plasmid (D) Probe
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ANSWER KEY
Course VII
PART - I PART - II
01. D 31. B 61. A 91. B
02. B 32. A 62. B 92. A
03. A 33. B 63. A 93. B
04. C 34. C 64. C 94. B
05. D 35. A 65. C 95. D
06. B 36. B 66. C 96. C
07. D 37. C 67. B 97. B
08. C 38. C 68. C 98. D
09. A 39. C 69. D 99. D
10. D 40. B 70. B 100. C
11. B 41. B 71. D 101. A
12. D 42. D 72. B 102. B
13. C 43. B 73. C 103. A
14. A 44. D 74. A 104. A
15. A 45. A 75. C 105. D
16. D 46. C 76. C 106. A
17. B 47. B 77. B 107. A
18. D 48. B 78. A 108. A
19. A 49. D 79. A 109. D
20. C 50. B 80. B 110. B
21. B 51. B 81. D 111. B
22. D 52. B 82. A 112. D
23. D 53. B 83. A 113. D
24. D 54. B 84. B 114. D
25. B 55. C 85. A 115. A
26. D 56. B 86. B 116. C
27. C 57. C 87. D 117. C
28. B 58. C 88. D 118. A
29. A 59. A 89. C 119. C
30. C 60. B 90. B 120. D
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SYLLABUS FOR ADMISSION TEST

COURSE - 1 (For Students of Class 7 going to Class 8)

COURSE -2 (For Students of Class 8 going to Class 9)

COURSE - 3 (For Students of Class 9 going to Class 10)

COURSE - 5 (For Students of Class 10 going to Class 11) : Medical (NEET)

ADMISSION TEST Code

Read the following Instructions very carefully before you proceed

 Full Marks 360. Total Time 3 Hrs.

Name : ________________________________________________ Reg. No. : _____________

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

(A) 58 (B) 60 (C) 62 (D) 64

(A) 30 (B) 34 (C) 90 (D) 94

(A) 114 (B) 134 (C) 190 (D) 124

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(A) 93 (B) 97 (C) 101 (D) 103

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) 12 (B) 15 (C) 10 (D) 20

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(A) (B) (C) (D)

21. Identify the shape after subtraction of the given figures.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 6

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Direction for questions 25 to 30

(A) Q (B) R (C) S (D) P

(A) I (B) H (C) G (D) K

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(A) W (B) X (C) Y (D) Z

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

(A) E (B) F (C) L (D) M

(A) J (B) I (C) K (D) L

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

32. Choose the incorrect statement.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(A) (B) (C) (D)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

The strength of these magnets will be

(C) Using an iron bar

43. Which of the following does not express a time interval?

(A) 0.1 m (B) 0.15 m (C) 0.2 m (D) 0.05 m

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

following is kept at position A to get this patch of light?

(A) A wooden board

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(A) Unpolished wood (B) Red stone

(A) Wood and glass (B) Plastic and glass

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(C) A salt and water (D) A salt and a base

60. ‘Litmus’, a natural dye is an extract of which of the following?

(C) Lichen (D) Blue berries (Jamun)

61. Neutralisation reaction is a

(C) Curd, milk of magnesia (D) Curd, vinegar

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(A) 1 lakh (B) 10 lakh (C) 1 crore (D) 10 crore

92. The smallest 4-digit number having three different digits is

(A) 1102 (B) 1012 (C) 1020 (D) 1002

Name : ____________________________________ Reg. No. : _

Name : ____________________________________ Reg. No. : _