7 Year PYQ Trend Analysis (2017-2023), Indian Polity and Governance

ÝÕ
ÝÖ
Table Content
Page No.
Ý×¸ A Strategy & Approach- ( Indian Polity and Governance)
ÝØ¸ Questions Source Type Analysis
ÝÙ¸ Important OBSERVATIONS and Suggestions
ÝÛ¸ Parliament
ÕÖ¸ Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and DPSPs
×Û¸ Preamble
ØÔ¸ Salient features of Indian Constitution
ØÜ¸ Political Systems
ÙÛ¸ Judiciary
ÛÙ¸ Emergency provisions
ÛÜ¸ Executive
ÜØ¸ State Legislature
ÜÛ¸ Local Government
ÜÜ¸ Centre-State Relations
ÜÚ¸ Amendment of the Constitution
ÚÕ¸ Evolution and making of the Constitution
Ú×¸ Constitutional Bodies
ÚÙ¸ Citizenship
ÚÛ¸ Elections
ÔÝÔ¸ Government scheme/Initiative
ÔÔÝ¸ Governance
Ý×
A Strategy & Approach- ( Indian Polity and Gover-
PRELIMS: Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, Political

SYLLABUS System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.
TOTAL NO. OF QUESTIONS: 127
TOPIC WISE QUESTIONS
QUESTIONS: 2 Evolution & making of the

Constitution
QUESTION: 1 Citizenship
QUESTIONS: 3
Amendment to the Constitution QUESTIONS: 2 Constitutional Bodies
QUESTION: 1 QUESTIONS: 3 Elections

Centre-State relation
QUESTIONS: 2
Emergency provisions QUESTIONS: 11
QUESTIONS: 2 Government schemes/ initiatives
Local Government
QUESTIONS: 8
Executive
QUESTIONS: 15
QUESTIONS: 2
Parliament
State legislature
QUESTIONS: 7
Salient features of
Indian Constitution
QUESTIONS: 10
Political systems
QUESTIONS: 22
Governance
QUESTIONS: 7
Indian Judiciary
QUESTIONS: 6
Preamble QUESTIONS: 23
Fundamental rights, Fundamental duties and DPSP

ÝØ
QUESTIONS SOURCE TYPE ANALY-
Essential material (EM) - 93: To be referred - NCERTS: Indian Constitution at work, Democratic
Politics I and M.Laxmikanth Indian Polity
EN (Standard Newspapers) - 19
Reference material (RM) - 7 : D.D. Basu (Introduction to the Constitution of India), Subhash Kashyap
(Our Political System), ARC
RR (Random Read like random website): 8
0Àɭ¤ùÐõċÐĄÐ×ÐċïÀïšĝěĜĢŭĝĞŢ
YEAR NO. OF QUESTIONS EASY MEDIUM DIFFICULT

2017 29 11 13 5
2018 17 2 12 3
2019 13 5 6 2
2020 18 10 4 4
2021 22 10 6 6
2022 14 5 6 3
2023 14 2 3 9
OBSERVATIONS
Mostly questions in this section has come from static and standard sources which makes the
«Ćê½æüΑ½õ½ΑËõÚ½½ΑæËΑÃËÚæΑ½õ½Π
UPSC has continued to ask questions based on political philosophy e.g. Constitutionalism/
Constitution, the essence of the principles used in judicial review, etc.
+ÄÚÞ«Ä£ΑæÚÄΑæËöÚÞΑêÚÚÄæΑą«ÚÞΑ«ÞÞêÞΠΑb¨ÚΑ«ÞΑΑ½«ÄºΑ«ÄΑÞËÃΑÙêÞæ«ËÄÞΑ¢ÚËÃΑÄöÞ××ÚΑ
Úæ«½ÞΑÄΑêÚÚÄæΑą«ÚÞΠ
In >ÝĄë××¤ ï¤õÀÝ×ΡΑ Þ«£Ä«ĈÄæΑ ÄêÃÚΑ Ë¢Α ÙêÞæ«ËÄÞΑ öÚΑ ÞºΑ ¢ÚËÃΑ «õÚÞΑ êÚÚÄæΑ ą«ÚÞΑ
½«ÄºΑæË×«ÞΑ½«ºΑTÚ«ÞËÄÞΑæΑ͍͊͑͒ΡΑË½αüæα«Ã×ËÚæÄæΑæÞΑΠ£ΠΑHĆ«½Α[ÚæÞΑæΡΑæΠ
ÝÙ
rù¸¸ïõÀÝ×ïõÝõ½ïõùª×õï
š)ïªÝ×|lr*ĝěĝĞééëŢ
Regardless of the ªÀɬë×õéõõë×ªÝéõª£ċ|lr*À×ĝěĝĞby changing the options and limiting

the elimination techniques, the students should focus on intentional and observational acquisition of
ºÄËö½£ΑÚæ¨ÚΑæ¨ÄΑÞê×ÚĈ«½ΑÞæêü«Ä£ΠΑ
b¨üΑÞ¨Ëê½ΑÚΑæ¨ΑÄöÞ××ÚÞΑÄΑ×Ú×ÚΑêÚÚÄæΑą«ÚÞΑËÃ×Ú¨ÄÞ«õ½üΑÞΑæ¨Α«ÄÞ×«Úæ«ËÄΑæËΑ
ÞºΑõÄΑæ¨ΑÞææ«ΑÙêÞæ«ËÄÞΑ¨ÞΑÄΑêÚÚÄæΑą«ÚÞΠ
rõ×ªëªlÝÐÀõċõĊõ£ÝÝÍï×ª½ÝÐÀïõÀ¤¤ÝĄë¸will remain the key to success in almost all the

patterns adopted by UPSC.
SOURCES TO BE REFERRED
Essential Materials Reference Material

Indian Constitution D.D. Basu (Introduction to the
at work (Class XI th Constitution of India)
NCERT)
Democratic Subhash Kashyap (Our Political
Politics-I System)
Indian Polity_
WΑ͋ΑÄΑA«Ä«ÞæÚ«ÞΑHĆ«½Α
M.Laxmikanth
Websites (For Governance)
Newspapers
and Websites
The Hindu, Indian

Express
PIB
PRS Legislative
Research
ÝÛ
Parliament -Total No. of Questions- 15

2 5 6 2
Questions Questions Questions Questions
Parliamentary Bills Lok Sabha & Parliamentary
proceedings Rajya Sabha Committee
Year 2017
TÚ½«ÃÄæÚüΑ×ÚË«Ä£Þ
mĜĦx½lëÐÀÖ×õÝ·F×ªÀĊë¤Àïï¤Ý×õëÝÐÝĄëõ½·ù×¤õÀÝ×ïÝ·õ½*Ýù×¤ÀÐÝ·ZÀ×Àïõëïõ½ëÝù¸½
1. Adjournment motion
2. Questions hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER D
Explanation
The Parliament exercises control over the ministers through various devices like question hour, discussions,
¶ËêÚÄÃÄæΑÃËæ«ËÄΡΑÄËΑËÄĈÄΑÃËæ«ËÄΡΑæΠ
Here “control over functions” must not be taken in a literal manner. The phrase means that the
partrliament can demand answerabillity from the Council of Ministers (the Government) through these
instruments.
Adjournment Motion: ΑAËæ«ËÄΑ¢ËÚΑ«ÞêÞÞ«Ä£ΑϖΑÞ×«ĈΑÄΑ«Ã×ËÚæÄæΑÃææÚΑæ¨æΑÞ¨Ëê½Α¨õΑêÚ£ÄæΑ
consideration'. It can be moved by any member of the House and is in the nature of emergency motion of
censure upon the Government. The object is to draw the attention of the Government to a matter of urgent
public importance so as to criticize the decision of Government in an urgent matter in regard to which a
motion or resolution with proper notice will be too late.
Question Hour: An hour of every sitting of the House available for asking and answering of questions is
×Ë×ê½Ú½üΑºÄËöÄΑÞΑVêÞæ«ËÄΑ(ËêÚΠΑfÄæ«½Αæ¨Α͋͌͋ÄΑ[ÞÞ«ËÄΡΑæ¨ΑĈÚÞæΑ¨ËêÚΑË¢Αæ¨Α(ËêÞΑöÞΑõ«½½Α¢ËÚΑ
asking and answering of questions. From the 233rd Session onwards, the Question Hour has been shifted
which now commences from 12.00 noon to 1.00 p.m.
ÝÜ
Supplementary Questions: These are questions which arise out of a Minister's answer to a
Starred or Short Notice Question. These can be asked with the Chair's permission immediately
after the Minister has answered the main question, for the purpose of further elucidating any
matter of fact.
SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õ½*½ŭlëÐÀÖ×õëċrċïõÖĦ
«½½Þ
mĝĦÀõ½ë·ë×¤õÝõ½lëÐÀÖ×õÝ·F×ªÀĥ¤Ý×ïÀªëõ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ïõõÖ×õïű
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated
by the President of India.
͋ΠΑWÄæ½üΡΑΑ×Ú«õæΑÃÃÚϐÞΑ«½½Α¨ÞΑÄΑ×ÞÞΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑË¢Α+Ä«Α¢ËÚΑæ¨ΑĈÚÞæΑæ«ÃΑ«ÄΑ«æÞΑ¨«ÞæËÚüΠ
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER D
Explanation
A Private Member's bill is introduced by any member of Parliament other than a minister. Its introduction
in the House requires one month’s notice. Its drafting is the responsibility of the member concerned.
Hence statement 1 is not correct.
The last Private Member's Bill passed by parliament was the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal
Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1968, which became an act on August 9, 1970. The Rights of Transgender
TÚÞËÄÞΑ «½½ΡΑ͉͍͋͊ΡΑ×ÞÞΑüΑæ¨ΑW¶üΑ[¨ΑËÄΑ"Ú«üΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑĈÚÞæΑ×Ú«õæΑÃÃÚϖÞΑ«½½ΑæËΑ£æΑæ¨Αê××ÚΑ
house's approval in the past 45 years. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õ½Œï*½ŭlëÐÀÖ×õ
http://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/transgerders-persons-bill-rajya-sabha-private-member-bill-3195872/
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/jallikat-
tu-row-private-member-bill-on-bull-in-rs-but-withdrawn/article17517515.ece
STUDENTS NOTE
Various types of bills such as Money Bill,

Finance Bill and Constitution Amendment Bill is a repeated
theme of UPSC as also asked in 2022, 2023.
ÝÚ
Year 2018
;ËºΑÞ¨
mĞĦ*Ý×ïÀªëõ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ïõõÖ×õïű
͊ΠΑ+ÄΑæ¨ΑĈÚÞæΑ;ËºΑ[¨ΡΑæ¨ΑÞ«Ä£½Α½Ú£ÞæΑ×ÚæüΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑË××ËÞ«æ«ËÄΑöÞΑæ¨Α[öæÄæÚΑTÚæü
͋ΠΑ+ÄΑæ¨Α;ËºΑ[¨ΡΑΑϕ;ÚΑË¢Αæ¨ΑH××ËÞ«æ«ËÄϕΑöÞΑÚË£Ä«ÞΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨ΑĈÚÞæΑæ«ÃΑ«ÄΑ͊͒͏͒Π
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as
the Leader of the Opposition.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER B
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct: b¨ΑËÄ£ÚÞÞΑ×ÚæüΑöËÄΑ͌͏͍ΑË¢Αæ¨Α͍͑͒ΑÞæÞΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑĈÚÞæΑ;ËºΑ[¨ΑÄΑ
ĈÄ«Þ¨ΑöüΑ¨ΑË¢ΑÄüΑËæ¨ÚΑ¨½½Ä£ÚΠΑb¨ΑËÃÃêÄ«ÞæΑTÚæüΑË¢Α+Ä«Αæ¨æΑÃΑÄûæΑ«ÄΑæÚÃÞΑË¢ΑÞæÞΑ
won only 16 seats.
Statement 2 is correct: +ÄΑ͊͒͏͒ΡΑÄΑËĆ«½Α½ÚΑË¢Αæ¨ΑË××ËÞ«æ«ËÄΑöÞΑÚË£Ä«ÞΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨ΑĈÚÞæΑæ«ÃΠΑ
However, it was given statutory recognition in 1977.
Statement 3 is not correct: The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than one-tenth
seats of the total strength of the House is recognised as the leader of Opposition in that House.
SOURCE : F×ªÀ×éÝÐÀõċ£ċZTĊÖÀÍ×õ½ĥ*½éõëŭlëÐÀÖ×õĥ[*3nxĜĝõ½ŭlÝÐÀõÀ¤ïÀ×F×ªÀ
ïÀ×¤À×ªé×ª×¤ĥ*½éõëŭĝ
3ÐÀÖÀ×õÀÝ×ïõëõ¸ċ
The third statement was easy to eliminate as the issue of having

no Leader of Opposition in the 16 th Lok Sabha, and details of the
10% criteria was repeatedly covered in news.
ÔÝ
TÚ½«ÃÄæÚüΑËÃÃ«ææ
mğĦÀõ½ë·ë×¤õÝõ½lëÐÀÖ×õÝ·F×ªÀĥą½À¤½Ý·õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸lëÐÀÖ×õëċ*ÝÖÖÀõõï
ï¤ëùÀõÀ×ÀĐï×ªëéÝëõïõÝõ½CÝùïą½õ½ëõ½éÝąëïõÝÖÍë¸ùÐõÀÝ×ïĥëùÐïĥïù£ŭëùÐïĥ
£ċŭÐąïĥõ¤Ħ¤Ý×·ëëª£ċõ½*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×ÝëªÐ¸õª£ċõ½lëÐÀÖ×õë£À×¸éëÝéëÐċĊëŭ
¤Àïª£ċõ½3Ċ¤ùõÀĄąÀõ½À×õ½ï¤ÝéÝ·ïù¤½ªÐ¸õÀÝ×Ž
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
ANSWER B
Explanation
The Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines and reports to the House whether the powers to
make rules, regulations, bye-laws, schemes or other statutory instruments conferred by the Constitution
or delegated by Parliament are being properly exercised. In both the Houses, the committee consists of
15 members. It was constituted in 1953.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
SOURCE : F×ªÀ×éÝÐÀõċ£ċZTĊÖÀÍ×õ½ĥ*½éõëŭlëÐÀÖ×õĦ
«½½Þ
mĠĦn¸ëªÀ×¸ZÝ×ċ)ÀÐÐĥą½À¤½Ý·õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ïõõÖ×õïÀïÄËæ¤Ýëë¤õŽ
(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition,
remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of
India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the
Government of India.
ANSWER C
Explanation
Article 110 Ë¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ½ÞΑö«æ¨Αæ¨ΑĈÄ«æ«ËÄΑË¢ΑÃËÄüΑ«½½ÞΠΑ+æΑÞææÞΑæ¨æΑΑ«½½Α«ÞΑÃΑæËΑΑ

a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:
1. The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
2. The regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India;
ÔÔ
3. The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the contingency fund of India, the payment of moneys
into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund;
4. The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
5. Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the amount of
any such expenditure;
6. The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the
custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a state; or
͐ΠΑÄüΑÃææÚΑ«Ä«Äæ½ΑæËΑÄüΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÃææÚÞΑÞ×«ĈΑËõΠ
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
SOURCE : F×ªÀ×éÝÐÀõċ£ċZTĊÖÀÍ×õ½ĥ*½éõëŭlëÐÀÖ×õĦ
Government Accounts
Article 266 Article 267 Article 266
Consolidated Fund Contingency Fund Public Account
Expenditure needs Expenditure does not need parliamentary

parliamentary approval
approval Small Savings, Provident
Revenue Capital, Public Fund Reserve Funds,
Debt, Loans Deposits and Advances,
Suspense, Remittances
and Cash Balance
Receipts Expenditure
Expenditure
Receipts
Payments
General Services,
Tax, Non Tax
Social Services,
and General Services, Social Services,
Economic Services
Grants-in-Aid Economic Services, Public Debt, Loans
and Grants-in-Aid
and Advances, Inter-State Settlement and
Transfer to Contingency Fund
Additional Information
Funds in the Contingency Fund are transferred from the Consolidated Fund
only. That transaction needs parliamentary approval. But no parliamentary
approval is required for spending money out of Contingency Fund, and that
can be done by the government only.
êùïõÀÝ×Ý×ÖÝ×ċ£ÀÐÐřɯ××¤£ÀÐÐÐïÝ¤ÖÀ×ĝěĝĞ
ÔÕ
Year 2023
Àõ½ë·ë×¤õÝ=À××¤)ÀÐÐ×ªZÝ×ċ)ÀÐÐÀ×õ½F×ªÀ×lëÐÀÖ×õ¤Ý×ïÀªëõ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸
ïõõÖ×õïű
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill,
it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint
sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
CÝąÖ×ċÝ·õ½£ÝĄïõõÖ×õïë¤Ýëë¤õŽ
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Year 2019
TÚ½«ÃÄæÚüΑËÃÃ«ææ
mġĦF×F×ªÀĥą½À¤½Ý·õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ëĄÀąõ½À×ªé×ª×õë¸ùÐõÝëïÀ×ï¤õÝëïÐÀÍ
õÐ¤ÝÖÖù×À¤õÀÝ×ïĥÀ×ïùë×¤ĥÐ¤õëÀ¤Àõċĥõ¤ĦŽ
1. Ad Hoc Committee set up by the Parliament.
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committee
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5
ANSWER A
Explanation
Department related Standing Committees: The Committee system of Parliament is often used in
several countries for oversight of regulators. In India, there are 24 Department Related Standing
Committees that comprise members from both Houses of Parliament. These committees are ministry
Þ×«ĈΡΑÄΑÃüΑÚõ«öΑæ¨ΑöËÚº«Ä£ΑË¢ΑÚ£ê½æËÚÞΑö«æ¨«ÄΑæ¨«ÚΑÚÞ×æ«õΑ×ÚæÃÄæÞΠb¨ΑΑ¨ËΑ
ËÃÃ«ææÞΑÚΑæÃ×ËÚÚüΑÄΑ×Ú¢ËÚÃΑÞ×«ĈΑæÞºΠΑΑ
b¨ΑΑ(ËΑËÃÃ«ææÞΑ«ÞÞË½õΡΑËÄΑæ¨«ÚΑæÞºΑ«ÞΑËÄΠΑb¨ÞΑËÃÃ«ææÞΑÚΑA«Ä«ÞæÚ«ÞϐΑÞ×«ĈΑÄΑ
review the working of regulators within their respective departments.
ÔÖ
Ad-hoc Committees: Parliament may establish ad-hoc committees which may examine the working of
regulators. For instance, the terms of reference of the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) on the
allocation of 2G spectrum include the review of the policy on spectrum pricing and grant of telecom
licences. Another example of parliamentary oversight through ad-hoc committees is the scrutiny of the
working of SEBI and RBI by the JPC on the stock market scam.
b¨ΑæöËΑ×Ú½«ÃÄæÚüΑËÃÃ«ææÞΑËÄΑĈÄÄΑö¨«¨ΑûÚ«ÞΑËõÚÞ«£¨æΑË¢ΑÚ£ê½æËÚÞΑÚ΢ΑλμΑæ¨ΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
Committee on Estimates; and (b) the Public Accounts Committee (PAC). The Committee on Estimates
reviews budgetary estimates of government departments. Such estimates include the budget of
regulators. Most laws establishing independent regulators require the Comptroller and Auditor General
(CAG) to prepare annual audit reports on the accounts of the regulators. These reports are tabled before
TÚ½«ÃÄæΑÄΑÚõ«öΑüΑæ¨ΑTΠΑb¨ΑTΑÃüΑÚÙê«ÚΑæ¨ΑÚ£ê½æËÚϐÞΑËĆÚÞΑæËΑ×ËÞΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨Α
ËÃÃ«ææΠΑ"ËÚΑ«ÄÞæÄΡΑæ¨Α¨«ÚÃÄΑÄΑÞÄ«ËÚΑËĆÚÞΑË¢Α[ +Α×ËÞΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨ΑTΑö¨ÄΑ«æΑöÞΑ
examining the working of SEBI.
Finance Commission, Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission and NITI Aayog have no role in
reviewing the independent regulators.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õŭF×ªÀ×lÝÐÀõċ
¨ææ×Þ΢έέöööΠ×ÚÞ«Ä«ΠËÚ£έÞ«æÞέ¢ê½æέĈ½Þέ×Ú½«ÃÄæεËÚε×Ë½«üε×¢Þέ͉͎͊͌͐͑͏͉͉͑εTÚ½«ÃÄæÚüАΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
͉͋HõÚÞ«£¨æА͉͋Ë¢А͉͋W£ê½æËÚÞΠ×¢α
Finance Commission is a constitutional body that mainly deals with

allocation of revenue resources between the Union and state governments.
Thus options (b) and (c) can be eliminated.
;ËºΑ[¨ΑϞΑW¶üΑ[¨
mĢĦ*Ý×ïÀªëõ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ïõõÖ×õïű
͊ΠΑb¨ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑλTÚõÄæ«ËÄΑË¢Α«ÞÙê½«Ĉæ«ËÄμΑæΡΑ͎͊͒͒ΑûÃ×æÞΑÞõÚ½Α×ËÞæÞΑ¢ÚËÃΑ«ÞÙê½«Ĉæ«ËÄΑËÄΑ
æ¨Α£ÚËêÄÞΑË¢ΑϏHĆΑË¢ΑTÚËĈæϐΠ
͋ΠΑb¨ΑËõαÃÄæ«ËÄΑæΑöÞΑÃÄΑĈõΑæ«ÃÞΠ
͌ΠΑb¨ΑæÚÃΑϏHĆΑË¢ΑTÚËĈæϐΑ«ÞΑö½½αĈÄΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«Π
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER A
Ô×
Explanation
b¨Αû×ÚÞÞ«ËÄΑϖËĆΑË¢Α×ÚËĈæϖΑ¨ÞΑÄËæΑÄΑĈÄΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑËÚΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑW×ÚÞÄææ«ËÄΑË¢Α
the People Act, 1951.
They have been mentioned in the Article 102 and 191 of the Constitution.According to Article 102 (1) (a), a
×ÚÞËÄΑÞ¨½½ΑΑ«ÞÙê½«ĈΑÞΑΑÃÃÚΑË¢ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑ¢ËÚΑ¨Ë½«Ä£ΑÄüΑËĆΑË¢Α×ÚËĈæΑêÄÚΑæ¨Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑ
Ë¢Α+Ä«ΑËÚΑæ¨Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑË¢ΑÄüΑÞææΡΑϖËæ¨ÚΑæ¨ÄΑÄΑËĆΑ½ÚΑüΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑüΑ½öΑÄËæΑæËΑ«ÞÙê½«¢üΑ
its holder'. Article 191 (1) (a) has a similar provision for the members of state assemblies. Hence, statement
3 is not correct.
TÚ½«ÃÄæΑ¨ÞΑ½ÞËΑÄæΑæ¨ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑλTÚõÄæ«ËÄΑË¢Α«ÞÙê½«Ĉæ«ËÄμΑæΡΑ͎͊͒͒ΡΑö¨«¨Α¨ÞΑÄΑ
amended 5 times, since its formulation, in the years 1960, 1992, 1993, 2006 and 2013.There is no bar on
¨ËöΑÃÄüΑËĆÞΑÄΑΑûÃ×æΑ¢ÚËÃΑæ¨Α×êÚõ«öΑË¢Αæ¨Α½öΠΑHence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õűF×ªÀ×lÝÐÀõċšlëÐÀÖ×õŢ
¨ææ×Þ΢έέöööΠæ¨¨«ÄêêÞ«ÄÞÞ½«ÄΠËÃέÄöÞέÄæ«ËÄ½έα«ÞÃ«ÞÞÞα×½α£«ÄÞæα͋͐α×αÃ½Þα«ÄαËĆαË¢α×ÚËĈæαΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
case/article25325264.ece
õÄΑæ¨Ëê£¨Αæ¨ΑÞËÄΑÞææÃÄæΑ«ÞΑ«Ćê½æΡΑæ¨ΑÙêÞæ«ËÄΑÄΑΑÄÞöÚΑ
ÞΑæ¨Αæ¨«ÚΑÞææÃÄæΑöÞΑÞüΑæËΑ½«Ã«ÄæΑÞΑæ¨ΑËĆΑË¢Α×ÚËĈæΑ«ÞΑÄËæΑ
ĈÄΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠ
Year 2020
TÚ½«ÃÄæÚüΑTÚË«Ä£Þ
mģĦ*Ý×ïÀªëõ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ïõõÖ×õïű
1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks it.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory
to conduct all three sessions.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
ANSWER C
ÔØ
Explanation
Article 85(1) of the Constitution empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament to meet
æΑÞê¨Αæ«ÃΑÄΑ×½ΑÞΑ¨Αæ¨«ÄºÞΑĈæΡΑêæΑÞ«ûΑÃËÄæ¨ÞΑÞ¨½½ΑÄËæΑ«ÄæÚõÄΑæöÄΑ«æÞΑ½ÞæΑÞ«ææ«Ä£Α«ÄΑËÄΑ
[ÞÞ«ËÄΑÄΑæ¨ΑæΑ××Ë«ÄæΑ¢ËÚΑ«æÞΑĈÚÞæΑÞ«ææ«Ä£Α«ÄΑæ¨ΑÄûæΑ[ÞÞ«ËÄΠΑ+ÄΑËæ¨ÚΑöËÚÞΡΑæ¨ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑ
should meet at least twice a year. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
There is no minimum number of days that Parliament is required to meet in a year. Hence statement
3 is correct.
SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õű*½éõëŭlëÐÀÖ×õ
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/parliament-winter-session-delay-congress-november-december-
assembly-elections-4951659/
;ËºΑÞ¨ΑϞΑW¶üΑ[¨
mĤĦnÊċr£½½ïêùÐéÝąëïąÀõ½TÝÍr£½À×
(a) the matter of creating new All India Services
(b) amending the Constitution
(c) the removal of the government
(d) making cut motions
ANSWER B
Explanation
The powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are equal to that of the Lok Sabha in the following matters:
Introduction and passage of ordinary bills,ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½ΑÃÄÃÄæΑ«½½ÞΑÄΑĈÄÄ«½Α«½½Þ involv-
ing expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Election and impeachment of the president.
Making recommendation to the President for the removal of Chief Justice and judges of Supreme
Court and high courts, chief election commissioner and comptroller and auditor general.
Approval of ordinances issued by the President.
Approval of proclamation of all three types of emergencies by the President.
Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the Union Public Service Commission.
Under Article 312, Rajya sabha has special powers in matters of creating new All India Services. Lok
sabha has greater say in the removal of government and making cut motions. Hence option (b) is the
correct answer.
SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õ½ű*½ŭlëÐÀÖ×õ
STUDENTS NOTE
Position of Rajya sabha and Lok sabha is a repeated theme asked by
UPSC
ÔÙ
Year 2022
½À¤½Ý·õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸Àïŝëõ½Ċ¤ÐùïÀĄéÝąëšïŢÝ·TÝÍr£½Ž
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
«½½Þ
mĜěĦÐÝ×¸ąÀõ½õ½)ùª¸õĥõ½=À××¤ZÀ×ÀïõëÐïÝéÐ¤ïÝõ½ëªÝ¤ùÖ×õï£·Ýëõ½lëÐÀÖ×õ
ą½À¤½À×¤Ðùªőx½Z¤ëÝ3¤Ý×ÝÖÀ¤=ëÖąÝëÍrõõÖ×õŒĦx½·ÝëïÀªªÝ¤ùÖ×õÀïéëï×õª
£¤ùïõ½ÀïÀïÖ×ªõª£ċ
(a) Long standing parliamentary convention
(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India
(c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
ANSWER D
Explanation
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) became an Act in 2003. The objective of the Act
«ÞΑæËΑÄÞêÚΑ«ÄæÚα£ÄÚæ«ËÄ½ΑÙê«æüΑ«ÄΑĈÞ½ΑÃÄ£ÃÄæΡΑ½ËÄ£ΑÚêÄΑÃÚËËÄËÃ«ΑÞæ«½«æüΡΑææÚΑ
ËËÚ«Äæ«ËÄΑæöÄΑĈÞ½ΑÄΑÃËÄæÚüΑ×Ë½«üΡΑÄΑæÚÄÞ×ÚÄüΑ«ÄΑĈÞ½ΑË×Úæ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α#ËõÚÄÃÄæΠ
It requires for the presentation of the following documents before the Parliament - the Medium Term
Expenditure Framework Statement (MTEF), Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement, Fiscal Policy Strategy
Statement and Macroeconomic Framework Statement.
SOURCE : ½õõéïűŝŝąąąĦ£ùïÀ×ïïŭïõ×ªëªĦ¤ÝÖŝ£Ýùõŝą½õŭÀïŭÖ¤ëÝŭ¤Ý×ÝÖÀ¤ŭ·ëÖąÝëÍŭïõõÖ×õ
Budget documents
Budget Speech Finance Bill û×Ä«æêÚΑTÚËĈ½
Statements mandated under the FRBM Act:
Annual Financial a) Macro-Economic Framework Statement Memorandum Explaining the
Statement b) Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement Provisions in the Finance Bill
C) Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement
Demands for Budget at a Glance
Grants Expenditure Budget
Appropriation Bill Outcome Budget
Receipts Budget
ÔÛ
Year 2021
Q 11. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three
constituencies.
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies,
his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event
of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
x½£ÝĄêùïõÀÝ×ąïªÐõª£ċ|lr*
Explanation
According to Section 33 of Representation of People Act 1951, "a person shall not be nominated as a
candidate for election, in the case of a general election to the House of the People, from more than two
Parliamentary constituencies."
In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
There is no such provision in the rules like, "if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many
constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by
him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies."
SOURCE : néëï×õõÀÝ×Ý·éÝéÐ¤õĜĤĠĜ
ÔÜ
Year 2022
Q12. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
͋ΠΑbËΑ×ÞÞΑΑÃËæ«ËÄΑË¢ΑÄËαËÄĈÄΑ£«ÄÞæΑæ¨ΑËêÄ«½ΑË¢ΑA«Ä«ÞæÚÞ
3. To impeach the President of India
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
ANSWER B
Explanation
Option 1 is not correct: Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the
security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
The proclamation of emergency must be approved by both the houses of parliament within one month
from the date of its issue.If approved by both the houses, the Emergency continues for 6 months and can
ΑûæÄΑæËΑÄΑ«ÄĈÄ«æΑ×Ú«ËΑö«æ¨ΑÄΑ××ÚËõ½ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑ¢ËÚΑõÚüΑÞ«ûΑÃËÄæ¨ÞΠ
Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either
House of Parliament by a special majority.
Option 2 is correct: Article 75 of the Constitution says that the council of ministers shall be collectively
ÚÞ×ËÄÞ«½ΑæËΑæ¨Α;ËºΑ[¨ΠΑ+ÄΑËæ¨ÚΑöËÚÞΡΑæ¨Α;ËºΑ[¨ΑÄΑÚÃËõΑæ¨ΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚüΑ¢ÚËÃΑËĆΑüΑ×ÞÞ«Ä£Α
ΑÄËαËÄĈÄΑÃËæ«ËÄΠΑ
Option 3 is not correct: Article 61 of the Indian Constitution states that when a President is to be
impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament.
Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha can initiate the process for the removal of the President of India.
SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õ½F×ªÀ×lÝÐÀõċŭ*½éõëűlëÐÀÖ×õ
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added many safeguards for declaration
of emergency. It is logical to presume the declaration of emergency
ÚÙê«ÚΑÚæ«Ĉæ«ËÄΑüΑW¶üΑ[¨ΠΑb¨êÞΑË×æ«ËÄΑ͊ΑÃüΑΑ½«Ã«ÄæΠΑ
Members of both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha participate in the election of
President. Thus option 3 may be eliminated.
ÔÚ
Q13. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker
Þ¨½½ΑΑ¨½ΑËÄΑÞê¨ΑæΑÞΑæ¨Α[×ºÚΑÃüΑĈûΠ
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be
from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House
and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the
motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
ANSWER A
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: «Ä£ΑÄΑ«Ã×ËÚæÄæΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½ΑËĆΡΑæ¨Α½æ«ËÄΑ«ÞΑêÞê½½üΑ¨½ΑËÄΑÄûæΑÞ«ææ«Ä£Α
¢æÚΑ[×ºÚΑÞ½æ«ËÄΑÞΑæ¨ΑTÚÞ«ÄæΑĈûÞΑæ¨ΑæΑ¢ËÚΑ[×ºÚΑ½æ«ËÄΑÄΑ¢æÚΑ«Ä£Α½æΑæ¨Α
[×ºÚΑĈûÞΑæ¨ΑæΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨Α×êæüΑ[×ºÚΑ½æ«ËÄΠ
Statement 2 is not correct: There is no mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy
Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. It is by
ËÄõÄæ«ËÄΑæ¨æΑæ¨Α×ËÞ«æ«ËÄΑË¢Α×êæüΑ[×ºÚΑ«ÞΑËąÚΑæËΑË××ËÞ«æ«ËÄΑ×ÚæüΑ«ÄΑ+Ä«ΠΑΑΑΑΑΑ
Statement 3 is correct: The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over
the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
Statement 4 is not correct: Article 93 provides for “The House of the People shall, as soon as may be,
choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker thereof and, so often as
æ¨ΑËĆΑË¢Α[×ºÚΑÄΑ×êæüΑ[×ºÚΑËÃÞΑõÄæΡΑæ¨Α(ËêÞΑÞ¨½½Α¨ËËÞΑÄËæ¨ÚΑÃÃÚΑæËΑΑ
Speaker or Deputy Speaker, as the case may be.”
fÄÚΑÚæ«½Α͍͒ΡΑæ¨ΑÞ×ºÚΑÚÞ«£ÄÞΑ¢ÚËÃΑ¨«ÞΑËĆΑüΑÞêÃ«ææ«Ä£ΑÚÞ«£Äæ«ËÄΑ
to the Deputy Speaker.
ÕÝ
#ÄÚ½½üΡΑæ¨Α[×ºÚΑËÞΑÄËæΑõËæΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑĈÚÞæΑ«ÄÞæÄΑËÚΑÃËõΑÄüΑ
motion. Various motions are moved by the members of the house and
the speaker admits or rejects the motions. Hence statement 4 can be
eliminated.
«½½Þ
Q14. Consider the following statements :

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the
President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a
special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER B
Explanation
An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in
either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
Statement 1 is not correct: The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and
does not require prior permission of the president.
Statement 2 is correct:The president must give his assent to the bill (24th Constitutional Amendment
Act, 1967). He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the
Parliament.
After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) and the
Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act."
Statement 3 is correct: Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the
two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of
deliberation and passage of the bill.
+¢Αæ¨Α«½½ΑÞºÞΑæËΑÃÄΑæ¨Α¢Ú½Α×ÚËõ«Þ«ËÄÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΡΑ«æΑÃêÞæΑ½ÞËΑΑÚæ«ĈΑüΑæ¨ΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House
×ÚÞÄæΑÄΑõËæ«Ä£ΠΑ¢æÚΑê½üΑ×ÞÞΑüΑËæ¨Αæ¨Α(ËêÞÞΑË¢ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑÄΑÚæ«ĈΑüΑæ¨ΑÞææΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
ÕÔ
Introduction
Either in Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
Bill becomes an act

Discussion
>50% members Not less than 2/3 if passed
members presented
éëï×õª×ªąëÝ×¸ Presented to the President
Voting & voting
šą½ÝÀï£Ýù×ªõÝ¸ÀĄ¤Ý×ï×õŢ
nêùÀëª
or
"ËÚΑûÃ×½΢ "ËÚΑûÃ×½΢
LS strength: 545
Not voting/absent: 95 Counting of votes LS strength: 545 Must be passed
Votes required: 350 both by Rajya Sabha + Lok Sabha
Votes required: 225
In case of a tie
éëïÀªÀ×¸`ɭ¤ëÝ·½Ýùï¤×¤ïõ½Àïŝ½ëĄÝõ
SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õ½F×ªÀ×lÝÐÀõċ
Year 2023
«½½Þ
Q15. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament consider the following
statements:
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can
only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for
Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER A
ÕÕ
Explanation
Α"«ÄÄΑ «½½Α«ÞΑΑæü×ΑË¢ΑAËÄüΑ «½½ΑÞΑĈÄΑ«ÄΑÚæ«½Α͉͊͊ΑλμΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠ

"«ÄÄΑ «½½Α½ÞΑö«æ¨Αæ¨Α×ÚË×ËÞ½ÞΑË¢Αæ¨Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑ¢ËÚΑ½õüΑË¢ΑÄöΑæûÞΡΑÃË«Ĉæ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨Αû«Þæ«Ä£Α
tax structure or continuance of the existing tax structure beyond the period approved by Parliament are
submitted to Parliament through this bill. So, it is introduced as a part of the Annual Financial Statement
(i.e. Budget) under Article 112.
The Finance Bill is accompanied by a Memorandum containing explanations of the provisions included in
it. The Finance Bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
However, the Rajya Sabha can only recommend amendments in the Bill, it can not amend or reject. The bill
has to be passed by the Parliament within 75 days of its introduction. Hence statement 1 is not correct
and statement 2 is correct.
ÞΑΑĈÄÄΑ«½½Α«ÞΑΑÃËÄüΑ«½½ΑÞËΑÄËΑ¶Ë«ÄæΑÞ«ææ«Ä£ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑæöËΑ¨ËêÞÞΑ«ÞΑ½½ËöΑö«æ¨ΑÚ£ÚΑæËΑΑĈÄÄΑ«½½Α
under Article 108. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
What is a money bill? What's the role of the Rajya Sabha in

a money bill?
The Constitution does not have a clear A money bill has to be introduced in the Lok Sabha. The
ĈÄ«æ«ËÄΠΑ Úæ«½Α ͉͊͊Α ½üÞΑ ËöÄΑ Α ÞæΑ Ë¢Α Rajya Sabha has no voting power but can debate and
guidelines related to expenditure and recommend amendments, which will be taken to the Lok
taxation to judge if a bill can be deemed to be Sabha for scrutiny and passage. The Lok Sabha can
a money bill. But merely involving certain choose to reject the amendments. The Rajya Sabha
expenditure does not make it a money bill. In cannot retain the bill beyond 14 days. If it does, the bill
case of a dispute, the Lok Sabha Speaker is will be deemed to have been passed by the Lok Sabha.
æ¨ΑĈÄ½Αêæ¨ËÚ«æüΑæËΑ«Π
Whereas there are two categories of Finance Bills provided for in the Indian Constitution, under Article 117
(1) and Article 117 (2) which are called Finance Bill (I) and Finance Bill (II).
Financial Bill (I) includes not only the subjects stated in Article 110 of the Constitution but also other
legislative provisions.
Financial bill (I) is comparable to the money bill in two ways. Firstly, both of these bills can only originate
in the Lok Sabha and not Rajya Sabha. Secondly, both the bills can be introduced only on the President's
advice.
ΑĈÄÄ«½Α«½½Αλ+μΑ¢Ë½½ËöÞΑæ¨ΑÞÃΑ×Ú½«ÃÄæÚüΑ×ÚËêÚÞΑÞΑÄüΑËÚ«ÄÚüΑ«½½Π
ÕÖ
Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and DPSPs: 23

10 1 6 2 3 1
Questions Questions Questions Questions Questions Questions
Fundamental Fundamental DPSPs Rights outside Nature of Writs &
Rights Duties part-III Rights & Types
duties
Year 2017
W«£¨æÞΑËêæÞ«ΑTÚæΑ+++
Q1. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right
ANSWER C
Explanation
According to the Supreme Court judgment Jyoti Basu vs Debi Ghosal - A right to elect, fundamental
though it is to democracy, is, anomalously neither a fundamental right nor a Common Law Right. The
article 326 of the Constitution provides for the right to vote and to be elected in India. What is true of the
right to vote is also true of the right to contest elections. All citizens have the right to stand for election
and become the representative of the people. Hence it is a constitutional right.
Rights Outside Part III

Note: (known as constitutional rights or legal rights or Non fundamental rights).
Article 265 No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law.
Article 300 - A No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.
44" constitutional Amendment Act abolished, the Right to property as a Fundamental Right by
repealing Article 19 (1) (f) and Article 31 & Instead inserted Article 300 A- Right to property as a
legal right.
Article 301 Trade, Commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free.
Article 326 The election to the Lok Sabha and the state Legislative Assembly shall be on the basis of Adult
[êąÚ£Π
Õ×
SOURCE : Union of India vs. Association for Democratic Reforms and Anr. (2002) 5SCC 294 and People’s Union for Civil
Liberties vs. Union of India (2003)
[*3nxŭĜĜĥF×ªÀ×¤Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×õąÝëÍĥ¤½éõëĞĥé¸
STUDENTS NOTE
Rights outside Part III is a repeated theme.
Year 2021
½õÀïõ½éÝïÀõÀÝ×Ý·õ½nÀ¸½õõÝlëÝéëõċÀ×F×ªÀŽ
(a) Legal right available to citizens only
(b) Legal right available to any person
(c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
"êÄÃÄæ½ΑW«£¨æÞ
mĝĦ½À¤½Ý·õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ë×ĄÀï¸ª£ċõ½nÀ¸½õ¸À×ïõ3ĊéÐÝÀõõÀÝ×À×õ½*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ý·
F×ªÀŽ
͊ΠΑTÚË¨««æ«ËÄΑË¢ΑæÚĆΑ«ÄΑ¨êÃÄΑ«Ä£ÞΑÄΑ¢ËÚΑ½ËêÚ
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER C
Explanation
RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION includes Article 23 & 24 of the Indian Constitution.
ÕØ
Úæ«½Α͋͌Α×ÚË¨««æÞΑæÚĆΑ«ÄΑ¨êÃÄΑ«Ä£ÞΡΑ£ÚΑλ¢ËÚΑ½ËêÚμΑÄΑËæ¨ÚΑÞ«Ã«½ÚΑ¢ËÚÃÞΑË¢Α¢ËÚΑ½ËêÚΠΑ
ÄüΑËÄæÚõÄæ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨«ÞΑ×ÚËõ«Þ«ËÄΑÞ¨½½ΑΑÄΑËąÄΑ×êÄ«Þ¨½Α«ÄΑËÚÄΑö«æ¨Α½öΠΑb¨«ÞΑÚ«£¨æΑ«ÞΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
available to both citizens and non-citizens. It protects the individual not only against the State but also
against private persons.
Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or other
hazardous activities like construction work or railway. But it does not prohibit their employment in any
harmless or innocent work.
Option 2 (Abolition of Untouchability) is part of Right to Equality and not

Right Against Exploitation. If we eliminate Option 2, we’re left with the
correct option.
Right Against Exploitation:
Article 23 Article 24
TÚË¨««æ«ËÄΑË¢ΑbÚĆΑ«ÄΑ(êÃÄΑ «Ä£ÞΑÄΑ¢ËÚΑ;ËêÚΠ Prohibition of Employment of Children in factories, etc.
SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õ½ŭ*½ŭĢ=ù×ªÖ×õÐnÀ¸½õï
STUDENTS NOTE
Fundamental Rights under Part III of Indian Constitution is a theme
frequently asked by UPSC.
Year 2018
nÀ¸½õõÝlëÀĄ¤ċÀïéëÝõ¤õªï×À×õëÀ×ïÀ¤éëõÝ·nÀ¸½õõÝTÀ·×ªlëïÝ×ÐTÀ£ëõċĦ½À¤½Ý·
õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸À×õ½*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ý·F×ªÀ¤Ýëë¤õÐċ×ªééëÝéëÀõÐċÀÖéÐċõ½£ÝĄ
ïõõÖ×õŽ
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
ÕÙ
Year 2019
½À¤½ëõÀ¤ÐÝ·õ½*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ý·F×ªÀï·¸ùëªïÝ×ŖïëÀ¸½õõÝÖëëċõ½éëïÝ×Ý·Ý×Ŗï
¤½ÝÀ¤Ž
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29
Year 2020
½À¤½Ý×Ý·õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸¤õ¸ÝëÀïÝ·=ù×ªÖ×õÐnÀ¸½õïÀ×¤ÝëéÝëõéëÝõ¤õÀÝ×¸À×ïõ
ù×õÝù¤½£ÀÐÀõċï·ÝëÖÝ·ªÀï¤ëÀÖÀ×õÀÝ×Ž
(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Right to equality
Year 2021
nÀ¸½õõÝlëÀĄ¤ċŖÀïéëÝõ¤õªù×ªëą½À¤½ëõÀ¤ÐÝ·õ½*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ý·F×ªÀŽ
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 29
ÕÛ
"êÄÃÄæ½Αêæ«Þ
mĞĦ½À¤½Ý·õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ïõõÖ×õïÀïŝëõëùÝ·õ½=ù×ªÖ×õÐ0ùõÀïÝ·×F×ªÀ×¤ÀõÀĐ×Ž
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER D
Explanation
There is no legislative process provided to enforce the Fundamental duties and they are not correlative
to legal duties. Like the Directive Principles, the fundamental duties are also ×Ý×ŭÊùïõÀ¤À£ÐĦ There is no
legislative process to enforce citizens to do their duties. C×¤ïõõÖ×õĜÀï×Ýõ¤Ýëë¤õĦ
The Constitution does not provide for their direct enforcement by the courts. Moreover, there is no legal
sanction against their violation. There is no correlation between legal and fundamental duties because
fundamental duties are non-enforceable. C×¤ïõõÖ×õĝÀï×Ýõ¤Ýëë¤õĦ
SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õŭF×ªÀ×lÝÐÀõċĥ¤½éõëŭő=ù×ªÖ×õÐ0ùõÀïőĦ
BæêÚΑË¢ΑW«£¨æÞΑϞΑêæ«Þ
mğĦF×õ½¤Ý×õĊõÝ·F×ªÀĥą½À¤½Ý×Ý·õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸Àïõ½¤Ýëë¤õëÐõÀÝ×ï½Àé£õą×nÀ¸½õï
×ª0ùõÀïŽ
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
ANSWER A
Explanation
Rights are what we want others to do for us whereas the duties are those acts which we should perform
for others. Thus, a right comes with an obligation to show respect for the rights of others. The obligations
that accompany rights are in the form of duties. C×¤ÝéõÀÝ×šŢÀïõ½¤Ýëë¤õ×ïąëĦ
ÕÜ
SOURCE : [F`rő0ÖÝ¤ë¤ċõÝëÍőŭ*Cŭ=ù×ªÖ×õÐnÀ¸½õï×ª=ù×ªÖ×õÐ0ùõÀïĦ
b¨Α+Ä«ÄΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ«ÞΑÞΑËÄΑæ¨ΑĈÄΑ½ÄΑÄΑ¨ÚÃËÄüΑ
between FRs, DPSPs and FDs. Option (c) and (d) can be eliminated as
they tend to be against the balance.
T[T
mĠĦ½À¤½éëÀ×¤ÀéÐÖÝ×¸õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ąïªªªõÝõ½0Àë¤õÀĄlëÀ×¤ÀéÐïÝ·rõõlÝÐÀ¤ċ£ċõ½
ğĝ×ªÖ×ªÖ×õõÝõ½*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ž
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
(c) Right to work, education and public assistance
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers
ANSWER B
Explanation
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the
State:
1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õ½*½ŭ0Àë¤õÀĄlëÀ×¤ÀéÐïÝ·rõõlÝÐÀ¤ċ
STUDENTS NOTE
DPSPs under Part IV of the Indian constitution and features of
DPSPs is an important theme repeated in UPSC in year 2020 and
2021.
ÕÚ
BæêÚΑË¢ΑW«£¨æÞΑÄΑêæ«Þ
mġĦ½À¤½Ý×Ý·õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ïõõÖ×õïÀï¤Ýëë¤õŽ
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.
ANSWER C
Explanation
Rights are legal and moral entitlements or claims of a person over other fellow beings, over society and
over the government. C×¤ÝéõÀÝ×š¤ŢÀïõ½¤Ýëë¤õ×ïąëĦ
SOURCE : [*3nx*ÐïïĤõ½*½ġŭŒ0ÖÝ¤ëõÀ¤nÀ¸½õïŒĦ
Options (a) and (c) are contradictory. Generally in this case, one of the
options is likely to be the correct answer.
ÖÝ
T[T
mĢĦ*Ý×ïÀªëõ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ïõõÖ×õïűÀõ½ë·ë×¤õÝõ½*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ý·F×ªÀĥõ½0Àë¤õÀĄ
lëÀ×¤ÀéÐïÝ·rõõlÝÐÀ¤ċ¤Ý×ïõÀõùõÐÀÖÀõõÀÝ×ïùéÝ×
1. legislative function.
2. executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER D
Explanation
Directive Principles of state policy cannot act as constraints/limitations on the government because they
are not enforceable and they are fundamental to the governance of a country.
Fundamental Rights operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the
legislature.
C×¤ÝéõÀÝ×šªŢÀïõ½¤Ýëë¤õ×ïąëĦ
Directive Principles
Goals BËÄα¶êÞæ«Ĉ«½ΑÚ«£¨æÞ Policies
Welfare of the people: Adequate livelihood: Uniform civil code:
Social, economic and
Equal pay for equal work for Prohibition of consumption
political Justice;
men and women; of alcoholic liquor:
Raising the standard of Promotion of cottage
Right against economic
living: equitable exploitation: industries;
distribution of
Right to work: Prevention of slaughter of
resources;
useful cattle:
Promotion of Early childhood care and
education to children Promotion of village
international peace
below the age of six years panchayats
SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õ½*½ŭ0Àë¤õÀĄlëÀ×¤ÀéÐïÝ·rõõlÝÐÀ¤ċ
ÖÔ
Year 2018
mģĦ½À¤½Ý·õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ëë¸ëªªïõ½ÖÀ×·õùëïÝ·õ½őnùÐÝ·TąőŽ
1. Limitation of Powers
2. Equality before law
3. People's responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER C
Explanation
Fundamental rights enshrined in part III of the constitution is a restriction on the law making power of
the Indian Parliament. The state has got no power to deprive a person of his life and liberty without the
authority of law.
The secondary meaning of rule of law is that the government should be conducted within a framework of
recognized rules and principles which restrict discretionary powers.
0À¤ċŖï*Ý×¤éõÝ·nùÐÝ·TąŭF×½Àï£ÝÝÍĥ the law and the constitution, published in the year 1885,
Dicey attributed three meanings to the doctrine of rule of law:
1.Supremacy Of Law
2.Equality Before The Law
3.Predominance Of Legal Spirit
SOURCE : F×ªÀ×éÝÐÀõċ£ċZTĊÖÀÍ×õ½ĥ*½éõëŭ=ù×ªÖ×õÐnÀ¸½õï
Constitution and Constitutionalism

Constitution: FõÀïÐ¸ÐªÝ¤ùÖ×õõ½õÀïõ½·ù×ªÖ×õÐÐąÝ·õ½¤Ýù×õëċ½ĄÀ×¸ïé¤ÀÐ
ï×¤õÀõċĦő
Constitutionalism: *Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×ÐÀïÖ Àï ïé¤Àɯ¤ ÐÀÖÀõõÀÝ×ï Ý× ¸×ëÐ rõõ éÝąëïõÝ éëĄ×õ
õ½Ċë¤ÀïÝ·ë£Àõëëċª¤ÀïÀÝ×ŭÖÍÀ×¸Ħ
Constitutional Morality: rõª·ïõ ª½ë×¤ õÝ ĄÐùï ×ª éëÀ×¤ÀéÐï ×ï½ëÀ×ª À× õ½
Option 3 can be eliminated as People's responsibility to the Government

may be considered as moral responsibilities and duties of citizens.
ÖÕ
mĤĦnÀ¸½õõÝlëÀĄ¤ċÀïéëÝõ¤õªï×À×õëÀ×ïÀ¤éëõÝ·nÀ¸½õõÝTÀ·×ªlëïÝ×ÐTÀ£ëõċĦ½À¤½Ý·
õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸À×õ½*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ý·F×ªÀ¤Ýëë¤õÐċ×ªééëÝéëÀõÐċÀÖéÐċõ½£ÝĄïõõÖ×õŽ
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
ANSWER C
Explanation
x½r*À×õ½¤ïÝ·RrlùõõïąÖċ×ªÝõ½ëïĄï|×ÀÝ×Ý·F×ªÀ×ªÝõ½ëïïÀªõ½õŒnÀ¸½õõÝ
lëÀĄ¤ċŒis an integral part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty guaranteed in Article 21 of the Constitution.
It added that the right to privacy is intrinsic to the entire fundamental rights chapter of the Constitution.
C×¤ĥÝéõÀÝ×š¤ŢÀïõ½¤Ýëë¤õ×ïąëĦ
ARTICLE 21
Right to livelihood Right to pollution- free environment Right to privacy

(Subash Kumar Vs. State of Bihar, 1991) (Puttaswamy Case, 2017)
Right to free education Right to health Right to shelter

up to 14 years of age
Right to free legal aid Right to information Right to electricity
SOURCE : http://www.thehindu.com/news/resources/supreme-court-verdict-on-right-to-privacy/article19551827.ece
Year 2019
mĜěĦ½À¤½ëõÀ¤ÐÝ·õ½*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ý·F×ªÀï·¸ùëªïÝ×ŖïëÀ¸½õõÝÖëëċõ½éëïÝ×Ý·Ý×Ŗï
¤½ÝÀ¤Ž
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29
ÖÖ
ANSWER B
Explanation
The right to marry a person of one’s choice is integral to Article 21 (right to life and liberty) of the
Constitution”, the Supreme Court said Monday and set aside a 2017 order of the Kerala High Court which
ÄÄê½½Αæ¨ΑÃÚÚ«£ΑË¢Α9Ú½ΑAêÞ½«ÃΑËÄõÚæΑ£«Ú½Α(«üΑÄΑ[¨ĈÄΑ6¨ÄΠ
SOURCE : ½õõéïűŝŝÀ×ªÀ×ĊéëïïĦ¤ÝÖŝëõÀ¤ÐŝÀ×ªÀŝëÀ¸½õŭõÝŭÖëëċŭïùéëÖŭ¤Ýùëõŭ½ªÀċŭ¤ïŭĠĜĞĜěĠĠŝ
Year 2020
T[T
mĜĜĦ½À¤½éëõÝ·õ½*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ý·F×ªÀª¤Ðëïõ½ÀªÐÝ·Ð·ërõõŽ
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Preamble
(d) Seventh Schedule
ANSWER A
Explanation
A welfare state is a concept of government where the state plays a key role in the protection and promotion
of the economic and social well-being of its citizens. It is based on the principles of equality of opportunity,
equitable distribution of wealth, and public responsibility for those unable to avail themselves of the
minimal provisions for a good life. The Directive Principles of State Policy embody the concept of a ‘welfare
state’.
A fundamental feature of the welfare state is social insurance, a provision common to most advanced
industrialized countries ( National Social Assistance Programme ). The welfare state also usually includes
public provision of basic education, health services, and housing etc. Under this system, the welfare of its
citizens is the responsibility of the state. India is a welfare state. The fact that the Preamble of the
Constitution itself envisages India to be a ‘socialist’ state bears enough evidence for this. C×¤ÝéõÀÝ×šŢ
Àïõ½¤Ýëë¤õ×ïąëĦ
*Cn*x3nFrxF*r`=0lrlï
Ideas to be followed Non-Enforceable Limitation on Arbitrary Ã×½«Ĉæ«ËÄΑË¢ Moral obligation Creating

by State power of State Preamble vision Welfarist State
SOURCE : TÖÀÍ×õ½űF×ªÀ×lÝÐÀõċŭ*½éõëű0lrl
Ö×
T[T
mĜĝĦÀõ½ë·ë×¤õÝõ½éëÝĄÀïÀÝ×ï¤Ý×õÀ×ªÀ×lëõFÝ·õ½*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ý·F×ªÀĥą½À¤½Ý·õ½
·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ïõõÖ×õïÀïŝë¤Ýëë¤õŽ
1. They shall be enforceable by courts;
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court
͌ΠΑb¨Α×Ú«Ä«×½ÞΑ½«ΑËöÄΑ«ÄΑæ¨«ÞΑ×ÚæΑÚΑæËΑ«ÄĉêÄΑæ¨ΑÃº«Ä£ΑË¢Α½öÞΑüΑæ¨Α[ææΠ
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
ANSWER D
Explanation
DPSPs, contained in Part IV (Article 36–51) of the Constitution of India, are not enforceable by any court,
but the principles laid down there in are considered in the governance of the country, making it the duty
of the State to apply these principles in making laws to establish a just society. C×¤ïõõÖ×õïĝ×ª
Ğë¤Ýëë¤õ×ªïõõÖ×õĜÀï×Ýõ¤Ýëë¤õĦ
SOURCE : TÖÀÍ×õ½űF×ªÀ×lÝÐÀõċŭ*½éõëű0lrl
mĜĞĦ½À¤½Ý×Ý·õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸¤õ¸ÝëÀïÝ·=ù×ªÖ×õÐnÀ¸½õïÀ×¤ÝëéÝëõéëÝõ¤õÀÝ×¸À×ïõ
ù×õÝù¤½£ÀÐÀõċï·ÝëÖÝ·ªÀï¤ëÀÖÀ×õÀÝ×Ž
(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Right to equality
ANSWER D
Explanation
nÀ¸½õõÝ3êùÐÀõċšëõÀ¤ÐĜğŭĜģŢprotects the citizens against any discrimination by the State on the

basis of religion, caste, race, sex, or place of birth.
Article 14 says that all citizens enjoy equal privileges and opportunities.
Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion,
race, caste, sex or place of birth.
ÖØ
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DPSP
Q14. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

(a) the Preamble of the Constitution
(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy
(c) the Seventh Schedule
(d) the conventional practice
ANSWER B
Explanation
0Àë¤õÀĄlëÀ×¤ÀéÐïÝ·rõõlÝÐÀ¤ċ¤×£¤ÐïïÀɯªÀ×õÝõ½ë£ëÝª¤õ¸ÝëÀïĥĄÀĐĥïÝ¤ÀÐÀïõÀ¤ĥ
Gandhian and liberal–intellectual.
Socialistic Principles: b¨ÞΑ×Ú«Ä«×½ÞΑÚĉæΑæ¨Α«Ë½Ë£üΑË¢ΑÞË«½«ÞÃΠΑb¨üΑ½üΑËöÄΑæ¨Α¢ÚÃöËÚºΑË¢Α
ΑÃËÚæ«ΑÞË«½«ÞæΑÞææΡΑ«ÃΑæΑ×ÚËõ««Ä£ΑÞË«½ΑÄΑËÄËÃ«Α¶êÞæ«ΡΑÄΑÞæΑæ¨Α×æ¨ΑæËöÚÞΑ
ö½¢ÚΑÞææΠ
Gandhian Principles:Αb¨ÞΑ×Ú«Ä«×½ÞΑÚΑÞΑËÄΑ#Ä¨«ÄΑ«Ë½Ë£üΠΑb¨üΑÚ×ÚÞÄæΑæ¨Α×ÚË£ÚÃÃΑ
Ë¢ΑÚËÄÞæÚêæ«ËÄΑÄêÄ«æΑüΑ#Ä¨«ΑêÚ«Ä£Αæ¨ΑÄæ«ËÄ½ΑÃËõÃÄæΠΑ+ÄΑËÚÚΑæËΑ¢ê½Ĉ½Αæ¨ΑÚÃÞΑË¢Α
#Ä¨«ΡΑÞËÃΑË¢Α¨«ÞΑ«ÞΑöÚΑ«Ä½êΑÞΑ«Úæ«õΑTÚ«Ä«×½ÞΠ
Liberal–Intellectual Principles:Αb¨Α×Ú«Ä«×½ÞΑ«Ä½êΑ«ÄΑæ¨«ÞΑæ£ËÚüΑÚ×ÚÞÄæΑæ¨Α«Ë½Ë£üΑË¢Α½«Ú½α
«ÞÃΠΑb¨üΑ«ÚæΑæ¨ΑÞææ΢
bËΑÞêÚΑ¢ËÚΑ½½Α«æ«āÄÞΑΑêÄ«¢ËÚÃΑ«õ«½ΑËΑæ¨ÚËê£¨ËêæΑæ¨ΑËêÄæÚüΑλÚæ«½Α͍͍μΠ
bËΑ×ÚËõ«ΑÚ½üΑ¨«½¨ËËΑÚΑÄΑêæ«ËÄΑ¢ËÚΑ½½Α¨«½ÚÄΑêÄæ«½Αæ¨üΑËÃ×½æΑæ¨Α£ΑË¢ΑÞ«ûΑüÚÞΑ
λÚæ«½Α͍͎μΠ
bËΑËÚ£Ä«ÞΑ£Ú«ê½æêÚΑÄΑÄ«Ã½Α¨êÞÄÚüΑËÄΑÃËÚÄΑÄΑÞ«Äæ«ĈΑ½«ÄÞΑλÚæ«½Α͍͑μΠ
bËΑ×ÚËææΑÄΑ«Ã×ÚËõΑæ¨ΑÄõ«ÚËÄÃÄæΑÄΑæËΑÞ¢£êÚΑ¢ËÚÞæÞΑÄΑö«½Α½«¢ΑλÚæ«½Α͍͑ΑμΠ
bËΑ×ÚËææΑÃËÄêÃÄæÞΡΑ×½ÞΑÄΑË¶æÞΑË¢ΑÚæ«Þæ«ΑËÚΑ¨«ÞæËÚ«Α«ÄæÚÞæΑö¨«¨ΑÚΑ½ÚΑæËΑΑË¢Α
Äæ«ËÄ½Α«Ã×ËÚæÄΑλÚæ«½Α͍͒μΠ
bËΑÞ×ÚæΑæ¨Α¶ê««ÚüΑ¢ÚËÃΑæ¨Αûêæ«õΑ«ÄΑæ¨Α×ê½«ΑÞÚõ«ÞΑË¢Αæ¨Α[ææΑλÚæ«½Α͎͉μΠ
bËΑ×ÚËÃËæΑ«ÄæÚÄæ«ËÄ½Α×ΑÄΑÞêÚ«æüΑÄΑÃ«Äæ«ÄΑ¶êÞæΑÄΑ¨ËÄËêÚ½ΑÚ½æ«ËÄÞΑæöÄΑÄæ«ËÄÞΣΑ
æËΑ¢ËÞæÚΑÚÞ×æΑ¢ËÚΑ«ÄæÚÄæ«ËÄ½Α½öΑÄΑæÚæüΑË½«£æ«ËÄÞΡΑÄΑæËΑÄËêÚ£ΑÞææ½ÃÄæΑË¢Α«ÄæÚÄæ«ËÄ½Α
«Þ×êæÞΑüΑÚ«æÚæ«ËÄΑλÚæ«½Α͎͊μΠ
SOURCE : Lamikanth: Indian Polity- Chapter: DPSP

ÖÛ
Nature of Rights and Duties
mĜĠĦ`õ½ëõ½×õ½·ù×ªÖ×õÐnÀ¸½õïĥą½À¤½Ý·õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸éëõïÝ·õ½*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ý·F×ªÀ
ëɰ¤õŝëɰ¤õïõ½éëÀ×¤ÀéÐï×ªéëÝĄÀïÀÝ×ïÝ·õ½|×ÀĄëïÐ0¤ÐëõÀÝ×Ý·CùÖ×nÀ¸½õïšĜĤğģŢŽ
͊ΠΑTÚÃ½
͋ΠΑ«Úæ«õΑTÚ«Ä«×½ÞΑË¢Α[ææΑTË½«ü
͌ΠΑ"êÄÃÄæ½Αêæ«Þ
[½æΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑÄÞöÚΑêÞ«Ä£Αæ¨ΑËΑ£«õÄΑ½Ëö΢
λμΑ͊ΑÄΑ͋ΑËÄ½ü
λμΑ͋ΑËÄ½ü
λμΑ͊ΑÄΑ͌ΑËÄ½ü
λμΑ͊ΡΑ͋ΑÄΑ͌
ANSWER D
Explanation
b¨ΑfÄ«õÚÞ½Α½Úæ«ËÄΑË¢Α(êÃÄΑW«£¨æÞΑöÞΑË×æΑüΑæ¨ΑfBΑ#ÄÚ½ΑÞÞÃ½üΑ«ÄΑ͍͊͒͑ΠΑb¨«ÞΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
½Úæ«ËÄΑÚ×ÚÞÄæÞΑæ¨ΑĈÚÞæΑ«ÄæÚÄæ«ËÄ½Αû×ÚÞÞ«ËÄΑË¢Α¨êÃÄΑÚ«£¨æÞΑæËΑö¨«¨Α½½Α¨êÃÄΑ«Ä£ÞΑÚΑ
Äæ«æ½ΠΑ+æΑ«ÞΑÞÚ«ΑÞΑæ¨Αύ+ÄæÚÄæ«ËÄ½ΑA£ÄΑÚæώΠ
b¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«Α¨ÞΑΑÚ«¨ΑËÄæÄæΑË¢Α¨êÃÄΑÚ«£¨æÞΠΑb¨ΑTÚÃ½ΡΑæ¨Α"êÄÃÄæ½ΑW«£¨æÞΑÄΑ
æ¨Α«Úæ«õΑTÚ«Ä«×½ÞΑË¢Α[ææΑTË½«üΑÚĉæΑæ¨Α×Ú«Ä«×½ÞΑÄΑ×ÚËõ«Þ«ËÄÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑfÄ«õÚÞ½Α½Úæ«ËÄΑË¢Α
(êÃÄΑW«£¨æÞΑλ͍͊͒͑μΠ
b¨Α¢ËêÚΑ«½ÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑTÚÃ½ΑÚΑ«ÃΑæΑæ¨Α×ÚËÃËæ«ËÄΑË¢Α¨êÃÄΑÚ«£¨æÞΠΑb¨üΑÚΑÞΑêÄÚ΢
Justice in social, economic and political spheres
;«ÚæüΑË¢Αæ¨Ëê£¨æΡΑû×ÚÞÞ«ËÄΡΑ½«¢ΡΑ¢«æ¨ΑÄΑöËÚÞ¨«×
Equality of status and opportunity
"ÚæÚÄ«æüΑÞÞêÚ«Ä£Αæ¨Α«£Ä«æüΑË¢Αæ¨Α«Ä«õ«ê½
b¨Α"êÄÃÄæ½ΑW«£¨æÞΑêÄÚΑTÚæα+++ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑËÄæ«ÄΑÄΑ½ËÚæΑ½«ÞæΑË¢Α«õ«½ΑÄΑ×Ë½«æ«½Α
Ú«£¨æÞΑ«õ«Α«ÄæËΑÞ«ûΑæ£ËÚ«Þ΢
W«£¨æΑæËΑÙê½«æü
W«£¨æΑæËΑ¢ÚËÃ
W«£¨æΑ£«ÄÞæΑû×½Ë«ææ«ËÄ
W«£¨æΑæËΑ¢ÚËÃΑË¢ΑÚ½«£«ËÄ
ê½æêÚ½ΑÄΑêæ«ËÄ½ΑÚ«£¨æÞ
W«£¨æΑæËΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½ΑÚÃ«Þ
b¨Α«Úæ«õΑTÚ«Ä«×½ÞΑË¢Α[ææΑTË½«üΑ«ÄΑTÚæα+qΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑËÃ×Ú«ÞΑËÄËÃ«ΡΑÞË«½ΑÄΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
ê½æêÚ½ΑÚ«£¨æÞΠ
ëõÀ¤ÐĝġÝ·x½|×ÀĄëïÐ0¤ÐëõÀÝ×Ý·CùÖ×nÀ¸½õïűΑõÚüËÄΑ¨ÞΑæ¨ΑÚ«£¨æΑæËΑêæ«ËÄΠΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
êæ«ËÄΑÞ¨½½ΑΑ¢ÚΡΑæΑ½ÞæΑ«ÄΑæ¨Α½ÃÄæÚüΑÄΑ¢êÄÃÄæ½ΑÞæ£ÞΠΑ½ÃÄæÚüΑêæ«ËÄΑÞ¨½½Α
ΑËÃ×ê½ÞËÚüΠΑb¨Ä«½ΑÄΑ×ÚË¢ÞÞ«ËÄ½Αêæ«ËÄΑÞ¨½½ΑΑÃΑ£ÄÚ½½üΑõ«½½ΑÄΑ¨«£¨ÚΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
êæ«ËÄΑÞ¨½½ΑΑÙê½½üΑÞÞ«½ΑæËΑ½½ΑËÄΑæ¨ΑÞ«ÞΑË¢ΑÃÚ«æΠ
ÖÜ
êæ«ËÄΑÞ¨½½ΑΑ«ÚæΑæËΑæ¨Α¢ê½½Αõ½Ë×ÃÄæΑË¢Αæ¨Α¨êÃÄΑ×ÚÞËÄ½«æüΑÄΑæËΑæ¨ΑÞæÚÄ£æ¨Ä«Ä£ΑË¢Α
ÚÞ×æΑ¢ËÚΑ¨êÃÄΑÚ«£¨æÞΑÄΑ¢êÄÃÄæ½Α¢ÚËÃÞΠΑ+æΑÞ¨½½Α×ÚËÃËæΑêÄÚÞæÄ«Ä£ΡΑæË½ÚÄΑÄΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
¢Ú«ÄÞ¨«×ΑÃËÄ£Α½½ΑÄæ«ËÄÞΡΑÚ«½ΑËÚΑÚ½«£«ËêÞΑ£ÚËê×ÞΡΑÄΑÞ¨½½Α¢êÚæ¨ÚΑæ¨Αæ«õ«æ«ÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑfÄ«æΑ
Bæ«ËÄÞΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨ΑÃ«ÄæÄÄΑË¢Α×Π
TÚÄæÞΑ¨õΑΑ×Ú«ËÚΑÚ«£¨æΑæËΑ¨ËËÞΑæ¨Αº«ÄΑË¢Αêæ«ËÄΑæ¨æΑÞ¨½½ΑΑ£«õÄΑæËΑæ¨«ÚΑ¨«½ÚÄΠΑ½½Αæ¨«ÞΑ«ÞΑ
ÚĉæΑ«ÄΑæ¨Α"êÄÃÄæ½ΑêæüΑÚæ«½Α͎͊αλºμΑϕr¨ËΑ«ÞΑΑ×ÚÄæΑËÚΑ£êÚ«ÄΑæËΑ×ÚËõ«ΑË××ËÚæêÄ«æ«ÞΑ¢ËÚΑ
êæ«ËÄΑæËΑ¨«ÞΑ¨«½ΑËÚΡΑÞΑæ¨ΑÞΑÃüΑΡΑöÚΑæöÄΑæ¨Α£ΑË¢ΑÞ«ûΑÄΑ¢ËêÚæÄΑüÚÞΠϕ
C×¤ÐÐõ½ÝéõÀÝ×ïë¤Ýëë¤õĦ
SOURCE : ¨ææ×Þ΢έέ½£½ą«ÚÞΠ£ËõΠ«ÄέÞ«æÞέ¢ê½æέĈ½Þέ¨×æÚА͉͋͌Π×¢
Year 2021
Fundamental Rights
V͊͏ΠΑϏW«£¨æΑæËΑTÚ«õüϐΑ«ÞΑ×ÚËææΑêÄÚΑö¨«¨ΑÚæ«½ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«Χ
λμΑÚæ«½Α͎͊
λμΑÚæ«½Α͊͒
λμΑÚæ«½Α͋͊
λμΑÚæ«½Α͋͒
ANSWER C
Explanation
+ÄΑ9Π[ΠTêææÞöÃüΑÞΑλ͉͋͊͐μΡΑ[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΑË¢Α+Ä«Α¨ÞΑ¨½Αæ¨æΑÚ«£¨æΑæËΑ×Ú«õüΑ«ÞΑΑ"êÄÃÄæ½Α
W«£¨æΑÄΑ«æΑ«ÞΑ×ÚËææΑêÄÚΑÚæ«½Α͋͊ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«ΠΑ(ÄΑË×æ«ËÄΑλμΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑ
ÄÞöÚΠ
b¨ΑËêÚæΑÚÞËÄΑæ¨æΑ×Ú«õüΑ«ÞΑÄΑ«Ä«ÄæΑË¢Α¢êÄÃÄæ½Α¢ÚËÃΑËÚΑ½«ÚæüΑ£êÚÄæΑêÄÚΑ
Úæ«½Α͋͊ΠΑb¨ΑËêÚæΑËõÚÚê½ΑAΠTΠΑ[¨ÚÃΡΑÄΑ9¨ÚºΑ[«Ä£¨Α¶ê£ÃÄæÞΡΑ«ÄΑÞËΑ¢ÚΑÞΑæ¨Α½ææÚΑ«ΑÄËæΑ
û×ÚÞÞ½üΑÚË£Ä«āΑæ¨ΑÚ«£¨æΑæËΑ×Ú«õüΠ
SOURCE : ÀïÀÝ×FrZÝ×õ½ċ*ùëë×õɬÀëïšZë¤½ſĝěĜĤŢűl¸[ÝŭĜĝ
39
ÖÚ
Fundamental Rights
Fundamental Rights
Q17. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and
uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following
V͊͐ΠΑΑ½£«Þ½æ«ËÄΑö¨«¨ΑËÄ¢ÚÞΑËÄΑæ¨Αûêæ«õΑËÚΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚæ«õΑêæ¨ËÚ«æüΑÄΑêÄ£ê«ΑÄΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
Articles of the Constitution of India?
êÄËÄæÚË½½Α«ÞÚæ«ËÄÚüΑ×ËöÚΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑÃææÚΑË¢Α××½«æ«ËÄΑË¢Α½öΑõ«Ë½æÞΑö¨«¨ΑËÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α¢Ë½½Ëö«Ä£Α
(a) Article 14
Úæ«½ÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«Χ
(b) Article 28
λμΑÚæ«½Α͍͊
(c) Article 32
λμΑÚæ«½Α͋͑
(d) Article 44
λμΑÚæ«½Α͌͋
λμΑÚæ«½Α͍͍
ANSWER A
ANSWER A
Explanation
Explanation
Article 14 ensures that all citizens are equal and that no person shall be discriminated on the basis of sex,
religion, race or place of birth. It ensures that there is a separation of power between the three wings of
Úæ«½Α͍͊ΑÄÞêÚÞΑæ¨æΑ½½Α«æ«āÄÞΑÚΑÙê½ΑÄΑæ¨æΑÄËΑ×ÚÞËÄΑÞ¨½½ΑΑ«ÞÚ«Ã«ÄæΑËÄΑæ¨ΑÞ«ÞΑË¢ΑÞûΡΑ
æ¨Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑÄΑæ¨Αûêæ«õΠΑ
the government and the executive. By üΑæ¨ÞΑÃæ¨ËÞΡΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ¢ê½Ĉ½ÞΑ½½Αæ¨ΑÚÙê«ÚÃÄæÞΑË¢Α
these methods, the constitution fulﬁls all the requirements of
Ú½«£«ËÄΡΑÚΑËÚΑ×½ΑË¢Α«Úæ¨ΠΑ+æΑÄÞêÚÞΑæ¨æΑæ¨ÚΑ«ÞΑΑÞ×Úæ«ËÄΑË¢Α×ËöÚΑæöÄΑæ¨Αæ¨ÚΑö«Ä£ÞΑË¢Α
Dicey’s theory to be recognized as a country following the Rule of Law.
æ¨Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑÄΑæ¨Αûêæ«õΠΑ üΑæ¨ÞΑÃæ¨ËÞΡΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ¢ê½Ĉ½ÞΑ½½Αæ¨ΑÚÙê«ÚÃÄæÞΑË¢Α
Thus, a legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority, an unguided and
«üϐÞΑæ¨ËÚüΑæËΑΑÚË£Ä«āΑÞΑΑËêÄæÚüΑ¢Ë½½Ëö«Ä£Αæ¨ΑWê½ΑË¢Α;öΠ
uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law, will violate Rule of law as prescribed
under Article 14. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
b¨êÞΡΑΑ½£«Þ½æ«ËÄΑö¨«¨ΑËÄ¢ÚÞΑËÄΑæ¨Αûêæ«õΑËÚΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚæ«õΑêæ¨ËÚ«æüΡΑÄΑêÄ£ê«ΑÄΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
êÄËÄæÚË½½Α«ÞÚæ«ËÄÚüΑ×ËöÚΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑÃææÚΑË¢Α××½«æ«ËÄΑË¢Α½öΡΑö«½½Αõ«Ë½æΑWê½ΑË¢Α½öΑÞΑ×ÚÞÚ«Α
SOURCE : Laxmikanth Indian Polity
êÄÚΑÚæ«½Α͍͊ΠΑC×¤ĥÝéõÀÝ×šŢÀïõ½¤Ýëë¤õ×ïąëĦ

Elimination strategy
Article 32 grants the right to seek constitutional remedy. Confering discre-
seek
tionary
constitutional
power to executive
remedy.may not violate Article 32. Hence option (c) can
Confering
be eliminated.
discretionary
power to executive may not
Úæ«½Α͌͋Α£ÚÄæÞΑæ¨ΑÚ«£¨æΑæËΑÞºΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½ΑÚÃüΠΑËÄ¢Ú«Ä£Α
violate Article 32. Hence
«ÞÚæ«ËÄÚüΑ×ËöÚΑæËΑûêæ«õΑÃüΑÄËæΑõ«Ë½æΑÚæ«½Α͌͋ΠΑ(ÄΑ
option (c) can be eliminated.
Ë×æ«ËÄΑλμΑÄΑΑ½«Ã«ÄæΠ
Includes comprehensive coverage of all topics for all the four papers of GS Mains, GS Prelims, CSAT
“You are as strong and Essay
Include Pre Foundation classes* (70 classes) for understanding of Key GS concepts & fundamental
as your Foundation” of NCERTs & Basic Books
Include All India GS Mains, Prelims, CSAT and Essay Test Series 2025
Comprehensive Current Affairs classes 2025: Monthly Current Affairs
classes (MCAR), Mains 365 & PT365
Personalised Mentors for assessing performance of the
students regularly
Continuous Assessment: Daily assignment & weekly Mini Tests
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Includes Personality Development Programme
Duration: 12 months
DELHI
12 MAR, 9 AM | 21 MAR, 5 PM | 5 APR, 9 AM
PRELIMS CUM MAINS
2025, 2026 & 2027

×Ý
DPSP
V͊͑ΠΑfÄÚΑæ¨Α+Ä«ÄΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΡΑËÄÄæÚæ«ËÄΑË¢Αö½æ¨Αõ«Ë½æÞ
λμΑæ¨ΑW«£¨æΑæËΑÙê½«æü
(b) the Directive Principles of State Policy
λμΑæ¨ΑW«£¨æΑæËΑ"ÚËÃ
λμΑæ¨ΑËÄ×æΑË¢Αr½¢Ú
ANSWER B
Explanation
+ÄΑTÚæΑ+qΑλ«Úæ«õΑTÚ«Ä«×½ÞΑË¢Α[ææΑTË½«üμΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΡΑÚæ«½Α͌͒λμΑÞüÞΑæ¨æΡΑϕæ¨ΑË×Úæ«ËÄΑË¢Α
æ¨ΑËÄËÃ«ΑÞüÞæÃΑËÞΑÄËæΑÚÞê½æΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑËÄÄæÚæ«ËÄΑË¢Αö½æ¨ΑÄΑÃÄÞΑË¢Α×ÚËêæ«ËÄΑæËΑæ¨Α
ËÃÃËÄΑæÚ«ÃÄæΠϕ
"ÚËÃΑæ¨ΑËõΑÞææÃÄæΡΑöΑÄΑÞüΑæ¨æΑËÄÄæÚæ«ËÄΑË¢Αö½æ¨Αõ«Ë½æÞΑT[TΠΑ(ÄΡΑË×æ«ËÄΑλ μΑ
«ÞΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑÄÞöÚΠ
SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õſ0lrl¤½éõë
Rights outside part III

V͊͒ΠΑr¨æΑ«ÞΑæ¨Α×ËÞ«æ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑW«£¨æΑæËΑTÚË×ÚæüΑ«ÄΑ+Ä«Χ
λμΑ;£½ΑÚ«£¨æΑõ«½½ΑæËΑ«æ«āÄÞΑËÄ½ü
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ANSWER B
Explanation
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SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õſ0lrl¤½éõë
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Year 2022
Writs & Types
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ANSWER C
Explanation
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Year 2023
Fundamental Rights
V͋͊ΠΑ+ÄΑÞÞÄΡΑö¨æΑËÞΑϖêΑTÚËÞÞΑ;öϖΑÃÄΧ
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ANSWER A
Explanation
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SOURCE : ¨ææ×Þ΢έέÄ«ËÞΠΠ«ÄέÃ«έËêÃÄæÞέ[Ú[͌͌͑Böέ͌͌͑ε+ÄæÚËêæ«ËÄεbËε;öεÄ£έ͌͌͑ε+ÄæÚËêæ«ËÄΑΑΑ
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Introduction To The Constitution Of India by DD Basu

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Fundamental Rights
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ANSWER A
Explanation
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ARTICLE 22 - PROTECTION AGAINST ARREST AND DETENTION
1st Part 2nd Part
The cases of ordinary law The cases of preventive detention law

Rights Conferred: Rights Conferred:
W«£¨æΑæËΑΑ«Ä¢ËÚÃΑË¢Αæ¨Α£ÚËêÄÞΑË¢ΑÚÚÞæΠ W«£¨æΑæËΑΑ«Ä¢ËÚÃΑË¢Αæ¨Α£ÚËêÄÞΠ
W«£¨æΑæËΑËÄÞê½æΑϞΑΑ¢ÄΑüΑΑ½£½Α×Úæ«æ«ËÄÚΠ λû×æ«ËÄΑ αΑ #ÚËêÄÞΑ ÄËæΑ æËΑ Α «Þ½ËÞΑ «¢Α æ¨æΑ «ÞΑ
W«£¨æΑæËΑ Α ×ÚËêΑ ¢ËÚΑ Α Ã£«ÞæÚæΑö«æ¨«ÄΑ ͍͋Α £«ÄÞæΑ×ê½«Α«ÄæÚÞæμΠ
¨ËêÚÞΡΑû½ê«Ä£Αæ¨Α¶ËêÚÄüΑæ«ÃÞΠ W«£¨æΑæËΑÃºΑΑÚ×ÚÞÄææ«ËÄΑ£«ÄÞæΑæ¨ΑæÄæ«ËÄΑ
W«£¨æΑ æËΑ Α Ú½ÞΑ ¢æÚΑ ͍͋Α ¨ËêÚÞΑ ö«æ¨ËêæΑ æ¨Α ËÚÚΠ
êæ¨ËÚ«æüΑË¢ΑΑÃ£«ÞæÚæΠ W«£¨æΑæËΑΑÚ½ÞΑ¢æÚΑæ¨ÚΑÃËÄæ¨ÞΑêÄ½ÞÞΑÚ×ËÚæΑ
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ééÐÀ¤£ÀÐÀõċÝ·ëÀ¸½õï ééÐÀ¤£ÀÐÀõċÝ·ëÀ¸½õï
W«£¨æÞΑÄËæΑõ«½½ΑæËΑBAxΑ½«ÄΠ õ«½½ΑæËΑËæ¨Α«æ«āÄÞΑÞΑö½½ΑÞΑ½«ÄÞΠ
Not available to a person arrested or Exclusive authority of parliament.
detained under a preventive detention
¢ÄΠ [êÚ«æüΑË¢Α+Ä«Π
"ËÚ«£ÄΑą«ÚÞΑÄ
Constitutional division
of legislative power w.r.t )Ýõ½lëÐÀÖ×õ×ªrõõT¸ÀïÐõùëĦ
preventive detention. [êÚ«æüΑË¢ΑΑ[ææΠ
A«ÄæÄÄΑË¢ΑTê½«ΑËÚÚΠ
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ËÃÃêÄ«æüΠ
SOURCE : M Laxmikanth
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Fundamental Rights
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ÃΑêÄÚΑÚæ«½Α͊͏λ͍μΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«ΑöËê½ΑΑ½«Ã«æΑüΑÚæ«½Α͎͌͌Α¢ËÚΑÃ«ÄæÄÄΑË¢Α
Ć«ÄüΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚæ«ËÄΠΑ
[ææÃÄæα++΢ΑÚæ«½Α͎͌͌ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«ΑĈÄÞΑæ¨ΑæÚÃΑϖĆ«ÄüΑË¢ΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚæ«ËÄϖΠΑ
r¨«¨ΑËÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α¢Ë½½Ëö«Ä£Α«ÞΑËÚÚæΑ«ÄΑÚÞ×æΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËõΑÞææÃÄæÞΧ
λμΑ Ëæ¨Α[ææÃÄæÞα+ΑÄΑ[ææÃÄæα++ΑÚΑËÚÚæΑÄΑ[ææÃÄæα+«Α«ÞΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑû×½Äæ«ËÄΑ¢ËÚΑ
[ææÃÄæα+Α
λμΑ Ëæ¨Α[ææÃÄæα+ΑÄΑ[ææÃÄæα++ΑÚΑËÚÚæΑÄΑ[ææÃÄæα++Α«ÞΑÄËæΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑû×½Äæ«ËÄΑ¢ËÚΑ
[ææÃÄæα+Α
λμΑ[ææÃÄæα+Α«ÞΑËÚÚæΑêæΑ[ææÃÄæα++Α«ÞΑ«ÄËÚÚæΑ
λμΑ[ææÃÄæα+Α«ÞΑ«ÄËÚÚæΑêæΑ[ææÃÄæα++Α«ÞΑËÚÚæ
ANSWER C
Explanation
[ææÃÄæΑ͊Α«ÞΑËÚÚæ΢ΑÚæ«½Α͊͏Αλ͍μΑ×ÚËõ«ÞΑæ¨æΑæ¨Α[ææΑÄΑÄæΑ½£«Þ½æ«ËÄΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨ΑÚÞÚõæ«ËÄΑË¢Α
×ËÞæÞΑ«ÄΑæ¨Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑÞæËÚΑËÚΑ¶ËÞΑ«ÄΑ¢õËêÚΑË¢Αæ¨ΑºöÚΑ½ÞÞÞΑË¢Α«æ«āÄÞΡΑö¨«¨Αæ¨Α[ææΑ
ËÄÞ«ÚÞΑæËΑ¨õΑÄËæΑÄΑÙêæ½üΑÚ×ÚÞÄæΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑÞÚõ«ÞΑË¢Αæ¨Α[ææΠΑ+ÄΑæ¨Α×ÞæΑÞõÄΑ
ÞΑË¢ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½Α¶êÚ«Þ×ÚêÄΑËÄΑÚÞÚõæ«ËÄÞΡΑæ¨Α[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΑË¢Α+Ä«Α¨ÞΑËÄÞ«ÞæÄæ½üΑ
Ú¢ÚÚΑæËΑæ¨ΑÄËæ«ËÄÞΑË¢ΑύĆ«ÄüώΑÄΑύÃÚ«æΡώΑö¨«½Α¶ê«æ«Ä£Αæ¨Αõ½««æüΑË¢ΑõÚ«ËêÞΑÚÞÚõæ«ËÄΑ
×Ë½««ÞΠΑb¨ΑËêÚæΑ¨ÞΑ¨½Α«ÄΑÞõÚ½Α¶ê£ÃÄæÞΑδΑ+ÄÚΑ[ö¨ÄüΑõΑfÄ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«Α͊͒͒͌ΣΑAΑB£Ú¶ΑõΑ
fÄ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«Α͉͉͋͏ΑδΑæ¨æΑæ¨ΑÚÞÚõæ«ËÄΑ×Ë½««ÞΑÃΑêÄÚΑÚæ«½Α͊͏λ͍μΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑöËê½ΑΑ
½«Ã«æΑüΑÚæ«½Α͎͌͌ΡΑö¨«¨Α×ÚËõ«ÞΑ¢ËÚΑύÃ«ÄæÄÄΑË¢ΑĆ«ÄüΑË¢ΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚæ«ËÄΡώΑö¨«½ΑËÄÞ«Ú«Ä£Α
æ¨Α½«ÃÞΑË¢Αæ¨Α[¨ê½ΑÞæÞΑλ[ÞμΑÄΑæ¨Α[¨ê½ΑbÚ«ÞΑλ[bÞμΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑÃº«Ä£ΑË¢Α××Ë«ÄæÃÄæÞΑæËΑ
×ê½«ΑÞÚõ«ÞΑÄΑ×ËÞæÞΠΑb¨«ÞΑöÞΑËÄΑö¨«½Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑËÞΑÄËæΑĈÄΑæ¨ΑæÚÃΑύĆ«ÄüΑË¢Α
Ã«Ä«ÞæÚæ«ËÄΠώΑ
[ææÃÄæΑ͋Α«ÞΑÄËæΑËÚÚæ΢ΑÚæ«½Α͎͌͌ΑÞææÞΑæ¨æΑ¨Α½«ÃÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÃÃÚÞΑË¢Αæ¨Α[¨ê½ΑÞæÞΑ
ÄΑæ¨Α[¨ê½ΑbÚ«ÞΑÞ¨½½ΑΑæºÄΑ«ÄæËΑËÄÞ«Úæ«ËÄΡΑËÄÞ«ÞæÄæ½üΑö«æ¨Αæ¨ΑÃ«ÄæÄÄΑË¢ΑĆ«ÄüΑ
Ë¢ΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚæ«ËÄΡΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑÃº«Ä£ΑË¢Α××Ë«ÄæÃÄæÞΑæËΑÞÚõ«ÞΑÄΑ×ËÞæÞΑ«ÄΑËÄÄæ«ËÄΑö«æ¨Αæ¨Αą«ÚÞΑË¢Α
æ¨ΑfÄ«ËÄΑËÚΑË¢ΑΑ[ææΠΑb¨«ÞΑÚæ«½ΡΑ¨ÞΑ¨ËöõÚΡΑÄËæΑĈÄΑæ¨Αû×ÚÞÞ«ËÄΑϖĆ«ÄüΑË¢ΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚæ«ËÄϖΠΑ

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×Û
TÚÃ½ΑλbËæ½Α͏ΑÙêÞæ«ËÄÞμ
͌ ͌
VêÞæ«ËÄÞ VêÞæ«ËÄÞ
H¶æ«õΑϞΑ[«£Ä«ĈÄΑË¢ΑTÚÃ½ 9üöËÚÞΑ«ÄΑTÚÃ½
Year 2017
H¶æ«õΑϞΑ[«£Ä«ĈÄΑË¢ΑTÚÃ½
V͊ΠΑr¨«¨ΑËÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α¢Ë½½Ëö«Ä£ΑË¶æ«õÞΑ«ÞΑÄËæΑÃË«Α«ÄΑæ¨ΑTÚÃ½ΑæËΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«Χ
λμΑ;«ÚæüΑË¢Αæ¨Ëê£¨æ
(b) Economic liberty
λμΑ;«ÚæüΑË¢Αû×ÚÞÞ«ËÄ
(d) Liberty of belief
ANSWER B
Explanation
b¨ΑTÚÃ½ΑÞêÚÞΑæËΑ½½Α«æ«āÄÞΑË¢Α+Ä«Α½«ÚæüΑË¢Αæ¨Ëê£¨æΡΑû×ÚÞÞ«ËÄΡΑ½«¢ΡΑ¢«æ¨ΑÄΑöËÚÞ¨«×ΡΑ
æ¨ÚËê£¨Αæ¨«ÚΑ"êÄÃÄæ½ΑW«£¨æÞΡΑÄ¢ËÚ½Α«ÄΑËêÚæΑË¢Α½öΡΑ«ÄΑÞΑË¢Αõ«Ë½æ«ËÄΠ
b¨Α«½ÞΑË¢Α½«ÚæüΡΑÙê½«æüΑÄΑ¢ÚæÚÄ«æüΑ«ÄΑËêÚΑTÚÃ½Α¨õΑÄΑæºÄΑ¢ÚËÃΑæ¨Α"ÚÄ¨ΑWõË½êæ«ËÄΑ
λ͊͐͑͒γ͊͐͒͒μΠΑ(ÄΑË×æ«ËÄΑλμΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑÄÞöÚΠ
Source of Authority of Constitution
ϕrΡΑb¨ΑTË×½ΑË¢Α+Ä«ΡΑ¨õ«Ä£ΑÞË½ÃÄ½üΑÚÞË½õΑæËΑËÄÞæ«æêæΑ+Ä«Α«ÄæËΑΑ[ËõÚ«£ÄΑ[Ë«½«ÞæΑ
Secular Democratic RepublicΑÄΑæËΑÞêÚΑæËΑ½½Α«æÞΑ«æ«āÄÞ΢ϕ
Nature of Indian State
6êÞæ«ΡΑÞË«½ΡΑËÄËÃ«ΑÄΑ×Ë½«æ«½Σ ;«ÚæüΑË¢Αæ¨Ëê£¨æΡΑû×ÚÞÞ«ËÄΡΑ½«¢ΡΑ¢«æ¨ΑÄΑöËÚÞ¨«×Σ
Ùê½«æüΑË¢ΑÞææêÞΑÄΑË¢ΑË××ËÚæêÄ«æüΣΑÄΑ "ÚæÚÄ«æüΑÞÞêÚ«Ä£Αæ¨Α«£Ä«æüΑË¢Αæ¨Α«Ä«õ«ê½ΑÄΑæ¨Α
æËΑ×ÚËÃËæΑÃËÄ£Αæ¨ÃΑ½½ êÄ«æüΑÄΑ«Äæ£Ú«æüΑË¢Αæ¨ΑBæ«ËÄΣ
+ÄΑËêÚΑËÄÞæ«æêÄæΑÞÞÃ½üΑæ¨«Þ Date of adoption of constitution

æöÄæüαÞ«ûæ¨ΑüΑË¢ΑBËõÃÚΡΑ͍͊͒͒ΡΑËΑ(W xΑHTbΡΑBbΑBΑ#+qΑbHΑHfW[;q[Αb(+[ΑHB[b+bfb+HB
SOURCE : Laxmikanth -Indian Polity, Chapter - Preamble

×Ü
V͋ΠΑb¨ΑÃ«ÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÃºÚÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«Α«ÞΑÚĉæΑ«ÄΑö¨«¨ΑË¢Αæ¨Α¢Ë½½Ëö«Ä£Χ
(a) The Preamble
λμΑb¨Α"êÄÃÄæ½ΑW«£¨æÞ
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
λμΑb¨Α"êÄÃÄæ½Αêæ«Þ
ANSWER A
Explanation
+ÄΑæ¨Α ÚêÚ«ΑfÄ«ËÄΑÞΑλ͊͒͏͉μΡΑæ¨Α[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΑÞ«Αæ¨æΑæ¨ΑTÚÃ½ΑÞ¨ËöÞΑæ¨Α£ÄÚ½Α×êÚ×ËÞÞΑ
¨«ÄΑæ¨ΑÞõÚ½Α×ÚËõ«Þ«ËÄÞΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΡΑÄΑ«ÞΑæ¨êÞΑΑºüΑæËΑæ¨ΑÃ«ÄÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÃºÚÞΑË¢Αæ¨Α
ËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠΑ(ÄΑË×æ«ËÄΑλμΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑÄÞöÚΠ
Keywords in the Preamble

V͌ΠΑHÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α«Ã×½«æ«ËÄÞΑË¢ΑÙê½«æüΑ«ÄΑÞË«æüΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑÞÄΑË¢
λμΑTÚ«õ«½£ÞΑ
(b) Restraints
(c) Competition
λμΑ+Ë½Ë£ü
ANSWER A
Explanation
b¨ΑæÚÃΑϏÙê½«æüϐΑÃÄÞΑæ¨ΑÞÄΑË¢ΑÞ×«½Α×Ú«õ«½£ÞΑæËΑÄüΑÞæ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÞË«æüΡΑÄΑæ¨Α×ÚËõ«Þ«ËÄΑ
Ë¢ΑÙêæΑË××ËÚæêÄ«æ«ÞΑ¢ËÚΑ½½Α«Ä«õ«ê½ÞΑö«æ¨ËêæΑÄüΑ«ÞÚ«Ã«Äæ«ËÄΠΑ(ÄΑË×æ«ËÄΑλμΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑ
ÄÞöÚΠ
EQUALITY
Absence of special privileges to Provision of adequate opportunities for
any section all individuals without any discrimination
BËæΑÞË½êæΑêæΑÙê½«ĈΑ½«ÚæüΑö«æ¨Α
Equality of status and opportunity limitations mentioned in the Constitution itself

×Ú
ëĝěĜģ
V͍ΠΑr¨«¨ΑËÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α¢Ë½½Ëö«Ä£ΑÚĉæÞΑæ¨ΑÃËÞæΑ××ÚË×Ú«æΑÚ½æ«ËÄÞ¨«×ΑæöÄΑ½öΑÄΑ½«ÚæüΧ
λμΑ+¢Αæ¨ÚΑÚΑÃËÚΑ½öÞΡΑæ¨ÚΑ«ÞΑ½ÞÞΑ½«ÚæüΠ
λμΑ+¢Αæ¨ÚΑÚΑÄËΑ½öÞΡΑæ¨ÚΑ«ÞΑÄËΑ½«ÚæüΠ
λμΑ+¢Αæ¨ÚΑ«ÞΑ½«ÚæüΡΑ½öÞΑ¨õΑæËΑΑÃΑüΑæ¨Α×Ë×½Π
λμΑ+¢Α½öÞΑÚΑ¨Ä£ΑæËËΑË¢æÄΡΑ½«ÚæüΑ«ÞΑ«ÄΑÄ£ÚΠ
ANSWER B
Explanation
b¨ΑæÚÃΑϖ½«ÚæüϖΑÃÄÞΑÞÄΑË¢ΑÚÞæÚ«ÄæÞΑËÄΑæ¨Αæ«õ«æ«ÞΑË¢Α«Ä«õ«ê½ÞΡΑÄΑæΑæ¨ΑÞÃΑæ«ÃΡΑ
×ÚËõ««Ä£ΑË××ËÚæêÄ«æ«ÞΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨Αõ½Ë×ÃÄæΑË¢Α«Ä«õ«ê½ÞΠ
(ËöõÚΡΑ½«ÚæüΑËÞΑÄËæΑÃÄΑϖ½«ÄÞϖΑæËΑËΑö¨æΑËÄΑ½«ºÞΡΑÄΑ¨ÞΑæËΑΑÄ¶ËüΑö«æ¨«ÄΑæ¨Α½«Ã«ææ«ËÄÞΑ
ÃÄæ«ËÄΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«êæ«ËÄΑÄΑõÚ«ËêÞΑ½öÞΠΑb¨ΑËÄ×æΑË¢Α½«ÚüΑ«ÞΑÄËæΑÞË½êæΠΑÞÄÞΑË¢Α½öÞΑ
ËÞΑÄËæΑÄÞêÚΑ½«ÚæüΠΑ(ÄΑË×æ«ËÄΑλμΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑÄÞöÚΠ
SOURCE : Indian polity by M Laxmikanth, Chapter- Preamble

[*3nxĜĜĥF×ªÀ×*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×õąÝëÍĥ¤½éõëĝ
ëĝěĜĤ
V͎ΠΑ+ÄΑæ¨ΑËÄæûæΑË¢Α×Ë½«æüΡΑö¨«¨ΑËÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α¢Ë½½Ëö«Ä£ΑöËê½ΑüËêΑ×æΑÞΑæ¨ΑÃËÞæΑ××ÚË×Ú«æΑ
ĈÄ«æ«ËÄΑË¢Α½«ÚæüΧ
λμΑTÚËææ«ËÄΑ£«ÄÞæΑæ¨ΑæüÚÄÄüΑË¢Α×Ë½«æ«½ΑÚê½ÚÞ
λμΑÞÄΑË¢ΑÚÞæÚ«Äæ
λμΑH××ËÚæêÄ«æüΑæËΑËΑö¨æõÚΑËÄΑ½«ºÞ
λμΑH××ËÚæêÄ«æüΑæËΑõ½Ë×ΑËÄÞ½¢Α¢ê½½ü
ANSWER D
Explanation
b¨ΑæÚÃΑϏ½«ÚæüϐΑÃÄÞΑæ¨ΑÞÄΑË¢ΑÚÞæÚ«ÄæÞΑËÄΑæ¨Αæ«õ«æ«ÞΑË¢Α«Ä«õ«ê½ÞΡΑÄΑæΑæ¨ΑÞÃΑæ«ÃΡΑ
×ÚËõ««Ä£ΑË××ËÚæêÄ«æ«ÞΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨Αõ½Ë×ÃÄæΑË¢Α«Ä«õ«ê½Α×ÚÞËÄ½«æ«ÞΠ
;«ÚæüΡΑÞΑ½ËÚæΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑTÚÃ½ΡΑ«ÞΑõÚüΑÞÞÄæ«½Α¢ËÚΑæ¨ΑÞêÞÞ¢ê½Α¢êÄæ«ËÄ«Ä£ΑË¢Αæ¨Α+Ä«ÄΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
ÃËÚæ«ΑÞüÞæÃΠΑ(ËöõÚΡΑ½«ÚæüΑËÞΑÄËæΑÃÄΑϏ½«ÄÞϐΑæËΑËΑö¨æΑËÄΑ½«ºÞΑÄΑ¨ÞΑæËΑΑÄ¶ËüΑ
ö«æ¨«ÄΑæ¨Α½«Ã«ææ«ËÄÞΑÃÄæ«ËÄΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ«æÞ½¢ΠΑ+ÄΑÚ«¢ΡΑæ¨Α½«ÚæüΑËÄ«õΑüΑæ¨ΑTÚÃ½ΑËÚΑ
¢êÄÃÄæ½ΑÚ«£¨æÞΑ«ÞΑÄËæΑÞË½êæΑêæΑÙê½«ĈΠΑ(ÄΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑËõΑÙêÞæ«ËÄΑæ¨ΑÃËÞæΑ××ÚË×Ú«æΑĈÄ«æ«ËÄΑ
Ë¢Α½«ÚæüΑ«ÞΑæËΑ×ÚËõ«ΑË××ËÚæêÄ«æüΑæËΑõ½Ë×ΑËÄÞ½¢Α¢ê½½üΠΑ(ÄΑË×æ«ËÄΑλμΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑÄÞöÚΠ
SOURCE : NCERT Class 11: Political Theory ¨ææ×΢έέöööΠÄÚæΠÄ«Π«ÄέÄÚæÞέ½έº×Þ͉͊͋Π×¢

ØÝ
LIBERTY
Absence of restraints on the activities Providing opportunities for the development
of individuals of individual personalities
Liberty of thought, expression, BËæΑÞË½êæΑêæΑÙê½«ĈΑ½«ÚæüΑö«æ¨Α

belief, faith and worship limitations mentioned in the Constitution itself
Year 2020
V͏ΠΑb¨ΑTÚÃ½ΑæËΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«Α«Þ
λμΑ×ÚæΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑêæΑ¨ÞΑÄËΑ½£½Αąæ
λμΑÄËæΑΑ×ÚæΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑÄΑ¨ÞΑÄËΑ½£½ΑąæΑ«æ¨Ú
λμΑ×ÚæΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑÄΑ¨ÞΑæ¨ΑÞÃΑ½£½ΑąæΑÞΑÄüΑËæ¨ÚΑ×Úæ
λμΑΑ×ÚæΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑêæΑ¨ÞΑÄËΑ½£½ΑąæΑ«Ä×ÄÄæ½üΑË¢ΑËæ¨ÚΑ×ÚæÞ
ANSWER D
Explanation
b¨ΑTÚÃ½ΑË¢Αæ¨Α+Ä«ÄΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑÞÚõÞΑÞΑΑÚ«¢Α«ÄæÚËêæËÚüΑÞææÃÄæΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑæ¨æΑ
ÞæÞΑËêæΑæ¨Α£ê««Ä£Α×êÚ×ËÞΡΑ×Ú«Ä«×½ÞΡΑÄΑ×¨«½ËÞË×¨üΑË¢Αæ¨Α+Ä«ÄΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠΑ+æΑ«ÞΑæ¨Αæ¨«Äº«Ä£ΑÄΑ
ÞËê½ΑË¢ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑÃºÚÞΑÄΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêÄæΑÞÞÃ½üΠ
b¨Α×ÚÃ½Α«ÞΑÞΑËÄΑæ¨ΑH¶æ«õÞΑö¨«¨ΑöÚΑÚ¢æΑÄΑÃËõΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêÄæΑÞÞÃ½üΑüΑ
6ö¨Ú½½ΑB¨ÚêΑËÄΑ͊͌ΑÃÚΑ͍͊͒͏Π
b¨Α[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΑË¢Α+Ä«ΑËÚ«£«Ä½½üΑÞææΑ«ÄΑæ¨Α ÚêÚ«ΑÞΑλ͊͒͏͉μ presidential reference that the
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(ËöõÚΡΑæ¨ΑÞÃΑËêÚæΡΑ«ÄΑæ¨Α͊͒͐͌Α9ÞõÄÄΑÞΡΑËõÚÚê½ΑÚ½«ÚΑ«Þ«ËÄÞΑÄΑÚË£Ä«āΑæ¨æΑ
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×ÚÞÄæΑæ¨ÃÞ½õÞΠΑb¨Α[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΑ«ÄΑæ¨Α9ÞõÄÄΑÞΑÚ«æÚæΑæ¨æΑæ¨ΑË¶æ«õÞΑ£«õÄΑ«ÄΑ
æ¨ΑTÚÃ½Α¢ËÚÃΑΑ×ÚæΑË¢Αæ¨Α Þ«Α[æÚêæêÚΑË¢Αæ¨Α+Ä«ÄΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠΑ+ÄΑæ¨Α͎͊͒͒ΑÞΑË¢ΑfÄ«ËÄΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
#ËõÚÄÃÄæΑõÞΑ;+ΑË¢Α+Ä«ΡΑæ¨Α[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΑËÄΑ£«ÄΑ¨½Αæ¨æΑæ¨ΑTÚÃ½Α«ÞΑÄΑ«Äæ£Ú½Α×ÚæΑË¢Αæ¨Α
ËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠ
b¨ΑTÚÃ½Α«ÞΑÄËæΑΑ½£½½üΑ«Ä«Ä£ΑËêÃÄæΠΑBËΑ½öΑÄΑΑÞæÚêºΑËöÄΑ«¢Α«æΑ«ÞΑ¢ËêÄΑæËΑõ«Ë½æΑæ¨ΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
TÚÃ½ΑËÄ½üΠΑ(ÄΑË×æ«ËÄΑλμΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑÄÞöÚΠ
FïlëÖ£ÐéëõÝ·*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ž ÚêÚ«ΑfÄ«ËÄΑ 9ÞõÄÄΑ

ÞΡΑ͊͒͏͉ΑαÄËæΑΑ ¨Úæ«ΑÞΡΑ
x[ΑλêæΑ«æΑ«ÞΑÄËæΑΑÞËêÚΑËÚΑ part ͊͒͐͌α«ÞΑΑ×Úæ
½«Ã«ææ«ËÄΑË¢Α×ËöÚΑæËΑ½£«Þ½æêÚΑ Related Cases
ÄΑ«æΑ«ÞΑÄËÄα¶êÞæ««½μ ;+ΑË¢Α+Ä«ΑÞΡΑ͎͊͒͒α×ÚæΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ
SOURCE : Indian polity by M Laxmikanth, Chapter- Preamble

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Year 2017
Federalism
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λμΑb¨ÚΑ«ÞΑÄΑ«Ä×ÄÄæΑ¶ê««ÚüΑ«ÄΑ+Ä«Π
λμΑTËöÚÞΑ¨õΑÄΑ½Ú½üΑ«õ«ΑæöÄΑæ¨ΑÄæÚΑÄΑæ¨Α[ææÞΠ
λμΑb¨Α¢Úæ«Ä£ΑêÄ«æÞΑ¨õΑÄΑ£«õÄΑêÄÙê½ΑÚ×ÚÞÄææ«ËÄΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑW¶üΑ[¨Π
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ANSWER D
Explanation
b¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«ΑÞæ½«Þ¨ÞΑΑ¢Ú½ΑÞüÞæÃΑË¢Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΠΑ+æΑËÄæ«ÄÞΑ½½Αæ¨ΑêÞê½Α¢æêÚÞΑË¢Α
Α¢Úæ«ËÄΡΑõ«āΠΡΑæöËΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæΡΑ«õ«Þ«ËÄΑË¢Α×ËöÚÞΡΑöÚ«ææÄΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΡΑÞê×ÚαÃüΑË¢ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΡΑ
Ú«£««æüΑË¢ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΡΑ«Ä×ÄÄæΑ¶ê««ÚüΑÄΑ«ÃÚ½«ÞÃΠ
AËÚËõÚΡΑæ¨ΑæÚÃΑϏ"Úæ«ËÄϐΑ¨ÞΑÄËö¨ÚΑÄΑêÞΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠΑÚæ«½Α͊ΡΑËÄΑæ¨ΑËæ¨ÚΑ¨ÄΡΑ
ÞÚ«ÞΑ+Ä«ΑÞΑΑϏfÄ«ËÄΑË¢Α[ææÞϐΑö¨«¨Α«Ã×½«ÞΑæöËΑæ¨«Ä£Þ΢ΑËÄΡΑ+Ä«ÄΑ"Úæ«ËÄΑ«ÞΑÄËæΑæ¨ΑÚÞê½æΑË¢Α
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λμΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑÄÞöÚΠ
SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õ½ŭ*CŭrÐÀ×õ=õùëïÝ·õ½*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×
ö¨«½Α«Ä×ÄÄæΑ6ê««Úü is a federal feature,Α+Äæ£ÚæΑ6ê««Úü is a
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ØÕ
ëĝěĜģ
Schedules in Indian Constitution
V͋ΠΑËÄÞ«ÚΑæ¨Α¢Ë½½Ëö«Ä£ΑÞææÃÄæÞ΢
͊ΠΑb¨ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑË¢Α+Ä«ΑÄΑ×½ΑΑ×Úæ«ê½ÚΑ½öΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑB«Äæ¨Α[¨ê½ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«Π
͋ΠΑb¨Αõ½««æüΑË¢ΑΑ½öΑ×½Α«ÄΑæ¨ΑB«Äæ¨Α[¨ê½ΑÄÄËæΑΑûÃ«ÄΑüΑÄüΑËêÚæΑÄΑÄËΑ¶ê£ÃÄæΑ
ÄΑΑÃΑËÄΑ«æΠ
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λμΑ Ëæ¨Α͊ΑÄΑ͋
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ANSWER A
Explanation
b¨ΑB«Äæ¨Α[¨ê½ΑöÞΑΑæËΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑüΑæ¨ΑĈÚÞæΑÃÄÃÄæΑ«ÄΑ͎͊͒͊Α½ËÄ£Αö«æ¨ΑÚæ«½Α͌͊α Α
ö«æ¨ΑΑõ«öΑæËΑ×ÚËõ«ΑΑύ×ÚËææ«õΑêÃÚ½½ώΑæËΑ½ÄΑÚ¢ËÚÃÞΑ½öÞΑæËΑÞõΑæ¨ÃΑ¢ÚËÃΑ«Ä£Α¨½½Ä£Α«ÄΑ
ËêÚæÞΑËÄΑæ¨Α£ÚËêÄΑË¢Αõ«Ë½æ«ËÄΑË¢Α¢êÄÃÄæ½ΑÚ«£¨æÞΠΑ;ÄΑÚ¢ËÚÃÞΑÄΑÞ×«Ĉ½½üΑ½ÄΑÚ«ÞæÚ«êæ«ËÄΑ
öÞΑ¨½½Ä£Α«ÄΑËêÚæÞΑÞΑ«Ä£Αõ«Ë½æ«õΑË¢ΑW«£¨æΑæËΑTÚË×ÚæüΑö¨«¨ΑöÞΑΑ¢êÄÃÄæ½ΑÚ«£¨æΑêÄÚΑ
Úæ«½Α͊͒Αæ«½½Α͊͒͐͑ΠΑ
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b¨Α[Αê×¨½Αæ¨Αõ½««æüΑË¢ΑÚæ«½Α͌͊α ΑÄΑTÚ½«ÃÄæϐÞΑ×ËöÚΑæËΑ×½ΑΑ×Úæ«ê½ÚΑ½öΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑB«Äæ¨ΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
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The Supreme Court in the +ΠWΠΑË½¨ËΑÞΑ͉͉͋͐ΑÞ«Αæ¨æΑ½öÞΑ×½Α«ÄΑæ¨ΑB«Äæ¨Α[¨ê½ΑÚΑË×ÄΑæËΑ
¶ê««½ΑÞÚêæ«ÄüΑÄΑæ¨æΑÞê¨Α½öÞΑËΑÄËæΑÄ¶ËüΑΑ½ÄºæΑ×ÚËææ«ËÄΠΑ;öÞΑ×½Α«ÄΑæ¨ΑB«Äæ¨Α[¨ê½Α
¢æÚΑæ¨Α9Þ¨öÄÄΑ ¨Úæ«Α6ê£ÃÄæΑËÄΑ×Ú«½Α͍͋ΡΑ͊͒͐͌ΡΑö¨ÄΑ«æΑ×ÚË×ËêÄΑæ¨ΑύÞ«ΑÞæÚêæêÚώΑ
ËæÚ«ÄΡΑöÚΑË×ÄΑæËΑ¨½½Ä£ΠΑ(ÄΡΑÞææÃÄæΑ͋Α«ÞΑÄËæΑËÚÚæΠ
SOURCE : F×ªÀ×éÝÐÀõċ£ċZTĊÖÀÍ×õ½ĥ*½éõëŭ=ù×ªÖ×õÐnÀ¸½õï
B«Äæ¨Α[¨ê½ΑöÞΑΑ«ÄΑÄöÞΑêÞΑæ¨ΑÙêËæΑ£«ææ«ËÄÞΑæöÄΑ͉͎͋͊Α
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ÚÞÚõæ«ËÄΑ«Ä£Α×ÚËææΑêÄÚΑB«Äæ¨Α[¨ê½Π
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ship of
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ëĝěĜĤ
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ANSWER A
Explanation
bËΑÄÞêÚΑæ¨æΑ£ÚÚ«ÄΑÚ¢ËÚÃΑ½£«Þ½æ«ËÄΑ«ΑÄËæΑÚêÄΑ«ÄæËΑ¨õüΑöæ¨ÚΡΑæ¨Α½£«Þ½æêÚΑÃÄΑæ¨Α
ËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑüÚΑ͎͊͒͊Αö¨«¨Α«ÄÞÚæΑB«Äæ¨Α[¨ê½ΑêÚ«Ä£Αæ¨ΑæÄêÚΑË¢ΑTÚ«ÃΑA«Ä«ÞæÚΑTæΠΑ
6ö¨ÚΑ;½ΑB¨ÚêΠΑ(ÄΑË×æ«ËÄΑλμΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑÄÞöÚΠ
SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õűF×ªÀ×lÝÐÀõċš*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×ÐÖ×ªÖ×õïŢ
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V͍ΠΑfÄÚΑö¨«¨Α[¨ê½ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«ΑÄΑæ¨ΑæÚÄÞ¢ÚΑË¢ΑæÚ«½Α½ÄΑæËΑ×Ú«õæΑ×Úæ«ÞΑ
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(a) Third Schedule
λμΑ"«¢æ¨Α[¨ê½
(c) Ninth Schedule
λμΑbö½¢æ¨Α[¨ê½
ANSWER B
Explanation
b¨Α+Ä«ÄΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ×ÚËõ«ÞΑêæËÄËÃüΑæËΑæÚ«½ΑÚÞΑ«ÄΑÃææÚÞΑË¢Α£ËõÚÄÄΑêÄÚΑæ¨Α"«¢æ¨ΑÄΑ
[«ûæ¨Α[¨ê½ÞΡΑö¨«¨Α«ÞΑ¢êÚæ¨ÚΑ¢ËÚæ«ĈΑüΑæ¨Α[Ãæ¨ΑõΠΑ[ææΑË¢ΑÄ¨ÚΑTÚÞ¨ΑϞΑHÚÞΑλ͊͒͒͐μΑ¶ê£ÃÄæΑ
ö¨ÚΑæ¨Α[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΑ½ÚΑæ¨æΑæ¨ΑæÚÄÞ¢ÚΑË¢ΑæÚ«½Α½ÄΑæËΑ×Ú«õæΑ×Úæ«ÞΑ¢ËÚΑÃ«Ä«Ä£ΑöÞΑÄê½½ΑÄΑ
õË«ΑêÄÚΑæ¨Α"«¢æ¨Α[¨ê½ΠΑ(ÄΑË×æ«ËÄΑλμΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑÄÞöÚΠ
b¨Α¢ÚÃöËÚºΑ¢ËÚΑ×ÚËææ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÚ«£¨æÞΑË¢ΑæÚ«½ΑÄΑ«Ä«£ÄËêÞΑ×Ë×½Α«ÞΑ¢êÚæ¨ÚΑÞæÚÄ£æ¨ÄΑüΑæ¨Α
WË£Ä«æ«ËÄΑË¢Α"ËÚÞæΑW«£¨æÞΑæΡΑ͉͉͋͏Α
SOURCE : Laxmikant:Indian Polity- Chapter- Fifth and Sixth Schedule

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b¨ÚΑöÞΑÄËæ¨ÚΑÙêÞæ«ËÄΑËÄΑæ¨Α½ÄαæÚÄÞ¢ÚΑÞ×æΑË¢Αæ¨Α"«¢æ¨Α[¨ê½Α«ÄΑ͉͋͋͋Α×Ú½«ÃÞΠ
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λμΑb¨Α[ææΑ¨õ«Ä£ΑÞê¨ΑÚÞΑöËê½ΑΑ½ÚΑΑÞ×«½Αæ£ËÚüΑ[ææΠ
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Federalism
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λμΑb¨Α"êÄÃÄæ½ΑW«£¨æÞΑÚΑÄ¢ËÚ½ΑüΑËêÚæÞΑË¢Α;öΠ
ANSWER A
Explanation
b¨Α¢Ú½Α¨ÚæÚΑË¢Αæ¨Α+Ä«ÄΑTË½«æüΑ«ÞΑ«Ä«æΑüΑ¢Ë½½Ëö«Ä£Α¢æêÚÞ΢ΑrÚ«ææÄΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΡΑ
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(ÄΡΑË×æ«ËÄΑλμΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑÄÞöÚΠ
SOURCE : Laxmikanth Indian Polity.
6ê««½Α«Ä×ÄÄΑöÞΑÄΑË×æ«ËÄΑÚ£Ú«Ä£ΑΑÙêÞæ«ËÄΑËÄΑ+Ä«ÄΑ¢Ú½«ÞÃΑÞºΑ«ÄΑ͉͋͊͐Α
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SOURCE : Laxmikanth Indian Polity.
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ANSWER A
Explanation
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SOURCE : Laxmikant:Indian Polity, Chapter: Fifth and Sixth Schedule
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VêÞæ«ËÄÞ VêÞæ«ËÄÞ VêÞæ«ËÄÞ
Parliamentary form ÃËÚüΑϞΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½Α Nature of State
of Government Government
Year 2017
Democracy & Constitutional Government
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ANSWER A
Explanation
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SOURCE : [Ħ0Ħn`n×ªrrąïõ½ċŒlÝÐõÀ¤Ðx½ÝëċřlÝÐÀõÀ¤Ðx½Ýù¸½õŒ
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Parliamentary form of Government
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ANSWER C
Explanation
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¨«¢ΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚΡΑΑλ¢μΑ«ÞÞË½êæ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α½ËöÚΑ(ËêÞΑλ;ËºΑ[¨ΑËÚΑÞÞÃ½üμΠΑ(ÄΑË×æ«ËÄΑλμΑ«ÞΑæ¨Α
ËÚÚæΑÄÞöÚΠ
SOURCE : Indian Polity-M.laxmikant
V͌ΠΑb¨ΑÃ«ÄΑõÄæ£ΑË¢Αæ¨Α×Ú½«ÃÄæÚüΑ¢ËÚÃΑË¢Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæÞΑ«ÞΑæ¨æ
λμΑæ¨Αûêæ«õΑÄΑ½£«Þ½æêÚΑöËÚºΑ«Ä×ÄÄæ½üΠ
λμΑ«æΑ×ÚËõ«ÞΑËÄæ«Äê«æüΑË¢Α×Ë½«üΑÄΑ«ÞΑÃËÚΑĆ«ÄæΠ
λμΑæ¨Αûêæ«õΑÚÃ«ÄÞΑÚÞ×ËÄÞ«½ΑæËΑæ¨Α½£«Þ½æêÚΠ
λμΑæ¨Α¨ΑË¢Αæ¨Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑÄÄËæΑΑ¨Ä£Αö«æ¨ËêæΑ½æ«ËÄΠ
ANSWER C
Explanation
b¨ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæÚüΑÞüÞæÃΑ«ÞΑ½ÞËΑºÄËöÄΑÞΑæ¨ΑϏrÞæÃ«ÄÞæÚϐÃË½ΑË¢Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΡΑÚÞ×ËÄÞ«½Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑ
ÄΑ«ÄæΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæΠΑb¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑÞæ½«Þ¨ÞΑæ¨Α×Ú½«ÃÄæÚüΑÞüÞæÃΑÄËæΑËÄ½üΑæΑæ¨ΑÄæÚΑêæΑ
½ÞËΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑÞææÞΠΑb¨Α¢æêÚÞΑË¢Α×Ú½«ÃÄæÚüΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑ«ÄΑ+Ä«Α«Ä½êΑæ¨ΑË½½æ«õΑÚÞ×ËÄÞ««½«æüΑË¢Α
æ¨Αûêæ«õΑæËΑæ¨Α½£«Þ½æêÚΠΑb¨«ÞΑÃÄÞΑæ¨æΑæ¨Αûêæ«õΑλΑËêÄ«½ΑË¢ΑA«Ä«ÞæÚÞΑæΑÄæÚ½ΑϞΑ[ææΑ
½õ½μΑ«ÞΑÄÞöÚ½ΑæËΑΑÄΑÃêÞæΑÄ¶ËüΑæ¨ΑËÄĈÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α;£«Þ½æêÚΑλΑ;ËºΑ[¨ΑϞΑ[ææΑ;£«Þ½æ«õΑ
ÞÞÃ½«ÞμΠΑ(ÄΑË×æ«ËÄΑλμΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑÄÞöÚΠ
ÙÝ
*ÝÖéëÀ×¸Parliamentary and Presidential Systems

Parliamentary System Presidential System
Features: Features:
1. Dual executive. 1. Single executive
2. Majority party rule. ͋ΠΑTÚÞ«ÄæΑÄΑ½£«Þ½æËÚÞΑ½æΑÞ×Úæ½üΑ¢ËÚΑĈûΑæÄêÚ
3. Collective responsibility. 3. Non-responsibility
4. Political homogeneity. 4. Political homogeneity may not exist.
5. Double membership. 5. Single membership.
6. Leadership of prime minister. 6. Domination of president.
7. Dissolution of Lower House. 7. No dissolution of Lower House.
8. Fusion of powers. 8. Separation of powers.
Merits: Demerits:
1. Harmony between legislature and executive. ͊ΠΑËÄĉ«æΑæöÄΑ½£«Þ½æêÚΑÄΑûêæ«õΠ
2. Responsible government. 2. Non-responsible government.
3. Prevents despotism. 3. May lead to autocracy.
4. Wide representation. 4. Narrow representation.
Demerits: Merits:
1. Unstable government. 1. Stable government.
2. No continuity of policies. ͋ΠΑĈÄ«æÄÞÞΑ«ÄΑ×Ë½««ÞΠ
3. Against separation of powers. 3. Based on separation of powers.
4. Government by amateurs. 4. Government by experts.
SOURCE : Indian Polity-M. Laxmikanth
ΑÙêÞæ«ËÄΑËÄΑÞ«Ã«½ÚΑæ¨ÃΑË¢Αûêæ«õΑÚÞ×ËÄÞ««½«æüΑæËΑæ¨Α½£«Þ½æêÚΑöÞΑÞºΑ£«ÄΑ«ÄΑ͉͉͋͋Π
Year 2020
lëÐÀÖ×õëċrċïõÖÝ·>ÝĄë×Ö×õÀïÝ×À×ą½À¤½
(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
(c) the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion
Ë¢ΑΑĈûΑæÚÃ
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Year 2020
V͍ΠΑΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑüΑĈÄ«æ«ËÄΑ«ÞΑ
λμΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑüΑ½£«Þ½æêÚ
λμΑ×Ë×ê½ÚΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæ
λμΑÃê½æ«α×ÚæüΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæ
λμΑ½«Ã«æΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæ
ANSWER D
Explanation
ËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½«ÞÃΑ¨ÞΑΑõÚ«æüΑË¢ΑÃÄ«Ä£ÞΠΑAËÞæΑ£ÄÚ½½üΡΑ«æΑ«ÞΑϕΑËÃ×½ûΑË¢Α«ÞΡΑææ«æêÞΡΑÄΑ
×ææÚÄÞΑË¢Α¨õ«ËÚΑ½ËÚæ«Ä£Αæ¨Α×Ú«Ä«×½Αæ¨æΑæ¨Αêæ¨ËÚ«æüΑË¢Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑÚ«õÞΑ¢ÚËÃΑÄΑ«ÞΑ½«Ã«æΑ
üΑΑËüΑË¢Α¢êÄÃÄæ½Α½öϕΠΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½«ÞÃΑÃÄÞΑ½«Ã«æΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑËÚΑ½«Ã«ææ«ËÄΑËÄΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæΠΑ
+æΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑÄæ«æ¨Þ«ÞΑË¢ΑÚ«æÚÚüΑ×ËöÚÞΠΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½«ÞÃΑÚË£Ä«āÞΑæ¨ΑÄΑ¢ËÚΑΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑö«æ¨Α
×ËöÚÞΑêæΑæΑæ¨ΑÞÃΑæ«ÃΑ«ÄÞ«ÞæÞΑæ¨æΑ½«Ã«ææ«ËÄΑΑ×½ΑËÄΑæ¨ËÞΑ×ËöÚÞΠΑ(ÄΑË×æ«ËÄΑλμΑ«ÞΑæ¨Α
ËÚÚæΑÄÞöÚΠ
SOURCE : ¨ææ×΢έέöööΠ½£½ÞÚõ«Þ«Ä«ΠËÃέÚæ«½έ͊͏͒͒έËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½«ÞÃΠ¨æÃ½
*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ð¸ÝĄë×Ö×õ is that Non-constitutional is a perfect type of

£ËõÚÄÃÄæΡΑö¨«¨Α«ÞΑ½æΑüΑ×ê½«ΑË¢Α monarchic, autocratic or dictatorial
æ¨ΑËêÄæÚüΑæ¨ÚËê£¨ΑÄΑ½æ«ËÄΑ×ÚËÞÞΠ £ËõÚÄÃÄæΠ
(ΑË¢Αæ¨Α[ææΑ¨ÞΑ½«Ã«æΑ×ËöÚÞΑ;Α Ruler of the country has unlimited

×ËöÚΑÄΑêæ¨ËÚ«æ«ÞΑ×ÚËõ«ΑüΑ ×ËöÚÞΑÄΑêæ¨ËÚ«æ«ÞΑÄΑ¨Α«ÞΑÄËæΑ
ËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΡΑö¨«¨Αö«½½ΑΑ½«Ã«æΠ ÄÞöÚ½ΑæËΑÄüËÄΠ
+æΑ¨ÞΑÞ×«ĈΑæÄêÚΑËÚΑ½«Ã«æΑæËΑÚê½ΑÄΑ b¨ÚΑ«ÞΑÄËΑÚê½«Ä£Α½«Ã«æΑ«ÄΑÞΑË¢Α
«æΑ«ÞΑËÃ×ê½ÞËÚüΑæËΑΑÚα½æΑ£«ÄΑ¢ËÚΑ ÄËÄαËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΠΑ+æΑÄΑ
ÄËæ¨ÚΑæÚÃΠ ÚÃ«ÄΑ«ÄΑ×ËöÚΑÞΑ«æΑöÄæÞΠ
fÄ«æΑ[ææÞΡΑêÞæÚ«ΡΑTº«ÞæÄΡΑ ÚêÄ«ΡΑVæÚΡΑ[öā«½ÄΑÄΑqæ«ÄΑ«æüΑ
Ä£½Þ¨ΡΑ+Ä«ΡΑæΠΑÚΑûÃ×½ÞΑË¢Α ÚΑûÃ×½ÞΑË¢ΑÄËÄαΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½Α
ËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΠ £ËõÚÄÃÄæΑËÚΑÞË½êæΑÃËÄÚ¨«½Α
£ËõÚÄÃÄæΠ
b¨ΑÞêαæ¨ÃΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ½«Ã«æ«Ä£Αæ¨Α×ËöÚÞΑË¢Αæ¨Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑöÞΑ½ÞËΑÞºΑ«ÄΑ͉͋͋͊Α
ϞΑ͉͋͋͌Π
ÙÕ
Year 2021
*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ð¸ÝĄë×Ö×õÖ×ï
λμΑΑÚ×ÚÞÄææ«õΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑË¢ΑΑÄæ«ËÄΑö«æ¨Α¢Ú½ΑÞæÚêæêÚ
λμΑΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑö¨ËÞΑ(ΑÄ¶ËüÞΑÄËÃ«Ä½Α×ËöÚÞ
λμΑΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑö¨ËÞΑ(ΑÄ¶ËüÞΑÚ½Α×ËöÚÞ
λμΑΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑ½«Ã«æΑüΑæ¨ΑæÚÃÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ
Year 2023
½À¤½Ý×Ý·õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ïõõÖ×õï£ïõëɰ¤õïõ½*½À·éùëéÝïÝ·õ½Œ*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Œ
Ý·¤Ýù×õëċŽ
λμΑ+æΑæÚÃ«ÄÞΑæ¨ΑË¶æ«õΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨ΑÃº«Ä£ΑË¢ΑÄÞÞÚüΑ½öÞΠ
λμΑ+æΑÄ½ÞΑæ¨ΑÚæ«ËÄΑË¢Α×Ë½«æ«½ΑËĆÞΑÄΑΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæΠ
λμΑ+æΑĈÄÞΑÄΑ½«Ã«æÞΑæ¨Α×ËöÚÞΑË¢Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΠ
λμΑ+æΑÞêÚÞΑÞË«½Α¶êÞæ«ΡΑÞË«½ΑÙê½«æüΑÄΑÞË«½ΑÞêÚ«æüΠ
Parliamentary form of government

V͎ΠΑΑTÚ½«ÃÄæÚüΑ[üÞæÃΑË¢Α#ËõÚÄÃÄæΑ«ÞΑËÄΑ«ÄΑö¨«¨
(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
(c) the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
λμΑæ¨Α#ËõÚÄÃÄæΑ«ÞΑ¨ËÞÄΑüΑæ¨ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑêæΑÄÄËæΑΑÚÃËõΑüΑ«æΑ¢ËÚΑËÃ×½æ«ËÄΑË¢ΑΑĈûΑ
term
ANSWER B
Explanation
b¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«Α¨ÞΑË×æΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨Α Ú«æ«Þ¨ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæÚüΑ¢ËÚÃΑË¢Α#ËõÚÄÃÄæΠΑ+æΑ«ÞΑÞΑËÄΑæ¨Α
×Ú«Ä«×½ΑË¢ΑËË×Úæ«ËÄΑÄΑËËÚ«Äæ«ËÄΑæöÄΑæ¨Α½£«Þ½æ«õΑÄΑûêæ«õΑËÚ£ÄÞΠΑb¨ΑÃ¶ËÚΑ
¢æêÚÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæÚüΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑ«ÄΑ+Ä«ΑÚΑα΢
λμΑΑΑΑTÚÞÄΑË¢ΑÄËÃ«Ä½ΑÄΑÚ½Αûêæ«õÞ
λμΑΑΑΑA¶ËÚ«æüΑ×ÚæüΑÚê½
(c ) *ÝÐÐ¤õÀĄëïéÝ×ïÀ£ÀÐÀõċÝ·õ½Ċ¤ùõÀĄõÝõ½Ð¸ÀïÐõùë
C×¤ÝéõÀÝ×š£ŢÀïõ½¤Ýëë¤õ×ïąëĦ
SOURCE : [*3nxűF×ªÀ×*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×õÝëÍĥ*½ğl¸ģĞ
Laxmikanth: Indian Polity
ÙÖ
Year 2021
V͏ΠΑrΑË×æΑ×Ú½«ÃÄæÚüΑÃËÚüΑÞΑËÄΑæ¨Α Ú«æ«Þ¨ΑÃË½ΡΑêæΑ¨ËöΑËÞΑËêÚΑÃË½Α«ąÚΑ
¢ÚËÃΑæ¨æΑÃË½Χ
͊ΠΑÞΑÚ£ÚÞΑ½£«Þ½æ«ËÄΡΑæ¨Α Ú«æ«Þ¨ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑ«ÞΑÞê×ÚÃΑËÚΑÞËõÚ«£ÄΑêæΑ«ÄΑ+Ä«ΡΑæ¨Α×ËöÚΑË¢Αæ¨Α
TÚ½«ÃÄæΑæËΑ½£«Þ½æΑ«ÞΑ½«Ã«æΠ
͋ΠΑ+ÄΑ+Ä«ΡΑÃææÚÞΑÚ½æΑæËΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½«æüΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÃÄÃÄæΑË¢ΑÄΑæΑË¢Αæ¨ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑÚΑ
Ú¢ÚÚΑæËΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ Ä¨ΑüΑæ¨Α[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΠ
[½æΑæ¨ΑËÚÚæΑÄÞöÚΑêÞ«Ä£Αæ¨ΑËΑ£«õÄΑ½ËöΠ
λμΑ͊ΑËÄ½ü
λμΑ͋ΑËÄ½ü
ANSWER C
Explanation
Ú«æ«ÄΑ¢Ë½½ËöÞΑϕTÚ½«ÃÄæÚüΑ[ËõÚ«£ÄæüϕΡΑ«ΠΠΡΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑ«ÞΑÞê×ÚÃΠΑ êæΡΑ+Ä«Α¢Ë½½ËöÞΑΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½Α
£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑö¨ÚΑæ¨Α×ËöÚΑË¢ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑæËΑ½£«Þ½æΑ«ÞΑ½«Ã«æΑüΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠΑ(ÄΑÞææÃÄæΑ͊Α
«ÞΑËÚÚæΠ
b¨Α×ÚËõ«Þ«ËÄΑ¢ËÚΑΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑÄ¨Α¨ÞΑÄΑ×ÚËõ«Α«ÄΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«ΑêÄÚΑÚæ«½Α͍͊͌ΑÄΑ
Úæ«½Α͍͎͊λ͌μΠΑ+æΑ«ÞΑæ¨Α¨«¢Α6êÞæ«ΑË¢Α+Ä«Αö¨ËΑ«ÞΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½½üΑêæ¨ËÚ«āΑæËΑËÄÞæ«æêæΑΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ
Ä¨ΑÄΑÚ¢ÚΑÞÞΑæËΑ«æΠΑΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑÄ¨ΑËÄÞ«ÞæÞΑË¢ΑæΑ½ÞæΑĈõΑËÚΑÃËÚΑ¶ê£ÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËêÚæΑö¨«¨Α
«ÞΑÞæΑê×ΑæËΑ«ΑÞêÞæÄæ«½ΑÙêÞæ«ËÄÞΑË¢Α½öΑö«æ¨ΑÚ£ÚΑæËΑæ¨Α«ÄæÚ×Úææ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ«ÄΑΑ
ÞΠΑ(ÄΑÞææÃÄæΑ͋Α«ÞΑËÚÚæΠ
SOURCE : Vision IAS Polity material

šxÝéÀ¤ű*ÝÖéëÀïÝ×Ý·F×ªÀ×*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ðr¤½ÖąÀõ½õ½õÝ·Ýõ½ë¤Ýù×õëÀïű)ëÀõÀ×ŭ
l¸űğŭĤŢ
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Nature of State
V͐ΠΑr¨«¨ΑËÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α¢Ë½½Ëö«Ä£ΑÞæΑĈÄÞΑæ¨ΑæÚÃΑϖ[ææΧ
λμΑΑËÃÃêÄ«æüΑË¢Α×ÚÞËÄÞΑ×ÚÃÄÄæ½üΑËê×ü«Ä£ΑΑĈÄ«æΑæÚÚ«æËÚüΑ«Ä×ÄÄæΑË¢ΑûæÚÄ½ΑËÄæÚË½Α
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λμΑΑÞË«æüΑ×ÚÃÄÄæ½üΑ½«õ«Ä£Α«ÄΑΑĈÄ«æΑæÚÚ«æËÚüΑö«æ¨ΑΑÄæÚ½Αêæ¨ËÚ«æüΡΑÄΑûêæ«õΑÚÞ×ËÄÞ«½ΑæËΑ
æ¨ΑÄæÚ½Αêæ¨ËÚ«æüΑÄΑÄΑ«Ä×ÄÄæΑ¶ê««Úü
ANSWER A
Explanation
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TË×½ΡΑ;ΠΑæ¨ΑËÃÃêÄ«æüΑ bÚÚ«æËÚü΢ΑÃÚæΑ [ËõÚ«£Äæü΢Α+æΑ¨ÞΑ«Ä×ÄÄæΑ

of persons permanently boundary that separates Government ÞüΑ«ÄΑ½½ΑËÃÞæ«ΑÄΑûæÚÄ½Α
½«õ«Ä£Αæ¨ÚΠ one state from the other «Þ«ËÄΑÃº«Ä£Π
SOURCE : NCERT λ¨ææ×Þ΢έέÄÚæΠÄ«Π«ÄέæûæËËºέ×¢έ¨ÞÞ͉͌͊Π×¢μ

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V͑ΠΑr¨«¨ΑËÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α¢Ë½½Ëö«Ä£Α¢æËÚÞΑËÄÞæ«æêæÞΑæ¨ΑÞæΑÞ¢£êÚΑË¢Α½«ÚæüΑ«ÄΑΑ½«Ú½ΑÃËÚüΧ
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λμΑ½æΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæ
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ANSWER D
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Explanation
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SOURCE : NCERT
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ANSWER D
Explanation
ËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½«ÞÃΑ«ÞΑΑËæÚ«ÄΑ«ÄΑö¨«¨ΑΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæϐÞΑêæ¨ËÚ«æüΑ«ÞΑæÚÃ«ÄΑüΑΑËüΑË¢Α½öÞΑËÚΑ
ËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠΑ½æ¨Ëê£¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½«ÞÃΑËÚΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑ«ÞΑÞËÃæ«ÃÞΑÚ£ÚΑÞΑ½«Ã«æΑ
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æÚÃÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠ
SOURCE : Polity: M. Lakshmikanth and Vision IAS material

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Year 2023
V͉͊ΠΑr¨«¨ΑËÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α¢Ë½½Ëö«Ä£ΑÞææÃÄæÞΑÞæΑÚĉæÞΑæ¨Α¨«¢Α×êÚ×ËÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑϖËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄϖΑË¢ΑΑ
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ANSWER C
Explanation
ËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½«ÞÃΑÃÄÞΑ½«Ã«æΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑËÚΑ½«Ã«ææ«ËÄΑËÄΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæΠΑb¨ΑÃ«ÄΑË¶æ«õΑËÚΑ×êÚ×ËÞΑ
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SOURCE : Laxmikant Polity

¨ææ×Þ΢έέÄ«ËÞΠΠ«ÄέÃ«έËêÃÄæÞέ[Ú[͌͌͑Böέ͌͌͑ε+ÄæÚËêæ«ËÄεbËε;öεÄ£έ͌͌͑ε+ÄæÚËêæ«ËÄΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
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VêÞæ«ËÄÞ VêÞæ«ËÄÞ VêÞæ«ËÄÞ VêÞæ«ËÄÞ
Supreme Judicial B;[ A«Þ½½ÄËêÞ
Court Wõ«ö
Year 2017
Judicial Review
V͊ΠΑ+ÄΑ+Ä«ΡΑ6ê««½ΑWõ«öΑ«Ã×½«Þ
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TÚÞ«ÄæΠ
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ANSWER A
Explanation
6ê««½ΑÚõ«öΑ«ÞΑæ¨Α×ËöÚΑË¢Αæ¨Α¶ê««ÚüΑæËΑûÃ«ÄΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½«æüΑË¢Α½£«Þ½æ«õΑÄæÃÄæÞΑÄΑ
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õ«Ë½æ«õΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑλê½æÚαõ«ÚÞμΡΑæ¨üΑÄΑΑ½ÚΑÞΑ«½½£½ΡΑêÄËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½ΑÄΑ«Äõ½«ΑλÄê½½Α
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b¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½Αõ½««æüΑË¢ΑΑ½£«Þ½æ«õΑÄæÃÄæΑËÚΑÄΑûêæ«õΑËÚÚΑÄΑΑ¨½½Ä£Α«ÄΑΑ¨«£¨Α
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SOURCE : TĊÖÀÍ×õ½*½ŭĞěCÀ¸½*Ýùëõ
Úæ«½Α͊͌ΑË¢Αæ¨Α+Ä«ÄΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑÞÚ«ÞΑæ¨Α×ÚËêÚΑ¢ËÚΑ¶ê««½ΑÚõ«öΠΑ+æΑ
ÚÙê«ÚÞΑæ¨Α+Ä«ÄΑ[ææΑæËΑê×¨Ë½ΑÄΑÚÚüΑËêæΑ¢êÄÃÄæ½ΑÚ«£¨æÞΠΑ+æΑ½ÞËΑ£«õÞΑ
¶ê£ÞΑæ¨Αêæ¨ËÚ«æüΑæËΑ½ÚΑΑ½öΑËÚΑËæ¨ÚΑæ«ËÄΑ«Äõ½«Α«¢Α«æΑõ«Ë½æÞΑ¢êÄÃÄæ½Α
Ú«£¨æÞΠΑb¨Α[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΑ¨ÞΑ½ÚΑæ¨Α×ËöÚΑË¢Α¶ê««½ΑÚõ«öΑÞΑΑÞ«Α¢æêÚΑ
Ë¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑËÚΑÄΑ½ÃÄæΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÞ«ΑÞæÚêæêÚΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠ
ÙÜ
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Supreme Court
V͋Πr«æ¨ΑÚ¢ÚÄΑæËΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«ΡΑ×ÚË¨««æ«ËÄΑËÚΑ½«Ã«ææ«ËÄÞΑËÚΑ×ÚËõ«Þ«ËÄÞΑËÄæ«ÄΑ«ÄΑ
ËÚ«ÄÚüΑ½öÞΑÄÄËæΑæΑÞΑ×ÚË¨««æ«ËÄÞΑËÚΑ½«Ã«ææ«ËÄÞΑËÄΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½Α×ËöÚÞΑêÄÚΑÚæ«½Α͍͊͋ΠΑ
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TÚ½«ÃÄæΠ
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ANSWER B
Explanation
Úæ«½Α͍͊͋ΑÞææÞΑæ¨æΑæ¨Α[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑûÚ«ÞΑË¢Α«æÞΑ¶êÚ«Þ«æ«ËÄΑÃüΑ×ÞÞΑÞê¨ΑÚΑËÚΑ
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fÄæ«½ΑΑ×ÚËõ«Þ«ËÄΑ«ÄΑæ¨æΑ¨½¢Α«ÞΑÃΡΑæ¨ÄΑ«æΑöËê½ΑΑÄ¢ËÚΑ«ÄΑÞê¨ΑΑÃÄÄÚΑÞΑæ¨ΑTÚÞ«ÄæΑÃüΑ
üΑËÚÚΑ×ÚÞÚ«ΠΑHÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α«Ã×ËÚæÄæΑ«ÄÞæÄÞΑË¢Α××½«æ«ËÄΑüΑæ¨Α[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΑË¢ΑÚæ«½Α͍͊͋ΑöÞΑ
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æ¨ΑûæÄæΑË¢ΑÞü«Ä£Αæ¨æΑæËΑËΑËÃ×½æΑ¶êÞæ«ΡΑ«æΑËê½ΑõÄΑËõÚÚ«Αæ¨Α½öÞΑÃΑüΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑüΑ
¨Ë½«Ä£Αæ¨æΡΑύ×ÚË¨««æ«ËÄÞΑËÚΑ½«Ã«ææ«ËÄÞΑËÚΑ×ÚËõ«Þ«ËÄÞΑËÄæ«ÄΑ«ÄΑËÚ«ÄÚüΑ½öÞΑÄÄËæΡΑ«×ÞËΑ¢æËΡΑæΑÞΑ
×ÚË¨««æ«ËÄÞΑËÚΑ½«Ã«ææ«ËÄÞΑËÄΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½Α×ËöÚÞΑêÄÚΑÚæ«½Α͍͊͋ΠώΑ üΑæ¨«ÞΑÞææÃÄæΑæ¨Α[ê×ÚÃΑ
ËêÚæΑË¢Α+Ä«Α×½Α«æÞ½¢ΑËõΑæ¨Α½öÞΑÃΑüΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑËÚΑæ¨Α½£«Þ½æêÚÞΑË¢Αæ¨Α[ææÞΠΑ(ÄΑæ¨Α
[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΑË¢Α+Ä«Α«ÞΑÄËæΑËÄÞæÚ«ÄΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑûÚ«ÞΑË¢Α«æÞΑ×ËöÚÞΑüΑ½öÞΑÃΑüΑæ¨ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΠ
rÝÖÀÖéÝëõ×õ¤ïïą½ërùéëÖ*ÝùëõÀ×ĄÝÍªëõÀ¤ÐĜğĝëű
͊Π××Ë«ÄæÃÄæΑË¢Α;ËºüêºæΑ«ÄΑfææÚΑTÚÞ¨Π
͋ΠΑ[ææ«Ä£Αê×ΑWΠAΠΑ;Ë¨ΑËÃÃ«ææΑæËΑËõÚÞΑæ¨Α¢êÄæ«ËÄ«Ä£ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑA«½ΑËêÄ«½ΑË¢Α+Ä«ΑλA+μΠ
͌ΠΑbÚÄÞ¢ÚΑæ¨ΑæÚ«½ΑË¢ΑêÞΑ«ÄΑ Ú«ΑAÞ¶«ΑÃË½«æ«ËÄΑÞΠ
͍ΠΑ ÄΑËÄΑÞ½ΑË¢Α½Ë¨Ë½Αö«æ¨«ÄΑ͎͉͉ΑÃæÚÞΑË¢ΑÞææΑÄΑÄæ«ËÄ½Α¨«£¨öüÞΠ
͎ΠΑr«æÄÞÞΑTÚËææ«ËÄΑ[¨ÃΡΑ͉͋͊͑
SOURCE : Laxmikant:Indian Polity

¨ææ×Þ΢έέöööΠæ¨¨«ÄêΠËÃέË×«Ä«ËÄέË×αέÚæ«½α͍͊͋αÄαæ¨αÄα¢ËÚα¶ê««½αÚÞæÚ«ÄæέÚæ«½͍͍͊͑͐͒͊͒Π
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TÚæΑqΑλb¨ΑfÄ«ËÄμΠΑÚæ«½ÞΑ͍͊͋ΑæËΑ͍͊͐Α«ÄΑTÚæΑqΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ½Αö«æ¨Α
æ¨ΑËÚ£Ä«Þæ«ËÄΡΑ«Ä×ÄÄΡΑ¶êÚ«Þ«æ«ËÄΡΑ×ËöÚÞΑÄΑ×ÚËêÚÞΑË¢Αæ¨Α
[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΠ
Supreme Court
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Supreme Court
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Supreme Court
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ææËÚÄüÞΑÚΑû½êΑ¢ÚËÃΑÚË£Ä«æ«ËÄΑÞΑõËæÞΠ
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λμΑ͊ΑËÄ½ü
λμΑ͋ΑËÄ½ü
ANSWER B
Explanation
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æËΑÞÞΑÄΑÚ×ÚÞÄæΑËæ¨ÚÞΑ«ÄΑΑËêÚæΑË¢Α½öΠΑBËΑ«æ«āÄΡΑËæ¨ÚΑæ¨ÄΑÄΑõËæΡΑ¨ÞΑæ¨ΑÚ«£¨æΑæËΑ××ÚΡΑ
æΡΑËÚΑ×½Α«ÄΑËêÚæΠΑ[ËÄΡΑ«ÄΑ+Ä«ΡΑæ¨ΑæÚÃΑύ½£½Α×ÚË¢ÞÞ«ËÄ½ÞώΑÚ¢ÚÞΑËÄ½üΑæËΑæ¨ËÞΑύõËæÞώΑö¨ËΑ
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æ¨Αö¨Ë½ΑËêÄæÚüΑö«æ¨ΑÃËÄË×Ë½üΑ«ÄΑ½£½Α×Úæ«ΑÄΑêæËÄËÃüΑ«ÄΑÃææÚÞΑË¢Α×ÚË¢ÞÞ«ËÄ½ΑÃÄ£ÃÄæΡώΑ
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ËöÄΑÚê½ÞΑÚ½æ«Ä£ΑæËΑÃ«ÞÞ«ËÄΑÄΑÄÚË½ÃÄæΡΑËÄ«æ«ËÄÞΑË¢Α×Úæ«ΡΑÞæÄÚÞΑË¢Α×ÚË¢ÞÞ«ËÄ½ΑËÄêæΑ
ÄΑæ«ÙêææΡΑ«Þ«×½«ÄÚüΑ×ÚË«Ä£ÞΡΑ½£½Αêæ«ËÄΡΑÚË£Ä«æ«ËÄΑË¢Α½öΑË½½£ÞΡΑÄΑö½¢ÚΑæ«õ«æ«ÞΠΑ
b¨ÞΑ×ËöÚÞΑöÚΑ£ÚÄæΑæËΑæ¨ΑÚΑËêÄ«½ÞΑæËΑ×ÚËÃËæΑæ¨ΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚæ«ËÄΑË¢Α¶êÞæ«ΑÄΑê×¨Ë½Αæ¨Α
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SOURCE : ¨ææ×Þ΢έέöööΠ×öΠ«Äέ¶ËêÚÄ½έ͉͋͊͑έ͋έËÃÃÄæÚüέÚ¢ËÚÃæ«ËÄα½£½α×ÚË¢ÞÞ«ËÄα«ÄæÚÞæα¶êÞæ«Π¨æÃ½
¨ææ×Þ΢έέöööΠ«Ä«æËüΠ«Äέ½öέÞæËÚüέ«α¢ËÚÃÞα×Ä½αæËαÚα
õ«öαÄöαÚê½Þαæ¨æα×ÚõÄæα½öüÚÞα¢ÚËÃαÚ«æ««Þ«Ä£α¶ê£ÞαÚαËêÄ«½Þα͊͑͋͊͌͌͊α͉͋͋͊α͉͏α͉͌
¨ææ×Þ΢έέöööΠ«Ä«æËüΠ«Äέ½öέÞæËÚüέÚαËêÄ«½α«Äα
«αÃÄÞαÚê½ÞαêÚαÚ«æ««ÞÃα£«ÄÞæα¶ê£Þα͉͊͑͊͒͒͋α͉͋͋͊α͉͏α͋͐
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Emergency Provisions- Total No. of Questions: 2

2
Questions
President’s Rule
Year 2017
President's Rule
Q1. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the Presi-
dent’s rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER B
Explanation
When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers
headed by the chief minister. The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state adminis-
tration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President. This is
the reason why a proclamation under Article 356 is popularly known as the imposition of ‘President’s
Rule’ in a state.
Further, the President either suspends or dissolves the state legislative assembly. Dissolution of the
State Legislative Assembly would have meant that all the seats of the legislative assembly would have
been vacated and fresh elections must be held at a ater date. The Parliament passes the state legislative
bills and the state budget. The President's Rule does not lead to dissolution of local bodies. Hence, the
correct answer is 1 and 3 only.
SOURCE : Laxmikanth Ch-16 Emergency Provisions
Under president’s rule, the president (through Governor) acts as

executive. Hence it is necessary to dismiss the state executive
which is the council of ministers. Thus option 2 can be eliminated.
ÛÛ
Year 2018
President's Rule
Q2. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution of
a particular State, then
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the
Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
ANSWER B
Explanation
The President acquires the following extraordinary powers when the President’s Rule is imposed in a
state:
1. He can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the governor or any other
executive authority in the state.
2. He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament.
3. He can take all other necessary steps including the suspension of the constitutional provisions relating
to any body or authority in the state.
The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the
chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President. Further, the President either
suspends or dissolves the state legislative assembly. The Parliament passes the state legislative bills and
æ¨ΑÞææΑê£æΠΑÚæ«½Α͎͌͏Α¨ÞΑÄËΑąæΑËÄΑÄüΑË¢Αæ¨Α¢êÄÃÄæ½ΑÚ«£¨æÞΠ Hence, option (b) is the
correct answer.
SOURCE : Laxmikanth Ch-16 Emergency Provisions

ÛÜ
Executive- Total No. of Questions- 8

6 1 1
Questions Questions Questions
Union State Permanent
Executive Executive Executive
Year 2018
Union executive
Q1. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya
Sabha.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER A
Explanation
The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of electoral college consisting of:
1. the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament;
2. the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states; and
3. the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
Value of the vote is determined in the following manner:
1. Every elected member of the legislative assembly of a state shall have as many votes as there are multi-
ples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the state by the total number
of the elected members of the assembly. (Hence,it varies according to population of state.)
2.Every elected member of either House of Parliament shall have such number of votes as may be
obtained by dividing the total number of votes assigned to members of the legislative assemblies of the
states by the total number of the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament. Hence, option (a) is
the correct answer.
SOURCE : Indian polity by M Laxmikanth, Chapter- President

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STUDENTS NOTE
Election of President is a repeated theme asked by UPSC.
Year 2023
Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of
States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that
State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh
because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater
as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) All four
State Executive
Q2. Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term
Ë¢ΑËĆΠΑ
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of
ËĆΠΑ
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER C
Explanation
Like the President, the governor is also entitled to a number of privileges and immunities. According to
Article 361 the Governor is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts
êÚ«Ä£Α¨«ÞΑæÚÃΑË¢ΑËĆΠ Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Governor is entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by
TÚ½«ÃÄæΠΑ(«ÞΑÃË½êÃÄæÞΑÄΑ½½ËöÄÞΑÄÄËæΑΑ«Ã«Ä«Þ¨ΑêÚ«Ä£Α¨«ÞΑæÚÃΑË¢ΑËĆΠ Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
SOURCE : Indian polity by M Laxmikanth, Chapter- Governor

ÜÝ
Year 2020
Permanent Executive
Q3. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for
bureaucracy?
(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
(c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
(d) An Agency for the implementation of public policy
ANSWER D
Explanation
While the heads of government and their ministers, saddled with the overall responsibility of government
×Ë½«üΡΑÚΑæË£æ¨ÚΑºÄËöÄΑÞΑæ¨Α×Ë½«æ«½Αûêæ«õΑ¨õ«Ä£ΑΑÞ¨ËÚæÚΑæÚÃΑË¢ΑËĆΑλ+ÄΑ+Ä«ΡΑ«æΑ«ÞΑ£ÄÚ½½üΑ
for 5 years); those responsible for the day to day administration are called the permanent executive, i.e.
the Bureaucracy. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
SOURCE : NCERT: Indian Constitution At Work; Ch 4: Executive
Bureaucracy may exist in Presidential form of government and in
Unitary System. Thus it may not be seen as widening the scope of
parliamentary democracy nor strengthening the structure of
federation.
Year 2021
Union executive
Q4. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
͊ΠΑBΠΑ#Ë×½ÞöÃüΑ+üÄ£ÚΑËÃÃ«ææΑÞê££ÞæΑæ¨æΑΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚΑÄΑΑÞÚæÚüΑΑÞ«£ÄæΑÞË½½üΑ¢ËÚΑ
pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
͋ΠΑ+ÄΑ͉͊͒͐ΡΑæ¨Α×ÚæÃÄæΑË¢ΑTÚÞËÄÄ½ΑöÞΑËÄÞæ«æêæΑËÄΑæ¨ΑÚËÃÃÄæ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚæ«õΑ
Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ÜÔ
ANSWER B
Explanation
First Administrative reforms committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely
for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
+ÄΑ͉͊͒͐ΡΑæ¨Α×ÚæÃÄæΑË¢ΑTÚÞËÄÄ½ΑöÞΑËÄÞæ«æêæΑËÄΑæ¨ΑÚËÃÃÄæ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚæ«õΑ
W¢ËÚÃÞΑËÃÃ«ÞÞ«ËÄΡΑ͊͒͏͏ΡΑÄΑæ¨«ÞΑöÞΑ×½ΑêÄÚΑæ¨Α¨Ú£ΑË¢Α«ÄæΑ[ÚæÚ«æΠΑ+ÄΑ͎͊͒͑ΡΑ«æΑöÞΑ
placed under the overall charge of the Prime Minister assisted by a Minister of State and the Cabinet
Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. Hence statement 2 is correct.
SOURCE : ARC reports and Ministry of personnel website
Year 2022
Union Executive

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Indepen-
dent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of
the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER B
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct: b¨ΑËêÄ«½ΑË¢ΑA«Ä«ÞæÚÞΑ«ÞΑΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½ΑËüΠΑÚæ«½Α͍͐ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêα
tion provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and
advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.
(ËöõÚΡΑ«æÞΑ½ÞÞ«Ĉæ«ËÄΑ«ÞΑÄËæΑÃÄæ«ËÄΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠΑb¨Α½ÞÞ«Ĉæ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÄæÚ½ΑËêÄ«½ΑË¢Α
ministers into a three-tier body (Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers) is based on
British parliamentary conventions.
Statement 2 is correct:Αb¨Α͒͊ÞæΑÃÄÃÄæΡΑ͉͉͋͌ΑæËΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ«ÄæÚËêΑÚæ«½Α͎͐λ͊μΡΑö¨«¨Α
states that the Union Council of Ministers cannot exceed more than 15 percent of the number of MPs in
the Lok Sabha.

ÜÕ
Úæ«½Α͍͐΢ΑΑËêÄ«½ΑË¢ΑA«Ä«ÞæÚÞΡΑ½ΑüΑæ¨ΑTÚ«ÃΑA«Ä«ÞæÚΡΑö«½½Α
assist and advise the President in the performance of his duties.
b¨ΑöËÚΑ«ÄæΑ××ÚÞΑËÄ½üΑËÄΑ«ÄΑËêÚΑ+Ä«ÄΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΡΑ«ÄΑ
Article 352.
Union Executive

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to
participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government
which appointed him resigns.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER D
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct: Úæ«½Α͐͏ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ×ÚËõ«ÞΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨ΑËĆΑË¢ΑææËÚÄüΑ#ÄÚ½ΑË¢Α

+Ä«ΑÄΑ¨Α«ÞΑæ¨Α¨«£¨ÞæΑ½öΑËĆÚΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑËêÄæÚüΠΑb¨Α[Ë½««æËÚΑ#ÄÚ½ΑË¢Α+Ä«ΑÞÞ«ÞæÞΑææËÚÄüΑ#ÄÚα
½ΑæËΑ¢ê½Ĉ½Α¨«ÞΑËĆ«½Αêæ«ÞΑÄΑÚÞ×ËÄÞ««½«æ«ÞΠΑ+ÄΑæ¨Α×Ú¢ËÚÃÄΑË¢Α¨«ÞΑËĆ«½Αêæ«ÞΡΑæ¨ΑææËÚÄüΑ
#ÄÚ½Αλ#μΑ¨ÞΑæ¨ΑÚ«£¨æΑË¢Αê«ÄΑ«ÄΑ½½ΑËêÚæÞΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑæÚÚ«æËÚüΑË¢Α+Ä«ΠΑ"êÚæ¨ÚΡΑ¨Α¨ÞΑæ¨ΑÚ«£¨æΑæËΑ
speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any
committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys
all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament. The Solicitor General of
+Ä«Α«ÞΑÄËæΑ½½ËöΑæËΑ×Úæ««×æΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑÃæ«Ä£ÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΠΑ
Statement 2 is not correct:Αb¨ΑæÚÃΑË¢ΑËĆΑË¢Αæ¨Α#Α«ÞΑÄËæΑĈûΑüΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠΑ"êÚæ¨ÚΡΑæ¨Α
ËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑËÞΑÄËæΑËÄæ«ÄΑæ¨Α×ÚËêÚΑÄΑ£ÚËêÄÞΑ¢ËÚΑ¨«ÞΑÚÃËõ½ΠΑ(Α¨Ë½ÞΑËĆΑêÚ«Ä£Αæ¨Α
pleasure of the president. This means that he may be removed by the president at any time. He may also
Ùê«æΑ¨«ÞΑËĆΑüΑÞêÃ«ææ«Ä£Α¨«ÞΑÚÞ«£Äæ«ËÄΑæËΑæ¨Α×ÚÞ«ÄæΠΑËÄõÄæ«ËÄ½½üΡΑ¨ΑÚÞ«£ÄÞΑö¨ÄΑæ¨Α£ËõÚÄα
ment (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.

ÜÖ
Year 2023
Union Executive

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the
performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies
have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to
declare his/her assent.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER D
Explanation
ÞΑ×ÚΑÚæ«½Α͐͊Αλ͋μΡΑ«¢Αæ¨Α½æ«ËÄΑË¢ΑΑ×ÚÞËÄΑÞΑTÚÞ«ÄæΑËÚΑq«ΑTÚÞ«ÄæΑ«ÞΑ½ÚΑõË«ΑüΑæ¨Α
[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΡΑæÞΑËÄΑüΑ¨«ÃΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑûÚ«ÞΑÄΑ×Ú¢ËÚÃÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α×ËöÚÞΑÄΑêæ«ÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËĆΑ
Ë¢ΑTÚÞ«ÄæΑËÚΑq«ΑTÚÞ«ÄæΡΑÞΑæ¨ΑÞΑÃüΑΡΑËÄΑËÚΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨ΑæΑË¢Αæ¨Α«Þ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α[ê×ÚÃΑ
Court shall not be invalidated by reason of that declaration. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
ÞΑ×ÚΑÚæ«½Α͐͊Αλ͍μΡΑæ¨Α½æ«ËÄΑË¢ΑΑ×ÚÞËÄΑÞΑTÚÞ«ÄæΑËÚΑq«ΑTÚÞ«ÄæΑÞ¨½½ΑÄËæΑΑ½½Α«ÄΑÙêÞæ«ËÄΑ
on the ground of the existence of any vacancy for whatever reason among the members of the electoral
college electing him. Thus, postponement is not an option. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
ÞΑÚ£ÚÞΑæ¨Α+Ä«ÄΑTÚÞ«ÄæΡΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑËÞΑÄËæΑ×ÚÞÚ«ΑÄüΑæ«Ãα½«Ã«æΑö«æ¨«ÄΑö¨«¨Α¨Α¨ÞΑæËΑ
take the decision with respect to a bill presented to him for his assent. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Union Executive
Q8. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to
be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total
population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) All four
Ü×
ANSWER A
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct: The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of elector-
al college consisting of:
1. the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament;
2. the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states (MLAs); and
3. the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry The
nominated MPs and MLAs are not included in the electoral college.
Statement 2 is not correct: Every elected member of the legislative assembly of a state shall have as
many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of
æ¨ΑÞææΑüΑæ¨ΑæËæ½ΑÄêÃÚΑË¢Αæ¨Α½æΑÃÃÚÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÞÞÃ½üΠΑb¨«ÞΑÄΑΑû×ÚÞÞΑÞ΢Αq½êΑË¢Α
æ¨ΑõËæΑË¢ΑÄΑA;ΑË¢ΑΑÞææΑϽΑbËæ½Α×Ë×ê½æ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÞææέλ͉͉͉͊ΑûΑæËæ½ΑÄêÃÚΑË¢Α½æΑÃÃÚÞΑ«ÄΑ
the state legislative assembly). From the equation, it is clear that higher the number of seats in the legisla-
tive assembly, lower the value of the vote of an MLA of that state (as the number of seats forms the
denominator)
b¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑλ«£¨æüα¢ËêÚæ¨μΑÃÄÃÄæΑæΡΑ͉͉͋͊Α×ÚËõ«ÞΑæ¨æΑêÄæ«½Αæ¨ΑÚ½õÄæΑ×Ë×ê½æ«ËÄΑĈ£êÚÞΑ
¢ËÚΑæ¨ΑĈÚÞæΑÄÞêÞΑæËΑΑæºÄΑ¢æÚΑæ¨ΑüÚΑ͉͋͋͏Α¨õΑÄΑ×ê½«Þ¨ΡΑæ¨Α×Ë×ê½æ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α[ææÞΑ¢ËÚΑ
the purposes of calculation of value of votes for the Presidential Election shall mean the population as
ÞÚæ«ÄΑæΑæ¨Α͊͒͐͊αÄÞêÞΠΑHÄΑæ¨ΑÞ«ÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËõΑ¢ËÚÃê½ΡΑæ¨Αõ½êΑË¢ΑΑõËæΑË¢ΑÄΑA;Α«ÞΑ£«õÄΑ
for the following states and union territories:
1. Madhya Pradesh - 131
2. Kerala - 152
͌ΠΑÚêÄ¨½ΑTÚÞ¨ΑαΑ͑Α
4. Puducherry - 16. Hence statement 3 is not correct and statement 4 is correct.

ÜØ
State Legislature- Total No. of Questions: 2

2
Questions
State Legislative Assembly
Year 2018
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER A
Explanation
fÞê½½üΡΑæ¨Α[×ºÚΑÚÃ«ÄÞΑ«ÄΑËĆΑêÚ«Ä£Αæ¨Α½«¢ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÞÞÃ½üΠΑ(ËöõÚΡΑ¨ΑõæÞΑ¨«ÞΑËĆΑÚ½«ÚΑ
in any of the following three cases:
1. if he ceases to be a member of the assembly;
2. if he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker; and
3. if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a
resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Úæ«½Α͊͐͒ΑË¢Αæ¨Α+Ä«ÄΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ×ÚËõ«ÞΑæ¨æΑö¨ÄõÚΑæ¨ΑÞÞÃ½üΑ«ÞΑ«ÞÞË½õΡΑæ¨Α[×ºÚΑÞ¨½½Α
ÄËæΑõæΑ¨«ÞΑËĆΑêÄæ«½Α«ÃÃ«æ½üΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨ΑĈÚÞæΑÃæ«Ä£ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÞÞÃ½üΑ¢æÚΑæ¨Α«ÞÞË½êæ«ËÄΠ
Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
SOURCE : Indian polity by M Laxmikanth, Chapter- State Legislature

ÜÙ
Year 2019
Q2. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following state-
ments:
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the
year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
ANSWER C
Explanation
Article 176(1)ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«ΑÄ¶Ë«ÄÞΑæ¨æΑæ¨Α#ËõÚÄËÚΑÞ¨½½ΑÚÞÞΑËæ¨Αæ¨Α(ËêÞÞΑÞÞÃα
½ΑæË£æ¨ÚΑæΑæ¨ΑËÃÃÄÃÄæΑË¢Αæ¨ΑĈÚÞæΑ[ÞÞ«ËÄΑ¢æÚΑ¨Α£ÄÚ½Α½æ«ËÄΑæËΑæ¨ΑÞÞÃ½üΑÄΑ
æΑæ¨ΑËÃÃÄÃÄæΑË¢Αæ¨ΑĈÚÞæΑÞÞÞ«ËÄΑË¢Α¨ΑüÚΑÄΑ«Ä¢ËÚÃΑæ¨Α;£«Þ½æêÚΑË¢Αæ¨ΑêÞÞΑË¢Α«æÞΑ
Summons. The Address of the Governor contains a review of the activities and Achievements of the
Government during the previous year and their policy with regard to important internal problems as well
as a brief account of the programme of Government Business for the session. Hence Statement 1 is the
correct.
Article 208 of The Constitution Of India (Rules of procedure)
(1) A House of the Legislature of a State may make rules for regulating subject to the provisions of this
Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business.
(2) Until rules are made under clause ( 1 ), the rules of procedure and standing orders in force
immediately before the commencement of this Constitution with respect to the Legislature for the
ËÚÚÞ×ËÄ«Ä£ΑTÚËõ«ÄΑÞ¨½½Α¨õΑąæΑ«ÄΑÚ½æ«ËÄΑæËΑæ¨Α;£«Þ½æêÚΑË¢Αæ¨Α[ææΑÞê¶æΑæËΑÞê¨Α
ÃË«Ĉæ«ËÄÞΑÄΑ×ææ«ËÄÞΑÞΑÃüΑΑÃΑæ¨Ú«ÄΑüΑæ¨Α[×ºÚΑË¢Αæ¨Α;£«Þ½æ«õΑÞÞÃ½üΡΑËÚΑ
the Chairman of the Legislative Council, as the case may be.
λ͌μΑ+ÄΑΑ[ææΑ¨õ«Ä£ΑΑ;£«Þ½æ«õΑËêÄ«½Αæ¨Α#ËõÚÄËÚΡΑ¢æÚΑËÄÞê½ææ«ËÄΑö«æ¨Αæ¨Α[×ºÚΑË¢Αæ¨ΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
Legislative Assembly and the Chairman of the legislative Council, may make rules as to the procedure
with respect to communications between the two Houses.
When the state legislature does not have any rule on a particular subject, it follows the rule of the Lok
Sabha on that subject. Hence statement 2 is correct.
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/695063/
SOURCE : https://aplegislature.org/web/aplegislature/governors-address
ÜÛ
Local Government -Total No. of Questions: 2

1 1
Questions Questions
Scheduled Local self
Areas government
Year 2017
Local self government
Q1. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralization
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy
ANSWER B
Explanation
+ÄΑ6ÄêÚüΑ͎͊͒͐ΡΑæ¨Α#ËõÚÄÃÄæΑË¢Α+Ä«Α××Ë«ÄæΑΑËÃÃ«ææΑæËΑûÃ«ÄΑæ¨ΑöËÚº«Ä£ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÃÃêÄ«α
ty Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest measures
for their better working. The chairman of this committee was Balwant Rai G Mehta. The committee submit-
æΑ«æÞΑÚ×ËÚæΑ«ÄΑBËõÃÚΑ͎͊͒͐ΑÄΑÚËÃÃÄΑæ¨ establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic
decentralisation’, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj. Hence option (b) is the correct
answer.
b¨ÚËê£¨Αæ¨Α͐͌ÚΑÄΑ͍͐æ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½ΑÃÄÃÄæΑÄæÚ½«āæ«ËÄΑË¢Α×ËöÚÞΑöÞΑ£«õÄΑΑ×Úæ«½Α
¢ËÚÃΑ«ÄΑ+Ä«ΠΑ
SOURCE : Laxmikanth Ch-Panchayati Raj
Year 2023
Scheduled Areas
Q2. With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in
the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the
administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ÜÜ
ANSWER B
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct:ΑÞΑ×ÚΑæ¨Α+Ä«ÄΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑλTÚæΑΑË¢Αæ¨Α"«¢æ¨Α[¨ê½μΡΑæ¨Αû×ÚÞÞ«ËÄΑ
Scheduled Areas means such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas.
Statement 2 is correct: The largest administrative unit forming the scheduled areas has been the district
and the lowest the cluster of villages in the block.
Statement 3 is not correct: The governor of the state has a special responsibility regarding such sched-
uled areas. He has to submit a report to the president regarding the administration of such areas, annually
or whenever so required by the president.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Laxmikanth
SOURCE : https://www.epw.in/journal/2019/44/alternative-standpoint/gov-
ë×Ýëïŭ×ªŭɯ·õ½ŭï¤½ªùÐĦ½õÖÐ
Centre-State Relations- Total No. of Questions: 1
Year 2019
Centre-State relations
Q1. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an imminent person from
ÝùõïÀªõ½rõõ×ªï½ÝùÐª£ªõ¤½ªɯ¸ùëąÀõ½ÝùõÀ×õ×ïéÝÐÀõÀ¤ÐÐÀ×ÍïÝëï½ÝùÐª×Ýõ½Ą
taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
ANSWER C
Explanation
Sarkaria Commission Report (1988)
Recommendation on appointment of Governor:

1. Governor should be an eminent person and not belong to the state where he is to be posted.
2. State chief minister should have a say in the appointment of governor
͌ΠΑ#ËõÚÄËÚΑÞ¨Ëê½ΑΑΑæ¨ΑĈ£êÚΑö«æ¨ËêæΑ«ÄæÄÞΑ×Ë½«æ«½Α½«ÄºÞΑËÚΑÞ¨Ëê½ΑÄËæΑ¨õΑæºÄΑ×ÚæΑ«Ä
politics in recent past.
4. Governor should not be a member of the ruling party.
ÜÚ
Recommendation on removal of Governor:
#ËõÚÄËÚÞΑÃêÞæΑÄËæΑΑÚÃËõΑ¢ËÚΑËÃ×½æ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨«ÚΑĈõΑüÚΑæÄêÚΡΑû×æΑ«ÄΑÚÚΑÄ
compelling circumstances
On appointment of Chief Minister during a hung assembly:
Leader of the majority party or parties,
[¨Ëê½ΑÞºΑæ¨ΑõËæΑË¢ΑËÄĈÄΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑÞÞÃ½üΑö«æ¨«ÄΑ͉͌ΑüÞΑË¢Α¨«ÞΑ××Ë«ÄæÃÄæΑÞΑæ¨ΑAΠ
As long as the council of ministry possess a majority in the assembly the governor cannot use his
discretionary powers
SOURCE : Laxmikant: Indian Polity
Amendment of the Constitution-

Total No. of Questions: 3
2 1
Questions Questions
Amendability of Constitutional
Constitution amendments
Year 2019
Amendability of Constitution
Q1. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER D
Explanation
42nd Constitutional Amendment Act,1976:
+ÄÞÚæΑÄöΑÚæ«½Α͋͋͑ΠαΑ¢æÚΑÚæ«½Α͋͋͑ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΡ[×«½Α×ÚËõ«Þ«ËÄÞΑÞΑæËΑ«Þ×ËÞ½ΑË¢Α
questions relating to constitutional validity of State laws.-(1) No High Court shall have jurisdiction to
declare any Central law to be constitutionally invalid. However, the 43rdΑÃÄÃÄæΑæΑË¢Α͊͒͐͐Α
restored the original position. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
ÚÝ
+ÄΑæ¨Α9ÞõÄÄΑ ¨Úæ«ΑÞΑλ͊͒͐͌μΡΑ[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΑ½«ΑËöÄΑΑÄöΑËæÚ«ÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑϏÞ«ΑÞæÚêæêÚϐΑ
λËÚΑϏÞ«Α¢æêÚÞϐμΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠΑ+æΑÚê½Αæ¨æΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêÄæΑ×ËöÚΑË¢ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑêÄÚΑÚæ«½Α
͌͏͑ΑÄΑÃÄΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑfÄÚΑÚæ«½ΑêæΑ[ê¨ΑÃÄÃÄæÞΑ[¨Ëê½ΑÄËæΑËÞΑÄËæΑÄ½Α«æΑæËΑ
½æÚΑæ¨ΑϏÞ«ΑÞæÚêæêÚϐΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑÄüæ¨«Ä£Αæ¨æΑê½æÚõ«ÚÞΑæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ«ÞΑêæΑËöÄΑüΑæ¨Α
highest judiciary including the Constitutional amendment. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
SOURCE : Laxmikant: Indian Polity
Amendability of the Constitution

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister
beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the
independence of judiciary.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER B
Explanation
The Parliament passed the Thirty-ninth amendment to the Constitution which removed the authority of
æ¨Α[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΑæËΑ¶ê«æΑ×æ«æ«ËÄÞΑÚ£Ú«Ä£Α½æ«ËÄÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑTÚÞ«ÄæΡΑq«ΑTÚÞ«ÄæΡΑTÚ«ÃΑ
A«Ä«ÞæÚΑÄΑ[×ºÚΑË¢Αæ¨Α;ËºΑ[¨ΠΑ+ÄÞæΡΑΑËüΑËÄÞæ«æêæΑüΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΑöËê½ΑΑõÞæΑö«æ¨Α
the power to resolve such election disputes.
ÃÄÃÄæÞΑöÚΑ½ÞËΑÃΑæËΑæ¨ΑW×ÚÞÄææ«ËÄΑË¢ΑTË×½ÞΑæÞΑË¢Α͎͊͒͊ΑÄΑ͍͊͒͐ΑÄΑ×½Α«ÄΑæ¨Α
B«Äæ¨Α[¨ê½Α½ËÄ£Αö«æ¨Αæ¨Α½æ«ËÄΑ;öÞΑÃÄÃÄæΑæΡΑ͎͊͒͐ΠΑHence statement 1 is not correct.
b¨ΑBæ«ËÄ½Α6ê««½Α××Ë«ÄæÃÄæÞΑËÃÃ«ÞÞ«ËÄΑλB6μΑöÞΑΑËüΑæÞºΑö«æ¨Α××Ë«Äæ«Ä£Α¶ê£ÞΑæËΑ
æ¨Α¨«£¨ÚΑ¶ê««ÚüΑ«ÄΑ+Ä«ΠΑÚæ«½Α͍͊͋ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑöÞΑÃÄΑæ¨ÚËê£¨Αæ¨Α͒͒æ¨ΑÃÄÃÄæΑ
æËΑÚĉæΑæ¨Α¨Ä£Α«ÄΑæ¨ΑÞüÞæÃΑË¢Α××Ë«ÄæÃÄæÞΑ¢ÚËÃΑæ¨ΑË½½£«êÃΑÞüÞæÃΡΑ«ÄΑö¨«¨ΑΑËüΑË¢Α
judges would be consulted by the President to appoint the judges, with the judiciary’s opinion being
ĈÄ½ΠΑb¨ΑËÃ×ËÞ«æ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑB6Α«Ä½êÞΑÞΑæ¨Α¨«¢Α6êÞæ«ΑË¢Α+Ä«ΡΑæ¨ΑæöËΑÞÄ«ËÚΑÃËÞæΑ¶ê£ÞΑË¢Α
the Supreme Court, the Law Minister and two “eminent persons”. A sub-committee was further constitut-
ed to appoint the “eminent persons”. The composition of the sub-committee includes the Prime Minister,
æ¨Α¨«¢Α6êÞæ«ΡΑÄΑæ¨Α;ÚΑË¢Αæ¨ΑH××ËÞ«æ«ËÄΠ
b¨ΑËÃ×ËÞ«æ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑB6ΡΑæ¨Ú¢ËÚΡΑ×ÚÞÄæÞΑΑ×ÚË½ÃΑ«æΑ½½ËöÞΑûÞÞ«õΑûêæ«õΑ«ÄæÚ¢ÚÄΑ
«ÄΑæ¨Α××Ë«ÄæÃÄæΑË¢Α¶ê£ÞΠΑAËÚΑÞ×«Ĉ½½üΡΑæ¨ΑæÚÃΑύÃ«ÄÄæΑ×ÚÞËÄÞώΑ¨ÞΑÄËæΑÄΑĈÄΑö«æ¨Α
clarity, leaving a lot to the discretion of the executive. Therefore, it was natural for the judiciary to fear
the abuse of such discretion by the executive, resulting in political appointments to the Supreme Court
ÄΑæ¨Α(«£¨ΑËêÚæÞΠΑTæ«æ«ËÄÞΑöÚΑĈ½Α¢ËÚΑæ¨Α[ê×ÚÃΑËêÚæΑæËΑÞæÚ«ºΑËöÄΑæ¨Α͒͒æ¨ΑÃÄÃÄæΑ
ÞΑ«Ä£ΑêÄËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½ΠΑb¨ΑËêÚæΑÚÞËÄΑæ¨æΑæ¨Α͒͒æ¨ΑÃÄÃÄæΑöÞΑêÄËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½ΠΑ+ÄΑ
arriving at this conclusion, the Court evaluated the theory of separation of powers and held that the
interference of the executive in the appointment of judges to the higher judiciary was a violation of the
theory. Hence statement 2 is correct.
ÚÔ
http://constitutionnet.org/vl/item/basic-structure-indian-constitution
SOURCE : https://www.livelaw.in/njac-unconstitutional-constitution-bench-41-2/
Year 2023
Constitutional amendments
Q3. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enact-
ed to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
(a) 1st Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 86thAmendment
ANSWER A
Explanation
There have been several cases in which supremacy of the Fundamental Rights (FR) have been ques-
tioned vis-a-vis other constitutional provisions e.g. the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
êÚ«Ä£Αæ¨Α«Ä«æ«½ΑĈ¢æÄΑÃËÄæ¨ÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑöËÚº«Ä£ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΡΑÚæ«ÄΑ«Ćê½æ«ÞΑöÚΑÚËê£¨æΑæËΑ
light by judicial decisions and pronouncements specially in regard to the chapter on fundamental rights.
b¨Α«æ«āÄϖÞΑÚ«£¨æΑæËΑ¢ÚËÃΑË¢ΑÞ×¨ΑÄΑû×ÚÞÞ«ËÄΑ£êÚÄæΑüΑÚæ«½Α͊͒λ͊μλμΑöÞΑ¨½ΑüΑÞËÃΑ
courts to be so comprehensive as not to render a person culpable even if he advocates murder and other
crimes of violence. The main objects of this First Amendment Act, 1951 was, accordingly to amend article
19 for the purposes indicated above.
The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, enacted in 1951, made several changes to the Fundamen-
æ½ΑW«£¨æÞΑ×ÚËõ«Þ«ËÄÞΑË¢Αæ¨Α+Ä«ÄΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠΑ+æΑ×ÚËõ«ΑÃÄÞΑæËΑÚÞæÚ«æΑ¢ÚËÃΑË¢ΑÞ×¨ΑÄΑ
û×ÚÞÞ«ËÄΡΑõ½«æ«ËÄΑË¢ΑāÃ«ÄÚ«ΑË½«æ«ËÄΑ½öÞΡΑÄΑ½Ú«ĈΑæ¨æΑæ¨ΑÚ«£¨æΑæËΑÙê½«æüΑËÞΑÄËæΑÚΑæ¨Α
enactment of laws which provide "special consideration" for weaker sections of society. Hence option (a)
is the correct answer.
The 43rd and 44th amendment Acts were believed to be enacted to undo many changes introduced in
æ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑüΑæ¨Α͍͋ÄΑÃÄÃÄæΑæΑλ͊͒͐͏μΠΑb¨üΑ«ΑÄËæΑ«ÃΑæΑËõÚËÃ«Ä£Αæ¨Α¶ê««½Α«ÄæÚ×Úα
tations of the Fundamental Rights.
Laxmikanth Indian Polity

SOURCE : https://www.india.gov.in/my-government/constitution-in-
ªÀŝÖ×ªÖ×õïŝ¤Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×ŭÀ×ªÀŭɯëïõŭÖ×ªÖ×õŭ¤õŭĜĤĠĜ
ÚÕ
Evolution and making of the Constitution-

Total No. of Questions: 2 questions
2
Questions
Enactment and Enforcement
of the Constitution
Year 2021
Enactment and Enforcement of the Constitution
Q1. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
(a) A democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
ANSWER B
Explanation
ÞΑæ¨ΑËÚ«£«Ä½Α×ÚÃ½ΡΑêÚ«Ä£Α͋͏æ¨Α6ÄêÚüα͎͉͊͒ΡΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½ΑÞææêÞΑË¢Α+Ä«ΑöÞΑΑ"Sovereign
Democratic Republic." Later, with 42nd Constitutional Amendment two more words were added to
ËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½ΑÞææêÞΑË¢Α+Ä«ΡΑ«ΠΠΡ "Socialist and Secular."
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
SOURCE : Polity: M. Lakshmikanth and Vision IAS material

ÚÖ
Year 2023
Enactment and Enforcement of the Constitution
Q2. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:

Statement-I
The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens
Statement-II
On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
ANSWER C
Explanation
Constitution Day also known as 'Samvidhan Divas', is celebrated in our country on 26th November every
üÚΑæËΑËÃÃÃËÚæΑæ¨ΑË×æ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«ΠΑb¨ΑA«Ä«ÞæÚüΑË¢Α[Ë«½Α6êÞæ«ΑÄΑÃ×Ëöα
ÚÃÄæΑËÄΑ͊͒æ¨ΑBËõÃÚΑ͉͎͋͊ΑÄËæ«ĈΑæ¨Α«Þ«ËÄΑË¢Α#ËõÚÄÃÄæΑË¢Α+Ä«ΑæËΑ½ÚæΑæ¨Α͋͏æ¨ΑüΑË¢Α
BËõÃÚΑõÚüΑüÚΑÞΑϖËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑüϖΑæËΑ×ÚËÃËæΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑõ½êÞΑÃËÄ£Α«æ«āÄÞΠΑHence state-
ment 1 is correct.
Among all the committees of the Constituent Assembly, the most important committee was the Drafting
ËÃÃ«ææΑÞæΑê×ΑËÄΑê£êÞæΑ͋͒ΡΑ͍͊͒͐ΠΑ+æΑöÞΑæ¨«ÞΑËÃÃ«ææΑæ¨æΑöÞΑÄæÚêÞæΑö«æ¨Αæ¨ΑæÞºΑË¢Α×Ú×Ú«Ä£Α
a draft of the new Constitution. On 26th November, 1949, the Constitution as adopted. Hence statement
2 is not correct.
Laxmikanth
SOURCE : https://www.mygov.in/campaigns/constitution-day/#:~:text=Cons-
õÀõùõÀÝ×Ƃĝě0ċƂĝěÐïÝƂĝěÍ×Ýą×Ƃĝěïĥɬ¤õƂĝě·ëÝÖƂĝěĝġõ½ƂĝěP×ùëċƂĝěĜĤĠěĦ
Ú×
Constitutional Bodies- Total No. Of Questions: 2
Year 2017

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elec-
tions.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
ANSWER D
Explanation
Only statement 3 is correct.

½æ«ËÄΑ ËÃÃ«ÞÞ«ËÄΑ Ë¢Α +Ä«Α «ÞΑ Α ͌Α ÃÃÚΑ ËüΑ ÄΑ «æΑ «ÞΑæ¨Α ½æ«ËÄΑ ËÃÃ«ÞÞ«ËÄΑö¨«¨Α «ÞΑæ¨Α
election schedule for both general elections and bye-elections.
+æΑ«ÞΑ½ÞËΑæ¨Α¢êÄæ«ËÄΑË¢Α½æ«ËÄΑËÃÃ«ÞÞ«ËÄΑæËΑÚÞË½õΑæ¨Α«Þ×êæÞΑÚ½æ«Ä£ΑæËΑÞ×½«æÞέÃÚ£ÚÞΑË¢ΑÚË£α
Ä«āΑ×Ë½«æ«½Α×Úæ«ÞΠ
SOURCE : Laxmikant - Indian Polity, chapter - "Election Commission"
b¨Α½æ«ËÄΑ[üÃË½ÞΑλWÞÚõæ«ËÄΑÄΑ½½ËæÃÄæμΑHÚÚΡΑ͊͒͏͑ΡΑ½üÞΑËöÄΑ
the procedure for resolving disputes over party symbols when a
recognised political party splits into rival factions. According to Para 15 of
this order, the Election Commission (EC) has the authority to decide which
faction or group is entitled to use the party symbol, after considering all
the facts and circumstances of the case and giving a hearing to the repre-
sentatives of the factions.
ÚØ
Year 2023
Q2. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
ANSWER A
Explanation
b¨ΑBæ«ËÄ½ΑËÃÃ«ÞÞ«ËÄΑ¢ËÚΑ ºöÚΑ½ÞÞÞΑ«ÞΑΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½ΑËüΠΑ+æΑöÞΑÞæ½«Þ¨Αæ¨ÚËê£¨ΑΑ
ËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑλÃÄÃÄæμΑæΡΑ͉͋͊͑Αλ½ÞËΑ½½ΡΑ͉͊͋ÄΑÃÄÃÄæΑæΡΑ͉͋͊͑μΠΑb¨«ÞΑÃÄÃÄæΑæΑ«ÄΑ
æ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑæËΑÃºΑ«æΑΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄ½ΑËüΑêÄÚΑÚæ«½Α͌͌͑ ΑË¢Αæ¨Α+Ä«ÄΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠ Hence
option 1 is correct.
b¨ΑBæ«ËÄ½Α(êÃÄΑW«£¨æÞΑËÃÃ«ÞÞ«ËÄ΢Α+æΑ«ÞΑΑÞææêæËÚüΑËüΑÞæ½«Þ¨ΑêÄÚΑæ¨ΑTÚËææ«ËÄΑË¢Α(êÃÄΑ
Rights Act, 1993. Hence option 2 is not correct.
Bæ«ËÄ½Α;öΑËÃÃ«ÞÞ«ËÄ΢Αb¨Α;öΑËÃÃ«ÞÞ«ËÄΑË¢Α+Ä«Α«ÞΑÄΑûêæ«õΑËüΑö¨ËÞΑ¨«¢Α¢êÄæ«ËÄΑ«ÞΑ½£½Α
reforms in the country. Hence option 3 is not correct.
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: The National Consumer Disputes Redressal
ËÃÃ«ÞÞ«ËÄΑöÞΑÞæ½«Þ¨Α«ÄΑ͊͒͑͑ΑêÄÚΑæ¨ΑËÄÞêÃÚΑTÚËææ«ËÄΑæΑË¢Α͊͒͑͏ΠΑ+æΑ«ÞΑΑÙêÞ«α¶ê««½Α
body and statutory in nature. Hence option 4 is not correct.
Laxmikanth
SOURCE : http://ncdrc.nic.in/
ÚÙ
Citizenship- Total No. of Questions: 1
Year 2021
Q1. With reference to India, consider the following statements :
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
ANSWER A
Explanation
+ÄΑ+Ä«ΡΑöΑ¨õΑÞ«Ä£½Α«æ«āÄÞ¨«×ΡΑ«ΠΠΡΑΑ×ÚÞËÄΑÄΑ¨õΑËÄ½üΑËÄΑ«æ«āÄÞ¨«×ΠΑ½ÞËΡΑæΑΑ×Úæ«ê½ÚΑæ«ÃΡΑΑ
person can have only one domicile. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Any citizen (Citizen by birth or Naturalised Citizen) can become the Head of State, i.e., the President, in
+Ä«ΠΑHence, statement 2 is not correct.
Α¢ËÚ«£ÄÚΑËÄΑ£ÚÄæΑæ¨Α«æ«āÄÞ¨«×ΑÄΑΑ×Ú«õΑË¢Αæ¨Α«æ«āÄÞ¨«×ΑêÄÚΑ«ÚêÃÞæÄÞΑ½«ºΑ
Ú£«ÞæÚæ«ËÄΑ«ÞΑËÄΑüΑ¢ÚêΡΑ×ÚÞËÄΑ«ÞΑ«Þ½Ëü½ΑæËöÚÞΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΡΑõË½êÄæÚ«½üΑÙê«ÚÞΑ«æ«āÄÞ¨«×ΑË¢Α
other country, etc. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
SOURCE : Laxmikanth Indian Polity-Ch: Citizenship

ÚÛ
Elections- Total No. of Questions: 3
2 1
Questions Questions
Election to Lok RPA, 1951
Sabha
Year 2017
Election to Lok Sabha
mĜĦ=ÝëÐ¤õÀÝ×õÝõ½TÝÍr£½ĥ×ÝÖÀ×õÀÝ×ééë¤×£ɯÐª£ċ
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.
ANSWER C
Explanation
Vê½«Ĉæ«ËÄÞΑ¢ËÚΑ½æ«ËÄΑæËΑ;ËºΑ[¨΢
αΑÃêÞæΑΑΑ«æ«āÄΑË¢Α+Ä«
- not less than 25 years of age
- must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency
SOURCE : Laxmikant - Indian Polity, chapter - "Parliament".
b¨Αæê½Α×ÚËÞÞΑË¢ΑĈ½«Ä£Αæ¨ΑÄËÃ«Äæ«ËÄΑ××ÚÞΑ¨××ÄÞΑÞΑ
per the Provisions mentioned in the Representation Of The
People Act 1951
ÚÜ
Election to Lok Sabha

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes
polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the
majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER D
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct.Α+ÄΑ½æ«ËÄÞΑ¢ËÚΑ½ËºΑÞ¨ΑÄΑÞææΑÞÞÃ½üΡΑæ¨ΑFirst Past The Post

System is followed where a candidate who polls more votes than any other candidate is elected. First
Past The Post System has no minimum number/percentage of votes that must be secured by the winner.
Statement 2 is not correct. As per the constitution, the speaker and deputy speaker in lok sabha are
elected among its members.
The largest party in the Lok Sabha usually gets the Speaker post due to its majority. The post of Deputy
Speaker is usually given to the opposition party, but practice is due to convention, and has no legal or
statutory backing.
SOURCE : : Laxmikant - Indian Polity, chapter - "Parliament".

ÚÚ
Even if the None Of The Above (NOTA) option gets the most votes,
the candidate with the second largest number of votes will be
declared winner.
Year 2020
RPA, 1951

1. According to the Constitution of India a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six
months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State
2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to
imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison
Which of the statements given above is are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER D
Explanation
Constitution does not mention eligibility as a condition to be made a minister in a State.
Vê½«Ĉæ«ËÄÞΑΑ×ÚÞËÄΑÞ¨Ëê½Α×ËÞÞÞÞΑæËΑËÃΑ½«£«½Α¢ËÚΑ××Ë«ÄæÃÄæΑÞΑΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚΑÚ΢
(ΑÞ¨Ëê½ΑΑΑ«æ«āÄΑË¢Α+Ä«Π
He should be above 25 years of age
(ΑÞ¨Ëê½ΑÄËæΑ¨Ë½ΑÄüΑËĆΑË¢Α×ÚËĈæΑêÄÚΑæ¨Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑË¢Α+Ä«
+¢Α¨Α«ÞΑÄËæΑΑÃÃÚΑË¢ΑTÚ½«ÃÄæΡΑæ¨ÄΑ¨ΑÞ¨Ëê½ΑΑ½æΑæËΑæ¨Α;ËºΑ[¨ΑËÚΑæ¨ΑW¶üΑ[¨Α
within six months after his appointment as a minister.
[æ«ËÄΑ͑Α«ÄΑb¨ΑW×ÚÞÄææ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑTË×½ΑæΡΑ͎͊͒͊΢ΑΑ×ÚÞËÄΑËÄõ«æΑË¢ΑÄüΑËąÄΑÄΑ
ÞÄæÄΑæËΑ«Ã×Ú«ÞËÄÃÄæΑ¢ËÚΑÄËæΑ½ÞÞΑæ¨ÄΑæöËΑüÚÞΑοËæ¨ÚΑæ¨ÄΑÄüΑËąÄΑÚ¢ÚÚΑæËΑ«ÄΑÞêαÞæ«ËÄΑ
λ͊μΑËÚΑÞêαÞæ«ËÄΑλ͋μπΑÞ¨½½ΑΑ«ÞÙê½«ĈΑ¢ÚËÃΑæ¨ΑæΑË¢ΑÞê¨ΑËÄõ«æ«ËÄΑÄΑÞ¨½½ΑËÄæ«ÄêΑæËΑΑ
«ÞÙê½«ĈΑ¢ËÚΑΑ¢êÚæ¨ÚΑ×Ú«ËΑË¢ΑÞ«ûΑüÚÞΑÞ«ÄΑ¨«ÞΑÚ½ÞΠ
ÔÝÝ
SOURCE : ¨ææ×΢έέ½£«Þ½æ«õΠ£ËõΠ«ÄέÞ«æÞέ¢ê½æέĈ½Þέ͉͍εÚ×ÚÞÄææ«ËÄА͉͋Ë¢А͉͋æ¨А͉͋×Ë×½А͉͋æА͋А͉͎͋͊͒͊Π×¢
õÚüΑ«æ«āÄΑö¨ËΑ«ÞΑ͊͑ΑüÚÞΑË½ΑËÄΑæ¨ΑÙê½«¢ü«Ä£ΑæΑêÄ½ÞÞΑ
«ÞÙê½«ĈΡΑ«ÞΑ½«£«½ΑæËΑΑÄÚË½½ΑÞΑΑõËæÚΠΑr¨«½Αæ¨ΑõËæ«Ä£Α
£Α«ÞΑ͊͑ΑüÚÞΡΑΑ×ÚÞËÄΑÄΑΑÄΑA;ΑËÄ½üΑ¢æÚΑ͎͋ΑüÚÞΑË¢Α£Π
ÔÝÔ
Government scheme/Initiative-
Total No. of Questions: 11
Year 2017
mĜĦÀõ½ë·ë×¤õÝŕ[õÀÝ×ÐrÍÀÐÐïmùÐÀɯ¤õÀÝ×=ëÖąÝëÍš[rm=ŢŖĥą½À¤½Ý·õ½ïõõÖ×õï¸ÀĄ×
below is/are correct?
1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning.
2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER B
Explanation
b¨ΑBæ«ËÄ½Α[º«½½ÞΑVê½«Ĉæ«ËÄÞΑ"ÚÃöËÚºΑλB[V"μΑËÚ£Ä«āÞΑÙê½«Ĉæ«ËÄÞΑËÚ«Ä£ΑæËΑΑÞÚ«ÞΑË¢Α½õ½ÞΑ
Ë¢ΑºÄËö½£ΡΑÞº«½½ÞΑÄΑ×æ«æêΠΑb¨ÞΑ½õ½ÞΑÚΑĈÄΑ«ÄΑæÚÃÞΑË¢Α½ÚÄ«Ä£ΑËêæËÃÞΑö¨«¨Αæ¨Α½ÚÄÚΑ
must possess regardless of whether they were acquired through formal, non-formal or informal learning.
+æΑ×ÚËõ«ÞΑ¢ËÚΑÃê½æ«×½Α×æ¨öüÞΡΑ¨ËÚ«āËÄæ½ΑÞΑö½½ΑÞΑõÚæ«½ΡΑËæ¨Αö«æ¨«ÄΑõËæ«ËÄ½Αêæ«ËÄΑÄΑ
vocational training and among vocational education, vocational training, general education and technical
education, thus linking one level of learning to another higher level. Hence statement 1 is not correct
and statement 2 is correct.
http://www.thehindu.com/features/education/Bridge-the-skills-gap/article14556912.ece
SOURCE : http://pib.nic.in/newsite/printrelease.aspx?relid=157637
http://www.nsda.gov.in/nsqf.html
ÔÝÕ
Q2. Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Services’:

1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to unedu-
cated youth of the country.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER D
Explanation
National Career Service (NCS) project is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment
λ+Ä«μΑ#ËõÚÄÃÄæΑË¢Α+Ä«ΑÞΑΑA«ÞÞ«ËÄΑAËΑTÚË¶æΑ¢ËÚΑÞæ½«Þ¨«Ä£ΑÙê«ºΑÄΑĆ«ÄæΑÚÚΑÚ½æΑ
services. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
+æÞΑ×êÚ×ËÞΑ«ÞΑæËΑ×ÚËõ«ΑΑõÚ«æüΑË¢ΑÃ×½ËüÃÄæαÚ½æΑÞÚõ«ÞΡΑÞê¨ΑÞΑÚÚΑËêÄÞ½«Ä£ΡΑõËæ«ËÄ½Α
£ê«ÄΡΑÄΑ«Ä¢ËÚÃæ«ËÄΑËÄΑÞº«½½Αõ½Ë×ÃÄæΑËêÚÞÞΡΑæËΑ¶ËΑÞºÚÞΑÄΑÃ×½ËüÚÞΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑËêÄæÚüΠΑ+æΑ
aims to improve the employment opportunities for all job seekers, not just the uneducated youth. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=154498 https://www.ncs.gov.in/Pages/de-
SOURCE :
fault.aspx http://dget.nic.in/content/students/national-career-service.php
Q3. What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’?

1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India.
2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the
community.
3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the
infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
ANSWER A
ÔÝÖ
Explanation
b¨ΑA«Ä«ÞæÚüΑË¢Α(WΑ¨ÞΑ½êÄ¨Αæ¨Αq«üÄ¶½«ΑÞ¨ÃΑ«ÃΑæΑËËÞæ«Ä£Αæ¨Αêæ«ËÄΑÞüÞæÃΑüΑ½«õÚα
ing volunteer teachers to government schools.
+æΑö«½½ΑÄËæΑÚ×½Αæ¨ΑÚ£ê½ÚΑÄΑ×ÚË¢ÞÞ«ËÄ½½üΑÙê½«ĈΑæ¨ÚÞΑ«ÄΑæ¨Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑÞ¨ËË½ÞΠΑb¨ΑõË½êÄα
teer's responsibility is towards overall development of the child, not academics. The volunteer service will
be used in developing skills like public speaking, creative writing, counseling, music and dance. Hence
option (a) is the correct answer.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=146273 http://www.thehin-
SOURCE : du.com/news/cities/Vijayawada/Vidyanjali-launched/article14427857.ece
Q4. What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’?

(a) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government’s education
system and local communities.
(b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through
appropriate technologies.
(c) Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power.
(d) Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and
organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.
ANSWER B
Explanation
r«æ¨ΑΑõ«öΑæËΑê×½«¢æΑÚêÚ½Α+Ä«ΡΑæ¨ΑfÄÄæΑ ¨ÚæΑ¨«üÄΑ×ÚË£ÚÃÃΑ«ÞΑ½êÄ¨Α«ÄΑË½½ËÚæ«ËÄΑö«æ¨Α
æ¨Α+Ä«ÄΑ+ÄÞæ«æêæÞΑË¢Αb¨ÄË½Ë£üΑλ++bμΑÄΑæ¨ΑBæ«ËÄ½Α+ÄÞæ«æêæÞΑË¢Αb¨ÄË½Ë£üΑλB+bÞμΑÚËÞÞΑæ¨ΑËêÄα
æÚüΠΑb¨Α×ÚË£ÚÃÃΑ«ÃÞΑæËΑËÄÄæΑ«ÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄÞΑË¢Α¨«£¨ÚΑêæ«ËÄΡΑ«Ä½ê«Ä£Α+Ä«ÄΑ+ÄÞæ«æêæÞΑË¢Αb¨α
ÄË½Ë£üΑλ++bÞμΡΑBæ«ËÄ½Α+ÄÞæ«æêæÞΑË¢Αb¨ÄË½Ë£üΑλB+bÞμΑÄΑ+Ä«ÄΑ+ÄÞæ«æêæÞΑË¢Α[«ÄΑêæ«ËÄΑϞΑ
WÞÚ¨Αλ++[WÞμΑæΠΑö«æ¨Α½Ë½ΑËÃÃêÄ«æ«ÞΑæËΑÚÞÞΑæ¨Αõ½Ë×ÃÄæΑ¨½½Ä£ÞΑæ¨ÚËê£¨Α××ÚË×Ú«α
ate technologies. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Thiruvananthapur-
SOURCE : am/this-bureaucrat-also-heals/article17413890.ece
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=160790
Q5. Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to
(a) Certifying the skills acquire by construction workers through traditional channels.
(b) Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.
(c) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.
(d) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.
ANSWER A
ÔÝ×
Explanation
The Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) is an assessment of the skills acquired by the individual through
û×Ú«ÄΡΑËÞÚõæ«ËÄΑÄΑÞ½¢α½ÚÄ«Ä£ΠΑb¨ΑÞÞÞÞÃÄæΡΑö¨«¨Α«ÞΑ¢Ë½½ËöΑüΑΑÚæ«Ĉæ«ËÄΡΑ£«õÞΑÄΑ
edge to an otherwise informal worker.
+æΑ×ÚËõ«ÞΑæ¨ΑÃ×½ËüΑö«æ¨Αæ¨ΑËÄĈÄΡΑÞË«½ΑÚË£Ä«æ«ËÄΑÄΑÃ×ËöÚÃÄæΑæ¨æΑÚΑÄÞÞÚüΑæËΑ
Ä£Ëæ«æΑ¨«ÞΑ¢êæêÚΑÃ×½ËüÃÄæΠΑ"Ë½½Ëö«Ä£ΑÞêÞÞ¢ê½ΑÞÞÞÞÃÄæΡΑΑÄ«æΑ«ÞΑ£«õÄΑΑĈÄÄ«½Α
ÚöÚΡΑ«ÄΑ«æ«ËÄΑæËΑÚæ«Ĉæ«ËÄΠΑC×¤ÝéõÀÝ×šŢÀïõ½¤Ýëë¤õ×ïąëĦ
http://www.thehindu.com/education/careers/Mas-
SOURCE : sive-in-scale-and-innovative-in-approach/article17287913.ece
Q6. Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’?
1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.
4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
ANSWER A
Explanation
There are two components of the National Nutrition Mission as follows:

͊ΠΑ+Ä¢ËÚÃæ«ËÄΡΑêæ«ËÄΑÄΑËÃÃêÄ«æ«ËÄΑλ+μΑÃ×«£ÄΑ£«ÄÞæΑÃ½ÄêæÚ«æ«ËÄΑ
2. Multi-sectoral Nutrition Programme
The key objectives of these programmes are as under:
- To create awareness relating to malnutrition amongst pregnant women, lactating mothers, promote
healthy lactating practices and importance of balanced nutrition;
αΑbËΑ«Ã×ÚËõΑÃæÚÄ½ΑÄΑ¨«½ΑêÄÚαÄêæÚ«æ«ËÄΑ«ÄΑ͉͉͋Α¨«£¨ΑêÚÄΑ«ÞæÚ«æÞΑÄΑæËΑ×ÚõÄæΑÄΑÚêΑ
the under-nutrition prevalent among children below 3 years;
- To reduce incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
½õõéűŝŝéÀ£Ħ×À¤ĦÀ×ŝ×ąïÀõŝlëÀ×õnÐïĦïéĊŽëÐÀªŵĜěĞĜĤĝ½õõéűŝŝõÀÖïÝɯ×ªÀĦÀ×ªÀŭ
SOURCE : times.com/india/Nutrition-Mission-gets-new-boost/articleshow/51248078.cms
ÔÝØ
Year 2018

1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in
the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER A
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct:ΑqÚ«ËêÞΑÄæÚ½ΑæÞΑ½«ºΑTÚõÄæ«ËÄΑË¢Α"ËËΑê½æÚæ«ËÄΑæΡ͎͍͊͒Ρ"Úê«æΑTÚËêæÞΑ
HÚÚΑΡΑ͎͎͊͒ΡΑAæΑ"ËËΑTÚËêæÞΑHÚÚΡ͊͒͐͌ΡΑq£æ½ΑH«½ΑTÚËêæÞΑλËÄæÚË½μΑHÚÚΡΑ͍͊͒͐Ρ«½ΑH«½ÞΑ
Tº£«Ä£ΑλW£ê½æ«ËÄμHÚÚΑ͊͒͑͑ΡΑ[Ë½õÄæΑûæÚæΑH«½ΡΑαΑH«½ΑA½ΑÄΑ«½Α"½ËêÚΑλËÄæÚË½μΑHÚÚΡΑ
͊͒͏͐ΡΑA«½ºΑÄΑA«½ºΑTÚËêæÞΑHÚÚΡΑ͊͒͒͋ΑæΑöÚΑÚ×½Α¢æÚΑËÃÃÄÃÄæΑË¢Α"[[ΑæΡΑ͉͉͋͏ΠΑ
Statement 2 is not correct: A«Ä«ÞæÚüΑË¢Α(½æ¨ΑϞΑ"Ã«½üΑr½¢ÚΡΑ#ËõÚÄÃÄæΑË¢Α+Ä«Α«ÞΑæ¨ΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚα
æ«õΑA«Ä«ÞæÚüΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨Α«Ã×½ÃÄææ«ËÄΑË¢Α"[[+ΠΑb¨Α¨«Ú×ÚÞËÄΑÄΑ¨«¢Αûêæ«õΑHĆÚΑË¢Α"ËËΑ[¢æüΑ
ÄΑ[æÄÚÞΑêæ¨ËÚ«æüΑË¢Α+Ä«Αλ"[[+μΑ¨õΑ½ÚüΑÄΑ××Ë«ÄæΑüΑ#ËõÚÄÃÄæΑË¢Α+Ä«ΠΑ
¢ËÚΑæ¨Α¢ËÚÃæ«ËÄΑË¢Α"[[+ΡΑ¢ÚËÃΑ͎͍͊͒ΑËÄöÚÞΑTÚõÄæ«ËÄΑË¢Α"ËËΑê½æÚæ«ËÄΑöÞΑ×ÚæΑË¢Α«ÚæËÚα
ate General of Health Services. After having detached from the direct administrative control of the
Health Ministry, this authority is holding independent authority and has attained special status.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/policy/fs-
sai-launches-logo-for-organic-food-products/article9949389.ece
SOURCE : http://www.fssai.gov.in/home/about-us/introduction.html http://caiindia.org/food-
safe/abtFssai.html
ÔÝÙ
Q8. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labor and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, enterpreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification
Framework.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER C
Explanation
TÚ¨ÄΑAÄæÚ«Α9êÞ¨½Αq«ºÞΑxË¶ÄΑλTA9qxμΑ«ÞΑæ¨Αĉ£Þ¨«×ΑÞ¨ÃΑË¢Αæ¨ΑMinistry of Skill Develop-
ment & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). b¨Α[¨ËÚæΑbÚÃΑbÚ«Ä«Ä£Α«Ã×ÚæΑæΑTA9qxΑbÚ«Ä«Ä£ΑÄæÚÞΑλbÞμΑ«ÞΑ
û×æΑæËΑÄĈæΑÄ«æÞΑË¢Α+Ä«ÄΑÄæ«ËÄ½«æüΑö¨ËΑÚΑ«æ¨ÚΑÞ¨ËË½έË½½£ΑÚË×ËêæÞΑËÚΑêÄÃα
ployed. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
×ÚæΑ¢ÚËÃΑ×ÚËõ««Ä£ΑæÚ«Ä«Ä£ΑËÚ«Ä£ΑæËΑæ¨ΑBæ«ËÄ½Α[º«½½ÞΑVê½«Ĉæ«ËÄΑ"ÚÃöËÚºΑλB[V"μΡΑbÞΑÞ¨½½Α
also impart training in Soft Skills, Entrepreneurship, Financial and Digital Literacy. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
+Ä«õ«ê½ÞΑö«æ¨Α×Ú«ËÚΑ½ÚÄ«Ä£Αû×Ú«ÄΑËÚΑÞº«½½ÞΑÞ¨½½ΑΑÞÞÞÞΑÄΑÚæ«ĈΑêÄÚΑæ¨ΑWË£Ä«æ«ËÄΑË¢Α
Prior Learning (RPL) component of the Scheme. RPL aims to align the competencies of the unregulated
workforce of the country to the NSQF. Hence statement 3 is correct.
SOURCE : ½õõéűŝŝéÖÍĄċÝɭ¤ÀÐĦÝë¸ŝ·êĦé½éŽ¤õſÀªŵğġ
Year 2019
mĤĦ*Ý×ïÀªëõ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ïõõÖ×õï£ÝùõlëõÀ¤ùÐëÐċùÐ×ë£ÐxëÀ£Ð>ëÝùéïšlx>ïŢÀ×F×ªÀű
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
ANSWER C
ÔÝÛ
Explanation
͎͐ΑæÚ«½Α£ÚËê×ÞΑ¨õΑÄΑæ£ËÚ«āΑüΑA«Ä«ÞæÚüΑË¢Α(ËÃΑą«ÚÞΑÞΑTÚæ«ê½Ú½üΑqê½ÄÚ½ΑbÚ«½Α#ÚËê×ÞΑ
λTqb#μÞΠΑTqb#ÞΑÚÞ«Α«ÄΑ͊͑Α[ææÞΑÄΑfbΑË¢ΑϞBΑ+Þ½ÄÞΠΑTÚæ«ê½Ú½üΑqê½ÄÚ½ΑbÚ«½Α#ÚËê×ÞΑλTqb#ÞμΑ
ÚΑÄæÚ½½üΑÚË£Ä«āΑÞ×«½Αæ£ËÚüΑ¢ÚËÃΑÃËÄ£Αæ¨Α[¨ê½ΑbÚ«ΠΑHence statement 1 is correct
and statement 3 is not correct.
[ê¨Α£ÚËê×ÞΑöÚΑ«Äæ«ĈΑüΑËÄΑËÚΑÃËÚΑË¢Αæ¨Α¢Ë½½Ëö«Ä£Α¢æêÚÞ΢Αû«ÞæÄΑË¢Α×Úα£Ú«ê½æêÚ½Α×Úæ«α
es, Practice of hunting and gathering, Zero or negative population growth and relatively low level of
literacy as compared to other tribal groups.Α9ËÄΑÚüΑË¢Α9¨ÃÃÃΑ«ÞæÚ«æΑË¢Αb½Ä£ÄΑÄΑ+Úê½ÚΑË¢Α
bÃ«½ΑBêΑÚΑ«ÄΑæ¨Α½«ÞæΑË¢ΑTqb#ÞΠ Hence statement 2 and 4 are correct.
Additional Information:
+æΑöÞΑËÄÞæ«æêæΑêÚ«Ä£Αæ¨Α͍æ¨ΑĈõΑüÚΑ×½ÄΑËÄΑæ¨ΑÞ«ÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÚ×ËÚæΑË¢Αæ¨Α¨ÚΑËÃÃ«ÞÞ«ËÄΑ
λ͊͒͏͉α͏͊μΠΑ
SOURCE : https://tribal.nic.in/pvtg.aspx
Year 2020
Q10. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme
šZlT0rŢĥą½À¤½Ý·õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ïõõÖ×õïë¤Ýëë¤õŽ
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable sets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc
2. A specified portion of each MP fund must benefit SC/ST populations
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all work under Implementation every year.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
ANSWER D
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme is for development
works and creation of durable community assets. The emphasis is on creation of durable community
assets based on locally felt needs in the arenas of roads, electricity, drinking water, health and education
etc. The recommendations of the works are made by the Members of Parliament for the betterment of the
community. These works are executed by District Authorities in accordance with the respective State
#ËõÚÄÃÄæϐÞΑĈÄÄ«½ΡΑæ¨Ä«½ΑÄΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚæ«õΑÚê½ÞΠΑ
b¨ΑÞ¨ÃΑöÞΑÄÄËêÄΑ«ÄΑ͊͒͒͌ΠΑ+Ä«æ«½½üΑæ¨ΑAT;[ΑöÞΑêÄÚΑæ¨ΑËÄæÚË½ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑA«Ä«ÞæÚüΑË¢ΑWêÚ½Α
õ½Ë×ÃÄæΠΑb¨ΑAT;Α[¨ÃΑöÞΑæÚÄÞ¢ÚÚΑæËΑæ¨ΑA«Ä«ÞæÚüΑË¢Α[ææ«Þæ«ÞΑÄΑTÚË£ÚÃÃΑ+Ã×½ÃÄα
tation in October 1994.
ÔÝÜ
The annual MPLADS fund entitlement per MP constituency is Rs. 5 crores. Lok Sabha Members can recom-
mend works within their Constituencies. Elected Members of Rajya Sabha can recommend works within the
State of Election. Nominated Members of both the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha can recommend works
anywhere in the country.
Statement 2 is correct: M.Ps are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15 per cent of the
AT;[ΑÄæ«æ½ÃÄæΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨ΑüÚΑ¢ËÚΑÚÞΑ«Ä¨«æΑüΑ[¨ê½ΑÞæΑ×Ë×ê½æ«ËÄΑÄΑ͐Π͎Α×ÚΑÄæΑ¢ËÚΑ
ÚÞΑ«Ä¨«æΑüΑ[ΠbΠΑ×Ë×ê½æ«ËÄΠΑ+ÄΑËæ¨ÚΑöËÚÞΡΑËêæΑË¢ΑÄΑÃËêÄæΑË¢ΑWÞΠ͎ΑÚËÚÞΡΑΑAΠTΠΑÞ¨½½ΑÚËÃÃÄΑ
¢ËÚΑÚÞΑ«Ä¨«æΑüΑ[ΠΠΑ×Ë×ê½æ«ËÄΡΑWÞΠ͎͐Α½ÞΑÄΑWÞΠ͌͐Π͎Α½ÞΑ¢ËÚΑÚÞΑ«Ä¨«æΑüΑ[ΠbΠΑ×Ë×ê½æ«ËÄΠΑ
+ÄΑÞΑæ¨ÚΑ«ÞΑ«ÄÞêĆ«ÄæΑæÚ«½Α×Ë×ê½æ«ËÄΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑÚΑË¢Α;ËºΑ[¨ΑAÃÚΡΑæ¨üΑÃüΑÚËÃÃÄΑæ¨«ÞΑ
amount for the creation of community assets in tribal areas outside of their constituency but within their
[ææΑË¢Α½æ«ËÄΠΑ+ÄΑÞΑΑ[ææΑËÞΑÄËæΑ¨õΑ[ΠbΠΑ«Ä¨«æΑÚÞΡΑæ¨«ÞΑÃËêÄæΑÃüΑΑêæ«½«āΑ«ÄΑ[ΠΠΑ
inhabited areas and vice-versa.
+æΑÞ¨½½ΑΑæ¨ΑÚÞ×ËÄÞ««½«æüΑË¢Αæ¨Α«ÞæÚ«æΑêæ¨ËÚ«æüΑæËΑÄ¢ËÚΑæ¨Α×ÚËõ«Þ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α£ê«½«ÄΠΑ+ÄΑËÚÚΑæËΑ
facilitate implementation of this guideline, it will be responsibility of the district authority keeping in view
æ¨ΑûæÄæΑ×ÚËõ«Þ«ËÄÞΑË¢Α[ææΑÄΑÄæÚ½Α#ËõÚÄÃÄæϐÞΑæËΑ½ÚΑÚÞΑ½«£«½Α¢ËÚΑêæ«½«āæ«ËÄΑ¢ËÚΑ¢êÄÞΑ
ÃÄæΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨ΑÄĈæΑË¢Α[ΑϞΑ[bΑ×Ë×ê½æ«ËÄΠ
Statement 3 is not correct: An important aspect of the MPLAD Scheme is that funds released under this
scheme are non-lapsable i.e. if the money is not utilised, it gets carried to the next year.
Statement 4 is correct: The District Authority would be responsible for overall coordination and supervision
Ë¢Αæ¨ΑöËÚºÞΑêÄÚΑæ¨ΑÞ¨ÃΑæΑæ¨Α«ÞæÚ«æΑ½õ½ΑÄΑ«ÄÞ×æΑæΑ½ÞæΑ͉͊АΑË¢Αæ¨ΑöËÚºÞΑêÄÚΑ«Ã×½ÃÄæα
tion every year.
½õõéïűŝŝÖéÐªïĦ¸ÝĄĦÀ×ŝZlT0rŝ|éÐÝªª=ÀÐïŝZlT0r>ùÀªÐÀ×ïĝěĜġ3×¸ÐÀï½ſġĞģĦéª·
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-na-
tion/high-court-seeks-info-from-centre-on-release-utilisation-of-funds-under-mplads/arti
SOURCE : cleshow/77593993.cms https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/for-bet-
ter-use-the-hindu-editorial-on-mplads-funds/article31293067.ece https://www.indiato-
day.in/elections/lok-sabha-2019/sto-
ry/lok-sabha-mps-report-card-mplad-funds-unspent-amount-1487490-2019-03-29
ÔÝÚ
Year 2022
Q11. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements :
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER B
Explanation
The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has approved the national roll-out of
Central Sector Scheme, Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) of Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare, #ËõÚÄÃÄæΑË¢Α+Ä«ΡΑö«æ¨ΑΑê£æΑË¢ΑWÞΠ͊Ρ͏͉͉ΑÚËÚΑ¢ËÚΑĈõΑüÚÞΠΑThe National Health Authority
(NHA) will be the implementing agency of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM).
Statement 1 is not correct: Participation in ABDM is voluntary including for citizens. Participation of a
healthcare facility or an institution is also voluntary and shall be taken by the respective management
(government or private management). However, once the management decides to register the respective
healthcare facility/institution in ABDM, it is essential for all the healthcare professionals serving the said
facility/institution to register in Healthcare Professionals Registry so that the institution can become fully
integrated with the National Digital Health Ecosystem (NDHE).
Statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct: Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission will connect
the digital health solutions of hospitals across the country with each other. Based on the foundations
½«Α ËöÄΑ «ÄΑ æ¨Α ¢ËÚÃΑ Ë¢Α 6ÄΑ ¨ÄΡΑ ¨ÚΑ ÄΑ AË«½Α λ6AμΑ æÚ«Ä«æüΑ ÄΑ Ëæ¨ÚΑ «£«æ½Α «Ä«æ«æ«õÞΑ Ë¢Α æ¨Α
government, Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) is creating a seamless online platform through
the provision of a wide-range of data, information and infrastructure services, duly leveraging open, interop-
Ú½ΡΑ ÞæÄÚÞαÞΑ «£«æ½Α ÞüÞæÃÞΑ ö¨«½Α ÄÞêÚ«Ä£Α æ¨Α ÞêÚ«æüΡΑ ËÄĈÄæ«½«æüΑ ÄΑ ×Ú«õüΑ Ë¢Α
health-related personal information.
Under the ABDM, citizens will be able to create their ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account) num-
bers, to which their digital health records can be linked. This will enable creation of longitudinal health
records for individuals across various healthcare providers, and improve clinical decision making by health-
care providers. The mission will improve equitable access to quality healthcare by encouraging use of tech-
nologies such as telemedicine and enabling national portability of health services.
SOURCE : https://ndhm.gov.in/faq
ÔÔÝ
Governance- Total No. of Questions: 22
6 16
Questions Questions
Acts Miscellaneous
Year 2017
Acts
mĜĦÀõ½ë·ë×¤õÝõ½ŕlëÝ½À£ÀõÀÝ×Ý·)×ÖÀlëÝéëõċxë×ï¤õÀÝ×¤õĥĜĤģģšl)lx¤õŢŖĥ¤Ý×ïÀªŭ
er the following statements:
1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the
transaction.
2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
ANSWER B
Explanation
[½«ÄæΑ¢æêÚÞΑË¢ΑTÚË¨««æ«ËÄΑË¢Α ÄÃ«ΑTÚË×ÚæüΑbÚÄÞæ«ËÄΑæΡΑ͊͒͑͑ΑλT TbΑæμα
αΑb¨ΑT TbΑæΑĈÄÞΑÄÃ«ΑæÚÄÞæ«ËÄÞΡΑ×ÚË¨««æÞΑæ¨ÃΑÄΑ¢êÚæ¨ÚΑ×ÚËõ«ÞΑæ¨æΑõ«Ë½æ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑT TbΑ

æΑ«ÞΑ×êÄ«Þ¨½Αö«æ¨Α«Ã×Ú«ÞËÄÃÄæΑÄΑĈÄΠΑb¨ΑT TbΑæΑ×ÚË¨««æÞΑÚËõÚüΑË¢Αæ¨Α×ÚË×ÚæüΑ¨½ΑÄÃ«Α
from benamidar by the real owner.
αΑ b¨Α ĈÄ«æ«ËÄΑ Ë¢Α Α ÄÃ«Α æÚÄÞæ«ËÄΑ ¨ÞΑ ÄΑ ö«ÄΑ æËΑ «Ä½êΑ Α æÚÄÞæ«ËÄΑ ÃΑ «ÄΑ Α Ĉæ«æ«ËêÞΑ
name; where the owner is not aware or denies knowledge of the ownership of the property or the person
providing the consideration for the property is not traceable. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
αΑTÚË×Úæ«ÞΑ¨½ΑÄÃ«ΑÚΑ½«½Α¢ËÚΑËÄĈÞæ«ËÄΑüΑæ¨Α#ËõÚÄÃÄæΑö«æ¨ËêæΑ×üÃÄæΑË¢ΑËÃ×ÄÞæ«ËÄΠΑ
Hence statement 2 is correct.
- An appellate mechanism has been provided under the PBPT Act in the form of Adjudicating Authority and
Appellate Tribunal. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
https://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-poli-
SOURCE : ¤ċŝÐïŭÝÍċïŭ¤½×¸ïŭõÝŭ£×ÖÀŭéëÝéëõċŭÐąŭĜĜġěĢĝĢěĜĠĞĞſĜĦ½õÖÐ
ÔÔÔ
Year 2018
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER D
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct:Αb¨Α¨ÚΑλbÚ£æΑ½«õÚüΑË¢Α"«ÄÄ«½ΑÄΑHæ¨ÚΑ[êÞ««ÞΡΑ ÄĈæÞΑÄΑ
Services) Bill, 2016 says that the number can’t be used as proof of citizenship or domicile.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Aadhaar Act regulations, state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may
ΑύËÃ«ææώΑ×ÚÃÄÄæ½üΑËÚΑæ«õæΑæÃ×ËÚÚ«½üΑüΑæ¨ΑfÄ«ÙêΑ+Äæ«Ĉæ«ËÄΑêæ¨ËÚ«æüΑË¢Α+Ä«ΡΑæ¨Α
agency responsible for issuing the numbers and managing the database. The regulations give the Authori-
æüΑæ¨Α×ËöÚΑæËΑæ«õæΑ¨ÚΑÄêÃÚÞΑõÄΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑÞÄΑË¢ΑÄΑąæ«õΑ£Ú«õÄΑÚÚÞÞ½Α
procedure for those whose numbers have been suspended.
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/aadhaar-bill-intro-
duced-in-lok-sabha/article8309741.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/around-81-lakh-aad-
SOURCE : haar-deactivated-till-date-govt/article19475097.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/web-
site-launched-for-govt-map-download-but-aadhaar-mandatory/article17908003.ece
Q3. "Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following?

(a) Amnesty International
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
(d) World Justice Report
ANSWER D
Explanation
The World Justice Project Rule of Law Index measures how the rule of law is experienced and perceived by
the general public across the globe. It is the world’s leading source for original, independent data on the
rule of law. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/against-hu-
SOURCE : man-rights/article22885113.ece
ÀïÀÝ×Fr=£ëùëċĥĝěĜģ*ùëë×õɬÀëïl¸×Ýűģģ
ÔÔÕ
Acts
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be
required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted
in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
ANSWER B
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct: In accordance with the provisions of sub-section (1) of section 23 of the Right
of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, the National Council for Teacher Education
λBbμΑ¨ÞΑ½«ΑËöÄΑæ¨ΑÃ«Ä«ÃêÃΑÙê½«Ĉæ«ËÄÞΑ¢ËÚΑΑ×ÚÞËÄΑæËΑΑ½«£«½Α¢ËÚΑ××Ë«ÄæÃÄæΑÞΑΑæ¨ÚΑ
«ÄΑ½ÞÞΑ+ΑæËΑq+++ΡΑõ«Α«æÞΑBËæ«Ĉæ«ËÄΑæΑê£êÞæΑ͋͌ΡΑ͉͉͋͊ΠΑ
Statement 2 is correct: HÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÞÞÄæ«½ΑÙê½«Ĉæ«ËÄÞΑ¢ËÚΑΑ×ÚÞËÄΑæËΑΑ½«£«½Α¢ËÚΑ××Ë«ÄæÃÄæΑÞΑΑ
teacher in any of the primary schools is that he/she should pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) which
will be conducted by the appropriate Government.
Statement 3 is not correct: From the mid-1960s to 1993, the number of TEIs in India went up from about
1,200 to about 1,500. After the NCTE was set up, the number of TEIs exploded, to about 16,000 (over 90%
private) by 2011.
SOURCE : ½õõéűŝŝÖ½ëªĦ¸ÝĄĦÀ×ŝïÀõïŝùéÐÝªſɯÐïŝÖ½ëªŝɯÐïŝùéÐÝªſªÝ¤ùÖ×õŝnx3ſx3xĦéª·
Acts
Q5. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the
following statements:
1. The families coming under the category of 'below powerty line (BPL)' only are eligible to receive subsidies food
grains.
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of
issuance of a ration card.
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a 'take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnan-
cy and for six months thereafter.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
ANSWER B
ÔÔÖ
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct: The Act provides for coverage of upto 75% of the rural population and upto
50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized foodgrains under Targeted Public Distribution
System (TPDS), thus covering about two-thirds of the population.
Statement 2 is correct: It provides that eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above is to be
the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.
Statement 3 is not correct: Provision for Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers in the form of food
supplement of 600 (not 1600)calories of energy and 18-20 gms of Protein per day in the form of Micronutri-
ÄæΑ"ËÚæ«ĈΑ"ËËΑÄέËÚΑÄÚ£üΑÄÞΑ¢ËËΑÞΑbºΑ(ËÃΑWæ«ËÄΠΑ Þ«ÞΑÃ½ΑæËΑ×Ú£ÄÄæΑöËÃÄΑÄΑ
lactating mothers during pregnancy and six months after the child birth, such women will also be entitled
æËΑÚ«õΑÃæÚÄ«æüΑÄĈæΑË¢ΑÄËæΑ½ÞÞΑæ¨ÄΑWÞΠΑ͏Ρ͉͉͉Π
http://dfpd.nic.in/nfsa-act.htm
SOURCE :
½õõéűŝŝéÀ£Ħ×À¤ĦÀ×ŝ×ąïÀõŝlëÀ×õnÐïĦïéĊŽëÐÀªŵĜěĝěĠĢ
Year 2019
Q6. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social
capital?
(a) The proportion of literates in the population
(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
(c) The size of population in the working age group
(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
ANSWER D
Explanation
Social capital is a sociological concept that refers to the intangible relational assets that emerge
from social interactions. These assets are generated through give and take and activate the “norm
of reciprocity,” creating social obligations that connect and bind people and groups. The more social
×«æ½Α«ÞΑêÞΡΑæ¨Α£ÚæÚΑæ¨ΑÄĈæÞΠ
The concept of social capital is composed of three distinct but interrelated structural, emotional and
¨õ«ËÚ½ΑËÃ×ËÄÄæÞΠΑb¨üΑÚΡΑÚÞ×æ«õ½üΡΑÄæöËÚºÞΡΑæÚêÞæΑÄΑË½½ËÚæ«õΑê½æêÚ½ΑÄËÚÃÞΠ
In every society, some people have a greater share of valued resources – money, property, education,
health, and power – than others. These social resources can be divided into three forms of capital –
ËÄËÃ«Α×«æ½Α«ÄΑæ¨Α¢ËÚÃΑË¢ΑÃæÚ«½ΑÞÞæÞΑÄΑ«ÄËÃΣΑê½æêÚ½Α×«æ½ΑÞê¨ΑÞΑêæ«ËÄ½ΑÙê½«Ĉα
æ«ËÄÞΑÄΑÞææêÞΣΑÄΑÞË«½Α×«æ½Α«ÄΑæ¨Α¢ËÚÃΑË¢ΑÄæöËÚºÞΑË¢ΑËÄææÞΑÄΑÞË«½ΑÞÞË«æ«ËÄÞΑλ ËêÚ«êΑ
1986). Often, these three forms of capital overlap and one can be converted into the other.
"ËÚΑûÃ×½ΡΑΑ×ÚÞËÄΑ¢ÚËÃΑΑö½½αËąΑ¢Ã«½üΑλËÄËÃ«Α×«æ½μΑÄΑąËÚΑû×ÄÞ«õΑ¨«£¨ÚΑêæ«ËÄΡΑ
ÄΑÞËΑÄΑÙê«ÚΑê½æêÚ½ΑËÚΑêæ«ËÄ½Α×«æ½ΠΑ[ËÃËÄΑö«æ¨Α«ÄĉêÄæ«½ΑÚ½æ«õÞΑÄΑ¢Ú«ÄÞΑλÞË«½Α
capital) may – through access to good advice, recommendations or information – manage to get a
well-paid job.
ÔÔ×
SOURCE : [*3nx*ÐïïFFrÝ¤ÀÝÐÝ¸ċű*½éõëĠŮlõõë×ïÝ·rÝ¤ÀÐF×êùÐÀõċ×ª3Ċ¤ÐùïÀÝ×
Options (a) and (c) may be considered as human capital, whereas option
λμΑ«ÞΑæ¨Α×¨üÞ«½Α×«æ½ΠΑ(ÄΑË×æ«ËÄΑλμΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑÞË«½Α×«æ½Π
Acts
mĢĦ½À¤½Ý·õ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ïõõÖ×õïÀïŝë¤Ýëë¤õë¸ëªÀ×¸õ½Zõë×Àõċ)×ɯõÖ×ªÖ×õ
Act, 2017?
1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER C
Explanation
AæÚÄ«æüΑ ÄĈæΑλÃÄÃÄæμΑæΡΑ͉͋͊͐
+æΑ×ÚËõ«ÞΑ¢ËÚΑ¢ê½½Α×«ΑÞÄΑ¢ÚËÃΑöËÚºΑ¢ËÚΑΑ×Ú«ËΑË¢Α͋͏ΑöºÞΑλÚ½«ÚΑ͊͋ΑöºÞμΑæËΑæºΑÚΑË¢Α
the child. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
The Act is applicable to all establishments employing 10 or more women.
For women who are expecting after having 2 children, the duration of paid maternity leave shall be
͊͋ΑöºÞΠΑHence statement 3 is correct.
ΑAæÚÄ«æüΑ½õΑË¢Α͊͋ΑöºÞΑæËΑΑõ«½½ΑæËΑÃËæ¨ÚÞΑË×æ«Ä£ΑΑ¨«½Α½ËöΑæ¨Α£ΑË¢Αæ¨ÚΑ
months from the date of adoption as well as to the “commissioning mothers”.
Αb¨ΑæΑÃºÞΑ«æΑÃÄæËÚüΑ¢ËÚΑÃ×½ËüÚÞΑæËΑêæΑöËÃÄΑËêæΑæ¨ΑÃæÚÄ«æüΑÄĈæÞΑõ«½½Α
to them at the time of their appointment.
Any establishment which has 50 or more employees shall have the facility of creche.
Hence statement 2 is not correct.
½õõéïűŝŝÐ£ÝùëĦ¸ÝĄĦÀ×ŝïÀõïŝª·ùÐõŝɯÐïŝZõë×ÀõċƂĝě)×ŭ
SOURCE : ɯõƂĝěÖ×ªÖ×õƂĝě¤õƂĝ*ĝěĜĢƂĝěĦéª·½õõéïűŝŝąąąĦõ½½À×ªùĦ¤ÝÖŝ×ąïŝ×õÀÝ×ÐŝÖŭ
ternity-leave-govt-for-incentive-scheme/article25520440.ece
ÔÔØ
Year 2020
Q8. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is
(a) the final goal of a stateless society
(b) class struggle
(c) abolition of private property
(d) economic determinism
ANSWER A
Explanation
The similarity and dissimilarity between Gandhism and Marxism are as under:
(1) Conception of Ideal State: r¨«½Αæ¨ΑĈÄ½Α«ÃΑË¢ΑËæ¨ΑË¢Αæ¨ÃΑöÞΑæ¨ΑÞæ½«Þ¨ÃÄæΑË¢ΑΑÞææ½ÞÞΑÄΑ
½ÞÞ½ÞÞΑÞË«æüΡΑæ¨«ÚΑÃÄÞΑ¢ËÚΑ¨«õ«Ä£Αæ¨«ÞΑ«ÃΑÚΑ«ąÚÄæΠΑA¨æÃΑ#Ä¨«ΑöÄæΑæËΑ¨«õΑæ¨«ÞΑ
end through non-violent means but Marx wanted to achieve it through violent means. Hence option (a) is
the correct answer.
(2) Capitalism: Though both Mahatma Gandhi and Karl Marx were opposed to capitalism and exploitation,
üæΑæ¨üΑ×ÚË×£æΑ«ąÚÄæΑÃÄÞΠΑ#Ä¨«ΑöÄæΑæËΑÚÃËõΑ×«æ½«ÞÃΑÄËæΑüΑõ«Ë½ÄæΑÃÄÞΑêæΑæ¨ÚËê£¨Α
ËÄËÃ«ΑÄæÚ½«āæ«ËÄΡΑüΑÄËêÚ£«Ä£ΑËææ£Α«ÄêÞæÚ«ÞΡΑÄΑüΑÃº«Ä£Αæ¨Α×«æ½«ÞæΑæÚêÞæÞΠΑ9Ú½Α
AÚûΑ¨ΑÄËΑ¢«æ¨Α«ÄΑËÄËÃ«ΑÄæÚ½«Þæ«ËÄΠΑ(ΑöÄæΑæËΑÚÃËõΑæ¨Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑæ¨ÚËê£¨ΑÚõË½êæ«ËÄΑ«ÄΑ
order to destroy capitalism's root and branch.
(3) Spiritualism vs. Materialism: Mahatma Gandhi was decisively a spiritualist. In every aspect of his life
æ¨ÚΑöÞΑΑ×Α«Ã×æΑË¢ΑÚ½«£«ËÄΠΑ(Α«ΑÄËæΑææ¨ΑÄüΑ«Ã×ËÚæÄΑæËΑÃæÚ«½«ÞÃΑÄΑ½êûêÚ«ÞΑË¢Α½«¢ΠΑ(Α
Þ«Αæ¨æΑÃÄΑÞ¨Ëê½Α¨õΑÃ«Ä«ÃêÃΑÄÞΠΑ(Α«ΑÄËæΑææ¨ΑÄüΑ«Ã×ËÚæÄΑæËΑ×Ë½«æ«ÞΑõË«ΑË¢ΑÚ½«£«ËÄΠ
9Ú½ΑAÚûΑËÄÞ«ÚΑÚ½«£«ËÄΑÞΑË×«êÃΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨ΑöËÚºÚÞΡΑêÞΑ«ÄΑ¨«ÞΑõ«öΑÚ½«£«ËÄΑÃΑÃÄΑΑ¢æ½«ÞæΑÄΑ
«æΑ«ΑÄËæΑ½½ËöΑ«ÞËÄæÄæÃÄæΑæËΑÚ«ÞΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑöËÚºÚÞΑ£«ÄÞæΑ×«æ½«ÞÃΠΑAÚûΑ«ΑÄËæΑ½«õΑ«ÄΑ#ËΠΑ(Α
was a materialist and he gave materialistic and economic interpretation of history, in which he stressed the
importance of economic factors.
(4) Ends and Means: Mahatma Gandhi was not in favour of using violent means for achieving a good end.
Therefore, he adopted non-violent means for the achievement of India’s freedom. Marxists do not believe in
non-violence. They believe that capitalism cannot be abolished through parliamentary means and socialist
revolution is not possible without the use of violence.
(5) Class War: Marxists have a deep faith in class struggle. Marx said that there had been two classes in each
country since the very beginning. One class was of the exploiters and the other of the exploited. Today the
×«æ½«ÞæÞΑ ÚΑ æ¨Α û×½Ë«æÚÞΑ ÄΑ æ¨Α öËÚºÚÞΑ ÚΑ æ¨Α û×½Ë«æΠΑ ËÚ«Ä£Α æËΑ AÚûΡΑ æ¨ÚΑ ÄΑ ÄõÚΑ Α
ËÃ×ÚËÃ«ÞΑæöÄΑæ¨ΑæöËΑÄΑæ¨ÚΑöËê½ΑΑΑËÄæ«ÄêËêÞΑËÄĉ«æΑæöÄΑæ¨ΑæöËΠΑA¨æÃΑ#Ä¨«Α
said that class- struggle brought ruin to the country and it made the production of goods fall considerably.
All propertied persons were not bad. There was an urgent need to change their minds. So, called for a trust-
eeship model i.e capitalists should become the trustees of the country’s wealth.
(6) Investment of Capital: r«æ¨ΑÚ£ÚΑæËΑæ¨Α«ÄõÞæÃÄæΑË¢Α×«æ½Αæ¨Αõ«öÞΑË¢ΑAÚûΑÄΑ#Ä¨«¶«ΑÚΑ«ąÚα
ent. Marxists say that there should be socialisation of the means of production and are not ready to allow
private ownership on land. Mahatma Gandhi allows the investment of private capital but not exploitation
æ¨ÚËê£¨Α«æΠΑ(ΑöÄæÞΑæËΑÃºΑæ¨Α×«æ½«ÞæÞΑæÚêÞæÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÄæ«ËÄ½Αö½æ¨ΠΑ#Ä¨«Α«ÞΑ½ÞËΑ«ÄΑ¢õËêÚΑË¢ΑËαË×α
erative farming, while the Marxists are in favour of collective farming, in which there is a great control of the
state.
ÔÔÙ
λ͐μΑ ÃËÚüΑõÞΠΑ «ææËÚÞ¨«×΢Α #Ä¨«¶«Α ¨Α Α ĈÚÃΑ ¢«æ¨Α «ÄΑ ÃËÚüΡΑ êæΑ ¨Α ËÄÞ«ÚΑ æ¨Α rÞæÚÄΑ
ÃËÚüΑÞΑ«ÄËÃ×½æΠΑ(ΑÞ«Αæ¨æΑæ¨ÚΑÞ¨Ëê½ΑΑÄæÚ½«Þæ«ËÄΑË¢Α×ËöÚΠΑb¨ΑTÄ¨üæÞΑ«ÄΑæ¨Α
õ«½½£Α Þ¨Ëê½Α Α £«õÄΑ ÃËÚΑ ×ËöÚÞΑ ÄΑ æ¨Α õ«½½£ÞΑ Þ¨Ëê½Α Α £«õÄΑ ËÃ×½æΑ êæËÄËÃüΠΑ (Α öÞΑ æ¨Α
supporter of welfare state and hated dictatorship or autocracy. The Marxists believe in the Dictatorship of
æ¨Α×ÚË½æÚ«æΠΑb¨üΑöÄæΑæËΑ£«õΑÃû«ÃêÃΑ×ËöÚÞΑæËΑæ¨ΑöËÚºÚÞΠΑ+ÄΑæ¨ΑæÚÄÞ«æËÚüΑ×Ú«ËΑæ¨ΑAÚû«ÞæÞΑöÄæΑ
æËΑ£«õΑÃËÚΑ×ËöÚÞΑæËΑæ¨ΑÞææΠΑ+ÄΑæ¨ΑÄÃΑË¢Αæ¨ΑöËÚº«Ä£Α½ÞÞΡΑæ¨ÞΑ×ËöÚÞΑ¨õΑÄΑêæ«½«ÞΑüΑæ¨Α
Communist Party in the U.S.S.R., China and Communist countries of Eastern Europe. The state has estab-
lished its control over all the aspects of the individual’s life and democracy has been slain.
½õõéïűŝŝï½Ýª½¸×¸ĦÀ×ɰÀ£×õĦ¤ĦÀ×ŝ£ÀõïõëÖŝĜěġěĞŝģĤĜĤĢŝġŝěġ¤½éõëƂĝěĝĦéª·
SOURCE : https://www.politicalsciencenotes.com/articles/similarity-dis-
similarity-gandhism-marxism/402

1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
ANSWER B
Explanation
Metadata or meta base is a set of data that describes and gives information about other data. “Authentica-
æ«ËÄΑÚËÚÞΑÚΑÄËæΑæËΑΑº×æΑüËÄΑΑ×Ú«ËΑË¢ΑÞ«ûΑÃËÄæ¨ÞΡΑÞΑÞæ«×ê½æΑ«ÄΑW£ê½æ«ËÄΑ͋͐λ͊μΑË¢Αæ¨Αêæ¨Äα
tication Regulations. As per SC Judgement, retaining authentication data of citizens who have enrolled for
Aadhaar beyond six months was “impermissible. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
[ê×ÚÃΑ ËêÚæΑ ¨ÞΑ ÞæÚêºΑ ËöÄΑ æ¨Α [æ«ËÄΑ ͎͐Α Ë¢Α æ¨Α ¨ÚΑ æΑ ö¨«¨Α ½½ËöΑ Þ¨Ú«Ä£Α Ë¢Α æΑ ö«æ¨Α
×Ú«õæΑ Äæ«æ«ÞΠΑ b¨Α ¶ê£ÃÄæΑ ÃÄÞΑ æ¨æΑ ×Ú«õæΑ Ë«ÞΑ ½«ºΑ æ½ËÃΑ ËÃ×Ä«ÞΡΑ αËÃÃÚΑ ĈÚÃÞΑ
ÄÄËæΑÞºΑ¢ËÚΑ«ËÃæÚ«Ú«ΑÄΑËæ¨ÚΑæΑ¢ÚËÃΑËÄÞêÃÚÞΑ¢ËÚΑæ¨«ÚΑÞÚõ«ÞΠΑHence statement 2 is correct.
+ÄÞêÚÄΑÚ£ê½æËÚΑ+W+Α¨ÞΑõ«ÞΑ«ÄÞêÚÚÞΑÄËæΑæËΑÃÄæËÚ«½üΑÞºΑ¨ÚΑÄΑTBέ"ËÚÃΑ͏͉Α¢ÚËÃΑ
customers, existing or new, for KYC (Know Your Customer) purpose. It, however, allowed insurers to accept
Aadhaar card as one of the documents for establishing identity, address of the customer subject to certain
conditions that presumably are being stipulated to guard against misuse of the information. The insurers
ÄΑ ×æΑ¨ÚΑ ÞΑ ËÄΑ Ë¢Αæ¨Α ËêÃÄæÞΑ¢ËÚΑ 9xΡΑ ËÄ½üΑö¨ÄΑæ¨Α ÞÃΑ «ÞΑ ËąÚΑõË½êÄæÚ«½üΑ üΑæ¨Α
proposer/policy-holder. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
ÞΑ×ÚΑÞæ«ËÄΑ͐ΑË¢Αæ¨Α¨ÚΑλbÚ£æΑ½«õÚüΑË¢Α"«ÄÄ«½ΑÄΑHæ¨ÚΑ[êÞ««ÞΡΑ ÄĈæÞΑÄΑ[Úõ«ÞμΑ
æΡΑ͉͋͊͏ΡΑÄüΑ«Ä«õ«ê½Αö¨ËΑ«ÞΑÞ«ÚËêÞΑË¢Αõ«½«Ä£ΑÄüΑÞêÞ«üΡΑÄĈæΑËÚΑÞÚõ«Α¢ËÚΑö¨«¨Αæ¨Αû×Ä«æêÚΑ
is incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India, shall require to furnish proof of possession of Aadhaar
number or undergo Aadhaar based authentication. In case the individual does not have Aadhaar, he/she
Þ¨½½ΑÃºΑÄΑ××½«æ«ËÄΑ¢ËÚΑÄÚË½ÃÄæΑÄΑæ¨Α«Ä«õ«ê½ΑÞ¨½½ΑΑËąÚΑ½æÚÄæΑÄΑõ«½ΑÃÄÞΑË¢Α
«Äæ«Ĉæ«ËÄΑ¢ËÚΑ½«õÚüΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÞêÞ«üΡΑÄĈæΑËÚΑÞÚõ«ΠΑHence statement 4 is correct.
ÔÔÛ
b(Α +#Α+ATb 5 Data can't be disclosed by

the govt on grounds of
1 Aadhaar-based biometric
national security
authentication can't be
used by telecom operators, 6 More security measures for
ÄºÞΡΑ ËÃÃÚΑ ĈÚÃÞΑ protecting data as well as
and other private cos reduced period of data
storage to 6 mths
2 The cost of acquiring
subscribers could go up for 7 +Ä«õ«ê½ÞΡΑ æËËΡΑ ÄΑ Ĉ½Α
telecom companies, new complaint in case of theft of
connections may be delayed Aadhaar data
8 Court directs govt to
3 Fintech startups, which
built entire business models ensure illegal migrants are
around Aadhaar, may be hit not issued Aadhaar
as costs and time for 9 Parents' consent needed to
ÄÚË½ÃÄæΑÚΑ½«º½üΑ£ËΑê× enrol children into Aadhaar
4 Could lead to rise in costs database
¢ËÚΑ ÄºÞΡΑ ö«ÄΑ ËêÄæΑ
opening timeline
"It is a historic judgement and the whole concept of unique identity number that has been
accepted after judicial review is an extremely welcome decision."
Arun Jaitley Finance Minister
WHERE School admissions & WHERE For transfer of ;«Äº«Ä£Α "ËÚΑĈ½«Ä£Α

(WΑ for exams such as (WΑ ÞêÞ««ÞΡΑϥΑÄĈæÞΑËÚΑ Aadhaar | with Income tax
+[BϖbΑB UGC, NEET and CBSE +[ΑB services provided by PAN mandatory returns
½õõéïűŝŝąąąĦɯ××¤ÀÐĊéëïïĦ¤ÝÖŝª½ëŭ¤ëªŝª½ëŭùõ½×ŭ
tication-data-cant-be-retained-beyond-6-months-says-supreme-court/1328066/
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/gov-
ernment-may-bring-legal-backing-for-private-companies-to-use-aadhaar/articleshow/659735
SOURCE : 97.cms
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Hyderabad/aad-
haar-not-mandatory-to-buy-insurance-policy/article26123273.ece
½õõéïűŝŝéÀ£Ħ¸ÝĄĦÀ×ŝlëïïëÐïï½ëĦïéĊŽlnF0ŵĜĠğĜĝĢğĮűƅűõĊŭ
õŵïƂĝěéëƂĝěï¤õÀÝ×ƂĝěĢƂĝěÝ·ĥ·ùë×Àï½ƂĝěéëÝÝ·ƂĝěÝ·ƂĝěéÝïïïïÀÝ×ƂĝěÝ·
Note: ª½ëêùïõÀÝ×ąïÐïÝïÍªÀ×ĝěĜģĦ
ÔÔÜ
Year 2018
Consider the following statements:
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Year 2021
͊ΠΑϏW«£¨æΑæËΑæ¨Α«æüϐΑ«ÞΑÄΑ£ÚΑ¨êÃÄΑÚ«£¨æΑÄΑæ¨ΑfBα(«ææΑÃËÄ«æËÚÞΑæ¨ΑËÃÃ«æÃÄæÞΑÃΑüΑ
each country in this regard.
2. ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city right to reclaim public spaces and public participation
in the city.
3. ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized
colonies in the city.
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
ANSWER D
Explanation
b¨ΑæÚÃΑW«£¨æΑæËΑæ¨Α«æüΑ¨ÞΑ«æÞΑËÚ«£«ÄΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑöÚ«æ«Ä£ÞΑË¢Α"ÚÄ¨Α×¨«½ËÞË×¨ÚΑ(ÄÚ«Α;¢õÚΑ«ÄΑ¨«ÞΑ͊͒͏͑ΑËËºΑ
Le Droit à la ville. It prioritises collective right over the individual right to urban space. It gives every
inhabitant, and not just the legal citizens, the right to not just occupy a pre-existing urban space but also to
produce spaces according to their needs. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The right to the city (RTC) further implies responsibilities on governments and people to claim, defend, and
promote this right. This right claims for: the social function of the city; quality public spaces; sustainable
ÄΑ«Ä½êÞ«õΑÚêÚ½αêÚÄΑ½«Äº£ÞΣΑ«Ä½êÞ«õΑËÄËÃ«ÞΣΑ«Ä½êÞ«õΑ«æ«āÄÞ¨«×ΣΑÄ¨ÄΑ×Ë½«æ«½Α×Úæ««×α
æ«ËÄΣΑ ÄËÄα«ÞÚ«Ã«Äæ«ËÄΣΑ £ÄÚΑ Ùê½«æüΣΑ ÄΑ ê½æêÚ½Α «õÚÞ«æüΠΑºÄËö½£«Ä£Αæ¨Α WbΑ ÃÄÞΑæ¨æΑæ¨Α
State can no longer deny shelter or provision of services such as water to those living in unauthorised
slums. Hence statement 3 is correct.
RTC was the most contentious issue during the series of negotiations in the run-up to the once-in-twen-
æüαüÚΑfÄ«æΑBæ«ËÄÞΑ¨ËêÞ«Ä£ΑÄΑÞêÞæ«Ä½ΑêÚÄΑõ½Ë×ÃÄæΑËÄ¢ÚÄΠΑ+ÄΑæ¨ΑÚêÄαê×ΑæËΑ(«ææΑ+++ΡΑ
+Ä«Α¨ÞΑË××ËÞΑæ¨Α«Ä½êÞ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑW«£¨æΑæËΑæ¨Α«æüΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑÚ¢æΑBöΑfÚÄΑ£ÄΑæ¨æΑö«½½ΑĈÄΑæ¨Α
way cities world-wide are shaped over the next two decades. The RTC’s deletion from the draft was also a
demand put forward by the developed bloc of the USA, Japan and EU countries.
ÔÔÚ
Countries such as Brazil, which has written the Right to the City into its federal law, Mexico, which has City
Charter for the Right to the City as well as Chile, Argentina and Ecuador were the most vociferous support-
ers of the right. Certain others such as the UAE were in favour of changing the language to “Cities for All”
diluting the guarantees that are conferred by the language of a rights-based approach.
Similarly, civil society groups point out that the resistance from EU countries is a result of the migrant crisis
«ÄΑêÚË×ΠΑfϐÞΑËĆ«½ΑÞææΑ×ËÞ«æ«ËÄΑ«ÞΑæ¨æΑWbΑ«ÞΑÄËæΑÄΑ£ÚΑ¨êÃÄΑÚ«£¨æΑÚË£Ä«ÞΑüΑ«ÄæÚÄæ«ËÄ½Α
human rights instruments. India’s position too was that managing migrants and refugees should be left to
the individual nations and should not be dictated by the New Urban Agenda. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-news-india/habi-
SOURCE : tat-iii-and-draft-new-urban-agenda-right-to-city-3010794/
Q11. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
͊ΠΑA«æºÞ¨ÚΑöÞΑæ¨Α«õ«½Α½öΑ¢ËÚΑê××ÚΑÞæÞΑÄΑü¨£ΑöÞΑæ¨Α«õ«½Α½öΑ¢ËÚΑ½ËöÚΑÞæÞΠ
͋ΠΑ+ÄΑæ¨ΑA«æºÞ¨ÚΑÞüÞæÃΡΑæ¨ΑÞËÄÞΑÄΑ½«ÃΑÚ«£¨æΑæËΑæ¨Α×ÚË×ÚæüΑêÚ«Ä£Αæ¨Α½«¢æ«ÃΑË¢Αæ¨Α¢æ¨ÚΡΑ
whereas in the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the death of the father that the sons can claim right to
the property.
͌ΠΑb¨ΑA«æºÞ¨ÚΑÞüÞæÃΑ½ÞΑö«æ¨Αæ¨ΑÃææÚÞΑÚ½æΑæËΑæ¨Α×ÚË×ÚæüΑ¨½ΑüΑÃ½ΑÃÃÚÞΑËÄ½üΑË¢ΑΑ
family, whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with the matters related to the property held by both male
and female members of a family.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
ANSWER B
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct: Ëæ¨Αæ¨ΑböËΑÞüÞæÃÞΑË¢Α¢Ã«½üέ«õ«½Α½öΡΑü¨£ΑÄΑA«æºÞ¨ÚΑÚΑæ¨Α
Þ«ΑæËΑæ¨Αê××ÚΑÞæÞΑ½ËÄΑαΑü¨£ΑÞüÞæÃΑ×Úõ«½Α«ÄΑÞæÚÄΑ+Ä«ΑÄΑA«æºÞ¨ÚΑ«ÄΑÚÃ«Ä«Ä£Α
parts of the country.
Statement 2 is correct: According to the Dayabhaga system, which came to prevail in eastern India, only
ËÄΑæ¨Αæ¨ΑË¢Αæ¨Α¢æ¨ÚΑËê½Αæ¨ΑÞËÄÞΑ½«ÃΑÚ«£¨æÞΑæËΑ×ÚË×ÚæüΑÄΑ×Úæ«æ«ËÄΑæ¨Α×ÚË×ÚæüΠΑ+ÄΑA«æºÞ¨ÚΑ
system, the sons could claim this right even during the lifetime of the father.
Statement 3 is not correct: Both the systems deal with the property rights of both of men and women –
+ÄΑA«æºÞ¨ÚΑÞ¨ËË½Α×ÚË×ÚæüΑÚ«£¨æÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑöËÃÄΑöÚΑÚÞæÚ«æΑæËΑΑ£ÚæΑûæÄæΣΑöËÃÄΑöÚΑ½«õΑ
to never be able to become a coparcener. The widow of a deceased coparcener could not get his share and
was not allowed to enforce a partition of his husband’s share against his brothers, Dayabhaga school on the
other hand was somewhat lenient, a widow has the right to inherit her deceased husband’ s share and could
enforce a partition against his brothers.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-hindu-ex-
SOURCE : plains-what-is-coparcenary-property-in-hindu-law/article32364484.ece
½õõéïűŝŝąąąĦõëÀ£ù×À×ªÀĦ¤ÝÖŝ×ąïŝªÀõÝëÀÐïŝêùÐŭëÀ¸½õïŭ·Ýëŭªù¸½õëïŭĜĝĠĢĞģ
ÔÕÝ
1. 21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly
Ë¢ΑTº«ÞæÄΠ
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER B
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct: ºêÞ¨Α"ÚêÚüΡΑËÚΑÞ«Ã×½üΑύºêÞ¨ώΡΑö¨«¨Α«ÞΑύb¨Α͋͊ÞæώΑ«ÄΑ Ä£½ΡΑËÃÃÃËα

ÚæÞΑæ¨ΑüΑ«ÄΑ͎͊͒͋Αö¨ÄΑÞæêÄæÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑfÄ«õÚÞ«æüΑË¢Α¨ºΑ½êÄ¨ΑΑÄæ«ËÄö«Α×ÚËæÞæΑ£«ÄÞæΑæ¨Α
«Ã×ËÞ«æ«ËÄΑË¢ΑfÚêΑËÄΑæ¨Α×Ë×½ΑË¢Αö¨æΑöÞΑæ¨ÄΑÞæΑTº«ÞæÄΠΑ+ÄΑ͊͒͒͒ΡΑ«ÄΑÚË£Ä«æ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α Ä£½«Α
people’s struggle for their language and culture, UNESCO announced that February 21 would be observed
worldwide as International Mother Language Day.
Statement 2 is correct:ΑêÚ«Ä£Αæ¨ΑĈÚÞæΑËÄÞæ«æêÄæΑÞÞÃ½üΑË¢ΑTº«ÞæÄΡΑËÄΑ͋͌Α"ÚêÚüΑ͍͊͒͑ΡΑÞËÃΑË¢Α
æ¨Α£ËõÚÄÃÄæΑËĆ«½ÞΑÞææΑæ¨æΑËÄ½üΑfÚêΑËÚΑÄ£½«Þ¨ΑËê½ΑΑÞ×ËºÄΑæΑæ¨ΑÞÞÃ½üΡΑû½ê«Ä£Α
Ä£½«ΠΑ¨«ÚÄÚÄΑææΡΑΑÚ×ÚÞÄææ«õΑ¢ÚËÃΑæ¨ΑÞæΑTº«ÞæÄΑËÄ£ÚÞÞΑTÚæüΡΑÚÙêÞæΑΑÃËæ«ËÄΑ
æËΑ«Ä½êΑ Ä£½«ΑæΑæ¨ΑÞÞÃ½üΠΑb¨Α¨«¢ΑA«Ä«ÞæÚΑË¢ΑÞæΑTº«ÞæÄΡΑrÞæΑTº«ÞæÄ«Α½ÚÞΡΑÄΑæ¨Α
Prime Minister Liaquat Ali Khan opposed the motion.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/febru-
ary-21-world-languages-ekushe-february-international-mothers-language-day-6280226/
SOURCE : https://www.un.org/en/observances/mother-language-day
https://nvdatabase.swarthmore.edu/content/pakistanis-de-
Ö×ªŭõ½Àëŭ¸ÝĄë×Ö×õŭë¤Ý¸×ÀĐŭ£×¸ÐÀŭÝɭ¤ÀÐŭÐ×¸ù¸ŭĜĤğĢŭĜĤĠĝ
Q13. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is
½ËºΑê×Α«ÄΑ×Ë½«ΑÞææ«ËÄΡΑÄËæΑ«ÄΑ¶«½Π
͋ΠΑêÚ«Ä£Α¶ê««½ΑêÞæËüΡΑæ¨Α×Ë½«üΑËĆÚΑ«ÄΑ¨Ú£ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÞΑ«ÞΑÄËæΑ½½ËöΑæËΑ«ÄæÚÚË£æΑæ¨ΑÞêÞ×æΑ
without the approval of the court.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER B
ÔÕÔ
Explanation
Police Custody means that police has the physical custody of the accused while Judicial Custody means
an accused is in the custody of the concerned Magistrate. In former, the accused is lodged in police
Þææ«ËÄΑ½Ëºê×Αö¨«½Α«ÄΑ½ææÚΡΑ«æΑ«ÞΑæ¨Α¶«½ΠΑb¨êÞΡΑ«ÄΑ¶ê««½ΑêÞæËüΡΑæ¨ΑêÞΑ«ÄΑÄËæΑ½ËºΑê×Α«ÄΑ×Ë½«Α
station but in jail. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
êÚ«Ä£Α6ê««½ΑêÞæËüΡΑæ¨Α×Ë½«ΑËĆÚΑ«ÄΑ¨Ú£ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÞΑ«ÞΑÄËæΑ½½ËöΑæËΑ«ÄæÚÚË£æΑæ¨ΑÞêÞ×æΠΑ
(ËöõÚΡΑæ¨ΑËêÚæΑÃüΑ½½ËöΑæ¨Α«ÄæÚÚË£æ«ËÄÞΑæËΑΑËÄêæΑ«¢Α«æΑË×«ÄÞΑæ¨Α«ÄæÚÚË£æ«ËÄΑ«Ä£Α
necessary under the facts produced before the court. Hence statement 2 is correct.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-hindu-ex-
SOURCE : plains-what-is-coparcenary-property-in-hindu-law/article32364484.ece
½õõéïűŝŝąąąĦõëÀ£ù×À×ªÀĦ¤ÝÖŝ×ąïŝªÀõÝëÀÐïŝêùÐŭëÀ¸½õïŭ·Ýëŭªù¸½õëïŭĜĝĠĢĞģ
Q14. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter
of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER B
Explanation
Parole is a system of releasing a prisoner with suspension of the sentence. The release is conditional,
usually subject to behaviour, and requires periodic reporting to the authorities for a set period of time.
Parole is considered a reformative process. The provision (along with furlough) was introduced with a view
to humanising the prison system. It is not a matter of right. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
+ÄΑ+Ä«ΡΑ×ÚË½ΑλÞΑö½½ΑÞΑ¢êÚ½Ëê£¨μΑÚΑËõÚΑêÄÚΑb¨ΑTÚ«ÞËÄÞΑæΑË¢Α͍͊͑͒ΠΑTÚ«ÞËÄÚÞΑËÄõ«æΑË¢Α
multiple murders or under the anti-terror Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA) are not eligible for
parole. Since prisons is a State subject in the Constitution, the Prisons Act of each state government
ĈÄÞΑæ¨ΑÚê½ÞΑêÄÚΑö¨«¨Α×ÚË½Α«ÞΑ£ÚÄæΑ«ÄΑæ¨æΑÞææΠ Hence statement 2 is correct.
SOURCE : https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/ex-
éÐÀ×ªŭą½õŭëŭéëÝÐŭ×ªŭ·ùëÐÝù¸½ŭ½Ýąŭëŭõ½ċŭªÀɬë×õŭġěĤěĠěģŝ
ÔÕÕ
«æ«ËÄ½Α+Ä¢ËÚÃæ«ËÄ΢ΑΑ«ąÚÄΑæöÄΑ×ÚË½ΑÄΑ¢êÚ½Ëê£¨΢
Parole is allowed in case of short term detention while furlough is allowed in case of long term
detention.
Parole is not a right of the prisoner, while furlough is the right of the prisoner.
TÚË½Α½ÞæÞΑ¢ËÚΑΑÃËÄæ¨ΡΑö¨«½Α¢êÚ½Ëê£¨Α½ÞæÞΑ¢ËÚΑΑÃû«ÃêÃΑË¢Α͍͊ΑüÞΠ
TÚË½ΑÚÙê«ÚÞΑΑÞ×«ĈΑ¶êÞæ«Ĉæ«ËÄΡΑö¨«½Αæ¨Α×êÚ×ËÞΑË¢ΑΑ¢êÚ½Ëê£¨Α«ÞΑæËΑÚºΑæ¨ΑÃËÄËæËÄüΑË¢Α
«Ã×Ú«ÞËÄÃÄæΑËÚΑæËΑ¨õΑΑÚºΠΑ
Parole can be granted multiple times, while furlough has a limit.
mĜĠĦ*Ý×ïÀªëõ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ïõõÖ×õïÀ×ëïé¤õÝ·)½ëõnõ××ªlªÖąëªïű
1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER D
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct: Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri "do not
amount to titles within the meaning of Article 18(1) of the Constitution and thus are not to be used as
×ÚĈûÞΑËÚΑÞêĆûÞΑæËΑæ¨ΑÄÃΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÚ«×«ÄæΑ«ÄΑÄüΑÃÄÄÚΑö¨æÞËõÚϕΠ
Statement 2 is not correct: TÃΑöÚÞΡΑö¨«¨ΑöÚΑ«ÄÞæ«æêæΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑüÚΑ͎͍͊͒ΡΑ«ÞΑÄÄËêÄΑõÚüΑ

year on the occasion of Republic Day except for brief interruption(s) during the years 1978 and 1979 and
1993 to 1997.
Statement 3 is not correct: Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award of the country. It is awarded in
ÚË£Ä«æ«ËÄΑË¢Αû×æ«ËÄ½ΑÞÚõ«έ×Ú¢ËÚÃÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α¨«£¨ÞæΑËÚÚΑ«ÄΑÄüΑĈ½ΑË¢Α¨êÃÄΑÄõËêÚΠΑ+æΑ«ÞΑ
æÚæΑËÄΑΑ«ąÚÄæΑ¢ËËæ«Ä£Α¢ÚËÃΑTÃΑöÚΠΑb¨ΑÚËÃÃÄæ«ËÄÞΑ¢ËÚΑ ¨ÚæΑWæÄΑÚΑÃΑüΑæ¨Α
Prime Minister to the President of India. No formal recommendations for Bharat Ratna are necessary. The
ÄêÃÚΑË¢Α ¨ÚæΑWæÄΑöÚÞΑ«ÞΑÚÞæÚ«æΑæËΑΑÃû«ÃêÃΑË¢Αæ¨ÚΑ«ÄΑΑ×Úæ«ê½ÚΑüÚΠ Government
¨ÞΑËÄ¢ÚÚΑ ¨ÚæΑWæÄΑöÚΑËÄΑ͍͎Α×ÚÞËÄÞΑæ«½½ΑæΠ
https://padmaawards.gov.in/AboutAwards.aspx
SOURCE : https://www.business-standard.com/article/pti-sto-
ries/bharat-ratna-padma-awards-cannot-be-used-as-titles-govt-119021200809_1.html
ÔÕÖ
Acts
mĜġĦõõ½×õÀÝ×ÐÐĄÐĥą½À¤½ÖÀ×ÀïõëċÀïõ½×ÝªÐ¸×¤ċõÝ×ïùëɬ¤õÀĄÀÖéÐÖ×õõÀÝ×Ý·
õ½r¤½ªùÐªxëÀ£ï×ª`õ½ëxëªÀõÀÝ×Ð=Ýëïõ0ąÐÐëïšn¤Ý¸×ÀõÀÝ×Ý·=ÝëïõnÀ¸½õïŢ¤õĥ
2006?
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
ANSWER D
Explanation
A«Ä«ÞæÚüΑË¢ΑbÚ«½Αą«ÚÞΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑÄË½Α£ÄüΑæΑæ¨ΑÄæ«ËÄ½Α½õ½ΑæËΑÄÞêÚΑąæ«õΑ«Ã×½ÃÄææ«ËÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α
Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. An Act to
recognize and vest the forest rights and occupation in forest land in forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and
other traditional forest dwellers who have been residing in such forests for generations but whose rights
Ëê½ΑÄËæΑΑÚËÚΠΑ+æΑ×ÚËõ«ÞΑΑ¢ÚÃöËÚºΑ¢ËÚΑÚËÚ«Ä£Αæ¨Α¢ËÚÞæΑÚ«£¨æÞΑÞËΑõÞæΑÄΑæ¨ΑÄæêÚΑË¢Α
evidence required for such recognition and vesting in respect of forest land. Hence option (d) is the
correct answer.
SOURCE : https://tribal.nic.in/downloads/FRA/FRAActnRulesBook.pdf
Year 2022
mĜĢĦF×F×ªÀĥą½õÀïõ½ëÝÐÝ·õ½*ÝÐ*Ý×õëÝÐÐëŒï`ë¸×ÀĐõÀÝ×š**`ŢŽ
1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
͋ΠΑ+æΑÃËÄ«æËÚÞΑ×ÚË£ÚÞÞΑË¢Αõ½Ë×ÃÄæΑË¢Α×æ«õΑË½έ;«£Ä«æΑ½ËºÞΠΑ
͌ΠΑ+æΑ¨ÚÞΑÄüΑË¶æ«ËÄΑæËΑæ¨Α#ËõÚÄÃÄæϖÞΑÄËæ«Ĉæ«ËÄΑÚ½æ«Ä£ΑæËΑÙê«Þ«æ«ËÄΑË¢ΑË½αÚ«Ä£ΑÚÞΠΑ
͍ΠΑ+æΑÄÞêÚÞΑæ¨æΑË½ΑÃ«Ä«Ä£ΑËÃ×Ä«ÞΑ½«õÚΑæ¨ΑË½ΑæËΑÄΑêÞÚÞΑ«ÄΑæ¨Α×ÚÞÚ«Αæ«ÃΠΑ
(a) 1, 2 and 3
λμΑ͌ΑÄΑ͍ΑËÄ½üΑ
(c) 1 and 2 only
λμΑ͊ΡΑ͋ΑÄΑ͍
ANSWER A
ÔÕ×
Explanation
Ë½ΑËÄæÚË½½ÚΑËÚ£Ä«āæ«ËÄΑλÚ½«ÚΑË½ΑËÃÃ«ÞÞ«ËÄÚμΡΑÞæ½«Þ¨Α«ÄΑ͊͒͊͏ΡΑ«ÞΑËÄΑË¢Αæ¨ΑË½ÞæΑËĆÞΑ«ÄΑ
+Ä«ÄΑË½ΑÞæËÚΠΑA«ÄΑ«ÃΑ¨«ÄΑÞææ«Ä£Αê×Αæ¨«ÞΑËĆΑöÞΑæËΑ¨õΑ#ËõÚÄÃÄæΑËÄæÚË½ΑæËΑÙêæ½üΑ
meet the coal requirement during First World War. Acute scarcity of coal necessitated promulgation of
Ë½½«ÚüΑËÄæÚË½ΑHÚÚΡΑ͍͍͊͒Α¢ËÚΑąæ«õΑËÄæÚË½ΑËÄΑ×ÚËêæ«ËÄΡΑ«ÞæÚ«êæ«ËÄΑÄΑ×Ú««Ä£ΑË¢ΑË½ΠΑ[êÞÙêÄæα
½üΡΑ«æΑöÞΑÚõ«ÞΑüΑΑÃËÚΑËÃ×Ú¨ÄÞ«õΑËÚÚΑ«ÄΑ͍͎͊͒ΠΑ;æÚΑ«ÄΑ͊͒͒͏ΡΑ«ÞæÚ«êæ«ËÄΑÄΑ×Ú««Ä£ΑË¢ΑË½ΑöÞΑ
deregulated. Thereafter, Colliery Control Order, 2000 superseded the previous order. Finally, the Colliery
ËÄæÚË½ΑWê½ÞΡΑ͉͉͍͋ΡΑöÞΑ×ê½«Þ¨ΑüΑ#ËõÚÄÃÄæΑË¢Α+Ä«Α«ÄΑê£êÞæΡΑ͉͉͍͋ΠΑ
Functions of Coal Controller’s Organization
λ«μΑfÄÚΑË½½«ÚüΑËÄæÚË½ΑWê½ÞΡΑ͉͉͍͋΢Α
(a) To lay down procedure and standard for sampling of coal.
(b) Inspection of collieries so as to ensure the correctness of the class, grade or size of coal.
(c) To issue directives for the purpose of declaration and maintenance of grades of coal of a seam mined in
a colliery.
(d) To act as the appellate authority in case of dispute between consumers and owner arising out of declara-
tion of grade and size of coal.
λμΑbËΑÚ£ê½æΑ«Þ×ËÞ½ΑË¢ΑÞæËºΑË¢ΑË½ΑËÚΑæ¨Αû×æΑËêæ×êæΑË¢ΑË½Α«ÄΑæ¨ΑË½½«ÚüΠΑ
λ¢μΑVê½«æüΑÞêÚõ«½½ÄΑö«æ¨ΑÚÞ×æΑæËΑÃ«ÄæÄÄΑË¢Α£ÚΡΑ½Ë«Ä£ΑË¢ΑË½Α«ÄΑö£ËÄÞέΑæÚêºÞΑËÚ«Ä£Α
to laid down procedures regarding grades and sizes.
(g) To grant opening / re-opening permission of coal mine, seam or a section of seam or to subdivide a mine.
λ««μΑfÄÚΑË½½æ«ËÄΑË¢Α[ææ«Þæ«ÞΑæΡΑ͉͉͋͑΢Α
λμΑË½ΑËÄæÚË½½ÚΑ¨ÞΑÄΑÃΑæ¨ΑÞææ«Þæ«½Αêæ¨ËÚ«æüΑö«æ¨ΑÚÞ×æΑæËΑË½ΑÄΑ½«£Ä«æΑÞææ«Þæ«ÞΠΑ(ÄΑ
statement 1 is correct.
(b) Entrusted the responsibility of carrying out Annual Coal & Lignite survey and publishing of Provisional
Coal Statistics and Coal Directory of India.
λμΑ[êÃ«ÞÞ«ËÄΑË¢ΑÃËÄæ¨½üΑË½ΑæΑæËΑ«ąÚÄæΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚ«ÞΑË¢ΑÄæÚ½ΑÄΑÞææΑ#ËõæΠΡΑÄæ«ËÄ½ΑÄΑ«ÄæÚÄα
tional organization.
(d) Collection of Statistics relating to coal washeries.
λ«««μΑfÄÚΑË½Α Ú«Ä£ΑÚΑλÙê«Þ«æ«ËÄΑÄΑõ½Ë×ÃÄæμΑæΡΑ͎͊͒͐΢ΑË½ΑËÄæÚË½½ÚΑ«ÞΑæ¨ΑËÃ×α
æÄæΑêæ¨ËÚ«æüΑêÄÚΑæ¨«ÞΑæΑæËΑ¨ÚΑÄüΑË¶æ«ËÄΑæËΑæ¨ΑÄæÚ½Α#ËõÚÄÃÄæϐÞΑBËæ«Ĉæ«ËÄΑÚ½æ«Ä£Α
æËΑÙê«Þ«æ«ËÄΑË¢ΑË½ΑÚ«Ä£Α½ÄΑÄΑæËΑ¢êÚÄ«Þ¨Α¨«ÞΑÚ×ËÚæÞΑæËΑÄæÚ½Α#ËõæΠΑ(ÄΑÞææÃÄæΑ͌Α«ÞΑ
correct.
λ«õμΑfÄÚΑË½ΑA«ÄÞΑλËÄÞÚõæ«ËÄΑϞΑõ½Ë×ÃÄæμΑæΡΑ͍͊͒͐ΑÄΑË½ΑA«ÄÞΑλËÄÞÚõæ«ËÄΑÄΑõ½α
Ë×ÃÄæμΑÃÄÃÄæΑWê½ÞΡΑ͉͋͊͊΢Α
(a) Assessment and collection of excise duty levied on all raw coal raised and dispatched.
λμΑTÚËõ««Ä£ΑĈÄÄ«½ΑÞê××ËÚæΑæËΑæ¨ΑË½ΑË×ÚæËÚÞΑ¢ËÚαΑαÄÞêÚ«Ä£Αæ¨ΑËÄÞÚõæ«ËÄΑË¢ΑË½ΑÚÞËêÚÞ΢Α[æËöα
«Ä£Α«ÄΑf#ΑÃ«ÄÞΠΑαfÄÚæº«Ä£Αæ¨Αõ½Ë×ÃÄæΑË¢ΑË½ΑÃ«ÄÞΑ«ÄΑΑÞ«Äæ«ĈΑÃÄÄÚΠΑαfÄÚæº«Ä£ΑÚÞÚ¨Α
«ÄΑ Ú½æ«ËÄΑ æËΑ ËÄÞÚõæ«ËÄΑ Ë¢Α Ë½ΡΑ õ½Ë×ÃÄæΑ Ë¢Α Ë½Α Ã«ÄÞΑ ÄΑ êæ«½«āæ«ËÄΑ Ë¢Α Ë½ΠΑ αTÚËææ«õΑöËÚºÞΑ
«Ä½ê«Ä£Α½Äºæ«Ä£Αö«æ¨Α«ÄËÃêÞæ«½ΑÃæÚ«½ΡΑB͋ΑϞΑH͋ΑĉêÞ¨«Ä£ΡΑĈ½½«Ä£Αê×ΑË¢ΑÞêÞ«ΑÚÞΡΑêææ«Ä£ΑË¢Α
æÚÄ¨ÞΑæΠΑα+Ä¢ÚÞæÚêæêÚΑõ½Ë×ÃÄæΑÞê¨ΑÞΑWËΑέΑW«½Α«Ä¢ÚÞæÚêæêÚÞΑ«ÄΑË½Ĉ½ÞΠΑ
(v) Commissioner of Payments

ÔÕØ
(a) Coal Controller functions as the Commissioner of Payment to settle the claim cases of colliery owners of
×ÚαÄæ«ËÄ½«Þæ«ËÄΑ ×Ú«ËΑ êÄÚΑ æ¨Α Ëº«Ä£Α Ë½Α A«ÄÞΑ λBæ«ËÄ½«Þæ«ËÄμΑ æΡΑ ͊͒͐͋ΡΑ æ¨Α BËÄαËº«Ä£Α Ë½Α
Mines (Nationalisation) Act, 1973 and also for the Schedule-I Coal Mines as per the Coal Mines (Special Provi-
sion) Act, 2015
(vi) Others: AËÄ«æËÚ«Ä£ΑË¢ΑË½ΑϞΑ;«£Ä«æΑ½ËºÞΠΑHence statement 2 is correct. Monitoring of opening of
Escrow account as per approved MCP. In above roles and responsibility, it is not explicitly mentioned that
CCO ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Hence option
(a) is the correct answer.
http://www.coalcontroller.gov.in/pages/display/5-functionsresponsibilities
SOURCE : https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/coal/extend-
ªŭÝɭ¤ŭÝ·ŭ¤ÝÐŭ¤Ý×õëÝÐÐëïŭÝë¸×ÀĐõÀÝ×ŭÀ×ù¸ùëõªŝģĤĜĝģĠĢĤ
mĜģĦÀõ½ë·ë×¤õÝõ½őx)ÝëªőÀ×F×ªÀĥ¤Ý×ïÀªëõ½·ÝÐÐÝąÀ×¸ïõõÖ×õïű
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
͌ΠΑb¨ΑbΑ ËÚϖÞΑ(ΑHĆΑ«ÞΑÞ«æêæΑ«ÄΑ Ä£½êÚêΠΑ
͍ΠΑb¨Α ËÚΑ¨ÞΑËõÚÞÞΑËĆÞΑæΑê«ΑÄΑAËÞËöΠΑ
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
λμΑ͋ΑÄΑ͍Α
λμΑ͌ΑÄΑ͍Α
λμΑ͊ΑÄΑ͍
ANSWER D
Explanation
b¨Α£ÄÞ«ÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑbΑ ËÚΑ+Ä«ΑæÞΑºΑæËΑ͉͊͒͌Αö¨ÄΑæ¨Α+Ä«ÄΑbΑÞÞΑ «½½ΑöÞΑ×ÞÞΠΑThe

×ÚÞÄæΑbΑ ËÚΑÞæΑê×ΑêÄÚΑÞæ«ËÄΑ͍ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑbΑæΑ͎͊͒͌ΑöÞΑËÄÞæ«æêæΑËÄΑ͊ÞæΑ×Ú«½Α͎͍͊͒ΠΑIt has
succeeded the Central Tea Board and the Indian Tea Licencing Committee which functioned respectively
êÄÚΑæ¨ΑÄæÚ½ΑbΑ ËÚΑæΡ͍͊͒͒ΑÄΑæ¨Α+Ä«ÄΑbΑËÄæÚË½ΑæΡΑ͊͒͌͑Αö¨«¨ΑöÚΑÚ×½ΠΑb¨Αæ«õ«α
æ«ÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑæöËΑ×Úõ«ËêÞΑË«ÞΑ¨ΑÄΑËÄĈÄΑ½Ú£½üΑæËΑÚ£ê½æ«ËÄΑË¢ΑæΑê½æ«õæ«ËÄΑÄΑû×ËÚæΑË¢ΑæΑ
as required by the International Tea Agreement then in force, and promotion of tea Consumption.
Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct: The present Tea Board is functioning as a
statutory body of the Central Government under the Ministry of Commerce. The Board is constituted
of 31 members (including Chairman) drawn from Members of Parliament, tea producers, tea traders, tea
ÚËºÚÞΡΑËÄÞêÃÚÞΡΑÄΑÚ×ÚÞÄææ«õÞΑË¢Α#ËõÚÄÃÄæÞΑ¢ÚËÃΑæ¨Α×Ú«Ä«×½ΑæΑ×ÚËê«Ä£ΑÞææÞΡΑÄΑ
trade unions .The Board is reconstituted every three years.
[ææÃÄæΑ͌Α«ÞΑÄËæΑËÚÚæ΢Α+æÞΑ¨ΑËĆΑ«ÞΑ½ËæΑæΑ9Ë½ºæΑλrÞæΑ Ä£½μΠΑ
[ææÃÄæΑ͍Α«ÞΑËÚÚæ΢ΑêÚÚÄæ½üΑbΑ ËÚΑ¨ÞΑæöËΑËõÚÞÞΑËĆÞΑ½ËæΑæΑê«ΡΑÄΑAËÞËöΠ
½½Αæ¨ÞΑ¢ËÚ«£ÄΑËĆÞΑË¢Αæ¨Α ËÚΑÚΑÞ«£ÄΑæËΑêÄÚæºΑæ¨ΑõÚ«ËêÞΑ×ÚËÃËæ«ËÄ½ΑÃÞêÚÞΑæËΑËËÞæΑ
ê×Αû×ËÚæΑË¢Α+Ä«ÄΑæΠΑb¨ÞΑËĆÞΑ½ÞËΑæΑÞΑΑ½««ÞËÄΑËĆΑ¢ËÚΑ«ÄæÚæ«ËÄΑæöÄΑ«Ã×ËÚæÚÞΑË¢Α+Ä«ÄΑ
tea of the respective regions as well as Indian Exporters.
ÔÕÙ
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/com-
Öë¤ŭÖÀ×ÀïõëċŭéëÝéÝïïŭëéÐŭÝ·ŭª¤ªïŭÝÐªŭõŭ¤ÝɬŭïéÀ¤ïŭëù££ëŭ¤õïŝëõÀ¤Ðï½Ýąŝģ
SOURCE : 9217798.cms
https://www.livemint.com/economy/tea-board-of-in-
dia-set-for-overhaul-as-exports-falter-11647802870770.html

1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of
India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Minister of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government
of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER D
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct: The India Sanitation Coalition was launched on June 25, 2015, at FICCI, New
½¨«ΠΑ+[Α«ÞΑΑÃê½æ«αÞæº¨Ë½ÚΑ×½æ¢ËÚÃΑæ¨æΑÚ«Ä£ÞΑæË£æ¨ÚΑæ¨Α×Ú«õæΑÞæËÚΡΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæΡΑĈÄÄ«½Α
«ÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄÞΡΑ«õ«½ΑÞË«æüΑ£ÚËê×ÞΡΑÃ«ΡΑËÄËÚÞέ«½æÚ½έÃê½æ«½æÚ½ΡΑû×ÚæÞΑæΠΑæËΑöËÚºΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑÞÄ«ææ«ËÄΑ
space to drive sustainable sanitation through a partnership model.
Statement 2 is not correct: Þæ½«Þ¨Α«ÄΑ͊͒͐͏ΡΑæ¨ΑBæ«ËÄ½Α+ÄÞæ«æêæΑË¢ΑfÚÄΑą«ÚÞΑλB+fμΡΑ«ÞΑΑ×ÚÃ«ÚΑ

Institute and appointed as an apex body to support and guide the Government of India in its urban devel-
Ë×ÃÄæΑ×½ÄÞΠΑb¨Α+ÄÞæ«æêæΑ«ÞΑÞê××ËÚæΑüΑæ¨ΑA«Ä«ÞæÚüΑË¢Α(ËêÞ«Ä£ΑÄΑfÚÄΑą«ÚÞΡΑæ¨Α#ËõÚÄÃÄæΑË¢Α
India, State Governments, urban and regional development authorities, and other agencies concerned
ö«æ¨ΑêÚÄΑ«ÞÞêÞΠΑ+æΑ«ÞΑÄËæΑæ¨Α×ûΑËüΑË¢Αæ¨ΑA«Ä«ÞæÚüΑË¢Α(ËêÞ«Ä£ΑÄΑfÚÄΑą«ÚÞΠ
https://www.newindianexpress.com/cities/delhi/2022/feb/23/con-
SOURCE : test-for-promoting-hand-hygiene-2422771.html
http://urbanriv ers.niua.org/no de/46
ÔÕÛ
Year 2023
Statement-1: In India, prisons are managed State Governments with their own rules and regulations for
the day-to-day administration of prisons.
[ææÃÄæα++΢Α+ÄΑ+Ä«ΡΑ×Ú«ÞËÄÞΑÚΑ£ËõÚÄΑüΑæ¨ΑTÚ«ÞËÄÞΑæΡΑ͍͊͑͒Αö¨«¨Αû×ÚÞÞ½üΑº×æΑæ¨ΑÞê¶æΑË¢Α
prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for State-
ment-1
(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 Is correct but Statement-11 is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 Is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
ANSWER A*
Explanation
+ÄΑ+Ä«ΡΑ×Ú«ÞËÄÞΑÚΑ£ËõÚÄΑüΑæ¨ΑTÚ«ÞËÄÞΑæΡΑ͍͊͑͒Αö¨«¨ΑõÞæΑæ¨ΑTÚËõ«Ä«½Α#ËõÚÄÃÄæÞΑλÄËöΑ
[ææÞμΑæ¨Α×ËöÚΑæËΑÃºΑÚê½ÞΑËÄΑ×Ú«ÞËÄÞΠΑ½ÞËΡΑæ«½½ΑæΡΑæ¨ΑÃÄ£ÃÄæΑÄΑÃ«Ä«ÞæÚæ«ËÄΑË¢Α×Ú«ÞËÄÞΑ
¢½½ÞΑû½êÞ«õ½üΑ«ÄΑæ¨ΑËÃ«ÄΑË¢Αæ¨Α[ææΑ#ËõÚÄÃÄæÞΡΑÄΑ«ÞΑ£ËõÚÄΑüΑæ¨ΑTÚ«ÞËÄÞΑæΡΑ͍͊͑͒ΑÄΑæ¨Α
Prison Manuals of the respective State Governments. (ÄΑÞææÃÄæÞΑ͊ΑÄΑ͋ΑÚΑËÚÚæΑÄΑÞææα
ment 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
ΫΫ"ËÚΑ½Ú«Ĉæ«ËÄΑ×êÚ×ËÞÞ΢Αæ¨ÚΑÄΑΑ¢öΑÃËÚΑ«ÄæÚ×Úææ«ËÄÞΑæËΑæ¨«ÞΑÙêÞæ«ËÄΠ
Interpretation 1
ϖTÚ«ÞËÄÞϖέϖ×ÚÞËÄÞΑæ«ÄΑæ¨Ú«ÄϖΑ«ÞΑΑ[ææΑÞê¶æΑêÄÚΑæ¨ΑÞõÄæ¨ΑÞ¨ê½Αλ«æÃΑ͍ΡΑÞææΑ½«ÞæμΠ
TÚ«ÞËÄÞΑÚΑ£ËõÚÄΑüΑæ¨ΑTÚ«ÞËÄÞΑæΑ͍͊͑͒ΑÄΑæ¨Α×Ú«ÞËÄΑÃÄê½ÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÚÞ×æ«õΑÞææΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑΑ
governments.
A«Ä«ÞæÚüΑË¢Α(ËÃΑą«ÚÞΑ½ÞËΑ×ÚËõ«ÞΑÚ£ê½ÚΑ£ê«ÄΑÄΑõ«ΑæËΑ[ææÞΑÄΑfbÞΑËÄΑõÚ«ËêÞΑ«ÞÞêÞΑ
concerning prisons and prison inmates. So in India, prisons are managed State Governments with their
own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons not only by virtue of Prisons Act
͍͊͑͒ΑêæΑ½ÞËΑêÞΑË¢ΑËæ¨ÚΑÚÞËÄÞΑ£«õÄΑËõΠΑ+ÄΑæ¨«ÞΑÞΑÄÞöÚΑËê½ΑΑ ΑÞΑö½½ΠΑBoth
statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
Interpretation 2
[ææÃÄæΑ͋ΑËê½ΑΑöÚËÄ£ΑêÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑêÞΑË¢ΑöËÚÞΑϕû×ÚÞÞ½üΑº×æΑæ¨ΑÞê¶æϕΠΑ½æ¨Ëê£¨Αæ¨Α
Þæ«ËÄΑ͎͒ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑTÚ«ÞËÄÞΑæΡΑ͍͊͑͒ΑõÞæÞΑæ¨Α×ËöÚΑæËΑÃºΑÚê½ÞΑËÄΑ×Ú«ÞËÄÞΑæËΑæ¨ΑÞææΑ£ËõÚÄÃÄæÞΑ
but it did not place the subject to them. It was the Government of India Act 1935 which resulted in the
transfer of the subject of jails
from the Central List to the control of Provincial Governments and henceforth reduced
the possibility of uniform implementation of a prison policy at the national level. Thus,
State Governments have their own rules and regulations for the day to day
administration of prisons, maintenance of prisoners, and prescribing procedures. So in this case the
answer could be C.
ÔÕÜ
https://www.mha.gov.in/en/divisionofmha/Women_Safety_Division/prison-reforms
Laxmikanth
SOURCE : ½õõéïűŝŝąąąĦÖ½Ħ¸ÝĄĦÀ×ŝïÀõïŝª·ùÐõŝɯÐïŝĝěĝĞŭěĞŝlëÀïŭ
Ý×ïſ¤õĜģĤğſěƂĠ)ĜƂĠ0ƂĠ)ĜƂĠ0Ħéª·
Q21. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements :

͊ΠΑ(ËÃΑ#êÚÞΑÚΑÚ«ÞΑêÄÚΑæ¨Α(ËÃΑ#êÚÞΑæΑÄΑWê½ÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑÄæÚ½Α#ËõÚÄÃÄæΠ
͋ΠΑb¨ΑÚË½ΑË¢Αæ¨Α(ËÃΑ#êÚÞΑ«ÞΑæËΑÞÚõΑÞΑÄΑêû«½«ÚüΑ¢ËÚΑæËΑæ¨Α×Ë½«Α«ÄΑÃ«ÄæÄÄΑË¢Α«ÄæÚÄ½Α
security.
͌ΠΑbËΑ×ÚõÄæΑ«ÄĈ½æÚæ«ËÄΑËÄΑæ¨Α«ÄæÚÄæ«ËÄ½ΑËÚÚΑέËÞæ½ΑÚÞΡΑæ¨Α ËÚÚΑr«Ä£Α(ËÃΑ#êÚÞΑ ææ½α
ions have been raised in some States.
(ËöΑÃÄüΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËõΑÞææÃÄæÞΑÚΑËÚÚæΧ
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER B
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct:Α(ËÃΑ#êÚÞϐΑ«ÞΑΑõË½êÄæÚüΑ¢ËÚΡΑĈÚÞæΑÚ«ÞΑ«ÄΑ+Ä«Α«ÄΑÃÚΑ͍͊͒͏ΡΑæËΑ
assist the police in controlling civil disturbance and communal riots.Subsequently, the concept of the volun-
æÚüΑ«æ«āÄϐÞΑ¢ËÚΑöÞΑË×æΑüΑÞõÚ½Α[ææÞΠ+ÄΑæ¨ΑöºΑË¢Α¨«ÄÞΑ££ÚÞÞ«ËÄΑ«ÄΑ͊͒͏͋ΡΑæ¨ΑÄæÚΑ
advised the States and Union Territories to merge their existing voluntary organisation into one uniform
õË½êÄæÚüΑ¢ËÚΑºÄËöÄΑÞΑ(ËÃΑ#êÚÞΠΑb¨êÞΑæ¨ΑÄæÚ½Α#ËõÚÄÃÄæΑËÞΑÄËæΑ«Úæ½üΑÚ«ÞΑ(ËÃΑ#êÚÞΠΑ
They are raised by the state governments under state acts.
Statement 2 is correct: b¨ΑÚË½ΑË¢Α(ËÃΑ#êÚÞΑ«ÞΑæËΑÞÚõΑÞΑÄΑêû«½«ÚüΑ"ËÚΑæËΑæ¨ΑTË½«Α«ÄΑÃ«Äæα
ÄÄΑË¢Α«ÄæÚÄ½ΑÞêÚ«æüΑÞ«æêæ«ËÄÞΡΑ¨½×Αæ¨ΑËÃÃêÄ«æüΑ«ÄΑÄüΑº«ÄΑË¢ΑÃÚ£ÄüΑÞê¨ΑÞΑÄΑ«ÚαÚ«ΡΑĈÚΡΑ
ü½ËÄΡΑÚæ¨ÙêºΡΑ×«Ã«ΑæΠΡΑ¨½×Α«ÄΑÃ«ÄæÄÄΑË¢ΑÞÞÄæ«½ΑÞÚõ«ÞΡΑ×ÚËÃËæΑËÃÃêÄ½Α¨ÚÃËÄüΑ
ÄΑ ÞÞ«ÞæΑ æ¨Α Ã«Ä«ÞæÚæ«ËÄΑ «ÄΑ ×ÚËææ«Ä£Α öºÚΑ Þæ«ËÄÞΡΑ ×Úæ««×æΑ «ÄΑ ÞË«ËαËÄËÃ«Α ÄΑ ö½¢ÚΑ
activities and perform Civil Defence duties.
Statement 3 is correct:Α"«¢æÄΑ ËÚÚΑr«Ä£Α(ËÃΑ#êÚÞΑλ r(#μΑ ææ½«ËÄÞΑλ ÄÞΠμΑ¨õΑÄΑÚ«ÞΑ«ÄΑ
æ¨ΑËÚÚΑ[ææÞΑõ«āΠΑTêÄ¶Αλ͏Α ÄÞΠμΡΑW¶Þæ¨ÄΑλΑ͍Α ÄÞΠμΡΑ#ê¶ÚæΑλ͋Α ÄÞΠμΑÄΑËÄΑ¨Α ææ½«ËÄΑ¢ËÚΑA£¨α
½üΡΑbÚ«×êÚΑÄΑrÞæΑ Ä£½ΑæËΑÞÚõΑÞΑÄΑêû«½«ÚüΑæËΑ ËÚÚΑ[êÚ«æüΑ"ËÚΑ¢ËÚΑ×ÚõÄæ«Ä£Α«ÄĈ½æÚæ«ËÄΑËÄΑ
the international border/coastal areas, guarding of VA/VPs and lines of communication in vulnerable area
at the time of external aggression.
Hence only two statements are correct.
SOURCE : https://dgfscdhg.gov.in/about-homeguard
ÔÕÚ
Acts
Q22. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
Action The Act under Which it is covered
1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military b¨ΑHĆ«½Α[ÚæÞΑæΡΑ͊͒͋͌

uniforms :
2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
ö«æ¨ΑΑ×Ë½«ΑËĆÚΑËÚΑÃ«½«æÚüΑËĆÚΑö¨ÄΑ
engaged in their duties :
͌ΠΑ½ÚæËÚüΑ£êÄĈÚΑö¨«¨ΑÄΑÄÄ£ÚΑæ¨Α The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

personal safety of others :
(ËöΑÃÄüΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËõΑ×«ÚÞΑÚΑËÚÚæ½üΑÃæ¨ΑΧ
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
ANSWER B
Explanation
Pair 1 is correctly matched: [æ«ËÄΑ͏ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑHĆ«½Α[ÚæÞΑæΑ͊͒͋͌Α½Ú½üΑÞææÞΑæ¨æΑ«¢ΑÄüΑ×ÚÞËÄΑ«ÞΑ

¢ËêÄΑæËΑΑêÄêæ¨ËÚ«ā½üΑêÞ«Ä£Αæ¨Α×Ë½«ΑËÚΑÃ«½«æÚüΑêÄ«¢ËÚÃÞΡΑæ¨üΑö«½½ΑΑ¨½Α£ê«½æüΑË¢ΑÄΑËąÄΑ
under this section.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: [æ«ËÄΑ͐ΑË¢Αæ¨ΑHĆ«½Α[ÚæÞΑæΡΑ͊͒͋͌Α½Ú½üΑÞææÞΑæ¨æΑÄËΑ×ÚÞËÄΑ«ÄΑ
æ¨Αõ««Ä«æüΑË¢ΑÄüΑ×ÚË¨««æΑ×½ΑÞ¨½½ΑËÞæÚêæΡΑºÄËö«Ä£½üΑÃ«Þ½ΑËÚΑËæ¨Úö«ÞΑ«ÄæÚ¢ÚΑö«æ¨ΑËÚΑ
«Ã×ΡΑÄüΑ×Ë½«ΑËĆÚΡΑËÚΑÄüΑÃÃÚΑË¢Αλæ¨ΑÚÃΑ"ËÚÞΑË¢Αæ¨ΑfÄ«ËÄμΑÄ££ΑËÄΑ£êÚΡΑÞÄæÚüΡΑ
patrol, or other similar duty in relation to the prohibited place.
Pair 3 is correctly matched:Αb¨ΑÚÃÞΑλÃÄÃÄæμΑæΡΑ͉͋͊͒ΑÞüÞΑæ¨æΑö¨ËõÚΑêÞÞΑĈÚÚÃΑ«ÄΑΑÚÞ¨Α
ËÚΑÄ£½«£ÄæΑÃÄÄÚΑËÚΑ«ÄΑ½ÚæËÚüΑ£êÄĈÚΑÞËΑÞΑæËΑÄÄ£ÚΑ¨êÃÄΑ½«¢ΑËÚΑ×ÚÞËÄ½ΑÞ¢æüΑË¢ΑËæ¨ÚÞΑ
Þ¨½½ΑΑ×êÄ«Þ¨½Αö«æ¨ΑÄΑ«Ã×Ú«ÞËÄÃÄæΑ¢ËÚΑΑæÚÃΑö¨«¨ΑÃüΑûæÄΑæËΑæöËΑüÚÞΡΑËÚΑö«æ¨ΑĈÄΑö¨«¨Α
ÃüΑûæÄΑæËΑÚê×ÞΑËÄΑ½º¨ΡΑËÚΑö«æ¨ΑËæ¨Π
Hence only two pairs are correctly matched.
https://www.i ndiacode.nic.i n/bitstream/1 23456789/237 9/1/A1923- 19.pdf

SOURCE :
½õõéïűŝŝąąąĦÖ½Ħ¸ÝĄĦÀ×ŝïÀõïŝª·ùÐõŝɯÐïŝ¤õ×ªnùÐx½ƂĝěëÖï¤õſĜĢĜĝĝěĜĤĦlª·
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ÝÕ

Ý×¸ A Strategy & Approach- ( Indian Polity and Governance)

ÝØ¸ Questions Source Type Analysis

ÝÙ¸ Important OBSERVATIONS and Suggestions

ÕÖ¸ Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and DPSPs

ØÔ¸ Salient features of Indian Constitution

ØÜ¸ Political Systems

ÛÙ¸ Emergency provisions

ÜØ¸ State Legislature

ÜÛ¸ Local Government

ÜÜ¸ Centre-State Relations

ÜÚ¸ Amendment of the Constitution

ÚÕ¸ Evolution and making of the Constitution

Ú×¸ Constitutional Bodies

ÔÝÔ¸ Government scheme/Initiative

PRELIMS: Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, Political

TOTAL NO. OF QUESTIONS: 127

TOPIC WISE QUESTIONS

QUESTIONS: 2 Evolution & making of the

Amendment to the Constitution QUESTIONS: 2 Constitutional Bodies

QUESTION: 1 QUESTIONS: 3 Elections

Emergency provisions QUESTIONS: 11

QUESTIONS: 2 Government schemes/ initiatives

Fundamental rights, Fundamental duties and DPSP

QUESTIONS SOURCE TYPE ANALY-

YEAR NO. OF QUESTIONS EASY MEDIUM DIFFICULT

Regardless of the ªÀɬ­ë­×õéõõ­ë×ªÝéõ­ª£ċ|lr*À×ĝěĝĞby changing the options and limiting

rõ×ªëªlÝÐÀõċõ­Ċõ£ÝÝÍï×ª½ÝÐÀïõÀ¤¤ÝĄ­ë¸­will remain the key to success in almost all the

Essential Materials Reference Material

The Hindu, Indian

Parliament -Total No. of Questions- 15

Various types of bills such as Money Bill,

The third statement was easy to eliminate as the issue of having

Article 110 Ë¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ½ÞΑö«æ¨Αæ¨ΑĈÄ«æ«ËÄΑË¢ΑÃËÄüΑ«½½ÞΠΑ+æΑÞææÞΑæ¨æΑΑ«½½Α«ÞΑÃΑæËΑΑ

Article 266 Article 267 Article 266

Consolidated Fund Contingency Fund Public Account

Expenditure needs Expenditure does not need parliamentary

Finance Commission is a constitutional body that mainly deals with

Q 11. Consider the following statements:

Q14. Consider the following statements :

Bill becomes an act

Α"«ÄÄΑ «½½Α«ÞΑΑæü×ΑË¢ΑAËÄüΑ «½½ΑÞΑĈÄΑ«ÄΑÚæ«½Α͉͊͊ΑλμΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠ

What is a money bill? What's the role of the Rajya Sabha in

Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and DPSPs: 23

Q1. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

Rights Outside Part III

Article 265 No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law.

Rights outside Part III is a repeated theme.

Option 2 (Abolition of Untouchability) is part of Right to Equality and not

Right Against Exploitation:

TÚË¨««æ«ËÄΑË¢ΑbÚĆΑ«ÄΑ(êÃÄΑ «Ä£ÞΑÄΑ¢ËÚΑ;ËêÚΠ Prohibition of Employment of Children in factories, etc.

Constitution and Constitutionalism

Option 3 can be eliminated as People's responsibility to the Government

Right to livelihood Right to pollution- free environment Right to privacy

Right to free education Right to health Right to shelter

Right to free legal aid Right to information Right to electricity

Ideas to be followed Non-Enforceable Limitation on Arbitrary Ã×½«Ĉæ«ËÄΑË¢ Moral obligation Creating

nÀ¸½õõÝ3êùÐÀõċšëõÀ¤Ð­ĜğŭĜģŢprotects the citizens against any discrimination by the State on the

Smart and Effective

rõëõ­¸ÀĐ­ª lë­éëõÀÝ× lÐ×ű Allocate rċïõ­ÖõÀ¤ *ùëë­×õ ɬÀëï lë­éëõÀÝ×ű

Ultimately, a strategic, well-rounded preparation combining

Q14. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

SOURCE : Lamikanth: Indian Polity- Chapter: DPSP

Nature of Rights and Duties

Regardless of the ªÀɬë×õéõõë×ªÝéõª£ċ|lr*À×ĝěĝĞby changing the options and limiting

rõ×ªëªlÝÐÀõċõĊõ£ÝÝÍï×ª½ÝÐÀïõÀ¤¤ÝĄë¸will remain the key to success in almost all the

Article 110 Ë¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΑ½ÞΑö«æ¨Αæ¨ΑĈÄ«æ«ËÄΑË¢ΑÃËÄüΑ«½½ÞΠΑ+æΑÞææÞΑæ¨æΑΑ«½½Α«ÞΑÃΑæËΑΑ

Α"«ÄÄΑ «½½Α«ÞΑΑæü×ΑË¢ΑAËÄüΑ «½½ΑÞΑĈÄΑ«ÄΑÚæ«½Α͉͊͊ΑλμΑË¢Αæ¨ΑËÄÞæ«æêæ«ËÄΠ

TÚË¨««æ«ËÄΑË¢ΑbÚĆΑ«ÄΑ(êÃÄΑ «Ä£ÞΑÄΑ¢ËÚΑ;ËêÚΠ Prohibition of Employment of Children in factories, etc.

Ideas to be followed Non-Enforceable Limitation on Arbitrary Ã×½«Ĉæ«ËÄΑË¢ Moral obligation Creating

nÀ¸½õõÝ3êùÐÀõċšëõÀ¤ÐĜğŭĜģŢprotects the citizens against any discrimination by the State on the

rõëõ¸ÀĐª lëéëõÀÝ× lÐ×ű Allocate rċïõÖõÀ¤ *ùëë×õ ɬÀëï lëéëõÀÝ×ű

+ÄΑËêÚΑËÄÞæ«æêÄæΑÞÞÃ½üΑæ¨«Þ Date of adoption of constitution

SOURCE : NCERT Class 11: Political Theory ¨ææ×΢έέöööΠÄÚæΠÄ«Π«ÄέÄÚæÞέ½έº×Þ͉͊͋Π×¢

Liberty of thought, expression, BËæΑÞË½êæΑêæΑÙê½«ĈΑ½«ÚæüΑö«æ¨Α

FïlëÖ£ÐéëõÝ·*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ž ÚêÚ«ΑfÄ«ËÄΑ 9ÞõÄÄΑ

*ÝÖéëÀ×¸Parliamentary and Presidential Systems

*Ý×ïõÀõùõÀÝ×Ð¸ÝĄë×Ö×õ is that Non-constitutional is a perfect type of

(ΑË¢Αæ¨Α[ææΑ¨ÞΑ½«Ã«æΑ×ËöÚÞΑ;Α Ruler of the country has unlimited

TË×½ΡΑ;ΠΑæ¨ΑËÃÃêÄ«æüΑ bÚÚ«æËÚü΢ΑÃÚæΑ [ËõÚ«£Äæü΢Α+æΑ¨ÞΑ«Ä×ÄÄæΑ

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