II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
SOLUTIONS
Fundamental Rights
1. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option dis the correct answer.
Statement a is correct. Arbitrariness denotes
unreasonableness and is against all norms of law and justice.
The officers have to carry out the law made by Parliament and
should not exercise any more power. Any wide discretionary
power or arbitrary power vested in the State violates Rule of
Law. Any unreasonable or arbitrary action is considered to
be illegal. Therefore, it can be nullified by a court of law
Statement b is correct. As per UN, rule of law is a principle
of governance in which all persons, institutions and entities,
public and private, including the State itself, are accountable
to laws. These laws need to be in consistent with international
human rights norms and standards. Liberty and civil rights
are considered as the main feature of the rule of law.
Statement c is correct. One of the essences of rule of law is
that the citizens should be able to enforce the rights that are
recognised and the courts must be sufficiently empowered
for that purpose. It is said that, to promote the supremacy
of law, a system of strong, independent and impartial courts
is mandatory. For this, the courts should have the power of
judicial review.
Statement d is incorrect. Administrative Law deals not only
with conferring of powers on the officers, but also focuses on
controlling the powers of the government. It is Administrative
Law that makes it possible for the Courts to strike down any
arbitrary exercise of power by the Government. Thus, Indian
Administrative Law has benefited from Rule of Law by way
of establishing judicial review of administrative action to
ensure that administration acts in accordance with law.
2. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Affirmative actions are taken
to eliminate deep rooted social inequalities. Sometimes it
is necessary to treat people differently in order to ensure that
they can enjoy equal rights. For instance, disabled people
may justifiably demand special ramps in public spaces so
that they get an equal chance to enter public bmldmgs.
These should not be seen as infringements of equality but
as enhancement of equality. Thus, providing free primary
healthcare services to all is not affirmative action.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Social, economic and
political inequalities all over the world have been protected
by customs and legal systems that prohibited some sections
of society from enjoying certain kinds of opportunities and
rewards. Formal equality requires that the government and
the law of the land should stop protecting these systems
of inequality. The Constitution prohibits discrimination on
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Thus,
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providing special ramps for disabled people forms part of
affirmative action and does not come under formal equality.
Pair 3 is correctly matched. In India, many face lack of equal
opportunities from both lack of facilities and prevailing
customs in the society. Women, for instance, may not enjoy
equal rights of inheritance in some groups, or there may
be social prohibitions regarding their taking part in certain
kinds of activities, or they may even be discouraged from
obtaining higher education. The state should make policies
to prevent discrimination or harassment of women in public
places or employment, to provide incentives to open up
education or certain professions to women, and other such
measures. Thus, providing equal inheritance rights to
women is providing equality of opportunities.
3. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct. Marxism argues that the root cause of
entrenched inequality was private ownership of important
economic resources such as oil, or land, or forests, as well
as other forms of property. It points out that such private
ownership did not only make the class of owners wealthy, it
also gave them political power. Thus, there should be public
ownership of important resources and property.
Statement 2 is correct. Liberalism upholds the principle of
competition as the most efficient and fair way of distributing
resources and rewards in society. They believe that while
states may have to intervene to try and ensure a minimum
standard of living and equal opportunities for all, this cannot
by itself bring equality and justice to society. Competition
between people in free and fair conditions is the most just
and efficient way of distributing rewards in a society.
Statement 3 is correct. One common agreement between
Gandhism and Marxism is the final goal of stateless and
classless society, whereas means to achieve these final goals
differ. For Marx, the State is an instrument of oppression
and an organ of the bourgeoisie that only works for
maintaining class dominance. Similarly for Gandhi, in an
ideal state, there is no State. In the ideal state, there is no
political power because there is no State.
4. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement a is correct: According to libertarians, if the state
tries to provide equality, then it may result in the increased
interference in individual liberty. More focus on equality
leads to distribution of resources which may result in loss of
individual liberty.
Statement b is incorrect: More liberty does not always
result in more economic equality as all people does not have
same potential and opportunities. This may result in high
inequality in society. Example - rising inequality in highly
liberal western societies.
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
Statement c is correct: Liberty and equality are not always
opposed to each other. Sometimes liberty opens new avenues
of social mobility which eventually helps in bringing more
equality in the society. Hence, an ideal society is such where
both liberty and equality complement each other.
Statement d is correct: The Constitution of India promotes
harmonious relationship between liberty and equality.
In India, the fundamental rights enjoy supremacy over
the Directive Principles. But the Parliament can amend
the fundamental rights for implementing the Directive
Principles, so long as the amendment does not damage or
destroy the basic structure of the Constitution.
5. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Fundamental Rights can be suspended during the operation
of a National Emergency except the rights guaranteed by
Articles 20 and 21. Further, the six rights guaranteed
by Article 19 can be suspended only when emergency is
declared on the grounds of war or external aggression
(i.e., external emergency) and not on the ground of armed
rebellion (i.e., internal emergency).
Option a is incorrect. Their application to the members of
armed forces, paramilitary forces, police forces, intelligence
agencies and analogous services can be restricted or
abrogated by the Parliament (Article 33).
Option b is incorrect. Fundamental Rights are defended
and guaranteed by the Supreme Court. Hence, the aggrieved
person can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily
by way of appeal against the judgement of the high courts.
Option d is incorrect. Most of Fundamental Rights are
directly enforceable (self-executory) while a few of them
can be enforced on the basis of a law made for giving effect
to them. Such a law can be made only by the Parliament and
not by state legislatures so that uniformity throughout the
country is maintained (Article 35).
6. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Fundamental rights available to both citizens and foreigners
(except enemy aliens) -
Article 14 - Equality before the law and equal protection of
laws.
Article 20 - Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
Article 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty.
Article 21A - Right to elementary education.
Article 22 - Protection against arrest and detention in
certain cases.
Article 23 - Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
forced labour.
Article 24 - Prohibition of employment of children in
factories etc.
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Article 25 - Freedom of conscience and free profession,
practice and propagation of religion.
Article 26 - Freedom to manage religious affairs.
Article 27 -- Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion
of any religion.
Article 28 Freedom from attending religious instruction or
worship in certain educational institutions.
Important Tips
Fundamental rights available only to citizens and not to
foreigners -
Article 15 - Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of
religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Article 16 - Equality of opportunity in matters of public
employment.
Article 19 Protection of six rights related to freedom
- (a) of speech and expression; (b) to assemble peaceably
and without arms; (c) to form associations or unions; (d) to
move freely throughout the territory of India; (e) to reside
and settle in any part of the territory of India; and (f) to
practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation,
trade or business.
Article 29 - Protection of la guage, script and culture
of minorities.
Article 30 - Right of minorities to establish and administer
educational institutions.
7. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The phrase 'reasonable restriction connotes that the
limitation imposed upon a person in enjoyment of the right
should not be arbitrary or of an excessive nature, beyond
what is required in the interest of the public. The restrictions
must be there but they need to be reasonable in nature. Eg.
Restrictions mentioned under Article 19(2) considered to be
reasonable restrictions over Article 19.
Important Tips
The freedoms enumerated in Art.19 ( 1) am those great
and basic rights, which are recognized as the natural
rights inherent in the status of a citizen. But none of these
freedoms is absolute or uncontrolled, for ench is liable to
be curtailed by laws made or to be made by the state to the
extent mentioned in clauses (2) to (6) of Art 19. Clauses (2)
to (6) recognize the right of the State to make laws putting
reasonable restrictions in the interests of the general public,
security of the State, public order, decency, or morality and
for other reasons set out in those sub-clauses.
8. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Fundamental Rights act as limitations
on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the
legislature. In short, they aim at establishing 'a government
of laws and not of men. They prevent the establishment
of an authoritarian and despotic rule in the country, and
protect the liberties and freedoms of the people against
the invasion by the State
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
Statement 2 is incorrect. They are not absolute but qualified.
The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them.
However, whether such restrictions arc reasonable or not
is to be decided by the courts. Thus, they strike a balance
between the rights of the individual and those of the society
as a whole, between individual liberty and social control.
Statement 3 is correct. Some of them are available only to
the citizens while others are available to all persons whether
citizens, foreigners or legal persons like corporations or
companies, e.g., equality before law and equal protection of
laws (Article 14).
9. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement (a) and (c) are correct: A right is essentially
an entitlement or a justified claim. It denotes what we are
entitled to as citizens, as individuals and as human beings.
In most cases the claimed rights are directed towards the
state.
Statement (b) is incorrect. Duties are not the claims of
citizens against the state. But it is the rights which acts as the
claims of citizens against the state.
Statement (d) is correct. At the same time, duties are the
moral obligations on the all the citizens towards state.
They compel us to think not just of our own personal needs
and interests but to defend some things as being good for all
of us.
10. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statements l, 2 and 4 are correct. The idea of 'Rule of law'
includes -
Equality before law - Every person, irrespective of any
differences on the basis of gender, caste, place of birth
and the like, has to be accorded same treatment in the
exercise of law.
Absence of arbitrary power - Th.is would require that all
authorities vested with powers of the State are bound by
laws themselves in the exercise of their powers,
The primacy of the rights of individual - Rule of law
has to ensure that individuals' liberty and civil rights are
protected from the State's and private individual' actions.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Rule oflaw requires the government
which has to be responsible to citizens, not the other way
round.
11. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect. The system of checks and balances
enables e ·'.·, of the three branches of government to limit
the power, of the others. This way, no one branch becomes
too powerful.
Option b is incorrect. The system of checks and balances
is antithetical to the system of separation of powers and
not division of powers. Separation of powers refer to the
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segregation of powers between various organs of the state,
viz., the executive, legislature and the judiciary. The concept
of division of powers refer to the segregation of powers
between various levels of the government, viz., the centre,
the states and local governments.
Option c is correct. Article 13 is an example of the system
of checks and balances in India. It related to concept of
judicial review where the judiciary can strike down laws
made by the parliament that are deemed ultra-vires to the
constitution.
Option d is incorrect. Single party majority in the
parliament weakens the system of checks and balances as
the executive and legislature both are controlled by a single
entity or a single political party.
Knowledge Base: The concept of separation of powers was
given by French philosopher Montesquieu.
12. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct. In the theory of social justice, the
proportionate justice principle indicates rewarding people
in proportion to the scale and quality of their effort. Thus,
proportionality provides balance to the principle of equal
treatment.
Statement 2 is correct. One of the principles of social justice
is the principle of treating equals equally. It is considered that
all individuals share certain characteristics as hPman brings.
Therefore, they deserve equal rights and cq\1:.d t1n1ln1ent.
The principle of treating equals equally rcqLtire th:,t people
should not be discriminated agai.nst on grounds of class,
caste, race or gender. They shonld be judged on the basis of
their work and acti.ons. Hence, d;,e ,i. .nd equal consideration
must be given to aH individuals,
Statement 3 is cm·r.ecL According to the ideal of social
justice, even nondiscrimin,1\i{;n b,:tween people and
rewarding them proportionately h> their efforts might not be
enough. The principle of taking a<:count of the special needs
of people is required. It docs not neces,.adly contradict the
principle of equal treatment so much as extend it because the
principle of treating equals equally could imply that people
who are not equal in certain important respects could be
treated differently.
13. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement l is incorrect. Creamy layer is a category under
Other Backward Classes category. They do not get the benefit
of the OBC reservation. Creamy layer is the section of people
in the Other Backward Classes who are considered socially
advanced.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 'creamy layer' concept
was introduced in the Supreme Court's Indra Sawhney
judgment in 1992. The court found it necessary to identify
sections of backward classes who were already "highly
advanced socially as well as economically and educationally".

II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
This was called creamy layer. The judgment directed the
State governments to identify the 'creamy layer' and exclude
them from the purview of reservation. The Constitution
does not define the term creamy layer.
Statement 3 is correct. The Supreme court while quashing
a Haryana government notification of August 17, 2016
held that economic criterion cannot be the sole basis for
deciding the creamy layer from among the OBCs.
14. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 341, 342 and 342A
the President initially includes various groups/ tribes/
castes into the central lists identifying SC, ST and Socially
& economically Backward Classes (SEBC) respectively. Any
exclusion or modification thereafter is done by the decision
of the Parliament (not the President).
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Supreme court while ruling
on the validity of Maratha reservation case in Jaishree
Laxmanrao Pati v The Chief Minister and others, said that
there is to be only 1 list identifying SEBCs - the central list,
which will be modified by the Parliament. Further it said
that the states can only make recommendations regarding
inclusions and exclusions. But recently the Parliament passed
the 127th Constitutional Amendment Bill (adding Article
342A(3)), which clarified that the Parliament will only
modify the Central List and that each state has the power to
create and modify its State List regarding identification of
SEBCs in their territory.
Statement 3 is correcL The Supreme Court in Jaishree
Laxmanrao Pati v The Chief Minister and others stated, as
well as according to Artide,; 15 and 16 of the Constitution
•· once identified, each state has the right to take steps for
advancement and welfare of vulnerable groups like SC, ST
and SEBCs. These measures will be applicable within the
territc-dal limits of that state. There was no confusion or
debate about the right of states to take affirmative action.
Only the power to identi.fy SEBCs was under debate.
15. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct. The Nagaraj case (2006) in Supreme
Court relates to the issue of reservatfons in promotions for
the SC and ST communities.
Statement 2 is correct. The court in M. Nagaraj case had
upheld the application of creamy layer principle to members
of the Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe communities in
promotions. In this case applying the creamy layer concept
in SC/ST reservation in promotions, the Supreme court
reversed its earlier stance in the Indra Sawhney case (1992),
in which it had excluded the creamy layer concept on SCs/
STs (that was applicable on OBCs).
Statement 3 is correct. The five-judges Bench in Nagaraj
case upheld the constitutional validity of all 77'\ 81 st , 82 nd ,
and 85 th constitutional amendments enabling reservation
of SC/ST communities in promotions, but made certain
directives for the states:
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State is not bound to make reservations for SC/ST in the
matter of promotions.
It stated that if a State wants to provide reservation to the
SC/ST communities in promotions:
It has to collect quantifiable data showing backwardness
of the class.
Show inadequacy of representation of that class in
public employment in addition to compliance of Article
335.
State needs to ensure that its reservation provision does
not lead to excessiveness- breaching the ceiling-limit of
50%, or destroying the creamy layer principle.
Statement 4 is incorrect: In Jarnail Singh v L.N. Gupta
(2018) case, SC refused to refer the Nagaraj judgment to a
higher bench but later altered the decision by saying that
states will not be required to present quantifiable data of
backwardness of SC/ST communities.
Important Tips
The term 'Creamy layer' was first mentioned in the
Supreme Court's landmark judgment in the Indra Sawhney
case (1992).
Supreme Court in 2020 ruled that reservation in the matter
of promotions in public posts is not a fundamental right,
and a state cannot be compelled to offer the quota if it
chooses not to
16. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement l is incorrect. The concept of 'equality before
law' connotes the absence of any special privileges in favour
of any person. The tern, also rneans equal subjection of all
persons to the ordinary law of the land.
Statement 2 is correct. The concept 'equal protection
of law' connotes the equality of treatment under equal
circumstances, both in the privileges conferred and liabilities
imposed by the laws. This also means the similar application
of the same laws to all persons who are similarly situated.
Statement 3 is correct. The term 'equal protection of law'
also means that the like should be treated alike without any
discrimination.
17. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The 'equality before law' connotes:
(1) Statement l is correct: The absence of any special
privileges in favour of any person.
(2) The equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law of
the land administered by ordinary law courts.
(3) No person (whether rich or poor, high or low, official or
non-official) is above the law.
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
The 'equal protection of laws' on the other hand, connotes:
(l) The equality of treatment under equal circumstances.
(2) The similar application of the ,q;inH' laws to all pernon~
who are similarly situated. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
(3) The like ,!1vu!J be treated alike without any
discrimination. Thus, the former is a negative concept
while the latter is a positive concept.
However, bolh of lhem aim at establishing equality of
legal status, opportunity and justice. Hence, statement 3
is correct.
18. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Statement l is incorrect. Supreme court has held that both
right to reservation and the right to reservation in promotion
is not a Fundamental Right.
Statement 2 is correct. In the famous Manda! Commission
aka Indra Sawhney v. Union of India case, the nine-judge
bench of the Supreme Court recognized the inequality
among different castes and the held that it would be legal
for the state to categorise backward classes as 'backward' and
'more backward' for the purpose of providing reservation.
Statement 3 is incorrect. In the Indra Sawhney vs UOI
( 1992) case, the Supreme court held that the backwardness
of a community cannot be determined exclusively with
reference to economic criteria. Backwardness is determined
v11 the basis of 'social cond1t10n'. Educational and economic
backwardness can be used as a tool to determine social
backwardness.
19. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option dis the correct answer.
Right to equality (Articles 14- 18) includes the following:
Equality before law and equal protection of laws (Article
14).
Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion,
race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).
Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(Article 16).
Abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its
practice (Article 17).
Abolition of titles except military and academic (Article
18).
20. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer,
Article 16 states that "no citizen shall, on grounds only of
religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence
or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against
in respect or, any employment or office under the State".
The provision is supplemented by the other clauses in the
Constitution that guarantee equality.
However, Article 16(3) of the Constitution provides an
exception by saying that Parliament may make a law
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"pr<>.srribing" a requirement of residence for jobs in a
particular state. This power vests solely in the Parliament,
not state legislatures.
In 2002, the Supreme Court invalidated appointment of
government teachers in Rajasthan in which the state selection
board gave preferenLe tu "ayylicants belonging to the district
or the rural areas of the district concerned".
In 2019, the Allahabad High Court struck down a
recruitment notification by the UP-Subordinate Service
Selection Commission which prescribed preference for
wvmcn who are "original residents" of the UP alone.
21. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct. Article 16 - Right to equal
opportunity is available only in case of public employment
and not private employment. Article 16 provides for equality
of opportunity for all citizens in matters of employment or
appointment to any office under the State. However, the
Supreme Court has said that the right tu 1eser valion is not a
fundamental right.
Statement 2 is correct. The Right to assemble peacefully
is provided under Article 19. As per the recent Supreme
Court. Judgement, Article 19 can now be enforced even
against persons other than State or its instrumentalities. Thus
right to assemble peacefully is protected against inclividual
action as well.
22, Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The term 'untouchability' has
not been defined either in the Constitution or in the
Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955.
Statement 2 is correct. In 1976, the Untouchabilily
(Offences) Act, 1955 was comprehensively amended and
renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 to
enlarge the scope 8nd make penal provisions more stringent.
Statement 3 is correct. The Supreme Court has held that
the right under Article 17 is available against private
individuals and it is the constitutional obligation of the
State to take necessary action to ensure that this right is not
violated.
23. Soluliou: ( <l)
Exp) Option d is the correct answt:r,
Statement 1 is incorrect. Freedom of speech is a qualified
right. Qualified right is where the state can lawfully interfere
under certain circumstances as laid down in the constitution
or as the need maybe.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Abolition of untouchubility is an
absolute right. Absolute rights arc rights whid, 1..auuol be
limited in any way. An absolute right is a legally enforceable
right; a right to act or refuse to act that is at the sole discretion
of the person possessing the right.
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
24. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Article 18 abolishes titles and makes four provisions in that
regard:
(a) It prohibits the state from conferring any title (except a
military or academic distinction) on anybody, whether
a citizen or a foreigner (Statement l is incorrect).
(b) It prohibits a citizen of India from accepting any title
from any foreign state.
(c) A foreigner holding any office of profit or trust under
the state cannot accept any title from any foreign state
without the consent of the president.
(d) No citizen or foreigner holding any office of profit or
trust under the State is to accept any present, emolument
or office from or under any foreign State without the
consent of the president.
Statement 2 is correct. In 1996, the Supreme Court upheld
the constitutional validity of the National Awards-Bharat
Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri.
It ruled that these awards do not amount to 'titles' within the
meaning of Article 18 that prohibits only hereditary titles of
nobility.
25. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Statement l is incorrect: In Balaji Raghavan vs Union of
India case, the supreme court of India held that 'the Bharat
Ratna and the Padma awards cannot be categorized under
Article 18(1) as they are not titles but merely an honorary
award',
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Padma Awards Committee
is headed by the Cabinet Secretary and includes Home
Secretary, Secretary lo the President and four to six eminent
persons as members. The recommendations of the committee
are submitted to the Prime Minister and the President of
India for approval.
Statement 3 is correct. The nomination process is open to the
public. Even self-nomination can be made. The government
allows common citizens to submit nominations for Padma
Awards. The nominations, when invited, can be submitted
online on the official Padma Awards website, padmaawards.
gov.in.
Statement 4 is incorrect. All persons without distinction
of race, occupation, position or sex are eligible for these
awards. However, Government servants including those
working with PSUs, except doctors and scientists, are not
eligible for these Awards
26. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The Constitution of India allows
prescribing residence as a requirement for jobs in a
particular state. Article 16 (3) of the Constitution of India
provides an exception by saying that Parliament may make
a law "prescribing" a requirement of residence for jobs in
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a particular state. However, this power vests solely in the
Parliament, and not state legislatures.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 16 of the Constitution of
India provides for equality of opportunity for all citizens in
public employment only. Article 16 (1) states that there shall
be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating
to employment or appointment to any office under the State.
Further, Article 16 (2) says that, no citizen shall, on grounds
only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth,
residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated
against in respect or, any employment or office under the
State.
27. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement a is correct. The Right to form association under
Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution ofindia not only includes
the right to start an association or union but also to continue
with the association or union as such. Further, it covers the
negative right of not to form or join an association or union.
Statement b is correct. Reasonable restrictions can be
imposed on the exercise of this right by the State on the
grounds of sovereignty and integrity of India, public order
and morality.
Statement c is incorrect. The right to obtain recognition of
the association is not a fundamental right. So, it is not part
of right to form association which is a Fundamental right.
Statement d is correct. Article 19(1) (c) states that all
citizens have the right to form associations or unions or
cooperative societies. It is applicable to Indian citizens only
and not to foreigners.
28. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect. The freedom to travel abroad has
been adjudged by the Supreme Court to be a part of Right to
Life and Liberty under Article 21 (and not article 19) in the
Maneka Gandhi v/s Union of India case, 1978.
The right to move freely within the Indian territory is
protected under Article 19.
Option b is incorrect. The freedom to freely conduct trade
and commerce throughout the territory of India has been
protected under Article 301 and not Article 19. Article 301
says that no state can frame laws/ rules that disadvantage
trade and commerce of a trader from 1 part of India with
respect to traders of that state.
Option c is correct. Article 19(l)(g) protects the right to
practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade
or business.
At the same time, the State can make any law relating to,
1. the professional or technical qualifications necessary for
practising any profession or carrying on any occupation,
trade or business, or
2. the carrying on by the State, or by a corporation owned
or controlled by the State, of any trade, business,
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
industry or service, whether to the exclusion, complete
or partial, of citizens or otherwise
Option d is incorrect. The protection of citizens against
Forced labour and its forms like Begari has been provided
by the constitution under Article 23 (Prohibition of Traffic
in Human Beings and Forced Labour) and not Article 19.
29. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement a is correct: The safeguards provided for a person
under JJunilive detention under Article 22 are not available
to enemy aliens. For persons under punitive detention,
following rights are conferred -
1. Right to be informed ot the grounds of arrest.
2.. Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner.
3. Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24
hours, excluding the journey time.
Statement b is correct: The Parliament has exclusive
authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons
connected with defence, foreign affairs and the security of
[ndia. Both the Parliament as well as the state legislatures can
concurrently make a law of preventive detention for reasons
connected with the security of a state, the maintenance of
public order and the maintenance of supplies and services
essential to the community.
Statement c is incorrect: A person arrested under a
preventive detention law does not have a right to be
produced before a magistrate within 24 hours. That right
is available only to persons arrested or detained under a
punitive detention law.
Statement d is correct: As per Article 22, the preventive
detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless
advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended
detention. The board is to consist of judges of a high court.
Knowledge Base: Arrest and detention under first part of
Article 22 do not cover civil arrests.
30. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
In a significant ruling in January, 2020, the Supreme Court
had said that access to the Internet is a fundamental right
under Article 19 of the Constitution. The bench said that
access to Internet is a fundamental right under Article 19
of the Constitution, subject to some restrictions. It said
that, magistrates, while passing prohibitory orders, should
apply their mind and follow doctrine of proportionality. It
also clarified that Section 144 CrPC (prohibitory orders)
cannot be used indefinitely to suppress freedom of speech
and expression and difference of opinion.
31. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement l is incorrect. Unlawful Activities (Prevention)
Act does not contain provision for preventive detention of
any individual.
Practicebook----- -----------------lllll
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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
The stated purpose of the National Security Act of 1980 is
"to provide for preventive detention in certain cases and for
matters connected therewith".
Statement 2 is correct. The amendments to the existing Act
redefine "Who may commit terrorism ", establishing that
under the Act, the Centre may designate an organization as
a terrorist organization if it commits or participates in acts
of terrorism, prepares for terrorism, promotes terrorism, or
is otherwise involved in terrorism. The Act also additionally
empowers the government to designate individuals as
terrorists on the same grounds.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Under UAPA, both Indian and
foreign nationals ,811 be charged. The offenders will he
charged in the same manner whether the act is performed in
a foreign land, outside India.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The Act also paves the way for the
National Investigation Agency (NIA) to seize property as part
of investigations into terror cases. Also, while the existing
Act provides for investigation of cases to be conducted by
officers of the rank of Deputy Superintendent or Assistant
Commissioner of Police or above. The amended Act now
additionally empowers the officers of the NIA to investigate
cases - of the rank of Inspector or above.
32. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct. Right to Protest is a constitutional
right enshrined in Article 19(1) (a), Article 19(1) (b) and
Article 19(1) (c) of the Indian Constitution. Supreme Court
in its recent order in the farm laws protest in Delhi also
stated that farmers have a constitutional right to continue
with their protest.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Like other fundamental rights,
right to protest is also not absolute and also subject to
reasonable restrictions mentioned under Article 19(2) and
19(3) on the following grounds;
1. ln the interests of the sovereignty & integrity of India,
2. The security of the State,
3. Friendly relations with foreign States,
4. Violation of Public order,
5. Decency or morality or in relation to Contempt of
court, defamation or incitement of an offence
The grounds of restrictions based on Violation of public
order can be reasonable only when there is evidence that
protesters will incite lawless or disorderly acts and that such
acts are likely to occur.
Statement 3 is correct. In the Shaheen Bagh judgement,
Supreme Court (SC) upheld the right to peaceful protest
against the law but also cleared that public ways and public
spaces cannot be occupied and that too indefinitely.
Important Tips
Article 19 provides the right to assemble peacefully
without arms limited to reasonable restrictions.
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
33. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect. Right to be Forgotten also includes
the right to take down a court order. In its order in the
Jorawer Singh Mundy case 2021, the Delhi HC also noted
that where a court order is demanded to be taken down, the
court will be required to examine the right to privacy of the
petitioner on one hand, and the right to information of the
public and maintenance of transparency in judicial records
on the other hand.
Option b is incorrect. There is no law in India that at
present recognize and provides for the right to be forgotten.
However, the Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 recognised
this right. Section 20 of the Bill gave an individual the right
to restrict or prevent the continuing disclosure of their
personal data when such data ( 1) has served the purpose
for which it was collected, or is no longer necessary for said
purpose; (2) was made with the conseut of individual, which
consent has since been withdrawn; or (3) was made contrary
to the PDP Bill or any law in force. However, the provision
made this right enforceable only on an order passed by the
adjudicating officer appointed under the Bill.
Option c is incorrect. The right to be forgotten has been
recognised as a statutory right in the European Union
(not USA) under the General Data Protection Regulation
(GDPR), and has been upheld by a number of courts in the
United Kingdom, and in Europe.
Option d is correct. The right to be forgotten and the right
to be left alone are "inherent aspects" of the right to privacy
as per a Delhi HC judgement of 2019.
Important Tips
The 'right to be forgotten' is the right to have publicly
available personal information removed from the internet,
search, databases, websites or any other public platforms,
once the personal information in question is no longer
necessary, or relevant.
--------~--------~
34. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Supreme Court has held that failure on the part of
government hospitals to provide timely medical treatment
to a person in need of treatment results in violation of
fundamental right guaranteed under Article 21 (right to
life). It is the obligation of the state to ensure the creation of
congenial conditions for good health.
35. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Option a is incorrect. Sedition law was originally drafted
in 1837 by Thomas Macaulay, but was inexplicably omitted
when the Indian Penal Code (IPC) was enacted in 1860. It
was later added in 1870 under Section 124A by an amendment
introduced by Sir James Stephen.
Option b is correct. Section 124A of the IPC defines sedition
as an offence committed when "any person by words, either
ml-----------
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation,
or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or
contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection
towards the government established by law in India".
Disaffection includes disloyalty and all feelings of enmity.
However, comments without exciting or attempting to
excite hatred, contempt or disaffection, will not constitute
an offence under this section.
Option c is correct. Sedition is a non-bailable offence under
the Section 124A. Punishment ranges from imprisonment up
to three years to a life term, to which fine may be added.
Option d is correct. A person charged under this law is
barred from a government job. They have to live without
their passport and must produce themselves in the court at
all times as and when required.
36. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement l is correct. Recently, the Supreme court said
that the right to health is a fundamental right guaranteed
under Article 21 of the Constitution. Right to health
includes affordable treatment. The Bench said the State and
local authorities should either make more provisions for
affordable treatment in their hospitals or there shall be cap
on the fees charged by the private hospitals in exercise of the
powers under the Disaster Management Act
Statement 2 is correct. The imposition of president's rule
or State emergency does not affect citizen's Fundamental
rights.
37. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The Supreme court has held that speedy trial is an inalienable
right under Article 21 of the constitution and hence no
person shall be deprived of his life and liberty without the
procedure of law and the procedure of law must be 'fair',
'reasonable', and 'just'.
Article 21 comes under the category of the right to freedom.
38. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement a is incorrect. Article 22 (2) provides that: Every
person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be
produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of
twenty-four hours of such arrest. However, this provision
is applicable for punitive detention and not preventive
detention.
Statement bis correct. Article 22 authorizes the Parliament
to prescribe the maximum period for which a person can
be detained in any classes of cases under a preventive
detention law.
Statement c is correct. The Parliament as well as the state
legislatures have authority to make a law on preventive
detention for reasons connected with the security of a state,
the maintenance of public order and the maintenance of
supplies and services essential to the community.
--------Practice book
H INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
Statement d is correct. Protection under a preventive
detention law, under Article 22, is available to both citizens
as well as foreigners. lt states that the grounds of detention
shoL1ld be communicated to the cletenu. However, the facts
considered to be against the public interest need not be
disclosed. The cletenu should also be afforded an opportunity
to make representation against the detention order.
39. Solution: (cl)
Exp) Option dis the correct answer
Statement l is incorrect. This act empowers the Central
Government and State Governments to detain a person to
prevent him/her from acting in any manner prejudicial to the
security ofindia, the relations oflndia with foreign countries,
the maintenance of public order, or the maintenance of
supplies and services essential to the community.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the act, the maximum
period of detention is 12 months.
The order can be made by the District Magistrate or a
Commissioner of Police under their respective jurisdictions,
but the detention should be reported to the State Government
along with the grounds on which the order has been made.
No such order shall remain in force for more than twelve
clays unless approved by the State Government.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The NSA, 1980 provides that 'the
Central Government or the State Government can prevent a
person from acting in any manner prejudicial to the defence
of India, the relations of India with foreign powers, or
the security of India, and for this purpose the appropriate
authority can detain such person.'
The act explicitly mentions that 'person' includes foreigner.
40. Solution: (cl)
Exp) Option cl is the correct answer.
Statement l is incorrect. Section 144 CrPC empowers a district
magistrate to issue orders to prevent and address urgent cases
of apprehended danger or nuisance. An order passed under
this can remain in force for more than one month. However,
any order passed under Section 144 cannot remain in force
for more than two months from the date of the order, unless
the state government considers it necessary. Even then, the
total period cannot extend to more than six months.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Supreme Court has upheld the
constitutionality of Section 144 of the CrPC. However, the
court held that the restrictions under sec 144 of the CrPC
cannot be used to suppress legitimate expression and are
subject to judicial scrutiny.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Temporary Suspension of
Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Public Service) Rules
under the Telegraph Act, 1985 governs the suspension of
Internet. According to these Rules only the Home Secretary
of the Union or a state can pass an order to shut down the
internet. The order must include the reasons for decision.
41. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Practicebook--------------------------------------------111
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
The fundamental right to freedom of conscience is protected
under Article 25 of the Constitution. Freedom of conscience
is inner freedom of an individual to mould his relation with
God or Creatures in whatever way he desires. Article 25 also
protects an individual's right to freely profess, practice and
propagate religion.
The Supreme Court in its various judgements has declared
Right to privacy, right to health and right to speedy trial as
part of Article 21.
42. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Statement l is correct. The supreme court has held that the
freedom of speech and expression and the freedom to practice
any profession or carry on any trade, business or occupation
over the medium of internet enjoys constitutional protection
under article 19 (1).
Statement 2 is incorrect. Kerala had become the first state
in 2017 to declare access to Internet "a basic human right".
43. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
After the Indian Independence, when the Constitution of
India came into force on 26th January, 1950, the right to
property was included as a 'fundamental right' under Article
19(l)(f) and Article 31 in Part III, making it an enforceable
right.
Parliament passed the Constitution 44th Amendment
which made right to property an ordinary legal right and
constitutional right under Article 300-A.
44. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
The Right against Exploitation is enshrined in Articles 23
and 24 of the Indian Constitution.
Statement l is correct. Article 23 prohibits traffic in
human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar
forms of forced labour.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Abolition of untouchability and
prohibition of its practice is provided under the Right to
Equality in Article 17.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Cultural and Educational Rights
(Article 29 and 30):
Article 29 provides for the protection of language, script
and culture of minorities.
Article 30 provides for the right of minorities to
establish and administer educational Institutions.
Statement 4 is correct. Article 24 prohibits the employment
of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or
other hazardous activities like construction work or railway.
But it does not prohibit their employment in any harmless or
innocent work.
45. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement l is incorrect. As per Section 43D(5) of the
Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act,1967 bail cannot be
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
granted to a suspect if the court is of the opinion that there
are reasonable grounds to believe that the charges are prima
facie true.
Statement 2 is correct. Due to section 43D(5), bail becomes
extremely difficult to get under Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Act, 1967. Also, a supreme court judgement
in Watali case has clarified that the court considering bail
should not examine the evidence too deeply, but must go by
the prosecution version based on broad probabilities. This
means that the onus is on the accused to show that the
case is false but without inviting the court to evaluate the
available evidence.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Parliament has exclusive authority
to make laws on preventive detention for reasons connected
with defence, foreign affairs and the security of India. The
Constitution has divided the legislative power with regard
to preventive detention between the Parliament and state
Legislatures.
Important Tips
Under Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act,1967 both
Indian and foreign nationals can be charged. It will be
applicable to the offenders in the same manner, even if
crime is committed on a foreign land, outside India.
46. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct. A religious denomination is a sub-
group within a larger religious organisation that follows a
common faith, practice, has an identity and traditions.
Article 26 talks about religious denomination and their
rights.
The Supreme Court held that a religious denomination must
satisfy three conditions:
(a) It should be a collection of individuals who have a system
of beliefs (doctrines) which they regard as conducive to
their spiritual well-being;
(b) It should have a common organisation; and
(c) It should be designated by a distinctive name.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The supreme court has held that
"Devotees of Ayyappa do not constitute a separate religious
denomination.". The 5 judges bench observed that barring
the entry of women, when they are in the menstruation
age, to the Sabarimala temple was not an essential part of
the religion. Denying Hindu women entry into the temple
violated their fundamental right to practice religion.
Statement 3 is correct. In the legal framework, the doctrine
of essentiality is a doctrine that has evolved to protect the
religious practices that are essential or integral and does not
violate any fundamental right.
47. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement l is incorrect: Article 27 lays that no person shall
be compelled to pay any taxes for promotion or maintenance
mJlf---------------------------------------------Pradicebook
i1Foru111WA'I
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
of any particular religion or religious denomination. But it
does not prohibit levying of a fee as the purpose of a fee is
for the secular administration of a religious denomination.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 26 states that every religious
denomination has the right to own and acquire movable and
immovable property.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 25 gives all persons the
freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice
and propagate religion. All persons include foreigners as
well.
48. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Implying from Article 27, the State
should not spend the public money collected by way of tax
for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion.
This provision prohibits the State from favouring, patronising
and supporting one religion over the other. This means that
the taxes can be used for the promotion or maintenance of
all religions.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under Article 28, no religious
instruction shall be provided in any educational institution
wholly maintained out of State funds. Also, religious
instructions are not completely prohibited in institutions
receiving aid from the State. They are permitted on a
voluntary basis. A person's consent is needed in such cases.
49. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Article 25 says that all persons are equally entitled to freedom
of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and
propagate religion.
Option a is incorrect. Right to propagate under Article 25
does not include right to convert another person to one's
own religion. Forcible conversion impinge on the 'freedom
of conscience' available to all the persons alike.
Option b is incorrect. Article 25 covers not only religious
beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals).
Moreover, these rights are available to all persons-citizens
as well as non-citizens.
Option c is incorrect. According to Article 26 and not Art
25, every religious denomination or any of its section shall
have right to establish and maintain institutions for religious
and charitable purposes. Article 25 guarantees rights of
individuals while Article 26 protects collective freedom of
religion.
Option d is correct. Article 25 covers not only religious
beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals).
Important Tips
The rights under Art 25 are subject to public order,
morality, health and other provisions relating to
fundamental rights.
50. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
Statement l is incorrect. Presently the linguistic minorities
are identified on a state-wise basis thus determined by
the state government whereas religious minorities are
determined by the Central Government.
Statement 2 is correct. Under Article 29, any section of
the citizens residing in any part of India having a distinct
language, script or culture of its own, shall have the right to
conserve the same. Supreme court held that the scope of this
article is not restricted to minorities alone. This is because of
the use of the word 'section of citizens' in the article includes
minorities as well as majority.
Statement 3 is correct. The term minority is not defined
in the Constitution of India. But National commission for
minorities act, 1992 defines a minority as "a community
notified as such by the Ct:ulrnl government." Government
of India has declared six religions namely, Muslims,
Christians, Sikhs, Buddhist and Parsis (Zoroastrian) and Jain
as religious minorities in India.
51. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct. Linguistic minorities have not been
defined in the Constitution or by any statute. They get
defined when their mother tongue differs from regional
language of the area.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India (Article
350 A) provides that every state must provide primary
education and not secondary education in mother tongue to
children of linguistic minorities.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Status of linguistic minorities are
identified by the state government /Union Territory on the
basis of Census data.
52. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct. Article 29 grants protection to both
religious minorities as well as linguistic minorities.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 30 grants all minorities
(religious and linguistic) the right to establish and
administer educational institutions of their choice. But these
institutions are not free from all government regulations.
The general laws of the land relating to national interest,
national security, social welfare, public order, morality,
health, sanitation, taxation etc., applicable to all.
53. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The right to property was deleted from the list of
Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978. It
is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the
Constitution.
54. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct. Only the Fundamental Rights
guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
Article 32 and not any other right like non-fundamental
constitutional rights, statutory rights, and customary
rights and so on. In other words, the Supreme Court, under
Article 32, cannot determine a question that does not
involve Fundamental Rights. Article 32 cannot be invoked
simply to determine the constitutionality of an executive
order or a legislation unless it directly infringes any of the
fundamental rights.
Statement 2 is correct. Parliament can empower any other
court to issue directions, orders and writs of all kinds.
However, this can be done without prejudice to the above
powers conferred on the Supreme Court. Any other court
here does not include high courts because Article 226 has
already conferred these powers on the high courts.
Statement 3 is incorrect. In case of the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
is original but not exclusive. It is concurrent with the
jurisdiction of the high court under Article 226. It vests
original powers in the high court to issue directions, orders
and writs of all kinds for the enforcement of the Fundamental
Rights. It means when the Fundamental Rights of a citizen
are violated, the aggrieved party has the option of moving
either the high court or the Supreme Court directly.
55. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct. Habeas Corpus is a Latin term which
literally means 'to have the body of'. It is an order issued by
the court to a person who has detained another person,
to produce the body of the latter before it. The court then
examines the cause and legality of detention. It would set the
detained person free, if the detention is found to be illegal.
Statement 2 is correct. The writ of habeas corpus can be
issued against both public authorities as well as private
individuals.
Statement 3 is correct. The writ is not issued where the:
detention is lawful
the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court
detention is by a competent court
detention is outside the jurisdiction of the court
Statement 4 is incorrect. Supreme Court and High Courts
can issue the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition,
certiorari and quo-warranto. Only in the case of Quo-
warranto, it can be sought by any interested party and not
necessarily by the aggrieved person. In case of Habeas
Corpus, it can be sought by aggrieved person or his family
or his friends and not by any interested party.
56. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
The supreme court, and High courts have power to issue
writs in the nature of habeas corpus, quo warranto ,
mandamus , certiorari ,prohibition etc., under Arts. 32 and
226 respectively.
--El
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
Statement l is correct. The Supreme Court can issue
writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights
and not for other purposes. The high court, on the other
hand, can issue writs not only for the enforcement of the
fundamental rights but also for other purposes.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The concept of writs has been
borrowed from English Law, where these laws were known
as 'Prerogative writs.
57. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Statement l is incorrect. Article 35 lays down that the
power to make laws, to give effect to certain specified
fundamental rights shall vest only in the Parliament and
not in the state legislatures. This provision ensures that
there is uniformity throughout India with regard to the
nature of those fundamental rights and punishment for their
infringement.
Statement 2 is correct. A person can move the High Court
by an ordinary suit or under Article 226 (writ jurisdiction
of high court) in case of violation of rights Outside Part
III of the constitution.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 24 prohibits the
employment of children below the age of 14 years in any
factory, mine or other hazardous activities like construction
work or railway. But it does not prohibit their employment
in any harmless or innocent work.
58. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. There is no specific or express
provision in the Constitution that authorizes the executive to
declare martial law. It is implicit in Article 34 under which
martial law can be declared in any area within the territory
of India.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 34 empowers the Parliament
to indemnify any government servant or any other person
for any act done by him in connection with the maintenance
or restoration of order in any area where martial law was in
force. The Act of Indemnity made by the Parliament cannot
be challenged in any court on the ground of contravention
of any of the fundamental rights.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Martial law affects only
Fundamental Rights. Unlike national emergency, it does not
affect Centre-state relations, distribution of revenues and
legislative powers between centre and states, and the tenure
of the Parliament.
59. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct. Article 35 of the Constitution states
that the legislature of a state shall not have powers to make
laws for prescribing punishment for those acts that are
declared to be offences under the fundamental rights. These
include untouchability (Article 17) and traffic in human
beings and forced labour (Article 23). This provision ensures
lmlf----------------------------------------------Practicebook
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
that there is uniformity throughout India with regard to the
nature of those fundamental rights and punishment for their
infringement.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 35 also extends the
competence of the Parliament to make a law on the matters
of Fundamental Rights, even though some of those matters
may fall within the sphere of the state legislatures (i.e., State
List).
60. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Fundamental Rights can be suspended during the
operation of a National Emergency except the rights
guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21.
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the scope
of Article 359 in two ways. Firstly, the President cannot
suspend the right to move the Court for the enforcement
of fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21.
Secondly, only those laws or associated executive action
which are related with the emergency are protected from
being challenged in a court of law.
61. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The natural justice mainly focuses on the following:
1) An opportunity for fair hearing
2) One cannot be a judge in his own cause
3) The decision-making authority must act unbiased
Important Tips
Although the Constitution of India does not mention the
term 'Natural Justice' anywhere, its principles are applied
in various parts:
a. According to Article 14 any violation of natural justice
is equivalent to violation of equality.
b. The introduction of due process by the Supreme Court
under the Article 21 of the Constitution has brought
the principles of natural justice into Article 21.
62. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement l is correct: Fundamental Rights are not absolute
but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions
on them. However, whether such restrictions are reasonable
or not is to be decided by the courts. Thus, they strike a
balance between the rights of the individual and those of
the society as a whole, between individual liberty and social
control.
Statement 2 is correct: Fundamental Rights are defended
and guaranteed by the Supreme Court. Hence, the aggrieved
person can directly go to the Supreme court, not necessarily
by way of appeal against the judgment of the high courts.
Statement 3 is correct: Most of the fundamental rights are
directly enforceable (self-executory) while a few of them
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
can be enforced on the basis of a law made for giving effect
to them. Such a law can be made only by the Parliament and
not state so that uniformity throughout the
country is maintained (Article 35).
Statement 4 is incorrect; Their application to the members of
armed forces, para-military forces, police forces, intelligence
agencies and analogous services can be restricted or
abrogated by the Parliament (Article 33).
63. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Article 15 provides that state shall not discriminate against
any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex
or place of birth. The use of word 'only' here means that
discrimination on other grounds is not prohibited.
However, when these conditions are accompanied by some
other conditions then state can discriminate. For example,
only on basis of caste, state cannot provide discriminatory
reservation policy but caste backwardness can become
eligible ground for the enactment of discriminatory
legislation by the state.
The state is permitted to make any special provision for the
advancement of any socially and educationally backward
classes of citizens or for the scheduled castes and scheduled
tribes.
64. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Option a is incorrect: In 1995, the Supreme Court, in
Dalwant Singh v State of Punjab, held that mere sloganeering
which evoked no public response did not amount to sedition.
Option bis correct: In the landmark 1962 Kedar Nath Singh
case, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of
the sedition law, it attempted to restrict its scope for misuse.
The court held that unless accompanied by an incitement
or call for violence, criticism of the government cannot be
labelled sedition. Further, seven principles in the Kedar
Nath Singh ruling specify situations in which the charge of
sedition cannot Le applied.
Option c is incorrect: Verdict in Kesavananda Bharati case
was delivered on 24th April 1973 by a thin majority of 7:6
wherein the majority held that any provision of the Indian
Constitution can be amended by the Parliament, provided
that such amendment did not change the Constitution's basic
structure. Thus, concept of 'basic structure' came because of
this verdict.
Option dis incorrect: In I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu,
a nine-member bench of Supreme Court held that ninth
schedule items are not immune to judicial review as it is part
of the constitution.
Important Tips
Sedition, which falls under Section 124A of the Indian
Penal Code, is defined as any action that brings or attempts
to bring hatred or contempt towards the government of
India. This was inserted into the Section 124A of IPC in
1870, by the British.
Practicebook---------------------------------------------1111
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
65. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answelt'
Statement l is correct: Reservation for Scheduled Castes,
Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to
as vertical reservation. It applies separately for each of the
groups specified under the law.
Statement 2 is correct: Horizontal reservation refers to
the equal opportunity provided to other categories of
beneficiaries such as women, veterans, the transgender
community, and individualo with disabilities. cuttiHg
through the vertical categories.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 1G(4) of the Constitution
contemplates vertical reservation while Article 15 (3) of the
Constitution contemplates horizontal reservation.
Article 15( 4) and 16(4) of the Constitution provides the State
and Central Governments to reserve seats in government
services for the members of the SC and ST.
Article 15(3) makes it possible for the state to create
special provisions for protecting the interests of women and
children.
Important Tips
The Supreme Court had ruled that if a person belonging
to an intersection of vertical-horizontal reserved category
had secured scores high enough to qualify without the
vertical reservation, the person would be counted as
qualifying without the vertical reservation, and cannot be
excluded from the horizontal quota in the general category.
66. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option e is the correct answer.
Statement l is incorrect: Right to equality under Article
14 says that the state shall not deny to any person equality
before law or the equal protection of the laws within the
territory of India. Thus, this right is available only against
the state but not the private individuals.
Statement 2 is correct: The supreme court held that the
right under Article 17 is available against private individuals
also and it is the constitutional obligation of the state to take
necessary action to ensure that this right is not violated.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 23 prohibits traffic in human
beings, beggar (forced labour) and other similar forms of
forced labour. It protects the individual not only against the
state but also against private persons.
Statement 4 is correct: Article 15 prohibits the state and
individuals both from discriminating any citizen only on the
ground of religion, race, sex, place of birth or any of them
in having access to public places such as parks, clubs, wells,
tanks or roads maintained out of the state's funds.
Important Tips
Article 15, 1'7, 23 and 24 are available against private
individuals/ corporations and state while rest other rights
are available against only state.
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
67. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct: Under Article 17, Untouchability" is
abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The term 'untouchability' has not
been defined either in the constitution nor in the protection
civil rights act, 1955. However, Supreme court has defined
it as a social practice among Hindu's when a person
solely on the basis of his/her birth looked down upon and
discriminated wrongly.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The constitution does not provide
the prescription of the punishment rather the Protection of
Civil rights act, 1955 prescribes punishment for the practice
of 'untouchability'.
Important Tips
Representation of people's act 1951 also prescribes practice
of 'untouchability' as a ground for the disqualification
of a person from the election to the parliament or state
legislature.
68. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option dis the correct answer
Statement a is incorrect: Article 19(2) imposes reasonable
restrictions on the basis of sovereignty and integrity of
India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign
States, public order, decency or morality or in relation to
contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
Statement b is incorrect: In determining the reasonableness
of statute, the court should see both to the nature of the
restriction and procedure prescribed by the statute for
enforcing the restrictions on the individual freedom. Not
only substantive but also procedural provisions of a statute
also enter into the verdict of its reasonableness.
Statement c is incorrect: The reasonableness of a restriction
has to be determined in an objective manner and from the
standpoint of the interests of the general public and not from
the point of view of persons upon whom the restrictions are
imposed or upon abstract considerations.
Statement dis correct: Every citizen has the right to reside
and settle in any part of the territory of the country. The
State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of
freedom of residence on two grounds- (a) the interests of
the general public and (b) the protection of interests of any
scheduled tribes.
69. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement l is incorrect: For a group to be termed as a
'Religious Denomination' for the purposes of Article 26
of the Constitution, following three conditions have to be
satisfied:
it should be a collection of individuals with common set
of spiritual/ religious beliefs (doctrines)
it should have a common organisational structure
mlr--------------------------------------------Practicebook
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
it should be designated by a distinctive name.
All three must be fulfilled.
Statement 2 is correct: There are only 3 'reasonable
restrictions' to the collective religious freedom rights
provided under Article 26, as mentioned in the constitution:
public order
morality (scope vis a vis Article 25 currently under
consideration)
health
Other provisions related to fundamental rights are a
restriction on rights guaranteed under Article 25, not
Article 26.
Statement 3 is correct: The freedom to manage religious
affairs is provided by Article 26. This Article gives the right
to every religious denomination, or any section thereof, to
exercise the rights that it stipulates. However, this right has
to be exercised in a manner that is in conformity with public
order, morality, and health. Clause (a) of Article 26 gives a
religious denomination the right to establish and maintain
institutions for religious and charitabie purposes.
70. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement l is correct. Article 33 empowers the Parliament
to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the
members of armed forces, para-military forces, police forces,
intelligence agencies and analogous forces. The expression
'members of the armed forces' also covers such employees of
the armed forces as barbers, carpenters, mechanics, cooks,
chowkidars, bootmakers, tailors who are non-combatants.
Statement 2 is correct. The power to make laws under
Article 33 is conferred only on
Parliament and not on state legislatures. Accordingly,
the Parliament has enacted the Act (1950), the Navy
Act (1950), the Air Force Act (1950), the Police Forces
(Restriction of Rights) Act, 1966, the Border Security Force
Act and so on.
Statement 3 is correct. Any law made by Parliament under
Article 33 cannot be challenged in any court on the
ground of contravention of any of the fundamental rights.
A parliamentary law can also exclude the court martial
from the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the high
courts, so far as the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is
concerned.
71. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Overweight male cabin crew are allowed to get promotion
in the national airlines but their women colleagues who gain
weight are penalised.
In the above situation, the Fundamental Right under Article
16 of the Constitution oflndia is violated. Article 16 provides
for equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of
employment or appointment to any office under the State.
No citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
any employment or office under the State on grounds of
only religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or
residence. In this case the person is being discriminated
based on her sex only.
72. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct: - Article 29 in the Constitution of
India provides for the Protection of interests of minorities.
Article 29 provides that any section of the citizens residing
in any part of India having a distinct language, script or
culture of its own, shall have the right to conserve the same.
Statement 2 is correct: - No citizen shall be denied admission
into any educational institution maintained by the State or
receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion,
race, caste, or language (Article 29).
Statement 3 is correct: - Cultural and Educational Rights
safeguards the rights of linguistic, cultural, and religious
minorities. Articles 29 and 30 deals with the cultural and
educational rights of Indian citizens. Fundamental Rights
under Article 15, 16, 19, 21, Article 29 and Article 30 are
available only to Citizens of India and not to foreigners.
73. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) provides
the right to remedies for the enforcement of fundamental
rights. This makes the fundamental rights real. A mere
declaration of fundamental rights in the Constitution is
meaningless, useless and worthless without provisions of
enforcement, in case of violation. That is why Dr. Ambedkar
called Article 32 as the most important article of the
Constitution- 'an Article without which this constitution
would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution
and the very heart of it'.
74. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Statement l is incorrect. The International Covenant
on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) is a
multilateral treaty adopted by the United Nations General
Assembly (UNGA) on 16 December 1966 and it came into
force from 3 January 1976.
Statement 2 is correct. India ratified the treaty on 10 April
1979.
Statement 3 is correct. ICESCR (and its Optional Protocol),
Universal Declaration of Human Rights, and International
Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) are part of
International Bill of Human Rights.
Practicebook---------------------------------------------,DJ
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
Important Tips
The ICESCR aims to ensure the protection of economic,
social and cultural rights. It aims to ensure:
the right to self-determination of all peoples (article l);
the right to non-discrimination based on race, colour,
sex, language, religion, political or other opinion,
national or social origin, property, birth or other status
(article2);
the equal right of men and women to enjoy the rights
in the ICESCR (article 3);
the right to work (articles 6-7);
the right to form and join trade unions (article 8);
the right to social security (article 9);
protection and assistance to the family (article 10);
the right to an adequate standard of living (article 11);
the right to health (article 12);
the right to education (articles 13-14);
and the right to cultural freedoms (article 15)
75. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The following Fundamental rights are being violated in the
above instance -
Article 17 within Right to Equality abolish any form of
Untouchability, so in this case discouraging children of caste
groups associated with scavenging from pursuing education
is a form of untouchability.
Article 19 (f) within Right to Freedom i.e., it provides
for the right to practice any profession or to carry on any
occupation, but in this case, the people were being forced to
their former job and they were denied other jobs which is
their right to practice any profession they want.
Article 24 within Right to Exploitation also prohibits
the employment of children below 14 years of age in
hazardous factories. In this case nothing is being done to
prohibit the employment of children in these factories and
by discouraging them to pursue education, these children
have no option to work in these hazardous activities of
scavenging. So, this right is also being violated.
Not Article 30 as it is related to minorities, but Article
29 of Cultural and Educational right is being violated as
according to this right no children can be denied admission
into any educational institution maintained by the State or
receiving aid out of State funds.
The Indian Constitution does not recognize property
right as a Fundamental Right. In the year 1977, with the
enactment of the 44th amendment the right to acquire, hold,
and dispose of property as a Fundamental Right. However, in
another part of constitution, Article 300(A) was inserted to
affirm that no person shall be deprived of his property save
by authority of law. The result is that the right to property as
a fundamental right is now substituted as a statutory right.
II INDIAN POLITYAND GOVERNANCE
76. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement a is incorrect: - An individual is provided a
number of rights. However, not all of them could be called
as Fundamental Rights. The Constitution listed some of
the very essential rights that would be specially protected
and called them 'Fundamental Rights. There may be other
ordinary legal rights e.g. right to property, right to vote.
Statement b is incorrect: - Fundamental Rights are different
from other rights available to us. While ordinary legal
rights are protected and enforced by ordinary law. However,
fundamental rights are protected and guaranteed by the
constitution.
Statement c correct: - The word fundamental suggests
that these rights are so important that the Constitution has
separately listed them and made special provisions for their
protection. The Fundamental Rights are so important that
the Constitution itself ensures that they are not violated by
the government. Fundamental Rights are protected and
guaranteed by the constitution of the country.
Statement d is incorrect: - Fundamental Rights are
not absolute but qualified or subjected to reasonable
restrictions. They can be suspended during the operation
of a National Emergency except the rights guaranteed by
Articles 20 and 21. They are not sacrosanct or permanent.
The Parliament can curtail or repeal them but only by a
constitutional amendment act and not by an ordinary act.
Moreover, this can be done without affecting the 'basic
structure' of the Constitution. However, whether such
restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the
courts. Thus, they strike a balance between the rights of
the individual and those of the society as a whole, between
individual liberty and social control.
77. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
With regard to cultural and educational rights, Article
30 dearly provides that all the minorities shall have the
right to establish and administer educational institutions of
their choice. In fact, in Judgement 2007 Malankara Syrian
Catholic college case, Supreme Court specified that these
institutions can admit eligible students of their choice and
to set up reasonable fee structure. They can also reserve seats
for students of their community, but it nowhere mentions
that it will only allow the children of those communities
who have opened the educational institution. These cultural
and educational rights either talk about any section has the
right to preserve its culture or language, or the linguistic and
religious minorities can establish educational institutions of
their choice. This right does not mention any obligation
on government ·schools to ensure the children of minority
groups will be introduced to their belief and culture.
78. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. In order to ensure equality of all
religions, Government does not levy tax on the religious
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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
endowment. However, it levies fee, as levying a fee is not
prohibited. Fee is used to control the secular administration
and not to promote any religion.
Statement 2 is correct. Under fundamental right of right to
equality, Article 16 clearly guarantees that the Government
will not discriminate on the basis of religion in giving
employment .
Statement 3 is incorrect. Freedom of religion is subject to
certain limitations. The government can impose restrictions
on the practice of freedom of religion in order to protect public
order, morality and health. This means that the freedom of
religion is not an unlimited right. The government can
interfere in religious matters for rooting out certain social
evils. For example, in the past, the government has taken
steps banning practices like sati, bigamy or human sacrifice.
79. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Liberty is the state of being free within society from
oppressive restrictions imposed by authority on one's
behaviour or political views.
Statement l is incorrect. Negative liberty (and not positive
liberty) is 'freedom from' constraints. Negative liberty is
the absence of obstacles, barriers or constraints. One has
negative liberty to the extent that actions are available to one
in this negative sense.
'Negative liberty' seeks to define and defend an area in which
the individual would be inviolable. This is an area in which
no external authority can interfere. It is a minimum area that
is sacred and in which whatever the individual does, is not
to be interfered with.
Example: choice of what clothes to wear in different situations
Statement 2 is incorrect. Positive liberty is the 'freedom to'
achieve your goals and Jive life as you want.
Positive liberty is the possibility of acting - or the fact
of acting - in such a way as to take control of one's life
and realize one's fundamental purposes. Positive liberty
recognises that one can be free only in society (not outside
it) and hence tries to make that society such that it enables
the development of the individual whereas negative liberty is
only concerned with the inviolable area of non-interference
and not with the conditions in society.
The main implication of this definition is that negative
liberty implies a small government as there are less laws
and constraints passed and positive liberty requires a forge
state which provides a welfare system and other means for
people to be able to achieve their goals.
80. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Universal adult franchise means that the right to vote should
be given to all adult citizens without the discrimination of
caste, class, colour, religion or sex,
Universal Adult Franchise is based on equality of rights
which is a basic principle of democracy. It demands that
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
the right to vote should be equally available among all. To
deny any class of persons from exercising this right is to
violate their right to equality. In fact, the spirit of democracy
can be maintained only if the people are given the right to
vote without any discrimination. The exercise of right to
vote adds to the individual's self-respect, dignity, sense of
responsibility, and political and civic education. In other
words, the system of adult franchise is the bedrock of a
democratic system. People are called political sovereign
because they possess the right to vote a government into
power, or to vote a government out of power. That is why
democracy has sometimes been described as a mode of
appointing, controlling and dismissing governments by the
people.
Right to vote is not a fundamental right in India.
81. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct. To achieve equality, liberals say
that let state intervene in providing minimum welfare to
people. And when people have attained minimum standard
of living, allow competition between them and everybody
will then get wealth according to their hard work. So long as
competition is there, inequalities will not be there in the
system.
Karl Marx says the need is to have state or public control
over the resources and property of the society.
Statement 2 is correct. Socialist believe that social,
economic and political inequality are Jin ke.-l F,w <"Xample,
rich people having control over wealth leads to control
over political system and this also makes them powerful in
society. Unlike socialists, liberals do not believe that political,
economic and social inequalities are necessarily linked. They
maintain that inequalities in each of these spheres should
be tackled appropriately. Thus, democracy could help to
provide political equality but it might be necessary to also
devise different strategies to deal with social differences and
economic inequalities.
82. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Justice involves the well-being of all people.
There are the three principles of justice
a. equal treatment for equals.
b. proportionate justice
c. recognition of special needs
Pair l is correct. It is considered that all individuals
share certain characteristics as human beings. Therefore,
they deserve equal rights and equal treatment. Some of
the important rights which are granted in most liberal
democracies today include civil rights such as the rights
of life, liberty and property, political rights like the right
to vote, which enable people to participate in political
processes, and certain social rights which would include the
right to enjoy equal opportunities with other members of
the society. Apart from equal rights, the principle of treating
Practicebook----------------------------------------------alm
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
H
equals equally would require that people should not be
discriminated against on grounds of dass, caste, race or
gender. They should be judged on the basis of their work
and actions and not on the basis of the group to which they
belong. Therefore, if a male and female employee perform
the same kind of work, they should receive the same kind of
reward.
Pair 2 is incorrect. Proportionate justice is the second
principle of justice. it means rewarding people according
to the scale and quality of effort. Although equality is an
important principle but we cannot have equal treatment for
all. How will you feel if you have worked so hard for your
exams and you get the same marks as your friend who has
slept and played during exams. You will feel this is injustice.
So, justice has to be according to the merit. So, for justice
in society, equal treatment needs to be balanced with
proportionality. Therefore, the given example of Women
Working at night requiring security arrangements for them
does not best describes the proportionate justice principle.
Pair 3 is incorrect. Recognition of special needs is the third
principle of justice. Everybody cannot be treated equally.
there are people with special needs also. for example:
handicaps. these people have disabilities and cannot be
compared with others.
These sections are not provided with the special advantages
to a particular section but raise them to a level to compete
with other sections of society on equal footing.
So, physical disabilities, lack of education and health care
are some factors which are considered grounds for special
treatment. We need to recognise that if women work at night,
then security issues arise and we need to take note of that
rather than comparing them with male colleagues.
Giving marks according to the efforts made may be injustice
to a person with special needs like a disabled person. In such
circumstances to make him on equal footing with others
extra time in writing exam or/ and reservation of posts are
provided.
83. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The term 'State' has been used in different provisions of the
Constitution concerning the fundamental rights. Article 12
of the constitution has defined the term for the purposes of
Part III i.e Fundamental rights. According to it, the State
includes the following:
(a) Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive
and legislative organs of the Union government.
(b) Government and legislature of states, that is, executive
and legislative organs of state government.
(c) All local authorities that is, municipalities, panchayats,
district boards, improvement trusts, etc.
(d) All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory
authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.
Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to
include all its agencies. It is the actions of these agencies that
II INDIAN l'OU'.JJY.ANDGOVERNANCE
can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental
Rights. According to the Supreme Court, even a private
body or an agency working as an instrument of the State
falls within the meaning of the 'State' under Article 12.
84. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option dis the correct answer.
Statement l and 2 are incorrect. The difference between the
procedure established by law and due process of law is that
the due process of law gives wide scope to the Supreme Court
to grant protection to the rights of its citizens. It can declare
laws violative of these rights void not only on substantive
grounds of being unlawful, but also on procedural grounds
of being unreasonable.
Procedure Established by Law means that a law that is duly
enacted by the legislature or the concerned body is valid if it
has followed the correct procedure. Following this doctrine
means that, a person can be deprived of his life or personal
liberty according to the procedure established by law. Our
Supreme Court, while determining the constitutionality
of a law, however examines only the substantive question
i.e., whether the law is within the powers of the authority
concerned or not. It is not expected to go into the question
of its reasonableness, suitability or policy implications".
Statement 3 is incorrect. The scope of judicial review power
of the Supreme Court in India is narrower than that of what
exists in US. This is because the American Constitution
provides for 'due process of law' against that of 'procedure
established by law' contained in the Indian Constitution.
85. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option bis the correct answer.
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the
Indian Constitution from Articles 12 to 35. The Fundamental
Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution to all persons
without any discrimination. They uphold the equality of all
individuals, the dignity of the individual, the larger public
interest and unity of the nation.
Statement 1 is incon-ect. Article 33 of the Constitution
provides that Parliament (and not a state legislature) is
empowered to restrict or abrogate the Fundamental Rights
of the members of armed forces, members of forces charged
with maintenance of public order, intelligence & counter-
intelligence agencies, paramilitary forces, state police forces.
For example, Police: non-gazetted personnel from the post of
constable to Inspector are not allowed to form any kind of
union or association under the Police Forces (Restriction of
Rights) Act, 1966,
The power to make laws under Article 33 is conferred only
on Parliament and not on state legislatures.
Statement 2 is correct. Any law made to restrict the
fundamental rights of members of armed forces cannot be
challenged in any court on the ground of contravention of
any of the Fundamental Rights.
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
86. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement a is incorrect. All Fundamental rights guarantee
the rights of an individual against the state but not all are
available against the action of private individuals. For
example, the first provision of Article -15 that the state
shall not discriminate against any citizen on the grounds
of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth prohibits
discrimination only by state and not by private individuals.
While the second provision of not allowing citizens access to
shops, public place on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex
or place of birth prohibits discrimination both by state and
by private individuals. Article 19 are protected only against
state and not against private individuals.
Statement b is incorrect. These rights are binding upon all
the authority that has got power to make laws whether it be
central government or state government or local government.
Statement c is incorrect. The role of guiding the Indian
state to promote social and economic welfare is the function
of DPSPs (Directive principles of state policy) and not of
Fundamental rights.
Statement dis correct. Both the ,upreme court under Article
32 and High courts under Article 226 can issue writs for the
enforcement of Fundamental rights. However, a person can
go directly to Supreme court for his violation of fundamental
rights. It is not necessary that he can go to Supreme court
only by the way of appeal mechanism.
87. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option a is correct. Article 14 provides that the state sirnll
not deny to any person equality before the law (ll' equal
protection of laws within the territory of lndia. So, denying
the promotion of women officers is the rule ,)f faw
this article sees all person equal in the eye of law. Article 15
states that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen
on grounds only of religion, race, rnste, sex, place of birth
or any of them. But denying the promotion on the bash of
sex (women) is a violation of article l S. Axtide l.6 slates that
no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, nice, nrnte, sex,
descent place of birth, residence or any of them be ineligible
for or discriminated against in respect of any employment
or office under the state. Thus, promotion if only provided
to men and not to women is a clear violation of Article 16.
Right to undertake any profession- All citizens are given
the right to practise any profession or to carry on any
occupation, trade or business. This right only covers all the
means of earning one's livelihood. It does not prohibit any
discrimination in respect of any employment or office under
the state (this is dealt in Article 16).
88. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the con-ect answer
Statement l is incorrect. The right conferred on minorities
under Article 30 is only to ensure equality with the
majority and not intended to place the minorities in a more
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
advantageous position vis-a--vis the majority. There is no
reverse discrimination in favonr of minorities.
Statement 2 is correct. As per the second provision of
Article 29 of India constitution, no citizen shall be denied
admission into any educational institution maintained by
the Stale or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds
only of religion, race, caste, or language. This feature is not
necessarily restricted to minorities only, as it is c:ommonly
assumed to be but extended to all citizens in the country.
89. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Affirmative action refers to a set of policies and practices
within a government or organization seeking to inuease
the representation of backward groups based on their
gender, race, sex1rnlity, cree<l or nationality in areas in
which they are underrepresented such as education and
employment.
Affirmative actions in India can be categorized into 3 main
dimensions, which are given below.
Appointment and promotion in government services.
(Statement l is correct)
Reservations in public education institutions. (Statement
2 is correct)
Reservation of seats in Central and State legislatures.
The purpose of affirmative action is to establish fair access
to employment opportunities to create a workforce that is
an accurate reflection of the demographics of the qualified
available workforce in the relevant job market.
Every child to get free education cannot be called as
affirmative action, as it is provided to every child irrespective
of his/her gender, race, sexuality, caste or nationality. It is an
equality of opportunity. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
90. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the cot·.t'ecl answer
Statement l is correct: - Article ?.9 in the 1,on.~tit11tion of
India provides for the Protection of interests of minorities.
Article 29 provides that any section of the citizens residing
in any part of India having a distinct language, script or
culture of its own, shall have the right to conserve the same.
Statement 2 is correct: - No citizen shall be denied admission
into any educational institution maintained by the State or
receiving aid out of State fonds on grounds only of religion,
race, caste, or language (Article 29).
Statement 3 is correct: - Cultural and Educational Rights
safeguards the rights of linguistic, cultural, and religious
minorities .' rticles 29 and 30 deals with the cultural and
educatio;.. rights of Indian citizens. Fundamental Rights
under Article 15, 16, 19, Article 29 and Article 30 are
available only to Citizens of India and not to foreigners.
91. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Pradicebook-------------------------------------------
B,lFo.t'Ulll~
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
Statement l is correct. Article 16 of the constitution
provides for equality of opportunity for all citizens in
matters of employment or appointment to any office under
the State. Article 16(4) of the constitution explicitly clarifies
that a policy like reservation will not be seen as a violation of
right to equality. The state is permitted to make reservation
in favour of, any backward class, if they are not adequately
represented.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The text of the Preamble of the
ConF.titution of Tndia explicitly provides for equality of
status and equality of opportunity to all its citizens.
Important Tips
The Preamble -
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved
to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST
SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to
all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of
thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring
the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity
of the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth
day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT
AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONS'fJ'T'TJTION.
92. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The 44th AnH,ndment Act 1978 of
the Constitution of India inserted a 1ww artkle 300A titled
as Right to Property which wa, inade a Constitutional right
under this article. Though Ri1;ht to property is n'moved as
a Fundamental Right but it is still present as a Constitutional
right. Article 300A requires the 5tatc to follow due procedure
and authority of law to deprive a person of his or hier privale
property. This article provides restrictions on the Stat:1; that
it cannot take anybody'~ property wfthout the force of law
also interpreted can be deprived of the force of law. The word
of law here means a validly enacted law which is just, fair,
and reasonable.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In 1978, 44 11' amendment Act to
the constitution removed the right to property from the list
of fundamental rights and converted to a simple legal right
under article 300A. Necessary amendments for this purpose
were made to article 19 and article 31. It would, however,
be ensured that the removal of property from the list of
fundamental rights would not affect the right of minorities
to establish and administer educational institutions of their
choice.
93. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer,
Article 12 defines the term 'State' for the purpose of different
prnvisiom eonct:rning the fundamental rights.
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
Statement l is correct: The Supreme Court has held that the
term 'state' is wide enough to include all authorities created
by the Constitution or statute on whom powers are conferred
by law. Thus, even a private body or an agency working as
an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the
'State' under Article 12. It is not necessary that the statutory
authority should be engaged in performing governmental or
sovereign function.
Statement 2 is correct: All local authorities, that is,
municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement
trusts, etc. are included under the definition of state under
Article 12. According to List II of VII Schedule 'local
government' includes a municipal corporation, urban
improvement trust, <lhtl'l,t ho:ir<l.~, ml11i113 settlement
authorities and other local authorities for the purpose of
local self-government or village administration.
Statement 3 is incorrect: In Article 12, the expression 'other
authorities' is used after mentioning the Government,
Parliament of India, the Government and Legislature of each
of the State and all local authorities. The Madras High Court
has held that 'other authorities' could only mean authorities
exercising governmental or sovereign functions. It cannot
include persons, natural or juristic, such as, a university
unless it is 'maintained by the State'.
94. Soluti.on: (b)
Exp) Opt.ion h i6 the correct answer.
Ruk of iaw rneam; that no man is above law and also that
every person i:i subject to the jurisdiction of ordinary courts
of law irrespective of t!wir position and rank.
StakILen!: l is cmTe.:t: In .Keshavananda Bharti v. State of
Kerala, the Supreme Court !ms included the Rule of Law as
the bar;k feature of !he C,,m:tltution, In this case, though
the Supreme Court upheld tlw ;1mendlng power of the
Parliament 'Nhkh extends to every Article provided under
the Constitution but has limited thal po•Ncr by providing that
such power cannot he used in aniending the basic feature of
the Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: T\1ere ar,~ certain exceptions to rule
of law provided under the Imfom Constitution and other
laws. Public officials like ministers, local authorities, public
officers have many powers, immunities and privileges which
ordinary citizens don't have. For example, the President/
Governor is not answerable to the court of law in discharge
of his executive functions.
No criminal proceedings whatsoever can be instituted
against President or Governor of state, while he is in office.
Statement 3 is incorrect: In India, Constitutional Supremacy
prevails where the Doctrine of Separation of Powers has been
held which permits the review of the legislative acts.
Rule oflaw has no fixed articulation in the Indian constitution
though the Indian courts refer to this phrase in variety of its
judgements.
Indian constitution is the law of the land and prevails over
Judiciary, the Legislature and the Executive. These three
urgam uf lhe slate have to act according to the principles
engraved in the constitution.
Ille----------------------
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
95. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The rule of equality before law is not absolute and there are
constitutional and other exceptions to it.
Statement l is incorrect: No criminal proceedings shall
be instituted or continued against the President or the
Governor in any court during his term office. However civil
proceedings can be instituted after the expiration of two
months of delivery of notice. Thus, no civil proceedings
against the President or the Governor shall be instituted
during his term of office in any court in respect of act clone
by him in his personal capacity, whether before or after he
entered upon his office, until the expiration of two months
next after notice has been delivered to him.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 31-C is an exception to
Article 14. It provides that the laws made by the state for
implementing the Directive Principles contained only in
clause (b) or clause (c) of Article 39 (and not complete
Article 39) cannot be challenged on the ground that they are
violative of Article 14, not Article 21.
Statement 3 is correct: The foreign sovereigns (rulers),
ambassadors and diplomats enjoy immunity from both
criminal and civil proceedings. The UNO and its agencies
enjoy the diplomatic immunity
96. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Right to assemble peaceably and without arms is one of the
six rights guaranteed by Article 19 of the Constitution to
all citizens. It includes the right to hold public meetings,
demonstrations and take out processions.
Statement l is incorrect: An assembly of five or more
persons becomes unlawful if the object is to resist the
execution of any law or legal process under Section 141
of the Indian Penal Code (and not CrPC). Under Section
144 of Criminal Procedure Code (1973), a magistrate can
restrain an assembly, meeting or procession if there is a risk
of obstruction, annoyance or danger to human life, health or
safety or a disturbance of the public tranquillity or a riot or
any affray.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Section 141 of the Indian
Penal Code, as assembly of five or more persons becomes
unlawful if the object is to resist the execution of any law or
legal process. Other grounds for imposing restrictions are:
if the object is
to forcibly occupy the property of some person
to commit any mischief or criminal trespass
to force some person to do an illegal act
to threaten the government or its officials on exercising
lawful powers
97. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate
against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste,
--------Practice book
II INDIAN POUTY AND GOVERNANCE
sex or place of birth. The use of the word 'only' connotes
that discrimination on other grounds is not prohibited.
Option l is correct: The state is permitted under Article 15
to make any special provision for the advancement of any
socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for
the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. For example,
reservation of seats or fee concessions in public educational
institutions.
Option 2 is correct: The state is empowered to make any
special provision for the advancement of any socially
and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the
scheduled castes or the scheduled tribes regarding their
admission to educational institutions including private
educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the
state, except the minority educational institutions. In
order to give effect to this provision, the Centre enacted the
Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admission)
Act, 2006, providing a quota of 2 7% for candidates belonging
to the Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in all central higher
educational institutions.
Option 3 is correct: The state is permitted to make any
special provision for women and children. For example,
reservation of seats for women in local bodies or provision
of free education for children.
Option 4 is incorrect: The state is empowered to make any
special provision for the advancement of any economically
weaker sections of citizens. The Parliament of India
enacted the Constitution (103rd Amendment Act,2019)
and authorized the State to make reservations in higher
education and affairs of Public Employment solely on the
basis of economy. The act amended Article 15 and 16 of the
Constitution by inserting 15(6) and 16(6). The amendment
was made to provide for 10% reservaliu11 Lu Lhe citizens,
belonging to the Economic Weaker Section (E\A/S) category.
98. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Article 16 provides for equality of opportunity for all
citizens in matters of employment or appointment to any
office under the State. No citizen can be discriminated on
grounds of only religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of
birth or residence.
Statement l is correct: Article 16(2) states that "no citizen
shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent,
place of birth, residence shall be discriminated against any
employment or office under the State". The provision is
supplemented by the other clauses in the Constitution that
guarantee equality.
Statement 2 is incorrect: However, Article 16(3) of the
Constitution provides an exception by saying that Parliament,
not State legislatures may make a law "prescribing" a
requirement of residence for jobs in a particular state. This
power vests solely in the Parliament, not state legislatures.
99. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option bis lhe i.:orred answer.
Practicebook------------------------------------------------<111
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
The right to protest involves the exercise of two fundamental
rights: freedom of speech and expression under Article 19
(1) (a) of the Constitution and the freedom to assemble
peacefully under 19 ( 1) (b).
Article 19(l)(a) of the Indian constitution "Freedom of
speech and expression" is a fundamental right given to its
citizen against the state, which includes carrying out the
peaceful public demonstration.
Article 19( 1) (b) provides for the right to assemble peaceably
and without arms. This includes the right to hold public
meetings, hunger strikes, and the right to take out
processions.
100. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Article 30 of the Indian Constitution states the right
of minorities to establish and administer educational
institutions. It says: "All minorities, whether based on
religion or language, shall have the right to establish and
administer educational institutions of their choice:'
Statement 1 is incorrect. Any minority educational
institutions (MEis) which seek recognition from the state
but not aid from the state are subjected to regulatory
power of state with regard to syllabus prescription, academic
standards, discipline, sanitation etc. MEis which neither
seek recognition from the state nor aid from the state
can manage their own affairs, but general laws, labour law,
taxation law, industrial law etc still apply to these institutions.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The RTE 2009 mandates all
private schools to reserve 25 per cent seats to students from
economically weaker sections at the entry level.
The Supreme \.011rt in Snc:i,:ty for Un-Aided Private
Schools of Rajasthan v. Union of India held that the Right
of Children lo Free and Compulsory Jlducatlon Act, 2009
is not applicable to unaided minority schools. Thus, MEis
are not required to provide admission to children in the age
group of 6-14 years up to 25% of enrolment reserved for
economically backward section of society
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Supreme Court has ruled
that the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) for
admissions to these courses would also apply to minority -
both aided and unaided and private educational institutions.
The Constitution provides a limitation on the power of the
State to interfere with life, liberty and rights however, the
concept of limited government cannot be extended to a level
when it defeats national interest. So, providing central
examination in the form of NEET cannot be said to be
violation of the rights under Articles 19(l)(g) and 30 of the
Constitution.
101. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian honours
of India announced annually on the eve of Republic Day.
The Awards are given in three categories: Padma Vibhushan
(for exceptional and distinguished service), Padma Bhushan
II INDlANPOLITY ANDGOVERNANCE
(distinguished service of higher order) and Padma Shri
(distinguished service). The award seeks to recognize
achievements in all fields of activities or disciplines where
an element of public service is involved.
Statement l is correct: The Government of India instituted
two civilian awards-Bharat Ratna & Padma Vibhushan in
1954. The latter had three classes, namely Pahela Varg, Dusra
Varg and Tisra Varg. These were subsequently renamed
Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri in 1955.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Bharat Ratna is the highest
civilian award of the country. It is awarded in recognition of
exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any
field of human endeavour. It is treated on a different footing
from Padma Award. The recommendations for Bharat Ratna
are made by the Prime Minister to the President of India. No
formal recommendations for Bharat Ratna are necessary.
Statement 3 is correct: Padma Awards, which were
instituted in the year 1954, is announced every year on the
occasion of Republic Day except for brief interruption(s)
during the years 1978 and 1979 and 1993 to 1997.
These awards were discontinued by Janta Party government
which came to power in 1977, headed by Morarji Desai, but
were again revived by Indira Gandhi government.
Statement 4 is incorrect: All nominations received for
Padma Awards are placed before the Padma Awards
Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister
every year. The Padma Awards Committee is headed by the
Cabinet Secretary and includes Home Secretary, Secretary
to the President and four to six eminent persons as members.
The recommendations of the committee are submitted to the
Prime Minister and the President of India for approval.
102. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Article 18 of Constitution of India abolishes titles and
prohibits the government from bestowing any title on any
citizen or foreigner (except military or academic distinction)
Statement 1 is correct: The hereditary titles of nobility
conferred by colonial States, such as Maharaj a, Raj Bahadur,
Rai Bahadur, Rai Saheb, Dewan Bahaclur, and so on, are
prohibited by Article 18 because they violate the principle
of equal status for all.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In 1996, the Supreme Court upheld
the constitutional validity of the National awards. The
Supreme Court said that National Awards do not amount to
'titles' within the meaning of Article 18 that prohibits only
hereditary titles of nobility.
Therefore, they are not violative of Article 18 as the theory
of equality does not mandate that merit should not be
recognized. However, they should not be nsed as suffixes or
prefixes to the name of the awardees
103. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Diplomatic immunity is granted on the basis of two
conventions popularly called the Vienna Conventions
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
-the Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961, and the
Convention on Consular Relations, 1963.
Statement l is correct. Diplomatic immunity is one of the
principles of international law which limits the degree to
which the officials and employees of foreign governments
would be subject to the other country's authority of police
officers and judges.
Vienna Convention of 1961 under Article 34 lays down
those diplomatic agents shall be exempted from all duties
and Taxes imposed, whether personal or real, national,
regional, or Municipal. The sending State and the head of
the mission shall be exempt from all national, regional
or municipal dues and taxes in respect of the premises
of the mission, whether owned or leased, other than
such as represent payment for specific services rendered.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Vienna Convention classifies
diplomats according to their posting in the embassy,
consular or international organisations such as the UN.
A nation has only one embassy per foreign country, usually
in the capital, but may have multiple consulate offices,
generally in locations where many of its citizens live or visit.
Diplomats posted in an embassy get immunity, along with
his or her family members.
The members of the family of a diplomatic agent forming
part of his household shall, if they are not nationals of the
receiving State, enjoy the privileges and immunities specified
in Articles 29 to 36 of the Vienna Convention.
104. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option dis the correct answer.
'Habeas Corpus' literally means "to have the body of". This
writ is used to release a person who has been unlawfully
detainee! or imprisoned. By virtue of this writ, the Court
directs the person so detained to be brought before it to
examine the legality of his detention.
Habeas Corpus cannot be issued in the following cases: 1)
When detention is lawful 2) When the proceeding is for
contempt of a legislature or a court 3) Detention is by a
competent court 4) Detention is outside the jurisdiction of
the court.
The Supreme Court held that the declaration of martial law
does not ipso facto result in the suspension of the writ of
habeas corpus
A writ of habeas corpus will not lie and will be refused by a
court:
where the person or authority against whom habeas
corpus is sought is not within the territorial jurisdiction
of the court.
Where imprisonment or detention of a person is in
accordance with a decision rendered by a court of law or
by an authority in accordance with law.
105. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option bis the correct answer.
Article 22 provides for the Protection against arrest and
detention in certain cases.
II INDIAN FOUTY AND GOVERNANCE
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Article 22 confers the following rights on a person who is
arrested or the detained under the ordinary law: (i) The
right to be informed of the grounds of arrest. (ii) The right
to consult and to be defended by the legal practitioner(iii)
The right to be produced before the magistrate within a
period of twenty-four hours (iv) The right to be released afler
24 hours unless the magistrate authorises further detention.
Statements 3, 5 and 6 are incorrect
Section- 50 (2) of CrPC provides that the arrested person
has the right to get released on bail by making arrangement
for the sureties.
Article- 39A(DPSP) provides free legal aid to people in
need.
The right to keep quiet does not have any mention in any
Indian law, however, its authority can be derived from Cr PC
as well as the Indian Evidence Act.
106. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Article 23 provides for the Prohibition of traffic in human
hPings and forced labour.
Article 23(1): Traffic in human beings and the beggar and
other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any
contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable
in accordance with the law.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 23 does not prevent the
state to impose compulsory services for public purposes
like military service or social service. For this, the state is
not bound to pay.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 23 protects citizens not
only against the State but also from private citizens. The
State is obliged to protect citizens from these evils by taking
punitive action against perpetrators of these acts (which are
considered crimes), and also lalu, vu~ilive aclium tu abolish
these evils from society
Statement 3 is incorrect. In making any such service
compulsory for public purposes, the State, however, cannot
make discrimination on the basis of religion, race, caste or
class or any of them.
107. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct: Mandamus literally means 'we
command'. It is a command issued by the court lo a public
official asking him to perform his official duties that he
has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against
any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal
or government for the same purpose.
Statement 2 is correct: The writ of mandamus cannot be
issued
• Against a private individual or body;
To enforce departmental instruction that does not
poasess statutory force;
When the duty is discretionary un<l nut mandatory;
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
To enforce a contractual obligation;
Against the president of India or the state governors; and
Against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial
capacity.
108. Solution (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct. Article 22 (1) of the Indian
Constitution and Section-SO, of CrPc 1973 states that no
person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without
being informed of the offense committed by the person
being arrested.
Statement 2 is correct. ln The Case of Nandini Sathpathy
V. P.L.Dani, SC stated an accused has the right to remain
silent during the process of interrogation. It highlights
Article-20(3) of the Indian Constitution, which says
that no person accused of any offense shall be compelled
to be a witness against himself i.e., the principle of Self-
Incrimination. That means the accused has a right to remain
silent.
Statement 3 is correct. Article 22(2) of the Indian
Constitution states that every person who is arrested and
detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest
magistrate within a period of twenty-four hours of arrest
excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place
of arrest lo lhe LULU l uf Llie rnagislrale.
Statement 4 is incorrect. According to Section 26 of the
Indian Evidence Act, any confession made by any person
in the police custody cannot be used as evidence either
against the accused or in favour of the accused for any legal
release until and unless it has been proved in the immediate
presence of a Magistrate as against or in favour of a person
accused.
109. Solution (a)
Exp) Opliun a fo lhc correct answer.
Option a is correct: Article 14 says that the State shall not
deny to any person equality before the law or the equal
protection of the laws within the territory of India. The
discrimination in providing citizenship based on religion,
by government, is an infringement of Article 14 where the
government discriminated on the basis of religion thereby
violating equality amongst Indians.
110. Solution (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Under the Indian constitution, Fundamental Rights are
mentioned in the Part 3 of Articles from 12 to 35 while
directive principles are mentioned in part 4 of article 36
to 5
Statement 1 is incorrect: Directive Principles of State
Policy aim to create social and economic democracy.
Whereas Fundamental rights aim at establishing political
democracy in the country by preventing the establishment
of an authoritarian and despotic rule in the country and
protecting the liberties and freedoms of the people against
the invasion by the Stale.
------11111
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
Statement 2 is correct: Fundamental Rights are justiciable
in nature. But the directive principles are non-justiciable
in nature, that is, they are not enforceable by the courts for
their violation.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Fundamental rights do not
require any legislation for their implementation. Many
of the FRs are automatically enforced. Whereas, Directive
principles require legislation for their implementation. They
are not automatically enforced.
111. Solution (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option 1, 2 and 3 are correct: Article 12 has defined the
term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State
includes the following:
Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive
and legislative organs of the Union government.
Government and legislature of states, that is, executive
and legislative organs of state government. (Hence
Statement 3 is correct)
All local authorities, that is, municipalities, district
boards, improvement trusts, gram panchayats etc.
(Hence Statement l is correct)
All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory
authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc. (Hence
Statement 2 is correct)
Option 4 and 5 are incorrect: Political Parties as such do not
come under the definition of 'state' under article 12 When
the Supreme Court takes judicial decisions, it does not come
within the meaning of State.
Important Tips
In Rupa Ashok Hurra v Ashok Hurra case, the Supreme
Court reaffirmed and ruled that no judicial proceeding
could be said to violate any fundamental right. It was said
that when they give judicial decisions, Supreme Court do
not con1e within the meaning of State. But, while courts
perform their administrative function, they are within the
State's definition.
112. Solution (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Under the Indian constitution, Article 12 defines the
term 'State' as used in different Articles of Part HI of the
Constitution.
It says that unless the context otherwise requires the term
'State' includes the following; -
The Government and Parliament of India, i.e., Executive
and Legislature of the Union.
The Government and Legislature of each State, i.e.,
Executive and Legislature of State.
All local and other authorities within the territory of
India.
All local and other authorities under the control of the
Government of India.
1B1---------------------------------------------Practicebook
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
Option a is incorrect: This statement defines the term 'state'
in the context of the discipline of Political Science. But this
is not the definition of term 'state' that is defined by Indian
constitution.
Option c is incon-ect: This statement defines the term
nation. A nation is a community of people formed on the
basis of a common language, territory, ethnicity etc.
Option d is incorrect: A defined territory that forms a
community with shared culture and ruled by sovereign body
defines the term 'country'.
113. Solution (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement l is incorrect: Article 13 declares that all laws
that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the
fundamental rights shall be void. Parliament and the state
legislatures are clearly prohibited from making laws
that may take away or abridge the fundamental rights
guaranteed to the citizen. The Parliament can curtail or
repeal them but only by a constitutional amendment act
and not by an ordinary act. Moreover, this can be done
without affecting the 'basic structure' of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is inconect: Article 35 lays down that the power
to make laws to give effect to certain specified fundamental
rights shall vest only in Parliament and not in the state
legislatures.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 13 declares that all laws
that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the
fundamental rights shall be void. Temporary laws like
ordinances issued by the President or the State Governors
can be challenged in the courts as violation of Fundamental
Right and hence, can be declared as void.
114. Solution (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct: The expression 'equality before
law' stems from the English Common Law (British) and
the expression 'equal protection of law' stems from the
American Constitution. The concept of 'equality before law'
is an element of the concept of 'Rule of Law', propounded
by A.V. Dicey, the British jurist. While the concept of 'equal
protection of laws' has been taken from the American
Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The expression 'equality before
I.aw' is a negative concept as it implies an absence of
special privileges that favour any individual. However,
the expression 'equal protection of law' on the other
hand, is a positive concept as it simply means that there
should be equality of treatment of individuals in similar
circumstances.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Indian Constitution has accepted
both the concept of 'equality before law' and 'equal
protection of laws' under Article 1
H INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
IJ.5. Solution (c)
Option c is the crnrrect answer.
are reasonable daims of persons recognized by
and sanctioned law.
Rights are daims of a person over other fellow beings,
over the society and over the government.
Rights acquire meaning only in society. What is
recognized by Gocicty u;; rightful becomes ll1e L>asis of
rights. That is why the notion of rights chane;Ps from time
to tirne and society to society.
When the socially recognized claims are written into
law, they acquire real force. When law recognizes some
claims, they become enforceable. We can then demand
their application. When fellow citizens or the government
do not respect these rights, we call it violation or
infringement of our rights. In such circumstances citizens
can approach courts to protect their rights.
Important Tips
Kinds of Rights
Civil Rights: These arc basic rights that protect
individuals' freedom and equality, including the right
to life, liberty, and property. They ensure fair treatment
and protection from discrimination.
Natural Rights: Natural rights, also known as inherent
rights or unalienable rights, are fundamental rights
that are believed to be inherent to all individuals by
virtue of their humanity.
Social Rights: Social rights guarantee access to
essential services and benefits, such as education,
healthcare, housing, and social security, to ensure a
minimum standard of living for all members of society.
, --·~-- -·--·--·----·~--
H6. Solution (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Article 20 of Indian Constitution grants protection against
arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person.
SLalement l ls i11correct: Article '.W(prohibits enactment of
ex-post-facto laws (that imposes penalties retrnspectively).
However, this limitation is imposed only on criminal laws
and not on civil laws or tax laws. In other words, civil
liability or a tax can be imposed retrospectively.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 20 states that- No person
shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence
more than once. The protection against double jeopardy is
available only in proceedings before a court of law or a
judicial tribunal. It is not available in proceedings before
departmental or administrative authorities as they are not
of a judicial nature.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 20(states that no person
accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness
against himself (no self-incrimination). The protection
against self-incrimination extends to both oral evidence and
documentary evidence. However, it does not extend to (i)
compulsory pwJucLion of material objects, (ii) compulsion
Practice b o o k - - - - - - - -
------------DI
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
to give thumb impression, specimen signature, blood
specimens, and (iii) compulsory exhibition of the body.
Further, it extends only to criminal proceedings and not to
civil proceedings or proceedings which are not of criminal
nature.
117. Solution (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Article 1.1. grants protection to persons who are aaesled or
detained. Detention is of two types, JJarnely, punitive and
preveulive.
Statement l is correct: Preventive detention means
detention of a person without trial and conviction by a
court. Its purpose is not to punish a person for a past offence
but to prevent him from committing an offence in the near
future.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The 44th Amendment act of 1978
has reduced the period of detention without obtaining the
opinion of the advisory board from 3 months to 2 months.
However, this provision has not yet been brought into force,
hence, the original period of three months still continues.
Also, if an advisory board reports sufficient cause for an
extension, its 3--month period can also be extended.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution has divided the
legislative power with regard to preventive detention between
the Parliament and the state legislatures. The Parliament has
exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention
for reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs and the
security of India. Both the Parliament as well as the state
legislatures can concurrently make a law of preventive
detention for reasons connected with the security of a state,
the maintenance of public order and the
US. Solution (b)
Exp) Option bis the correct answer.
Most of Fundamental Rights in Indian Constitution are
available against the arbitrary action of the State, but some
are also available against the action of private inniviriuals.
Option 1 and 4 are correct:
Right to Equality Before Law (Article 14) of the Indian
Constitution guarantees that no person shall be denied
the right to equality before law or the equal protection
of law in the territory of India. This is a right that can
be claimed by any person, whether a citizen or a non-
citizen, on Indian soil. It is available only against the
state and not against the private individual.
Article 22 (Right to Protection Against Arrest and
Detention) deals with the protection against arrest and
detention in certain cases. This article is applicable to
both citizens and non-citizens. This provision extends
certain procedural safeguards for individuals in case of
an arrest. It is available only against the state and not
against the individual. •
Option 2 and 3 are incorrect:
Prnhibition of traffic in human beings and forced
labour (Article 23) explicitly prohibits human
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
trafficking, child labor, untouchability, and various other
activities related to it. It protects the individual not only
against the State but also against private persons.
Abolition of Untouchability (Article 17) abolishes
'untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form. The
Supreme Court held that the right under Article 17 is
available against private individuals.
119. Solution (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct: Fundamental Rights promote the
welfare of the individual. They promote the ideal of political
democracy. The Directive Principles of States Policy
promotes the welfare of the community. They promote the
ideal of social and economic democracy.
Statement 2 is correct: Fundamental Rights are negative as
they restrict the power of the state. The Directive Principles
of States Policy are positive as they require the State to take
certain steps.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Judiciary can declare a law as
unconstitutional and invalid if it violates the Fundamental
Rights. The courts cannot declare a law violative of any
of the Directive Principles as unconstitutional and invalid.
However, they can uphold the validity of a law on the ground
that it was enacted to give effect to a directive.
120. Solution (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option a is correct: Article 25 says that all persons are
equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to
freely profess, practice and propagate religion. The right
to propagate does not include a right to convert another
person to one's own religion. Forcible conversions impinge
on the 'freedom of conscience' guaranteed to all the
persons alike.
Option b and c are incorrect: The Supreme Court held that
the freedom of speech and expression includes the Right to
propagate one's views as well as the views of others and
Right to demonstration or picketing but not right to strike.
Important Tips
Other rights that are implicit to right to freedom of speech
are:
Freedom of the press.
heed om of commercial advertisements.
Right agalml lappi11g uf Lde!Jhonic conversation.
Right to telecast, that is, government has no monopoly
on electronic me<lia.
Right against bandh called by a political party or
organization.
Right to know about government activities.
Freedom of silence.
Right against imposition of pre-censorship on a
newspaper.
Dlll,---------------------------------------------,-Practicebook
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
121. Solution (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Article 31 C states that no law which seeks to implement the
socialistic Directive Principles specified in Article 39(b) and
39 (c) (shall be void on the ground of contravention of the
Fundamental Rights conferred by Article 14 (equality before
law and equal protection of laws) and Article 19 (protection
of six rights in respect of speech, assembly, movement, etc.).
Thus, it gives primacy to the implementation of the Directive
Principles specified in Article 39 (and (over Fundamental
Rights under article 14 and 19.
122. Solution (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Harm Principle says that people should be free to act
as they wish unless their actions cause harm to somebody
else. The Harm Principle means that there should be a
constraint on a person from acting in a way that may cause
harm to others. It was first proposed by English philosopher
John Stuart Mill. It means people should be free to act in
the way they want, however their actions should not cause
harm to somebody else. Phrase "Your freedom to swing your
fist ends where my nose begins" reflects the sentiment of the
harm principle.
Important Tips
According to 'Loss Aversion' Theory, if two choices are
put before an individual, both equal, with one presented in
terms of potential gains and the other in terms of possible
losses, the former option will be chosen.
123. Solution (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Rule of law is a concept propounded by A. V. Dicey.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The concept of Rule of Law is
borrowed from the British Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct. In Indira Nehru Gandhi V Raj
Narayan case, the Supreme Court held that the 'Rule of
Law' as embodied in Article 14 is a 'basic feature' of the
constitution.
Statement 3 is correct. The concept of 'Rule of Law' has the
following three elements or aspects:
Absence of arbitrary power, that is, no man can be
punished except for a breach of law.
Equality before the law, th~t is, equal subjection of all
citizens to the ordinary law of the land administered hy
the ur<liuary law t-uurts.
The primacy of the rights of the individual, that is, the
constitulion i, Lhc result of Lhe rights of the individual
rather than the constitution being the source of the
individual rights.
124. Solution (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Article 17 of Indian Constitution abolishes 'untouchability'
and forbids its practice in any form.
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE II
Statement l is incorrect: The term 'untouchability' has Statement l is incorrect. Martial Law is imposed to restore
not been defined either in the Constitution or in the Act. the breakdown of law and order due to any reason. Martial
However, the Mysore High Court held that the subject matter law is imposed under extraordinary circumstances like
of Article 17 is not untouchability in its literal or grammatical war, invasion, insurrection, rebellion, riot or any violent
sense but the 'practice as it had developed historically in the resistance to law.
country'. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Supreme Court held that the
Statement 2 is correct: According to the Representation of declaration of martial law does not ipso facto result in the
the People Act 1951, a person will be disqualified for election suspension of the writ of habeas corpus. However, during
to the Parliament or state legislature if he convicted of an the operation of martial law, the military authorities impose
offence punishable under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, restrictions and regulations on the rights of the civilians, can
195This Act provides for punishment for the preaching punish the civilians.
and practice of "untouchability", and for the enforcement Statement 3 is incorrect. 'Martial law' is not defined
of any disability arising therefrom. anywhere in the Constitution. It means 'military rule'.
--
125. Solution (b) Important Tips
Exp) Option bis the correct answer Comparison between National emergency and Martial
Statement l is incorrect: The right to property is a law:
-~-~----·-
Constitutional as well as legal right but not a Fundamental National Emergency Martial Law
Right. Originally, the Constitution provided for seven 1l affects not only It affects only Fundamental
Fundamental Rights. However, the Right to Property (Article Fundamental Rights but Rights (PRs)
31) was dclctccl from the list of Pun<lamental Rights by the also Centre-state relations. ,_., .....
44th Amendment Act of 197H. Tt is m~de a legal right under Government and ordinary Government and ordinary
Article 300-A in Part XII of the constitution. law courts continue. law courts suspended.
Statement 2 is correct. The Right to Property protects National Emergency can Martial law is imposed to
private property against executive action but not against be imposed only on three restore the breakdown of
legislative action. It can be regulated i.e. curtailed, abridged grounds- war, external law and order due to any
or modified without constitutional amendment by an aggression and armed reason
ordinary law of the Parliament. rebellion
1---------.-.----··-

Statement 3 is correct. In case of violation, the aggrieved
person cannot directly move the Supreme Court under
Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies including writs)
for its enforcement. He can move the High Court under
Article 226.
126. Solution (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct: There are 2 limitations imposed
as 'reasonable restrictions' to the exercise of Freedom
of Movement guaranteed under Article 19 of Indian
constitution:
interests of general public
interests of any schedulcd Lrihc.
Statement 2 i& incorrect: The freedom to leave lhc borders
of India as per an individual's will and return back, ceiling
a citizen have been covered under the expanded scope of
Article 21, by judicial activism in Maneka Gandhi case,
1978. Freedom of Movement under Article 19 covers the
freedom of Indian citizens to move freely within India only.
127. Solution (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Article 34 provides for the restrictions on fundamental
rights while martial law is in force in any area within the
territory of India. However, the expression 'martial law' has
not been defined anywhere in the Constitution.
It is imposed either in the It is imposed in some
entire country or in any part specific area of the country
of it.
--
Has specific & detailed It has no specific provision
provisions in the in the Constitution. It is
Constitution. It is explicit. implicit.
128. Solution (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The procedure established by Law would only assess
whether the legislature has followed the right procedure to
form a law and whether executive has implemented the law
in correct manner.
Under due process of law, the court would not only check
the procedurnl vuli<lity but also .::heLk. whether a Jaw is Just,
fair and reasonable.
Statement 1 is correct: The term 'procedure established by
law' has been explicitly mentioned in the India Constitution.
Article 21 states that no person shall be deprived of his
life or personal liberty except according to the procedure
established by law.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The term 'due process of law'
does not imply that laws are made/ are to be made by
the _judiciary. It simply tests the li1ws on the grounds of
reasonableness and fairness. It aims to protect individuals
against the arbitrary actions of both the executive and the
legislature.

----111

KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]

II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
129. Solution (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the
Constitution from Articles 12 to 3They are not absolute but
qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on
them.
Statement l is incorrect: Fundamental rights can be
amended by the Parliament by a constitutional amendment
but only if the amendment does not alter the basic structure
of the Constitution.
Statements 2 is incorrect: Fundamental Rights are
guaranteed by the Constitution to all persons without
any discrimination. The Fundamental Rights are meant
for promoting the ideal of political democracy and not
limiting it.
Statements 3 is correct: The Fundamental Rights are
guaranteed and protected by the Constitution of India.
They are 'fundamental' also in the sense that they are most
essential for the all--round development of individuals.
130. Solution (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Liberals uphold the principle of competition as the
most efficient and fair way of distributing resources and
rewards in society. They believe that while states may have
to intervene to try and ensure a minimum standard of living
and equal opportunities for all, this cannot by itself bring
equality and justice to society. Competition between people
in free and fair conditions is the most just and efficient way
of distributing rewards in a society.
Important Tips
Socialism advocates some kind of government
regulation, planning and control over certain areas
such as education and healthcare.
Unlike Socialists, liberals do not believe that political,
economic and social inequalities are necessarily linked.
131. Solution (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option dis correct: The Doctrine of Colorable Legislation is
used when the legislature does not possess powers to make
law 011 a particular subject but indirectly makes one. It is
also called 'Fraud on the Constitution'. The doctrine traces
its origin to the Latin maxim that, "whatever legislature
cannot do directly, it cannot do indirectly". The doctrine
was used by the Supreme Court of India in the case of
Gajapati Narayan Deo v. The State of Orissa to decide legality
of the statute enacted.
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
Important Tips
The Doctrine of Ancillary Powers implies that the
power to legislate on a topic of legislation carries with it
the power to legislate on an ancillary matter which can
be said to be reasonably included in the power given.
The Doctrine of Severability states that the whole
law or act would not be held invalid, but only those
provisions will be held invalid which are inconsistent
with the fundamental rights.
This Doctrine of Eclipse is applied when any Act/ law
violates fundamental rights. Using this doctrine, the
court makes the entire law unenforceable. Since the
Fundamental Rights overshadows the law, it is called
the doctrine of eclipse.
132. Solution (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Article 26 of the Indian Constitution deals with Freedom
to Manage Religious Affairs. This Fundamental Right
deals with the rights of religious denomination or any of its
sections.
Statement l is correct: Article 26 grants following rights to
the religious denominations (or its sections):
1. Right to establish and maintain institutions for religious
and charitable purposes.
2. Right to manage its own affairs in the matters of religion.
3. Right to own or acquire immovable property.
4. Right to administer such property in accordance with
the law.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does NOT
define the term religious denomination.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The rights granted under Article
26 are not subjected to any other Fundamental Rights. In
other words, they are not subordinate to other Fundamental
Rights.
Statement 4 is correct: The Constitution explicitly provides
that the rights granted under Article 26 are subject to public
order, health and morality.
Important Tips
The term religious denomination has been defined by the
Supreme Court of India in the Shinu- Mutt case. A religious
denomination should satisfy the following conditions
It should be a collection of individuals sharing beliefs
for their spiritual well-being.
It should have common organization.
It should be designated by a distinctive name.
133. Solution (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Article 28 deals with the Freedom of Attending Religious
Instruction.
Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect: Religious instruction can
be allowed in an institute recognized by the State and an
II INDIAN FOUTY AND GOVERNANCE
institute receiving aid from the State. However, it shall be
allowed on a voluntary basis, and nobody can be forced to
parlicipaie in the religious activities or instructions in thal
institute.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Religious instruction is not
in the institute which is administered by the
State but has been established under any endowment or
trust which requires that religious instruction shall be
imparted in such institution.
Statement 4 is correct: There is absolute prohibition in
imparting religious instruction in the institutes wholly
maintained out of the State Funds. Hence, the given statement
is correct.
134. Solution (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Article 32 provides for the 'Right to the Constitutional
Remedies' for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
Thus, an aggrieved citizen for violation of his Fundamental
Rights can approach Supreme Court of India. Dr. Ambedkar
has called this Article as the 'heart and soul' of the Indian
Constitution.
Statement l is incorrect: The Constitution of India neither
defines nor mentions the term 'basic structure'. Article
32 forms the basic structure, but it is not declared in the
Constitution itself.
Statement 2 incorrect: The Article does not empower
Supreme Court with the exclusive jurisdiction over issuing
writs. As per this Article, Parliament can empower any
other Courts to issue directions, orders and writs of all
kinds.
Statement 3 correct: Writ jurisdiction in India has been
borrowed from the English Common Law. They are called
'prerogative writs' in England.
Statement 4 is incorrect: As per Article 32, the right to move
Supreme Court cannot be suspended unless otherwise stated
in the Constitution. Article 359 states that President can
suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights during National Emergency.
135. Solution (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
All Fundamental Rights are Constitutional Rights, but
vice versa need not be true.
Option l is correct: Article 326 in part XV deals with adult
suffrage. It states that elections to the Houseof the People
and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis
of adult suffrage.
Option 2 is correct: Article 265 in Part XII states that no
tax can be levied except by the authority of law. In other
words, levying of any tax must be based on a statute and it
can only be imposed by an authority authorized under as
such under a statute.
Option 3 is incorrect: Right to free legal aid falls under
Article 21 of the Part HI of the Constitution which provides
Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
Practicebook---------------------------------------------,DJ
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
Option 4 is incorrect: Right against Untouchability has
been provided under Article 17 of Part HI of the Indian
Constitution.
Important Tips
Other important rights outside Part III of the Constitution
are:
Article 300-A (Part XII): No person shall be deprived
of his property except by the authority of the law.
Article 301 (Part XIII): Trade, commerce and
intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be
free.
136. Solution (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct: It is true that laws enacted by both
the Parliament and State legislative assembly can be struck
down by the High court if it violates fundamental rights.
Article 226 of the Indian constitution provides the high
court and Article 32 provides the supreme court - the power
of judicial review.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 13 uses wider definition of
laws, as per article 13 constitutional amendment act too
is a law. Thus, any constitutional amendment act which
contravenes the provisions of fundamental rights can be
struck down by the Supreme court and High court.
Statement 3 is incorrect: As per Article 13, a law includes
a custom or social practises having the force of law. The
Supreme Court can ban those social practices which
contravenes fundamental rights.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Executive actions by civil servants
which violate fundamental rights can be struck down by the
Supreme Court. As per Article 13, a law includes delegated
legislation such as order, bye law, rules and regulations.
137. Solution (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Article 19 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Right to
Freedom of Speech and expression.
Statement l is incorrect: The Supreme Court, in K.S.
Puttaswamy case, held that the right to privacy is protected
as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty
under Article 21 (not under Article 19).
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the Gujrat High Court, life
and liberty under Article 19 and 21 of a foreigner cannot
be invoked on his behalf when the individual himself is
not in India. Also, the rights under Article 19 are available
only to the citizens of India and not to foreigners.
138. Solution (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Americans adopted the Bill of Rights into their
Constitution in the form of 10 amendments in 179While,
Part III of the Indian Constitution contains the Fundamental
Rights (Articles 12-35).
Statement 1 is incorrect: In the United States, no person's
life and liberty can be deprived without following the due
II INDIANFOL:ITYANDGOVERNANCE
process of law, in India on the other hand the life and
persona.I liberty can be taken away only according to the
procedure established by law. Only in case of depriving
someone of the Right to Life, the Supreme Court introduced
the concept of due process of law in Maneka Gandhi Case.
Statement 2 is correct: In the United States, the First
Amendment guarantees press freedom, whereas in India, it
is implicit in Article 19(l)(a), which guarantees freedom of
speech and expression.
Statement 3 is correct: The right to property was abolished
as a fundamental right in India in 1978, but it is still a
fimdamental right in the United States and as per the
bill of rights, no property can be taken away without just
compensation.
139. Solution (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
State1m:nt l is incorrect: In the State of Madras vs. VG
Row, it has been held that the test of reasonableness should
be appliied in the context of each statute concerned and no
abstrac1t standard or general pattern of reasonableness can
be laid down as applicable to all the cases.
State1m,nt 2 is correct: In the State of UP vs. Kaushailiya,
Supreme Court has held that prevailing social values and
social needs which are intended to be satisfied by the
restrictions also help in deciding 'reasonableness' of a law.
Important Tips
Other considerations in deciding reasonableness can be:
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
Arbitrariness and excessiveness of the restrictions
Balance between restrictions imposed and the social
control envisaged.
Proximity between restrictions and the objects to be
achived.
140. Solution (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement l is incorrect: In Kesavananda Bharati case
(19'73 ), Supreme Court held that the Parliament could
amend the fundamental rights without altering the 'basic
si:ructm:e' of the Constitution. Thus, the parliament does
not have unlimited power to amend the constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: In the Golaknath v. State of Punjab,
the Supreme Court held that parliamentary powers under
Article 368 were not absolute, and that the Parliament
cannot abridge fundamental rights as they are included
um:l.er Part HI.
Statement 3 is correct: Supreme Court, in Minerva Mills
Case, upheld the validity of Article 31 C. According to Article
31 C, a law that seeks to implement any or all of the directive
principles of Part IV shall not be deemed invalid just because
it violates a citizen's fundamental rights under Article 14
(equality before the law) or Article 19. Hence, fundamental
rights can be amended to give effect to directive principles.
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
141. Solution (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 20, No person
accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness
against himself. An individual cannot be compelled to be a
witness in his own case by giving oral or written evidence.
The Code of Criminal Procedure also gives the defendant the
right to remain silent.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The right against self-incrimination
is available only during criminal proceedings and not during
civil proceedings or the proceedings which are not criminal
in nature.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The protection under Article 20
does not extend to:
1. Compulsory production of material objects
2. Compulsion to give blood specimen, thumb impression,
specimen signature.
3. Compulsory exhibition of body
Important Tips
Article 20 of the Part III of the Indian Constitution deals
with 'Protection in Respect of Conviction for Offences'.
The Article covers three rights-
No ex-post-facto law: According to this, a person shall
be convicted of any offence, except for the violation of
a law in force during the commission of an offence. It
also provides that no penalty can be levied which is
greater than the one prescribed under the law in force
at the time of commission of the offence
No double jeopardy: A person cannot be punished/
penalized more than once for the same offence
No self-incrimination: A person cannot be compelled
to be a witness against himself.
142. Solution (b)
Exp) Option bis the correct answer
The First Amendment Act, 1951 inserted Articles 31A and
31B to the Constitution. Article 31C was inserted in the
Constitution by 25th Amendment Act, 1971.
Statement 1 is correct: Article 31A saves five categories of
laws from being challenged and invalidated on the ground
of contravention of the fundamental rights conferred by
Article 14 and Article 19. It includes Acquisition of estates
and related rights by the State, Taking over the management
of properties by the State, Amalgamation of corporations,
Extinguishment or modification of rights of directors
or shareholders of corporations and Extinguishment
or modification of mining leases. It also provides the
guaranteed right to compensation in case of acquisition or
requisition of the private property by the state.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 3 lB protects the acts and
regulations included in the Ninth Schedule from being
challenged and invalidated on the ground of contravention
of any of the fundamental rights. The scope of Article 31 B is
wider than Article 3 lA as it immunizes any law included in
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
the Ninth Schedule from the Fundamental Rights (unlike
article 31A that protects only five categories). However,
the Supreme Court in its judgement in the I.R. Coelho case
(2007) ruled that even laws under the Ninth Schedule would
be open to scrutiny if they violated Fundamental Rights or
the basic structure of the Constitution.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 31 C says that no law
that seeks to implement socialistic directive principles
specified in Articles 39 (b) and 39(c), shall be declared void
on the grounds of contravention of the fundamental rights
conferred by Article 14 or Article 19.
143. Solution (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Statement l is correct: Article 18 abolishes titles and makes
provisions in that regard. The hereditary titles of nobility
like Maharaja, Raj Bahadur, Rai Bahadur, Rai Saheb, Dewan
II
Pair l is correct: It protects an individual ag:ii11st unhwful
imprisonment. A writ of habeas corpus means that the court
orders that the arrested person shouJd he presented bd<lre ii.
It can also order to set free an arrested person if the manner
or grounds of arrest are not lawful or sat'isfactory.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Mandamus writ is issued when the court
finds that a particular office holder is not doing legal duty
and thereby is infringing on the rights of an individual.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Prohibition is the writ issued by a higher
court (High Court or Supreme Court) when a lower <:ourl
has considered a case going beyond its jurisdiction.
Pair 4 is incorrect: Under Certiorari writ, the court orders a
lower court or another authority to transfer a matter pending
before it to the higher authority or court. Whereas Qno- War-
ranto means 'by what authority or warrant'. It prevents illegal
usurpation of public office by a person.
·- -- --· _____ _,

Bahadur, etc., which were conferred by colonial States are Important Tips
-·~·--· -····
banned by Article 18 as these are against the principle of Writ Jurisdiction of Writ Jutisdkt ion of High
equal status of all. Supreme Court Court
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to article 18(c), a The Supreme Court can A high cour·c can issue
foreigner holding any office of profit or trust under State only issue writs for the writs for ar iy purpose,
cannot accept any title from any foreign state without the enforcement of fundamental including the enforcement
consent of the President. No such bars for foreigners just rights. of fundamental
residing in the country.
The Supreme Court may A high court may issue
Statement 3 is incorrect: It provides that no citizen or issue writs against a person writs only against a
foreigner holding any office of profit or trust under the State or government throughout person residin g within its
is to accept any present, emolument or office from or under India's territory. territorial jur isdiction or
any foreign State without the consent of the president. against a go, ·crnmcnt or
144. Solution (d) authority locat,,d ou.tside its
territorial juris diction if the
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
cause of action arises within
The Supreme Court held that the freedom of speech and its territorial
.....
expression includes the following:
A remedy under Article A remedy undf r Article 226
(a) Right to propagate one's views as well as the views of 32 is a Fundamental Right is discretionar y, and thus
others, in and of itself, and thus a high court 1l my refuse to
(b) Freedom of the press. the Supreme Court cannot exercise its writ jurisdici.ion.
(c) Freedom of commercial advertisements. refuse to exercise its writ
jurisdiction.
( d) Right against tapping of telephonic conversation.
( e) Right to telecast, that is, government has no monopoly
on electronic media. 146. Solution (a)

(f) Right against bandh called by a political party or Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
organisation. Freedom or Liberty, as elaborated in the Preamble, is very
(g) Right to know about government activities. essential for the successful functioning of the Indian demo-
(h) Freedom of silence. cratic system. Absence of constraints is only one dimension
of freedom. Freedom is also about expanding the ability
(i) Right against imposition of pre-censorship on a
newspaper. of people to freely express themselves am! develop their
potential. Freedom in this sense is the condition in which
The Supreme Court has held that though there is Right to
people can develop their creativity and capabilities.
demonstration or picketing but not right to strike.

145. Solution (a) 147. Solution (b)

Exp) Option a is the correct answer. Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Supreme Court (under Article 32) and the high courts Article 15 provides that the State shall not discrirn i nate
(under Article 226) can issue the writs of habeas corpus, against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste,
mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo-warranto. sex or place of birth.

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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
Statements 2, 3 and 5 are corirect: There are four exceptions
to the general rule of non-discrimination mentioned under
Article 15 of Indian Constitution.
The state is permitted to make any special provision for
women and children. For example, reservation of seats
for women in local bodies or provision of free education
for children.
The state is permitted to make any special provision
for the advancement of any socially and educationally
backward classes of citizens or for the scheduled castes
and scheduled tribes. For example, reservation of seats
or fee concessions in public educational institutions.
The state is empowered to make any special provision for
the advancement of any economically weaker sections
of citizens.
Statements l and 4 are incorirect: Constitution under Arti--
de 15 does not provide any exclusive exception for the Spe-
cial provision for transgender communities with extended
scope and Special provision for physically disabled persons.
Important Tips
Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019
It introduced economic reservation by amending
Articles 15 and 16. It inserted Article 15 ( 6) and Article
16 (6) in the Constitution to allow reservation for the
economically backward in the unreserved category.
It was enacted to promote the welfare of the poor not
covered by the 50% reservation policy for SCs, STs and
Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBC).
It enables both the Centre and the states to provide
reservation to the EWSs of society.
148. Solution (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Article 29 and 30 of Indian constitution provides for the cul-
tural and educational rights available to the citizens.
Statement l is corirect: Article 29 grants protection to both
religious minorities as well as linguistic minorities. However,
the Supreme Court held that the scope of this article is not
necessarily restricted to minorities only. This is because of
the use of the words 'section of citizens' in the Article that
include minorities as well as majority.
Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court held that the
right to conserve the language includes the right to agitate
for the protection of the language.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 30 grants certain rights to
minorities, whether religious or linguistic. Under Article
30, all minorities shall have the right to establish and ad-
minister educational institutions of their choice.
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
Important Tips
Article 350 A:
It says there shall be a Special Officer for
minorities to be appointed by the President.
"lt shall be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate
all matters relating to the safeguards provided for
linguistic minorities under this constitution and report
to the President those matters."
149. Solution (d)
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Governor of states enjoy some of im-
munities from the rule of equality before law. Some of these
immunities are
He is not answerable to any court for the exercise and
performance of the powers and duties of his office.
No criminal proceeding shall be instituted or continued
against him during his term of office.
No process for arrest or imprisonment of him from any
court during his term of office,
No civil proceedings shall be instituted during his term
of office in any court in respect of any act done by him in
his personal capacity, whether before or after he entered
upon his office, until the expiration of two months next
after notice has been delivered to him
Statement 2 is corirect: The foreign sovereigns (rulers), am-
bassadors and diplomates enjoy immunity from criminal and
civil proceedings.
Statement 3 is correct: The UNO and its agencies enjoy dip--
lomatic immunity.
Statement 4 is correct: Members of parliament and state leg-
islature also en Joy immunity from anything said or any vote
given by him in parliament/ state legislature or any commit-
tee thereof.
Important Tips
Equality before law
Concept is of British origin
It states that no person (whether rich, poor, high or
low) is above law
It advocates equal subjection of all persons to the
ordinary law of the land administered by ordinary law
courts
It is a negative concept as it restricts state from engaging
discrimination between individuals.
150. Solution (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Constitution of India does not expressly provide the provi-
sions related to the prisoners' rights but in the case of T. V.
Vatheeswaran v. State of Tamil. Nadu, it was held that the
Articles 14, 19 and 21 are available to the prisoners as well
as freemen. Prison walls do not keep out fundamental rights.
Practkebook
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
Option 3 fa correct; ArHde 14 of the Constitution of India
says that the State shall not deny to any person equality be-•
fore .!aw or the eq1rn1 protedic<tm oflaws within the territory
of India.
Options 2 and 4 are correct: Article 21 of the Constitution
of India says that No person shall he deprived of his life or
personal liberty except according to procedure established
by law. This indudcs right to speedy trial as a fondamcntal
right to the prisoners.
Option I. fa incorrect: Right to vote is not available to pris-
<ilt.<'rn in Imlia ,Rl-i of yd.
15L Sohlforn (d)
Exp) Option cl is the correct answer.
Slakmeul I fa corn:d. The 86th Amendme1u Act of :!UU'.l,
made elementary education a rumdamental Right under
Artide 21 A.
Staten,,.ent 2 is coned. The 86th .Amendment Act of 2002
changed the subject-matter of Artide 45. The amended
directive principle requires the State to provide early chiJd ..
hood care and education for all children until they complete
the age of six years.
Statement 3 is correct, The 86th Amendment Act of 2002
added the Eleventh Fundamental Duty which provides that
the citizens should provide opportunities for education to
their child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
152. Solution (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The 86 th Constitutional Amendment Act made 'education
for all' a fundamental right.
Statement l is correct; The 86 th Amendment Act of 2002
made 'Right to Education' a fundamental right. It inserted
a new Artide 21-A under Part III of the Constitution which
provides that the "State shall provide free and compulso-
ry educatim1 to aH children of the age ot six to fourteen
years".
Statement 2 is incorrect: The 86 th Amendment Act also
changed the subject matter of Directive Principle of State
Policy (DPSP) under Article 45, to provide that "the State
shall endeavor to provide early childhood care and educa-
tion for all children until they complete the age of six years".
Hence, the DPSP pertains to only children up to 6 years of
age.
Statement 3 is correct: The 86 th Amendment Act also added
a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51 A. It states that
"it shall be the duty of every citizen of India who is a parent
or a guardian to provide opportunities for education to his
child or ward between the age of 6-14 years". Hence, the giv--
en statement is correct.
153. Solution (b)
Exp) Option bis the cm:r:;ct answer.
Statement l is correct: The Supreme Court has held that
the term 'state' is wide c11ough to include all authorities on
whom powers are conferred by law. Thus, even a private
I'racticebook---------------------------------------------alll
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
body or an agency working as an instrument of the State
falls within the meaning of the 'State' 1rn.de, Article 12. It
is not mxessai-y that always a statutory authority should be
engaged in performing governmental or sovereign functions.
Statement 2 is correct: All local authorities are included un-
der the definition of state under Article 12. According to List
II of VII Schedule 'local government' includes a munici-
pal corporation, urban improvement trust, district boards,
mining settlement authorities and othn lo,~ 1 ;iuthorities
for the purpose of local self-government or village admin-
is1·r8't1nn
Statement J is incone.:t: In Atlit.ls, 17., tlw expression 'oth-
er authorities' is used after mentioning the Government,
Parliament of India, the Government and Legislature of each
of the State and all local authorities. The Madras High Court
has held that 'other authorities' could only mean authorities
exercising governmental or sovereign functions. It cannot
include persons, natural or juristic, such as, a university un-
less it is 'maintained by the State'.
154. Solution (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answe.1',
Preventive detention means detention of a person without
trial. It is meant to prevent a person from committing any
crime. In other words, the person has not committed any
crime yet, but the authorities anticipate him to be a threat to
luw und order.
Statement l is incorrect: The Constitution provides that de-
tention of a person cannot exceed three months. However,
in certain circumstances it can be extended if an Advisory
Board reports sufficient rnus;> for its extension.
Statement 2 is correct: Both the Centre and the States can
make laws on preventive detention. The Centre has exclusive
rights to make a law of preventive detention on the matters
connected with defense. foreign affairs Bn<i tlw s<>,urity of
India. On the matters pertaining lo security of the Stale,
maintenance of public order and maintenance of supplies
and services essential to the community, both the Centre
and the States can concurrently enact laws.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Protection under Article 22 re-
garding preventive detention is applicable to both- Indian
citizens and the foreigners.
155. Solution (a)
Exp) option a is the correct answer
Article 34 provides for the restrictions on fundamental
rights while martial law is in force in any area within the
territory of India.
Statement l is incorrect: Martial law affects only Funda-
mental Rights (FRs) while National Emergency affects not
only Fundamental Rights but also Centre-state relations, dis-
tribution of revenues and legislative powers between Centre
and states. lt may extend the tenure of Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Martial law is imposed to restore
the breakdown of law and order due to any reason. While
 INDIANPOLITY·ANO GOVERNANCE
National Emergency can be imposed only on three grounds-
war, external aggression and armed rebellion.
Statement 3 is coned: The definition of 'martial law' has
not been mentioned explicitly in the Constitution of In-
dia. 1'iowever, the provision of martial law is implicit in
Article 34. Martial law literally means 'military rule'. It refers
to a situation where military authorities run the civil admin-
istration as per their own rules and regulations. Ordinary
law is not adhered to when martial law is under operation.
156. Solution (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Artide 15 of the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimi-
nation on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place
of birth. How,cver, there are four exceptions to this general
rule of non-discrimination.
Option l is correct: As per Article 15 (4), the state is per-
mitted to m.ake any special provision for the advancement
of any socially and educationally backward classes of cit-
izens or for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. For
instance, public educational institutions may offer fee dis-
counts or seat reservations. This provision was added by the
first Amendrnent Act of J 95 l.
Option 2 is ,onect: The state is permitted to make any
special proviBion for women and children. For example,
reservation of seats for women in local bodies or provision
of free education for children.
Important Tips
Affirmative action, also known as "positive discrimination;'
is a government policy that is designed to help minorities
and disadvantaged groups in finding employment, getting
admissions at universities, and obtaining housing.
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
lndia was a signatory to the Universal Declaration of Hu-
man Rights ( 1948). Thus, great precaution was taken so that
Fundamental Rights as mentioned in Part 3 of Indian Con-
stitlllion is co1.1c1n-rcnt with the provisions of the Universal
Declnnltion of Human Rights.
Option 1 is cnrrect: Article 21 of the Indian Constitution
provides that iw person shall he deprived of his life or per-
sonal liberty excepted according to procedure established by
law. Similarly, as per Universal Declaration of Human Rights
(UDI !R), everyone has the right to life, liberty and security
of prrson and 1m mw shall he subjected to iu-bitrary arrest,
detention or exile.
Oplinn 2 i.~ nm·cct: Article 23 (1) of the Indian Constitu-
tion prohibits traffic in human being and 'Begar' and oth-
er similar fonns of forced labour are prohibited, and any
contravention of th\., provision shall be an offence punish-
able in accordnnce with law. Similarly, UDHR provides that
no one shall he held in slavery or servitude and the slave
trade shall be prohibited in all forms,
Option 3 is correct: Article 25 (l) of the Indian Constitu-
mForumm.18
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
tion provides that all persons are equally entitled to free-
dom of conscience and right freely to profess, practice and
propagate religion, subject to public order, morality and
health and to the provisions of this part. Similarly, according
to provisions of UDHR, everyone has the right to freedom of
thought, conscience and religion.
Important Tips
Universal Declaration of Human Rights
It is a document that acts like a global road map for
freedom and equality - protecting the rights of every
individual, everywhere.
The UDHR was adopted by the newly established
United Nations on 10 December 1948, in response to
the acts of mankind during the Second World War.
Although it is not legally binding, the protection of the
rights and freedoms set out in the Declaration has been
incorporated into many national constitutions and
domestic legal frameworks.
pirective Principles of State Policy
(DPSP)
158. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Following steps were taken by the Government of India to
give effect to Directive Principles of state policies (DPSPs)
Enactment of Cr PC (Criminal Procedure Code) in 1973
give effect to Article 50 of DPSP i.e. it separated the
judiciary from executive.
Passing Zamindari abolition bills give effect to Article
39(c) ofDPSP i.e. to prevent concentration of wealth and
production.
Nationalisation of Commercial banks give effect to
Article 39(b) of DPSP i.e.to utilize the financial
resources for promoting the common good.
Provisions for reservation for the uplift of the ~chednled
castes give effect to Article 46 of DPSP i.e. to prnmote
the educational and economic interest; of SC~, $Ts, and
other weaker sections.
Creation of NALSA (National legal services Authorities
Act) give effect to Article 39A of DPSP Le. to provide
free legal aid to poor.
Indian Penal Code was enacted in the British era in 1860
much before the formation of Indian constitution and
Directive principles,
159. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Following provisions of Directive Principles of State Policy
provides for social and economic justice. They direct the
state under:
Article 39 (c) to prevent the concentration of wealth and
means of production.
A1·ticle 43 to secure a living wage, a decent standard of
life and social and cultural opportunities for all workers.