CSCS Online Practice Exam Volume 1

1.
Which of the following muscles acts synergistically to the rectus femoris during the upward
movement phase of the low-bar back squat?
A. biceps femoris
B. rectus abdominis
C. anterior tibialis
D. iliopsoas
2. Which of the following upper arm muscle groups and types of muscle actions are associated with
the dumbbell biceps curl exercise?
primary primary
muscle group muscle action
I. flexors eccentric
II. extensors eccentric
III. flexors concentric
IV. extensors concentric
A. II and III only

B. I and IV only
C. I and III only
D. II and IV only
3. Which of the following is an approximate rest interval for a middle distance runner performing 800-
m (875-yd) running intervals in 2 minutes?
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 4 minutes
D. 6 minutes
4. A 165-pound (75-kg) athlete has an average daily intake of 450 grams of carbohydrate, 75 grams
of protein, and 100 grams of fat. What percent of the total kilocalorie intake is carbohydrate?
A. 72
B. 60
C. 45
D. 25
5. A 110-pound (50-kg) marathon runner started her pre-race taper and chose to carbohydrate load
prior to the race. Approximately how many grams of carbohydrates should she consume per day?
A. 100
B. 500
C. 880
D. 1100
6. As compared to males, the potential for force production of females per muscle cross-sectional
area is
A. lower.
B. equal.
C. higher.
D. dependent on the type of muscle.
7. Which of the following cardiovascular adaptations to chronic aerobic exercise contributes the most
to improved aerobic endurance performance?
A. increased maximal cardiac output

B. decreased resting blood pressure
C. decreased resting heart rate
D. increased submaximal arterial-venous oxygen (a-vO2) difference
8. Which of the following events occurs in the hamstring muscles during the concentric muscle action
of leg (knee) curl exercise?
A. chloride ions are released inside the muscle fiber

B. each sarcomere is stimulated by a motor neuron
C. the actin cross-bridges attach to the myosin filaments
D. the H-zone decreases as the Z-discs are pulled toward each other
9. The depletion of which of the following fuel sources may contribute to fatigue in prolonged aerobic
endurance events AND repeated anaerobic exercise bouts?
A. muscle glycogen
B. triglycerides
C. free fatty acids
D. creatine phosphate
10. Which of the following competitive situations would inspire an athlete with a high motive to achieve
success (MAS)?
A. a very easy competition in which success is virtually guaranteed

B. an extremely difficult situation in which the likelihood of success is limited
C. a competition that causes a fear that there is a threat to self-esteem
D. a challenging situation in which the probability of success to failure is even
11. Which of the following is a characteristic of fast-twitch muscle fibers?
A. low contraction speed

B. high resistance to fatigue
C. low anaerobic enzyme content
D. high power output
12. Which of the following activities places the LEAST metabolic demand on the phosphagen energy
system?
A. tennis
B. football
C. basketball
D. cross-country skiing
13. During isokinetic testing at high angular velocities (>240 degrees/sec), what is the approximate
torque capability of eccentric muscle actions as compared to concentric muscle actions?
A. 60% lower
B. 120% greater
C. 60% greater
D. 120% lower
14. Which of the following exercises stimulates the greatest increase in axial skeleton bone mineral
density?
A. biceps curl
B. lat pulldown
C. shoulder press
D. lying triceps extension
15. Which of the following is a dietary source of an incomplete protein?
A. legumes
B. eggs
C. milk
D. fish
16. Which of the following exercises involves a first-class lever?
A. leg (knee) curl

B. triceps pushdown
C. lateral raise
D. dumbbell biceps curl
17. Dynamically pre-stretching a muscle is associated with which type of subsequent muscle action?
A. eccentric
B. concentric
C. isometric
D. kinesthetic
18. All of the following applied program design variables of a resistance training program contribute to
significant exercise-induced increases in serum testosterone concentrations EXCEPT:
A. heavy loads
B. high volumes
C. long rest periods
D. large muscle group exercises
19. Which of the following decreases as a result of resistance training and increases due to aerobic
training?
A. glycogen stores
B. mitochondrial density
C. maximal force production
D. creatine phosphate stores
20. Performance decrements from dehydration among aerobic endurance athletes may begin to occur
after the loss of what percentage of body mass?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
21. Which of the following causes the largest increase in serum growth hormone concentration?
A. oral ingestion of arginine

B. oral ingestion of ornithine
C. a low-intensity aerobic exercise session
D. a high-intensity resistance exercise session
22. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action if an eating disorder is suspected
with an athlete?
A. Schedule weekly weigh-in sessions.

B. Provide comprehensive nutrition information.
C. Refer the athlete to the team physician.
D. Monitor the athlete's food intake.
23. An untrained college-aged athlete begins a resistance training program. After training for 3 weeks,
her strength increases dramatically. Which of the following is the most influential factor
responsible for this improvement?
A. increased cross-sectional area of muscle fibers

B. increased quantity of muscle fibers
C. improved ratio of muscle to fat components
D. improved neuromuscular efficiency
24. All of the following are potential indicators of overtraining EXCEPT:
A. decreased muscle glycogen stores

B. increased sleep disturbances
C. decreased exercise heart rate
D. increased resting blood pressure
25. When lifting maximal loads, the use of a weight belt may provide the most benefit when
performing which of the following exercises?
A. machine shoulder press

B. bench press
C. hip sled
D. front squat
26. A 6-foot, 2-inch (188 cm), 220-pound (100-kg) college football player desires to gain muscle
weight. Which of the following should be his first nutritional priority if his current 3000 calories/day
intake consists of 18% protein (1.4g/kg), 55% carbohydrate (4.1g/kg), and 27% fat (0.9g/kg)?
A. increase calories
B. increase protein
C. decrease fat
D. decrease carbohydrate
27. During a single aerobic exercise session, oxygen is delivered to the working muscles at an
elevated rate due to an increase in
A. total blood hemoglobin.

B. cardiac output.
C. blood glucose.
D. plasma volume.
41. How is the exercise technique needed for jogging modified when performing a warm-up drill for
plyometrics?
A. greatly increasing hip and knee flexion

B. not allowing the heels to touch the ground
C. extending the knees to touch the heels to the buttocks
D. limiting multidirectional changes
42. Which of the following exercises requires the most similar quadriceps muscle function as landing
from a rebound in basketball?
A. alternate leg bound

B. downhill running
C. plyometric jump to box
D. resisted sprinting
43. Which of the following will be improved if the same strength and conditioning professional
evaluates an athlete's body composition during the pre-season AND the post-season?
A. reliability
B. validity
C. variability
D. subjectivity
44. A college baseball player was tested ten weeks before the start of the season with these results:
1RM bench press: 275 pounds (125 kg)
Vertical jump: 24 inches (61 cm)
T-Test: 11.6 seconds
40-yard sprint: 4.8 seconds
1-minute sit-up: 37
Which of the following need to be improved in the pre-season training program?
A. agility and muscular strength

B. power and local muscular endurance
C. power and muscular strength
D. agility and local muscular endurance
45. Which of the following muscles is an antagonist to the deltoid muscle during the upward
movement phase of the seated barbell shoulder press?
A. serratus anterior
B. latissimus dorsi
C. supraspinatus
D. trapezius
46. As the rear leg swings forward for the next stride in sprinting, which of the following muscle groups
(of that same leg) eccentrically controls forward momentum?
A. quadriceps
B. gastrocnemius
C. iliopsoas
D. hamstrings
47. A junior college basketball forward is administered a battery of tests to determine her training
status. Based upon the results shown below, her training program should be designed to
emphasize improvement in which of the following areas?
Height: 69 inches (175 cm)

Weight: 150 pounds (68 kg)
Percent body fat: 20%
1RM squat: 215 pounds (98 kg)
A. body composition
B. upper body strength
C. lower body strength
D. anaerobic power
48. During a single training session, which of the following exercise sequences is the most
appropriate for the strength/power phase of an athlete's program?
A. power clean, bench press, back squat, bent-over row, leg (knee) curl
B. leg press, front squat, snatch, push press, incline bench press
C. lunge, pec deck, hip ab/adduction, snatch, lateral raise
D. push press, shoulder press, power clean, deadlift, power pull
49. When running, which of the following contributes the most to minimizing the braking effect of a
heel foot strike?
A. eccentric hip extension

B. concentric hip extension
C. eccentric hip adduction
D. concentric hip adduction
50. Which of the following is the most appropriate type of surface for performing high-intensity lower-
body plyometric drills?
A. artificial turf
B. grass field
C. minitrampoline
D. outdoor basketball court
51. In a turn-and-run maneuver when transitioning from a backpedal into a forward sprint in the same
direction, which of the following body parts initiates the movement?
A. head
B. shoulders
C. hips
D. feet
52. Which of the following sequences will produce the most reliable results?
1. T-Test
1RM incline bench
2.
press
3. 1RM power clean
4. 1-minute sit-up test
A. 3, 1, 4, 2
B. 1, 3, 2, 4
C. 4, 2, 1, 3
D. 2, 3, 1, 4
53. In response to a heavy loading session, the muscle groups stressed in which of the following
exercises require the longest recovery time?
A. bench press
B. leg (knee) extension
C. front squat
D. dumbbell chest fly
54. Which of the following is a test for aerobic power?
A. 1RM power clean

B. vertical jump
C. T-Test
D. 1.5 mile run
55. Which of the following is the most sport-specific exercise for a sprinter?
A. dumbbell lunge
B. upright row
C. ankle dorsiflexion
D. leg (knee) curl
56. For the shoulder press exercise, how many repetitions can typically be performed with a load of
85% of the 1RM?
A. 12
B. 10
C. 6
D. 2
57. The tallest machines or pieces of equipment in a strength and conditioning facility should be
placed next to the
A. emergency exits.
B. supervisor stations.
C. room entrances.
D. perimeter walls.
58. Which of the following are recommended to be completed prior to a new athlete using the strength
and conditioning facility?
I. 1RM testing
II. "Assumption of Risk" form
III. medical examination
IV. exercise technique orientation
A. I, II, and IV only

B. II, III, and IV only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, III, and IV only
59. All of the following are commonly-accepted benefits of properly performed static stretching
movements EXCEPT:
A. increased joint range of motion

B. decreased muscle stiffness
C. decreased superficial muscle temperature
D. increased localized blood flow
60. Which of the following factors should be determined FIRST when designing a training program for
a specific team sport?
A. layout of the facility

B. type of available equipment
C. number of individuals on the team
D. metabolic demands of the activity
61. A baseball pitcher has an elbow flexion to elbow extension strength ratio of 1:3. Which of the
following exercises should be added to his program to reduce the risk of throwing-related injuries?
A. dumbbell biceps curl

B. decline bench press
C. bent-over lateral raise
D. overhead triceps extension
62. Which of the following is a structural exercise that can only be performed using free weights?
A. front squat
B. snatch
C. bent-over row
D. overhead dumbbell triceps extension
63. An athlete is performing three sets of the snatch exercise. What is the volume load of the workout
shown below?
SET 1 SET 2 SET 3
load reps load reps load reps
100 6 115 4 125 2
A. 1310
B. 340
C. 20
D. 12
64. Which of the following is the typical sequence of periodization periods within one macrocycle?
A. competition, transition, active rest, preparatory

B. preparatory, transition, competition, active rest
C. transition, preparatory, active rest, competition
D. active rest, transition, competition, preparatory
Correct/Incorrect Indicator Key
Correct Answer Incorrect Answer []
Below is a scored review of your assessment. All questions are shown.
SCIENTIFIC FOUNDATIONS QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following muscles acts synergistically to the rectus femoris during the upward
movement phase of the low-bar back squat?
Your Answer: D. iliopsoas
Correct Answer: A. biceps femoris
Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Ch 3: P 28 c2p4 - P 29 c2p1
OUTLINE 1 C SF
2. Which of the following upper arm muscle groups and types of muscle actions are associated with the
dumbbell biceps curl exercise?
primary primary
muscle group muscle action
I. flexors eccentric
II. extensors eccentric
III. flexors concentric
IV. extensors concentric
Your Answer: A. II and III only

Correct Answer: C. I and III only

Ch 1: P 8 c2p3 - P 9 c1p1
OUTLINE 1 A SF
3. Which of the following is an approximate rest interval for a middle distance runner performing 800-m
(875-yd) running intervals in 2 minutes?
Your Answer: D. 6 minutes
Correct Answer: D. 6 minutes

Ch 5: P 87 c2p2 - P 88 (Table)
OUTLINE 1 E SF
4. A 165-pound (75-kg) athlete has an average daily intake of 450 grams of carbohydrate, 75 grams of
protein, and 100 grams of fat. What percent of the total kilocalorie intake is carbohydrate?
Your Answer: B. 60
Correct Answer: B. 60

Ch 12: P 238 c2p2
OUTLINE 2 A SF
5. A 110-pound (50-kg) marathon runner started her pre-race taper and chose to carbohydrate load
prior to the race. Approximately how many grams of carbohydrates should she consume per day?
Your Answer: B. 500

Ch 13: P 251 c1p2-3
OUTLINE 2 B SF
6. As compared to males, the potential for force production of females per muscle cross-sectional area
is
Your Answer: B. equal.
Correct Answer: B. equal.

Ch 9: P 179 c1p4 - c2p1
OUTLINE 1 I SF
7. Which of the following cardiovascular adaptations to chronic aerobic exercise contributes the most to
improved aerobic endurance performance?
Your Answer: A. increased maximal cardiac output
Correct Answer: A. increased maximal cardiac output

Ch 7: P 130 c1p4
OUTLINE 1 G SF
8. Which of the following events occurs in the hamstring muscles during the concentric muscle action of
leg (knee) curl exercise?
Your Answer: D. the H-zone decreases as the Z-discs are pulled toward each other
Correct Answer: D. the H-zone decreases as the Z-discs are pulled toward each other

Ch 1: P 7 c1p2 - P 8 c2p1, Figure 1.5b
OUTLINE 1 A SF
9. The depletion of which of the following fuel sources may contribute to fatigue in prolonged aerobic
endurance events AND repeated anaerobic exercise bouts?
Your Answer: A. muscle glycogen
Correct Answer: A. muscle glycogen

Ch 5: P 85 c2p3 - P 86 c1p1, Table 5.5
OUTLINE 1 E SF
10. Which of the following competitive situations would inspire an athlete with a high motive to achieve
success (MAS)?
Your Answer: D. a challenging situation in which the probability of success to
failure is even
Correct Answer: D. a challenging situation in which the probability of success to failure is
even

Ch 10: P 195 c1p1 - c2p1
OUTLINE 1 J SF
11. Which of the following is a characteristic of fast-twitch muscle fibers?

Your Answer: D. high power output
Correct Answer: D. high power output

Ch 2: P 17 c1p1 - P 18 c1p1, Table 2.1
OUTLINE 1 B SF
12. Which of the following activities places the LEAST metabolic demand on the phosphagen energy
system?
Your Answer: B. football
Correct Answer: D. cross-country skiing

Ch 8: P 142 c1p3 - P 143 c2p2, Table 8.1
OUTLINE 1 E SF
13. During isokinetic testing at high angular velocities (>240 degrees/sec), what is the approximate
torque capability of eccentric muscle actions as compared to concentric muscle actions?
Your Answer: C. 60% greater
Correct Answer: B. 120% greater

Ch 1: P 10 c1p3, Figure 1.6
OUTLINE 1 C SF
14. Which of the following exercises stimulates the greatest increase in axial skeleton bone mineral
density?
Your Answer: C. shoulder press
Correct Answer: C. shoulder press

Ch 4: P 61 c2p3 - P 62 c1p1, P 63 c1p2 - P 64 c1p1, Table 4.1
OUTLINE 1 D SF
15. Which of the following is a dietary source of an incomplete protein?

Your Answer: A. legumes
Correct Answer: A. legumes

Ch 12: P 233 c1p3 - c2p2
OUTLINE 2 A SF
16. Which of the following exercises involves a first-class lever?
Your Answer: C. lateral raise
Correct Answer: B. triceps pushdown

Ch 3: P 30 c2p2, P 30 c2p5 - P 31 c1p2, Figure 3.6
OUTLINE 1 C SF
17. Dynamically pre-stretching a muscle is associated with which type of subsequent muscle action?
Your Answer: D. kinesthetic
Correct Answer: B. concentric

Ch 1: P 11 c1p2 - c2p1;
Ch 19: P 429 c2p1 - P 431 c1p1, P 430 Table 19.1
OUTLINE 1 A SF
18. All of the following applied program design variables of a resistance training program contribute to
significant exercise-induced increases in serum testosterone concentrations EXCEPT:
Your Answer: B. high volumes
Correct Answer: C. long rest periods

Ch 6: P 103 c2p2 - P 104 c2p1
OUTLINE 1 F SF
19. Which of the following decreases as a result of resistance training and increases due to aerobic
training?
Your Answer: A. glycogen stores
Correct Answer: B. mitochondrial density

Ch 8: P 143 c2p3 - P 156 c2p1, Table 8.2
OUTLINE 1 H SF
20. Performance decrements from dehydration among aerobic endurance athletes may begin to occur
after the loss of what percentage of body mass?
Your Answer: B. 3

Ch 12: P 247 c1p4 - c2p1
OUTLINE 2 A SF
SCIENTIFIC FOUNDATIONS QUESTIONS
21. Which of the following causes the largest increase in serum growth hormone concentration?
Your Answer: D. a high-intensity resistance exercise session
Correct Answer: D. a high-intensity resistance exercise session

Ch 11: P 224 c1p4 - P 225 c1p2
OUTLINE 2 D SF
22. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action if an eating disorder is suspected with
an athlete?
Your Answer: A. Schedule weekly weigh-in sessions.
Correct Answer: C. Refer the athlete to the team physician.

Ch 12: P 255 c1p4 - c2p6;
Ch 13: P 262 c2p1 - P 265 c1p1
OUTLINE 2 C SF
23. An untrained college-aged athlete begins a resistance training program. After training for 3 weeks,
her strength increases dramatically. Which of the following is the most influential factor responsible
for this improvement?
Your Answer: D. improved neuromuscular efficiency
Correct Answer: D. improved neuromuscular efficiency

Ch 2: P 20 c2p4 - P 21 c1p1
OUTLINE 1 I SF
24. All of the following are potential indicators of overtraining EXCEPT:

Your Answer: A. decreased muscle glycogen stores
Correct Answer: C. decreased exercise heart rate

Ch 8: P 161 Table 8.4, P 164 c2p3 - P 166 c1 (Table)
OUTLINE 1 H SF
25. When lifting maximal loads, the use of a weight belt may provide the most benefit when performing
which of the following exercises?
Your Answer: D. front squat
Correct Answer: D. front squat

Ch 3: P 49 c1p2 - P 50 c1p3;
Ch 17: P 346 c2p2 - P 347 c1p1
OUTLINE 1 C SF
26. A 6-foot, 2-inch (188 cm), 220-pound (100-kg) college football player desires to gain muscle weight.
Which of the following should be his first nutritional priority if his current 3000 calories/day intake
consists of 18% protein (1.4g/kg), 55% carbohydrate (4.1g/kg), and 27% fat (0.9g/kg)?
Your Answer: A. increase calories
Correct Answer: A. increase calories

Ch 12: P 253 c1p1, Table 12.9
OUTLINE 2 B SF
27. During a single aerobic exercise session, oxygen is delivered to the working muscles at an elevated
rate due to an increase in
Your Answer: B. cardiac output.
Correct Answer: B. cardiac output.

Ch 7: P 123 c1p3 - P 126 c2p1
OUTLINE 1 G SF
PRACTICAL/APPLIED QUESTIONS (WITH VIDEO)
[Question Attachment Not Shown]

28.
A strength and conditioning professional can use this test to determine the flexibility of which of the
following muscle groups?
I. hip extensors
II. hip flexors
III. spinal erectors
IV. hip abductors
Your Answer: C. I and IV only

Correct Answer: A. I and III only

Ch 15: P 301 (protocol)
OUTLINE 4 A PA

29.
When performing this exercise, the athlete should focus on maximizing
Your Answer: D. the transition between eccentric and concentric muscle actions.
Correct Answer: B. jump height.

Ch 19: technique: P 444
OUTLINE 1 B PA

30.
Which of the following describes the initial movement of both of these exercises?
I. posterior pelvic tilt

II. anterior pelvic tilt
III. lumbar flexion
IV. lumbar extension
Your Answer: A. I and III only

Correct Answer: A. I and III only

OUTLINE 1 A PA

31.
Which of the following muscles is MOST involved in this exercise as a secondary mover?
Your Answer: B. teres major
Correct Answer: D. brachialis

OUTLINE 2 B PA

32.
During the upward movement phase of this exercise, an appropriate recommendation to make
regarding proper technique is to
Your Answer: D. push down on the top of the box with the leading foot.
Correct Answer: D. push down on the top of the box with the leading foot.

Ch 17: technique: P 372 - 373
OUTLINE 1 A PA

33.
Which of the following explains why this exercise should not be 1RM tested?
Your Answer: A. the deltoids are not a large muscle group
Correct Answer: B. accurate and consistent results cannot be gathered

Ch 18: P 408 c1p3
OUTLINE 4 A PA

34.
An advantage of performing this exercise instead of the flat bench press exercise with an Olympic
bar is that it
Your Answer: C. permits a greater range of motion at the shoulder.
Correct Answer: C. permits a greater range of motion at the shoulder.

Ch 17: technique: P 359 - 360
OUTLINE 1 A PA

35.
Which of the following describes the type of hand grip used for this exercise?
Your Answer: A. neutral
Correct Answer: A. neutral

Ch 17: P 344 c1p4 - c2p1, technique: P 361
OUTLINE 1 A PA

36.
Which of the following is a CORRECT statement regarding the spotter's involvement shown for this
exercise?
Your Answer: C. the spotter's hands are on the lifter's elbows; they should be on the
forearms or wrists
Correct Answer: C. the spotter's hands are on the lifter's elbows; they should be on the
forearms or wrists

Ch 17: P 348 c2p2, Figure 17.4
OUTLINE 1 A PA

37.
When assigning a load for this athlete to perform three sets of five repetitions, which of the following
loads is the most appropriate?
Your Answer: C. 5RM
Correct Answer: D. 10RM

Ch 18: P 414 c2p2 - P 415 c1p1
OUTLINE 2 D PA
38.
When the athlete lands during this exercise, which of the following describes his proper body
position?
Your Answer: B. shoulders over the hips
Correct Answer: A. shoulders over the knees

Ch 19: P 437 c2p3, Figure 19.6
OUTLINE 1 B PA

39.
Which of the following components of sprinting technique will be improved by an athlete performing
this exercise?
Your Answer: D. stride length
Correct Answer: D. stride length

Ch 20: P 483 c1p4
OUTLINE 2 A PA

40.
Compared to the exercise shown, what is the next higher intensity classification level of plyometric
exercise?
Your Answer: B. multiple hops
Correct Answer: C. standing jumps

Ch 19: P 432 Table 19.2
OUTLINE 2 G PA
PRACTICAL/APPLIED QUESTIONS
41. How is the exercise technique needed for jogging modified when performing a warm-up drill for
plyometrics?
Your Answer: C. extending the knees to touch the heels to the buttocks
Correct Answer: B. not allowing the heels to touch the ground

Ch 19: P 436 Table 19.5
OUTLINE 1 E PA
42. Which of the following exercises requires the most similar quadriceps muscle function as landing
from a rebound in basketball?
Your Answer: B. downhill running
Correct Answer: B. downhill running

Ch 18: P 396 c2p1 - P 397 c1p1, P 400 c1p2 - c2p1
OUTLINE 2 B PA
43. Which of the following will be improved if the same strength and conditioning professional evaluates
an athlete's body composition during the pre-season AND the post-season?
Your Answer: B. validity
Correct Answer: A. reliability

Ch 14: P 279 c1p2
OUTLINE 4 A PA
44. A college baseball player was tested ten weeks before the start of the season with these results:
T-Test: 11.6 seconds
40-yard sprint: 4.8 seconds
1-minute sit-up: 37
Which of the following need to be improved in the pre-season training program?

Your Answer: B. power and local muscular endurance
Correct Answer: D. agility and local muscular endurance

Ch 15: P 309 Table 15.1, P 310 Table 15.3, P 311 Table 15.5
OUTLINE 4 B PA
45. Which of the following muscles is an antagonist to the deltoid muscle during the upward movement
phase of the seated barbell shoulder press?
Your Answer: B. latissimus dorsi
Correct Answer: B. latissimus dorsi

Ch 3: P 28 c2p3
OUTLINE 1 A PA
46. As the rear leg swings forward for the next stride in sprinting, which of the following muscle groups
(of that same leg) eccentrically controls forward momentum?
Your Answer: B. gastrocnemius
Correct Answer: D. hamstrings

Ch 20: P 475 c2p3
OUTLINE 1 C PA
47. A junior college basketball forward is administered a battery of tests to determine her training status.
Based upon the results shown below, her training program should be designed to emphasize
improvement in which of the following areas?
Height: 69 inches (175 cm)

Weight: 150 pounds (68 kg)
Percent body fat: 20%
1RM squat: 215 pounds (98 kg)
Your Answer: B. upper body strength

Correct Answer: B. upper body strength

Ch 15: P 305 c1p2, P 309 Table 15.1, P 310 Table 15.3, P 317 Table 15.13
OUTLINE 4 B PA
48. During a single training session, which of the following exercise sequences is the most appropriate
for the strength/power phase of an athlete's program?
Your Answer: A. power clean, bench press, back squat, bent-over row, leg (knee)
curl
Correct Answer: A. power clean, bench press, back squat, bent-over row, leg (knee) curl

Ch 18: P 404 c1p2 - c2p1
OUTLINE 2 C PA
49. When running, which of the following contributes the most to minimizing the braking effect of a heel
foot strike?
Your Answer: B. concentric hip extension
Correct Answer: B. concentric hip extension

Ch 20: P 477 Table 20.1
OUTLINE 1 E PA
50. Which of the following is the most appropriate type of surface for performing high-intensity lower-
body plyometric drills?
Your Answer: C. minitrampoline
Correct Answer: B. grass field

Ch 19: P 439 c1p4 - c2p1
OUTLINE 1 B PA
51. In a turn-and-run maneuver when transitioning from a backpedal into a forward sprint in the same
direction, which of the following body parts initiates the movement?
Your Answer: A. head
Correct Answer: A. head

Ch 20: P 480 c2p4
OUTLINE 1 D PA
52. Which of the following sequences will produce the most reliable results?
1. T-Test
2. 1RM incline bench
press
3. 1RM power clean
4. 1-minute sit-up test
Your Answer: C. 4, 2, 1, 3
Correct Answer: B. 1, 3, 2, 4

Ch 14: P 284 c1p3 - c2p7 (Table)
OUTLINE 4 A PA
53. In response to a heavy loading session, the muscle groups stressed in which of the following
exercises require the longest recovery time?
Your Answer: C. front squat
Correct Answer: C. front squat

Ch 18: P 403 c1p3 - c2p1
OUTLINE 2 F PA
54. Which of the following is a test for aerobic power?

Your Answer: A. 1RM power clean
Correct Answer: D. 1.5 mile run

Ch 15: P 289 c2p3, P 297 (protocol)
OUTLINE 4 A PA
55. Which of the following is the most sport-specific exercise for a sprinter?
Your Answer: C. ankle dorsiflexion
Correct Answer: A. dumbbell lunge

Ch 18: P 400 c1p2 - c2p1, Table 18.3
OUTLINE 2 B PA
56. For the shoulder press exercise, how many repetitions can typically be performed with a load of 85%
of the 1RM?
Your Answer: B. 10
Correct Answer: C. 6

Ch 18: P 406 c2p2-4, P 407 Table 18.7
OUTLINE 2 D PA
57. The tallest machines or pieces of equipment in a strength and conditioning facility should be placed
next to the
Your Answer: D. perimeter walls.
Correct Answer: D. perimeter walls.

Ch 24: P 559 c1p5 - c2p1
OUTLINE 3 B PA
58. Which of the following are recommended to be completed prior to a new athlete using the strength
and conditioning facility?
I. 1RM testing
II. "Assumption of Risk" form
III. medical examination
IV. exercise technique orientation
Your Answer: D. I, III, and IV only

Correct Answer: B. II, III, and IV only

Ch 25: P 577 c2p2, P 581 Figure 25.9, P 582 Figure 25.10;
Ch 26: P 592 c1p2, P 592 c2p2 - P 593 c1p1
OUTLINE 3 C PA
59. All of the following are commonly-accepted benefits of properly performed static stretching
movements EXCEPT:
Your Answer: A. increased joint range of motion
Correct Answer: C. decreased superficial muscle temperature
Ch 16: P 322 c1p6 - c2p2, P 324 c1p4, P 324 c2p4 - P 325 c1p2
OUTLINE 1 F PA
60. Which of the following factors should be determined FIRST when designing a training program for a
specific team sport?
Your Answer: D. metabolic demands of the activity
Correct Answer: D. metabolic demands of the activity

Ch 18: P 396 c2p1-6
OUTLINE 3 A PA
PRACTICAL/APPLIED QUESTIONS
61. A baseball pitcher has an elbow flexion to elbow extension strength ratio of 1:3. Which of the
following exercises should be added to his program to reduce the risk of throwing-related injuries?
Your Answer: A. dumbbell biceps curl
Correct Answer: A. dumbbell biceps curl

Ch 18: P 400 c2p2 - P 401 c1p1
OUTLINE 2 B PA
62. Which of the following is a structural exercise that can only be performed using free weights?
Your Answer: A. front squat
Correct Answer: B. snatch

Ch 3: P 44 c1p6;
Ch 17: P 345 c2p4 - P 346 c1p1;
Ch 18: P 400 c1p1
OUTLINE 2 A PA
63. An athlete is performing three sets of the snatch exercise. What is the volume load of the workout
shown below?
SET 1 SET 2 SET 3
load reps load reps load reps

100 6 115 4 125 2
Your Answer: C. 20
Correct Answer: A. 1310

Ch 18: P 417 c2p2 - P 418 c1p1
OUTLINE 2 E PA
64. Which of the following is the typical sequence of periodization periods within one macrocycle?
Your Answer: B. preparatory, transition, competition, active rest
Correct Answer: B. preparatory, transition, competition, active rest

Ch 22: P 515 c1p2 - P 516 c1p1
OUTLINE 2 H PA

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1.

A. II and III only

A. increased maximal cardiac output

A. chloride ions are released inside the muscle fiber

A. a very easy competition in which success is virtually guaranteed

11. Which of the following is a characteristic of fast-twitch muscle fibers?

A. low contraction speed

15. Which of the following is a dietary source of an incomplete protein?

16. Which of the following exercises involves a first-class lever?

A. leg (knee) curl

A. oral ingestion of arginine

A. Schedule weekly weigh-in sessions.

A. increased cross-sectional area of muscle fibers

24. All of the following are potential indicators of overtraining EXCEPT:

A. decreased muscle glycogen stores

A. machine shoulder press

A. total blood hemoglobin.

A. greatly increasing hip and knee flexion

A. alternate leg bound

Which of the following need to be improved in the pre-season training program?

A. agility and muscular strength

Height: 69 inches (175 cm)

A. eccentric hip extension

54. Which of the following is a test for aerobic power?

A. 1RM power clean

A. I, II, and IV only

A. increased joint range of motion

A. layout of the facility

A. dumbbell biceps curl

SET 1 SET 2 SET 3

load reps load reps load reps

100 6 115 4 125 2

A. competition, transition, active rest, preparatory

Below is a scored review of your assessment. All questions are shown.

SCIENTIFIC FOUNDATIONS QUESTIONS

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Your Answer: A. II and III only

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

11. Which of the following is a characteristic of fast-twitch muscle fibers?

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

15. Which of the following is a dietary source of an incomplete protein?

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

SCIENTIFIC FOUNDATIONS QUESTIONS

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)

24. All of the following are potential indicators of overtraining EXCEPT:

Explanation: Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning text (second edition)