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Quick
questions 42. Distance-Time Graphs Topic 5 — Forces
to start. Quick Questions

1) What does it mean if part of a distance-time graph is horizontal?
2) True or false? The steeper the gradient of a distance-time graph, the slower the
object is moving.
Now try these: Distance (m)

3) Describe the motion of the object shown in the
Move on distance-time graph to the right.

4) Determine the speed of the object in the first
20
to harder
5 seconds using the distance-time graph. 10
5) Describe how you can work out the speed
of an accelerating object at a point on a
H
questions.
0 20
distance-time graph. 5 10 15
Time (s)
Higher only questions marked up with “H”, or “Higher”.
Topic 5 — Forces
ANSWERS
42. Distance-Time Graphs Complete answers to
1) The object was stationary during that part (as the distance travelled doesn’t change). each question.
2) False. The steeper the gradient, the faster the object is moving.
3) The object moves at a steady speed for 5 seconds
before decelerating for 5 seconds. The object then Distance (m)
remains stationary for 5 seconds before accelerating
for the final 5 seconds. 20
4) 2 m/s. v = s ÷ t. From the graph (shown on the right)
the object travelled 10 metres in the first 5 seconds, 10
so the speed is 10 ÷ 5 = 2 m/s.
5) By drawing a tangent to the curve at that point
and finding the gradient of the tangent. 0 5 10 15 20
Time (s)
Handy tips on
TIP
In the exam you might get asked to draw a distance-time graph, so make sure you know
how to represent different types of motion on the graph and give yourself plenty of practice.
every card.
Published by CGP
Editors: Luke Bennett, Sharon Keeley-Holden, Caroline Purvis, Ethan Starmer-Jones,
Stephen Walters, Sarah Williams.
With thanks to Mark Edwards, Duncan Lindsay and Glenn Rogers for the proofreading.
Contributor: Paddy Gannon.
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Clipart from Corel®

Text, design, layout and original illustrations © Coordination Group Publications Ltd. (CGP) 2018.
All rights reserved.
1. Energy Stores and Systems Topic 1 — Energy
Quick Questions
1) Name three different energy stores.
2) Give three ways in which energy can be transferred.
3) What is meant by a "system"?
Now try these:

4) Which stores is energy transferred between when a
car is slowed down by applying the brakes?
5) Describe the energy transfers that take place
when water is heated in an electric kettle.
Name the energy stores that are involved.
6) Muhammed throws a ball vertically upwards into the air. Describe and explain the
energy transfers that occur from the moment the ball is released up to the highest
point on its path. Assume that air resistance acts on the ball during its flight.
Topic 1 — Energy 1. Energy Stores and Systems
ANSWERS
1) You could have named any three from the following: gravitational potential, thermal,
kinetic, elastic potential, chemical, magnetic, electrostatic and nuclear.
2) E.g. energy can be transferred mechanically (work is done by a force),
electrically (work is done by moving charges), or by heating.
3) A system is an object or a group of objects.
4) Energy is transferred from the kinetic energy store of the car to the thermal energy stores
of the car and the surroundings.
5) Energy is transferred electrically to the thermal energy store of the kettle's heating
element, which transfers energy by heating to the water's thermal energy store.
6) Energy is transferred from the kinetic energy store of the ball to its gravitational potential
energy store. Energy is also transferred from the ball's kinetic energy store to the thermal
energy stores of the ball and the air as work is done by air resistance to slow it down.
The ideas on this card about energy stores and transfers are super-important for this whole
TIP
topic, so it's a good idea to make sure you've got your head around them before moving on.
2. Kinetic and Potential Energy Stores Topic 1 — Energy
Quick Questions
1) When an object slows down, which store is energy being transferred away from?
2) A 2 kg block and a 5 kg block are both lifted to the same height.
Which block has more energy in its gravitational potential energy store?
Now try these:

3) A melon with a mass of 1 kg is dropped from a height of 10 m. How much energy
will have been transferred to its kinetic energy store by the time it hits the ground if
there is no air resistance? The gravitational field strength is 9.8 N/kg.
4) The melon hits the ground with a speed of 13 m/s. Use a calculation
to show whether or not air resistance acted on the melon as it fell.
5) Josh stretches a spring with a spring constant of 200 N/m
from 117 cm to 127 cm. How much energy is transferred
to the spring’s elastic potential energy store?
(Elastic potential energy = ½ × spring constant × (extension)2)
Topic 1 — Energy 2. Kinetic and Potential Energy Stores
ANSWERS
1) The object's kinetic energy store.
2) The 5 kg block has more energy in its gravitational potential energy (g.p.e.) store. (It has a
higher mass and the amount of energy in a g.p.e. store depends on mass, as Ep = mgh.)
3) 98 J. If no force is acting against the melon as it falls, then:
energy gained in the kinetic energy store = energy lost from the g.p.e. store
= mgh = 1 × 9.8 × 10 = 98 J
4) Ek = ½mv2 = ½ × 1 × 132 = ½ × 169 = 84.5 J
The energy gained in the kinetic energy store is less than that lost from the g.p.e. store
(98 J). This means air resistance must have acted on the melon to transfer some energy to
thermal stores.
5) 1 J. The extension is 27 – 17 = 10 cm = 0.1 m
Elastic potential energy = ½ × spring constant × (extension)2 = ½ × 200 × 0.12 = 1 J
Make sure you've learnt the equations for the energy in an object's kinetic energy store and
TIP
its gravitational potential energy store off by heart — you won't be given them in the exams.
3. Specific Heat Capacity Topic 1 — Energy
Quick Questions
1) True or false? If a material has a high specific heat capacity, a relatively large amount
of energy is required to increase its temperature by a certain amount.
2) What does the D symbol mean ?
Now try these:

3) The specific heat capacity of iron is 450 J/kg°C. How much energy will have
been transferred to a 0.5 kg iron block if its temperature rises by 10 °C?
(Change in thermal energy = mass × specific heat capacity × temperature change)
4) Dan carries out an experiment to measure the specific heat
Temperature / °C
capacity of tin. He uses an electric heater connected to a power
supply, inserted into an insulated 250 g block of tin. Describe 20 °C
the energy transfers that take place during his experiment.
1000 J
5) The graph on the right shows Dan's results.
Calculate the specific heat capacity of tin. Energy transferred / J
Topic 1 — Energy 3. Specific Heat Capacity
ANSWERS
1) True. (Specific heat capacity is the energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a
substance by 1 °C.)
2) The symbol D means "change in". (E.g. DE in the specific heat capacity equation is the
change in the thermal energy stored.)
3) 2250 J. DE = mcDq = 0.5 × 450 × 10 = 2250 J
4) Work is done when a current flows. This transfers energy electrically from the power
supply to the heater's thermal energy store. The energy is then transferred to the tin's
thermal energy store by heating.
Dq
5) 200 J/kg °C. Gradient of graph = = 20 ÷ 1000 = 0.02 °C/J.
DE
1 DE 1 1
DE = mcDq so c = m = m gradient . m = 250 g = 0.25 kg.
Dq
1 1
c = 0.25 # 0.02 = 0.005 = 200 J/kg °C
You'll be given the specific heat capacity equation in the exam, so you don't need to learn it.
TIP
Just make sure you're comfortable using it and can rearrange it to your heart's content.
4. Conservation of Energy Topic 1 — Energy
Quick Questions
1) True or false? Energy can be created but not destroyed.
2) What does it mean if energy is transferred 'usefully'?
Now try these:

3) Explain why dissipated energy is sometimes described as being 'wasted'.
4) How can you sometimes tell that energy is being dissipated in an electrical device such
as a mobile phone? Which of the device's energy stores is energy dissipated to?
5) In a closed system, what is the effect of energy transfers on the total energy of the
system? Give an example of energy being transferred in a closed system.
If a system has less energy than it started with, it can't be a closed system.
TIP
Some of the energy must have been transferred to the energy stores of the surroundings.
Topic 1 — Energy 4. Conservation of Energy
ANSWERS
1) False. The conservation of energy principle states that energy can never be created OR
destroyed.
2) Energy that is transferred usefully is transferred into the store you want it to go to.
3) Dissipated energy is sometimes described as being 'wasted' because this energy has been
transferred into stores that are not useful.
4) E.g. the device may feel warm. Energy is dissipated to its thermal energy store.
5) In a closed system, energy transfers have no effect on the total energy of the system.
An example of this is a cold spoon being dropped into an insulated flask containing a hot
liquid. Once the flask is sealed you can assume the liquid and spoon form a closed system.
Energy is transferred by heating from the thermal energy store of the liquid to the thermal
energy store of the spoon.
5. Power Topic 1 — Energy
Quick Questions
1) Give the equation that gives power in terms of work done and time.
2) What does it mean if a machine is 'powerful'?
Now try these:

3) How much work is done by a 150 kW powerboat operating at full power for 10 s?
4) A 2 kW electric kettle transfers 330 kJ to the thermal energy store of the heating
element to bring the water to the boil. How long does it take for the water to boil?
5) Derek is entering the 100 m lawnmower race in the Speed Gardening Olympiad.
One of his lawnmowers has an engine power of 9000 W, and his other lawnmower
has a power of 7000 W. The two lawnmowers are otherwise identical.
Which lawnmower should he choose for the race? Why?
6) A toaster takes 200 s to toast a slice of bread.
In that time, the toaster transfers 180 000 J of energy.
What is the power of the toaster?
Topic 1 — Energy 5. Power
ANSWERS
1) P = W ÷ t (power = work done ÷ time)
2) A powerful machine is a machine that can transfer a lot of energy in a short space of time.
3) 1.5 MJ. P = W ÷ t, so W = P × t. P = 150 kW = 150 000 W.
W = 150 000 × 10 = 1 500 000 J or 1.5 MJ
(The 'M' stands for 'mega' — 1 megajoule is the same as 1 million joules.)
4) 165 s. P = E ÷ t, so t = E ÷ P. P = 2 kW = 2000 W. E = 330 kJ = 330 000 J.
t = 330 000 ÷ 2000 = 165 s.
5) The 9000 W lawnmower would be a better choice for the race, as it has a more powerful
engine. This means it can do the amount of work needed to reach the end of the course
in a shorter time.
6) P = E ÷ t = 180 000 ÷ 200 = 900 W
'Work done' is just another way of saying 'energy transferred' — both have units of joules,
TIP
so the two equations for power are the same really. Make sure you've learnt them both.
6. Reducing Unwanted Energy Transfers Topic 1 — Energy
Quick Questions
1) Should thermal insulation have a high or low thermal conductivity?
2) Describe how the cooling rate of a building relates to the thickness of its walls.
12 mm
Now try these:
3) A lubricant is added to the hinges of a door. Suggest an unwanted energy
transfer that the lubricant reduces as the door opens and closes.
glass
glass
air
4) Part of a double-glazed window, consisting of two glass panes separated
by a sealed layer of air, is shown on the right. Use the table below to
explain why the double-glazed window is a better insulator than a
single 12 mm-thick pane of glass.
Material Thermal conductivity (W / m K)
Air 0.03
Glass 0.96
Topic 1 — Energy 6. Reducing Unwanted Energy Transfers
ANSWERS
1) low thermal conductivity
2) The thicker the walls of a building, the slower the building will cool.
3) E.g. an energy transfer from the kinetic energy store of the door to the thermal energy
store of the hinge/door.
4) Air has a much lower thermal conductivity than
glass. This means that the rate that energy is
transferred through the double-glazed window,
which contains a layer of air, will be much lower
than through the window which is solid glass.
Pete had a bad case of insulation envy.
As long as you remember all the jazzy vocab, reducing unwanted energy transfers is mainly
TIP
common sense. Like my mum says — 'put on lots of layers or you'll catch your death'.
7. Efficiency Topic 1 — Energy
Quick Questions
1) What is the equation relating efficiency, total power input and useful power output?
2) What would an efficiency of 0% tell you about the energy transfers of a device?
Now try these:

3) An electric motor usefully transfers 24 J of energy. The remaining 16 J of
input energy is wasted. What is the percentage efficiency of the motor?
4) The total power input of the same motor is 3.0 W.
What is the useful power output of the motor?
5) Chris cycles to work on the bike in the diagram.
HIGHER
He wants to improve his cycling efficiency.

Explain how Chris could increase his efficiency.
The main thing to remember about efficiency is that "efficiency = useful output ÷ total input".
TIP
Whether you've been given power or energy transferred, it works. Pretty neat, right...
Topic 1 — Energy 7. Efficiency
ANSWERS
1) Efficiency = useful power output ÷ total power input.
2) The device doesn't transfer any energy usefully.
3) 60%. Efficiency = useful output energy transfer ÷ total input energy transfer
Total input energy transfer = 24 + 16 = 40 J. Useful output energy transfer = 24 J
Efficiency = 24 ÷ 40 = 0.60. As a percentage, efficiency = 0.60 × 100 = 60%.
4) 1.8 W. Efficiency = useful power output ÷ total power input
0.60 = useful power output ÷ 3.0
Useful power output = 0.60 × 3.0 = 1.8 W.
5) To improve his efficiency Chris needs to improve his useful power output by reducing the
amount of energy transferred to energy stores that aren't useful. E.g. he could do this by
wearing more streamlined clothes/helmet, so that less work is done against air resistance
as he cycles. Alternatively, he could get a better bike that is more efficient, so that less of
the power he puts in when pedalling is transferred to energy stores that are not useful. He
could also lubricate the moving components of his bike to reduce the amount of energy
transferred due to friction, e.g. to the thermal energy stores of these moving components.
8. Energy Resources and Their Uses Topic 1 — Energy
Quick Questions
1) What are the three main fossil fuels?
2) Name three renewable energy resources.
Now try these:

3) One of the main uses of energy resources is heating. Name two others.
4) Give one way that a non-renewable energy
resource can be used to heat buildings.
Give another way that uses a renewable energy resource.
5) What does it mean if an energy resource is ‘renewable’?
6) Briefly compare the advantages and disadvantages of
renewable and non-renewable energy resources.
Make sure you can clearly explain the difference between renewable and non-renewable
TIP
energy resources, and that you can give plenty of examples of each type and their uses.
Topic 1 — Energy 8. Energy Resources and Their Uses
ANSWERS
1) Coal, oil and (natural) gas.
2) You could have named any three from the following: the Sun (solar), wind, water waves,
hydro-electricity, biofuel, tides and geothermal.
3) E.g. generating electricity and transport.
4) Ways that use non-renewable resources include: burning natural gas, burning coal and
using electric heaters which use electricity generated from non‑renewable resources.
Ways that use renewable resources include: using a geothermal heat pump, using a solar
water heater, burning biofuel and using heaters which use electricity generated from
renewable resources.
5) A renewable energy resource is one that will never run out, as it is being (or can be)
replenished as it is used.
6) Renewable energy resources will never run out, whereas non-renewable resources might.
Renewable energy resources do less damage to the environment than non-renewable
resources. However, renewable energy resources tend not to provide as much energy as
non‑renewable resources, and can be less reliable as they often depend on the weather.
9. Energy Resources Topic 1 — Energy
Quick Questions
1) Name a material that can be used to make biofuels.
2) Name a renewable energy resource that could be used to power a satellite in space.
Now try these:

3) Geothermal energy can be used to heat water. State the energy stores that
energy is transferred from and to when harnessing geothermal energy.
4) How reliable is hydro-electric power? Explain your answer.
5) Explain how hydro-electric power can impact the environment.
6) Explain why fossil fuels are currently a reliable resource.
Suggest why they may not be a reliable resource in the future.
7) Give an advantage and a disadvantage of using nuclear power compared to fossil fuels.
Each energy resource will have its own pros and cons. These are often about reliability and
TIP
environmental impact. Make sure you can remember the ins and outs for each resource.
Topic 1 — Energy 9. Energy Resources
ANSWERS
1) E.g. plant products or animal dung.
2) Solar power (tides, wind, waves etc. are not present in space).
3) Energy is transferred from the thermal energy stores of underground rocks
to the thermal energy store of the water being heated.
4) It's reliable, except in times of drought. Water can be allowed through turbines to provide
an immediate response to a demand for electricity.
5) E.g. it usually requires the flooding of a valley, which can cause rotting vegetation that
emits atmospheric greenhouse gases, and can cause the destruction of habitats.
6) Fossil fuels are reliable at the moment because they can be extracted from the Earth
at a fast enough rate that power plants always have fuel in stock to meet demand.
However, they are slowly running out, so in the future they will be harder to obtain,
and there will come a point when supply will not be able to meet demand.
7) E.g. nuclear power is more environmentally friendly, as unlike fossil fuels, it doesn't
directly emit sulfur dioxide or greenhouse gases. However, the nuclear waste produced is
dangerous and difficult to dispose of. There's also the risk of a major nuclear catastrophe.
10. More on Energy Resources Topic 1 — Energy
Quick Questions
1) What type of energy resource only produces power during the daytime?
2) What is tidal energy used for?
3) Is wave power a reliable resource? Why?
Now try these:

4) Describe how fossil fuels contribute to global warming.
5) How do fossil fuels impact the environment,
other than through global warming?
6) Explain why biofuels are considered a fairly reliable energy resource.
7) Compare the reliability of tidal and solar power.
More of the same I'm afraid. There are just so many energy resources. But don't skip any.
TIP
Murphy's law states that the one you skip will be the one that comes up in the exam...
Topic 1 — Energy 10. More on Energy Resources
ANSWERS
1) solar power
2) to generate electricity
3) No. It is fairly unreliable because the waves tend to die out when the wind drops.
4) Fossil fuels emit carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases into the atmosphere when
they are burned. This adds to the greenhouse effect, and contributes to global warming.
5) E.g. burning coal or oil releases sulfur dioxide, which causes acid rain that is harmful to
trees and soils. Coal mining also ruins landscapes, and oil spillages can affect mammals and
birds living in and around the sea.
6) The crops used for biofuels take a relatively short time to grow, and different crops can be
grown all year round. They can also be stored for when they are needed, so they provide
a reliable energy resource.
7) Both solar and tidal power are fairly reliable. Solar power can generate electricity even
when it's cloudy, and tidal power relies on the tides, which always occur twice daily and are
close to their predicted heights. However, the power output from both resources will vary
with external factors (such as tidal height), and the output cannot be increased on demand.
11. Trends in Energy Resource Use Topic 1 — Energy
Quick Questions
1) Suggest one reason why the UK currently generates some of its electricity using
non-renewable energy resources.
2) Give one reason why electricity use in the UK has decreased this century.
Now try these:

3) Give two reasons why governments are keen to use more renewable energy resources.
4) Why can't a government suddenly reduce the amount of energy provided by
non-renewable resources?
5) A campaign group made this statement: 'Onshore wind farms are a cost-effective
way to meet electricity demand without burning lots of fossil fuels'.
Give two limitations on the number of onshore wind farms that can be built.
There are two sides to every argument. If you're asked to "evaluate" a topic like this one,
TIP
make sure you explain both sides — it shows you've thought about it from several angles.
Topic 1 — Energy 11. Trends in Energy Resource Use
ANSWERS
1) E.g. you can generate electricity fairly cheaply using fossil fuels, and the supply is reliable.
2) E.g. appliances are becoming increasingly efficient and people are becoming more careful
with energy use in their homes.
3) E.g. renewable energy resources have less of a negative impact on the environment than
non-renewables, and governments are aware that non‑renewables will run out one day,
so it may be worth trying to get by without them before this occurs. Also, other countries
and the public are exerting pressure to shift towards renewable resources.
4) E.g. the renewable energy resources required to replace the non-renewables are generally
less reliable and cannot increase power output on demand. Researching ways to improve
reliability takes time.
5) E.g. there are only a limited number of places where onshore wind farms can be built, as
they need to be in an exposed area, but without people living nearby who may protest
about the noise of the turbines. Building wind farms also costs money. The amount of
money available to spend will therefore limit the number of wind farms that can be built.
12. Current and Circuit Symbols Topic 2 — Electricity
Quick Questions
1) True or false? The current in a single closed loop of wire is the same at any point.
2) What do the circuit symbols below represent?
A. B. C.
3) What is the equation that links charge flow, current and time?
Now try these:

4) Give two reasons why current will not flow in the circuit on
the right.
5) A current of 12 A flows through a circuit in a power washer
for 80 s. How much charge flows during this time?
6) Larry charged his mobile phone battery by connecting it to a 0.5 A current.
A total of 1800 C is transferred to the battery.
How many minutes was the battery charged for?
Topic 2 — Electricity
12. Current and Circuit Symbols
ANSWERS
1) True.
2) A. a light-emitting diode (LED)
B. a fuse
C. a variable resistor
3) Charge flow = current × time or Q = It.
4) It is not a closed circuit (the switch is open)
and there is no source of potential difference.
5) 960 C. Q = It = 12 × 80 = 960 C
6) 60 minutes. Q = It so t = Q ÷ I = 1800 ÷ 0.5 = 3600 s.
Convert from seconds to minutes: 3600 ÷ 60 = 60 minutes.
In the exam you could be asked to draw and interpret circuit diagrams, so make sure you
TIP
know all the circuit symbols and what it takes for current to be able to flow around a circuit.
13. Resistance and V = IR Topic 2 — Electricity
Quick Questions
1) True or false? For a given potential difference, the smaller the resistance of a
component, the smaller the current through it will be.
2) How can you calculate the resistance of a component if you know
the potential difference across it and the current through it?
Now try these: crocodile clip

A
3) A current flows through a 20 Ω component when
a potential difference of 9 V is placed across it.
V
+
What is the size of the current?
4) Mia uses the equipment on the right to investigate how the
+
resistance of a wire increases with length. Briefly describe centimetre
a method Mia could follow to do this investigation. ruler
5) How could Mia reduce the error in her length measurements? wire
13. Resistance and V = IR
ANSWERS
1) False. (Resistance is anything that slows down the flow of charge. So for a given potential
difference, the smaller the resistance of a component, the greater the current through it
will be.)
2) Divide the potential difference by the current. (V = IR, so R = V ÷ I).
3) 0.45 A. V = IR so I = V ÷ R = 9 ÷ 20 = 0.45 A.
4) E.g. attach one crocodile clip to the wire so that it is level with the 0 cm mark on the ruler.
Place the other clip 10 cm away from the first. Record the length of the wire. Close the
switch and record the current (I) through the wire and the potential difference (V) across it.
Open the switch and move the second crocodile clip another 10 cm away, then record the
new wire length. Close the switch and record I and V. Repeat this for a number of different
lengths. Use the equation R = V ÷ I to calculate the resistance, R, of the different lengths
of wire. Plot a graph of R against wire length to see the relationship between them.
5) E.g. use a ruler with a higher resolution, such as a millimetre ruler.
Investigating how the resistance of a wire varies with length is one of the required practicals,
TIP
so it could crop up in the exam. Make sure you know it inside out.
14. Resistance and I-V Characteristics Topic 2 — Electricity
Quick Questions
1) True or false? A diode has a very high resistance in one direction.
2) What is the relationship between potential difference and current for an ohmic
conductor at a constant temperature?
I
Now try these:
3) What component would produce an I-V graph with
the shape shown on the right? Say whether it
is a linear component or a non-linear component. V
4) Briefly describe an investigation you could do to
be able to plot an I-V characteristic for a component.
Make sure you know how to measure I and V values for a component, as well the I-V
TIP
characteristics for a filament lamp, a diode and an ohmic conductor. They’re exam faves.
14. Resistance and I-V Characteristics
ANSWERS
1) True. (The high resistance in one direction makes it very hard for a current to flow in
that direction.)
2) Current is directly proportional to potential difference for an ohmic conductor at a
constant temperature.
3) E.g. a filament lamp. It is a non-linear component. (Its I-V graph is not a straight line. As
current flows, energy is transferred to the filament’s thermal energy store, which increases
the filament’s resistance. As the current increases, the filament heats up more and the
resistance increases.)
4) E.g. set up a test circuit made up of a power supply, variable resistor, the component and
an ammeter all connected in series. Connect a voltmeter in parallel with the component
to measure the potential difference across it. Take initial readings from the ammeter and
voltmeter, then alter the current through the component (e.g. by 0.2 A) by varying the
resistance of the variable resistor. Alter the current several times (e.g. 5 times) and take
a potential difference reading for each current. Swap over the wires connected to
the cell so that the direction of the current through the component is reversed.
Repeat the experiment.
15. Circuit Devices Topic 2 — Electricity
Quick Questions
1) Name the component represented by this circuit symbol.
2) True or false? Thermistors can be used in thermostats
that control the temperature of a room.
Now try these:

3) What happens to the resistance of a thermistor when its temperature decreases?
4) Zane is scared of the dark. He makes
the circuit shown to automatically
switch on a light when it gets dark.
+
Explain how the circuit works.
5) How would Zane need to alter the
+
circuit to be able to measure the potential
difference across the light bulb?
15. Circuit Devices
ANSWERS
1) A light-dependent resistor (LDR).
2) True. (They’re used in lots of devices that need to sense changes in temperature.)
3) The resistance increases.
4) The LDR’s resistance will be low in daylight and increase as the light level falls and it gets
dark. This means the potential difference across both the LDR and the bulb will be higher
when it’s dark and the LDR’s resistance is high. The greater the potential difference across
the bulb, the more energy it gets. So the bulb connected across an LDR will get brighter as
the room gets darker.
5) He could measure the potential difference across the bulb by connecting a voltmeter in
parallel with it.
It’s easy to get mixed up with how the resistance of thermistors and LDRs vary. Make sure
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you’ve got it straight so you don’t get too hot under the collar if they come up in the exams.
16. Series Circuits Topic 2 — Electricity
Quick Questions
1) True or false? All components connected in series will have the same size current
flowing through them.
2) How do you find the total resistance of a series circuit?
Now try these:

3) Two 4 V cells are connected correctly in series.
What potential difference will this combination of cells be able to supply?
4) A series circuit contains two resistors connected to a 12 V battery.
The potential difference across one resistor is 8.7 V.
What is the potential difference across the other resistor?
5) Geoff makes a set of Christmas tree lights by connecting 200
filament bulbs in series with each other. Each bulb has the same
resistance. He connects them to the 230 V mains supply. The current
through the bulbs is 0.1 A. What is the resistance of each bulb?
16. Series Circuits
ANSWERS
1) True. The current is the same at any point in a series circuit.
2) By adding up the resistance of each component in the circuit. (You could also work
out the total resistance by measuring the current through the circuit and the potential
difference across all components, then using the equation V = IR.)
3) 8 V. Cell potential differences add up when they are connected correctly in series.
4) 3.3 V. The total potential difference (12 V) is shared across the resistors. So the potential
difference must be equal to 12 – 8.7 = 3.3 V.
5) 11.5 Ω. V = IR, where R is the total resistance of the circuit.
R = V ÷ I = 230 ÷ 0.1 = 2300 Ω
The resistance of each bulb, Rb, is the same, and the sum of their resistances = 2300 Ω.
So Rb = 2300 ÷ 200 = 11.5 Ω.
Questions on series circuits can be a breeze if you know how to apply the rules for current,
TIP
potential difference and resistance. Keep practising until they’re firmly fixed in your head.
17. Parallel Circuits Topic 2 — Electricity
Quick Questions
1) True or false? The current through all components connected in parallel is always
the same.
2) Which will have a higher total resistance: two identical resistors connected in
parallel, or the same resistors connected in series?
Now try these: 9V
Aliyah is free on Saturday night, so she makes this parallel circuit:

3) What is the potential difference across Bulb 1 (V1)? Bulb 1 2.0 A
4) What is the current through ammeter A1? 0.74 A

5) Bulb 1 blows. What change, if any, will there be to the
potential difference across Bulb 2? Bulb 2
A1
6) Will the total current flowing in the circuit change
when Bulb 1 blows? Explain your answer.
17. Parallel Circuits
ANSWERS
1) False. (The current is shared between the branches of a parallel circuit. The potential
difference across all components connected in parallel is the same.)
2) The resistors connected in series will have a higher resistance. (When you connect
resistors in parallel you lower their total resistance.)
3) 9 V. (All parallel branches get the full potential difference (pd) of the source and Bulb 1 is
the only component on the branch, so the pd across Bulb 1 is the same as the source pd.)
4) 1.26 A. The total current in the parallel circuit (2.0 A) is the sum of the currents through
the branches. So A1 = 2.0 – 0.74 = 1.26 A.
5) It won’t change — it stays equal to the potential difference across the cell (9 V).
6) Yes — the total current will decrease. The resistance of two parallel resistors is less
than the lowest individual resistance. So the total resistance of the circuit will increase
when Bulb 1 blows, but the potential difference will stay the same. Current is inversely
proportional to resistance (V = IR, so I = V ÷ R), so the current must decrease.
The key things to remember about parallel circuits are that the potential difference across
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parallel branches is always the same, and the current is split between the branches.
18. More on Series and Parallel Circuits Topic 2 — Electricity
Quick Questions
1) Each light in a house can be turned on and off without affecting other lights.
Are the lights connected in series or parallel?
2) True or false? The potential difference across the components in a circuit is not
affected by how the components are connected to the power supply.
Now try these: 1.5 V 1.5 V
The diagram shows the circuit

used to power lights in a toy car. 1.5 V I1
3) Calculate the total current 3Ω
in the circuit, I1. 0.25 A
V1
4) What are potential differences V1 and V2? 0.25 A
5) The bulb has a resistance of 4 Ω. R1
Calculate the resistance of the resistor, R1.
V2
Topic 2 — Electricity 18. More on Series and Parallel Circuits
ANSWERS
1) They must be connected in parallel. (All the lights would turn on and off at the same time
if they were connected in series.)
2) False. The potential difference (pd) of components in series add up to the power supply
pd but components connected in parallel to the supply have a pd equal to the supply pd.
3) 0.5 A. I1 = 0.25 + 0.25 = 0.5 A.
4) 1.5 V. The total power supply pd = 1.5 + 1.5 = 3 V. Current flowing around the circuit
using the top branch will flow through the LED and the 3 Ω resistor, which are connected
in series. They have a total of 3 V across them, and the 3 Ω resistor has 1.5 V across it.
So the pd across the LED = 3 – 1.5 = 1.5 V. The bottom branch is connected in parallel
with the LED, so it must have the same pd across it (V2).
5) 2 Ω. The total resistance of the bottom branch containing the bulb and the resistor is
R = V ÷ I = 1.5 ÷ 0.25 = 6 Ω. The bulb has a resistance of 4 Ω. So R1 = 6 – 4 = 2 Ω.
Try not to panic if you get given a circuit that has both series and parallel parts. Just take your
TIP
time and work out which bits are which, then apply the rules as normal. Job’s a good ‘un.
19. Investigating Series and Parallel Circuits Topic 2 — Electricity
Quick Questions
1) True or false? Adding resistors in series to a circuit should increase the total
resistance of the circuit.
2) When investigating how connecting resistors in series or parallel circuits affects the
overall resistance, why is it important to use the same equipment?
Now try these:
Total circuit resistance /Ω

3) Describe an experiment to investigate how adding
resistors in series affects the total resistance of a circuit.
4) Habib investigates how adding identical resistors in parallel
to a circuit affects the total resistance of the circuit.
He plots the graph on the right of his results.
0
Give a conclusion Habib can make from his data. no. of resistors
Congrats, you’ve made it to the last card on circuits — hopefully they haven’t driven you loopy.
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If you’re still not confident with all things series and parallel, go back and check your notes.
Topic 2 — Electricity 19. Investigating Series and Parallel Circuits
ANSWERS
1) True.
2) To keep the experiment a fair test. (E.g. changing the equipment might introduce
random errors.)
3) E.g. build a simple series circuit using a battery, an ammeter and one resistor. Record the
potential difference of the battery. Measure the current through the circuit using the
ammeter. Use these values to calculate the resistance of the circuit using the formula
R = V ÷ I. Add another identical resistor in series with the first resistor. Again measure
the current and potential difference of the battery to calculate the resistance of the circuit.
Repeat this process of adding a resistor in series and calculating the circuit resistance at
least 3 times. Plot a graph of the number of resistors against the total resistance of the
circuit to see the relationship between them.
4) E.g. the total resistance decreased as the number of resistors connected in parallel in the
circuit increased.
20. Electricity in the Home Topic 2 — Electricity
Quick Questions
1) True or false? The frequency of the UK mains electricity supply is 230 Hz.
2) Which wire in a three-core cable is covered in brown insulation?
3) What is the potential difference between the live wire and the earth wire?
Now try these:

4) What is the difference between an alternating current and a direct current?
5) What colour is the neutral wire in a three-core cable?
6) What is the purpose of an earth wire in an appliance?
7) A hairdryer is plugged into the mains electricity supply but it is switched off.
Is it dangerous to touch the hairdryer’s live wire? Explain your answer.
Electricity is useful but dangerous stuff — make sure you know the ins and outs of how
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appliances are wired, and how that wiring keeps you safe (e.g. while you’re using your laptop).
20. Electricity in the Home
ANSWERS
1) False. (The frequency of the UK mains electricity supply is 50 Hz; the potential difference
is 230 V.)
2) The live wire.
3) 230 V.
4) An alternating current is constantly changing direction, whereas a direct current always
flows in the same direction.
5) Blue.
6) It stops an appliance becoming live, which keeps users of the appliance safe from getting an
electric shock.
7) Yes, it is still dangerous. A current isn’t flowing but there’s
still a potential difference across the live wire. If you made contact
with the live wire, your body might provide a link between the supply
and the earth, so a large current would flow through you.
(Which is a VERY bad thing to have happen.)
21. Power Topic 2 — Electricity
Quick Questions
1) True or false? Work is done when charges flow in a circuit.
2) Give the equation that links energy transferred, charge flow and potential difference.
Now try these:

3) Describe the main energy transfer that happens
when a battery-powered fan is switched on.
4) A charge of 2000 C flows through a motor. The potential difference across
the motor is 230 V. How much energy is transferred by the motor?
5) A chef uses a 1500 W electric hob and a pan to cook pancakes.
It takes 1 minute to cook a pancake. How much energy is
transferred by the hob in this time?
6) Would it be quicker or slower to cook a pancake using a
1750 W hob that has the same efficiency? Explain your answer.
21. Power
ANSWERS
1) True. (Charges in a circuit do work against resistance.)
2) Energy transferred = charge flow × potential difference or E = QV.
3) Energy is transferred electrically from the chemical energy store of the battery to the
kinetic energy store of the fan’s motor.
4) 460 000 J. E = QV = 2000 × 230 = 460 000 J (= 460 kJ).
5) 90 000 J. 1 minute = 60 seconds. E = Pt = 1500 × 60 = 90 000 J (= 90 kJ).
6) It would be quicker. It has a higher power (and the same efficiency), so it will transfer
more energy to the pancake per second. It will therefore transfer the total amount of
energy needed to cook it more quickly.
The power rating of an appliance is the maximum safe power an appliance can work at, but
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you can normally take that to be the operating power when answering questions.
22. More on Power Topic 2 — Electricity
Quick Questions
1) True or false? The power of a device depends on the potential difference across it
and the current through it.
2) What is the equation that links power, current and resistance?
Now try these:

3) A 20 W bulb is plugged into a 100 V power supply.
Calculate the size of the current through the bulb.
4) A 750 W microwave has a resistance of 30 Ω.
Calculate the current through the microwave
when it is turned on.
5) A dentist’s drill is connected to a 200 V power supply. The dentist drills a tooth.
The drill transfers 2400 J of energy and a current of 4 A flows through the drill.
How long did the dentist drill for?
22. More on Power
ANSWERS
1) True. (The power of a device is the product of these values.)
2) Power = (current)2 × resistance or P = I2R.
(You can get this equation by combining P = VI and V = IR.
But it makes life a bit easier if you just learn it.)
3) 0.2 A. P = VI, so I = P ÷ V = 20 ÷ 100 = 0.2 A.
4) 5 A . P = I2R, so I = P ÷ R = 750 ÷ 30 = 25 = 5 A.
5) 3 s. P = VI = 200 × 4 = 800 W.
E = Pt so t = E ÷ P = 2400 ÷ 800 = 3 s.
(You could also use E = QV to find Q and
then Q = It to find t.)
Rearranging P = I2R can be a bit tricky, but just take your time and do the calculation step
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by step. Keep practising rearranging equations until it’s as easy as pie. Mmm pie...
23. The National Grid Topic 2 — Electricity
Quick Questions
1) What is the national grid? What is it used for?
2) True or false? The national grid efficiently transfers energy by transmitting
electricity at a high current and a low potential difference.
Now try these:

3) Name two types of transformers used in the national grid.
4) Describe how these types of transformers are used in the national grid.
5) A transformer has a potential difference (pd) of 160 kV across its primary coil
and 4000 V across its secondary coil. The current through its primary coil is 2000 A.
HIGHER
Use the formula below to find the current in the secondary coil.
VpIp = VsIs, where Vp is the pd across the primary coil and Ip is the current through it,
Vs is the pd across secondary coil and Is is the current through it.
23. The National Grid
ANSWERS
1) The national grid is a system of transformers and cables that connects power stations
to consumers. It is used to transmit electrical power from power stations to consumers
anywhere on the grid.
2) False. (It transfers energy efficiently by using a high potential difference and a low current.
This minimises the energy dissipated by heating.)
3) Step-up transformers and step-down transformers.
4) Step-up transformers are used to increase the potential difference of the electricity supply
before it is transmitted across the national grid (so energy is transmitted efficiently).
A step-down transformer is used to bring the potential difference back down to safe,
usable levels for consumers.
5) 80 000 A. Vp = 160 kV = 160 000 V.
VpIp = VsIs, so Is = (VpIp ) ÷ Vs = (160 000 × 2000) ÷ 4000 = 80 000 A.
It’s thanks to the National Grid that our street lights turn on, we can watch TV, make
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brews... almost everything that requires electricity. Not bad for a bunch of cables...
24. The Particle Model Topic 3 — Particle
Model of Matter
Quick Questions
1) In which state of matter do particles move fastest?
2) In which state of matter is density generally highest?
How is this explained by the particle model?
Now try these:

3) What state of matter is shown in the figure to the right?
4) Describe the differences between the arrangement
of particles in solids and liquids.
5) True or false? In a sample of a gas, all the particles move at the same velocity.
6) If the temperature of a gas increases, how does the motion of its particles change?
7) A gas is held in a container with a constant volume.
Why will the gas pressure increase if it is heated?
Topic 3 — Particle
Model of Matter 24. The Particle Model
ANSWERS
1) Gas.
2) Solid. In the particle model, particles are arranged closest together in the solid state.
3) Gas (the particles are free to move).
4) In solids particles have fixed, regular arrangements, whereas in liquids particles
can move past each other and their arrangements are irregular.
5) False (particles in gases travel in random directions at different speeds).
6) The average speed of the particles increases.
7) Heating the gas will mean that, on average, the particles move faster
and collide with the walls of a container more often. This will increase
the net force exerted on the walls and so increase the pressure.
Make sure you get your head around the particle model because it’s mega important for
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explaining everything in this topic — matter, density, temperature and pressure in gases.
25. Density Topic 3 — Particle
Model of Matter
Quick Questions
1) What does density tell you about a substance?
2) What’s the equation used for calculating density?
3) Name an appropriate piece of equipment for measuring the thickness of a penny.
Now try these:

4) A marshmallow has a mass of 7 g and a volume of 14 cm3. What is its density?
5) The dimensions of a cuboid are 4 cm by 5 cm by 3 cm.
The cuboid has a density of 2 g/cm3. What is the mass of the cuboid?
6) Briefly describe how you could find the density of a small metal unicorn.
7) What is 10.5 m3 in cm3?
Finding the mass of an object always involves placing it on a mass balance, but the method
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and equipment you need to use to find the volume depends on what type of object it is.
Model of Matter 25. Density
ANSWERS
1) How compact the substance is, or how much mass there is per unit of volume.
2) Density = mass ÷ volume or r = m ÷ V.
3) Vernier callipers or a micrometer.
4) 0.5 g/cm3. Density = mass ÷ volume = 7 ÷ 14 = 0.5 g/cm3.
5) 120 g. Volume of a cuboid = length × width × height, so the volume is
4 × 5 × 3 = 60 cm3. Mass = density × volume. This means the cuboid has a mass of
2 × 60 = 120 g. (Remember to take notice of the units that are used in questions like this.
Density is sometimes given in kg/m3 and sometimes in g/cm3.)
6) Use a balance to measure the unicorn’s mass. Then measure its volume by submerging the
unicorn in a eureka can filled with water. The volume of water displaced by the unicorn
will be equal to the volume of the unicorn. Put the unicorn’s mass and volume into the
formula to work out the density.
7) 10 500 000 cm3. 1 m3 = 1 000 000 cm3, 10.5 m3 = 10.5 × 1 000 000 = 10 500 000 cm3.
26. Internal Energy and Changes of State Model of Matter
Quick Questions
1) During which two changes of state does liquid becomes a gas?
2) What is sublimation?
3) True or false? The internal energy of a system is equal to the total energy
that all the particles of the system have in their kinetic energy stores.
Now try these:

4) Explain why a change of state can happen if a substance is cooled.
5) Explain why heating a system can make
the particles in the system move faster.
6) What two things can happen to a system
when its internal energy increases?
7) Explain why mass is conserved when a substance changes state.
8) A change of state is a physical change. What is meant by this?
Model of Matter 26. Internal Energy and Changes of State
ANSWERS
1) Boiling and evaporation.
2) Sublimation is the physical change of a substance from a solid state to a gas state without
passing through a liquid state.
3) False. (It’s the total energy in the kinetic and potential energy stores of all the particles.)
4) As a substance cools, the particles lose energy and as they do so they can form (more)
bonds, which can cause a change of state.
5) Heating a system can transfer energy to the kinetic energy stores of the particles in
the system. The more energy in the kinetic energy store of a particle, the faster it moves.
6) Either the temperature of the system will rise or the system will change state.
7) In a change of state the number of particles stays the same, so the mass is conserved.
8) The change of state doesn’t produce a new substance, instead the substance changes form
and can recover its original properties if the change of state is reversed.
If you’re unsure on any of this, there’s no need for a meltdown. Just check your notes and go
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over changes of state again so that those pesky facts don’t evaporate before exam day.
27. Specific Latent Heat Topic 3 — Particle
Model of Matter
Quick Questions
1) What is the specific latent heat of vaporisation of a substance?
2) What happens to the internal energy of a substance when it is condensing?
Now try these:
Temperature
3) The graph shows a substance being cooled. In which
segment (A-E) is the substance in a gaseous state?
In which segment (A-E) is the substance freezing?
4) What is the difference between specific latent heat A B C D E
and specific heat capacity? Time
5) The energy needed to change 4 kg of a substance from a solid to a liquid is 240 000 J.
Use the formula below to calculate the specific latent heat of fusion of the substance.
energy = mass × specific latent heat
6) Explain why the temperature does not rise when a substance that is being heated
changes state.
Model of Matter 27. Specific Latent Heat
ANSWERS
1) The energy needed to change 1 kg of the substance from a liquid into a vapour/gas
without raising the temperature of the substance.
2) The internal energy decreases. (This is because bonds are forming, which releases energy.)
3) Gaseous state: A
Freezing: D
4) Specific latent heat is the energy required to change the state of 1 kg of a substance
without raising the temperature and the specific heat capacity is the energy required to
raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1 °C.
5) 60 000 J/kg. Specific latent heat = energy ÷ mass = 240 000 ÷ 4 = 60 000 J/kg.
6) The energy transferred to the substance is being used to break intermolecular bonds
rather than to raise the temperature.
Get yourself really familiar with both heating and cooling graphs, making sure you
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understand what’s happening to the particles and their internal energy at each stage.
28. The Model of the Atom Topic 4 — Atomic
Structure
Quick Questions
1) What two types of particle make up an atom’s nucleus? For each type, say
whether the particles have a positive charge, a negative charge, or no charge.
2) True or false? The radius of a nucleus is less than 1/10 000
of the radius of the atom.
Now try these:

3) Describe the plum pudding model of an atom.
4) What happens to an electron in an atom when it absorbs electromagnetic radiation?
Assume that the atom isn’t ionised by the electromagnetic radiation.
5) How can the results of the alpha particle scattering experiment
be explained by the nuclear model of the atom?
6) How did Niels Bohr adapt the nuclear model of the atom?
Topic 4 — Atomic
Structure 28. The Model of the Atom
ANSWERS
1) Protons and neutrons. Protons have a positive charge, and neutrons have no charge.
2) True. (The nucleus is tiny, but it contains most of the mass of the atom.)
3) In the plum pudding model, atoms are spheres of positive charge with tiny negatively
charged electrons stuck in them.
4) The electron gains energy from the electromagnetic radiation, causing it to move to a
higher energy level that is further away from the atomic nucleus.
5) Most of the alpha particles passed straight through the thin gold sheet, suggesting an atom
is mostly empty space. However, a few alpha particles were deflected back the way they
had come, suggesting there’s a small region in the atom that is positively charged (to repel
the alpha particles) and where most of the atomic mass is concentrated. This fits with the
nuclear model of an atom which has a small, dense, positively charged nucleus at its centre.
6) Bohr suggested that electrons orbit the nucleus at specific distances called energy levels.
If you find yourself flagging, try going for a wander outside — some good ol’ sunshine never
TIP
fails to boost my energy levels. And if you don’t trust me, try asking the humble electron...
29. Atoms and Isotopes Topic 4 — Atomic
Structure
Quick Questions
12
1) What is the mass number and atomic number of 6 C?
2) True or false? Different isotopes of an element
will have the same number of neutrons but a
different number of protons. +
Now try these:

3) An isotope of potassium can be written in the form 39
19 K.
How many protons and neutrons are there in the isotope’s nucleus?
James has a pet atom, Quentin, or Q for short.
4) Q has 22 protons and 19 neutrons. How many electrons does it have?
5) What is the mass number and atomic number of Q?
6) Is Q an isotope of potassium? Explain your answer.
7) Q becomes a positive ion. Describe how Q has changed.
Topic 4 — Atomic
Structure 29. Atoms and Isotopes
ANSWERS
12
1) 6 C has a mass number of 12 and an atomic number of 6.
2) False. (Different isotopes of an element will have the same number of protons but a
different number of neutrons.)
39
3) 19 K has 19 protons (atomic number = no. of protons) and 20 neutrons
(mass number = no. of protons + no. of neutrons, so no. of neutrons = 39 – 19).
4) 22 electrons. (An atom has the same no. of electrons as protons.)
5) Mass number = no. of protons + no. of neutrons = 22 + 19 = 41.
Atomic number = no. of protons = 22.
6) Atom Q is not an isotope of potassium. Atoms of the same element will have the same
number of protons. Potassium has 19 protons, whereas atom Q has 22 protons.
7) One (or more) of its outer electrons has been removed.
Almost all of the atomic mass is concentrated in protons and neutrons in the nucleus. This
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is how I remember that the mass number includes protons and neutrons, but not electrons.
30. Nuclear Radiation Topic 4 — Atomic
Structure
Quick Questions
1) True or false? An alpha particle is the same as a hydrogen nucleus.
2) What are gamma rays?
3) What is a beta particle? g
Now try these:
4) Why do some atomic nuclei undergo radioactive decay?
5) What is meant by the ionising power of radiation? Which has the lowest ionising
power out of alpha particles, beta particles and gamma rays? Which has the highest?
6) What type of nuclear radiation can pass through a sheet of paper or a 5 mm thick
aluminium sheet, but cannot pass through a thick sheet of lead?
7) Ionising radiation is used to ionise the air inside a smoke detector. For safety
reasons, the radiation used should not penetrate the detector’s plastic casing.
What type of radiation should be used in a smoke detector? Explain your answer.
Topic 4 — Atomic
Structure 30. Nuclear Radiation
ANSWERS
1) False. (An alpha particle is the same as a helium nucleus, not a hydrogen nucleus.)
2) Short wavelength electromagnetic radiation emitted by the nucleus of an atom.
3) A fast-moving electron. (A beta particle is released by the nucleus as a neutron turns into
a proton.)
4) Unstable atomic nuclei decay to become more stable.
5) Ionising power is a measure of how easily ionising radiation can remove electrons
from atoms, leaving behind positive ions. Out of the three types of radiation listed,
gamma rays have the lowest ionising power and alpha particles have the highest.
6) Gamma radiation.
7) Alpha radiation — it has a high ionising power, so it can strongly ionise the air inside the
detector. It also has a small range and penetrating power, so it will be completely absorbed
by the air in the detector or by the plastic casing before reaching the detector’s exterior.
The bigger the particle, the more likely it is to collide with an atom. This means it’ll have a
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high ionising power and a short range. Once you’ve got this sussed, it’s as easy as abg...
31. Nuclear Equations Topic 4 — Atomic
Structure
Quick Questions
1) A nucleus emits a gamma ray. What happens to the mass number of the atom?
How about its charge?
238 234
2) What type of particle is emitted as 92 U decays to 90 Th?
Now try these:

234
3) Give the nuclear equation for 91 Pa decaying to uranium, U, by beta particle emission.
4) Explain how this nuclear equation shows that a neutron
has been converted to a proton during the decay.
5) The resulting uranium nucleus undergoes multiple alpha
decays to become 21884 Po. How many alpha particles are
produced as the uranium decays to 218
84 Po?
Nuclear equations are a bit of a balancing act. Check to make sure the sum of the atomic
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numbers and the sum of the mass numbers are the same on both sides of the equation.
Topic 4 — Atomic
Structure 31. Nuclear Equations
ANSWERS
1) The mass number and the charge remain unchanged.
2) An alpha particle ^42 Heh is emitted. (The atomic number has decreased by 2 and the mass
number has decreased by 4, so it must be an alpha particle that’s emitted.)
234 234 0 0
3) 91 Pa " 92 U + -1 e (A beta particle is an electron, so it can be written -1 e — it goes on
the right-hand side of the equation. To get the correct isotope of uranium, balance the
mass numbers (e.g. 234 = 234 + 0) and atomic numbers (91 = 92 – 1).)
4) The proton number has increased, but the mass number hasn’t changed. So a neutron
must have become a proton during the decay.
5) 4 alpha decays. (A single alpha decay causes the mass number of the nucleus to decrease
by 4 and the atomic number to decrease by 2. For 234 218
92 U to decay into 84 Po , 4 alpha
particles must be emitted, as the mass number has decreased by 16 and the atomic
number has decreased by 8.)
32. Half-life Topic 4 — Atomic
Structure
Quick Questions
1) Define half-life in terms of the number of nuclei of an isotope in a sample.
2) True or false? It is possible to predict exactly how long
it will take for a certain radioactive nucleus to decay.
3) What is meant by the activity of a radioactive source?
Now try these:

4) The activity-time graph on the right is 600
for a sample of radioactive technetium.
Activity / Bq
400
What is the half-life of the sample?
5) Using the graph, estimate how many 200
radioactive technetium nuclei were
decaying per second after 24 hours. 0
0 4 8 12 16 20 24
6) The initial activity of a different Time / hours
radioactive sample is 96 Bq. Calculate the decline in activity after four half-lives.
H
Give your answer as a ratio of the final activity to the initial activity.
Topic 4 — Atomic
Structure 32. Half-life
ANSWERS
1) The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the time taken for the number of nuclei of that
isotope in a sample to halve.
2) False. (Radioactive decay is a random process, so it is impossible to predict when a certain
nucleus will decay or which nucleus will decay next.)
3) Activity is the rate at which a source of unstable nuclei decays. (If you answered
‘It’s how many sports they play on the weekend’, you’d better hit the books again...)
4) 6 hours. Initial activity = 600 Bq. So after one half-life the 600
Activity / Bq
activity will be 600 ÷ 2 = 300 Bq. Reading from the graph, 400
the time taken for the activity to drop to 300 Bq is 6 hours. 200
5) 50. The activity is equal to the number of nuclei decaying 0
0 4 8 12 16 20 24
per second. On the graph, the height of each grid square Time / hours
represents 100 Bq. At 24 hours, the activity is equal to half a grid square = 50 Bq.
6) 1 : 16. After 1 half-life, activity = 96 ÷ 2 = 48 Bq. After 2 half-lives: 48 ÷ 2 = 24 Bq. After
3 half-lives: 24 ÷ 2 = 12 Bq. After 4 half-lives: 12 ÷ 2 = 6 Bq. So the ratio is 6 : 96 = 1 : 16.
You can double-check you’ve read the half-life from a graph correctly by using a different
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‘initial activity’. E.g. between 6 and 12 hours, the activity halves from 300 Bq to 150 Bq.
33. Irradiation and Contamination Topic 4 — Atomic
Structure
Quick Questions
1) True or false? Irradiation of an object causes it to become radioactive.
2) Define radioactive contamination and explain how it can harm the body.
Now try these:

3) Explain how keeping a gamma source in a lead-lined box when it is not in use
helps to reduce the risk of contamination and irradiation by the source.
4) Which is more likely to be dangerous — irradiation by beta radiation
or by gamma radiation? Assume that both are being emitted by a
radioactive source that is several metres away. Explain your answer.
5) Explain why it is usually more dangerous to be contaminated with
an alpha source than it is to be irradiated by alpha radiation from the same source.
Using radioactive sources is a risky business. Remember, how dangerous irradiation

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and contamination are depends on the type of radiation that’s being emitted.
Topic 4 — Atomic
Structure 33. Irradiation and Contamination
ANSWERS
1) False. (An irradiated object is exposed to nuclear radiation, but doesn’t become radioactive.)
2) Radioactive contamination is the unwanted presence of radioactive atoms in or on an
object/the body. This can be hazardous, as these contaminating atoms can decay and emit
harmful radiation into the body.
3) Gamma rays are absorbed by the lead walls of the box, so very little gamma radiation
will be able to penetrate the box walls and irradiate people/objects outside it.
Keeping the source in a box reduces the risk that some of it will accidentally be
passed onto an object/person, so the risk of contamination is reduced.
4) E.g. it will probably be more dangerous to be irradiated by gamma radiation. Beta radiation
has a higher ionising power, but it has a short range in air so not a lot of the radiation will get
to you. Gamma radiation has a long range in air, so more radiation is likely to reach you.
5) Alpha particles have a low penetration power/range. If the inside of the body becomes
contaminated with an alpha source (e.g. if ingested or inhaled), the alpha particles can do a
lot of damage in a localised area. An irradiating alpha source won’t be as dangerous, as the
alpha particles will mostly be absorbed by the air before reaching the body.
34. Contact and Non-Contact Forces Topic 5 — Forces
Quick Questions
1) True or false? Scalar quantities only have a magnitude.
2) Name two vector quantities.
3) When contact forces act between a pair of interacting objects,
what must be true about the two objects?
Now try these:

A. B. C.
4) Which of the three diagrams
correctly represents two forces 1N 3N 1N 1N 3N
of magnitudes 3 N and 1 N. 3N
5) An ogre locks a princess in a cell, but accidentally drops the key outside the door.
The princess uses a magnet to make the key slide towards her. Name two contact
forces and two non-contact forces acting on the key as it moves.
6) Describe the pair of forces that act in the interaction between the Earth and
the Moon.
Topic 5 — Forces 34. Contact and Non-Contact Forces
ANSWERS
1) True. Secret Spy Base
2) E.g. force, velocity, displacement, acceleration, 5 km East
momentum, weight, drag.
3) They must be physically touching for contact forces to act. Hungry Bear 50 m
4) C. (Remember the length of the arrow
represents the magnitude of the force.)
5) Contact forces — Any two from: friction, air resistance, normal contact force.
Non-contact forces — magnetic force and gravitational force.
6) The gravitational force of the Earth is felt by the Moon and the gravitational force of the
Moon is felt by the Earth. The forces of attraction are equal and opposite.
Remember, whether it’s a contact or non-contact force, it will always be acting in a pair with
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another force, so get used to identifying pairs of forces acting on two interacting objects.
35. Weight, Mass and Gravity Topic 5 — Forces
Quick Questions
1) What is meant by the weight of an object?
2) What’s the formula for calculating the weight of an object?
3) The weight of a uniform object can be assumed to act at a single point.
What is this single point called?
4) What is a newtonmeter used to measure?
Now try these:

5) An object weighs 33 N. The object triples in mass and
stays in the same place. What will its new weight be?
6) The moon has a gravitational field strength of approximately 1.6 N/kg.
Calculate the weight of a 10 kg teddy bear on the moon.
7) A 3 kg piece of broken spaceship weighs 12 N on a planet.
Work out the gravitational field strength of the planet.
Topic 5 — Forces 35. Weight, Mass and Gravity
ANSWERS
1) The force acting on an object due to gravity.
2) Weight = mass × gravitational field strength or W = mg.
3) The object’s centre of mass.
4) Weight or force.
5) 99 N. Weight and mass are directly proportional when g is constant, so if the mass triples
the weight will triple also: 3 × 33 = 99 N.
6) 16 N. W = mg so the weight of the teddy bear = 10 × 1.6 = 16 N.
(Hmmm... a 10 kg teddy. Where can I get one of those?)
7) 4 N/kg. g = W ÷ m so g = 12 ÷ 3 = 4 N/kg.
Don’t let questions about gravity weigh you down. You’ll always be given the gravitational
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field strength if you need it, so just practise rearranging that equation to attract top marks.
36. Resultant Forces and Work Done Topic 5 — Forces
Quick Questions
1) True or false? The forces that act on an object can be replaced with a single
resultant force that has the same effect.
2) What equation is used to calculate work done on an object moved by a force?
3) All the forces acting on an object are balanced.
What is the resultant force?
Now try these:

4) A driving force of 1000 N is acting on a car. A drag force of 850 N acts in the
opposite direction to travel. What is the size and direction of the resultant force?
5) A resultant force of 80 N moves an orange 250 cm. What is the work done in joules?
6) 2000 J of energy was transferred to the kinetic store of a motorbike by doing work.
The engine produced a driving force of 900 N and frictional forces of 850 N acted
on the motorbike. How far along the road did the motorbike travel?
7) Explain why rubbing your hands together heats them up.
Topic 5 — Forces 36. Resultant Forces and Work Done
ANSWERS
1) True. A resultant force can replace forces that are acting on a single object/point.
2) Work done = force × distance (moved along the line of action of the force)
3) 0 N
4) 150 N in the direction of travel. The resultant force = 1000 – 850 = 150 N. The resultant
force is positive so it acts in the same direction as the car is travelling/the driving force.
5) 200 J. W = Fs and 250 cm = 2.5 m, so the work done is 80 × 2.5 = 200 Nm = 200 J.
6) 40 m. The resultant force acting on the motorbike was 900 – 850 = 50 N. s = W ÷ F,
so the distance travelled by the motorbike is 2000 ÷ 50 = 40 m.
7) E.g. as your hands slide over one another, work is being done against frictional forces.
This causes energy to be transferred to the thermal energy stores of your hands, which
warms them up.
The next time someone asks you how much work you’ve done, you can give them an answer
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in joules — that way you can prove you need lots of dinner to replenish your energy stores.
37. Calculating Forces Topic 5 — Forces
Quick Questions
1) What does it mean to ‘resolve’ a single force?
2) If an object is in equilibrium, what must be true about all the forces acting on
the object?
Now try these: 750 N

3000 N 3000 N
HIGHER
3) Calculate the size and direction of the resultant

force acting on the submarine in the diagram to the right. 350 N 200 N
4) Anita is flying a drone. The propellers provide a driving force

1 square = 2 N
of 8 N and the wind exerts a force of 6 N on the drone.
The two forces are represented on the scale drawing.
6 8
What is the magnitude of the resultant force?
5) Three forces are acting on an object. A force of 12 N acts
northwest and another of 12 N acts southwest. Given the
object is in equilibrium, what is the direction of the third force?
Topic 5 — Forces 37. Calculating Forces
ANSWERS
1) Split the force into its perpendicular components. (It’s usually the horizontal and
vertical components but can be any components acting at right angles to each other.)
2) They must be balanced. (You could also say that they must combine to give
a resultant force of zero.)
3) 200 N upwards. Look at the horizontal forces first: 3000 – 3000 = 0 N. Then look at
the forces acting vertically: 750 – (350 + 200) = 750 – 550 = 200 N. Since the forces
acting horizontally cancel out to zero, the resultant force is 200 N upwards.
6
4) 10 N. The resultant force starts at the tail of the first arrow and ends at the tip
of the second arrow on the scale drawing (shown right). Its length is 5 squares. 10
8
Each square is 2 N, so the magnitude of the force is 2 × 5 = 10 N.
5) East. Since the object is in equilibrium, drawing the forces tip-to-tail will
form a triangle. Imagine the triangle formed by the forces (shown right). 12 SW 12 NW
To join up the triangle the third force must be acting to the east.
The direction of the third arrow is different for calculating the resultant force and for finding
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a missing force for an object in equilibrium. Don’t get them the wrong round way.
38. Forces and Elasticity Topic 5 — Forces
Quick Questions
1) What’s the equation that links extension, force and spring constant?
2) What is elastic deformation? How does it differ from inelastic deformation?
Now try these:

3) What’s the minimum number of forces needed to deform a stationary object? Why?
4) A spring with a spring constant of 25 N/m is compressed by 8 cm.
What was the size of the force used to compress the spring?
5) Ralph stretches a spring to 11 cm using a force of 2 N. The natural length of the
spring is 6 cm. What is the spring constant of Ralph’s spring?
6) Ralph calculates the spring constant and predicts that if he increases the force
to 5 N the extension will be 12.5 cm. However, when he uses 5 N the spring
extends by 15 cm. Explain why the extension is greater than Ralph predicted.
Topic 5 — Forces 38. Forces and Elasticity
ANSWERS
1) Force = spring constant × extension or F = ke.
2) Elastic deformation is when an object is deformed, but returns to its original shape/length
when the deforming force is removed. This differs from inelastic deformation, where an
object doesn’t return to its original shape/length when the deforming force is removed.
3) Two. If there’s only one force acting on the object it will move, so at least two forces are
needed.
4) 2 N. F = ke and 8 cm = 0.08 m, so the force used to compress the spring is
25 × 0.08 = 2 N
5) 40 N/m. 11 cm = 0.11 m and 6 cm = 0.06 m, so the extension of the spring in metres is
0.11 – 0.06 = 0.05 m. k = F ÷ e, so the spring constant is 2 ÷ 0.05 = 40 N/m.
6) The limit of proportionality for the spring has been passed at 5 N, so force is no longer
proportional to the extension.
If these questions on elasticity have pushed you past your limit of sanity, just take a short
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break, refresh your memory with a look at your notes and then spring back into action.
39. Investigating Springs Topic 5 — Forces
Quick Questions
1) True or false? The work done to elastically stretch a spring is equal to the elastic
potential energy stored in the spring.
2) A linear force-extension graph means that force and extension are which of the
following? A. not proportional B. directly proportional C. inversely proportional
Now try these:
Force (N)
3) Describe where the limit of proportionality occurs
on this force-extension graph.
4) What does the gradient of the linear portion
of the force-extension graph represent?
5) The spring used had a spring constant of 50 N/m.
Calculate the work done to elastically deform the spring
to an extension of 10 cm. Use the following formula:
elastic potential energy = 1⁄2 × spring constant × (extension)2. Extension (m)
Topic 5 — Forces 39. Investigating Springs
ANSWERS
1) True. (The word ‘elastically’ is crucial here. If the
spring isn’t elastically deformed, it won’t be true.)
2) B. (A linear force-extension graph will be a straight line through the origin.)
3) Where the graph starts to curve — somewhere along the red
line between the two red points shown on the graph to the right.
4) The spring constant, k. (The gradient of the linear portion of
the graph is equal to force ÷ extension, or F ÷ e. Rearranging
the equation F = ke, gives F ÷ e = k, so gradient = k.)
5) 0.25 J. 10 cm = 0.1 m, so the energy stored in
the elastic potential energy store of the spring is 1⁄2 × 50 × 0.12 = 25 × 0.01 = 0.25 J.
Because the spring was elastically deformed the work done is also 0.25 J.
You’ll do a pretty stretching practical about springs during your GCSE course — make sure
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you can remember it and you’ll bounce through the exam.
40. Motion Along a Line Topic 5 — Forces
Quick Questions
1) State which of the following are scalar quantities:
distance, velocity, speed, displacement.
2) True or false? Moving objects usually travel at a constant speed.
3) What is a typical person’s running speed? What factors may affect this speed?
Now try these:

4) A bird flies 4 km east, 5 km north and then 4 km west.
What is the distance travelled? What is the bird’s displacement?
5) Estimate how far sound travels in air in 3 seconds.
6) Rohan did a wheelie on his bike for the 420 m from his house to
the library at an average speed of 6 m/s. How long did it take him?
7) An object moves in a circle at constant speed.
H
Explain why the velocity of the object is constantly changing.

Topic 5 — Forces 40. Motion Along a Line
ANSWERS
1) Distance and speed. (The others are vectors — they have direction and magnitude.)
2) False. In the real world the speed of a moving object is rarely constant.
3) ~ 3 m/s. E.g. the age and fitness of the runner, the distance they have run,
and the terrain. 4W
4) The distance travelled = 4 + 5 + 4 = 13 km. To work out the displacement
imagine the vectors drawn end to tip (shown on the right). The bird finishes 5N
at a point 5 km north of its start point, so its displacement is 5 km north.
5) 990 m. Speed of sound in air ≈ 330 m/s. s = vt = 330 x 3 = 990 m. 4E
6) 70 s. t = s ÷ v = 420 ÷ 6 = 70 s
7) The velocity of an object is its speed in a given direction. As it moves in a circle, the
direction of motion of the object is constantly changing, so its velocity must also be
constantly changing.
It’s important that you learn typical everyday speeds. Sometimes for a calculation you won’t
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be given any values and instead you’ll be asked for an estimate using typical values.
41. Acceleration and Terminal Velocity Topic 5 — Forces
Quick Questions
1) What’s the equation to find the average acceleration of an object?
2) What causes an object dropped from a height above the ground to accelerate?
3) What is the resultant force acting on an object falling at terminal velocity?
Now try these:

4) Jamal is cycling down a street when a pedestrian crosses the road in
front of him. He brakes and decelerates at 3 m/s2 for 2.5 seconds.
What was his change in velocity?
5) A stationary vulture drops Sid a vertical distance of 2.5 m.
Calculate the final velocity of Sid as he hits the ground.
Use the formula: (final velocity)2 – (initial velocity)2 = 2 × acceleration × distance.
(Acceleration due to gravity ≈ 9.8 m/s2)
6) A skydiver reaches her terminal velocity before opening the parachute.
Explain why her velocity decreases after opening the parachute.
Topic 5 — Forces 41. Acceleration and Terminal Velocity
ANSWERS
1) (average) acceleration = change in velocity ÷ time taken or a = Dv ÷ t.

2) The gravitational force of the Earth acting on the object.
3) 0 N
4) 7.5 m/s. a = Dv ÷ t so Dv = a × t = 3 × 2.5 = 7.5 m/s.
It worked
5) 7 m/s. v2 – u2 = 2as, rearranging for v2 gives v2 = 2as + u2 for Mary...
= (2 × 9.8 × 2.5) + 02 = 49. So v = 49 = 7 m/s.
6) Before the parachute is opened, the weight of the skydiver acting
downward equals the air resistance acting upwards (as she is travelling at
her terminal velocity). Opening the parachute increases the area of the
skydiver, so the air resistance acting upwards on the skydiver increases
whilst her weight remains the same. This causes the air resistance to be
larger than the weight, so the velocity of the skydiver will decrease.
If you’re not planning to hurl yourself out of a plane, terminal velocity might seem irrelevant.
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However, it could crop up in the exam (or help you dodge falling books), so learn it.
42. Distance-Time Graphs Topic 5 — Forces
Quick Questions
1) What does it mean if part of a distance-time graph is horizontal?
2) True or false? The steeper the gradient of a distance-time graph, the slower the
object is moving.
Now try these: Distance (m)

3) Describe the motion of the object shown in the
distance-time graph to the right. 20
4) Determine the speed of the object in the first

5 seconds using the distance-time graph. 10
5) Describe how you can work out the speed
of an accelerating object at a point on a
H
0
distance-time graph. 5 10 15 20
Time (s)
Topic 5 — Forces 42. Distance-Time Graphs
ANSWERS
1) The object was stationary during that part (as the distance travelled doesn’t change).
2) False. The steeper the gradient, the faster the object is moving.
3) The object moves at a steady speed for 5 seconds
before decelerating for 5 seconds. The object then Distance (m)
remains stationary for 5 seconds before accelerating
for the final 5 seconds. 20
4) 2 m/s. v = s ÷ t. From the graph (shown on the right)
the object travelled 10 metres in the first 5 seconds, 10
so the speed is 10 ÷ 5 = 2 m/s.
5) By drawing a tangent to the curve at that point
and finding the gradient of the tangent. 0 5 10 15 20
Time (s)
In the exam you might get asked to draw a distance-time graph, so make sure you know
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how to represent different types of motion on the graph and give yourself plenty of practice.
43. Velocity-Time Graphs Topic 5 — Forces
Quick Questions
1) What do horizontal sections on a velocity-time graph tell you about the motion of
the object?
2) How is increasing deceleration shown on a velocity-time graph?
Now try these:

3) A wheel of cheese is pushed down a hill. It accelerates at a constant rate, then
maintains a steady speed before decelerating uniformly at the bottom of the hill.
Describe what a velocity-time graph would
40
look like for the motion of the cheese.
Velocity (m/s)
4) The motion of a motorbike is shown in the graph
to the right. Calculate the acceleration of the 20
motorbike between 10 and 15 seconds.
5) Use the velocity-time graph to calculate 0 5 10 15
H
the total distance travelled by the motorbike. Time (s)

Topic 5 — Forces 43. Velocity-Time Graphs
ANSWERS
1) That the object is moving with a steady speed.
2) A downward curve with an increasingly steep gradient. Like this one:
3) The graph would have a straight uphill section (a line with a
positive gradient) followed by a horizontal section and then
a straight downhill section (a line with a negative gradient).
4) 4 m/s2. a = Dv ÷ t. From the graph the motorbike accelerated from 20 m/s to 40 m/s
between 10 and 15 seconds. This means the change of velocity is 40 – 20 = 20 m/s and
the time is 15 – 10 = 5 seconds. The acceleration of the motorbike is 20 ÷ 5 = 4 m/s2.
5) 300 m. E.g. split the graph into 3 sections: 2 triangles and 1 rectangle 40
(shown right). The area of each triangle is 1⁄2 × 5 × 20 = 50 m.

The area of the rectangle is 10 × 20 = 200 m, so the total distance 20
travelled is 50 + 50 + 200 = 300 m.

0 5 10 15
Velocity-time graphs and distance-time graphs look pretty similar, so make sure you know
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which one you’re dealing with before you start interpreting those slopes and curves.
44. Newton’s Laws of Motion Topic 5 — Forces
Quick Questions
1) According to Newton’s First Law what is needed to make an object accelerate?
2) What is the equation that describes Newton’s Second Law?
3) What is Newton’s Third Law?
Martha!!!
Now try these:
4) A golf cart is reversing over flat ground at a constant speed.
The driving force produced by the motor is 120 N. What is
the total magnitude of the resistive forces acting on the cart?
5) Martha throws two stones with the same force. One stone has a mass of 30 g and the
other a mass of 60 g. Explain why the 30 g stone has the greater initial acceleration.
6) Isaac uses a golf club to hit a melon forwards with a force of 200 N.
What’s the magnitude and direction of the force the melon exerts on the club?
7) Calculate the melon’s acceleration when hit by the golf club. The melon’s mass is 4 kg.
8) What is inertial mass a measure of? What’s the formula you can use to find it?
H
Topic 5 — Forces 44. Newton’s Laws of Motion
ANSWERS
1) A resultant force acting on the object.
2) F = ma or resultant force = acceleration × mass.
3) When two objects interact, the forces they exert on each other are equal and opposite.
4) 120 N. The cart is travelling at a constant speed, so you know the resultant force is zero.
The driving force is 120 N, so the resistive forces must also be 120 N.
5) Acceleration is inversely proportional to mass, for a fixed resultant force. Martha throws
the stones with the same force, so the lighter stone will have a greater acceleration.
6) 200 N backwards/opposite to the direction
of the motion of the melon.
7) 50 m/s2. a = F ÷ m, so the acceleration of
the melon is 200 ÷ 4 = 50 m/s2.
8) A measure of how difficult it is to change the velocity of an object. m = F ÷ a.
Understanding motion: it’s as easy as one, two, three (of Newton’s laws). Remember the first
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and third law are often used to understand situations where objects aren’t moving at all.
45. Investigating Motion Topic 5 — Forces
Quick Questions
1) Motion investigations often involve hanging masses and pulleys.
How can you reduce the risks when using this apparatus?
2) What is the resolution of the ruler shown on the right? cm
Now try these: piece of card light gate

3) Fatima wants to investigate how a system’s pulley
acceleration is related to its mass.
She sets up the apparatus on the right.
Describe the steps she should follow. trolley spare
masses mass
Mass of the Acceleration 4) What will the independent variable
system (kg) (m/s2) be in Fatima’s investigation?
4 7.4
5) Fatima’s results are shown in the table on the left.
5 6.2
6 4.9
Give a conclusion that can be drawn from the results.
7 4.3 6) How could Fatima reduce the effect of random errors on her results?
Topic 5 — Forces 45. Investigating Motion
ANSWERS
1) You can reduce the risks by using masses of a sensible weight for the equipment and using
a pulley length which prevents the masses hitting the floor.
Staying standing allows you to avoid falling weights. Aaah, a dark gate!
2) 0.1 cm or 1 mm
3) Record the total weight of the trolley and hanging
mass. Release the trolley, so that it moves through
the light gate, and record the acceleration measured. Add one of the spare masses to the
trolley and record the new total weight of the trolley and hanging mass. Release the trolley
again and record the acceleration measured. Repeat these steps multiple times.
4) Mass (of the system).
5) E.g. the greater the mass of the system the smaller the acceleration.
6) E.g. take repeat readings of the acceleration for each mass and find a mean.
To investigate how force affects acceleration, start with the masses on the trolley and move
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them one at a time to the hanging mass. This increases the force without changing the mass.
46. Stopping Distance & Reaction Time Topic 5 — Forces
Quick Questions
1) What is meant by the ‘braking distance’ of a car?
2) True or false? Braking distance is the same as stopping distance.
3) What’s the typical range for human reaction times?
Now try these:

4) Explain the effect that worn brakes will have on the braking distance of a lorry.
5) How does rain increase the braking distance of a vehicle?
6) Briefly describe a method you could use to measure a person’s reaction time.
7) Scientists have found that tiredness increases reaction time.
Explain the implication this has for safety.
There’s no stopping you now. Once you’ve got a handle on how different factors affect the
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stopping distance and how this affects road safety you’ll be on your way to a top grade.
Topic 5 — Forces 46. Stopping Distance & Reaction Time
ANSWERS
1) The distance the car travels under the braking force/once the brakes are applied.
2) False. Stopping distance is equal to thinking distance plus braking distance.
3) 0.2 s – 0.9 s.
4) The braking distance of the lorry will increase because the force applied
by the brakes is reduced when they are worn.
5) Rain will leave water on the road surface which reduces grip/friction.
Reduced grip/friction increases the chance of the vehicle skidding when braking,
which will increase the distance the vehicle travels before coming to rest.
6) You could use a computer-based test where the person clicks a mouse in response to a
stimulus. Alternatively, hang a ruler between the person’s thumb and forefinger.
Drop the ruler without warning and record the measurement at the point where they
catch the ruler. You can then work out their reaction time from the distance the ruler fell.
7) Increased reaction time increases thinking distance, which increases stopping distance.
Increased stopping distance means a higher risk of accidents. So tiredness in drivers will
have a negative effect on safety.
47. Braking Topic 5 — Forces
Quick Questions
1) True or false? The greater the braking force applied, the greater the deceleration.
2) Explain why large decelerations can be dangerous for road vehicles.
Now try these:

3) When a vehicle brakes, why do the brakes heat up?
4) Explain why the speed at which a vehicle is travelling affects
the braking force needed to stop it in a certain distance.
5) Estimate the magnitude of the braking force required to stop a car
travelling at 20 m/s in 40 m. Use the following formula: v2 – u2 = 2as,
where v = final velocity, u = initial velocity, a = acceleration and s = distance.
If you can wrap your head around how brakes work, and the energy transfer that happens
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when they’re used, the questions won’t slow you down too much when it comes to the exam.
Topic 5 — Forces 47. Braking
ANSWERS
1) True. (It’s good old F = ma again.)
2) E.g. large decelerations can cause a vehicle to skid. They can also cause the brakes to
overheat so that they don’t work as well.
3) As a vehicle brakes the pads are pressed onto the wheels. This contact causes friction,
which causes work to be done. The work done between the brakes and the wheels
transfers energy from the kinetic energy store of the vehicle to the thermal energy stores
of the brakes, increasing their temperature.
4) The greater a vehicle’s speed, the more energy it has in its kinetic energy store, so the
greater the amount of work that must be done to stop it. A greater force is needed to
do the greater amount of work in a certain distance.
5) E.g. 5000 N. Put the values into the formula to calculate the deceleration:
02 – 202 = 2 × 40 × a, so a = –400 ÷ 80 = –5 m/s2. This means, given the typical mass of
a car is 1000 kg and F = ma, the magnitude of the braking force = 1000 × 5 = 5000 N.
48. Momentum Topic 5 — Forces
Quick Questions
1) What’s the formula used to calculate momentum?
2) What is meant by ‘conservation of momentum’?
Now try these:

3) Calculate the momentum of a 120 000 kg
blue whale that is swimming at 5 m/s.
4) Orla is cycling on her 10 kg bike at 6 m/s. The total momentum
of Orla and her bike is 420 kg m/s. Calculate Orla’s mass.
5) Felipe is moving horizontally at u m/s when he lands on a stationary skateboard.
Felipe and his skateboard move off at v m/s. Explain why u > v.
Assume that Felipe and the skateboard form a closed system.
You might be fed up of forces by now but they’re nearly over, so keep going while you’ve
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got revision momentum. Remember — if an object isn’t moving, its momentum is zero.
Topic 5 — Forces 48. Momentum
ANSWERS
1) momentum = mass × velocity or p = mv.
2) In a closed system, the total momentum before an event
is the same as the total momentum after the event.
3) 600 000 kg m/s. p = mv, so the whale’s momentum is 120 000 × 5 = 600 000 kg m/s.
4) 60 kg. m = p ÷ v, so the mass of Orla and the bike is 420 ÷ 6 = 70 kg.
Orla’s mass is 70 – 10 = 60 kg. I think that was a
5) Felipe and his skateboard form a closed system, little bit too much
momentum...
so the total momentum of Felipe on his
skateboard is equal to Felipe’s momentum
before he landed on the skateboard.
The combined mass of Felipe and his skateboard
is greater than his mass alone, so for momentum
to be conserved there must be a decrease in velocity.
49. Transverse and Longitudinal Waves Topic 6 — Waves
Quick Questions
1) What does a wave transfer? A. energy B. matter C. nothing Oscillations
2) In which type of wave are there compressions and rarefactions?
Now try these:

3) Which of the following types of wave are longitudinal? Direction of Travel
Electromagnetic waves, water waves or sound waves.
4) How do the oscillations of a longitudinal wave differ
from the oscillations of a transverse wave?
5) How do we know that water waves don’t
carry water away from the wave’s source?
6) Phillip is finding the wavelength of waves in a ripple tank. He measures the distance
between crests that are ten wavelengths apart, then divides this measurement by ten.
Explain why Phillip did this instead of just measuring a single wavelength.
Topic 6 — Waves 49. Transverse and Longitudinal Waves
ANSWERS
1) A. energy
2) In longitudinal waves. (A compression is where the matter has bunched together and a
rarefaction is where it has spread out.)
3) Sound waves are longitudinal.
4) The oscillations of a longitudinal wave are parallel to the wave’s direction of travel,
whereas the oscillations of a transverse wave are at 90° to the wave’s direction of travel.
5) E.g. if you drop a twig in a still pool of water, neither the twig or the water molecules are
carried away by the ripples the twig creates.
6) By taking a larger measurement and dividing, Phillip reduces the percentage uncertainty
in his measurement, and so reduces the percentage uncertainty in his final result.
Clever Phillip. (It can also reduce the effect of random errors.)
Longitudinal waves are definitely a little trickier to picture than transverse waves. But sound
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is a great go-to example and, like I always say, once you’ve seen one longitudinal wave...
50. More on Waves Topic 6 — Waves
Quick Questions A
1) Amplitude is given by the vertical distance B D
displacement
between which two points on the diagram? C
distance
2) Wavelength is given by the horizontal distance
between which two points on the diagram?
Now try these:

3) What is meant by the frequency of a wave? What are the units of frequency?
4) What happens to a wave’s frequency if its period increases?
5) A paddler at the seaside stands still in the water for two minutes. During this time,
exactly twelves waves pass. What is the frequency of the sea’s waves?
6) Abhik uses a signal generator to create 20 Hz waves in a string. Abhik has calculated
that the waves should travel with a speed of 4 m/s. If Abhik’s calculations are correct,
what will the wavelength of the waves on the string be?
Topic 6 — Waves 50. More on Waves
ANSWERS
‘Everybody Hertz...’
1) A and C. (Amplitude is measured between the wave’s
undisturbed position and its maximum displacement.)
2) B and D. (Wavelength is the distance between identical
points on two neighbouring wave cycles.)
3) Frequency is the number of complete waves passing a certain
point per second. The unit of frequency is hertz (Hz).
4) Its frequency will decrease. (This is a result of
the relationship ‘frequency = 1 ÷ period’.)
5) 0.1 Hz. 2 minutes = 120 seconds. If 12 wave cycles pass in 120 seconds,
that’s 12 ÷ 120 = 0.1 wave cycles per second, so frequency = 0.1 Hz.
6) 0.2 m. Use the equation v = f × l. Substitute in the values for v and f; 4 = 20 × l.
Rearrange to make l the subject; l = 4 ÷ 20 = 0.2 m.
If you get a spare moment, try sketching a wave in the back of your notebook and labelling
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it. It’ll help you revise and it’s definitely less embarrassing than doodling your crush’s name.
51. Refraction Topic 6 — Waves
Quick Questions
1) When a wave meets a boundary, it may be reflected
or absorbed. State one further possible outcome.
2) On a wave front diagram, what does the distance between
adjacent wavefronts show about the wave?
A. amplitude B. wavelength C. frequency
HIGHER
Now try these: A B

3) True or false? The wave shown on the right has been refracted.
4) True or false? The speed of the wave changes as it travels
from material A to material B. light ray
C
5) An incomplete ray diagram is shown on the right.
Describe where on the ray diagram a normal should be drawn.
D
6) The speed of light is faster in material D than in material C. Describe
what happens to the path of the light ray as it passes into material D.
Topic 6 — Waves 51. Refraction
ANSWERS
1) It may be transmitted.
2) B. wavelength
3) False. (The wave hasn’t changed direction, so it hasn’t been refracted.)
4) True. (The wave fronts are closer together in material B than in material A, so the
wavelength has decreased. A change in wavelength means a change in wave speed.
The wave slowed down as it entered material B.)
5) It should be drawn at the point where the light ray
meets the boundary, at 90° to the boundary.
6) The ray will bend/refract away from the normal.
The normal — praise be to the beautiful dotted line that selflessly shines a light on refraction.
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Never forget to draw it with pride (and at 90° to the boundary between the two materials).
52. Electromagnetic Waves Topic 6 — Waves
Quick Questions
1) Describe how the wavelength and frequency of electromagnetic waves change as
the spectrum progresses from radio waves through to gamma waves.
2) What type of electromagnetic wave lies between visible light and X-rays on the
electromagnetic spectrum?
3) True or false? Human eyes can detect all electromagnetic waves.
Now try these:

4) What are the similarities between all electromagnetic waves?
5) What causes gamma rays to be produced?
6) Electromagnetic waves transfer energy from place to place. Give an example of this.
7) Electromagnetic waves with a broad range of frequencies are absorbed and emitted
by atoms. Explain how this is possible.
Topic 6 — Waves 52. Electromagnetic Waves
ANSWERS
1) Frequency increases and wavelength decreases.
2) Ultraviolet light.
3) False. (Human eyes can only detect visible light.)
4) E.g. all electromagnetic waves are transverse and all electromagnetic waves travel at the
same speed in a vacuum or air.
5) Changes in the nuclei of atoms.
6) E.g. energy is transferred from hot objects to their surroundings by infrared waves.
7) Electromagnetic radiation is absorbed or emitted when an atom or its nucleus undergoes
a change. Since atoms undergo lots of different changes (e.g. there are many different
energy levels which electrons move between), a broad range of frequencies are absorbed
and emitted.
It may seem like radio waves and gamma rays are as different as chalk and cheese, but they
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are both part of the electromagnetic spectrum, so they share some fundamental properties.
53. Infrared Radiation Topic 6 — Waves
Quick Questions
1) What is infrared radiation used for?
2) True or false? Infrared radiation is made up of longitudinal waves.
Now try these:

thermometers
3) Ethan is testing the hypothesis that black surfaces absorb
infrared radiation at a faster rate than white surfaces.
He sets up the experiment shown and records the
reading on each thermometer every 10 seconds. bulb painted bulb painted
white black
Give a control variable for this experiment.
4) His results, which are shown in the graph, support
his hypothesis. Which line on the graph is for the Temperature
(°C) A
thermometer with the black bulb? Explain your answer.
5) What could Ethan use instead of thermometers so
B
that his results are more accurate? Time (s)
Topic 6 — Waves 53. Infrared Radiation
ANSWERS
1) E.g. heating, cooking, infrared cameras
2) False. (Infrared waves are part of the electromagnetic spectrum.
All electromagnetic waves are transverse.)
3) Control variables include: the initial temperature shown on each thermometer,
the distance of the thermometers from the flame, the type of thermometers,
the thickness of paint on bulbs, the type of paint on each bulb (matt or gloss).
4) A. This line has the greater slope, showing the greater rate of temperature increase.
This must be for the thermometer with the black bulb as Ethan’s hypothesis said
that black surfaces absorb infrared radiation at a faster rate than white surfaces.
5) E.g. a temperature probe connected to a computer.
And now for a motivational song... “It’s here, it’s there, it’s absolutely everywhere, infrared,
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oh infrared.” Is it working? Not even a teeny weeny bit? OK, time to move on then...
54. EM Waves and Their Uses Topic 6 — Waves
Quick Questions
1) Name two types of electromagnetic waves that are used in medical treatments.
2) Give a use of ultraviolet waves and a use of radio waves.
3) Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum is useful
for both cooking and satellite communications?
Now try these:

4) Why is visible light used to send signals along fibre optic cables?
5) By comparing how well different tissues absorb X-rays,
explain why X-rays are used in medical imaging.
HIGHER
6) Suggest a necessary property of electromagnetic waves used

to send signals between satellites and the Earth’s surface.
7) Describe what is happening inside a transmitter as it emits radio waves.
8) A 5 kHz radio wave is absorbed by a receiver.
What is the frequency of the alternating current in the receiver?
Topic 6 — Waves 54. EM Waves and Their Uses
ANSWERS
1) Gamma rays and X-rays. (These are both used in the treatment of cancer.)
2) Ultraviolet waves are used for, e.g. energy efficient lighting and sun beds.
Radio waves are used for, e.g. transmitting TV/FM radio.
3) Microwaves.
4) Visible light is used in fibre optic cables because it is not easily absorbed or scattered by
the cables’ material.
5) Bone and other dense tissue absorbs X-rays more than muscle and other soft tissue does.
X-rays that aren’t absorbed pass through the body and are detected on the other side.
This allows an image of bone and dense tissue to be formed.
6) E.g. to reach the satellite, these waves must pass easily through water in the atmosphere.
7) An alternating current made up of oscillating charges flows through the
transmitter. These oscillating electric charges produce radio waves.
8) 5 kHz. (The frequency of the alternating current in the receiver is equal
to the frequency of the radio wave it absorbed.)
Learn the uses for each region of the EM spectrum. And, as if that’s not enough,
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make sure you can also explain why each type of EM wave is ideally suited for its uses.
55. Dangers of EM Waves Topic 6 — Waves
Quick Questions
1) What is meant by the term radiation dose?
2) What dangers are associated with exposure to ultraviolet radiation?
Now try these:

3) Describe the effect that ionising radiation can have on living cells.
4) Lorenzo, shown on the right, says, ‘Electromagnetic waves with shorter wavelengths
tend to be more harmful.’ Do you agree with him? Justify your answer.
5) What factors affect the radiation dose received by a person
through exposure to radiation?
6) Explain why it is often in a patient’s best interests to have an x-ray, despite the risks.
7) Eleanor has read that exposure to electromagnetic radiation can be harmful.
As a result, she is worried about radiation from a nearby radio transmission tower.
Are Eleanor’s concerns justified?
Topic 6 — Waves 55. Dangers of EM Waves
ANSWERS
1) Radiation dose is a measure of the risk of harm from the body being exposed to radiation.
2) E.g. sunburn, premature ageing, blindness and skin cancer.
3) Ionising radiation can (by knocking electrons off molecules in your cells) cause mutation of
genes and cancer. It can also cause cell death.
4) E.g. yes, the shorter the wavelength of the radiation, the more energy it carries, meaning it
could do more damage.
5) The radiation dose received is affected by the type of radiation, the amount of radiation
and the area of the body that has been exposed.
6) E.g. the potential benefits of diagnosing a problem outweigh the health risks of exposure.
7) No, radio waves have low energy and pass through soft tissue without being absorbed, so
they do not pose a significant health risk.
Every silver lining has a cloud, I always say. And that’s the way it is with electromagnetic
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waves — take some time to get to know the drawbacks as well as the uses of each type.
56. Permanent and Induced Magnets Topic 7 — Magnetism
and Electromagnetism
Quick Questions
1) Describe the force that exists between the like poles of two magnets.
2) Name three magnetic materials.
Now try these:

3) What is the difference between a permanent magnet and an induced magnet?
4) True or false? The force between a permanent and an induced magnet is repulsive.
5) What happens to the magnetic field of an induced magnet
when it is moved far away from a permanent magnet?
6) Magnetic field lines can be drawn to show the magnetic field of a bar magnet.
At which points will the lines be closest together? What does this show?
X
7) A compass is placed at X on the diagram. Which direction will the
north pole of the compass’s bar magnet point? Explain why this is. N S
8) When compasses are not near magnets, they all point north. Why?
Topic 7 — Magnetism
and Electromagnetism 56. Permanent and Induced Magnets
ANSWERS
1) A repulsive, non-contact force exists between the like poles of the magnets.
2) You could have any three from: iron, steel, nickel and cobalt.
3) Permanent magnets produce their own magnetic field. Induced magnets
only turn into magnets when they are put in a magnetic field.
4) False. The force between a permanent and an induced magnet is always attractive.
5) The induced magnet’s magnetic field stops being produced.
6) The magnetic field lines of a bar magnet are closest together at the poles.
This shows that the magnetic field is strongest here.
7) It would point to the right. The compass needle is a small magnet that will line up with the
magnetic field at that point, which will be parallel to the bar magnet and pointing towards
the bar magnet’s south pole.
8) The Earth generates a magnetic field. The bar magnets inside the compasses line up with it.
The south pole of the Earth’s magnetic field is actually at what we call the North Pole.
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That’s why the north pole of a compass magnet points in this direction.
57. Electromagnetism Topic 7 — Magnetism
Quick Questions
1) What can you use to plot the shape and direction of the magnetic field around a
straight, current-carrying wire?
2) What can you add to a solenoid to increase its magnetic field strength?
Now try these:

3) A current-carrying wire has a magnetic field around it. What factors
affect the strength of the magnetic field at a particular point?
4) Is the direction of the magnetic field shown in the diagram on
the right clockwise or anticlockwise? Explain how you know.
5) Describe the magnetic field inside a solenoid.
6) Why is the magnetic field inside a solenoid stronger than the
magnetic field around a straight, current-carrying wire?
7) What is an electromagnet?
and Electromagnetism 57. Electromagnetism
ANSWERS
1) A compass (along with a pencil and piece of paper).
2) An iron core. (This becomes an induced magnet and increases the magnetic field strength.)
3) The strength of the magnetic field at a point is affected by the size of the current through
the wire and the distance of the point from the wire.
4) Clockwise. The right-hand thumb rule says that when you point your right thumb in the
direction of the current, the direction you curl your fingers in is the direction of the field.
5) The magnetic field inside a solenoid is strong and uniform.
6) The field lines around each loop of wire in a solenoid line up. This results in field lines that
are very close together. The closer the field lines, the stronger the magnetic field.
7) An electromagnet is a solenoid with an iron core.
You can turn the magnetic field of an electromagnet on and off. This is useful in, e.g., a crane
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— switch the electromagnet on to pick up a magnetic object, switch it off to drop the object.
58. The Motor Effect Topic 7 — Magnetism
Quick Questions
1) Why might a current-carrying wire move when placed between magnetic poles?
2) What do the directions of the thumb and first and second fingers indicate
in Fleming’s left-hand rule?
Now try these:

HIGHER
3) What is the direction of the force experienced by the wire in the diagram below?
4) What angle must there be between a magnetic field and a
S
current
N
conductor in order for the maximum force to be exerted? direction
5) Other than the angle of the conductor, what three factors affect the size
of the force on a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field?
6) A 0.1 m length of wire is in a magnetic field, at 90° to the field.
It is carrying a current of 10 A and experiences a force of 0.02 N.
Calculate the magnetic flux density of the magnetic field using the formula F = BIl,
where F = force, B = magnetic flux density, I = current, l = length of wire in the field.
and Electromagnetism 58. The Motor Effect
ANSWERS
1) The magnetic field around the wire interacts with the magnetic field between the poles.
This causes the magnet and the wire to exert a force on each other. This force can cause
the wire to move.
2) Thumb = direction of force/motion, first finger = magnetic field direction,
second finger = current direction.
3) Downwards. Using your left hand, point your first finger in the field direction, from
north to south. Then twist your hand around so your second finger points in the current
direction. Your thumb should be pointing down, indicating the direction of the force.
4) 90°.
5) The magnetic flux density/strength of the magnetic field, the current size, and the length
of the conductor that is in the magnetic field.
6) 0.02 T. Rearrange F = BIl for B: B = F ÷ (Il) = 0.02 ÷ (10 × 0.1) = 0.02 T
Make sure your values are all in the correct units when you use the formula F = BIl.
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The length must be in metres — leaving it in centimetres is an easy mistake to make.
59. Electric Motors Topic 7 — Magnetism
Quick Questions
1) Name the effect that causes a coil of current-carrying wire
in an electric motor to move.
2) Which rule can be used to work out which way a coil of wire rotates in a motor?
HIGHER
Now try these:

3) In which direction will the coil on the right turn?
N S
–
4) Give two ways that you can reverse the +
direction of a basic dc motor.
5) Explain how a split-ring commutator
keeps an electric motor rotating
in the same direction.
The motor was a rather good invention. Motors might not make the world go round, but
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they make a lot of other things work, e.g. vacuum cleaners, cars, hairdryers, DVD players...
and Electromagnetism 59. Electric Motors
ANSWERS
1) The motor effect. (The coil in an electric motor is in an external magnetic field.
When current flows through the coil, it causes forces to act on parts of the coil.)
2) Fleming’s left-hand rule.
3) It will turn anticlockwise. (Use Fleming’s left-hand rule on either
arm of the coil. However, if you don’t remember that current
goes from positive to negative, you’ll be scuppered.)
4) Swap the polarity of the dc supply/reverse the current.
Swap the magnetic poles over/reverse the field.
5) A split-ring commutator swaps the contacts every half turn, so the direction of the force
on each arm reverses every half-turn, causing rotation in one direction.
60. Scientific Thinking Working Scientifically
and Practical Skills
Quick Questions
1) Why might a scientific theory change?
2) What is the purpose of peer review?
Now try these:

3) Practical science involves risks. What steps should you take while
planning an investigation to make sure it is as safe as possible?
4) A media report claims that diesel cars are more
environmentally-friendly than petrol cars as they emit less CO2.
Explain why it may not be wise to simply believe the report.
5) Science has led to the development of less-polluting vehicles.
Give a factor which is likely to limit the use of these vehicles.
6) Sam is concerned about the risks from a mobile phone mast being built next to his
house. He does not worry about the risks when he cycles to work through a busy city.
Give two reasons why Sam’s perception of these risks may not match the actual risks.
Working Scientifically
and Practical Skills 60. Scientific Thinking
ANSWERS
1) New evidence might be discovered that can’t be explained by the existing theory.
2) Peer-review’s purpose is to check claims are scientifically valid and to detect false claims.
3) You should identify the hazards and ways of reducing the associated risks.
4) Media reports are not subjected to peer review. They might be oversimplified or biased.
5) There are lots of likely factors, e.g. economic factors — new fuelling/charging stations may
have to be built, which could cost a lot of money. Personal issues — people might not
want the inconvenience of changing their cars or they may not trust the new technology.
6) One possible reason is that cycling is familiar to him, so might seem less risky than
something less familiar such as a phone mast being built close by. Another is that the
mobile phone mast presents an imposed risk, which may be less acceptable than the risk
from cycling, which he chooses to do. Also, the hazards from the mobile phone mast are
invisible (e.g. radiation), whereas the hazards when cycling are visible (e.g. other vehicles).
Science — it’s a risky business. In fact, so is life in general. You simply can’t reduce every
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risk to zero. But often the risks are outweighed by the benefits, so are worth taking.
61. Investigating and Evaluating Working Scientifically
Quick Questions
1) What is the independent variable in an investigation?
2) Why do measurements always have some uncertainty?
Now try these:

3) Lin notices that a firm netball with lots of air in bounces higher than a less firm netball.
Suggest a hypothesis to explain her observation.
4) Lin tests her hypothesis by measuring the pressure of air in several balls, then dropping
each ball and measuring the height of the bounce. She repeats this three times.
Identify a control variable.
5) Lin evaluates her data and concludes that it is precise. Explain what this means.
6) How can Lin make sure her results are reproducible?
Make sure you can identify the independent, dependent and control variables in investigations.
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You might get an experiment you’ve never met before in the exam — so be prepared.
and Practical Skills 61. Investigating and Evaluating
ANSWERS
1) The variable that is changed by the investigator.
2) There are always limits on the resolution of the measuring equipment used.
3) E.g. netballs which contain more air bounce higher than netballs that contain less air.
4) E.g. the height the ball is dropped from, the surface onto which
the ball is dropped, the type of ball, the initial velocity of the ball.
5) Precise means that the data from the repeats
clusters closely around the mean.
6) E.g. she could get someone else to repeat her experiment
using different equipment to see if they get the same results.
62. Apparatus and Techniques Working Scientifically
Quick Questions
1) Name a piece of equipment you could to use to measure the weight of an object.
2) What can you use to measure the current through a circuit component?
3) True or false? Repeating measurements reduces systematic errors in your data.
Now try these:

4) Aleksy is doing an investigation in which he needs to measure the length
of a vertically-suspended spring when different masses are hung on it.
Give Aleksy two tips to make his measurements as accurate as possible.
5) State two hazards that are involved in Aleksy’s investigation.
How should he reduce the risks associated with each hazard?
6) A card with the shape shown on the right is sometimes used with a light
gate to measure the acceleration of a trolley. Explain how this is done.
Whatever you’re measuring, your apparatus must be appropriate. It’s no good using, say,
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bathroom scales to measure a nail’s mass. Take note of the scale too, e.g. is it V or mV?
and Practical Skills 62. Apparatus and Techniques
ANSWERS
1) E.g. a newtonmeter or a calibrated spring-balance.
2) An ammeter or a multimeter.
3) False. (Repeating measurements reduces the effect of random errors.)
4) E.g. use a ruler with an appropriate resolution, stick a small marker on the spring to line the
ruler up against when measuring, make sure the ruler is vertical, take the measurements at
eye-level, repeat each length measurement multiple times and calculate the mean.
5) E.g. the spring may snap and the broken ends could injure eyes. To reduce this risk Aleksy
should wear safety goggles. Falling weights could cause injury. To reduce this risk Aleksy
should remain standing during the experiment so he can get out of the way quickly.
6) The card is attached to the trolley. It interrupts the light gate signal twice as the trolley
passes through the light gate. How long the signal is interrupted for each time is measured
by a computer. The computer uses the times and the width of each raised section of
card to calculate the speed for each section. It then uses the two speed measurements to
calculate the acceleration of the trolley.
63. Processing Data Working Scientifically
Quick Questions
1) True or false? A line of best fit should go through all plotted points.
2) What is an anomalous result? What should you do if you have one?
Now try these:

3) Jo measures the time taken for a sausage to roll down a slope
three times. The times she records are 3.8 s, 4.5 s and 4.0 s.
Calculate the mean time. Then calculate the uncertainty of the mean.
4) The sausage travels a distance of 1.25 m. Jo uses the mean time to calculate the speed.
How many significant figures should Jo give the speed to? Explain your answer.
5) Ken records people’s height against the maximum frequency of sound they can hear.
Should he use a bar chart or a graph to display his results? Explain your answer.
6) Ken’s data shows an inverse correlation between height and the maximum frequency
of sound people can hear. Should Ken conclude that increasing height causes the
maximum frequency of sound that can be heard to decrease? Explain your answer.
and Practical Skills 63. Processing Data
ANSWERS
1) False. (It should go through as many points as possible, ignoring any anomalous points.)
2) An anomalous result is a result that doesn’t fit in with the others. If you can work out
what caused it, you can ignore it when processing your results.
3) Mean = 4.1 s. Mean = (3.8 + 4.5 + 4.0) ÷ 3 = 12.3 ÷ 3 = 4.1 s
Uncertainty = ±0.35 s. Uncertainty = range ÷ 2 = (4.5 – 3.8) ÷ 2 = 0.35
So uncertainty of the mean is ±0.35 s
4) She should give the speed to two significant figures. You should always round to the
lowest number of significant figures of the values you are using.
5) He should use a graph because height and frequency are both continuous variables.
6) No, he shouldn’t The correlation may be due to chance, or the variables may be
linked by a third variable. He can also not make such a general conclusion. He can
only say that height and maximum frequency of sound that can be heard are inversely
correlated for the people in his sample.
Investigation data is never perfect. Even if you don’t make any daft mistakes, there’ll still be
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random errors. You can reduce these by repeating measurements and finding mean values.
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to start. Quick Questions

Now try these: Distance (m)

Move on distance-time graph to the right.

Higher only questions marked up with “H”, or “Higher”.

Clipart from Corel®

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Pete had a bad case of insulation envy.

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He wants to improve his cycling efficiency.

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Aliyah is free on Saturday night, so she makes this parallel circuit:

4) What is the current through ammeter A1? 0.74 A

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The diagram shows the circuit

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Total circuit resistance /Ω

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Using radioactive sources is a risky business. Remember, how dangerous irradiation

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3) Calculate the size and direction of the resultant

4) Anita is flying a drone. The propellers provide a driving force

Now try these:

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Explain why the velocity of the object is constantly changing.

Now try these:

1) (average) acceleration = change in velocity ÷ time taken or a = Dv ÷ t.