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RESPIRATORY ORGANS (150)
@ What mechanisms don't participate in formation of cough?

# Irritation cough of receptors
# Closing and opening of a glottis
#& Periphery vasodilatation
# Tension of respiratory muscles and muscles of an abdominal tension
# Air stream
@ List the cough reasons:

# Mechanical
# Chemical
# Thermal
# Inflammatory
#& All listed above
3. Cough with a phlegm a full mouth observed at:

A. To bronchial asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Bronchoectatic illness
D. To cardiac asthma
E. Pleurisy
4. To what properties of a phlegm it isn't necessary to pay attention?

A. Quantity
B. Look, color, smell
C. Availability of impurity
D. Weight
E. Lamination
5. For what diseases the three-layer phlegm is characteristic?

A. Viral infection.
B. Anaerobic infection and staphylococcal
C. Fungal
D. Micobacteria
E. CU. Rikketsious
6. "A rusty phlegm" sign …

A. Broncho pulmonary cancer
B. Cruposal pneumonia
C. Tuberculosis of lungs
D. Heart disease
E. Abscess of lungs
7. To subjective manifestations of short wind all enter, except:
A. Impossibility of a deep breath
B. Pains at breath
C. Feelings of constraint in a breast
D. Difficulties of breath
E. General discomfort
8. What strengthens short wind?

A. Physical activity
B. Weather changing
C. Laughter
D. Dream
E. Crying
9. Pathological breath of Kussmaul arises at:

A. Uraemias
B. To a diabetic coma
C. Liver failure
D. Poisoning
E. All the above
10. Pleural pains decrease, at:

A. Cough
B. Sneezing
C. Presence in a pleural cavity of liquid
D. Body tilt in the healthy party
E. Breath
11. At survey of a thorax, all estimate, except:

A. Depths and frequencies of breath
B. Resistance of a thorax
C. Shapes of a thorax
D. Symmetry of respiratory movements
E. Ratios of duration of a breath and exhalation
12. Tachypnea - is:

A. Temporary respiratory standstill
B. Rare breath
C. The speeded-up breath
D. Kussmaul'sbreath
E. Short wind
13. The method of a palpation of a thorax isn't applied to identification:

A. Vesicular breath
B. Voice trembling
C. Pain
D. Asymmetries of movements
E. Resistance of a thorax
14. Ellis-Damuazo-Sokolov's line is defined by way:

A. Radiological research
B. Palpations
C. Percussion
D. Survey
E. Auscultation
15. Crepitation is a sign:

A. Auscultative
B. Percussion
C. Palpation
D. Subjective
E. X-Ray
16. To additional methods of research of respiratory organs enter:

A. Bronchoscopy
B. Functions of external breath
C. X-ray
D. Research of a phlegm
E. All listed above
17. Microscopic analyses allows to define in researches of a phlegm all

except:
A. Cellular structure of a phlegm
B. Existence of microorganisms
C. Availability of hydrochloric acid
D. Existence of particles of dust
E. Existence of elastic fibers
18. At survey of a thorax all estimate, except:

A. Depths and frequencies of breath
B. Voice trembling
C. Durations of phases of a breath and exhalation
D. Forms and mobility of a thorax
E. Symmetry of respiratory movements of a thorax
19. Apnea is:

A. Rare breath
B. The speeded-up breath
C. Temporary respiratory stopping
D. Full respiratory stopping
E. Alternation of rare and frequent breath
20. To additional respiratory noises enters all, except:

A. Crepitation
B. Noise friction of pleura
C. Grekhema-Still's noise
D. Rales
E. Pleura pericardial noise
21. Crepitation is listened in time:

A. Exhalation
B. To breath height
C. Breath and exhalation
D. In the beginning exhalation
E. Throughout an exhalation
22. Nature of damp rattles depends from:

A. Caliber of bronchial tubes
B. Elasticity of alveolus
C. Conditions of a pleura
D. Replacements of pulmonary fabric of connecting fabric
E. Breath depths
23. In the region of a compression atelectasis is heard everything, except:

A. Dull-tympanic percussion sound
B. Crepitation
C. Silent bronchial breath
D. Noise of the falling drop
E. The weakened vesicular breath
24. Involvement in process of pleura characterizes presence of a symptom:

A. Strengthening of vesicular breath
B. Thorax pains during breathing
C. Blood spitting
D "Rusty" phlegm
E. Inspiratory short wind
25. For a syndrome of focal consolidation of pulmonary fabric everything is

characteristic, except:
A. Tympanic percussion sound
B. The dulled percussion sound
C. Strengthening’s of voice trembling
D. Strengthening of a broncho phony
E. Lags of the struck half of a thorax in the act of breathing
26. List the cavity syndrome reasons in a lung:
A. The breaking-up lung infiltrate
B. Abscessed pneumonia
C. Cysts
D. Tuberculosis of lungs
E. All listed above
27. Name percussion sound during emphysema of lungs:

A. Dull percussion sound
B. Box percussion sound
C. Metallic percussion sound
D. Clear pulmonary sound
E. Dulled-tympanic percussion sound
28. When listening lungs of the patient the abrupt sounds appearing at
height of a breath and reminding a crash of hair when grinding near an ear
are revealed shows presence:
A. Dry rattles
B. Damp not ringing rattles
C. Damp ringing rattles
D. Noise of friction of pleura
E. Crepitation
29. For the patient with emphysema the following type of a thorax is
characteristic:
A. Paralytic
B. Ricketic
C. Barrel-shaped
D. Boat shaped
E. Asthenic
30. For obturativeathelectasis it is characteristic:

A. Bronchial breath
B. Strengthening of a broncho phony
C. Obtusion of a percussion sound
D. Protrusion of intercostal intervals
E. Rigid breath
31. Over a cavity of the opened abscess by auscultation defined:

A. The weakened vesicular breath
B. Amphoral breath
C. Rigid breath
D. Stenotic breath
E. Lack of respiratory noise
32. Forobturative atelectasis typical:
A. Boatshaped thorax
B. Strengthening of voice trembling
C. Bronchial breath
D. Damp ringing small bobbles rattles
E. Inspiratory short wind
33. Upon transition of the first stage of cruposal pneumonia to short time is
auscultative defined the following type of breath:
A. Vesicular
B. Saccadic
C. Stenotic
D. Bronchial
E. Rigid
34. Strengthening of voice trembling, broncho phony, dulled-tympanic

sound and silent bronchial breath observed at a syndrome:
A. Compression atelectasis
B. Obturative of an atelectasis
C. Open pneumothorax
D. Consolidations of pulmonary fabric
E. Emphysemas of lungs
35. At patient the following percussion sound can be defined on a barrel-

shaped thorax:
A. Tympanic
B. Dulled
C. Dulled-tympanic
D. Box
E. Metallic
36. Specify type of a temperature curve if at the patient daily fluctuations of

body temperature within 37,0 - 39,0 are noted:
A. febrisintermittens
B. febrisremittens
C. febrishectica
D. febris continua
E. febrisreccurens
37. Strengthening of voice trembling, strengthened broncho phony, a dull

percussion sound and, bronchial breath observed at the following syndrome:
A. Obturative atelectasis
B. Compression atelectasis
C. Liquids in a pleural cavity
D. Consolidation of pulmonary fabric
E. To emphysema of lungs
38. For an obturative atelectasis of the top bronchial tube of the right lung
it is characteristic:
A. Bronchial breath
B. Rigid breath
C. Retracting of a thorax in the field of a top on the right
D. Strengthening of broncho phony
E. Box percussion sound
39. At a syndrome of the increased airiness of pulmonary tissue it isn't

observed:
A. Weakening of vesicular breath
B. Strengthening of voice trembling
C. Protrusion of intercostal intervals
D. Box percussion sound
E. Weakening of a broncho phony
40. By percussion at a syndrome of cavity in a lung defined:

A. Clear pulmonary sound
B. Stupid sound
C. Dulled-tympanic sound
D. Tympanic a sound with a metal shade
E. Box sound
41. For syndrome of cavity in lung which isn't reported with a bronchial
tube everything is characteristic, except:
A. Strengthening’s of voice trembling
B. Amphoral breath
C. Ringing b bubbled rattles
D. Strengthening’s of a broncho phony
E. Crepitation
42. Reduction of the sizes of one half of a thorax, (retraction) can be

revealed at patients with:
A. Focal pneumonia
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Emphysema of lungs
D. Cruposal pneumonia
E. Obturative atelectasis
43. At a compression atelectasis it isn't observed:

A. Noise of the falling drop
B. Strengthening’s of voice trembling
C. Dulled-tympanic percussion sound
D. Bronchial breath
E. Crepitation
44. The matters state of "ortopnoe", reducing:

A. Pains in heart
B. Interruptions in work of heart
C. Edemas of the lower extremities
D. Short wind
E. Headaches
45. For the patient with a syndrome of bronchial obstruction which dyspnea
is characteristic?
A. Absence of short wind
B. Expiratory
C. Inspiratory
D. Mixed
E. In rest
46. In the presence of liquid in a pleural cavity which percussion sound is

listened …:
A. Tympanic
B. Box
C. The clear pulmonary
D. Dull
E Deaf
47. The lower border of lungs on a mediaclavian line is in norm on the right
…:
A. In V intercostal
B. On the V edge
C. In V intercostal
D. On the VI edge
E. In 3rd intercostal
48. At cruposal pneumonia in a phase of heparisation is typical such sign,

as …:
A. Lagging of one-half of a thorax at breath
B. Small bubble damp rattles
C. It is clear pulmonary a sound of the corresponding share
D. Weakening of broncho phony
E. Noise of friction of pleura
49. Ascites is a congestion of liquid in …:

A. Pleural cavity
B. Pericardium cavities
C. Fabrics
D. Abdominal cavity
E. In joint
50. At the agonic of patients it is observed …:

A. Hippocratic face
B. Korvizar's face
C. Person of "a wax doll"
D. "The lion's person"
E. "Butterfly" on a face
51. At a haemothorax - a percussion sound:

A. Pulmonary.
B. Dull (femoral)
C. Tympanic.
D. Box.
E. Dulled-tympanic.
52. Violation of resistance of a thorax comes to light at.:

A. Survey
B. Percussions
C. Inquiry
D. Palpations
E. Auscultation
53. Lack of voice trembling is characteristic for a syndrome …:

A. Consolidation of pulmonary tissue
B. Existence of a cavity in pulmonary fabric
C. The increased lightness of pulmonary fabric
D. Extensive full obturative atelectasis
E. Dry pleurisy
54. At pneumothorax percussion sound:

A. Pulmonary.
B. Dull (femoral)
C. Tympanic.
D. Box.
E. Dulled-tympanic
55. Noise of splash of Hippocrates appears at a syndrome …:

A. Bronchospasm
B. Compression atelectasis
C. Hydro pneumothorax
D. Existence in bronchial tubes of a liquid secret
E. Emphysema of lungs
56. For a syndrome of a bronchospasm such auscultation signs, as

characteristic …:
A. Dry descant rattles
B. Big bubbled damp rattles
C. Crepitation
D. Noise of friction of pleura
E. Small bubbled damp rattles
57. For a syndrome of bronchial obstruction the main respiratory noise

called … is characteristic:
A. Bronchial breath
B. The weakened vesicular breath
C. Saccadic (interrupted) breath
D. Vesicular breath with the extended exhalation
E. Crepitation
58. Weakening of voice trembling is characteristic for:

A. Cruposal pneumonia of the II stage
B. The cavity connected to a bronchial tube at the opened abscess
lung
C. Syndrome of bronchospasm
D. Cruposal pneumonia of the I St.
E. Emphysemas of lungs
59. Decrease in excursion of the bottom pulmonary edge isn't characteristic

for …:
A. Syndrome of a cavity in the pulmonary fabric connected to a bronchial
tube
B. A syndrome of the increased lightness of lungs
C. Syndrome of bronchial obstruction
D. Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary fabric
E. Syndrome of availability of liquid in pleura
60. Reduction of volume of a share of a lung (physically and radiological) is

characteristic for …:
A. Full obturative of an atelectasis
B. Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue
C. A cavity syndrome in the pulmonary fabric connected to a bronchial
tube
D. A syndrome of the increased lightness of pulmonary fabric
E. Syndrome of availability of liquid in pleura
61. During auscultation of lungs identification noise of friction of pleura is
characteristic for …:
A. Syndrome of availability of air in a pleural cavity
B. A syndrome of the fibrinogen imposing is on pleural leaves
C. Compression atelectasis
D. A syndrome of the increased lightness of pulmonary fabric
E. Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary fabric
62. What from below than the signs listed the auscultative is characteristic
for a syndrome of the increased lightness of pulmonary tissue?
A. Weakening of vesicular breath
B. Lack of vesicular breath
C. Stenotic breath
D. Bronchial breath
E. Crepitation
63. Listening of the dry whistling rattles over all surface of lungs is typical
for …:
A. Increased lightness of pulmonary fabric
B. Availability of air in a pleural cavity
C. Availability of liquid in a pleura cavity
D. Violations of bronchial pass ability as a bronchospasm
E. Existence of a cavity in pulmonary fabric
64. Percussion sound of "the burst pot" most often is defined …:

A. Supracavital reported with a bronchial tube
B. At the upper bound of pleural exudate
C. At bifurcation of lungs
D. Over area of an infiltration of pulmonary fabric
E. Over area of the increased lightness of pulmonary fabric
65. The obstructive type of violation of ventilation of lungs is caused …:

A. Reduced of a gleam of bronchial tubes
B. Reduction of mobility of a diaphragm
C. Microcirculation violation
D. Weakening of force of respiratory muscles
E. Development of solderings in a pleural crack
66. Amphoral breath defined at …:

A. Increased lightness of pulmonary tissue
B. Atelectasis
C. Bronchospasm
D. Existence of a cavity in pulmonary tissue
E. Existence in bronchial tubes of a dense viscous secret
67. What type of breath at men?
A. Oral.
B. Chest.
C. Mixed.
D. Nose.
E. Belly (diaphragm).
68. At the patient with existence of a cavity in pulmonary tissue at

auscultation of lungs it is listened …:
A. Bronchial breath
B. Amphoral breath
C. Rigid breath
D. Vesicular breath
E. Lack of breath
69. In the presence of a large amount of liquid in pleural cavity by

percussion below Damuazo's line defined …:
A. Cleary pulmonary sound
B. Dull sound
C. The dulled sound
D. Metallic sound
E. Box sound
70. Specify type of short wind at patients with a syndrome of bronchial

obstruction?
A. Expiratory
B. Inspiratory
C. Mixed
D. Faltering
E. Fetid
71. By how many lines determined mobility of the bottom pulmonary edge
on the right?
A. 5.
B. 4.
C. 3.
D. 2.
E. 1.
72. What occurs at an obturative atelectasis?

A. Expansion of a lung.
B. Falling off a lung.
C. Removal of a lung.
D. Preload of a lung.
E. Increases of lightness of a lung
73. For an obturative atelectasis it isn't characteristic:

A. Weakening of voice trembling
B. Emergence damp small bubbling of rattles
C. Weakening of vesicular breath
D. Obtusion of a percussion sound
E. Weakening of a broncho phony
74. Kyphosis - means:

A. Pathological curvature of a spine column back
B. Pathological curvature of a spine column sideways
C. Pathological curvature of a spine column forward
D. Pathological curvature of a spine column back and sideways
E. Pathological curvature of a spine column forward and sideways
75. What is characteristic for an obturative atelectasis?

A. Expiratory short wind.
B. Inspiratory short wind.
C. Emphysematous thorax.
D. Dry discant rattles.
E. Tympanic sound at percussion
76. During lung emphysema we listen:

A. The weakened vesicular breath
B. Bronchial breath
C. Rigid breath
D. Amphoral breath
E. Metallic breath type
77. By how many lines topographical the lower bound is determined on the
right?
A. 7
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
E. 3
78. What from the listed isn't defined at a thorax palpation?

A. Number of respiratory movements
B. Resistance of a thorax.
C. Local pain.
D. Vesicular breath.
E. Voice trembling.
79. What isn't defined by thorax percussion?
A. Character of a percussion sound.
B. Height of standing of a top of lungs.
C. Lower bounds of lungs.
D. Resistance of a thorax.
E. Mobility of the bottom pulmonary edge
80. What of them doesn't treat pathological shapes of a thorax?

A. Paralytic.
B. Barrel-shaped.
C. Rachitic.
D. Boat shaped.
E. Normostenic
81. What of the specified signs isn't defined by thorax palpation?

A. Number of respiratory movements.
B. Resistance of a thorax.
C. Local pain.
D Shape of a thorax.
E. Voice trembling.
82. What isn't defined by a thorax palpation?

A. Resistance of a thorax.
B. Voice trembling.
C. Excursion of lungs.
D. Number of respiratory movements
E. Pain.
83. For a compression atelectasis it isn't characteristic:

A. The passing crepitation
B. Tympanic sound
C. Bronchial breath
D. Strengthening of voice trembling
E. Strengthening of a broncho phony
84. What of the listed forms doesn't treat pathological shapes of a thorax?
A. Paralytic.
B. Barrel-shaped.
C. Rachitic.
D. Asthenic.
E. Boat shaped.
85. What means compression atelectasis?

A. Expansion of a lung
B. Falling off a lung because of obstruction of a bronchial tube.
C. Removal of a lung
D. Fall of a lung because of a compression.
E. Increases in lightness of a lung.
86. What means obturative atelectasis?

A. Expansion of a lung.
B. Falling off a lung because of obstruction of a bronchial tube.
C. Removal of a lung.
D. Fall of a lung because of a compression.
E. Increases of lightness of a lung.
87. What form isn't related to pathological shapes of a thorax?

A. Paralytic.
B. Barrel-shaped.
C. Rachitic.
D. Hypersthenic
E. Funneled
88. On how many points comparative percussion on the right side of a

thorax is carried out?
A. 8.
B. 4.
C. 10.
D. 14.
E. 12.
89. On how many points comparative percussion on the left side of a thorax
is carried out?
A. 6.
B. 4.
C. 2.
D. 10.
E. 8.
90. On how many points carry out a comparative auscultation?

A. 18.
B. 22.
C. 24.
D. 28.
E. 32.
91. Mobility of pulmonary edge is determined by how many topographical

lines at the left?
A. 5.
B. 4.
C. 3.
D. 2.
E. 1.
92. Amphoral breath is a version;

A. Vesicular breath.
B. Crepitation.
C. Bronchial breath.
D. Noise of friction of pleura.
E. Dry rattles.
93. Puerile breath is listened at;

A. Elderly.
B. Woman.
C. Children.
D. Musicians.
E. Cook.
94. Treats the main respiratory noise:

A. Crepitation.
B. Dry rattles.
C. Damp rattles.
D. Vesicular breath.
E. Noise of friction of pleura.
95. Physiological weakening of vesicular breath is observed at:

A. Asthenic.
B. Normastenics.
C. Hyperstenics.
D. Musicians.
E. Cooks.
96. Physiological strengthening of vesicular breath is observed at:

A. Asthenic.
B. Normastenics.
C. Hyperstenics.
D. Musicians.
E. Cooks.
97. The method of percussion (percussion) was developed:

A. A. L. Myasnikov
B. L. Auenbrugger.
C. S.P. Botkin.
D. R. Laennek.
E. E.M. Tareev.
98. The method of listening (auscultation) was developed:
A. A. L. Myasnikov
B. L. Auenbrugger.
C. S.P.Botkin.
D. R. Laennek.
E. E.M.Tareevom.
99. A deep stage of devocalization at which there is no reaction to the verbal

address and only reactions to painful irritants - an appreciate as are kept:
A. Stupor.
B. Devocalization.
C. Sopor.
D. Coma.
E. Faint.
100. The condition of deep oppression of the CNS functions, which is

characterized by a dead faint, loss of reactions to external irritants and
disorder of regulation of the vital functions of an organism - appreciate as:
A. Stupor.
B. Devocalization.
C. Sopor.
D. Coma.
E. Faint.
101. The attack of short-term loss of consciousness - is estimated as:

A. Stupor.
B. Devocalization.
C. Sopor.
D. Coma.
E. Faint.
102. At asthenic type of a constitution - epigastric corner is equal:

A. 120 ˚
B. More than 90 ˚
C. Less than 90 ˚
D. 75 ˚
E. 45 ˚
103. At normosthenic type of a constitution - epigastric corner is equal:

A. 90 ˚
B. more than 90 ˚
C. less than 90 ˚
D. 75 ˚
E. 45 ˚
104. At hypersthenic type of a constitution - epigastric corner is equal:
A. 90 ˚
B. More than 90 ˚
C. Less than 90 ˚
D. 75 ˚
E. 45 ˚
105. The pathological curvature of a spine column is called forward:

A. Kyphosis
B. Lordosis
C. Kyphoscoliosis
D. Scoliosis
E. Kypholordosis
106. The pathological curvature of a spine column back is called:

A. Kyphosis
B. Lordosis
C. Kyphoscoliosis
D. Scoliosis
E. Kypholordosis
107. The pathological curvature of a spine column sideways is called:

A. Kyphosis
B. Lordoz
C. Kypho-scoliosis
D. Scoliosis
E. Kypholordosis
108. Kyphosis - means:

E. Pathological curvature of a spine column forward and sideways
109. Pathological lordosis means:

E. Pathological curvature of a spine column forward and
sideways
110. Kyphoscoliosis - means:

D. Pathological curvature of a spine column back and aside
E. Pathological curvature of a spine column forward and
sideways
111. The pathological curvature of a spine column back and to a vstoron, is

called:
A. Kyphosis
B. Lordosis
C. Kyphoscoliosis
D. Scoliosis
E. Kypho-lordosis
112. After an expectoration - a crepitation:

A. Amplifies
B. Weakens.
C. Doesn't change
D. Disappears
E. The listening place changes.
113. Crepitation is formed at:

A. Inflammation and narrowing of bronchial tubes.
B. Pleura inflammation.
C. Inflammation of alveolus.
D. Pericardium inflammation.
E. Myocardium inflammation.
114. Dry rattles it is formed at:

115. Noise of friction of a pleura is formed at:

A. Inflammation of bronchial tubes.
116. Where damp rattles are formed:

A. In bronchial tubes
B. In to a pleura
C. In alveolus.
D. In pericardium
E. In myocardium.
117. Rattles formed during:

C. Inflammation of an endocardium.
118. Crepitation- is a sound similar on:

A. Bursting of bubbles
B. Snow crunch.
C. A crash - arising at friction of dry hair over an ear
D. Whistle.
E. Paper rustle
119. Noise of friction of pleura is a sound similar on:

B. Snow crunch.
C. A crash - arising at friction of dry hair over an ear
D. Whistle.
E. The falling drop.
120. Damp rattles are a sound similar on:

B. Snow crunch.
C. A crash - arising at friction of dry hair.
D. Whistle.
E. Paper rustle
121. Dry rattles are a sound similar on:

B. Snow crunch.
C. A crash - arising at friction of dry hair.
D. Whistle, hum
E. Paper rustle
122. What type of breath at women?

A. Oral.
B. Chest.
C. Mixed.
D. Nasal.
E. Belly (diaphragm).
123.Thebronhophony belongs to what method of inspection?

A. Palpations.
B. Percussions.
C. To inquiry.
D. Auscultation.
E. To survey.
124. At what of the ranked methods voice trembling is defined:

A. Palpation.
B. Percussion.
C. Inquiry.
D. Auscultation.
E. Survey.
125. At what of the ranked methods resistance of a thorax is defined:

A. Palpation
B. Percussion.
C. Inquiry.
D. Auscultation.
E. Survey.
126. At what of the listed methods pathological types of a thorax are

defined:
A. Palpations.
B. Percussions.
C. Inquiry.
D. Auscultation.
E. Survey.
127. At what of the listed methods borders of lungs are defined:

A. Palpations.
B. Percussions.
C. Inquiry.
D. Auscultation.
E. Survey.
128. At what of the listed methods mobility of pulmonary edge is defined:

A. Palpation.
B. Percussion.
C. Inquiry.
D. Auscultation.
E. Survey.
129. By what of the listed methods the condition of peripheral lymph nodes
is defined:
A. Palpations.
B. Percussions.
C. Inquiry.
D. Auscultation.
E. Survey.
130. By what of the listed methods vesicular breath is defined:

A. Palpation.
B. Percussion.
C. Inquiry.
D. Auscultation.
E. Survey
131. By what of the ranked methods bronchial breath is defined:

A. Palpation.
B. Percussion.
C. Inquiry.
D. Auscultation.
E. Survey
132. By what of the ranked methods the crepitation is defined:

A. Palpation.
B. Percussion.
C. Inquiry.
D. Auscultation.
E. Survey
133. By what method morbidity of a thorax is defined:

A. Palpation.
B. Percussion.
C. Inquiry.
D. Auscultation.
E. Survey
134. By what of the ranked methods asymmetry of a thorax is defined:

A. Palpation.
B. Percussion.
C. Inquiry.
D. Auscultation.
E. Survey.
135. By what of the listed methods the shape of a thorax is defined:

A. Palpation.
B. Percussion.
C. Inquiry.
D. Auscultation.
E. Survey.
136. By what of the ranked methods the anamnesis of the real disease
(anamnesis morbi) is defined?
A. Palpation.
B. Percussion.
C. Inquiry.
D. Auscultation.
E. Survey
137. At a pyotorax - percussion sound:

A. Pulmonary.
B. Dull (femoral)
C. Tympanic.
D. Box.
E. Dulled-tympanic.
138. What of the ranked methods defining symptom of falling drops?

A. Palpation.
B. Percussion.
C. Inquiry
D. Auscultation
E. Survey
139. The whisper speech is used for definition:

A. Voice trembling
B. Broncho phony.
C. Resistance of a thorax.
D. Morbidities of a thorax
E. Survey of a thorax.
140. Words - "thirty three or the tractor", are said for definition:
A. Broncho phony.
B. Voice trembling
C. Resistance of a thorax.
D. Morbidities of a thorax
E. Excursions of a thorax.
141. What speech is used for definition of a bronchophony.
A. Silent.
B. Loud.
C. Bass.
D. Whisper.
E. Distinct.
142. What letter is used for definition of voice trembling?
A. A.
B. S.
C. J.
D. U.
E. R.
143. The liquid congestion in a pleural cavity is called:
A. Pneumothorax.
B. Hydrothorax
C. Hem thorax.
D. Pyotorax.
E. Hydro pneumothorax.
144. The gas congestion in a pleural cavity is called:
A. Pneumothorax.
B. Hydrothorax.
C. Hem thorax.
D. Pyotorax.
E. Hydro pneumothorax
145. The pus congestion in a pleural cavity is called:
A. Pneumothorax.
B. Hydrothorax
C. Hem thorax.
D. Pyothorax.
146. The blood congestion in a pleural cavity is called:
A. Pneumothorax.
B. Hydrothorax.
C. Hem thorax.
D. Pyothorax.
147. The congestion of gas and liquid in a pleural cavity is called:
A. Pneumothorax.
B. Hydrothorax.
C. Hem thorax.
D. Pyothorax.
148. Pneumothorax is?
A. A liquid congestion in a pleural cavity
B. A gas congestion in a pleural cavity
C. A pus congestion in a pleural cavity

D. A blood congestion in a pleural cavity
E. A congestion of gas and liquid in a pleural cavity
149. Hem thorax is?
A. A liquid congestion in a pleural cavity.
B. A gas congestion in a pleural cavity.
C. A pus congestion in a pleural cavity.
150. Pyothorax is?
A. A liquid congestion in a pleural cavity.
B. A gas congestion in a pleural cavity.
C. A pus congestion in a pleural cavity.
HEART AND VASCULAR SYSTEM (150)
1. Patients with diseases of SVS don't show the complaint on:

A. Pains in heart and behind a breast
B. Short wind
C. Skin itch
D. Heartbeat
E. Hypostases standing
2. What component doesn't take part in formation of the I tone?

A. Fluctuation of the closed shutters of mitral and three-leaved valves.
B. Fluctuation of walls of the right and left ventricles in a phase of isometric
tension
C. Fluctuation of proximal departments of an aorta and pulmonary artery
in phase of isometric tension
D. Fluctuation of papillary muscles and tendinous threads of
atrioventricular valves.
E. Simultaneous closing and tension of shutters of valves of an aorta and
pulmonary artery
3. What manifestations aren't characteristic for Dressler's syndrome?

A. Pericarditis
B. Pneumonitis
C. Pleurisy
D. Polyneuropathy
E. Arthritis
4. By what manifestations formation of the center of a necrosis in a

myocardium isn't followed?
A. Temperature increase of a body for the 2-3rd day of an illness
B. Neutrophil leukocytosis in the first and second day of an illness.
C. Eosinophilia
D. Increase in ESR from the 4-5th day of a disease
E. Decrease in fibrinogen in blood, lack of S-jet protein
5. What statement concerning I and II tones incorrectly?

A. The I tone on a top of heart is stronger, louder, more long than ii, follows
a big pause.
B. II tone follows a small pause, is better listened on the basis of heart.
C. the I tone coincides with a top push
D. The top push coincides with the II tone
E. The pulsation of a carotid coincides with the I tone
6. At what states there can't be an easing of both tones of heart?

A. At obesity
B. At emphysema of lungs
C. At a left-side exudate
D. At a sweetie pericarditis
E. After physical activity
7. That isn't characteristic for a pain syndrome at tension stenocardia

A. Localization behind a breast
B. The squeezing, pressing character
C. Duration more 1 hour.
D. Communication with physical activity
E. Knocking over of an attack nitroglycerine
8. What symptom isn't an insufficiency sign on a small circle?

A. Tachycardia
B. Short wind with asthma attacks at night
C. Not sonorous damp rattles in the lower departments of lungs
D. The bulked-up neck veins
E. Blood spitting
9. What kind of arrhythmia seldom arises at a myocardial infarction?

A. Rare atrial extra systole
B. Ventricular extra systole
C. Paroxysms of vibrating arrhythmia
D. Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
E. Ventricular tachycardia
10. What state can't act as the reason of chronic heart failure?
A. IHD
B. Hypertonic illness
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Dilatant cardiomyopathy
E. Heart diseases
11. What adoption of rather diastolic noise incorrectly?

A. It is listened in a big pause, between II and I tones
B. It is listened at a mitral stenosis
C. It is listened at a stenosis of the right atrial-ventricular opening
D. It is listened at insufficiency of the mitral valve
E. It is listened at insufficiency of valves of an aorta
12. At what heart disease systolic noise isn't listened?

A. Insufficiency of the mitral valve
B. Stenosis of a pulmonary artery
C. Insufficiency of the three-leaved valve
D. Aortal stenosis
E. Stenosis of the left atrial-ventricular opening
13. What statement concerning carrying out noise at an auscultation of heart

is incorrect?
A. Noise is carried out on blood current
B. Noise is carried out on a dense muscle during its reduction
C. Systolic noise at a stenosis of the mouth of an aorta is carried out on neck
vessels
D. Diastolic noise at insufficiency of valves of an aorta is better listened in
Botkin-Erba point
E. Diastolic noise at a mitral stenosis is led to the left axillary area
14. In the presence of attacks of pain in heart there is no need to exclude:

A. Steno cardia
B. Dry pleurisy
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Gullet diseases
E. Cervical osteochondrosis
15. What statement is relative pulsusdifferens incorrectly?

A. This delay of pulse on one of hands or its various size
B. It is observed at a mitral stenosis
C. Results from mechanical squeezing of a subclavian artery
D. It is observed at aorta arch aneurism
E. It doesn't depend on warm activity and a condition of vascular system
16. What method is most reliable for confirmation of a stenosis of coronary

arteries?
A. ELECTROCARDIOGRAM
B. Electrocardiogram with the dosed physical activity
C. Scintigraphy after physical activity
D. Coronaroangiography
E. Monitoring of an electrocardiogram on Holter
17. What state can't act as the reason of aortal insufficiency?

A. Rheumatism
B. Infectious endocarditis
C. Deforming osteoarthrosis
D. Syphilis
E. Marfan's illness
18. What manifestations aren't characteristic for insufficiency of the aortal

valve?
A. Long asymptomatic current
B. Steno cardia
C. Earlier development of heart failure
D. Pallor of integuments
E. The strengthened pulsation of cervical and other peripheral arteries
19. The analysis of an electrocardiogram doesn't allow to reveal:

A. Correctness of a warm rhythm
B. Hypertrophy of auricles and ventricles
C. Dilatation of ventricles
D. Conductivity violation
E. The centers of ischemia and a necrosis in a myocardium
20. How limits of relative warm dullness at a mitral stenosis are displaced?
A. To the left
B. Up and to the right
C. Up and to the left
D. To the right and to the left
E. To the right
21. Choose the most characteristic palpated symptom at a mitral stenosis

A. Systolic trembling over a heart top
B. Systolic trembling over an aorta
C. Diastolic trembling over a heart top
D. Diastolic trembling over an aorta
E. Diastolic trembling over an aorta and a top
22. What auscultative sign is most characteristic for a mitral stenosis?

A. Tone of opening of the mitral valve
B. Easing of the I tone on a top
C. Easing of the II tone over the aorta valve
D. Accent of the II tone over an aorta
E. Easing of the II tone over a pulmonary artery
23. What signs aren't peculiar for a mitral stenosis?

A. Shift of borders of heart up and to the right
B. A deviation of the contrasted gullet on an arch of small radius
C. Diastolic trembling on a heart top
D. The clapping I tone on a top
E. Systolic noise in Botkin-Erba point.
24. What state can't be the cause of development of mitral insufficiency?

A. Rheumatism
B. Prolapse of the mitral valve
C. Calcification of a mitral ring at IHD
D. Trauma, infectious endocarditis
E. Chronic bronchitis
25. How the limit of relative warm dullness at an aortal stenosis is displaced?
A. To the left
B. Up and to the left
C. Up and to the right
D. To the right
E. To the left and to the right
26. What state can't act as the reason of aortal insufficiency?

A. Rheumatism
B. Infectious endocarditis
C. Deforming osteoarthritis
D. Syphilis
E. Marfan's illness
27. What manifestations aren't characteristic for insufficiency of the aortal
valve?
A. Long asymptomatic current
B. Steno cardia
C. Earlier development of heart failure
D. Pallor of integuments
E. The strengthened pulsation of cervical and other peripheral arteries
28. At the patient at survey the hypostases of feet of cyanotic color developing
by the evening are noted. When pressing the finger possible to cause slowly
leveled pole. This description define the persons having diseases:
A. Musculoskeletal device
B. Hearts
C. Kidneys
D. Abdominal organs
E. Endocrine system
29. At a palpation of the Region of heart the top push localized in the VI
intercostal on the left mediaclavian line, poured high, resistant is revealed. On
the basis of heart synchronously 'cat's purring' decides on a top push systolic.
For what defect it is characteristic?
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Insufficiency of the aortal valve
D. Stenosis of the mouth of an aorta
E. Stenosis of a pulmonary artery
30. The upper bound of absolute dullness of heart on the left okologrudinny
line is at the level:
A. Upper edge of the III edge
B. Bottom edge of the III edge
C. Upper edge of IV of an edge
D. Bottom edge of the IV edge
E. Upper edge of the II edge
31. The right limit of absolute dullness of heart is:

A. On the right edge of a breast
B. On 0,5 - 1,0 cm to outside from the right edge of a breast
C. On 1,0-1,5 cm to outside from the right edge of a breast
D. On the left edge of a breast
E. On 0,5-1,0 cm to outside from the left edge of a breast
32. The left limit of absolute dullness of heart is in the fifth intercostal:
A. On 1,5 cm to outside from the left mediaclavian line
B. On 2,5 cm inside from the left mediaclavian line
C. On 1,0 cm inside from the left mediaclavian line
D. On the left mediaclavian line
E. 1,0 of cm to outside from the left mediaclavian line
33. The upper bound of relative dullness of heart on the left parasternal line is
at the level:
A. Upper edge of the III edge
B. Bottom edge of the III edge
C. Upper edge of IV of an edge
D. Bottom edge of the IV edge
E. Bottom edge of the V edge
34. The right limit of relative dullness of heart is:

A. Near of the right edge of a breast
B. On 1,0 cm to outside from the right edge of a breast in IV intercostal
C. On 2,0 cm to outside from the right edge of a breast
D. Near of the left edge of a breast
E. On 1,0 cm to outside from the left edge of a breast
35. The left limit of relative dullness of heart is in the fifth intercostal:
A. On 2,0 cm to outside from the left mediaclavian line
B. On 1,0 cm inside from the left mediaclavian line
C. On 2,0 cm inside from the left mediaclavian line
D. On the left mediaclavian line
E. On 1,0 cm to outside from the left mediaclavian line
36. Width of a vascular bunch is equal in the second intercostal:

A. 4 - 6 cm
B. 7 - 8 cm
C. 3 - 5 cm
D. 1 - 4 cm
E. 6 - 9 cm
37. 'The quail rhythm' is listened at:

A. Mitral stenosis
B. Insufficiency of the mitral valve
C. Aortal stenosis
D. Insufficiency of the valve of an aorta
E. Insufficiency of the tricuspid valve
38. At a severe damage of a myocardium at an auscultation at the same time

pathological III and IV tones (summary gallop) can be listened. In what phase
it appears?
A. Protodyastole
B. Mesodiastolic
C. Presystolic
D. To systole
E. To pause
39. At the patient at research of pulse pulsusdifferens which is one of signs is

noted:
A. Insufficiency of the aortal valve
B. Aortal stenosis
C. Insufficiency of the mitral valve
D. Mitral stenosis
40. The patient has a visible pulsation in epigastric area, is closer to a

xiphoidal shoot, is better visible in a standing position, and amplifies at a deep
breath. What is it?
A. Pulsation of the right ventricle
B. Liver pulsation
C. Pulsation of a belly aorta
D. Pulsation of the left ventricle
E. Pulsation of a pulmonary artery
41. Pathological bifurcation of the I tone can be observed at:

A. Sino auricularblockade
B. At atrioventricular blockade
C. At blockade of one of legs of a bunch of Gis
D. Insufficiency of aorta valves
E. Vibrating arrhythmia
42. All treat components I of tone of heart, except:

A. Muscular
B. Valvate
C. Muscular, valvate, vascular
D. Vascular
E. Respiratory
43. Is a part of a rhythm of a quall?

A. The I tone clapping
B. I tone isn't changed
C. The II tone – is increased on an aorta
D. The II tone is weakened on a pulmonary artery
E. Tone of opening aortal valve
44. In a place and time of emergence of additional tone in a diastole "the
gallop rhythm" can't be:
A. Protodiastolic
B. Mesodiastolic
C. Presystolic
D. Cardial
E. Extra cardiac
45. For noise of friction of a pericardium it isn't characteristic:

A. Listening in the field of absolute dullness of heart
B. Listening both in a systole and in a diastole
C. Weak carrying out from a place of the education
D. Listening at breath imitation is better
E. Strengthening when pressing by a stethoscope and at a trunk inclination
forward
46. Soft pulse (pulsusmollis) doesn't meet at:

A. Hypotonias
B. Sharp bleeding
C. Hypertensive illness
D. Mitral stenosis
E. Choquet
47. That isn't characteristic for diastolic noise of heart:

A. Sil of noise not connected with position of the patient
B. In vertical situation is listened better.
C. In horizontal situation diastolic noise is listened worse
D. More loudly also has a high timbre, than systolic noise
E. More silently also has a low timbre, than systolic noise
48. That isn't characteristic for systolic noise of heart:

A. Sil of noise not connected with position of the patient
B. Worse listening in vertical situation
C. In horizontal situation and systolic noise is listened better
D. More loudly also has a high timbre, than diastolic noise
E. More silently also has a low timbre, than diastolic noise
49. The apex beat is:

A. A pulsation of a forward wall of a thorax in the field of an aorta adhering
B. A pulsation of a forward wall of a thorax in the field of a adhering of a
hypertrophied right ventricle
C. A pulsation of a forward wall of a thorax in the field of a heart top
adhering
D. A pulsation of a forward wall of a thorax in the field of a liver adhering
E. A pulsation of a forward wall of a thorax in the field of the left auricle
50. The top push is in norm:
A. In VI intercostal
B. In VII intercostal
C. In the V intercostal, on 1 cm inside from the left median and clavicular line
D. In the VII intercostal on the left median and clavicular line
E. On 1 cm outside from the left median and clavicular line, in the V
intercostal
51. The area of a top push is equal in norm:

A. 3 - 4 sq. cm
B.1 - 2 sq. cm
C. 2,5 - 3,5 sq. cm
D. 0,5 - 1,5 sq. cm
E. 4 - 6 of sq. cm
52. The palpation of area of heart doesn't allow:

A. To define an additional pulsation in heart
B. To characterize properties of a top push
C. To reveal existence of a rhythm of gallop
D. To find a heart beat
E. To reveal trembling of a thorax - a symptom of 'cat's purring'
53. All signs belong to properties of a top push, except:

A. Localizations
B. Conductivity
C. Heights
D. Areas
E. Resistance
54. Poured a top push meets at the following diseases, except:

B. Insufficiency of the aortal valve
C. Arterial hypertension
D. To emphysema of lungs
E. Tumors of a back mediastenum
55. All treat the properties of pulse defined by palpation, except:

A. Fillings
B. Excitabilities
C. Tension
D. Frequencies
E. Sizes
56. "The quail rhythm" is listened:

A. On a heart top;
B. In the II intercostal to the right of a breast;
C. In the II intercostal to the left of a breast;
D. At the basis of a xiphoidal shoot;
E. On a carotid.
57. The Presystolic rhythm of gallop is formed at defeat:

A. myocardium of ventricles;
B. myocardium of auricles;
C. myocardium of auricles and ventricles;
D. Of the valve of a pulmonary artery;
E. Of the mitral valve.
58. The protodiastolic rhythm of gallop is formed at defeat:

A. myocardium of ventricles;
B. myocardium of auricles;
C. myocardium of auricles and ventricles;
D. Of the valve of a pulmonary artery;
E. Of the mitral valve.
59. For a rhythm of gallop it is characteristic:

A. existence of a tripartite rhythm;
B. The clapping I tone;
C. click of opening of the mitral valve;
D. Tone of opening of the aortal valve
E. Weakening of tones.
60. Expansion of absolute dullness of heart is observed at the following

diseases, except:
A. Tumors of a back mediastinum
B. Mitral stenosis
D. Arterial hypertension
E. Pulmonary heart
61. Reduction of the extent of absolute dullness of heart is observed at:

A. Tumors of a back mediastinum
B. Mitral stenosis
D. To emphysema of lungs
E. Pulmonary heart
62. Shift of the right limit of relative dullness of heart to outside isn't
observed at:
B. Insufficiency of the tricuspid valve
C. Stenosis of a mitral opening
D. Aortal stenosis
E. Insufficiency of valves of a pulmonary artery
63. Shift of the left limit of relative dullness of heart to is outside observed
at the following diseases, except:
A. Aortal stenosis
D. Insufficiency of the mitral valve
E. Arterial hypertension
64. Shift of limits of relative dullness of heart is observed up at:

A. Stenosis of the mouth of an aorta
D. Insufficiency of the valve of a pulmonary artery
65. The right contour of heart in the fourth intercostal is formed:

A. The top hollow vein and the ascending aorta arch
B. Right auricle
C. Right ventricle
D. Ear of the left auricle
E. Left ventricle
66. The right contour of heart in the third intercostal is formed:

B. Right auricle
C. Right ventricle
E. Left ventricle
67. The right contour of heart in the second intercostal is formed:

A. Top hollow vein
B. Right auricle
C. Right ventricle
E. Left ventricle
68. The left contour of heart in the fifth intercostal is formed:

B. Right auricle
C. Right ventricle
E. Left ventricle
69. Left contour of heart in the fourth intercostal is formed:

B. Right auricle
C. Right ventricle
E. Left ventricle
70. The left contour of heart in the third intercostal is formed:

B. Right auricle
C. Right ventricle
E. Left ventricle
71. The left contour of heart in the second intercostal is formed:

A. The descending part of an arch of an aorta and a pulmonary trunk
B. Right auricle
C. Right ventricle
E. Left ventricle
F. On a carotid
72. Systolic noise on a top of heart is listened at:

A. Stenosis of a mitral opening
C. Stenosis of the mouth of an aorta
73. Diastolic noise on a top of heart is listened at:

A. Stenosis of the mitral valve
74. Systolic noise in the second intercostal at the right edge of a breast is
listened at:
75. Diastolic noise in the second intercostal at the right edge of a breast is
listened at:
76. Systolic noise at the basis of a xiphoidal shoot of a breast is listened at:
77. The emphasis of the II tone on an aorta is listened at:

A. Increase of pressure in a small circle of blood circulation
B. Arterial hypertension
C. Insufficiency of the aortal valve
D. Aortal stenosis
E. Arterial hypotension
78. On change of the following indicator of an electrocardiogram it is possible

to judge a necrosis of a cardiac muscle:
A. R tooth
B. Q tooth
C. PT segment
D. RR interval
E. P tooth
79. On PhCG amplitude is I tone where the highest?

A. On a heart top
B. On the basis of heart
C. V to Botkin-Erba point
D. On an aorta
E. On a pulmonary artery
80. At registration of the I tone of heart for PhCG by the first is registered:
A. Valvate component
B. Muscular component
C. Vascular component
D. Pulmonary component
E. Epigastric component
81. Pulse pressure is:
A. Maximum systolic pressure
B. Minimum systolic pressure
C. Maximum diastolic pressure
D. Minimum diastolic pressure
E. A difference between systolic and diastolic pressure
82. Pulsusdifferens is:

A. A difference between systolic and diastolic pressure
B. Difference between HR and pulse rate
C. Unequal filling and size of pulse on the left and right radial artery
D. he uneven pulse arising at arrhythmias
E. Lack of pulse on a radial artery
83. At the patient during survey we can observe the liver pulsation. For what
heart disease it is characteristic?
B. Stenosis of the mitral valve
D. Stenosis of the mouth of an aorta
E. Insufficiency of the aortal valve
84. At the patient at survey the expressed pulsation in the field of the right
ventricle which is characterized by systolic retraction of a top and protrusion
of epigastric area (a symptom of a swing) is revealed. For what defect it is
typical?
A. Mitral of a stenosis
E. Insufficiency of the three-leaved valve
85. For what defect Musset's symptom is characteristic?

A. Mitral of a stenosis
D. Aortal insufficiency
86. Detection at the patient is important for diagnostics of sharp vascular

insufficiency:
A. Paradoxical pulse
B. Systolic BP is lower than 90 mm of mercury.
C. Rhythm of 'gallop'
D. Rhythm of 'quail'
E. Shifts of the right limit of relative dullness of heart
87. For insufficiency of the mitral valve it is characteristic:

A. Systolic noise on a top of the increasing character
B. Diastolic noise on a top
C. Systolic noise on a top of the decreasing character
D. Emphasis of the II tone on an aorta
E. Strengthening of the I tone on a top
88. For a mitral stenosis everything is characteristic, except:

A. Expansions of the right limit of relative dullness of heart
B. The clapping I tone on a top
C. Expansions of the upper bound of relative dullness of heart
D. Systolic 'cat's purring'
E. Diastolic 'cat's purring'
89. For a mitral stenosis it is characteristic:

A. Systolic noise on a top
B. Rhythm of 'gallop'
C. Rhythm of 'quail'
D. Diastolic noise on an aorta
E. Noise of friction of a pericardium
90. For insufficiency of the valve of an aorta everything is characteristic,

except:
A. Pulsations of carotids
B. Decrease in diastolic arterial pressure
C. Decrease in systolic arterial pressure
D. On a femoral artery double tone of Traube is defined
E. Increases of systolic arterial pressure
91. For a stenosis of the mouth of an aorta everything is characteristic, except:

A. Rough systolic noise on an aorta
B. Carrying out noise on carotids
C. Carrying out noise in an axillary hollow
D. Strengthening of noise in horizontal position of the patient
E. Easing of the II nd tone on an aorta
92. For a stenosis of the mouth of an aorta it isn't characteristic:

A. The top push is displaced to the left and down
B. A top push poured, high, resistant
C. Arterial hypertension
D. Systolic 'cat's purring' on an aorta
E. Easing of the 2nd tone on an aorta
93. For the II stage of chronic insufficiency of blood circulation everything is
characteristic, except:
A. Short wind at usual physical activity
B. Acro cyanosis
C. The poured cyanosis
D. Heartbeat at physical activity
E. Pastosity of feet by the end of day
94. For the I stage of chronic insufficiency of blood circulation it is

characteristic:
A. Short wind at rest
B. Acro cyanosis
C. Short wind at heavy physical activity
D. Heartbeat at easy physical activity
E. Bloody phlegm
95. At cardiogenic shock there are following signs, except:

A. Pallor of integuments
B. Acro cyanosis
B. Cold sweat
G. Hyperemia of integuments
D. Violations of consciousness
96. The main clinical symptoms of cardiogenic shock the following, except:
A. Tachycardia
B. Decrease in systolic pressure are lower than 60 mm Hg.
C. Cold sweat
D. Increases systolic BP higher 159 mm of mercury.
E. Rhythm of "gallop"
97. For acute left ventricular insufficiency it is characteristic all signs, except:
A. Attacks of asthma at night, after physical activity
B. Provisions orthopnea
C. Situation with a low headboard
D. The expressed cyanosis
E. Foamy pink phlegm
98. All treat acute vascular insufficiency, except:

A. Shock
B. Collapse
C. Coma
D. Faint
E. Arterial hypotonia
99. Signs of acute left ventricular insufficiency are all, except:
A. Dyspnea
B. Heartbeat
C. Stagnant rattles in lungs
D. Falling the BP are lower than 70/40 mm of mercury.
E. Provisions orthopnea
100. At sharp left ventricular insufficiency there is an asthma as arises:

A. Stagnation and hypertension of a small circle of blood circulation
B. Increase BP
C. Acute pneumonia
D. Bronchospasm
E. Reduction of frequency of breath
101. At what heart disease double tone of Traube and double noise of
Vinogradov-Dyurvuazye over large vessels is listened:
A. mitral stenosis
B. stenosis of the mouth of an aorta
C. insufficiency of the mitral valve
D. Insufficiency of the aortal valve
102. Increase of systolic arterial pressure and decrease in the diastolic is

characteristic for the following heart disease:
A. mitral stenosis
B. stenosis of the mouth of an aorta
C. insufficiency of the aortal valve.
D. Of insufficiency of the mitral valve
E. Of insufficiency of the three-leaved valve
103. The syndrome of cardiogenic shock most often is complication:

A. Focal pneumonia
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Stomach ulcer
E. Stable steno cardia
104. Signs of sharp left ventricular insufficiency are all, except:

A. Bleedings from a nose
B. Shifts of relative warm dullness to the left
C. Emphasis of the II - nd tone on an aorta
D. Swellings of cervical veins
E. Pallor of integuments and extremities
105 Patients with diseases of CVS don't show the complaint on:
A. Pains in heart and behind a breast
B. Short wind
C. Skin itch
D. Heartbeat
E. Hypostases standing
106. The matters "orthopnea" are improved by a state, reducing:

A. Pains in heart
B. Interruptions in work of heart
C. Hypostases of the lower extremities
D. Short wind
E. Headaches
107. For sharp right ventricular insufficiency it is characteristic:

A. Pallor of the person and hands
B. "pig-iron" cyanosis of the person and hands
C. Hyperemia of face
D. Faciesmitralis
E. Dance of carotid
108. The main complaint at development of developments of stagnation in a

small circle of blood circulation is:
A. Short wind
B. Headaches
C. Hypostases
D. Dyspeptic of frustration
E. Weight in the right hypochondria
109. Is the reason of sharp right ventricular insufficiency:

A. Thromboembolic of a pulmonary artery
B. Chronic diseases of lungs
C. Mitral stenosis
D. Insufficiency of valves of a pulmonary artery
E. Myocardial infarction of the left ventricle of heart
110. Can lead to hypostasis of a lung everything listed, except one:

A. Mitral stenosis
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Insufficiency of the mitral valve
D. Thromboembolic of a pulmonary artery
E. Heavy hypertensive crisis
111. Specify a type of pathological "mask" of the person on the given signs: the
expressed cyanosis of lips, a tip of a nose, chin, ears, a cyanotic flush of cheeks:
A. "Corvizarts face"
B. Faciesmitralis
C. "Stokes's collar"
D. "Hippocratic face"
E. Faciesnephritica
112. The patient sits, having bent down forward, at:

A. Steno cardias
B. Myocarditis
C. Aortal stenosis
D. sweetie pericarditis
E. Cardiac asthma
113. For an attack of stenocardia everything is characteristic with one exception:

A. Emergence of pain at physical activity
B. Retrosternal localization of pains
C. The fast stopping effect of nitroglycerine
D. Strengthening of attacks in cold windy weather
E. The patient rushes about from pain, can't find any peace
114. For what clinical situation the bubbling breath heard at distance and
weight damp the big bubble of not ringing rattles over all surface of lungs is
most characteristic?
A. Chronic of right ventricular heart failure
B. Chronic of left ventricular heart failure
C. Acute left ventricular heart failure (cardiac asthma)
D. Acute left ventricular heart failure (alveolar hypostasis of lungs)
E. Crupose of pneumonia with an abscessing
115. What isn't characteristic for a pain syndrome at tension stenocardia?

A. Localization behind a breast
B. The squeezing, pressing character
C. Duration more 1 h.
D. Communication with physical activity
E. Knocking over of using nitroglycerine
116. Korvizar's face is observed at:

A. Renal failure
B. Myxedema
C. Peritonitis
D. Heart failure
E. B12-scarce anemia
117. The main complaint at developments of stagnation in a small circle of blood

circulation:
A. Short wind
B. Headaches
C. Hypostases
D. Dyspeptic of frustration
E. Weight in the right hypochondria
118. Firm pulse is observed at:

B. Hypertensive illness
C. Aortal stenosis
D. Mitral stenosis
E. Left ventricular heart failure
119. What type of hypostases: diffusion, "dense", it is more on shins, feet and in
lumbar area increase by the evening, decrease, followed in the morning
expressed the acro cyanosis
A. Cardiac hypostases
B. Renal hypostases
C. Allergic swelled
D. Inflammatory hypostasis
E. Hypostases at a hypothyroidism (myxedema)
120. Frequent pulse, small filling, "threadlike", is characteristic for:

A. Stenosis of the mouth of an aorta
C. Vascular insufficiency
D. Mitral stenosis
E. Insufficiency of the mitral valve
121. For what purpose the patient with diseases cardio - vascular system,
having heavy short wind, it is recommended to accept a semi-sitting position in
a bed?
A. Such situation it is more convenient to AV to feed;
B. Stagnation of blood in a small circle of blood circulation decreases;
C. Danger of developing of decubituses decreases.
D. Improvement of blood supply of a brain,
E. Increase in inflow of blood to a small circle of blood circulation;
122. What properties of pulse characterize the BP level?

A. Frequency;
B. Rhythm;
C. Tension.
D. Definition place
E. Deficiency
123. In what cases deficiency of pulse is observed?

A. At low PB;
B. When pulse rate is less than a heart rate
C. At rare warm reductions.
D. At high BP.
E. When pulse rate is more than a heart rate.
124. What characterizes pulse pressure?

A. A difference between systolic and diastolic pressure;
B. Simultaneous registration BP and pulse rates;
C. Pressure level in a cuff at which pulse waves on a beam artery start
appearing.
D. Level of systolic pressure,
E. Level of diastolic pressure.
125. Corresponds to a warm push:

A. A pulsation in the field of a top
B. A pulsation in the second intercostal on the right at a breast
C. The poured pulsation in heart at the left at a breast
D. A pulsation in the second intercostal at the left at a breast
E. A pulsation in the field of a jugular pole
126. The top push is displaced to the left and down at:
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Insufficiency of valves of an aorta
C. Hypertensive illness
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Myocarditis
127. During insufficiency of aortal valve is observed:

A. Trapezoid configuration of heart
B. Pulsusparvusettardus
C. Quail rhythm
D. Noise of a Graham-Steel
E. Big pulse arterial pressure
128. At aortal insufficiency it isn't listened:

A. Flint noise
B. Noise of a Graham - Steel
C. Weakening of ii of tone on an aorta
D. Weakening of I tone on a top
E. Diastolic noise on an aorta
129. At dilatation of the left auricle of border of heart change as follows:

A. Expansion of diameter of relative dullness of heart to the left
B. Expansion of diameter of relative dullness of heart to the right
C. The upper bound of relative dullness of heart at the level of 2 edges
D. The upper bound of absolute dullness of heart at the level of 3 edges
E. The left limit of absolute dullness of heart on 1 cm outside from the left
mediaclavian line
130. Doesn't enter the mechanism of formation of the first tone:

A. Valvate component
B. Muscular component
C. Vascular component
D. Valvate and muscular components
E. Rheological component
131. Tone of opening of the mitral valve is listened:

A. On a top
B. In the second intercostal on the right at a breast
C. In fifth point
D. At the basis of a xiphoidal shoot
E. In the second intercostal at the left at a breast
132. Vibrating arrhythmia isn't observed at:

A. Mitral stenosis
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Atherosclerotic cardio sclerosis
E. Myocardial infarction
133. The true pulsation of a liver and positive wine pulse come to light at:
D. Mitral stenosis
E. Myocardial infarction
134. For a mitral stenosis it is characteristic:

A. The tone clapping i on a top
B. Emphasis of the II tone on an aorta
C. Pulsusaltus et celer
D. Diastolic noise in the IV point
E. Systolic noise on a top
135. For insufficiency of the three-leaved valve everything is characteristic,

except:
A. Heart beat
B. Easing; the first tone in the fourth point
C. Systolic noise in the fourth point
D. Rivero-Carvallo's symptom
E. Flint noise
136. At insufficiency of valves of an aorta it isn't observed:

A. "dancing of carotids"
B. Reduction of pulse pressure
C. Musset's symptom
D. Dilatation of the left ventricle
E. Double noise of Dyurvuazye
137. For the patient with heart failure it is characteristic:

A. "the lion's person"
B. "Parkinson's mask"
C. Person of "a wax doll"
D. Mask of a Corvizar
E. Crescent-shaped face
138. For an aortal stenosis it is characteristic:

B. "dancing of carotids"
C. Positive pulse of veins
D. Pulsusdifferens
E. "Quail rhythm"
139. For a concentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle the following top push is
characteristic:
A. Poured
B. Low
C. Strengthened
D. Displaced to the left
E. Dome-shaped
140. The high and abrupt pulse is characteristic for:

D. Insufficiency of the three-leaved valve
141. For a hypertrophy of the left ventricle everything is characteristic,

except:
A. Shifts of the left limit of relative dullness to the left
B. High, strong, resistant ape[ beat
C. Areas of a apex beat more than 2 cm
D. Dome-shaped apex beat
E. Negative apex beat
142. At patients with insufficiency of valves of an aorta come to light the

following coloring of skin:
A. Acro cyanosis
B. Light pink
C. Pallor
D. Pallor with a wax-like shade
E. Earthy color
143. The left limit of relative dullness is formed:
A. Ear of the left auricle
B. Left auricle
C. Left ventricle
D. Right ventricle
E. Aorta arch
144. Flint's noise is listened at:
B. Aortal stenosis
C. Insufficiency of the tricuspid valve
D. Mitral stenosis
145. The expressed pulsation of carotids is observed at patients with:
A. Aortal stenosis
C. Insufficiency mitral of valves
D. Insufficiency of three-leaved valves
146. Emergence of a negative top push comes to light at:
A. Mitral stenosis
C. Adhesive pericarditis
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Cardio sclerosis
147. "Dancing of carotids" is observed at:
A. Left ventricular heart failure
D. Right ventricular heart failure

148. Existence of emphasis of the II tone on an aorta isn't characteristic for:
A. Hypertensive illness
B. Sharp glomerulonephritis
C. Aorta atherosclerosis
D. Coarctation of aorta
E. Mitral of a stenosis
149. Tone of opening of the mitral valve is listened at:
B. Stenosis of the left atrioventricular opening
C. Hypertrophies of the left ventricle
E. Violation of carrying out excitement on legs of a bunch of Gis
150. Shift of the left limit of relative dullness of heart is caused to the left:
A. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle
B. Hypertrophy of the left auricle
C. Hypertrophy of the right auricle
E. Dilatation of the right auricle

Рейтинг 2
THE GASTROINTESTINAL TRACT (100)
1. Heartburn is an existence sign:

A. High acidity of gastric juice
B. Low acidity
C. Weaknesses of a cardiac sphincter
D. Gullet spasm
E. Diaphragm hernia
2. At a palpation of the gatekeeper it is observed:

A. Noise of "splash"
B. Noise of "mouse peep"
C. Symptom of "a floating small piece of ice"
D. Fluctuation symptom
E. Symptom of "swing"
3. Increased, dense, painless, with the pointed edge liver palpated at:
A. Hepatitis
B. Heart failure
C. Liver cancer
D. Cirrhosis
E. Cholecystitis
4. The gullet spasm in response to a gastroesophageal reflux causes the

complaint on:
A. Eructation the sour
B. Heartburn
C. Nausea
D. Eructation air
E. Vomiting
5. Vomiting the food eaten the day before happens at:

A. Chronic gastritis
B. Stomach ulcer of a stomach
C. Cancer of cardiac department of a stomach
D. Gatekeeper's stenosis
E. Stomach ulcer of a duodenum
6. For pain at stomach ulcer duodenum it is characteristic:

A. Emergence in 1,5-2 hours after food
B. Emergence in 15 minutes after food
C. Pain relief after vomiting
D. Strengthening of pain after meal
E. Fat write emergence of pain after reception
7. For a functional dysphagia it isn't characteristic:

A. Difficulty of passing of generally liquid food
B. Difficulty of passing of generally firm food
C. Eructation air
D. Strengthening of a dysphagia after excitement
E. More frequent emergence at young age
8. The reason of hemorrhagic manifestations at diseases of a liver is:

A. Violation of a proteinaceous exchange
B. Violation of a fatty exchange
C. Violation of a carbohydrate exchange
D. Decrease in secretory function of a liver
E. Violation of detox function of a liver
9. The chair "melena" can be observed at:

A. Nonspecific ulcer colitis
B. Hemorrhoids
C. Rectum cancer
D. Duodenum ulcer
E. Dysentery
10. For mechanical jaundice it is characteristic:

A. Decrease in level of alkaline phosphatase
B. Increase of level of an aspartataminotransferase - AST
C. Increase of level of direct and indirect bilirubin
D. Increase of level of albumin
E. Increase of level of direct bilirubin
11. For haemolytic jaundice it is characteristic:

A. increase of level of alkaline phosphatase
B. increase of level of an aspartataminotransferase - AST
C. increase of level of direct and indirect bilirubin
D. Increase of level of indirect bilirubin
12. For parenchymatous jaundice it is characteristic:

A. Decrease in level of alkaline phosphatase
B. Decrease in level of an aspartataminotransferase - AST
C. Increase of level of direct and indirect bilirubin
D. Increase of level of indirect bilirubin
13. At mechanical jaundice in the analysis a calla:
A. Direct bilirubin raises
B. There is no direct bilirubin
C. Absence of stercobilinum
D. Raising of stercobilinum
E. Raising of urobilinum
14. Athaemo lytic jaundice in the analysis a calla:

A. direct bilirubin raises
B. there is no direct bilirubin
C. Absence of stercobilinum
D. Raises stercobilinum
E. Raises stercobilinum
15. At mechanical jaundice in the analysis of urine:

B. There is no direct bilirubin
C. Stercobilinum Is absent
E. Raises urobilinum
16. Athaemo lytic jaundice in the analysis of urine:

B. Urobilinum is absent
C. Stercobilinum is absent
E. Raises urobilinum
17. Paroxysmal, burning pain in epigastric area in 2-3 hours after food, at
night, is characteristic for:
A. Stomach ulcer of a stomach
B. Stomach ulcer of a duodenum
C. Stomach cancer
D. Gatekeeper's stenosis
E. Chronic gastritis
18. At portal hypertension it isn't observed:

A. Splenomegaly
B. "Head of a jellyfish"
C. Skin itch
D. Meteorism
E. Expansion of veins of a gullet
19. At survey of the patient the hyperemia of palms, language, "vascular
asterisks" is revealed. It is suspected:
A. Chronic cholecystitis
B. Ehinococcus of a liver
C. Alcoholic hepatitis
D. Cirrhosis
E. Ulcer of a stomach
20. Courvoisier's symptom meets at:

A. Cancer of pancreas head
B. Biliously - a stone illness
C. Stomach cancer
D. Chronic cholecystitis
E. Cancer of a gall bladder
21. Ortner's symptom meets at:

A. Pancreas head cancer
B. Cholelithiasis
C. Stomach cancer
D. Chronic cholecystitis
E. Cancer of a gall bladder
22. The halfbent sitting position with the hands pressed to painful area of a
stomach is held by patients with:
A. Exacerbation of stomach ulcer
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Pancreas cancer
D. Diaphragm pleurisy
E. Peritonitis
23. The feeling of bitterness in a mouth is caused in the mornings:

A. Hyper secretion of facing glands
B. Hypersecreting of additional glands
C. Duodeno-gastral reflux
D. Duodeno-gastral and gastro-esophageal refluxes
E. Achalasia of a sebesten
24. At haemo lytic jaundice color of integuments becomes:

A. Citreous
B. Olive-yellow
C. Saffron - yellow
D. Bronze
E. Earthy
25. At mechanical jaundice color of integuments becomes:

A. Citreous
B. Olive-yellow
C. Saffron - yellow
D. Bronze
E. Earthy
26. At parenchymatous jaundice color of integuments becomes:

A. Citreous
B. Olive-yellow
C. Saffron - yellow
D. Bronze
E. Earthy
27. Emergence of telangiectasia is characteristic for:

A. Viral hepatitis
B. Chronic cholecystitis
C. Cirrhosis
D. Metastatic damage of lungs
E. Bile stone illness
28. Emergence of a gynecomastia is characteristic for:

A. Viral hepatitis
B. Chronic cholecystitis
C. Cirrhosis
D. Metastatic damage of lungs
E. Bile stone illness
29. For parenchymatous jaundice it is characteristic all listed, except one:

A. Increase of direct bilirubin
B. Increase of indirect bilirubin
C. Positive reaction on stercobilinum
D. Detection in urine of an urobilin
E. Increase in blood of level of alkaline phosphatase and cholesterol
30. The dysphagia at reception of liquid is characteristic for:

A. Gullet cancer
B. Functional dysphagia
C. Atonia of a gullet
D. Akhlaziya of a sebesten
E. Stricture of a gullet
31. The rounded soft and painful liver edge is palpated at:
A. Primary cancer of a liver
B. Metastatic cancer of a liver
C. Echinococcosis
D. Cirrhosis
E. Stagnant liver
32. Tenesms are characteristic for defeat:

A. Cecum
B. Ceca
C. Rectum
D. Small intestine
E. Duodenum
33. At a stenosis of the gatekeeper the eructation is characteristic:

A. Sour
B. "rotten eggs"
C. Bitter
D. Food
E. Air
34. Morbidity at a knocking the elbow party of a palm on a costal arch in a

zone of a projection of a gall bladder is a positive symptom:
A. Ortnera
B. Vasilenko
C. Zakharyina
D. Murphy
E. Myussi
35. For stomach ulcer pain in epigastric area is characteristic:

A. Night
B. Hungry
C. Early
D. Late
E. Constant
36. For portal hypertension isn't characteristic:

A. Symptom of "head of a jellyfish"
B. Splenomegaly
C. Meteorism
D. Expansion of a splenic vein
E. Heartburn
37. Kurvuazye's symptom can appear at:

A. Cirrhosis
B. Liver cancer
C. Pancreas head cancer
D. Chronic cholangitis
E. Chronic hepatitis
38. Ortner's symptom is observed at:
A. chronic pancreatitis
B. cholelythiasis
C. chronic gastritis
D. stomach ulcer of a stomach
E. Chronic duodenitis
39. At diseases of a liver it isn't observed:

A. Jaundice
B. Skin itch
C. "Dagger" pain
D. Hemorrhage
E. Palmar erythema
40. For bleeding from a sigmoid gut everything is characteristic, except:

B. Weakness
C. Dizziness
D. Not changed blood in Calais
E. "melena"
41. Disgust for meat dishes is peculiar to patients:

B. Stomach ulcer of a stomach
C. Stomach ulcer of a duodenum
D. Stomach cancer
E. Chronic colitis
42. At a syndrome of a cholestasis it is observed:

A. Increase in indirect bilirubin
B. Increase of ALT
C. Increase in alkaline phosphatase
D. Decrease in cholesterol
E. Increase of aldolase
43. At a syndrome of a cholemia it isn't observed:

A. Increase in direct bilirubin
B. Skin itch
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypotonia
E. Increase in indirect bilirubin
44. Emergence of "melena" is characteristic for:

A. Gastric bleeding
B. Long administration of drugs of bismuth
C. Bleedings from a sigmoid gut
D. Dysentery
E. Fermentative dyspepsia
45. To what the skin itch at liver diseases testifies:

A. Existence of a duodeno-gastric reflex
B. Increase in bilious acids in blood against the expressed cholestasis
C. Violation of protein producing function of a liver
D. Heart failure with the accompanying
miocardiodistrophy
E. Decrease of detox cation function of a liver in relation
to products of disintegration of proteins.
46. For parenchymatous jaundice the next color of integuments is

characteristic:
A. Citreous
B. Orange-yellow
C. Chartreuse
D. Earthy
E. "A wax doll"
47. For mechanical jaundice all is characteristic following, with one exception:
A. Very high general bilirubin
B. Prevalence of direct bilirubin
C. Decolored feces
D. Existence in urine of direct bilirubin
E. Sharply positive reaction on urobilinum
48. Emergence of the pulling, holding apart, stupid constant pains in the right
hypochondria is connected with:
A. Spasm of a sphincter of Oddi
B. Spasm of muscles of a gall bladder
C. Spasm of a sphincter of a gall bladder
D. Stretching of a glissonovs capsule of a liver at its increase
E. Atonia of Oddi's sphincter
49. A characteristic symptom of portal hypertension at survey are:

A. The stomach increased in volume with a protrusion navel
B. The stomach increased in volume with the deep, pulled-in navel
C. Venous drawing on lateral sites of a stomach
D. Hypostases of the lower extremities
E. "Hepatic" palm
50. To what weight loss and an atrophy of muscles at liver diseases testify:
A. Existence of a duodeno-gastric reflex
B. Increase in bilious acids in blood against the expressed cholestasis
C. Violation of synthetic (proteinaceous and production) function of a liver
D. Heart failure against expressed accompanying miocar-
diodystrophy
E. Decrease of detox cation function of a liver in relation to products of
disintegration of protein
51. For esophageal vomiting it isn't characteristic:

A. Existence of nausea
B. Absence of nausea
C. High Ph of emetic masses
D. Vomiting undigested food
E. Fetid smell of emetic masses
52. For emergence of heartburn not obligatory existence:

A. Hyper secretions of HCL in a stomach
B. Existence of an esophagitis
C. Duodenal gastric reflux
D. Spasm of muscles of a gullet
E. Stomach ulcer of a stomach
53. Disgust for meat dishes is peculiar to patients:

B. Stomach ulcer of stomach
C. Stomach ulcer of duodenum
D. Stomach cancer
E. Chronic colitis
54. What is "pica chlorotica"?

A. Achlorhydria and an achilia at patients with Fe-scarce anemia
B. Taste perversion
C. Decrease in tastes
D. Burning in a language tip
E. Pallor with a greenish shade at patients from chronic Fe-
Scarce anemia
55. Explain that such "melena":

A. "fat", brilliant, badly washing away feces
B. Liquid feces of black color
C. Decolored feces (gray)
D. Feces with slices of undigested food
E. Black issued feces
56. What is characteristic for Courvoisier's symptom?

A. The increased, painless, elastic and mobile gall bladder at the patient with
mechanical jaundice
B. The increased, painless, elastic gall bladder, jaundices isn't present
C. Mechanic jaundice, a gall bladder it isn't increased, its palpation
is painful
D. Parenchymatous jaundice, a gall bladder it isn't increased, its palpation is
painful
E. Hemolytic jaundice, a gall bladder it isn't increased, its palpation is painful
57. What complaint isn't characteristic for gullet diseases?

A. Dysphagia
B. Vomiting
C. Diarrhea
D. Bleedings
E. Heartburn
58. What complaint isn't characteristic for stomach diseases?

A. Dysphagia
B. Vomiting
C. Locks
D. Bleedings
E. Heartburn
59. What manifestations aren't characteristic for portal hypertension?

A. Presence of a varicosity of a gullet and stomach
B. Splenomegaly
C. Hepatomegaly
D. Increase in diameter of a portal vein
E. Ascites
60. What is the hypersplenism?

A. Born malformation of a spleen
B. A combination cytosinging with possible increase in a spleen
C. Increase in a spleen in combination with a cytopenia
D. Obligatory increase in a spleen in combination with the leucocytes
E. Increase in a spleen at patients with hepatitis
61. Conditions which shouldn't be observed at a stomach palpation:

A. Warm room
B. Silent room
C. Warm, clean hands of the doctor with shortly cut nails
D. Horizontal position of the patient with a low headboard, extended
hands and feet bent in knee joints
E. The doctor has to sit to the right of the patient
62. Early pains in epigastric area arise after food during:
A. 30 minutes
B. 50 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 60 minutes
E. 1,5-2 of hour
63. The superficial palpation of a stomach doesn't define:

A. Morbidity
B. Tension of muscles
C. Muscular La Défense
D. Divergence of muscles of a belly wall
E. Rumbling
64. The deep palpation of a stomach doesn't reveal:

A. Morbidity
B. Rumbling
C. Form
D. Surface
E. Tension of muscles
65. That from the listed doesn't treat receptions of a deep palpation of a
stomach:
A. The hand of the doctor has to lie flatwise, the movements to be carried out
in beam carpal joints
B. The hand of the doctor with slightly bent fingers are established parallel to
a longitudinal axis of the palpated organ
C. Before fingers of the doctor the skin fold is created
D. The hand of the doctor on an exhalation plunges into an abdominal cavity
E. Sliding on a surface of palpating body at a delay the patient of breath on an
exhalation
66. In what of the listed cases gastric secretion isn't be increased:

A. Resection of part of a small intestine
B. Hyper calcification of any origin
C. Atrophic gastritis
D. The injury of a brain conducting to increase of vagus activity
E. Pancreatitis or obstruction of a channel of a pancreas
67. What of syndromes doesn't meet at liver diseases?:

A. Syndrome of portal hypertension
B. Reynaud's syndrome
C. Shegren's syndrome
D. Nephrotic syndrome
E. Cholemia syndrome
68. The liver sizes across Kurlov are equal in norm:
A. On the right parasternal line of 9 cm, on the median line – 8 cm, on the left
costal arch - 7 cm
B. On the right parasternal line of 9 cm, on the median line – 8 cm, on the left
costal arch - 7 cm
C. On the right parasternal line of 9 cm, the median line – 8 cm, on the right
cstal arch - 7 cm
D. On the right mediaclavian line of 9 cm, on the median line – 8 cm, on the
right costal arch – 7 cm
E. On the right mediaclavian line of 7 cm, on the median line – 8 cm, on the
left costal arch - 9 cm
69. Doesn't treat the reasons of a hepatomegaly:

A. Stagnant heart failure
B. Constrictive pericarditis
D. Insufficiency of the aortal valve
E. Obstruction of hepatic veins (Badd's syndrome – Kiari)
70. What complaint doesn't belong to a dyspeptic syndrome?:

A. Eructation
B. Heartburn
C. Vomiting
D. Nausea
E. Diarrhea
71. What is the cytophoby?

A. Abstention of meal because of fear of developing of pains
B. Abstention of meal because of fear of developing of vomiting
C. Meal because of fear of developing of pains
D. Meal because of fear of developing of vomiting
E. Fear of developing of bleeding
72. At what disease the cytophoby most often meets?

A. Stomach cancer
B. Sharp gastritis
C. Stomach ulcer of a stomach
D. Stomach ulcer of a 12-perstny gut
E. Duodenitis
73. Reaction of feces on the hidden blood can be positive:

A. At micro bleedings from an ulcer of a duodenum o
B. At micro bleedings from a tumor gastro - intestinal path
C. At nonspecific ulcer colitis
D. At the use of meat in food
E. At everything listed
74. Pains at diseases of a liver and the choleabduction ways can arise owing to
all reasons, except:
A. Stretching of a glissonov capsule
B. Damages of hepatocytes
C. Inflammation and stretching of walls bilious puzgy
D. Spastic reduction of a gall bladder
E. Cholangitis
75. At patients with chronic hepatitis at a palpation of a liver all signs can
define, except:
A. The liver is increased
B. Dense
C. Smooth
D. Hilly
E. Edge painful, sharp
76. At what disease bleeding from varicose expanded veins of a gullet, the
hemorroidal veins is possible?
A. Cirrhosis;
B. Hepatitis;
C. Cholecystitis;
D. Stomach ulcer.
E. Gastritis
77. When cleaning enemas aren't applied?

A. By preparation for radiological research of digestive organs;
B. At locks;
C. Before endoscopic research of a thick gut;
D. At poisonings;
E. At acute inflammatory processes or ulcer changes in area of a thick gut.
78. Vomiting "a coffee thick" happens at?

A. Stomach ulcer;
B. Cancer of a thick gut;
C. Erosive and ulcer colitis;
D. Pancreatitis.
E. Gastritis
79. What is the tenesms?

A. False desires to the act of a defecation;
B. Pains of spastic character;
B. Desires on vomiting;
G. Locks.
D. Diarrhea
80. For a hypo acid state are characteristic?

A. Heartburn;
B. Locks;
C. Diarrhea;
D. Tenesms.
E. Vomiting
81. For a hyperacid state are characteristic?

A. Dysphagia;
B. Locks;
V. Diarrhea;
G. Tenesms.
D. Vomiting
82. What order of a palpation of departments of a thick gut?

A. Cecum, sigmoid, ascending, ceca, descending;
B. Sigmoid, cecum, ascending, descending, ceca;
C. Ascending, ceca, descending, cecum, sigmoid.
D. Sigmoid ascending, descending ceca, cecum
E. Descending, ceca, ascending, sigmoid, cecum
83. "FaciesHyppocratica" is characteristic for?

A. Gastritis;
B. Stomach ulcer of a stomach;
C. Gastrointestinal bleeding;
D. Peritonitis;
E. Ulcer colitis.
84. The hemorrhagic syndrome at diseases of a liver is manifestation.

A. Hepatocellular insufficiency;
B. Portal hypertension;
C. Dyskinesia of bile removing ways;
D. Cholangitis.
E. Dyspepsia’s
85. Gynecomast at diseases of a liver is manifestation of?

D. Cholangitis
E. Dyspepsia
86. Splenomegaly at diseases of a liver is manifestation of?

D. Cholangitis.
E. Dyspepsia’s
87. The densely pigmented urine and feces appear at:

A. Over hepatic jaundice;
B. Hepatic jaundice;
C. Subhepatic jaundice;
D. Cholestasis
E. Cholangitis
88. Urine of color of "beer" and decoloured by kcal happen at:

A. Over hepatic jaundice;
C. Sub hepatic jaundice;
D. Cholestasis
E. Cholangitis
89. Dark urine and decolored feces happen to yellow foam at:
A. Over the hepatic jaundice;
B. Hepatic jaundice:
C. Sub hepatic jaundice
D. Hepatitis
E. Cirrhosis
90. Indirect reaction of Van den Bergh is characteristic for?

D. Cholestasis
E. Cholangitis
91. The direct slowed-down Van den Bergh's reaction is characteristic for?
D. Cholestasis
E. Cholangitis
92. Direct fast reaction of Van den Bergh is characteristic for?

B. Hepatic jaundice:
C. Sub hepatic jaundice
D. Hepatitis
E. Cirrhosis
93. Radiological research of a thick gut is called?

A. Colonoscopy;
B. Enteroscopy;
C. Irrigoscopy.
D. Rectoromanoskopy
E. Rectoscopy
94. Find a mistake: bilious acids are necessary for:

A. Emulsifications of carbohydrates;
B. Emulsifications of lipids;
C. Emulsifications of proteins
D. Activation of a lipase of a pancreas;
E. Absorptions of fatty acids with a long chain
95. Call the most frequent reason of icteric coloring of skin:

A. Expansion of peripheral vessels and disclosure of additional capillaries
B. Anemia
C. Erytrocytosis
D. Decrease in function of adrenal glands
E. Violation of a bilirubin exchange
96. Is typical at ascites:

A. The expressed asymmetry of a stomach
B. The pulled-in navel of century a fluctuation symptom
C. Divergence of direct muscles of a stomach
D. Loud tympanic in lateral departments of a stomach at position of the
patient lying
97. Accumulation of gases in intestines is called

A. Meteorism
B. Lock
C. Diarrhea
D. Tenesmus
E. Eructation
98. The lock is a chair delay more

A. 12 hours
B. 10 days
C. 2 days
D. 5 days
E. 1 week
99. Akhilia it:

A. Lack of gastric secretion
B. Excess gastric secretion
C. Lack of secretion of a pancreas
D. Excess secretion of a pancreas
E. Decrease in release of bile
100. Achlorhydria it:

A. Lack of gastric secretion
B. Excess gastric secretion
C. Lack of secretion of a pancreas
D. Excess secretion of a pancreas
E. Lack of hydrochloric acid in gastric contents
THE URINARY SYSTEM (50)
1. How renal hypostases develop?

A. Quickly
B. Suddenly
C. Slowly
D. Imperceptibly
E. Only in the evenings
2. Where often all renal hypostases are localized?

A. On a face and eyelids
B. On a trunk
C. On the lower extremities
D. On the top extremities
E. On all body
3. What color of integuments at renal hypostases?

A. Pale with a marble shade
B. Cyanotic
C. Coffee with milk
D. Gray
E. Yellow
4. Consistence of renal hypostases:

A. Soft
B. Dense
C. Mixed
D. Rather dense
E. Board figurative
5. One of important signs of a nephrotic syndrome is:

A. Leucocyte urea
B. Proteinuria
C. Macro hematuria
D. Pyuria
E. Glycosuria
6. Polyuria is:
A. Increase in daily diuresis
B. Reduction of daily diuresis
C. Lack of urine
D. Increase in day diuresis
E. Increase in night diuresis
7. What is the oliguria?

A. Resistant increase in daily diuresis
B. Allocation less than 500 ml of urine in days
C. Lack of urine
D. Decrease in day diuresis
8. What is the anuria?

A. Resistant increase in volume of the emitted urine
B. Permanent reduction of volume of the emitted urine
C. Increase in night diuresis
D. Sharp decrease in diuresis – less than 200 ml/days
E. Termination of release of urine
9. What is the pollaciuria?

A. Rare urination
B. The speeded-up urination
C. Involuntary urination
D. The complicated urination
E. Urine incontinence
10. What is the strangury?

A. Free urination
B. The complicated urination
C. Painful urination
D. Frequent urination
E. Involuntary urination
11. Nocturia it:
A. Increase in daily diuresis
B. Reduction of daily diuresis
C. Increase in day diuresis
D. Termination of release of urine
12. To that exactly the relation of volume of night urine to volume day in norm?
A. 1: 4
B. 1: 2
C. 1: 1
D. 1: 5
E. 1: 6
13. What reactions of urine in norm?

A. Alkaline
B. Neutral
C. Sour
D. Poorly alkaline
E. Always the alkaline
14. What is the proteinuria?

A. Increase of amount of protein in blood
B. Emergence in urine of leukocytes
C. Emergence in urine of erythrocytes
D. Decrease in amount of protein in blood
E. Allocation with protein urine
15. Hematuria is an emergence in urine:

A. Cylinders
B. Squirrel
C. Leucocytes
D. Erythrocytes
E. Urates
16. Leucocyte urea is an emergence in urine:

A. Erythrocytes
B. Leucocytes
C. Cylinders
D. Bilirubin
E. Urates
17. What amount of the emitted urine in days in norm?

A. 500-800 ml
B. 800-1200 ml
C. 1500-2000 ml
D. 600-1000 ml
E. 2000 - 4000 ml
18. The indicator рН urine is equal in norm:

A. 5,0-7,0
B. 2,0-4,0
C. 3,0-6,0
D. 6,0-8,0
E. 9,0-11,0
19. How many a portion of urine gathers at Zemnitsky's test?

A. 5
B. 8
C. 4
D. 10
E. 12
20. How many leukocytes in days are allocated with urine at test on Addis-
Kakovsky's method?
A. 1000000
B. 2000000
C. 3000000
D. 4000000
E. 5000000
21. At Addis-Kakovsky's test in norm allocation days of erythrocytes is

admissible prior to:
A. 100000
B. 1000000
C. 2000000
D. 3000000
E. 4000000
22. At Addis-Kakovsky's test in norm allocation days of cylinders is admissible

prior to:
A. 500
B. 10000
C. 20000
D. 30000
E. 40000
23. At Nechiporenko's test in norm allocation days of leukocytes is admissible

prior to:
A. 1000
B. 4000
C. 3000
D. 2000
E. 5000
24. At Nechiporenko's test in norm allocation days of erythrocytes is admissible

prior to:
A. 100
B. 200
C. 1000
D. 2000
E. 3000
25. What content of urea in blood in norm?

A. 2,5-8,3 mmol/l
B. 3,5-10,2 mmol/l
C. 4,5-12,1 mmol/l
D. 5,5 - 13,4 mmol/l
E. 6,5-15,2 mmol/l
26. What content of creatinine in blood in norm?

A. 40-84 mmol/l
B. 60-121 mmol/l
C. 70-141 mmol/l
D. 80-110 mmol/l
E. 110 - 180 mmol/l
27. What function of kidneys is defined by Zemnitsky's test?

A. Secretory
B. Filtration
C. Concentration
D. Osmo regulative
E. All listed above
28. What is the hypo stenuria?

A. Decrease in density of urine less than 1012-1013
B. Increase of density of urine
C. Restriction of fluctuations of density of urine
D. Increase of density of urine to 1030
E. All listed above
29. Cystoscopy – diagnostics method:

A. Diseases of kidneys
B. Bladder diseases
C. Stomach diseases
D. Pathologies of lungs
E. Gullet diseases
30. The excretory urography allows diagnosing diseases:

A. Digestive tract
B. Respiratory system
C. Cardiovascular system
D. Urinary system
E. Gullet
31. The survey urography allows finding:

A. Deformation of cups and pelvis
B. Concrements in kidneys
C. Violation of secretory function of kidneys
D. Violation of concentration function of kidneys
E. All listed above
32. Pyuria is:

A. Leukocytes in urine
B. Erythrocytes in urine
C. Bilirubin in urine
D. Protein in urine
E. Creatinine in urine
33. Nechiporenko's test is used for:

A. Determination of density of urine
B. Quantitative definition of uniform elements
C. Definition of daily diuresis
D. Definition of day diuresis
E. Definition of night diuresis
34. Functional research of kidneys on Zimnitsky's method it is made in

conditions:
A. Usual drinking regime of the patient
B. Reception of diuretic preparations
C. Liquid reception restriction
D. Plentiful drink
E. Reception of antibiotics
35. The Prednisolone test is applied to definition:

A. Glucose in urine
B. Bilirubin in urine
C. Hidden leucocyte urea
D. Hidden erythrocytes urea
E. A squirrel in urine
36. Uremia, it:
A. Urea in urine
B. Urates in urine
C. Urobilin in urine
D. Increase in urea in blood
E. Uric acid in blood
37. By cylinder urea it is connected with:

A. Hematuria
B. Sedimentation of protein in a gleam of kidney tubules
C. Nocturia
D. Oliguria
E. Leucocytes urea
38. The excretory urography is the most informative method to diagnostics:

A. Nephrolithiasis
B. Sharp nephrite
C. Cystitis
D. Para nephritis
E. Amyloidosis of kidneys
39. "Renal colic" is usually observed at:

A. Chronic nephrite
B. Chronic renal failure
C. Tuberculosis of kidneys
D. Nephrolithiasis
E. Urethritis
40. The biopsy of kidneys is shown for the purpose of identification:

A. Morphological features of a glomerulonephritis
B. Degrees of a renal failure
C. Chronic urethritis
D. Chronic pyelonephritis
E. Para nephritis
41. Increase of activity of a renin is connected with:

Ampere-second anuria
B. Violation of secretory function of kidneys
C. Increased BP
D. Ischemia of kidneys
E. Decrease in diuresis
42. What manifestations aren't characteristic for a nephrotic syndrome:

A. Violation of a pigmentary exchange
B. Violation of a proteinaceous exchange
C. Violation of a lipid exchange
D. Hematuria
E. Proteinuria
43. Kidneys in norm are located:

A. At the level of 9-10 chest vertebras.
B. At the level of 10-11 chest vertebras
C. At the level of 11-12 chest vertebras
D. At the level of 11-12 chest and 2-3 lumbar vertebras
E. At the level of 3-4 lumbar vertebras
44. Renal hypostases usually aren't combined with:

A. Oliguria
B. Proteinuria
C. Polyuria
D. Increased BP
E. Pallor of integuments
45. What method is most reliable for confirmation of a stenosis of renal arteries?
A. Angiography
B. General analysis of urine
C. Ultrasonography of kidneys
D. Nechiparenko's test
E. Intra venous urography
46. What symptom revealed at survey, can't be found at pathology of kidneys?

A. Hypostases
B. Diffusion cyanosis
C. Pallor of skin
D. Renal face
E. Anasarca
47. The high ("massive") proteinuria often brings to development:

A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Urethritis
D. Para nephritis
E. Nephrolithiasis
48. For emergence of a macro hematuria it is usually enough:

A. 1,0 ml of blood on 1 l / urine
B. 10-15 erythrocytes under review
C. 1-5 erythrocytes under review
D. 15-20 erythrocytes under review
E. 5-10 of erythrocytes under review
49. The indicator рН urine is equal in norm:

A. 5,0-7,0
B. 2,0-4,0
C. 3,0-6,0
D. 6,0-8,0
E. 9,0-11,0
50. Definition of a daily proteinuria is applied to an assessment:

A. Weights of damage of kidneys
B. Concentration ability of kidneys
C. Degrees of prevalence of renal hypostases
D. Daily diuresis
E. Secretory function of kidneys
BLOOD AND HAEMATOGENIC SYSTEM ORGANS

(25)
1. From the listed below signs chose those, which are mostly typical for syndrome of
hypersplenism:
А) anemia, lymphocytosis, thrombocytopenia
B) anemia, leukocytosis, lymphocytosis, thrombocytopenia
C) anemia, leukopenuaлейкопения, lymphocytosis, тромбоцитоз
D) anemia, leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia
E) anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
2. Duringwhatdiseaseofbloodwecanobservedeviation of taste?
А) Acute leucosis
B) Iron insufficiency anemia
C) В12-folic acid insufficiency anemia
D) Hemolytic anemia
E) Lymphogranulomatosis
3. For hemolytic jaundice typical follow color of skin integuments:

А) lemon-yellow
B) orange-yellow
C) greeny-yellow
D) ground
E) pale
4. Show main mechanism of dyspnea appearing during anemic syndrome:
А) Ventilate respiratory insuficiency
B) Ventilaterespiratoryinsuficiencyand left ventricle heart insufficiency
C) rightventricleheartinsufficiency
D) Compensateintensificationofbreathingandblood circulation
E) left ventricle heart insufficiency
5. Which cell is first in process of hematopoesis:

А) erythrocyte
B) stem cell
C) thrombocyte
D) Leukocytes
E) reticulocytes
6. Whatvolumeofbloodplasma at healthy adult human:

А) 30-40%
B) 40-50%
C) 50-60%
D) 20-30%
E) 10-20%
7. Duringanemiaonjugularveinscanbeheardspecificnoise, whichhavename:
А) Noise of Flint
B) NoiseofRivero-Corvaalo
C) grind noise
D) Noise of Graham-Still
E) Noise of Vinogradov-durvuaze
8. Jaundice with lime hue typical for:

А) hemolytic jaundice
B) mechanic jaundice
C) parenhymatose jaundice
D) Liver cirrhosis
E) Cardia cirrhosis of liver
9. Appearance of functional systolic noise typical for:

А) В12-folic acid insufficiency anemias
B) Iron insufficiency anemia
C) Hypochromic anemia
D) Post hemorrhagic anemias
E) Allanemias
10. Show norm of hemoglobin at woman:
А) 120 – 140 g/l
B) 100 – 120 g/l
C) 80 – 100 g/l
D) 150 – 160 g/l
E) 160 – 180 g/l
11. Show norm of hemoglobin at man:

А) 120 – 140 g/l
B) 130 – 160 g/l
C) 80 – 100 g/l
D) 150 – 160 g/l
E) 110 – 120 g/l
12. Name the norm of erythrocytes at woman

А) 3,9 – 4,7 х 10 12/l
B) 4,2 – 5,0 х 10 12/l
C) 5,2 - 6,0 х 10 12/l
D) 3,2 – 3,8 х 10 12/l
E) 2,2 – 3,0 х 10 12/l
13. Name the norm of erythrocytes at male:

А) 3,9 – 4,7 х 10 12/l
B) 4,0 – 5,0 х 10 12/l
C) 5,2 - 6,0 х 10 12/l
D) 3,2 – 3,8 х 10 12/l
E) 6,2 – 7,0 х 10 12/l
14. Name the norm of color index:

А) 0,5 – 0,7 p
B) 1,3 – 1,7 p
C) 0,8 – 1, 0 p
D) 1,4 – 1,6 p
E) 0, 4 – 1,2 p
15. Show norm of leukocytes?

А) 3,9 – 4,7 х 10 9/l
B) 4,0 – 5,0 х 10 9/l
C) 5,2 - 10,2 х 10 9/l
D) 9,2 – 13,8 х 10 9/l
E) 4,0 – 9,0 х 10 9/l
16. All of these cells are related to leukocyte formula, except:

А) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) reticulocytes
D) basophils
E)lymphocytes and monocytes
17. For what type of anemia presence in analyses of "Jolly bodies" and
"Kebotsrings"are typical?
А) iron insufficiency anemia
B) В 12-folic acid insufficiency anemia
C) chronic post hemorrhagic anemia
D) Acute post hemorrhagic anemia
E) Hemolytic anemia
18. Towhatlineofhemopoesis reticulocytes are related.

А) Leucocytary
B) Thrombocytary
C) Erytrocytary
D) Lymphocytary
E) Monocytary
19. Show the norm of thrombocytes in blood analyze.

А) 390,0 – 420,0 х 10 9/l
B) 430,0 – 480,0 х 10 9/l
C) 520,0 - 580,0 х 10 9/l
D) 180,0 – 320,0 х 10 9/l
E) 140,0 – 160,0 х 10 9/l
20. ShowthenormofESR in blood analyze at men.

А) 1 – 15 mm/h
B) 4 – 20 mm/h
C) 2 – 10 mm/h
D) 8 – 22 mm/h
E) 6 – 12 mm/h
21. Show the norm of ESR in blood analyze at women?

А) 1 – 15 mm/h
B) 4 – 20 mm/h
C) 2 – 10 mm/h
D) 8 – 22 mm/h
E) 2 – 15 mm/h
22. Fronwhatpartof patient bodywegetpunctatefrombonemarrow?

А) from bones of pelvis
B) From cranium
C) From sternum
D) From femur
E) Fromribs
23. Showthenormofbleedinglongitudes in blood analyze?

А) 1 – 3 minutes
B) 4 – 6 minutes
C) 2 – 4 minutes
D) 4 – 7 minutes
E) 6 – 10 minutes
24. WhichfromthelistedbelowsubstancesenterstointernalfactorsduringВ 12-folic acid

insufficiency anemias?
А) Hydrochloric acid
B) Gastromucoprotein
C) Pepsin
D) Cyanocobalamin
E) Seratonin
25. Whichfromthelistedbelowsubstances enters to external factors atВ12-folic acid

insufficiency anemias?
А) Hydrochloric acid
B) Gastromucoprotein
C) Pepsin
D) Cyanocobalamin
E) Serotonin
ELECTROCARDIOGRAPHY
1. Possess function of excitability:
a) Cages of the carrying-out system.
b) Cells of a myocardium contraction.
c) Mesenchymal cages.
d) All listed.
e) Only 1 and 2
2. Possess the greatest automatic activity in norm:

a) Sinus knot
b) Atrioventricular connection.
c) Gis's bunch.
d) Purkinye's fibers.
e) Cages of the carrying-out system.
3. The corner between axes standard (I, II, III) assignments of an
electrocardiogram makes:
a) 15 degrees
b) 30 degrees
c) 60 degrees
d) 90 degrees
e) 120 degrees
4. The negative tooth P in assignments of III and aVF can be registered:

a) At an ectopic atrial rhythm.
b) At a deviation of an electric axis of an auricle to the left.
c) In either case
d) Neither in that and nor in other case.
e) Vibrating arrhythmia.
5. P tooth in norm is always negative in

a) aVF assignment
b) aVL assignment.
c) aVR assignment.
d) III assignment.
e) 1 assignment
6. Standard assignments are designated:

a) 1. I, II, III
b) A, B, C.
c) V1-V6.
d) aVF, AVR, AVL
7. Chest assignments are designated:

а). I, II, III
b) A, B, C
c) V1-V6
d) aVF, AVR, AVL
8. In each assignment it is necessary to register not less:

a) 2 cycles.
b) 4 cycles.
c) 6 cycles.
d) 8 cycles.
e) 9 cycles.
9. Existence of a negative tooth of T in assignments of V1 and V2:

a) Always testifies to ischemia of an interventricular partition.
b) Can be norm option
c) Always happens at violations of conductivity on the right leg of a
bunch of Gis.
d) Insufficiency of the mitral valve
10. Possess function of excitability:

a) Cages of the carrying-out system.
b) Contractive cells of a myocardium.
c) Mesenchymal cages.
d) All listed.
e) Only 1 and 2
11. The relative refractory period of a myocardium of ventricles on an

electrocardiogram corresponds:
a) QRS complex durations.
b) ST segment durations
c) T tooth durations.
d) Durations of the QRS complex and ST segment.
e) QRST complex durations
12. Duration of intervals of an electrocardiogram is measured:

a) Millimeters.
b) centimeters.
c) seconds
d) it isn't measured
13. If at record electrocardiogram there are hindrances in the II assignment it

is necessary to check fastening of electrodes:
a) the red – yellow
b) the red – green.
c) the yellow – green.
d) the black - red
e) the black - yellow
14. Height (amplitude) of teeth of an electrocardiogram is measured in:

a) millimeters
b) centimeters.
c) seconds.
d) it isn't measured
15. If at record electrocardiogram there are hindrances in the I assignment it

is necessary to check fastening of electrodes
a) the red – yellow
b) the red – green.
c) the yellow – green.
D) the black - red
e) the black - red
16. What process of depolarization of department of heart shows a tooth P:

a) Process of depolarization of the left and right part
b) Right and left auricle
c) Right auricle
d) Right ventricle
e) Interventricular partition
17. P and its amplitude doesn't exceed duration of a tooth:

a) 0,3 with, amplitude is 1,7 – 2,8 mm
b) Duration 0,4 with, amplitude is 1,8 – 2,9 mm
c) 1,5 with, amplitude is 2,5 mm
d) 1,8 with, amplitude is 2,6 mm
e) 1,3 with, amplitude is 1,3 – 2,4 mm
18. The interval P-Q reflects excitement distribution time:

a) On ventricles and Purkinye's fibers
b) On the left and right auricle
c) Left and right ventricle
d) Interventricular partition
e) On auricles, AV – to knot, Giss's bunch
19. Duration of an interval P-Q fluctuates from:

a) 0,10 to 0,16 with
b) 0,11 to 0,17 with
c) 0,12 to 0,20 with
d) 0,13 to 0,22 with
e) 0,16 to 0,23 with
20. What teeth in an electrocardiogram are reflected by a ventricular

complex:
a) QRST
b) QS teeth
c) RS teeth
d) PQR
e) S-T
21. That means the RS segment – T:

a) Coverage of excitement of the left ventricle
b) Coverage of excitement of the right ventricle
c) Coverage of excitement of both ventricles when the potential
difference between sites of a myocardium is absent
d) Coverage of excitement of the left auricle
e) Coverage of excitement of the left ventricle and left auricle when the
potential difference between sites of a myocardium isn't identical.
22. The Sinus knot is:

a) in an ear of the left auricle
b) in an ear of the right auricle
c) in the left ventricle
d) in the right ventricle
e) in an interventricular partition
23. Calculation of number of warm reductions is carried out on a formula:

a) HR = R-R/60
b) HR = R-R/30
c) HR = 60/R-R
d) HR = 90/R-R
e) HR = 120/R-R
24. The analysis of an electrocardiogram doesn't allow to reveal:

a) Correctness of heart rhythm
b) Hypertrophy of auricles and ventricles
c) Dilatation of ventricles
d) Conductivity violation
e) The centers of ischemia and a necrosis in a myocardium
25. For a deviation of an electric axis of heart it is characteristic to the left:

a) R II> R I> R III
b) R > R II> R III
c) R III> R II> R I
d) R II = R I = R III
e) R III = R II<R I
26. Electrocardiographic signs of a hypertrophy of the left auricle is all listed,

except:
a) Bifurcation and increases in amplitude of teeth of PI, II, avL, V5 – V6
(P mitrale)
b) Negative or two-phase (+-) PIII tooth
c) Increases in width of a tooth P more than 0,1 with
d) Formations of a negative tooth P
e) Stratifications of a tooth P on the QRS complex
27. Electrocardiographic signs of a hypertrophy of the right auricle is all

listed, except:
a) In assignments of II, III, avF teeth P with the high-amplitude and
pointed top (P - pulmonalae)
b) In assignments of V1 – V2 a tooth P positive with the pointed top
c) Duration of teeth P doesn't exceed 0,10 with
d) A tooth P two-phase in the left chest assignments
e) In assignments of I, avL, V5 – V6 a tooth of P low amplitudes
28. Electrocardiographic signs of a hypertrophy of the left ventricle is all

listed, except:
a) Increases in duration of an interval of an internal deviation of QRS in
the left chest assignments more than 0,05 with
b) Shifts of an electric axis of heart to the left. R >R II> R III
c) Increases in amplitude of a tooth of R in the right chest assignments
(V1 - V2) and S tooth amplitude in the left chest assignments (V5 – V6)
d) Shifts of the RST segment in assignments of V5 – V6, I, avL are lower
than the isoline
e) Shifts of a transitional zone to the right
29. Electrocardiographic signs of a hypertrophy of the right ventricle is all

listed, except:
a) Shifts of a transitional zone to the left
b) Shifts of an electric axis of heart to the left (corner α more than +
1000)
c) Increases in amplitude of a tooth of R in the right chest assignments
of R V1>; 7mm
d) Shifts of the RS segment – T down and emergence of negative teeth of
T in assignment of III, avF, V1, V2
e) increases in duration of an interval of an internal deviation in the
right chest assignments (V1) more 0,03s
30. The correct sinus rhythm is characterized:

a) Existence before the QRS complex of a negative tooth P
b) An unequal interval R-R and a positive tooth P before the QRS
complex
c) An identical interval R-R in II and III standard assignments
d) Existence before the QRS complex of a tooth P and an identical
interval R-R in all assignments
e) a two-phase tooth P before the QRS complex
31. As Sinus tachycardia is called:

a) Increase in HR from 80 to 140 in a minute at violations of correctness
of a rhythm
b) Reduction of HR from 60 to 45 at preservation of the correct rhythm
c) Increase in HR to 90 – 160 (180) in a minute (shortening of intervals
R-R)
d) Absence before the QRS complex of a tooth P and an identical
interval R-R
e) Increase of HR from 180 to 220 in minute and the truncated interval
R-R
32. The main electrocardiograms symptoms of sinus bradycardia are:

a) Reduction of HR from 60 to 40 in minute and lack of identical
distances R-R in all assignments
b) A negative tooth P in all chest assignments
c) Increase in HR from 90 to 120 in a minute at preservation of the
correct rhythm
d) Reduction of HR to 59 – 40 in a minute, increase in duration of
intervals R-R, existence before the QRS complex of a tooth P
e) All listed correctly
33. The electrocardiogram symptoms of sinus (respiratory) arrhythmia is:

a) Fluctuation of duration of intervals R-R exceeding 0,13s and not
connected with breathe phases
b) Lack of an electrocardiogram of signs of a sinus rhythm (lack of a
tooth P before the QRS complex - T)
c) Fluctuation of duration of an interval R-R exceeding 0,20s and not
connected with breathe phases
d) Existence before the QRS complex – T of a tooth P and identical
interval R-R
e) Duration of intervals R-R exceeding 0,15s and connected with
breathe phases
34. The most characteristic electrocardiograms signs of a syndrome of

weakness of a sinus hub (SA) is all listed, except:
a) Persistent sinus bradycardia
b) Persistent sinus tachycardia
c) Periodic emergence ectopic of rhythms
d) Existence of SA of blockade
e) A bradycardia syndrome – tachycardia
35. Characteristic electrocardiograms signs of atrial extra systole is all listed,

except:
a) Existence after atrial extra systole of a full compensatory pause
b) Premature extraordinary emergence of a tooth P and the following
QRS complex behind it – T
c) Deformation or change of polarity of a tooth P, extra systole
d) Existence of not changed extra systolic ventricular QRST
complex similar in a form to the usual normal QRST complexes of a
sinus origin
e) Existence after atrial extra systole of an incomplete
compensatory pause
36. At an atrial extra systole on an electrocardiogram of feature of a tooth P
following
a) P isn't defined
b) P is defined ahead of the QRS complex, positive
c) P is defined ahead of the QRS complex, negative
d) P is defined after the QRS complex, positive
e) P is defined after the QRS complex, negative
37. The main electrocardiograms signs of a ventricular extra systole is all

listed, except:
a) Premature extraordinary emergence on an electrocardiogram of the
changed ventricular QRS complex
b) Considerable expansion and deformation of the extra systolic QRS
complex
c) Arrangement of the RST segment and tooth of T of an extrasystola
discordantly to the direction of the main tooth of the QRS complex
d) Absence before ventricular extra systolic tooth P
e) Existence in most cases after a ventricular extrasystola of an
incomplete compensatory pause
38. At a ventricular extrasystolia on an electrocardiogram of feature of

tooth P following:
a) P is defined after the QRS complex, negative
b) P is defined ahead of the QRS complex, positive
e) P isn't defined
39. To the most characteristic electrocardiograms a symptom of atrial

paroxysmal tachycardia is all listed except:
a) Suddenly beginning and suddenly coming to an end attack of increase
of heart reductions to 140 – 220 in a minute at preservation of
correctness of a rhythm
b) Existence before the QRS complex of the lowered, deformed, two-
phase, negative tooth P
c) The normal not changed ventricular QRS complex
d) In certain cases loss of the separate QRS complexes (AV blockade of
the I degree)
e) The deformed changes of the QRS complex
40. At atrioventricular paroxysmal tachycardia the ectopic center is located:

a) In the field of an ear of the right auricle
b) In the field of an interventricular partition
c) In the left leg of a bunch of Gis
d) In Purkinye's fibers
e) In the field of AV connection
41. At ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia a source the ectopic of

impulses is located:
a) In the left auricle
b) In the field of connection AV
c) In the carrying-out system of ventricles, Giss's bunch, branches,
Purkinye's fibers
d) In the carrying-out system of the right auricle
e) In the carrying-out systems of the right and left auricles
42. The Ectopic complex from atrioventricular knot (middle part) has the
following ratio with P tooth:
a) P isn't defined, the QRS complex is widened since R+P is noted
b) P is defined ahead of the QRS complex, the positive two-phase
e) P is defined after the QRS complex, negative
43. An electrocardiogram symptoms of paroxysmal tachycardia (a

ventricular form) the following, except:
a) HR of more than 160 in the min.
b) Identical distance between R-R teeth
c) The kept form of the ventricular QRS complex
d) The changed form of the ventricular QRS complex
e) Lack of a tooth of P
44. Sinoatrial blockade is characterized:

a) Violation of carrying out electric impulses from AV knot to
auricles
b) Violation of carrying out electric impulses from AV knot to
ventricles
c) Violation of carrying out electric impulses from an interventricular
partition to Purkinye's fibers
d) Violation of carrying out electric impulses from the left auricle to the
right auricle
e) Violation of carrying out electric impulses from sinus knot to
auricles
45. The electrocardiogram a sign of atrioventricular blockade of the I degree

is:
a) Change of a form of the ventricular QRS complex
b) Shortening of an interval of P-Q less 0,12sec
c) Lengthening of an interval of P-Q more 0,2sec
d) Lack of a tooth of P
e) Not equal intervals of R-R
46. The electrocardiogram a sign of atrioventricular blockade of the II extent

(Mobitts I) is:
a) Gradual lengthening of an interval of P-Q and loss of the QRS
complex
b) Loss of a ventricular complex isn't observed
c) Equal intervals of R-R
d) The tooth of P is absent
e) Resistant increase in an interval of P-Q
47. The electrocardiogram a sign of atrioventricular blockade of the II extent

(Mobitts II) is:
a) P-Q interval identical
b) Periodic loss of a ventricular complex isn't observed
c) R-R intervals equal
d) The tooth of P is absent
e) Gradual lengthening of an interval of P-Q
48. An electrocardiogram signs of atrioventricular blockade of the III degree

following, except:
a) The number of the QRS complexes are 2-3 times less, than P teeth
b) R-R intervals identical
c) Number of the QRS complexes equally to number of teeth of P
d) Tooth P and QRST located variously without natural
communications
e) Normal number of teeth P
49. An electrocardiogram signs of a total block of the right leg of the

item of Gis the following, except:
a) Broadenings of the QRS complex
b) Vertical provision of an electric axis of heart
c) Splitting’s of a tooth of R in the right chest assignments of V1-2
d) Deviations to the left electric axis of heart
e) In assignments of V5-6 of a deep and wide tooth of S
50. An electrocardiogram signs of a total block of the left leg of a bunch ofGis
the following, except:
a) Broadening of the QRS complex
b) Vertical provision of an electric axis of heart
c) Splitting of a tooth of R in the left chest assignments of V5-6
d) Deviation to the left electric axis of heart
e) In assignments of V1-2 a deep and wide tooth of S

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RESPIRATORY ORGANS (150)

@ What mechanisms don't participate in formation of cough?

@ List the cough reasons:

3. Cough with a phlegm a full mouth observed at:

4. To what properties of a phlegm it isn't necessary to pay attention?

5. For what diseases the three-layer phlegm is characteristic?

6. "A rusty phlegm" sign …

8. What strengthens short wind?

9. Pathological breath of Kussmaul arises at:

10. Pleural pains decrease, at:

11. At survey of a thorax, all estimate, except:

12. Tachypnea - is:

13. The method of a palpation of a thorax isn't applied to identification:

14. Ellis-Damuazo-Sokolov's line is defined by way:

15. Crepitation is a sign:

16. To additional methods of research of respiratory organs enter:

17. Microscopic analyses allows to define in researches of a phlegm all

18. At survey of a thorax all estimate, except:

19. Apnea is:

20. To additional respiratory noises enters all, except:

21. Crepitation is listened in time:

22. Nature of damp rattles depends from:

23. In the region of a compression atelectasis is heard everything, except:

24. Involvement in process of pleura characterizes presence of a symptom:

25. For a syndrome of focal consolidation of pulmonary fabric everything is

27. Name percussion sound during emphysema of lungs:

30. For obturativeathelectasis it is characteristic:

31. Over a cavity of the opened abscess by auscultation defined:

34. Strengthening of voice trembling, broncho phony, dulled-tympanic

35. At patient the following percussion sound can be defined on a barrel-

36. Specify type of a temperature curve if at the patient daily fluctuations of

37. Strengthening of voice trembling, strengthened broncho phony, a dull

39. At a syndrome of the increased airiness of pulmonary tissue it isn't

40. By percussion at a syndrome of cavity in a lung defined:

42. Reduction of the sizes of one half of a thorax, (retraction) can be

43. At a compression atelectasis it isn't observed:

44. The matters state of "ortopnoe", reducing:

46. In the presence of liquid in a pleural cavity which percussion sound is

48. At cruposal pneumonia in a phase of heparisation is typical such sign,

49. Ascites is a congestion of liquid in …:

50. At the agonic of patients it is observed …:

51. At a haemothorax - a percussion sound:

52. Violation of resistance of a thorax comes to light at.:

53. Lack of voice trembling is characteristic for a syndrome …:

54. At pneumothorax percussion sound:

55. Noise of splash of Hippocrates appears at a syndrome …:

56. For a syndrome of a bronchospasm such auscultation signs, as

57. For a syndrome of bronchial obstruction the main respiratory noise

58. Weakening of voice trembling is characteristic for:

59. Decrease in excursion of the bottom pulmonary edge isn't characteristic

60. Reduction of volume of a share of a lung (physically and radiological) is

64. Percussion sound of "the burst pot" most often is defined …:

65. The obstructive type of violation of ventilation of lungs is caused …:

66. Amphoral breath defined at …:

68. At the patient with existence of a cavity in pulmonary tissue at

69. In the presence of a large amount of liquid in pleural cavity by

70. Specify type of short wind at patients with a syndrome of bronchial