6/19/24, 10:43 PM Mock 1 (Free Trial)

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Mock 1 (Free Trial)

Results
34 of 40 questions answered correctly

Your time: 00:10:11

You have reached 34 of 40 points, (85%)

Categories

Abdominal and Pelvic Trauma 100%

Airway and Ventilatory Management 66.67%
Geriatric Trauma 66.67%
Head Trauma 66.67%
Initial Assessment and Management 100%
Musculoskeletal Trauma 33.33%
Pediatric Trauma 66.67%
Shock 100%
Spine and Spinal Cord Trauma 100%
Thermal Injuries 100%
Thoracic Trauma 100%
Transfer to Definitive Care 100%
Trauma in Pregnancy and Intimate Partner Violence 100%

Your results provide valuable feedback on your understanding of advanced

trauma life support concepts. Take some time to review both correct and
incorrect answers to reinforce your knowledge and identify areas for
improvement. Remember, continuous learning and practice are key to
mastering advanced trauma life support skills.

If you scored lower than expected, don’t be discouraged. Use this opportunity
to delve deeper into the topics that challenged you the most. Consider
seeking additional resources, attending training sessions, or collaborating
with experienced practitioners to refine your skills further.

If you achieved a high score, congratulations! You’ve demonstrated a strong

grasp of advanced trauma life support principles. Use this as motivation to
maintain your proficiency and serve as a resource to others seeking to
improve their ATLS knowledge.

Whether you are a healthcare professional or an individual passionate about

emergency care, mastering advanced trauma life support can make a
significant difference in saving lives during critical moments. Keep practicing,
stay up-to-date with the latest guidelines, and continue to grow as a
competent ATLS provider.

Thank you for taking the Advanced Trauma Life Support Mock Quiz. We hope
it was a valuable learning experience. Stay dedicated to your journey of
becoming an adept provider of life-saving care!

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Answered Review

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1. Question

What anatomical feature in infants contributes to the difficulty in visualizing

the larynx during intubation?

Enlarged oral cavity

Large tonsils

Funnel-shaped larynx

Anterior position of vocal cords

Long trachea

Incorrect

Child’s larynx is funnel-shaped, which contributes to the difficulty in

visualizing the larynx during intubation.

2. Question

What is the recommended dose of mannitol for rapid administration in a

euvolemic patient with acute neurological deterioration?

0.5 g/kg

1 g/kg

1.5 g/kg

2 g/kg

2.5 g/kg

Correct

The recommended dose of mannitol for rapid administration in a euvolemic

patient with acute neurological deterioration is 1 g/kg, administered over 5
minutes.

3. Question

Under what conditions is transurethral bladder catheterization considered

contraindicated in trauma patients?

In cases of elevated blood pressure

In the absence of perineal ecchymosis

When urethral injury is suspected

After retrograde urethrogram

When retrograde urethrogram is indicated

Correct

transurethral bladder catheterization is contraindicated for patients who

may have urethral injury, and suspicion of urethral injury is indicated by the
presence of either blood at the urethral meatus or perineal ecchymosis.

4. Question

Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of neurogenic shock?

Elevated heart rate

Hypertension

Bradycardia

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Increased respiratory rate

Hyperthermia

Correct

One of the hallmark signs of neurogenic shock is bradycardia (slow heart

rate) due to the loss of sympathetic tone that normally stimulates the heart.

5. Question

How can a clinician assess for evidence of partial upper airway obstruction
during the primary survey?

Palpation of the abdomen

Inspection of the extremities

Listening for stridor

Checking blood pressure

Listening for wheeze

Correct

Listening for stridor, a high-pitched sound produced during breathing, is a

way to assess for evidence of partial upper airway obstruction during the
primary survey. Stridor may indicate narrowing or blockage of the upper
airway.

6. Question

Under what conditions is the placement of a definitive airway recommended

for patients with severe head injuries?

GCS score of 10 or lower

GCS score of 12 or lower

GCS score of 8 or lower

GCS score of 14 or lower

GCS score of 6 or lower

Correct

Patients with severe head injuries and a GCS score of 8 or lower usually
require the placement of a definitive airway.

7. Question

What category of maltreatment is more common in geriatric trauma

admissions and is associated with higher mortality?

Physical maltreatment

Sexual maltreatment

Neglect

Psychological maltreatment

Financial exploitation

Correct

Physical maltreatment occurs in up to 14% of geriatric trauma admissions,

resulting in higher mortality.

8. Question
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What is the primary challenge in airway management for elderly trauma
patients?

Decreased risk of respiratory failure

Arthritic changes in the TMJ

High sensitivity to hypoxia

Increased cough reflex

Low risk of edentulism

Incorrect

Elderly airway poses specific challenges, including arthritic changes in TMJ.

9. Question

What are the four regions examined during a FAST procedure?

Head, shoulders, knees, and toes

Pericardial sac, hepatorenal fossa, splenorenal fossa, and pelvis or

pouch of Douglas

Chest, abdomen, pelvis, and extremities

Left upper quadrant, right upper quadrant, left lower quadrant, and right
lower quadrant of the abdomen

Heart, liver, spleen, and kidneys

Correct

During a FAST procedure, the four regions examined are the pericardial sac,
hepatorenal fossa, splenorenal fossa, and pelvis or pouch of Douglas.

10. Question

What is recommended if a definitive pregnancy test or pelvic ultrasound is not

immediately available?

Withhold treatment until confirmation

Consult an obstetrician only

Assume the patient is pregnant

Transfer the patient to a trauma center

Administer immediate resuscitation

Correct

Every female of reproductive age with significant injuries should be

considered pregnant until proven otherwise.

11. Question

What is the most important principle when choosing the mode of patient
transportation?

Cost-effectiveness.

Speed of transport.

Availability of transportation.

Geographic location.

Do no further harm.

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Correct

The most important principle when choosing the mode of patient

transportation is to do no further harm.

12. Question

What complications can rhabdomyolysis lead to?

Hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia

Hyperkalemia and hypocalcemia

Metabolic alkalosis and disseminated intravascular coagulation

Respiratory acidosis and hypernatremia

Hypercalcemia and hypernatremia

Incorrect

Rhabdomyolysis can lead to hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, and disseminated

intravascular coagulation.

13. Question

What is emphasized regarding documentation during patient transfer?

Minimal documentation is required.

Only digital media is acceptable for documentation.

A detailed medical history is sufficient.

A written record of the problem, treatment given, and patient status is

required.

Documentation is optional.

Correct

A written record of the problem, treatment given, and patient status at the
time of transfer is required for documentation.

14. Question

What does a measurement of intracompartmental pressure of greater than 30

mm Hg suggest?

Increased capillary blood flow

Normal muscle and nerve function

Decreased capillary blood flow

Muscle hypertrophy

Muscle necrosis

Correct

Tissue pressures of greater than 30 mm Hg suggest decreased capillary

blood flow, which can result in muscle and nerve damage from anoxia.

15. Question

Why are rib fractures uncommon in children, despite sustaining significant

trauma?

Children have a higher bone density

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Children have less pliable skeletons

Children have a larger body mass

Children have more fat

Children's skeletons are more pliable

Correct

A child’s incompletely calcified and more pliable skeleton makes rib fractures
uncommon, even when they have sustained significant trauma.

16. Question

What reversible conditions can mimic brain death?

Hypertension or hyperglycemia

Hypothermia or barbiturate coma

Dehydration or hypoxia

Migraine or epilepsy

Anemia or sepsis

Correct

Certain reversible conditions, such as hypothermia or barbiturate coma, can

mimic brain death.

17. Question

What size of plastic cannula is typically used for percutaneous transtracheal

oxygenation (PTO) in adults?

12- to 14-gauge

16- to 18-gauge

8- to 10-gauge

20- to 22-gauge

24- to 26-gauge

Incorrect

For percutaneous transtracheal oxygenation (PTO) in adults, a large-caliber

plastic cannula with a size of 12- to 14-gauge is typically used.

18. Question

What factors determine the priority and best method of abdominal and pelvic
assessment?

Patient's age and gender

Time of day

Mechanism of injury, injury forces, location of injury, and hemodynamic

status

Presence of external bleeding

Patient's previous medical history

Correct

The priority and best method of abdominal and pelvic assessment are
determined by the mechanism of injury, injury forces, location of injury, and
hemodynamic status of the patient.

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19. Question

How can explosions result in visceral overpressure injuries?

Only when the patient is directly hit by debris

Only in open spaces

Only in closed spaces

The risk increases when the patient is in close proximity to the blast
and when a blast occurs within a closed space

Explosions do not cause visceral injuries

Correct

Explosions can produce visceral overpressure injuries, and the risk increases
when the patient is in close proximity to the blast and when a blast occurs
within a closed space.

20. Question

In cases of cervical spine injuries above C6, what complication can result?

Renal failure

Loss of vision

Partial or total loss of respiratory function

Gastrointestinal dysfunction

Cardiac arrhythmias

Correct

Cervical spine injuries above C6 can result in partial or total loss of

respiratory function.

21. Question

What is a specific spinal indication for screening carotid and vertebral arterial
injuries?

Stable spinal injuries

Foramen transversarium fractures

Complete neurological deficits

Lumbar spine fractures

Mandibular fractures

Correct

Specific spinal indications for screening carotid and vertebral arterial injuries
include fractures involving the foramen transversarium.

22. Question

Why is the placenta vulnerable to shear forces at the uteroplacental

interface?

Lack of elasticity in the myometrium

Excessive dilation of placental vasculature

Sensitive to catecholamine stimulation

Small size of the placenta

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No connection to the myometrium

Correct

The lack of elasticity in the placenta results in vulnerability to shear forces

at the uteroplacental interface.

23. Question

How does ionizing radiation, commonly used in evaluating injured patients,

impact the long-term risk for children?

It reduces the risk of malignancies

It has no impact on the risk of malignancies

It increases the risk of certain malignancies

It improves overall health outcomes

It decreases the risk of post-traumatic stress disorder

Correct

Ionizing radiation may increase the risk of certain malignancies, and its use
should be justified based on specific criteria.

24. Question

What precautions for etomidate (Amidate) need to be considered as an

induction drug in drug-assisted intubation?

It has a prolonged duration of action

It can depress adrenal function.

It is universally unavailable in all medical settings

It enhances blood pressure and intracranial pressure

It provides adequate sedation without affecting airway

Correct

Etomidate (Amidate) is used in drug-assisted intubation because it does not

negatively affect blood pressure or intracranial pressure. However, it can
depress adrenal function.

25. Question

What is the approximate occurrence of posttraumatic epilepsy in patients

with closed head injuries admitted to the hospital?

2%

5%

10%

15%

20%

Incorrect

Posttraumatic epilepsy occurs in approximately 5% of patients admitted to

the hospital with closed head injuries.

26. Question

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Which procedure involves making a skin incision through the cricothyroid
membrane and inserting a small endotracheal or tracheostomy tube?

Endotracheal intubation

Percutaneous tracheostomy

Tracheostomy tube insertion

Surgical cricothyroidotomy

Scalpel handle insertion

Correct

Surgical cricothyroidotomy is performed by making a skin incision through

the cricothyroid membrane, dilating the opening, and inserting a small
endotracheal or tracheostomy tube.

27. Question

What can CT scanning of the thoracic and lumbar spine help detect that is
particularly useful?

Pressure ulcers

Burst fractures

Subluxations

Sagittal reconstruction

Pedicle alignment

Correct

CT scanning is particularly useful for detecting fractures of the posterior

elements (pedicles, lamina, and spinous processes) and determining the
degree of canal compromise caused by burst fractures.

28. Question

Why does the Body Surface Area (BSA) distribution differ considerably for
children when using the rule of nines?

Children have a different skin composition

Children's heads represent a larger proportion of the surface area

Children's lower extremities represent a larger proportion of the surface

area

Children have thicker skin than adults

Children are more resistant to burn injuries

Correct

BSA distribution differs considerably for children because a young child’s

head represents a larger proportion of the surface area, and the lower
extremities represent a smaller proportion than an adult’s.

29. Question

At what gestational age does the uterus reach the costal margin?

12 weeks

20 weeks

34 to 36 weeks

40 weeks

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24 weeks

Correct

At 34 to 36 weeks, the uterus reaches the costal margin.

30. Question

What should a clenched hand with a small electrical entrance wound indicate
to the clinician?

Presence of superficial tissue injury

Absence of deep soft-tissue injury

Limited extent of the electrical burn

Deep soft-tissue injury is likely more extensive

Need for immediate surgical intervention

Correct

A clenched hand with a small electrical entrance wound should alert the
clinician that a deep soft-tissue injury is likely much more extensive than is
visible to the naked eye.

31. Question

What defines massive hemothorax?

Accumulation of more than 1000 mL of blood in the chest cavity

Accumulation of more than 1500 mL of blood in the chest cavity

Accumulation of one-half of the patient's blood volume in the chest

cavity

Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity

Accumulation of air in the chest cavity

Correct

Massive hemothorax is defined by the rapid accumulation of more than

1500 mL of blood or one-third or more of the patient’s blood volume in the
chest cavity.

32. Question

Why is interhospital transfer of a critically injured patient considered

potentially hazardous?

Lack of communication between referring and receiving providers.

High cost of transportation.

Geographic challenges.

The weight of the patient.

The height of the patient.

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Correct

Inadequate or inappropriate communication between referring and receiving

providers is a potential pitfall in interhospital transfer of a critically injured
patient.

33. Question

What is the most common cause of rib fractures in elderly patients?

Motor vehicle crashes

Ground-level falls

Pneumonia

Loss of bone density

Intravenous medications

Correct

The most common cause of rib fractures in elderly patients is a ground-level

fall.

34. Question

What is the recommended action for treating open pneumothorax?

Apply an ice pack to the wound

Leave the wound open to the air

Secure a sterile occlusive dressing on three sides

Administer painkillers

Elevate the legs

Correct

It is recommended to promptly close the open pneumothorax by applying a

sterile occlusive dressing that overlaps the wound’s edges. Securing the
dressing on three sides creates a flutter-valve effect, allowing air to escape
while preventing its re-entry, stabilizing the condition.

35. Question

Which clinical signs are associated with Class II Hemorrhage?

Marked tachycardia, tachypnea, and decreased pulse pressure

Significant changes in mental status and fall in systolic blood pressure

Minimal tachycardia and no measurable changes in blood pressure

Marked tachycardia, decrease in systolic blood pressure, and narrow

pulse pressure

Negligible urinary output and marked depression in mental status

Correct

Class II Hemorrhage is characterized by tachycardia, tachypnea, and

decreased pulse pressure. The decrease in pulse pressure is related to a
rise in diastolic blood pressure due to increased catecholamines.

36. Question

What is the diagnostic threshold for tachycardia in school-age children to

puberty?

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60 BPM

80 BPM

100 BPM

120 BPM

140 BPM

Correct

Tachycardia is diagnosed when the heart rate is greater than 120 BPM in
children from school age to puberty.

37. Question

What is the recommended urinary output maintenance for pediatric trauma

patients older than 1 year?

0.2 mL/kg/h

1 mL/kg/h

0.5 mL/kg/h

2 mL/kg/h

1.5 mL/kg/h

Correct

Pediatric trauma patients who are older than 1 year typically require a
urinary output of 1 mL/kg/h for adequate fluid balance and renal function
assessment.

38. Question

What may be required for patients with traumatic amputation to address life-
threatening hemorrhage?

Immobilization of the affected limb

Application of a tourniquet

Fluid resuscitation

Pain medication administration

Recognition of femur fractures

Incorrect

Patients with traumatic amputation are at particularly high risk of life-

threatening hemorrhage and may require application of a tourniquet.

39. Question

What is a common feature of AP compression injury in pelvic fractures?

Internal rotation of the hemipelvis

External rotation of the hemipelvis

Vertical displacement of the sacroiliac joint

Reduction of pelvic volume

Dislocation of the sacrospinous ligament

Correct

AP compression injury is often associated with a motorcycle or a head-on

motor vehicle crash, producing external rotation of the hemipelvis with

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separation of the symphysis pubis and tearing of the posterior ligamentous
complex.
40. Question

What is the recommended duration for irrigating chemical burns with water?

5 to 10 minutes

10 to 15 minutes

20 to 30 minutes

30 to 40 minutes

40 to 50 minutes

Correct

Chemical burns should be flushed away with large amounts of warmed

water for at least 20 to 30 minutes.

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