Homework 1

MATH 312 October 2, 2022 Grant Sheridan

Problem 1. Consider the following statement

x
∀y < 1 ∃x > 0 such that > y.
x+1
(a) State the negation of the given statement.

x
∃y ≥ 1, ∀x ≤ 0 such that x+1
≤ y.

(b) Decide which statement is true, the given statement or its negation and prove it.

Let the original statement be true, for all y in the interval [−∞, 1) there exists an
x
x such that it is non-zero and positive, such that x+1 > y is true.

x
Let x and y be arbitrary. We know that x+1 is always non-negative if x
is also non-negative. It is also given that y is non-positive, by definition a
non-negative number is greater than a non-positive number. This implies that
x
∀y < 1 ∃x > 0 such that > y is always true.
x+1
.
Problem 2. The notation used in this problem: (0, 1) is the open interval of real numbers
with endpoints 0 and 1. By definition, the open interval (0, 1) is a subset of R that consists of
the positive real numbers which are smaller than 1. That is, written in set-builder notation,

(0, 1) = x ∈ R : 0 < x and x < 1 .

By Q+ we denote the set of positive rational numbers. That is, written in set-builder
notation, 
Q+ = x ∈ Q : x > 0 .
Notice that the intersection (0, 1) ∩ Q is a subset of Q that consists of the positive rational
numbers which are smaller than 1. Or, written in set-builder notation

(0, 1) ∩ Q = x ∈ Q : 0 < x and x < 1 .

The statement of the problem: Prove that there exists a bijection between the sets (0, 1) ∩ Q
and Q+ .

In order to prove a bijection, we need to prove that the function is invertible:

x x
For example, let us take the graph of f (x) = (x+1) and g(x) = − (x−1) .

Clearly, suppose a1 = 21 , a2 = 14 . f (a1 ) = 31 , f (a2 ) = 15 . f (a1 ) ̸= f (a2 ).

Clearly, suppose b1 = 21 , b2 = 41 . g(b1 ) = 1, g(b2 ) = 13 . g(b1 ) ̸= g(b2 ).
Therefore, an injection is proved for both f and its inverse.

Let y ∈ B be arbitrary, (x, y) ∈ f = {Q ∩ (0, 1)} × Q+ and

x
(y, x) ∈ g = Q+ × {Q ∩ (0, 1)}. Then we can say that y = (x+1) , note that x ̸= 1, y ̸= 0
or 1.

let f and g are defined for all Q+ × {Q ∩ (0, 1)} or for all {Q ∩ (0, 1)} × Q+ .
Since both f and g are defined during these parameters:
f ’s domain is in Q ∩ (0, 1) and codomain is in Q+ and is defined everywhere except
when x = −1, this doesn’t really matter since −1 is not contained within our domain.

g’s codomain is in Q ∩ (0, 1) and domain is in Q+ and is defined everywhere ex-

cept when x = 1, this doesn’t really matter since 1 is not contained within our
codomain.
Therefore, an surjection is proved for f and g.

Therefore, there exists a bijection between the sets Q ∩ (0, 1) and Q+