Sir Pontiveros Fast Track Coaching in Crime Detection and Investigation

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FAST TRACK COACHING IN investigation. Probably the GREATEST problems of the
intelligence records as the basis on the ongoing
CRIME DETECTION AND investigation is that they are not
A. Purged, thus not totally current
INVESTIGATION B. Always completely accurate
PREPARED BY: PROF. JOHN MICHAEL S. C. Given to the investigator on time
PNTIVEROS D. The full story
FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION & 10. The tool of investigation, which may be useful in
INTELLIGENCE establishing the presence of the suspect at the crime
1. What kind of search method where in the crime scene scene due to physical evidence discovered therein, is
is subdivided into areas, a building into rooms of floors A. Interrogation C. Information
and then each of the fire officer or officers are then B. Interview D. Instrumentation
assigned accordingly?
A. Concentric search C. Strip search 11. The following are modes by which the identity of the
B. Sector search D. Double strip suspect may be known, EXCEPT:
A. By corpus delicti C. By confession or admission
2. In order to preserve the integrity of evidence collected B. Eyewitnesses D. Circumstantial evidence
or gathered from the crime scene, what must be
observed? 12. What is that that deals with the identity, location
A. Identify and tag the evidence and arrest of a person suspected of committing a crime
B. Maintain the required chain of custody and to bring him/her to justice?
C. Evidence collected must be free from any alteration A. Inquest proceedings C. Criminal investigation
D. All of the above B. Investigative process D. Investigation
3. The following questions are part of the cardinal points 13. What is the evidence that has a mass and occupies
of criminal investigation, EXCEPT: space
A. How was the crime committed A. Physical C. Testimonial
B. What is the offender’s marital status? B. Circumstantial D. Hearsay
C. Why was the crime commited?
D. Where was the crime committed? 14. The following are the three-fold aim of criminal
investigation, EXCEPT:
4. What makes sketch WRONG? A. Prosecute the suspect
A. Indicate the North direction with an arrow B. Gather evidence of guilt of the suspect
B. To establish admissibility, the investigator must have C. Locate the suspect
the sketch verified. D. Identify the suspect
C. Use KEY-capital letters of the alphabet for listing
down items of evidence 15. The following are some of the elements of
D. Fill in all the details on your rough sketch at the investigative process, EXCEPT:
scene. Final sketch may be prepared at the office A. Collection C. Preservation
B. Recognition D. Presentation
5. What kind of data may be gathered by an investigator
from public and private records, including modus 16. Which of the following DOES NOT contribute the
operandi file? reasons why the value of physical evidence is diminish?
A. Interrogation C. Instrumentation A. Human failure to appreciate it
B. Interview D. Information B. Human failure to study
C. Human failure to find it
6. What kind of search method is conducted when the D. Human failure to understand
searchers starts at a central point?
A. Concentric search C. Strip search 17. A shabbily crafted police report submitted by the
B. Double strip D. Zone search police officers and part of the record in the court
proceedings, at its WORST, makes the
7. The following are samples of questions that follows the A. Police report a basis of scrutiny
cardinal points of investigation, EXCEPT: B. Police officer just another contributor to the state of
A. What is the economic status of the offender? criminal justice
B. What specific crime was committed? C. Police officer practically a witness for the defense
C. When was the crime committed? D. Police report just another court record
D. Who committed the crime?
18. The following are agreed reasons why many
8. Marking of physical evidence aside from the tagging contemporary investigators argue that the success of
should be made most criminal investigation begin at the crime scene,
A. At the crime scene upon collection EXCEPT:
B. Before receipt by the evidence custodian A. It is at the crime scene where vital physical evidence
C. Immediately after receipt by the evidence custodian can be discovered
D. In any of these B. It is at the crime scene where the modus operandi of
the criminal can be discovered and established
9. While investigating a case, you stumbled in an C. It is at the crime scene where vital information can be
intelligence records which could be important for your learned
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D. It is at the crime scene where vital witnesses can be 29. For the purpose of applying the law regarding
located or sometimes the suspect arrested custodial investigation, mere invitation is considered as .
A. Arrest C. Habeas Corpus
19. What kind of evidence that can be associated with B. Detention D. Custody
the group?
A. Individual characteristics C. Class characteristics 30. What is this preliminary ocular inspection conducted
B. Testimonial evidence D. Physical evidence by the lead investigator to establish possible entrance
and exits of the perpetrator and which primary point of
20. The search pattern generally used to cover large area impact at the scene?
is A. Survey at the scene
A. Strip C. Spiral B. Preliminary Investigation
B. Zone D. Grid C. Eavesdrop at the scene
D. Search at the scene
21. The following are considered as an “Elusive” object in
crime scene investigation, EXCEPT: 31. Spiral, Strip/Line Grid, one/Quadrant, Pie/Wheel
A. Associative evidence C. Object evidence are varieties of crime scene .
B. Testimonial evidence D. Physical evidence A. Collection C. Analysis
B. Recording D. Search
22. Which of the following is the purpose of search in the
crime scene? 32. A crime scene will always reveal evidence in the form
A. All of these D. Tracing evidence of physical objects, which must NOT be considered by
B. Corpus delicti C. Associative evidence investigator?
A. Evaluate its worth in the investigation at hand
23. What is this process wherein confession is used to B. Presume objects found at the crime scene as regular
describe the events of the crime? C. Preserve its physical and legal integrity
A. Re-enactment of crime D. Recognized and collect them
B. Reconstruction of crime scene
C. Mental reconstruction of crime 33. Statement or observation that can be verified by
D. Physical reconstruction of fire other verifiable points of information is .
A. Evidence C. Means
24.What is the photographing of arrested suspects both B. Fact D. Opinion
full face and side profile?
A. Line up C. Selfie 34. As it is their duty, in what aspect must forensic
B. Portrait parle D. Mug shot specialist train the investigators and searches at the
crime scene?
25. What is the MOST essential requisites of admission A. In the cataloging of evidence
and confession? B. In terms of recognition of evidence
A. The offender full understands his confession C. Interpretation of evidence
B. There suspect was not tortured D. Evidence Analysis
C. No violence was used against the suspect
D. It must be voluntarily and freely given 35. With all the talent of an investigator, the value of
physical evidence is greatly reduced by the human
26. Which part of the Constitution mandates the failure to it.
protection of the citizens from unreasonable search and A. Appreciate C. Study
seizure? B. Understand D. Find
A. The Bill of Rights
B. National Security of the State 36. The purpose of search of the crime scene is to
C. Preamble determine presence of physical evidence, which of the
D. Territorial Integrity of the State following is not one of them?
A. Corpus Delicti C. Associative Evidence
27. Which are similarities between interview and B. Circumstantial Evidence D. Tracing Evidence
interrogation?
A. The purposes of the questionings are similar for both 37. What is this process by which observation of a
B. Good questions are important to the success of both person, place, or things by human or technical means to
C. Investigator’s careful listening is important to the acquire information is being conducted?
success of both A. Intelligence C. Surveillance
D. Investigator’s control of the place of interrogation is B. Instrumentation D. Shadowing
an important factor for both
38. The corpus delicti for the crime of theft is the .
28. When during custodial investigation, the subject or A. The property taken regardless of the value
suspect, manifest sweating, color changes, dry mouth, B. Fact that crime was committed
pulse and breathing it is a . C. Consummation of the crime
A. Strong and convincing evidence of guilt D. Value of the property taken
B. Circumstantial evidence of guilt
C. Physical evidence of guilt 39. The measurement method that uses straightline
D. Psychological evidence of guilt measures from two fixed objects to the evidence to create
a triangle with the evidence in the angle formed by two
straight line .
law.
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A. Compass point method 50. The measurement method that uses a protractor to
B. Triangulation method measure the angle formed by two lines is .
C. Baseline A. Compass point C. Baseline
D. Rectangular Method B. Rectangular D. Triangulation
40. Probability of the source evidence as its 51. Which of the following are two methods of reasoning
characteristics is very important to investigators. The that assist the critical thinking, and which peculiar to
lower the probability of physical evidence, the greater is the investigative process?
the . A. Assumption and presumption
A. Difficulty of recognition C. Percentage of the source B. Deduction and inductive
B. Difficulty of analyzes D. Evidentiary value C. Conclusion and analysis
D. Conductive and conclucive
41. The examination of the qualitative and quantitative
analysis of the unknown substance is the primary 52. When a witness describes to the investigator what
responsibility of . he/she sees, smells, hears, tastes and touches, it is
A. Instrumentation C. Crime Laboratory considered as evidence.
B. Forensic science D. Criminalistics A. Testimonial C. Parol
B. Real D. Documentary
42. Which of the following is serious crimes which does
NOT leave physical evidence? 53. Which of the following is not considered as a search
A. Carnapping and Arson C. Homicide and Assaul method of the crime scene?
B. Treason and libel D. Sexual assault and robbery A. Double strip search method
B. Diagonal or triangular search
43. In conducting interrogation of the suspect, what is C. Strip search method
the principal psychological factor that will help you to a D. Zone search method
successful interrogation?
A. Interrogation in the convenience of hotel setting 54. The crime scene documentation supplements
B. Interrogation conducted in privacy photographs in a simplest and most effective manner by
C. Public interrogation of the suspect way of actual measurements, identification of important
D. Interrogation laced with threats items and their respective locations in the crime scene is
A. Crime mapping C. Rough sketch
44. As a criminal investigator, your primary duty is to B. Finish sketch D. Crime scene sketch
establish the following facts, EXCEPT .
A. Corpus delicti or that the crime was committed. 55. The measurement method that establishes a straight
B. Method of operation of the perpetrator line from one fixed point to another, from which
C. Identity of the accused or the guilty party. measurements are taken at a right angle is .
D. Damages caused to the victim or his/her family A.Compass point C. Triangulation
B. Rectangular D. Baseline
45. As the investigator on case, the physical evidence
found at the crime scene is BEST describe as those that . 56. A crime scene sketch should include all the
A. Should be of interest to the scene of the crime following, EXCEPT.
operatives A. A scale of distrance
B. Can be perceived by senses B. Date and location of the crime scene
C. Are composed of matters C. type of search pattern
D. Can explain what actually have happened in a crime D. a north heading on the diagram
46. Whether or not the evidence is admissible is 57. The physical evidence recovered from the crime
ultimately to be determined by the . scene must be diligently studied and meticulously
A. Investigator C. Court evaluated because .
B. Forensic Scientist D. Prosecutor A. All of these
B. It is often the decisive factor in determining guilt or
47. A physician who is trained to determine the cause of innocence of suspect because the testimony of an expert
death of a person is . witness supply the demonstrable facts which resolves
A. Chemist C. Toxicologist discrepancies in ordinary testimony of witness.
B. Pathologist D. Philanthropist C. It evaluation will lead to the type of wound/inflicted
on a victim physical evidence can limit the search for the
48. Physical evidence can indeed show who committed type of weapon used.
the crime. Which of the following is the MOST important D. It is a material aid in locating the perpetrator of a
before it is sent to the laboratory for analysis? crime or narrows down the search for a suspect.
A. Collection C. Marking
B. Tagging D. Recognition 58. How would you classify the Scene of the Crime
Operation approach in organizing crime scene search?
49. The investigation technique is effective but also risky A. Wilson C. Contemporary
since the operative conceals his true identity, adopts an B. Traditional D. Modern
assumed role to obtain information is assignment.
A. replacement C. undercover 59. Statement no. 1. In the reconstruction of a crime, the
B. work and social D. acting investigator rational theory of the crime may begins with
deductive logic and later on inductive logic; Statement
law.
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no. 2. A rational theory of crime is more than a learned 68. A modern interrogation technique where it uses two
guess, but less than a certainty, but have very high (2) agents, which one of them is kind-hearted and the
order of probability. other is relentless.
A. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false A. Mutt and Jeff C. Extenuation
B. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true C. Emotional appeal D. Reid method
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false SPECIALIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION
1. Which of the following is NOT a common element of
60. Which of the following is NOT a matter that the robbery and theft?
suspect must be informed before the interrogation? A. The personal property is taken with intent to gain
A. He has the absolute right to remain silent B. The offense can be committed by a band
B. If the cannot afford an attorney one will be appointed C. The personal property belongs to another
for him free of charge. D. The unlawful taking of that property
C. He has the right not to testify against himself/herself.
D. He has right to have an attorney present during 2. The stiffening of the body caused by severe trauma to
questioning. the nervous system of intense stress is
A. Post mortem lividity C. Livor mortis
61. Before the police officer maybe allowed to search the B. Cadaveric spasm D. Rigor mortis
person’s home, he/she is required to secure a .
A. good rate of experience 3. What is the forensic science of personal identification
B. good suspicion by dental characteristics?
C. search warrant A. Forensic dentistry C. Dental medicine
D. good reason B. Forensic odontology D. All of these
62. The search warrant that the police officer needs 4. When a bullet is fired through a pane of glass, the
must be obtained from the . side of the glass where the concentric fractures will
A. Chief of police C. Prosecutor’s office MOST probably appear is the pane of glass?
B. Court/judge D. Any of these A. Both sides where the bullet entered
B. Neither side of
63. Which of the following is not one of the questioning C. The side where the bullet exited
techniques that should be utilized in interrogation? D. The side where the bullet entered
A. Chronological C. Going backward
B. General to specific D. Going upward 5. Which of the following is a blunt force injury caused
by dragging that tear off the tissue often caused by a
64. Which is recommended to be performed when taking very forceful blunt instrument blows?
a statement from witnesses at the scene of an accident? A. Abrasion C. Punctures
A. A different investigator should interview each witness B. Contusions D. Lacerations
separately and in private.
B. Each witness should be interviewed alone and private. 6. Criminal investigation of homicide or murder is a
C. All witnesses should be interviewed by the same discovery process. The discover and document of the
officer. following IMPORTANT facts EXCEPT the
D. Witnesses who agree about what took place should be A. Cause of death C. Identity of the offender
interviewed as a group to avoid unnecessary duplication B. Investigative process D. Type of death of crime
65. Conducting field operations, what is this function 7. The largest volume of evidence received by the crime
that the individual police performs and serves as the fuel laboratory is in the relation to
that propels the agency to operate properly? A. Murders and homicide C. illegal drugs
A. Police report writing B. Ballistics examination D. Falsification of documents
B. Patrolling functions
C. Traffic function 8. When murders are based on relationships are to be
D. Conduct of Investigation committed in a home, who among the following MOST
LIKELY could be murdered in the BEDROOM
66. The systematic process involved in searching, A. Parents in-law C. Female
handling, transfer or transmittal and accountability of B. Male D. Children
evidence from the crime scene, including the
documentation involved up to its presentation in court 9. A killing NOT caused by human being is death by
is. A. By means of intent C. Negligence
A. Crime scene preservation B. Imprudence D. Natural cause
B. Corpus Delicti
C. Chain of custody 10. The BEST type of questioning that allows no
D. Crime scene reconstruction possibility of misinterpretation is questioning
A. Logical C. Rational
67. Whatever is the search pattern or method used, the B. Direct D. Indirect
most important consideration should be that it is
. 11. One’s impression or personal belief is
A. Geometric C. Trigometric A. Fact C. Proof
B. Redundant D. Systematic B. Evidence D. Opinion
law.
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12. Death by asphyxia MAY BE the result of the B. Perception of hazard, start of evasive action, initial
following strangulation EXCEPT: contact, maximum engagement, disengagement and
A. Hanging C. Suffocation stopping and injury
B. Manual D. Ligature C. Start of evasive action, initial contact, perception of
hazard, maximum engagement, disengagement and
13. Study shown that workplace homicide suspects are stopping and injury
TYPICALLY caused by the following, EXCEPT; D. Start of evasive action, initial contact, perception of
A. Disgruntled employee hazard, maximum engagement, disengagement, and
B. Obsessive employee stopping and injury
C. Domestic offender
D. Stranger or outside 3. Traversing a highway with double yellow line with
dotted line in between means that the motorist can
14. Outside of the family structure, emotional disputes A. Not overtake under any circumstances
that results to killing often occur in the cars and similar B. Overtake as long as there is no traffic enforcers
social gathering places. Which of the following are MOST looking
LIKELY the caused? C. Overtake when the opposite direction is clear of
A. Consumption of alcohol and beverages incoming vehicle
B. Jealousy between friends D. Not overtake when there is oncoming vehicles on the
C. Taking of illegal drugs opposite lane
D. Distrust with or among strangers
4. What is the elevated structure that is built for the
15. The color of blood in Post-Morten Lividity. safety of the pedestrians crossing busy highways?
A. Pink C. Red A. Skyway C. Overpass
B. Violet D. Yellow B. Flyover D. Underpass
16. Considering the highly technical knowledge of 5. Considering that the motor vehicle has stalled or
forensic science, it is also the duty of forensic scientist to bogged down, as a traffic enforcer or patrol officer the
provide . following should be done, EXCEPT:
A. Moral support to investigators A. Ensure the safety of other vehicles passing through in
B. Suggestion as to the motives of suspects the area
C. Expert testimonies in court B. Ignore the situation and just continue your patrolling
D. Training for non-criminologist lawyers function
C. Help push the motor vehicle up to the shoulder of the
17. The stiffening of the muscles of the body because of road, if practicable
chemical changes is mortis. D. Check whatever is the defect or condition of the
A. Algor C. Rigor stalled or bogged motor vehicle
B. Livor D. Edgar
6. Which of the following is the term used to describe the
18. The following are possibilities on what can happen to separation of traffic units involve in vehicular accidents?
the bullet upon entry into the body, EXCEPT . A. Physical reconstruction C. Disengagement
A. Either shatter and fragment B. Final position D. Mental reconstruction
B. Ricochet off bone
C. Maybe ineffective 7. While driving towards the accident scene, the motorist
D. Shift location away from the entry path or exit should
A. Ignore incoming persons and motor vehicle
19. Which statement is TRUE when an investigators B. Ascertain hazard to approaching traffic
looks for signs of death by LIVOR MORTIS? C. Ascertain possible situation at the scene
A. The skin no longer under muscular control, succumbs D. Consider obstructions on approach so
to gravity and forming new shapes among others.
B. The first sign is a greenish skin discoloration 8. Which of the following is the objective of traffic
appearing on the right lower abdomen about the second engineering to achieve efficient, free and rapid flow of
or third day after death. traffic?
C. All of the body muscles are affected. A. So that the motorist and other road users can avoid
D. The body gradually cools traffic accidents
B. All of these
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT & ACCIDENT C. So that the motorist and other road users will have an
INVESTIGATION enjoyable convenient ride
D. So that the motorist and other road users can reach
1. Over speeding, can cause traffic accidents and we their destination safely and on time
attribute the same to
A. Unworthy vehicle C. Traffic error 9. Which of the following is the BEST reason why
B. Human error D. Road deficiency biorhythm is an important aspect of traffic safety so that
the person can avoid accidents
2. Which of the following is the correct chain of events in A. Knows his physical capacity on the certain day
a vehicular accident? B. Knows his intellectual capacity on the certain day
A. Perception of hazard, start of evasive action, initial C. Gives hints on how he tends to feel in the certain day
contact, maximum engagement, disengagement, D. Ascertain his physical, emotional and intellectual
stopping and injury condition in a certain day
law.
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B. Traffic safety education
10. The following are characteristics of human errors C. Safe coercion
that cause traffic, EXCEPT: D. Traffic economy
A. Lack of due diligence on the part of pedestrians
B. Lack of presence of uniformed traffic enforcers 21. Which of the following is the BEST reason why the
C. Bad driving habits like slow drivers concept of TRAFFIC ECONOMY is included as one of the
D. Poor legislative traffic regulations and activities pillars of traffic management?
A. Because traffic is a national daily problem which
11. What term is used to describe frontal collision of affect the Filipino people.
vehicles? B. Because traffic directly and indirectly affects our
A. Collision C. Head on collision national economy.
B. Full impact collision D. Frontal collision C. Because traffic influences the transport and delivery
of goods and services
12. As a rule, maximum speed limits are necessary for D. Because traffic is expensive for those actually caught
the use of our streets. The following instances when in it.
these maximum speed limits may not be observed,
EXCEPT: 22. What is this method of traffic education that from
A. Drivers who are members of the PNP and AFP the start already involves the student in a real life
B. Any driver bringing a wounded or sick person for driving situations?
emergency treatment A. Simulated condition
C. The drivers or his passengers who are in pursuit of a B. Comprehensive method
criminal C. Outcome base method
D. A physician or his driver when responding to D. Traditional instruction
emergency calls
23. Ancient civilization invented wheeled carts to make
13. What should NOT be done by a fire truck driver the travel faster and convenient. What was the problem
when crossing an intersection when there is a traffic brought about by wheeled carts?
control? A. Animals leave stingy odor to sophisticated people
A. Must do a full stop riding the wheeled carts.
B. Wait for the light to change B. They must build wider pathways to accommodate
C. See the traffic stop and heed wider wheeled carts.
D. Proceed only when it is safe C. They needed an engine to power the wheeled carts.
D. They needed to replace domesticated animals to
14. What do you call a mark produced by a vehicle power the carts.
travelling in an arc or curved direction?
A. Skid mark c. Scuff mark 24. Headlights of motor vehicles shall be lighted not later
B. Centrifugal force d. Centrifugal skid than-
A. one-half hour after sunset and until at least one-half
15. The following are causes of traffic accident, EXCEPT: hour before sunrise.
A. Undisciplined drivers B. 15 minutes after sunset and until at least 15 minutes
B. Vehicle over speeding before sunset.
C. Road works obstructions C. 30 minutes hour before sunset and until at least 30
D. Lack traffic rules and regulation minutes after sunrise.
D. 15 minutes before sunset and until at least 15
16. The privilege of immediate use of roadway in minutes after sunrise
preference to another vehicle or pedestrian is
A. Immunity C. Leniency 25. Every motor vehicle shall have tail lights which
B. Giving way D. Right of way should be lighted and visible at least-
A. 100 meters from the rear of the vehicle.
17. The FIRST and MOST important step in enforcing B. 60 meters from the rear of the vehicle.
traffic rules is. C. 50 meters from the rear of the vehicle.
A. Planning C. Planning and Enforcement D. 30 meters from the rear of the vehicle
B. Enforcement D. Organizing
26. What kind of driver is one who shows a complete
18. In a large majority of the vehicular accidents, the disregard for others, aggressive, impatient, demanding
most important defect in human elements is attributed and thoroughly selfish in his actions affecting other
to . drivers?
A. Perceptual C. Attitudinal A. Vociferous C. Defensive
B. Intellectual D. Educational B. Egotists D. Emotionals
19. This traffic warning is usually used when you have 27. Which of the following should be BEST observed
observed a minor violation but are more importantly when requesting a driver’s license and/or vehicle
occupied at a moment. registration certificate?
A. Visual warning C. Verbal warning A. Never accept anything other than the document
B. Written warning D. Oral warning asked.
20. Training road users to avoid and prevent traffic B. Place your body directly in front of the door or window
accident is part of. of the motor vehicle.
A. Traffic safety campaign C. Insert your head or arms in the car windows.
law.
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D. Get the driver’s license or certificate of registration B. Warning D. Informative
when about to end the interview.
39. The traffic congestion or build-up happening in a
28. Which describes the separation of traffic units narrow portion of the road is .
involve in vehicular accident? A. bumper to bumper C. Traffic jam
A. Final position C. Mental reconstruction B. Gridlock D. Bottleneck
B. Disengagement D. Physical reconstruction
40. Which of the following is the term used to describe
29. The investigator of hit-and-run cases should proved the separation of traffic units involve in vehicular
that the . accidents?
A. Suspect was driving the vehicle A. Deconstruction C. Final position
B. Suspect is either intoxicated with drugs or B. Disengagement D. Reconstruction
unlicensed.
C. suspect is wanted for another crime DRUG EDUCATION, VICE & CONTROL
D. Victim is killed in the accident. 1. Which of the following drugs affects the sensation
thinking, self- awareness and emotion of a person?
30. Select the term used referring to the first action to be A. Hallucinogens C. Stimulants
taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course B. Sedatives D. Narcotics
or avoid a hazard.
A. State of evasive action 2.Primarily RA 9165 is different from previous laws on
B. State of no escape illegal drugs because RA 9165
C. Point of no escape A. Gives a single definition to dangerous drugs
D. Point of possible perception B. Included the definition of regulated drug the
dangerous
31. The systematic examination of all facts relating to drugs
conditions, actions and physical features associated with C. Prefers the classification of dangerous drugs to
motor collision is . prohibited drugs
A. Traffic engineering C. Traffic collision D. Did not remove the distinction between regulated and
B. hit and run investigation D. traffic accident prohibited drugs
investigation
3. Mandatory drug testing is NOT required by RA 9165
32. Pursuit operation is conducted when driver is . for
A. unaware that he violated traffic law and fails to stop A. Applicant for firearms license and for the permit to
when signaled to do so. carry firearms outside residence
B. committed a serious traffic violation B. All persons charge before the prosecutor’s office with
C. unaware that he violated the traffic law a criminal offense having an impossible penalty of less
D. sideswiped a pedestrian and killing the victim than six (6) years and one (1) day
instantly C. Officers and members of the military, police and other
law enforcement agencies
33. The friction mark on a pavement made by a tire, D. Officers and employee of public and private offices
which is both rotating and slipping is .
A. Centrifugal skid C. Centrifugal force 4. Which of the following gives the feeling of a need for
B. Skid mark D. Scuff mark more and more of legal drugs to achieve the same level of
effect?
34. Inner lane of four-lane two-way roads are designed A. Physical dependency C. Toxicity
for . B. Psychological dependency D. Tolerance
A. Slow moving vehicles
B. Fast moving vehicles 5. Which of the following is NOT considered as drug
C. Overtaking and fast moving vehicles trafficking pursuant to the applicable provisions of RA
D. Overtaking purposes 9165?
A. Cultivation, culture and delivery
35. The combination of simultaneous and sequential B. Transportation, distribution, importation and
factors without any one of which result could not have possession
occurred is . C. Use, abstinence, consumption, addiction
A. Cause C. Primary D. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and
B. Factor D. Attribute trading
36. The device mounted on a portable support where 6. Pleasure or reward is that part of the brain affected by
message is conveyed by means of words or symbols is . pain, thus the motivation why people used drugs and
A. Pavement marking C. Road signs alcohol is to
B. Traffic light D. Traffic signs A. Forget their problems C. Get high
B. Feel good D. Spend money
37. What pillar of traffic management is LTO part of?
A. Enforcement C. Engineering 7. Which of the following is NOT a condition precedent
B. Education D. Licensing before an arrest person may be required undergo a
38. Select the sign intended to warn road users of the laboratory examination within 24 hours
danger that lies ahead of its nature. A. The person is manifestly showing symptoms of drug
A. Control C. Regulatory abuse
law.
Page 7 of 12
B. There is a clear showing that the suspect was under
the influence of drugs 15. Based on the facts stated above, since it was the first
C. The person is showing physical sign of drug abuse time he was proven in-violation of Republic Act 9165.
D. The person is showing psychological drug adduction What would be his penalty under existing law?
A. Imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to 12 years
8. The largest volume of evidence received by the crime B. Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months
laboratory is in the relation to C. Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months
A. Murders and homicide C. illegal drugs D. Imprisonment of at least 6 months
B. Ballistics examination D. Falsification of documents
15-A. Supposing that Mr. Kati M. Peri was already
9. The withdrawal symptoms produced by a drug is convicted by his initial act, but then he again convicted
manifested by A. Withdrawal symptoms that are for the same offense for the second time. Is his penalty
usually severe and incapacitating for the first offense and second offense the same?
B. Withdrawal symptoms which are psychological in A. YES, 50K - 200k fine
nature B. NO, There will be a different penalty
C. A person who is always seen with alcohol but never C. NO, there will be imprisonment minimum of 6 months
with heroin D. Both A and C are correct
D. Symptoms which is usually opposite to the effects of
the drug itself 16. The effect of illegal drugs use that gives a feeling of a
need for a more and more of illegal drugs to achieve the
10. A minor who is convicted for the possession of illegal; same level of effect is.
drugs is entitled to A. Tolerance C. Physical Dependency
A. Suspended sentence B. Addiction D. Psychological dependency
B. Suspension of judgment
C. Custody by DSWD 17. The type of drugs which according to
D. Suspended enforcement pharmacological classification relieve pain and induces
sleep is .
11. Without a supply of illegal drugs, it will be difficult A. Narcotics C. Stimulants
for drug addicts to B. Hallucinogens D. Sedatives
A. Be happy and feel good
B. Sustain their habit of drug abuse 18. The BEST reason why Marijuana has been one of the
C. Undergo rehabilitation most abuse hallucinogens in the Philippines and its
D. Have easy access to illegal drugs control becomes difficult according to some authorities
because .
12. Aware of the number of arrest and cased filed in A. Is highly in demand for all users
court, expert propose that hearing of illegal cases should B. Can be easily and secretly be smoked
be tried and heard by C. can easily be cultivated even in one’s backyard
A. RTC Court designated as heinous crimes D. It is sellable in any place, in any market
B. Special Court designated by the SC among existing
RTC 19. The placing of any dangerous substances in the
C. Sandiganbayan person, house effects, or in the immediate vicinity of
D. Special Court designated by the SC innocent individual for the purpose of implicating,
incriminating or imputing the commission of any
13. When a person who is known as drug addict by his violation of Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
own volition ceased by taking illegal drugs, he/she is is______________.
A.In abstinence C. In self-healing A. Incriminatory machination
B. Into wellness D. In self-medication B. Fabrication of evidence
C. Incriminating an innocent person
14. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding of D. Planting of evidence
the treatment and rehabilitation of drug dependents?
A. Charge can be filed against drug dependents who is 20. What is the appropriate term in determining the
not rehabilitated under the voluntary submission drugs and crime relationship especially when drug use
program and crimes are common aspects of deviant behavior and
B. The Dangerous Drug Board shall be order the lifestyle or increases exposure to situations that
confinement of drug dependent who refuses to apply encourage crime?
under the voluntary submission program A. Drug related offenses
C. A drug dependent discharge as rehabilitated but does B. Drug induced circumstances
not qualify for exemption from criminal liability shall be C. Inter-fractional circumstances
placed on probation D. Drug defines offenses
D. Temporary release of drug dependent subject to after-
care and follow-up treatment from DOH shall be for a 21. What is this level of drug trafficking organization
period of not exceeding 18 months which operates like subsidiaries and typically performs
such as transportation of money laundering within the
Case situation: specific territorial jurisdiction?
Mr. Kati M. Peri, a married man of his 20’s was proven A. Secondary Organization
on due course that he is being a drug user for the first B. International Organization
time after he undergone screening test and later C. Core Organization
confirmatory test. D. Local Organization
law.
Page 8 of 12
A. Accelerant B. Timing device
22. The BEST example of a drug-related offense wherein B. Stopper D. Delaying tactic
the commission of the offense is motivated by the need
to support drug is_______ 4. Which is NOT one of the basis of criminal liability in
A. Stealing to have money arson?
B. Illegal possession of shabu A. Location of fire
C. Violence against rival drug dealers B. Kind and character of the building burned
D. Dealing or selling illegal drugs C. Location of the building
D. Whether the building burned was occupied or not
23. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs are
menace to the community because they: 5. What is the suggested effective mixture of AFF with
A. Are violently insane water to produce a foam?
B. Ruin their life/health A. 6% water to 94% foam C. 94% water to 6% foam
C. Flagrantly immoral B. 60% water to 40% foam D. 50% water to 50% foam
D. Feel no restraint in committing crimes
6. The stage in the commission of the crime of arson
24. The operation utilized by drug syndicates to conceal where all the elements necessary for the execution and
their activities is operation. accomplishment are present is
A. Disguised C. Confidential A. Frustrated C. Attempted
B. Hide-out D. Clandestine’ B. Consummated D. None of these
25. The illegal drug also known as Papaver Somniferum 7. The burning of a building used as offices of the
and considered as the mother drugs of other narcotics government or any of its agencies was burned it is
substances is. classified as
A. Heroin C. Opium poppy A. Destructive arson C. None of these
B. Morphine D. Codeine B. Malicious arson D. other cases of arson
26. The powerful stimulant in a form of a white powdery 8. The dry chemical that is intended to be used for class
substance extracted from a coca leave is . “A”, “B” and “C” fire is
A. Heroin C. Opium poppy A. Multi-purpose dry chemical
B. Clandestine laboratory D. Laboratory equipment B. CO2 dry chemical
C. Ordinary and regular dry chemical
27. Facility used for the illegal manufacture of D. All of these\
dangerous drugs is called:
A. drug den 9. What is this stage when the offender commences the
B. laboratory equipment commission of felony directly by overt acts and does not
C. drug laboratory perform all the acts of execution?
D. clandestine laboratory A. Attempted C. Frustrated
B. None of these D. Consummated
28. Which does NOT describe BEST why a person takes
drugs? 10. What is this liquid having a flash point at or above
A. Friends and peer pressure 37.8 C (100 F)?
B. Accessibility of sources of illegal drugs A. Kerosene C. Corrosive liquid
C. High self-esteemed and ego B. Turpentine D. Combustible liquid
D. Personal, family and social problems.
11. A building must have this design which is used a
29. Who is responsible for the general administration of continuous passageway for the transmission of air?
the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency? A. Exhaust system C. Duct system
A. The Head of DDB B. Fire exit D. Duct
B. The Director General of PDEA
C. The Chief of the PNP 12. Investigating a burning building, you look for the
D. The DILG Secretary source of fire and its ignition. Which of the following is
NOT a source of ignition?
FIRE TECHNOLOGY & ARSON INVESTIGATION A. Electrical C. Accidental
B. Mechanical D. Chemical
1. What is the visual or audible signal produced by a
device to warn the occupants of the building of the 13. As arson investigators, you understood that the
presence or danger of fire? following as some of the factors that may affect the
A. Fire drill C. Fire alarm EXTENT of burning, EXCEPT:
B. Fire hydrant D. Fire exit A. Wind velocity C. Number of incendiary
B. Relative humidity D. Air temperature
2. What is the smoke that indicates petroleum and Situation: Fire Officer “Bentong” was responding to the
petroleum products and rubber? fire scene. Apparently, the flammable material is an
A. Biting smoke C. White smoke asphalt or “krudo”. The only extinguishing agent that he
B. Black smoke D. Fire smoke has is water.
3. The tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of 14. From the foregoing situation, can FO Bentong use
the fire and allow him to establish an alibi is water to extinguish the fire?
law.
Page 9 of 12
I. No, water is not the best extinguishing agent for
flammable liquid 23. Mechanical device strategically located in an
II. Yes, if water is used in a rainy or sprinkler manner installation or street where fire hose is connected?
III. No, absolutely not. A. fire escape C. fire hydrant
A. I, III C. I, II B. standpipe D. fire extinguisher
B. I D. III
24. The motive of the arsonist who enjoys the actual fire
15. From the foregoing situation and under the given setting or the fire suppression activities is .
circumstances, what would be the best extinguishing A. Thrill C. Adventure
agent for FO Bentong? B. Vandalism D. Excitement
A. Water, so that the flammable liquid may be diluted
material 25. Firefighters should not use water on live electrical
B. Chemical powder, as it will absorb the flammable equipment because .
liquid A. There is a danger of conducting electricity and
C. Removal of the flammable material from the fire endangering the firefighter
D. Foam extinguishing agent as it will block the oxygen B. It will cause short circuits and damage the equipment
in penetrating the flammable liquid C. this expensive, sophisticated equipment maybe ruined
D. It is ineffective on electrical equipment
16. From the foregoing situation, can FO Bentong use
CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) as an extinguishing agent? 26. At a large fire in a factory, a firefighter discovers a
I. Yes, as it will absorb the flammable liquid if the fire is number of compressed gas cylinders that are severely
just a small one exposed by the fire. Which is the MOST critical hazard in
II. No, as it will only be absorbed by the flammable liquid this situation?
III. Yes, provided that the CO2 is in substantial amount A. The cylinder may explodes
A. I, II C. I, III B. The flammable compressed gas maybe released and
B. I D. II, III intensify the fire.
C. The valuable gas and cylinders maybe damaged
17. From the foregoing situation, suppose that FO D. The toxic fumes from the compressed gas maybe
Bentong has foam fire extinguishing agent, can he use it released.
effectively?
A. Yes, because foam will block the oxygen needed to 27. While responding to fire, fire officers do not talk with
sustain fire the firefighter driving the apparatus. The primary reason
B. No, because it will require a lot of foam extinguishing for this is to
agent A. Allow the officer to prepare mentally to fight the fire
C. Yes, foal will dilute the flammable liquid B. Allow the officer to watch how the firefighter handles
D. No, since foam is lighter than flammable liquid, it will the apparatus.
float C. ensure that the chain of command is maintained
D. ensure that the driver is able to concentrate and
18. What type of fire extinguisher that has black label safely get the apparatus to the fire.
and originally designed for use on flammable liquid.
A. CO2 Fire Extinguisher 28. At a major fire in a factory, a number of compressed
B. ABC Powder Fire Extinguisher gas cylinders containing carbon monoxide (CO) are
C. AFFF Fire Extinguisher threatened by the flames. Which is CORRECT to say
D. Wet Chemical Fire Extinguisher about this situation?
A. The cylinders may explode and injure the firefighters
19. The fire suppression activity that is meant to B. Since CO is a non-flammable gas, there is no hazard
mitigate or reduce the impact of fires by means of and no problem.
research and development, production and testing of C. If the safety valves let go, the CO will intensify the fire.
mitigating system is fire . D. The gas is toxic and will make fighting the fire very
A. Law enforcement C. Control hazardous.
B. Education D. Safety
29. The phenomena by which a combustible material
20. What is this kind of fire suppression activity produces heat because of internal chemical reaction is .
manifested by the readiness of the people by means of A. Ignition temperature C. Fusion
fire drills especially in schools, hospitals and tall B. Combustion D. Spontaneous combustion
buildings?
A. Fire safety C. Fire suppression 30. What is this class of fire that involves woods and
B. Fire law enforcement D. Fire prevention wood products?
A. Class A C. Class C
21. Which is NOT a description of materials or B. Class B D. Class D
compounds that are easily set on fire?
A. Combustible C. Corrosive 31. Because of the metallic nature of this flammable
B. Flammable D. Inflammable material, this fire can be extinguished by using dry
powder, ABC chemical, baking soda or sand. This is a
22. What is this motive of fire setter in retaliation to real fire.
or perceived injustice? A. Class C C. Class B
A. Revenge C. Vandalism B. Class D D. Class A
B. Adventure D. Pyromania
law.
Page 10 of 12
32. Fire is an example of what type of chemical reaction? 11. A document prepared where a person must swear to
A. Precipitation C. None of these the truthfulness of certain facts. What is it?
B. Oxidation reduction D. Acid-base A. Sworn statement C. Affidavit
B. Sworn written statement D. Investigation report
33. What is this almost anything that will burn when
heated with sufficient oxygen? 12.Person who executes an affidavit is known as?
A. Combustion C. Fuel A. Complainant C. Notary public
B. Oxygen D. Heat B. Plaintiff D. Affiant
TECHNICAL ENGLISH 1 & 2 13. Police investigative report is written in what tense?
1. The “what”, “why” and “how” of the 5Ws and 1H in A. Present C. Past participle
police report pertains to of the narratives. B. Future D. Past
A. Action C. Character
B. Setting D. Participants 14. Which is the correct abbreviation of the PNP rank of
Police Major General?
2. The Judicial Affidavit contains a proof that an oath A. MajGen C. MGEN
was taken before an administering officer or a notary B. P/MGEN D. PMGEN
public. This is called .
A. An annexes C. Sworn statement 15. Which of the sentence is properly written according
B. An affidavit D. Jurat to the rule of diction?
A. As the narcotic agent entered the bedroom he inhaled
3. The building blocks of documents and series of something familiar. It appeared to come from under the
sentences, organized and coherent is . bed
A. Words C. Clauses B. As the narcotic agent entered the bedroom, he
B. Sentence D. Paragraph detected something familiar. He suspect to come from
under the bed.
4. The sentence that expresses by direct command, C. As the narcotic agent entered the bedroom, he
request, instruction is . smelled something familiar. The odor came from the bed.
A. Declarative C. Imperative D. As the narcotic agent entered the bedroom, he seen
B. Interrogative D. Exclamatory something familiar. The smell came from the bed.
5. When we speak of accuracy of the report it means that 16. That part of investigation report which shows where
the said report should all be based on - or from whom the order to conduct an investigation
A. Facts C. opinion emanated is the –
B. eyewitness testimony D. observation A. Authority C. Addressee
B. Reference D. Body
6. PSSg Nolie Buenaventura’s report contains simple
language and direct to the by following logical sequence 17. Which if the following is considered to be the most
in the order in which it occur. What characteristic does important quality of good report?
Buenaventura’s report possesses? A. Accuracy C. Timeliness
A. Brevity C. Factuality B. Brevity D. Neatness
B. Conciseness D. Shortness
18. In police stations, a separate blotter is maintained
7. The “when” or the time and date of occurrence and for crime incident reports involving violence against
“where” or the location of the event in the police report women and children and those cases involving a child in
refer to the of the narrative. conflict with the law. This statement is .
A. setting C. action A. True, to protect their privacy
B. character D. summary B. False, it disorganize the police recording system
C. True, to closely monitor the case
8. It determine whether a sentence is clear or has a D. False, this is discriminatory
doubtful meaning, hence, used to clarify the structure
and meaning of sentences. 19. For an information in a police blotter to be complete,
A. Period C. Coma it must .
B. Punctuation marks D. Vocabulary A. Comply with the basic principles of report writing
B. Bear the signature of the complaining party
9.SMS Joey Morales’ investigation report was based on C. Adhere to the standard format prescribed by the
factual information that he obtained in inquiry. His existing police regulations
report can be described as – D. Contain the 5Ws and 1H in report writing
A. Factuality C. Objective
B. Comprehensiveness D. Accuracy 20. In this type of police report complaint, the general
nature, and magnitude of the case are established and
10. A written matter submitted by a police officer to his validated.
superior concerning his responsibilities about a A. Progress C. After-Operation
particular subject is? B. Follow-up D. Final
A. Police report C. Police blotter
B. Investigation report D. report writing
CYBER CRIME & ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS
law.
Page 11 of 12
1. The commission of a criminal acts using the D. Construction of establishment within two 200 meters
instruments of modern technology such as computers from open dumps.
and the internet. What is being referred?
A. Cybercrime C. White collar crime 10. Process of collecting, analyzing and recovering
B. Internet crime D. Technology crime critical forensic digital data from the networks involved
in the attack in order to identify the authors of the
2. Enforcement of cybercrime law is vested upon the- digital crime and their true intentions is known as –
A. PNP- Anti-Cybercrime Group only A. forensic cybercrime
B. PNP and NBI B. cybercrime investigation
C. Office of Cybercrime of the Department of Justice C. cyber threat investigation
D. Cybercrime Investigation and Coordinating Center D. cyber threat intelligence
3. Knowledge used to prevent or mitigate cyber-attacks 11. An order to disclose and accordingly, require any
by studying the threat data and provide information on person or service provider to disclose or submit
adversaries is known as – subscriber’s information, traffic data, or relevant data in
A. electronic intelligence C. data mining his/her controversial or is possession or control.
B. cyber intelligence D. data intelligence A. Warrant to Disclose Computer Data
B. Warrant to Intercept Computer Data
4. Cyber crime investigation refers to the process of C. Warrant to Search, Seize & Examine Computer Data
investigating, analyzing, and recovering for digital D. Warrant to Examine Computer Data
evidence of a crime.
A. crime data C. forensic data 12. Refers to any representation of facts, information, or
B. electronic information D. digital information concepts in a form suitable for processing in a computer
system including a program suitable to cause a
5. Hash value refers to the Mathematical algorithm computer system to perform a function and includes
produced against digital information such as file, electronic documents and/or electronic data messages
physical disk or a logical disk. What is created by this whether stored in local computer systems or online.
process that is very important in the investigation of A. Computer Program
cybercrime? B. Computer Data
A. Digital fingerprint C. Forensic image C. Computer System
B. Computer DNA D. Digital identifyinginformation D. Cybersecurity
6. What group of laws that regulate the impact of human 13. The following are considered as cybercrime offenses,
activities on the environment, covering broad range of except:
activities that affect air, water, land, flora or fauna, and A. Accessing the whole or any part of a computer system
the protection of animals and plants? without right.
A. Environmental Laws B. Intentionally altering, damaging, deleting or
B. Special Laws deteriorating computer data, electronic document, or
C. Writ of Kalikasan electronic data message without right, including
D. Environmental and Animal Welfare Acts introduction or transmission of viruses.
C. Publicly and maliciously imputation of crime, vice or
7. Which act is NOT punishable under the Ecological defect, real or imaginary, or any act or omission tending
Solid Waste Management Act of 2000? to cause dishonor of a natural or juridical person and
A. Dumping of biodegradable materials in flood prone committed through computer system.
areas. D. Accessing the whole or any part of computer system
B. Removal of recyclable material intended for collection. to check security system and make it more hack-proof.
C. Mixing of source-separated recyclable material with
other solid waste. 14. A type of hackers that destroy, steal and even
D. Construction of establishment within two 200 meters prevent authorized users from accessing computer
from open dumps. system.
A. White hat hackers C. Black hat hackers
8. EXCEPT one, all are crimes punishable under B. Grey hat hackers D. Anonymous hackers
Republic Act No. 9003, otherwise known as Ecological
Solid Waste Management Act of 2000 15. Who is considered as the Chairman of the Inter-
A. Open burning of solid waste Agency Technical Advisory Council that assist DENR in
B. Causing or permitting the collection of non-segregated the formulation of pertinent rules and regulation of RA
or unsorted wastes 6969?
C. Use of environmentally acceptable packaging A. Secretary of DOH
materials B. Sec. of DTI
D. Squatting in open dumps and landfills C. Sec. of DENR
D. Dir. Of Philippine Nuclear Research Institute
9. Which act is NOT punishable under the Ecological
Solid Waste Management Act of 2000?
A. Dumping of biodegradable materials in flood prone
areas
B. Removal of recyclable material intended for collection
C. Mixing of source-separated recyclable material with
other solid waste.
law.
Page 12 of 12

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