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Answer Key
UPSC CSE Prelims 2024:
General Studies Paper 1
All Questions Solved With

Explanations
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UPSC CIVIL SERVICE EXAMINATION (PRELIMINARY) 2024
General Studies Paper - 1
Revised Answer key
1. Consider the following statements: ▪ Statement II is correct as carbon dioxide and

Statement I: other greenhouse gases are good absorbers of
The atmosphere is heated more by incoming
long-wave radiation, contributing to the
solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
greenhouse effect.
Statement II:
Reference- ClearIAS: Greenhouse Effect and Global
Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in
Warming
the atmosphere are good absorbers of long-
wave radiation.
Which one of the following is correct in 2. Consider the following statements:
respect of the above statements? Statement I:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is
correct and Statement II explains much greater as compared to poles.
Statement I Statement II:
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
At the equator, heat is transported to great
correct, but Statement II does not
heights by strong convectional currents.
explain Statement I
Which one of the following is correct in
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II
respect of the above statements?
is incorrect
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
is correct correct and Statement II explains
Statement I
Answer: (d) Statement I is incorrect, but (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Statement II is correct correct, but Statement II does not
Explanation: explain Statement I
▪ Statement I is incorrect because the
atmosphere is primarily heated by terrestrial
is incorrect
radiation (long-wave radiation emitted by the
Earth's surface) rather than incoming solar
is correct
radiation.
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Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II Reference: ClearIAS- Volcanoes: Everything You
are correct and Statement II explains Statement I Need To Know
Explanation:
▪ Statement I is correct because the troposphere 4. Which of the following is/are correct
is indeed thicker at the equator due to higher inference/inferences from isothermal maps in
temperatures causing more expansion. the month of January?
▪ Statement II is correct because at the equator, 1. The isotherms deviate to the north over
intense solar heating leads to strong the continent.
convectional currents which transport heat to 2. The presence of cold ocean currents,
greater heights. Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Ocean
Reference- ClearIAS: Composition and Structure of colder and the isotherms bend toward
the Earth’s Atmosphere the north.
Select the answer using the code given below:
3. Consider the following: (a) 1 only
1. Pyroclastic debris (b) 2 only
2. Ash and dust (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Nitrogen compounds (d) Neither 1 or 2
4. Sulphur compounds
How many of the above are products of Answer: 1 only
volcanic eruptions? Explanation:

(a) Only one ▪ The isotherms deviate to the north over the
(b) Only two continent during January due to the presence
(c) Only three of warmer land temperatures compared to the

(d) All four surrounding oceans. The second statement is
Answer: (d) All four incorrect because the Gulf Stream and North
Explanation: Atlantic Drift make the adjacent areas warmer,

▪ Pyroclastic debris, ash and dust, and sulphur not colder.
compounds are products of volcanic Reference- ClearIAS- Distribution of Temperature
eruptions. Nitrogen compounds are not in the Earth’s Atmosphere

typically products of volcanic eruptions 5. Which of the following countries are well
however Nitrogen compounds, like nitric known as the two largest cocoa producers in
oxide and nitrogen dioxide, can be indirectly the world?
affected by volcanic emissions through (a) Algeria and Morocco
chemical reactions in the atmosphere. (b) Botswana and Namibia
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(c) Cote d’Ivoire and Ghana Rainwater contains atmospheric oxygen.
(d) Madagascar and Mozambique Which one of the following is correct in
Answer: Cote d’Ivoire and Ghana (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are
Explanation: correct and both of them explain
▪ Cote d’Ivoire and Ghana are the two largest Statement I
cocoa producers in the world, accounting for a (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are
significant portion of the global cocoa supply. correct, but only one of them explains
Reference- ClearIAS: Cocoa Cultivation Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is
6. With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining correct and that explains Statement I
Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is
East, which one of the following sequences is correct
correct?
(a) Ghaghara — Gomati — Gandak — Kosi Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III
(b) Gomati — Ghaghara — Gandak — Kosi are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(c) Ghaghara — Gomati — Kosi — Gandak Explanation:
(d) Gomati — Ghaghara — Kosi — Gandak ▪ Both statements II and III are correct because
rainwater does contain carbon dioxide in
Answer: (b) Gomati - Ghaghara - Gandak – Kosi solution (which forms carbonic acid,
Explanation: contributing to chemical weathering) and
• The correct sequence of Himalayan rivers atmospheric oxygen. Both these factors
joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj contribute to the weathering of rocks.
from West to East is: (b) Gomati - Ghaghara - Reference-ClearIAS: Exogenic Forces: Classification
Gandak - Kosi. 8. Consider the following countries:
Reference- ClearIAS: Major river systems in India 1. Finland
2. Germany
7. Consider the following statements: 3. Norway
Statement I: 4. Russia
Rainfall is one of the reasons for the How many of the above countries have a
weathering of rocks. border with the North Sea?
Statement II: (a) Only one
Rainwater contains carbon dioxide in solution. (b) Only two
Statement III: (c) Only three
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(d) All four
Answer: Only two 10. Consider the following information:
Explanation: Region Name of the Type of

mountain mountain
▪ Germany and Norway have coastlines along
range
the North Sea. Finland and Russia do not have
1. Central Vosges Fold
borders with the North Sea.
Asia mountain
Reference- ClearIAS: Marginal seas of the world
2. Europe Alps Block
mountain
9. Consider the following information:
3. North Appalachians Fold
Waterfall Region River America mountain
1. Dhuandhar Malwa Narmada 4. South Andes Fold
2. Hundru Chota Nagpur Subarnarekha America mountain
3. Gersoppa Western Ghats Netravati In how many of the above rows is the given
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
information correctly matched?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) Only three
(b) Only two
(d) All four
(c) Only three
(d) None Answer: Only two

Explanation:
Answer: (a) Only one ▪ The Vosges in Central Asia is incorrectly listed
Explanation: as it is located in Europe and is a block

mountain.
▪ Dhuandhar Falls on the Narmada River is not
▪ The Alps in Europe are fold mountains, not
associated with the Malwa region.
block mountains.
▪ Hundru Falls on the Subarnarekha River is
▪ The Appalachians in North America are
correctly matched with the Chota Nagpur correctly listed as fold mountains.
Plateau. ▪ The Andes in South America are correctly
▪ Gersoppa Falls, also known as Jog Falls, is listed as fold mountains.
actually on the Sharavathi River, not the Reference- ClearIAS: Mountains
Netravati, and is located in the Western Ghats.
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11. Consider the airports: Answer: (a) 1 only
1. Donya Polo Airport Explanation:

▪ Statement 1 is correct because water vapour is
2. Kushinagar International Airport
a gas and its concentration decreases with
3. Vijayawada International Airport
altitude.
In the recent past, which of the above have
▪ Statement 2 is incorrect because the
been constructed as Greenfield projects? percentage of water vapour is not maximum at
(a) 1 and 2 only the poles; it is generally higher in tropical and
(b) 2 and 3 only equatorial regions.
(c) 1 and 3 only Reference: ClearIAS: Water In The Atmosphere:

Composition and Structure
(d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Consider the following description:

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Annual and daily range of temperatures
Explanation: is low.
▪ Donya Polo Airport (Itanagar) and Kushinagar
2. Precipitation occurs throughout the
International Airport have been constructed
year.
as Greenfield projects.
3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm -
▪ Vijayawada International Airport was initially
250 cm.
an existing airport and later upgraded to
What is this type of climate?
international status.
(a) Equatorial climate
.
(b) China type climate
12. With reference to “water vapour”, which of the (c) Humid subtropical climate
following statements is/are correct? (d) Marine West Coast climate
1. It is a gas, the amount of which
decreases with altitude. Answer: (d) Marine West Coast climate

Explanation:
2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.
▪ The Marine West Coast climate is
characterized by low annual and daily
(a) 1 only temperature ranges, precipitation throughout
(b) 2 only the year, and precipitation levels between 50
(c) Both 1 and 2 cm - and 250 cm.

Reference- ClearIAS: World Climate: Types and its
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Characteristics
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14. With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the Answer: (d) 2 and 4
following statements is/are correct? Explanation:
1. It increases with an increase in wind ▪ On June 21, the Tropic of Cancer experiences
velocity. the longest day of the year (summer solstice in
2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent the Northern Hemisphere), with more than 12
at the equator.
hours of sunlight.
▪ The Arctic Circle also experiences continuous
(a) 1 only
daylight (midnight sun) on this date, resulting
(b) 2 only
in more than 12 hours of sunlight.
(c) Both 1 and 2
▪ The Equator experiences approximately 12
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
hours of daylight year-round, and the Tropic
of Capricorn experiences shorter days on this
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: date.
▪ Statement 1 is correct because the Coriolis Reference- ClearIAS: Solstice and Equinox
force increases with an increase in wind

velocity. 16. One of the following regions has the world’s
▪ Statement 2 is correct because the Coriolis largest tropical peatland, which holds about
force is maximum at the poles and absent at three years worth of global carbon emissions
the equator. from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction
Reference- ClearIAS: Winds: Classification and of which can exert a detrimental effect on the
types global climate. Which one of the following

denotes that region?
15. On June 21 every year, which of the following (a) Amazon Basin
latitude(s) experiences (s) sunlight of more (b) Congo Basin
than 12 hours? (c) Kikori Basin
1. Equator (d) Rio de la Plata Basin
2. Tropic of Cancer
3. Tropic of Capricorn Answer: (b) Congo Basin
4. Arctic Circle Explanation:
Select the correct answer using the code given ▪ The Congo Basin is known to have the world's
below: largest tropical peatland, which contains
(a) 1 only significant amounts of carbon. Its destruction
(b) 2 only could release large quantities of carbon into
(c) 3 and 4 the atmosphere, contributing to climate
(d) 2 and 4 change.

Reference- ClearIAS: Peatlands
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17. With reference to perfluoroalkyl and Parasitoid species are found in how many of
polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are the above kinds of organisms?
used in making many consumer products,
(a) Only two
consider the following statements:
(b) Only three
1. PFAS are found to be widespread in
(c) Only four
drinking water, food, and food
packaging materials. (d) All five
2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the
environment. Answer: (b) Only three
3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to Explanation:
bioaccumulation in animal bodies.
▪ Parasitoid species are typically found in flies
Which of the statements given above are
(e.g., tachinid flies), beetles (some carabid
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only beetles), and wasps (e.g., many wasp species
(b) 2 and 3 only are parasitoids). However, centipedes and

(c) 1 and 3 only termites are not commonly known to have
(d) 1, 2 and 3 parasitoid species.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

19. Consider the following plants:
Explanation:
▪ All three statements are correct: 1. Groundnut
▪ PFAS are indeed widespread in drinking 2. Horse-gram

water, food, and food packaging materials. 3. Soybean
▪ They are known for their persistence and are How many of the above belong to the pea
not easily degraded in the environment. family?
▪ Persistent exposure can lead to (a) Only one
bioaccumulation in animal bodies, including
(b) Only two
humans.
(c) Only three
Reference- ClearIAS: Forever Chemicals: What are
(d) None
PFAS?
18. Consider the following: Answer: (c) Only three

1. Carabid beetles Explanation:
2. Centipedes ▪ All three plants, groundnut (peanut), horse-
3. Flies gram, and soybean, belong to the pea family
4. Termites
(Fabaceae or Leguminosae).
5. Wasps
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20. Consider the following statements: Answer: (c) Insects
Statement I: Explanation:
The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the ▪ Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all
“vermin” category in the Wild Life types of insects.
(Protection) Act, 1972.
Statement II: 22. Consider the following statements:
The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of
Statement I:
other animals.
Many chewing gums found in the market are
considered a source of environmental
pollution.
correct and Statement II explains Statement II:
Statement I Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are base.
correct, but Statement II does not Which of the following is correct in respect of
explain Statement I the above statements?
is incorrect
correct and Statement II explains
Statement I.
is correct
Answer: (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement correct, but Statement II does not
II is incorrect explain Statement I
Explanation: (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II
▪ Statement I is correct as the Indian Flying Fox
is incorrect
has been classified as vermin in some parts of
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement
India, allowing for control measures due to
their perceived impact on fruit crops. II is correct
▪ Statement II is incorrect because the Indian Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II
Flying Fox is a frugivore and feeds primarily are correct and Statement II explains Statement
on fruits, nectar, and flowers, not on the blood I
of other animals.
Explanation:
▪ Both statements are correct. Many chewing
21. The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond
skater” are: gums contain plastic in their gum base, which
(a) Birds does not biodegrade and thus contributes to
(b) Fish environmental pollution. Statement II
(c) Insects
explains why Statement I is true.
(d) Reptiles
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23. Consider the following pairs: Answer: (a) 2 only
Country Animal found in its
Explanation:
natural habitat
1. Brazil Indri ▪ Statement I is incorrect because the World
2. Indonesia Elk Toilet Organization is not an agency of the
3. Madagascar Bonobo
United Nations; it is an independent non-
How many of the pairs given above are
profit organization.
correctly matched?
(a) Only one ▪ Statement II is correct. The World Toilet
(b) Only two Summit, World Toilet Day, and World Toilet
(c) All three
College are initiatives of the World Toilet
(d) None
Organization.
Answer: (d) None ▪ Statement III is incorrect because the main
Explanation:
focus of the World Toilet Organization is
▪ The Indri is native to Madagascar, not Brazil.
▪ Elk are found in North America and parts of advocacy, education, and collaboration to
Europe and Asia, not Indonesia. improve global sanitation, not primarily
▪ Bonobos are found in the Democratic Republic granting funds.
of Congo, not Madagascar.
24. Consider the following statements regarding 25. Consider the following statements:
World Toilet Organization: Statement I:
Statement I: Lions do not have a particular breeding
It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
season.
Statement II:
World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day, and Statement II:
World Toilet College are the initiatives of this Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not
organization, to inspire action to tackle the roar.
global sanitation crisis.
Statement III:
Statement III:
Unlike male lions, male leopards do not
The main focus of its function is to grant funds
to the least developed countries and proclaim their territory by scent marking.
developing countries to achieve the end of Which of the statements given above are
open defecation. correct?
Which of the statements given below is/are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
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Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only Answer: (a) It is a platform for accelerating the
Explanation: transition towards food and water systems that
▪ Statement I is correct. Lions do not have a
are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that
specific breeding season and can breed
aims to increase farmer resilience.
throughout the year.
Explanation:
▪ Statement II is correct. Cheetahs do not roar;
▪ The "100 Million Farmers" initiative is
they make other vocalizations such as chirps
and purrs. designed to accelerate the transition to
▪ Statement III is incorrect. Male leopards do sustainable food and water systems, focusing
scent mark their territory, similar to male on reducing carbon emissions, promoting
lions. nature-positive practices, and increasing
farmer resilience.
26. Which one of the following is the correct
description of “100 Million Farmers”?
27. Consider the following:
(a) It is a platform for accelerating the
1. Battery storage
transition towards food and water
2. Biomass generators
systems that are net-zero (carbon),
3. Fuel cells
nature-positive and that aims to
increase farmer resilience. 4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units
(b) It is an international alliance and a How many of the above are considered
network of individuals and farming “Distributed Energy Resources”?
organizations interested in supporting (a) Only one
and strengthening the development of (b) Only two
organic animal husbandry.
(c) Only three
(c) It is a digital platform fully integrated
(d) All four
with service providers and built on
blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and
Answer: (d) All four
third parties trade fertilizers quickly
and securely. Explanation:
(d) It is a platform with a mission of ▪ Distributed Energy Resources (DERs) include
encouraging the farmers to form Farmer small-scale units of local generation connected
Product Organisations or Agribusiness to the grid at distribution level. Battery
Consortiums, thus facilitating the access storage, biomass generators, fuel cells, and
to global open markets to sell their rooftop solar photovoltaic units are all
products. considered DERs.
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28. Which one of the following shows a unique 30. Consider the following:
relationship with an insect that has coevolved 1. Cashew
with it and that is the only insect that can 2. Papaya
pollinate this tree? 3. Red sanders
(a) Fig How many of the trees are actually native to
(b) Mahua India?
(c) Sandalwood (a) Only one
(d) Silk cotton (b) Only two
(c) All three
Answer: (a) Fig (d) None
Explanation:
▪ The fig tree has a unique coevolutionary Answer: (a) Only one
relationship with fig wasps, which are the only Explanation:
insects that can pollinate fig trees. This ▪ Cashew: Native to Brazil and was introduced
mutualistic relationship is highly specialized. to India by the Portuguese.
▪ Papaya: Native to Central America and
29. Consider the following: southern Mexico, introduced to India.
1. Butterflies ▪ Red Sanders: Native to India, specifically to the
2. Fish southern parts such as Andhra Pradesh.
3. Frogs
How many of the above have poisonous
31. With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric
species among them?
generators (RTGs), consider the following
(a) Only one
statements:
(b) Only two
1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors.
(c) All three
2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard
(d) None
system of spacecrafts.
3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a
Answer: (c) All three
by-product of weapons development.
Explanation:
▪ Some butterflies have toxic substances to Which of the statements given below are
deter predators. correct?
▪ Certain fish, like pufferfish, contain potent (a) 1 and 2 only

toxins. (b) 2 and 3 only
▪ Many frog species, such as poison dart frogs, (c) 1 and 3 only
are known for their toxic skin. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only Answer: (d) Statement I is incorrect, but
Statement II is correct
Explanation:
Explanation:
▪ Statement 1 is incorrect because RTGs are not
▪ Statement I is incorrect because giant stars
miniature fission reactors; they use the decay
actually have shorter lifespans than dwarf
of radioactive isotopes (not fission reactions) stars due to their faster rate of nuclear
to generate electricity. reactions.
▪ Statement 2 is correct as RTGs are commonly ▪ Statement II is correct as giant stars have a
used to power the onboard systems of greater rate of nuclear reactions compared to
spacecraft, especially those sent to deep space dwarf stars.
where solar power is not feasible. Reference- ClearIAS: Life Cycle of a Star
▪ Statement 3 is correct because Plutonium-

33. Which one of the following is synthesized in
238, which is used in RTGs, can be a by-
the human body that dilates blood vessels and
product of nuclear reactors and weapons
increases blood flow?
development. (a) Nitric oxide
(b) Nitrous oxide
32. Consider the following statements: (c) Nitrogen oxide
(d) Nitrogen pentoxide
Statement I:
Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.
Answer: (a) Nitric oxide
Statement II: Explanation:
Compared to the dwarf stars, giant stars have ▪ Nitric oxide (NO) is synthesized in the human
a greater rate of nuclear reactions. body and acts as a vasodilator, meaning it
Which one of the following is correct in helps to dilate blood vessels and increase
blood flow.
34. Consider the following activities:
correct and Statement II explains 1. Identification of narcotics on
Statement I passengers at airports or in aircraft
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are 2. Monitoring of precipitation
correct, but Statement II does not 3. Tracking of precipitation
4. Tracking the migration of animals
explain Statement I
In how many of the above activities can radars
be used?
is incorrect (a) Only one
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II (b) Only two
is correct (c) All three
(d) None
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Answer: (b) Only two Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Explanation:
▪ Radars can be used for monitoring and ▪ Hydrogels are used in controlled drug delivery
tracking precipitation. systems due to their ability to absorb and
▪ Radars are not typically used for the release drugs in a controlled manner.
identification of narcotics on passengers or for
▪ Hydrogels can be used in mobile air-
tracking the migration of animals.
conditioning systems as desiccants to control
humidity.
35. Consider the following aircraft:
▪ Hydrogels are also used in the preparation of
1. Rafael
2. MiG-29 industrial lubricants due to their water
3. Tejas MK-1 retention properties and ability to reduce
How many of the above are considered fifth- friction.
generation fighter aircraft?
(a) Only one 37. Which of the following is the exhaust pipe
(b) Only two emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles,
(c) All three powered by hydrogen?
(d) None
(a) Hydrogen peroxide
(b) Hydronium
Answer: (d) None
(c) Oxygen
Explanation:
(d) Water vapour
▪ Rafael (Rafale) is a 4.5 generation fighter
aircraft.
Answer: (d) Water vapour
▪ MiG-29 is a 4th generation fighter aircraft.
Explanation:
▪ Tejas MK-1 is a 4th generation fighter aircraft.
▪ Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles (FCEVs) powered by
▪ None of these aircraft are classified as fifth-
hydrogen emit only water vapor as a by-
generation fighter aircraft.
product, making them environmentally
Reference- ClearIAS: The Indian Air Force
friendly.
Reference: ClearIAS: Green Hydrogen
36. In which of the following are hydrogels used?
1. Controlled drug delivery in patients
38. Recently the term “pumped-storage
2. Mobile air-conditioning systems
hydropower” is actually and appropriately
3. Preparation of industrial lubricants
discussed in the context of which one of the
Select the correct answer using the code given
following?
below:
(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields
(a) 1 only
(b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Long duration energy storage
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Rainwater harvesting system
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (c) Long duration energy storage 41. The total fertility rate in an economy is defined
Explanation: as:
▪ Pumped-storage hydropower is used for long- (a) The number of children born per 1000
duration energy storage by pumping water to people in the population in a year.
a higher elevation during low demand periods (b) The number of children born to a couple
and releasing it to generate electricity during in their lifetime in a given population.
high demand periods. (c) The birth rate minus death rate.
(d) The average number of live births a
39. “Membrane Bioreactors” are often discussed woman would have by the end of her
in the context of: child-bearing age.
(a) Assisted reproductive technologies Answer: (d) The average number of live births a
(b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies woman would have by the end of her child-
(c) Vaccine production technologies bearing age.
(d) Wastewater treatment technologies Explanation:
▪ The total fertility rate (TFR) is defined as the
Answer: (d) Wastewater treatment technologies average number of live births a woman would
Explanation: have by the end of her child-bearing age,
▪ Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs) are advanced typically considered to be between 15 and 49
wastewater treatment systems that combine years old.
biological treatment with membrane filtration Reference- ClearIAS: Fertility Rate in India: Reasons
to efficiently remove contaminants from for Decline
wastewater.
42. Consider the following statements:
40. With reference to the Indian economy, 1. In India, Non-Banking Financial
“Collateral Borrowing and Lending Companies can access the Liquidity
Obligations” are the instruments of: Adjustment Facility window of the
(a) Bond market Reserve Bank of India.
(b) Forex market 2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors
(c) Money market can hold Government Securities (G-
(d) Stock market Secs).
3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer
Answer: (c) Money market separate platforms for debts.
Explanation: Which of the following statements is/are
▪ Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations correct?
(CBLO) are money market instruments used in (a) 1 and 2 only
the Indian financial system for short-term (b) 3 only
borrowing and lending, typically overnight, (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
backed by collateral. (d) 2 and 3 only
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Answer: (d) 2 and 3 only 44. Consider the following:
Explanation: 1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
▪ Statement 1 is incorrect because Non-Banking 2. Motor vehicles
Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India 3. Currency swap
generally do not have access to the Liquidity Which of the above is/are considered financial
Adjustment Facility (LAF) window of the instruments?
Reserve Bank of India. (a) 1 only
▪ Statement 2 is correct. Foreign Institutional
(b) 2 and 3 only
Investors (FIIs) can hold Government
(c) 1, 2 and 3
Securities (G-Secs) in India.
(d) 1 and 3 only
▪ Statement 3 is correct. Stock Exchanges in
India can offer separate platforms for debt
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
instruments.
Explanation:
Reference: ClearIAS: Indian Financial System
▪ Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs) and Currency
swaps are considered financial instruments.
43. In India, which of the following can trade in ▪ Motor vehicles are not financial instruments;
Corporate Bonds and Government Securities? they are physical assets.
1. Insurance Companies Reference- ClearIAS: Financial Market: Money
2. Pension Funds Market and Capital Market
3. Retail Investors
Select the correct answer using the code given 45. With reference to the sectors of the Indian
below: economy, consider the following pairs:
(a) 1 and 2 only Economic activity Sector
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. Storage of Secondary
(c) 1 and 3 only agricultural produce
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Dairy farm Primary

3. Mineral extraction Tertiary
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 4. Weaving cloth Secondary

Explanation:
correctly matched?
▪ Insurance Companies, Pension Funds, and
(a) Only one
Retail Investors can all trade in Corporate
(b) Only two
Bonds and Government Securities in India.
(c) Only three
Reference-Clear IAS: Government Securities Market
(d) All four
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Answer: (b) Only two 47. With reference to physical capital in the Indian
Explanation: economy, consider the following pairs:
▪ Pair 1 is incorrect. Storage of agricultural Items Category
produce is considered part of the Tertiary 1. Farmer’s plow Working capital
sector (services). 2. Computer Fixed capital
▪ Pair 2 is correct. A Dairy farm is part of the
3. Yarn used by the Fixed capital
Primary sector (agriculture and allied
weaver
activities).
4. Petrol Working capital
▪ Pair 3 is incorrect. Mineral extraction is part of
How many of the above pairs are correctly
the Primary sector.
▪ Pair 4 is correct. Weaving cloth is part of the matched?
Secondary sector (manufacturing). (a) Only one
Reference- ClearIAS: Sectors of the Economy: (b) Only two

Primary, Secondary, Tertiary, (c) Only three
Quaternary and Quinary (d) All four
46. Consider the following materials: Answer: (b) Only two

1. Agricultural residues Explanation:
2. Corn grain ▪ Pair 1 is incorrect. A farmer’s plough is
3. Wastewater treatment sludge considered fixed capital because it is a long-
4. Wood mill waste
term asset.
Which of the above can be used as feedstock
▪ Pair 2 is correct. A computer is considered
for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?
fixed capital as it is a long-term asset used in
(a) 1 and 2 only
production.
(b) 3 and 4 only
▪ Pair 3 is incorrect. Yarn used by the weaver is
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
considered working capital as it is a
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
consumable item used in production.
▪ Pair 4 is correct. Petrol is considered working
Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
capital as it is consumed in the process of
Explanation:
▪ All the listed materials—agricultural residues, production.
corn grain, wastewater treatment sludge, and ▪ Possible Sources: Economics textbooks on
wood mill waste—can be used as feedstock for physical capital.
producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF). Reference- ClearIAS: Factors of Production
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48. Which one of the following words/phrases is Answer: (b) 2 only
most appropriately used to denote “an Explanation:

▪ Statement 1 is incorrect. There is a minimum
interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds
capital requirement for wholly owned banking
that can be accessed simultaneously by
subsidiaries in India.
millions of users, who can exert property
▪ Statement 2 is correct. RBI regulations require
rights over virtual items”?
that at least 50% of the board members of
(a) Big data analytics wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India
(b) Cryptography should be Indian nationals.
(c) Metaverse Reference: ClearIAS: Indian Financial System
(d) Virtual matrix
50. With reference to Corporate Social
Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider
Answer: (c) Metaverse
the following statements:
Explanation:
1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that
▪ The term "metaverse" refers to an
benefit the company directly or its
interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds
employees will not be considered as CSR
that can be accessed simultaneously by
activities.
millions of users, who can exert property
2. CSR rules do not specify minimum rights
rights over virtual items.
over virtual items spending on CSR
Reference- ClearIAS: Metaverse – Explained in
activities.
layman’s terms
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
49. With reference to the rule/rules imposed by
(a) 1 only
the Reserve Bank of India treating foreign
(b) 2 only
banks, consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. There is no minimum capital
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
requirement for wholly owned banking
Answer: (a) 1 only
subsidiaries in India.
Explanation:
2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries
▪ Statement 1 is correct. CSR rules in India
in India, at least 50% of the board
specify that expenditures that benefit the
members should be Indian nationals.
company directly or its employees will not be
considered as CSR activities.
correct?
▪ Statement 2 is incorrect and irrelevant. CSR
(a) 1 only
rules do not address "rights over virtual
(b) 2 only
items" as it is not pertinent to CSR activities.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Reference- ClearIAS: CSR: Corporate Social
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Responsibility
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51. Consider the following statements: 52. Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
Statement I:
If the United States of America (USA) were to
Syndicated lending spreads the risk of
default on its debt, holders of US Treasury
Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims borrower default across multiple lenders.
to receive payment. Statement II:
Statement II:
The syndicated loan can be a fixed
The US government debt is not backed by any
amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a
hard assets, but only by the faith of the
Government. credit line.
Which one of the following is correct in Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements? respect of the above statements?
Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are Statement I
correct, but Statement II does not (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
explain Statement I
explain Statement I
is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II
is correct is incorrect
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II
is correct
are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
Answer: (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement
Explanation:
▪ Statement I is correct because if the USA were II is incorrect
to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Explanation:

Bonds would indeed face challenges in ▪ Statement I is correct. Syndicated lending
exercising their claims to receive payment.
indeed spreads the risk of borrower default
▪ Statement II is correct and explains Statement
across multiple lenders.
I because US government debt is not backed by
▪ Statement II is incorrect. Syndicated loans can
hard assets but by the full faith and credit of
the US government. If that faith were to be be structured as either a fixed amount/lump
compromised by a default, the ability to claim sum or a revolving credit line.

payments would be impacted. Possible
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53. Consider the following statements in respect 54. With reference to ancient India, Gautama
Buddha was generally known by which of the
of the digital rupee:
following epithets?
1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the
1. Nayaputta
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in
2. Shakyamuni
alignment with its monetary policy. 3. Tathagata
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI's Select the correct answer using the code given
balance sheet. below:
(a) 1 only
3. It is insured against inflation by its very
(b) 2 and 3 only
design.
(c) 1, 2 and 3
4. It is freely convertible against
(d) None of the above are epithets of
commercial bank money and cash. Gautama Buddha
Which of the statements given above are Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
correct? Explanation:
▪ Shakyamuni and Tathagata are common
(a) 1 and 2 only
epithets for Gautama Buddha.
(b) 1 and 3 only
▪ Nayaputta is not an epithet for Gautama
(c) 2 and 4 only
Buddha; it refers to Mahavira, the founder of
(d) 1, 2 and 4 Jainism.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4 55. Consider the following information:

Explanation: Archaeological State Description
Site
▪ Statement 1 is correct. The digital rupee is a
1. Chandraketugarh Odisha Trading
sovereign currency issued by the RBI. Port town
▪ Statement 2 is correct. It appears as a liability 2. Inamgaon Maharashtra Chalcolithic
on the RBI's balance sheet. Site
3. Mangadu Kerala Megalithic
▪ Statement 3 is incorrect. The digital rupee, like
site
any currency, is not inherently insured against 4. Salihundam Andhra Rock-cut
inflation. Pradesh cave
▪ Statement 4 is correct. It is freely convertible shrines
against commercial bank money and cash. In which of the above rows is the given
Reference- ClearIAS: e-RUPI: Digital Payment information correctly matched?
Instrument (a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
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Answer: (b) 2 and 3 fixed date, he would be removed from
Explanation: his Zamindari.
▪ Inamgaon in Maharashtra is correctly Which of the statements given above is/are
identified as a Chalcolithic site. correct?
▪ Mangadu is a village in Kollam District in (a) 1 only
Kerala. The megalithic monuments at
(b) 2 only
Mangadu consisted of 28 hard compact and
(c) Both 1 and 2
unhewn laterite blocks within an area of 5
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
cents of land.
▪ Chandraketugarh is in West Bengal, not
Odisha. Answer: (b) 2 only
▪ Salihundam in Andhra Pradesh is known for Explanation:
Buddhist stupas, not rock-cut cave shrines. ▪ Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Ryotwari
system, individual farmers (ryots) paid taxes
56. Who of the following rulers of medieval India directly to the government. There were no
gave permission to the Portuguese to build a explicit exemptions for bad harvests or
fort at Bhatkal?
natural calamities.
(a) Krishnadevaraya
▪ Statement 2 is correct. Under the Permanent
(b) Narasimha Saluva
Settlement, if the Zamindar failed to pay his
(c) Muhammad Shah III
(d) Yusuf Adil Shah revenue to the state on time, he could lose his
zamindari rights.
Answer: (a) Krishnadevaraya Reference- ClearIAS: Land Revenue Systems in
Explanation: British India: Zamindari, Ryotwari and
• Emperor Krishnadevaraya allowed the
Mahalwari
Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal in 1510,
but little of it survives today.
Reference- ClearIAS: Vijayanagara Kingdom 58. Consider the following statements:
1. There are no parables in Upanishads.
57. With reference to revenue collection by 2. Upanishads were composed earlier than
Cornwallis, consider the following statements: the Puranas.
1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of
revenue collection, the peasants were
correct?
exempted from revenue payment in
case of bad harvests or natural (a) 1 only
calamities. (b) 2 only
2. Under the Permanent Settlement in (c) Both 1 and 2
Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his (d) Neither 1 nor 2
revenues to the state, on or before the
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(d) Kumbh Mela
Answer: (b) 2 only Answer: (c) Garba dance
▪ Statement 1 is incorrect. The Upanishads do ▪ Garba Dance is the latest one which was
contain parables and stories used to illustrate included on 8th December 2023.
philosophical concepts. Reference- Clearias: UNESCO’s Intangible Cultural
▪ Statement 2 is correct. The Upanishads were Heritage (ICH)
composed earlier than the Puranas. 61. Who was the Provisional President of the
Reference- ClearIAS: Ancient Indian Literature Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra
Prasad took over?
59. Consider the following statements: (a) C.C. Rajagopalachari
1. India is a member of the International (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Grains Council. (c) T.T. Krishnamachari
2. A country needs to be a member of the (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
International Grains Council for
exporting or importing rice and wheat. Answer: (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Which of the statements given above is/are Explanation:
correct? ▪ Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the Provisional
(a) 1 only President of the Constituent Assembly before
(b) 2 only Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over as the
(c) Both 1 and 2 permanent President.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Reference- ClearIAS: Historical Background of
Indian Constitution
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation: 62. With reference to the Government of India Act,
▪ Statement 1 is correct. India is a member of the 1935, consider the following statements:
International Grains Council. 1. It provided for the establishment of an
▪ Statement 2 is incorrect. Membership in the All India Federation based on the union
International Grains Council is not a of the British Indian Provinces and
requirement for exporting or importing rice Princely States.
and wheat. 2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept
under the control of the federal
60. Which one of the following was the latest legislature.
inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage Which of the statements given above is/are
List of UNESCO? correct?
(a) Chhau dance (a) 1 only
(b) Durga Puja (b) 2 only
(c) Garba dance (c) Both 1 and 2
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Lalitavistara
Answer: (a) 1 only Answer: (c) Sarvastivada Vinaya
▪ Statement 1 is correct. The Government of
• Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk who
India Act, 1935, provided for the
traveled to China in the late 4th century AD,
establishment of an All India Federation,
which was to include both British Indian authored a commentary on the Sarvastivada
provinces and princely states. Vinaya.

▪ Statement 2 is incorrect. Defence and Foreign Reference- ClearIAS: Important Buddhist
Affairs were kept under the control of the terminologies
British government, not the federal
legislature.
65. Consider the following properties included in
Reference- ClearIAS: GoI Act 1935: Features and
the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:
Limitations
1. Shantiniketan
63. Which one of the following is a work 2. Rani ki Vav

attributed to playwright Bhasa? 3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
(a) Kavyalankara
4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at
(b) Natyashastra
Bodhgaya
(c) Madhyama-vyayoga
(d) Mahabhashya How many of the above properties were
included in 2023?
Answer: (c) Madhyama-vyayoga
(a) Only one
Explanation:
(b) Only two
▪ Madhyama-vyayoga is one of the plays
(c) Only three
attributed to the ancient Indian playwright
Bhasa. (d) All four
Reference- ClearIAS: Sanskrit Literature Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
64. Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who
▪ In 2023, both Shantiniketan and Sacred
travelled to China at the end of the fourth
Ensembles of the Hoysalas were included in
century AD, was the author of a commentary
the UNESCO World Heritage List. Rani ki Vav
on:
(a) Prajnaparamita Sutra and the Mahabodhi Temple Complex at
(b) Visuddhimagga Bodhgaya were included in previous years.

(c) Sarvastivada Vinaya
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Reference- ClearIAS: UNESCO’s World Heritage (b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 2 and 4 only
Sites: Names from India
(d) 3 and 5 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4
66. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India,
Explanation:
the Parliament may amend any provision of
▪ Italy, Japan, and South Korea are frequently
the Constitution by way of:
mentioned for their low birth rates and ageing
1. Addition
populations. Nigeria and South Africa do not
2. Variation
face the same demographic issues.
3. Repeal
Reference- ClearIAS: Ageing India: Concerns,
Concepts and Government Schemes
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
68. Which of the following statements is correct in
(b) 2 and 3 only
respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. Article 109 mentions a special
(d) 1, 2 and 3
procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in
the Council of States.
Explanation:
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the
▪ Article 368 of the Indian Constitution allows
Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject
the Parliament to amend the Constitution by
it.
addition, variation, or repeal of any provision.
Reference- Amendments of Indian Constitution - 4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested
ClearIAS by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted

by the Lok Sabha.
67. Consider the following countries: Select the answer using the code given below:
1. Italy (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Japan (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Nigeria (c) 1, 2 and 3
4. South Korea (d) 1, 3 and 4
5. South Africa Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the above countries are frequently Explanation:
mentioned in the media for their low birth ▪ Statement 1 is correct. Article 109 of the
rates, ageing of population, or declining Indian Constitution mentions the special
population? procedure for Money Bills.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
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▪ Statement 2 is correct. A Money Bill cannot be ▪ Brigadier in the Army is equivalent to Air
introduced in the Rajya Sabha (Council of Commodore in the Airforce and Commodore
States). in the Navy, not Commander.
▪ Statement 3 is correct. The Rajya Sabha can ▪ Major General in the Army is equivalent to Air
suggest changes to a Money Bill but cannot Vice Marshal in the Airforce and Rear Admiral
reject it. in the Navy, not Vice Admiral.
▪ Statement 4 is incorrect. The Lok Sabha is not ▪ Major in the Army is equivalent to Squadron
required to accept the amendments suggested Leader in the Airforce and Lieutenant
Commander in the Navy.
by the Rajya Sabha.
▪ Lieutenant Colonel in the Army is equivalent
Reference- ClearIAS: Bills and Procedures in the
to Wing Commander in the Airforce and
Parliament
Commander in the Navy, not Group Captain.
Reference- ClearIAS: Defense Forces and
69. Which one of the following is/are correctly
Paramilitary Forces of India
matched in terms of equivalent rank in the
three services of Indian Defence forces?
70. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was
Army Airforce Navy established by the North Eastern Council Act,
1. Brigadier Air Commander 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC
Commodore Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of
2. Major Air Vice Vice the following members?
General Marshal Admiral 1. Governor of the Constituent State

2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Major Squadron Lieutenant
3. Three Members to be nominated by the
Leader Commander
President of India
4. Lieutenant Group Captain
4. The Home Minister of India
Colonel Captain Select the correct answer using the code given
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Answer: (d) 3 only
▪ members of the North Eastern Council (NEC)
Explanation:
include Governors and Chief Ministers of the
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eight constituent states of Northeast India, Eighth Schedule. Maithili was added later by
along with three members nominated by the the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.
President of India. Reference- ClearIAS: Schedules of the Indian
71. How many Delimitation Commissions have Constitution
been constituted by the Government of India 73. Party - Its Leader:
till December 2023? 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh - Dr. Shyama
(a) One Prasad Mukherjee
(b) Two
2. Socialist Party - C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Three
3. Congress for Democracy - Jagjivan Ram
(d) Four
4. Swatantra Party - Acharya Narendra
Answer: (d) Four Dev
Explanation: How many of the above are correctly

▪ The Government of India has constituted four matched?
Delimitation Commissions till December (a) Only one
2023. These were established in the years (b) Only two
1952, 1963, 1973, and 2002. (c) Only three
Reference- ClearIAS: Delimitation Commission
(d) All four
72. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992

Answer: (b) Only two
amends the Eighth Schedule to the
Constitution to include which of the following Explanation:
languages? ▪ Bharatiya Jana Sangh was led by Dr. Shyama
1. Konkani Prasad Mukherjee (correct).
2. Manipuri ▪ Socialist Party was not led by C.
3. Nepali Rajagopalachari; he was associated with the
4. Maithili
Swatantra Party.
▪ Congress for Democracy was indeed led by
below:
Jagjivan Ram (correct).
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4 ▪ Swatantra Party was led by C. Rajagopalachari,
(c) 1, 3 and 4 not Acharya Narendra Dev.

(d) 2, 3 and 4 Reference- ClearIAS: Political Parties in India
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 74. Which of the following statements are correct
Explanation: about the Constitution of India?
▪ The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in
included Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali in the Part IX A of the Constitution
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2. Emergency provisions are given in Part
XVIII of the Constitution Answer: (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union
3. Provisions related to the amendment of
subject under the Union List.
the Constitution are given in Part XX of
the Constitution.
Explanation:
▪ Inter-State trade and commerce is not a State
below:
subject; it is regulated by the Union.
(a) 1 and 2 only
▪ Inter-State migration is also not a State
(b) 2 and 3 only
subject.
(c) 1 and 3 only
▪ Inter-State quarantine is indeed a Union
(d) 1, 2 and 3
subject under the Union List.
▪ Corporation tax is a Union subject under the
Union List.
Explanation:
Reference- ClearIAS: Functions and
▪ Powers of the Municipalities are indeed given
responsibilities of union and the states
in Part IX A of the Constitution.
▪ Emergency provisions are provided in Part
76. Under which of the following Articles of the
XVIII of the Constitution.
Constitution, has the Supreme Court of India
▪ Provisions related to the amendment of the
placed the Right to Privacy?
Constitution are found in Part XX.
(a) Article 15
Reference- ClearIAS: Indian Constitution Parts vs
(b) Article 16
Corresponding Articles
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 21
75. Which one of the following statements is
correct as per the Constitution of India?
Answer: (d) Article 21
(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a
Explanation:
State subject under the State List.
▪ The Supreme Court of India has placed the
(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject
Right to Privacy under Article 21, which
under the State List.
guarantees the right to life and personal
(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject
liberty. This was established in the landmark
under the Union List.
judgment of K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of
(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under
India (2017).
the State List.
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Reference- ClearIAS: Right to Privacy as a (b) Operation Maitri
Fundamental Right – Implications of (c) Operation Sadbhavana

(d) Operation Madad
the Verdict
77. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Answer: (c) Operation Sadbhavana
Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Explanation:
Military Affairs? ▪ Operation Sadbhavana is undertaken by the

1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Indian Army to uplift the local population in
Committee remote areas, including addressing their basic
2. Exercise military command over the needs.
three Service Chiefs
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence 79. The longest border between any two countries
Minister on all tri-service matters in the world is between:
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) Canada and the United States of America
below: (b) Chile and Argentina
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) China and India
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (a) Canada and the United States of
America
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Explanation:
▪ The longest international border in the world
▪ The CDS is the Permanent Chairman of the
is between Canada and the United States of
Chiefs of Staff Committee.
America, stretching approximately 8,891
▪ The CDS does not exercise military command
kilometers (5,525 miles).
over the three Service Chiefs.
▪ The CDS is the Principal Military Advisor to the
80. Which of the following statements about the
Defence Minister on all tri-service matters.
Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are
Reference- ClearIAS: Integrated Theatre
correct?
Commands: All you need to know
1. Initially, it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can
78. Operations undertaken by the Army towards
make a complaint relating to unethical
upliftment of the local population in remote
conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
areas to include addressing their basic needs
3. This Committee cannot take up any
is called:
matter which is sub-judice.
(a) Operation Sankalp
Select the answers using the code given below:
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(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only Explanation:
Explanation: ▪ Statement 1 is not correct regarding the 'Nari
Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':
▪ Statement 1 is correct. Initially, the Ethics
▪ The provisions will not come into effect from
Committee in the Lok Sabha was an ad-hoc
the 18th Lok Sabha.
Committee. ▪ The Act will be in force for 15 years after it
▪ Statement 2 is incorrect. Complaints can be becomes an Act.
made by anyone, not just a member of the Lok ▪ There are provisions for the reservation of
seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the
Sabha.
quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
▪ Statement 3 is correct. The Ethics Committee
Reference- ClearIAS: Women’s Reservation Bill
cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Reference- ClearIAS: Parliamentary Committees 82. Which of the following statements about
'Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023' are correct?
in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
1. This was a joint military exercise
between India and Bangladesh.
81. Consider the following statements regarding 2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’: 3. Joint response during counter-
1. Provisions will come into effect from terrorism operation was a goal of this
operation.
18th Lok Sabha.
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this
2. This will be in force for 15 years after
exercise.
becoming an Act. Select the answer using the code given below:
3. There are provisions for the reservation (a) 1, 2 and 3
of seats for Scheduled Castes Women (b) 1, 2 and 4
within the quota reserved for the (c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4
Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
Explanation:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 ▪ Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 was a joint
(b) 1 and 2 only military exercise between India and Sri Lanka,
not Bangladesh (statement 1 is incorrect).
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▪ The exercise commenced in Aundh (Pune). (a) 1 only
▪ The goal included a joint response during (b) 2 only
counter-terrorism operations. (c) Both 1 and 2
▪ The Indian Air Force was part of this exercise. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. A writ of prohibition is an order issued by the
Answer: (b) 2 only
Supreme Court or High Courts to:
Explanation:
(a) a government officer prohibiting him
▪ Statement 1 is incorrect. It is the President of
from taking a particular action.
(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to India who declares any community as a
pass a law on Prohibition. Scheduled Tribe, after consulting with the

(c) the lower court prohibiting state governor.
continuation of proceedings in a case. ▪ Statement 2 is correct. A community declared
(d) the government prohibiting it from
as a Scheduled Tribe in one state need not be
following an unconstitutional policy.
considered a Scheduled Tribe in another state.
Reference- ClearIAS: Scheduled Tribes in India –

Answer: (c) the lower court prohibiting
continuation of proceedings in a case Definition, Criteria, and Full List
Explanation:
▪ A writ of prohibition is issued by the Supreme 85. With reference to the Union Budget, consider
Court or High Courts to a lower court,
prohibiting it from continuing with
1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of
proceedings in a case that is beyond its
jurisdiction. the Prime Minister lays the Annual
Reference- ClearIAS: Writs in Indian Constituion Financial Statement before both the
Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a
1. It is the Governor of the State who
grant can be made except on the
recognizes and declares any community
recommendation of the President of
of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled India.
Tribe in a State need not be so in another Which of the statements given above is/are
State. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 2 only
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(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Sudan War between the country’s
regular army and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
paramilitary forces
3. Turkey Rescinded its membership
Answer: (b) 2 only
of NATO
Explanation:
▪ Statement 1 is incorrect. The Union Finance
correctly matched?
Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement
(a) Only one pair
(Union Budget) before both Houses of
(b) Only two pairs
Parliament on behalf of the President of India,
(c) All three pairs
not the Prime Minister.
(d) None of the pairs
▪ Statement 2 is correct. At the Union level, no
demand for a grant can be made except on the Answer: (b) Only two pairs
recommendation of the President of India. Explanation:
Reference- ClearIAS: Government Budgeting in ▪ Argentina has been in the news for its
India – The Process and Constitutional economic crisis.
Requirements ▪ Sudan has been in the news for the war
between its regular army and paramilitary
86. Who of the following is the author of the books forces.
“The Indian Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”? ▪ Turkey has not rescinded its membership of
(a) Bhupender Yadav NATO.
(b) Nalin Mehta

(c) Shashi Tharoor
Statement I:
(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian
Answer: (d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.
Explanation: Statement II:
▪ Subrahmanyam Jaishankar, the current Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the
External Affairs Minister of India, is the author Mediterranean Sea.

Which of the following is correct in respect of
of the books “The Indian Way” and “Why
Bharat Matters”. the above statements?
87. Consider the following pairs:
Statement I
Country Reason for being in the news
1. Argentina Worst Economic Crisis
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(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are ▪ Statement 1 is correct. The Red Sea region
correct, but Statement II does not receives very little precipitation.
explain Statement I
▪ While the Red Sea does not receive major river
inflows like some other seas or oceans, it does
is incorrect
receive some freshwater input from small
rivers and streams along its coastlines.
is correct
Reference- ClearIAS: Marginal seas of the world
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II
are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
Explanation:
90. According to the Environmental Protection
▪ Both statements are correct. The Sumed
Agency (EPA), which one of the following is
pipeline, also known as the Suez- the largest source of Sulphur Dioxide
Mediterranean pipeline, is a strategic route for emissions?
transporting oil from the Persian Gulf to (a) Locomotives using fossil fuels
(b) Ships using fossil fuels
Europe.
(c) Extraction of metals from ores
▪ It connects the Red Sea to the Mediterranean
(d) Power plants using fossil fuels
Sea, providing an alternative route to the Suez
Canal for oil shipments. Answer: (d) Power plants using fossil fuels
Explanation:
89. Consider the following statements: ▪ Power plants that burn fossil fuels, especially
coal, are the largest sources of sulfur dioxide
1. The Red Sea receives very little
(SO2) emissions. The combustion of fossil
precipitation in any form.
fuels in power plants releases a significant
2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.
amount of sulfur dioxide into the atmosphere.
correct? 91. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only Statement I:
There is instability and worsening security
(b) 2 only
situation in the Sahel region.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Statement II:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
There have been military takeovers/coups
d’etat in several countries of the Sahel region
Answer: (a) 1 only in the recent past.
Explanation: Which one of the following is correct in
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(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct and Statement II explains correct, but Statement II does not
Statement I
explain Statement I
is incorrect
explain Statement I
is incorrect is correct
is correct Answer: (d) Statement I is incorrect, but
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II Statement II is correct
are correct and Statement II explains Statement I Explanation:
Explanation: ▪ Statement I is incorrect. India does import
▪ Both statements are correct and apples from the United States.
interconnected. The instability and worsening ▪ Statement II is correct. Indian law does
security situation in the Sahel region are prohibit the import of genetically modified
partly due to recent military takeovers and food without the approval of the competent
coups in several countries within this region. authority.
Reference- ClearIAS: Sahel Region | Mapping |
ClearIAS 93. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok
Sabha, consider the following statements:
92. Consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of
Statement I: Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under
India does not import apples from the United consideration:
States of America.
1. He/She shall not preside.
Statement II:
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
In India, the law prohibits the import of
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on
Genetically Modified food without the
the resolution in the first instance.
approval of the competent authority.
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Statement I
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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▪ Statement 1 is correct. A bill pending in the
Answer: (a) 1 only Lok Sabha lapses upon its dissolution.
Explanation: ▪ Statement 2 is correct. A bill passed by the Lok
▪ Statement 1 is correct. The Speaker shall not Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses
preside while a resolution for his/her removal on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
is under consideration.
▪ Statement 3 is incorrect. If the President has
▪ Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. The Speaker
notified a joint sitting, the bill does not lapse
can speak and vote in the first instance as a
on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
member, but not as the presiding officer.
Reference- ClearIAS: Bills and Procedures in the
Reference- ClearIAS: Lok Sabha Speaker
Parliament
94. With reference to the Indian Parliament,
95. With reference to the Parliament of India,
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on 1. Prorogation of a House by the President
its dissolution. of India does not require the advice of
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and the Council of Ministers.
pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the 2. Prorogation of a House is generally done
after the House is adjourned sine die but
dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
there is no bar to the President of India
3. A bill in regard to which the President of
prorogating the House which is in
India notified his/her intention to
session.
summon the Houses to a joint sitting 3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by
lapse on the dissolution of the Lok the President of India who, save in
Sabha. exceptional circumstances, does so on
Which of the statements given above is/are the advice of the Council of Ministers.
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only (d) 3 only
Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2
Explanation:
Explanation:
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▪ Statement 1 is incorrect. The prorogation of a
House by the President of India is generally Answer: (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement
done on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
II is incorrect
▪ Statement 2 is correct. Prorogation is
Explanation:
generally done after the House is adjourned
▪ Statement I is correct. The European
sine die, but the President can prorogue the
Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry
House even if it is in session.
▪ Statement 3 is correct. The dissolution of the Act recently.
Lok Sabha is done by the President, usually on ▪ Statement II is incorrect. The European Union
the advice of the Council of Ministers. aims to achieve carbon neutrality by 2050, not
Reference- ClearIAS: Adjournment, Prorogation, 2040.
and Dissolution: Know the Difference
96. Consider the following statements: 97. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Statement I:
The European Parliament approved The Net- Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid
Zero Industry Act recently. recovery from its economic crisis and
Statement II: succeeded in preventing its people from
The European Union intends to achieve fleeing/emigrating to other countries.
carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims Statement II:
to develop all of its own clean technology by Venezuela has the world's largest oil reserves.
that time. Which one of the following is correct in

Statement I
Statement I
explain Statement I
explain Statement I
is incorrect
is incorrect is correct
is correct
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Answer: (d) Statement I is incorrect, but ▪ Statement 1 incorrect. The earlier National
Statement II is correct Land Records Modernization Programme
Explanation: (NILRMP), approved in 2008 as a centrally
▪ Statement I is incorrect. Venezuela has not Sponsored Scheme, has been revamped as the
achieved a rapid recovery from its economic Digital India Land Records Modernization
crisis, and many of its people continue to flee Programme (DILRMP) a Central Sector
to other countries due to the ongoing Scheme with 100% Central Government
economic hardships and political instability. funding with effect from 1st April 2016.
▪ Statement II is correct. Venezuela indeed has
▪ Statement 2 is correct. The scheme includes
the world's largest oil reserves.
the digitisation of Cadastral Maps.
▪ Statement 3 is correct. There is an initiative to
transliterate the Records of Rights from local
languages to any of the languages recognized
98, With reference to the Digital India Land
by the Constitution of India.
Records Modernisation Programme, consider Reference- ClearIAS- National Land Records
the following statements: Modernization Programme
1. To implement the scheme, the central 99. With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri
government provides 100% funding. Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan', consider the
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are following statements:
digitised. 1. This scheme guarantees a minimum
3. An initiative has been undertaken to package of antenatal care services to
transliterate the Records of Rights from women in their second and third
local languages to any of the languages trimesters of pregnancy and six months
recognized by the Constitution of India. post-delivery health care service in any
Which of the statements given above are government health facility.

2. Under this scheme, private sector health
correct?
care providers of certain specialties can
(a) 1 and 2 only
volunteer to provide services at nearby
(b) 2 and 3 only
government health facilities.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Explanation:
(c) Both 1 and 2
ClearIAS
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 per month after attaining the age of 60
years.
4. Family pension is applicable to the
Answer: (b) 2 only
spouse and unmarried daughters.
Explanation:
▪ Statement 1 is incorrect. The scheme
correct?
guarantees a minimum package of antenatal
(a) 1, 3 and 4
care services to women in their second and
(b) 2 and 3 only
third trimesters of pregnancy, but it does not
(c) 2 only
explicitly include six months post-delivery (d) 1, 2 and 4
health care services.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
▪ Statement 2 is correct. Private sector health
care providers of certain specialties can Explanation:
volunteer to provide services at nearby ▪ Statement 1 is incorrect. The entry age group
government health facilities under this
for enrolment in the PM-SYM scheme is 18 to
scheme.
40 years.
Reference- ClearIAS: Anemia Mukt Bharat
▪ Statement 2 is correct. Age-specific
100, With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram contributions are made by the beneficiary.
Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider
▪ Statement 3 is correct. Each subscriber
1. The entry age group for enrolment in receives a minimum pension of ₹3,000 per
the scheme is 21 to 40 years. month after attaining the age of 60 years.

2. Age specific contribution shall be made
▪ Statement 4 is incorrect. Family pension is
by the beneficiary.
3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall applicable to the spouse only, not to
receive a minimum pension of ₹3,000 unmarried daughters.
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ClearIAS
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ClearIAS

All Questions Solved With

1. Consider the following statements: ▪ Statement II is correct as carbon dioxide and

respect of the above statements? Statement I:

volcanic eruptions? Explanation:

(c) Only three of warmer land temperatures compared to the

Explanation: Atlantic Drift make the adjacent areas warmer,

eruptions. Nitrogen compounds are not in the Earth’s Atmosphere

Explanation: Region Name of the Type of

(d) None Answer: Only two

Explanation: as it is located in Europe and is a block

actually on the Sharavathi River, not the Reference- ClearIAS: Mountains

Netravati, and is located in the Western Ghats.

1. Donya Polo Airport Explanation:

(c) 1 and 3 only Reference: ClearIAS: Water In The Atmosphere:

13. Consider the following description:

decreases with altitude. Answer: (d) Marine West Coast climate

(c) Both 1 and 2 cm - and 250 cm.

force increases with an increase in wind

the equator. from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction

types global climate. Which one of the following

latitude(s) experiences (s) sunlight of more (b) Congo Basin

than 12 hours? (c) Kikori Basin

1. Equator (d) Rio de la Plata Basin

4. Arctic Circle Explanation:

below: largest tropical peatland, which contains

(a) 1 only significant amounts of carbon. Its destruction

(b) 2 only could release large quantities of carbon into

(c) 3 and 4 the atmosphere, contributing to climate

(d) 2 and 4 change.

(b) 2 and 3 only are parasitoids). However, centipedes and

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

▪ PFAS are indeed widespread in drinking 2. Horse-gram

18. Consider the following: Answer: (c) Only three

(d) It is a platform with a mission of ▪ Distributed Energy Resources (DERs) include

Product Organisations or Agribusiness to the grid at distribution level. Battery

deter predators. correct?

▪ Certain fish, like pufferfish, contain potent (a) 1 and 2 only

▪ Statement 3 is correct because Plutonium-

(a) 1 and 2 only Economic activity Sector

(b) 2 and 3 only 1. Storage of Secondary

(c) 1 and 3 only agricultural produce

(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Dairy farm Primary

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 4. Weaving cloth Secondary

Secondary sector (manufacturing). (a) Only one

Reference- ClearIAS: Sectors of the Economy: (b) Only two

46. Consider the following materials: Answer: (b) Only two

most appropriately used to denote “an Explanation:

to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Explanation:

compromised by a default, the ability to claim sum or a revolving credit line.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4 55. Consider the following information:

Reference- ClearIAS: e-RUPI: Digital Payment information correctly matched?

Instrument (a) 1 and 2

provinces and princely states. Vinaya.

63. Which one of the following is a work 2. Rani ki Vav

(b) Visuddhimagga Bodhgaya were included in previous years.

ClearIAS by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted

General Marshal Admiral 1. Governor of the Constituent State

(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) Four Dev

Explanation: How many of the above are correctly

72. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992

(c) 1, 3 and 4 not Acharya Narendra Dev.