ME 8391 Engineering Thermodynamics MCQ 2020

Department of Mechanical Engineering MCQ for Regulations 2017
c) macroscopic potential energy

d) microscopic potential energy
Answer: c
UNIT I BASIC CONCEPTS
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Explanation: The above formula gives the
AND FIRST LAW macroscopic potential energy of the fluid
element by virtue of its position.
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TOPIC 1.1 BASIC CONCEPTS - 5. Which of the following types of energy can
CONCEPT OF CONTINUUM, be present in molecules?
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COMPARISON OF a) translational and rotational kinetic energy
b) electronic energy and vibrational energy
MICROSCOPIC AND
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c) chemical energy and nuclear energy
MACROSCOPIC APPROACH. d) all of the mentioned
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1. Energy is a Answer: d
a) point function Explanation: The molecules may be
b) property of the system subjected to rotation as well as vibration due
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c) extensive property to a collision.
d) all of the mentioned
6. The total internal energy of the system is
Answer: d given by
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Explanation: Energy has a definite value for a) U=N/ɛ
every state of the system. b) U=Nɛ
c) U=ɛ/N
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2. The specific energy, e=E/m is an extensive d) none of the mentioned

property.
a) true Answer: b
b) false Explanation: U=Nɛ where N is the total
.B
number of molecules in the system and ɛ

Answer: b represents the energy of one molecule.
Explanation: The specific energy is an
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intensive property. 7. In an ideal gas there are no intermolecular

forces of attraction and repulsion, and the
3. (m*V*V)/2 gives the internal energy is a function of temperature
a) macroscopic kinetic energy only.
a) true
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b) microscopic kinetic energy

c) macroscopic potential energy b) false
d) microscopic potential energy
Answer: a
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Answer: a Explanation: For an ideal gas U depends

Explanation: The formula gives the only on T.
macroscopic kinetic energy of the fluid
element by virtue of its motion. 8. Which of the following is true in regard to
the energy of an isolated system?
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4. (m*g*z) gives the a) dQ≠0

a) macroscopic kinetic energy b) dW≠0
b) microscopic kinetic energy
Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 1

c) E=constant Answer: a
d) all of the mentioned Explanation: For two reversible paths, dQ/T
doesn’t depend on the path taken.
Answer: c
Explanation: For an isolated system, 2. Integral of dQ/T of a reversible path is
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dQ=dW=0 and hence, dE=0 by first law. given by
a) Si-Sf
9. A perpetual motion machine of first kind b) Sf-Si
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a) is a fictitious machine c) Si+Sf
b) can supply mechanical work without d) -Si-Sf
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dissipating energy
c) violates first law Answer: b
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d) all of the mentioned Explanation: Integral of dQ/T is = Sf-Si
where i=initial equilibrium state and f=final
Answer: d equilibrium state.
Explanation: There cannot be any machine
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which would continuously supply mechanical 3. Entropy is a
energy without other form of energy being a) path function, intensive property
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dissipated. b) path function, extensive property
c) point function, intensive property
10. The limitation of the first law is d) point function, extensive property
a) does not indicate the possibility of a
spontaneous process proceeding in a definite Answer: d
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direction Explanation: Fact about entropy and unit of
b) it assigns a quality to different forms of entropy is J/K.
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energy
c) indicates the direction of any spontaneous 4. Specific entropy is given by( where m is
process the mass)
d) none of the mentioned a) Sm
b) m/S
.B
Answer: a c) S/m
Explanation: This is the main limitation of d) none of the mentioned
first law and the second law overcomes it.
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Answer: c
Explanation: s=S/m with unit J/kg K.
TOPIC 1.2 PATH AND POINT
FUNCTIONS. INTENSIVE AND 5. For any process which is undergone by a
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EXTENSIVE, TOTAL AND system

SPECIFIC QUANTITIES. a) dQ/T>=ds
b) dQ/T<=ds
SYSTEM AND THEIR TYPES. c) dQ/T≠ds
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d) none of the mentioned

1. Integral of dQ/T is independent of
reversible path connecting between two Answer: b
points. Explanation: For any process dQ/T<=ds and
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a) true this comes from Clausius theorem.

b) false
6. For a reversible process,
a) dS=dQ/T

b) dS>dQ/T because S is a point function and a property.

c) dS<dQ/T
TOPIC 1.3 THERMODYNAMIC
Answer: a EQUILIBRIUM STATE, PATH
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Explanation: For a reversible process, dQ/T AND PROCESS. QUASI-STATIC,
is equal to the net change in entropy. REVERSIBLE AND
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7. For an irreversible process, IRREVERSIBLE PROCESSES.
a) dS=dQ/T
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b) dS>dQ/T 1. A reversible process is performed in such a
c) dS<dQ/T way that
a) at the conclusion of process, both system
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and surroundings can be restored to their
Answer: b initial states without producing any change
Explanation: For a irreversible process, b) it should not leave any trace to show that
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change in entropy is greater than dQ/T. the process had ever occurred
c) it is carried out infinitely slowly
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8. For two different paths between same two d) all of the mentioned
points, entropy change is
a) depends on path taken Answer: d
b) different Explanation: These are some basic concepts
c) same
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of a reversible process.
2. A reversible process coincides with a
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Answer: c quasi-static process.

Explanation: This is because entropy is a a) true
property. b) false
9. For the general case, we can write Answer: a

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a) S2-S1<=dQ/T for a path Explanation: A reversible process is carried

b) S2-S1>=dQ/T for a path out very slowly and every state it passes
c) S2-S1≠dQ/T for a path through is an equilibrium state.
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3. Irreversibility of a process may be due to
Answer: b a) lack of equilibrium during the process
Explanation: The equality sign holds good b) involvement of dissipative effects
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for a reversible process and the inequality c) both of the mentioned

sign for an irreversible process. d) none of the mentioned
10. When two equilibrium states are Answer: c

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infinitesimally near, Explanation: These two are the major causes

a) dQ/T=dS of irreversibility.
b) dQ/T>dS
c) dQ/T<dS 4. A heat transfer process approaches
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d) none of the mentioned reversibility as the temperature difference

between two bodies approaches
Answer: a a) infinity
Explanation: dS is an exact differential

b) zero lubrication cannot be completely eliminated.

c) -1
d) 1 9. The friction present in moving devices
makes a process reversible.
Answer: b a) true
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Explanation: For heat transfer to be b) false
reversible, heat must be transferred through
an infinitesimal temperature difference. Answer: b
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Explanation: Friction lakes the process
5. All actual heat transfer processes are irreversible.
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a) irreversible
b) take place through a finite temperature 10. Which of the following is irreversible?
a) stirring work
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difference
c) both of the mentioned b) friction work in moving devices
d) none of the mentioned c) current flowing through a wire
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Answer: c
Explanation: An infinitesimal temperature Answer: d
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difference is not easy to attain. Explanation: All these processes includes a
particular cause of irreversibility.
6. Free expansion is irreversible.
a) true 11. A process will be reversible if it has
b) false a) no dissipative effects
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b) dissipative effects
Answer: a c) depends on the given conditions
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Explanation: It can be demonstrated by the d) none of the mentioned

second law.
Answer: a
7. Which of the following can be a cause of Explanation: Without any dissipative effects,
irreversibility? a process can perform in a reversible manner.
.B
a) friction, viscosity
b) inelasticity 12. Irreversibility can be distinguished in how
c) electrical resistance, magnetic hysteresis many types?
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d) all of the mentioned a) 0

b) 1
Answer: d c) 2
Explanation: These effects are known as d) 3
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dissipative effects.
Answer: c
8. The continual motion of a movable device Explanation: Tow types of irreversibility are
in the complete absence of friction is known internal and external irreversibility.
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as
a) PMM2 13. Internal irreversibility is caused by
b) PMM3 a) internal dissipative effects
c) PMM1 b) friction, turbulence
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d) PMM0 c) electrical resistance, magnetic hysteresis

Answer: b
Explanation: This is not possible since

Answer: d it acts upon a body moving in the direction of

Explanation: Internal dissipative effects are the force.
the major cause of internal irreversibility.
2. Work done by a system is taken to be
14. The external irreversibility occurs at the a) positive
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system boundary. b) negative
a) true c) zero
b) false d) varies according to situation
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Answer: a Answer: a
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Explanation: This mainly includes heat Explanation: In thermodynamics, work done
interaction with the surroundings due to a by a system is take to be positive.
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finite temperature gradient.
3. Work done on a system is taken to be
15. Which of the following is true? a) positive
a) mechanical irreversibility is due to finite b) negative
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pressure gradient c) zero
b) thermal irreversibility is due to finite d) varies according to situation
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temperature gradient
c) chemical irreversibility is due to finite Answer: b
concentration gradient Explanation: In thermodynamics, work done
d) all of the mentioned on a system is take to be negative.
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Answer: d 4. Work is a
Explanation: These are some other a) point function
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distinctions of irreversibility. b) path function

c) depends on the state
TOPIC 1.4 HEAT AND WORK
TRANSFER, DEFINITION AND Answer: b
.B
COMPARISON, SIGN Explanation: Amount of work done depends

CONVENTION. on the path the system follows.
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DISPLACEMENT WORK AND 5. Thermodynamic properties are

OTHER MODES OF WORK a) point function
b) path function
1. The magnitude of mechanical work is the c) depends on the state
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a) product of the force and distance travelled d) none of the mentioned

perpendicular to the force
b) product of the force and distance travelled Answer: a
Explanation: For a given state there is a
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parallel to the force

c) sum of the force and distance travelled definite value for each property.
perpendicular to the force
6. The differentials of point functions are
d) sum of the force and distance travelled
a) perfect differentials
parallel to the force
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b) exact differentials
Answer: b c) all of the mentioned
Explanation: The work is done by a force as d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c 1. Which of the following is a property of a

Explanation: Change in thermodynamic pure substance?
property is independent of path and depends a) it has constant chemical composition
only on initial and final states of the system. throughout its mass
b) it is a one-component system
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7. In the equation dV=(1/p)dW, (1/p) is c) it may exist in one or more phases
known as d) all of the mentioned
a) volume factor
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b) pressure factor Answer: d
c) differential factor Explanation: These are some of the
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d) integration factor properties of a pure substance.
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Answer: d 2. For water, as temperature increases,
Explanation: Used to convert inexact volume always increases?
differential dW into exact differential dV. a) true
b) false
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8. Cyclic integral of a property is always
a) zero Answer: b
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b) one Explanation: From 0 degree Celsius to 4
c) infinite value degree Celsius as temperature increases,
d) none of the mentioned volume of water decreases which is a
peculiarity of water.
Answer: a
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Explanation: The initial and final states of 3. A saturation state is a state from which a
the system for a cyclic process are the same. change of phase may occur
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a) without a change of pressure or

9. Constant pressure process is also known as temperature
a) isopiestic process b) with a change of pressure or temperature
b) isobaric process c) both of the mentioned
c) all of the mentioned
.B

Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: For example, water at 0 degree
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Explanation: Isobaric and isopiestic means Celsius and at 100 degree Celsius.
pressure being constant.
4. In which of the following state does water
10. Work done in a quasi-static process exist?
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a) depends on the path followed a) saturated solid state

b) independent of the path followed b) saturated liquid state
c) depends only on the initial and final states c) saturated vapour state
d) none of the mentioned d) all of the mentioned
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Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: This is because work done is a Explanation: Water exists in these states at 0
path function. degree Celsius and at 100 degree Celsius.
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5. Which of the following exists in a p-V

TOPIC 1.5 P-V DIAGRAM. diagram for water?

a) saturated solid line 9. The isotherm passing through the critical

b) saturated liquid lines point is called the critical isotherm.
c) saturated vapour line a) true
d) all of the mentioned b) false
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Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: The p-V diagram for water has Explanation: At critical point, all the
all these three lines. quantities like pressure, temperature and
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volume attain their critical values.
6. The triple point is a line on the p-V
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diagram, where all the three phases, solid, 10. The greater the temperature, the ____ is
liquid and gas exist. the vapour pressure.
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a) true a) lower
b) false b) higher
c) depends on the substance
Answer: a d) none of the mentioned
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Explanation: At triple point, all these three
phases exists in equilibrium. Answer: b
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Explanation: The vapour pressure mainly
7. At a pressure below the triple point line, depends on the temperature.
a) the substance cannot exist in the liquid
phase 11. Phase change occurs at
b) the substance when heated transforms from a) constant pressure
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solid to vapour b) constant temperature
c) both of the mentioned c) constant pressure and temperature
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d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: This phenomenon is known as Explanation: For phase change, pressure and
sublimation and takes place by absorbing the temperature must be constant like water at 0
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latent heat of sublimation from the degree Celsius and at 100 degree Celsius.
surroundings.
12. Which of the following statement is true?
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8. Which of the following statement is true? a) saturation temperature is a function of

a) to the left of saturated solid line is the solid pressure
region b) saturation pressure is a function of
b) between saturated solid line and saturated temperature
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liquid line with respect to solidification there c) both of the mentioned

exists the solid-liquid mixture region d) none of the mentioned
c) between two saturated liquid lines is the
compressed liquid region Answer: c
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d) all of the mentioned Explanation: At saturation temperature, a

pure liquid transforms into vapour and at
Answer: d saturation pressure, the liquid boils.
Explanation: These statements come from
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the p-V diagram for a pure substance.

TOPIC 1.6 ZEROTH LAW OF
THERMODYNAMICS -

CONCEPT OF TEMPERATURE 5. If a system undergoes a reversible

AND THERMAL EQUILIBRIUM- isothermal process without transfer of heat,
the temperature at which this process takes
RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN place is called
TEMPERATURE SCALES -NEW a) absolute zero
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TEMPERATURE SCALES. b) triple point of water
c) boiling point of water
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1. It is necessary to have a temperature
difference to obtain work of any cycle. Answer: a
a) true
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Explanation: The smallest possible value of
b) false Q which is the amount of heat supply is zero
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Answer: a and the corresponding temperature is zero.
Explanation: It comes from the second law
6. At absolute zero, an isotherm and an
of thermodynamics.
adiabatic are identical.
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a) true
2. The absolute thermodynamic temperature
b) false
scale is also known as
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a) celsius scale
Answer: a
b) kelvin scale
Explanation: At absolute zero, there is no
c) fahrenheit scale
heat transfer.
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7. A definite zero point ___ on the absolute
Answer: b
temperature scale but this point ___ be
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Explanation: It was proposed by Kelvin.

reached ___ violation of the second law.
a) doesnot, can, without
3. In defining the temperature scale, the
b) exists, cannot, without
standard reference point is taken as
c) exists, can, with
a) zero kelvin
.B

b) boiling point of water
c) triple point of water
Answer: b
Explanation: When the heat rejected
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Answer: c approaches zero, the temperature of heat

Explanation: Triple point of water is taken as rejection approaches zero as a limit.
the standard reference point. 8. Which law is stated here, “It is impossible
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to reduce any system to the absolute zero of

4. When the heat transferred isothermally
temperature in a finite number of operations.
between the given _____ decreases, the
temperature ____ a) first law of thermodynamics
b) second law of thermodynamics
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a) isotherms, increases
b) isotherms, decreases c) third law of thermodynamics
c) adiabatics, increases d) none of the mentioned
d) adiabatics, decreases Answer: c
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Explanation: Any attainable value of

Answer: d
absolute temperature is always greater than
Explanation: This comes from the equation,
zero.
T=(273.16)(Q/Q1).

9. The statement of third law is also called the done

Fowler-Guggenheim statement of the third b) Internal Energy= Heat rejected into work
law. done
a) true c) Internal Energy= Heat added divided by
b) false work done
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d) Internal Energy=Heat added plus work
Answer: a done
Explanation: This is a fact about third law of
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thermodynamics. Answer: d
Explanation: It is a thermodynamic
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10. The Kelvin temperature is numerically expression which gives a relationship
equal to the _____ and may be measured by between internal energy, heat and work done.
T.
means of a _____ Work done on the system is positive, and
a) gas temperature, liquid thermometer work done by the system is negative. The
b) ideal gas temperature, gas thermometer standard unit of all these quantities is Joule.
c) ideal gas temperature, liquid thermometer
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d) none of the mentioned 3. During a fluid flow, the temperature is
developed due to________
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Answer: b a) Increase in density
Explanation: θ=T=273.16K . b) Change in pressure
c) Translational Kinetic Energy
TOPIC 1.7 FIRST LAW OF d) Fluid level
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THERMODYNAMICS - Answer: c
APPLICATION TO CLOSED Explanation: When there is a high rate of
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AND OPEN SYSTEMS - STEADY fluid flow, the molecules tend to collide with
AND UNSTEADY FLOW each other. At this state, the average
translational kinetic energy of the particles
PROCESSES. increases. The temperature developed due to
.B
this is called as Kinetic temperature.

1. First law of thermodynamics deals with
_______ 4. The equation for the average kinetic energy
a) Conservation of mass is_________
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b) Conservation of momentum a) 0.5 KT

c) Conservation of energy b) 1.5 KT
d) Conservation of pressure c) 2.5 KT
d) 3.5 KT
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Answer: c
Explanation: First law corresponds to the law Answer: b
of conservation of energy. It states that energy Explanation: The equation for kinetic energy
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can neither be created nor destroyed, but can is 0.5mv2, where m= mass and v= velocity.
be transformed from one form to the other. It This equation corresponds to 1.5 KT, where
follows the principle of heat transfer and K=Boltzmann’s constant and R= Gas
energy transfer. constant.
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2. Equation of the first law of 5. An increase in enthalpy leads to an

thermodynamics is ________ increase in __________
a) Internal Energy= Heat added into work a) Increase in pressure

b) Increase in volume c) Joule/kg

c) Increase in internal energy d) K/kg
d) Increase in mass
Answer: c
Answer: c Explanation: Enthalpy is defined as a
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Explanation: When the temperature measurement of energy in a thermodynamic
increases, the amount of molecular system. It is equal to the internal energy plus
interactions also increases. Using the equation the product of volume and pressure. Thus,
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from the first law of thermodynamics, giving a unit of Joule/kg.
internal energy also increases with the
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increase in temperature. Thus, increase in 9. Which among this is not an exothermic
enthalpy leads to an increase in internal reaction?
T.
energy. a) Combustion reaction
b) Neutralization reaction
6. Entropy occurs due to _______ c) Thermite reaction
a) Change in macroscopic variables d) Evaporating liquid water
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b) Volumetric changes only
c) Mass changes only Answer: d
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d) Temperature only Explanation: Exothermic reaction is a
reaction that releases energy by either light or
Answer: a heat. It is the opposite of endothermic
Explanation: Entropy is related to a number reactions. In this case, evaporating liquid
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of microscopic configurations. It can have water is an endothermic reaction.
some of the most specified macroscopic Endothermic reaction is a reaction in which
variables. These macroscopic variables the system absorbs heat from its
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undergo changes, which lead to a disorder or surroundings.

randomness.
10. What reaction takes place during
7. What is the equation of entropy? photosynthesis?
.B
a) Ratio of reversible transfer of heat to a) Exothermic reaction

absolute temperature b) Endothermic reaction
b) Ratio of absolute temperature to reversible c) Redox reaction
heat transfer d) Combustion reaction
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c) Ratio of adiabatic heat to macroscopic

variables Answer: b
d) Ratio of macroscopic variables to adiabatic Explanation: Photosynthesis takes place by
heat absorbing heat and energy from the
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surroundings. Since, endothermic reaction is

Answer: a a reaction in which the system absorbs heat
Explanation: This equation was defined by from its surroundings, the reaction that takes
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Rudolf Clausius, who defined entropy as a place during photosynthesis is an

ratio of reversible heat transfer to that of its endothermic reaction.
absolute temperature. This definition is also
called the macroscopic definition of entropy.
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8. SI unit of enthalpy is_______

a) Joule/kgK UNIT II SECOND LAW
b) Joule/K
AND AVAILABILITY

ANALYSIS transfer from the system

b) net heat transfer from the system and net
work transfer to the system
TOPIC 2.1 HEAT RESERVOIR, c) depends on the conditions of cycle
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SOURCE AND SINK. HEAT
ENGINE, REFRIGERATOR, Answer: a
HEAT PUMP. Explanation: This is the basic concept of
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cycle heat engine.
1. The first law of thermodynamics doesn’t
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tell us whether a thermodynamic process is 5. Boiler, turbine, condenser and pump
feasible or not. together constitute a heat engine.
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a) true a) true
b) false b) false
Answer: a Answer: a
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Explanation: The second law of Explanation: It is an example for a cyclic
thermodynamics provides criterion as to the heat engine.
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probability of a process.
6. In a heat engine cycle, which of the
2. According to Joule’s experiments, following process occurs?
a) heat can be completely converted into a) heat is transferred from furnace to boiler
b) work is produced in turbine rotor
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work
b) work can be completely converted into c) steam is condensed in condenser
heat d) all of the mentioned
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c) both heat and work are completely

Answer: d
interchangeable
Explanation: These are the basic processes
occurring in a heat engine cycle comprising
of furnace, boiler condenser and a turbine.
.B
Answer: b
Explanation: Work transfer -> internal
7. The function of a heat engine cycle is to
energy increase -> heat transfer.
_____ continuously at the expense of _____
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3. Which of the following is true? to the system.

a) work is a high grade energy a) heat input, produce work
b) heat is a low grade energy b) produce work, heat input
c) complete conversion of low grade energy c) can be both of the mentioned
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into high grade energy in a cycle is d) none of the mentioned

impossible
Answer: b
Explanation: Net work and heat input are of
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Answer: d primary interest in a cycle.

Explanation: These facts are in accordance
8. Efficiency of a heat engine is defined as
with Joule’s work and underlies the work of
a) total heat output / net work input
Carnot.
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b) total heat input / net work output

4. In a cyclic heat engine there is c) net work output / total heat input
a) net heat transfer to the system and net work d) net work input / total heat output

Answer: c TOPIC 2.2 STATEMENTS OF

Explanation: Basic definition of efficiency.
SECOND LAW AND ITS
9. A thermal energy reservoir is a large body COROLLARIES. CARNOT
of CYCLE REVERSED CARNOT
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a) small heat capacity
CYCLE, PERFORMANCE.
b) large heat capacity
c) infinite heat capacity CLAUSIUS INEQUALITY.
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1. Carnot cycle is a reversible cycle.
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Answer: c a) true
Explanation: Basic fact about TER. b) false
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10. Processes inside a thermal energy Answer: a
reservoir are quasi-static. Explanation: A reversible cycle is an ideal
a) true hypothetical cycle in which all processes are
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b) false reversible.
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Answer: a 2. A reversible cycle has following processes.
Explanation: The changes taking place in a) 4 isothermal processes
TER are very slow and minute. b) 4 adiabatic processes
c) 2 isothermal and 2 adiabatic processes
11. A TER which transfers heat to system is
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called ____ and one which receives heat is
called ____ Answer: c
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a) source, sink Explanation: Two reversible isotherms and

b) sink, source two reversible adiabatics constitute a Carnot
c) sink, sink cycle.
d) source, source
.B
3. The correct sequence of the processes

Answer: a taking place in a carnot cycle is
Explanation: A source transfers heat while a a) adiabatic -> adiabatic -> isothermal ->
sink receives heat. isothermal
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b) adiabatic -> isothermal -> adiabatic ->

12. Which if the following statements are true isothermal
for a mechanical energy reservoir(MER)? c) isothermal -> isothermal -> adiabatic ->
a) it is a large body enclosed by an adiabatic adiabatic
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impermeable wall d) isothermal -> adiabatic -> isothermal ->

b) stores work as KE or PE adiabatic
c) all processes within an MER are quasi-
static Answer: d
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d) all of the mentioned Explanation: Carnot cycle consists if these

four processes in succession.
Answer: d
Explanation: These are some important 4. The reversed heat engine takes heat from a
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features of an MER. ___ temperature body, then discharges it to a

___ temperature body and ___ an inward
flow of network.

a) high, low, receives b) 1-(T2/T1)

b) low, high, receives c) (T1/T2)-1
c) high, low, gives d) (T2/T1)-1
d) low, high, gives
Answer: b
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Answer: b Explanation: Efficiency=1-(Q2/Q1) and
Explanation: In reversed heat engine, the T2,T1 are temperatures at which heat is
magnitude of energy transfers remains same rejected and received.
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and only directions change.
9. For a reversible refrigerator, Coefficient of
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5. Example of reversed heat engine is Performance is given by
a) heat pump a) T2/(T1-T2)
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b) refrigerator b) T1/(T1-T2)
c) both of the mentioned c) T2/(T2-T1)
d) none of the mentioned d) T1/(T2-T1)
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Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: Heat pump and refrigerator are Explanation: For a reversible refrigerator,
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the types of reversed heat engine. (Q1/Q2)=(T1/T2).
6. According to Carnot’s theorem, all heat 10. For a reversible heat pump, COP is given
engines operating between a given constant by
temperature source and sink, none has a a) T2/(T1-T2)
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higher efficiency than a reversible engine. b) T1/(T1-T2)
a) true c) T2/(T2-T1)
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b) false d) T1/(T2-T1)
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: This is the statement of Explanation: For a reversible heat pump we
Carnot’s theorem . have, (Q1/Q2)=(T1/T2).
.B
7. The efficiency of all reversible heat

engines operating between the same heat TOPIC 2.3 CONCEPT OF
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reservoirs is ENTROPY, T-S DIAGRAM, TDS

a) same EQUATIONS, ENTROPY
b) independent of the nature of working CHANGE FOR - PURE
substance
SUBSTANCE, IDEAL GASES -
-R
c) independent of the amount of working

substance DIFFERENT PROCESSES,
d) all of the mentioned PRINCIPLE OF INCREASE IN
ENTROPY.
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Answer: d
Explanation: This statement is a corollary of
Carnot’s theorem. 1. Which of the following is true?
a) for an isolated system, dS>=0
C
8. Efficiency of a reversible heat engine is b) for a reversible process, dS=0

given by c) for an irreversible process, dS>0
a) 1-(T1/T2) d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d maximum
Explanation: For an isolated system which c) both of the mentioned
does not undergo any energy interaction with d) none of the mentioned
the surroundings, dQ=0 and also dS>=dQ/T.
Answer: c
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2. The entropy of an isolated system can Explanation: These two statements were
never ____ given by Clausius.
a) increase
O
b) decrease 6. The entropy of an isolated system always
c) be zero ____ and becomes a ____ at the state of
C
d) none of the mentioned equilibrium.
a) decreases, minimum
T.
Answer: b b) increases, maximum
Explanation: The entropy of an isolated c) increases, minimum
system always increases and remains constant d) decreases, maximum
only when the process is reversible.
O
Answer: b
3. According to entropy principle, the entropy Explanation: If entropy of an isolated system
SP
of an isolated system can never decrease and varies with some parameter, then there is a
remains constant only when the process is certain value of that parameter which
reversible. maximizes the entropy.
a) true
7. Entropy principle is the quantitative
G
b) false
statement of the second law of
Answer: a thermodynamics.
LO
Explanation: This is the statement for the a) true

principle of increase of entropy. b) false
4. Entropy may decrease locally at some Answer: a

region within the isolated system. How can Explanation: This is a general fact about
.B
this statement be justified? entropy principle.

a) this cannot be possible
b) this is possible because entropy of an 8. Which of the following can be considered
17
isolated system can decrease. as an application of entropy principle?

c) it must be compensated by a greater a) transfer of heat through a finite
increase of entropy somewhere within the temperature difference
system. b) mixing of two fluids
-R
d) none of the mentioned c) maximum temperature obtainable from two

finite bodies
Answer: c d) all of the mentioned
Explanation: The net effect of an irreversible
SE
process is an entropy increase of the whole Answer: d

system. Explanation: These are some basic
applications of entropy principle.
5. Clausius summarized the first and second
C
laws of thermodynamics as 9. The final temperatures of two bodies,

a) the energy of the world is constant initially at T1 and T2 can range from
b) the entropy of the world tends towards a a) (T1-T2)/2 to sqrt(T1*T2)

b) (T1+T2)/2 to sqrt(T1*T2) 3. The complete conversion of heat into shaft-

c) (T1+T2)/2 to (T1*T2) work is impossible.
d) (T1-T2)/2 to (T1*T2) a) true
b) false
Answer: b
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Explanation: (T1+T2)/2 is the temperature Answer: a
when there is no delivery of work and Explanation: This statement can be proved
sqrt(T1*T2) is the temperature with by the second law of thermodynamics.
O
maximum delivery of work.
4. Which of the following is an example of
C
10. Which of the following processes exhibit low grade energy?
external mechanical irreversibility? a) heat or thermal energy
T.
a) isothermal dissipation of work b) heat from nuclear fission or fusion
b) adiabatic dissipation of work c) heat from combustion of fossil fuel
c) both of the mentioned d) all of the mentioned
O
Answer: d
Answer: c Explanation: These are few examples of low
SP
Explanation: These processes exhibit grade energy.
external mechanical irreversibility.
5. The part of ____ available for conversion
is referred to ____
TOPIC 2.4 APPLICATIONS OF II a) high grade energy, available energy
G
LAW. HIGH AND LOW GRADE b) low grade energy, available energy
ENERGY. c) low grade energy, unavailable energy
LO
d) high grade energy, unavailable energy

1. Which of the following is a type of energy?
Answer: b
a) high grade energy
Explanation: Only some part of low grade
b) low grade energy
energy is available for conversion.
.B
c) both of the mentioned

d) none of the mentioned 6. The ____ obtainable from a certain heat
input in a cyclic heat engine is called ____
17
Answer: c
a) minimum work output, available energy
Explanation: These are two types in which
b) maximum work output, available energy
the sources of energy can be divided into.
c) minimum work input, unavailable energy
2. Which of the following is an example of d) none of the mentioned
-R
high grade energy?

Answer: b
a) mechanical work
Explanation: Q1=AE+UE and the minimum
b) electrical energy
energy that has to be rejected is called the
SE
c) water power and wind power

unavailable energy.
7. The unavailable energy is the product of
Answer: d
the lowest temperature of heat rejection and
Explanation: These are some examples of the
C
the change of entropy of system during the

high grade energy.
process of supplying heat.

a) true of heat rejection and the additional entropy

b) false change in the system.
Answer: a 12. Energy is said to be degraded each time it

Explanation: U.E.=T0*(change in entropy). flows through a finite temperature difference.
M
a) true
8. The lowest practicable temperature of heat b) false
rejected is the
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a) given temperature Answer: a
b) 0K Explanation: The exergy is mainly lost due
C
c) temperature of surroundings to irreversible heat transfer through a finite
d) 273K temperature difference.
T.
Answer: c 13. When considering a finite energy source,
Explanation: Work done and hence its working fluid expands,
efficiency will be maximum when heat is a) reversibly
O
rejected at the temperature of surroundings. b) adiabatically
c) reversibly and adiabatically
SP
9. The available energy is known as ____ and d) none of the mentioned
the unavailable energy is known as ____
a) energy, exergy Answer: c
b) exergy, energy Explanation: For a finite energy source,
c) both are called exergy expansion of working fluid is reversibly and
G
d) both are called energy adiabatically.
LO
Answer: b
Explanation: Rant was the one who coined TOPIC 2.5 AVAILABLE AND
these terms. NON-AVAILABLE ENERGY OF
A SOURCE AND FINITE BODY.
10. Whenever heat is transferred through a
.B
finite temperature difference, there is always

1. Which of the following is a type of energy?
a decrease in the availability of energy so
a) high grade energy
transferred.
17
b) low grade energy

a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Answer: c
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Explanation: This is because of exergy lost

Explanation: These are two types in which
due to irreversible heat transfer.
the sources of energy can be divided into.
11. Exergy is lost due to
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2. Which of the following is an example of

a) irreversible heat transfer
high grade energy?
b) through finite temperature difference
a) mechanical work
c) during the process of heat addition
b) electrical energy
c) water power and wind power
C
Answer: d d) all of the mentioned

Explanation: The decrease in exergy is given
by the product of lowest feasible temperature

Answer: d the change of entropy of system during the

Explanation: These are some examples of the process of supplying heat.
high grade energy. a) true
b) false
3. The complete conversion of heat into shaft-
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work is impossible. Answer: a
a) true Explanation: U.E.=T0*(change in entropy).
b) false
O
8. The lowest practicable temperature of heat
Answer: a rejected is the
C
Explanation: This statement can be proved a) given temperature
by the second law of thermodynamics. b) 0K
T.
c) temperature of surroundings
4. Which of the following is an example of d) 273K
low grade energy?
a) heat or thermal energy Answer: c
O
b) heat from nuclear fission or fusion Explanation: Work done and hence
c) heat from combustion of fossil fuel efficiency will be maximum when heat is
SP
d) all of the mentioned rejected at the temperature of surroundings.
Answer: d 9. The available energy is known as ____ and

Explanation: These are few examples of low the unavailable energy is known as ____
grade energy. a) energy, exergy
G
b) exergy, energy
5. The part of ____ available for conversion c) both are called exergy
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is referred to ____ d) both are called energy

a) high grade energy, available energy
b) low grade energy, available energy Answer: b
c) low grade energy, unavailable energy Explanation: Rant was the one who coined
d) high grade energy, unavailable energy these terms.
.B
Answer: b 10. Whenever heat is transferred through a

Explanation: Only some part of low grade finite temperature difference, there is always
17
energy is available for conversion. a decrease in the availability of energy so

transferred.
6. The ____ obtainable from a certain heat a) true
input in a cyclic heat engine is called ____ b) false
-R
a) minimum work output, available energy

b) maximum work output, available energy Answer: a
c) minimum work input, unavailable energy Explanation: This is because of exergy lost
d) none of the mentioned due to irreversible heat transfer.
SE
Answer: b 11. Exergy is lost due to

Explanation: Q1=AE+UE and the minimum a) irreversible heat transfer
energy that has to be rejected is called the b) through finite temperature difference
C
unavailable energy. c) during the process of heat addition

7. The unavailable energy is the product of
the lowest temperature of heat rejection and

Answer: d 2. Entropy increase dS of the system can be

Explanation: The decrease in exergy is given expressed as
by the product of lowest feasible temperature a) dS=dS(due to external heat interaction)-
of heat rejection and the additional entropy dS(due to internal irreversibility)
change in the system. b) dS=dS(due to external heat
M
interaction)+dS(due to internal irreversibility)
12. Energy is said to be degraded each time it c) dS=-dS(due to external heat interaction)-
flows through a finite temperature difference.
O
dS(due to internal irreversibility)
a) true d) dS=-dS(due to external heat
b) false interaction)+dS(due to internal irreversibility)
C
Answer: a Answer: b
T.
Explanation: The exergy is mainly lost due Explanation: Total entropy increase of the
to irreversible heat transfer through a finite system is the sum of these two entropies.
temperature difference.
3. The entropy increase due to internal
O
13. When considering a finite energy source, irreversibility is also called entropy
its working fluid expands, production or entropy generation.
SP
a) reversibly a) true
b) adiabatically b) false
c) reversibly and adiabatically
d) none of the mentioned Answer: a
G
Explanation: This entropy is generated
Answer: c during the process within the system.
Explanation: For a finite energy source,
LO
expansion of working fluid is reversibly and 4. Which of the following statement is true?
adiabatically. a) if the isentropic process is reversible, it
must be adiabatic
b) if the isentropic process is adiabatic, it
TOPIC 2.6 ENERGY AND
.B
cannot but be reversible

IRREVERSIBILITY. c) if the process is adiabatic and reversible, it
EXPRESSIONS FOR THE must be isentropic
ENERGY OF A CLOSED d) all of the mentioned
17
SYSTEM AND OPEN SYSTEMS. Answer: d

Explanation: An adiabatic process need not
1. The entropy of any closed system can be isentropic, since entropy can also increase
-R
increase in which if the following way? due to friction.

a) by heat interaction in which there is
entropy transfer 5. Lost work is given by
b) dissipative effects or internal a) pdV-dW
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irreversibilities b) pdV+dW
c) both of the mentioned c) -pdV-dW
d) none of the mentioned d) pdV*dW
C
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: These two processes increase Explanation: The lost work d(LW) indicates
the entropy of a closed system. the work that is lost due to irreversibility.

6. The amount of entropy generation is given 10. In an open system, there is a transfer of
by which of the following quantity?
a) S2+S1+∫(dQ/T) a) mass
b) S2-S1+∫(dQ/T) b) energy
c) S2-S1-∫(dQ/T) c) entropy
M
Answer: c Answer: d
O
Explanation: Here (S2-S1) is the entropy Explanation: In an open system, there is a
change of the system and ∫(dQ/T) is the transfer of all these three quantities.
C
entropy transfer.
11. The rate of entropy increase of the control
T.
7. Any thermodynamic process is volume ____ or ____ the net rate of entropy
accompanied by entropy generation. transfer to it.
a) true a) exceeds or is less than
b) false b) exceeds, is equal to
O
c) is less than, or equal to
SP
Explanation: This comes from the second
law. Answer: b
Explanation: The difference is the entropy
8. Which of the following statement is false? generated within the control volume due to
a) for a reversible process, entropy generation
G
irreversibility.
is zero
b) the entropy generation does not depend on 12. Mass and energy are conserved quantities,
LO
the path the system follows but entropy is generally not conserved.
c) for an irreversible process, entropy a) true
generation is greater than zero b) false
Answer: a
.B
Answer: b Explanation: This is a basic fact about

Explanation: Entropy generation is not a entropy.
thermodynamic property and depends on the
17
path that system follows. 13. The rate at which entropy is transferred
out must ____ the rate at which entropy
9. If the path A causes more entropy enters the control volume.
generation than path B, then a) be less than
-R
a) path A is more irreversible than path B b) equal to

b) path A involves more lost work c) exceed
c) both of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
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Answer: c
Answer: c Explanation: The difference is the rate of
Explanation: The amount of entropy entropy generated within the control volume
generation quantifies the intrinsic owing to irreversibilities.
C
irreversibility of the process.

14. A chip dissipates 2 kJ of electric work and
rejects it as heat transfer from its surface

which is at 50°C to 25°C air. How much 1S2(gen2) = [Q(out,2) / T(air)] – [Q(out,1) /
entropy is generated in the chip? T(surf)] = (2/298.15) – (2/323.15) = 0.519
J/K.
M
TOPIC 2.7 ENERGY BALANCE
AND ENTROPY GENERATION.
O
1. The entropy of any closed system can
a) 4.19 J/K increase in which if the following way?
C
b) 5.19 J/K a) by heat interaction in which there is
c) 6.19 J/K entropy transfer
T.
d) 7.19 J/K b) dissipative effects or internal
irreversibilities
Answer: c c) both of the mentioned
Explanation: C.V.1 Chip with surface at
O
50°C, we assume chip state is constant.
U2 – U1 = 0 = 1Q2 – 1W2 = W(electrical,in) Answer: c
SP
– Q(out,1) Explanation: These two processes increase
S2 – S1 = 0 = – [Q(out,1)]/[T(surf)] + the entropy of a closed system.
1S2(gen1)
1S2(gen1) = [Q(out,1)]/[T(surf)] = 2. Entropy increase dS of the system can be
G
W(electrical,in) / T(surf) expressed as
= 2/323.15 = 6.19 J/K. a) dS=dS(due to external heat interaction)-
dS(due to internal irreversibility)
LO
15. A chip dissipates 2 kJ of electric work and b) dS=dS(due to external heat

rejects it as heat transfer from its surface interaction)+dS(due to internal irreversibility)
which is at 50°C to 25°C air. How much c) dS=-dS(due to external heat interaction)-
entropy is generated outside the chip? dS(due to internal irreversibility)
.B
d) dS=-dS(due to external heat

interaction)+dS(due to internal irreversibility)
Answer: b
17
Explanation: Total entropy increase of the

system is the sum of these two entropies.
a) 0.419 J/K 3. The entropy increase due to internal

-R
b) 0.519 J/K irreversibility is also called entropy

c) 0.619 J/K production or entropy generation.
d) 0.719 J/K a) true
SE
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: C.V.2 From chip surface at Answer: a
50°C to air at 25°C, assume constant state. Explanation: This entropy is generated
U2 – U1 = 0 = 1Q2 – 1W2 = Q(out,1) – during the process within the system.
C
Q(out,2)
S2 – S1 = 0 = [Q(out,1) / T(surf)] – [Q(out,2) 4. Which of the following statement is true?
/ T(air)] + 1S2(gen2) a) if the isentropic process is reversible, it

must be adiabatic c) for an irreversible process, entropy

b) if the isentropic process is adiabatic, it generation is greater than zero
cannot but be reversible d) none of the mentioned
c) if the process is adiabatic and reversible, it
must be isentropic Answer: b
M
d) all of the mentioned Explanation: Entropy generation is not a
thermodynamic property and depends on the
Answer: d path that system follows.
O
Explanation: An adiabatic process need not
be isentropic, since entropy can also increase 9. If the path A causes more entropy
C
due to friction. generation than path B, then
a) path A is more irreversible than path B
T.
5. Lost work is given by b) path A involves more lost work
a) pdV-dW c) both of the mentioned
b) pdV+dW d) none of the mentioned
c) -pdV-dW
O
d) pdV*dW Answer: c
Explanation: The amount of entropy
SP
Answer: a generation quantifies the intrinsic
Explanation: The lost work d(LW) indicates irreversibility of the process.
the work that is lost due to irreversibility.
10. In an open system, there is a transfer of
6. The amount of entropy generation is given which of the following quantity?
G
by a) mass
a) S2+S1+∫(dQ/T) b) energy
LO
b) S2-S1+∫(dQ/T) c) entropy
c) S2-S1-∫(dQ/T) d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Answer: c Explanation: In an open system, there is a
.B
Explanation: Here (S2-S1) is the entropy transfer of all these three quantities.
change of the system and ∫(dQ/T) is the
entropy transfer. 11. The rate of entropy increase of the control
17
volume ____ or ____ the net rate of entropy

7. Any thermodynamic process is transfer to it.
accompanied by entropy generation. a) exceeds or is less than
a) true b) exceeds, is equal to
-R
b) false c) is less than, or equal to

Answer: a
Explanation: This comes from the second Answer: b
SE
law. Explanation: The difference is the entropy

generated within the control volume due to
8. Which of the following statement is false? irreversibility.
a) for a reversible process, entropy generation
C
is zero 12. Mass and energy are conserved quantities,

b) the entropy generation does not depend on but entropy is generally not conserved.
the path the system follows

a) true 15. A chip dissipates 2 kJ of electric work and

b) false rejects it as heat transfer from its surface
which is at 50°C to 25°C air. How much
Answer: a entropy is generated outside the chip?
Explanation: This is a basic fact about
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entropy.
13. The rate at which entropy is transferred
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out must ____ the rate at which entropy
enters the control volume.
C
a) be less than
b) equal to a) 0.419 J/K
T.
c) exceed b) 0.519 J/K
d) none of the mentioned c) 0.619 J/K
d) 0.719 J/K
Answer: c
O
Explanation: The difference is the rate of Answer: b
entropy generated within the control volume Explanation: C.V.2 From chip surface at
SP
owing to irreversibilities. 50°C to air at 25°C, assume constant state.
U2 – U1 = 0 = 1Q2 – 1W2 = Q(out,1) –
14. A chip dissipates 2 kJ of electric work and Q(out,2)
rejects it as heat transfer from its surface S2 – S1 = 0 = [Q(out,1) / T(surf)] – [Q(out,2)
which is at 50°C to 25°C air. How much
G
/ T(air)] + 1S2(gen2)
entropy is generated in the chip? 1S2(gen2) = [Q(out,2) / T(air)] – [Q(out,1) /
T(surf)] = (2/298.15) – (2/323.15) = 0.519
LO
J/K.
TOPIC 2.8 I AND II LAW OF

EFFICIENCY.
.B
a) 4.19 J/K 1. The first law efficiency is defined as the

b) 5.19 J/K
17
ratio of the output energy to the input energy.

c) 6.19 J/K a) true
d) 7.19 J/K b) false
Answer: c Answer: a
-R
Explanation: C.V.1 Chip with surface at Explanation: First law efficiency = output
50°C, we assume chip state is constant. energy / input energy.
U2 – U1 = 0 = 1Q2 – 1W2 = W(electrical,in)
– Q(out,1)
SE
2. Which of the following statement is true

S2 – S1 = 0 = – [Q(out,1)]/[T(surf)] + about the first law?
1S2(gen1) a) it is concerned only with the quantities of
1S2(gen1) = [Q(out,1)]/[T(surf)] = energy
W(electrical,in) / T(surf) b) it disregards the form in which the energy
C
= 2/323.15 = 6.19 J/K. exists

c) it does not discriminate between the

energies available at different temperatures 6. Second law efficiency can also be given as
d) all of the mentioned a) 1 / ( first law efficiency * Carnot
efficiency)
Answer: d b) Carnot efficiency * first law efficiency
Explanation: It is the second law which c) Carnot efficiency / first law efficiency
M
provides a means of assigning a quality index d) first law efficiency / Carnot efficiency
to energy.
Answer: d
O
3. With the concept of exergy available, Explanation: First law efficiency = W/Q1 =
which of the following is possible? (W/Wmax)*(Wmax/Q1) = second law
C
a) to analyse means of minimizing the efficiency * Carnot efficiency.
consumption of available energy to perform a
T.
given process 7. If work is involved, Amin= ____ and if
b) to ensure most efficient possible heat is involved, Amin= ____
conversion of energy a) w, Q(1+To/T)
c) both of the mentioned b) W, Q(1-To/T)
O
d) none of the mentioned c) Q(1+To/T), W
d) Q(1-To/T), W
SP
Answer: c
Explanation: These statements tell us why Answer: b
the concept of exergy is so important. Explanation: This is because, Wmax=Q1(1-
To/T).
4. Second law efficiency is defined as
G
a) actual exergy intake / minimum exergy 8. If solar energy Qr is available at a reservoir
intake storage temperature of Tr and if quantity of
LO
b) minimum exergy intake / actual exergy heat Qa is transferred by the solar collector at
intake temperature Ta, then which of the following
c) actual exergy intake / maximum exergy is true?
intake a) first law efficiency = Qa/Qr
.B
d) maximum exergy intake / minimum exergy b) second law efficiency = exergy output /
intake exergy input
c) second law efficiency = (first law
Answer: b efficiency)*(1-To/Ta)/(1-To/Tr)
17
Explanation: It is the ratio of minimum d) all of the mentioned

exergy which must be consumed to do a task
divided by the actual amount of exergy Answer: d
consumed in performing the task. Explanation: Second law efficiency = first
-R
law efficiency / Carnot efficiency.

5. For a power plant, second law efficiency
can be given by desired output(W) / available 9. In case of a heat pump, second law
energy(Wmax). efficiency is given as
SE
a) true a) (first law efficiency)*(1-Ta/To)

b) false b) (first law efficiency)*(1+To/Ta)
c) (first law efficiency)*(1-To/Ta)
C
Explanation: Here, A=Wmax and Amin=W,

hence second law efficiency = Amin/A = Answer: c
W/Wmax. Explanation: First law efficiency = Qa/Wi

and second law efficiency = Qa*(1- b) fusion curve and sublimation curve
To/Ta)/Wi. c) vaporization curve and sublimation curve
d) fusion curve and vaporization curve and
10. Both first law efficiency and second law sublimation curve
efficiency indicate how effectively the input
M
has been converted into the product. Answer: d
a) true Explanation: At triple point, all these three
b) false curves meet.
O
Answer: a 2. The slopes of sublimation and vaporization
C
Explanation: First law of efficiency does this curves for all substances are
on energy basis and second law efficiency a) negative
T.
does it on exergy basis. b) positive
c) zero
11. For proper utilization of exergy, it is d) none of the mentioned
desirable to make first law efficiency ____
O
and the source and use temperatures should Answer: b
____ Explanation: This is true for all substances.
SP
a) as close to unity, be different
b) as close to unity, match 3. The slope of the fusion curve for water is
c) as close to zero, match a) negative
d) as close to zero, be different b) positive
c) zero
G
Answer: b d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: If first law efficiency is close to
LO
unity, the all the energy carried in by heat Answer: a

transfer is used and no heat is lost to the Explanation: The slope of fusion curve for
surroundings. most substances is positive but for water it is
negative.
.B
4. The temperature at which a liquid boils is

very sensitive to pressure but the temperature
UNIT III PROPERTIES OF at which a solid melts is not such a strong
17
function of pressure.
PURE SUBSTANCE AND a) true
STEAM POWER CYCLE b) false
-R
Answer: a
TOPIC 3.1 FORMATION OF Explanation: The slope of the fusion curve is
STEAM AND ITS small.
SE
THERMODYNAMIC 5. Which of the following statement is true?

PROPERTIES, P-V, P-T, T-V, T-S, a) the triple point of water is 273.16 K
H-S DIAGRAMS. b) the triple point of CO2 is 216.55 K
c) when solid CO2 is exposed to 1atm
C
1. Which of the following curves meet at pressure, it gets transformed into vapour
triple point? directly
a) fusion curve and vaporization curve d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d c) zero
Explanation: The solid CO2 absorbs the d) infinity
latent heat of sublimation from the
surroundings which gets cooled. Answer: c
Explanation: As pressure increases, there is a
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6. The equation which forms the basis of the decrease in Hg-Hf and at critical pressure its
Mollier diagram is value becomes zero.
a) Tds=-dh+vdp
O
b) Tds=dh+vdp 10.In the Mollier diagram, the constant
c) Tds=dh-vdp pressure lines diverge from one another.
C
d) none of the mentioned a) true
b) false
T.
Answer: c
Explanation: This equation form the basis of Answer: a
the h-s diagram of a pure substance also Explanation: As the pressure increases, the
called the Mollier diagram. saturation temperature also increases,
O
increasing the slope of the isobar.
7. Which of the following statements is true?
SP
a) the slope of an isobar on h-s coordinates is
equal to the absolute saturation temperature at
TOPIC 3.2 P-V-T SURFACE.
that pressure
b) is the temperature remains constant, the 1. Which of the following is a property of a
pure substance?
G
slope will also remain constant
c) if the temperature increases, the slope of a) it has constant chemical composition
the isobar will also increase throughout its mass
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d) all of the mentioned b) it is a one-component system

c) it may exist in one or more phases
Answer: d d) all of the mentioned
Explanation: Here absolute saturation
Answer: d
.B
temperature is given by Tsat+273.

Explanation: These are some of the
8. Which of the following represents the properties of a pure substance.
latent heat of vaporization at a particular
17
pressure. 2. For water, as temperature increases,

a) Hf-Hg volume always increases?
b) Hg-Hf a) true
c) Hf+Hg b) false
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Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: From 0 degree Celsius to 4
Explanation: Here Hg is the specific degree Celsius as temperature increases,
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enthalpy of the saturated vapour and Hf is the volume of water decreases which is a
specific enthalpy of the saturated water. peculiarity of water.
9. At critical pressure, value of Hg-Hf is 3. A saturation state is a state from which a

C
a) two change of phase may occur

b) one a) without a change of pressure or
temperature

b) with a change of pressure or temperature Answer: c

c) both of the mentioned Explanation: This phenomenon is known as
d) none of the mentioned sublimation and takes place by absorbing the
latent heat of sublimation from the
Answer: a surroundings.
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Explanation: For example, water at 0 degree
Celsius and at 100 degree Celsius. 8. Which of the following statement is true?
a) to the left of saturated solid line is the solid
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4. In which of the following state does water region
exist? b) between saturated solid line and saturated
C
a) saturated solid state liquid line with respect to solidification there
b) saturated liquid state exists the solid-liquid mixture region
T.
c) saturated vapour state c) between two saturated liquid lines is the
d) all of the mentioned compressed liquid region
Answer: d
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Explanation: Water exists in these states at 0 Answer: d
degree Celsius and at 100 degree Celsius. Explanation: These statements come from
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the p-V diagram for a pure substance.
5. Which of the following exists in a p-V
diagram for water? 9. The isotherm passing through the critical
a) saturated solid line point is called the critical isotherm.
b) saturated liquid lines
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a) true
c) saturated vapour line b) false
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Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: At critical point, all the
Explanation: The p-V diagram for water has quantities like pressure, temperature and
all these three lines. volume attain their critical values.
.B
6. The triple point is a line on the p-V 10. The greater the temperature, the ____ is
diagram, where all the three phases, solid, the vapour pressure.
liquid and gas exist. a) lower
17
a) true b) higher
b) false c) depends on the substance
Answer: a
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Explanation: At triple point, all these three Answer: b

phases exists in equilibrium. Explanation: The vapour pressure mainly
depends on the temperature.
7. At a pressure below the triple point line,
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a) the substance cannot exist in the liquid 11. Phase change occurs at
phase a) constant pressure
b) the substance when heated transforms from b) constant temperature
solid to vapour c) constant pressure and temperature
C
c) both of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned


Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: For phase change, pressure and Explanation: This is arbitrarily chosen and
temperature must be constant like water at 0 form the basic assumptions for steam tables.
degree Celsius and at 100 degree Celsius.
4. When a liquid and its vapour are in
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12. Which of the following statement is true? equilibrium at a certain pressure and
a) saturation temperature is a function of temperature, then which of the following is
pressure required to identify the saturation state.
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b) saturation pressure is a function of a) pressure
temperature b) temperature
C
c) both of the mentioned c) both pressure and temperature
d) none of the mentioned d) pressure or temperature
T.
Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: At saturation temperature, a Explanation: If one of the quantity is given,
pure liquid transforms into vapour and at then other gets fixed.
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saturation pressure, the liquid boils.
5. Saturated liquid or the saturated vapour has
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how many independent variables?
TOPIC 3.3 USE OF STEAM a) one
TABLE AND MOLLIER CHART. b) two
c) three
G
1. The properties of water are arranged in the d) none of the mentioned
steam tables as functions of
a) pressure Answer: a
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b) temperature Explanation: Only one property is required

c) pressure and temperature to be known to fix up the state.
6. If data are required for intermediate
temperatures or pressures, linear interpolation
.B
Answer: c
Explanation: The properties of water are is normally accurate.
arranged in steam tables as functions of both a) true
pressure and temperature. b) false
17
2. The internal energy of saturated water at Answer: a

the triple point is Explanation: To reduce the amount of
a) 1 interpolation required, two tables are
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b) 0 provided.
c) -1
d) infinity 7. For a liquid-vapour mixture, which of the
following can give us all the properties of the
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Answer: b mixture?
Explanation: This value is arbitrarily chosen. a) p or t and the quality of the mixture are
given
3. The entropy of saturated water is chosen to b) p or t and any one of the property is given
C
be zero at triple point. c) both of the mentioned

a) true d) none of the mentioned
b) false

Answer: c 11. The properties of liquid _____ with

Explanation: In first case, properties can be pressure.
directly evaluated and in second case we can a) do not vary
find the quality first and then evaluate all b) vary largely
other properties. c) vary little
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8. When does a vapour become superheated?
a) when the temperature of vapour is less than Answer: c
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the saturation temperature at given pressure Explanation: This is the reason why
b) when the temperature of vapour is more properties are taken from the saturation tables
C
than the saturation temperature at given at the temperature of the compressed liquid.
pressure
T.
c) when the temperature of vapour is equal to 12. Which of the following statement is true?
the saturation temperature at given pressure a) a subcooled liquid is one which is cooled
d) none of the mentioned below its saturation temperature at a certain
pressure
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Answer: b b) subcooling is the difference between the
Explanation: For a superheated vapour, saturation temperature and the actual liquid
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temperature of vapour must be greater than temperature
the saturation temperature. c) both of the mentioned
9. The superheat or degree of superheat is
G
given by Answer: c
a) difference between the temperature of Explanation: This is what a subcooled liquid
saturated liquid and saturation temperature means.
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b) difference between the temperature of

superheated vapour and saturation
temperature
TOPIC 3.4 DETERMINATION OF
c) sum of the temperature of superheated DRYNESS FRACTION.
.B
vapour and saturation temperature

d) none of the mentioned 1. The product of steam rate & network when
the steam rate is expressed in kg/kWh is equal
Answer: b to?
17
Explanation: Superheat= T1(temperature of a) 36

superheated vapour) – T(saturated). b) 360
c) 3600
10. When the temperature of a liquid is less d) 60
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than the saturation temperature at the given

pressure, the liquid is called compressed Answer: c
liquid. Explanation: The Steam Rate in terms of
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a) true kJ/kWh is given by the expression,

b) false Steam Rate = (3600/Wnet) kg/kWh.
Answer: a 2. The product of heat rate & efficiency when
Explanation: For a compressed liquid,
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the heat rate is expressed in kJ/kWh is equal

temperature of liquid must be less than the to?
saturation temperature. a) 60
b) 36

c) 360 c) remains same

d) 3600 d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d Answer: b
Explanation: The heat rate in terms of Explanation: With reheat, the area under the
M
kJ/kWh is given by the expression, curve increases in comparison to what it was
Heat Rate = (3600/n) kJ/kWh without reheat. Hence, Net Work output of
where, n = efficiency. the plant increases.
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3. What is the effect of reheat pressure on 6. Which of the following problems are posed
C
mean temperature of heat addition Tml? by increasing the number of reheats?
a) Reheat pressure is directly proportional to a) Cost & Fabrication problems arise
T.
Tml b) Heat transfer problems arise
b) Reheat pressure is inversely proportional to c) Frictional losses arise
Tml d) None of the mentioned
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c) Reheat pressure is equal to Tml Answer: a
d) Tml is independent of reheat pressure Explanation: Higher the number of Reheats,
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still higher steam pressures could be used, but
Answer: a mechanical stresses increase at a higher
Explanation: As cycle efficiency is reduced proportion than the increase in pressure,
with a decrease in reheat pressure. Hence, the because of the prevailing high temperature.
G
mean temperature of heat addition also The cost & fabrication difficulties will also
decreases. increase.
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4. Why is the steam not allowed to expand 7. What is the effect of decrease of reheat
deep into the two phase region before it is pressure on the quality of steam at turbine
taken to reheating? exhaust?
a) to control flow rate a) decreases
.B
b) to control phase change b) increases

c) to protect reheat tubes c) remains same
17
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: The steam is not allowed to Explanation: For too low a reheat pressure,
expand deep into the two phase region before the exhaust steam may even be in the
it is taken to reheating, because the moisture superheated state which isn’t good.
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particles in the steam while evaporating

would leave behind solid deposits in the form 8. The optimum reheat pressure for most of
of scale which is difficult to remove. Hence, the power plants is how many times of the
initial steam pressure?
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when the steam expands, the reheat tubes are

damaged. a) 0.1-0.15
b) 0.2-0.20
5. Net Work output of the plant __________ c) 0.2-0.25
with reheat. d) 0.1-0.10
C
a) decreases
b) increases Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency increases as the

reheat pressure is lowered & reaches a peak at c) zero

a pressure ratio between 0.2-0.25. d) infinity
9. What is the most preferable dryness Answer: c

fraction of the exhaust steam? Explanation: As pressure increases, there is a
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a) 0.99 decrease in Vg-Vf and at critical point its
b) 0.77 value becomes zero.
c) 0.66
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d) 0.88 3. Above the critical point, the isotherms are
continuous curves.
C
Answer: d a) true
Explanation: The dryness fraction of the b) false
T.
exhaust steam is in the range of 0.86-0.88 for
modern turbines. Answer: a
Explanation: These continuous curves
10. For pressure ratio = 1, efficiency = 0, approach equilateral hyperbolas at large
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then? volumes and low pressures.
a) reheat is used
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b) reheat is not used 4. A rigid tank contains 50 kg of saturated
c) only reheat is used liquid water at 90°C. Determine the pressure
d) none of the mentioned in the tank and the volume of the tank.
a) 0.0518 m3
Answer: b
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b) 0.0618 m3
Explanation: There cannot be any reheat
cycle employed when the cycle efficiency is c) 0.0718 m3
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zero and the pressure ratio is equal to 1. d) 0.0818 m3
Answer: a
TOPIC 3.5 APPLICATION OF I Explanation: P = [email protected] C =
AND II LAW FOR PURE 70.183 kPa
.B
SUBSTANCES. v = [email protected] C = 0.001036 m3/kg

Total volume of the tank = mv = (50kg)(
0.001036 m3/kg)
17
1. Which of the following represents the

specific volume during phase transition. = 0.0518 m3.
a) Vf-Vg
b) Vg-Vf 5. A piston –cylinder device contains 0.06m3
c) Vf+Vg
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of saturated water vapour at 350 kPa pressure.

d) none of the mentioned Determine the temperature and mass of the
vapour inside the cylinder.
Answer: b a) 0.104 kg
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Explanation: Here Vg is the specific volume b) 0.124 kg

of the saturated vapour and Vf is the specific c) 0.134 kg
volume of the saturated liquid. d) 0.114 kg
2. At critical point, value of Vg-Vf is
C
Answer: d
a) two Explanation: T = [email protected] =
b) one 138.86°C

v = [email protected] = 0.52422 m3/kg 0.12348 m3/kg

m = V/v = 0.06 m3/0.52422 m3/kg = 0.114 vf < v < vg Therefore T = [email protected] =
kg. -15.60°C.
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6. A rigid tank contains 10 kg of water at 9. An 80 litre vessel contains 4 kg of R-134a
90°C. If 8 kg of the water is in the liquid form at a pressure of 160 kPa. Determine the
and the rest is in the vapour form, determine quality.
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the pressure in the tank. a) 0.127
a) 60.183 kPa b) 0.137
b) 70.183 kPa c) 0.147
C
c) 80.183 kPa d) 0.157
d) 90.183 kPa
T.
Answer: d
Answer: b Explanation: v = V/m = 0.080 m3/4 kg =
Explanation: P = [email protected]°C = 0.02 m3/kg
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70.183 kPa.
@ 160kPa, vf = 0.0007437 m3/kg; vg =
7. A rigid tank contains 10 kg of water at 0.12348 m3/kg.
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90°C. If 8 kg of the water is in the liquid form vf < v < vg
and the rest is in the vapour form, determine x = (v –vf)/ vfg = 0.157.
the volume of the tank.
10. An 80 litre vessel contains 4 kg of R-134a
a) 1.73 m3
G
at a pressure of 160 kPa. Determine the
b) 2.73 m3 volume occupied by the vapour phase.
c) 3.73 m3 a) 0.0775 m3
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d) 4.73 m3 b) 0.0575 m3
Answer: d c) 0.0975 m3
Explanation: P = [email protected]°C = d) 0.0375 m3
.B
70.183 kPa
Answer: a
@ 90°C, vf = 0.001036 m3/kg and vg =
Explanation: v = V/m = 0.080 m3/4 kg =
2.3593 m3/kg
17
0.02 m3/kg
V = Vf + Vg = mf vf + mg vg = 4.73 m3.
@ 160kPa, vf = 0.0007437 m3/kg; vg =
8. An 80 litre vessel contains 4 kg of R-134a 0.12348 m3/kg
at a pressure of 160 kPa. Determine the vf < v < vg
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temperature. x = (v –vf)/ vfg = 0.157

a) -10.60°C mg = x*m(total) = 0.628kg
b) -13.60°C Vg = mg*vg = 0.0775 m3 or 77.5 litre.
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c) -15.60°C
d) -19.60°C 11. Determine the specific volume of R-134a
at 1 MPa and 50°C, using ideal gas equation
Answer: c of state.
Explanation: v = V/m = 0.080 m3/4 kg = a) 0.022325 m3/kg
C
0.02 m3/kg b) 0.024325 m3/kg

@ 160kPa, vf = 0.0007437 m3/kg; vg =

c) 0.025325 m3/kg c) is unaffected by climatic conditions

d) 0.026325 m3/kg
Answer: b
Answer: b
Explanation: In winters, the temperature of
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Explanation: v = RT/P = (0.0815 kJ/kg.K)*
cooling water is low, which increases
(323 K)/(1000 kPa)
Condenser’s efficiency.
= 0.026325 m3/kg.
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4. Rankine cycle comprises of ___________
TOPIC 3.6 IDEAL AND ACTUAL a) two isentropic processes and two constant
C
volume processes
RANKINE CYCLES b) two isentropic processes and two constant
T.
pressure processes
1. What is the unit of Heat rate? c) two isothermal processes and two constant
a) kJ/KW pressure processes
b) KW/kJ d) none of the mentioned
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c) kJ
d) KW Answer: b
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Explanation: Rankine cycle is a reversible
Answer: a cycle which have two constant pressure and
Explanation: Heat rate is the rate of input two constant temperature processes.
required to produce unit shaft output.
5. In Rankine cycle, the work output from the
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2. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure turbine is given by ___________
limit of p1 and high pressure limit of p2 a) change of internal energy between inlet and
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___________ outlet
a) has higher thermal efficiency than the b) change of enthalpy between inlet and
Carnot cycle operating between same outlet
pressure limits c) change of entropy between inlet and outlet
b) has lower thermal efficiency than Carnot
.B
d) change of temperature between inlet and

cycle operating between same pressure limits outlet
c) has same thermal efficiency as Carnot
cycle operating between same pressure limits Answer: b
17
d) may be more or less depending upon the Explanation: Work output(turbine) = h1 –

magnitudes of p1 and p2 h2.
Answer: a 6. Which of the following contributes to the

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Explanation: Area under P-V curve for improvement of efficiency of Rankine cycle
Rankine will be more as compared to Carnot in a Thermal Power Plant?
cycle. a) reheating of steam at intermediate stage
b) regeneration use of steam for heating
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3. Rankine efficiency of a Steam Power Plant Boiler feed water

___________ c) use of high pressures
a) improves in Summer as compared to that in d) all of the mentioned
Winter
C
b) improves in Winter as compared to that in Answer: d

Summer Explanation: The regenerative features
effectively raise the nominal cycle heat input

temperature, by reducing the addition of heat 10. A simple Rankine cycle operates the
from the Boiler/fuel source at the relatively Boiler at 3 MPa with an outlet temperature of
low feedwater temperatures that would exist 350°C and the Condenser at 50 kPa.
without regenerative feedwater heating. Assuming ideal operation and processes, what
is the thermal efficiency of this cycle?
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7. Match the following: a) 7.7
b) 17.7
i) Boiler A. reversible a
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c) 27.7
diabatic expansion of steam
ii) turbine B. constant pre d) 37.7
ssure heat heat addition
C
iii) Condenser C. reversible a Answer: c
diabatic compression Explanation: Fixing the states; h1 = 340.5
T.
iv) pump D. constant pre kJ/kg, h2 = h1 + v1 (P2 – P1) = 343.5 kJ/kg,
ssure heat rejection
h3 = 3115.3 kJ/kg, s3 = 6.7428 kJ/kg – K, x4
a) i-B ii-A iii-D iv-C = 0.869, and h4 = 2343.9 kJ/kg. Thus, η = 1 –
Qout / Qin = 1 – (h4 – h1) / (h3 – h2) =
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b) i-A ii-C iii-D iv-A
27.7%.
c) i-B ii-D iii-C iv-A
d) i-A ii-D iii-B iv-C
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11. A simple Rankine cycle produces 40 MW
of power, 50 MW of process heat and rejects
Answer: a
60 MW of heat to the surroundings. What is
Explanation: Working fluid in Rankine cycle
the utilization factor of this co generation
undergoes 4 processes, expansion in turbine,
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cycle neglecting the pump work?
heat addition in Boiler, heat rejection in
a) 50
Condenser and compression in pump.
b) 60
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8. What is the actual turbine inlet temperature c) 70

in Rankine cycle? d) 80
a) 700C
Answer: b
b) 800C
.B
Explanation: Application of the first law to

c) 550C
the entire cycle gives Qin = Qp + Qreject +
d) 1150C
W = 150 MW. The utilization factor is then =
(Qp + W) / Qin = 60%.
17
Answer: c
Explanation: The TIT(Turbine Inlet
Temperature) is of the range 500-570C. TOPIC 3.7 CYCLE
IMPROVEMENT METHODS -
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9. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good Steam

Power Plant may be in the range of? REHEAT AND REGENERATIVE
a) 15 to 20% CYCLES, ECONOMISER,
b) 35 to 45% PREHEATER, BINARY AND
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c) 70 to 80% COMBINED CYCLES.

d) 90 to 95%
Answer: b 1. The reheating of steam is used when the

vaporization pressure is ____.
C
Explanation: Efficiency of Rankine cycle in

actual working condition is found to be a) low
between 35 to 45%. b) high

c) both when low or high b) equal to

d) always c) more than
Answer: b
Explanation: When vaporization pressure is Answer: a
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high, the reheating of steam is adopted. Explanation: Their difference is known as
the terminal temperature difference of heater.
2. Why both reheating and regeneration is
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used together? 6. Which of the following is true for an open
a) the effect of reheat alone on efficiency is heater?
C
very small a) it is simple, has low cost and low heat
b) regeneration has a marked effect on transfer capacity
T.
efficiency b) a pump is required at each heater
c) both of the mentioned c) both of the mentioned
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Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: Thus a modern steam power Explanation: The open heater has high heat
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plant has both reheating and regeneration. transfer capacity.
3. How many types of feedwater heaters are 7. Deaerator is a type of open heater.
present? a) true
a) one b) false
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b) two
c) three Answer: a
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d) four Explanation: In steam power plants, closed

heaters are favoured but one open heater is
Answer: b used for the purpose of feedwater deaeration.
Explanation: The two types are open heaters
and closed heaters. 8. Which of the following is true for a closed
.B
heater?
4. Which of the following statement is true? a) it requires a single pump regardless of the
a) open heater is also known as contact-type number of heaters
17
heater b) it is costly
b) in an open type heater the extracted or bled c) both of the mentioned
steam is allowed to mix with the feedwater d) none of the mentioned
c) in a closed heater, the fluids are not
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allowed to mix together Answer: c

d) all of the mentioned Explanation: Closed heaters may not give as
high feedwater temperature as do open
Answer: d heaters.
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Explanation: These are the details of open

and closed type heater. 9. The higher the number of heaters used, the
____ will be the cycle efficiency.
5. The temperature of feedwater leaving a a) lower
C
heater is ____ the saturation temperature at b) higher

steam extraction pressure. c) efficiency does not depend on number of
a) less than

heaters c) kept constant

Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: The cycle efficiency varies Explanation: The major exergy destruction
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according to the number of heaters. due to irreversibility takes place in the steam
generation.
10. If n heaters are used, the greatest gain in
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efficiency occurs when overall temperature
rise is ____ times the difference between
C
condenser and boiler saturation temperatures.
a) (n-1) / n UNIT IV IDEAL AND
T.
b) (n+1) / n
c) n / (n-1)
REAL GASES,
d) n / (n+1) THERMODYNAMIC
RELATIONS
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Answer: d
Explanation: This gives us the greatest gain
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in efficiency. TOPIC 4.1 PROPERTIES OF
11. The efficiency gain follows the law of IDEAL GAS- IDEAL AND REAL
diminishing return with the increase in the GAS COMPARISON-
number of heaters. EQUATIONS OF STATE FOR
G
a) true IDEAL AND REAL GASES-
b) false
REDUCED PROPERTIES.
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Answer: a
Explanation: This is because the cycle 1. For the ideal gas equation, what
efficiency is proportional to the temperature assumptions are made?
rise of feedwater.
.B
a) there is little or no attraction between the

molecules of the gas
12. Which of the following statement is true? b) the volume occupied by the molecules is
a) in some cases, an increase in feedwater negligibly small compared to the volume of
17
temperature may reduce the boiler efficiency the gas

b) number of heaters are optimized c) both of the mentioned
c) most often, five points of extraction are d) none of the mentioned
used
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d) all of the mentioned Answer: c

Explanation: The ideal gas equation pv=RT
Answer: d is established from the postulates of the
Explanation: The number of heaters get fixed kinetic theory of gases considering these two
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by the exergy balance of the whole plant. assumptions.

13. The thermal irreversibility should be ____ 2. When does a real gas obey the ideal gas
to improve the performance. equation closely?
C
a) reduced a) at high pressure and low temperature

b) increased b) at low pressure and high temperature

c) at low pressure and temperature 6. Real gases conform more closely with the
d) at high pressure and temperature van der Waals equation of state than the ideal
gas equation of state.
Answer: b a) true
Explanation: At low pressure and high b) false
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temperature, the intermolecular attraction and
the volume of the molecules compared to the Answer: a
total volume of the gas are not of much Explanation: This happens particularly at
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significance. higher pressures.
C
3. The real gases deviate from the ideal gas 7. The following also gave two-constant
equation when the pressure increases. equations of state.
T.
a) true a) Berthelot
b) false b) Dieterici
c) Redlich-Kwong
Answer: a d) all of the mentioned
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Explanation: With increase in pressure, the
intermolecular forces of attraction and Answer: d
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repulsion increase, and also the volume of the Explanation: These are also two-constant
molecules becomes appreciable compared to equations of state other than the van der
the gas volume. Waals equation.
4. The corrected gas equation is given by 8. Compressibility factor Z is given by

G
a) (p+a/(v2))(v+b)=RT a) RT/pv
b) pv/RT
b) (p-a/(v2))(v-b)=RT
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c) (RT/pv)2
c) (p-a/(v2))(v+b)=RT
d) (pv/RT)2
d) (p+a/(v2))(v-b)=RT
Answer: b
Answer: d
.B
Explanation: This ratio is known as

Explanation: The two correction terms were
compressibility factor.
introduced by van der Waals.
17
9. For an ideal gas, Z has the value

5. Which of the following statement is true
about the correction terms? a) 0
a) the coefficient a was introduced to account b) 2
for the existence of mutual attraction between c) 1
d) infinity
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the molecules
b) the term a/(v2) is called the force of Answer: c
cohesion Explanation: For an ideal gas, pv=RT hence
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c) the coefficient b was introduced to account Z=1.

for the volumes of the molecules and is
known as co-volume 10. The magnitude of Z at a particular
d) all of the mentioned pressure and temperature indicates the extent
of deviation of the gas from the ideal gas
C
Answer: d behaviour.
Explanation: These coefficients were also a) true
introduced by van der Waals. b) false

Answer: a repulsion increase, and also the volume of the

Explanation: This is a basic fact about the molecules becomes appreciable compared to
compressibility factor. the gas volume.
4. The corrected gas equation is given by
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TOPIC 4.2 COMPRESSIBILITY
a) (p+a/(v2))(v+b)=RT
FACTOR-.PRINCIPLE OF
b) (p-a/(v2))(v-b)=RT
CORRESPONDING STATES. -
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c) (p-a/(v2))(v+b)=RT
GENERALISED
d) (p+a/(v2))(v-b)=RT
C
1. For the ideal gas equation, what Answer: d
assumptions are made? Explanation: The two correction terms were
T.
a) there is little or no attraction between the introduced by van der Waals.
molecules of the gas
b) the volume occupied by the molecules is 5. Which of the following statement is true
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negligibly small compared to the volume of about the correction terms?
the gas a) the coefficient a was introduced to account
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c) both of the mentioned for the existence of mutual attraction between
d) none of the mentioned the molecules
b) the term a/(v2) is called the force of
Answer: c cohesion
Explanation: The ideal gas equation pv=RT
G
c) the coefficient b was introduced to account
is established from the postulates of the for the volumes of the molecules and is
kinetic theory of gases considering these two known as co-volume
LO
assumptions. d) all of the mentioned

2. When does a real gas obey the ideal gas Answer: d
equation closely? Explanation: These coefficients were also
a) at high pressure and low temperature
.B
introduced by van der Waals.

b) at low pressure and high temperature
c) at low pressure and temperature 6. Real gases conform more closely with the
d) at high pressure and temperature van der Waals equation of state than the ideal
17
gas equation of state.

Answer: b a) true
Explanation: At low pressure and high b) false
temperature, the intermolecular attraction and
-R
the volume of the molecules compared to the Answer: a

total volume of the gas are not of much Explanation: This happens particularly at
significance. higher pressures.
SE
3. The real gases deviate from the ideal gas 7. The following also gave two-constant
equation when the pressure increases. equations of state.
a) true a) Berthelot
b) false b) Dieterici
C
c) Redlich-Kwong
Answer: a d) all of the mentioned
Explanation: With increase in pressure, the
intermolecular forces of attraction and

Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: These are also two-constant Explanation: Compressibility = PV/nRT, but
equations of state other than the van der for ideal gases PV = nRT, => Compressibility
Waals equation. = 1.
M
8. Compressibility factor Z is given by 2. Which of the following is true about
a) RT/pv compressibility of real gases?
b) pv/RT a) Z = 1
O
c) (RT/pv)2 b) Z < 1
c) Z > 1
d) (pv/RT)2
C
d) Both Z < 1 and Z > 1
Answer: b View answer
T.
Explanation: This ratio is known as
Answer: d
compressibility factor.
Explanation: For any value of
compressibility except 1, the gas is real.
O
9. For an ideal gas, Z has the value
a) 0
3. What is the pressure of CO2 gas with
b) 2
SP
c) 1 compressibility z = 0.8, if the ideal gas
d) infinity pressure of CO2 is 10 Pa, all other variables
are same?
Answer: c a) 5
G
Explanation: For an ideal gas, pv=RT hence b) 8
Z=1. c) 10
LO
d) 14
10. The magnitude of Z at a particular View answer
pressure and temperature indicates the extent
of deviation of the gas from the ideal gas Answer: b
behaviour. Explanation: Pressure of CO2 = 0.8*10 = 8
.B
a) true Pa.
b) false
4. What is the pressure of H2 with
17
Answer: a
compressibility 0.6, molar volume 5
Explanation: This is a basic fact about the
compressibility factor. liter/mole at 27oC?
a) 2.9 atm
b) 5.4 atm
-R
TOPIC 4.3 COMPRESSIBILITY c) 9.6 atm

CHART AND ITS USE d) 14.5 atm
View answer
SE
1. What is the compressibility of ideal gases?

a) 1 Answer: a
b) 2 Explanation: P = znRT/V, => P =
c) 3 0.6*0.0821*300/5 = 2.9 atm.
C
d) 4
5. At what temperature, does SO2 with
View answer
compressibility 2 has pressure 5 atm and
molar volume 10 mole/s?

a) 300.5 K 9. What is the compressibility of methane

b) 304.5 K with density 10 g/liter at 27oC and 500 atm?
c) 310 K a) 32.5
d) 312.5 K b) 34.8
View answer
M
c) 39.6
d) 44.1
Answer: b View answer
Explanation: T = PV/zR = 5*10/(2*0.0821)
O
= 304.5 K. Answer: a
Explanation: z = PM/dRT =
C
6. What is the compressibility factor of water 500*16/(10*0.0821*300) = 32.5.
with density 1 g/liter at 27oC and 1 atm?
T.
a) 0.25 10. What is the compressibility of neon
b) 0.59 (molar mass = 20) with density 20 g/liter at
c) 0.73 27oC and 100 atm?
d) 0.91
O
a) 2.1
View answer b) 3.5
c) 4
SP
Answer: c d) 6.8
Explanation: z = PM/dRT = View answer
1*18/(1*0.0821*300) = 0.73.
Answer: c
G
7. What is the compressibility factor of a Explanation: z = PM/dRT =
liquid of molar mass 90 g and density 10 100*20/(20*0.0821*300) = 4.
g/liter at 27oC and 2 atm?
LO
a) 0.14 11. 90 g glucose is filled in a container at 10

b) 0.39 atm, if the volume of container is 2 liter, what
c) 0.51 is the temperature of glucose (z = 1.5)?
d) 0.73 a) 25.4oC
.B
View answer
b) 51.7oC
Answer: d c) 76.9oC
d) 103.5oC
17
Explanation: z = PM/dRT =
2*90/(10*0.0821*300) = 0.73. View answer
8. What is the pressure of 80 grams of CH4 Answer: b

Explanation: T = PV/znR =
-R
with compressibility 5, with 10 liter volume

at 27oC? 10*2/(1.5*0.5*0.0821) = 324.8 K = 51.7oC.
a) 10.5 atm
b) 28.9 atm 12. How many grams of C2H6 (z = 1.4) is
SE
c) 44.2 atm present in the container at 27oC and 5 atm

d) 61.5 atm and with volume 10 liter?
View answer a) 20 g
b) 30.4 g
C
Answer: d c) 40.6 g
Explanation: P = 5*5*0.0821*300/10 = 61.5 d) 50.8 g
atm. View answer

Answer: c HEAT CAPACITIES, ENERGY

Explanation: n = 5*10/(1.4*0.0821*300) = EQUATION
1.45, mass of C2H6 = 1.45*28 = 40.6 g.
1. If a relation exists among variables x,y,z
M
13. What is the volume of 21 g of propane (z
then z may be expressed as a function of x
= 1.9) at 1 atm and 27oC?
and y as, dz=Mdx+Ndy .
a) 23.4 liter
a) true
O
b) 37.5 liter
b) false
c) 42.1 liter
d) 59.6 liter
C
Answer: a
View answer Explanation: Here, M,N and z are functions
of x and y.
T.
Answer: a
Explanation: V = 1.9*0.5*0.0821*300/1 = 2. A pure substance which exists in a single
23.4 liter. phase has ____ independent variables.
O
a) zero
14. 1 mole of cyclohexane (z = 1.2) is filled
b) one
in a container at 27oC and 4 atm, what is the
SP
c) two
volume of container? d) three
a) 3.8 liter
b) 4.4 liter Answer: c
c) 5.6 liter Explanation: Of all the quantities, any one
G
d) 7.4 liter can be expressed as a function of any two
View answer others.
LO
Answer: d 3. Which of the following relation is correct?

Explanation: V = 1.2*1*0.0821*300/4 = 7.4 a) dU=TdS-pdV
liter. b) dH=TdS+Vdp
c) dG=Vdp-SdT
.B
15. 39 grams of benzene (z = 1.4) is filled in a d) all of the mentioned

container of volume 10 liter at 27oC, what is
the pressure of container? Answer: d
17
a) 1.7 atm Explanation: These relations are true for a

b) 1.9 atm pure substance which undergoes an
c) 2.2 atm infinitesimal reversible process.
d) 2.5 atm
-R
View answer 4. Maxwell’s equations consists of ____

equations.
Answer: a a) four
Explanation: P = 1.4*0.5*0.0821*300/10 = b) three
SE
1.7 atm. c) two

d) one
TOPIC 4.4 MAXWELL Answer: a
C
RELATIONS, TDS EQUATIONS, Explanation: Maxwell’s equations consists of

DIFFERENCE AND RATIO OF four equations.

5. Which of the following is not a Maxwell c) (∂p/∂V)*(∂V/∂T)*(∂T/∂p)= 1

equation? d) (∂p/∂V)*(∂V/∂T)*(∂T/∂p)= -1
a) (∂T/∂V) = -(∂p/∂S)
b) (∂T/∂p) = -(∂V/∂S) Answer: d
c) (∂p/∂T) = (∂S/∂V) Explanation: This is the relation between the
M
d) (∂V/∂T) = -(∂S/∂p) thermodynamic variables, p,V and T.
Answer: b 10. For getting TdS equations, we assume
O
Explanation: The correct equation is (∂T/∂p) entropy to be a function of T and V and also
= (∂V/∂S). of T and p.
C
a) true
6. The condition for exact differential is b) false
T.
a) (∂N/∂y) = (∂M/∂x)
b) (∂M/∂y) = (∂N/∂x) Answer: a
c) (∂M/∂y) = -(∂N/∂x) Explanation: For first TdS equation, we
d) all of the mentioned assume entropy as a function of T and V and
O
for second TdS equation, we assume entropy
Answer: b as a function of T and p .
SP
Explanation: This is the condition for perfect
or exact differential and here M and N are the
functions of x and y.
TOPIC 4.5 JOULE-THOMSON
COEFFICIENT, CLAUSIUS
7. The first TdS equation is CLAPEYRON EQUATION,
G
a) TdS=Cv*dT + T(∂T/∂p)dV PHASE CHANGE PROCESSES.
b) TdS=Cv*dT – T(∂p/∂T)dV
LO
c) TdS=Cv*dT + T(∂p/∂T)dV
d) TdS=Cv*dT – T(∂T/∂p)dV 1. During phase transitions like vaporization,
melting and sublimation
Answer: c a) pressure and temperature remains constant
Explanation: This equation comes when b) volume and entropy changes
.B
entropy is defined as a function of T and V c) both of the mentioned

and using Cv and Maxwell’s third equation. d) none of the mentioned
17
8. The second TdS equation is Answer: c

a) TdS=Cp*dT + T(∂V/∂T)dp Explanation: This is what happens during a
b) TdS=Cp*dT – T(∂V/∂T)dp phase transition.
c) TdS=Cp*dT + T(∂T/∂V)dp
-R
d) TdS=Cp*dT – T(∂T/∂V)dp 2. Which of the following requirement is

satisfied by a phase change of the first order?
Answer: b a) there are changes of volume and entropy
Explanation: This equation comes when b) the first-order derivative of the Gibbs
SE
entropy is defined as a function of T and p function changes discontinuously

and using Cp and Maxwell’s fourth equation. c) both of the mentioned
9. Which of the following is true?
C
a) (∂p/∂V)*(∂V/∂T)*(∂T/∂p)= infinity Answer: c

b) (∂p/∂V)*(∂V/∂T)*(∂T/∂p)= 0 Explanation: These requirements must be
satisfied for a phase change to be of first
order.

3. The Clausius-Clapeyron equation is given 7. The vapour pressure p in kPa at

by temperature T can be given by the relation
a) dp/dT = l / T(vf+vi) a) p = 101.325 exp (88/R)(1+T/Tb)
b) dp/dT = l / T(vf-vi) b) p = 101.325 exp (88/R)(1+Tb/T)
c) dT/dp = l / T(vf+vi) c) p = 101.325 exp (88/R)(1-T/Tb)
M
d) dT/dp = l / T(vf-vi) d) p = 101.325 exp (88/R)(1-Tb/T)
Answer: b Answer: d
O
Explanation: Here vf is the final specific Explanation: Here Tb is the boiling point at
volume and vi is the initial specific volume 1.013 bar and this relation comes from the
C
and l is the latent heat. latent heat of vaporization and Trouton’s rule.
T.
4. Water ____ on melting and has the fusion 8. At the triple point, l(sublimation) =
curve with a ____ slope. l(vaporization) – l(fusion).
a) contracts, negative a) true
b) contracts, positive b) false
O
c) expands, negative
d) expands, positive Answer: b
SP
Explanation: At the triple point,
Answer: a l(sublimation) = l(vaporization) + l(fusion),
Explanation: Unlike other substances which where l is the latent heat.
expands on melting, water contracts on
9. The slope of sublimation curve is ____ the
G
melting and hence the slope of the fusion
curve is negative. slope of the vaporization curve at triple point.
a) equal to
LO
5. The vapour pressure curve is of the form b) less than

ln(p) = A + B/T + C*lnT + DT. c) greater than
a) true d) none of the mentioned
b) false
Answer: c
.B
Answer: a Explanation: This is because at triple point,

Explanation: This is the form of vapour l(sublimation) > l(vaporization).
pressure curve where A,B,C, and D are
17
constants. 10. Latent heat of sublimation is given by

a) l(sublimation) = -2.303*(R)*(d(1/T)/d(log
6. According to Trouton’s rule, the ratio of p ))
latent heat of vaporization to the boiling point b) l(sublimation) = +2.303*(R)*(d(log p
-R
at 1.013 bar is )/d(1/T))

a) 77 kJ/kgmol K c) l(sublimation) = +2.303*(R)*(d(1/T)/d(log
b) 88 kJ/kgmol K p ))
c) 99 kJ/kgmol K d) l(sublimation) = -2.303*(R)*(d(log p
SE
d) 100 kJ/kgmol K )/d(1/T))
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: This is the statement of Explanation: This is the expression for
C
Trouton’s rule. finding the latent heat of sublimation.

11. An application requires R-12 at −140°C. vif = vf – vi = 0.001000 – 0.0010908 =

The triple-point temperature is −157°C. Find -0.0000908 m^3/kg
the pressure of the saturated vapour at the hif = hf – hi = 0.01 – (-333.40) = 333.41
required condition. kJ/kg
a) 0.0058 kPa dPif/dT = 333.41/[(273.16)(-0.0000908)] =
M
b) 0.0098 kPa -13 442 kPa/K
c) 0.0068 kPa at P = 30 MPa, T = 0.01 + (30 000-0.6)/(-13
O
d) 0.0088 kPa 442) = = -2.2°C.
Answer: b
C
Explanation: The lowest temperature for R-
12 is -90°C, so it must be extended to -140°C
UNIT V GAS MIXTURES
T.
using the Clapeyron equation.
at T1= -90°C = 183.2 K, P1 = 2.8 kPa
R = 8.3145/120.914 = 0.068 76 kJ/kg K AND PSYCHROMETRY
ln P/P1 = (hfg/R)(T-T1)/(T*T1)
O
= (189.748/0.068 76)[(133.2 – 183.2)/(133.2 TOPIC 5.1 MOLE AND MASS
× 183.2)] = -5.6543
FRACTION, DALTON'S AND
SP
P = 2.8 exp(-5.6543) = 0.0098 kPa.
AMAGATS LAW.
12. Ice (solid water) at −3°C and 100 kPa, is
compressed isothermally until it becomes 1. The expression which represents the
G
liquid. Find the required pressure. pressure exerted by a gas is
a) 20461 kPa a) nVRT
b) 30461 kPa b) nRT/V
LO
c) 40461 kPa c) V/nRT

d) 50461 kPa d) 1/nVRT
Answer: c Answer: b
.B
Explanation: Water, triple point T = 0.01°C, Explanation: This expression comes from the
P = 0.6113 kPa, vf = 0.001 m^3/kg, gas equation where V is the volume occupied
hf = 0.01 kJ/kg, vi= 0.001 0908 m^3/kg, hi = by the gas at temperature T.
-333.4 kJ/kg
17
dPif/dT = (hf – hi)/[(vf – vi)T] = 2. The expression nRT/V is called the partial
333.4/(-0.0000908 × 273.16) = -13442 kPa/K pressure of a gas.
∆P = (dPif/dT)*∆T = -13442(-3 – 0.01) = a) true
40460 kPa b) false
-R
P = P(tp) + ∆P = 40461 kPa.

Answer: a
13. Estimate the freezing temperature of Explanation: This is the partial pressure that
SE
liquid water at a pressure of 30 MPa. a gas exerts.

a) -2.2°C
b) 0°C 3. According to the Dalton’s law of partial
c) -0.2°C pressures, the total pressure of a mixture of
d) -1.2°C ideal gases is equal to the
C
a) difference of the highest and lowest

Answer: a pressure
Explanation: At the triple point, b) product of the partial pressures

c) sum of the partial pressures densities of the components

Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: According to the Dalton’s law Explanation: these relations come from the
M
of partial pressures, p=p1+p2+p3+…..+pc. Dalton’s law and the gas equation.
4. Which of the following relation is correct? 8. The total entropy of a mixture of gases is
O
a) mole fraction of the Kth gas = moles of the the ____ of the partial entropies.
Kth gas / total number of moles of gas a) average
C
b) partial pressure of Kth gas = (mole fraction b) weighted mean
of the Kth gas)*(sum of the partial pressures) c) sum
T.
c) sum of mole fractions of all the gases is d) difference of the highest and the lowest
unity
d) all of the mentioned Answer: c
Explanation: This is given by the Gibbs
O
Answer: d theorem.
Explanation: All these statements come from
SP
the Dalton’s law of partial pressures. 9. When gases which are at equal pressure
and temperature are mixed adiabatically
5. The gas constant of the mixture is the ____ without work, then
of the gas constants of the components. a) internal energy of the gaseous system
a) average remains constant
G
b) weighted mean b) heat transfer of the gaseous system remains
c) sum constant
LO
d) difference of the highest and the lowest c) entropy of the gaseous system remains
constant
Answer: b d) all of the mentioned
Explanation: It can be found from the
Dalton’s law and gas equation. Answer: a
.B
Explanation: This is because of the first law.

6. A quantity called partial volume of a
component of mixture is used. 10. The fact that internal energy of a mixture
17
a) true is equal to the sum of the partial internal

b) false energies of the gases can also be applied to
properties like H,Cv,Cp,S,F, and G.
Answer: a a) true
-R
Explanation: It is the volume which the b) false

component alone would occupy at the
pressure and temperature of the mixture. Answer: a
Explanation: This statement comes from the
SE
7. Which of the following statement is true? Gibbs theorem.

a) V=V1+V2+….+Vc , where V is the partial
volume of the component
b) 1/v = 1/(v1) + 1/(v2) + …….. + 1/(vc) , TOPIC 5.2 PROPERTIES OF GAS
C
where v is the specific volume of the MIXTURE - MOLAR MASS, GAS

component CONSTANT, DENSITY, CHANGE
c) total density is equal to the sum of the IN INTERNAL ENERGY,

ENTHALPY, ENTROPY AND Answer: d

GIBBS FUNCTION. Explanation: These are the ways of cooling
and dehumidifying air.
PSYCHROMETRIC
PROPERTIES, 5. Cooling and dehumidification of air is done
M
PSYCHROMETRIC CHARTS. in summer air conditioning.
a) true
b) false
O
1. Which of the following statement is true?
a) the chart is plotted for pressure equal to Answer: a
760mm Hg
C
Explanation: This is a common process in
b) the constant wbt line represents adiabatic summer air conditioning.
saturation process
T.
c) the constant wbt line coincides with 6. Heating and humidification is done in
constant enthalpy line a) summer air conditioning
d) all of the mentioned b) winter air conditioning
O
Answer: d d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: All these come from the
SP
psychrometric chart. Answer: b
Explanation: This is opposite to summer air
2. In sensible heating or cooling, conditioning.
a) work done remains constant
G
b) dry bulb temperature or air remains 7. Which of the following is an absorbent?
constant a) silica gel
LO
c) both of the mentioned b) activated alumina

d) none of the mentioned c) both of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The dry bulb temperature of air Answer: c
.B
changes. Explanation: Both of these are examples of

absorbents.
3. When humidity ratio of air ____ air is said
17
to be dehumidified. 8. When air passes through silica gel,

a) increases a) it absorbs water vapour molecules
b) decreases b) latent heat of condensation is released
c) remains constant c) dbt of air increases
-R

Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: when it increases, air is said to Explanation: This process is called chemical
SE
be humidified. dehumidification.
4. Air can be cooled and dehumidified by 9. In adiabatic evaporative cooling, heat
a) circulating chilled water in tube across air transfer between chamber and surroundings is
C
flow ____
b) placing evaporator coil across air flow a) zero
c) spraying chilled water to air b) high

c) low Answer: b
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: Complete dry air does not exist
in nature.
Answer: a
Explanation: No heat transfer takes place 3. Which of the following is true?(here
M
between chamber and surroundings in pa=partial pressure of dry air, pw=partial
adiabatic evaporative cooling. pressure of water vapour, p=atmospheric
pressure)
O
10. The cooling tower uses the phenomenon a) p=pw
of evaporative cooling to cool warm water b) p=pa
C
above the dbt of air. c) p=pw + pa
a) true d) all of the mentioned
T.
b) false
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: This comes by Dalton’s law of
Explanation: The cooling tower uses the partial pressures.
O
phenomenon of evaporative cooling to cool
warm water below the dbt of air. 4. In a mixture of dry air and water vapour,
SP
a) mole fraction of dry air = pa/p
11. Cooling towers are rated in terms of b) mole fraction of water vapour = pw/p
a) approach c) both of the mentioned
b) range d) none of the mentioned
G
d) none of the mentioned Answer: c
Explanation: This comes from the concepts
LO
Answer: c of Dalton’s law of partial pressures.

Explanation: These are the two factors
considered. 5. When pw is very small,
a) saturation temperature of water vapour at
pw is less than atmospheric temperature
.B
TOPIC 5.3 PROPERTY b) water vapour in air exists in superheated

CALCULATIONS OF AIR state
VAPOUR MIXTURES BY USING c) air is said to be in unsaturated state
17
CHART AND EXPRESSIONS. d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
1. Dry air consists of Explanation: Mostly partial pressure of water
-R
a) oxygen, nitrogen vapour is very small.

b) carbon dioxide
c) hydrogen, argon 6. Relative humidity is defined as
d) all of the mentioned a) (saturation pressure of pure water) / pw
SE
b) pw / (saturation pressure of pure water)

Answer: d c) (saturation pressure of pure water) / p
Explanation: Dry air is a mixture of all these d) p / (saturation pressure of pure water)
gases.
C
Answer: b
2. Complete dry air exists in nature. Explanation: Here pw is the partial pressure
a) true of water vapour and ps is the saturation
b) false

pressure of pure water at same temperature of 11. The degree of saturation varies between
mixture. -1 and 0.
a) true
7. For saturated air, relative humidity is 0%. b) false
a) true
M
b) false Answer: b
Explanation: The degree of saturation varies
Answer: b between 0 and 1.
O
Explanation: For saturated air, relative
humidity is 100%. 12. Which of the following statement is true?
C
a) dew point temperature is the temperature at
8. If water is injected into a container with which water vapour starts condensing
has unsaturated air,
T.
b) dry bulb temperature is recorded by
a) water will evaporate thermometer with dry bulb
b) moisture content of air will decrease c) wet bulb temperature is recorded by
c) pw will decrease thermometer when bulb is covered with a
O
d) all of the mentioned cotton wick which is saturated with water
SP
Answer: a
Explanation: The moisture content of air will Answer: d
increase and pw will increase. Explanation: These are the definitions of
dew point temperature, dry bulb temperature
9. Humidity ratio is given by the ratio of
G
and wet bulb temperature.
a) (mass of dry air per unit mass of water
vapour)^2 13. The wet bulb temperature is the ____
LO
b) 1/(mass of dry air * mass of water vapour) temperature recorded by moistened bulb.
c) water vapour mass per unit mass of dry air a) lowest
d) mass of dry air per unit mass of water b) highest
vapour c) atmospheric
.B

Answer: c
Explanation: Humidity ratio is also called Answer: a
specific humidity. Explanation: This is a property of wet bulb
17
temperature.
10. The degree of saturation is the ratio of
a) (saturated specific humidity / actual 14. At any dbt, the ____ the difference of wbt
specific humidity)^2 reading below below dbt, ____ is the amount
-R
b) 1/(saturated specific humidity * actual of water vapour held in mixture.

specific humidity) a) smaller, smaller
c) saturated specific humidity / actual specific b) greater, greater
humidity c) greater, smaller
SE
d) actual specific humidity / saturated specific d) smaller, greater

humidity
Answer: c
Answer: d Explanation: This is an important property of
C
Explanation: Here both saturated specific dbt and wbt.

humidity and specific humidity are at same
temperature.

15. When unsaturated air flows over a sheet 3. When humidity ratio of air ____ air is said
of water in an insulated chamber to be dehumidified.
a) specific humidity of air decreases a) increases
b) the water evaporates b) decreases
c) both air and water are cooled during c) remains constant
M
evaporation d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
O
Answer: a Explanation: when it increases, air is said to
Explanation: The specific humidity of air be humidified.
C
increases during this process.
4. Air can be cooled and dehumidified by
T.
a) circulating chilled water in tube across air
TOPIC 5.4 PSYCHROMETRIC flow
PROCESS - ADIABATIC b) placing evaporator coil across air flow
SATURATION, SENSIBLE c) spraying chilled water to air
O
HEATING AND COOLING, d) all of the mentioned
HUMIDIFICATION,
SP
Answer: d
DEHUMIDIFICATION, Explanation: These are the ways of cooling
EVAPORATIVE COOLING AND and dehumidifying air.
ADIABATIC MIXING.
5. Cooling and dehumidification of air is done
G
in summer air conditioning.
1. Which of the following statement is true? a) true
LO
a) the chart is plotted for pressure equal to b) false

760mm Hg
b) the constant wbt line represents adiabatic Answer: a
saturation process Explanation: This is a common process in
c) the constant wbt line coincides with summer air conditioning.
.B
constant enthalpy line

d) all of the mentioned 6. Heating and humidification is done in
a) summer air conditioning
17
Answer: d b) winter air conditioning

Explanation: All these come from the c) both of the mentioned
psychrometric chart. d) none of the mentioned
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2. In sensible heating or cooling, Answer: b

a) work done remains constant Explanation: This is opposite to summer air
b) dry bulb temperature or air remains conditioning.
constant
SE
c) both of the mentioned 7. Which of the following is an absorbent?

d) none of the mentioned a) silica gel
b) activated alumina
Answer: a c) both of the mentioned
C
Explanation: The dry bulb temperature of air d) none of the mentioned

changes.
Answer: c
Explanation: Both of these are examples of

absorbents. between chamber and surroundings in

adiabatic evaporative cooling.
8. When air passes through silica gel,
a) it absorbs water vapour molecules 10. The cooling tower uses the phenomenon
b) latent heat of condensation is released of evaporative cooling to cool warm water
M
c) dbt of air increases above the dbt of air.
d) all of the mentioned a) true
b) false
O
Answer: d
Explanation: This process is called chemical Answer: b
C
dehumidification. Explanation: The cooling tower uses the
phenomenon of evaporative cooling to cool
9. In adiabatic evaporative cooling, heat
T.
warm water below the dbt of air.
transfer between chamber and surroundings is
____ 11. Cooling towers are rated in terms of
a) zero a) approach
O
b) high b) range
c) low c) both of the mentioned
SP
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: No heat transfer takes place Explanation: These are the two factors
considered.
G
LO
.B
17
-R
SE
C

ME 8391 Engineering Thermodynamics MCQ 2020

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ME 8391 Engineering Thermodynamics MCQ 2020

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Department of Mechanical Engineering MCQ for Regulations 2017

c) macroscopic potential energy

2. The specific energy, e=E/m is an extensive d) none of the mentioned

number of molecules in the system and ɛ

intensive property. 7. In an ideal gas there are no intermolecular

b) microscopic kinetic energy

Answer: a Explanation: For an ideal gas U depends

4. (m*g*z) gives the a) dQ≠0

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EXTENSIVE, TOTAL AND system

d) none of the mentioned

a) true this comes from Clausius theorem.

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b) dS>dQ/T because S is a point function and a property.

Answer: c quasi-static process.

9. For the general case, we can write Answer: a

a) S2-S1<=dQ/T for a path Explanation: A reversible process is carried

d) none of the mentioned

for a reversible process and the inequality c) both of the mentioned

10. When two equilibrium states are Answer: c

infinitesimally near, Explanation: These two are the major causes

d) none of the mentioned reversibility as the temperature difference

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b) zero lubrication cannot be completely eliminated.

Explanation: It can be demonstrated by the d) none of the mentioned

d) all of the mentioned a) 0

d) PMM0 c) electrical resistance, magnetic hysteresis

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Answer: d it acts upon a body moving in the direction of

distinctions of irreversibility. b) path function

COMPARISON, SIGN Explanation: Amount of work done depends

DISPLACEMENT WORK AND 5. Thermodynamic properties are

a) product of the force and distance travelled d) none of the mentioned

parallel to the force

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Answer: c 1. Which of the following is a property of a

a) without a change of pressure or

d) none of the mentioned

a) depends on the path followed a) saturated solid state

5. Which of the following exists in a p-V

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a) saturated solid line 9. The isotherm passing through the critical

d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned

8. Which of the following statement is true? a) saturation temperature is a function of

liquid line with respect to solidification there c) both of the mentioned

d) all of the mentioned Explanation: At saturation temperature, a

the p-V diagram for a pure substance.

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CONCEPT OF TEMPERATURE 5. If a system undergoes a reversible

Explanation: It was proposed by Kelvin.

d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c approaches zero, the temperature of heat

to reduce any system to the absolute zero of

Explanation: Any attainable value of

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9. The statement of third law is also called the done

this is called as Kinetic temperature.

b) Conservation of momentum a) 0.5 KT

2. Equation of the first law of 5. An increase in enthalpy leads to an

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b) Increase in volume c) Joule/kg

undergo changes, which lead to a disorder or surroundings.

a) Ratio of reversible transfer of heat to a) Exothermic reaction

4. (mgz) gives the a) dQ≠0