24- What si the most common

A. Punched-out papillae
B. Fetid breath
C. Deep periodontal pockets near the apex
D. Pain on palpation and percussion
E. None of the above

25- What is the main route of communication between the pulp and periodontal tissues in
an endo-periodontal lesion?
A. Lateral canals
B. Apical foramen
C. Accessory canals
D. a and b
E. All of the above

26- According to 2017 classification system, localized gingivitis defined as a patient

presenting with a BOP score :
A. ≥ 5% and ≤ 20%
B. ≥10% and ≤30%
C. ≥15%and≤40%
D. ≥25%and≤45%
E. None of the given choices

27- Clinical gingival health in stable periodontitis is characterized by:

A. An absence (or minimum) bleeding on probing less than 10%.
B. Presence of interproximal clinical attachment loss.
C. Probing pocket depth ≤4 m with out bleeding on probing.
D. No pseudo pockets
E. All of the above

28- One of the following is not related to clinical characteristics of drug-influenced gingival
enlargement.
A. Predilection for anterior gingiva.
B. Higher prevalence in elderly than younger age groups.
C. Onset within 3 months of use.
D. Enlargement first observed at the interdental papilla.
E. Increased gingival exudate

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29- To colonize subgingival sites, a species must be able to:
A. Attach to one or more of the available surfaces.
B. Multiply.
C. Compete successfully against other species.
D. Defend itself from host defense mechanisms.
E. Al of the above.

30- The process of attachment of bacterial species to other speçies in plaque is called:
A. Adhesion.
B. Aggregation.
C. Coaggregation.
D. Attachment
E. Multiplication.

31- All of the following are virulence factors of Aggregatibacter

actinomycetemcomitans,except
A. Leukotoxin.
B. Immunosuppression factors.
C. Gingipain.
D. Antimicrobial resistance.
E. Lipopolysaccharides.

32- The following lesion marks the transition from gingivitis to periodontitis:
A. Established lesion.
B. Initial lesion.
C. Early lesion.
D. Advanced lesion.
E. Clinically healthy gingiva.

33- The three members of the red complex bacteria are:

A. Porphyromonas gingivalis, Tannerella forsythia and Treponema denticola.
B. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans, Porphyromonas gingivalis and prevotela intermedia.
C. Porphyromonas gingivalis, fusobacterium neucleatum and campylobacter rectus.
D. Eikenella corrodens, Actinomyces odontolyticus and Veillonella parvula.
E. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans, Porphyromonas gingivalis and fusobacterium
neucleatum.

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34- Virulence factors of Gram-negative microorganisms that contribute to periodontal
disease by stimulating host inflammatory and immune responses:
A. Lipopolysaccharides.
B. lipoteichoic acids.
C. Cytokines.
D. Prostaglandins.
E. Matrix metalloproteinases.

35- Extracellular matrix enzymes that are associated with normal tissue turnover as well as
with gingivitis, destructive periodontitis and with the healing of the periodontal tissues
following therapy:
A. Cytokines.
B. Alpha-2 macroglobulin.
C. Alphal antitrypsin.
D. Matrix metalloproteinases.
E. Prostaglandins.

36- As dental plaque increases in maturity, microbial communities shift from:

A. Gram positive to gram negative.
B. Gram negative to gram positive.
C. Gram positives aerobes to gram negative anaerobes.
D. Gram negative anaerobes to gram positives aerobes
E. None of the above.

37- The iatrogenic factors (faulty dentistry) which are:

A. Cervical enamel projections
B. Deficiencies in the quality of dental restorations or prostheses are contributing factors
gingival inflammation and periodontal destruction.
C. Furcation anatomy and developmental grooves
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

53- The most common locations for supragingival calculus to develop are:
A. Lingual surfaces of mandibular molars.
B. Lingual surfaces of mandibular anteriors.
C. Buccal surfaces of maxillary molars.
D. a & b.
E. b&c.
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54- Subgingival calculus si characterized by al the folowing features,except:
A. Hard and dense.
B. Dark brown or greenish black in color.
C. Firmly attached to the tooth surface.
D. Located apical to the gingival margin.
E. Easily detected from the tooth surface.

55- The dark color of subgingival calculus due to:

A. Blood product ‫ﻣﺎ ﻣﺘﺄﻛﺪة ﻣﻨﮭﺎ‬
B. Saliva
C. GCF
D. Al of theabove
E. None of the abone

56- Calcification of plaque occurred when :

A. pH increases
B. pH decreases
C. CO2 increases
D. CO2 decreases
E. None of the above

57- All of the following causes intrinsic tooth discoloration except:

A. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. Fluorosis.
C. Tetracycline staining.
D. Chromogens derived from dietary sources.
E. Enamel hypoplasia.

58- The best way to prevent extrinsic staining is:

A. Effective tooth brushing twice aday with adentifrice.
B. Ultrasonic cleaning.
C. Rotary polishing with an abrasive prophylactic paste.
D. Air-jet polishing with an abrasive powder.
E. Home bleaching systems.

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59- Tobacco stain occurs most frequently on;
A. Labial surfaces of maxillary anterior teeth
B. Buccal surfaces of posterior teeth
C. Labial surfaces of mandibular incisors
D. Lingual surfaces of mandibular incisors
E. All of the above

60- Green stain is caused by:

A-streptococcus bacteria
B-presence of tannin
C-penicillin
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

61- What is the role of Gram-negative bacteria and associated lipopolysaccharide (LPS) in
atherogenesis
A. Inhibition o f interleukin I
B. Suppression of tumor necrosis factor-alfa
C. Facilitation of platelet aggregation
D. Prevention of cholesterol deposition
E. Inhibition of atheroma formation

62. How does periodontal infection contribute to an increased risk for central and
peripheral vascular issues
A. By reducing blood viscosity
B. Through inhibition of thrombogenesis
C. By promoting increased blood viscosity and thrombogenesis
D. By preventing blood clot formation
E. Through vasodilation

63. Which of the following are complications of diabetes mellitus?

A. Retinopathy and nephropathy
B. Neuropathy and macrovascular disease
C. Altered wound healing and periodontal disease
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

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64- How would you describe the relationship between diabetes and periodontal disease
based on the provided information
A. Unrelated
B. Unidirectional
C. Bi-directional
D. Causal
E. Random

65- Based on the provided information, what is the MOST important conclusion?
A. Periodontal disease is the sole cause of al systemic health problems.
B. There is a strong two-way relationship between periodontal disease and systemic health.
C. Dental care has no impact on overall health outcomes.
D. Treating periodontal disease offers no benefit for patients with other chronic conditions.
E. all of the above

66- Which of the following diseases are adversely affected by the periodontal disease?
A. Coronary heart disease.
B. Diabetes mellitus.
C. Myocardial infarction.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.

67- Which statement is NOT true about the ideal requisites of a dental index?
A. It should be quantifiable (numerical scoring).
B. It should be reproducible (consistent results on repeat assessments).
C. It should be sensitive (detect small changes in the condition).
D. It should be complex and challenging to use (to ensure accuracy).
E. a&b

68- Ascore of "1" in plaque index assumes the following:

A. Plaque is present on one tooth
B. Plaque si present on cervical margin, can not be sen by the naked eye, but can be detected
by using disclosing agents or probes.
C. Moderate deposit of plaque
D. A & c
E. None of the above

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69- Which factor would MOST negatively impact the validity of a dental index for assessing
gingivitis severity?
A. Clear and objective scoring criteria
B. Training and standardization of examiners
C. Inclusion of subjective assessments of pain
D. Consistent application across different populations
E. a&b

70- Which score of calculus index indicating calculus covering one-third ot two-thirds of the
tooth surface:
A. Scorezero
B. Score one
C. Score two
D. Scorethree
E. Score four

71 - Through & through destruction of tissues in furcation area represent:

A. Grade I
B. GradeIl
C. Grade III
D. Grade IV
E. a and d

72- When the bottom of the pocket is coronal to the level of the adjacent alveolar bone. The
type of bone loss is:
A. Horizontal.
B. Vertical.
C. infra alveolar.
D. Both A and C.
E. all of the mentioned.

73- An accurate and reliable method for the detection of a pocket is :

A. histologic section
B. radiographs
C. clinical probing using a periodontal probe
D. Aloftheabove
E. None of the above

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74- Clinical symptom (not sign) that suggests the presence of periodontal pockets include:
A. Bluish red, vertical zone from the gingival margin to the alveolar mucosa.
B. Bluish red, thickened marginal gingiva. ‫ﻣﺎ ﻣﺘﺄﻛﺪة ﻣﻨﮭﺎ‬
C. Bleeding on probing.
D. Localized pain.
E. non of the mentioned .

75- The histopathologic features of a given pocket with positive bleeding on probing include
A. Increased vascularity.
B. Thinning and degeneration of epithelium.
C. Proximity of engorged vessels to inner surface
D. All the above
E. None of above

76- The term false pocket stands for:

A. Infrabonypocket
B. Loss of periodontal attachment
C. Overgrowth or enlargement of the gingiva
D. Vertical bone resorption
E. Horizontal bone resorption

77- Horizontal bone loss is a feature of:

A. Supra bony pocket
B. infra bony pocket
C. intra bony pocket
D. gingival pocket
E. None of the above

78- Which phase of the treatment plan focuses on eliminating infections and inflammation?
A. PhaseI
B. PhaseIl
C. Phase III
D. PhaseIV
E. phase V

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79- Maintenance of oral health after active disease control relies on:
A. Professional recall visits only
B. Patient education and careful home care
C. Regular use of mouthwash and antiseptic rinses
D. Surgical procedures to deepen periodontal pockets
E. c&d

80- Periodontal dressing should have the following properties:

A. Soft but still has enough plasticity
B. Should harden within a reasonable time
C. After setting should be sufficiently rigid to prevent fracture and dislocation.
D. Bactericidal properties to prevent excessive plaque formation
E. All of the above.

81- Professional mechanical plaque removal (PMPR) primarily involves:

A. Scaling and root planing of dental surfaces.
B. Placement of temporary restorations and crowns.
C. Surgical procedures to deepen periodontal pockets.
D. Teaching patients proper oral hygiene techniques.
E. extracted the mobile teeth

82- Scaling and root planing alone may not be sufficient for:
A. Patients with endodontic periodontal lesions
B. Pockets deeper than 6mm with significant bone loss.
C. Furcation involvements with difficult access for cleaning.
D. Drug-induced gingival enlargement
E. All of the above.

83- The periodontal surgical phase can include :

A. Plastic surgery
B. Surgical pocket therapy
C. Pre prosthetic surgery
D. Placing implants
E. All of tne above

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84- Treatment plan for periodontitis patient include the following:
A. Causative phase
B. Surgical phase
C. Restorative phase
D. Maintenance phase
E. All of the above

85- The following conditions deserve tooth extraction, except:

A. Tooth is isolated and not included in treatment plan ‫ﻣﺎ ﻣﺘﺄﻛﺪة ﻣﻨﮭﺎ‬
B. Tooth is loose
C. Tooth has large cavity
D. Alloftheabove
E. None of the above

86- Among the objectives of periodontal surgery are the following, except:
A. Direct access for scaling and root planing
B. Correction of mucogingival defects
C. Removal of supragingival plaque and calculus
D. Enhance regeneration of periodontal tissue
E. Provide access to bony defects

87-The following instrument is used to indicate base of pocket location during

gingivectomy:
A. Periosteal elevator
B. Pocket marker
C. Kirkland knife
D. Orban knife
E. Buckknife

88- Patient with improved oral hygiene, no inflammation signs, no BOP and no attachment
loss
A. The patient should be move to corrective phase of therapy
B. The patient should be re-motivated and re-instructed on oral hygiene measures
C. Thepatientrequiresrecallonmaintenancephase
D. The patient requires immediate periodontal surgery
E. None of the above

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89- The following is not among means or instruments of scaling and root planing:
A. Ultrasonic scaler
B. Handscalers
C. PerioChip
D. Aand B
E. BandC

90- Surgical treatment includes all of the following except:

A. Gingivectomy.
B. Flap surgery.
C. Supra gingival scaling.
D. Distal wedge procedure.
E. Guided tissue regeneration.

91- After complete treatment of periodontal disease, occasionally, lesions may recur; causes
for recurrence include the following:
A. Inadequate plaque/biofilm control on the part of the patient or failure ot comply with
recommended SPT schedules.
B. Inadequate or insufficient treatment has failedot remove al of the potential factors favoring
biofilm accumulation.
C. Inadequate restorations were placed after the periodontal treatment was completed.
D. Presence of some systemic diseases that may affect host resistance to previously acceptable
levels of biofilm.
E. All of the above

92. What is the antimicrobial effect of chlorhexidine at low concentrations?

A. Bactericidal effect
B. Fungalinhibition
C. Bacteriostaticeffect
D. Viral inactivation
E. Biofilm formation

93- Oral health with powered toothbrushes is improved in all of the following, except:
A. Patients with fixed orthodontic appliance
B. Patients with rheumatoid arthritis
C. Children with physical and mental disabilities
D. Hospitalized patients who need to have their teeth cleaned by careivers.
E. Children
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94- What is the general guideline for keeping a periodontal dressing on after surgery?
A. 24hours.
B. 3 days .
C. 1 week.
D. 2weeks.
E. 1 month .

95- The dental flossing disadvantages are the following, except:

A. Use in orthodontic patients
B. Difficulttomaster
C. Time-consuming procedure
D. It may cause damage if not used properly
E. Noneoftheabove

96- Selection of interproximal cleaning tool is based on:

A. Interdental architecture.
B. Tooth alignment.
C. Presence of orthodontic appliance/ fixed prosthesis:
D. All of the above.
E. Non of the above

97- Clinical uses o f chlorhexidine include:

A. For patients with jaw fixation.
B. Mentally and physically handicapped patients.
C. High caries risk patients.
D. All of the above.
E. Both (A and B).

98-One of the following is the side effect of CHX:

A. Oral mucosal abrasion
B. Unilateral or bilateral parotid swelling
C. Supragingival calculus
D. All of the above
E. Noneoftheabove

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99- Hoe scaler is used to remove-
A. remove tenacious subgingival deposits
B. for scaling of ledges or rings of subgingival calculus.
C. a & b
D. supragingivalcalculus
E. supra and subgingival calculus

100- Supra gingival sealing instruments may include:

A. Periodontal curettes.
B. Sickles&cumines
C. Periodontal Files
D. Hoes instruments
E. All of the above

101. Among disadvantages of sonic & ultrasonie instrumentations are:

A. Heat generation
B. Aerosol contamination
C. Simple manipulation
D. Better visaulization
E. Both a&b

102- Best instrument grasp that recommended for all periodontal instruments is
A. Pengrasp
B. modified pen grasp
C. palm up grasp
D. palm down grasp
E. none of the above

103- Halitosis is primarily because of:

A. Collagenase enzymes
B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. Trypsin like enzymes
D. Hydrogen sulphide
E. All of the above

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104- Objective tests for halitosis are all except:
A- Organoleptic measurement
B- Gas chromatography
C- Cupped breath
D- Sulphide monitoring
E- Halimeter

105- The primary source of breath malodor is :

A. Gingivitis
B. Periodontitis
C. Decrease salivation
D. The dorsal posterior surface of the tongue
E. None of the above

106- Systemic pathological conditions that cause halitosis:

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Renal failure
C. Liver failure
D. Tuberculosis/ lung abscess
E. All of the above

107- The following antibiotics are bactericidal except:

A. Doxycycline.
B. Augmentin.
C. Metronidazole.
D. Amoxicillin.
E. None of the above.

108- It is a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanate potassium.

A. Penicillin.
B. Augmentin.
C. Metronidazole.
D. Macrolids.
E. Ampicillin.

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109- Tetracycline is contraindicated in:
A. Children
B. Pregnancy
C. Renal failure
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

110- Advantages of systemically ingested antibiotics include:

A. Systemic side effects.
B. Broad spectrum of activity.
C. Bacterial resistance.
D. Interaction with other medications.
E. None of the above.

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