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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PPP-PTS-4273/082023/04

GENERAL STUDIES

POLITY - 4
Time Allowed: One Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number carefully
without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the
Test Booklet.
O
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
.C
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
S

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TE

TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
O

penalty.
FN

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
D

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
.P

question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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1. Regarding the evolution of the third tier How many of the above statements are
governance in India, consider the following correct?
statements: (a) Only One
1. In 1957, the Ashok Mehta Committee (b) Only Two
recommended the establishment of a
three-tier structure of Panchayati Raj (c) All three
across states. (d) None
2. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
recommended mandatory quotas for the 4. Which one of the following Committee
recommended a three-tier structure of self-
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
governance in the tribal areas?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Ashok Mehta Committee
correct?
(b) Bhuria Committee
(a) 1 only
(c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(b) 2 only
(d) G V K Rao Committee
(c) Both 1 and 2

RE
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. Consider the following provisions under PESA
Act:

2. With reference to the 73rd Amendment Act, 1. Gram sabha at the para, majra and tola
levels
consider the following statements:
2. Gram sabha to protect the traditions,
1. The Act unveiled three-tier rural beliefs and culture of the tribal
institutions - Gram
O
Panchayats, communities
Panchayat Samitis, and Zilla Parishad.
3. Gram sabha to manage and protect
2. The Act mandated one-third of the seats common properties based on their
at all levels of panchayats are reserved traditional systems of management and
SC
for women. protection

3. It mandated the formation of state finance 4. The administration to seek permission

from the gram sabha in case of land
commissions and provision for grants-in-
acquisition
aid from state governments to PRIs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
How many of the above statements are below.
correct?
(a) 4 only
GS

(a) Only One

(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only Two
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) All three (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None
O
6. Regarding the sources of revenues of Urban
.C
Local Bodies (ULBs), consider the following:
3. Consider the following statements about 74th
Amendment Act: 1. Collection from tax and non-tax sources
S

as assigned to them under Municipal

TE

1. Under the Act, the creation of a Finance act.

Commission to determine the sharing of
taxes, duties, and funds from the State 2. Devolution of shared taxes and duties
as per recommendation of State Finance
O

Consolidated Fund.
Commission
FN

2. The government passed the Panchayat 3. Grants-in-aid from the State

Extension to Tribal Areas (PESA) Act Government
under 73rd Amendment Act.
D

4. Grants-in-aid from the Government

3. The Act reserves 50 percent of local body of India under Centrally Sponsored
.P

seats for ST community. Schemes

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Select the correct answer using the codes given 2. It encourages citizen participation in the
below. decision-making process.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. It is responsible for providing various
essential services like water supply,
(b) 1 only sanitation, education, healthcare,
(c) 2 only infrastructure development, and more.
How many of the above statements are
(d) 3 and 4 only
incorrect?

7. Consider the following functions and powers (a) Only One

enshrined under 11th Schedule of Indian (b) Only Two
Constitution:
(c) All three
1. Agriculture, including agricultural (d) None
extension
2. Land improvement, implementation of 10. With reference to the State Election Commission,
land reforms, land consolidation and soil consider the following statements:
conservation 1. It is a constitutional body established

RE
3. Minor irrigation, water management and under the provisions of the Indian
watershed development Constitution.

4. Maintenance of community assets 2. It is under the control of the state

government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
3. It has power to conduct elections to the
below. O local bodies, such as urban and rural
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only local bodies within the state.
(b) 3 and 4 only 4. The Chief State Election Commissioner
and other Election Commissioners are
(c) 1, 2, 3, and 4 appointed by the Governor of the state.
SC
(d) None of them How many of the above statements are
correct?
8. With the reference to the XIIth Schedule of the (a) Only One
Indian Constitution, consider the following
(b) Only Two
statements:
(c) Only three
1. It was added by the 73rd Amendment Act
of 1992. (d) All four
GS

2. It aims to strengthen local self-government

11. Consider the following statements regarding
and promote effective and efficient urban
the State Election Commission:
planning and development.
1. It is responsible for the delimitation of
Which of the statements given above is/are constituencies for local body elections.
O
correct?
2. The Commission has no authority to
.C
(a) 1 only enforce the Model Code of Conduct during
(b) 2 only the election period.
S

3. It may provide advice to the state

TE

(c) Both 1 and 2

government on matters related to the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 electoral reforms.
O

Which of the statement given above is/are

9. About the Local Governance in India, consider correct?
FN

the following statements: (a) 1 only

1. Local governance ensures the (b) 2 and 3 only
D

decentralization of power from the

central and state governments to the (c) 1 and 3 only
.P

local bodies. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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12. About Finance Commission, consider the 3. The union cannot give directives to the
following statements: state pertaining to the construction and
maintenance within the state.
Statement-I:
How many of the above statements are
Our Constitution has made provision for the
creation of Finance Commission under article correct?
280. (a) Only one
Statement-II: (b) Only two
It’s objective to recommend devolution of (c) All three
resources from the Center to the States
through Tax-Sharing and Grants-in-Aid. (d) None

Which one of the following is correct in respect

of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
15. About financial relations between the
union and the states, consider the following
statements:
1. It is derived from the Government of

RE
India Act of 1909.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the 2. The seventh schedule of the Constitution
correct explanation for Statement-I provides for specific entries reserved for
the union and the states for imposing
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
taxes.
is incorrect
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d)
O
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct
correct?
(a) 1 only
13. With respect to the role of State Finance (b) 2 only
SC
Commission, consider the following:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Assessing Local Body Finances
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Reviewing Financial Devolution
3. Rationalization of Local Taxes and Fees 16. With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor
4. Reporting to the Governor General of India (CAG), consider the following
statements:
GS

How many of the above-mentioned are

correct? 1. CAG is the sole authority prescribed
in the Constitution entrusted with the
(a) All four responsibility of audit of accounts of the
(b) Only one Union.

(c) Only two 2. CAG audits maintenance of provident

O
funds accounts of State Government
.C
(d) Only three employees.
S

3. He is not liable to do performance audit

14. With respect to the administrative relations
for Companies and Corporations.
TE

between Centre and States, consider the

following statements: How many of the statements given above are
correct?
O

1. The Executive Power of the Union

extends to giving of direction to the state (a) Only one
FN

under Article 256 for their compliance.

(b) Only two
2. Parliament is entitled to use the state
D

machinery for the enforcement of the (c) All three

union laws, and confer powers and
.P

(d) None
entrust duties to the state.
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17. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
1. The Attorney General of India can
participate in the joint sitting of the (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Parliament for his/her own removal.
(b) 2 only
2. The first Attorney General of India was
M. C. Setalvad. (c) 1 and 3 only

3. The Attorney general is not entitled (d) None

under the rules for ‘Office of Profit’ in the
Constitution. 20. Consider the following statements:
4. He is the ex-officio member of the Law
1. Election Commission is the only electoral
commission of India.
management body (EMB) in India.
How many of the statements given above are
incorrect? 2. As per the independent model of electoral
management, members of Electoral
(a) Only one management bodies (EMBs) are not

RE
(b) Only two accountable to any government ministry
or department.
(c) Only three
3. A national population or statistics bureau
(d) All four that produces electoral registers as part
of the general process of population
18. Consider the following statements: O registration is not considered to be an
1. Union Public service commission (UPSC) EMB.
is authorized to give advice to the How many of the statements given above are
Government on any matter referred by correct?
the President of India.
SC
(a) Only one
2. The formation of a permanent commission
for civil services was brought in the (b) Only two
Indian Councils Act of 1919.
(c) All three
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (d) None
GS

(a) 1 only
21. Regarding the Finance commission of India,
(b) 2 only consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Finance commission can recommend the
distribution of rural local bodies’ grants,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
O
only to Gram Panchayats.
.C
19. With reference to Joint Public service 2. Finance commission can suggest the
Commission (JPSC), which of the statements share of taxes between Centre and the
S

given below are not correct? States.

TE

1. The President appoints the chairman of

Which of the statements given above is/are
a JPSC.
correct?
O

2. It is not a constitutional body.

(a) 1 only
FN

3. The First Joint Public service commission

of formed in 1966. (b) 2 only
D

4. It was taken from Government of India (c) Both 1 and 2

.P

Act, 1935.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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22. Consider the following statements: How many of the statements given above are
correct?
1. The GST Council consists of the Union
Finance Minister and representatives (a) Only One
from all States and Union Territories.
(b) Only two
2. The GST council makes decisions on
(c) Only three
various aspects of GST, including tax
rates, exemptions, and administrative (d) All four
procedures.
3. GST Council Secretariat is responsible 25. Consider the following statements:
for conducting meetings and setting up
Statement I:
the agenda for those meetings.
4. The Finance Minister is the ex-officio Constitution of India contains provisions to
Secretary of GST Council. safeguard rights of minorities.

How many of the statements given above are Statement II:

correct? National Commission for Minorities (NCM)
(a) Only one notifies only Muslims, Christians, Sikhs,
Buddhists and Zoroastrians (Parsis) as

RE
(b) Only two minorities.
(c) Only three Which one of the following is correct in respect
(d) All four of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
23. With reference to National Commission for correct and Statement-II is the correct
Scheduled Castes, consider the following explanation for Statement I
statements:
O (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
1. It is a statutory body established to are correct and Statement-II is not the
protect rights of Scheduled Caste and correct explanation for Statement-I
Anglo Indian community.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
SC
2. The economic and social development is incorrect
wing of the commission deals with cases
related to minimum wages for SCs in the (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
country. II is correct

Which of the statements given above is/are

incorrect? 26. With reference to administration of schedule
areas in India, consider the following
(a) 1 only statements:
GS

(b) 2 only 1. The Governor can increase or decrease

(c) Both 1 and 2 the area of any Scheduled Area in a
State.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Governor is authorised to make O
regulations for the peace and good
24. Consider the following statements:
government of any Scheduled area in a
.C
1. The National Perspective Plan for State.
Women (1988-2000) recommended the
3. The President is empowered to direct
S

constitution of a Commission for Women

that any particular act of Parliament or
in India.
TE

the state legislature does not apply to a

2. The National commission for Women scheduled area.
(NCW) deals with the issues of NRI
How many of the above statements are
O

martial disputes.
correct?
3. Suo Motu cognizance can be taken for
FN

information received by the NCW related (a) Only one

to violence against women. (b) Only two
D

4. Legal Cell of NCW reviews the (c) All three

constitutional and legal safeguards
.P

provided to the Women. (d) None

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27. Consider the following statements: How many of the above statements is/are
criteria for declaring any area as a Scheduled
Statement-I: Area under the Fifth Schedule?
In order to address the welfare and progress of (a) Only one
the scheduled tribes, each state with scheduled
(b) Only two
areas is required to establish a Tribes Advisory
Council. (c) All three

Statement-II: (d) All Four

In states where scheduled tribes exist but
scheduled areas are absent, the President can
direct the establishment of a Tribes Advisory
Council.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
30. Consider the following statements regarding
the 5th Schedule Areas:
1. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
are exempted from the 5thSchedule of the
Indian Constitution.
2. Tribal habitations in few states like
Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and
West Bengal are covered under the fifth

RE
schedule.
explanation for Statement-I
3. At present, 10 States have Fifth Schedule
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II Areas.
are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I How many of the above statements are
correct?
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
(a) Only one
is incorrect
(d)
O
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct
(b)
(c)
Only two
All three
(d) All Four
SC
28. With reference to administration of tribal
areas, consider the following statements: 31. With reference to the features of administration
contained in the Sixth Schedule, consider the
1. Tribal areas are autonomous districts following statements:
but not independent of state control.
Statement-I:
2. The Governor can split an autonomous The district and regional councils within their
district into multiple regions for diverse territorial jurisdictions can constitute village
GS

tribes. councils or courts for trial of suits and cases

Which of the statements given above is/are between the tribes.
correct? Statement-II:
(a) 1 only The jurisdiction of high court over suits
and cases between the tribes is specified
(b) 2 only
O
by the Governor.
(c) Both 1 and 2
.C
Which one of the following is correct in respect
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 of the above statements?
S

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

TE

29. Consider the following: correct and Statement-II is the correct

1. Preponderance of tribal population explanation for Statement-I
O

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II

2. Compactness and reasonable size of the
are correct and Statement-II is not the
area
FN

correct explanation for Statement-I

3. Viability as an administrative entity, (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
such as a district, block, or taluk is incorrect
D

4. Economic backwardness in comparison (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-

.P

to neighbouring areas II is correct

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32. The Constitution, under Sixth Schedule, How many of the above statements are
contains special provisions for the correct?
administration of tribal areas in which of the
(a) 1 only
following states?
(b) 2 only
1. Tripura
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Manipur
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Assam
4. Meghalaya 35. Consider the following statements regarding
the Bodoland Territorial Council:
5. Nagaland
1. The Council was created under the 5th
6. Mizoram Schedule of the Indian Constitution
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. A Speaker leads the Council, while a
below: Chief Executive Member chairs the
executive committee.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
3. The executive and legislative powers
(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6 only of the Council are derived from Sixth

RE
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only Schedule of the Constitution.
How many of the above statements are
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
correct?
(a) Only one
33. Consider the following statements regarding
Inner Line Permit (ILP): (b) Only two
(c) All three
Statement-I:
O
Manipur, Mizoram, and Nagaland are the (d) None
states that require a permit.
36. Consider the following statements regarding
Statement-II:
SC
‘Development Councils’ in Assam:
It is obligatory for Indian citizens from outside 1. Government of Assam has created 33
those states to obtain a permit for entering the Development Councils to decentralize
protected state. power and responsibility.
Which one of the following is correct in respect 2. The main function of these Council bodies
of the above statements? is to formulate various developmental
schemes and to execute these in priority
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
and need base manner.
GS

correct and Statement-II is the correct

explanation for Statement-I 3. The creation of each of the Development
Council was made by separate Gazetted
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II Notification.
are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I How many of the above statements are O
correct?
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
.C
(a) Only one
is incorrect
(b) Only two
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
S

II is correct (c) All three

TE

(d) None
34. With reference to ‘Tribal Sub-Plan’, consider
the following statement:
O

37. Consider the following statements regarding

1. It was established to promote the the Legislative relations between the Centre
FN

development of areas with a significant and States:

tribal concentration. Statement-I:
D

2. It was renamed as Scheduled Tribe Both the Parliament and the State legislatures
Component (STC) by Ministry of Tribal can make laws on subjects given in the
.P

Affairs. Concurrent list.

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Statement-II: How many of the above statements are

correct?
In case of conflict between the law of the State
and Union law on a subject in the Concurrent (a) Only one
list, the law of the Parliament prevails. (b) Only two
Which one of the following is correct in respect (c) Only three
of the above statements?
(d) All four
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct 40. Which of the following statements is/are
explanation for Statement-I incorrect?
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II 1. NITI Aayog has been constituted to
are correct and Statement-II is not the actualise the important goal of cooperative
correct explanation for Statement-I federalism and to enable good governance
in India.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect 2. NITI has established the Sustainable
Action for Transforming Human Capital

RE
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- (SATH) programme to promotion of
II is correct cooperative federalism among the states.
Select the correct answer using the code given
38. With respect to the Inter-State Councils, below.
consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only
1. The council was established on
recommendations
Commission.
of
O
Sarkaria (b)
(c)
2 only
Both 1 and 2
2. The councils empowered to investigate (d) Neither 1 nor 2
SC
and discuss subjects of common interest
between the Union and states, or among 41. Consider the following statements:
states.
Statement-I:
Which of the statements given above is/are
The term “emergency” refers to an
correct? unanticipated turn of circumstances that
(a) 1 only requires government bodies to act immediately
within their jurisdiction.
GS

(b) 2 only
Statement-II:
(c) Both 1 and 2
In situations of emergency, all civil rights -
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 except Articles 20 and 21 of the Constitution
of India suspended inside the state or nation.
O
39. In the context of the Zonal Councils, consider
Which one of the following is correct in respect
.C
the following pairs: of the above statements?
1. Northern Zonal Council - Himachal
S

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir correct and Statement-II is the correct
TE

explanation for Statement-I

2. Central Zonal Council - Chhattisgarh
and Uttarakhand (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
O

are correct and Statement-II is not the

3. The Eastern Zonal Council - Orissa and correct explanation for Statement-I
FN

Sikkim
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
4. Western Zonal Council - Union Territories is incorrect
D

of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
.P

Haveli II is correct
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42. Consider the following statements regarding How many of the above statements are
the National Emergency in India: correct?

1. Article 356 states that the President can (a) Only one
proclaim an emergency when the territory (b) Only two
of India is under invasion, foreign
(c) All three
encroachment, or internal insurrection.
(d) None
2. The nation’s first emergency was
proclaimed during the 1962–1968
45. Consider the following statements:
confrontation with China.
1. Regional Bodies of NITI Aayog consists
Which of the statements given above is/are of Chief Ministers of all States which is
correct? summoned by the Prime Minister.
(a) 1 only 2. NITI Aayog is an advisory body.
(b) 2 only 3. Part-time members in NITI Aayog are
nominated on rotational basis.
(c) Both 1 and 2

RE
How many of the statements given above are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
(a) Only one
43. Regarding the 42nd Amendment Act in India,
consider the following statements: (b) Only two

1. It introduced Fundamental Duties in the (c) All three

Constitution. (d) None
O
2. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution
enshrines the principles of socialism, 46. Regarding National Human Rights
Commission (NHRC), consider the following
secularism, and integrity under this
statements:
SC
amendment.
1. It has been set up by an Act of Parliament
3. The amendment declared that Parliament for the protection and promotion of
had the power to amend any part of the human rights.
Constitution excluding Fundamental
2. The Commission is responsible for
Rights.
spreading of human rights awareness
How many of the above statements are amongst the masses at National and
international level.
GS

correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Only one
correct?
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(c) All three (b) 2 only
O
(d) None (c) Both 1 and 2
.C
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
44. In the context of the Financial Emergency in
S

India, consider the following statements:

47. Consider the following:
TE

1. Article 360 gives authority to the

Statement I:
President of India to declare a financial
O

emergency. The State Information Commission conducts

investigations and renders judgments on
FN

2. The Supreme Court can review the appeal.

declaration of Financial Emergency.
Statement II:
D

3. A proclamation of financial emergency

must be approved by both the Houses of State Information Commission is a statutory
.P

body.
Parliament.
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Which one of the following is correct in respect 49. Which of the following statements is/are
of the above statements? correct?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 1. Article 352 was used by Union government
correct and Statement-II is the correct to declare the Emergency.
explanation for Statement I 2. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 required
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II a six-month review of the emergency
are correct and Statement-II is not the declaration.
correct explanation for Statement-I 3. The National Emergency may stop the
enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 rights.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect Select the correct option using the codes given
below.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct (a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
48. With reference to Central Vigilance
Commission (CVC), which of the statements (c) 2 and 3 only
given below is not correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3

RE
1. The CVC was set up by the Government
in line with the Special Police 50. Consider the following:
Establishment. Counter-terrorism operations
2. In case of legal actions taken, an Probing cross-border crimes
Independent External Monitor is
appointed by Chief Vigilance Officers to Dealing with counterfeit currency cases
examine complaints received.
O
Select the correct answer from the code given
Combating cybercrimes
How many of the above-mentioned are correct
below: about National Investigation Agency (NIA)?
SC
(a) 1 only (a) All four
(b) 2 only (b) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Only three
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™™™™™

O
S .C
TE
O
FN
D
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IAS Prelims - 2024

PPP-PTS-4273/082023/04

GENERAL STUDIES

POLITY - 4

Answer Key

Q. 1 (d) Q. 11 (c) Q. 21 (b) Q. 31 (b) Q. 41 (b)

Q. 2 (c) Q. 12 (a) Q. 22 (c) Q. 32 (c) Q. 42 (b)

Q. 3 (b) Q. 13 (a) Q. 23 (c) Q. 33 (d) Q. 43 (b)

Q. 4 (b) Q. 14 (b) Q. 24 (c) Q. 34 (a) Q. 44 (c)

Q. 5 (d) Q. 15 (b) Q. 25 (c) Q. 35 (b) Q. 45 (b)

O
.C
Q. 6 (a) Q. 16 (b) Q. 26 (a) Q. 36 (c) Q. 46 (c)
S

Q. 7 (c) Q. 17 (c) Q. 27 (b) Q. 37 (b) Q. 47 (c)

TE

Q. 8 (b) Q. 18 (a) Q. 28 (c) Q. 38 (c) Q. 48 (c)

O

Q. 9 (d) Q. 19 (d) Q. 29 (d) Q. 39 (d) Q. 49 (b)

FN

Q. 10 (c) Q. 20 (c) Q. 30 (b) Q. 40 (d) Q. 50 (a)

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1. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: In 1957,
the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
recommended the establishment of a three-
tier structure of Panchayati Raj across
states.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Ashok
Mehta Committee recommended mandatory
quotas for the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes.
Supplementary Notes:
Evolution of the third tier governance in
India
 With the exit of the British, the
institutionalisation of local bodies regressed
as several Indian states dissolved district
councils, bringing their duties and functions
within the ambit of state governments, such
as in Bihar in 1958.
 However, the first Five Year Plan (1951-56)
recognised the importance of decentralised
governance, stating that local self-
governing bodies play a vital role in a
democratic system where there is a “proper
diffusion of power and responsibility”.
 The impetus for establishing local
O are reserved for women.
bodies gained further currency with
recommendations from the Balwant
Rai Mehta Committee of 1957.
SC
 The Committee emphasised that
the central function of local bodies
lies in their role in constituting
an intermediary between the
general public and the government,
recommending a three-tier structure
of Panchayati Raj (consisting of Zilla
Parishads, Panchayati Samitis, and
GS
Gram Panchayats) and reservation for
women.
 While these recommendations were
accompanied by a rise in the number
of panchayats—over 200,000 village
panchayats were functioning in India by
1959—they were largely ineffective due to a
lack of functional and financial autonomy.
 This led to the recommendations of the
Ashok Mehta Committee of 1978 which
included direct elections to Panchayats,
mandatory quotas for marginalised
communities particularly the Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes, and “transfer
(of) substantial quantum of powers from the
State Government to the local bodies”.
 At the same time, the Constitution (64th
Amendment) Bill and The Constitution (65th
Amendment) Bill of 1989 were introduced to
formally institutionalise local bodies at the
national level. The Bills, however, failed to
receive enough support in Parliament.
L2: Approachable
2 PPP-PTS-4273/082023/04
2. Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
73rd Amendment Act
 After decades of struggles and half
starts, finally, the Congress-led coalition
government in 1992 passed the 73rd and
74th Constitution (Amendments) to lay
the legal and constitutional foundation for
genuine self-governance in India.
 The 73rd Amendment Act echoed the
recommendations of the Balwant Rai
Mehta Committee. The 73rd Amendment
unveiled three-tier rural institutions:
Gram Panchayats at the village level,
RE
Panchayat Samitis, and Zilla Parishad
at the district level.
 Further, the act mandated direct and regular
elections every five years and a mandatory
quota for the SCs and STs.
 Importantly, the Act mandated one-third
of the seats at all levels of panchayats
 Apart from recommending the devolution
of 29 functions to panchayats, the 73rd
Amendment mandated the formation
of state finance commissions and
provision for grants-in-aid from state
governments to PRIs.
L3: Real Challenge
3. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Under 74th
Amendment Act, the government passed the
landmark Panchayat Extension to Tribal
Areas (PESA) Act in 1996 to extend self-
governance to Scheduled and Tribal Areas
O
of the country.
.C
Supplementary Notes:
S
74th Amendment Act
TE
 Whereas the 74th Amendment Act made
provisions for urban local bodies (ULBs)
by mandating a three-tier arrangement of
O
ULBs, with Nagar Panchayats in peri-urban
areas, Municipal Councils in small towns,
FN
and the Municipal Corporations (MCs) in
bigger cities/metropolis.
D
 Much like the 73rd Amendment, the 74th
Amendment enables direct elections every
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five years at the municipality level, with a
mandatory quota for SCs and STs apart from
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reserving one-third of seats for women.
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 The Twelfth Schedule - a list of 18 subjects
that can be devolved to ULBs in due
course—was established. The Act also
provides for the creation of a Finance
Commission to determine the sharing
of taxes, duties, and funds from the
State Consolidated Fund.
 Lastly, the government passed the
landmark Panchayat Extension to
Tribal Areas (PESA) Act in 1996 to
extend self-governance to Scheduled
and Tribal Areas of the country.
 Significantly, the Act reserves 50 percent
of local body seats for STs, while
reserving the office of chairperson
solely for the ST community. In short,
these three legislations have formed the
key pillars of local self-governance in India,
forming the foundations upon which today’s
third-tier institutions rest.
L3: Real Challenge
4. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary Notes:
Bhuria Committee
O 
SC
 The Rao government appointed a committee
headed by Mr. Dileep Singh Bhuria, MP,
in June 1994, to work out the details as to
how structures similar to Panchayati Raj
Institutions can take shape in Tribal Areas
and Scheduled Areas and to define their
powers.
 The Committee submitted its report in
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January 1995. The Bhuria Committee
recommended a three-tier structure of
self-governance in the tribal areas:
 Gram Sabha - Every “habitation
community” to have a Gram Sabha
which will exercise command over
natural resources, resolve disputes and
manage institutions under it like schools
and cooperatives
 Gram Panchayat - Elected body of
representatives of each Gram Sabha,
also to function as an appellate authority
for unresolved disputes at lower level
 A block or taluka level body as the next
higher level.
L2: Approachable
5. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
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Supplementary Notes:
Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled
Areas) Act (or PESA), 1996
 Village level democracy became a real
prospect for India in 1992 with the 73rd
amendment to the Constitution, which
mandated that resources, responsibility
and decision making be passed on from
central government to the lowest unit of the
governance, the Gram Sabha or the Village
Assembly.
 A three tier structure of local self-government
was envisaged under this amendment.
Since the laws do not automatically cover
the scheduled areas, the PESA Act was in
acted on 24 December 1996 to enable Tribal
Self Rule in these areas.
 The Act extended the provisions of
RE
Panchayats to the tribal areas of nine states
that have Fifth Schedule Areas.
 The nine states with Fifth Schedule areas
are: Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh,
Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand,
Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa,
and Rajasthan.
The fundamental spirit of the Panchayat
Extension Act for tribal areas under 5th
Schedule is that it devolves power and
authority to Gram Sabha and Panchayats
rather than delegation; hence it paves way
for participatory democracy.
 The provision under constitution and the
composition under this act call for every
legislation on the Panchayat in 5th Schedule
area are in conformity with the customary
law, social and religious practices and
traditional management practices of the
community resources. The provisions under
PESA include the following:
 Gram sabha at the para, majra and tola
levels
 Gram sabha to protect the traditions,
beliefs and culture of the tribal O
communities
Local disputes to be resolved by the gram
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sabha
Gram sabha to manage and protect
S

common properties based on their
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traditional systems of management and
protection
The administration to seek permission
O

from the gram sabha in case of land
acquisition
FN
 Gram sabha to have the rights over
minor forest produce; powers to restore
D
land to the tribals; and control over
money-lending to tribals, tribal welfare
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activities by social organizations and local
plans and sub-plans for the development
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of tribal areas and communities
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 Gram sabha to have the control over Supplementary Notes:

local markets and melas
 Gram sabha to have rights to control the
distillation, prohibition and manufacture
of liquor
 District panchayats to have rights and
powers similar to the district panchayats
falling under Sixth Schedule
L2: Approachable
6. Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary Notes:
Urban Local Bodies (ULBs)
Eleventh Schedule (Article 243G)
 The 11th Schedule was added to the Indian
Constitution by the 73rd Amendment
Act of 1992, which is also known as the
Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment)
Act.
 This amendment aimed to strengthen
the Panchayati Raj system in India
by empowering local self-government
institutions at the village, intermediate,
and district levels.
 The Panchayati Raj system was established
to decentralize power and governance,
allowing local communities to participate
actively in the decision-making processes
that affect them.

RE
 The 11th Schedule outlines the functions
 ULBs are small local bodies that administer
and powers to be entrusted to Panchayats
or govern a city or a town of specified
(village councils) and highlights the areas in
population. Urban Local Bodies are vested
which they can exercise their authority. The
with a long list of functions delegated to them
functions and powers outlined in the 11th
by the state governments. These functions Schedule can be summarized as follows:
broadly relate to public health, welfare,
regulatory functions, public safety, public  Agriculture, including agricultural
infrastructure works, and development
O extension.
activities.  Land improvement, implementation
 There are several types of Urban Local bodies of land reforms, land consolidation
in India such as Municipal Corporation, and soil conservation.
SC
Municipality, Notified Area Committee,  Minor irrigation, water management
Town Area Committee, Special Purpose and watershed development.
Agency, Township, Port Trust, Cantonment
Board etc. The main sources of revenues of  Animal husbandry, dairying and
ULBs are as follows: poultry.

 Collection from tax and non-tax sources  Fisheries.

as assigned to them under Municipal  Social forestry and farm forestry.
act.
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 Minor forest produce.

 Devolution of shared taxes and duties
as per recommendation of State Finance  Small scale industries, including food
Commission processing industries.

 Grants-in-aid from the State  Khadi, village and cottage industries. O

Government  Rural housing
.C
 Grants-in-aid from the Government  Drinking water
of India under Centrally Sponsored
Schemes  Fuel and fodder
S

Share of State Govt. of State against  Roads, culverts, bridges, ferries,

TE


Centrally Sponsored Schemes of Govt. of waterways and other means of
India communication.
O

 Award of Central Finance Commission  Rural electrification, including

Grant, GOI distribution of electricity.
FN

L2: Approachable  Non-conventional energy sources.

 Poverty alleviation programme
D

7. Correct option: (c)  Education, including primary and

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secondary schools
Explanation:
 Technical training and vocational
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 Option (c) is correct education

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 Adult and non-formal education  Urban forestry, protection of the

environment and promotion of ecological
 Libraries
aspects.
 Cultural activities
 Safeguarding the interests of weaker
 Markets and fairs sections of society, including the
handicapped and mentally retarded.
 Health and sanitation, including
hospitals, primary health centres and  Slum improvement and upgradation.
dispensaries.  Urban poverty alleviation.
 Family welfare.  Provision of urban amenities and facilities
 Women and child development. such as parks, gardens, playgrounds.
 Social welfare, including welfare of the  Promotion of cultural, educational and
handicapped and mentally retarded. aesthetic aspects.

 Welfare of the weaker sections, and in  Burials and burial grounds; cremations,
particular, of the Scheduled Castes and cremation grounds and electric
the Scheduled Tribes. crematoriums.

 Public distribution system.  Cattle pounds; prevention of crue;ty to

RE
animals.
 Maintenance of community assets
 Vital statistics including registration of
L3: Real Challenge births and deaths.
 Public amenities including street
8. Correct option: (b) lighting, parking lots, bus stops and
public conveniences.
Explanation: O  Regulation of slaughter houses and
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The XIIth tanneries.
Schedule was added by the 74th Amendment
Act of 1992 to empower urban local bodies L2: Approachable
and ensure decentralized governance at the
SC
grassroots level.
9. Correct option: (d)
 Statement 2 is correct: It aims to
strengthen local self-government and
Explanation:
promote effective and efficient urban  All statements are correct
planning and development.
Supplementary Notes:
Supplementary Notes:
Local Governance
XIIth Schedule of the Indian
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 Local governance in India refers to the

Constitution system of governing at the grassroots
 The XIIth Schedule outlines the level, where local bodies or institutions are
functional domains and responsibilities of responsible for managing and addressing
municipalities and urban local bodies. It the needs and concerns of the people in their
consists of 18 items that cover a wide range respective areas. O
of subjects relating to urban governance.  The two primary tiers of local governance
.C
These items are as follows: in India are the rural local bodies known as
 Urban planning including town Panchayats and the urban local bodies
S

planning. called Municipalities or Municipal

Corporations.
TE

 Planning of land- use and construction

of buildings. Significance of Local Governance in
India:
Planning for economic and social
O


development.  Decentralization of Power:
FN

Local governance ensures the

 Roads and bridges. decentralization of power from the
 Water supply for domestic, industrial central and state governments to the
local bodies. This helps in better and more
D

and commercial purposes.

effective management of resources and
Public health, sanitation conservancy
.P

 decision-making at the local level, leading

and solid waste management. to greater responsiveness to local needs and
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 Fire services. issues.

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 Community Participation: Local
governance encourages citizen
participation in the decision-making
process. It allows people to actively
engage with their local representatives and
contribute to the development and planning
of their communities.
 Proximity to the People: Local
governments are closer to the people they
serve, allowing them to have a better
understanding of the local issues and
challenges. This proximity enables quicker
and more accurate identification of problems
and implementation of suitable solutions.
 Service Delivery: Local governance
is responsible for providing various
essential services like water supply,
sanitation, education, healthcare,
infrastructure development, and more.
Effective local governance ensures efficient
delivery of these services, leading to an
improved quality of life for the citizens.
 Accountability and Transparency: Local
governance fosters a sense of accountability
among elected representatives, as they are
directly answerable to their constituents.
O
Moreover, transparency in decision-making
processes helps in reducing corruption and
promoting good governance.
Problems Associated with Local
SC

Governance in India - Financial
Constraints, Administrative Capacity,
Political Interference, Inequality and
Disparities, Limited Autonomy, Lack
of Awareness and Participation, and
Corruption.
L1 : Elementary
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10. Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It is not under
the control of the state government.
Supplementary Notes:
State Election Commission
 In India, the State Election Commission
(SEC) plays a vital role in ensuring free
and fair elections at the state level. It
is a constitutional body established
under the provisions of the Indian
Constitution.
 The role of the State Election
Commission is primarily focused
on conducting elections to the local
bodies, such as municipal corporations,
municipal councils, panchayats, and
other urban and rural local bodies
within the state.
6 PPP-PTS-4273/082023/04
Features and functions of the State
Election Commission in India:
Constitutional Status
 The State Election Commission derives its
authority from Article 243K and Article
243ZA of the Constitution of India.
 These articles provide for the establishment
and composition of the State Election
Commission and its powers and functions.
Independent Body
 The State Election Commission is intended
to be an independent and autonomous body.
It is not under the control of the state
government.
 The Chief State Election Commissioner
and other Election Commissioners are
RE
appointed by the Governor of the state,
and they are usually retired senior civil
servants or judicial officers.
Conducting Elections
 The primary responsibility of the State
Election Commission is to conduct elections
to local bodies in the state.
 This includes preparation of electoral rolls,
delimitation of constituencies, issuance of
notifications for elections, and supervision
of the entire election process.
L3: Real Challenge
11. Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: The State

Election Commission has authority to
enforce the Model Code of Conduct during
the election period.
Supplementary Notes: O
State Election Commission
.C
 The State Election Commission is
responsible for preparing and updating the
S
electoral rolls for local body elections. These
rolls include the names of eligible voters in
TE
each constituency.
 The SEC is responsible for the
O
delimitation of constituencies for local
body elections. This involves the division
FN
of a geographical area into various electoral
wards, ensuring equitable representation
and population balance.
D
 The State Election Commission issues
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notifications to announce the schedule of
elections, the last date for filing nominations,
W
and the date of polling and counting.
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 The SEC enforces the Model Code of
Conduct during the election period.
This code lays down guidelines for political
parties and candidates to ensure fair play
and ethical campaigning.
 The State Election Commission also deals
with disputes related to local body elections.
It adjudicates complaints regarding the
conduct of elections, electoral malpractices,
and other related issues.
 The SEC has the power of superintendence,
direction, and control over all aspects of the
conduct of local body elections, ensuring the
smooth functioning of the electoral process.
 The State Election Commission may
provide advice to the state government
on matters related to the conduct of
local body elections, electoral reforms,
and other election-related issues.
L2: Approachable
12. Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Finance Commission
O 
 Our Constitution has made provision for
SC
the creation of Finance Commission under
article 280, to recommend devolution of
resources from the Center to the States
through Tax-Sharing and Grants-in-
Aid, no such Constitutional arrangement
was made for a long time since independence
for recommending transfer of resources from
the State Government to Local Bodies.
GS
 Thus, Local Bodies were handicapped in
their functioning and their development
because of a number of inadequacies and
limitations – Constitutional, institutional,
functional and financial.
L2: Approachable
13. Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary Notes:
State Finance Commission
 The role of the State Finance Commission
(SFC) in India is enshrined in the Indian
Constitution under Article 243-I and Article
243-Y.
 The SFC plays a crucial role in ensuring
fiscal autonomy, equity, and efficiency in
the financial affairs of the states.
PPP-PTS-4273/082023/04
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 It is an important constitutional body that
helps in the effective functioning of local
governance and promotes decentralization
of financial resources. The main functions
and responsibilities of the State Finance
Commission are as follows:
Distribution of Financial Resources
 One of the primary functions of the SFC is to
recommend the distribution of net proceeds
of taxes between the state government and
the local bodies.
 It suggests the share of revenue that
should be allocated to the Panchayats and
Municipalities from the state’s consolidated
fund.
 This distribution is essential to ensure that
local bodies have adequate resources to
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carry out their functions effectively.
Determining Grants-in-Aid
 The SFC also recommends the grants-
in-aid to be given to the Panchayats and
Municipalities from the state government’s
revenue.
These grants are meant to supplement the
financial resources of the local bodies and
bridge any gaps between their revenue
generation capacity and expenditure
requirements.
Assessing Local Body Finances
 The SFC examines the financial position
of Panchayats and Municipalities and
makes assessments of their income and
expenditure patterns.
 This assessment helps in understanding
the fiscal capacity of the local bodies and
formulating appropriate fiscal policies.
Reviewing Financial Devolution O
 The Commission periodically reviews the
financial devolution to local bodies and
.C
makes recommendations for the equitable
sharing of resources.
S
It takes into account the changing needs
TE

and responsibilities of local bodies and
ensures that they have adequate financial
autonomy to carry out their functions.
O
Rationalization of Local Taxes and Fees
FN
 The SFC suggests measures for improving
the revenue base of Panchayats and
D
Municipalities.
.P
 It may recommend rationalization of local
taxes, fees, and other sources of revenue to
W
enhance their financial self-sufficiency.
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Fiscal Consolidation and Management
 The Commission also advises on measures to
improve fiscal management and governance
at the local level.
 It promotes fiscal prudence and efficiency
in the utilization of resources by the
Panchayats and Municipalities.
Reporting to the Governor
 After examining the financial aspects of
local bodies and considering their financial
requirements, the State Finance Commission
submits a report to the Governor of the
state.
 The report contains its recommendations
on financial matters related to local
governance.
L3: Real Challenge
14. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The union can
give directives to the state pertaining to the
state.
O
construction and maintenance within the
Supplementary Notes:
Administrative relations between Centre
SC
and states
 The executive power of the union
also extends to giving of direction to
the state under Article 256 for their
compliance.
 This power of the Union extends to the limit
of directing a state in a manner it feels
GS
essential for the purpose.
 For instance, the union can give directives to
the state pertaining to the construction and
maintenance of means of communication
declared to be of national or military
importance or protection of railways within
the state.
 This is essential to ensure the
implementation of parliamentary laws
throughout the country.
 Non-compliance of the directives might lead
to a situation where the union can invoke
Article 356, for imposition of President’s rule
in the state and take over the administration
of state.
 Under the constitutional provision of
Article 254 the President may, with the
consent of the state government entrust
either conditionally or unconditionally to
the government, functions relating to any
matter falling within the ambit of union
executive power.
8 PPP-PTS-4273/082023/04
 Under clause (2), Parliament is also
entitled to use the state machinery for
the enforcement of the union laws, and
confer powers and entrust duties to
the state.
 A state can also, with the consent of union
government confer administrative functions
on the union.
L3: Real Challenge
15. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The provisions
relating to the financial relations between
the union and the states are derived from
the Government of India Act, 1935.
Statement 2 is correct: The seventh
RE

schedule of the Constitution provides for
specific entries reserved for the union and
the states for imposing taxes.
Supplementary Notes:
Financial relations between Centre and
states
 The areas of taxation have been clearly
demarcated between the centre and states.
The states have little powers in taxation
and are heavily dependent on the centre,
for financial resources. The chief source of
finance of the states is the grants-in-aid
from the centre. ‘The seventh schedule of
the Constitution provides for specific entries
reserved for the union and the states for
imposing taxes. The union can levy taxes on
the 12 items of Union List (82 to 92 A).
 Similarly, the state list contains 19 items on
which states are empowered to conect taxes.
The residuary powers in taxation vests with
Parliament.
 There is a four-fold classification of tax
revenues between the union and the states. O
These are:
Taxes levied by the union but coIlected and
.C

whoIly appropriated by the state (Article
270). These are stamp duties and duties of
S
excise on medicinal and toilet preparations.
TE
 Taxes levied and collected by the centre,
but wholly assigned to the states (Article
269). These include duties on succession
O
to property other than agricultural
land, estate duty on property other than
FN
agricultural land, terminal taxes on goods
and passengers (railway, sea or air), taxes
on railway fares and freights etc.
D
 Taxes levied and collected by tile union
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and distributed between the union and the
states (Article 270). This includes taxes on
W
income other than agricultural income.
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 Taxes levied and collected by the union but
may be shared with the states. This includes
the customer and excise duties if parliament
by law so provides.
L3: Real Challenge
16. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The Comptroller
and Auditor General is also responsible
of compilation of accounts of the State
Government, authorisation of pensionary
benefits of selected categories of employees,
maintenance of provident funds accounts of
State Government employees of most State
Governments.
 These audit and accounting functions are
carried out by the Indian Audit and Accounts
Department (IA & AD) which functions
under the Comptroller and Auditor General
of India.
 Statement 2 is correct: The Comptroller
and Auditor General (CAG) is a
O
constitutional functionary, independent of
Parliament/legislature and executives. The
CAG is responsible for;
 Audit of Ministries and departments
SC
of Government of India and the State
Governments.
 Audit of Central and State Government
Public Sector Undertakings and other
autonomous bodies and authorities
which are financed from Government
funds.
GS
 Audit of receipts of Union or of States.
 Audit of accounts stores and stock.
 Audit of companies and corporations.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: CAG can
audit up to an extent which an activity,
programme or organisation operates
economically, efficiently and effectively
known as performance audit for all the
eligible audits done by him.
Supplementary Notes:
Role of the C&AG in regard to audit:
 The Comptroller and Auditor General is the
sole authority prescribed in the Constitution
entrusted with the responsibility of audit of
accounts of the Union and of the States.
 It is the duty of the Comptroller and Auditor
General to audit receipts and expenditure
of the Union and each State and the Union
Territory Governments.
PPP-PTS-4273/082023/04
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 The audit reports of the Comptroller
and Auditor General are placed before
Parliament or the legislature of the State or
the Union Territory, as the case may be.
 The duties of the Comptroller and Auditor
General also extend to audit of Government
companies and corporations and bodies and
authorities in accordance with the laws
made by the legislature and rules made
there under.
L2: Approachable
17. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: He can be
removed by the President at any time. He
can quit by submitting his resignation only
RE
to the President. Since he is appointed by
the President on the advice of the Council
of Ministers, conventionally he is removed
when the council is dissolved or replaced.
 Statement 2 is correct: The First Attorney
General of India, M.C. Setalvad, held the
position for the longest time—13 years—
while Soli Sorabjee held the position for the
shortest time. Nevertheless, he was twice
appointed to the position.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Office of

Profit is used in Article 102 (1)(a) of the
Indian Constitution which bars a member
of the Indian Parliament from holding
an office that would give its occupant the
opportunity to gain a financial advantage
or benefit. It refers to a post under central/
state government which yields salaries,
perks and other benefits.
 There are no such provisions for
Attorney general of India.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: The Law
Commission of India is a non-statutory body
O
constituted by the Government of India
from time to time.
.C
 The Law Commission undertakes research
in law and review of existing laws in India
S
for making reforms therein and enacting
TE
new legislations on a reference made to it
by the Central Government or suo-motu.
Law and Legislative Secretaries in
O

the Law Ministry will be the ex-officio
members of the commission and not the
FN
Attorney general of India.
 It will also have not more than five part-
D
time members.
.P
 A retired Supreme Court judge or Chief
Justice of a High Court will head the
W
Commission.
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Supplementary Notes:
Attorney General of India:
 The attorney general is chosen by the
President of India. He must be an Indian
citizen and have completed 10 years of high
court advocacy or 5 years as a judge in any
Indian state.
 He may also be regarded as a prominent
jurist by the President. The duration of
the Attorney General’s appointment is not
specified in the Constitution.
 The Constitution is also silent regarding the
removal procedure and the justifications for
removal. As a result, they are subject to the
president’s whim and are thus subject to
removal at any time.
 He or she can also step down by giving the
President a letter of resignation.
 There are no constitutional limitations on
the Attorney General’s remuneration, and it
is determined at the President’s discretion.
L2: Approachable
O
18. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
SC
 Statement 1 is correct: Under Article
320 of the Constitution of India, the
Commission is, inter-alia, required to
be consulted on all matters relating to
recruitment to civil services and posts.
 The functions of the Commission under
GS
Article 320 of the Constitution are:
 Conduct examinations for appointment
to the services of the Union.
 Direct recruitment by selection through
interviews.
 Appointment of officers on promotion /
deputation / absorption.
 Framing and amendment of Recruitment
Rules for various services and posts
under the Government.
 Disciplinary cases relating to different
Civil Services.
 Advising the Government on any matter
referred to the Commission by the
President of India.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The formation
of a parmanent commission for civil services
was bought from the Government of India
Act 1935.
10
Supplementary Notes:
Union Public service commission
(UPSC)
 The Full Form of UPSC is Union Public
Service Commission. It was established
on October 1, 1926, under the name
Public Service Commission. After being
reconstructed in 1935 under the Government
of India Act 1935, the Commission’s name
was changed to Federal Public Service
Commission.
 It is an important institution in India that
plays a significant role in the country’s
governance and administration.
 It is responsible for conducting prestigious
civil service examinations and selecting
candidates for various positions in the
RE
government.
 The UPSC ensures a fair and merit-
based selection process, aiming to recruit
individuals with the necessary skills and
knowledge to serve the nation effectively.
L2: Approachable
19. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
All statements are correct.

Supplementary Notes:
Joint Public service Commission (JPSC)
 The Union Public Service Commission
(UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in
India.
 It is an independent constitutional body.
 The provisions regarding the composition
of UPSC, appointment and removal of its
members and the powers and functions
of UPSC are provided in Part XIV of the
Indian Constitution under Article 315 to
Article 323.
O
 Parallel to the UPSC at the Centre, there is
.C
a State Public Service Commission (SPSC)
in the state.
S
 The provisions regarding the composition
of SPSC, appointment and removal of its
TE
members and the powers and functions
of SPSC are provided in Part XIV of the
Indian Constitution under Article 315
O
to Article 323.
FN
 A JSPSC is a statutory body. It is not a
constitutional body. After the creation of
Haryana out of Punjab in 1966, the two
D
states of Punjab and Haryana had a JSPSC
for a short period.
.P
 The President appoints the chairman as
W
well as the members of a JSPSC.
W
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 In 1926 on the recommendation of Lee
Commission (1924), the Federal Public
Service Commission was established.
 Government of India Act, 1935 provided for
Central Public Service Commissions, State
Public Service Commission and Joint Public
Service Commission.
 The Constitution makes provision for a JPSC
to cater to needs of two or more states.
 JPSC is formed by an act of parliament.
Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a
constitutional body.
 It submits reports to the concerned State
Governors.
 President decides composition, tenure,
conditions of service, removal. Chairman
and Members have a term of six years or till
62, whichever is earlier.
 They can be suspended or removed by the
president, or they can resign by writing to
the president.
 Constitutional Provisions:
 Article 315: Constitution of Public
Service Commissions (PSC) for the

Union and for the States of India.
O
Article 316: Appointment and term of
office of members of UPSC as well as
SPSC.
SC
 Article 317: Removal and suspension of
a member of both the UPSC and SPSC.
 Article 318: Power to make regulations
for the conditions of service of members
and staff of the Commission.
 Article 319: Prohibition of holding the
office by members of Commission upon
ceasing to be such members.
GS
 Article 320: States the functions of Public
Service Commissions.
 Article 321: Power to extend the functions
of Public Service Commissions.
 Article 322: Expenses of Public Service
Commissions.
 Article 323: Reports of Public Service
Commissions.
L2: Approachable
20. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct.
Supplementary Notes:
Election Commission as an Electoral
management Body
 An EMB is an organization or body that has
the sole purpose of, and is legally responsible
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for, managing some or all of the elements
that are essential for the conduct of elections
and direct democracy instruments—such
as referendums, citizens’ initiatives and
recall votes—if those are part of the legal
framework. These essential (or core)
elements include:
 determining who is eligible to vote;
 receiving and validating the nominations
of electoral participants (for elections,
political parties and/or candidates);
 conducting polling;
 counting the votes; and
 Tabulating the votes.
 If these essential elements are allocated to
various bodies, then all bodies that share
these responsibilities can be considered
RE
EMBs. An EMB may be a stand- alone
institution, or a distinct management unit
within a larger institution that may also
have non-electoral tasks.
 In addition to these essential elements,
an EMB may undertake other tasks that
assist in the conduct of elections and
direct democracy instruments, such as
voter registration, boundary delimitation,
voter education and information, media
monitoring and electoral dispute resolution.
However, a body that has no electoral
responsibilities other than, for example,
boundary delimitation (such as a boundary
delimitation commission), electoral dispute
resolution (such as an electoral court),
election media monitoring (such as a media
monitoring commission), or the conduct of
voter education and information (such as a
civic education commission) is not considered
an EMB because it is not managing any of
the essential elements identified above.
 Similarly, a national population or statistics
bureau that produces electoral registers as
part of the general process of population
registration is not considered to be an
O
.C
EMB.
 Different EMBs may be established for
S
different electoral processes. In Mexico and
Poland, the EMBs are responsible for both
TE
presidential and parliamentary elections;
in Australia, the national EMB deals with
national-level elections, while state-level
O
elections are the responsibility of separate
FN
state-level EMBs. In the United Kingdom
(UK), the arrangements for the conduct of
elections and referendums are separate.
D
 Some bodies that are not engaged in any
of the essential elements of elections may
.P
nonetheless be popularly regarded as
EMBs.
W
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 The US Federal Election Commission (FEC)
defines its mission as ‘administering and
enforcing federal campaign finance laws’.
However, such institutions do not qualify as
EMBs under the definition above.
 In addition to the division of functional
responsibility for different elements of the
electoral process, electoral responsibilities
may be divided between bodies at different
levels.
 For example, some elements of the conduct
of elections may be managed by a national-
level electoral commission, a ministry (such
as the Ministry of the Interior) or a national
government agency, while others are
implemented by local-level commissions,
regional branches of government
departments or local authorities (as in
Spain).
L3: Real Challenge
21. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Finance

O
commission can recommend the distribution
of rural local bodies’ grants to all three
tier of government which includes; Gram
Panchayats, Block panchayats and
SC
District panchayats.
 Statement 2 is correct: Besides the taxes
devolved to states, another source of transfers
from the centre to states are grants-in-
aid. As per the recommendations of the
14th Finance Commission, grants-in-aid
constitute 12% of the central transfers
to states.
GS
 The 14th Finance Commission had
recommended grants to states for three
purposes: (i) disaster relief, (ii) local
bodies, and (iii) revenue deficit.
Supplementary Notes:
Finance commission
 The Finance Commission is a constitutional
body formed every five years to give
suggestions on centre-state financial
relations. Each Finance Commission is
required to make recommendations on: (i)
sharing of central taxes with states, (ii)
distribution of central grants to states, (iii)
measures to improve the finances of states
to supplement the resources of panchayats
and municipalities, and (iv) any other
matter referred to it.
 Composition of transfers: The central
taxes devolved to states are untied funds,
and states can spend them according
to their discretion. Over the years, tax
12
devolved to states has constituted over
80% of the total central transfers to states
(Figure 1). The centre also provides grants
to states and local bodies which must be
used for specified purposes. These grants
have ranged between 12% to 19% of the
total transfers.
L2: Approachable
22. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The GST Council,
consisting of the Union Finance Minister
and representatives from all States and
Union Territories.
 Statement 2 is correct: It was established
to make decisions on various aspects of
RE
GST, including tax rates, exemptions, and
administrative procedures. It played a
crucial role in shaping the GST framework
in India.
 Statement 3 is correct: The GST Council
was notified w.e.f. 12th September, 2016.
For assisting the GST Council, the office of
the GST Council Secretariat was also
established.
 GST Council Secretariat is responsible for
conducting meetings and setting up the
agenda for those meetings.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: Union Revenue
Secretary is the ex-officio Secretary to the
GST Council.
Supplementary Notes:
GST Council and Working
 On July 1, 2017, GST laws were
implemented, replacing a complex web of
Central and State taxes. Under the Indian
GST, goods and services are categorized
into different tax slabs, including 5%, 12%,
18%, and 28%.
 Some essential commodities are exempted
O
from GST, Gold and job work for diamond
.C
attract low rate of taxation. Compensation
cess is being levied on demerit goods and
S
ceratin luxury items.
TE
 To prepare for the implementation of GST,
extensive efforts were made to build the
necessary technological infrastructure
O
and train tax officials and businesses.
GST Network (GSTN), a not-for-profit
FN
company, was created to provide the IT
backbone for the GST system, including
taxpayer registration, return filing, and tax
D
payments.
.P
 Since its implementation, the Indian
GST has undergone various amendments
W
and refinements based on feedback from
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businesses and the evolving economic
scenario. While the GST implementation
initially posed challenges for businesses in
terms of understanding the new compliance
requirements and adapting to the changes,
it has gradually settled into the Indian tax
landscape.
 It can be said that the history of GST in
India showcases a monumental shift in the
country’s tax structure, aiming to create
a more unified, efficient, and transparent
indirect tax regime for the benefit of
businesses and the economy as a whole.
L3: Real Challenge
23. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The National
Commission for Scheduled castes
(NCSC) is a Constitutional body
established with a view to provide safeguards
against the exploitation of scheduled
castes and Anglo Indian communities
to promote and protect their social,
educational, economic and cultural
O
interests, specials provisions were made in
the constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Atrocities
SC

and Protection of civil rights wing
of the NCSC protects the cases relating
to protection of civil rights act, the
minimum wages act etc.
Supplementary Notes:
National Commission for Scheduled
GS
Castes (NCSC)
 The National Commission for Scheduled
Castes is an Indian constitutional body
under the jurisdiction of Ministry of Social
Justice and Empowerment, Government
of India established with a view to provide
safeguards against the exploitation of
Scheduled Castes and Anglo Indian
communities to promote and protect their
rights.
L2: Approachable
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24. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The Committee
on the Status of Women in India (CSWI)
recommended nearly two decades ago, the
setting up of a National Commission for
women to fulfil the surveillance functions
to facilitate redressal of grievances and to
accelerate the socio-economic development
of women.
 Successive Committees/Commissions/Plans
including the National Perspective Plan
for Women (1988-2000) recommended the
constitution of an apex body for women.
 Statement 2 is correct: The Commission
being a Coordinating Agency at the
National Level to deal with issues
RE
pertaining to NRI marriages formally
created NRI Cell in 2009.
 The NRI Cell deals with complaints and
specific issues related to the NRI marital
disputes causing deprivation of women’s
rights, such as Indian women who are
aggrieved of desertion by NRI/Overseas

husband in India, abandonment in foreign
land or any other related issues
Statement 3 is correct: NCW under
Section 10(1) (f) of the National
Commission for Women Act, 1990 takes
suo motu cognizance of matters where there
is:
 Violation /deprivation of the rights of
women.
 Non-implementation of laws enacted to
provide protection to women and also to
achieve the objective of equality.
 Non-compliance of policy decisions,
guidelines or instructions aimed at
mitigating hardships and ensuring
welfare and empowerment of women. O
 Suo-Motu cognizance may be taken on
.C
the basis of print, electronic and social
media or any other information received
S
by the Commission.
TE
 Statement 4 is correct: The Legal Cell of the
Commission reviews the constitutional and
legal safeguards provided, recommending
O
remedial legislative measures and facilitates
redressal & offers advice to Government.
FN
Supplementary Notes:
National commission for Women (NCW)
D
 The National Commission for Women was set
.P
up as statutory body in January 1992 under
the National Commission for Women
W
Act, 1990 to review the Constitutional and
W
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legal safeguards for women; recommend
remedial legislative measures, facilitate
redressal of grievances and advise the
Government on all policy matters affecting
women.
 Functions of Women Safety Cell:
 Work relating to Project – Violence free
homes set up in Delhi and seven other
States including monitoring the working
of special cells, release of funds for project
execution and institutionalization and
takeover of the project by the State
 Monitoring of cases of acid attack
and matters relating to payment of
compensation in such cases in all
States and UTs and providing inputs
for formulation of Victim Compensation
Schemes.
RE
 MIS for Acid Attack Victims
 Women Welfare and Capacity Building
Cell:
 Formally setup in 2019, WW&CB
Cell works on the needs of women-
centric interventions to address the
most pressing challenges affecting
O lingual and multi-religious character of our
empowering of women at economic,
social, cultural and political level.
 The Cell has been conducting various
SC
Awareness programs, Workshops,
Conferences, Seminars, Competitions,
Legal Awareness Programmes, Gender
sensitization workshops, capacity
building, women empowerment and
personality developments programs, etc.
for holistic growth of women, individually
and also in collaboration with multiple
L2: Approachable
GS
stakeholders.
L3: Real Challenge
26. Correct option: (a)
25. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Union
Government constituted National
Commission for Minorities, New Delhi
and State Government constituted State
Minorities Commissions in their respective
State Capitals. These organisations are set-
up to safeguard and protect the interests of
minorities as provided in the Constitution
of India and laws enacted by the Parliament
and the State Legislatures.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Union
Government set up the National Commission
for Minorities (NCM) under the National
Commission for Minorities Act, 1992.
Initially five religious communities, viz.,
Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists
14
W
and Zoroastrians (Parsis) were notified
as minority communities by the Union
Government. Further, Jains were
also notified as another minority
community.
Supplementary Notes:
National Commission for Minorities
 The Ministry of Minority Affairs was
carved out of Ministry of Social Justice
& Empowerment and created on 29th
January, 2006 to ensure a more focused
approach towards issues relating to the
notified minority communities namely
Muslim, Christian, Budhist, Sikhs, Parsis
and Jain.
 The mandate of the Ministry includes
formulation of overall policy and planning,
coordination, evaluation and review of the
regulatory framework and development
programmes for the benefit of the minority
communities.
 Vision: Empowering the minority
communities and creating an enabling
environment for strengthening the multi-
racial, multi-ethnic, multi-cultural, multi-
nation.
 Mission: To improve the socio-economic
conditions of the minority communities
through affirmative action and inclusive
development so that every citizen has
equal opportunity to participate actively in
building a vibrant nation. To facilitate an
equitable share for minority communities in
education, employment, economic activities
and to ensure their upliftment.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The President
can increase or decrease the area of any O
Scheduled Area in a State.
.C
 Statement 2 is correct: The Governor may
make regulations for the peace and good
government of any area in a State which is
S
for the time being a Scheduled Area.
TE
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The Governor is
empowered to direct that any particular act
of Parliament or the state legislature does
O
not apply to a scheduled area or apply with
FN
specified modifications and exceptions.
Supplementary Notes:
D
Administration of Scheduled Areas
.P
 The President is empowered to declare
an area to be a scheduled area. He can
W
also increase or decrease its area,
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alter its boundary lines, rescind such
designation or make fresh orders
for such re-designation on an area in
consultation with the governor of the
state concerned.
 The scheduled areas in the country are
distinct from other regions due to their
population of “aboriginals,” who face social
and economic disadvantages.
 Consequently, it is crucial to make special
efforts to improve their condition. This
leads to a situation where the normal
administrative machinery of a state does
not fully extend to the scheduled areas, and
the Central government assumes greater
responsibility for these regions.
 When it comes to executive power, a state
has jurisdiction over the scheduled areas.
However, the Governor bears specific
responsibility for these areas.
 It is mandatory for the governor to submit
an annual report on the administration of
the scheduled areas or provide it whenever
requested by the president.
 Furthermore, the Central government
of these areas.
O
possesses the authority to issue directives
to the states regarding the administration
 The Governor, in consultation with the
SC
Tribes Advisory Council, holds the power to
formulate regulations aimed at maintaining
peace and promoting good governance in the
scheduled areas.
 These regulations may include provisions
to restrict or prohibit land transfers among
scheduled tribe members, regulate land
allotment to them, and govern money-
GS
lending activities related to the scheduled
tribes.
 Additionally, these regulations may repeal
or amend any relevant acts of Parliament
or state legislature that apply to scheduled
areas.
 However, the assent of the president is
required for all such regulations to be
enacted.
L2: Approachable
27. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary Notes:
Scheduled Tribes Advisory Council
 In states with scheduled areas, the
establishment of a Tribes Advisory
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Council is mandatory to provide
guidance on the welfare and progress
of the scheduled tribes.
 This council will comprise 20 members,
with three- fourths of the seats reserved for
representatives of the scheduled tribes in
the state legislative assembly.
 Additionally, in states with scheduled
tribes but no scheduled areas, the
President may direct the formation of
a similar council.
 There shall be established in each State
having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the
President so directs, also in any State having
Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas
therein, a Tribes Advisory Council consisting
of not more than twenty members of whom,
as nearly as may be, three-fourths shall be
RE
the representatives of the Scheduled Tribes
in the Legislative Assembly of the State:
 It shall be the duty of the Tribes
Advisory Council to advice on such
matters pertaining to the welfare and
advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in
the State as may be referred to them by

the Governor.
Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) has been
constituted in Scheduled Area States of
Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat,
Jharkhand, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan
and Telangana.
 Though TamilNadu, Uttarakhand and West
Bengal do not have any scheduled area, they
havealso constituted TAC.
L2: Approachable
28. Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
O
 Both statements are correct
.C
Supplementary Notes:
Administration of Tribal Areas
S
 Tribal areas are governed as autonomous
TE
districts but remain under the executive
authority of the state.
O
 The state’s Governor has the power to
organize and reorganize the autonomous
FN
district, including modifying its area and
boundary lines.
If multiple tribes exist within an
D

autonomous district, the Governor is
.P
authorized to divide it into separate
autonomous regions.
W
L2: Approachable
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29. Correct option: (d)
Explanation
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary Notes:
Criteria for Declaring Schedule Areas
 The criteria followed for declaring an area
as Scheduled Area are:
 Preponderance of tribal population
 Compactness and reasonable size of the
area
 Under-developed nature of the area
 Marked disparity in economic standard
of the people
 These criteria are not spelt out in the
Constitution of India but have become
well established. They embody principles
followed in declaring ‘Excluded’ and
‘Partially-Excluded’ Areas under the
Government of India Act 1935, Schedule
B of recommendations of the Excluded and
Partially Excluded Areas Sub Committee of
Constituent Assembly and the Scheduled
O
Areas and Scheduled Tribes Commission
1961.
L1 : Elementary
SC
30. Correct option: (b)
Explanation
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Tribal
habitations in few states like Kerala, Tamil
Nadu, Karnataka and West Bengal are not
covered under the fifth schedule.
GS
Supplementary Notes:
5th Schedule Areas
 The administration and governance of
Scheduled Areas, as well as the welfare of
Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other
than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and
Mizoram, are addressed in the Fifth
Schedule of the Constitution.
 However, the Tribal settlements in
Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, West
Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, and Jammu
& Kashmir are not covered under the
Fifth or Sixth Schedule.
 Currently, there are ten states - Andhra
Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal
Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh,
Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, and
Telangana—that have areas governed by
the provisions of the Fifth Schedule.
L2: Approachable
16
31. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Administration in Tribal Area
 Within their territorial jurisdictions,
the district and regional councils
possess the authority to establish
village councils or courts dedicated to
resolving disputes among the tribes.
 These councils hear appeals arising from
such cases. The Governor specifies the
jurisdiction of the high court over
these suits and cases.
 The district council is empowered to
RE
establish, construct, or manage essential
institutions and facilities within the district,
such as primary schools, dispensaries,
markets, ferries, fisheries, and roads.
 It can also formulate regulations governing
money lending and trading activities
conducted by non-tribals. However, the
assent of the governor is required for the
implementation of such regulations.
 Furthermore, the district and regional
councils are authorized to assess and collect
land revenue, as well as impose certain
specified taxes withintheir jurisdictions.
 In the autonomous districts and autonomous
regions, the acts passed by the Parliament
or the state legislature do not automatically
apply. Instead, they may be applied with
modifications and exceptions as determined
by the relevant authorities.
L2: Approachable
32. Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
O
Option (c) is correct: The Constitution,
.C

under Sixth Schedule, contains special
provisions for the administration of tribal
S
areas in the four north-eastern states
of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
TE
Mizoram.
Supplementary notes:
O
Administrative features of Sixth Schedule
FN
Areas
 Autonomy within state executive
D
authority: The tribal areas in Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram have
.P
been established as autonomous districts.
However, these districts remain under the
W
executive authority ofthe respective states.
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 Governor’s power to organize and
reorganize: The governor is granted the
authority to organize and reorganize the
autonomous districts.
 This includes the ability to modify their
geographical boundaries, increase or
decrease their areas, rename them, and
undertake similar actions.
 Division of autonomous districts into
regions: In the case of multiple tribes
residing within an autonomous district, the
governor has the powerto divide the district
into several autonomous regions.
 This allows for more specific governance
tailored to the needs of distinct tribal
communities.
 District Council: Each autonomous district
is equipped with a district council comprising
30 members. Among these members, four
are nominated by the governor, while the
remaining 26 are elected through adult
franchise.
 The elected members serve a term of
five years, unless the council is dissolved
earlier. Nominated members hold office

at the governor’s discretion.
Regional Council for each autonomous
region: Additionally, each autonomous
O 
region within the district has a separate
SC
regional council.
 The specific functions and composition
of these regional councils may vary,
providing local governance at a more
granular level.
 These provisions in the Sixth Schedule
aim to grant autonomy and self-
GS
governance to the tribal areas, while
still maintaining a connection with the
state administration.
L2: Approachable
33. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The states
which require the permit are Arunachal
Pradesh, Mizoram, and Nagaland.
Supplementary notes:
Inner Line Permit (ILP)
 ILP is an official travel document issued by
the Government of India to allow inward
travel of an Indian citizen into a protected
area for a limited period.
 It is obligatory for Indian citizens from
outside those states to obtain a permit
for entering into the protected state.
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 The document is an effort by the government
to regulate movement to certain areas
located near the international border of
India.
 This is an offshoot of the Bengal Eastern
Frontier Regulations, 1873, which protected
Crown’s interest in the tea, oil and elephant
trade by prohibiting “British subjects”
from entering into these “Protected Areas”
(to prevent them from establishing any
commercial venture that could rival the
Crown’s agents).
 The word “British subjects” was replaced
by Citizen of India in 1950. Despite the
fact that the ILP was originally created by
the British to safeguard their commercial
interests, it continues to be used in India,
officially to protect tribal cultures in
RE
northeastern India.
 There are different kinds of ILP’s, one for
tourists and others for people who intend
to stay for long-term periods, often for
employment purposes.
 ILP’s valid for tourism purposes are granted
as a matter of routine.
The states which require the permit
are Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, and
Nagaland.
L2: Approachable
34. Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: However, after
the merger of Plan and Non-Plan schemes,
the TSP under went a name change and
was rebranded as the Scheduled Tribe
Component (STC) by the Ministry of
Finance.
Supplementary Notes:
O
Tribal Sub-Plan (TSP)
.C
 TSP was established in 1974-75 as
S
a strategic initiative to promote the
development of areas with a significant
TE
tribal concentration.
Identification and Allocation:
O
 A total of 41 Central Ministries/Departments
FN
have been designated for the earmarking of
funds under the STC.
State Governments are also required to
D

allocate TSP funds in proportion to the
.P
Scheduled Tribe (ST) population, as per the
2011 Census, in relation to the overall State
W
Plan.
W
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Monitoring Responsibilities:
 The monitoring of the TSP plan was
initially carried out by the former Planning
Commission until 2017-18.
 However, starting from the fiscal year 2018-
19, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs took over
the monitoring of the STC plan.
Fund Allocation and Programs:
 The Government allocates funds for various
schemes and programs across Ministries/
Departments to provide targeted financial
and physical benefits to the Scheduled
Tribes.
 In 2018, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs
launched an online portal known as the
Scheduled Tribe Component Management
Information System (STCMIS). This portal
facilitates the monitoring of funds allocated
and released for the welfare of Scheduled
Tribes in the Union Budget.
Objective of the Scheduled Tribe
Component:
 The main objective of the Scheduled Tribe
Component is to channelize and monitor
O
the allocation of resources and benefits
from general sectors within the Central
Ministries/Departments.
 The aim is to ensure the development of
SC
Scheduled Tribes, at least in proportion
to their population, by directing the flow of
outlays and benefits towards their welfare.
L2: Approachable
35. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
GS
 Statement 1 is incorrect: In 2003,
the Bodoland Territorial Council was
established under the Sixth Schedule to the
Constitution of India.
Supplementary Notes:
Bodoland Territorial Council
 The Councle came after the signing of
the Memorandum of Settlement on 10th
February, 2003, involving the Government
of India, the Government of Assam, and the
Bodo Liberation Tigers.
 The Bodoland Territorial Council Legislative
Assembly consists of Speaker, Deputy
Speaker and other elected MCLAs of the
Bodoland Territorial Council.
 The executive and legislative powers of the
Bodoland Territorial Council are derived
from the provisions of the Sixth Schedule of
the Constitution of India and the 2003 and
2020 Bodoland Peace Agreements.
18
 The primary objectives of the Council were
to address the economic, educational, and
linguistic aspirations of the Bodos, as well as
to safeguard their land rights, socio-cultural
heritage, and ethnic identity. Additionally,
the Council aimed to expedite infrastructure
development inthe BTC area.
 The Council’s primary focus is to drive
accelerated progress in one of the most
underdeveloped regions of Assam,
with particular attention given to the
advancement of the Bodo community in
areas such as education, preservation of
land rights, linguistic aspirations, cultural
heritage, and ethnic identity.
 Moreover, the BTC places significant
importance on enhancing the economic
infrastructure throughout the entire area,
RE
with the goal of uplifting marginalized
communities regardless of their caste,
creed, or religion, who reside in this part of
the country.
L3: Real Challenge
36. Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Development Council
 To uplift and sustain the socio-economic
conditions of different backward
communities, the Government of Assam has
established 33 DevelopmentCouncils.
 These Councils aim to decentralize power
and responsibility, enabling them to address
the specific development needs of their
respective communities.
 The primary function of these Council
bodies is to design and implement various O
developmental schemes and projects in a
prioritized and need- based manner.
.C
 Each Development Council was created
through separate Gazetted Notifications,
S
with the initial establishments occurring
TE
in May and June of 2010, and in January of
2011.
Additionally, during the period of 2015-
O

2016, a few more Development Councils
FN
were created to promote the socio-
economic, educational, cultural, and ethnic
advancement of specific communities within
D
the state of Assam. Some of the Development
councils aíe as given below:
.P
 Moían Development Council
W
 Mottok Development Council
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 Maimal Development Council
 Moíia Development Council
 Goíkha Development Council
L3: Real Challenge
37. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Legislative relations between Centre and
states
 Articles 245 to 255 in Part XI of the
Constitution deal with the legislative
relations between the Centre and the
State.
Extent of laws made by Parliament and
by the Legislatures of States
 The Parliament can make laws for the whole
or any part of the territory of India. Territory
of India includes the states, UTs and any
other area for the time being included in
the territory of India. Whereas, the state
O of Sarkaria Commission was for
legislature can make laws for whole or any
part of state.
 The Parliament can alone make ‘extra
territorial legislation’ thus the laws of the
SC
Parliament are applicable to the Indian
citizens and their property in any part of
the world.
Subject-matter of laws made by
Parliament and by the Legislation of
States
 The Constitution divides legislative
authority between the Union and the States
GS
in three lists- the Union List, the State List
and the Concurrent List.
 The Union list consists of 99 items. The
Union Parliament has exclusive authority
to frame laws on subjects enumerated in
the list.
These include foreign affairs, defence,

armed forces, communications, posts and
telegraph, foreign trade etc.
 The State list consists of 61 subjects on
which ordinarily the States alone can make
laws. These include public order, police,
administration of justice, prison, local
governments, agriculture etc.
The Concurrent list comprises of 52 items

including criminal and civil procedure,
marriage and divorce, economic and
special planning trade unions, electricity,
newspapers, books, education, population
control and family planning etc.
 Both the Parliament and the State
legislatures can make laws on subjects
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given in the Concurrent list, but the
Centre has a prior and supreme claim
to legislate on current subjects.
 In case of conflict between the law of
the State and Union law on a subject
in the Concurrent list, the law of the
Parliament prevails.
L2: Approachable
38. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Inter-state councils
 As part of the process of reviewing the
RE
working of the existing arrangements
between the Union and the States, the
Government constituted a commission in
1988 under the Chairmanship of Justice
R.S. Sarkaria.
 One of the important recommendations
establishing a permanent Inter-State
Council as an independent national
forum for consultation with a mandate
well defined in accordance with Article
263 of the Constitution of India.
 The inter-state council is a
recommendatory body that has been
empowered to investigate and discuss
subjects of common interest between
the Union and state(s), or among states.
It also makes recommendations for better
coordination of policy and action on these
subjects, and deliberations on matters of
general interest to the states, which may be
referred to it by its chairman.
 It also deliberates on other matters of
general interest to the states as may be
referred by the chairman to the council. The
O
Council may meet at least thrice in a year.
There is also a Standing Committee of the
.C
Council.
L2: Approachable
S
TE
39. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
O
 All pairs are correctly matched
FN
Supplementary Notes:
Zonal councils
D
 The idea of creation of Zonal Councils was
.P
mooted by the first Prime Minister of India,
Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956 when
W
during the course of debate on the report
W
19
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of the States Re-organisation Commission,
he suggested that the States proposed to
be reorganised may be grouped into four or
five zones having an Advisory Council ‘to
develop the habit of cooperative working”
among these States.
 This suggestion was made by Pandit Nehru
at a time when linguistic hostilities and
bitterness as a result of re-organisation
of the States on linguistic pattern were
threatening the very fabric of our nation.
 As an antidote to this situation, it was
suggested that a high level advisory forum
should be set up to minimise the impact
of these hostilities and to create healthy
inter-State and Centre-State environment
with a view to solving inter-State problems
and fostering balanced socio economic
development of the respective zones.
 In the light of the vision of Pandit Nehru,
five Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III
of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956. The
present composition of each of these Zonal
Councils is as under:
 The Northern Zonal Council,
comprising the States of Haryana,
Himachal Pradesh, Jammu &
O 
Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan,
National Capital Territory of Delhi
and Union Territory of Chandigarh.
SC
 The Central Zonal Council,
comprising the States of
Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar
Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
 The Eastern Zonal Council,
comprising the States of Bihar,
Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West
Bengal.
GS
 The Western Zonal Council,
comprising the States of Goa,
Gujarat, Maharashtra and the
Union Territories of Daman & Diu
and Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
 The Southern Zonal Council, comprising
the States of Andhra Pradesh,
Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the
Union Territory of Puducherry.
L3: Real Challenge
40. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Cooperative federalism
 NITI Aayog has been constituted
to actualise the important goal of
cooperative federalism and to enable
good governance in India.
20
 On the premise that strong states make
a strong nation, NITI Aayog acts as the
quintessential platform for the Government
of India by bringing States together as
‘Team India’ to work towards the national
development agenda.
 In view of this, a number of steps have been
taken by NITI Aayog to foster cooperative
federalism through structured support
initiatives and engagement with the States/
UTs on a continuous basis.
 These include meetings between the Prime
Minister/Cabinet Ministers and all Chief
Ministers; subgroups of Chief Ministers
on subjects of national importance;
sharing of best practices; policy support
and capacity development of State/UT
functionaries; launching of the Aspirational
RE
Districts Programme for development of
backward districts; theme-based extensive
engagements in various sectors; framing
model laws for land leasing and agriculture
marketing reforms; and area-specific
interventions for the North-Eastern and
Himalayan States and island development.
NITI Aayog has been providing relevant
technical advice to the Centre, States and
UTs. NITI has also established models
and programmes for the development
of infrastructure and to reignite and
establish private-public partnership,
such as the Centre-state partnership
model Development Support Services
to States and Union Territories
(DSSS); and the Sustainable Action for
Transforming Human Capital (SATH)
programme.
L3: Real Challenge
41. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
O
Emergency provisions
.C
 The term “emergency” refers to an
S
unanticipated turn of circumstances
that requires government bodies to act
TE
immediately within their jurisdiction.
 In situations of emergency, all civil
O
rights—except Articles 20 and 21 of
the Constitution of India suspended
FN
inside the state or nation. The failure
of administrative equipment causes the
majority of emergencies.
D
 According to Dr Bhimrao Rao Ambedkar,
.P
the Indian federal structure is distinctive
in that it can become unitary when the
W
institutional system breaks down.
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 Additionally, the main goal of emergency  It introduced a new chapter (Part

legislative measures was to protect the IVA) in the Constitution that outlines
area from dictatorship combined with the the Fundamental Duties of Indian
domestic disorder, conflicts, and foreign citizens.
invasions.
 These are moral and civic responsibilities to
L2: Approachable the nation, such as respecting the national
flag, defending the country, promoting
harmony, etc.
42. Correct Option: (b)
 The amendment accorded precedence to
Explanation:
Directive Principles over Fundamental
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 352 Rights, stating that if there is a conflict
states that the President can proclaim an between the two, the Directive Principles
emergency when the territory of India is would take precedence.
under invasion, foreign encroachment, or
 The amendment extended the duration of
internal insurrection.
the President’s rule from one year to three
Supplementary Notes: years during a national emergency.

National Emergency The amendment declared that

RE

Parliament had the power to amend
 Even though such a proclamation could
any part of the Constitution, including
only be issued in the legislative chamber’s
Fundamental Rights, and this power
attendance and with each house’s consent,
could not be challenged in court.
the emergency was revoked after one
month.  It altered the balance between the Center
and the States by granting greater control
 The nation’s first emergency was
proclaimed during the 1962–1968
O
confrontation with China. Following it,
Smt. 
to the Union government, thereby reducing
the autonomy of the States.
The amendment abolished the privy purses
 Indira Gandhi imposed the most and privileges granted to the former rulers
SC
controversial state of emergency due to of princely states by the 26th Amendment
domestic strife. Act.

L1 : Elementary L3: Real Challenge

43. Correct option: (b) 44. Correct option: (c)

Explanation: Explanation:
GS

 Statement 3 is incorrect: The amendment  All Statements are correct

declared that Parliament had the power
Supplementary Notes:
to amend any part of the Constitution,
including Fundamental Rights, and this Financial Emergency
power could not be challenged in court. O
 The Constitution of India talks about three
Supplementary Notes: types of emergencies; National Emergency
.C
in Article 352, President’s Rule in State is
42nd Amendment Act
mentioned under article 356 and Financial
S

 The 42nd Amendment Act in India is a Emergency in Article 360 of the Indian
significant constitutional amendment that Constitution.
TE

was passed in 1976 during the period of

emergency in the country.  Part XVIII of the Constitution of India
contains emergency provisions from Articles
O

 It made several changes to the Indian 352 to 360.

Constitution and is considered one of the
FN

most controversial amendments in Indian  If the President of India is satisfied that

history. a situation has arisen due to which the
financial stability or credit of India or any
D

 The amendment changed the Preamble

part of its territory is threatened.
of the Indian Constitution to include the
.P

terms “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity”  He/she can declare the Financial Emergency
to reflect the ideals and aspirations of the on the aid and advise of the Council of
W

nation. Ministers.
W

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 https://www.pdfnotes.co/
 Article 360 gives authority to the
President of India to declare a financial
emergency.
 But keep in mind that the 44th Constitutional
Amendment Act of 1978 says that the
President’s ‘satisfaction’ is not beyond
judicial review. It means the Supreme
Court can review the declaration of
Financial Emergency.
Parliamentary Approval and Duration of
the Financial Emergency
 A proclamation of financial emergency
must be approved by both the Houses of
Parliament within two months from the
date of its issue.
 Once approved by both the Houses of
Parliament, the Financial Emergency
continues indefinitely till it is revoked. This
implies two things:
 Repeated Parliamentary approval is not
required for its continuation.
 There is no maximum time limit
prescribed for the operation of financial
emergency

O
Resolution approving the proclamation of
financial emergency can be passed by either
House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya
Sabha) only by a simple majority.
SC
L3: Real Challenge
45. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Governing
Council of NITI Aayog consists of the
GS
Chief Ministers of all the States and
Lt. Governors of Union Territories in
India.
 Regional Councils will be created to address
particular issues and possibilities affecting
more than one state. These will be formed
for a fixed term. It will be summoned by the
Prime Minister.
 It will consist of the Chief Ministers of States
and Lt. Governors of Union Territories.
These will be chaired by the Chairperson of
the NITI Aayog or his nominee.
 Statement 2 is correct: NITI Aayog
replaced the Planning Commission of India.
It is basically a think-tank or an advisory
body. The Planning Commission designed
Five Years Plans in India.
 Statement 3 is correct: The full-time
organizational framework will include,
in addition to the Prime Minister as the
Chairperson: Vice-Chairperson (appointed
by the Prime Minister)
22
 Part-time members: Maximum of 2
members from foremost universities,
leading research organizations, and
other innovative organizations in an ex-
officio capacity. Part-time members will
be on a rotational basis.
Supplementary Notes:
NITI Aayog
 The NITI Aayog was formed on January 1,
2015. In Sanskrit, the word “NITI” means
morality, behaviour, guidance, etc. But, in
the present context, it means policy and the
NITI stands for “National Institution for
Transforming India”.
 The NITI Aayog is based on the 7 pillars of
effective Governance. They are:
 Pro-people: it fulfils the aspirations of
RE
society as well as individuals
 Pro-activity: in anticipation of and response
to citizen needs
 Participation: involvement of the citizenry
 Empowering: Empowering, especially
women in all aspects
 Inclusion of all: inclusion of all people
irrespective of caste, creed, and gender
 Equality: Providing equal opportunity to all
especially for youth
 Transparency: Making the government
visible and responsive
L3: Real Challenge
46. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The National
Human Rights Commission, India has been
set up by an Act of Parliament under the
Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 for
the protection and promotion of human
rights.
O
 The functions of the Commission as
.C
stated in Section 12 of the Act and apart
from enquiry into complaints of violation
S
of human rights or negligence in the
prevention of such violation by a public
TE
servant, the Commission also studies
treaties and international instruments on
human rights and make recommendations
O
for their effective implementation to the
Government.
FN
 Statement 2 is correct: The Commission
is responsible for spreading of human
D
rights awareness amongst the masses and
encouraging the efforts of all stake holders
.P
in the field of human rights literacy not only
at the national level but at international
W
level too.
W
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 NHRC is a unique institution because it
is one of the few National Human Rights
Institutes (NHRIs) in the world whose
Chairperson is the former Chief Justice of
the country.
Supplementary Notes:
National Human Rights Commission
(NHRC)
 The NHRC, India plays an active role in
coordinating with other NHRIs of the world
to enhance awareness from the perspective of
human rights. It has also hosted delegations
from UN Bodies and other National Human
Rights Commissions as well as members of
civil society, lawyers and political and social
activists from many countries.
The National Human Rights Commission
 
(NHRC) of India was established on 12
October, 1993. The statute under which it
is established is the Protection of Human
Rights Act (PHRA), 1993 as amended by the
Protection of Human Rights (Amendment)
Act, 2006.
It is in conformity with the Paris Principles,

O
adopted at the first international workshop
on national institutions for the promotion
and protection of human rights held in
Paris in October 1991, and endorsed by the
SC
General Assembly of the United Nations
by its Regulations 48/134 of 20 December,
1993.
 Section 2(1) (d) of the PHR Act defines
Human Rights as the rights relating to
life, liberty, equality and dignity of the
individual guaranteed by the Constitution
GS
or embodied in the International Covenants
and enforceable by courts in India.
L2: Approachable
47. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: According to the
Right to Information Act, 2005, states
in India are required to create a State
Information Commission, which must be
published in the state’s official gazette.
 The State Information Commission is a
strong, independent body that conducts
investigations and renders judgments
on appeals.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the

terms of the Right to Information Act of
2005, the state government formed the
State Information Commission, a quasi-
judicial entity.
PPP-PTS-4273/082023/04
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Supplementary Notes:
State Information Commission Powers
and Functions
 Any person may file a complaint with the
Commission, which must consider it. If there
are sufficient grounds, the Commission may
order an inquiry into any topic (suo moto
power).
 The Commission can conduct investigations
in civil cases with the same authority as a
civil court.
 Any record controlled by a public authority
may be examined by the Commission during
the investigation of a complaint, and no
such record may be withheld from it for any
reason.
RE
In other words, during the investigation,
all public records must be provided to the
Commission for review. The Commission
has the authority to ensure that the public
authority abides by its rulings.
L1 : Elementary
48. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It is empowered
to inquire into offences alleged to have
been committed under the Prevention of
Corruption Act, 1988 by certain categories
of public servants.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The IEMs will
examine all complaints received by them
and give their recommendations to the chief
executive of the organisation. In case of
suspicion of serious irregularities requiring
legal or administrative action, they are
supposed to send a report to the Chief
Vigilance Officers (CVOs), the rules state.
O
Supplementary Notes:
.C
Central Vigilance commission (CVC)
 The Special Police Establishment (SPE)
S
which was set up in 1941 by the Government
TE
of India.
 The functions of the SPE then were to
investigate cases of bribery and corruption
O
in transactions with the War & Supply
Department of India during World War II.
FN
 Even after the end of the War, the need for a
Central Government agency to investigate
D
cases of bribery and corruption by Central
Government employees was felt.
.P
 The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act
W
was therefore brought into force in 1946.
W
23
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 After promulgation of the Act,
superintendence of SPE was transferred
to the Home Department and its functions
were enlarged to cover all departments of
the Government of India.
 The jurisdiction of SPE was extended to all
the Union territories and the Act provided
for its extension to States with the consent
of the State Government.
 By 1963, the SPE was authorized to
investigate offences under 91 different
sections of Indian Penal Code (IPC) and 16
other Central Acts besides offences under
the Prevention of Corruption Act 1947.
L2: Approachable
49. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The National
Emergency does not stop the enforcement of
Articles 20 and 21 rights.
Supplementary Notes:
O rights.
44th Amendment Act
 The 42nd Amendment Act, passed in 1976,
overrode the will of the Indian people by
SC
amending the constitution.
 Article 352 was used by Union
Government to declare the Emergency.
Fortunately, the 1978 Constitution Act set
out to correct these flaws and reestablish
harmony between government and people.
This article goes into great detail on India’s
GS
44th Constitutional Amendment.
 In both cases, the government proclaims a
state of emergency, and the two occurrences
are almost similar.
A two-thirds majority is needed to pass

the 44th Amendment of 1978. To make a
proclamation lawfully, two-thirds of the
House and Senate must support it.
 It would have expired after two months had
no action been taken if neither chamber had
approved. Before the 44th Amendment was
signed into law, it was little over a month.
 After the emergency declaration was
accepted by both houses of parliament in
1975, no further review of it was necessary.
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978

required a six-month review of the
emergency declaration and, without
new parliamentary assent, its
termination after that period.
24
 One hundred percent of Lok Sabha members
might summon a conference to debate
repealing the proclamation.
 It must be made within 14 days. An easy
majority vote at the special meeting will put
an end to the crisis.
 In most cases, a state of emergency lasts
a year. The 44th Amendment to the U.S.
Constitution, passed in 1978, safeguards
this freedom.
 After the 44th Amendment Act was signed
into law in 1978, writs of habeas corpus may
be filed with the Supreme Court and the
High Courts. Constitutional Amendment
352 (38th Amendment) rendered this
unjusticiable.
RE
 As of today, anybody may challenge any
declaration of emergency in court based
on the government’s bad intentions,
thanks to the removal of Clause 5. The
National Emergency does not stop
the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21
L3: Real Challenge
50. Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary Notes:
National Investigation Agency
 The National Investigation Agency (NIA)
in India is a federal agency responsible
for investigating and combating terrorism
and other serious crimes with a national or
cross-border impact. It was established on
O
December 31, 2008, through the enactment
.C
of the National Investigation Agency Act
2008.
S
The primary objective of the NIA is to
TE

handle terror-related incidents and other
significant offenses that pose a threat to the
O
sovereignty, integrity, and security of India.
The agency operates under the Ministry
FN
of Home Affairs, and its headquarters are
located in New Delhi.
D
 Counter-terrorism operations:
.P
Investigating and prosecuting acts of
terrorism, including attacks, bomb blasts,
W
hijackings, and other related activities.
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 Probing cross-border crimes:  Handling organized crime: Investigating

Investigating offenses that have and prosecuting organized crime syndicates
international ramifications or involve other involved in activities such as drug trafficking,
countries. arms smuggling, human trafficking, and
 Dealing with counterfeit currency more.
cases: Investigating and prosecuting cases
 Protection of witnesses and informants:
related to the circulation of fake currency
notes. Ensuring the safety and security of
witnesses and informants during the course
 Combating cybercrimes: Addressing of investigations.
cyber threats and conducting investigations
related to cybercrime. L1 : Elementary

™™™™™

RE
O
SC
GS

O
S .C
TE
O
FN
D
.P
W
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