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 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PPP-PTS-4262/072023/03

GENERAL STUDIES

POLITY - 3
Time Allowed: One Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number carefully
without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the
Test Booklet.
O
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
C
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
S.

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TE

TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
O

penalty.
FN

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
D

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
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question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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1. With respect to the Indian president, consider How many of the above statements are
the following statements: correct?
1. The process of appointing the President (a) All four
is outlined in Articles 52 to 62 of the
Constitution. (b) Only one
2. They should be at least 37 years old. (c) Only two
3. They must be qualified for election as
(d) Only three
a member of the Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha.
4. Which of the following statements is/are
How many of the above statements are
correct? correct?

(a) Only one 1. The President holds office for a term of

five years from the date on which they
(b) Only two
assume office.
(c) All three
2. They are eligible for re-election.
(d) None

RE
3. The Vice President acts as the President
2. Consider the following statements regarding until a new President is elected.
the Presidential Election in India: 4. The real executive power lies with the
1. Any candidate seeking to contest the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime
presidential election must be proposed by Minister.
at least 50 electors (MPs or MLAs).
O
2. The President is elected by an electoral
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
college consisting of elected MPs,
including both the Lok Sabha and the (a) 4 only
Rajya Sabha.
SC
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. The Electoral College also consists of
elected MLAs of the states and Union (c) 1 and 3 only
territories.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
How many of the above statements are
incorrect?
5. In the context of the Presidential Powers in
(a) Only one
India, consider the following statements:
GS

(b) Only two

1. The President is the formal head of the
(c) All three executive branch of the government.
(d) None
2. When Parliament is not in session, the O
President cannot issue ordinances.
3. Regarding the election and appointment
C
procedure of Indian President, consider the 3. The President summons and prorogues
following statements: the sessions of Parliament and addresses
S.

1. The election is conducted through a both houses at the commencement of the

secret ballot. first session after each general election.
TE

2. Each member of the Electoral College How many of the above statements are
casts their vote for the candidate of their correct?
O

choice.
(a) Only one
FN

3. The voting is done by means of a

single transferable vote system, where (b) Only two
preferences are indicated.
D

(c) All three

4. The president is administered the oath
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by the Chief Justice of India. (d) None

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6. Consider the following statements: 9. Regarding the impeachment procedure of
the Indian President, consider the following
1. The separation of powers distributes statements:
state power between three independent
branches, such as legislative, executive, Statement-I:
and judicial. The notice can only be signed by a minimum
2. The concept of separation of powers of one-third of the total number of members of
that house.
is quite specifically stated in the US
Constitution. Statement-II:
Which of the above statements is/are correct? It should state the charges against the
President and be accompanied by a resolution
(a) 1 only containing the proposed impeachment
(b) 2 only motion.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
(c) Both 1 and 2
of the above statements?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct

7. With respect to the Powers of President in
India, consider the following statements:
1. The President has the power to grant
pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions
of punishment or to suspend, remit, or
commute the sentence of any person O
convicted of an offense.
2. Certain offenses, such as those under
military law or impeachments, are not
subject to the President’s pardoning
SC
powers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
RE
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct
10. With respect to the Election procedure of Vice-
President in India, consider the following
statements:
1. He is elected by an electoral college
consisting of members of both Houses of
Parliament.

(c) Both 1 and 2 2. He may be a member of either House of

Parliament or of a House of a Legislature
GS

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 of any state.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
8. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only
1. The party must have won at least 10%
(b) 2 only O
of the total seats in the Lok Sabha in the
general elections. (c) Both 1 and 2
C
2. The party must have secured a minimum (d) Neither 1 nor 2
S.

of 55 seats in the Lok Sabha.

11. Consider the following statements:
TE

Which of the statements given above is/are

incorrect about the criteria for a party to be 1. The election of the next Vice-President is
recognized as the official opposition in the Lok to be held within 45 days of the expiry
O

Sabha? of the term of office of the outgoing Vice-

President.
FN

(a) 1 only
2. Any person qualified to be elected and
(b) 2 only intending to stand for election as Vice-
D

(c) Both 1 and 2 President is required to be nominated by

at least 20 MPs as proposers and at least
.P

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 20 MPs as seconders.

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 Which of the above statements is/are correct? 14. Consider the following statements regarding
the Council of Ministers:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 1. Union Council of Ministers must ensure
legal responsibility.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. A minister must resign if he disagrees
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 with a cabinet decision and is unwilling
to defend it.
12. Consider the following statements related to
the Election of the Vice-President: Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Statement-I: (a) 1 only

The Returning Officer usually appointed to (b) 2 only

conduct the Vice-Presidential elections is
(c) Both 1 and 2
the Secretary-General of either House of the
Parliament, by rotation. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement-II:

RE
15. With respect to the Prime Minister of India,
The Returning Officer issues a public notice
consider the following statements:
of the intended election in a prescribed form,
inviting nomination of candidates and specifies 1. He can recommend the appointment and
the place where the nomination papers are to dismissal of the Council of Ministers to
be delivered. the Speaker.
Which one of the following is correct in respect 2. He can advise the President on the
of the above statements?
O appointment of key constitutional
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are functionaries.
correct and Statement-II is the correct
3. The Prime Minister can resign from
explanation for Statement-I
SC
office by submitting their resignation to
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II the Vice-President.
are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I How many of the above statements are
correct?
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect (a) Only one

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- (b) Only two

GS

II is correct
(c) All three

13. With reference to the Vice-President of India, (d) None

consider the following statements:
16. Consider the following statements:
1. The Vice President is the ex-
O
officio Chairman of the Council of 1. He/She is appointed by the Governor of
C
States. the state.
S.

2. He/She shall discharge the functions

2. He/She is usually a member of the state
of the President during the temporary
TE

legislative assembly.
absence of the President.
Which of the above statements is/are Which of the above statements is/are correct
O

incorrect? regarding the Chief Minister?

FN

(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only (b) 2 only

D

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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17. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Chief Minister serves as the principal
advisor to the Governor on matters relating to
the administration of the state.
Statement-II:
The Governor, being the constitutional head
of the state, acts on the advice of the Chief
Minister and the Council of Ministers.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
19. “It stipulated that there should be a time-
limit, desirably six months to give assent or to
reserve a Bill for consideration of the President.
If the Bill is reserved for consideration of
the President, there should be a time-limit,
desirably of three months, within which the
President should take a decision whether to
accord his assent or to direct the Governor to
return it to the State Legislature or to seek the
advisory opinion of the Supreme Court.”
Recommendation stated above was given by
which of the following Commissions?
(a) The National Commission to review the
working of the Constitution (NCRWC)
(b) Sarkaria Commission
(c) First Administrative Reforms

RE
Commission
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II (d) Punchhi Commission
are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I 20. How many of the following cabinet Committees
are headed by the Home Minister?
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect O 1. Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary
Affairs
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct 2. Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
3. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
SC
18. Consider the following statements: 4. Cabinet Committee on Accommodation
Statement I: Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
The Governor of states in India are mostly an
outsider and does not belong to the state in (a) Only one
which he holds the office.
(b) Only two
Statement II:
GS

(c) All three

This practice is mentioned in the Constitution (d) None
and was added to keep the governor free from
local politics. 21. Consider the following statements:
Which one of the following is correct in respect 1. Every person who is a member of All
O
of the above statements? India Service holds office during the
C
pleasure of the President
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
S.

correct and Statement-II is the correct 2. If a government employee is convicted

explanation for Statement-I in a criminal case, he can be dismissed
TE

without Departmental Enquiry.

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
Which of the statements given above is/are
are correct and Statement-II is not the
O

correct?
correct explanation for Statement-I
FN

(a) 1 only
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect (b) 2 only
D

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
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II is correct (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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22. In the context of Legislature of the Union, 24. Regarding the Lok Sabha Election in India,
consider the following statements: which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution
deals with the allocation of seats in the 1. The election is based on the principle of
Rajya Sabha to the states and union universal adult franchise.
territories. 2. The voting age was reduced from 21
to 18 years by the 59th Constitutional
2. The representatives of states in the Rajya
Amendment Act, 1988.
Sabha are elected by the elected members
of state legislative assemblies. Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
3. The election is held in accordance with
the system of proportional representation (a) 1 only
by means of the single transferable vote. (b) 2 only
4. The seats are allotted to the states in the (c) Both 1 and 2
Rajya Sabha on the basis of population.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

RE
How many of the above statements are
correct? 25. Consider the following statements regarding
the Power of parliament:
(a) Only one
1. Money Bills can only be introduced in the
(b) Only two Lok Sabha.
(c) Only three 2. The Rajya Sabha can make
(d) All four
O recommendations on the money bill, but
it can reject or amend it.

23. Consider the following statements: 3. Finance Bills are related to taxation
measures and cannot be introduced in
SC
Statement-I: the Rajya Sabha.
The Vice-president nominates 12 members to How many of the above statements are
the Rajya Sabha from people who have special correct?
knowledge or practical experience in art, (a) Only one
literature, science and social service.
(b) Only two
Statement-II:
(c) All three
GS

The rationale behind this principle of

(d) None
nomination is to provide eminent persons
a place in the Rajya Sabha without going
through the process of election. 26. Consider the following statements:

Which one of the following is correct in respect 1. The process for the removal of judges
O
of the Supreme Court and High Courts
of the above statements?
C
is governed by Article 124 of the Indian
Constitution.
S.

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

correct and Statement-II is the correct 2. The Chief Justice of India may receive
TE

explanation for Statement-I a motion from at least four out of seven

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II judges of the Supreme Court.
O

are correct and Statement-II is not the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
correct explanation for Statement-I
FN

(a) 1 only
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
(b) 2 only
is incorrect
D

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
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II is correct (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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27. With respect to the Powers and Privileges of Statement-II:
Members of Parliament in India, consider the
For raising matters during the Zero Hour,
following statements:
MPs give notice before 10 am to the Chairman
1. The Government of India Act of 1935 on the day of the sitting.
introduced these provisions to India,
Which one of the following is correct in respect
which was inspired by Britain’s House of
of the above statements?
Commons.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. The powers and privileges of the Houses
correct and Statement-II is the correct
of Parliament are enshrined in Article
explanation for Statement-I
105 of the Constitution.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
3. A defamation suit cannot be filed for a
are correct and Statement-II is not the
statement made in the House.
correct explanation for Statement-I
4. The Speaker or House handles free
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
speech breaches instead of the court for
is incorrect
House Members.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-

RE
How many of the above statements are
II is correct
correct?
(a) Only one 30. Which of the following statements is/are
(b) Only two correct?

(c) Only three 1. Article 123 gives President the power to

legislate through an ordinance if it is not
(d) All four
O
28. Regarding the Sessions of Parliament in India,
possible for Parliament to enact a law
immediately.
2. While an ordinance may amend or repeal
consider the following statements:
SC
any Act, its life is temporary.
1. The summoning of Parliament is specified
3. An ordinance must approve by
in Article 85 of the Constitution.
parliament within 6 weeks of the date of
2. It is based on a provision of the its reassembly, after which the ordinance
Government of India Act, 1935. ceases to have effect.

3. India does not have a fixed parliamentary Select the correct answer using the code given
calendar. below.
GS

4. By convention, Parliament meets for (a) 1, 2 and 3

three sessions in a year.
(b) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 2 and 3 only
correct?
(d) 3 only
O
(a) 4 only
C
(b) 1 and 2 only 31. In the context of the President Address in
S.

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Parliament of India, consider the following

statements:
TE

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

1. The President of India addresses both
the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha at
O

29. With respect to the Parliamentary proceedings the beginning of the first Session after
in India, consider the following statements:
FN

each general election.

Statement-I: 2. Under Article 87 of the constitution, the
D

The Zero Hour is usually used to raise matters President also addresses both the houses
that are urgent and can wait for the notice at beginning of the first session of each
.P

period required under other procedures. year.

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 Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the above statements is/are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
32. Consider the following statements regarding
the judicial system in India: 35. Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court was established as
apex Court at national level under Article 1. The Supreme Court has only original and
124(1) of the Constitution of India. appellate jurisdiction.

2. The High Court constituted under Article 2. Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends
214 of the Constitution. to any dispute between the Government
3. The Power of Civil Courts is governed by of India and one or more States.
Civil Procedure Code (CPC). Which of the above statements is/are correct?

RE
4. The Power of Criminal Courts is governed
by Criminal Procedure Code (CrPc). (a) 1 only

How many of the above statements are (b) 2 only

correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (d) Neither 1 nor 2
O
(c) Only three
36. Consider the following statements:
(d) All four
33. With reference to the Supreme Court of India, Statement-I:
SC
consider the following statements: Article 32 of the Constitution gives an extensive
1. The Court comprises the Chief Justice original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court
and not less than 33 other Judges. in regard to enforcement of Fundamental
2. Judges must have been at least five years Rights.
as a Judge of a High Court.
Statement-II:
3. The appointment of a Judge of a High
GS

Court may appoint as an Ad-hoc Judge of It is empowered to issue directions, orders or

the Supreme Court. writs, including writs in the nature of habeas
How many of the above statements are corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto
correct? and certiorari to enforce them.
(a) Only one Which one of the following is correct in respect
O
(b) Only two of the above statements?
C
(c) All three (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
S.

(d) None correct and Statement-II is the correct

34. Regarding the appointment of High Court explanation for Statement-I
TE

Judges, consider the following statements:

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
1. The President ensures the transfer of are correct and Statement-II is not the
O

Chief Justice from one High Court to correct explanation for Statement-I
FN

another.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
2. The process of appointment must be
is incorrect
completed at least 15 days prior to the
D

date of anticipated vacancy for the Chief (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
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Justice of the High Court. II is correct

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37. Consider the following statements:
1. Each District Court has appellate
jurisdiction in the district.
2. Panchayat Courts are not considered as
courts under the purview of the criminal
courts jurisdiction.
3. The High Court has administrative
jurisdiction over the District Courts in
terms of posting, promotions, and leave
for all members of the State Judicial
Service.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
40. Consider the following pairs:
1. Simple majority - a majority of the total
membership of each House and a majority
of not less than twothirds of the members
present and voting in each House
2. Special majority - a majority of the
members present and voting in each
House of Parliament
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
matched?
(a) 1 only

(a) Only one (b) 2 only

(b) Only two (c) Both 1 and 2

(c) All three (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RE
(d) None
41. Consider the following statements:
38. With reference to the Lok Adalats, consider 1. Judicial review is the power of the
the following statements:
judiciary to examine the constitutionality
1. They are voluntary agencies, monitored of legislative enactments and executive
by the State Legal Aid and Advice
Boards.
O
2. It provides for setting up of Legal Services
Authorities at the Central, State and
orders of both the Central and State
governments.
2. Judicial activism refers to a theory of
District levels. judgment that takes into account the
SC
spirit of the law and the changing times.
Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect? 3. Judicial restraint relies on a strict
(a) 1 only interpretation of the law and the
importance of legal precedent.
(b) 2 only
How many of the above statements are
(c) Both 1 and 2
incorrect?
GS

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a) Only one

39. Consider the following: (b) Only two

1. Violation of basic human rights of the (c) All three
poor
(d) None
O
2. Content or conduct of government policy
C
3. Compel municipal authorities to perform
S.

42. With reference to the Tribunals, consider the

a public duty
following statements:
TE

4. Violation of religious rights or other basic

fundamental rights 1. These are governed by specific laws, each
defining their jurisdiction, composition,
In how many of the above matters the Public
O

powers, and functions.

interest litigation (PIL) can be filed?
FN

2. They are typically headed by a

(a) Only one
chairperson, who is usually a retired
(b) Only two judge of the Supreme Court or a High
D

(c) Only three Court.

.P

(d) All four 3. Tribunals have quasi-judicial powers.

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 Select the correct answer using the codes given 45. Consider the following statements regarding
below. the Lokpal:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 1. It was established through the Lokpal
and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only 2. A high-level selection committee,
including the Prime Minister, Speaker of
(d) 2 and 3 only the Lok Sabha, Leader of the Opposition,
Chief Justice, and eminent jurist,
43. With respect to the National Legal Services appoints its members.
Authority (NALSA), consider the following
3. The Lokpal has the authority to
statements:
investigate allegations of corruption
1. NALSA has been constituted under the against public servants at the state
Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987. level.
2. Article 37A of the Constitution of India Which of the statements given above is/are
provides for free legal aid to the poor and correct?
weaker sections of the society.

RE
(a) 3 only
3. NALSA may organize the Lok Adalats
for amicable settlement of disputes. (b) 1 and 2 only
4. The provision of free legal aid may (c) 1 and 3 only
include representation by an advocate in
legal proceedings. (d) 2 only

How many of the above statements are

correct?
O 46. Consider the following statements:
1. Lokayuktas have the authority to
(a) Only one
investigate and prosecute cases of
(b) Only two corruption against public servants at the
SC
central government level only.
(c) Only three
(d) All four 2. The jurisdiction of Lokayuktas is limited
to the central level, and may extend to
the state government.
44. In the context of the Gram Nyayalayas, which
of the following statements is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1. Gram Nyayalayas are typically
GS

established at the headquarters of each (a) 1 only

intermediate-level panchayat.
(b) 2 only
2. The Nyayadhikari holds equivalent
authority, salary, and benefits as a (c) Both 1 and 2
Judicial Magistrate.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
O
3. The State Government must appoint
C
such Nyayadhikari after consulting with 47. Consider the following statements:
the relevant High Court.
S.

Statement-I:
4. It has authority over a region decided by
TE

the State Government after consulting
with governor.
Select the correct answer using the code given
The eCourts Integrated Mission Mode
Project has been implemented in District and
Subordinate Courts since 2007 for National
O

below. e-Governance.
FN

(a) 1 only Statement-II:

(b) 2 and 4 only The project aims to enable courts to deliver

e-services, and the judiciary to be able to
D

(c) 3 and 4 only monitor and manage the functioning of

.P

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only courts.

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 Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
2. The Chairman and members of the
Law Commission are appointed by the
President of India, on the advice of the
Union Cabinet.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below.
(a) 1 only

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II (b) 2 only

is incorrect
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct (d) Neither 1 nor 2

48. Consider the following: 50. Regarding the Parliamentary committees,

consider the following statements:
1. Accessibility

RE
2. Affordability 1. The members of these committees are
elected or nominated from among the
3. Frontline functionaries
Members of Parliament (MPs) from both
4. Real-time Data houses.
How many of the above given are the pillars of 2. Standing Committees are temporary
Tele-law initiative? committees that are constituted for a
(a)
(b)
Only one
Only two
O fixed term, usually for a year.

3. Ad Hoc Committees are permanent

(c) Only three committees formed to investigate specific
SC
issues or events that require immediate
(d) All four attention.

49. With reference to the Law Commission of Which of the above statements is/are correct?
India, which of the following statements is/are
(a) 1 only
correct?
1. The Law Commission comprises a (b) 2 and 3 only
GS

Chairman, typically a retired Supreme (c) 2 only

Court judge, and other experts, jurists,
and academicians. (d) 1, 2 and 3

O
C
™™™™™
S.
TE
O
FN
D
.P
W

PPP-PTS-4262/072023/03 11
W
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IAS Prelims - 2024
PPP-PTS-4262/072023/03

GENERAL STUDIES

POLITY - 3

Answer Key

Q. 1 (a) Q. 11 (b) Q. 21 (c) Q. 31 (c) Q. 41 (d)

Q. 2 (d) Q. 12 (b) Q. 22 (d) Q. 32 (d) Q. 42 (a)

Q. 3 (a) Q. 13 (d) Q. 23 (d) Q. 33 (b) Q. 43 (c)

Q. 4 (d) Q. 14 (b) Q. 24 (a) Q. 34 (d) Q. 44 (d)

Q. 5 (b) Q. 15 (a) Q. 25 (a) Q. 35 (b) Q. 45 (b)

O
C
Q. 6 (c) Q. 16 (c) Q. 26 (c) Q. 36 (a) Q. 46 (d)
S.

Q. 7 (c) Q. 17 (b) Q. 27 (d) Q. 37 (c) Q. 47 (a)

TE

Q. 8 (d) Q. 18 (c) Q. 28 (c) Q. 38 (d) Q. 48 (d)

O

Q. 9 (d) Q. 19 (a) Q. 29 (d) Q. 39 (d) Q. 49 (c)

FN

Q. 10 (a) Q. 20 (b) Q. 30 (a) Q. 40 (d) Q. 50 (a)

D
.P
W
W
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1. Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The process of
appointing the President is outlined in
Articles 52 to 62 of the Constitution.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: They should be
at least 35 years old.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: They must be
qualified for election as a member of the
Lok Sabha (the lower house of Parliament)
only.
Supplementary Notes:
Appointment of President in India
 According to the Indian Constitution, the
President of India is the head of state and
the first citizen of the country.
 The process of appointing the President is
outlined in detail in Articles 52 to 62 of the
Constitution.
Eligibility:

O
To be eligible for the presidency, a person
must fulfill the following criteria:
 The individual must be a citizen of
India.
SC
 They should be at least 35 years old.
 They must be qualified for election as
a member of the Lok Sabha (the lower
house of Parliament).
L3: Real Challenge
GS
2. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Appointment Process of President
The President of India is not directly elected

by the general public but is chosen indirectly
through an Electoral College system.
Nomination:
 The election process begins with the
issuance of a public notification by the
Election Commission of India.
 The notification invites nominations for
the office of the President. Any candidate
seeking to contest the presidential election
must be proposed by at least 50 electors
(Members of Parliament or Members of
Legislative Assemblies).
2 PPP-PTS-4262/072023/03
Scrutiny of Nominations:
 After the nomination process, the Election
Commission scrutinizes the nominations
received to ensure that the candidates fulfill
the eligibility criteria and that the proposals
are valid.
Electoral College:
 The President is elected by an electoral
college consisting of:
 Members of Parliament, including both
the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
 Members of the Legislative Assemblies
of the states and Union territories.
L3: Real Challenge
RE
3. Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Voting and Counting:
 The election is conducted through
a secret ballot. Each member of the
Electoral College casts their vote for
the candidate of their choice.
 The voting is done by means of a
single transferable vote system, where
preferences are indicated. After the
voting concludes, the ballot papers are
counted, and the results are compiled.
Declaration of the President:
 The candidate who secures the
majority of votes cast by the members
of the Electoral College is declared
the winner and is given oaths as the
President of India by the Chief Justice
of India. In the event of a tie, the Chief
O
Justice has a casting vote.
C
L3: Real Challenge
S.
TE
4. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
O
 All statements are correct
FN
Supplementary Notes:
Tenure of President in India
D
 The President holds office for a term of
.P
five years from the date on which they
assume office. However, they are eligible
W
for re-election.
W
W
  In case of a vacancy in the office of the
President before the completion of
the term, the Vice President acts as
the President until a new President is
elected.
 It is worth noting that the President of
India is a ceremonial and non-executive
position. While the President enjoys certain
powers and functions, the real executive
power lies with the Council of Ministers
headed by the Prime Minister.
 The appointment of the President in India
is a significant process that ensures a
democratic and participatory approach
while choosing the country’s highest
constitutional authority.
L3: Real Challenge
5. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: When
Parliament is not in session, the President
can issue ordinances.
Supplementary Notes:
Presidential Powers in India
O
In India, the President holds a significant
 such as legislative, executive, and judicial.
SC
position as the head of state and exercises
various powers as enshrined in the
Constitution of India.
 The President is considered the first citizen
of the country and represents the unity of
the nation.
Executive Powers
GS
 The President is the formal head of the
executive branch of the government.
Although most executive functions are
carried out by the Council of Ministers
headed by the Prime Minister, certain
powers are vested with the President.
 These include appointing the Prime
Minister, other ministers on the advice
of the Prime Minister, and the Attorney
General of India.
 The President also appoints the governors
of states, judges of the Supreme Court
and High Courts, and various other high-
ranking officials.
Legislative Powers
 The President plays a crucial role in
the legislative process. The President
summons and prorogues the sessions of
Parliament and addresses both houses
at the commencement of the first
session after each general election.
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 Bills passed by Parliament require the
President’s assent to become law. The
President can also withhold assent,
returning the bill for reconsideration,
although if Parliament passes it again, the
President must give assent.
Ordinance-making Power
 When Parliament is not in session,
the President can issue ordinances,
which have the same force as an act of
Parliament.
 These ordinances are temporary laws and
must be approved by Parliament within
six weeks of reassembling; otherwise, they
cease to operate.
L3: Real Challenge
RE
6. Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Separation of Power
 The separation of powers distributes state
power between three independent branches,
The legislature is the elected body with the
power to create laws in a parliament.
 The executive is the administrative body
that implements the law created by the
legislative and often declares war. The
judiciary enforces law and keeps an eye on
the other two branches to see whether they
are acting constitutionally. This principle
acts as a system of checks and balances.
 If this principle is not followed, then there
will be more chances of misuse of power and
corruption. If it is followed, then there will
be less chance of enacting an autocratic law
O
as they will know that it will be checked by
C
another branch.
S.
 The concept of separation of powers is quite
specifically stated in the US Constitution.
TE
O
FN
D
.P
W
L2: Approachable
3
7. Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both Statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Pardoning Powers of president
 The President has the power to grant
pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions
of punishment or to suspend, remit, or
commute the sentence of any person
convicted of an offense.
 However, certain offenses, such as those
under military law or impeachments, are
not subject to the President’s pardoning
powers.
L3: Real Challenge
RE
8. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Both Statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Leader of Opposition
O 
 The concept of the Leader of the Opposition
is enshrined in the Indian Constitution
under the provision of the 10th Schedule,
also known as the Anti-Defection Law.
SC
 According to this law, the LOP is the leader
of the largest party in the Lok Sabha
(the lower house of Parliament) that is in
opposition to the government of the day.
The criteria for a party to be recognized as
the official opposition in the Lok Sabha are
as follows:
GS
 The party must have won at least
10% of the total seats in the Lok
Sabha in the general elections.
 Alternatively, the party must have
secured a minimum of 55 seats in
the Lok Sabha.
 Once a party fulfills either of these criteria, its
leader becomes the Leader of the Opposition.
It is essential to note that the recognition
of the Leader of the Opposition is a crucial
aspect of parliamentary democracy, as it
ensures that the opposition’s voice is heard
and its views are given due importance.
L2: Approachable
L3: Real Challenge
9. Correct option: (d)
10. Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The notice can
only be signed by a minimum of one-fourth
of the total number of members of that
house.
W
4 PPP-PTS-4262/072023/03
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Supplementary Notes:
President Impeachment Process
 Notice: A notice of impeachment motion
must be given to the Speaker or Chairman
of the relevant house.
 The notice can only be signed by a
minimum of one-fourth of the total
number of members of that house.
 It should state the charges against
the President and be accompanied by
a resolution containing the proposed
impeachment motion.
 Investigation Committee: After the
notice is received, the Speaker or Chairman
may either admit the motion or refuse to
admit it. If admitted, a committee is formed
to investigate the charges.
The committee consists of members

from both houses, in proportion to their
respective strengths.
 Committee Investigation: The committee
conducts an investigation into the charges
and presents its findings to both houses.
The President has the right to appear and
present evidence before the committee.
If the committee finds the charges to be
valid, it recommends impeachment.
 Motion: The impeachment motion is then
discussed in both houses of Parliament. A
resolution to impeach the President must be
passed by a special majority, which means
a majority of the total membership of that
house and a majority of not less than two-
thirds of the members present and voting.
 Joint Sitting: If the motion is adopted by
either house, it is transmitted to the other
house. A joint sitting of both houses is then
convened to investigate the charges.
 The President has the right to be heard
in the joint sitting.
 Vote for Impeachment: If, after the joint
sitting, the charges are confirmed by a
special majority of the total membership of
both houses, as well as a majority of not less
O
C
than two-thirds of the members present and
voting, the President stands impeached.
S.
 Removal from Office: Once the President
is impeached, they are removed from office
TE
with immediate effect. The Vice President
then acts as the President until a new
President is elected.
O
FN
D
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Vice-
.P

President is not a member of either House
of Parliament or of a House of a Legislature
W
of any state.
 Supplementary Notes:
Election procedure of Vice-President in
India
 The Vice-President is elected by an electoral
college consisting of members of both Houses
of Parliament, in accordance with the system
of proportional representation by means of
the single transferable vote and the voting
in such election is by secret ballot.
 The Electoral College to elect a person to
the office of the Vice-President consists of
all members of both Houses of Parliament.
 The Vice-President is not a member of
either House of Parliament or of a House of
a Legislature of any state.
 If a member of either House of
Parliament or of a House of a
Legislature of any state is elected as
Vice-President, he is deemed to have
vacated his seat in that House on the
date he/she enters his office as Vice-
President.
L2: Approachable
11. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:

O
Statement 1 is incorrect: The election of
the next Vice-President is to be held within
SC
60 days of the expiry of the term of office of
the outgoing Vice-President.
Supplementary Notes:
Provisions relating to the Election of the
Vice-President
 The election of the next Vice-President
is to be held within 60 days of the expiry
GS
of the term of office of the outgoing Vice-
President.
 Any person qualified to be elected and
intending to stand for election as Vice-
President is required to be nominated by at
least 20 MPs as proposers and at least 20
MPs as seconders.
L3: Real Challenge
12. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Role of Returning Officer during Election
of the Vice-President
 The Returning Officer usually appointed
to conduct the Vice-Presidential elections
is the Secretary-General of either House of
the Parliament, by rotation.
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 The Returning Officer issues a public notice
of the intended election in a prescribed
form, inviting nomination of candidates and
specifies the place where the nomination
papers are to be delivered.
 Nomination papers are to be presented to
the Returning Officer at the place and upto
the time and date, specified in the public
notice. A maximum of 4 nomination papers
by, or on behalf of, any candidate may be
presented to, or accepted by, the Returning
Officer.
 A candidate seeking election as Vice-
President is required to make a security
deposit of Rs.15,000/-. This is the only
amount that is required to be deposited by
a candidate irrespective of the number of
nomination papers filed on his behalf.
RE
 The nomination papers are scrutinised on
the specified date by the Returning Officer
in the presence of the candidate and his
proposer or seconder and any one other
person duly authorised.
 Any candidate may withdraw his
candidature by a notice in writing in a
prescribed form delivered to the Returning
Officer within the time specified.
L3: Real Challenge
13. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Powers and Functions of Vice-President
 The Vice President of India, after the
President, is the highest dignitary of India,
and certain powers are attached to the office
of the Vice President. These are:
O
 The Vice President shall discharge the
functions of the President during the
C
temporary absence of the President due
to illness or any other cause due to which
S.
the President is unable to carry out his
functions.
TE
 The Vice President shall act as the
President, in case of any vacancy in the
O
office of the President by reason of his
death, resignation, removal through
FN
impeachment or otherwise. The Vice
President shall take over the duties of
the President until a new President is
D
elected and resumes office.
.P
 The Vice President is the ex-
officio Chairman of the Council of
W
States.
5
  When the Vice President acts as, or
discharges the functions of the President,
he or she immediately ceases to perform
the normal functions of being the
Chairman of the Council of States.
L2: Approachable
14. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: In India, there
is no provision in the Constitution for the
system of legal responsibility of a minister.
 Statement 2 is correct: It is the duty of
every minister to stand by cabinet decisions
and support them both within and outside
the Parliament. If any minister disagrees
with a cabinet decision and is not prepared
to defend it, he must resign.
Supplementary Notes:
Council of Ministers
 In Britain, every order of the King for any
public act is countersigned by a minister.
If the order is in violation of any law, the
minister would be held responsible and
O Prime Minister of India
would be liable in the court.
 In India, on the other hand, there is
no provision in the Constitution for
SC
the system of legal responsibility of a
minister. It is not required that an order
of the President for a public act should be
countersigned by a minister. Moreover, the
courts are barred from enquiring into the
nature of advice rendered by the ministers
to the president.
GS
 The principle of collective responsibility
means that the Cabinet decisions bind all
cabinet ministers (and other ministers) even
if they differed in the cabinet meeting.
 It is the duty of every minister to
stand by cabinet decisions and support
them both within and outside the
Parliament.
 If any minister disagrees with a
cabinet decision and is not prepared to
defend it, he must resign. For example,
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar resigned because of his
differences with his colleagues on the Hindu
Code Bill in 1953.
The fundamental principle underlying

the working of parliamentary system
of government is the principle of
collective responsibility. Article 75
clearly states that the council of ministers
is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
 This means that all the ministers own
joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all
6 PPP-PTS-4262/072023/03
their acts of ommission and commission.
They work as a team and swim or sink
together. (Collective responsibility
should not be confused with legal
responsibility)
L2: Approachable
15. Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Prime
Minister can recommend the appointment
and dismissal of the Council of Ministers to
the President.
 Statement 2 is correct: The Prime Minister
acts as the chief advisor to the President on
matters of national importance and advises
RE
the President on the appointment of key
constitutional functionaries.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The Prime
Minister can resign from office by submitting
their resignation to the President.
Supplementary Notes:
 The Prime Minister of India is the head
of the government and holds the highest
executive office in the country.
 According to the Indian Constitution, the
Prime Minister’s position is a part of the
parliamentary system of government, where
the executive branch derives its legitimacy
from the directly elected legislature.
Appointment
 The Prime Minister is appointed by
the President of India, who acts as the
ceremonial head of state.
 The President appoints the leader of the
political party or coalition that commands O
the majority in the Lok Sabha (House of
the People), the lower house of India’s
C
Parliament. In a situation where no single
party has a clear majority, the President
S.
may invite the leader of the largest coalition
to form the government.
TE
Council of Ministers
O
 The Prime Minister is the head of the
Council of Ministers, which comprises senior
FN
ministers who head different government
departments and ministries.
The Prime Minister recommends the
D

appointment and dismissal of these
.P
ministers to the President. The Council of
Ministers is collectively responsible to the
W
Parliament for its actions.
W
W
 Executive Powers
 The Prime Minister holds significant
executive powers and plays a central role
in formulating and executing government
policies.
 They exercise authority over the functioning
of various government departments and
have the power to appoint or dismiss key
officials.
Legislative Role
 While the Prime Minister is not a member
of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), the
upper house of Parliament, they can be a
member of either house or elected to the
Lok Sabha.
 The Prime Minister is responsible for
steering important legislation through
Parliament, representing the government’s
stance on various issues.
International Relations
 The Prime Minister represents India in
international forums and plays a crucial
role in determining the country’s foreign
policy. O 
 They engage with heads of other nations
and participate in international summits
and conferences.
Chief Advisor
SC
 The Prime Minister acts as the chief advisor
to the President on matters of national
importance and advises the President
on the appointment of key constitutional
functionaries.
Resignation and Removal
The Prime Minister can resign from
GS

office by submitting their resignation
to the President. Additionally, if the Prime
Minister loses the support of the majority in
the Lok Sabha, they may be asked to resign
by the President.
 Alternatively, if a motion of no-confidence
is passed against the Prime Minister in
the Lok Sabha, they may be removed from
office.
L3: Real Challenge
16. Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Chief Minister
 As per the Indian Constitution, a Chief
Minister is a crucial political figure at the
state level.
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 The position of Chief Minister is analogous
to that of the Prime Minister at the national
level, with certain differences in powers and
responsibilities.
Appointment and Tenure:
 The Chief Minister is appointed by
the Governor of the state. After a state
legislative assembly election, the political
party or coalition with the majority of seats
in the assembly is invited by the Governor
to form the government.
 The leader of this party or coalition becomes
the Chief Minister. The Chief Minister’s
tenure typically lasts for five years unless
the assembly is dissolved earlier due to
certain circumstances, such as a vote of no
confidence or political instability.
Executive Authority:
RE
 The Chief Minister is the head of the state’s
executive branch of government. They wield
significant executive powers and oversee
the administration and implementation of
laws in the state.
The Council of Ministers, comprising various
cabinet ministers, aids the Chief Minister
in governing the state.
 The Chief Minister allocates portfolios to the
ministers, guiding them in their respective
areas of responsibility.
Legislative Role:
 The Chief Minister is usually a member
of the state legislative assembly. They
play a crucial role in the lawmaking
process.
 The Chief Minister can propose and
introduce bills in the assembly, participate
in debates, and work to secure the passage
of bills that align with the government’s
policies and priorities.
L2: Approachable O
C
17. Correct option: (b)
S.
Explanation:
Both statements are correct
TE

Supplementary Notes:
CM Relations with the Governor:
O
The Chief Minister serves as the
FN

principal advisor to the Governor
on matters relating to the
administration of the state.
D
 The Governor, being the
.P
constitutional head of the state, acts
on the advice of the Chief Minister
W
and the Council of Ministers.
7
  However, there may be instances where
the Governor exercises discretion in
specific situations, such as during the
appointment of the Chief Minister when
no party has an absolute majority in the
assembly.
L3: Real Challenge
18. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Governor is
generally an outsider and does not belong
to the state in which he holds the office.
Present governor of Kerala, Arif
Mohammad Khan is an outsider. Its
objective is to keep the governor free from
local politics.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: However, this
practice is a convention and is not
mentioned in the constitution.
Supplementary Notes:
Office of Governor

to meet only two qualifications:
O
To be appointed as a Governor, he/ She has
 He should be an Indian Citizen and he
should be 35 years old or more
SC
 There are two conventions that the
government follows before nominating a
person as a Governor:
 He shall be an outsider having no relation
with the state he is being appointed to.
 Consultation of the Chief Minister is
taken by the President before appointing a
GS
governor
 It should also be noted that both the above
conventions are not absolute and have been
ignored by the union government in many
instances.
L2: Approachable
19. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: The National
Commission to review the working of the
Constitution (NCRWC-2000) reiterated the
view of the Sarkaria Commission regarding
the appointment of Governor. It enriched the
discourse by stipulating that there should
be a time-limit, desirably six months to give
assent or to reserve a Bill for consideration
of the President.
 If the Bill is reserved for consideration
of the President, there should be a time-
8 PPP-PTS-4262/072023/03
limit, desirably of three months, within
which the President should take a
decision whether to accord his assent or
to direct the Governor to return it to the
State Legislature or to seek the advisory
opinion of the Supreme Court.
Supplementary Notes:
Governor and Legislative Process
 When a bill is reserved by the governor
for the consideration of the President, the
President has three alternatives (Under
Article 201 of the Constitution):
 He may give his assent to the bill, or
 He may withhold his assent to the bill,
or
 He may direct the governor to return
RE
the bill (if it is not a money bill) for the
reconsideration of the state legislature.
 If the bill is passed again by the state
legislature with or without amendments
and presented again to the President for his
assent, the President is not bound to give
his assent to the bill. This means that the
state legislature cannot override the veto
power of the President.
 The Constitution has not prescribed any
time limit within which the President has to
take decision with regard to a bill reserved
by the governor for his consideration.
Some important recommendations by
Commissions w.r.t Governor are given
below:
 The Sarkaria Commission
recommended that Governor shall be
an eminent person in some walk of life,
someone outside the respective State
so that he would not have any personal
interest to protect.
 The first Administrative Reforms
Commission (1966) in its report on “Centre-
State Relationships” had recommended
O
C
strongly that once the Governor completes
his term of five years, he shall not be
S.
made eligible for further appointment as
Governor.
TE
 Punchhi Commission: While Sarkaria
Commission recommended that Governor’s
tenure of five years shall only be sparingly
O
cut short, Punchhi Commission went one
FN
step ahead and recommended that Governor
shall have fixed tenure so that they wouldn’t
hold office under the intangible pleasure
D
of the Central government. It proposed
an amendment to Article 156 so that
.P
there would be a procedure to remove the
Governor from office. It also went further
W
in recommending that Governors shall not
W
W
 be overburdened with the task of running
universities by virtue of them being made
Chancellors under the State University
Acts.
L3: Real Challenge
20. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: Only Cabinet
Committee on Accommodation and Cabinet
Committee on Parliamentary Affairs are
headed by the Home Minister. Remaining
all other committees are headed by PM.
Supplementary Notes:
List of Cabinet Committees:
 Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.
 Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
 Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs.
 Cabinet Committee on Investment and
Growth.
 Cabinet Committee on Security.
O without Departmental Enquiry (DE).
 Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary
Affairs.
 Cabinet Committee on Employment & Skill
Development.
SC
 Cabinet Committee on Accommodation.
 Cabinet Committees are extra-
constitutional in emergence, but
the Rules of Business provide for their
formation.
 They are established by the PM as per the
GS
exigencies of the time and needs of the
situation.
 They usually include only Cabinet Ministers.
Non-cabinet ministers can also be included
as members.
L3: Real Challenge
21. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
All India Services
 The article 310 of Indian constitution
reads that “Except as expressly provided
by this Constitution, every person who
is a member of a Defence service or of a
civil service of the Union or of an All India
Service holds office during the pleasure
of the President, and every person who
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PPP-PTS-4262/072023/03
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is a member of a civil service of a State or
holds any civil post under a State holds
office during the pleasure of the Governor
of the State.
 According to article 310, every person who
is a member of Union civil Service holds
office during the pleasure of the President.
But the article 311 acts as a safeguard
to civil servants. It reads as under;
 Article 311 (1): It says that no government
employee either of an all India service or
a state government shall be dismissed or
removed by an authority subordinate to the
one that appointed him/her.
 Article 311 (2): It says that no civil servant
shall be dismissed or removed or reduced in
rank except after an enquiry. Further, s/he
has to be informed of the charges and given
RE
a reasonable opportunity of being heard in
respect of those charges.
Exceptions under Article 311:
 Article 311(2) (a): It says that if a
government employee is convicted in
a criminal case, he can be dismissed
 Article 311 (2) (c): It says that the
government employee can be dismissed
when the President or the Governor is
satisfied that in the interest of the security
of state it is not required to hold such an
enquiry, the employee can be dismissed
without DE.
L3: Real Challenge
22. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Parliament - Legislature of the Union
 The Parliament is the legislative organ of
O
the Union government. It occupies a pre-
C
eminent and central position in the Indian
democratic political system due to adoption
S.
of the parliamentary form of government,
also known as ‘Westminster’ model of
TE
government.
 Articles 79 to 122 in Part V of the Constitution
O
deal with the organisation, composition,
duration, officers, procedures, privileges,
FN
powers and etc., of the Parliament.
Composition of Rajya Sabha
D
 The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha
is fixed at 250, out of which, 238 are to be
.P
the representatives of the states and union
territories (elected indirectly) and 12 are
W
nominated by the president.
9
  At present, the Rajya Sabha has 245
members. Of these, 229 members represent
the states, 4 members represent the union
territories and 12 members are nominated
by the president.
 The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution
deals with the allocation of seats in the
Rajya Sabha to the states and union
territories.
Representation of States
 The representatives of states in the Rajya
Sabha are elected by the elected members
of state legislative assemblies.
 The election is held in accordance with the
system of proportional representation by
means of the single transferable vote.
 The seats are allotted to the states in the
Rajya Sabha on the basis of population.
Hence, the number of representatives varies
from state to state.
Representation of Union Territories
 The representatives of each union
territory in the Rajya Sabha are
indirectly elected by members of an
O
electoral college specially constituted
for the purpose.
 This election is also held in accordance
with the system of proportional
SC
representation by means of the single
transferable vote.
 Out of the seven union territories, only two
(Delhi and Puducherry) have representation
in Rajya Sabha.
 The populations of other five union territories
are too small to have any representative in
the Rajya Sabha.
GS
L3: Real Challenge
23. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The president

nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha
from people who have special knowledge
or practical experience in art, literature,
science and social service.
Supplementary Notes:
Rajya Sabha: Nominated Members
The president nominates 12 members to the

Rajya Sabha from people who have special
knowledge or practical experience in art,
literature, science and social service.
 The rationale behind this principle of
nomination is to provide eminent persons
a place in the Rajya Sabha without going
through the process of election.
10
 It should be noted here that the American
Senate has no nominated members.
L2: Approachable
24. Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The voting age
was reduced from 21 to 18 years by the 61st
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988.
Supplementary Notes:
Composition of Lok Sabha
 The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha
is fixed at 552. Out of this, 530 members
are to be the representatives of the states,
20 members are to be the representatives
RE
of the union territories and 2 members are
to be nominated by the president from the
Anglo-Indian community.
 At present, the Lok Sabha has 545 members.
Of these, 530 members represent the states,
13 members represent the union territories
and 2 Anglo-Indian members are nominated
by the President.
Representation of States
 The representatives of states in the Lok
Sabha are directly elected by the people
from the territorial constituencies in the
states.
 The election is based on the principle of
universal adult franchise. Every Indian
citizen who is above 18 years of age and
who is not disqualified under the provisions
of the Constitution or any law is eligible to
vote at such election.
 The voting age was reduced from 21
to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1988.
Representation of Union Territories
O
 The Constitution has empowered the
C
Parliament to prescribe the manner of
choosing the representatives of the union
S.
territories in the Lok Sabha.
TE
 Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted
the Union Territories (Direct Election to
the House of the People) Act, 1965, by
O
which the members of Lok Sabha from the
union territories are also chosen by direct
FN
election.
Nominated Members
D
 The president can nominate two members
.P
from the Anglo-Indian community if the
community is not adequately represented
W
in the Lok Sabha.
W
PPP-PTS-4262/072023/03
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  Originally, this provision was to operate till
1960 but has been extended till 2020 by the
95th Amendment Act, 2009.
L3: Real Challenge
25. Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Money Bills can
only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Rajya
Sabha can make recommendations on the
money bill, but it cannot reject or amend it.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Finance Bills
are related to taxation measures and can be
introduced in either house.
Supplementary Notes:
Financial Bills
 The Parliament deals with financial matters
through Money Bills and Finance Bills.
 Money Bills are those that exclusively deal
with financial matters and can only be
introduced in the Lok Sabha. O
 The Rajya Sabha can make recommendations
on the bill, but it cannot reject or amend it.
 Finance Bills, on the other hand, are related
to taxation measures and can be introduced
SC
in either house.
L3: Real Challenge
26. Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
GS
Supplementary Notes:
Impeachment of Judges:
 The process for the removal of judges
of the Supreme Court and High Courts
is governed by Article 124 of the Indian
Constitution.
 Initiation: The process can be initiated in
either of the two ways:
The President may receive a motion from

at least 100 members of Lok Sabha or 50
members of Rajya Sabha regarding the
removal of a judge.
 The Chief Justice of India may
receive a motion from at least four
out of seven judges of the Supreme
Court.
Investigation Committee
 Similar to the process for the President,
an investigation committee is formed to
investigate the charges against the judge.
W
PPP-PTS-4262/072023/03
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 The committee comprises three members,
including the Chief Justice of India or any
other judge of the Supreme Court and two
distinguished jurists.
Address to the President
 The investigation committee submits its
report to the President, who will then
decide whether to proceed with the removal
process or not.
Parliamentary Vote
 If the President finds the charges against
the judge valid, the removal motion is taken
up in both Houses of Parliament.
 Similar to the President’s impeachment,
the removal motion must be supported by a
special majority in each House.
RE
President’s Order
 After the motion is passed in both Houses,
the President issues an order removing the
judge from office.
L3: Real Challenge
27. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Powers and Privileges of Members of
Parliament
What does Article 105 say?
 Article 105 of the Constitution deals
with “powers, privileges, etc. of the
Houses of Parliament and of the members
and committees thereof”, and has four
clauses.
 “Subject to the provisions of this
Constitution and to the rules and
O
standing orders regulating the procedure
of Parliament, there shall be freedom of
C
speech in Parliament.
S.
 No Member of Parliament shall be
liable to any proceedings in any court
in respect of anything said or any vote
TE
given by him in Parliament or any
committee thereof, and no person shall
O
be so liable in respect of the publication
by or under the authority of either House
FN
of Parliament of any report, paper, votes
or proceedings.
In other respects, the powers, privileges
D

and immunities of each House of
.P
Parliament, and of the members and the
committees of each House, shall be such
as may from time to time be defined by
W
11
 Parliament by law, and, until so defined,
shall be those of that House and of its
members and committees immediately
before the coming into force of section
15 of the Constitution (Forty-fourth
Amendment) Act, 1978.
 The provisions of clauses (1), (2) and (3)
shall apply in relation to persons who
by virtue of this Constitution have the
right to speak in, and otherwise to take
part in the proceedings of, a House of
Parliament or any committee thereof
as they apply in relation to members of
Parliament.”
 Simply put, Members of Parliament are
exempted from any legal action for any
statement made or act done in the course
of their duties. For example, a defamation
suit cannot be filed for a statement
made in the House.
 This immunity extends to certain non-
members as well, such as the Attorney
General for India or a Minister who may
not be a member but speaks in the House.
In cases where a Member oversteps
or exceeds the contours of admissible
O Parliamentary Committees can discuss the
free speech, the Speaker or the House
itself will deal with it, as opposed to
the court.
SC
So are there absolutely no restrictions on
this privilege?
 There are some, indeed. For example
Article 121 of the Constitution prohibits
any discussion in Parliament regarding the
“conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court
or of a High Court in the discharge of his
GS
duties except upon a motion for presenting
an address to the President praying for the
removal of the Judge”.
Where did the idea of this privilege of
Parliament originate?
The Government of India Act, 1935 first
 it is based on a provision of The
brought this provision to India, with
references to the powers and privileges
enjoyed by the House of Commons in
Britain. An initial draft of the Constitution
too contained the reference to the House
of Commons, but it was subsequently
dropped.
 However, unlike India where the
Constitution is paramount, Britain follows
Parliamentary supremacy. The privileges of
the House of Commons are based in common
law, developed over centuries through
precedents.
L3: Real Challenge
12
28. Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Sessions of Parliament
 The power to convene a session of
Parliament rests with the government. The
decision is taken by the Cabinet Committee
on Parliamentary Affairs, which currently
comprises nine ministers, including those
for Defence, Home, Finance, and Law.
 The decision of the Committee is formalised
by the President, in whose name MPs are
summoned to meet for a session.
 India does not have a fixed
parliamentary calendar. By convention,
RE
(i.e. not provided by the Constitution)
Parliament meets for three sessions in
a year.
 The longest, the Budget Session, starts
towards the end of January, and concludes
by the end of April or first week of May.
 The session has a recess so that
budgetary proposals.
 The second session is the three-week
Monsoon Session, which usually begins in
July and finishes in August.
 The parliamentary year ends with a three
week-long Winter Session, which is held
from November to December.
 A general scheme of sittings was
recommended in 1955 by the General
Purpose Committee of Lok Sabha. It was
accepted by the government of Prime
Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, but was not
implemented.
What the Constitution says
 The summoning of Parliament O
is specified in Article 85 of the
Constitution. Like many other articles,
C
Government of India Act, 1935.
S.
 This provision specified that the central
legislature had to be summoned to meet at
TE
least once a year, and that not more than 12
months could elapse between two sessions.
O
L3: Real Challenge
FN
29. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
D
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Zero Hour
.P
is usually used to raise matters that are
urgent and cannot wait for the notice period
W
required under other procedures.
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 Supplementary Notes:
Zero Hour
 The Zero Hour is usually used to raise
matters that are urgent and cannot wait
for the notice period required under other
procedures.
 For raising matters during the Zero
Hour, MPs give notice before 10 am to the
Chairman on the day of the sitting.
 The notice must state the subject they
wish to raise in the House. The Chairman
decides whether to allow the matter to be
raised. Short notice questions too are taken
up during the Zero Hour.
 Laying of Papers: During this time,
various papers such as annual reports of
ministries, public sector undertakings,
government bodies, audit reports by the
CAG, government notifications, etc. are also
laid on the table of the House.

RE
L3: Real Challenge
O by the Prime Minister aids and advises
the President who exercises his powers in
SC
accordance to such advice.
30. Correct option: (a)
 Article 87 of the constitution provides two
Explanation: instances when the President specially
 All statements are correct addresses both Houses of Parliament.
Supplementary Notes:  The President of India addresses both the
Ordinance Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha at the
GS

beginning of the first Session after each

 Article 123 gives President the power to
legislate through an ordinance if it is not
possible for Parliament to enact a law
immediately. While an ordinance may amend
or repeal any Act, its life is temporary.
 An ordinance must be laid before Parliament
when it reassembles, and Parliament must
approve it within 6 weeks of the date of
its reassembly, after which the ordinance
general election when the reconstituted
lower house meets for the first time. The
President also addresses both the houses at
beginning of the first session of each year.
O
 The President’s speech essentially highlights
C
the government’s policy priorities and plans
for the upcoming year. The address provides
S.

ceases to have effect. a broad framework of the government’s

agenda and direction.
TE

L3: Real Challenge

 Presiding Officers of Parliament: Speaker,
Deputy speaker, Chairman, Deputy
31. Correct Option: (c)
O

Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Explanation:
FN

L2: Approachable
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
D

32. Correct option: (d)

President Address
.P

Explanation:
 All executive power is vested in the President
W

of India. The Council of Ministers headed  All Statements are correct

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PPP-PTS-4262/072023/03 13
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 Supplementary Notes:
Indian Judicial system
 Under our Constitution there is a single
integrated system of Courts for the Union
as well as the States, which administer both
Union and State laws, and at the head of the
system stands the Supreme Court of India.
 Below the Supreme Court are the High
Courts of different States and under each
High Court there are ‘subordinate courts’,
i.e., courts subordinate to and under the
control of the High Courts.
 At the top of the judicial system is Supreme
Court of India followed by High Courts at
State level. There are 21 High Courts in
the Country. At the District level, there are
Subordinate District Courts.
Supreme Court of India
 The Supreme Court is the apex Court
at national level which was established
on 28th January 1950, under Article
124(1) of the Constitution of India.
 In this context, Article 124 (1) reads as
O
there shall be a Supreme Court of India
consisting of the Chief Justice of India and
until Parliament, by law, prescribe a large
number of not more than 7 judges.
SC
 Though by 2009 Amendment, the number
of judges in Supreme Court was raised to 31
including the Chief Justice.
 All proceedings in the Supreme Court are
conducted in English. The seat of Supreme
Court is in Delhi and the proceedings are
open to the public.
Hierarchy of Civil Judicial System
GS
Supreme Court
High Court
District Court/
Subordinate Court
Court of Subordinate judge class-I
Court of Sub-judge class-II
Court of Small Causes for Munsif’s court or court of
metropolitan cities Sub-judge III-class
High Courts
 The highest Court in the State is the
High Court constituted under Article
214 of the Constitution which reads
there shall be a High Court in each
14
State. There are at present, 21 High Courts
in the Country. Each High Court comprises
of a Chief Justice and such other judges as
the President of India from time to time
appoint.
Subordinate Courts
 The judicial system comprises of subordinate
courts which represent the firsttier of the
entire judicial structure. As a general rule,
Civil cases are dealt with by one set of
Hierarchy of Court known as Civil Court
and Criminal cases by another known as
Criminal Court.
 The Power of Civil courts are governed
by Civil Procedure Code (CPC) and
power of Criminal Court are governed
by Criminal Procedure Code (Cr.pc)
respectively. Following is the hierarchy
RE
chart of all civil and criminal courts in
India.
Hierarchy Chart of Civil and Criminal Courts in India
Supreme Courts
High Courts
District and Sessions Judge & Additional Sessions Judge
Assistant Sessions Judge
Chief Judicial Magistrate Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
Judicial Magistrate of the First Class Metropolitan Magistrate
Judicial Magistrate II-Class Special Judicial Magistrate
L3: Real Challenge
33. Correct option: (b)
Explanation: O
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Court
C
comprises the Chief Justice and not more
than 33 other Judges.
S.
Supplementary Notes:
TE
Supreme Court: Composition and
Appointment of Judges
O
 The Supreme Court of India comprises
the Chief Justice and not more than
FN
33 other Judges appointed by the
President of India.
D
 Supreme Court Judges retire upon attaining
the age of 65 years. In order to be appointed
.P
as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person
must be a citizen of India and must have
W
been, for atleast five years, a Judge of a
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PPP-PTS-4262/072023/03
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 High Court or of two or more such Courts in
succession, or an Advocate of a High Court
or of two or more such Courts in succession
for at least 10 years or he must be, in the
opinion of the President, a distinguished
jurist.
 Provisions exist for the appointment of
a Judge of a High Court as an Ad-hoc
Judge of the Supreme Court and for
retired Judges of the Supreme Court
or High Courts to sit and act as Judges
of that Court.
L3: Real Challenge
34. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chief
 anticipated vacancy for the Chief
Justice of India would ensure that
when a Chief Justice is transferred
from one High Court to another
simultaneous appointment of his successor
in office should be made and ordinarily the
arrangement of appointment of an acting
Chief Justice should not be made for more
O arrangement of appointment of an acting
than one month.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The process of
appointment must be initiated well in time
to ensure the completion at least one month
SC
prior to the date of anticipated vacancy for
the Chief Justice of the High Court.
Supplementary Notes:
Appointment of High Court Judges
 The Government has, in consultation with
the Chief Justice of India, decided as a
matter of policy to appoint the Chief Justice
GS
of all High Courts from outside.
 In case of initial appointment of a Chief
Justice of a High Court, the provisions
of Article 217 will have to be followed. In
the case of Jammu & Kashmir High Court,
appointment of Chief Justice shall be
made in accordance with section 95 of the
Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir. Transfer
of Chief Justice from one High Court to
another will be governed by the provision
of Article 222. Transfer of a Chief Justice
to and from Jammu & Kashmir High Court
shall be made in accordance with clause (1)
of Article 222 of the Constitution of India
read with Article 222(1A) of the Constitution
(Application to Jammu & Kashmir) Order,
1954.
 For purposes of elevation as Chief Justices
the inter-se seniority of puisne Judges will
be reckoned on the basis of their seniority
in their own High Courts and they will
be considered for appointment as Chief
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Justices in other High Courts when their
turn would normally have come for being
considered for such appointment in their
own High Courts.
 A puisne Judge in a High Court who has one
year or less to retire when his turn for being
considered for elevation as Chief Justice
arrives may be considered for appointment
as Chief Justice in his own High Court if
vacancy is to occur in the office of the Chief
Justice in that High Court during that
period.
 Initiation of the proposal for the appointment
of Chief Justice of a High Court would be
by the Chief Justice of India. The process
of appointment must be initiated well
in time to ensure the completion at
least one month prior to the date of
RE
Justice of the High Court. The Chief
Justice of India would ensure that
when a Chief Justice is transferred
from one High Court to another
simultaneous appointment of his successor
in office should be made and ordinarily the
Chief Justice should not be made for more
than one month.
 The Chief Justice of India would
send his recommendation for the
appointment of a puisne Judge of the
High Court as Chief Justice of that
High Court or of another High Court,
in consultation with the two senior-most
Judges of the Supreme Court. He would
also ascertain the views of the seniormost
colleague in the Supreme Court who is
conversant with the affairs of the High
Court in which the recommendee has been
functioning and whose opinion is likely to
be significant in adjudging the suitability
of the candidate. It is of no consequence
whether the Judge of the Supreme Court,
O
so consulted, had that High Court as Parent
High Court or was transferred there from
C
any other High Court.
S.
 The views of the Judges of the Supreme
Court thus consulted would then be sent
TE
by the Chief Justice of India alongwith his
proposal, to the Union Minister of Law,
Justice and Company Affairs.
O
L3: Real Challenge
FN
35. Correct option: (b)
D
Explanation:
.P
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme
Court has original, appellate and advisory
W
jurisdiction.
15
 Supplementary Notes:
Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
 The Supreme Court has original,
appellate and advisory jurisdiction.
 Its exclusive original jurisdiction
extends to any dispute between the
Government of India and one or more
States or between the Government of India
and any State or States on one side and one
or more States on the other or between two
or more States, if and insofar as the dispute
involves any question (whether of law or of
fact) on which the existence or extent of a
legal right depends.
Jurisdiction of
 The Supreme Court has been conferred
with power to direct transfer of any civil or
criminal case from one State High Court to
another State High Court or from a Court
subordinate to another State High Court.
 The Supreme Court, if satisfied that cases
involving the same or substantially the
same questions of law are pending before
it and one or more High Courts or before
two or more High Courts and that such
questions are substantial questions of
general importance, may withdraw a case
or cases pending before the High Court or
High Courts and dispose of all such cases
itself.
 Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act,
1996, International Commercial Arbitration
can also be initiated in the Supreme Court.

RE
Supreme Court of L3: Real Challenge
India

37. Correct option: (c)

Original
Advisory Explanation:
Settles Appellate
disputes  All statements are correct
Advises the
between Union
and States
Tries appcals
from lower
President
on matters
O Supplementary Notes:
and amongst courts in civil. of public Lower judiciary: Appointment,
States. Criminal and importance Jurisdictions and Power
Constitutional and law
The hierarchy of courts that lie subordinate
SC
cases 
to High Courts are referred to as Subordinate
Writ: Courts. It is for the State Governments
Special Powers to enact for the creation of Subordinate
Can Issue writs of
Habcas Corpus. Courts.
Can grant special
Mandamus. leave to an  The nomenclature of these subordinate
Prohibition. appeal from any courts differs from State to State but
Certiorari and Quo judgement or broadly there is uniformity in terms of the
warranto to protect
GS

matter passed by organisational structure (i.e. the hierarchy

the Fundamental any court in the
Rights of the remains the same for every State at the
territory of India
Individual. most).
 Below the High Courts, there are District
L2: Approachable
Courts for each district, and has O
appellate jurisdiction in the district.
36. Correct Option: (a) Under the District Courts, there are the
C

Explanation: lower courts such as the Additional District
S.

Court, Sub Court, Munsiff Magistrate Court,

 Both Statements are correct Court of Special Judicial Magistrate of I
TE

class, Court of Special Judicial Magistrate of

Supplementary Notes:
II class, Court of Special Munsiff Magistrate
Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for Factories Act and labour laws, etc.
O

 Article 32 of the Constitution gives  Below the Subordinate Courts, at the grass-
an extensive original jurisdiction root level, are the Panchayat Courts
FN

to the Supreme Court in regard to (Nyaya Panchayat, Gram Panchayat,

enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Panchayat Adalat, etc.). These are,
however, not considered as courts
D

 It is empowered to issue directions,

under the purview of the criminal
orders or writs, including writs in the
.P

courts jurisdiction. District Courts can

nature of habeas corpus, mandamus,
take cognizance of original matters under
prohibition, quo warranto and
special status.
W

certiorari to enforce them.

W

16 PPP-PTS-4262/072023/03
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  The Governor, in consultation with the High
Court, makes appointments pertaining to
the District Courts.
 Appointment of persons other than the
District Judges to the judicial service of a
State is made by the Governor in accordance
with the rules made by him in that behalf
after consultation with the High Court and
the State Public Service Commission.
 The High Court exercises administrative
control over the District Courts and the
courts subordinate to them, in matters
as posting, promotions and granting
of leave to all persons belonging to the
State Judicial Service.
L3: Real Challenge
38. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Lok Adalats
 Lok Adalats which are voluntary
agencies is monitored by the State
Legal Aid and Advice Boards. They
O
have proved to be a successful alternative
forum for resolving of disputes through the
conciliatory method.
SC
 The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
provides statutory status to the legal aid
movement and it also provides for setting
up of Legal Services Authorities at the
Central, State and District levels.
 These authorities will have their own funds.
Further, Lok Adalats which are at present
informal agencies will acquire statutory
GS
status.
 Every award of Lok Adalats shall be deemed
to be a decree of a civil court or order of a
Tribunal and shall be final and binding on
the parties to the dispute.
 It also provides that in respect of cases
decided at a Lok Adalat, the court fee paid
by the parties will be refunded.
L2: Approachable
39. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary Notes:
Public interest litigation (PIL)
 In Indian law, means litigation for the
protection of public interest. It is litigation
introduced in a court of law, not by the
aggrieved party but by the court itself or by
any other private party.
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 It is not necessary, for the exercise of the
court’s jurisdiction, that the person who is
the victim of the violation of his or her right
should personally approach the court.
 Public Interest Litigation is the power given
to the public by courts through judicial
activism.
 Such cases may occur when the victim
does not have the necessary resources to
commence litigation or his freedom to move
court has been suppressed or encroached
upon.
 The court can itself take cognisance of the
matter and proceed suo motu or cases can
commence on the petition of any public-
spirited individual.
 In simple words, means, litigation filed in
RE
a court of law, for the protection of Public
Interest, such as pollution, Terrorism, Road
safety, constructional hazards etc.
 Public interest litigation is not defined
in any statute or in any act. It has been
interpreted by judges to consider the intent
of public at large.
 Although, the main and only focus of such
litigation is only Public Interest there
are various areas where Public interest
litigation can be filed. For e.g.
 Violation of basic human rights of the
poor
 Content or conduct of government policy
 Compel municipal authorities to perform
a public duty.
Violation of religious rights or other

basic fundamental rights
L3: Real Challenge
40. Correct Option: (d) O
Explanation:
C
 Pair 1 is incorrect: Simple majority - a
S.
majority of the members present and voting
in each House of Parliament
TE
 Pair 2 is incorrect: Special majority - a
majority of the total membership of each
O
House and a majority of not less than
twothirds of the members present and
FN
voting in each House
Supplementary Notes:
D
Types of majority in Parliament
.P
 The Parliament is vested with the powers to
amend the Constitution by way of addition,
W
variation or repeal of any provision.
17
  The major part of the Constitution can be
amended by the Parliament with special
majority, that is, a majority of the
total membership of each House and
a majority of not less than twothirds
of the members present and voting in
each House.
 Some other provisions of the
Constitution can be amended by the
Parliament with simple majority,
that is, a majority of the members
present and voting in each House of
Parliament.
 Only a few provisions of the Constitution
can be amended by the Parliament (by
special majority) and with the consent of
at least half of the state Legislatures (by
simple majority).
 However, the power to initiate the process
of the amendment of the Constitution (in
all the three cases) lies exclusively in the
hands of the Parliament and not the state
legislature.
 There is only one exception, that is, the state
legislature can pass a resolution requesting
the Parliament for the creation or abolition
of the legislative council in the state.
O
 Based on the resolution, the Parliament
makes an act for amending the Constitution
to that effect. To sum up, the Parliament
can amend the Constitution in three ways:
SC
 By simple majority
 By special majority
 By special majority but with the consent
of half of all the state legislatures
 The constituent power of the Parliament
is not unlimited; it is subject to the ‘basic
structure’ of the Constitution.
GS
 In others words, the Parliament can amend
any provision of the Constitution except the
‘basic features’ of the Constitution.
 This was ruled by the Supreme Court
in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
and reaffirmed in the Minerva Mills case
(1980).
L2: Approachable
41. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Judicial Review
 Judicial review is the power of the judiciary
to examine the constitutionality of legislative
enactments and executive orders of both the
Central and State governments. Judicial
review is needed for the following reasons:
18
 To uphold the principle of the supremacy
of the Constitution
 To maintain federal equilibrium (balance
between the Centre and the states)
 To protect the Fundamental Rights of
the citizens
Judicial Activism and Judicial Restraint
 The Judiciary has been assigned active role
under the constitution. Judicial activism
and judicial restraint are facets of that
uncourageous creativity and pragmatic
wisdom.
 The concept of judicial activism is thus the
polar opposite of judicial restraint.
 Judicial activism and judicial restraint
are the two terms used to describe the
philosophy and motivation behind some
judicial decision.
RE
 At most level, judicial activism refers to a
theory of judgment that takes into account
the spirit of the law and the changing times,
while judicial restraint relies on a strict
interpretation of the law and the importance
of legal precedent.
L2: Approachable
42. Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Tribunals
 Tribunals in India are specialized bodies
established to handle specific types of
disputes and legal matters outside the
traditional court system.
 They were set up to alleviate the burden
on regular courts and provide quicker and
more efficient resolution of disputes.
 Tribunals are governed by specific
laws, each defining their jurisdiction,
composition, powers, and functions.
O
Types of Tribunals in India:
C
 Administrative Tribunals: These
S.
tribunals deal with disputes related to
recruitment, service conditions, and other
TE
administrative matters concerning public
servants and employees of the central and
state governments.
O
 Income Tax Appellate Tribunals (ITAT):
ITAT handles appeals against income tax
FN
assessments and decisions made by the
Income Tax Department.
D
 National Green Tribunal (NGT): The
NGT deals with environmental issues
.P
and violations concerning air and water
pollution, environmental clearances, and
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conservation of natural resources.
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  Competition Appellate Tribunal
(COMPAT): COMPAT hears appeals
against decisions of the Competition
Commission of India (CCI) related to anti-
competitive practices and unfair trade
practices.
 Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT): The
AFT handles disputes and matters related
to the armed forces personnel, including
grievances, promotions, and disciplinary
actions.
 Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT):
SAT hears appeals against orders passed
by the Securities and Exchange Board of
India (SEBI) in matters related to securities
markets and investors’ protection.
Composition of Tribunals:
 Tribunals are typically headed by a
chairperson, who is usually a retired
judge of the Supreme Court or a High
Court.
 The members of the tribunal could include
judicial members and technical experts,
depending on the nature of disputes they
handle.
O weaker sections of the society.
 For example, administrative tribunals
may have members with expertise in
administrative law, while environmental
tribunals may include members with
expertise in environmental science or
SC
conservation.
Power and Functions of Tribunals:
 Quasi-judicial Powers: Tribunals have
quasi-judicial powers, meaning they can
conduct hearings, summon witnesses, and
examine evidence to arrive at a decision on
disputes before them.
GS
 Adjudication: They adjudicate matters
related to their respective domains and
provide legally binding decisions on the
disputes presented.
 Speedy Disposal: One of the primary
purposes of creating tribunals is to ensure
faster resolution of disputes than the
regular court system, which can often be
time-consuming.
 Expertise: Tribunals bring in subject
matter experts who possess specialized
knowledge relevant to the issues at hand,
ensuring informed decision-making.
 Appeal Mechanism: In some cases, the
decisions of the tribunals can be appealed
in higher courts, depending on the laws
governing specific tribunals.
 Autonomy: Tribunals are designed to
function independently of the executive
branch, providing a level of autonomy in
their operations.
L2: Approachable
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43. Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 39A of
the Constitution of India provides for free
legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of
the society and ensures justice for all.
Supplementary Notes:
Legal Services
 Legal Services includes providing Free
Legal Aid to those weaker sections of
the society who fall within the purview
of Section 12 of the Legal Services
Authority Act, 1987.
 It also entails creating legal awareness
by spreading legal literacy through legal
awareness camps, print media, digital
media and organizing Lok Adalats for the
RE
amicable settlement of disputes which are
either pending or which are yet to be filed,
by way of compromise.
 NALSA also undertakes necessary steps by
way of social action litigation with regards
to any matter of special concern to the
 A legal service also encompasses facilitating
the beneficiaries to get their entitlements
under various government schemes, policies
and legislations.
National Legal Services Authority
(NALSA)
 NALSA has been constituted under
the Legal Services Authorities Act,
1987 to provide free Legal Services to
the weaker sections of the society and
to organize Lok Adalats for amicable
settlement of disputes.
 Article 39A of the Constitution of India
provides for free legal aid to the poor
and weaker sections of the society and
ensures justice for all.
Free legal aid is the provision of free legal

O
services in civil and criminal matters for
C
those poor and marginalized people who
cannot afford the services of a lawyer for
S.
the conduct of a case or a legal proceeding
in any Court, Tribunal or Authority.
TE
 These services are governed by Legal
Services Authorities Act, 1987 and headed
by the National Legal Services Authority
O
(NALSA).
FN
Provision of free legal aid may include:
 Representation by an Advocate in legal
proceedings.
D
 Payment of process fees, expenses of
.P
witnesses and all other charges payable
or incurred in connection with any legal
W
proceedings in appropriate cases.
19
  Preparation of pleadings, memo of appeal,
paper book including printing and translation
of documents in legal proceedings.
 Drafting of legal documents, special leave
petition etc.
L3: Real Challenge
44. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 4 is incorrect: The
State Government must appoint such
Nyayadhikari after consulting with the
relevant High Court.
Supplementary Notes:
Gram Nyayalayas
 The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 was passed
by the Indian Parliament to establish Gram
Nyayalayas, or village courts, to provide
quick and simple access to the legal system
in India’s rural areas.
 The Act became effective on October 2, 2009.
With only 208 operational Gram Nyayalayas
O
in the nation (as of 3 September 2019),
compared to a target of 5000 such courts,
the Act has not, however, been properly
enforced.
SC
 The Gram Nyayalayas Act of 2008 created
“Gram Nyayalayas” at the local level to
give people immediate access to justice at a
reasonable price and to make sure that no
one was denied the chance to obtain justice
because of their social, economic, or other
disabilities.
 Gram Nyayalayas are typically
GS
established at the headquarters of
each intermediate-level panchayat or a
cluster of contiguous panchayats in a district
without an intermediate-level panchayat.
 They are run by a Nyayadhikari,
who has the same authority, receives
the same pay, and receives the same
benefits as a Judicial Magistrate of
First Class.
 The State Government must appoint
such Nyayadhikari after consulting
with the relevant High Court.
 It has authority over a region that is
listed in a notification issued by the
State Government after consulting
with the relevant High Court.
After receiving extensive publicity in this

regard, the Court may conduct itself as a
mobile court at any location falling under
the purview of such Gram Nyayalaya.
L2: Approachable
20
45. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The Lokpal has
the authority to investigate allegations of
corruption against public servants at the
central level.
Supplementary Notes:
Lokpal
 The Lokpal is an ombudsman institution
at the central level in India. It was
established through the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
 The primary objective of the Lokpal is
to investigate and prosecute cases of
corruption against public servants at the
central government level, including the
Prime Minister, Members of Parliament,
and central government employees.
RE
 The Lokpal is an independent body, and
its members are appointed by a high-
level selection committee comprising
the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the
Lok Sabha (lower house of Parliament),
the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok
Sabha, the Chief Justice of India, and
an eminent jurist nominated by the
President of India.
Jurisdiction of Lokpal:
 The Lokpal has the authority to
investigate allegations of corruption
against public servants at the central
level.
 This includes corruption cases related
to the misuse of public office, bribery,
embezzlement of public funds, and other
acts of corruption.
 However, the Lokpal does not have
jurisdiction over the state governments or
their employees.
L2: Approachable
46. Correct Option: (d) O
Explanation:
C
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Lokayuktas
S.
have the authority to investigate and
prosecute cases of corruption against public
servants at the state government level.
TE
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The jurisdiction
of Lokayuktas is limited to the respective
O
states they are established in and does not
extend to the central government.
FN
Supplementary Notes:
Lok Ayuktas
D
 Lok Ayuktas are similar institutions to
Lokpal but operate at the state level. The
.P
concept of Lokayuktas has been in existence
in some states even before the establishment
W
of the central Lokpal.
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  After the enactment of the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act, 2013, it became mandatory
for every state to establish a Lokayukta
within one year from the commencement of
the Act.
Jurisdiction of Lok Ayuktas
 Lokayuktas have the authority to
investigate and prosecute cases of
corruption against public servants at
the state government level.
 This includes Chief Ministers, Ministers,
Members of the State Legislature, and state
government employees.
 The jurisdiction of Lokayuktas is
limited to the respective states they
are established in and does not extend
to the central government.
L2: Approachable
47. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Both Statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
E-Courts
 The eCourts Integrated Mission Mode
O (LSA) Act, 1987, and at a nominal fee of Rs.
Project is one of the National e- Governance
SC
projects being implemented in District and
Subordinate Courts of the Country since
2007.
 The project is aimed at providing the
necessary hardware and software application
to enable courts to deliver e-services, and the
judiciary to be able to monitor and manage
GS
the functioning of courts.
 The objective of the eCourts project is to
provide designated services to litigants,
lawyers and the judiciary by universal
computerisation of district and subordinate
courts in the country and enhancement of
ICT enablement of the justice system.
L2: Approachable
48. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct
 Implementing Process
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Supplementary Notes:
Tele-law initiative
 The Tele-law initiative was a program
launched by the Government of India in
collaboration with the Ministry of Law
and Justice, along with the National Legal
Services Authority (NALSA), to provide
free legal services to marginalized and
disadvantaged communities in remote areas
of the country.
Pillars of Tele-law initiative
Accessibility
 Tele-Law service is made accessible to
citizens of India via video conferencing/
telephonic facilities available at CSCs,
situated at the Panchayat level.
 The Citizens’ Tele-Law Mobile App has also
RE
been launched, which allows beneficiaries to
obtain advice from Panel Lawyers directly
through their mobile phones.
Affordability
 Tele-Law is provided free of cost to those
persons entitled to free legal aid under
Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities
30/- per consultation for “others”.
Frontline Functionaries
 Para Legal Volunteers (PLVs) have been
stationed to act as intermediaries, bridging
the gap between common people and the
Tele-Law service, and also to create public
awareness about TeleLaw.
 Village Level Entrepreneurs (VLEs) who
run the CSCs facilitate online registration
of beneficiaries with Panel Lawyers.
 Panel Lawyers have been positioned to
provide legal advice and consultation to
people.
 State Coordinators manage different
stakeholders in effective implementation of
O
Tele-Law programme in States/UTs.
C
Real-time Data
A dedicated Tele-Law dashboard has been
S.

developed to capture real-time data on
nature of cases registered & advice enabled.
TE
This data has also been hosted on the Prayas
Dashboard.
O
FN
D
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21
L2: Approachable
49. Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary Notes:
Law Commission of India
 The Law Commission of India is a
crucial constitutional body established
under Article 39A of the Constitution
of India.
O L2: Approachable
 Its primary function is to undertake
research, study, and review existing laws in
the country and suggest necessary reforms
SC
to meet the changing societal needs and
demands of justice.
 The Commission plays a vital role in the legal
system of India by providing expert advice
to the government on various legal issues
and proposing amendments to existing laws
or the enactment of new legislation.
GS
Composition:
 The Law Commission consists of a
Chairman, who is usually a retired
judge of the Supreme Court of India,
and several other members, including
eminent jurists, legal experts, and
academicians. The number of members
can vary, as per the decision of the
government.
Tenure:
 The members of the Law Commission
serve for a fixed term, as determined by the
government.
 The Chairman and members can be
reappointed, but they hold office at the
pleasure of the government.
Appointment:
 The Chairman and members of the Law
Commission are appointed by the President
of India, on the advice of the Union
Cabinet.
22
Objectives:
 The primary objectives of the Law
Commission are to examine the existing laws
in India, identify defects, inconsistencies,
RE
and gaps in the legal framework, and
recommend comprehensive measures for
their reform.
 It is tasked with promoting the rule of law,
ensuring access to justice, and suggesting
ways to simplify and modernize the legal
system.
50. Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Standing
Committees are permanent committees that
are constituted for a fixed term, usually for
a year.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Ad Hoc
Committees are temporary committees
formed to investigate specific issues or
events that require immediate attention.
Supplementary Notes:
Parliamentary committees O
Standing Committees
C
 Standing Committees are permanent
committees that are constituted for a
S.
fixed term, usually for a year.
TE
 These committees are reconstituted in every
parliamentary session. Each Standing
Committee is responsible for specific areas
O
or ministries, and their primary functions
include the examination of bills, budgets,
FN
and other policy matters related to their
respective domains. The key Standing
Committees in the Indian Parliament are:
D
 Public Accounts Committee (PAC):
.P
The PAC examines the audit reports of
the Comptroller and Auditor General
W
(CAG) of India, which highlight
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 instances of financial irregularities
and mismanagement in government
departments. The committee holds the
government accountable for its financial
decisions and ensures transparency in
public expenditure.
 Estimates Committee: This committee
examines the government’s annual
estimates and suggests possible
reallocations of funds for various
programs and policies. It aims to ensure
that government spending is in line with
the national priorities and is optimally
utilized.
 Committee on Public Undertakings
(COPU): The COPU examines the
performance and management of public
sector undertakings (PSUs) and ensures
their accountability and efficiency in
delivering public services.
Ad Hoc Committees:
 Ad Hoc Committees are temporary
committees formed to investigate
specific issues or events that require
O
immediate attention. These committees
are dissolved once they complete their
SC
™™™™™
GS
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designated tasks. One prominent Ad Hoc
Committee is:
 Joint Parliamentary Committee
(JPC): The JPC is constituted to
investigate and inquire into specific
matters of national importance. For
instance, a JPC might be formed to
probe a major financial scam or security-
related incident.
 The members of these committees
are elected or nominated from
among the Members of Parliament
(MPs) from both houses. The Lok
Sabha Speaker and the Rajya Sabha
Chairman appoint the committee chairs
based on the proportional representation
of political parties.
Parliamentary Committees hold
RE

extensive powers, including the authority
to summon government officials,
experts, and stakeholders to provide
evidence and testimony. They can also
recommend changes to legislation, policy
improvements, and corrective actions to
the government.
L2: Approachable
O
C
S.
TE
O
FN
D
.P
W
23