CYTOGENETICS: SECTION 30

ASSIGNMENT 1

Multiple Choice.

1. This level of protein structure is observed when A. Knockout mutation

more widely separated amino acids attract or repel in B. Somatic mutation
response to water molecules. C. Polymorphism
A. Primary structure D. Somatic mosaicism
B. Secondary structure E. None of the above
C. Tertiary structure 8. Inborn metabolic error that results from excess
D. Quaternary structure copper in the body.
E. None of the above A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
2. These are blob-like ends found in five B. Familial hypercholesterolemia
chromosomes (13,14,15,21,22). C. Wilson disease
A. Telomeres D. Adrenoleukodystrophy
B. Centromere E. None of the above
C. Chromatids 9. It follows the transmission of alleles and is based
D. Satellites on probability.
E. None of the above A. Dihybrid cross
3. Which among the scientists did NOT contribute to B. Infidelity testing
the discovery of DNA components, proportions, and C. Monohybrid cross
positions? D. Punnett square
A. Erwin Chargaff E. Karyotyping
B. James Watson 10. An enzyme that catalyzes the formation of
C. Phoebus Levene covalent bonds in the sugar phosphates backbone of a
D. Rosalind Franklin nucleic acid.
E. None of the above A. Primase
4. Year white blood cell nuclei were isolated. B. Ligase
A. 1420 C. Helicase
B. 1869 D. DNA polymerase
C. 1911 E. None of the above
D. 1666 11. A Swiss physician and biochemist that isolated
E. 1896 nuclei from white blood cells in pus on soiled
5. Missense mutation in COL1A1 that replaces Cys bandages.
for Arg. Has a phenotype of painful joints. A. Alfred Hershey
A. Osteoarthritis B. Oswald Avery
B. Chondrodysplasia C. Friedrich Miescher
C. Chromothripsis D. Linus Pauling
D. Turner Syndrome E. James Watson
E. None of the above
6. They are the part of the chromosome that stains 12. Assembling subsets of the exons of a gene, which
darker and is composed of highly repetitive DNA increases the number and diversity of proteins it
sequences. encodes.
A. Euchromatin A. Alternative splicing
B. Heterochromatin B. Excision repair
C. Telomere C. Histones
D. Centromere D. Pyrimidines
E. None of the above E. None of the above
7. Loss-of-function mutations that do not affect the
individual.
CYTOGENETICS: SECTION 30
ASSIGNMENT 1

13. An acridine intercalates between adjacent DNA A. Chromatin

nitrogen bases and gets read by RNA polymerase B. Chromatid
causing the addition of extra bases into the new RNA. C. Chromatography
A. Deletion Mutation D. Google Chrome
B. Frameshift Mutation E. None of the above
C. Insertion Mutation 20. Anchor protein for loose chromatin.
D. Point Mutation A. FBNI
E. None of the above B. CTCF
14. The opposite or reverse of the G-banding pattern. C. MKDR
A. G-banding D. FGFR
B. Q-banding E. FGFR
C. C-banding 21. It is a division that reduces the number of
D. R-banding replicated chromosomes from 46 to 23.
E. R-bonding A. Meiosis
15. An amplification technique in which a DNA B. Mitosis
sequence is replicated in a test tube, used to rapidly C. Reduction Division
produce many copies of a specific DNA sequence. D. Equational Division
A. Replication Fork E. None of the Above
B. Polymerase Chain Reaction 22. This occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle.
C. Semiconservative Replication A. Interphase
D. DNA Amplifying Replication B. Prophase I
E. Genome sequencing C. DNA
16. A homozygous yellow (YY) flower is crossed D. DNA Replication
with a homozygous purple (yy) flower. Determine the E. None of the above
probability of one offspring having a purple color.
A. 0% 23. These alleles that are expressed in a heterozygote
B. 25% are called.
C. 75% A. Allele
D. 50% B. Phenotypes
E. 100% C. Codominant
D. Genotypes
17. Adrenoleukodystrophy is a genetic disease that E. None of the above
results in the absence of a peroxisomal enzyme. What 24. The process by which a cell directs a gene to
is its treatment? make a certain protein is called
A. Gene therapy A. DNA extraction
B. Medication B. Genetic modification
C. Chemotherapy C. Chromosome assembly
D. Both a and b D. Gene expression.
E. There is no treatment. E. None of the above
18. A ciliopathy that causes obesity, visual loss, 25. Twins who share a certain physical or behavioral
diabetes, cognitive impairment, extra fingers. trait are _______ for that trait.
A. Giant Axonal Neuropathy A. Concordant
B. Signal Transduction B. Dizygotic
C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome C. Disconcordant
D. Bardet-Biedl syndrome D. Monozygotic
E. None of the above E. None of the above
19. Chromosome substance that is composed of 30% 26. At what stage does the Incontinentia Pigmenti
histone, 30% proteins, 30% DNA, and 10% RNA. manifest a marble cake-like swirling?
CYTOGENETICS: SECTION 30
ASSIGNMENT 1

A. Verrucous Stage D. Danon Disease

B. Stage 4 E. None of the above
C. Vesicular Stage 32. Hemophilia A is a disorder where the blood
D. Pigmented Stage cannot clot properly due to a deficiency of a clotting
E. None of the above factor called ______?
27. The following diseases are X-Linked dominant A. Factor VI
disorders, except? B. Factor VII
I. Incontinentia pigmenti C. Factor VIII
II. Rett Syndrome D. Factor IX
III. Danon Disease E. Factor X
IV. Hemophilia A 33. It is a gene involved in the regulation of the cell’s
A. I, II and IV division and programmed cell death?
B. IV only A. IKBKG gene
C. III only B. LAMP 2 gene
D. All of the choices are X-linked dominant C. MECP2 gene
disorder D. OPN1SW gene
E. None of the above E. FBN-1 gene
28. It is a disorder that is caused by the mutation in 34. Mutations in these genes play an essential role in
the MECP2 gene. color vision except?
A. Rett Syndrome A. OPN1LW gene
B. Hemophilia A B. OPN1MW gene
C. Danon Disease C. OPN1SW gene
D. Incontinentia Pigmenti D. OPN1RW gene
E. Huntington Disease E. None of the above
29. It is a type of X-linked recessive disorder 35. What disorder is caused by the lamp2 mutation?
wherein affected individuals may not be A. Wolf-Parkinson-White
considered for certain occupations requiring color B. Incontinentia Pigmenti
recognition, such as transportation or the Armed C. Rett syndrome
Forces. D. Daltonism
A. Achromatopsia color blindness E. Hypercholesterolemia
B. Cherry red spot 36. A rare X-linked dominant disorder that affects
C. Normal color vision many parts of the body, including the skin.
D. Red-green color blindness A. Daltonism
E. None of the above B. Incontinentia Pigmenti
30. Which of the following statement is true? C. Danon disease
A. The prevalence of X-linked dominant D. Wolf-Parkinson-White
disorders is higher among males. E. None of the above
B. The transmission of X-linked dominant 37. Which of the following is an example of an
disorders occurs from father to son. X-linked recessive disorder?
C. As compared to other mendelian diseases, A. Hemophilia A
X-linked dominant disorders are uncommon. B. Rett syndrome
D. Both a and b C. Danon disease
E. None of the above D. Scarred stage
31. Disorder that is caused by the mutations in the E. None of the above
lysosomal associated membrane protein-2 gene. 38. Which of the following statements is true
A. Incontinentia pigmenti: Stage 1 regarding allosomal disorders?
B. Incontinentia pigmenti: Stage 2 A. They are caused by mutations in genes
C. Incontinentia pigmenti: Stage 4 located on non-sex chromosomes
CYTOGENETICS: SECTION 30
ASSIGNMENT 1

B. They are caused by mutations in genes 44. Which of the following diseases is NOT paired
located on the X or Y sex chromosomes correctly with its gene defect?
C. They are caused by mutations in A. Gaucher’s Disease - B-Glucosidase
mitochondrial DNA B. Marfan Syndrome - NF1 gene
D. They are caused by environmental factors C. Polycystic Kidney Disease - PKD1, PKD2,
E. Both a and b PKHD1
D. Holoprosencephaly - Sonic Hedgehog
39. Which of the following inheritance patterns is E. Phenylketonuria - PAH gene
associated with X-linked dominant allosomal 45. Which is the preferred area to acquire blood
disorders? sample from a newborn for screening?
A. The disorder is only expressed in females A. Back of the hand
B. The disorder is only expressed in males B. Leg
C. The disorder is expressed in both males and C. Arm
females, but females are more commonly D. Finger
affected E. Heel
D. The disorder is expressed in both males and 46. Which of the following is the function of G6PD?
females, but males are more commonly A. Protect WBCs from damage and premature
affected destruction
E. Both a and b B. For the conversion into Tyrosine
40. What is the inheritance pattern of X-linked C. Protect RBCs from damage and premature
allosomal disorders? destruction
A. Autosomal dominant D. Converts fructose to another sugar
B. Autosomal recessive E. None of the above
C. X-linked dominant 47. Which of the following clinical features of
D. X-linked recessive Marfan Syndrome is characterized by having long,
E. Both c and d slender fingers?
41. What is the gene defect of Tay-Sachs Disease? A. Muscular Dystrophy
A. Β-Hexosaminidase B. Arachnodactyly
B. Β-Glucosidase C. Actinic Keratoses
C. Fibrillin-1 D. Macrocephaly
D. Sonic Hedgehog E. Enophthalmos
E. Phenylalanine hydroxylase 48. Which of the following diseases is known as
42. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of “Brittle Bone Disease”?
Myotonic Dystrophy? A. Achondroplasia
A. Cataracts B. Holoprosencephaly
B. Triangular-shaped mouth C. Phenylketonuria
C. Chorea D. Hemochromatosis
D. Cardiac Arrhythmias E. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
E. Both a and c 49. What is the medication often used in treating
43. Which trimester is the sex of the baby Congenital Hypothyroidism in infants?
determined? A. Acetaminophen
A. First trimester B. Prenatal Vitamins
B. Second trimester C. L-thyroxine tablet
C. Third trimester D. Enzyme Replacement Therapy
D. Both a and b E. Spermicide
E. At birth 50. Which condition is caused by a brain
malformation due to incomplete cleavage of the
prosencephalon?
CYTOGENETICS: SECTION 30
ASSIGNMENT 1

A. Myotonic Dystrophy C. It is an excessive benign tumor of nerve

B. Achondroplasia tissue below the skin.
C. Gaucher’s Disease D. It is caused by a genetic mutation on
D. Holoprosencephaly chromosome 16.
E. Tay-Sachs Disease E. None of the above
51. A type of teratogenic drug that causes severe 56. Which of the following is true about
reduction or loss of proximal long bones. Achondroplasia?
A. Alcohol A. Symptoms are more severe in homozygous
B. Tobacco products affected individuals
C. Drugs B. Its clinical features include elevated levels
D. Teratogen of LDL cholesterol
E. Thalidomide C. Individuals affected have a gene defect in
52. Which disease causes the patient's inability to FGR3
make enough glucocerebrosidase? D. Can cause cardiovascular diseases in
A. Neurofibromatosis individuals
B. Gaucher’s disease E. None of the above
C. Xeroderma pigmentosum 57. During this week of fetal development, the fetus
D. Phenylketonuria is seen to be making fists and faces, sucks thumb, and
E. None of the above has the beginnings of teeth.
53. Hemochromatosis is due to an abnormality of A. Week 17
what chromosome number? B. Week 19
A. 3 C. Week 9
B. 11 D. Week 12
C. 21 E. Week 18
D. 6 58. A procedure to detect if a newborn has congenital
E. 16 metabolic disorder that may lead to retardation or
54. Which of the following is characteristic of people death.
with Phenylketonuria? A. Genome Sequencing
A. They are severely mentally retarded, if B. Newborn Screening
untreated, possibly due to inhibition of C. Infant Screening
myelination and disruption of D. Prenatal Screening
neurotransmitter synthesis. E. Newborn Testing
B. They exhibit ocular problems due to UV 59. What transports triglycerides from the intestinal
damage. mucosa to the liver?
C. They have a "cherry red spot" in the macula A. VLDL
of the blood vessels. B. LDL
D. They have anemia and thus a low tolerance C. Chylomicron
to phlebotomies. D. HDL
E. None of the above E. None of the above
60. The HTT mutation that causes Huntington disease
55. Neurofibromatosis is one of the most common involves a DNA segment known as?
autosomal dominant disorders. Which of the A. CTG repeat expansion
following is INCORRECT regarding this disorder? B. CAG trinucleotide repeat
A. It affects all ages, sexes, and ethnicities C. CUG repeats
equally. D. CGG repeat expansion
B. It has a 50% chance of a spontaneous E. CAA nucleotide repeats
mutation and another chance to be passed on
genetically.
CYTOGENETICS: SECTION 30
ASSIGNMENT 1

61. What level is made up of DNA wound twice 67. What are these non-coding DNA sequences
around 8 histones with “linker” DNA between the which exert control over genes by jumping in or out
beads? of functional gene sequences?
A. 1st level A. Retroposons
B. 2nd level B. Transposons
C. 3rd level C. Modifying genes
D. 4th level D. Complementary genes
E. 5th level E. All of the above
62. A checkered interaction pattern found both in and 68. What is called the process where a newly-made
between chromosomes. precursor messenger RNA transcript is transformed
A. Genome Organization into a mature messenger RNA?
B. Genomic Compartments A. Transcription
C. Chromosome B. Translation
D. Nucleus C. mRNA Splicing
E. Nucleosome D. RNA Processing
63. It is a type of cell that contains membrane bound E. None of the above
intracellular structures such as a nucleus, 69. Operons where genes with similar functions are
mitochondria and for photosynthesis. grouped together.
A. Prokaryotic Cells A. Gene Clustering
B. Eukaryotic Cells B. DNA Structure
C. Somatic Cells C. DNA Clustering
D. Bacteria / Virus D. Gene Structure
E. Stem Cells E. Either A or D
64. It is a protein, that is positively charged, that coils 70. How many percent of a specific human cell’s
with the negatively charged DNA to form more linear genes are expressed at any given time.
chromosomes. A. 10%
A. Proteasomes B. 20%
B. Hemoglobin C. 30%
C. Aquaporins D. 40%
D. Histones E. 50%
E. Ferritin
71. Expression of specific genes is most commonly
65. In this level of genome organization, tightly regulated at?
wound coil of nucleosomes held in position by a first A. Replication
histone (H1). B. Translation
A. 1st level C. Transcription
B. 3rd level D. Histones
C. 2nd level E. None of the above
D. 5th level 72. Statement 1: Proteins can bind DNA and either
E. 4th level inhibit or facilitate the binding of RNA polymerase
66. In this level of genome organization, it is made up Statement 2: Activator proteins and DNA-bending
of highly condensed, compact domains. proteins help “enhancers” on the DNA initiate
A. 4th level transcription
B. 2nd level A. Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false
C. 3rd level B. Statement 1 is false; Statement 2 is true
D. 5th level C. Both statements are true
E. 1st level D. Both statements are false
E. None of the above
CYTOGENETICS: SECTION 30
ASSIGNMENT 1

73. Viral DNA integrates into host chromosomes, A. Conjugation

becomes a prophage and can reproduce without B. Transduction
destroying cells. C. Transformation
A. Lysogenic virus D. R plasmids
B. Lysogenic E. All of the above
C. Temperate 80. Capsid is formed from a repeating single type of
D. Lytic protein with the overall shape of a rigid rod.
E. Either B or C A. Isocahedral viruses
74. Phages that can replicate in both ways are called? B. Viral Structure
A. Lysogenic virus C. Bacteriophages
B. Lysogenic D. Helical Viruses
C. Temperate E. All of the above
D. Lytic
81. In this technique, DNA polymerase is used for
E. Bacteriophages
75. Non-coding DNA sequences which exert control replication of the target sequence.
over genes by jumping in or out of functional gene A. Fluorescence In-Situ Hybridization (FISH)
sequences. B. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
A. Transposons C. Whole Genome Sequencing
B. Enzymes D. Polymerase Cloning
C. Histones E. Western Blot
D. Okazaki fragment 82. In viewing DNA bands, this is the stage when the
E. Nucleosome UV transilluminator is used to view the fluorescent
DNA in the gel.
76. Capsid is formed by 252 identical molecules A. Evaluation of the Quality of DNA
arranged in a polyhedron with 20 triangular facets. B. Quantification of DNA
A. Helical Viruses C. Observation of DNA
B. Influenza Viruses D. Detection of DNA
C. Icosahedral Viruses E. Southern Blot
D. Bacteriophages 83. These are the three steps of the Polymerase Chain
E. All of the above Reaction (PCR).
77. What level is made up of loops held in place by a A. Denaturalization, Annealing, Extension
scaffolding (nonhistone) protein? B. Denaturalization, Annealing, Regression
A. 1st level C. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
B. 4th level D. Denaturalization, Hardening, Regression
C. 2nd level E. Denaturation, Regression, Annealing
D. 3rd level 84. This modified Nucleic Acid amplification
E. Either A or C technique helps detect RNA expression.
78. 1st statement: Eukaryotic Genome is composed of A. Reverse-Transcriptase Polymerase Chain
one or more linear DNA Chromosomes Reaction
2nd statement: R plasmids carry resistance genes B. Nested Polymerase Chain Reaction
which code for enzymes that specifically destroy C. Multiplex Polymerase Chain Reaction
antibiotics D. Digital Polymerase Chain Reaction
A. Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false E. Quantitative Polymerase Chain Reaction
B. Statement 1 is false; Statement 2 is true 85. Which lists the steps of whole genome
C. Both statements are true sequencing in order?
D. Both statements are false A. DNA bar-coding, Whole genome
E. None of the above sequencing, DNA shearing, Data analysis
79. What carries resistance genes which code for B. DNA shearing, DNA bar-coding, Whole
enzymes that specifically destroy antibiotics? genome sequencing, Data analysis
CYTOGENETICS: SECTION 30
ASSIGNMENT 1

C. Data analysis, DNA shearing, DNA E. Gel Electrophoresis

bar-coding, Whole genome sequencing 93. It is a type of Gel and a Polysaccharide extracted
D. Data analysis, Whole genome sequencing, from seaweed that is non toxic and commonly used
DNA bar-coding, DNA shearing for DNA separations.
E. Whole genome sequencing, DNA A. Starch Gel
Bar-coding, DNA Shearing B. Hydrogels
86. Father of Electrophoresis C. Agarose
A. Frederick Sanger D. Polyacrylamide Gel
B. Albert Einstein E. None of the above
C. Erwin Chargaff 94. It is a type of Gel that is Cross-linked polymer of
D. Arne Tiselius acrylamide and a potent neuro-toxic.
E. Gregor Mendel A. Polyacrylamide Gel
87. A variant of Southern blotting in which the B. Aragose
samples contain undigested RNA instead of DNA. C. Starch Gel
A. Southern-blot Hybridization D. Hydroglels
B. Western Blot E. None of the above
C. Northern-blot Hybridization 95. A complex DNA sample is digested with
D. SDS PAGE restriction endonucleases. The resulting fragments are
E. RT-PCR applied to an agarose gel and separated by size using
89. Insertion of a fragment of DNA carrying a gene electrophoresis.
into a cloning vector and subsequent propagation of A. Gel electrophoresis
recombinant DNA molecules into many copies. B. Northern blot
A. Gene cloning C. Polyacrylamide
B. Genetic engineering D. Western blot
C. Clone E. NOTA
D. Whole genome sequencing 96. Is an immunoblotting technique which relies on
E. PCR the specificity of binding between a molecule of
90. The temperature raised at the polymerase interest and a probe to allow detection of the
extension of double standard DNA molecule that is molecule of interest in a mixture of many other
just below the optimum of taq polymerase similar molecules.
A. 50-60 degree celsius A. Northern Blot
B. 72-74 degree celsius B. Southern Blot
C. 94 degree celsius C. Array-based hybridization
D. 87 degree celsius D. Western blot
E. 60 degree celsius E. Gel pretreatment
91. The number of copies of DNA produced during 97. The process of cloning genes into new organisms,
2nd cycle or altering a genetic sequence to change the protein
A. 2 product.
B. 8 A. Northern Blot
C. 4 B. Recombinant DNA
D. 1 C. Cross Fertilize
E. 7 D. Genetic Engineering
92. Utilized multiple primer sets in a single PCR E. Congenital
reaction to produce amplicons with different sizes
A. Multiplex Polymerase Chain Reaction 98. The act of making copies of a single gene.
B. Real Time Polymerase Chain Reaction A. Gene Replication
C. Digital Polymerase Chain Reaction B. Gene Cloning
D. Quantitative Polymerase Chain Reaction C. DNA Ligase
CYTOGENETICS: SECTION 30
ASSIGNMENT 1

D. Cloning Vector
E. Restriction Enzymes
99. Which of the following is the most used
heat-stable DNA polymerase?
A. Pfu Polymerase
B. Tth Polymerase
C. Tli Polymerase
D. Tlq Polymerase
E. Taq Polymerase
100. What is the first step in Gene Cloning?
A. Deletion
B. Installation
C. Identification
D. Selection
E. Introduction