Abhyaas Test 2

VISIONIAS
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ANSWERS & EXPLANATION
GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2023 – ABHYAAS TEST – 4359
Q 1.B
• ETFs are a sort of investment fund that combines the best features of two popular assets: They combine
the diversification benefits of mutual funds with the simplicity with which equities may be exchanged.
• An exchange-traded fund (ETF) is a collection of investments such as equities or bonds. ETFs will let one
invest in a large number of securities at once. Investing in an ETF offers numerous advantages. Here are
some of the primary benefits:
o Diversification: Instantly gaining exposure to a diversified set of underlying assets is a key benefit of
a single ETF. Achieving such diversification through the individual purchase of stocks or bonds can
be both challenging and costly. This feature helps mitigate overall portfolio risk by distributing
investments across various sectors and industries.
o Cost efficiency: The expense ratio measures how much of a fund's assets are used for
administrative and other operating expenses. Most ETFs generally boast lower expense ratios
compared to actively managed mutual funds since they passively track an index instead of
maintaining a team of analysts for selecting individual stocks. This results in enhanced long-term
returns for investors. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Transparency: The majority of ETFs disclose their holdings daily, providing complete transparency
regarding the components of your investment.
o Liquidity: These funds are actively traded on stock exchanges throughout the day, similar to
individual stocks. This allows for convenient buying and selling of shares at prevailing market
prices, offering increased flexibility compared to mutual funds, where buy and sell orders are
executed only at the close of the trading day. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Tax efficiency: ETFs typically present tax benefits owing to their in-kind creation and
redemption process. This mechanism has the potential to reduce capital gains distributions in
comparison to traditional mutual funds, ultimately optimizing your returns.
o Minimal investment: Numerous ETFs feature comparatively modest minimum investment
requirements, enabling accessibility for investors with smaller capital bases. This flexibility allows
you to initiate the gradual construction of your portfolio and engage in market growth, even with
limited funds.
• Similar to any investment, ETFs carry potential downsides.
o Short-term price fluctuations: The values of ETFs can vary during the day in response to market
shifts, potentially resulting in increased short-term volatility compared to more stable investments.
While a normal mutual fund's value chnages only at the end of the day. Hence statement 3 is not
correct.
ü So, unlike mutual funds, prices for ETFs fluctuate continuously throughout the day.
o Tracking discrepancy: Certain ETFs may not precisely mirror their underlying index, leading to a
slight variance in performance.
Q 2.D
• Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 (PSS Act, 2007) provides for the regulation and supervision
of payment systems in India and designates the Reserve Bank of India (Reserve Bank) as the authority for
that purpose and all related matters.
• The Act empowers the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to designate payment systems in India. A
payment system is a system which enables a payment between a payer and a beneficiary, including
clearing, payment, or settlement service, but it does not include a stock exchange. Hence statement 1 is
not correct.
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• The PSS Act 2007 does not prohibit foreign entities from operating a payment system in India and the Act
does not discriminate/differentiate between foreign entities and domestic entities. Hence statement 2 is
not correct.
• The RBI has the authority to regulate and oversee payment and settlement systems to ensure their
efficiency, integrity, and stability. RBI is empowered to initiate a criminal proceeding against the
offender. RBI can even impose fines on the person for contravening certain provisions of the Act.
Q 3.B
• Financial inclusion (FI) means that individuals and businesses have access to useful and affordable
financial products and services that meet their needs – transactions, payments, savings, credit, and
insurance – delivered in a responsible and sustainable way.
• Priority Sectors Lending (PSL) is the role exercised by the RBI to banks, imploring them to
dedicate funds for specific sectors of the economy like agriculture and allied activities, education and
housing, and food for the poorer population. Thus, the inclusion of more sectors under PSL norms will
promote Financial inclusion. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• KYC means Know Your Customer and sometimes Know Your Client. KYC or KYC check is the
mandatory process of identifying and verifying the client's identity when opening an account and
periodically over time. Stringent KYC norms may increase the formalities and documentation for
financial activities and can pose a hurdle for people using financial activities. Hence, option 2 is not
correct.
• Financial literacy will make people aware of different financial instruments and thus it will promote
financial inclusion. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• Closure of banks in economically unviable areas will make banking facilities inaccessible for the
people living in that area and hence, it may exclude people from banking and financial activities.
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Hence, option 4 is not correct.
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• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.’
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Q 4.B ra
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• The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) is designed to gauge household spending
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habits, providing crucial insights into consumption patterns, living standards, and overall well-being. The
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recently released 2022-23 survey conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) sheds
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light on significant trends and disparities in household spending across rural and urban
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India. NSSO has been conducting household consumption expenditure surveys once every five years
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since 1972-73. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

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• India’s per capita monthly consumption expenditure witnessed a notable increase of 33-40% in
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2022-23 compared to 2011-12, reflecting an average annual growth of 3.1% for rural areas and 2.7% for
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urban areas.The average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) in Indian households
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rose by 33.5% since 2011-12 in urban households to ₹3,510, with rural India’s MPCE seeing a
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40.42% increase over the same period to hit ₹2,008. Hence statement 2 is correct.
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• Among the States, the MPCE is the highest in Sikkim for both rural (₹7,731) and urban areas (₹12,105).It
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is the lowest in Chhattisgarh, where it was ₹2,466 for rural households and ₹4,483 for urban household
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• Rural-urban disparity in average MPCE was the highest in Meghalaya, followed by Chhattisgarh.
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• Estimates of MPCE were based on Modified Mixed Reference Period (MMRP), capturing
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expenditure on essential items over specific reference periods. MMRP considered expenditure on specific
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items over the “last 7 days” for certain categories and the “last 365 days” for others.
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• Adjusting for imputed values of items received free through social welfare programs and other sources,
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the average estimated MPCE in 2022-23 was Rs 3,860 in rural and Rs 6,521 in urban India. Considering
imputed values of items received free through social welfare programs, the average estimated MPCE in
2022-23 was Rs 3,860 in rural and Rs 6,521 in urban India.
• Share of expenditure on food: In 2022-23, the share of expenditure on food in rural India was 46 per
cent (Rs 1,750), and in urban India was 39 per cent (Rs 2,530). In 2011-12, it was 52.90 per cent in
rural India and 42.62 per cent in urban India. This has implications for consumer price index-based
inflation. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The survey highlights a narrowing gap in per-capita spending between rural and urban India over the last
11 years. Shifts in spending patterns reveal a decrease in the proportion of spending on cereals,
driven by rising incomes and subsidized foodgrain schemes. Increased spending on milk, milk
products, eggs, fish, and meat reflects evolving dietary preferences, with a notable rise in spending on
processed food and dining out.
• The survey provides critical insights for policymakers to fine-tune social schemes and understand
evolving consumer behavior. The HCES is crucial for policymakers to fine-tune social schemes and
understand the impact of policy interventions on healthcare, education, and living standards. For
industries, the survey provides insights into changing consumer behavior, helping them adapt strategies
and tap into emerging markets.
Q 5.C
• In 2022, the Union Ministry of Railways flagged off country’s first freight train with an all-
Aluminium wagon rake. The aluminium wagon rakes are developed to modernise freight transportation
and reduce carbon footprint of Indian Railways.
• Significance of using aluminum wagon rakes:
• Aluminium is 100% recyclable and resistant to corrosion, reducing maintenance costs. Hence the
statement 1 is correct.
• It can reduce import of Nickel and Cadmium consumed by the iron and steel industry for manufacturing
for conventional rakes. It also boost domestic aluminum industry. So it has a potential to reduce Current
Account Deficit ( CAD) for India. Hence the statement 3 is correct.
• Lower carbon footprint if 15-20% weight shift to aluminium wagons, it can reduce 25 Lakh tonnes of
CO2. Hence the statement 4 is correct.
• It also help in making India Railways' logistic more efficient as it can can carry 180 tonnes extra payload
per trip over conventional rakes. Hence the statement 5 is correct.
• Aluminium trains take less time to manufacture and thus can help in speeding up production.
• However, the cost of production is 35% higher as the superstructure is all aluminium. The cost of
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maintenance is lower due to higher corrosion and abrasion resistance. Hence the statement 2 is not
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correct.
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Q 6.A
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• Recent context: India's GDP spiked to 8.4% in Q3 FY24, while GVA growth stood at 6.5% during
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the same period.
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• GDP (Gross Domestic Product) and GVA (Gross Value Added) are both economic indicators used
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to measure the performance of a country's economy, but they have different focuses and
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interpretations.
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• GDP represents the total market value of all goods and services produced within the borders of a
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country within a specific period (usually a year). It includes the value of goods and services produced by
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all sectors, including government, private businesses, and households.

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• GDP is calculated from the expenditure method using the formula: GDP = Consumption +
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Investment + Government Spending + Net Exports (Exports - Imports).

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• GVA represents the contribution of each sector (such as agriculture, manufacturing, and services)
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to the economy. It is the value of output minus the value of intermediate consumption. GVA focuses on
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the value added at each stage of production, excluding intermediate goods and services to avoid
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double-counting.
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• GVA is calculated using the formula: GVA = Output - Intermediate Consumption.

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• GVA (Gross Value Added) can be used to calculate GDP (Gross Domestic Product) by adding the taxes
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on products and subtracting the subsidies. The relationship between GVA and GDP can be expressed
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through the following formula:

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o GDP = GVA + Taxes on Products − Subsidies on Products

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o Thus, GDP can increase even while GVA is constant. If the increase in taxes on products
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exceeds the decrease in subsidies, it can lead to a situation where GDP increases even if GVA
remains the same.
• In Q3FY24, while India’s GDP growth surged to 8.4%, the GVA growth moderated to 6.5%, which was
in line with expectations but lower than the GDP figures.
• This discrepancy or divergence was attributed to a significant jump in net indirect tax growth and
reduced fertilizer subsidy disbursements. The gap between GDP and GVA, which had averaged
around 20 basis points (bps) in the last eight quarters, widened to 190 bps during this period.
Hence, both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation for
statement 1.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 7.C
• In the startup world, the terms unicorns, gazelles, and cheetahs are colloquial terms where a unicorn is a
startup company with a value of over $1 billion. A cheetah is a startup that could be a unicorn in four
years, and a gazelle could be one in two years.
• Gazelle are start-ups funded in the 2000s, having worth over $500 million, is not listed yet, and is most
likely to become a unicorn within the next two years.
• Cheetahs are start-ups formed after the year 2000, having a valuation between $200-500 million, and
have the potential to become a Unicorn in the next five years.
o Decacorn: a current valuation of over USD 10 billion.
o Unicorns: Start-ups founded after the year 2000 with a valuation of USD 1 billion.
• India has emerged as the 3rd largest ecosystem for startups globally as of 31st May 2023. India ranks 2nd
in innovation quality with top positions in the quality of scientific publications and the quality of its
universities among middle-income economies.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 8.A
• Five-Year Plans (FYPs) are centralized and integrated national economic programs. Joseph Stalin
implemented the first FYP in the Soviet Union in the late 1920s.
• Though the planned economic development in India began in 1951 with theinception of First Five Year
Plan , theoretical efforts had begun much earlier , even prior to the independence. Setting up of National
Planning Committee by Indian National Congress in 1938 , The Bombay Plan & Gandhian Plan in 1944,
Peoples Plan in 1945 (by post war reconstruction Committee of Indian Trade Union), Sarvodaya Plan in
1950 by Jaiprakash Narayan were steps in this direction.
• The growth rate target of first FYP was 2.1% but India achieved the growth rate of 3.6%. Therefore, the
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first FYP was successful. The growth rate target for second FYP was 4.5% but India could able to achieve
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only 4.3% of growth rate. Therefore, the second FYP was not successful. Hence statement 1 is not
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correct.
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• Eight FYP ( 1992-1997: The plan undertook drastic policy measures to combat the bad economic
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situation and to undertake an annual average growth of 5.6% through introduction of fiscal & economic
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reforms including liberalisation under the Prime Minister ship of Shri P V Narasimha Rao. It undertook
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Indicative planning for the first time( not Ninth FYP) , replacing the earlier centralised planning.
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• Eleventh FYP (2007-2012) : Eleventh Plan was aimed “Towards Faster & More Inclusive
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Growth". India had emerged as one of the fastest growing economy by the end of the Tenth Plan. The
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savings and investment rates had increased , industrial sector had responded well to face competition in
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the global economy and foreign investors were keen to invest in India. But the growth was not perceived
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as sufficiently inclusive for many groups , specially SCs , STs & minorities as borne out by data on
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several dimensions like poverty, malnutrition, mortality, current daily employment etc. Hence statement
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2 is not correct.
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• A major new initiative taken in the Twelfth Plan, to improve implementation of the Centrally Sponsored
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Schemes to rationalise the number of the CSS, reducing them from 142 to 66, and also permitting
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greater flexibility in the guidelines. Hence statement 3 is correct.

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• Recognising the fact that “one size fits all” national guidelines do not take into account the characteristics
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of different States, which justifies a differentiated approach, a new system has been introduced with two
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major changes.
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Q 9.B
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• The Amrit Kaal Vision 2047 Action Plan have been defined across 11 theme which are provided as
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below:
o Lead the world in safe sustainable and Green Maritime Sector
o Promote Ocean, Coastal & River Cruise Sector. Hence option 3 is correct.
o Enhance Modal Share of Coastal Shipping & Inland Water Transport
o Promote Maritime Clusters
o Provide Maritime Professional Services
o Become a Global Player in Shipbuilding, Repair & Recycling. Hence option 4 is correct.
o Develop World Class Education, Research & Training Facilities
o Strengthen India’s Global Maritime Presence
o Develop World Class Next Generation Ports
o Enhance Efficiency Through Technology and Innovation
o Enhance India’s Tonnage
• The Amrit Kaal Vision 2047 Action Plan does not have any element of Naval Power. Hence option 1 is
not correct.
• The Amrit Kaal Vision 2047 does not envisage any deep sea mining mission. Hence option 2 is not
correct.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 10.C
• A Cost Inflation Index table is used to calculate the long term capital gains from a transfer or sale of
capital assets. Capital gain refers to the profit acquired from the sale/transfer of any capital assets,
including land, property, stocks, shares, trademarks, patents, etc.
• The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) of the Ministry of Finance announces the Cost Inflation
Index for a particular financial year.
• In accounting, usually, long term capital assets are recorded at their cost price in books. Thus, despite
rising prices of assets, these capital assets cannot be revalued. Thus, at the time of sale of these assets, the
profit or gain acquired from them remains high due to their high sale price in comparison to their purchase
price. As a result, assessees also have to pay a higher income tax on the gains from these assets.
• With the application of Cost Inflation Index for capital gain, in the long run, the purchase price of assets is
adjusted according to their sale price, leading to lower profits and lower tax amount on them.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 11.D
• Progressivism is a philosophy that advocates for advancement in science, technology, economic
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development, and social organization. It aims to improve the human condition and embraces
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change and progress.
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o In the context of the Indian Constitution, this principle is reflected in Article 48, which directs the
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state to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines. This is part of
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the broader aim of the Directive Principles of State Policy to establish a welfare state by securing
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social and economic justice. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
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o Other articles include which reflects progressivism:

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ü Article 39: This article embodies the principles of progressivism by directing the state to ensure
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that the ownership and control of material resources are distributed in a manner that serves the
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common good. It also emphasizes preventing the concentration of wealth and means of
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production to the detriment of the common interest.

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ü Article 41: This article reflects progressivist ideals by calling upon the state to ensure the right to
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work, education, and public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and
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disablement. It highlights the state's responsibility to provide social security and welfare measures
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to protect the economic interests of vulnerable sections of society.

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ü Article 42: Article 42 underscores the progressivist notion of social justice by directing the state
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to make provisions for securing just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief. It
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emphasizes the importance of ensuring fair wages, decent working conditions, and maternity
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benefits for workers, particularly women.

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ü Article 47: This article embodies progressivist principles by directing the state to regard the
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improvement of public health as among its primary duties. It emphasizes the importance of
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promoting public health measures, including the provision of medical care, sanitation, and
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nutrition, to enhance the well-being of the population.

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• Anarchism, cluster of doctrines and attitudes centred on the belief that government is both harmful
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and unnecessary. Anarchist thought developed in the West and spread throughout the world, principally
in the early 20th century. Hence option (a) is not correct.
o Derived from the Greek root anarchos meaning “without authority,” anarchism, anarchist, and
anarchy are used to express both approval and disapproval.
• Nihilism is a philosophical belief that denies the existence of inherent meaning or value in life.
Nihilists reject traditional values, beliefs, and moral principles, viewing them as baseless or
meaningless.
o Nihilism's rejection of traditional values and structures would likely be contrary to the notion of
organizing agriculture and animal husbandry based on scientific principles. Hence option (b) is not
correct.
• Conservatism is a cultural, social, and political philosophy that seeks to promote and to preserve
traditional institutions, customs, and values. It is a political philosophy based on tradition and social
stability, stressing established institutions, and preferring gradual development to abrupt change.
Hence option (c) is not correct.
Q 12.D
• Important powers of Supreme Court
o Article 137 states that the Supreme Court itself is not bound by its own decisions, and the Court
can review its own judgments and orders at any point of time in the future. Hence, statement I is
not correct.
o Article 129 for SC and 215 for High Court states that these courts be considered as the Court of
Records. It means their judicial proceedings are recorded and recognized as legal precedence
and legal references. Hence, statement II is correct.
o Article 141 of the Indian Constitution states that the decisions made by the Supreme Court are binding
on all other courts within the territory of India.
o Article 144 states that all authorities, civil and judicial, in the territory of India shall act in aid of the
Supreme Court.
Q 13.B
• Recent context: The Tamil Nadu governor refused to read out the customary address and walked
out of the House.
• According to Article 176 of the constitution, the Governor has the power to address a sitting of the
legislature. The special power is concerning two occasions. The first is to address the opening session of
a new legislature after a general election. The second is to address the first sitting of the legislature each
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year. Commonly referred to as the President’s or Governor’s Address, they are a constitutional
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requirement. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
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• The Governor’s speech follows the convention of the British system, where it contains legislative and
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policy proposals that the government intends to initiate. The speech also recaps the government’s
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accomplishments in the previous years.
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• The Constitution, under Article 163 respectively, binds the Governor to act on the aid and advice of
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the Council of Ministers of the state government on a majority of issues. Therefore, the speech that
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the President or the Governor reads before the legislature is the viewpoint of the government and is
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prepared by it. The contents of the speech are put together by aggregating inputs from various
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ministries of the government. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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• According to Andul Gafoor Habibullah v. Speaker, West Bengal Assembly (1966) the governor cannot
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decline to deliver his address and refuse to fulfil his constitutional duty. Thus, the address under Article
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176 is mandatory. However, the HC held that when the governor fails to deliver his address under Article
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176 and walks out of the House after laying down the address on the table of the House, this is mere
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irregularity, not illegality.

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• There is no provision in the constitution mandating the Governor to stick to the portions of speech.
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There can be situations when they deviate from the text of the speech prepared by the government.
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So far, there have been no instances of the President doing so. But there has been an occasion when
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a Governor skipped a portion of the address to the Assembly. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
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Q 14.B
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• The Rajamannar Committee was a committee appointed by the Government of India to review the
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centre-state fiscal relationship. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

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o The Rajamannar Committee's report had a significant impact on the centre-state fiscal
relationship. It helped to improve the financial position of the states and to give them greater control
over their own finances. The committee's recommendations also helped to create a more equitable and
sustainable fiscal system.
• The Justice Mulla Committee was a committee appointed by the Government of India to review the
prison system in the country. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
o It provided a comprehensive overview of the problems facing the prison system and offers a number
of practical recommendations for improving it.
• The Justice G. Rohini Commission was constituted by the Government of India to recommend
subcategorization of Other Backward Classes (OBCs). Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• The Committee's report was based on the following factors:
o The need to provide more equitable representation to OBCs from different social, economic, and
educational backgrounds.
o The need to ensure that OBCs from disadvantaged groups are not left behind.
o The need to take into account the regional variations in the social and economic status of OBCs.
• The Ranganath Mishra Commission is the name of the National Commission for Religious and
Linguistic Minorities that was constituted by the Government of India. Hence pair 4 is correctly
matched.
• Some of the key recommendations of the Ranganath Mishra Commission include:
o Providing constitutional status to the National Commission for Religious and Linguistic Minorities.
o Implementing affirmative action measures for minorities in education, employment, and other areas.
o Establishing special courts to deal with crimes against minorities.
o Promoting communal harmony and understanding between different communities.
Q 15.C
• Furlough and parole envisage a short-term temporary release from custody; While parole is
granted for the prisoner to meet a specific exigency, furlough may be granted after a stipulated
number of years have been served without any reason.
• The grant of furlough is to break the monotony of imprisonment and to enable the convict to maintain
continuity with family life and integration with society.
• Parole and Furlough are the rights which are available to the prisoners under Section - 432 of Criminal
Procedure Code 1973 which is the power to suspend or remit sentences. The Prisoners Act of 1894 and
Prisoners Act, 1900 defines the furlough and the parole system.
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o Both parole and furlough are conditional release. Although furlough can be claimed without a reason,
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the prisoner does not have an absolute legal right to claim it.
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o Parole can be granted in case of short-term imprisonment whereas in furlough it is granted in case of
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long-term imprisonment. 5
o Duration of parole extends to one month whereas in the case of furlough it extends to fourteen days
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maximum.
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o Parole is granted by Divisional Commissioner and furlough is granted by the Deputy Inspector
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General of Prisons.
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o For parole, specific reason is required, whereas furlough is meant for breaking the monotony of
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imprisonment.
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o The term of imprisonment is not included in the computation of the term of parole, whereas it is vice
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versa in furlough. Period of furlough is treated as a period spent in the prison. But period spent on
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parole is not to be counted as remission of sentence.

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o Parole can be granted number of times whereas there is limitation in the case of furlough.
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o Since furlough is not granted for any particular reason, it can be denied in the interest of the society.
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• Under Article 72 of the Constitution, the President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves,
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respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence.

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• Respite: It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special
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fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender.
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• Reprieve: It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary
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period. Its purpose is to enable the convict to have time to seek pardon or commutation from the
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President.
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Q 16.D
• Recent context: 78 Opposition MPs were suspended, the most ever in a day during the 2023 winter
session of parliament.
• According to the Rule 256 and Rule 374 of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha respectively - "Naming a
Member" refers to the drawing of attention of the House by the Chairman/Speaker to the conduct
of a member who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the Rules of the House by
persistently and willfully obstructing the business thereof, with a view to action being taken to
suspend him from the service of the House for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session.

• The consequences of suspension include:
o The maximum period of suspension is for the remainder of the session.
o Suspended members cannot enter the chamber or attend the meetings of the committees.
o He will not be eligible to give notice for discussion or submission.
o He loses the right to get a reply to his questions.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 17.D
• Differences in powers of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha:
o Lok Sabha can introduce and enact Money Bills. But the Rajya Sabha can only suggest
amendments to Money Bills, and can’t initiate, reject, or amend Money Bills.
o Constitutional Amendments can be introduced in either by Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
o MPs from both houses participate in the election and removal of the President, Vice President,
and Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court.
o Rajya Sabha can alone initiate the procedure for the removal of the Vice President. Hence,
option (d) is the correct answer.
o Both houses hold the executive accountable by asking questions and introducing motions and
resolutions.
o In case of any matter related to States, it must be referred to the Rajya Sabha, its approval is
necessary.
Q 18.C
• The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central agency responsible for conducting the civil
services examinations in India. It was established under Article 315 of the Constitution of India.
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• UPSC is the authorised body to release the appointment norms for State DGP in India because it is
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the central agency responsible for conducting all civil services examinations in India. The Commission is
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responsible for ensuring that the appointment of State DGPs is made fairly and transparently.
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Hence, statement 1 is correct. 5
• UPSC has issued new guidelines for the appointment of DGPs in the country. According to the new
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guidelines, only police officers with at least six months of service left before retirement will be
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considered for appointment as DGP.Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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• UPSC has also reduced the minimum experience required to be eligible for the post of DGP from 30
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years to 25 years. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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o The UPSC has taken this decision to ensure that the DGPs have enough time to serve in the post and
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to provide stability to the police force. The new guidelines will come into effect immediately. The
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move is also expected to help in the faster filling up of vacant DGP posts across the country.
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Q 19.C
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• The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Eighth Amendment) Bill, 2023 was introduced in Lok
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Sabha on September 19, 2023. The Bill seeks to reserve one-third of the total number of seats in Lok
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Sabha and state legislative assemblies for women. The Bill received the assent of the President and was
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published in the gazette. It is now known as the Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023.
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• Key features of the Act:

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o Reservation for women: The Act reserves, as nearly as may be, one-third of all seats for women in
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Lok Sabha, state legislative assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital
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Territory of Delhi. This will also apply to the seats reserved for SCs and STs in Lok Sabha and
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state legislatures. Hence options 1 and 4 are not correct options 2 and 3 are correct.
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o Commencement of reservation: The reservation hall come into effect after an exercise of
delimitation is undertaken for this purpose after the relevant figures for the first census taken after
commencement of the Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023. Based on the
census, delimitation will be undertaken to reserve seats for women. The reservation will be
provided for a period of 15 years. However, it shall continue till such date as determined by a
law made by Parliament.
o Rotation of seats: Seats reserved for women will be rotated after each delimitation, as determined by
a law made by Parliament.

Q 20.A
• The President gave her assent to the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners
(Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023. The Act replaces the Election
Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act,
1991. It aims to regulate the appointment, conditions of service, and term of office of the Chief
Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners (ECs), as well as the procedure for the
transaction of business by the Election Commission.
• The CEC and other ECs shall be appointed by the President on the recommendation of a Selection
Committee. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Selection Committee consists of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of the
Opposition/leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha Union Cabinet Minister to be
nominated by the Prime Minister. It excludes the office of CJI. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners are not eligible for
reappointment, and the removal process for the CEC is similar to that of a Supreme Court judge, while
an Election Commissioner can be removed based on the CEC's recommendation. Hence statement 3
is correct.
Q 21.B
• As per the Census 2011, the tribal population constitutes about 8.6% of the total population in
India.
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Q 22.D
• The amount and the intensity of insolation vary during the day, in a season, and a year. The factors that
cause these variations in insolation are
o the rotation of the earth on its axis;
o the angle of inclination of the sun’s rays;
o the length of the day;
o the transparency of the atmosphere;
o the configuration of land in terms of its aspect. The second factor that determines the amount of
insolation received is the angle of inclination of the rays. This depends on the latitude of a place. The
higher the latitude the less the angle they make with the surface of the earth resulting in slant sun rays.
The area covered by vertical rays is always less than the slant rays. If more area is covered, the energy
gets distributed and the net energy received per unit area decreases. Moreover, the slant rays are
required to pass through greater depth of the atmosphere resulting in more absorption, scattering, and
diffusion
• The insolation received at the surface varies from about 320 watts/m2 in the tropics to about 70
watts/m2 in the poles. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the
cloudiness is the least.
• Generally, at the same latitudes the insolation is more over the continent than oceans because clouds
over the ocean reflect back the sunlight.
• In winter, the middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation than in summer. Hence, statement 2 is
not correct.
Q 23.D
• In mountainous areas, the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude leads to the
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corresponding change in natural vegetation. As such, there is a succession of natural vegetation belts in
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the same order as we see from the tropical to the tundra region.
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• The wet temperate type of forests are found between a height of 1000 and 2000 meters. Evergreen
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broad-leaf trees, such as oaks and chestnuts predominate. Between 1500 and 3000 meters, temperate
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forests containing coniferous trees, like pine, deodar, silver fir, spruce, and cedar, are found. These
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forests cover mostly the southern slopes of the Himalayas, places having high altitudes in southern and
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northeast India. At higher elevations, temperate grasslands are common.

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• At high altitudes, generally, more than 3,600 meters above sea level, temperate forests and
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grasslands give way to the Alpine vegetation. Silver fir, junipers, pines, and birches are the common
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trees of these forests. However, they get progressively stunted as they approach the snow line. Ultimately,
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through shrubs and scrubs, they merge into the Alpine grasslands. These are used extensively for grazing
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by nomadic tribes, like the Gujjars and the Bakarwals.

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• At higher altitudes, mosses and lichens form part of tundra vegetation. The common animals found in
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these forests are Kashmir stag, spotted dear, wild sheep, jack, rabbit, Tibetan antelope, yak, snow leopard,
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squirrels, Shaggy horn wild ibex, bear and rare red panda, sheep and goats with thick hair.
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• Therefore, the correct sequence of vegetation in the ascending order is Wet temperate Evergreen broad-
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leaf forest-Temperate grasslands-Alpine grasslands -Mosses and Lichens.

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• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

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Q 24.A
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• Context: NASA's Terra satellite observed an impressive example of cavum clouds over the Gulf of
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Mexico near Florida’s west coast on January 30, 2024.

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• Cavum clouds:
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o Scientists have long speculated about Cavum clouds, also called hole-punch clouds or fallstreak holes,
but it's now well understood that these odd cloud formations are caused by airplanes.
Cavum clouds form when planes fly through banks of altocumulus clouds, mid-level clouds
that have supercooled (below the freezing point of water but still liquid) water droplets.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
o As air moves around the plane, a process called adiabatic expansion can make the droplets freeze into
ice crystals. The ice crystals eventually grow heavy and fall out of the sky, leaving a hole in the cloud
layer.
o The falling ice crystals that are visible in the center of the holes as wispy trails of precipitation
that never reach the ground - features called virga.
Q 25.D
• A team of researchers from the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Ropar led by Dr Resmi
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Sebastian has uncovered the presence of tantalum, a rare metal, in the sands of the Sutlej River in
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the Indian state of Punjab. This discovery is crucial given tantalum's widespread application in
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electronics and semiconductors. Tantalum is a rare metal with the atomic number 73, known for its grey
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colour, heaviness, and exceptional hardness. It is among the most corrosion-resistant metals, forming an
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oxide layer when exposed to air, making it resistant to strong and hot acid environments. The rare metal's
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highly corrosion-resistant property makes it suitable for use in corrosive environments. This property is
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advantageous in electronic components that may be exposed to harsh conditions or reactive

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substances. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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• Shale gas & oil is defined as natural gas & oil from shale formations. The shale acts as both the
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source and the reservoir for these unconventional hydrocarbons. Older shale wells were vertical while
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more recent wells are primarily horizontal and need artificial stimulation, like hydraulic fracturing, to
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produce. Only shale formations with certain characteristics will produce gas and oil.ONGC has estimated
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187.5 TCF of shale gas in 5 basins (Cambay Onland, Ganga Valley, Assam & Assam-Arakan, Krishna
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Godavari Onland & Cauvery Onland). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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• The largest offshore oil reserves in India is at Mumbai High off the coast of Maharashtra. Recently,
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Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC), an Indian state-owned entity, has made two major oil
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and gas discoveries in the Arabian Sea blocks off the Mumbai coast. The first find was made in the
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725km² Amrit block, while the second was in the 4,668km² Moonga block. Hence, statement 3 is
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correct.
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• Coal, Oil and natural gas can be obtained from under the seabed. Many minerals are also present in
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seawater. The most common one is salt. Seawater is evaporated to get salt. India has large reserves
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of beach sand minerals, such as ilmenite, rutile, zircon, monazite, sillimanite and garnet. These
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deposits are mostly located in the coastal stretches of peninsular India. Ilmenite is the largest constituent
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of the Indian beach sand deposits, followed by sillimanite and garnet. India is one of the leading producers
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of garnet in the world. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Q 26.D
• Indian rock system from a geological perspective can be classified under four categories- the Archaean
Rock System, The Purana rock system, The Dravidian Rock System, and The Aryan Rock System.
• Archaean Rock System: Precambrian rock system. It includes the Archaean Gneisses and Schist (4
billion years old) and Dharwar (1 to 4 billion years old). Archaean Gneisses and Schist System is the
oldest in India. Dharwar System was a highly metamorphosed sedimentary rock system. They are the
oldest metamorphosed rocks. They are economically important because of valuable minerals like iron ore,
manganese, copper, etc.
• The Purana Rock System (600 to 1400 million years old) is divided into the Cuddapah and Vindhya
systems. The Cuddapah system has unfossiliferous clay, slate, limestone, etc. It is best observed in the
Cuddapah district of Andhra Pradesh. The Vindhya system derives its name from the Vindhya mountain
range. A large area of this system is covered by the Deccan Traps. It is devoid of metalliferous minerals
but provides a large quantity of durable stone, limestone, etc.
• The Dravidian Rock System (600 to 300 million years ago) is found in the extra-Peninsular region. The
rocks of the Carboniferous period fall under the Dravidian Rock System. Coal formation started in the
Carboniferous age.
• The Aryan Rock System is categorized into four parts- the Gondwana system, the Jurassic system, the
Deccan Trap, and the Tertiary system.
• Gondwana rock system formed during the Permian period (around 250 million years ago).
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Q 27.B
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• From the analysis of various direct and indirect sources like seismic waves, volcanoes, magnetic fields,
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etc it is clear that the interior of the earth has a three-layered structure of different densities.
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• These three layers are

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o Core.
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• Apart from these three main layers, there are other layers like lithosphere, asthenosphere, and
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mesosphere.
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• The lithosphere (litho: rock; sphere: layer) is the strong, upper 100 km of the Earth. The lithosphere is the
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tectonic plate. The asthenosphere (asthenos: weak) is the weak and easily deformed layer of the Earth that
acts as a “lubricant” for the tectonic plates to slide over. The asthenosphere extends from 100 km depth to
660 km beneath the Earth's surface. Beneath the asthenosphere is the mesosphere, another strong layer.
• The asthenosphere is highly viscous, mechanically weak, and denser than the crust. Hence statement 2 is
not correct.
• The asthenosphere's ductility is much more than either the lithosphere or crust. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
• These properties of the asthenosphere aid in Plate tectonic movement and isostatic adjustment. So, the
Asthenosphere is the main source of magma. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Q 28.C
• BioTRIG new waste management technology that allows pyrolysis at a community level could help
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rural Indians cut indoor air pollution, improve soil health, and generate clean power.
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Useful chemicals are produced in the process.
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• In the study, the researchers outlined that three products of pyrolysis — bio-oil, syngas and biochar
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fertilizer , could help rural Indians live healthier and greener lives.
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Q 29.C
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• Eurythermal and stenothermal are terms used to describe an organism's ability to tolerate temperature
changes. Eurythermal organisms can tolerate a wide range of temperatures, while stenothermal organisms
can only tolerate a narrow range of temperatures.
o Eurythermal Animal: Tuna fish are eurythermal and can tolerate a wide range of temperatures, from
cold water near the poles to warm water near the equator.
o Stenothermal Animals: Polar bears are stenothermal animals that can only survive in cold Arctic
temperatures and cannot tolerate warmer temperatures. Hence statement II is not correct.
• Homeostasis is the balanced, internal conditions a living organism maintains. Despite changes in the
environment, all living things have a set of parameters they like to keep constant, such as temperature, salt
concentration, or water balance.
• Polar bears maintain homeostasis through their body systems as well as specific adaptations for the
environment. Like all animals, polar bears use their body systems to maintain homeostasis. The
respiratory and cardiovascular systems maintain a steady concentration of oxygen in the blood and
remove carbon dioxide. The kidneys work with the nervous system to control blood pressure and maintain
homeostasis of water and salt. Polar bears also have specific adaptations for their environment. For
example, polar bears have a thick layer of fat under their skin and hollow hairs that retain air. This helps
to insulate them from the cold and prevent the loss of heat.
• So, polar bears can’t live in heat. Their specialized adaptations make them successful in cold
weather. Their blubber, thick fur, and physiological makeup work together to keep them warm in
the harsh Arctic conditions. However, these same traits hinder their ability to cope with warmer
temperatures. Hence Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
Q 30.A
• Use of DDT is banned only for the purpose of Agriculture. In very special circumstances warranting the
use of DDT for plant protection work, the state or central Govt. may purchase it directly from M/s
Hindustan Insecticides Ltd. to be used under expert Governmental supervision.
• The use of DDT for the domestic Public Health Programme is restricted up to 10,000 Metric
Tonnes per annum, except in case of any major outbreak of epidemic. Hindustan Insecticides Ltd
is the sole manufacturer of DDT in the country and may manufacture DDT for export to other countries
for use in vector control for public health purposes. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• India banned use of Endosulfan after the 2011 Supreme Court Order. The widespread use of Endosulfan
in Kerala by Tea Plantation led the Supreme Court to completely ban use of Endosulfan. Hence
• India is a signatory to Basel Convention. The adoption of amendment to Basel Convention in 1995 also
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known as Basel Ban Amendment led to completely ban exports of hazardous waste from developed
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countries to developing countries. The Basel Ban applies to export for any reason including
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recycling. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
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Q 31.A
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• Recently, the National Green Tribunal has given the Uttar Pradesh government just four weeks for an
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update on notifying Dhanauri as a wetland. The Noida International Airport at Jewar might cause some
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harm to the nearby wetland area.

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• Dhanauri is a natural wetland of great significance and is home to over 217 species of birds.The Dhanauri
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wetland harbors 23 species of endangered, critically endangered, and threatened birds, and is one of the
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most important habitats for the Sarus crane. It has been recognised as an Important Bird Area by Bird Life
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International and so recorded by the BNHS.Hence statement 1 is correct.

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• Dhanauri wetlands is not recognised as a wetland under Wetland Rules 2017. Recently a petition in
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NGT highlighted non-compliance and non-implementation of rule 7 of the Wetlands (Conservation and
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Management) Rules, 2017, under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 by the UP State Wetlands
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Authority, which failed to notify Dhanauri as a Ramsar wetland. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
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• The Dhanauri wetland river does not receive water from Yamuna. It receives water from three or four
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sources such as rainwater and runoff from fields that are irrigated. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
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• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

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Q 32.D
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• Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy strategy that charges producers, importers and
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brand owners for controlling post-consumer waste. It acknowledges that manufacturers should be
responsible for the waste produced during a product’s lifecycle because they have a considerable
effect on the design, packaging, and material selections of their products.
• In India, numerous laws, norms, and regulations govern EPR compliance. The main laws are:
o Plastic Waste Management Rules (PWMR), 2016
o E-Waste (Management) Rules (EWMR), 2022
o Battery Waste Management Rules, 2022
o Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Amendment Rules, 2022
(for Waste Tyre)

• The Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change issued the Hazardous and Other Waste
(Management and Transboundary Movement) Second Amendment Rules, 2023 ('Amendment') on 18th
September 2023.
o The Amendment, which will come into effect from 1st April 2024, introduces a new chapter in
the Hazardous and Other Waste (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016
('Rules') for the implementation of 'Extended Producers Responsibility' ('EPR') for used oil.
• Plastic waste is a major environmental concern due to its non-biodegradable nature and detrimental
effects on ecosystems. Producers are required by plastic EPR requirements to manage plastic waste
proactively and promote recycling.
• The E-Waste (Management) Rules (EWMR) offer comprehensive instructions for handling electronic
trash (for example, laptops, computers, printers etc) in India properly. Producers are required to create
collection facilities or take part in the development of such facilities. These facilities are in charge of
receiving and directing e-waste to approved recyclers.
• Tyre waste poses unique concerns due to its size and durability. The purpose of EPR tyre
recommendations is to ensure correct handling and disposal of used tyres to avoid environmental dangers.
The ERP and provisions for utilising and managing tyre waste by producers and recyclers have been
included in the 9th Schedule of The Hazardous and Other Wastes Amendment Rules, 2022. EPR
guidelines for batteries focus on ensuring the safe disposal and recycling of used batteries.
• Recently, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) introduced a
notification on Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) on waste oil. EPR on waste oil is to improve
the circularity of waste oil management. Waste oil is a contaminant that contains harmful substances that
can pollute freshwater and soil.Waste oil can act as a contaminant as it contains benzene, zinc, cadmium
and other impurities that have the potential to pollute freshwater. EPR on waste oil is applicable to
producers, and bulk generators (like industry, railways, transport companies, power transmission
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companies, etc.).
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Q 33.C 5
• Skunks are mammals in the family Mephitidae. They are known for their ability to spray a liquid with a
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strong, unpleasant scent from their anal glands. Because of their lack of speed, skunks do not try to
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outrun their attackers. Instead, they rely on their rancid spray for protection. The pungent liquid is a mix
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of sulphuric chemicals which they can spray accurately at threats up to 3 meters away, with the foul odor
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reaching up to a mile away.

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• Bombardier beetles use odor as a defense mechanism. When disturbed they eject a hot noxious
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chemical spray from the tip of their abdomen. The Bombardier Beetle stores two separate chemicals in its
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body, hydroquinone and hydrogen peroxide. Whenever it feels threatened the chemicals mix with some
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special enzymes, heat from the reaction brings the foul-smelling liquid to near 100°C and produces gas
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that drives the ejection. The Bombardier Beetle is able to spray up to 4 times its body length and the
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damage caused can be fatal to attacking insects and small creatures and is painful to human skin.
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• When vultures feel threatened they vomit which puts off most predators. Vulture species like Turkey
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Q 34.A
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• Compensatory Afforestation (CA) refers to afforestation and regeneration activities carried out as a way
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of compensating for forest land diverted to non-forest purposes. Here "non-forest purpose" means the
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breaking up or clearing of any forest land or a portion thereof.

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• As per the Forest (Conservation) Act 1980, whenever forest land is to be diverted for nonforestry
purpose usually the conditions relating to transfer, mutation and declaration as Reserve Forest/
Protected Forest the equivalent non forest land for compensatory afforestation and funds for
raising compensatory afforestation etc are to be imposed. For mining purposes additional conditions
like maintaining a safety zone area, fencing and regeneration etc and for major and medium irrigation
projects, catchment area treatment plans are to be stipulated. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• As per the Forest (Conservation) Act 1980, as far as possible, the non-forest land for Compensatory
Afforestation (CA) was to be identified contiguous to or in the proximity of Reserved Forest or Protected
Forest.

Q 35.B
• CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) is collaborating with research groups across
the world on the Diverse Epigenetic Epidemiology Partnership (DEEP) project. The procedure for the
DEEP project is comprehensive. It aims to generate genomic datasets specifically in underrepresented
populations across African, Asian, and North and South American continents.
• This extensive data collection is coupled with the analysis of DNA methylation data and health-related
measures derived from individuals worldwide. Notably, the significance of this endeavor for India lies in
the profound insights it promises into the genetics of Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs), including
but not limited to type 1 and 2 diabetes, and chronic pancreatitis. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• At the molecular level, DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) serves as the carrier of genetic information.
Structurally, it takes on the form of a double helix, comprised of two linked strands that wind around each
other, resembling a twisted ladder. The process of DNA methylation, a key aspect of epigenetics,
involves the addition of a methyl group to the DNA molecule, influencing its function. Hence
• The DEEP project, unfolding over five years, is led by a collaboration of researchers from the
University of Bristol, London, and the CSIR Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology in India.
The rationale behind this initiative underscores the need for diverse genetic databases, as the project has
primarily gathered data from white European populations, resulting in an underrepresentation of global
communities in health studies. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The procedure for the DEEP project is comprehensive. It aims to generate genomic datasets specifically in
underrepresented populations across African, Asian, and North and South American continents.
Q 36.C
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• The five-storied lakes of North America—Superior, Michigan, Huron, Erie, and Ontario—the largest
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freshwater ecosystem on Earth, have recorded the lowest level of ice in 2024. Since satellite-based
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measurements began in 1973, ice coverage at its maximum winter extent exceeds, on average, 40 percent.
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In late February 2024, it stood at only about one-tenth of the average maximum. Hence statement I is
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correct.
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• According to the National Oceanic & Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), global warming was largely
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responsible for the lack of ice this winter since January 2024 the hottest January on record due to El Nino,
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the warmer phase of the El Nino-Southern Oscillation. In addition fewer and generally shorter intrusions
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of blasts of cold air from the Arctic further results in diminishing ice cover. Hence statement II is not
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correct.
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• About Great Lake region: The Great Lakes are a dominant physical feature of North America and form
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part of the political boundary between the United States and Canada. The system includes five Great
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Lakes (Superior, Huron, Michigan, Erie, and Ontario), Lake St. Clair and the connecting channels, along
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with many harbors and bays. The Region contains nearly 20 percent of the world’s fresh surface water and
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has over 9,000 miles of coastline. Most of North America’s fresh surface water (95%) is in the Great
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• Hence option (c) is the correct option.

Q 37.B
• An internal carbon price refers to a monetary value that companies place on greenhouse gas
emissions, which businesses can then factor into investment decisions and business operations to
drive positive change. Companies use internal carbon pricing as a strategic tool to manage climate-
related business risks and prepare for a transition to a low-carbon economy. When a business sets an
internal carbon price, a cost is typically assigned to each ton of carbon emitted so this can be factored into
business and investment decisions, incentivising efficiency and enabling low-carbon innovation. Hence
option (b) is the correct answer.
• There are 3 commonly adopted approaches to internal carbon pricing:
o Shadow pricing: A shadow price refers to a monetary value a company assigns to its greenhouse gas
(GHG) emissions on a per ton basis that is typically used to evaluate the potential cost/benefit of
different emissions reduction strategies. No money is transferred with a shadow price.
o Internal carbon fee or charge: An internal carbon charge is a fee that a company charges itself on a
per-ton basis that can be used to drive decision-making at the margin, reduce costs, or align internal
culture with wider decarbonisation efforts. Internal fees are usually assessed at the business unit level
or based upon specific emissions activities (e.g. electricity demand) and can be pooled for use in
business-unit or corporate-wide sustainability efforts.
o Implicit carbon price: An implicit price is based on how much it costs the organisation to implement
emission reduction projects. This is then applied to where GHG emissions are emitted within the
business. A target may already be in place along with a program of investment. Meanwhile, several
implicit carbon prices may appear within the same organisation. Businesses can strategically use the
implicit price in sustainability communications and allocate costs across the business.
Q 38.C
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• Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana is a maternity benefit program run by the government of India. It
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is a conditional cash transfer scheme for pregnant and lactating women of 19 years of age or above for the
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first live birth. The scheme envisages payment of Rs 5000 for first child and Rs 6000 to second child
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only if the second child is a girl child. There is no further incentive for the birth of more children. Hence
statement 1 is correct. 5
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• The Scheme envisages providing cash incentive amounting to Rs. 5,000/- in two installments directly
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to the Bank/Post Office Account of Pregnant Women and Lactating Mother (PW& LM) in DBT
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Mode during pregnancy and lactation.

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• Maternity benefit for second children is provided only if the second child is a girl. Through this provision
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the scheme discourage pre- birth sex selection. Hence statement 2 is correct.
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Q 39.D
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• Anganwadi workers are women volunteers providing services under the Integrated Child
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Development Services (ICDS) programme started by the Ministry of Women and Child
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Development (MWCD) on October 2, 1975, in a bid to tackle malnutrition among all pregnant
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women, lactating mothers and children in the age group 0-6 years.
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• There are over 25 lakh Anganwadi Workers and helpers in the country. The work done by them includes
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providing supplementary nutrition, nutrition and health education, health check-ups, immunisation
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and pre-school informal education to children. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

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• ASHA workers are empowered with knowledge and a drug kit to provide first-contact healthcare or
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community-level curative care for minor ailments such as diarrhea, fevers, care for the normal and sick
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newborns, childhood illnesses and first aid. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
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• They also act as a depot holder for essential health products that a local community might need at any
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point in time.
• This includes Oral Rehydration Therapy (ORS) packet, Iron Folic Acid (IFA) tablets, chloroquine,
Disposable Delivery Kits (DDK), oral pills and condoms.
• ANMs are the crucial component which connects the ASHAs and the communities with the public
health system. Over the years, their role has expanded to address communicable and non-
communicable diseases along with traditional Reproductive and Child Health centric functions.
Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 40.A
• Established in 1973 by the late John and Alice Tyler, the Tyler Prize for Environmental Achievement
is one of the first international premier awards for environmental science, environmental health, and
energy. The 2024 Tyler Prize for environmental achievement will be awarded to Johan Rockstrom for
his groundbreaking contributions and pioneering work to the development of the Planetary Boundaries
framework, the science for defining the safe operating space for humanity on Earth.
• The Emerald Awards showcase organizations, projects, and individuals from across Alberta who
are working to address environmental and climate change issues. These environmental awards are the
only program in Canada to recognize environmental excellence across a diverse range of sectors.
• The Kew International Medal is an award given to individuals who have made a significant contribution
to science and conservation. The award was first established in 1992 by the Board of Trustees of the
Royal Botanic Gardens, Kew.
Q 41.A
• The Tebhaga movement was a significant agrarian struggle in India, particularly in Bengal, initiated in
September 1946 and continuing until 1950. It was organized by the Bengal Provincial Kishan Sabha,
guided by the Communist Party, to implement the Floud Commission recommendation of Tebhaga,
demanding two-thirds of the harvested crops for sharecroppers. Thus it was not supported by the
Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• This involvement of women in the communist movement was expanded to a new level. It saw widespread
autonomous action of the“proletariat and semi-proletariat women”, belonging to dalit and tribal
communities. Through their initiatives, they formed Nari Bahinis or women’s brigades and resisted the
colonial police with whatever weapon they could lay their hands on. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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• Although Northern Bengal districts were worst affected by the Tebhaga agitation, the movement
co
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covered a wider region covering every district in eastern, central and western Bengal. The peasants
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carved out their Tebhaga elaka or liberated zones, where they instituted alternative administrations and
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arbitration courts. 5
• The Muslim League ministry, then in power in Bengal, responded by proposing a Bargadar Bill in
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January 1947, apparently conceding the sharecroppers' demand; but it was soon dropped because
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of opposition from within the Muslim League and from the Congress. Hence, statement 3 is not
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correct.
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Q 42.D
EH
• A variety of forms of mobilization came to be popularized as the Civil Disobedience Movement

M
A
crystallized as a major nationalist form of anti-colonial politics.

IK
AH
o For instance, the formation of volunteer corps, and organization of sankirtan processions to move
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around towns and villages to popularise the message of swaraj or prabhat pheris, wherein people
fo
including women and children in the villages and towns went around at dawn singing nationalist
ed
songs, tours by activists and leaders organizing public meetings in the rural and urban areas,
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organization of magic lanterns shows and secret circulation of booklets containing nationalist
on
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literature in the villages to spread nationalist ideas amongst people and setting up of underground
pe
Congress ashrams became the familiar modes of nationalist activities.

s
ti
• Nehru’s arrest in April 1930 for defiance of the salt law evoked huge demonstrations in Madras, Calcutta,
en
and Karachi. Gandhi’s arrest came on May 4, 1930, when he announced that he would lead a raid on
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Dharsana salt works on the west coast.

do
• Gandhi’s arrest was followed by massive protests in Bombay, Delhi, Calcutta, and Sholapur, where the
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response was the fiercest.

• After Gandhi’s arrest, the Congress Working Committee sanctioned three significant measures: (i)
Nonpayment of revenue in Ryotwari areas; (ii) No-chowkidari-tax campaign in Zamindari areas;
and (iii) Violation of forest laws in the central provinces.
o Congress Working Committee did not sanction any Voluntary resignations from Provincial
Legislative Assemblies.
• Under pressure and social boycott, many lower-level government officials including police men resigned
from their services.

Q 43.B
• The First Carnatic War was fought between 1740-48. This war was because of the Austrian War of
Succession. A brief description of the war is as follows
o In this war, France and Britain were on opposite sides when France sacked Madras (St. Fort George)
o The Carnatic Nawab was alarmed and sent an army against the French. The Carnatic Army was
defeated.
o In 1748, there was a Treaty of Aix-La-Chapelle which concluded the 1st Carnatic War as well.
• The details of the First Carnatic War:
• Carnatic was the name given by the Europeans to the Coromandel coast and its hinterland. The First
Carnatic War was an extension of the Anglo-French War in Europe which was caused by the Austrian
War of Succession.
• The Cause of the War:
• Although France, conscious of its relatively weaker position in India, did not favour an extension of
hostilities to India, the English navy under Commodore Curtis Bennett seized some French ships to
provoke France. France retaliated by seizing Madras in 1746 with the help of the fleet from Mauritius, the
Isle of France, under Admiral La Bourdonnais, the French governor of Mauritius.
• Battle of St. Thome (in Madras): The First Carnatic War is remembered for the Battle of St. Thome (in
Madras) fought between the French forces and the forces of Anwaruddin, the Nawab of Carnatic, to
whom the English appealed for help. A small French army under Captain Paradise defeated the strong
Indian army under Mahfuz Khan at St. Thome on the banks of the River Adyar. This was an eye-opener
for the Europeans in India: it revealed that even a small disciplined army could easily defeat a much larger
Indian army. Further, this war adequately brought out the importance of naval force in the Anglo-French
conflict in the Deccan.
• Robert Clive (who led the East India Company in the Battle of Plassey) is remembered for his
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unbridled and unbounded exploitation of such opportunities, both on his own and the Company’s behalf,
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and for his military ingenuity. However, as a lowly Company employee, he had to await his moment. His
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opportunity came with the outbreak of the First Carnatic War — in part an extension into the Indian
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subcontinent of the European War of the Austrian Succession — in which Britain and France supported
5
rival Indian factions. In September 1746, French troops captured Madras and Clive was taken prisoner.
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However, he escaped south to Fort St. David, the English East India Company post at Cuddalore, where
ma
he enlisted in the Company army and played a notable role in the fort’s defense.
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Q 44.A
EH
• Gopalkrishna Gokhale, often regarded as the political mentor of Mahatma Gandhi, belonged to the
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A
category of Moderates within the Congress. Gokhale’s works: Between 1899 and 1902, he was a
IK
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member of the Bombay Legislative Council followed by work at the Imperial Legislative Council from
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1902 till his death (1915).

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• Contributions of Gokhale:
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• At the Imperial legislature, Gokhale played a key role in framing the Morley-Minto reforms of 1909.
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• He was associated with the Moderate Group of the Indian National Congress (joined in 1889).
on
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• He became president of INC in 1905 in the Banaras session.

pe
• He established the Servants of India Society in 1905 for the expansion of Indian education.
s
ti
• He was also associated with the Sarvajanik Sabha journal started by Govind Ranade.
en
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• In 1908, Gokhale founded the Ranade Institute of Economics.

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• He started an English weekly newspaper, The Hitavada (The People's paper).

is
• In his address to the Indian Chamber of Commerce, Prime Minister of India, Shri Narendra Modi stated
Th
"We have to revive the manufacturing sector in West Bengal," PM Modi said this as he was addressing a
session. The saying had become popular earlier in the 20th century when Congress leader Gopal Krishna
Gokhale had said this about Bengal.
Q 45.A
• The traditional Karuppur Kalamkari Painting done using pens, and brushes made of bamboo sticks, palm
stems, date tree, and coconut tree stems, received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag. The certificate was
issued recently by the Geographical Indications Registry based on an application filed by the Tamil Nadu
Handicrafts Development Corporation (Poompuhar). The Karuppur Kalamkari in Thanjavur region(
Tamil Nadu) is the traditional dye-painted figurative and patterned clothes, made for temples such
as ceiling cloth, umbrella covers, cylindrical hangings, and chariot covers. Hence pair 1 is correctly
matched.
• Note: Pedana Kalamkari also known as the Machilipatnam style of Kalamkari work which involves
vegetable-dyed block-painting of fabric from Andhra Pradesh also has a GI tag.
• Arunachal Pradesh’s Idu Mishmi tribal group, which resides in the Mishmi Hills of Dibang Valley
and Lower Dibang Valley, weaves handloom items recognized as Idu Mishmi textiles. These fabrics
are distinguished by their elaborate geometric designs, which include rhomboid forms, triangles, angles,
and lines. With striking hues like Teei (black), Shu (bright red), and Low (white), the Idu Mishmi fabrics
are used for a variety of items, including hand purses, shoulder bags, men’s coats, ladies’ shirts,
wraparounds, and more. These handloom products are incredibly resilient, eye-catching, and appropriate
for any time of year. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• The Lakadong Turmeric from West Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya, one of the world’s finest turmeric
varieties with the highest curcumin content of 7-9% (in comparison to 3% or less in other varieties),
is fast becoming a game changer in the economy of the district. Hence pair 3 is not correctly
matched.
Q 46.B
• Some of the earliest evidence of board games comes from the Indus Valley Civilisation in the form of
archeological finds.
• Chaupar (or pachisi) has an even more interesting timeline. It reached its high point during the
Mughal period (as attested by the giant outdoor game board built by Akbar).
o It is also the game that most traditions ascribe to the downfall of Yudishthira in the Mahabharata.
o Various forms of chaupar have flourished in India. The most modern version of this game is ludo.
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• The race game gyan chaupar also has a similar history. It was probably invented by Jain monks as a
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didactic game in the early part of the second millennium and later adopted by Hindu and Sufi
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traditions throughout the centuries of assimilation during the Bhakti period.
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o However, it was reintroduced in India as the British game of snakes and ladders from the twentieth
5
century onwards.
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• Chaturanga was one of the more popular aristocratic games of ancient India. Developing around the
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sixth century CE, it started off as a didactic game to teach young princes about the four angas (parts) of
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the royal army: the infantry, the elephants, the chariot, and the cavalry.
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o The game was invented in India before being introduced to the West Asians, who took it to Europe
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from where chess, its most modern version, emerged.

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Q 47.C
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• The city of Champaner and the hill of Pavagadh lie 45 kilometres to the northeast of Vadodara and 42
fo
kilometres to the southwest of Godhra in the Panchmahal district.

ed
• In 2004, UNESCO conferred the World Heritage Site tag to the Champaner-Pavagadh site during its 28th
is
al
session held in Suzhou, China.

on
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• The entire archeological complex of Champaner and Pavagadh is home to religious structures of
pe
Hindu, Jain, and Muslim communities along with fortresses, fortifications, palaces, agricultural
s
ti
structures, the water-harvesting installations among others.

en
• The monuments fully blend the Islamic with other architectural styles, and the city of Champaner is the
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only complete and standing pre-Mughal Islamic city in India.

do
• The Champaner and Pavagadh region is also described in Persian literary sources such as Mirat-i-
is
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Sikandari by Sikandar Bin Muhammad, Ain-i-Akbari by Abul Fazal, and Tabqat-i-Akbari and Tarikhi
Farishta by Muhammad Qasim.
• The region of Champaner and Pavagadh was an important junction connecting Gujarat to Malwa, which
made it an important asset for political reasons, economic benefits, and military aspirations. For any ruler
who wished to conquer Malwa, control over Champaner and Pavagadh was the most essential.
• Following the aspirations of his grandfather and father to capture Pavagadh, Mahmud Shah I, the Sultan
of Gujarat, laid siege to Champaner-Pavagadh between April 1483 and December 1484. The 20-month
siege ended with the defeat of Pitati Rawal Jai Singh, the last Rajput ruler, and the transfer of control over
the coveted region to the sultans of Gujarat.

o Mahmud Begada established a mint in 1484 here. The coins minted here always carried the
inscription ‘Shahar Mukarram’ meaning ‘the illustrious city’. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o Made of silver and copper, the coins were minted here between 1485 and 1537 by Mahmud Begada
and his successors—Muzaffar II, Bahadur Shah, and Mahmud III. After Humayun attacked the city,
he too minted some silver and copper coins.
o The mint on Pavagadh was one of the four mints of the Gujarat Sultanate. The other three mints were
at Ahmedabad, Ahmednagar, and Junagarh.
• Several commemorative structures such as mausoleums or makbaras are also found in and around the
city, such as the tombs of Sakar Khan and Sikandar Khan. An interesting element of the entire complex
was the many water harvesting installations in the form of lakes, ponds, wells, stepwells, tanks, etc.,
among which the helical stepwell stands out. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The oldest temple at the Champaner-Pavagadh archeological park is the Lakulisa Temple, dated
around the 10th–11th century and situated on the Mauliya Plateau on Pavagadh Hill.
o The Jain temples on Pavagadh Hill date to around the 13th–14th century. The temples belong to
the Digamber sect of Jainism which was prominent in Gujarat.
o The entire complex of the Champaner-Pavagadh site is home to several majestic and intriguing
mosques. Among all the mosques, the Jami Masjid stands apart. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Q 48.D
• The Iberian style of architecture
o It refers to the architectural style prevalent in the Iberian Peninsula, which includes Spain and
Portugal. While this style is not commonly found in India, there are a few examples where elements
of Iberian architecture can be observed. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
• Features of Iberian Style of Architecture:
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o Use of Red Brick and White Plaster: Iberian architecture often incorporates the use of red brick and
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white plaster in construction, creating a distinctive color contrast.
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o Intricate Tilework (Azulejos): Decorative ceramic tiles, known as azulejos, are a hallmark of Iberian
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architecture. These tiles are used to adorn walls, floors, and facades, often featuring intricate patterns
5
and designs.
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o Courtyards and Gardens: Iberian architecture frequently incorporates courtyards and gardens as
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central features of buildings, providing spaces for relaxation and socialization.

a
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o Arched Doorways and Windows: Arched doorways and windows are common architectural
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elements in Iberian-style buildings, adding to their visual appeal.

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o Whitewashed Facades: Many buildings in the Iberian style are characterized by whitewashed
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facades, which help to reflect sunlight and keep interiors cool during hot weather.
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• Famous Examples of Iberian Style Architecture in India:

A
IK
o While pure examples of Iberian-style architecture may be rare in India, there are a few structures that
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exhibit influences from this architectural tradition:

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o Portuguese Churches in Goa: Goa, a former Portuguese colony, is home to several churches built in
fo
d
the Iberian style. These churches often feature whitewashed facades, ornate interiors, and decorative
e
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azulejos. Examples: Se Cathedral in Goa, Basilica of Bom Jesus, Castella de Aguada in Mumbai, St.
on
Paul's Church, Diu.

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o Portuguese Forts: Along the coast of India, particularly in regions that were under Portuguese rule,
s
there are forts built in the Iberian style. These forts typically feature thick walls, bastions, and
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watchtowers.
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do
Q 49.B
is
• India finished their Asian Games 2022 campaign with a record haul of 107 medals - 28 gold, 38 silver and
Th
41 bronze. This surpassed India’s previous record tally achieved at the last edition at Jakarta 2018, where
a 570-strong Indian squad racked up 70 medals - 16 gold, 23 silver, and 31 bronze. China led the overall
Asian Games 2022 medals tally with 201 gold, ahead of Japan (52) and the Republic of Korea (42). Only
four countries won over 100 medals in Hangzhou. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• Twenty20 cricket has been played at the Asian Games twice before, at Guangzhou 2010 and
Incheon 2014, with Bangladesh and then Sri Lanka crowned men’s winners. Hence Statment 2 is
not correct.
• Shooting led the way for India at the Asian Games 2022 with an unprecedented haul of 22 medals,
which included seven gold. Hence Statment 3 is correct.
Q 50.B
• Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy (MAKA): The oldest National Sports Award in India, the Maulana
Abul Kalam Azad Trophy or the MAKA Trophy was instituted in 1956–1957. This award is named in
honour of the Indian freedom fighter and the country’s first education minister Shri Abul Kalam Azad. It
is given to an institution or university for top performance in inter-university tournaments over the
last one year. Hence statment 1 is correct.
)
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• Arjuna Award: This award is named after Arjuna, the main protagonist from the ancient Indian epic
co
l.
Mahabharata. The Arjuna Award was instituted in 1961. It was India’s highest sporting honour before the
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Khel Ratna came into being. It is awarded for consistently good performance over a period of four
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years. Hence statement 2 is correct. The winners of the Arjuna Award receive a statuette of Arjuna, a
5
certificate, and a cash prize. The first Arjuna Award was conferred upon India’s football Olympian PK
ra
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Banerjee who was among the 20 recipients of the Arjuna Award in its inaugural edition in 1961.
m
• Hockey player Anna Lumsden was the first woman Arjuna Award winner, Hence statement is 3 not
a
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correct.
m
• Olympic bronze medal-winning weightlifter Karnam Malleswari was the first Indian woman to
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receive Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 1994-95.

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A
Q 51.A
IK
• The "New Look Policy" refers to a foreign policy approach pursued by the administration of U.S.
AH
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President Dwight D. Eisenhower during the 1950s.

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o It was primarily formulated by Eisenhower's Secretary of State, John Foster Dulles, and aimed to
ed
address the challenges posed by the Soviet Union and communism during the Cold War era.
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• The ‘Act East Policy’ announced in November, 2014 is the upgrade of the “Look East Policy”.
on
o It is a diplomatic initiative to promote economic, strategic and cultural relations with the vast
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Asia-Pacific region at different levels.

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o It involves intensive and continuous engagement with Southeast Asian countries in the field of
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connectivity, trade, culture, defense, and people-to-people-contact at bilateral, regional, and

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multilateral levels.
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• India’s Look East policy was enunciated by Prime Minister Narasimha Rao in 1992. Though a large
is
Th
part of Asia and all of Australasia and the Pacific islands lie to the east, the Look East policy was
conceived initially with reference to South East Asia and started with India becoming a sectoral
dialogue partner of ASEAN, the Association of South East Asia Nations. The policy was later
expanded to include East Asia and Oceania.
• The concept of the Neighbourhood First Policy came into being in 2008. But 'Neighbourhood First'
policy as a foreign policy initiative introduced by India in 2014 under PM Modi government.
o It was conceived to bolster relations with certain priority countries such as Afghanistan,
Bangladesh, Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

Q 52.C
• Voice of Global South Summit has been India's endeavour to provide a common platform to
deliberate on the concerns, interests and priorities that affect the developing countries. During
India’s G20 presidency, India shared the views received from the Voice of Global South Summit.
• India hosted a special virtual Summit, called the Voice of Global South Summit under the theme –
‘Unity of voice, Unity of purpose’ from January 12-13, 2023.
o India will work to ensure that the valuable inputs generated from partner countries in the Voice of
Global South Summit deliberations receive due cognizance globally.
o India's ongoing presidency of the G20 provides India a special and strong opportunity to
channelize these inputs into the deliberation and discourse of the G20.
o It was a new and unique initiative that envisaged bringing together countries of the Global South and
sharing their perspectives and priorities on a common platform across a whole range of issues.
• The Second Edition of the Voice of Global South Summit was held on 17 November 2023
virtually. At the invitation of the Government of India, the Chief Advisor of the Interim Government,
Chogyal Dago Rigdzin represented Bhutan at the Inaugural Leaders’ Session which was chaired by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi.
• The overarching theme of the Summit is “Together for Everyone’s Growth with Everyone’s Trust”. The
initiative was inspired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi's vision of ‘Sabka Saath Sabka Vikas Sabka
Vishwas aur Sabka Prayas’, and also underpinned by India's philosophy of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam.
Q 53.C
• Amid Israel’s ongoing military attacks on the Gaza Strip, particularly in its southern region, United
Nations Secretary-General Antonio Guterres has invoked Article 99 of the UN Charter in a bid to
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establish a ceasefire.
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• The UN Charter is the founding document of the United Nations. Based on the powers conferred through
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it, the UN can take action on a wide variety of issues. The Charter is considered an international treaty,
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meaning UN Member States are “bound by it”. 5
• Article 99 states the Secretary-General may bring to the attention of the Security Council any matter
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which in his opinion may threaten the maintenance of international peace and security.
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• To be adopted, a resolution needs at least nine votes in favor and no vetoes by the five
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permanent members – the United States, Russia, China, France or Britain. Hence statement 1 is
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correct.
R
• Article 99 does not immediately result in direct action from the UN or the Security Council, it could
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present the Security Council with an impetus to revisit previously failed draft resolutions. Hence
A
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AH
• The provision has been rarely invoked. Past examples include the upheaval in the Republic of the
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Congo in 1960 following the end of Belgium’s colonial rule and a complaint by Tunisia in 1961 against
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France’s naval and air forces launching an attack.

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Q 54.C
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• The Exclusive Economic Zone extends upto 200 nautical miles from the baselines from which the breadth
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of the territorial sea is measured.

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en
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do
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• As per article 56 of the United Nations Conference on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) rights of coastal
state in the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) are-
o sovereign rights for the purpose of exploring and exploiting, conserving and managing the natural
resources, whether living or non-living. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o sovereign rights with regard to other activities for the economic exploitation and exploration of the
zone, such as the production of energy from the water, currents and winds. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
• The jurisdictions of coastal state in EEZ are:
o the establishment and use of artificial islands, installations and structures; Hence statement 3 is not
correct
o marine scientific research; Hence statement 4 is correct
o the protection and preservation of the marine environment;
• The coastal state doesn't have right to prohibit or limit freedom of navigation or overflight, however some
exception are there as well.
Q 55.C
• Union Home Minister inaugurated the National Automated Fingerprint Identification System, or
NAFIS, which is designed to help in the quick and easy disposal of cases with the help of a
centralized fingerprint database. The identification of the deceased led to the registration of a homicide
case based on circumstantial clues. NAFIS is the Centre’s ambitious scheme under which workstations
were set up in every state for identification through fingerprint and palm print database and
matching system.
• Its software serves as the key application for fingerprint experts for crime and criminal investigation
functions. It also functions as the central information repository of all the crime and criminal-related
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fingerprint data of the country. The national-level NAFIS solution is implemented and managed by the
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Central Fingerprint Bureau (CFPB) at the National Crime Records Bureau. Hence statement 1 is
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correct.
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• National Automated Fingerprint Identification System assigns a unique 10-digit National Fingerprint
5
Number for each criminal, based on biometrics. Hence statement 2 is correct.
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• This 10-digit ID will be used for an individual’s lifetime, and different crimes registered under
ma
different FIRs will be linked to the same National Fingerprint Number. The unique ID will be used
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for the lifetime of an offender. Different crimes registered under different FIRs will be logged as
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incidents belonging to the same National Fingerprint Number. The first two digits of the ID will be the
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state code of the state where the criminal is registered, followed by a sequence number. The state partition
EH
will have IDs belonging to a state. Hence statement 3 is correct.

M
A
• Madhya Pradesh became the first state in the country to identify a deceased individual through the
IK
AH
National Automated Fingerprint Identification System. Hence statement 4 is not correct.

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fo
Q 56.A
ed
• E Ink displays technology is a brand of a special type of screen technology often used in e-readers
is
al
like the Amazon Kindle. The technology was originally developed in the 1990s at MIT and is now
on
rs
owned by E Ink Corporation. E Ink first hit the scene in the early 2000s and was all the rage among e-
pe
readers like the Amazon Kindle, Kobo eReader, and Sony Reader.
s
ti
• The screens work using tiny microcapsules filled with positively charged white particles and
en
negatively charged black ones suspended in the fluid inside the display. By applying positive or
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negative electrical charges to different areas of the screen, the white or black particles can be made
do
to rise to the surface, creating the text and images on the display. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
is
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• E Ink and E-Paper may sound like the same thing, but they refer to different display technologies. E-Paper
is a broad term for any display designed to mimic the appearance of real paper. Meanwhile, E Ink is a
specific type of E-Paper display that uses millions of tiny microcapsules filled with positively charged
white particles and negatively charged black particles suspended in a clear fluid.
• Unlike LCD and LED displays that use a backlight, E Ink displays reflect light – just like paper.
This makes them easier on the eyes for long reading sessions. They also require very little power
since they don’t need a backlight and only use energy when the image changes. The lack of
backlighting also means that they are easier to read under brighter lighting conditions, which isn’t
the case with LCD/LED displays at all – legibility takes a hit under bright sunlight. Hence,
statement 2 is not correct.
• E Ink displays have several key advantages that make them well-suited for certain applications.
o First, they consume very little power compared to LCD and OLED displays.
ü An E Ink display only draws power when the image is changed, meaning it can display a static
image for weeks or months without needing a charge.
ü This makes it ideal for e-readers and other devices meant for long battery life.
o Second, E Ink displays cause less eye strain for the user.
ü The lack of a backlight and the paper-like visual experience means users can read on an E Ink
device for hours without fatigue.
ü The matte surface and high contrast also make them easily readable outdoors and under bright
light.
• However, E Ink displays also have some downsides. The biggest is their slow refresh rate compared to
LCD and OLED displays. While improvements have been made, such Ink displays still take much longer
to refresh, making them unsuitable for video or animation.
• E Ink also has limitations on colour and resolution compared to other display technologies. And the
niche nature of E Ink manufacturing means the displays remain expensive, especially in larger sizes.
This limits their use to mostly e-readers and a handful of other products where their particular
advantages outweigh the higher cost.
Q 57.B
• Recent context: A rare metal called Tantalum found in the Sutlej River can change India’s semiconductor
industry.
• Tantalum is a very hard, ductile, lustrous, blue-gray transition metal that is highly corrosion-resistant. It is
part of the refractory metals group, which are widely used as components of strong high-melting-point
alloys.
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• Tantalum is a rare metal widely used in the electronics and semiconductor industry because of its
co
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unique characteristics. The capacitors made of Tantalum are capable of storing more amount of
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electricity without much leakage than any other capacitors.
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• This usage makes the metal ideal for use in portable devices, including smartphones, laptops, and
5
cameras.
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• In a significant development that could change the future of the electronics and semiconductor
ma
industry in India, a team of researchers from the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Ropar,
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Punjab, has discovered the presence of a rare metal called Tantalum, in the Sutlej River.
m
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

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EH
Q 58.D
M
A
• What is end-to-end encryption?

IK
AH
o End-to-end encryption is a communication process that encrypts data being shared between two
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devices. It prevents third parties like cloud service providers, internet service providers (ISPs), and
fo
cybercriminals from accessing data while it is being transferred.

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o The process of end-to-end encryption uses an algorithm that transforms standard text into an
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unreadable format.
on
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o This format can only be unscrambled and read by those with the decryption keys, which are only
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stored on endpoints and not with any third parties including companies providing the service.
s
ti

en
• Where is it used?
m
cu
o End-to-end encryption is used to secure communications. Some of the popular instant messaging apps
do
that use it are Signal, WhatsApp, iMessage, and Google Messages.

is
Th
o However, instant messaging is not the only place where user data is protected using end-to-end
encryption. It is also used to secure passwords, protect stored data, and safeguard data on cloud
storage. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• What does it mean for users?
o End-to-end encryption ensures that user data is protected from unwarranted parties including service
providers, cloud storage providers, and companies that handle encrypted data.
o The data can only be accessed with access to the device passcode, password, recovery contact, or
recovery key. The technology also makes it harder for service providers to share user information
from their services with authorities.

o However, end-to-end encryption does not protect metadata, which includes information like
when a file was created, the date when a message was sent, and the endpoints between which
data was shared. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 59.A
• The terms Bluejacking, Bluesnarfing, and Juice jacking, sometimes mentioned in the news, are
related to cybersecurity threats exploiting Bluetooth technology.
• Juice jacking or infecting devices tethered to public charging stations has been around for some time.
U.S. law enforcement agency FBI and the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) have issued
warnings detailing the risks posed by such attacks. This form of attack is used to target devices being
charged at USB charging stations in public spaces. In May 2023, the FBI in a tweet advised users to avoid
using free charging stations in airports, hotels, or shopping centers.
• Bluejacking: This refers to a relatively less harmful cyberattack where an attacker sends unsolicited
messages, contact cards, or pictures to a victim's Bluetooth-enabled device. The primary intent of
bluejacking is annoyance rather than data theft.
• Bluesnarfing: This is a more serious cyberattack that exploits security vulnerabilities in Bluetooth
connections. In bluesnarfing, attackers access sensitive data on the target device, such as photos, contacts,
emails, and passwords, by exploiting weaknesses in the Bluetooth Object Exchange (OBEX) protocol.
• Juice jacking: Juice jacking involves tampering with public USB charging ports to steal data or
install malware on devices connected to them. While Bluejacking and Bluesnarfing specifically
target Bluetooth vulnerabilities, Juice jacking focuses on exploiting the trust users place in public
charging stations.
)
m
Q 60.D
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l.
• In the human body, most of the DNA in a genome is neatly packed inside cells with the help of
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gm
specific proteins, protecting it from being degraded. However, in a variety of scenarios, some
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fragments of DNA are ‘released’ from their containers and are present outside the cell, in body
5
fluids. These small fragments of nucleic acids are widely known as cell-free DNA (cfDNA).
ra
eh
• Scientists have been aware of such degraded fragments of nucleic acids in body fluids since 1948. But
ma
only in the last two decades or so, since genome sequencing technologies started to become more
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accessible, have they really figured out what to do with that knowledge.
m
• cfDNA can be generated and released from a cell in a number of possible situations, including when a
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cell is dying and the nucleic acids become degraded. Since an array of processes modulates the
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degradation, the amount, size, and source of the cfDNA can vary across a range as well.
M
A
• All six of the listed applications involve cfDNA technology: Minimally invasive screens for disease-
IK
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related genetic abnormalities: cfDNA technology is utilized for screening genetic abnormalities,
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offering a less invasive method compared to traditional approaches.

fo
• Screening pregnancies for trisomy 21: Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) involves the use of cfDNA
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to screen for chromosomal abnormalities in the foetus, including trisomy 21.

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• The most common method, widely considered the gold standard in prenatal cfDNA Down syndrome
on
rs
testing, is chromosome microarray analysis (CMA). CMA can analyze thousands of cfDNA fragments
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simultaneously, typically using a microchip containing probes specific to target regions of chromosomes.
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• Assessment of allograft injury or rejection: cfDNA technology is employed to assess organ transplant
en
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success and detect donor-derived cfDNA (dd-cfDNA), indicating potential allograft injury or rejection.
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• Liquid biopsy: Liquid biopsy, a non-invasive method for detecting and monitoring cancer, involves the
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is
analysis of cfDNA released by tumorous cells into the bloodstream.

Th
• Non-invasive prenatal testing: NIPT, as mentioned earlier, is a specific application of cfDNA

technology for screening chromosomal abnormalities during pregnancy.
Q 61.D
• The Constitution provides for a three-fold distribution of legislative subjects between the Centre and
the states, viz., List-I (the Union List), List-II (the State List) and List-III (the Concurrent List) in
the Seventh Schedule.

• The Parliament has exclusive powers to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in
the Union List. This list has at present 98 subjects like defence, banking, foreign affairs, currency, atomic
energy, insurance, communication, inter-state trade and commerce, census, audit and so on.
• The state legislature has “in normal circumstances” exclusive powers to make laws with respect to
any of the matters enumerated in the State List. This has at present 59 subjects like public order,
police, public health and sanitation, pilgrimages, other than pilgrimages to places outside India;
agriculture, prisons, local government, fisheries, markets, theaters, betting and gambling and so on.
• Both, the Parliament and state legislature can make laws with respect to any of the matters
enumerated in the Concurrent List. This list has at present 52 subjects like criminal law and procedure,
civil procedure, marriage and divorce, industrial and labour disputes; bankruptcy and
insolvency; population control and family planning, electricity, labour welfare, economic and social
planning, drugs, newspapers, books and printing press, and others.
Q 62.B
• Liberty, in the realm of political philosophy, refers to the concept of individual freedom and
autonomy. It encompasses the idea that individuals should have the ability to act and make choices
according to their own will, without undue interference or coercion from external sources. There are
two primary types of liberty: positive liberty and negative liberty.
o Negative Liberty: Negative liberty, also known as "freedom from," emphasizes the absence of
external constraints or interference in one's actions.
ü It asserts that individuals should be free to act as they wish as long as they do not infringe upon
the rights or liberties of others.
ü Negative liberty is concerned with protecting individuals from coercion, oppression, or
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interference by the state or other individuals or entities.
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l.
ü Examples of negative liberty include freedom of speech, freedom of religion, freedom of
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assembly, and freedom from arbitrary arrest or detention.
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ü It is often associated with classical liberal and libertarian political ideologies, which prioritize
5
limiting the role of government to ensure individual autonomy and minimize interference in
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private affairs.
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o Positive Liberty: Positive liberty, also known as "freedom to," emphasizes the presence of
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opportunities and resources that enable individuals to fulfill their potential and achieve their
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goals.
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o It focuses on the capacity of individuals to actively participate in shaping their own destinies and the
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governance of their society.

M
o Positive liberty is concerned with overcoming internal and external barriers that may inhibit
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individual agency and self-determination.

AH
o Examples of positive liberty include access to education, healthcare, employment opportunities,

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and political participation.

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o It is often associated with social democratic and progressive political ideologies, which advocate for
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government intervention and social programs aimed at promoting equality of opportunity and
on
enhancing individual capabilities.

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• In summary, negative liberty emphasizes freedom from external interference or coercion, while
s
positive liberty emphasizes the presence of opportunities and resources that enable individuals to
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exercise their autonomy and achieve their goals. Both types of liberty are essential aspects of a well-
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functioning society, and debates often arise regarding the balance between them and the role of
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government in promoting and protecting individual freedoms.

is

Th
Q 63.A
• The Standing committees are permanent committees that are constituted by the Parliament to deal with
specific areas of public policy or administration. These committees are constituted at the beginning of
each session of Parliament and continue until the end of the session. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• After a committee completes its study, it publishes its report which is laid in Parliament. These
recommendations are not binding; however, they hold a lot of weight. For example, the Standing
Committee on Health made several recommendations to the National Medical Commission Bill in

2017. Many of these were incorporated in the recently passed 2019 Bill, including removing the
provision for allowing a bridge course for AYUSH practitioners. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• There are 24 Departmentally Related Standing Committees covering under their jurisdiction all the
Ministries/ Departments of the Government of India. Each of these Committees consists of 31 Members -
21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha to be nominated by the Speaker, Lok Sabha and the
Chairman, Rajya Sabha, respectively. The term of Office of these Committees does not exceed one
year. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 64.C
• The Grassroots Innovation Forum, specifically the "ASEAN India Grassroots Innovation Forum
(AIGIF)," is an annual program aimed at fostering cooperation and strengthening the relationship
between India and the ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) countries in the field of
science, technology, and innovation (STI).
• India along with 10 ASEAN Member States (AMS) were represented by 200 participants, at the 4th
edition of the annual ASEAN India Grassroots Innovation Forum (AIGIF) that was launched in
Langkawi, Malaysia on 28th November 2023. The AIGIF is an annual programme focused on fostering
a strengthened relationship between India and AMS on the premise of cooperation in Science, Technology
and Innovation (STI).
• The 1st two forums were organized in Indonesia (2018) and Philippines (2019) respectively while there
was a brief pause of two years owing to the pandemic. The three-day 3rd ASEAN India Grassroots
Innovation forum was organized by the ASEAN Committee on Science, Technology and Innovation
(COSTI) in partnership with the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India and
the National Innovation Foundation (NIF) – India during 20-22 December 2022.
)
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co
l.
Q 65.B
ai
gm
• The Indian government has officially announced the implementation of the significant Press and
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Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act), 2023 and its Rules. The Press and Registration of Periodicals
5
Act (PRP Act), 2023 has become effective from March 1st, 2024. This act replaces the Press and
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Registration of Books Act, 1867 legislation from the colonial – era.

m
• Key features of the act include:

a
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ah
• Registration of periodicals:
m
o The act provides for the registration of periodicals, which include any publication containing
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public news or comments on public news. Hence options 1 and 4 are correct.
EH
o Periodicals do not include books or scientific and academic journals. Hence options 2 and 3 are
M
A
not correct.
IK
AH
• The Act provides that a declaration specifying the printer/ publisher be made to the District
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Magistrate (DM).
fo
o The DM sends the declaration to the Press Registrar, who then issues a certificate of registration.
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o Making such declaration and authentication by the DM is necessary for the publication of the
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newspaper.
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• The Act allows the publisher of a periodical to obtain a registration certificate by filing an online
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application with the Press Registrar General and specified local authority.
s
ti
o A person who has been convicted of a terrorist act or unlawful activity, or has acted against the
en
security of the State will not be allowed to publish a periodical.

m
cu
• The new Act has introduced an online registration system called the Press Sewa Portal.The new Act
do
mandates that all applications for registering periodicals must be done exclusively online through the
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Press Sewa Portal. This system has replaced the old manual processes, which were complex and involved
multiple steps and approvals.
• The Press Registrar General of India (PRGI), formerly known as the Registrar of Newspapers for
India (RNI), will be responsible for implementing the objectives of the new Act.
o The PRGI would be responsible for maintaining a register of periodicals, setting standards for
periodical titles, verifying circulation numbers, and handling registration changes, suspensions, or
cancellations.

Q 66.C
• The rules of procedure of the Indian parliament provide for a mechanism to raise points of order. A
point of order is a question raised by a member of parliament on the procedure being followed in
the House. The Speaker is the final authority on whether a point of order is valid or not.
• Some examples of points of order include:
o A member raising a point of order that the quorum is not present in the House.
o A member raising a point of order that a member is speaking out of turn.
o A member raising a point of order that a member is using unparliamentary language.
• Any member of Parliament can raise a point of order, regardless of their party affiliation. Whether a
member belongs to ruling party or opposition party, It does not matter when the point of order is raised by
him. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• No debate is allowed on a point of order. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The purpose of a point of
order is to ensure that the rules of procedure are being followed, and debate would only serve to delay the
proceedings. The purpose is to have a quick and clear resolution to an issue concerning the rules of
the proceeding.
Q 67.C
• International Organization for Migration was established in 1951, in response to the large number
of internally displaced persons and war refugees in Europe after the Second World War.
o IOM is the leading intergovernmental organization in the field of migration and works closely with
governmental, intergovernmental, and non-governmental partners.
o It is the principal United Nations agency working in the field of migration. The organization
implements operational assistance programs for migrants, including internally displaced persons,
refugees, and migrant workers.
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o It has its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland.
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o India became an IOM Member State on 18 June 2008.
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• The International Labour Organisation Headquarters is established in Geneva.
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o It was created in 1919, as part of theTreaty of Versailles that ended World War I, to reflect the
5
belief that universal and lasting peace can be accomplished only if it is based on social justice.
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• The seat of the International Court of Justice is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands).
ma
o It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April
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1946.
m
o It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations.

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o Four Indians have been members of the ICJ so far.

EH
• Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) is a specialised agency of the United Nations that leads
M
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international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security.
IK
AH
o Its goal is to achieve food security for all and make sure that people have regular access to enough
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high-quality food to lead active, healthy lives.

fo
o Established in 1945, it has its headquarters in Rome, Italy.

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o India is one of the founding members of the FAO.

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Q 68.B
s
ti
• The Legal Aid Defence Counsel System (LADCS) is a project implemented by the National Legal
en
Services Authority (NALSA) to provide free legal aid to the poor and marginalized sections of
m
cu
society. Hence, statement 1 is correct. NALSA has played a significant role in providing free legal aid to
do
the poor and marginalized sections of society. It has also helped to promote awareness of legal rights
is
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among these sections of society.

• LADCS will provide free legal assistance to the accused in custody and the defendants in criminal
cases (not civil cases). Hence, statement 2 is not correct. The system is designed to ensure that
everyone has access to justice, regardless of their financial situation.
• Lawyers who are engaged within the LADCS are not allowed to take any private cases because they
are required to devote their full time and attention to representing clients who are eligible for legal
aid. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 69.C
• Reflation refers to a fiscal or monetary policy (or policies) aimed towards stimulating the economy
(i.e., increasing the level of economic activity) and combating deflation. It is used to restore long-run
inflation, reduce the time span of an economic contraction, or reignite an expansionary business cycle.
Reflation may also be used to describe the period immediately following a period of economic
contraction.
• During an economic contraction, there is often deflationary pressure on prices. Deflationary pressures are
caused by lower aggregate demand, which causes firms to reduce their output and/or prices. To re-
stimulate the economy, the government and/or central bank enacts policies aimed at increasing economic
participation.
• Reflation policies that may be enacted include:
o Increasing the money supply, which puts more money into the hands of consumers, thereby creating
more liquidity in the economy. Hence option 1 is correct.
o Lowering the tax rate, which makes firms and employers wealthier with hopes that they will inject
that money into the economy. Hence option 2 is correct.
o Reducing interest rates, which makes the cost of borrowing cheaper, thereby creating more liquidity
in the economy. Hence option 3 is not correct.
o Investing in large capital projects by the government, with the aim of creating more jobs and
providing more people with spending power. Hence option 4 is correct.
• "Reflation trade” has been a common buzzword in the investment community after the passage of
blockbuster policies during the onset of the 2020 coronavirus pandemic, which resulted in significant
injections of liquidity into the financial markets. Reflation trade refers to securities/sectors that benefit
from reflation. The securities/sectors benefit from faster economic growth and pricing pressure, such as
the cyclical sectors (banks, energy producers, etc.).
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Q 70.C
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• Recent context: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued a framework for acceptance of ‘Green
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Deposits’. 5
• Green deposit:
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o An interest-bearing deposit, received by regulated entities (REs) for fixed period and proceeds of
ma
which are earmarked for being allocated towards green finance.

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ah
o Aims to offer green deposits to customers, protect interest of depositors, to achieve their sustainability
m
agenda, address greenwashing concerns and augment the flow of credit to green activities/project.
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o Applicable to following entities (known as regulated entities (RE)):

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ü Scheduled Commercial Banks including Small Finance Banks (excluding Regional Rural Banks,
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Local Area Banks and Payments Banks)

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ü All Deposit taking Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) registered with RBI including
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Housing Finance Companies (HFCs). Hence statement 1 is correct.

fo
o To be denominated in Indian Rupees only.

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o Not mandatory for RE to raise green deposits.

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o RE cannot finance green activities/ projects first and raise green deposits later.
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o Investments made by REs in Sovereign Green Bonds are covered under the framework. Hence
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s
o Deposits raised under the framework are covered by the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee
ti
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Corporation.
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o Green activities/ projects financed under the framework can be classified under the priority sector if
do
they meet priority sector lending (PSL) guidelines of RBI. Hence statement 3 is correct.
is
Th
o Banks are allowed to offer overdraft facilities to customers against Green Deposits.
o Annual Independent Third-Party Verification/Assurance for funds raised through green deposits.

Q 71.D
• The Internal Benchmark Lending Rates are a set of reference lending rates which are calculated after
considering factors like the bank's current financial overview, deposits and non performing assets (NPAs)
etc. BPLR, Base rate, MCLR are the examples of Internal Benchmark Lending Rate.
• To ensure complete transparency and standardization, RBI mandated the banks to adopt a uniform
external benchmark within a loan category, effective 1st October, 2019. As name suggests, external
benchmark means the lending rate not internally set by individual banks based on internal benchmarks but
rather external benchmarks.
• Unlike MCLR which was internal system for each bank, RBI has offered banks the options to choose
from 4 external benchmarking mechanisms:
o The RBI repo rate
o The 91-day T-bill yield
o The 182-day T-bill yield
o Any other benchmark market interest rate as developed by the Financial Benchmarks India Pvt. Ltd.
• Banks are free to decide the spread over the external benchmark. However, credit risk premium may
undergo change only when borrower’s credit assessment undergoes a substantial change, as agreed upon
in the loan contract. Further, other components of spread including operating cost could be altered once in
three years.
• The interest rate under external benchmark shall be reset at least once in three months.
Q 72.C
• Gross capital formation is measured by the total value of the gross fixed capital formation, changes in
inventories and acquisitions less disposals of valuables. Gross fixed capital formation is measured by the
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total value of a producer's acquisitions, less disposals, of fixed assets during the accounting period plus
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certain additions to the value of non-produced assets realised by the productive activity of institutional
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units. Fixed assets are tangible or intangible assets produced as outputs from processes of production that
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are themselves used repeatedly or continuously in other processes of production for more than one year.
5
• Tangible assets are physical items owned by a company, such as equipment, buildings, and inventory.
ra
eh
Tangible assets are the main type of asset that companies use to produce their products and services.
ma
Intangible assets are nonphysical items that have a monetary value because they represent potential
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revenue. Intangible assets include patents, copyrights, and a company's brand.

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• There is substantial diversity in the different types of gross fixed capital formation that may take place.
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The following main types may be distinguished:

EH
o Acquisitions, less disposals, of new or existing tangible fixed assets, subdivided by type of asset into:
M
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(i) Dwellings;(ii) Other buildings and structures; (iii) Machinery and equipment; (iv) Cultivated assets
IK
AH
- trees and livestock that are used repeatedly or continuously to produce products such as fruit, rubber,
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milk, etc.; Hence option 1 is correct.

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o Acquisitions, less disposals, of new and existing intangible fixed assets, sub-divided by type of asset
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into: (i)Mineral exploration; (ii) Computer software; (iii) Entertainment, literary or artistic originals;
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(iv) Other intangible fixed assets; Hence option 2 is correct.

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o Major improvements to tangible non- produced assets, including land; Hence option 3 is correct.
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o Costs associated with the transfers of ownership of non-produced assets.

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Q 73.B
en
• The Agreement on Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS) recognizes that certain investment
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measures can restrict and distort trade. It states that WTO members may not apply any measure that
do
discriminates against foreign products or that leads to quantitative restrictions, both of which violate basic
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WTO principles. All WTO member countries are parties to this Agreement. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
• The TRIMs Agreement prohibits certain measures that violate the national treatment and
quantitative restrictions requirements of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). A
list of prohibited TRIMS, such as local content requirements, is part of the Agreement. Hence statement
2 is correct.
• The TRIMS Committee monitors the operation and implementation of the Agreement and allows
members the opportunity to consult on any relevant matters.
• This Agreement, negotiated during the Uruguay Round, applies only to measures that affect trade
in goods. The TRIMs Agreement does not cover services. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Q 74.C
• In a statement issued after International Energy Agency (IEA) 2024 ministerial meeting in Paris, the
agency said the talks with India are in recognition of the country’s “strategic importance” in tackling
global energy and climate challenges. India, which joined the IEA as an associate member in 2017, sent a
formal request for full membership in October 2023.
• IEA is an international intergovernmental organization based in Paris that was established in 1974. Its
stated mandate is to maintain the stability of the international oil supply. The IEA operates within the
broader framework of the Organization for Economic Co-Operation and Development (OECD). The IEA
is made up of 31 member countries. It also includes eight associate countries.
• Criteria for membership: A candidate country for the IEA must be a member country of the
OECD. Hence option 4 is not correct.
• In addition, it must demonstrate several requirements. These are:
o Crude oil and/or product reserves are equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports,
to which the government has immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) and could be
used to address disruptions to global oil supply. Hence option 1 is correct.
o A demand restraint programme to reduce national oil consumption by up to 10%. Hence option 2 is
correct.
o Legislation and organisation to operate the Coordinated Emergency Response Measures (CERM) on a
national basis.
o Legislation and measures to ensure that all oil companies under its jurisdiction report information
upon request. Hence option 3 is correct.
o Measures are in place to ensure the capability of contributing its share of an IEA collective action.
Q 75.A
)
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• The functions of the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) are governed by the
co
l.
provisions of 'The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961' (DICGC Act) and
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'The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation General Regulations, 1961' framed by the
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Reserve Bank of India. 5
• All commercial banks including branches of foreign banks functioning in India, local area banks and
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regional rural banks are insured by the DICGC. At present all co-operative banks are covered by the
ma
DICGC. Primary cooperative societies are not insured by the DICGC.

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• The DICGC insures all deposits such as savings, fixed, current, recurring, etc. deposits except the
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following types of deposits. Hence option 1 is correct.

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o Deposits of foreign Governments; Hence option 3 is not correct.

EH
o Deposits of Central/State Governments; Hence option 4 is not correct.

M
A
o Inter-bank deposits; Hence option 2 is not correct.

IK
AH
o Deposits of the State Land Development Banks with the State co-operative bank;
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o Any amount due on account of and deposit received outside India• Any amount, which has been
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specifically exempted by the corporation with the previous approval of Reserve Bank of India
d
• Each depositor in a bank is insured upto a maximum of ₹ 5,00,000 (Rupees Five Lakhs) for both
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principal and interest amount held by him in the same right and same capacity as on the date of
on
liquidation/cancellation of bank's licence or the date on which the scheme of amalgamation/merger/

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reconstruction comes into force.

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Q 76.B
en
• The Reshmi Rumal Tehreek, also known as the Silk Letter Movement (1913-1920), emerged as a
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significant initiative led by Deobandi leaders to challenge the dominance of the British Empire.
do
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

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Th
o Metaphorically, it aimed to weaken British rule by enveloping it in the soft embrace of silk fabric. A
prominent institution that emerged during this time was Darul Uloom Deoband, founded in 1866.
• This educational establishment played a pivotal role in producing influential leaders like Maulana
Mahmood Hassan (also known as Sheikh ul Hind) and Mohammed Mian Mansoor Ansari, who became
pioneers of the movement.
• The Silk Letter Movement referred to as Tehreek-e-Reshmi Rumal derived its name from the unique
communication method used by Shaikh ul Hind and other Deobandi leaders.
o They exchanged confidential information through written correspondence on pieces of silk fabric.
These letters contained strategic plans, details about weapons and ammunition, recruitment strategies,
and guidance for training volunteers.
• The movement attracted numerous enthusiastic young individuals and gained significant
momentum. It evolved beyond a gathering of like-minded activists into a fully-fledged armed
movement with international support and sponsors.
• Nations opposing British rules, such as Turkey, Afghanistan, Russia, and Imperial Germany,
provided essential funds, arms, and ammunition for the cause. However, the covert nature of the
plot was exposed when the Punjab CID intercepted a collection of letters.
• These correspondences, written by Ubaidullah Sindhi, a Deobandi leader in Afghanistan, were intended
for Mahmud Hasan Deobandi, another significant figure residing in the Hejaz. These vital
communications were penned on silk cloth, giving rise to the movement's unique name.
• Unfortunately, with the arrest of key plotters, their efforts were in vain. The circumstances leading to this
failure remained unexplained. Using the intercepted letters as evidence, the British swiftly apprehended
numerous influential leaders. A total of 222 individuals underwent intense interrogations, intimidation,
and torture while in custody.
Q 77.C
• The preparations for the first Congress had begun very early in 1885. It was decided to hold a
conference at Poona from 25 to 31 December. The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha had completed all
arrangements for the intended Conference. The outbreak of the cholera epidemic on the eve of the
conference led to the shift of its first session from Poona to Bombay.
• Allan Octavian Hume (1829-1912) was the son of Joseph Hume, the latter was a radical member of the
House of Commons. Allan O. Hume was a member of the Indian Civil Service and served in top
administrative positions in India from 1849 to 1882. He wished to relieve the Indian masses from poverty,
misery, and exploitation.
• He was the prime mover in the foundation of the Indian National Congress in 1885 and worked as its
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General Secretary from 1885 to 1906. Besides the foundation of the Congress, Hume has demonstrated
co
l.
great interest in ornithology, horticulture, theosophy, and reforms. Never was there a British, who
ai
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nurtured the cause of Indian regeneration and nationalism with utmost devotion and care, except A.O.
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Hume. Hence option (c) is the correct answer. ra
5
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Q 78.D
ma
• The Bengal Volunteers emerged as an underground revolutionary group opposing British rule in India,
ik
ah
operating from its inception in 1928 until Indian independence.

m
• This group was formed during the 1928 Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress under the
A(
R
leadership of Subhas Chandra Bose. Major Satya Gupta was appointed as the head of the group,
EH
with Subhas Chandra Bose serving as the General Officer Commanding (GOC). Hence statement 1
M
A
is not correct.
IK
AH
• The Bengal Volunteers continued their activities beyond the Kolkata Congress session and soon
rM
transformed into an active revolutionary association.

fo
• In the early 1930s, members of the Bengal Volunteers decided to launch 'Operation Freedom.'
ed
Initially, this operation was initiated to protest against police brutality in various Bengal jails.
is
al
o In August 1930, the revolutionary Bengal Volunteers devised a plan to assassinate the then
on
rs
Inspector General of Police, Lowman, who was visiting the Medical School Hospital. Hence
pe

s
ti
o On August 29, 1930, Benoy Basu, dressed in traditional Bengali attire, bypassed security and fired at
en
m
Lowman at close range, killing him instantly, while Superintendent of Police Hodson was seriously
cu
injured.
do
o The next target of the Bengal Volunteers was the Inspector General of Prisons, Col N.S. Simpson is
is
Th
notorious for his harsh treatment of prisoners.

o The revolutionaries not only planned to assassinate him but also intended to strike fear within British
official circles by launching an attack on the Secretariat Building, known as the Writers' Building, in
Dalhousie Square, Kolkata.
o On December 8, 1930, Benoy Basu, along with Dinesh Gupta and Badal Gupta, dressed in European
attire, entered the Writers' Building and killed Simpson.
• The Bengal Volunteers, under the leadership of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, made a significant
contribution to the Indian freedom movement. Their actions created a substantial impact on the British
administration, ing a shift in policies regarding administrative operations. This continued until the year
1947.
Q 79.C
• The Satavahana Empire was an ancient Indian dynasty that ruled in the Deccan region. The decline
of the Satavahana Empire in the Deccan region contributed to the emergence of several
successor states and regional powers. As the Satavahana influence waned, various smaller dynasties and
kingdoms rose to prominence in different parts of the Indian subcontinent. Some notable successor states
include:
• In coastal Andhra, there was a succession of families like the Ikshvakus, the Salankayanas, and
others. In Karnataka, the most important ruling family was that of the Kadambas. The Kadamba power
was founded by Brahmin Mayurasarman whose Talagunda inscription gives some interesting details
of the circumstances leading to the establishment of the kingdom and also some idea regarding its
extent. Hence options 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
• Several small kingdoms arose in the different parts of Maharashtra. The Puranas mention the Abhiras,
Gardabhins, Yavanas, Tusaras, Sakas, Murundas, Maunas, and Kilakilas as the successors of the
Andhras i.e. the Satavahanas. Hence option 4 is correct.
• The Karakota Dynasty ( 625 − 855 CE) ruled over the Kashmir valley and some northern parts of the
Indian subcontinent during the 7th and 8th centuries. Hence option 5 is not correct.
• Ikshvakus: The Ikshvaku kingdom flourished in Andhra Pradesh, near the eastern Krishna Valley for
about one hundred years, from 220 to 320 CE. It patronized Buddhism, Brahminism, as well as older folk
religions. Their capital city, Vijayapuri, had at least 18 Brahminical temples, mostly along the Krishna
riverfront.
• The Salankayanas: This dynasty of ancient India ruled a part of the Andhra Pradesh region in India from
300 to 440 CE. Their territory was located between the Godavari and the Krishna rivers. Their capital was
located at Vengi, modern Pedavegi near Eluru in the West Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh.
• The Kadambas: The Kadambas were an ancient royal family of Karnataka, India, that ruled northern
)
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Karnataka and the Konkan from Banavasi in present-day Uttara Kannada district. The kingdom was
co
l.
founded by Mayurasharma in c. 345, and at later times showed the potential of developing into imperial
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proportions.
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• The Abhiras: The Abhira dynasty was a dynasty that ruled over the western Deccan, where it perhaps
ra
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succeeded the Satavahana dynasty. From 203 CE to roughly 270 or 370, this dynasty formed a vast
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kingdom. The Abhira era was started by Ishwarsena in AD 249.

ma
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Q 80.A
m
• The Madai Mela in Bastar, Chhattisgarh begins when during agand mahina, ‘dhaan katai’ is
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complete (rice harvest). The harvesting season ends and soon after the madai mela begins. Hence
EH
pair 1 is not correctly matched.

M
A
o After a good harvest, it is a form of thanking the gods and goddesses. It is also held to dispel the
IK
AH
yearlong struggles, efforts, and tiredness through music, dance, and interacting with the community.
rM
o The communities that celebrate the Madai Festival are Kurna and Charama of the Kanker district,
fo
most of the tribes of the Bastar region, people of Narayanpur, Kondagaon, Bhanupratappur, Antagarh
ed
and Pakhanjore.
is
al
• The Karaga festival is held at the Dharmaraya Swamy Temple in Bangalore, Karnataka. Just after
on
rs
dusk on the Karaga day between March and April, a priest dressed in female attire leads a
pe
spectacular procession, to the accompaniment of dazzling swordplay by a number of dhoti-clad,

s
ti
bare-chested Thigalars. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

en
o On his head, he carries a flower-bedecked pyramid. A unique feature of the Karaga is the unbroken
m
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tradition of visiting the tomb of an 18th-century Muslim saint every year – this custom has become a
do
symbol of Hindu-Muslim unity.

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Th
o Celebrated annually, the 300-year-old Karaga festival has its roots in the Hindu mythological epic
Mahabharata
o As part of the celebrations, devotees take out a large procession, carrying earthen pots on their heads.
o Karaga festival is celebrated each year to mark the return of Draupadi in the form of Adishakti.
• Moatsu festival is one of the most eagerly awaited festivals in the beautiful state of Nagaland.
Making the entire state lively with its vibrant festivities, Moatsu Mong festival is celebrated by Ao
tribe of the state. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
o Moatsu festival is celebrated in the hope of a good harvest. The tribals observe this festival after
sowing seeds in the fields and believe that it brings people together and encourage bonding between
them. This three-day festival is celebrated with great fanfare.
o It witnesses many customs and rituals performed before sowing is done in the fields and is a much-
deserved break for them after going through various farm-related activities like burning jungles,
clearing fields, removing weeds and wild plants, cleaning up wells or Tsubu, doing repair work in
their homes, and so on.
o The natural customary practice of the forefathers was competing in making the best rice-beer and
rearing the best possible pigs and cows to be slaughtered during the festival.
Q 81.B
• During the Gupta period revenue generated from agriculture was the main source of income for the state.
For the collection of this revenue, a large section of officials was appointed.
• Contemporary sources (such as Amarakosha) give information about the diverse types of crops produced
in this period such as paddy, cotton, oilseeds, indigo, mustard seeds, etc.
• The people of this period had good knowledge of agriculture and they were aware of the different types of
soils. In this regard Amarakosha gives us information about twelve types of soils — urvara
(fertile), ushara (dry), maru (desiccated), aprahata (untilled), sadbala (grassy land), pankila (covered
with mud), jalaprayamanupam (land located near a source of water), kachcha (marshy), sarkara, sarkati,
nadimatrika (well-watered by rivers) and devematrika (area well fed by rain).
• The cultivated land was called as kshetra and uncultivated land was called by various names such as khila
or aprahata.
Q 82.B
• Slavery was permitted in Islam and it was prevalent in the Islamic world.
)
m
• The success of a campaign was to be measured by the number of captives acquired along with gold, silver,
co
l.
cattle, and horses.
ai
gm
• Qutbuddin Aibak captured 20 thousand slaves in his Gujarat campaign of 1195 and 50 thousand slaves in
7@
the raid on Kalinjar in 1202. 5
ra
• Even after the establishment of the Sultanate, the enslavement continued through campaigns in yet-
eh
to-be-conquer areas. One of the main objects of Balban"s raid of Ranthambor and Malik Kafur's
ma
campaigns in the Deccan was to get slaves. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
ik
ah
• Another source of getting captives was the plunder raids of rebellious villages (mawas) in the Sultanate
m
A(
that refused to pay the kharaj or tribute. The number of slaves received from these sources was enormous.
R
• There were 50,000 slaves in Alauddin Khilji's (1296,1316) establishment: The number increased to
EH
M
1,80,000 under Feroz Tughluq (135.1-88). Besides the Sultans, nobles had their private large retinues of
A
slaves including a large number of concubines. Even the respectable poor kept slaves.
IK
AH
• There was a large slave market. The prices of slaves of the two sexes were fixed under Alauddin
rM
Khalji as recorded by Barani. The abundance of slaves encouraged the continuous export of slaves
fo
from India to the Islamic World. Hence statement 2 is correct.

ed
Q 83.B
is
al
• Krishnadevaraya (17 January 1471 — 17 October 1529) was an emperor of the Vijayanagara Empire
on
rs
reigning from 1509 to 1529. He was the third monarch of the Tuluva dynasty and is considered to be one
pe
of the greatest rulers in Indian history. He ruled the largest empire in India after the fall of the Islamic
s
ti
Delhi Sultanate. Presiding over the empire at its zenith, he is regarded as an icon by many Indians.
en
m
Krishnadevaraya earned the titles Andhra Bhoja (lit. "Bhoja of Andhra"), Karnatakaratna
cu
Simhasanadeeshwara (lit. "Lord of the Jewelled Throne of Karnataka"), Kannada Rajya Rama Ramana
do
is
(lit. "Lord of the Kannada Empire). He became the dominant ruler of the peninsula by defeating the
Th
sultans of Bijapur, Golconda, the Bahmani Sultanate, and the Gajapatis of Odisha, and was one of the
most powerful Hindu rulers in India.
• Pratap Singh I (circa 9 May 1540 – 19 January 1597) popularly known as Maharana Pratap, was a king
of Mewar, a region in north-western India in the present-day state of Rajasthan. He is notable for leading
the Rajput resistance against the expansionist policy of the Mughal Emperor Akbar including the Battle of
Haldighati and Battle of Dewair which have turned him into a hero.
• Babur (14 February 1483 – 26 December 1530; born Zahīr ud-Dīn Muhammad) was the founder of
the Mughal Empire in the Indian subcontinent. He was a descendant of Timur and Genghis Khan through
his father and mother respectively. He was also given the posthumous name of Firdaws Makani
('Dwelling in Paradise'). Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• Jalal-ud-din Muhammad Akbar, popularly known as Akbar (1542 - 1605), and also as Akbar I was the
third Mughal emperor, who reigned from 1556 to 1605. Akbar succeeded his father, Humayun, under a
regent, Bairam Khan, who helped the young emperor expand and consolidate Mughal domains in the
Indian subcontinent.
• Jahangir (1569 - 1627): Nur-ud-Din Muhammad Salim (31 August 1569 – 28 October 1627) known
by his imperial name Jahangir ( 'Conqueror of the World'), was the fourth Mughal Emperor, who ruled
from 1605 until his death in 1627.
Q 84.C
• Bhand Pather, the traditional theatre form of Kashmir, is a unique combination of dance, music
and acting. Satire, wit and parody are preferred for inducing laughter. In this theatre form, music
is provided with surnai, nagaara and dhol. Since the actors of Bhand Pather are mainly from the
farming community, the impact of their way of living, ideals and sensitivity is discernible. Hence
option (c) is the correct answer.
• Bhaona is a presentation of the Ankia Naat of Assam. In Bhaona cultural glimpses of Assam, Bengal
Orissa, Mathura and Brindavan can be seen. The Sutradhaar, or narrator begins the story, first in Sanskrit
and then in either Brajboli or Assamese.
• Dashavatar is the most developed theatre form of the Konkan and Goa regions. The performers
personify the ten incarnations of Lord Vishnu god of preservation and creativity. The ten incarnations are
Matsya (fish), Kurma (tortoise), Varaha (boar), Narsimha (lion-man), Vaman (dwarf), Parashuram, Rama,
Krishna (or Balram), Buddha and Kalki. Apart from stylized make-up, the Dashavatar performers wear
masks of wood and papier mache.
• Maach is the traditional theatre form of Madhya Pradesh. The term Maach is used for the stage itself
as also for the play. In this theatre form songs are given prominence in between the dialogues. The term
)
m
for dialogue in this form is bol and rhyme in narration is termed vanag. The tunes of this theatre form are
co
l.
known as rangat.
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Q 85.A 5
• Humayun acquired a love of the art of painting at the court of Shab Tahmasp of Persia. Humayun was so
ra
eh
influenced by the art practiced there that he commissioned Mir Syed Ali and Khwaja Abdus two Persian
ma
masters, to illustrate manuscripts for him. These two painters joined Humayun's entourage on his
ik
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triumphant return to India. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

m
o An important painting from Humayun's period is titled 'Princes of the House of Timur'.
A(
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• The emergence of the Mughal School of painting as distinct from all other styles was mainly due to the
EH
deep interest Akbar took in the promotion of this art.

M
A
• The first major project undertaken during Akbar's regime was that of illustrating the Hamza
IK
AH
Nama. It began m 1562 for which several artists were employed at the court. Hence statement 3 is
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not correct.
fo
• The Mughal style became recognizable within a span of fifteen years since the setting up of royal atelier
ed
under Akbar. In the next decade or so, i.e. by about 1590s it acquired a distinctive form which was
is
al
marked by.
on
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o naturalism & rhythm

pe
o clothing objects of daily use assuming Indian forms.

s
ti
o picture space having subsidiary scenes set in the background

en
o extraordinary vigor of action and violent movement

m
cu
o luxuriant depiction of foliage & brilliant blossoms

do
• Jahangir took a deep interest in painting even as a prince. He maintained his own studio apart from
is
Th
Akbar's large atelier. Jahangir's preference was for paintings of hunting scenes, birds and flowers.
o In the period of Jahangir's rule manuscripts became less important than individual pictures.
o Jahangir's paintings seen to accentuate a formalist style, i.e., making the work realistic and preferring
the precise recording of contemporary reality.
o The paintings of this period have broad margins which are gorgeously decorated with the
depiction of flora and faces of human figures, etc. designs from plant motifs. Hence statement 1
is correct.
• Under Shah Jahan, the colours of the paintings were more decorative and gold was more frequently used
for embellishments.

• Mughal painting was also influenced by the European art. Some of the themes of European art were
incorporated by Mughal painters and they also adopted a few of the techniques of European artists.
o One important feature that becomes noticeable due to European influence in some Mughal paintings is
the attempt to make them three dimensional.
o The depiction of motits like winged angles and roaring clouds in Mughal paintings was again
under the influence of European paintings.
Q 86.D
• Technically, LDPE can be recycled. However Plastic bags, for example, tend to tangle in recycling
machinery risking endangering the entire recycling process. As compared to LDPE, it is more easy to
recycle HDPE. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Polystyrene (PS) is mainly used in food packaging and insulation. Polystyrene foam is 95% air so it is
not cost-effective to store or ship. It is often contaminated with food or drink, and it is difficult to clean
because it is so porous. Hence it is not feasible to recycle polystyrene on a commercial scale.
• Polyethylene terephthalate (better known as PET). It is probably the easiest to recyclemost. It is used in
the commercialization of countless products in sectors such as food, automotive, textile or
pharmaceutical. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The unique challenges associated with PVC are, one, that it releases hydrochloric acid upon heat
treatment which is corrosive to the recycling equipment. Further PVC are usually formulated with
a lot of plasticizer additives like Cell A plasticizers which are very toxic. Once it gets into the
recycling stream it contaminates other plastics.Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 87.C
)
m
• Deer is one of the most beautiful creatures on planet earth and extends to about 34 species. A lot of them
co
l.
inhabit India:
ai
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o Spotted Deer or Chital deer is the most common native deer species in the Indian subcontinent.
7@
Spotted Deers are found in numbers in India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, and Pakistan. It is also
5
known as Axis Deer or Asiatic Deer. According to the IUCN Red List assessment, Spotted Deer are
ra
eh
categorized as Least concerned. Spotted Deers are sexually dimorphic. Males are significantly larger
ma
than females, and only male deers possess antlers. Hence option 1 is correct.
ik
ah
o Kasturi Mrig or Musk Deer: Out of 7 species of musk deer found in Asia only 5 are found in India.
m
They are found mostly in Himalayan Region. Carried only by the male deer in its abdomen, the musk
A(
R
emits a sweet persistent aroma and is highly valued for its cosmetic and alleged pharmaceutical
EH
properties. Hence option 2 is correct.

M
A
o Barasingha also known as the Swamp deer: Only the male species of Barasingha have antlers. It
IK
AH
is the branched and interconnected antlers that give the Barasingha its unique look. Only the
rM
male species of Barasingha have antlers. The Barasingha or Swamp Deer is one of the deer species
fo
that is found across India’s national parks and wildlife sanctuaries. It is most popular at the Kanha
ed
National Park in Madhya Pradesh and the Kaziranga National Park in Assam where it is found in huge
is
al
numbers. Hence option 3 is correct.

on
• Barking Deer: Barking deer is also known as muntjacs and is found in the lower Himalayas. Their call
rs
pe
sounds like a barking dog, and hence the name. Hence option 6 is correct.
s
ti
• Himalayan Musk Deer: It is a small dog-like ungulate with no antlers.

en
• Indian Hog Deer: It is widely distributed theough the plains of India particularly in Keibul Lamjao NP,
m
cu
Kaziranga NP and Manas National Park.

do
• Mouse Deer: India's smallest deer, it is found naturally in Kanha NP, Nagarhole NP and parts of Western
is
Th
Ghats. Hence option 5 is correct.

• The reindeer or caribou is a species of deer with circumpolar distribution, native to Arctic, subarctic,
tundra, boreal, and mountainous regions of Northern Europe, Siberia, and North America. Hence option 4
is not correct.
Q 88.C
• Crustaceans (make up a very large group of the Arthropods which include the crabs, lobsters, crayfish,
shrimp, krill, barnacles brine shrimp, copepods, ostracods and mantis shrimp. Crustaceans are found in a
wide range of habitats - most are free-living freshwater or marine animals, but some are terrestrial (e.g.
woodlice), some are parasitic (e.g. fish lice) and some do not move (e.g. barnacles). Crustaceans are a
group of arthropods that are a part of the subphylum Crustacea.
o Crustaceans are invertebrates with a hard exoskeleton (carapace), a segmented body that is bilaterally
symmetrical, more than four pairs of jointed appendages ("legs") and an open circulatory system (the
"blood" does not flow in a closed loop).
o They also have eyes usually on stalks, a primitive ventral nerve cord and "brain" (ganglia near the
antennae), a digestive system which is a straight tube for grinding food and a pair of digestive glands.
o Gills are used for respiration and they have a pair of green glands to excrete wastes (found near the
base of the antennae).
o Their bodies are composed of three body segments - the head, the thorax and the abdomen.
o Most Crustaceans are either male or female and reproduce sexually. A small number, including
barnacles, are hermaphrodites. In other species, viable eggs are produced by a female without needing
to be fertilised by a male.
• Mollusca is one of the most diverse groups of animals on the planet, with at least 50,000 living species
(and more likely around 200,000). It includes such familiar organisms as snails, octopuses, squid, clams,
scallops, oysters, and chitons.
o Molluscs are a clade of organisms that all have soft bodies which typically have a "head" and a "foot"
region. Often their bodies are covered by a hard exoskeleton, as in the shells of snails and clams or the
plates of chitons.
o They range in distribution from terrestrial mountain tops to the hot vents and cold seeps of the deep
sea, and range in size from 20-meter-long giant squid to microscopic aplacophorans, a millimeter or
less in length, that live between sand grains.
• Crab is a crustacean and all others are Mollusks. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
)
m
Q 89.D
co
• Keystone Species: Every ecosystem has certain species that are critical to the survival of the other species
l.
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gm
in the system. The keystone species could be a huge predator or an unassuming plant, but without them
7@
the ecosystem may not survive. There are three types of keystone species cited by many scientists:
predators, ecosystem engineers, and mutualists.
5
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o Predators: They help control the populations of prey species, which in turn affects the quantity of
m
plants and animals further along the food web. For example: shark, tiger, lion etc.
a
ik
o An ecosystem engineer is an organism that creates, changes, or destroys a habitat. There is perhaps
ah
m
no clearer example of a keystone engineer than the beaver.

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o Mutualists: When two or more species in an ecosystem interact for each other’s benefit, they are
EH
called mutualists. Bees are a primary example of this. As bees take the nectar from flowers, they
M
collect pollen and spread it from one flower to the next, enhancing the odds of fertilization and greater
A
IK
flower growth. Nectar and pollen are also the primary food sources for the bees themselves. Hence
AH
pair 1 is correctly matched.

rM
• A rare alternative term for a species that is endemic is "precinctive", which applies to species (and
fo
d
other taxonomic levels) that are restricted to a defined geographical area.

e
is
o Lion-tailed Macaque is endemic to the Western Ghats in the states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil
al
on
Nadu. Although the species has a relatively wide range, its area of occupancy is small and severely
rs
pe
fragmented. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

s
ü Primarily diurnal arboreal, it prefers the upper canopy of primary tropical evergreen rainforest.
ti
en
ü It can also be found in monsoon forests in hilly country and in disturbed forest.
m
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ü IUCN Red list: Endangered.

do
ü It is listed in Appendix I of CITES.

is
ü It is protected under Schedule I, Part I, of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Th
• Indicator species are those flora and fauna which define a particular trait or change in the environment.
Such species are sensitive to environmental change and can act as early warning regarding adverse
environmental changes in particular area. For example, Frogs, Lichens, Salmon etc. Hence pair 3 is
correctly matched.
• Invasive alien species are plants, animals, pathogens and other organisms that are non-native to an
ecosystem, and which may cause economic or environmental harm or adversely affect human health. For
example, West Indian Lantana, Eucalyptus, Wattle, Common Water Hycinth,
o Prosopis juliflora is an invasive alien plant species, is known as a threat to biodiversity and ecosystem
services world over. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.

Q 90.D
• The carbon cycle involves the exchange of carbon between the atmosphere and organisms. It is the
biogeochemical cycle by which carbon is interchanged among the biosphere, hydrosphere, atmosphere,
and geosphere of the Earth. It is a gaseous cycle.
• As our planet and its atmosphere form a closed environment, the amount of carbon in this system
does not change. Wherever the carbon is located in the atmosphere or on Earth, it is constantly in flux or
motion. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Most carbon on earth is stored in rocks and sediments, while the rest is located in the ocean,
atmosphere, and living organisms. These are the reservoirs, or sinks, through which the carbon cycles.
o Carbon from the atmosphere is taken up by the green plants by photosynthesis and then to animals by
the food chain.
o By respiration and decomposition of dead organic matter, it returns to the atmosphere.
• Although widely distributed in nature, carbon is not particularly plentiful—it makes up only about
0.025 percent of Earth's crust—yet it forms more compounds than all the other elements combined. The
most abundant element in the earth's crust is oxygen (46. 1%). Silicon is second, making up 28%,
followed by aluminum (8%), iron (5%), magnesium (2%), calcium (4%), sodium (3%), and potassium
(3%). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Q 91.C
• Global dimming is a phenomenon which produces forces that act opposite to global warming in nature.
Global dimming reduces the amount of sun’s rays reaching the earth’s atmosphere causing a drop of
temperatures around the globe. Hence statement I is correct.
• Global dimming is not thought to be due to changes in the sun's luminosity, as these have been too small
)
m
to explain the magnitude of dimming observed. Instead, air pollution from human activity is thought to be
co
l.
the major contributor. Aerosols which form from pollution can directly reflect and absorb radiation before
ai
gm
it reaches the planet's surface and make clouds brighter and longer lasting, meaning they reflect more
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sunlight. Hence statement II is not correct. 5
• What causes of Global Dimming?
ra
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o Aerosols (colloid of fine solid particles or liquid droplets, in air or other gas) have been found to be
ma
the major cause of global dimming. Most aerosols in the atmosphere only scatter light from the sun,
ik
ah
sending some of the sun's radiant energy back to space and exerting a cooling influence on Earth's
m
climate.
A(
R
o Particle matters like sulphur dioxide, soot and ash (by-product of burning of fossil fuels by industry
EH
and internal combustion engines) enter the atmosphere and directly absorbs solar energy and reflects
M
A
radiation back into the space, before it reaches the planet’s surface.
IK
AH
o Water droplets containing airborne particles like sulphur dioxide, soot and ash (by-product of burning
rM
of fossil fuels by industry and internal combustion engines) form polluted clouds. These polluted
fo
clouds have heavier and larger number of droplets. These changed properties of the cloud – such
ed
clouds are called ‘brown clouds’ – makes them more reflective.

is
al
o Vapours emitted from the planes flying high in the sky called contrails are another cause of heat
on
reflection and related global dimming.

rs
pe
• What are the effects of Global dimming?

s
ti
o Just like Global Warming, Global dimming has also withering effects on the atmospheric temperature
en
of the earth as well as on the living beings.

m
cu
ü It reduces the atmospheric temperature of the Earth. As a result, precipitation will be low that
do
causes very low rainfall, which leads to droughts.

is
Th
ü Pollutants and by-products cause thick fog, acid rain and pollution, causing many diseases such as
respiratory diseases.
ü Cooling effects causes decline of vegetation, soil erosion etc.
• Global dimming Vs Global warming:
o Global dimming is the reduction in heat or the reduction in the sun’s rays reaching the earth whereas
Global Warming is the increase in Earth's mean surface temperature.
o Global dimming covers the drastic effects of global warming.

Q 92.A
• India’s leopard numbers rose by 8% from 12,852 in 2018 to 13,874 in 2022, according to a report made
public by the Environment Ministry recently.
• While the highest number of leopards were reported in Madhya Pradesh (3,907), only three other States
reported over a 1,000 animals each Maharashtra (1,985), Karnataka (1,879) and Tamil Nadu (1,070).
• Out of total 13874 leopards in India 8841 leopards are concentrated in 4 states namely Madhya Pradesh,
Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Forest surveyors cover nearly 6.5 lakh km looking for carnivore signs across 20 States; human-wildlife
conflict is the likely reason for decline in the population by 22% in Uttarakhand. While Uttarakhand
reported a 22% decline in the numbers — reportedly due to poaching and man-animal conflict, Arunachal
Pradesh, Assam and West Bengal saw a collective 150% rise to 349 animals. Hence statement 3 is not
correct.
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Q 93.A
Th
• Prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells are two primary types of cells that make up living organisms.
The key differences between them are:
• Nucleus:
o Prokaryotic Cells: Lack of a true nucleus. The genetic material (DNA) is present in a nucleoid
region, not enclosed by a membrane.
o Eukaryotic Cells: Have a true nucleus enclosed by a nuclear membrane, separating the genetic
material from the cytoplasm. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Membrane-bound Organelles:
o Prokaryotic Cells: Lack membrane-bound organelles. Some structures like ribosomes are present,
but they are not surrounded by membranes.
o Eukaryotic Cells: Contain membrane-bound organelles such as the endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi
apparatus, mitochondria, chloroplasts (in plant cells), lysosomes, and others.
• Cell Size:
o Prokaryotic Cells: Generally smaller in size, typically ranging from 0.5 to 5 micrometers.
o Eukaryotic Cells: Larger and more diverse in size, ranging from 10 to 100 micrometers. Hence,
• DNA Structure:
o Prokaryotic Cells: DNA is usually a single, circular molecule located in the nucleoid. Hence
statememt 3 is not correct.
o Eukaryotic Cells: DNA is organized into multiple linear chromosomes found in the nucleus.
• Cell Division:
o Prokaryotic Cells: Reproduce through binary fission, a simpler form of cell division.
o Eukaryotic Cells: Undergo mitosis during cell division, a more complex process involving multiple
stages.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 94.B
• Weight is the product of mass(m) and acceleration due to gravity(g) i.e. mg. While moving from the
Equator towards the poles the value of acceleration due to gravity (g) increases as it is inversely
proportional to the radius of the earth and the radius of the earth at the poles is lesser than at the equator.
Thus, the weight of a person increases while moving from the equator to the poles.
• The Coriolis force increases with an increase in latitude. Thus, the value of Coriolis force is higher at
the poles than at the equator.
• Hence, both statements I and statement II are individually correct but statement II is not the
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correct explanation for statement I. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
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Q 95.D
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• Saturated Fatty Acids: ra
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o Saturated fatty acids are a type of fat molecule that consists of carbon atoms bonded to hydrogen
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atoms with single bonds, resulting in a saturated structure.

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o They are typically solid at room temperature and are commonly found in animal-based foods such
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as meat, dairy products (butter, cheese), and some plant-based sources like coconut oil and palm
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oil.
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o Saturated fats have been traditionally associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease due
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to their ability to raise LDL (low-density lipoprotein) cholesterol levels in the blood.
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o Foods high in saturated fats are often linked to conditions like heart disease, obesity, and stroke.
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• Unsaturated Fatty Acids:

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o Unsaturated fatty acids are a type of fat molecule that contains one or more double bonds between
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carbon atoms in the carbon chain, resulting in fewer hydrogen atoms and a bent or "kinked" structure.
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o Unsaturated fats are found in both plant-based and animal-based foods. While some animal-
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based foods like fatty fish contain omega-3 fatty acids, plant-based sources such as nuts, seeds,
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avocados, and vegetable oils are rich sources of unsaturated fats as well. Hence statement 2 is not
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correct.
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o Omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids are essential polyunsaturated fatty acids that play crucial
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roles in various bodily functions, including brain function, inflammation regulation, and cell
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membrane structure. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

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• Trans fats:
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o Trans fats are a type of unsaturated fatty acid with a trans configuration, and they are harmful to
health, particularly cardiovascular health. While they share some properties with saturated fats, trans
fats are distinct in their molecular structure and health effects, and they are widely recognized as one
of the most harmful dietary fats.
o Transfats actually increase the tendency of blood to clot. They can activate and aggregate
platelets, leading to an increased risk of thrombosis, which is the formation of blood clots. Hence

Q 96.C
• The Ganga sub-basin extends over an area of 1086000 sq. km and lies in India, Tibet, Nepal, and
Bangladesh. The drainage area lying in India is 861404 sq. km which is nearly 26.2% of the total
geographical area of the country.
• The sub-basin is bounded on the north by the Himalayas, on the west by the Aravallis and the ridge
separating it from the Indus basin, on the south by the Vindhyas and Chhotanagpur plateaus, and on the
east by the Brahmaputra ridge.
• The Ganga basin has a large number of water resource assets and surface water bodies which is covered
by 11 states and most of its area is covered by Uttar Pradesh (28.02%) and Madhya Pradesh (21.02%) of
the total basin area.
• The other states in the embrace of the Ganga basin are Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh,
West Bengal, Uttarakhand, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh and Delhi. The State-wise distribution of the
drainage area is given in the below chart:
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• Thus, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Q 97.A
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• The Strait of Dover, often referred to as the Dover Strait, is a narrow and historically significant
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waterway that separates southern England (United Kingdom) from northern France.
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o It serves as a natural channel connecting the English Channel to the North Sea.
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o The strait is known for its strong tidal currents and is a vital maritime passage for ferry and shipping
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routes between the UK and continental Europe.

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• The Strait of Bosphorus, located in Istanbul, Turkey, connects the Black Sea to the Sea of
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Marmara.
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o This natural waterway is of great importance as it marks the entrance to the Mediterranean Sea from
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the Black Sea.

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o It plays a crucial role in maritime trade and is known for its stunning views, with Istanbul's historic
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sites lining its shores.

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• The Strait of Hormuz is a strategically significant waterway situated between the United Arab
Emirates and Oman on one side and Iran on the other.
o It connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea.
o The strait is renowned for its geopolitical importance, as it is a critical choke point for global oil
shipping, with a substantial portion of the world's oil supply passing through it.
• Cook Strait is located between New Zealand's North Island and South Island.
o It serves as a vital waterway within New Zealand, connecting the Tasman Sea to the south with the
South Pacific Ocean to the north.
o The strait is characterized by strong tidal flows and is important for maritime transportation and trade
within the country.
Q 98.B
• Recently, the Bihar government has decided to accord permission for exploration of gold reserves in
Jamui district.
• Overview of the Gold industry in India
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o Total gold reserves in India are more than 500 million tonnes as per national mineral inventory data
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o India is the world's second-biggest consumer of gold, after China. India accounts for 25% of global
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gold demand. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
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• India imports nearly 89% of its demand (According to a NITI Aayog report). Hence statement 2 is
5
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correct.
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• Major gold mines are East Singbhum (Jharkhand), Raichur and Kolar (Karnataka), and Chittoor ( Andra
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Pradesh).
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• Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 is a regime for granting mineral
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concessions through auction.

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• National Minerals Exploration Policy (NMEP), 2016 aims to stimulate non-fuel and non-coal mining
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exploration by allowing private companies to enter into a transparent bidding process, conducted via e-
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auction.
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• 100% FDI is permitted under the automatic route in this sector.

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• Gold mining in India dates back to the first millennium BC and throughout the 20th century was
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dominated by the Kolar Gold Field (KGF). KGF is one of the world's deepest gold mines at a depth of
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3000 meters, the government has decided to revive the gold mining here.
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Q 99.B
s
• The World’s first prototype of the BS 6 Stage II ‘Electrified Flex fuel vehicle’ was launched. Toyota
ti
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recently unveiled a prototype of the Innova Hycross with a flex-fuel hybrid powertrain, its first car in
m
India with this option, and one that the Japanese carmaker claims is the world’s first BS6 Stage II-
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compliant flex-fuel vehicle. Toyota had displayed an imported Corolla flex-fuel hybrid sedan as a pilot
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project. The pilot was initiated as part of a government-led push to commercially deploy this technology,
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which is already in use in markets such as Brazil, Canada, and the United States.
• Flex Fuel Vehicles (FFVs) are designed with internal combustion engines capable of running on
different types of fuel or a mixture of fuels, such as petrol and ethanol. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It has both a flex-fuel engine as well as an electric powertrain. Offers higher use of ethanol combined
with better fuel efficiencies. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• FFVs have a lower mileage compared to traditional gasoline vehicles. Hence statement 3 is not
correct.
• The advantages are lower harmful pollutant emissions like Carbon monoxide, sulphur, etc., and reduced
import dependence on crude oil.

• The transition to Bharat Stage VI (BS VI) emission standards is a crucial step in regulating air
pollutants from internal combustion and spark-ignition engines. India made a significant move, leaping
directly from BS-IV to BS-VI norms effective from April 01, 2020. This shift brought about a
remarkable improvement in fuel quality by reducing permissible sulfur content by 80%, from 50 ppm to a
maximum of 10 ppm.
• The upgraded fuel quality enabled the integration of advanced emission control technologies,
including Diesel Particulate Filters (DPF) for minimizing Particulate Matter (PM) emissions and
Selective Catalyst Reduction (SCR) systems to reduce Nitrogen Oxide (NOx) emissions. This strategic
move aligns with a commitment to environmental sustainability and the adoption of cleaner technologies
in the automotive sector.
Q 100.C
• India’s Moon mission Chandrayaan-3 scripted history by successfully landing on the lunar surface at 6:04
pm on August 23. With the Lander accomplishing a ‘soft landing’ on the Moon’s south pole, India
becomes the only country to have ever done so.
• According to ISRO, the mission’s three objectives were to demonstrate a safe and soft landing on the
lunar surface, to demonstrate a Rover roving on the Moon and to conduct in-situ scientific experiments.
Soft landing simply means landing at a gentle, controlled speed to not sustain damage to a spacecraft.
• The critical technical maneuver that the Chandrayaan-3 Lander had to perform on August 23, when it
entered the final 15 minutes of its attempt to make a soft landing on the Moon, was to transfer its high-
speed horizontal position to a vertical one — in order to facilitate a gentle descent on to the surface.
• After Chandrayaan-2 failed in its soft landing mission, K Sivan, then chairman of ISRO, described this
process as “15 minutes of terror” for them. It includes four phases:
• The Rough Braking phase includes reducing the lander’s horizontal velocity from a range of 1.68
)
m
km/sec (more than 6,000 km/h) at a height of 30 km from the lunar surface to almost zero for a soft
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landing at the designated site. This has to be done with precision, within certain durations.
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• At a height of 7.42 km from the surface, the lander is to go into an “attitude hold phase” lasting around 10
7@
seconds, during which it should tilt from a horizontal to a vertical position while covering a distance of
5
3.48 km.
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• The “fine braking phase” lasts around 175 seconds, during which the lander is to move fully into a
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vertical position. It is to traverse the final 28.52 km to the landing site, the altitude will come down to
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800-1,000 m, and it would reach a nominal speed of 0 m/sec. It was between the “attitude hold phase” and
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the “fine braking phase” that Chandrayaan-2 lost control and crashed.
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• “Terminal descent” is the final stage, when the spacecraft is supposed to descend totally vertically
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onto the surface. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

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VISIONIAS

since 1972-73. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

all sectors, including government, private businesses, and households.

Investment + Government Spending + Net Exports (Exports - Imports).

• GVA is calculated using the formula: GVA = Output - Intermediate Consumption.

through the following formula:

o GDP = GVA + Taxes on Products − Subsidies on Products

greater flexibility in the guidelines. Hence statement 3 is correct.

o Other articles include which reflects progressivism:

production to the detriment of the common interest.

to protect the economic interests of vulnerable sections of society.

benefits for workers, particularly women.

nutrition, to enhance the well-being of the population.

ministries of the government. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

irregularity, not illegality.

centre-state fiscal relationship. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

parole is not to be counted as remission of sentence.

respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence.

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

7 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

considered for appointment as DGP.Hence, statement 2 is correct.

years to 25 years. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Key features of the Act:

8 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

northeast India. At higher elevations, temperate grasslands are common.

by nomadic tribes, like the Gujjars and the Bakarwals.

leaf forest-Temperate grasslands-Alpine grasslands -Mosses and Lichens.

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Mexico near Florida’s west coast on January 30, 2024.

advantageous in electronic components that may be exposed to harsh conditions or reactive

substances. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Godavari Onland & Cauvery Onland). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

of garnet in the world. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• These three layers are

12 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

harm to the nearby wetland area.

International and so recorded by the BNHS.Hence statement 1 is correct.

• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

14 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

reaching up to a mile away.

vulture can propel their vomit up to 10 feet to ward off predators.

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

breaking up or clearing of any forest land or a portion thereof.

15 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Hence option (c) is the correct option.

Mode during pregnancy and lactation.

and pre-school informal education to children. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

17 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• A variety of forms of mobilization came to be popularized as the Civil Disobedience Movement

crystallized as a major nationalist form of anti-colonial politics.

Congress ashrams became the familiar modes of nationalist activities.

Dharsana salt works on the west coast.

response was the fiercest.

18 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

1902 till his death (1915).

• He became president of INC in 1905 in the Banaras session.

• In 1908, Gokhale founded the Ranade Institute of Economics.

• He started an English weekly newspaper, The Hitavada (The People's paper).

from where chess, its most modern version, emerged.

• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

kilometres to the southwest of Godhra in the Panchmahal district.