PHARMACOLOGY QUESTION BANK I

1. THE MOVEMENT OF THE DRUG IS CALLED:

a) Pharmacodynamics
b) Pharmacokinetics
c) Pharmacovigilance
d) Pharmacotherapy.
2. THE ADVERSE DRUG REACTION IS:
a) Very active against microorganisms
b) Easily absorbed by the body
c) Active in the presence of tissues or body fluids
d) Harmful and unintentional reaction that occurs at normal doses
3. THE THERAPEUTIC INDEX IS:
a. They bind to receptors and increase activity
b. The safety margin of the drug
c. The one that blocks the receptor, preventing the effect of another substance
d. Time it takes for a drug to reduce its concentration by half
4. TACHYPHYLAXIA IS:
a. Exaggerated response to therapeutic dose
b. Resistance to repeated administration of the therapeutic dose
c. Acute tolerance developed in a short time
d. Increases the percentage of a dose above the toxic dose
5. IN THE REACTION OF THE TISSUES WHEN THE DRUG OR THE TISSUES DO NOT MODIFY
IT, IT IS CALLED.
a) Susceptible
b) Indifferent
c) Assets
d) Emuntory

6. WHAT TYPE OF LOCAL ANESTHETIC WOULD YOU USE FOR THE TREATMENT OF A PATIENT
WITH ANGINA PEST?
to. Epinephrine and levonordephrine
b. Lidocaine with vasoconstrictor adrenaline
c. Prilocaine with adrenaline
d. Prilocaine with levonordephrine
7. WHAT ARE FAST-ACTING BETABLOCKERS?
a) Salbutamol
b) Methylxanthines
c) Dexamethasone
d) Prednisone

8. CHOLINERGIC RECEPTORS ARE:

to. norepinephrine and dopamine
b. methacholine and pilocarpine
c. muscarinics and nicotinics
d. atropine and ipatropium.
9. MUSCARINIC M2 RECEPTORS AT THE HEART LEVEL PRODUCE:
to. Increases heart rate
b. Decreases heart rate
d. Increases contraction
and. Venous flow decreases.
10. ALPHA 1 RECEPTORS PRODUCE:
to. decreases heart rate
b. vascular dilation
c. vascular contraction
d. decreases cardiac contraction.
11. THE DOSE OF INTRAMUSCULAR EPINEPHRINE IN CASE OF AN ASTHMA CRISIS IN AN
ADULT IS:
to. 0.1 to 0.3 ml
b. 0.6 to 0.8 ml
c. 1.1 to 3.3 ml
d. 0.3 to 0.5 ml
12. THE DOSE OF METHYLPREDNISOLONE BY THE ORAL WAY IS;
to. 0.5 to 2.5 mg every 8 hours
b. 2.5 to 5 mg every 6 hours
c. 30 mg/Kg
d. 25 to 50 ug every 12 hours
13. BARBITURICS PRODUCE:
to. increase learning capacity
b. impairs learning ability
c. decreases sleep duration
d. increases the time it takes to fall asleep.
14 ORDER THE PHASES OF ANESTHESIA ARE:
to. bulbar, excitement, analgesia, surgical
b. excitation, bulbar, surgical, analgesia
c. analgesia, excitement, surgical, bulbar
d. surgical, excitement, bulbar, analgesia
15. THE EFFECT OF THE DRUG IS CALLED:
a) Pharmacodynamics
b) Pharmacokinetics
c) Pharmacovigilance
16. COMPLETE THE COMPONENTS OF THE PHARMACEUTICAL PREPARATION ARE:
a. Active principle
b. ______________
c. Packing material
17. AGONIST DRUGS:
a. They bind to receptors and increase activity
b. The safety margin of the drug
c. The one that blocks the receptor, preventing the effect of another substance
 d. Time it takes for a drug to reduce its concentration by half
18. THE DRUG-DEPENDENT FACTORS THAT MODIFY ABSORPTION ARE. EXCEPT.
a. Concentration gradient.
b. Liposolubility
c. Degree of ionization
d. Blood flow
19. SITE-DEPENDENT FACTORS THAT MODIFY ABSORPTION ARE. EXCEPT.
a. Concentration gradient.
b. Contact time
c. Surface
d. Blood flow

20. WHAT TYPE OF DRUG WITH CORONARY VASODILATOR WOULD YOU PRESCRIBE FOR
A PATIENT WITH ANGINA PEST?
to. Verapamil, nitroglycerin PO
b. Amlodipine, verapamil PO
b. Captopril, amlodipine PO
d. Verapamil, enalapril PO
21. H2 ANTIHISTAMINES INHIBIT THE SECRETION OF:
a) SH
b) HCl
c) HCO
d) H2O

22. WHAT ARE FAST-ACTING CORTICOIDS?

to) Salbutamol
b) Verapamil
c) Dexamethasone
d) Nifedipine
23. ENDOGENOUS CATECHOLAMINES ARE:
to. norepinephrine and dopamine
b. methacholine and pilocarpine
c. muscarinics and nicotinics
d. atropine and ipatropium.
24. M4 MUSCARINIC RECEPTORS AT THE VASCULAR LEVEL PRODUCE:
to. vascular dilation
b. vascular contraction
c. bronchial dilation
d. detrusor dilation
25. ADRENERGIC RECEPTORS ARE:
to. M 1 and M 2
b. N n and N m
c. α and β
d. M 1 and N m
26. THE DOSE OF SALBUTAMOL BY ORAL WAY IS;
to. 0.5 to 2.5 mg every 8 hours
 b. 2.5 to 5 mg every 6 hours
c. 2 to 4 mg every 6-8 hours
d. 25 to 50 ug every 12 hours
27. HYPNOTICS PRODUCE AT THE LEVEL OF THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM:
to. They increase vigil
b. stimulates the CNS
c. CNS depression
d. depresses the SNP
28. THERE ARE ACTIONS OF BENZODIAPINES EXCEPT.
to. anxiolytic effect
b. muscle relaxation
c. increases gastric secretion
d. hypnotic effect
29. THE PHARMACODYNAMICS OF ANESTHETICS IS:
to. increases the activity of neuronal cells
b. allows the entry of sodium to generate the action potential
d. allows the entry of potassium to generate the action potential
and. interferes with the entry of sodium to generate the action potential
30 INDICATE 4 WAYS TO DISPOSAL OF THE DRUG:
to.
b.
c.
d.
31. THE THERAPEUTIC INDEX IS ALSO CALLED:
a) Drug control
b) Drug quality
c) Error range
d) Safety margin
32. INDICATE THE STEPS OF PHARMACOKINETICS:

33. POINT OUT WHAT IS INCORRECT ABOUT THE ENTERAL ROUTE

a) Orally
b) rectal route
c) Sublingual route
d) Topical route
34. WHAT IS INTOLERANCE?
a. It is an exaggerated response to a therapeutic dose
b. It is an exaggerated response to a toxic dose.
c. It is a harmful and unintentional reaction
d. It is resistance to repeated administration of therapeutic doses
35. WHAT IS PHARMACODYNAMICS?
a. Study the effect on the body.
b. Studies toxic and adverse effects of drugs or chemical substances.
c. Studies pharmacological effects in humans.
d. Study the properties of drugs and indications.
36. THE HALF-LIFE OF THE DRUG IS THE TIME IT TAKES TO:
a) Reduce concentration
b) Increase elimination
c) Reduce distribution
d) Increase the effect
37. IN THE ENTERAL ADMINISTRATION ROUTES WE HAVE:
a. Oral, sublingual and rectal
b. Oral, sublingual and subcutaneous
c. Rectal, subcutaneous and parenteral
d. Rectal, sublingual and parenteral.
38. PHARMACOVIGILANCE IS RESPONSIBLE FOR:
a) identify unwanted effects not previously described.
b) identify desired effects previously described.
c) identify desired effects.
d) none
39. ONE WITH A LINE IS THE RIGHT THING.
a) Fear 1. Erroneous belief that only
b) Complacency marketing safe drugs.
c) Culpability 2. Fear of suffering a lawsuit from the
Patient.
3. harm that the treatment has caused to the
patient.
40. PHARMACO IS:
a. Meeting of drugs for curative purposes
b. Physical, chemical agent with the purpose of healing
c. Chemical substance that enters the body to produce an effect
d. It is the movement of the drug
41. IN THE ROUTES OF ADMINISTRATION, THE ORAL ROUTE IS:
a. Greater risk of toxicity, avoids the effect of the first step.
b. Rapid diffusion, used for gas use
c. Cheaper, has the effect of the first step
d. Direct application to the affected area.
42. THE HIGH THERAPEUTIC INDEX IS:
a. One drug enhances the effect of another drug
b. The drug's wide safety margin and low toxicity
c. Plasma levels of the drug that produce the desired effect
d. The drug's reduced safety margin and high toxicity
43. REMEDY IS:
a. Meeting of drugs for curative purposes
b. Physical, chemical agent with the purpose of healing
c. Chemical substance that enters the body to produce an effect
d. It is the movement of the drug
44. IN THE ROUTES OF ADMINISTRATION, THE INHALATORY ROUTE IS:
a. Greater risk of toxicity, avoids the effect of the first step.
b. Rapid diffusion, used for gas use
c. Cheaper, has the effect of the first step
d. Direct application to the affected area.
45. AGONIST DRUGS:
a. They bind to receptors and increase activity
b. The safety margin of the drug
c. The one that blocks the receptor, preventing the effect of another substance
d. Time it takes for a drug to reduce its concentration by half
46. THE SUBTHERAPEUTIC DOSE IS:
a. Minimum therapeutic dose that produces an expected effect
b. Dose of the drug that does not produce the expected effect
c. Dose of the drug that produces cardiorespiratory alterations
d. Dose of the drug that causes death.
47. PHARMACOKINETICS IS:
a. Meeting of drugs for curative purposes
b. Physical, chemical agent with the purpose of healing
c. Chemical substance that enters the body to produce an effect
d. It is the movement of the drug
48. IN THE ROUTES OF ADMINISTRATION, THE TOPICAL ROUTE IS:
a. Greater risk of toxicity, avoids the effect of the first step.
b. Rapid diffusion, used for gas use
c. It has the effect of the first step, it is not painful.
d. Direct application to the affected area.
49. ANTAGONIST DRUGS:
a. They bind to receptors and increase activity
b. The safety margin of the drug
c. The one that blocks the receptor, preventing the effect of another substance
d. Time it takes for a drug to reduce its concentration by half
50. THE MINIMUM THERAPEUTIC DOSE IS:
a. Minimum therapeutic dose that produces an expected effect
b. Dose of the drug that does not produce the expected effect
c. Dose of the drug that produces cardiorespiratory alterations
d. Dose of the drug that causes death.
51. WHICH OBJECTIVE OF PHARMACOVIGILANCE DOES NOT APPLY?
a) Identify undesirable effects not described
b) Quantify the risk of these effects associated with the drug.
 c) Inform professionals and take possible administrative measures
d) Selling drugs in the dental office due to the proximity of RAM
52. EVERYTHING IS TRUE ABOUT THE ABSORPTION FACTORS EXCEPT:
to. surface
b. Medium Ph
c. Bioavailability
d. concentration gradient.
53. TOXICOLOGY IS:

a. The one that alters the biology of invasive organisms.

b. Pharmacological effects in humans
c. Toxic and adverse effects of drugs
d. It is the movement of the drug in the body.
53. THE THERAPEUTIC DOSE IS:
a. One drug enhances the effect of another drug
b. The drug's wide safety margin and low toxicity
c. Plasma levels of the drug that produce the desired effect
d. The drug's reduced safety margin and high toxicity
54. THE TOXIC DOSE IS:
a. Minimum therapeutic dose that produces an expected effect
b. Dose of the drug that does not produce the expected effect
c. Dose of the drug that produces cardiorespiratory alterations
d. Dose of the drug that causes death.
55. WHICH CONCEPT CORRESPONDS SPECIFICALLY TO ITS TRUE MEANING OF RAM
a) Remineralization of active drugs
b) Reconfirm discharge of medications in a patient
c) Alternate reaction of a low medication
d) Adverse drug reactions
56. THE SUBSTANCE OUTSIDE THE DURAMATE IS CALLED:
to. intraspinal
b. epidural
c. nervous system
d. none
57. THE SYNERGISM IS:
a. One drug enhances the effect of another drug
b. The drug's wide safety margin and low toxicity
c. Plasma levels of the drug that produce the desired effect
d. The drug's reduced safety margin and high toxicity
58. THE LETHAL DOSE IS:
a. Minimum therapeutic dose that produces an expected effect
b. Dose of the drug that does not produce the expected effect
c. Dose of the drug that produces cardiorespiratory alterations
d. Dose of the drug that causes death.
59. THE PREDICTABLE UNWISHED REACTIONS ARE:
a. Effects that we do not know when can occur.
b. The drug that cancels the effect of another drug
 c. The drug that enhances the effect of the other drug
d. Known effects of medications.
60. UNFORESEEABLE UNWISHED REACTIONS ARE:
a. Effects that we do not know when can occur.
b. The drug that cancels the effect of another drug
c. The drug that enhances the effect of the other drug
d. Known effects of medications.
61. THE CLASSIFICATION OF DOSE BY FREQUENCY ARE:
a. Unique, therapeutic, fractionated.
b. Unique, daily, subtherapeutic.
c. Unique, daily, fractional.
d. Toxic, daily, divided.
62. Solid dosage forms are:
a. Ointments, capsules, tablets
b. Solutions, pills, pastes
c. Syrups, creams, suppositories
d. Capsules, tablets, tablets
1. What regulates the autonomic nervous system
The involuntary functions of the body

2. What is the peripheral autonomic nervous system divided into?

- andrenergic sympathetic nervous system
- cholinergic peripheral nervous system

3. Where does the SNS originate?

It originates in the spinal cord between segments T-1 and L-2.

4. Where does the SNP originate?

Brainstem

5. What is unique about the SNE?

It has the peculiarity of functioning independently and that is why it is even called “the second
brain.”

6. What are the subtypes of muscarinic receptors?

M1,M2,M3,M4,M5

7. Cholinergic receptors (acetylcholine) are

- muscarinic

- nicotinic

8. What are cholinergic agonists (drugs)

Carbachol
Methacholine
Betanechol
9. What characteristic do indirect cholinergic agonist drugs have?
They are those drugs that increase acetylcholine levels, but do not bind to the receptor.

10. How are cholinergic antagonists classified?

They are classified as:

- Muscarinic blockers
- Ganglion blockers
- Neuromuscular Blockers
1. What are the causes of epilepsy
A. Idiopathic, Perinatal suffering, Craniomandibular trauma, Brain tumor
B. Idiopathic, Natal suffering, Traumatic brain injury, Brain tumor
C. Idiopathic, Neonatal suffering, Traumatic brain injury, Brain tumor
D. Idiopathic, Perinatal suffering, Traumatic brain injury, Brain tumor
E. All of the above
F. None of the above

2. The simple partial motor seizure is

a. Simple partial motor seizure is focal without focal gait with gait and delayed, versive,
postural, phonatory.

b. Simple partial motor seizure is focal without gait focal with gait, versive, non-postural,
phonatory.

c. Simple partial motor seizure is focal without gait focal with gait, versive, postural,
phonatory.

d. Simple partial motor seizure is focal without gait focal with gait, non-versive, postural,
phonatory.

e. All of the above

f. None of the above

3. Crisis phase is
A. It is a period during which the crisis manifests clinically and corresponds to a
nonspecific pattern of electrical activity in the electroencephalogram, which varies
according to the nature of the crisis.
 B. It is a period during which the seizure manifests clinically and corresponds to a specific
pattern of electrical activity in the brain, which varies according to the nature of the
seizure.
C. It is a period during which the crisis manifests clinically and corresponds to a specific
pattern of electrical activity in the electroencephalogram, which does not vary according
to the nature of the crisis.
D. It is a period during which the seizure manifests clinically and corresponds to a specific
pattern of electrical activity in the electroencephalogram, which varies according to the
nature of the seizure.
E. All of the above
F. None of the above

4. BEHAVIOR TO FOLLOW DURING AN EPILEPSY CRISIS: choose the wrong thing

A. Keep calm
B. Somewhat hard color under the patient's head
C. Turn the patient on his side, so that saliva or food flows out.
D. Stay with the patient until the crisis ends.
E. Do not put hard objects into your mouth.
F. Forcibly restraining the patient.
G. Do not give him a drink or throw water to make him come to.
H. Express to the patient, during the crisis and after it, words of encouragement.
I. If urination or defecation occurred during the crisis, help.
J. assist the patient in the transfer to home or hospital.

5. Drugs useful in the treatment of epilepsy

A. Hadantoins Barbiturates Deoxybarbiturates Imiostilbenes Succinamides Valproic acid
Benzodiazepines

B. Hydantoins Barbiturates Deoxybarbiturates Imiostilbenes Succinamides Valproic acid

Banzodiazepines

C. Hydantoins Barbiturates Deoxybarbiturates Imiostilbenes Succinamides Valproic acid

Benzodiazepines

D. Hydantoins Burbiturates Deoxybarbiturates Imiostilbenes Succinamides Valproic acid

Benzodiazepines

E. All of the above

F. None of the above

6. Diphenyhydantoin produces
A. Produces anticonvulsant activity without depressing the peripheral system. Reduces
repeated discharges induced by sustained depolarization. This effect is obtained by
reducing the recovery capacity of voltage-gated Na channels.
 B. Produces anticonvulsant activity without depressing the CNS. Reduces repeated
discharges induced by sustained depolarization. This effect is obtained by reducing the
recovery capacity of voltage-gated Na channels.
C. Produces anticonvulsant activity without depressing the CNS. Reduces repeated
discharges induced by sustained depolarization. This effect is obtained by reducing the
recovery capacity of voltage-gated K channels.
D. Produces anticonvulsant activity without depressing the CNS. Reduces repeated sinus
discharges induced by sustained depolarization. This effect is obtained by reducing the
recovery capacity of voltage-gated Na channels.
E. All of the above
F. None of the above

7. What are the symptoms of Parkinson's?

A. tremor cyanosis bradykinesia
B. tremor rigidity dysphagia
C. otalgia rigidity bradykinesia
D. tremor rigidity bradykinesia
E. all of the above
F. None of the above

8. Parkinson's
A. It owes its name to the English doctor James Parkinson who described it in 1817. It was
originally known as shaking paralysis or trembling paralysis.
B. It owes its name to the French doctor James Parkinson who described it in 1817. It was
originally known as shaking paralysis or trembling paralysis.
C. It owes its name to the English doctor James Parkinson who described it in 1827. It was
originally known as shaking paralysis or trembling paralysis.
D. It owes its name to the English doctor Pablo Parkinson who described it in 1817. It was
originally known as shaking paralysis or trembling paralysis.
E. All of the above
F. None of the above

9. Parkinson's treatment
A. Correct alterations in DA/Ach (dopamine/acetylcholine) neurotransmission in the basal
ganglia.
B. Increase dopaminergic transmission.
C. Decrease cholinergic activity.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

10. Depression
A. Depression is a common mood disorder

B. Inability to enjoy activities that before the illness produced pleasure.

C. Low self-esteem, discouragement, sadness, misery.

D. Difficulties with memory processes, lost attention

 E. All of the above

F. None of the above

60. THE MUSCARINIC EFFECTS ARE:

to. bradycardia, increased peristalsis, bronchoconstriction, salivation, miosis

b. tachycardia, peristalsis decreases, bronchodilation, xerostomia, mydriasis.

c. respiratory depression, suppresses pharyngeal reflex, decreases uterine contractions

d. muscle weakness, flaccid paralysis, accentuates postoperative paralytic ileus.

61. ANTICHOLINERGIC EFFECTS ARE:

to. bradycardia, increased peristalsis, bronchoconstriction, salivation, miosis

b. tachycardia, peristalsis decreases, bronchodilation, xerostomia, mydriasis.

c. respiratory depression, suppresses pharyngeal reflex, decreases uterine contractions

d. muscle weakness, flaccid paralysis, accentuates postoperative paralytic ileus.

62. THE ADRENERGIC RESPONSE OF ALPHA RECEPTORS ARE:

to. respiratory depression, suppresses pharyngeal reflex, decreases uterine contractions

b. muscle weakness, flaccid paralysis, accentuates postoperative paralytic ileus.

c. vasoconstriction, arrhythmia, mydriasis, contraction of sphincters, bladder, uterine.

d. vasodilation, tachycardia, bronchodilation, intestinal relaxation, tremors.

63. SIGNS OF BELLADONNA POISONING ARE:

to. severe bradycardia, hypotension, flushing, intestinal colic, dyspnea, miosis.

b. reduces fatigue, insomnia, anxiety, restlessness, tremor, dysphoria.

c. dry, erythematous, hot mouth and skin, psychotic behavior, hypotension, seizures

d. dizziness, vertigo, ataxia, disorientation, amnesia, weakness, blurred vision.

64. THE ADRENERGIC RESPONSE OF BETA RECEPTORS ARE:

to. respiratory depression, suppresses pharyngeal reflex, decreases uterine contractions

b. muscle weakness, flaccid paralysis, accentuates postoperative paralytic ileus.

c. vasoconstriction, arrhythmia, mydriasis, contraction of sphincters, bladder, uterine.

d. vasodilation, tachycardia, bronchodilation, intestinal relaxation, tremors.

65. THE EFFECTS OF GENERAL ANESTHETICS ARE:

to. bradycardia, increased peristalsis, bronchoconstriction, salivation, miosis

b. tachycardia, peristalsis decreases, bronchodilation, xerostomia, mydriasis.

c. respiratory depression, suppresses pharyngeal reflex, decreases uterine contractions

d. muscle weakness, flaccid paralysis, accentuates postoperative paralytic ileus.

66. SIGNS OF INSECTICIDE POISONING ARE:

to. severe bradycardia, hypotension, flushing, intestinal colic, dyspnea, miosis.

b. reduces fatigue, insomnia, anxiety, restlessness, tremor, dysphoria.

c. dry, erythematous, hot mouth and skin, psychotic behavior, hypotension, seizures

d. dizziness, vertigo, ataxia, disorientation, amnesia, weakness, blurred vision.

67. THE EFFECTS OF MUSCLE RELAXANTS ARE:

to. bradycardia, increased peristalsis, bronchoconstriction, salivation, miosis

b. tachycardia, peristalsis decreases, bronchodilation, xerostomia, mydriasis.

c. respiratory depression, suppresses pharyngeal reflex, decreases uterine contractions

d. muscle weakness, flaccid paralysis, accentuates postoperative paralytic ileus.

68. SIGNS OF AMPHETMINE INTOXICATION ARE:

to. severe bradycardia, hypotension, flushing, intestinal colic, dyspnea, miosis.

b. reduces fatigue, insomnia, anxiety, restlessness, tremor, dysphoria.

c. dry, erythematous, hot mouth and skin, psychotic behavior, hypotension, seizures

d. dizziness, vertigo, ataxia, disorientation, amnesia, weakness, blurred vision.

69. SIGNS OF BENZODIAZEPINE INTOXICATION ARE:

to. severe bradycardia, hypotension, flushing, intestinal colic, dyspnea, miosis.

b. reduces fatigue, insomnia, anxiety, restlessness, tremor, dysphoria.

c. dry, erythematous, hot mouth and skin, psychotic behavior, hypotension, seizures

d. dizziness, vertigo, ataxia, disorientation, amnesia, weakness, blurred vision.

70. PILOCARPINE IS USED IN DENTISTRY FOR:

to. xerostomia

b. sialorrhea

c. motion sickness

d. oral angioedema

71. ATROPINE IS USED IN DENTISTRY FOR:

to. xerostomia

b. sialorrhea

c. motion sickness
d. oral angioedema