The Clat Post - May, 2024

TABLE OF CONTENTS
1. Polity and Governance 03 25. India’s Pronouncements at the 19th Session of the
1. Social Media Misuse in Judicial Proceedings ............. 03 UNFF .............................................................................................74
2. Article 244(A) and Autonomy Issue in Assam ......... 06 26. Achieving Net Zero Emissions in the Agrifood
3. Draft Explosives Bill, 2024................................................. 09 System: WB................................................................................77
4. State Budgets and Legislative Actions in India (2023) 27. World Migration Report 2024 ..........................................80
........................................................................................................ 11 28. Asia Hit Hardest by Disasters in 2023: WMO Report
5. Implementation of Guidelines for Eliminating .........................................................................................................83
Corporal Punishment ........................................................... 13 29. Alok Shukla Wins Goldman Prize for Hasdeo Aranya
6. Article 31C and Its Impact on Fundamental Rights Campaign ....................................................................................87
and Private Property ............................................................ 16 30. Changes in Glacial Lakes in the Indian Himalayan
7. Tamil Nadu Bans 23 ‘Ferocious’ Dog Breeds After River Basins ..............................................................................89
Attack........................................................................................... 19 31. Great Nicobar Island Project .............................................92
8. Kerala Temples Ban Oleander After Woman’s Death 32. Earth Day, 2024 .......................................................................95
........................................................................................................ 22 33. India’s Tree Cover Loss ........................................................97
9. Arvind Kejriwal Released on Interim Bail: The Case
7. How to Prepare for CLAT 2025 in Months?
So Far ........................................................................................... 24
10. India Proposes Digital Competition Bill, 2024 Against 8. Science & Technology 100
Tech Giants................................................................................ 28
34. Hydrocarbons Exploration and Extraction…………100
11. Sixth Schedule Demand of Ladakh ................................. 31
35. Indian Space Situational Assessment Report (ISSAR)
12. Unopposed Election of BJP Candidate in Surat Lok
2023………………………………………………………………...103
Sabha Constituency ............................................................... 33
36. Greater Ice on Moon Critical for
2. Economy & Governance 40 Missions…………………………………………………………...106
37. WEF Report on Earth Observation Data……………..109
13. RBI Guidelines for Asset Reconstruction Companies
38. WHO Releases Progress Report on Neglected
........................................................................................................ 36
Tropical Diseases………………………………………………112
14. UN Secretary-General's Panel on Critical Energy
Transition Minerals............................................................... 40 9. Miscellaneous 115
15. Rising Share of Personal Income Tax and Indirect Tax 39. Dr. Naima Khatoon's Appointment as Vice Chancellor
........................................................................................................ 43 of AMU ...................................................................................... 115
16. Trillions More Need to be Invested if SDGs are to be 40. Advertisers to Submit Self-Declarations Before
Rescued: UN Report .............................................................. 46 Promoting Products in Media: SC Orders……………117
17. Global Trade Update: UNCTAD ........................................ 49 41. Smart Cities Mission Status……………………………….120
18. Regional Economic Outlook for Asia and Pacific 42. WHO’s New Global Malaria Strategy for 2030…….123
Report .......................................................................................... 53 43. WHO Amendments to International Health
Regulations (2005)…………………………………………...125
3. What’s happening in your FamiLE 44. Border Roads Organisation's 65th Raising
Day……………………………………………………………..…...129
4. International Relations 57 45. World Bank Report on Agri-food System……………132
19. Panama Electing Jose Mulino as President ................ 46. Hindu Population Share Dipped 7.82%: PM-EAC..135
........................................................................................................ 57 47. Idashisha Nongrang Appointed Meghalaya’s First
20. Vladimir Putin's Inauguration for Fifth Term........... 60 Woman DGP……………………………………………………..138
21. EU Adopts First Law Against Violence Towards 48. Indian Literary Works in UNESCO’s Memory of the
Women ........................................................................................ 62 World Register………………………………………………….142
22. UN General Assembly Supports Palestinian UN
10. LE Online Comping Batches
Membership Bid ..................................................................... 65
23. India and Iran Sign Long-Term Bilateral Contract on 11. Important One Liners ....................................................... 144
Chabahar Port Operation ................................................... 68
12. LE Online Comping Batches
5. The Great Indian CLAT Show
13. CLAT POST Mock Test ...................................................... 185
6. Biodiversity and Environment 71
1. Question Paper ..................................................................... 185
24. Marine Heatwaves and Coral Bleaching in the
Lakshadweep Sea ................................................................... 71 2. Answer Key and Explanation ......................................... 213
2
Polity & Governance
Social Media Misuse in Judicial Proceedings
Why in news?
The Supreme Court of India has expressed significant concerns over the misuse of social media platforms in relation to
ongoing judicial cases. This issue has arisen due to instances where individuals spread false information about pending
court matters.
Key Features of Social Media Misuse in Judicial Proceedings
Misinformation on Social Media Specific Case Highlighted

The Supreme Court A notable incident involved
pointed out the "profuse a litigant who falsely
misuse" of social media to claimed on Facebook that
disseminate falsehoods the Supreme Court had
related to judicial ruled in his favor when, in
proceedings, which can be fact, the verdict was still
misleading and can affect pending. This led to the
the integrity of the judicial initiation of contempt
process. proceedings against the
individual.
Actions Taken by the Supreme Court
Contempt Proceedings Judicial Concerns

In response to the misuse of Justices Aniruddha Bose
social media, the Supreme and Bela M Trivedi
Court has begun contempt emphasized the need for
proceedings against serious consideration of
individuals who spread this issue, noting that such
misleading information about false claims constitute
court cases. This includes the interference in judicial
mentioned Facebook user and proceedings and should
an Assam MLA who also not be tolerated.
posted misleading content.
How is Social Media Regulated in India?

Key Legislative Frameworks:
Information Technology Act, 2000 (IT Act):
This act is the cornerstone for all electronic governance and regulations pertaining to electronic communications,
including those on social media. It lays down the legal structure for electronic transactions and data handling.
Section 69A grants the government authority to block public access to information online under specific
circumstances. These include matters concerning the sovereignty and integrity of India, the defense of the country,
state security, maintaining friendly relations with foreign states, maintaining public order, and preventing
LEGALEDGE 7676564400 support@toprankers.com www.toprankers.com 3

incitement to any recognizable crime.
Section 79(1) offers a safe harbor to intermediaries, provided they do not initiate the transmission, select the
receiver of the transmission, or select or modify the information contained in the transmission. This exemption is
contingent upon the intermediaries not playing an active role in the creation or curation of the content transmitted
through their platforms.
Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code, 2021
The IT Rules of 2021 impose a higher level of due diligence on social media platforms. They are required to
proactively remove content that is deemed inappropriate or harmful and ensure that users are aware of the privacy
policies and the legal consequences of posting copyrighted or defamatory content.
The 2023 Amendment further tightens these regulations by mandating platforms to counter the dissemination of
misinformation about the government, as identified by authorized fact-checking units. Platforms failing to comply
risk losing their immunity against liabilities for third-party information.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which section of the Information Technology Act grants (a) Noam Chomsky (b) Marshall McLuhan
the Central and State governments the power to (c) Michel Foucault (d) Pierre Bourdieu
intercept, monitor, or decrypt information in computer
resources? 4. Under Section 79(1) of the IT Act, 2000, which of the
(a) Section 66 (b) Section 67 following conditions would qualify an intermediary for
(c) Section 69 (d) Section 65 liability exemption?
(a) Initiating the transmission of data
2. Which two justices emphasized the need to address (b) Modifying the content of data
misleading claims on social media due to their (c) Providing access to a communication system
interference in judicial proceedings? (d) Selecting the recipient of data
(a) Justices Aniruddha Bose and Bela M Trivedi
(b) Justices N V Ramana and Indu Malhotra 5. In which case did the Supreme Court of India strike
(c) Justices D Y Chandrachud and Hima Kohli down Section 66A due to concerns over freedom of
(d) Justices S A Bobde and R F Nariman speech?
(a) Indra Sawhney vs Union of India
3. Who introduced the concept of the "global village" and (b) Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala
highlighted concerns about the media's influence on (c) Shreya Singhal vs Union of India
society? (d) T N Godavarman vs Union of India
ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (c) Section 69 Explanation: Justices Aniruddha Bose and Bela M Trivedi
Explanation: Section 69 of the Information Technology Act stressed that spreading false claims on social media could
confers the power on the Central and State governments to significantly interfere with judicial proceedings and should
issue directions to intercept, monitor, or decrypt any be taken seriously. They have emphasized that such actions
information generated, transmitted, received, or stored in are not to be tolerated.
computer resources. This can be done in the interest of
India's sovereignty, security, defense, public order, and 3 Correct Answer: (b) Marshall McLuhan
other specified reasons. Explanation: Marshall McLuhan is recognized for
introducing the concept of the "global village," which
2. Correct Answer: (a) Justices Aniruddha Bose and Bela M reflects the pervasive influence of media on society. He
Trivedi raised concerns about the homogenization of culture and

the potential decline of critical thinking due to this media 5. Correct Answer: (c) Shreya Singhal vs Union of India
influence. Explanation: In the Shreya Singhal vs Union of India case,
the Supreme Court struck down Section 66A of the
4. Correct Answer: (c) Providing access to a communication Information Technology Act due to concerns about
system freedom of speech. The court found the section too broad
Explanation: According to Section 79(1) of the IT Act, 2000, and vague, thus violating the fundamental right to free
intermediaries can claim exemption from liability if their expression.
role is limited to providing access to a communication
system. They should not initiate the transmission, select the
recipient, or modify the content.

Article 244(A) and Autonomy Issue in Assam
Why in news?
The issue of implementing Article 244(A) has been prominently featured in the recent electoral campaigns for the Diphu
Lok Sabha constituency in Assam, specifically during the elections held on April 26, 2024. This Article has been a focal point
in political promises, with various candidates endorsing its potential implementation to grant enhanced autonomy to tribal
areas.
Diphu Constituency Profile Administrative Setup

The area operates under the
8.9 Lakhs
registered voters
Smallest Constituency in
VI Schedule Managed by two
Assam in terms of voter
autonomous councils:
population
Karbi Anglong
Autonomous Council
North Cachar Hills

Autonomous Council
Geographical Span Community Diversity

Covers an extensive area
comprising The constituency is characterized by a diverse array of ethnic
groups, including
6 Assembly
segments
that span
Karbi Zeme Naga
across Dimasa Bodo
3 Districts
Karbi Anglong
West Karbi
Anglong
Hmar
Kuki
Garo
Assamese
Dima Hasao
-known for their significant Rengma Naga Gorkha
tribal populations

About Article 244(A)
Enactment: The provision of Article 244(A) was integrated into the Indian Constitution through the 22nd
Amendment in 1969, signifying a specific focus on the autonomy of tribal areas in Assam.
Autonomy Features: This Article uniquely allows for the creation of an 'autonomous state' within Assam, equipped
with its own legislature and council of ministers, thereby providing a framework for self-governance.
Control Over Governance: The autonomy envisaged by Article 244(A) extends significant powers to the
autonomous state, especially in managing law and order, judiciary, and financial resources, offering more extensive
governance capabilities than those available under the current Sixth Schedule provisions.
History of the Autonomy Demand
Origins of the Demand: The aspiration for autonomy emerged in the 1950s, driven by movements advocating for a
distinct state for the hill regions of Assam. This demand was partly addressed by the creation of Meghalaya in 1972.
Political Movements: The Autonomous State Demand Committee (ASDC), established to lead this movement, has
been a key player in advocating for constitutional recognition and the subsequent implementation of Article 244(A).
The ASDC played a crucial role in the 1995 Memorandum of Settlement, which aimed to expand the powers of the
autonomous councils.
Link to Insurgency: The unresolved issues surrounding autonomy have occasionally led to insurgency,
necessitating multiple peace accords with various insurgent groups, aiming to integrate these factions into the
political mainstream while promising steps toward greater autonomy.
Recent Peace Initiatives: Notable peace agreements in 2021 with five Karbi militant groups and in 2023 with the
Dimasa National Liberation Army have sought to address autonomy demands by promising enhanced powers and
development packages.
Electoral Context: Despite the historical peace accords and ongoing political dialogues, the complete
implementation of Article 244(A) continues to be a pivotal issue in regional politics, prominently featured in
electoral promises during the 2024 elections.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. How many Assembly segments does the Diphu Lok Cachar Hills Autonomous Council
Sabha constituency cover across its three tribal-majority
hill districts? 4. In which year did Meghalaya achieve statehood
(a) Four (b) Six following the movement for a separate hill state in
(c) Eight (d) Ten undivided Assam?
(a) 1965
2. Which of the following states is not covered under the (b) 1970
Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution for the (c) 1972
administration of tribal areas? (d) 1975
(a) Assam (b) Tripura
(c) Nagaland (d) Meghalaya 5. Which article of the Indian Constitution was referenced
by the Karbi Anglong region's leaders to remain with
3. Which two autonomous councils govern the three tribal- Assam instead of seeking a separate state?
majority hill districts within the Diphu Lok Sabha (a) Article 244(A)
constituency? (b) Article 371(A)
(a) Bodoland Territorial Council and Dima Hasao (c) Article 370
Council (d) Article 123
(b) North Cachar Hills Council and Bodoland Council
(c) Karbi Anglong Council and Assam Hill Council
(d) Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council and North

1. Correct Answer: (b) Six councils – the Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council
Explanation: The Diphu constituency covers six (KAAC) and the North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council.
Assembly segments across its three hill districts: Karbi The constituency is home to diverse communities,
Anglong, West Karbi Anglong, and Dima Hasao. including Karbi, Dimasa, Hmar, Kuki, Rengma Naga,
Zeme Naga, Bodo, Garo, Assamese, and Gorkha, among
2. Correct Answer: (c) Nagaland others.
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule of the Indian
Constitution contains provisions for the administration 4. Correct Answer: (c) 1972
of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Explanation: The movement for a separate hill state in the
Mizoram. Nagaland is not included under the Sixth hill regions of undivided Assam resulted in Meghalaya
Schedule. Instead, it has special constitutional becoming a full-fledged state in 1972.
provisions under Article 371(A).
5. Correct Answer: (a) Article 244(A)
3. Correct Answer: (d) Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council Explanation: Article 244(A) of the Indian Constitution
and North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council promises the formation of an autonomous state within
Explanation: Karbi Anglong, West Karbi Anglong and Dima Assam. The leaders of the Karbi Anglong region chose to
Hasao, these districts are governed under the Sixth stay with Assam rather than push for a separate state based
Schedule of the Constitution and fall under two autonomous on this assurance.

Draft Explosives Bill, 2024
Why in news?
The Indian government is actively working towards introducing the Draft Explosives Bill, 2024, with the aim of
updating and replacing the archaic Explosives Act of 1884.
This legislative update is notable for its proposal to significantly increase the penalties for regulatory violations and to
streamline the licensing procedures related to explosives management.
Key Features of the Draft Explosives Bill, 2024
Designation of Authority: The proposed bill empowers the Union government with the authority to designate specific
officials or bodies responsible for the granting, suspension, or revocation of licenses in the explosives sector.
Role of Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO): PESO is identified as the key regulatory body under
the current framework, which functions under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
This organization is tasked with ensuring compliance with safety regulations and issuing necessary licenses for
handling explosives.
Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO)
PESO has been recognized as an institution of excellence for its persistent

efforts in ensuring safety in the handling, manufacturing, storage, and
transportation of hazardous substances.
It has been instrumental in examining and disposing of explosives and
improvised explosive devices, particularly during critical periods such as
the freedom struggle and various terrorist activities in India.
In the past, particularly until the early nineties, PESO officers also
performed anti-sabotage checks and were involved in duties related to
VVIP security and airport security.
Enhanced Fines and Penalties

Increased Penalties for Violations: The draft bill proposes stringent penalties for non-
compliance with regulations related to the manufacture, import, and export of explosives. A
violator could face imprisonment for up to three years and be fined up to Rs 1,00,000.
Comparison with Previous Act: This represents a substantial increase from the current
penalties stipulated under the Explosives Act, 1884, which set a maximum fine of Rs 50,000
for similar offenses, demonstrating a tougher stance on violations to improve compliance and
safety.
Regulatory Oversight and Compliance

According to the new draft, the licensing authority will have the mandate to explicitly define in
the license itself the maximum quantities of explosives that can be manufactured, possessed,
sold, transported, imported, or exported by a licensee for a specified period.
This measure is aimed at enhancing the control and supervision over explosives, thereby
mitigating the risks associated with their potential misuse and ensuring adherence to
stringent safety protocols.

Historical Background of the Explosives Act, 1884
The Explosives Act was initially enacted during the period of British colonial rule over India and has been foundational
in the regulation of explosives within the country.
Over the years, it has undergone numerous amendments to address emerging safety challenges and incorporate
advancements in technology, thereby maintaining its relevance and effectiveness in regulating explosive substances.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which act is the Government of India planning to (a) Kodavas (b) Gonds
replace with the new Explosives Bill 2024? (c) Bhils (d) Santhals
(a) Indian Arms Act 1959 (b) Explosives Act 1884
(c) Mines Act 1952 (d) Arms Act 1878 4. Which explosive is made by stabilizing nitroglycerin
with an absorbent material like clay?
Under which Ministry does the Petroleum and (a) Ammonium Nitrate (b) Dynamite
2. Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO) operate? (c) RDX (d) TNE
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Environment 5. Which explosive compound is derived from toluene and
(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry is used in military shells and underwater blasting?
(d) Ministry of Defence (a) TNT (b) TNE
(c) RDX (d) Ammonium Nitrate
3. Which tribal community in the Kodagu (Coorg) district is
one of the few in India allowed to possess a gun without a
license?

1. Correct Answer: (b) Explosives Act 1884 4. Correct Answer: (b) Dynamite
Explanation: The Government of India aims to replace the Explanation: Dynamite is an explosive that combines
Explosives Act 1884 with the new Explosives Bill 2024 to nitroglycerin with an absorbent material, such as clay, to
increase fines for regulatory violations and improve stabilize nitroglycerin, making it safer to handle and
licensing efficiency. transport.
2. Correct Answer: (c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry 5. Correct Answer: (a) TNT
Explanation: PESO operates under the Department for Explanation: 2,4,6-Trinitrotoluene is a yellow, odorless
Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), which solid that does not occur naturally in the environment. It
is a part of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. is commonly known as TNT and is an explosive used in
military shells, bombs, and grenades, in industrial uses,
3. Correct Answer: (a) Kodavas and in underwater blasting.
Explanation: The Kodavas, a martial community from the
Kodagu (Coorg) district, are one of the few tribes in India
allowed to possess a gun without a license. They have been
exempted from the Indian Arms Act since 1834.

State Budgets and Legislative Actions in India (2023)
Why in news?
A significant portion of the state budgets in India was passed without adequate legislative discussion in 2023, raising
concerns about transparency and governance in financial matters.
The observations from PRS Legislative Research's Annual Review of State Laws 2023 shed light on the legislative
practices of state governments, which include the rapid approval of budgets and bills with minimal debate.
Key Features of the Draft Explosives Bill, 2024
Budget Approval Without Discussion: Approximately 40% of the ₹18.5 lakh crore budget presented by 10 states was
passed without any discussion, highlighting a systemic lack of detailed legislative scrutiny and debate.
High Instances of Non-discussion: Specific instances include Madhya Pradesh, where 85% of its ₹3.14 lakh crore
budget was approved without discussion. Kerala followed with 78%, Jharkhand at 75%, and West Bengal at 74%,
showcasing a trend of bypassing detailed budget discussions.
Public Accounts Committee (PAC) Performance
Role and Function: The PAC, typically chaired by the Leader of the Opposition or a senior opposition member, is
tasked with scrutinizing the accounts of state governments and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General.
Inactivity in Some States: In 2023, no PAC reports were
tabled in five states: Bihar, Delhi, Goa, Maharashtra, and
States with no PAC Odisha. Notably, the PAC in Maharashtra did not meet or
Reports published in release any report throughout the year.
the year 2023. Contrasting Performance: In sharp contrast, the PAC in
Tamil Nadu tabled 95 reports, and in Himachal Pradesh,
Delhi 75 reports were tabled. Both Uttar Pradesh and Bihar had
Bihar over 50 sittings of the PAC, though, in Bihar, no reports
were tabled.
Bill Passing in State Legislatures
Rapid Approval of Bills: In 2023, about 44% of bills were
passed either on the same day they were introduced or
the next day, indicating a rush in legislative procedures
Odisha with minimal debate or scrutiny.
Maharashtra
State-Specific Trends: In Gujarat, Jharkhand, Mizoram,
Goa
Puducherry, and Punjab, all bills were passed on the day of
introduction or the following day. Conversely, Kerala and
Meghalaya took more than five days to pass over 90% of
their bills, reflecting a more deliberate and thorough
legislative process. Rajasthan passed about 55% of its bills
after more than five days of deliberation.
Use of Ordinances
Governor's Role: The Governor has the authority to promulgate ordinances—temporary laws—when the state
legislative assembly is not in session, to address urgent issues that cannot wait for the assembly to convene.
Ordinance Statistics: In 2023, 84 ordinances were promulgated across 20 states covering a wide range of subjects,
including the establishment of new universities in Uttar Pradesh, regulations on public examinations in Uttarakhand,
and rules concerning apartment ownership in Maharashtra. Uttar Pradesh led with 20 ordinances, followed by Andhra
Pradesh with 11, and Maharashtra with 9.
About PRS Legislative Research
PRS Legislative Research is an Indian non-profit organization established in September 2005.
It aims to enhance the legislative process by making it better informed, transparent, and participatory.

Based in New Delhi, PRS provides comprehensive research support to Indian legislators and stakeholders.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In which year was PRS Legislative Research established? (c) Five (d) Six
(a) 2001 (b) 2003
(c) 2005 (d) 2007 4. Which commission emphasized the importance of timely
decisions on bills in its recommendations on Centre-
2. Which state led in tabling the most reports by the Public State Relations?
Accounts Committee (PAC) in 2023? (a) Punchhi (b) Malimath
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Maharashtra (c) Sarkaria (d) Nanavati
(c) Bihar (d) Delhi
5. Which state was the first to establish a Lokayukta?
3. How many states did not table any reports by the PAC in (a) Kerala (b) Gujarat
2023? (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharashtra
(a) Three (b) Four

1. Correct Answer: (c) 2005 report tabling activities in these states within the
Explanation: PRS Legislative Research was established in specified year, showcasing a disparity in the function and
September 2005. The organization was created to effectiveness of PACs across different states.
enhance the legislative process in India by providing
independent and in-depth research, aiming to make it 4. Correct Answer: (c) Sarkaria
more informed, transparent, and participatory. Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission, established in
1988 to review Centre-State relations, specifically
2. Correct Answer: (a) Tamil Nadu emphasized the importance of timely decisions on bills.
Explanation: In 2023, Tamil Nadu stood out by tabling 95 This commission's recommendations included the
reports by the Public Accounts Committee, significantly suggestion to establish a legislative framework that would
more than any other state mentioned. This high number outline a time limit for the Governor's assent to bills,
contrasts sharply with other states, some of which did not ensuring expedited decision-making.
table any reports, highlighting Tamil Nadu's proactive
approach in maintaining legislative accountability. 5. Correct Answer: (d) Maharashtra
Explanation: Maharashtra was the pioneer in establishing
3. Correct Answer: (c) Five a Lokayukta, having set up its body in 1971. This early
Explanation: In 2023, five states (Bihar, Delhi, Goa, adoption of the Lokayukta system marked a significant
Maharashtra, and Odisha) did not table any reports by the step towards institutionalizing efforts to combat
Public Accounts Committee. This fact points to a lack of corruption within the state's governance structures.

Implementation of Guidelines for Eliminating Corporal Punishment
Why in news?
The Madras High Court, under the directive of Justice S M Subramaniam, ordered the Tamil Nadu government to enact the
Guidelines for Elimination of Corporal Punishment in Schools (GECP). This judicial action came about due to a legal petition
filed by an individual named Kamatchi Shanker Arumugam.
About Corporal Punishment
Definition and Impact: Corporal punishment refers to physical and mental abuse inflicted by educational authorities on
students. Historically prevalent in Indian schools, this form of punishment has significant adverse effects on the physical
and psychological health of children.
The Directing Authority
National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR): This commission is a key statutory organization,
established under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005. Its primary focus is on eliminating
harmful practices such as corporal punishment in educational environments.
Key Directives Issued by the Court
Communication and Sensitization

The Madras High Court mandated that the GECP guidelines be widely
distributed across all educational institutions and to District
Educational Authorities throughout Tamil Nadu. Additionally, these
authorities are instructed to increase awareness and understanding of
these guidelines among school leaders.
Awareness and Compliance

The court's directives also include organizing seminars and awareness
camps to educate about the NCPCR guidelines. This is aimed at
ensuring strict adherence to these guidelines to protect students'
mental health.
Accountability and Enforcement

The judgement specifies that in cases of complaints regarding non-
compliance, the responsible authorities must take prompt action. Any
failure, negligence, or oversight in enforcing these guidelines is subject
to strict departmental disciplinary proceedings under the respective
Service Rules.
Scope and Significance of the Guidelines

Beyond Physical Punishment: The guidelines explicitly cover not just physical abuse but also any indirect harassment
or situations that could detrimentally affect a child's mental health. This broad scope is intended to ensure comprehen-

-sive protection for students.
Creating a Safe Environment: By implementing these guidelines, the court aims to foster a safe and supportive
educational environment in Tamil Nadu, free from physical and psychological harm, thus ensuring the well-being of all
students.
About NCPCR
Formation and Function: The NCPCR was set up under the CPCR Act of 2005 and falls under the administration of the
Ministry of Women and Child Development. It plays a crucial role in advocating for child rights and ensuring that
governmental policies and actions consider the best interests of children.
Roles and Responsibilities: Among its various functions, the NCPCR monitors the implementation of key legislations
such as the Right to Education Act, 2009, and the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012.
Composition: The body is composed of a chairperson and six members, who are appointed by the Central
Government, reflecting a structured approach to governance and oversight.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which section of the Indian Penal Code provides (c) Section 325 (d) Section 302
safeguards for acts not intended to cause death,
performed in good faith for a person's benefit? 4. In which case did the State High Court hold that "whenever
(a) Section 89 (b) Section 88 a ward is sent to school, the parents must have given an
(c) Section 90 (d) Section 91 implied consent on their ward being subjected to
punishment and discipline"?
2. Which body's guidelines are incorporated into the GECP (a) Ambika S. Nagal Vs State of Himachal Pradesh
for eliminating corporal punishment in schools? (b) Rajesh Sharma Vs State of Uttar Pradesh
(a) UNESCO (b) WHO (c) Meera Dhawan Vs State of Karnataka
(c) UNICEF (d) NCPCR (d) Anil Kumar Vs State of Bihar
3. Which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 5. What does Section 89 of the Indian Penal Code protect?
1860 does not specifically relate to causing harm? (a) Adults (b) Property
(a) Section 305 (b) Section 323 (c) Children (d) Animals

1. Correct Answer: (b) Section 88 ensure the mental and physical safety of students,
Explanation: Section 88 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, integrating key aspects of child rights into school
provides safeguards for acts that are not intended to environments.
cause death and are done by consent in good faith for a
person's benefit. This legal provision can be cited as a 3. Correct Answer: (d) Section 302
defense in cases where the actions were intended for the Explanation: Sections 305, 323, and 325 of the Indian
benefit of the person affected, under the presumption of Penal Code, 1860, deal with harming another person, with
good faith and consent. Section 305 pertaining to the abetment of suicide
committed by a child, Section 323 pertaining to
2. Correct Answer: (d) NCPCR voluntarily causing hurt, and Section 325 concerning
Explanation: The GECP includes and emphasizes voluntarily causing grievous hurt. However, Section 302,
guidelines from the National Commission for Protection which is not listed in the options provided for harm-
of Child Rights (NCPCR). These guidelines are aimed at related sections in the question's context, actually
familiarizing stakeholders with the necessary steps to pertains to the punishment for murder, thus not

specifically aligning with the less severe harm and varying interpretations surrounding the issue of
descriptions in the other sections mentioned. discipline in educational settings.
4. Correct Answer: (a) Ambika S. Nagal Vs State of Himachal 5. Correct Answer: (c) Children
Pradesh Explanation: Section 89 of the Indian Penal Code protects
Explanation: In the case of Ambika S. Nagal Vs State of actions done in good faith for the benefit of a child or an
Himachal Pradesh, 2020, the State High Court made a insane person, with the consent of their guardian. This
controversial ruling stating that when a child is sent to section is designed to offer legal protection for actions
school, it is implied that parents consent to their child undertaken by individuals such as teachers or caregivers,
being subjected to punishment and discipline. This as long as these actions are performed in good faith with
statement from the court underscores the complexities the intent of benefiting the child.

Article 31C and Its Impact on Fundamental Rights and Private
Property
Why in news?
The Supreme Court is examining the continued existence and interpretation of Article 31C in relation to fundamental
rights and private property.
Case in Focus: Challenge to Chapter VIII-A of the Maharashtra Housing and Area Development Act, 1976 (MHADA).
Article 31C
Key Features
Protection for Directive Principles: Article
31C protects laws enacted to ensure the
distribution of material resources to serve the
common good (Article 39(b)) and prevent the
concentration of wealth to the common
detriment (Article 39(c)).
Supremacy over Fundamental Rights: It

ensures that laws implementing these principles
cannot be challenged on the grounds of violating
the right to equality (Article 14) or freedom of
speech (Article 19).
Introduction of Article 31C
Amendment Act: Introduced by the Constitution (Twenty-fifth) Amendment Act, 1971.
Context: Response to the Supreme Court's decision in the Bank Nationalisation Case
(Rustom Cavasjee Cooper vs Union Of India, 1970), where the court struck down the
Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1969, due to
inadequate compensation principles.
Original Text: Article 31C initially stated that no law giving effect to the policy of the
State towards securing the principles specified in Article 39(b) or 39(c) would be void for
being inconsistent with fundamental rights under Articles 14, 19, or 31.

The Ongoing Case in the Supreme Court
Case Background: The challenge to Chapter VIII-A
The Journey of Article 31C of the MHADA, which allows the government to
acquire "cessed" properties in Mumbai at the
request of occupants.
Kesavananda Bharati Case Issue at Hand: Whether "material resources of the
1 community" under Article 39(b) includes private
(1973)
resources like cessed properties.
Legal Journey:
The Supreme Court held that The Bombay High Court upheld the amendment
the Constitution has a "basic in 1991, citing Article 31C.
structure" that cannot be The decision was appealed to the Supreme
altered even by a constitutional
amendment. Court, raising questions about the interpretation
Struck down part of Article 31C, of Article 39(b) and the status of Article 31C.
allowing courts to examine laws
for compliance with the Arguments in the Supreme Court
principles in Articles 39(b) and Petitioners:
39(c).
Argued by Senior Advocate Zal Andhyarujina
that the expanded version of Article 31C
replaced the original, and once the expanded
version was struck down, the original did not
Forty-second Amendment automatically revive.
2
(1976) Centre:
Argued by Solicitor General Tushar Mehta that
the doctrine of revival applies, restoring the
Expanded Article 31C's
protection to all Directive post-Kesavananda Bharati version of Article
Principles (Articles 36-51). 31C.
Aimed to prioritize socio- Relied on Justice Kurian Joseph’s observations in
economic reforms over certain a case where the old collegium system for judge
fundamental rights. appointments was revived after striking down a
constitutional amendment.
Minerva Mills Case (1980) 3
The Supreme Court struck down

the expanded protection under
Article 31C.
Limited Parliament's power to
amend the Constitution and
asserted that the older version
of Article 31C should be revived
post-Kesavananda Bharati.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which Supreme Court case ruled that laws under the means of production?
Ninth Schedule could be scrutinized if they violated (a) Article 38C (b) Article 39B
Fundamental Rights or the basic structure of the (c) Article 39C (d) Article 40C
Constitution?
(a) I.R. Coelho case (b) Kesavananda Bharati 4. In which year did the Supreme Court strike down the
(c) Golaknath case (d) Minerva Mills expanded protection under Article 31C in the Minerva
Mills case?
2. Which amendment abolished the right to property as a (a) 1975 (b) 1980
fundamental right in India? (c) 1985 (d) 1990
(a) 44th Amendment (b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 25th Amendment (d) 1st Amendment 5. In which year was Article 31C introduced into the
Indian Constitution?
3. Which directive principle is directly associated with (a) 1965 (b) 1971
Article 31C to prevent the concentration of wealth and (c) 1975 (d) 1980

1. Correct Answer: (a) I.R. Coelho case principle, allowing the government to implement policies
Explanation: The Supreme Court's judgment in the I.R. that aim to distribute wealth more equitably without the
Coelho case in 2007 marked a significant development in threat of being struck down in court for violating
Indian constitutional law. It held that while Article 31B of fundamental rights.
the Constitution provides immunity to the laws included
in the Ninth Schedule from being challenged on the 4. Correct Answer: (b) 1980
grounds of contravening fundamental rights, this Explanation: In 1980, the Supreme Court of India made a
immunity would not apply if such laws violated the landmark decision in the Minerva Mills case where it
Fundamental Rights or the basic structure of the struck down the expanded protection provided under
Constitution. This ruling ensured that the protection Article 31C. This ruling limited Parliament's power to
granted under Article 31B could not be used to amend the Constitution and asserted that the older
undermine the core principles of the Constitution. version of Article 31C should be revived, following the
principles set in the Kesavananda Bharati case. This case
2. Correct Answer: (a) 44th Amendment is significant as it reinforced the concept of the basic
Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished structure of the Constitution, which cannot be altered by
the right to property as a fundamental right, transforming any constitutional amendment.
it into a legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the
Indian Constitution. This amendment was significant as it 5. Correct Answer: (b) 1971
addressed the contentious issues surrounding property Explanation: Article 31C was introduced by the
rights, aiming to balance individual property rights with Constitution (25th) Amendment Act in 1971. This
the state's ability to enact laws for the public good. amendment aimed to provide additional protections to
laws aimed at implementing certain directive principles of
3. Correct Answer: (c) Article 39C state policy, particularly those involving the distribution
Explanation: Article 39C is associated with Article 31C of of material resources and the prevention of concentration
the Indian Constitution and focuses on ensuring that the of wealth, even if these laws infringed upon fundamental
wealth and means of production are not concentrated to rights specified in the Constitution. This was part of
the detriment of the common good. Article 31C provides broader efforts to strengthen social welfare objectives
protection for any law passed under this directive within the legal framework of India.

Tamil Nadu Bans 23 ‘Ferocious’ Dog Breeds After Attack
Why in news?
Recent Prohibition: On May 10, 2024, the Tamil Nadu Animal Husbandry Department announced a ban on 23 dog
breeds classified as ‘ferocious’. This move was primarily influenced by a severe incident involving a child and
Rottweilers in Chennai.
Significant Incident: A critical attack by Rottweilers on a young child in Chennai catalyzed the implementation of
this ban.
Rottweiler Tosa Inu Pitbull Terrier
Fila Brasileiro Japanese Akita

Five of the 23 Dog Breeds banned
Incident Leading to the Ban
Location: The attack occurred in a park situated in the Thousand Lights area of Chennai.
Victim Details: The victim was a five-year-old girl, the daughter of a security guard working in the vicinity.
Attack Details: While playing in the park, the girl was suddenly attacked by two Rottweiler dogs, resulting in severe
injuries.
Rescue Operation: Witnesses and passers-by managed to intervene and rescue the child from the aggressive dogs.
Legal Action: The incident led to the arrest of three individuals, including the owner of the dogs. The arrests were
made following a complaint regarding the owner's negligence in controlling the dogs.
National Call for the Ban on Ferocious Dogs
Central Government Directive: In March 2024, the central government issued a directive to all state chief
secretaries to halt the import and sale of 23 breeds of ferocious dogs.
Details of the Directive: The directive highlighted the need for stringent regulations on dangerous dog breeds. It
also emphasized the importance of proper handling, including the use of leashes and securing necessary licenses
from local authorities.

More About Bans on Ferocious Dog Breeds
Global Practices: Several countries and regions have implemented bans or restrictions on specific dog breeds
considered dangerous or ferocious. Commonly regulated breeds include Pit Bulls, Rottweilers, and Dobermans.
Objective of Bans: These laws aim to reduce the frequency of dog attacks and enhance public safety by restricting
the ownership of breeds known for their aggressive tendencies.
Criticism: Critics argue that breed-specific bans are ineffective and unjustly stigmatize certain breeds. They
advocate for measures focused on responsible ownership and behavior-based assessments to prevent dog attacks.
Debate: The effectiveness and ethical implications of breed-specific bans remain contentious topics, with ongoing
debates among experts, policymakers, and the public.
Rottweiler: About
Origin and Purpose: Rottweilers are a breed of
domestic dogs originally bred in Germany. They were
used to drive cattle and pull carts for butchers.
Characteristics: Known for their strength,
intelligence, and loyalty, Rottweilers can exhibit
aggressive behavior if not properly trained and
handled.
Risks and Safety Concerns: Due to their powerful
bite and physical strength, Rottweiler attacks can
result in serious injuries or fatalities. Proper training
and handling are crucial to managing their behavior
and ensuring public safety.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. How many dog breeds were recently prohibited by the 4. In which landmark case did the Supreme Court of India
Tamil Nadu Animal Husbandry Department for being rule that every species has a legal right to life and safety,
deemed 'ferocious'? extending the interpretation of Article 21 of the
(a) 10 (b) 15 Constitution to include animal life?
(c) 20 (d) 23 (a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
2. What is the country of origin for the Rottweiler breed? (c) Animal Welfare Board of India v. Nagaraja and Others
(a) United States (b) Germany (d) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(c) France (d) Australia
5. In which city did the incident occur that led to the
3. Which section of the IPC deals with the punishment for acts regulatory ban on certain dog breeds?
of cruelty such as killing, poisoning, or maiming animals? (a) Mumbai (b) Delhi
(a) Section 121 (b) Section 428 (c) Chennai (d) Kolkata
(c) Section 300 (d) Section 377

1. Correct Answer: (d) 23 and ensure that those who commit such acts are
Explanation: The Tamil Nadu Animal Husbandry penalized under criminal law.
Department recently implemented a prohibition on 23
dog breeds, classifying them as 'ferocious'. This list 4. Correct Answer: (c) Animal Welfare Board of India v.
includes well-known breeds such as the Rottweiler, Nagaraja and Others
Pitbull Terrier, and Tosa Inu, among others. This decision Explanation: In the case of Animal Welfare Board of India
was made as part of efforts to ensure public safety and v. Nagaraja and Others, the Supreme Court of India held
manage the risks associated with these breeds. that every species has a legal right to life and safety, thus
extending the scope of Article 21 of the Constitution to
2. Correct Answer: (b) Germany include animal life. This decision emphasized that the
Explanation: Rottweilers are originally bred in Germany. word "life" in Article 21 encompasses the well-being of
They are known for their strength, loyalty, and guardian animals, affirming their intrinsic value and the duty of
instincts. Historically, they were used for herding humans to ensure their welfare.
livestock and pulling carts for butchers, which
contributed to their development as robust and reliable 5. Correct Answer: (c) Chennai
working dogs. Their characteristics and origins make Explanation: The incident that prompted the regulatory
them distinctive and highly recognizable. ban on certain 'ferocious' dog breeds occurred in Chennai,
specifically in the Thousand Lights region. This
3. Correct Answer: (b) Section 428 unfortunate event involved two Rottweiler dogs attacking
Explanation: Section 428 of the Indian Penal Code a five-year-old girl, causing her serious injuries while she
specifically provides for the punishment of acts of cruelty was playing. The severity of this incident led to the Tamil
such as killing, poisoning, maiming, or rendering animals Nadu Animal Husbandry Department's decision to
useless. This section aims to protect animals from harm prohibit these breeds to enhance public safety.

Kerala Temples Ban Oleander After Woman’s Death
Why in news?
Incident: The death of a 24-year-old woman, Surya Surendran,
after accidentally consuming oleander leaves led to immediate
action by temple authorities.
Action Taken: The Travancore Devaswom Board and the
Malabar Devaswom Board, two major religious temple boards in
Kerala, have banned the use of oleander flowers in temple
offerings and prasad. The ban was announced on May 10, 2024.
The Incident
Victim Details: Surya Surendran, a 24-year-old woman,
accidentally chewed oleander leaves.
Symptoms and Death: This led to severe poisoning and her
subsequent death.
Oleander in Traditional Medicine and Its Dual Nature

Ayurvedic Use: According to the Ayurvedic Pharmacopoeia of Oleander Plant & Its Risk
India, parts of the oleander plant have been used to treat various
skin conditions and other ailments. Scientific Nerium oleander
Historical Application: Historical texts describe its use in Name:
treating stubborn skin diseases.
Medical Caution: Experts caution against its use due to the Toxicity: The plant is highly
narrow therapeutic window and high toxicity. toxic, with all
parts containing
Safety Measures Following Oleander Poisoning potent cardiac
Immediate Response: It is advised to rinse the mouth to remove glycosides.
any plant residue and to drink ample fluids to aid detoxification.
Medical Attention: Hospital admission is often necessary to Symptoms of Ingestion,
Poisoning: inhalation of
manage symptoms, which can persist for several days.
smoke from
Outcome: Timely medical intervention generally leads to burning oleander,
recovery, although severe cases can be fatal. or skin contact
can cause
symptoms such as
Ayurvedic Pharmacopoeia of India: About nausea, vomiting,
Overview: The Ayurvedic Pharmacopoeia of India (API) is an abdominal pain,
official document issued by the Government of India outlining diarrhea, irregular
standards for Ayurvedic drugs and substances. heart rate, and can
Purpose: It specifies the quality, purity, and strength of ingredients be fatal in severe
used in Ayurvedic medicine, ensuring safety and efficacy. cases.
Usage: The API serves as a benchmark for Ayurvedic practitioners,
Common Use: Despite its
researchers, and manufacturers.
toxicity, oleander
Content: It includes monographs on plants, minerals, and other is widely
substances, detailing botanical information, chemical constituents, cultivated for its
and therapeutic uses. attractive flowers
Significance: The API is crucial for standardizing Ayurvedic and drought
practices and product manufacturing, ensuring that Ayurvedic resistance.
medicines are safe and effective.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following is not a cardiac glycoside? (d) Travancore Devaswom Board and Malabar
(a) Oleandrin (b) Folinerin Devaswom Board
(c) Digitoxigenin (d) Caffeine
4. Which bacterium causes leprosy, also known as Hansen’s
2. Where is the oleander plant, also known as rosebay, disease?
widely cultivated? (a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(a) Arctic regions (b) Deserts only (b) Staphylococcus aureus
(c) Temperate regions (d) Polar regions (c) Mycobacterium leprae
(d) Escherichia coli
3. Which two major religious temple boards in Kerala banned
the use of oleander flowers in temple offerings and prasad? 5. Which official document issued by the Government of
(a) Guruvayoor Devaswom Board and Cochin India outlines standards for Ayurvedic drugs and
Devaswom Board substances?
(b) Pandalam Devaswom Board and Thiruvalla (a) Indian Herbal Codex
Devaswom Board (b) National Medical Journal
(c) Ettumanoor Devaswom Board and Sabarimala (c) Traditional Medicine Blueprint
Devaswom Board (d) Ayurvedic Pharmacopoeia of India

1. 1. Correct Answer: (d) Caffeine 4. Correct Answer: (c) Mycobacterium leprae
Explanation: Caffeine is a stimulant found in coffee, tea, Explanation: Oleander as a Traditional Medicine:
and various other plants, but it is not a cardiac glycoside. Ayurveda prescribes this for treating chronic and
Oleandrin, folinerin, and digitoxigenin are all cardiac obstinate skin diseases, including leprosy. Leprosy, also
glycosides, which are chemicals that can have known as Hansen’s disease, is caused by the bacterium
pharmacological effects on the heart. Mycobacterium leprae. This bacterium primarily affects
the nerves, skin, lining of the nose, and the upper
2. Correct Answer: (c) Temperate regions respiratory tract, leading to the chronic and progressive
Explanation: Oleander, also known as rosebay, is widely symptoms associated with the disease.
2. cultivated in tropical, subtropical, and temperate regions
around the world. These climates provide the suitable 5. Correct Answer: (d) Ayurvedic Pharmacopoeia of India
growing conditions for this versatile and ornamental Explanation: The Ayurvedic Pharmacopoeia of India (API)
plant. is the official document issued by the Government of India
that outlines the standards for Ayurvedic drugs and
3. Correct Answer: (d) Travancore Devaswom Board and substances. It specifies the quality, purity, and strength of
Malabar Devaswom Board ingredients used in Ayurvedic medicine, ensuring that
Explanation: The Travancore Devaswom Board and the they are safe and effective for use. The API serves as a
Malabar Devaswom Board, two of the largest and most critical benchmark for practitioners, researchers, and
influential religious boards in Kerala, were the ones that manufacturers within the field of Ayurvedic medicine.
enacted the ban on oleander flowers following the death
of a woman who accidentally consumed the plant's
leaves. These two boards are responsible for overseeing
numerous temples and their practices within the region,
highlighting their authority and responsibility in ensuring
safety in religious practices.

Arvind Kejriwal Released on Interim Bail: The Case So Far
Why in news?
Arrest Date: March 21, 2024
Entity Involved: Enforcement Directorate (ED)
Context: Arvind Kejriwal, the Delhi Chief Minister, was arrested in connection with the Delhi excise policy case. This
arrest made him the first sitting chief minister in India to be put behind bars.
TIMELINE OF THE EXCISE POLICY CASE

INVOLVING ARVIND KEJRIWAL
November 2, 2023 - March 21, 2024

ED Summons
Arvind Kejriwal skipped nine summons issued by the Enforcement Directorate (ED) in connection with the
Delhi excise policy case.
before March 21, 2024

Petition for No Coercive Action
Kejriwal filed a petition at the Delhi High Court seeking directions for "no coercive action" against him by the
ED. The bench, comprising Justices Suresh Kumar Kait and Manoj Jain, declined to grant protection at this
stage.
March 21, 2024

Arrest
Hours after the court hearing, the ED arrested Kejriwal at his home.
March 22, 2024

Court Appearance and Custody
Kejriwal was produced before a Delhi court, which remanded him to ED custody until March 28. The ED
described him as the "kingpin and key conspirator" in the excise scam, alleging his involvement in
accepting kickbacks from liquor businessmen.
Extended Custody
Kejriwal's custody was extended multiple times, with the most recent extension being until May 20, 2024.
April 9, 2024
Rejection of Bail Petition
The Delhi High Court rejected Kejriwal's petition challenging his arrest.
April 10, 2024

Supreme Court Appeal
Following the rejection of his bail petition by the Delhi High Court, Kejriwal approached the Supreme
Court. The case was assigned to a bench comprising Justices Sanjiv Khanna and Dipankar Datta.
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SUPREME COURT HEARING AND INTERIM BAIL
Senior Advocate Abhishek Manu Singhvi appeared on behalf of

Kejriwal, arguing that there was no need to arrest Kejriwal as none of
the key documents “even remotely” connected him to the excise
scam. Singhvi also questioned the timing of Kejriwal’s arrest, noting
that the allegedly incriminating statements that the ED relied upon
were made between December 2022 and July 2023, while Kejriwal
was arrested in March 2024. Singhvi requested the bench to grant
interim bail until June 4, when the election results would be
Defense announced.
Argument
On May 3, the Supreme Court first expressed an inclination

to grant bail to Kejriwal, considering his status as an
elected Chief Minister and the context of the general
elections. However, during the May 7 hearing, the Bench
clarified that if Kejriwal was released on interim bail, it
would be conditional upon him not being allowed to
perform his official duties as Delhi Chief Minister. SC Hearing and
Interim Bail
Solicitor General Tushar Mehta and Additional Solicitor General S.

V. Raju argued against releasing Kejriwal on interim bail. They
cautioned against setting a precedent for politicians being released
on bail to conduct campaign activities and argued that politicians
should not be favored compared to other litigants. Mehta mentioned
the case of Amrit Pal Singh, leader of the pro-Khalistani outfit Waris
de Punjab, who is also seeking bail despite being imprisoned and
has expressed his intention to contest elections.
Opposition
Argument
On May 10, the Bench decided to grant Kejriwal interim bail until
June 1, the day voting for the 2024 Lok Sabha elections will
close. The Supreme Court rejected the argument that granting
interim bail would place politicians in a “benefic” position
compared to other citizens. The court stated that it always
considers the peculiarities associated with the person and the
surrounding circumstances, noting that the General Elections are
the most “significant and important event this year” and are of
“prodigious importance.” Supreme
Court Decision
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Bail Conditions and CBI Investigation
Conditions for Interim Bail: The Court placed several conditions for Kejriwal’s interim bail:
He shall not visit the Office of the Chief Minister and the Delhi Secretariat.
He cannot sign any official files unless it is “required and necessary for obtaining clearance/approval of the
Lieutenant Governor of Delhi.”
He is restrained from making comments regarding his role in the excise scam case, interacting with any of the
witnesses, or accessing any of the official case files.
CBI Investigation: Apart from the ongoing ED investigation into the money laundering aspect of the Delhi excise
policy scam, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is conducting a parallel investigation into the same case.
Former Delhi Deputy Chief Minister Manish Sisodia was arrested in February 2023 in connection with the case.
Kejriwal was questioned for over nine hours by the CBI in April 2023.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In connection with which case was Arvind Kejriwal, the B) State of Rajasthan v. Balchand
Delhi Chief Minister, arrested? C) Sanjay Chandra v. Central Bureau of Investigation
(a) Coal Allocation Scam D) State of Bihar v. Rajendra Agrawallia
(b) 2G Spectrum Case
(c) Delhi Excise Policy Case 4. What is the role of an 'amicus curiae' in legal
(d) Commonwealth Games Scandal proceedings?
A) A co-accused in the case
2. Under which section of the CrPC is anticipatory bail B) A witness for the prosecution
granted? C) A legal advisor providing impartial advice to the court
(a) Section 420 (b) Section 302 D) The primary defendant
(c) Section 144 (d) Section 438
5. In which year did the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)
3. In which case was the judgment highlighted that "bail is come into effect in India?
a right and jail is an exception"? (a) 1974 (b) 1988
A) Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia v. State of Punjab (c) 1982 (d) 1990

1. Correct Answer: (c) Delhi Excise Policy Case accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence.
Explanation: Arvind Kejriwal, the Chief Minister of Delhi, The person who fears they might be arrested can apply
was arrested by the Enforcement Directorate (ED) on for this bail under this specific section.
March 21, 2024, in connection with the Delhi excise
policy case. This case pertains to allegations of 3. Correct Answer: B
irregularities in the formulation and implementation of Explanation: The principle that "bail is a right and jail is an
the excise policy in Delhi. His arrest marked a significant exception" was highlighted in the case of State of
event as it made him the first sitting chief minister in Rajasthan v. Balchand, which is a landmark judgment
India to be incarcerated. emphasizing the presumption of liberty for the accused.
2. Correct Answer: (d) Section 438 4. Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Anticipatory bail is granted under Section Explanation: An 'amicus curiae' acts as a legal advisor,
438 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC). This offering impartial advice to the court, particularly in cases
provision allows a court—either a sessions court or the that may affect public interest or where significant legal
High Court—to grant bail in anticipation of arrest on principles are debated.

5. Correct Answer: (a) 1974
Explanation: The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) in India was enacted in 1973 and officially came into effect on April
1, 1974. This legal framework is crucial for outlining the procedures followed in criminal law enforcement across the
country.

India Proposes Digital Competition Bill, 2024 Against Tech Giants
Why in news?
Recent Proposal: On May 16, 2024, the Indian government proposed the Digital Competition Bill, 2024. This move
aims to regulate the operations of major technology firms such as Google, Facebook, and Amazon.
International Influence: The bill draws inspiration from European regulatory frameworks, specifically the
European Union's Digital Markets Act (DMA). The goal is to ensure these tech giants do not misuse their dominant
positions.
Key Features of the Digital Competition Bill
Predictive Regulation
Proactive Approach: The Bill introduces a proactive regulatory approach (ex-ante) designed
to anticipate and prevent anti-competitive practices before they occur.
Current Framework: This differs from the current reactive (ex post) framework under the
Competition Act, 2002, which addresses anti-competitive behavior after it has occurred.
Significant Entities
Systematically Significant Digital Enterprises (SSDEs): The Bill proposes identifying SSDEs based
on criteria such as turnover, user base, and market influence. These are large digital platforms
with substantial market power.
Restrictions on Practices: SSDEs will be prohibited from engaging in specific practices,
including self-preferencing (favoring their own products or services over competitors') and anti-
steering (restricting users from choosing other service providers).
Associate Digital Enterprises (ADEs)

Regulation of ADEs: The legislation also plans to regulate ADEs, which are enterprises that
benefit from data shared within their group companies.
Ensuring Fair Competition: This regulation aims to ensure that ADEs' operations do not
undermine competitive practices in the market.

Criticism and Industry Concerns
1 2
Compliance Burdens Innovation Impact
Large tech corporations have criticized the There are concerns that the Bill could stifle
proposed Bill, arguing that the stringent rules innovation within the tech industry, as the
could impose heavy compliance burdens on regulations might limit the flexibility and agility
them. required for technological advancements.
3 4
Arbitrary Decision-Making Impact on Small Businesses
Some critics worry about the potential for Concerns have been raised about the possible
arbitrary decision-making by the Competition negative impacts on platform-based small
Commission of India (CCI), which could lead to businesses, which might struggle to comply
inconsistent enforcement of the rules. with the new regulations.
Fostering Digital Competition

Government’s Perspective: Government officials advocate for the Bill by pointing to a history of anti-competitive
behavior by big tech firms. They argue that such a framework is necessary to manage the digital market's dynamics
effectively.
Objective: The primary objective is to create a fairer playing field for new entrants and smaller companies. By doing
so, the government aims to promote broader innovation and healthier competition within the digital ecosystem.
More About Digital Markets Act (DMA)
Introduction: The Digital Markets Act (DMA) is a significant legislative framework adopted by the European Union
in 2022. It aims to promote competition in the digital market.
Targeted Entities: The DMA specifically targets large online platforms termed "gatekeepers," which include
companies like Google, Apple, and Facebook.
Restrictions: The DMA restricts self-preferencing practices and mandates the interoperability of messaging
services, ensuring that these platforms do not unfairly prioritize their own services.
Data Portability: The Act enforces data portability, making it easier for users to transfer their data to other
services, thereby enhancing consumer choice.
Penalties for Non-Compliance: The DMA imposes substantial fines, up to 10% of global turnover, for non-
compliance. This stringent regulatory approach underscores the seriousness with which the EU aims to enforce fair
competition.
Consumer Benefits: Overall, the DMA aims to enhance consumer choices and foster a fair, transparent digital
economy by ensuring that large digital platforms do not abuse their market power.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which Act does the Digital Competition Bill, 2024, draw (d) CCPA - California Consumer Privacy Act
inspiration from?
(a) GDPR - General Data Protection Regulation 2. What does SSDE stand for in the context of the Bill?
(b) CCA - Consumer Credit Act (a) Systematically Significant Digital Enterprises
(c) DMA - Digital Markets Act (b) Substantially Sized Digital Enterprises

(c) Specially Selected Digital Enterprises the European Union?
(d) Significantly Scaled Digital Enterprises (a) 2020 (b) 2021
(c) 2022 (d) 2023
3. What practice will SSDEs be prohibited from engaging
in under the new Bill? 5. What is the penalty for non-compliance under the DMA?
(a) Outsourcing (b) Data sharing (a) Up to 5% of global turnover
(c) Encryption (d) Self-preferencing (b) Up to 10% of global turnover
(c) Up to 15% of global turnover
4. When was the Digital Markets Act (DMA) adopted by (d) Up to 20% of global turnover

1. Correct Answer: (c) DMA preferencing, which involves favoring their own products
Explanation: The Digital Competition Bill, 2024, is or services over competitors', ensuring a more level
inspired by the European Union's Digital Markets Act playing field in the digital marketplace.
(DMA), aiming to regulate the market power of major
tech firms and ensure fair competition. 4. Correct Answer: (c) 2022
Explanation: The Digital Markets Act (DMA) was adopted
2. Correct Answer: (a) Systematically Significant Digital by the European Union in 2022 as a legislative framework
Enterprises designed to promote competition in the digital market,
Explanation: SSDE refers to Systematically Significant ensuring fair practices among large online platforms.
Digital Enterprises. These are large digital platforms
identified by their turnover, user base, and market 5. Correct Answer: (b) Up to 10% of global turnover
influence, and they possess substantial market power. Explanation: The DMA imposes substantial fines for non-
compliance, which can be up to 10% of a company's
3. Correct Answer: (d) Self-preferencing global turnover, reflecting the seriousness with which the
Explanation: The Bill prohibits SSDEs from self- EU aims to enforce fair competition.

Sixth Schedule Demand of Ladakh
Why in news?
The demand for adding Ladakh to the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution has gained significant support in recent
years from various groups within the region.
This demand intensified after Ladakh became a Union Territory in August 2019, following the revocation of
Article 370, which had previously granted special autonomy to the region. This change provided more freedom to the
local government.
What is the Sixth Schedule?
Constitutional Provisions: The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions that allow for the
administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. These provisions are designed to protect
the rights of indigenous communities.
Autonomous District Councils (ADCs): These councils have the authority to legislate on a range of issues including
land, forests, and agriculture. They are also empowered to establish village courts to resolve minor disputes among the
tribal communities.
Why Does Ladakh Demand Sixth Schedule Inclusion?

Tribal Demographics: Ladakh is home to a diverse population of tribal
groups. For example, the majority of the population in Leh are Buddhists,
while the majority in Kargil are Shia Muslims.
Cultural and Social Preservation: Activists and community leaders argue
that including Ladakh under the Sixth Schedule would help preserve and
promote the unique social practices and cultural heritage of its tribal groups.
Local Governance: Inclusion would allow for the establishment of local
governance structures, similar to those in other tribal areas of India, thereby
providing the people of Ladakh with more power to address local issues
effectively.
Impact of Sixth Schedule in Ladakh
Role of Autonomous District Councils: If Ladakh is included under the Sixth Schedule, ADCs would play a crucial role
in local governance.
Policy Formulation: These councils would have the autonomy to develop policies that protect ethnic identities,
promote development based on local needs, and manage resources in a sustainable manner.
Cultural Security: The inclusion could help reduce fears about the impact of external influences and migration on
local culture and traditions, providing a sense of security to the people of Ladakh.
More About Tribal Status
Complex Social Structures: Despite often being perceived as primitive, many tribal communities have complex social
structures and rich cultural traditions.
Constitutional Recognition: The Indian Constitution recognizes Scheduled Tribes as groups that require special
assistance due to their unique social and economic conditions.
Global Examples
United States: Tribal autonomy allows tribes to govern their own lands without interference from external entities.
Sentinelese: The Sentinelese people of North Sentinel Island are one of the last groups to remain untouched by
modern civilization.
Brazil: The Brazilian constitution, recognizing the importance of tribal land rights, has provisions dating back to the
1980s to honor these rights.
UN Declaration: The UN Declaration on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples, adopted in 2007, aims to protect the culture
and autonomy of tribal peoples worldwide.

Taiwan: Indigenous tribes in Taiwan have gained official recognition only in recent decades, despite their long-
standing presence.
Maasai: The Maasai people in East Africa maintain a semi-nomadic lifestyle, which has been significantly influenced by
government-imposed land restrictions.
New Zealand: The Treaty of Waitangi, signed in 1840, is a foundational document recognizing the rights of the Maori
people.
Norway: Since 1989, the Sami people have had their own parliament, which helps protect their land rights and
cultural heritage.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. When was the UN Declaration on the Rights of Which of the following states is NOT covered by the Sixth
Indigenous Peoples adopted? Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) 1997 (b) 2002 2. (a) Assam (b) Meghalaya
(c) 2012 (d) 2007 (c) Manipur (d) Tripura
Which treaty is a foundational document recognizing 5. What is the altitude range of Ladakh?
the rights of the Maori people? (a) 5,000 feet to 15,000 feet
(a) Treaty of Taipei (b) Treaty of Waitangi (b) 7,000 feet to 20,000 feet
(c) Treaty of Lisbon (d) Treaty of Versailles (c) 9,000 feet to 25,170 feet
(d) 10,000 feet to 30,000 feet
Under which article of the Indian Constitution is the
Sixth Schedule provided for?
(a) Article 340 (b) Article 244
(c) Article 356 (d) Article 370

1. Correct Answer: (d) 2007 have some legislative, judicial, and administrative
Explanation: The UN Declaration on the Rights of autonomy within a state.
Indigenous Peoples, aimed at protecting the culture and
autonomy of tribal peoples worldwide, was adopted in 4. Correct Answer: (c) Manipur
2007. Explanation: The Sixth Schedule contains special
provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the
2. Correct Answer: (b) Treaty of Waitangi north-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and
Explanation: The Treaty of Waitangi, signed in 1840, is a Mizoram. Manipur is not covered by the Sixth Schedule.
foundational document that recognizes the rights of the
Maori people in New Zealand. 5. Correct Answer: (c) 9,000 feet to 25,170 feet
Explanation: Ladakh lies at altitudes ranging between
3. Correct Answer: (b) Article 244 about 9,000 feet and 25,170 feet, making it a region with
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule is provided for under significant variation in elevation, suitable for activities like
Article 244 of the Indian Constitution. This article allows trekking, mountaineering, and exploration of high-altitude
for the formation of autonomous administrative divisions landscapes.
known as Autonomous District Councils (ADCs), which

Unopposed Election of BJP Candidate in Surat Lok Sabha Constituency
Why in news?
A Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) candidate from Surat, Gujarat, was declared elected unopposed. This occurred after other
candidates' nomination papers were rejected or withdrawn.
Requirements for Valid Nomination
Age and Eligibility: Any elector over 25 years can contest Lok Sabha elections from any constituency in India (Section
33).
Proposer Requirement:
Candidates from recognized parties need one proposer from the constituency.
Candidates from unrecognized parties and independents require ten proposers.
Nomination Papers: Candidates may submit up to four sets of nomination papers to ensure at least one valid
submission.
Scrutiny of Nominations: As per Section 36, the Returning Officer (RO) examines the nominations and can reject
them if the candidate's or proposer's signature is not genuine; however, minor defects are not grounds for rejection.
Uncontested Election Procedure
Section 53 (3) of RPA, 1951: If the number of candidates is less than the seats available, the RO will immediately
declare these candidates elected.
Specific Incident in Surat
Nomination Rejection:
A Congress party candidate submitted three sets of nomination
papers.
A BJP worker challenged the validity, claiming the proposer
signatures were forged.
Proposers denied signing the papers through affidavits.
The RO, unable to verify proposer authenticity within the required
timeframe, rejected all three sets of nomination papers.
Substitute Candidate: The Congress party's substitute candidate
also faced nomination rejection over similar issues.
Outcome: These rejections led to the BJP candidate being declared
the winner unopposed.
Legal Recourse for Election Challenges
Constitutional Provision: Under Article 329(b) and the
Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, elections can only
be challenged through an election petition presented to the High
Court.
Grounds for Petition: One such ground for filing a petition is the
improper rejection of nomination papers.
High Court Proceedings: The RP Act mandates that High Courts aim to conclude election petition trials within six
months, though this timeline is often not met.
Importance of Speedy Trials: Swift resolution of election petitions is crucial for maintaining electoral integrity.
Democratic Concerns in Uncontested Elections
Impact on Democratic Principles:
Uncontested elections challenge the democratic principle of competitive elections and representation.
They potentially favor the contesting candidates, allowing elections with minimal or no votes cast.

NOTA and Its Implications
Purpose of NOTA: Introduced to allow voters to express dissatisfaction with the candidates, aiming to prompt
reflection among political parties and candidates.
Criticism of NOTA: Described as ineffective or a "toothless tiger," as it does not alter the outcome of elections even if
it accumulates significant votes.
Usage Statistics: NOTA has received over 1.29 crore votes in the past five years, occasionally surpassing the votes for
some political parties.
Election Commission’s Stance: The candidate with the highest votes wins, regardless of NOTA votes.
Special Case in Maharashtra: For local body polls, if NOTA receives the most votes, a re-poll is conducted, treating
NOTA as a fictional candidate.
Supreme Court's Involvement
Recent Legal Development: The Supreme Court has requested the Election Commission's response to a plea that
seeks fresh elections in constituencies where NOTA receives the majority of votes.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is the minimum age requirement for an elector to not genuine
contest the Lok Sabha election as specified in the (d) If the candidate is under 25 years of age
Representation of the People Act, 1951?
(a) 21 years (b) 25 years 4. What happens if the number of candidates is less than
(c) 18 years (d) 30 years the number of seats to be filled in a Lok Sabha election?
(a) A re-election is scheduled
2. How many proposers are required for candidates set up (b) The candidates are declared elected unopposed
by unrecognized parties and independents to file a (c) The election is declared void
nomination for the Lok Sabha election? (d) Additional candidates are nominated by the
(a) One proposer (b) Five proposers President
(c) Ten proposers (d) Fifteen proposers
5. What led to the rejection of the Congress party
3. Under what condition can the Returning Officer reject a candidate's nomination papers in the Surat Lok Sabha
nomination paper according to the Representation of constituency?
the People Act, 1951? (a) The proposers were from a different constituency
(a) If the proposer is not from the same constituency (b) The signatures of his proposers were alleged not to
(b) If the candidate submits more than four nomination be genuine
papers (c) He was below the age requirement
(c) If the signature of the candidate or proposer is found (d) He did not submit the required deposit

1. Correct Answer: (b) 25 years independents need to be subscribed by ten proposers
Explanation: According to Section 33 of the from the respective constituency, reflecting the
Representation of the People Act, 1951, an elector must requirement for a broader base of support compared to
be at least 25 years old to contest in the Lok Sabha recognized party candidates, who need only one
elections, ensuring that candidates have attained a proposer.
certain level of maturity and experience.
3. Correct Answer: (c) If the signature of the candidate or
2. Correct Answer: (c) Ten proposers proposer is found not genuine
Explanation: Candidates from unrecognised parties and Explanation: Section 36 of the Representation of the

People Act, 1951, stipulates that a nomination can be 5 Correct Answer: (b) The signatures of his proposers were
rejected if the signature of the candidate or any proposer alleged not to be genuine
is found not genuine, highlighting the importance of Explanation: In the Surat Lok Sabha constituency, the
authenticity in the electoral process. nomination papers of the Congress party candidate were
rejected because a BJP worker objected, alleging that the
4. Correct Answer: (b) The candidates are declared elected signatures of his proposers were not genuine. The
unopposed Returning Officer received affidavits from the proposers
Explanation: Section 53(3) of the Representation of the stating they had not signed the nomination papers,
People Act, 1951, directs that if the number of candidates leading to the rejection.
is less than the number of seats, the available candidates
are declared elected unopposed, simplifying the electoral
process in such scenarios.

Economy & Governance
RBI Guidelines for Asset Reconstruction Companies
Why in news?
New Regulatory Framework: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently issued updated guidelines specifically
targeting Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs). These guidelines are a pivotal update to the regulatory measures
overseeing ARCs, with an implementation date set for April 24, 2024. This development is significant as it impacts how
ARCs will operate within the financial system, necessitating adjustments in their capital structure and operational
strategies.
Key Features of the New RBI Guidelines
Increased Minimum Capital Requirement
Raising Capital Standards: The new guidelines mark a substantial increase in the minimum capital required for
ARCs from Rs 100 crore to Rs 300 crore. This change aims to ensure that ARCs have a robust capital base to manage
and recover distressed assets effectively.
Phased Implementation: To facilitate a smoother transition to the new capital requirements, existing ARCs are
given a timeline until March 31, 2026, to fully comply with the Rs 300 crore requirement. An interim milestone
requires these companies to first reach a capital level of Rs 200 crore by March 31, 2024.
Consequences for Non-Compliance: Should ARCs fail to meet the new capital thresholds by the specified dates,
they will face supervisory actions from the RBI. These actions include restrictions on conducting new business until
they achieve the required minimum Net Owned Fund (NOF) levels as stipulated at each phase.
Eligibility as Resolution Applicants
The guidelines also touch upon the criteria for ARCs to qualify as resolution applicants in the resolution process of
stressed assets, although detailed criteria are not specified in the summary provided.
Investment Opportunities
While the summary does not detail specific investment opportunities, it implies that the updated guidelines may
introduce or enhance avenues for ARCs to invest in distressed assets under regulated conditions.
Understanding Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs)
Function
Role under SARFAESI Act, 2002: ARCs are crucial entities empowered by the SARFAESI Act to manage and
resolve distressed assets. They help in the recovery process by purchasing non-performing assets from
financial institutions.
Mechanism of Debt Acquisition: These companies acquire bad debts from lenders using cash or a
combination of cash and security receipts, aiding in the decongestion of the lenders' balance sheets and
allowing them to focus on new credit disbursements.
Business Model
Purchasing Stressed Loans: By buying stressed loans at a discount, ARCs assist financial institutions in
managing their non-performing assets, thereby helping maintain liquidity and credit flow in the financial
system.

Business Model
Issuance of Security Receipts: In return for acquiring these loans, ARCs issue security receipts to the original
lenders, which are redeemable upon successful recovery of the debts. ARCs charge a management fee,
typically ranging from 1.5% to 2% of the asset value annually, and share the recovery proceeds with the
lenders.
Challenges
Handling Aged Non-Performing Assets (NPAs): ARCs often deal with long-standing NPAs, which can be
challenging to value and recover due to their prolonged delinquent status.
Coordination in Debt Aggregation: The process of aggregating debt from multiple lenders to a single
borrower involves intricate negotiations and agreement, making it a complex aspect of ARC operations.
Capital Constraints: Limited ability to raise funds can restrict the capacity of ARCs to purchase large volumes
of distressed assets or to provide adequate support for the revival of distressed entities.
Asset Valuation Complexities: Determining a fair value for the acquisition and recovery of distressed assets
is often complicated, especially in cases involving assets that are illiquid or legally entangled.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

Established Date: April 1, 1935.
Legislative Basis: Created according to the Reserve Bank of
India Act, 1934.
Initial Location: Central Office first established in Calcutta.
Permanent Location: Moved permanently to Mumbai in 1937.
Ownership: Originally privately owned; nationalized in 1949
and now fully owned by the Government of India.
Preamble of the RBI Structure of the RBI

Purpose: To regulate the issuance of bank notes and maintain reserves
Governance: Managed by a
to ensure monetary stability in India.
central board of directors.
Objectives:
Appointment: Directors
Operate the currency and credit system of the country to its
appointed by the Government of
advantage.
India as per the Reserve Bank of
Implement a modern monetary policy framework to address
India Act.
challenges of a complex economy.
Term: Directors serve a term of
Maintain price stability while considering the objective of
four years.
growth.

Composition of the RBI
Official Directors: Central board includes the Governor and up to four
Deputy Governors.
Current Governor: Shri Shaktikanta Das.
Non-Official Directors:
Government-Nominated: Ten directors from various fields and two
government officials.
Regional Representation: Four directors, one from each of the four
local boards.
Shri Shaktikanta Das
Main Functions of the RBI

Role as Monetary Authority:
Implements and monitors monetary policy to ensure price stability and support economic growth.
Enforced through the amended RBI Act, 1934, with the flexible inflation targeting framework
established in May 2016.
Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
Comprised of six members.
Empowered and constituted by the Central Government as per Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act,
1934.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. How many members are there in the Monetary Policy 4. What has been established by banks to aggregate and
Committee (MPC) established under Section 45ZB of the consolidate stressed assets for subsequent resolution?
amended RBI Act, 1934? (a) National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited
(a) Three (b) Four (b) Financial Stability Board Company Limited
(c) Six (d) Seven (c) Debt Recovery Tribunal Company Limited
(d) Special Purpose Vehicle Company Limited
2. Who is the current Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
(a) Urjit Patel (b) Shaktikanta Das 5. What is the term duration for directors appointed to the
(c) Raghuram Rajan (d) Arvind Subramanian central board of the Reserve Bank of India?
(a) Two years (b) Three years
3. Under which act are Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) (c) Four years (d) Five years
empowered to manage and resolve distressed assets?
(a) Companies Act, 2013
(b) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(c) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
(d) SARFAESI Act, 2002

1. Correct Answer: (c) Six Explanation: Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) are
Explanation: The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is empowered under the SARFAESI Act, 2002 to manage and
comprised of six members. This structure is specified resolve distressed assets. This act specifically allows ARCs
under Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934. The to acquire non-performing assets from banks and other
MPC is a critical component of the RBI's framework for financial institutions and undertake measures for their
implementing monetary policy, as it brings together recovery.
experts to make decisions regarding interest rates and
other aspects of monetary policy aimed at achieving the 4. Correct Answer: (a) National Asset Reconstruction
primary goal of price stability and supporting economic Company Limited (NARCL)
growth. The committee's composition is designed to Explanation: The National Asset Reconstruction Company
ensure a balanced and well-rounded approach to Limited (NARCL) has been specifically established by
monetary policy decision-making. banks to aggregate and consolidate stressed assets for
their subsequent resolution. This step is crucial in
2. Correct Answer: (b) Shaktikanta Das managing non-performing assets effectively and is part of
Explanation: Shaktikanta Das is the current Governor of a strategic initiative by the banking sector, particularly
the Reserve Bank of India. His leadership plays a crucial public sector banks, which hold a majority stake in
role in the governance of the RBI, overseeing the central NARCL.
board of directors and ensuring the effective
implementation of monetary policies. The Governor's role 5. Correct Answer: (c) Four years
is pivotal in guiding the economic and financial stability of Explanation: Directors appointed to the central board of
the country. the Reserve Bank of India serve a term of four years. This
term length is specified to ensure continuity and stability
3. Correct Answer: (d) SARFAESI Act, 2002 in the governance and strategic direction of the RBI.

UN Secretary-General's Panel on Critical Energy Transition Minerals
Why in news?
Context: The establishment of the Panel on Critical Energy Transition Minerals by UN Secretary-General Antó nio
Guterres reflects a strategic response to the burgeoning global demand for minerals essential for renewable energy
technologies.
Announcement Details: The announcement was made by Secretary-General Antó nio Guterres who emphasized the
critical role of these minerals in the global shift towards renewable energy sources.
Purpose and Composition of the Panel
Objective: To create a set of global, common, and voluntary principles that will
ensure environmental and social standards are upheld during the energy
transition.
Co-chairpersons:
Ambassador Nozipho Joyce Mxakato-Diseko of South Africa: Brings a
developing country perspective to the forefront.
Director-General for Energy Ditte Juul Jørgensen of the European
Commission: Represents a leading energy policymaker from the European
Union.
Key Focus Areas: The panel will tackle critical issues including equity in
resource distribution, transparency in operations, sustainable investment,
and the protection of human rights within the minerals value chain. Ambassador Nozipho Joyce
Strategic Importance of Critical Energy Transition Minerals Mxakato-Diseko
Types of Minerals Mentioned: Specifically, copper, lithium, nickel, cobalt,
and rare earth elements are highlighted as critical for the development of
clean energy technologies.
Technological Applications: These minerals are vital components in
technologies like wind turbines, solar panels, electric vehicles, and batteries
essential for energy storage solutions.
Supply and Demand Projections:
Future Demand: According to forecasts from the International Energy
Agency, the demand for these minerals for clean energy applications is
expected to increase by over threefold by 2030.
Supply Requirements: The global commitment made at COP28 to triple
renewable energy capacity by 2030 is contingent on significantly ramping
up the supply of these critical minerals.
Director-General for
Challenges and Prospects for Development Energy Ditte Juul Jørgensen
Economic Impact on Developing Countries:
Opportunities: Developing nations with rich mineral resources stand to benefit from job creation, economic
diversification, and enhanced revenue streams.
Management Imperatives: Effective management is crucial to ensure that the mineral wealth translates into
tangible economic benefits without exploiting the local communities or environments.
Potential Risks:
Resource Dependence and Geopolitical Tensions: Increased demand could perpetuate dependency on
commodity exports and escalate geopolitical conflicts.
Environmental and Social Concerns: Issues such as environmental degradation, adverse impacts on local
livelihoods, health risks, and breaches of human rights may arise if the mineral extraction is not managed
responsibly.

Global Collaborative Efforts
Global Guidance and Standards: The panel represents a collective effort
to establish globally recognized guidelines that ensure responsible and
equitable practices in the mineral value chains.
Building on Existing Initiatives: It will complement and strengthen
existing UN efforts, particularly through the Working Group on
Transforming the Extractive Industries for Sustainable Development.
Stakeholder Engagement: The panel includes a wide array of
stakeholders ranging from governments and international organizations to
industry groups and civil society, enhancing the legitimacy and breadth of
the guidelines developed.
Panel Membership
Diverse Global Representation:
Governments and Intergovernmental Actors: Broad representation
including nations across Africa, Asia, the Americas, and Europe.
Non-State Actors: Key international and non-governmental organizations like the World Bank, International Energy
Agency, and various others involved in climate action and sustainable development.
United Nations
Mission and Principles
Guided by its founding Charter.
Focuses on maintaining international peace and security,
Founded in 1945 protecting human rights, delivering humanitarian aid,
Comprises 193 Member States promoting sustainable development, and upholding
Main Organs international law.
General Assembly
Security Council
History of the UN Foundation
Economic and Social Council
Trusteeship Council
International Court of Justice Early Initiatives
UN Secretariat 1899: International Peace Conference in The Hague.
All established in 1945. 1902: Established the Permanent Court of Arbitration.
League of Nations Related Developments Evolution to United Nations

1919: Conceived during WWI 1919: Creation of Coined by Franklin D.
and established under the the International Roosevelt.
Treaty of Versailles. Labour Organization 1942: "The Declaration by United
Aimed to promote (ILO) under the Nations" signed by 26 nations.
international cooperation and same treaty. 1945: San Francisco Conference,
achieve peace and security. signing of the UN Charter.
LEGAL EDGE 7676564400 support@toprankers.com www.toprankers.com 41

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which ministry is responsible for overseeing the Centre 4. Which material is crucial for the anodes of lithium-ion
of Excellence for Critical Minerals (CECM)? batteries and also valued for its lubricating properties?
(a) Ministry of Science and Technology (a) Cobalt
(b) Ministry of Environment (b) Copper
(c) Ministry of Mines (c) Graphite
(d) Ministry of Commerce (d) Nickel
2. Which element is crucial in the production of 5. Which international organization was created under the
permanent magnets for motors? Treaty of Versailles in 1919?
(a) Copper (b) Titanium (a) International Labour Organization
(c) Graphite (d) Neodymium (b) International Peace Conference
(c) United Nations
3. What global commitment made at COP28 is directly (d) Permanent Court of Arbitration
linked to a significant increase in the supply of critical
minerals?
(a) Doubling global forest cover
(b) Tripling renewable energy capacity
(c) Reducing plastic waste
(d) Decreasing greenhouse gas emission

1. Correct Answer: (c) Ministry of Mines 4. Correct Answer: (c) Graphite
Explanation: The Ministry of Mines is tasked with Explanation: Graphite is vital in lithium-ion battery
overseeing the Centre of Excellence for Critical Minerals anodes due to its conductivity and high energy density. It
(CECM), which will periodically update the list of critical is also prized for its lubricating properties in various
minerals and issue strategies regarding them. industrial settings.
2. Correct Answer: (d) Neodymium 5. Correct Answer: (b) International Labour Organization
Explanation: Neodymium is a rare earth element used in Explanation: The International Labour Organization (ILO)
manufacturing permanent magnets. These magnets are was created in 1919 under the Treaty of Versailles,
vital for the motors in various electronic devices and promoting labor rights globally.
renewable energy systems.
3. Correct Answer: (b) Tripling renewable energy capacity

Explanation: At COP28, nations committed to tripling
global renewable energy capacity by 2030. Achieving this
goal will require a considerable increase in the supply of
critical minerals essential for clean energy technologies.

Rising Share of Personal Income Tax and Indirect Tax
Why in news?
Recent data from the Ministry of Finance reveals significant trends in India's taxation landscape, particularly the
increased collection of personal income taxes and indirect taxes, while corporate tax collections have declined.
Overview of Tax Trends
Direct Tax Collection Trends: Total Direct Tax Collections: There was a significant 17.7% increase in 2023-24, totaling
Rs. 19.58 lakh crores.
The increase was primarily driven by a rise in personal income tax, which now constitutes 53.3% of the direct tax
collections, an increase from 50.06% in the previous year.
Securities Transaction Tax (STT): This tax on the purchase and sale of securities experienced nearly double the
revenue growth rate of corporate taxes. Introduced in 2004, STT aims to curb speculative trading by imposing a
nominal tax on transactions.
Corporate Tax Collection Trends:

Decrease in Share: The share of corporate taxes in total tax collections decreased to 46.5%, down from 49.6% in the
prior fiscal year.
This decrease follows significant corporate tax cuts implemented in September 2019 by the government.
As of February 2024, there is an observed increase in the disparity between income tax (28% of gross tax revenue)
and corporate tax (26% of gross tax revenue).
Indirect Tax Collection Trends:
Growing Share of Indirect Taxes: These taxes, which encompass union excise duties and Goods and Services Tax (GST),
have seen their share increase steadily since 2010-11.
Indirect taxes are considered regressive, placing a disproportionate burden on lower-income earners by taxing
consumption at the same rate regardless of income.
Statistical Insights on Tax Contributions by Income Level
Income Range and Tax Contributions: The majority of personal income tax filers (53.78%) have annual incomes
between Rs 1 lakh and Rs 5 lakh, contributing 17.73% to the total personal income tax revenue.
Contribution by High Earners: Individuals earning more than Rs 50 lakh annually make up just 0.84% of filers but
account for 42.3% of the total personal income tax paid.

Effective Personal Income Tax Rate
Comparison with Other Countries: Among the BRICS nations, India has one of the highest effective personal income
tax rates, which represents the actual percentage of income paid in taxes after adjustments for various deductions
and credits.
DIRECT TAX INDIRECT TAX
These are considered progressive, as they These are considered regressive because
impose a greater tax burden proportionately they are applied uniformly to all consumers,
on those with higher incomes. regardless of income.
Direct taxes include personal income Indirect taxes include union excise duties
tax and corporate tax. and the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
Trends in Direct taxes: The share of Trends in Indirect taxes: Contrarily, the share
direct taxes in total revenue has been of indirect taxes has been on the rise,
declining. reversing a trend of decline since the 1980s.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. By how much did India's net direct tax collections 4. To what percentage did personal income tax's share of
increase in 2023-24? the total tax rise in 2023-24?
(a) 12.5% (b) 17.7% (a) 50.06% (b) 48.9%
(c) 15.3% (d) 20.8% (c) 53.3% (d) 45.2%
2. Which scheme is aimed at settling pending tax disputes 5. Which platform was launched by the Prime Minister of
to promote voluntary income-tax compliance in India? India to honor honest taxpayers and bring transparency
(a) GST Samadhan (b) Jan Dhan Yojana to the tax system?
(c) Make in India (d) Vivad se Vishwas (a) Honoring the Honest Scheme
(b) Transparent Taxation - Honoring The Honest
3. What does Securities Transaction Tax (STT) apply to? (c) Honest Taxpayer Initiative
(a) Land and buildings (b) Fuel purchases (d) Honest Taxpayer Recognition Program
(c) Import/export trade (d) Stocks

1. Correct Answer: (b) 17.7% 4. Correct Answer: (c) 53.3%
Explanation: India's net direct tax collections grew by Explanation: Personal income tax's share of the total tax
17.7% in the fiscal year 2023-24, reaching Rs.19.58 lakh increased to 53.3% in 2023-24, up from 50.06% in the
crores. previous year.
2. Correct Answer: (d) Vivad se Vishwas 5. Correct Answer: (b) Transparent Taxation - Honoring The
Explanation: The Vivad se Vishwas scheme aims to Honest
resolve pending tax disputes by allowing taxpayers to file Explanation: The 'Transparent Taxation - Honoring The
declarations for settlement. This helps generate timely Honest' platform was launched by the Prime Minister to
revenue for the government while reducing litigation honor honest taxpayers and enhance transparency in the
costs for taxpayers. income tax system.
3. Correct Answer: (d) Stocks

Explanation: Securities Transaction Tax (STT) is a tax
levied on the purchase and sale of securities such as
stocks, derivatives, and equity-oriented mutual funds. It
was introduced to generate revenue and reduce
speculative trading.

Trillions More Need to be Invested if SDGs are to be Rescued: UN Report
Why in news?
The United Nations has released a new report indicating that trillions of dollars are required if the 17 Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs), agreed upon by all UN member states in 2015, are to be achieved by 2030.
Financial challenges, including staggering debt burdens and sky-high borrowing costs, are significantly impeding
progress towards these goals.
The report was launched on April 9, 2024, highlighting the urgent need for a substantial increase in financing and a
reform of the international financial architecture.
Key Features of the Report

Investment Requirement:
A massive $4.2 trillion in investments are needed to
close the development financing gap, according to the
report.
This number was $2.5 trillion before the COVID-19
pandemic began, illustrating the impact of the pandemic
on financing needs.
Debt Service in Least Developed Countries (LDCs):
According to the report, debt service will amount to $40
billion annually between 2023 and 2025 in the least
developed countries (LDCs).
This represents an increase of more than 50% from $26
billion in 2022.
Stronger and more frequent disasters, attributed to the
ongoing climate crisis, account for more than half of the
debt upsurge in vulnerable countries.
Financial Challenges Highlighted
Debt Burden:
The poorest countries now spend 12% of their revenues
on interest payments, which is four times more than they
spent a decade ago.
Approximately 40% of the global population lives in
countries where governments spend more on interest
payments than on education or health.
Domestic Revenue and Taxation:
Major sources of development funding are slowing
down, with domestic revenue growth having stalled
since 2010, particularly in LDCs and other low-income
countries.
This is partly due to tax evasion and avoidance.
Corporate income tax rates are falling, with global
average tax rates down from 28.2% in 2000 to 21.1% in
2023, due to globalization and tax competition.
International Development Assistance
Official Development Assistance (ODA):
ODA from OECD countries and climate finance
commitments are not being met.

While ODA increased to an all-time high in 2022, reaching $211 billion from $185.9 billion in 2021, much of this
growth came from aid to refugees living in donor countries.
Despite the increase, the total amount remains inadequate for development needs. Only four countries met the UN
aid target of 0.7% of Gross National Income (GNI) in 2022.
Need for Financial System Reform
Current System Limitations:
The international financial system, established at the 1944 Bretton Woods Conference, is no longer fit for purpose.
The Bretton Woods Conference, held in the United States, led to the birth of institutions like the World Bank and the
International Monetary Fund.
A new coherent system that is better equipped to respond to crises, scales up investment in the SDGs, especially
through stronger multilateral development banks, and improves the global safety net for all countries, is the need of
the hour.
Consequences of Inaction
Reversal of Development Gains:
Hard-won development gains are being reversed, particularly in the poorest countries.
If current trends continue, the UN estimates that almost 600 million people will continue to live in extreme poverty
by 2030 and beyond, with more than half of them being women.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is India's rank in the United Nations SDG Index 4. Under which treaty was the League of Nations
and Dashboards Report 2023? established?
(a) 100th (b) 112th (a) Treaty of Versailles (b) Treaty of Lisbon
(c) 121st (d) 130th (c) Treaty of Paris (d) Treaty of Geneva
2. What is the primary objective of Sustainable 5. The 5th United Nations Conference on the Least
Development Goal 1? Developed Countries (LDC5) concluded with the
(a) Zero Hunger (b) Quality Education adoption of which declaration by world leaders?
(c) No Poverty (d) Gender Equality (a) Geneva Declaration
(b) Tokyo Declaration
3. In which year was the Bretton Woods Conference, (c) Doha Political Declaration
which set up the international financial system, held? (d) New York Accord
(a) 1938 (b) 1940
(c) 1942 (d) 1944

1. Correct Answer: (b) 112th end poverty in all its forms everywhere, lifting millions of
Explanation: In the United Nations SDG Index and people out of extreme poverty and ensuring access to
Dashboards Report 2023, India ranks 112th out of 166 essential resources and opportunities.
countries, showing an improvement from its 121st
position in 2022. This ranking indicates India's progress 3. Correct Answer: (d) 1944
towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals. Explanation: The Bretton Woods Conference, which
established the international financial system, was held in
2. Correct Answer: (c) No Poverty 1944. This system has been fundamental to global
Explanation: The primary objective of Sustainable economic governance, but there is now a call for a
Development Goal 1 is "No Poverty." This goal aims to significant surge in financing and a reform of the

international financial architecture to better achieve the 5. Correct Answer: (c) Doha Political Declaration
Sustainable Development Goals by 2030. Explanation: The 5th United Nations Conference on the
Least Developed Countries (LDC5) concluded with the
4. Correct Answer: (a) Treaty of Versailles adoption of the 'Doha Political Declaration' by world
Explanation: The League of Nations was established in leaders. This declaration is a significant outcome of the
1919 under the Treaty of Versailles. The organization was conference, held in Qatar under the theme "From
conceived in the aftermath of the First World War to Potential to Prosperity."
promote international cooperation and achieve peace and
security.

Global Trade Update: UNCTAD
Why in news?
Release of Global Trade Update 2024: The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
released its Global Trade Update 2024, indicating a potential rebound in international trade after a period of decline.
Rebranding of UNCTAD: As part of its 60th anniversary celebrations, UNCTAD has officially rebranded itself as "UN
Trade and Development." The organization will adopt its new name and logo across all official channels, including
communication materials in the six official languages of the United Nations.
Key Highlights of the Global Trade Update
2023 as a Challenging Year for Trade

Global Trade Decline: Global trade decreased by 3% to USD 31 trillion in
2023, following a peak in 2022. The downturn was driven primarily by less
demand in developed economies and weaker trade in East Asia and Latin
America.
Goods Trade Decline: Trade in goods fell by 5%. This significant decline in
goods trade was a major contributor to the overall reduction in global
trade.
Services Trade Growth: In contrast, trade in services bucked the negative
trend, growing by 8%. This growth in the services sector was fueled by a
nearly 40% increase in tourism and travel-related services.
Impact on Developing Countries

Sharper Decline in Trade: Developing countries experienced a sharper
decline in trade compared to developed nations. Their imports and exports
fell by 5% and 7% respectively. In contrast, developed nations saw a 4%
drop in imports and a 3% drop in exports.
Regional Trade Trends: Most regions experienced negative trade growth in
2023. The notable exception was Africa, which saw a significant increase in intra-
regional trade, indicating stronger economic cooperation within the continent.
Environmental Goods and Electric Cars

Rise in Environmental Goods Trade: Despite the overall decline in global
trade, 2023 saw a 2% rise in trade for environmental products. This increase
was driven primarily by a surge in electric vehicle sales, with trade in electric
vehicles growing by 60%. This highlights a growing global emphasis on
sustainable and environmentally friendly products.
End of 2023 Trends

Signs of Stabilisation: The final quarter of 2023 brought signs of stabilisation
in global trade, particularly in developing regions. Most sectors saw a rebound,
although trade in apparel (clothing and clothing accessories) continued to
contract, falling by 13%.

Outlook for 2024
Positive Forecast: The forecast for 2024 is broadly positive, with GDP
growth expected to continue at around 3%. This suggests a recovery
trajectory for global trade.
Logistical Challenges: However, logistical challenges such as shipping
disruptions in the Red Sea, Black Sea, and Panama Canal pose potential
threats. These disruptions could raise costs and disrupt supply chains,
impacting the optimistic outlook.
Geopolitical Tensions: Ongoing geopolitical tensions and regional
conflicts could also renew volatility in energy and agricultural markets.
Additionally, the growing need to secure access to minerals critical for the
energy transition could affect prices and add to market volatility for these
commodities.
Political Proximity of Trade

Geopolitical Stances: During the last two years, the geographical proximity of
international trade has remained relatively constant, showing minimal trends
towards nearshoring or far-shoring. However, since the latter part of 2022,
there has been a noticeable rise in the political proximity of trade. This
indicates that bilateral trade patterns have increasingly favored trade between
countries with similar geopolitical stances. Concurrently, there has been an
increasing concentration of global trade to favor major trade relationships,
although this trend has softened in the last quarter of 2023.

UNCTAD Overview
UNCTAD is a permanent intergovernmental body of the United Nations.
Mission: UNCTAD aims to promote sustainable development, particularly in
developing countries, through international trade, investment, finance, and
technology transfer.
Focus Areas:
Trade and Development: Promoting international trade as a tool for economic
growth and development.
Investment and Enterprise: Fostering investment and enterprise development
in developing countries.
Technology and Innovation: Encouraging technological advancement and
innovation for sustainable development.
Macroeconomics and Development Policies: Analyzing and providing policy
recommendations on macroeconomic issues and development strategies.
Full form: United
Nations Conference
for Trade and Key Highlights Related to India
Development Trade Observations:
Established: 1964 Increased Imports from China: Despite efforts by India to reduce dependency
Headquarters: on China through the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme and Quality
Geneva, Switzerland Control Orders (QCOs), there was still an increase in imports from China.
Is India a member? Trade Reorientation: The Russia-Ukraine conflict led to a significant
Yes. reorientation in trade patterns. Russia's trade dependency on China increased by
7.1%, while its trade with the EU decreased by 5.3%. This shift was primarily due
to a change in Russian oil exports from the EU to China and India.
Government of India’s Stand:
Did Favorable Trade Dynamics: The Ministry of Commerce and Industry stated that
You despite the growing trade dependence, detailed analysis revealed favorable trade
dynamics for India.
Know Increased Imports from EU: India's imports from the EU rose by 9.7% in 2023. A
significant share of these imports consisted of capital goods (35% in 2022) and
India was the first intermediate goods and raw materials (50% in 2022), which are used as inputs
country to host the for further production.
UNCTAD Smartphone Exports: India’s export of smartphones increased significantly by
Conference outside 98.42% in 2023, amounting to USD 14.27 billion, up from USD 7.19 billion in
its Headquarters in 2022. This highlights a substantial improvement in India's trade performance
Geneva in 1968. with both the EU and China.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In which year was the United Nations Conference on (c) Africa (d) South America
Trade and Development (UNCTAD) established?
(a) 1954 (b) 1964 3. Which of the following is NOT a report published by the
(c) 1974 (d) 1984 United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(UNCTAD)?
2. Which continent experienced a significant increase in (a) Global Competitiveness Report
intra-regional trade in 2023? (b) Trade and Development Report
(a) Asia (b) Europe (c) World Investment Report

(d) Technology and Innovation Report (d) GDP = Net Consumption + Gross Investment +
Government Spending + (Exports - Imports)
4. Which formula correctly represents the calculation of GDP?
(a) GDP = Private Consumption + Gross Investment + 5. What new name was adopted by the United Nations
Government Spending + (Exports - Imports) Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
(b) GDP = Private Consumption + Net Investment + during its 60th anniversary celebrations?
Government Investment + Government Spending + (a) UN Global Trade
(Exports + Imports) (b) UN Trade Alliance
(c) GDP = Private Consumption + Gross Investment + (c) UN Development Agency
Government Investment + (Exports + Imports) (d) UN Trade and Development

1. Correct Answer: (b) 1964 4. Correct Answer: (a) GDP = Private Consumption + Gross
Explanation: UNCTAD was established in 1964 as a Investment + Government Spending + (Exports - Imports)
permanent intergovernmental body of the United Explanation: GDP (Gross Domestic Product) is calculated
Nations, dedicated to promoting international trade and by adding up private consumption, gross investment,
development. This initiative was part of efforts to government spending, and the net exports (exports minus
integrate developing countries into the world economy imports). The formula does not distinguish between
more effectively. government investment and other forms of government
spending, nor does it include "net investment" or "net
2. Correct Answer: (c) Africa consumption" which are not standard terms in the basic
Explanation: Africa saw a notable increase in intra- GDP calculation. Option (a) accurately reflects the
regional trade, indicating stronger economic cooperation components included in the GDP calculation.
within the continent.
5. 5. Correct Answer: (d) UN Trade and Development
3. Correct Answer: (a) Global Competitiveness Report Explanation: As part of its 60th anniversary celebrations,
Explanation: The Global Competitiveness Report is UNCTAD rebranded itself as "UN Trade and
actually published by the World Economic Forum, not Development." This new name reflects its ongoing
UNCTAD. The other options listed, namely the Trade and mission to promote the integration of developing
Development Report, World Investment Report, and countries into the world economy in a development-
Technology and Innovation Report, are all publications of friendly manner. The other options listed do not
UNCTAD, focusing on various aspects of trade, investment, correspond to any known rebranding of UNCTAD.
and technology related to global development.

Regional Economic Outlook for Asia and Pacific Report
Why in news?
The IMF released the Regional Economic Outlook for Asia and Pacific in April 2024.
India's economic performance has been a positive surprise, supported by strong domestic demand and public
investment.
Introduction
The report focuses on the economic performance and projections for countries in the Asia-Pacific region, with a
significant focus on India and China.
The report provides updated forecasts and highlights risks and opportunities in the region.

Economic Growth in Asia-Pacific
The region's growth exceeded expectations in late 2023,
reaching 5.0%.
5% 4.5%
Growth is expected to slow slightly to 4.5% in 2024,
balancing various risks. 2023 Growth Expected Growth Rate
Emerging markets saw growth driven by strong private Rate for FY 2024-25
demand.
India's Economic Performance
The IMF raised India's growth forecast for 2024-25 to 6.8%,
up from 6.5%.
6.8% 6.5%
The growth forecast for 2025-26 remains steady at 6.5%.
India's growth is bolstered by resilient domestic demand Growth Rate forecast for Steady Growth Rate
and significant public investment. FY 2024-25 for FY 2025-26
China's Economic Forecast
China's economy is projected to grow at 4.6% in 2024, down
4.6% 5.2%
from 5.2% in 2023, and 4.1% in 2025.
The IMF identifies both positive and negative risks for China.
Policies targeting the property sector and boosting domestic Growth Rate forecast for Growth Rate
demand are crucial for maintaining stability. FY 2024-25 for FY 2023-24
Inflation Trends
Inflation in emerging markets is near the desired level but varies across economies.
Core inflation is expected to stay low, while headline inflation might decrease due to lower energy prices.
In India, rising food prices, particularly rice, could lead to higher headline inflation.
Geoeconomic Fragmentation
The IMF highlights geoeconomic fragmentation as a significant risk.
Increasing economic and trade tensions between countries can negatively impact global growth and stability.
Trade frictions, exemplified by ships rerouting around Africa to avoid the Red Sea, increase shipping costs and risks.

Importance of Public Investment:
Public investment includes government spending on infrastructure, education, healthcare, and technology.
It plays a critical role in driving economic growth and development.
Key Areas of Public Investment in India:
Infrastructure Development: Essential for economic growth, requiring an estimated USD 4.5 trillion by 2030.
Job Creation and Poverty Alleviation: Investments in infrastructure and social programs create jobs and reduce
poverty.

Human Capital Development: Investments in education and healthcare build a skilled workforce, crucial for
sustained growth.
Crowding-in Private Investment: Public investment in infrastructure lowers business costs and enhances
productivity, encouraging private sector investment.

International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Overview
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an
international organization providing financial
assistance and advice to member countries.
Established during the Bretton Woods
Conference in July 1944.
Objectives
Promote global monetary cooperation
and financial stability.
Provide financial assistance to member
countries in crisis.
Facilitate international trade and
sustainable economic growth.
Governance and Operations

Each member country has a
Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) Governor and an Alternate
SDRs are international reserve Governor on the IMF's Board of
assets issued by the IMF to Governors.
supplement member countries' India's Finance Minister serves
official reserves. as the ex-officio Governor,
Total global allocations of SDRs with the Governor of the
amount to approximately USD Reserve Bank of India as the
293 billion.. Alternate Governor.
IMF and India

India's Membership and Contributions
India is a founding member of the IMF, joining in December 1945.
India holds a 2.75% SDR quota and 2.63% of votes in the IMF.
SDR allocations to India amount to about USD 17.86 billion.
Benefits for India
Currency Independence: The Indian rupee became independent and convertible into other currencies post-IMF
establishment.
Access to Foreign Currencies: India has used IMF resources to meet development needs, fully repaying significant
foreign currency purchases.
Emergency Assistance: The IMF has provided substantial financial assistance to India during economic crises, such
as the 1981 balance of payments crisis.
Future Public Investment Sectors in India
Carbon Capture, Utilization, and Storage (CCUS): Crucial for reducing greenhouse gas emissions in industries like
steel and cement.
Cybersecurity and Data Protection: Essential for safeguarding the digital economy and enhancing national security.

Biotechnology and Precision Medicine: Investment in advanced healthcare technologies to position India as a
leader in this field.
Circular Economy and Waste Management: Developing infrastructure for efficient waste management and
resource recovery.
Blue Economy and Marine Research: Investing in sustainable ocean exploration and related economic activities
like offshore wind energy and marine biotechnology.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which organization released the Regional Economic (a) Bretton Woods Conference
Outlook for Asia and the Pacific Report in April 2024, (b) Geneva Convention
highlighting India's economic performance? (c) United Nations Conference
(a) World Bank (d) Paris Peace Conference
(b) Asian Development Bank
(c) International Monetary Fund 4. What are CCUS technologies primarily designed to do?
(d) UNESCAP (a) Generate renewable energy
(b) Increase greenhouse gas emissions
2. How is Core Inflation calculated? (c) Enhance oil drilling efficiency
(a) Core Inflation = Headline Inflation + Food and Fuel Items (d) Capture and utilize or store carbon dioxide
(b) Core Inflation = Headline Inflation - Food and Fuel Items
(c) Core Inflation = Headline Inflation / Food and Fuel Items 5. When did India join the International Monetary Fund as
(d) Core Inflation = Headline Inflation * Food and Fuel Items a founding member?
(a) December 1944 (b) December 1945
3. During which event was the International Monetary Fund (c) December 1946 (d) December 1947
(IMF) conceived?

1. Correct Answer: (c) International Monetary Fund This conference was pivotal in establishing new
Explanation: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) frameworks for international monetary cooperation and
released the Regional Economic Outlook for Asia and the the reconstruction of the post-World War II global
Pacific Report in April 2024. This report noted India as a economic order.
source of positive growth surprises, largely due to
resilient domestic demand and significant public 4. Correct Answer: (d) Capture and utilize or store carbon
investment driving the economy. dioxide
Explanation: Carbon Capture, Utilization, and Storage
2. Correct Answer: (b) Core Inflation = Headline Inflation - (CCUS) technologies are designed to capture carbon
Food and Fuel Items dioxide (CO2) either from industrial flue gases or directly
Explanation: Core Inflation is calculated by subtracting from the atmosphere, and then either utilize it in other
the price changes in the food and energy sectors from processes or store it safely to prevent its release into the
Headline Inflation. This approach is used because food atmosphere.
and energy prices can be very volatile, and removing
these elements provides a clearer picture of the 5. Correct Answer: (b) December 1945
underlying inflation trends in an economy. Explanation: India joined the International Monetary
Fund (IMF) as a founding member in December 1945.
3. Correct Answer: (a) Bretton Woods Conference This membership came shortly after the conclusion of
Explanation: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) was World War II and the establishment of the IMF during the
conceived during the Bretton Woods Conference in July 1944. Bretton Woods Conference in 1944.

International Relations
Panama Electing Jose Mulino as President
Why in news?
Jose Raul Mulino, a conservative figure and former Minister of Public
Security, won the presidential election in Panama on May 5, 2024,
with 34% of the vote, leading over his closest competitor, Ricardo
Lombana, who garnered 25%.
Panama City
Jose Raul Mulino Ricardo Lombana

(Winning Candidate)
Geopolitical and Strategic Importance
Panama's Location: Situated as an isthmus connecting North and South America, Panama
Canal
Panama holds significant strategic value.
Panama Canal: The Panama Canal, crucial for linking the Atlantic and Pacific oceans, significantly impacts global
maritime trade and plays a pivotal role in Panama's economy.
Economic Context
Post-Pandemic Recovery: Panama's economy experienced a rebound with a notable GDP growth of 7.5% in 2023
following the impact of the pandemic.
Economic Projections and Challenges: Projections by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) anticipate a
slowdown, with GDP growth expected to taper to 2.5% in 2024. The country also faced peak unemployment levels in
2020 but showed recovery signs by 2023. Inflation remains lower than regional averages, indicating a relatively
stable economic environment.
Environmental Factors and Challenges
Biodiversity and Carbon Sequestration: Panama's rich biodiversity includes vast expanses of rainforests, crucial for
carbon sequestration, making the country carbon-negative.
Climate Change Risks: The nation faces significant challenges from climate change, including altered weather
patterns and natural disasters like droughts and floods, affecting both its economy and vulnerable communities.
Migration Through Panama
Darien Gap as a Transit Point: Panama serves as a critical transit point for migrants moving from South America to
the United States, crossing the perilous Darien Gap.
President-elect's Stance on Migration: President-elect Mulino has plans to close this migration route to curb illegal
crossings, addressing safety and security concerns associated with the hazardous journey through the Darien Gap.

The Panama Canal
Historical and Engineering
Significance: Opened in 1914,
the Panama Canal spans about
50 miles across the Isthmus of
Panama. It stands as a
monumental engineering feat,
significantly reducing the
maritime journey between the
Atlantic and Pacific Oceans by
bypassing the southern tip of
South America.
Global Trade Impact: The
canal's construction, involving
extensive excavation and the
creation of locks and artificial
lakes, marked one of the most
challenging engineering
projects ever undertaken. Its
strategic and economic
significance continues to
influence international trade
and geopolitics.
The Darien Gap
Darien Gap as a Transit Point: Panama serves as a critical transit point for migrants moving from South America to
the United States, crossing the perilous Darien Gap.
President-elect's Stance on Migration: President-elect Mulino has plans to close this migration route to curb illegal
crossings, addressing safety and security concerns associated with the hazardous journey through the Darien Gap.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Who won the presidential election in Panama in 2024? (c) Balboa (d) Euro
(a) Jose Raul Mulino (b) Juan Carlos Varela
(c) Ricardo Lombana (d) Laurentino Cortizo 4. When was the Panama Canal transferred to Panamanian
ownership from the United States?
2. What strategic asset significantly impacts Panama’s (a) 1989 (b) 1994
economy and global maritime trade? (c) 1999 (d) 2004
(a) Panama Railway (b) Panama Canal
(c) Panama Airport (d) Panama Bridge 5. How many members comprise the National Assembly of
Panama?
3. What is the currency used in Panama? (a) 41 (b) 51
(a) Dollar (b) Peso (c) 61 (d) 71

1. Correct Answer: (a) Jose Raul Mulino 4. Correct Answer: (c) 1999
Explanation: Jose Raul Mulino, a conservative figure and Explanation: The Panama Canal was transferred to
former Minister of Public Security, won the presidential Panamanian ownership on December 31, 1999. This
election in Panama on May 5, 2024, securing 34% of the transfer marked a significant moment in Panama's
vote, which led him to victory over his competitors. history, gaining full control over this critical maritime
route.
2. Correct Answer: (b) Panama Canal
Explanation: The Panama Canal is a crucial asset for 5. Correct Answer: (d) 71
Panama, linking the Atlantic and Pacific oceans. It plays a Explanation: The National Assembly, which is Panama’s
pivotal role in global maritime trade and has a significant parliament, comprises 71 members who are directly
impact on Panama’s economy due to its strategic location elected by the people. These members serve a five-year
and function. term and are eligible for re-election, reflecting the
representative democratic structure of the Panamanian
3. Correct Answer: (c) Balboa government.
Explanation: The currency used in Panama is the Balboa.
It is one of the two currencies circulating in the country,
alongside the US dollar, which is also legally used.

Vladimir Putin's Inauguration for Fifth Term
Why in news?
On May 7, 2024, Vladimir Putin was inaugurated as the President of Russia for a fifth term, following an election in
March marked by significant control over the electoral proceedings. This event has garnered attention due to the broad
international criticism regarding electoral fairness and a substantial boycott from many Western nations.
Vladimir Putin
Domestic and International Stance

Domestic Politics: In Russia, Putin remains the unchallenged leader, supported by a political system that facilitates
his prolonged governance. Opposition figures, like the late Alexei Navalny, have been silenced through various
means, including imprisonment and forced exile.
International Relations: Internationally, Putin’s policies have often placed Russia in a confrontational stance with
the West. His inaugural speech indicated a willingness for dialogue, but stressed that discussions, particularly
concerning nuclear stability, would proceed only on terms of parity.
Ukraine Conflict and Western Relations
Conflict Initiation: Putin’s decision to deploy military
forces in Ukraine in 2022 has been a critical point in his
leadership, leading to severe strains in relations with
Western countries.
Western Response: The move has been perceived as a
power aggrandizement by the West, prompting military
support to Ukraine. However, direct NATO engagement has
been cautiously avoided to prevent escalation into a
broader conflict.

Nuclear Tensions and Diplomatic Efforts Government and Policy Directions
Current Atmosphere: Relations between Russia and the Government Reshuffle: Following constitutional protocol,
West are at a low point, comparable to the Cuban Missile the Russian government under Prime Minister Mikhail
Crisis era, with escalating nuclear tensions. Mishustin resigned, allowing Putin to appoint new members.
Nuclear Weapons Policy: Russia has signaled high-stakes It is anticipated that the new government will include
through announcements of tactical nuclear weapons familiar faces from Putin's previous terms.
deployment exercises. However, Putin has shown openness Policy Evolution: The direction of Putin’s domestic policies
to negotiations regarding strategic nuclear arsenals, and international strategies will likely be influenced by
specifically referencing the New START treaty set to expire global events, including key international elections such as
in 2026. the upcoming U.S. presidential election in November.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What was Vladimir Putin's profession before his 4. Which treaty concerning nuclear arms is set to expire in 2026
political career? and is currently under discussion for renewal or renegotiation?
(a) Lawyer (b) Economist (a) New START (b) INF Treaty
(c) Military officer (d) Intelligence officer (c) SALT I (d) Treaty of Versailles
2.
Where was Vladimir Putin born? 5. What significant action did Vladimir Putin take in 2022
(a) Moscow (b) Kiev that marked a critical point in his leadership and affected
(c) Leningrad (d) Kazan Russia's relations with Western countries?
(a) Diplomatic outreach
3. Who held the position of President of Russia from 2008 (b) Economic reform
to 2012? (c) Military deployment in Ukraine
(a) Boris Yeltsin (b) Dmitry Medvedev (d) Trade agreement signing
(c) Mikhail Gorbachev (d) Sergey Lavrov

1. Correct Answer: (d) Intelligence officer 4. Correct Answer: (a) New START
Explanation: Before rising to political prominence, Explanation: The New START treaty, which focuses on
Vladimir Putin was a KGB foreign intelligence officer for reducing and limiting strategic nuclear arsenals, is set to
16 years. His background in intelligence has played a expire in 2026. Vladimir Putin has indicated the potential
significant role in shaping his leadership style and for talks concerning this treaty, highlighting its
governmental policies. importance in controlling the number of nuclear weapons
and enhancing global security. Renewal or renegotiation
2. Correct Answer: (c) Leningrad of this treaty is crucial for maintaining international
Explanation: Vladimir Putin was born on October 7, 1952, nuclear arms control agreements.
in Leningrad, which is now known as Saint Petersburg.
This city is significant in Russia's historical and cultural 5. Correct Answer: (c) Military deployment in Ukraine
context, often considered the cultural capital. Explanation: In 2022, Vladimir Putin's decision to deploy
military forces in Ukraine became a critical point in his
3. Correct Answer: (b) Dmitry Medvedev leadership. This action led to severe strains in relations
Explanation: Dmitry Medvedev held the position of with Western countries, impacting international politics
President of Russia between Vladimir Putin's terms, and Russia's global standing significantly. The deployment
specifically from 2008 to 2012. During this period, Putin has been a major factor in the ongoing conflict in Ukraine
served as Prime Minister of Russia. and has resulted in widespread international criticism
and sanctions against Russia.

EU Adopts First Law Against Violence Towards Women
Why in news?
Groundbreaking Legislation: On May 7, the European Union formally adopted its first
comprehensive law aimed at combating violence against women across its 27 member states. This
legislation marks a significant step in enhancing women's rights and safety within the EU, addressing
various forms of violence that have long been a concern across the member countries.
Key Provisions of the Legislation
Broad Protection Measures
The newly enacted law aims to protect women from a variety of gender-related violence. It includes several
critical measures designed to address and criminalize different forms of abuse.
Criminalization of Offenses
Online Stalking and Harassment: The legislation criminalizes acts of online stalking and harassment,
recognizing the increasing prevalence of cyber violence.
Non-Consensual Sharing of Intimate Images: It makes the non-consensual sharing of intimate images a
criminal offense, addressing a significant issue in the digital age.
Incitement to Violence or Hatred: The law also criminalizes incitement to violence or hatred based on
gender, aiming to reduce harmful rhetoric and its potential consequences.
Punishments
Imprisonment Terms: Offenses under this law are punishable by imprisonment, with terms ranging from
one to five years, depending on the severity of the crime.
Enhanced Penalties: If the victim is a minor or has a close familial relationship with the perpetrator (such
as a spouse or ex-spouse), the law allows for enhanced penalties, reflecting the heightened severity and
impact of such offenses.
Support and Protection for Victims
Emphasis on Victim Support: The legislation places a strong emphasis on providing support and improving
protections for victims of domestic abuse, including children.
Specific Measures:
Child Safety: In cases where a child reports a crime committed by someone with parental
responsibilities, authorities are required to ensure the safety of the child before informing the alleged
perpetrator. This measure prioritizes the child’s immediate security and well-being, ensuring they are
protected from further harm.

Implementation and Impact
Incorporation into National Laws: EU member states are required to incorporate these new rules into
their national laws within three years. This timeline is set to ensure that the measures are implemented
uniformly across all member states.
Harmonization of Laws: The harmonization of these laws across the EU is expected to:
Strengthen Legal Response: Bolster the legal response to gender-based violence, ensuring consistent
and effective legal measures.
Ensure Significant Penalties: Ensure that perpetrators face significant penalties, acting as a deterrent
against gender-based violence.
Provide Comprehensive Support: Provide comprehensive support for victims, enhancing their
protection and access to justice.
Controversy Over Definition of Rape

Division Among EU Countries: Despite unanimous approval of the broader legislative framework, there was division
over including a standardized EU-wide definition of rape. This controversy highlights the complexities involved in
harmonizing legal standards across diverse jurisdictions.
Differing Perspectives:
Support for Unified Definition: Countries like Italy and Greece pushed for a unified definition, arguing that it
would ensure consistent legal standards and protections across the EU.
Opposition: Germany and France opposed the move, citing concerns over EU competency issues and the
importance of maintaining national jurisdiction over such definitions.
Ongoing Challenges: This disagreement underscores the ongoing challenges in creating entirely harmonised legal
standards within the diverse political and legal frameworks of the EU member states, reflecting different cultural, legal,
and social perspectives on the issue.
The European Union
Formation and Purpose: The European Union is a political and economic union of 27
European countries, formed after World War II to foster economic cooperation and prevent
further wars. Its establishment aimed to create a more stable and prosperous Europe through
collaboration and integration.
Establishment: The EU was established by the Maastricht Treaty in
1993, which marked a significant step in European integration.
Internal Market: The EU has developed an internal single market
through standardized laws, allowing for the free movement of goods,
services, capital, and people.
Languages: Official Languages: The EU uses 24 official languages,
reflecting its commitment to cultural diversity and inclusion.
Currency: The Euro, its official currency, is used by 19 member
countries, facilitating easier trade and economic stability within the
Eurozone.
Key Institutions:
European Commission: Responsible for proposing legislation,
implementing decisions, upholding EU treaties, and managing the
day-to-day business of the EU.
European Parliament: The directly elected parliamentary institution of the EU, representing the citizens and
playing a crucial role in the legislative process.

European Court of Justice: Ensures the uniform application and interpretation of EU law, adjudicating disputes and
ensuring compliance.
Policy Emphasis:
The EU emphasizes human rights, democracy, and sustainable development, reflecting its core values and guiding
principles. These policies aim to promote peace, stability, and prosperity both within and outside its borders.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which organization recently adopted its first law to All Forms of Discrimination Against Women adopted?
combat violence against women? (a) 1969 (b) 1979
(a) NATO (b) UNICEF (c) 1989 (d) 1999
(c) European Union (d) ASEAN
4. Which treaty established the European Union in 1993?
2. What is the minimum maximum penalty that must be (a) Maastricht Treaty (b) Treaty of Versailles
imposed for female genital mutilation across all EU (c) Treaty of Rome (d) Treaty of Lisbon
member states under the new law?
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years 5. How many official languages are used by the European Union?
(c) 4 years (d) 5 years (a) 12 (b) 19
(c) 24 (d) 27
3. In what year was the Convention on the Elimination of

1. Correct Answer: (c) European Union 1979. This international treaty is aimed at advocating for
Explanation: The European Union (EU) adopted its first and ensuring equal rights for women and the elimination
law to combat violence against women. The law requires of all forms of discrimination against women globally.
EU countries to criminalize female genital mutilation,
forced marriage, and online harassment. However, the 4. Correct Answer: (a) Maastricht Treaty
law does not include a common definition of rape. The EU Explanation: The European Union was officially
Commission proposed the law in 2022. established by the Maastricht Treaty in 1993. This treaty
marked a significant step in European integration by
2. Correct Answer: (d) 5 years formalizing the political and economic union and setting
Explanation: Under the new EU law, female genital the groundwork for future policies and expansions.
mutilation must be punishable in all member states with
a maximum penalty of at least 5 years of imprisonment. 5. Correct Answer: (c) 24
This sets a stringent minimum standard for punishment Explanation: The European Union recognizes 24 official
to ensure a robust deterrent against committing such an languages, reflecting its commitment to cultural and
offense. linguistic diversity. This multilingual policy ensures that
citizens can engage with the EU in their native language,
3. Correct Answer: (b) 1979 promoting inclusivity and accessibility across its
Explanation: The Convention on the Elimination of All institutions.
Forms of Discrimination Against Women was adopted in

UN General Assembly Supports Palestinian UN Membership Bid
Why in news?
UNGA Resolution: On May 10, 2024, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) voted in favor of a resolution
supporting Palestine’s bid for full membership in the UN.
Vote Details: The resolution passed with 143 votes in favor, nine against, and 25 abstentions.
Opposition: Key UN Security Council members, notably the United States and Israel, opposed the resolution. India
voted in favor of Palestine.
Details of the UNGA Voting
Eligibility for Accession: The General Assembly’s resolution does not grant Palestine full UN membership
immediately but qualifies them as eligible for accession.
Security Council Veto: This move follows a U.S. veto in the Security Council that blocked Palestine’s immediate
membership.
Request for Reconsideration: The resolution was framed as a request to the Security
Council to “reconsider the matter favorably,” indicating a push for reevaluation.
Palestinian Advocacy and Opposition Remarks
During the proceedings, Palestinian UN

Ambassador Riyad Mansour emphasized a
message of peace and freedom, urging
support for the resolution as a vote for
Palestinian existence, not against any other
state. Palestinian
Ambassador
In contrast, Israeli UN Ambassador Gilad

Erdan accused the General Assembly of
violating the UN Charter and symbolically
shredded a copy of the resolution during his
speech, reflecting deep-seated geopolitical
tensions.
Israeli Ambassador
Implications of the Resolution

Additional Rights and Privileges: The resolution enables Palestine to enjoy additional rights and privileges from
September 2024, including occupying a seat among UN member states in the assembly hall, albeit without a voting
right.
Non-Member Observer State: Currently, Palestine holds the status of a non-member observer state, a position that
recognizes their statehood to some extent, a status granted in 2012.
US Response and Legislative Actions
Two-State Solution: The Palestinian mission expressed that the resolution was crucial for supporting the two-state
solution at a critical moment.
US Stance: The U.S. maintained that the path to statehood should be through direct negotiations.
Funding Risks: Under American law, any UN organization granting full membership to Palestine risks U.S. funding
cuts, a policy reinforced by a new bill introduced by U.S. Republican senators aiming to tighten financial restrictions.

Broader UN Vision and Ongoing Conflicts
US Advocacy: The United States has historically advocated for two states, Israel and Palestine, to coexist peacefully
within secure and recognized borders, aligning with the territories outlined in the 1967 war.
Challenges: The ongoing conflict, including recent escalations with Hamas, poses significant challenges to achieving
these aims, highlighting the complex and volatile nature of the path towards peace and recognition in the region.
United Nations General Assembly
Principal Organ
One of the six principal organs of the United
Nations
Main deliberative, policymaking, and
representative body
Membership
193 member states
Each country has an equal vote
Key Functions: Foundation

Overseeing the budget. Founded in 1945 under the UN Charter
Appointing non-permanent members to the General Assembly meets annually under a
Security Council. president elected from the member states
Making recommendations through General
Assembly Resolutions.
Setting standards and directing global discourse on issues like international law, human rights,
and international security.
Palestinian Bid for Full UN Membership

Objective: The Palestinian Authority seeks full membership status at the United Nations to enhance its international
recognition and sovereignty claims over disputed territories.
Current Status: Since 2012, Palestine holds the status of a non-member observer state, allowing participation in
General Assembly debates but denying a full vote.
Full Membership Benefits: Full UN membership, which requires Security Council approval, would solidify its state
credentials and potentially boost its leverage in Israeli-Palestinian peace negotiations.
Challenges: Several attempts have been thwarted, primarily due to opposition from the United States and its allies,
reflecting the complex geopolitical sensitivities surrounding the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is one right the UNGA resolution does NOT grant (a) 2009 (b) 2011
Palestine in the General Assembly? (c) 2013 (d) 2015
(a) Speak (b) Vote
(c) Propose (d) Participate 3. Which of the following countries did Israel NOT recall its
ambassador from in response to the recognition of a
2. In what year did Palestine first deliver its application Palestinian state?
for UN membership? (a) Ireland (b) Norway

(c) Spain (d) France 5. How many votes were in favour of the recent resolution
recommending Palestine for full UN membership?
4. In what year was the United Nations General Assembly (a) 121 (b) 143
founded? (c) 164 (d) 182
(a) 1945 (b) 1950
(c) 1960 (d) 1975

1. Correct Answer: (b) Vote has recalled its ambassadors from the three European
Explanation: The resolution "determines" that the state countries. Three European countries—Norway, Ireland,
of Palestine is qualified for membership and and Spain—announced Wednesday their formal
recommends the Security Council reconsider its request recognition of Palestine as a sovereign state, a landmark
"favourably." The resolution grants Palestine the right to decision set to take effect on May 28.
speak on all issues, propose agenda items, and
participate in UN and international conferences, but 4. Correct Answer: (a) 1945
explicitly states that Palestine does not have the right to Explanation: The United Nations General Assembly was
vote in the General Assembly. founded in 1945 under the United Nations Charter. It was
established shortly after the end of World War II as part of
2. Correct Answer: (b) 2011 the creation of the United Nations.
Explanation: Palestine first applied for UN membership in
2011. This initial application did not succeed in gaining 5. Correct Answer: (b) 143
the necessary support within the Security Council. Explanation: The resolution received 143 votes in favour,
indicating significant global support for Palestine's
3. Correct Answer: (d) France upgraded status within the UN.
Explanation: Reacting to the recognition decision, Israel

India and Iran Sign Long-Term Bilateral Contract on Chabahar
Port Operation
Why in news?
Recent Development: India and Iran signed a long-term 10-year contract for the operation of the Chabahar port,
marking a significant milestone in their bilateral relations. This agreement represents a deepening of economic and
strategic ties between the two nations.
Date of Agreement: The agreement was signed on a Monday, eight years after the initial framework of cooperation
was concluded.
Key Features of the Agreement

Parties Involved:
India: Indian Ports Global Ltd.
(IPGL) will represent India in the
operation and development of the
Chabahar port.
Iran: Port and Maritime
Organisation (PMO) will represent
Iran.
Investment and Financial Details:
IPGL will invest approximately
$120 million to equip the Shahid-
Behesti terminal.
India has offered a credit window
equivalent to $250 million for
projects aimed at improving
Chabahar-related infrastructure.
This financial support underscores
India's commitment to enhancing
the port's capabilities.
Historical Context
Initial Agreement:
A memorandum of understanding (MoU) for the development of Chabahar port by India was signed in May 2015.
The contract was executed on May 23, 2016, during Prime Minister Narendra Modi's visit to Iran, highlighting the
strategic importance both countries place on this port.
Development Phases:
India is involved in developing the first phase of the Shahid Behesti terminal, a crucial component of the port.
India has supplied six mobile harbor cranes and other equipment worth $25 million to the port, enhancing its
operational capacity.

Importance of Chabahar Port
Strategic Significance:
Chabahar port is a vital trade artery connecting India
with Afghanistan and Central Asian countries,
providing a
strategic alternative to the Gwadar port in Pakistan.
It enhances trilateral trade between India, Iran, and
Afghanistan, fostering regional economic integration.
Economic Development:
The port is used for humanitarian aid shipments,
underscoring India’s commitment to regional
development beyond commercial interests. This use
aligns with India's broader foreign policy goals of
fostering stability and development in the region.
Transit and Ports:
The port is integrated with a special free zone,
augmenting its appeal and fostering economic growth
and cooperation.
Incentives provided by India, such as concessions on
vessel-related charges and cargo charges, bolster trade
flows through Chabahar, further integrating it into
regional supply chains. Chabahar Port (Iran)
Issues and Resolutions
Arbitration and Delays:
The long-term agreement faced delays due to issues such as arbitration, reflecting the complexities involved in
international port operations.
The two countries reached a mutual understanding to resolve disputes in a spirit of mutual trust, demonstrating
their commitment to the project's success.
Ad Hoc Operations:
The port was previously run on an ad hoc basis due to uncertainties about partner combinations in Iran. This
agreement aims to stabilize and formalize the operational structure.
Future Prospects
Enhanced Connectivity:
The long-term agreement is expected to pave the way for larger investments and improved connectivity linkages
from the port.
It will boost the International North-South Transport Corridor, connecting India, Iran, Russia, and Central Asia,
enhancing regional trade and economic integration.
Operational Achievements
Traffic Handled:
Since December 24, 2018, IPGL has managed over 90,000 twenty-foot equivalent units (TEUs) of container traffic
and more than 8.4 million metric tonnes (MMT) of bulk and general cargo, highlighting the port's growing
operational capacity.
Humanitarian Aid:
India has trans-shipped 2.5 million tonnes of wheat and 2,000 tonnes of pulses to Afghanistan through Chabahar,
reinforcing its role as a hub for humanitarian aid.
In 2021, India supplied 40,000 liters of environment-friendly pesticide (Malathion) to Iran through the port to
combat the locust menace, showcasing the port’s utility beyond commercial operations.

Official Statements
Indian Minister's Statement:
Sarbananda Sonowal, India’s Ports, Shipping, and Waterways Minister, highlighted the port’s role in enhancing
trade, marine cooperation, and transshipment. He reaffirmed India’s commitment to the region’s economic
development and emphasized that continued investment in Chabahar port will enhance its efficiency and capacity.
Iranian Perspective:
Mehrdad Bazrpash, Iran's Minister of Roads and Urban Development, emphasized the significance of the agreement
in boosting economic ties and cooperation in various sectors. He stated that the port's development would act as a
driver of relations between India and Iran and would not conflict with Iran's economic plans and obligations toward
other countries.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. When was the MoU for the development of Chabahar (a) Rice (b) Pulses
Port signed? (c) Wheat (d) Corn
(a) 2016 (b) 2015
(c) 2017 (d) 2014 4. Where is Chabahar Port situated?
(a) Gulf of Oman (b) Persian Gulf
2. Which port is considered a strategic alternative to (c) Gulf of Aden (d) Arabian Sea
Chabahar port?
(a) Karachi (b) Mumbai 5. What is the duration of the recently signed contract for
(c) Gwadar (d) Bandar Abbas the operation of Chabahar port?
(a) 5 years (b) 10 years
3. What significant commodity has India trans-shipped (c) 15 years (d) 20 years
through Chabahar to Afghanistan?

1. Correct answer: (b) May 2015 4. Correct answer: (a) Gulf of Oman
Explanation: The memorandum of understanding for the Explanation: Chabahar Port is located in the Sistan and
development of Chabahar port by India was signed in Baluchistan Province on the Makran coast of Iran,
May 2015. specifically within the Gulf of Oman. This location is
strategically significant as it provides access to the
2. Correct answer: (c) Gwadar oceanic routes without traversing the highly congested
Explanation: Chabahar port provides a strategic Strait of Hormuz.
alternative to the Gwadar port in Pakistan, enhancing
regional economic integration. 5. Correct answer: (b) 10 years
Explanation: The new agreement between India and Iran
3. Correct answer: (c) Wheat for the operation of Chabahar port is a long-term contract
Explanation: India has trans-shipped 2.5 million tonnes of spanning 10 years.
wheat to Afghanistan through Chabahar, underlining its
role in humanitarian aid.

Biodiversity and Environment
Marine Heatwaves and Coral Bleaching in the Lakshadweep Sea
Why in news?
The Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) has observed and reported a significant and widespread
bleaching event of coral reefs in the Lakshadweep Sea.
This environmental phenomenon is primarily attributed to the prolonged marine heatwaves that have persisted
since late October 2023.
Key Features of Marine
Heatwaves
Definition and Impact: Marine
heatwaves are defined as extended
periods of unusually high ocean
temperatures that are above the
normal seasonal ranges, specifically
exceeding the 90th percentile
based on historical regional ocean
temperature data. These events
pose a substantial risk to marine
life, especially coral reefs, due to
increased temperatures.
Causes and Effects: The occurrence
of these heatwaves is primarily
linked to excessive atmospheric
heat transfer and alterations in
ocean currents. Such conditions are
becoming more frequent and
intense, largely due to human-
induced climate change, impacting
marine ecosystems globally.
The Central Marine Fisheries
Research Institute (CMFRI
Establishment and Function:
Founded on February 3, 1947,
CMFRI is a premier marine research
institution located in Kochi,
operating under the Indian Council
of Agricultural Research (ICAR). It
plays a crucial role in the
management and conservation of
India's marine fisheries resources.
Research Areas: The institute's research programs are diverse, covering marine biodiversity, sustainable aquaculture,
and environmental impact on fisheries. These programs aim to develop strategies for the conservation and
proliferation of marine life, ensuring sustainable use of marine resources.

Details on Coral Bleaching
Description and Consequences: Coral bleaching is an environmental condition where corals lose their vibrant
colors due to stress caused by changes in temperature, light, or nutrients. This stress compels the corals to expel
the symbiotic algae (zooxanthellae) living in their tissues, leading to a pale or completely white appearance.
Survival and Risks: Although bleaching does not immediately kill corals, it significantly reduces their survival
prospects by depriving them of essential nutrients provided by their symbiotic algae. The lack of these nutrients
makes corals more susceptible to disease and death, posing a severe threat to marine biodiversity.
Impacts of the Current Bleaching Event
Biodiversity Crisis: According to K.R. Sreenath, a senior scientist at CMFRI, the ongoing extensive bleaching could
lead to a biodiversity crisis, potentially resulting in multispecies mortality if conditions worsen. This crisis could
have irreversible effects on marine biodiversity and ecosystem services.
Economic and Ecological Ramifications: The bleaching event threatens not just the coral ecosystems but also the
broader marine habitats, including vital seagrass meadows. The potential collapse of these systems could disrupt local
marine food webs, critically impacting fisheries, tourism, and the livelihoods of communities dependent on these
resources.
Lakshadweep Sea
Location and Significance: The Lakshadweep Sea is
positioned in the southeastern part of the Arabian Sea,
bordered by the western coast of India and named after the
Lakshadweep archipelago. The region is celebrated for its
rich marine biodiversity, supporting a wide variety of
marine flora and fauna.
Economic Importance: This sea is a crucial fishing ground,
providing sustenance and economic activity for local Indian
fishermen. It also plays a significant role in the regional
ecology and economy, supporting various marine species
and contributing to the scenic beauty of the area.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is the full form of CMFRI? (c) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(a) Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (d) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
(b) Coastal Marine Fauna Research Initiative
(c) Central Marine Fauna and Research Institute 4. What condition exacerbates coral bleaching in the
(d) Coastal Marine Fisheries Research Institute Lakshadweep Sea?
(a) Pollution (b) Overfishing
2. When was the CMFRI founded? (c) Acidification (d) Thermal
(a) February 3, 1947 (b) May 15, 1957
(c) June 10, 1967 (d) September 25, 1977 5. What indicates significant coral bleaching according to
DHW values?
3. Under which organization does the CMFRI operate? (a) 2°C-weeks (b) 4°C-weeks
(a) Indian Space Research Organisation (c) 6°C-weeks (d) 8°C-weeks
(b) Indian Council of Medical Research

1. Correct Answer: (a) Central Marine Fisheries Research CMFRI with national research and development efforts in
Institute agriculture, which includes the sustainable management
Explanation: CMFRI stands for the Central Marine of marine fisheries resources. CMFRI with national
Fisheries Research Institute. It is involved in researching research and development efforts in agriculture, which
marine biology, oceanography, and fisheries, and it has includes the sustainable management of marine fisheries
played a role in observing and reporting environmental resources.
phenomena like the coral reef bleaching in the
Lakshadweep Sea. 4. Correct Answer: (d) Thermal
Explanation: Thermal stress, caused by temperatures
2. Correct Answer: (a) February 3, 1947 consistently exceeding the norm by more than 1 degree
Explanation: The Central Marine Fisheries Research Celsius, exacerbates coral bleaching in the Lakshadweep
Institute (CMFRI) was established on February 3, 1947. It Sea. This stress contributes significantly to the health and
has since become a leading institution in marine research, viability of coral reefs.
focusing on the conservation and management of marine
fisheries resources in India. 5. Correct Answer: (b) 4°C-weeks
Explanation: A Degree Heating Week (DHW) value of 4°C-
3. Correct Answer: (c) Indian Council of Agricultural Research weeks is indicative of significant coral bleaching. This
Explanation: CMFRI operates under the Indian Council of threshold marks a critical point where sensitive coral
Agricultural Research (ICAR). This affiliation aligns species are likely to experience substantial bleaching effects.

India’s Pronouncements at the 19th Session of the UNFF
Why in news?
19th Session of the UNFF: India made significant
statements at the 19th Session of the United Nations
Forum on Forests (UNFF) held in New York in May 2023.
Forest Protection Progress: India emphasized its
progress in forest protection, highlighting careful
management and policy implementation as key factors
contributing to this success.
Key Highlights
Forest Land Growth:
Steady Increase: The amount of forest land in India has steadily increased over the last 15 years, demonstrating a
commitment to environmental conservation and sustainable practices.
Global Ranking: India achieved the third-largest net gain in forest area each year from 2010 to 2020. This notable
achievement underscores India's significant contributions to global forest conservation efforts.
International Collaborations in Species Protection:
Emphasis on Wildlife Protection: During the session, India underscored its dedication to protecting nature and
wildlife, reflecting its broader environmental priorities.
Network of Protected Areas: India has established a robust network of over a thousand protected areas. These
include wildlife sanctuaries, national parks, tiger reserves, and biosphere reserves, which play a crucial role in
biodiversity conservation.
Conservation Projects:
Project Tiger: Celebrating milestones and successes in tiger conservation, Project Tiger has been pivotal in
increasing the tiger population and ensuring their habitat protection.
Project Elephant: Project Elephant marks significant progress in the conservation of elephants, focusing on
habitat preservation, conflict mitigation, and population management.
International Big Cat Alliance: India highlighted the creation of the International Big Cat Alliance, a global
initiative aimed at protecting seven species of big cats. This project underscores India's leadership role in
international wildlife conservation.
International Big Cat Alliance
Launch and Aim: Spearheaded by India in April 2023, the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) aims to protect the
world’s seven main big cat species, including tigers, lions, leopards, snow leopards, pumas, cheetahs, and jaguars.
Membership and Collaboration: The alliance comprises 97 countries, fostering collaboration, sharing best practices,
and developing guidelines to combat illegal wildlife trade and poaching. This global cooperation is crucial for the
effective protection of big cats.
Funding: India has pledged $100 million for the first five years to support the IBCA. After this initial period, the
alliance will become self-sustaining through various funding sources, ensuring long-term viability and impact.

United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF)
Founded: October 2000 by the Economic and Social Council of the United Nations
Headquarters: UN, New York Members: All UN Nations
Main Objective: To promote the management, conservation, and sustainable development of all types of
forests worldwide.
Operational Framework: Under the jurisdiction of the Economic and Social Council
Program of Work: Multi-year program of work, with each year focusing on specific aspects of forest policy
to address various challenges and opportunities in forest management.
Guiding Principles: Activities are guided by the Forest Instrument, adopted in 2007. This instrument
outlines a set of principles for sustainable forest management, aiming to enhance the contribution of forests
to achieving international development goals.
Biennial Sessions: The forum holds biennial sessions to assess progress and set future directions in global
forest policy, ensuring that international efforts are aligned and effective.
Global Forest Resources Assessment: UNFF produces a Global Forest Resources Assessment report
periodically, providing comprehensive data on forest conditions worldwide. This report is a critical
resource for policymakers and researchers.
Environmental Agreements: Key international environmental agreements, including the Convention on
Biological Diversity (CBD), the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and the Paris
Agreement on climate change.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Where was the 19th United Nations Forum on Forests (a) First (b) Second
(UNFF 19) held? (c) Third (d) Fourth
(a) Paris (b) New York
(c) Tokyo (d) Geneva 4. By whom was the United Nations Forum on Forests
(UNFF) established?
2. Who launched the Green Credit Programme as part of the (a) United Nations General Assembly
government's Lifestyle for Environment (LIFE) movement? (b) United Nations Security Council
(a) The President of India (c) Economic and Social Council of the United Nations
(b) The Vice President of India (d) United Nations Environment Programme
(c) The Minister of Environment
(d) The Prime Minister of India 5. Which country spearheaded the launch of the
International Big Cat Alliance in 2023?
3. What was India's rank in terms of net gain in forest area (a) India (b) South Africa
globally from 2010 to 2020? (c) Brazil (d) United States

1. Correct Answer: (b) New York This ranking underscores India's significant contributions
Explanation: The 19th United Nations Forum on Forests to global forest conservation efforts and highlights its
was held in New York from May 6 to 10. This event commitment to environmental sustainability.
focused on discussing global forest goals and sustainable
development strategies leading up to 2030, highlighting 4. Correct Answer: (c) Economic and Social Council of the
international efforts in forest conservation and United Nations
management. Explanation:The United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF)
was established in October 2000 by the Economic and
2. Correct Answer: (d) The Prime Minister of India Social Council of the United Nations. This body was
Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the created to promote the management, conservation, and
Green Credit Programme at COP-28, marking it as an sustainable development of all types of forests.
initiative under the government's Lifestyle for
Environment (LIFE) movement. 5. Correct Answer: (a) India
Explanation: India spearheaded the launch of the
3. Correct Answer: (c) Third International Big Cat Alliance in April 2023, highlighting
Explanation: From 2010 to 2020, India achieved the its leadership in global wildlife conservation, particularly
third-largest net gain in forest area each year globally. in the protection of big cat species.

Achieving Net Zero Emissions in the Agrifood System: WB
Why in news?
The global agrifood system presents a substantial opportunity to reduce nearly one-third of the world’s greenhouse
gas emissions through affordable and readily available actions.
This potential transformation is detailed in a new World Bank report titled "Recipe for a Livable Planet:
Achieving Net Zero Emissions in the Agrifood System." The report outlines strategies to make food supplies
more secure, climate-resilient, and protective of vulnerable populations during the transition.
Predictive Regulation
Main Objective: The report aims to provide actionable solutions that countries can implement
to enhance food security, improve the agrifood system’s resilience to climate change, and
safeguard vulnerable groups during the transition to net zero emissions.
Target Audience: The report addresses all countries, providing specific recommendations
tailored to high-, middle-, and low-income nations.
Key Statements and Perspectives

Axel van Trotsenburg, World Bank Senior Managing Director: Highlighted the significant impact of the global food
system on climate change. He emphasized that while the food we consume contributes substantially to greenhouse gas
emissions, there is a tremendous opportunity to transform the food system to benefit the planet.
He stressed the importance of acting now, particularly by changing land use in middle-income countries, to cut
agrifood emissions by a third by 2030.
Key Insights from the Report
1 2
Agrifood System High-Income Countries:
Identified as a major, untapped source of low-cost Should lead by example and provide increased
climate change mitigation. support to low- and middle-income countries.
Capable of reducing emissions and naturally Adoption of low-emission farming methods and
sequestering carbon from the atmosphere. technologies is crucial.
3 4
Middle-Income Countries: Low-Income Countries
Have a critical role, as they can reduce up to Have the chance to avoid repeating the mistakes
three-quarters of global agrifood emissions. of richer nations.
Encourage greener practices, including reducing Embrace climate-smart strategies to develop
emissions from livestock and rice production. greener, more competitive economies.

Economic Implications and Investment Payoffs
Investment Needs: The benefits of these investments far outweigh the costs,
Annual investment requirements are estimated at $260 potentially exceeding $4 trillion.
billion to halve agrifood emissions by 2030 and achieve Expected improvements include better human health,
net zero emissions by 2050. enhanced food and nutrition security, higher quality jobs
Currently, twice this amount is spent annually on and increased profits for farmers.
agricultural subsidies, many of which are Additional benefits include greater carbon sequestration
environmentally detrimental. in forests and soil.
Redirecting wasteful subsidies can help finance some of
the necessary investments, but additional financing will
be essential to reach net zero.
World Bank
Established Date: July 1944.
Legislative Basis: Created during the Bretton Woods
Conference and began operations in 1946.
Former Name: International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (IBRD)
Headquarter: Located in Washington, D.C., USA.
Purpose: The World Bank was established to help rebuild
Europe and Japan after World War II.
Structure Functions:
The World Bank is part of a larger group that includes five international Financial Support: Offers loans,
organisations: grants, and credits for development
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) projects in transportation,
International Development Association (IDA) education, health, and
International Finance Corporation (IFC) environmental sustainability.
Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) Research and Data Collection:
International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID) Engages in thorough research and
Membership: As of now, the World Bank has 189 member countries, offers extensive data and analysis
making it a global institution. on global development issues.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What portion of global greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions World Bank, which of the following countries is among
is contributed by the agrifood sector? the top three in terms of total annual agrifood system
(a) One-tenth (b) One-fourth emissions?
(c) One-third (d) One-half (a) United States (b) Russia
(c) Australia (d) India
2. According to the Recipe For A Livable Planet Report of

3. What is the primary purpose of the 'Harit Dhara' (HD) (a) Economist (b) Consultant
feed supplement developed by the Indian Council of (c) Director (d) Analyst
Agricultural Research (ICAR)?
(a) Increase cattle weight (b) Improve cattle fertility 5. Which country is the highest emitter of methane in the
(c) Reduce cattle methane emissions coal sector?
(d) Enhance cattle immunity (a) India (b) Australia
(c) South Africa (d) China
4. Who is Axel van Trotsenburg in the context of the World Bank?

1. Correct Answer: (c) One-third Additionally, it can result in higher milk production,
Explanation: The agrifood sector contributes roughly making it a significant development for both
one-third of global greenhouse gas emissions. This environmental sustainability and agricultural
significant proportion is even more than the combined productivity.
emissions from all the world’s heat and electricity
sources, highlighting the substantial environmental 4. Correct Answer: (c) Director
impact of this sector. Explanation: Axel van Trotsenburg holds a significant
position at the World Bank as the Senior Managing
2. Correct Answer: (d) India Director. In his role, he is involved in high-level
Explanation: The report identifies India as one of the top management and strategic decisions, particularly
three countries in terms of total annual agrifood system influencing the Bank's direction on global issues such as
emissions, along with China and Brazil. This highlights climate change and development finance. His position as a
India's significant contribution to global greenhouse gas senior director places him at the forefront of guiding the
emissions from the agrifood sector. World Bank's efforts in addressing these critical global
challenges.
3. Correct Answer: (c) Reduce cattle methane emissions
Explanation: The 'Harit Dhara' (HD) feed supplement, 5. Correct Answer: (d) China
developed by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research Explanation: China is the highest emitter of methane in
(ICAR), aims to reduce cattle methane emissions by 17- the coal sector, indicating its substantial methane
20%. emissions from coal mining and related activities.

World Migration Report 2024
Why in news?
The World Migration Report 2024 was released by the International Organization for Migration (IOM).
The report addresses how migration remains vital for economies, societies, and families globally, amidst the challenges
in the rapidly changing global landscape.
Key Migration Data
International Migrants: There were 281 million international migrants globally in 2020, representing 3.6% of the
world’s population.
Migrant Workers: In 2019, there were 169 million migrant workers globally.
Missing Migrants: Approximately 8,500 migrants were reported dead or missing globally in 2023.
Remittances: International remittances amounted to USD 831 billion globally in 2022.
Displaced Persons: At the end of 2022, 117 million people were living in displacement globally.
Key Features
Geopolitical Impact:
Conflicts: The Russian invasion of Ukraine and the ongoing conflict in Gaza have significantly impacted global
migration and displacement patterns.
Geopolitical Hardening: Increasing geopolitical tensions have profound effects on migration, making it a critical area
of focus in the report.
Environmental Impact:
Climate Change: Ecologically negative human activities continue to exacerbate climate change, leading to severe
implications for human mobility and migration patterns.
Climate-Induced Migration: Climate change is expected to force 216 million people across six continents to move
within their countries by 2050. This migration is not solely due to climate change but is exacerbated by existing
pressures on communities and systems.
Technological Impact:
Artificial Intelligence: Advances in artificial intelligence (AI) are reshaping various aspects of life, including migration
systems. This technological transformation risks exacerbating digital divides between and within countries, influencing
migration patterns.
Migration as Part of the Solution
Economic and Social Benefits: Despite the politicization of migration narratives in some parts of the world, migration
has long provided significant opportunities and enriched the lives of millions. Most international migration remains
safe, orderly, and regular, serving as a driver of human development and generating substantial benefits for migrants,
their families, and their countries of origin.
Humanitarian Crises: Humanitarian crises due to displacement remain a major challenge. Forced displacement is at
its highest on record in the modern era, further exacerbated by environmental impacts and climate change.
International Organization for Migration (IOM)

Establishment: The IOM was founded in 1951 as the Provisional Intergovernmental Committee for
the Movement of Migrants from Europe (PICMME) in the aftermath of World War II.
UN Agreement: In 2016, the IOM entered into an agreement with the United Nations, becoming a
related organization.
Membership: Currently, the IOM has 175 Member States and 8 states with Observer status. India
joined as a Member State on June 18, 2008.
Headquarters: The IOM’s headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.

Global South and Global North: Both regions are significantly affected by climate change and the
consequent migration of people.
North Africa: This region experiences significant warming and decreased rainfall, leading to
displacements triggered by droughts and wildfires in countries like Libya, Algeria, and Morocco.
Sahel Region: Since the 1970s, the Sahel region has experienced a 20% decrease in rainfall, making it
prone to droughts and resulting in significant displacement.
East and Southern Africa: Climate change-linked disasters such as droughts and cyclones have become
more frequent and intense in this region. For example, Cyclone Freddy displaced over 500,000 people in
Malawi in early 2023.
Asia:
Indian Subcontinent: The region has witnessed significant climate-related displacement. For instance,
the 2022 floods in Pakistan resulted in nearly 1,700 deaths and more than 8 million displacements.
Bangladesh: A low-lying country that records thousands of displacements every year due to natural
disasters.
Central Asia: Faces issues such as increasing desertification, glacial melt, and dam failures, leading to
floods and displacement.
The Americas, Caribbean, and Oceania:

South America: Environmental factors are enhancing both internal and international migration in
countries like Ecuador and Peru.
Caribbean Islands: Among the most at-risk regions from the impacts of climate change, with
hurricanes causing significant displacements.
Global North: Even Canada and the United States are not unaffected, experiencing wildfires and
hurricanes that have led to hundreds of thousands of displacements.
India in the Report

Internal Migration: Influenced by climate impacts, particularly from regions like Rajasthan, Uttar
Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
International Migrants: India has the largest number of international migrants in the world, with 18
million Indians residing in countries such as the United Arab Emirates, the United States, and Saudi
Arabia.
Remittances: In 2022, India maintained its position as the top remittance destination, receiving over
USD 111 billion, making it the first country to surpass the USD 100 billion threshold.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. When did India join the IOM as a Member State? 2. Which country hosts the largest number of international
(a) 1998 (b) 2000 migrants from India?
(c) 2008 (d) 2010 (a) Canada (b) UAE

(c) USA (d) Saudi Arabia 5. What is the full form of PICMME, the original name of the
organization that evolved into the International
3. How many Member States does the International Organization for Migration?
Organization for Migration (IOM) currently have? (a) Provisional International Committee for Migrant
(a) 150 (b) 175 Movement Enhancement
(c) 195 (d) 200 (b) Provisional Intergovernmental Committee for the
Movement of Migrants from Europe
4. Who is known as the "Father of Migration" for his (c) Permanent Intercontinental Commission for Migrant
foundational work in migration theory? Management Efficacy
(a) Alfred Weber (b) Carl Ritter (d) Permanent International Committee for Migration
(c) Friedrich Ratzel (d) Ernst Ravenstein and Movement Economics

1. Correct Answer: (c) 2008 4. Correct Answer: (d) Ernst Ravenstein
Explanation: The report notes that India joined the Explanation: Ernst Georg Ravenstein is recognized as the
International Organization for Migration as a Member "Father of Migration" due to his significant contributions
State on June 18, 2008, becoming part of this significant to migration theory. Unlike many of his contemporaries
global organization focused on migration issues. who were travelers or explorers, Ravenstein focused on
research, particularly in cartography and the history of
2. Correct Answer: (b) UAE geography. His studies and formulations, known as
Explanation: Among the countries that host significant Ravenstein's Laws of Migration, laid the groundwork for
numbers of Indian migrants, the UAE stands out. India understanding migration patterns and have been
has the largest number of international migrants residing influential in the field of human geography.
in the UAE, USA, and Saudi Arabia, with the UAE often
cited as the primary destination due to its vast 5. Correct Answer: (b) Provisional Intergovernmental
opportunities and strategic ties with India. Committee for the Movement of Migrants from Europe
Explanation: The International Organization for Migration
3. Correct Answer: (b) 175 originally started in 1951 as the Provisional
Explanation: The International Organization for Intergovernmental Committee for the Movement of
Migration, reflecting its global role and scope, currently Migrants from Europe (PICMME) following the upheavals
has 175 Member States. This number showcases its of World War II. This organization was established to
extensive network and influence in managing migration address the massive migration and displacement
issues across different regions, facilitating cooperation challenges that arose in the aftermath of the war,
and coordination among nations to address complex specifically focusing on the needs arising from Europe.
migration challenges effectively.

Asia Hit Hardest by Disasters in 2023: WMO Report
Why in news?
A report by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) highlighted that Asia experienced the highest number of
disasters globally in 2023. The region faced 79 extreme weather, climate, and water-related events that directly
impacted over nine million people and resulted in more than 2,000 deaths.
Features of the Report
Types of Disasters:
Over 80% of the reported hydrometeorological
hazards in Asia were flood and storm events.
Flooding accounted for over 60% of the 2,000
deaths, while storms were responsible for over
15%.
Storms affected the largest number of people
and caused the most economic damage in 2023.
Comparison to Previous Year:
The number of disaster events in 2023 was only
two less than in 2022.
However, the number of people impacted in
2023 was lower compared to 2022, when the
Pakistan floods alone affected over 30 million
people.
Impact in India
Experienced severe heatwaves, rainfall-induced
floods, glacial lake outbursts, and tropical cyclones.
Notable incidents include:
Heatwaves:
Severe heatwaves in April and June 2023
resulted in about 110 deaths due to heatstroke.
Ballia and Deoria districts of Uttar Pradesh saw
the deaths of over 100 people, many of them
senior citizens with co-morbidities.
Temperatures reached 42-43 degrees Celsius
during these heat-related deaths.
Flood Events:
In August 2023, Himachal Pradesh and
Uttarakhand recorded 25 deaths due to floods,
along with extensive damage to infrastructure
and agriculture. The floods were triggered by
heavy rainfall and compounded the effects of an
earlier monsoon surge in June. The Indian
government declared a state of emergency in
the worst-affected areas, initiating rescue and
relief operations.
Tropical Cyclones:
Six tropical cyclones formed in the North Indian
Ocean in 2023, slightly above the average of 5.4
cyclones.

Four out of the six cyclones—Mocha, Hamoon, Midhili, and Michaung—formed over the Bay of Bengal, and two—Biparjoy
and Tej—formed over the Arabian Sea.
The extremely severe cyclonic storm Mocha made landfall along the Rakhine Coast in Myanmar on May 14, killing 156
people. In India, cyclone Michaung made landfall in south Andhra Pradesh on December 5, claiming 22 lives.
Glacial Lake Outburst:
A significant glacial lake outburst flood occurred in South Lhonak Lake, Sikkim, on October 4, 2023. The incident led to
the breaching of the Chungthang dam downstream on the Teesta River, resulting in the deaths of over 40 people.
Climate Change Indicators
Warming Trends:
Asia has warmed faster than the global average, with the warming trend nearly doubling since the 1961-1990 period.
Accelerating rates of key climate change indicators, such as surface temperatures, glacier retreat, and sea level rise, are
expected to have significant consequences for Asia's economy and ecosystems.
Chart. Trends in mean surface air temperature for the six WMO regions and the global mean
(degree Celsius) over four sub-periods using the six datasets. Source: WMO
Extreme Weather:
Many countries in the region experienced their hottest year on record in 2023, with extreme conditions ranging from
droughts and heatwaves to floods and storms.
A prolonged heatwave affected much of Southeast Asia in April and May, extending westwards into Bangladesh,
eastern India, and parts of China.
Future Outlook
The report suggests that climate change will continue to increase the frequency and intensity of extreme weather
events, posing compounding and cascading risks, particularly for vulnerable communities.
The example of the glacial lake outburst flood in Sikkim highlights the growing risks faced by mountain communities
due to climate change-induced glacier retreat.

World Meteorological Organisation
The WMO is a specialised agency of the United Nations.

Serves as the authoritative voice on Earth's atmosphere,
oceans, climate, and water resources.
Evolution of WMO
Originated from the International Meteorological

Organisation (IMO), a non-governmental organisation.
Became a specialised agency of the United Nations in 1951.
Transformation allowed it to better address the international
aspects of meteorology.
World Meteorological Day: Celebrated on 23rd March,
commemorating the establishment of the Convention on 23
Governance Structure March 1950.
Supreme Body: World Meteoro-
logical Congress.
Organised into six regional
associations. Headquarter and Membership
Comprises eight technical Primary headquarters located in Geneva,
commissions, each focusing on specific Switzerland.
aspects of meteorology, hydrology, and Membership includes 192 Member States and
related sciences. Territories, including India.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. When did the International Meteorological Organization (a) 50 (b) 79
(IMO) transform into the World Meteorological (c) 100 (d) 120
Organization (WMO) as a specialized agency of the
United Nations? 4. How many tropical cyclones formed in the North Indian
(a) 1945 (b) 1950 Ocean over the Indian subcontinent in 2023?
(c) 1951 (d) 1960 (a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7
2. Where is the headquarters of the World Meteorological
Organization located? 5. Which country in Asia experienced its hottest summer
(a) Paris (b) New York on record in 2023?
(c) London (d) Geneva (a) Japan (b) India
(c) China (d) Thailand
3. According to the WMO report, how many extreme
weather, climate, and water-related events did Asia face
in 2023?

1. Correct Answer: (c) 1951 climate, and water-related events. This statistic
Explanation: The WMO was established as a specialized underscores the significant environmental challenges
agency of the United Nations in 1951. It originated from faced by the region.
the International Meteorological Organization (IMO), a
non-governmental organization, and this transformation 4. Correct Answer: (c) 6
allowed it to better address the international aspects of Explanation: The Indian sub-continent experienced six
meteorology. tropical cyclones in 2023 which formed in the North
Indian Ocean. The cyclone activity was slightly above the
2. Correct Answer: (d) Geneva average of 5.4 cyclones. Four out of the six cyclones -
Explanation: The primary headquarters of the World Mocha, Hamoon, Midhili and Michaung - formed over the
Meteorological Organization is located in Geneva, Bay of Bengal and two - Biparjoy and Tej - formed over
Switzerland. This location serves as the central point for the Arabian Sea.
coordinating international efforts in meteorology,
climate, and water resources. 5. Correct Answer: (d) Japan
Explanation: In 2023, Japan experienced its hottest
3. Correct Answer: (b) 79 summer on record. This extreme heat event is part of the
Explanation: The WMO report highlighted that in 2023, broader pattern of rising temperatures and more frequent
Asia was the region that experienced the highest number heatwaves affecting many parts of Asia, highlighting the
of disasters globally, with a total of 79 extreme weather, impacts of climate change in the region.

Alok Shukla Wins Goldman Prize for Hasdeo Aranya Campaign
Why in news?
Alok Shukla, convenor of the Chhattisgarh Bachao Andolan and founding member of the Hasdeo Aranya Bachao
Sangharsh Samiti, has been awarded the 2024 Goldman Prize from Asia.
The Goldman Environmental Prize, also known as the "Green Nobel," recognizes grassroots environmental leaders
for their significant efforts in environmental conservation and justice.
Key Features of the Award and Campaign
Goldman Prize:
Awarded by the Goldman Environmental Foundation.
Recognizes grassroots environmental leaders from six regions: Asia,
Africa, Europe, North America, South and Central America, and islands
and island nations.
Winners are selected by an international jury and awarded $200,000 as
prize money.
Campaign Focus: Shukla was recognized for his efforts to save the forests
of Hasdeo Aranya in Chhattisgarh.
Achievements of the Hasdeo Aranya Campaign
Successful Community Campaign:
Shukla led a community campaign that saved 445,000 acres of
biodiversity-rich forests from 21 planned coal mines in Hasdeo
Aranya.
In July 2022, the government canceled the 21 proposed coal mines in
Alok Shukla
the region.
Significance of Hasdeo Aranya:

Hasdeo Aranya, spanning 657 square miles, is one of India’s largest contiguous forest tracts.
The forests provide a critical tiger corridor linking neighboring sanctuaries and habitats for approximately 50
endangered Asian elephants.
Home to 25 endangered species, including leopards, sloth bears, grey wolves, striped hyenas; 92 bird species,
such as white-eyed buzzard; and 167 rare and medicinal plant species.
The forests are also a catchment area for the Hasdeo river, a tributary of the Mahanadi, serving as a watershed
for the Hasdeo Bango reservoir that irrigates 741,000 acres of farmland.
Achievements of the Hasdeo Aranya Campaign

Forest and Indigenous Livelihood:
Chhattisgarh is 44% forested and has the third-largest concentration of forests in India.
Nearly 15,000 Adivasi (Indigenous peoples) depend on the Hasdeo Aranya forests for their livelihood, cultural identity,
and sustenance.
Coal Reserves:
Hasdeo Aranya sits atop one of India’s largest coal reserves, estimated at 5.6 billion tons.
In 2010, the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change declared Hasdeo a “no-go” zone due to its
vast biodiversity. However, the declaration was never formalized into law, and successive governments have
attempted to initiate mining operations.
Between 2011 and 2015, Adani Enterprises received permissions to develop five coal mines in the forests.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Who won the 2024 Goldman Environmental Prize from 4. In what year was the Goldman Environmental Prize
Asia for environmental conservation efforts? established?
(a) Raj Patel (b) Alok Shukla (a) 1975 (b) 1982
(c) Meena Gupta (d) Anand Kumar (c) 1989 (d) 1995
2. What is the rank of Chhattisgarh in terms of forest 5. Who founded the Goldman Environmental Prize?
coverage among Indian states? (a) Richard and Rhonda Goldman
(a) First (b) Second (b) Michael and Susan Goldman
(c) Third (d) Fourth (c) David and Laura Goldman
(d) Jonathan and Angela Goldman
3. Which forest is known as the "lungs of Chhattisgarh"?
(a) Sarguja Forest (b) Kanger Valley
(c) Achanakmar (d) Hasdeo Aranya

1. Correct Answer: (b) Alok Shukla Surguja in Chhattisgarh, is referred to as the "lungs of
Explanation: Alok Shukla, the convenor of the Chhattisgarh". This nickname underscores its vital role in
Chhattisgarh Bachao Andolan and a founding member of maintaining ecological balance and providing oxygen, akin
the Hasdeo Aranya Bachao Sangharsh Samiti, was to how lungs function in a body. The forest is notable for
awarded the 2024 Goldman Prize from Asia for his its rich biodiversity, including 25 endangered species, 92
significant efforts in environmental conservation, bird species, and 167 rare and medicinal plant species.
particularly aimed at saving the forests of Hasdeo Aranya
in Chhattisgarh. 4. Correct Answer: (c) 1989
Explanation: The Goldman Environmental Prize was
2. Correct Answer: (c) Third established in 1989. This initiative was launched to honor
Explanation: Chhattisgarh, where 44% of the land is individuals worldwide who have made significant
forested, holds the distinction of having the third largest contributions to environmental conservation and justice.
forest coverage among Indian states. This significant
percentage of forested area highlights Chhattisgarh's role 5. Correct Answer: (a) Richard and Rhonda Goldman
in contributing to the biodiversity and ecological balance Explanation: The Goldman Environmental Prize was
of India. founded by Richard and Rhonda Goldman. This award
was established to recognize and support grassroots
3. Correct Answer: (d) Hasdeo Aranya environmental leaders around the world, celebrating
Explanation: The Hasdeo Aranya forest, spread over 1.70 significant efforts in environmental conservation and
lakh hectares across the districts of Korba, Surajpur, and justice.

Changes in Glacial Lakes in the Indian Himalayan River Basins
Why in news?
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has analyzed satellite imagery from a significant span of nearly four
decades, from 1984 to 2023, to study the changes in glacial lakes located in the catchments of Indian Himalayan river
basins. This groundbreaking study has been publicized due to its findings on the dramatic alterations in the landscape of
these glacial lakes.
Findings of the Study
Duration and Scope: This extensive study covers observations from 1984 to 2023, using satellite imagery to track
and analyze changes in the glacial lakes across the Indian Himalayas, providing a detailed temporal insight into
environmental changes over time.
Lakes Analyzed: During the initial phase of the study in 2016-17, ISRO catalogued 2,431 glacial lakes each larger
than 10 hectares in size across the various river basins of the Indian Himalayas.
A significant number, 676 out of the
total lakes studied, have shown
considerable expansion over the
decades.
Distribution by River Basins:
Among these expanding lakes, 65 are
located in the Indus River Basin.
7 in the Ganga River Basin.
58 in the Brahmaputra River Basin.
Details on Expansion:
A major subset, 601 lakes, expanded
to more than twice their original size.
10 lakes have experienced growth between 1.5 to 2 times their original size.
An additional 65 lakes expanded by 1.5 times their initial size.
Elevation-Based Analysis
The study categorizes the lakes based on their elevation, finding 314 lakes situated at elevations between 4,000 to
5,000 meters.
A further 296 lakes are found above the 5,000 meters mark, indicating a prevalence of high-altitude glacial lakes within
the study.
Categorization of Glacial Lakes
Formation and Types:
Glacial lakes in this study are differentiated based on how they are formed:
Moraine-Dammed Lakes: These lakes, which number 307, are formed by debris (moraine) left by retreating glaciers
which dam water behind them. This is the most common type among the expanding lakes observed.
Erosion: These lakes, totaling 265, are formed in natural depressions created by erosion.
Other: This category includes 96 lakes that do not fit into the more common categories.
Ice-Dammed: A smaller category with 8 lakes, where the damming occurs due to ice formations.
Significance of the Study
Environmental and Ecological Implications: The findings provide critical data on the environmental impacts linked
with the changes in these lakes, important for ecological studies and environmental monitoring.
Risk Management for GLOF: The study is instrumental in developing risk management strategies to handle the
potential threats from Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOF), which pose serious risks to life and property in
mountainous regions.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which lake has shown a significant increase in size due its bottom?
to the impacts of climate change, as revealed by satellite (a) Gangbal Lake (b) Roopkund Lake
images from ISRO? (c) Tsomoriri Lake (d) Tsokar Lake
(a) Pangong Tso (b) Dal Lake
(c) Gepang Gath Lake (d) Tsomgo Lake 4. Glacial lakes are classified into how many main types
based on their formation process?
2. According to ISRO's recent study, how many glacial (a) Two (b) Four
lakes were identified in the Himalayas during the 2016- (c) Three (d) Five
17 period?
(a) 2,431 (b) 676 5. How many glacial lakes are located in the Indus River
(c) 1,500 (d) 3,200 basin within India?
(a) 65 (b) 58
3. Which lake is known for the human skeletons found at (c) 7 (d) 130

1. Correct Answer: (c) Gepang Gath Lake bottom. This unusual and eerie feature has earned the
Explanation: Satellite images from the Indian Space lake the nickname "Skeleton Lake."
Research Organisation (ISRO) specifically pointed out an
expansion in the size of Gepang Gath Lake. This lake, 4. Correct Answer: (b) Four
located at the end of the Gepan Gath glacier in the Explanation: Glacial lakes are categorized into four main
Western Indian Himalaya, is part of the Chandra basin. types according to their formation process. These types
The increase in its size is significant and is indicative of include Moraine-dammed, Ice-dammed, Erosion, and
the effects of climate change on glacial lakes in the Other glacial lakes. Each type is defined based on the
Himalayan region. specific geological features and processes involved in the
lake's formation.
2. Correct Answer: (a) 2,431
Explanation:ISRO’s study on glacial lakes in the 5. Correct Answer: (a) 65
Himalayas identified a total of 2,431 lakes during the Explanation: Out of the 130 glacial lakes situated within
2016-17 period. This number encompasses all types of India, 65 of them are located in the Indus River basin. This
lakes observed, out of which 676 were specifically number specifically reflects the concentration of glacial
classified as glacial lakes. lakes in this particular river basin. The other numbers—
58 and 7—refer to the number of lakes in the
3. Correct Answer: (b) Roopkund Lake Brahmaputra and Ganga River basins, respectively, while
Explanation: Roopkund Lake, located in Uttarakhand, is 130 is the total number of such lakes across all basins in
famously known for the human skeletons found at its India.

Great Nicobar Island Project
Why in news?
The project has come under the spotlight due to a temporary suspension enforced by the National Green Tribunal (NGT),
questioning the environmental approvals given by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change for a project
valued at ₹72,000 crore.
Rationale Behind the Project
Economic Objectives:
A major component of the project is a port
development intended to transform Great Nicobar
into a significant hub for cargo transshipment,
strategically positioned midway between key Asian
maritime routes including Colombo, Port Klang, and
Singapore.
Strategic Objectives:
Conceived during the 1970s, the project's strategic
importance is emphasized by its potential role in
strengthening India's position in the Indian Ocean
Region. This is increasingly pertinent given the rise
in maritime activities by regional powers.
Environmental and Societal
Considerations
Biodiversity Concerns:
The development poses risks to the island's
extensive biodiversity, including several
endangered species, triggering environmentalist
backlash.
Deforestation and Ecological Disruption:
The anticipated deforestation and mangrove
destruction are expected to increase sedimentation
and runoff, jeopardizing the marine ecosystems,
particularly coral reefs.
Evaluation of Environmental Impact:
Criticisms have been raised regarding the depth of
environmental evaluations, highlighting that
assessments were limited to data from a single
season, rather than the comprehensive three-
season data typically required.
Impact on Indigenous Communities:
Development activities threaten to disrupt the lives of local tribal groups, particularly the Particularly Vulnerable
Tribal Groups (PVTGs), who are already facing pressures from increasing encroachments.
Geographic and Cultural Context of Great Nicobar
Geographic and Natural Features:
The island is characterized by its varied topography, which includes lush tropical forests, diverse mountain ranges, and
expansive coastal plains. It supports a wide array of plant and animal species, many of which are unique to the region.
Indigenous Populations:
The Shompen tribe, known for their hunter-gatherer lifestyle, predominantly reside in the island’s interiors, relying

heavily on the forest and marine resources.
The Nicobarese, impacted severely by the 2004 tsunami, have since been relocated to the northern and safer parts of
the island.
Establishment: 18 October 2010

Formed By: Created under the National Green Tribunal Act,
2010.
Principal Place of Sitting: New Delhi, India
Other Locations: Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai.
Mandated Time frame: Required to dispose of applications or appeals
finally within 6 months of their filing.
Powers & Jurisdiction Structure of the NGT
Scope: Has jurisdiction over all civil cases Composition: Includes the Chairperson, Judicial
involving substantial environmental questions. Members, and Expert Members.
Unique Position: In October 2021, the Supreme Term Limit: Members hold office for a term of
Court recognized NGT’s unique status with suo three years or until the age of sixty-five,
motu powers to address environmental issues whichever is earlier, with no eligibility for
nationwide. reappointment.
Roles: Adjudicatory, preventative, ameliorative, Chairperson Appointment: Appointed by the
and remedial. Central Government in consultation with the
Jurisdiction: Holds both original and appellate Chief Justice of India.
jurisdiction. Selection Committee: Formed by the Central
Procedural Guidance: Not bound by the Code of Government to appoint the Judicial Members and
Civil Procedure 1908, but guided by principles of Expert Members.
natural justice. Membership Range: There are to be at least 10
Principles Applied: Includes sustainable and a maximum of 20 full-time Judicial members
development, the precautionary principle, and and Expert Members.
the polluter pays principle.
Enforcement and Remedies:
Can order relief and compensation to
pollution victims.
Orders restitution of property and
environmental restoration.
An NGT order is executable as a decree of a
civil court.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which body issued a stay on the ₹72,000 crore Great 2. Which international shipping corridor is Great Nicobar
Nicobar Island project? Island positioned near, where a large portion of global
(a) Supreme Court of India shipping trade passes through?
(b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (a) North-South shipping corridor
(c) National Green Tribunal (b) East-West international shipping corridor
(d) Central Pollution Control Board (c) Trans-Pacific shipping route
(d) Arctic sea route

3. In the Save Mon Federation vs Union of India case (c) 1970s (d) 1980s
(2013), the National Green Tribunal (NGT) suspended a
₹6,400-crore hydro project to protect the habitat of 5. Who appoints the Chairperson of the National Green
which species? Tribunal (NGT)?
(a) Tiger (b) Asian Elephant (a) Central Government in consultation with the Chief
(c) Gangetic Dolphin (d) Bird Justice of India
(b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
4. When was the proposal to develop Great Nicobar Island (c) Central Pollution Control Board
first suggested? (d) Parliament
(a) 1950s (b) 1960s

1. Correct Answer: (c) National Green Tribunal a ₹6,400-crore hydro project to save the habitat of a bird,
Explanation: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) issued a emphasizing the importance of preserving wildlife and
stay on the ₹72,000 crore Great Nicobar Island project ecological balance.
and established a committee to review the environmental
clearance given by the Ministry of Environment, Forest 4. Correct Answer: (a) Central Government in consultation
and Climate Change. with the Chief Justice of India
Explanation: The Chairperson of the NGT is appointed by
2. Correct Answer: (b) East-West international shipping the Central Government in consultation with the Chief
corridor Justice of India, ensuring an impartial and knowledgeable
Explanation: Great Nicobar Island is located near the selection process.
East-West international shipping corridor, through which
a significant portion of global shipping trade passes, 5. Correct Answer: (c) 1970s
making it strategically important for maritime trade. Explanation: The proposal to develop Great Nicobar
Island was initially put forward in the 1970s, emphasizing
3. Correct Answer: (d) Bird its strategic significance for national security and
Explanation: In the Save Mon Federation vs Union of consolidation in the Indian Ocean Region.
India case (2013), the National Green Tribunal suspended

Earth Day, 2024
Why in news?
Earth Day is celebrated annually on April 22nd to elevate public consciousness about environmental issues and encourage
proactive conservation efforts.
Theme for 2024
The theme for Earth Day 2024 is "Planet vs. Plastics ." This theme emphasizes the need for collective action to repair and
heal the planet's ecosystems, combat climate change, and preserve biodiversity.
Earth Day Overview

Initiation: Earth Day was established in 1970 after 20 million people responded to U.S. Senator Gaylord Nelson's call
to protest environmental degradation, catalyzed by events like the 1969 Santa Barbara oil spill and prevalent issues of
smog and river pollution.
UN Recognition: Recognized by the United Nations as 'International Mother Earth Day' on April 22, starting in 2009.
Coordination: Managed globally by EARTHDAY.ORG, previously known as Earth Day Network.
Mission: Aims to cultivate the largest environmental movement worldwide, driving substantial change for both the
planet and its inhabitants.
Significant Achievements: Notable for its role in the signing of the Paris Agreement on Earth Day 2016, which nearly
200 countries endorsed to set unified targets for reducing global greenhouse emissions.
Purpose: Promotes a collective responsibility to foster harmony with nature, as per the 1992 Rio Declaration from the
Earth Summit, balancing economic, social, and environmental needs for current and future generations.
Earth Hour Overview

Establishment: Started by the World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF) in 2007.
Annual Event: Occurs on the last Saturday of March each year.
Participation: Involves people from over 180 countries turning off their lights from 8:30 pm to 9:30 pm local time.
Goal: Seeks to heighten awareness about climate change and the importance of environmental conservation.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What significant event led to the establishment of Earth 4. What is the primary aim of EARTHDAY.ORG, the
Day in 1970? organization that coordinates Earth Day?
(a) The formation of the United Nations Environment (a) To promote nuclear energy as a green alternative
Programme (b) To reduce the use of fossil fuels by 50% by 2050
(b) The signing of the Paris Agreement (c) To build the world’s largest environmental
(c) The 1969 Santa Barbara oil spill movement to drive transformative change
(d) The release of the book "Silent Spring" (d) To focus solely on the conservation of rainforests
2. When did the United Nations officially recognize April 5. By what year does India aim to achieve Net Zero GHG
22 as International Mother Earth Day? emissions?
(a) 2009 (b) 1970 (a) 2040
(c) 1990 (d) 2000 (b) 2050
(c) 2070
3. Which landmark agreement related to environmental (d) 2100
protection was signed on Earth Day 2016?
(a) The Kyoto Protocol (b) The Paris Agreement
(c) The Montreal Protocol (d) The Copenhagen Accord

1. Correct Answer: c) The 1969 Santa Barbara oil spill Earth Day, April 22, 2016.
Explanation: Earth Day was established following the
1969 Santa Barbara oil spill, which prompted widespread 4. Correct Answer: c) To build the world’s largest
environmental concern and activism, leading to the first environmental movement to drive transformative change
Earth Day in 1970 where approximately 20 million Explanation: EARTHDAY.ORG, formerly known as Earth
people participated in demonstrations across the United Day Network, aims to build the world's largest
States. environmental movement to effect significant changes for
the planet and its people, emphasizing broad, inclusive
2. Correct Answer: a) 2009 actions to address various environmental challenges.
Explanation: The United Nations designated April 22 as
International Mother Earth Day in 2009, reinforcing 5. Correct Answer: c) 2070
global awareness and action towards preserving the Explanation: India has set an ambitious target to reach
environment. Net Zero Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emissions by 2070. This
goal involves a significant transition to large-scale
3. Correct Answer: b) The Paris Agreement renewable energy sources and reflects India's
Explanation: The Paris Agreement, an essential global commitment to addressing climate change and promoting
pact aimed at reducing carbon emissions and combating sustainable development.
climate change, was signed by almost 200 countries on

India’s Tree Cover Loss
Why in news?
India has undergone a significant environmental change, losing 2.33 million hectares of tree cover from the year 2000 to
2023. This decline highlights a broader issue of environmental degradation and deforestation.
The Global Forest Watch is an essential tool in the global environmental

landscape, providing near real-time monitoring of forest changes using
advanced satellite data and other technological sources.
1997 - World Resource Institute (WRI) established Global Forest Watch
as part of their Forest Frontiers Initiative.
In 2014, WRI launched GFW 2.0, made possible by advanced forest
monitoring technology and expanded group of partners.

Extent of Loss: Over the span of 23 years, from 2000 to 2023, India's tree cover reduced by 2.33 million hectares,
marking a 6% decrease in tree cover. This statistic reflects a substantial environmental impact affecting biodiversity
and climate.
Primary Forests Affected: The loss has been particularly severe in humid primary forests, where 414,000 hectares
have been lost, constituting 4.1% of the total tree cover and overall 18% of the total tree cover loss during the same
timeframe. Primary forests are crucial due to their biodiversity and ecological importance.
According to the GFW, a significant portion of the tree cover loss, specifically 95%, occurred within natural forests
from 2013 to 2023, indicating the vulnerability of these areas to environmental changes and human activities.

Carbon Emissions and Absorption
Annual Emissions: Indian forests, due to tree cover loss, have emitted approximately 51 million tons of carbon
dioxide equivalent per year, accumulating to 1.12 gigatons over the observed period. This emission contributes to
global warming and climate change.
Carbon Sink: Despite significant losses, the forests in India continue to function as a carbon sink, absorbing about 141
million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent annually, with a net carbon sink effect of 89.9 million tons per year. This
absorption is critical in mitigating the impact of carbon emissions.
Types of Tree Cover Loss
Deforestation vs. Tree Cover Loss: It's crucial to differentiate between general tree
cover loss and deforestation. Tree cover loss includes both permanent and
temporary losses caused by human activities and natural phenomena such as fires,
disease, or storms. Deforestation specifically refers to the permanent removal of
forest cover for non-forest uses.
Major Incidents and Regional Impacts
Peak Loss Years: The years with the most significant tree cover losses were 2017
with 189,000 hectares, followed by 2016 with 175,000 hectares, and 2023 with
144,000 hectares, marking the highest loss in the last six years.
States Most Affected: Assam leads with the highest loss of 324,000 hectares,
followed by Mizoram (312,000 hectares), Arunachal Pradesh (262,000 hectares),
Nagaland (259,000 hectares), and Manipur (240,000 hectares). These five states
together account for 60% of all tree cover losses from 2001 to 2023.
Challenges in Data and

Monitoring
Data Adjustments: The GFW has
made various adjustments to its
algorithms and improved its satellite
data over time, which can impact the
accuracy and comparability of data
across different years, particularly
before and after the year 2015.
Technical Challenges: Accurately
monitoring tree cover and forest
dynamics is complex, as it involves
satellite imagery that can readily
capture tree cover but struggles with
land use metrics, which are critical to
defining forests.
Fire-Related Tree Cover Loss
Extent and Impact: India
experienced a loss of 35,900 hectares
of tree cover due to fires between
2002 and 2022, with 2008 seeing the
maximum annual loss from fires at
3,000 hectares.

State-specific Loss: The states most affected by fire-related tree cover loss include Odisha with an average annual loss
of 238 hectares, Arunachal Pradesh with 198 hectares, Nagaland with 195 hectares, Assam with 116 hectares, and
Meghalaya with 97 hectares annually.
Major Forest Conservation Initiatives in India
Forest Cover Reports: The Forest Survey of India (FSI) conducts biennial assessments published in the India State of
Forest Report (ISFR). The 2021 report indicated an increase in forest and tree cover to 24.62% of India's geographical
area.
National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC): Launched in 2008, includes the National Mission for Green India
aimed at increasing forest cover.
Nagar Van Yojana (NVY): Initiated in 2020 to develop urban forests and enhance green cover in urban and peri-urban
areas.
Compensatory Afforestation Fund (CAMPA): Utilized for afforestation efforts to offset the diversion of forest land
for development.
Multi-Departmental Conservation Efforts: Various programs by line Ministries, State Governments, NGOs, and
Corporate bodies contribute to afforestation.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In which case did the Supreme Court of India establish a 3. Which Indian state had the highest rate of tree cover loss
"broad and all-encompassing" definition of forest in due to fires from 2001 to 2022?
1996? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Nagaland
(a) T N Godavarman case (b) Minerva Mills case (c) Odisha (d) Assam
(c) Indra Sawhney case (d) Vishakha case
4. When was the National Action Plan on Climate Change
2. Which state in India has the largest forest cover in (NAPCC) launched?
terms of area, according to the India State of Forest (a) 2005 (b) 2008
Report 2021? (c) 2010 (d) 2015
(a) Maharashtra (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh 5. Which year recorded the maximum tree cover loss due
to fires in India, according to the data?
(a) 2002 (b) 2008
(c) 2015 (d) 2020

1. Correct Answer: (a) T N Godavarman case 3. Correct Answer: c) Odisha
Explanation: In 1996, the Supreme Court of India, Explanation: From 2001 to 2022, Odisha had the highest
through its judgment in the T N Godavarman case, laid rate of tree cover loss due to fires, with an average of 238
down a comprehensive definition of forests. This hectares lost per year.
definition requires governments to maintain a broad and
inclusive approach in defining forests until a consolidated 4. Correct Answer: (b) 2008
record of all forest types is created. Explanation: The National Action Plan on Climate Change
(NAPCC) was launched in 2008.
2. Correct Answer: (b) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: As per the India State of Forest Report 2021, 5. Correct Answer: b) 2008
Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover area-wise in Explanation: The data showed that 2008 recorded the
the country, followed by Arunachal Pradesh, maximum tree cover loss due to fires, with 3,000 hectares
Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Maharashtra. lost.
LEGALEDGE
3. 7676564400 support@toprankers.com www.toprankers.com 99
Science & Technology
Hydrocarbons Exploration and Extraction
Why in news?
Hydrocarbons have played a pivotal role since the Industrial Revolutions, which were powered by the extraction and use
of these substances, resulting in significant environmental repercussions.
Their ongoing exploitation continues to lead to substantial contamination of air, water, and the atmosphere,
intensifying the global warming crisis.
There is a growing imperative on a global scale to adopt less environmentally detrimental methods of hydrocarbon
utilization due to their role in exacerbating climate change.
Oil and Gas Value Chain
Nature of Hydrocarbon Source and Formation

Hydrocarbons are organic Hydrocarbons primarily form
compounds made mostly from kerogen, a dense organic
of hydrogen and carbon. material from lake, marine, or
Carbon atoms form the terrestrial origins. Different
backbone, and hydrogen sources of kerogen produce
atoms attach in various varying hydrocarbons:
patterns. They are key lacustrine kerogen forms waxy
components of complex oils, marine results in oil and
compounds like petroleum gas, and terrestrial generates
and natural gas. light oils, gas, and coal.
Geological and Environmental Context:

Hydrocarbons are typically located beneath sedimentary rocks, formed through a millennia-long process involving the
burial and transformation of organic material under high pressure and heat, devoid of oxygen.
Hydrocarbon Types and Properties
Alkanes: These are saturated hydrocarbons with single bonds between carbon atoms (General Formula: CnH2n+2),
such as methane and ethane, used predominantly as fuels due to their non-reactive nature.
Alkenes: Unsaturated hydrocarbons with at least one double bond between carbon atoms (General Formula:
CnH2n), including ethylene and propylene, which are more reactive and widely used in chemical synthesis and
plastics production.

Alkynes: These hydrocarbons have at least one triple bond between carbon atoms, making them extremely reactive;
acetylene is a notable example used in welding and as a chemical precursor.
Aromatic Hydrocarbons (Arenes): Characterized by rings of carbon atoms with alternating double bonds, making
them chemically stable; benzene and toluene are examples used in the production of dyes, detergents, and
explosives.
Global Context: Top Oil Producers and Consumers
Production and Consumption Statistics:
The United States is the largest oil producer, responsible for 22% of global production, followed by Saudi
Arabia and Russia each at 11%, Canada at 6%, and China at 5%.
In terms of consumption, the United States leads with 20% of global oil consumption, followed by China at
15%, India at 5%, and Russia and Saudi Arabia each at 4%.
Environmental and Economic Considerations
Decommissioning of Wells: When a well is no longer economically viable, it must be properly decommissioned to
prevent environmental damage. Improperly abandoned wells can leak methane, a potent greenhouse gas.
Carbon Emissions: A study cited in the article notes that oilfields globally emitted approximately 1.7 billion tonnes
of carbon dioxide in 2015, highlighting the environmental impact of hydrocarbon extraction.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is the primary source of hydrocarbons found 4. How many sedimentary basins are there in India, and
underground, often in rocky formations? what is the total area they cover?
(a) Kerogens (b) Silicates (a) 10 basins, 1.5 million square kilometres
(c) Carbonates (d) Sulfides (b) 15 basins, 2.5 million square kilometres
(c) 26 basins, 3.4 million square kilometres
2. Which type of hydrocarbons consists only of single (d) 32 basins, 4.0 million square kilometres
bonds between carbon atoms and follows the general
formula Cn H2n+2? 5. Which exploration and production policy was approved
(a) Alkenes (b) Alkynes by the Government of India to replace the New
(c) Aromatic compounds (d) Alkanes Exploration Licensing Policy (NELP)?
(a) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
3. Which country is the largest oil producer, responsible (b) Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy
for 22% of global oil production? (c) National Gas Hydrate Program
(a) Russia (b) Saudi Arabia (d) Open Acreage Licensing Programme
(c) China (d) United States

1. Correct Answer: (a) Kerogens methane (CH4) and ethane (C2H6).
Explanation: Kerogens are organic matter found in rocky
formations underground and are the primary source of 3. Correct Answer: (d) United States
hydrocarbons. They originate from different sources like Explanation: The United States is the largest oil producer
lacustrine (lake), marine, and terrestrial ecosystems. in the world, accounting for 22% of global oil production.
Other significant producers include Saudi Arabia, Russia,
2. Correct Answer: (d) Alkanes Canada, and China.
Explanation: Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons that
contain only single bonds between carbon atoms. They 4. Correct Answer: (c) 26 basins, 3.4 million square
follow the general formula Cn H2n+2. Examples include kilometres

Explanation: India has 26 sedimentary basins, which Explanation: The Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing
together cover a total area of 3.4 million square Policy (HELP) was approved by the Indian government as an
kilometres. exploration and production policy that replaced the New
Exploration Licensing Policy (NELP).
5. Correct Answer: (b) Hydrocarbon Exploration and
Licensing Policy (HELP)

Indian Space Situational Assessment Report (ISSAR) 2023
Why in news?
The Indian Space Situational Assessment Report (ISSAR) for 2023 was released by Shri S. Somanath, Secretary
of the Department of Space (DOS)/Chairman of ISRO, marking a significant annual update on space situational
awareness and the status of space operations management.
Key Features of the ISSAR, 2023
Focus on Space Situational Awareness (SSA): Emphasizes the importance of monitoring and understanding space
environment hazards including natural objects like asteroids and artificial space debris to ensure safe and sustainable
space operations.
Annual Compilation: The report is compiled by ISRO's System for Safe and Sustainable Space Operations
Management (IS4OM) and serves as a reference for stakeholders involved in space operations.
Global Space Object Population: Reports an increase in space objects in 2023 with 3143 objects launched, up from
2533 in 2022, including objects from 212 launches and on-orbit break-up events.
Indian Space Scenario in 2023

Satellite Operations: India had 127 satellites launched by the end of 2023, including
private and academic institutions' satellites.
Operational Satellites: As of December 31, 2023, the Government of India operated 22
satellites in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and 29 in Geosynchronous Earth Orbit (GEO).
Deep Space Missions: Active missions include Chandrayaan-2 Orbiter, Aditya-L1, and
Chandrayaan-3's Propulsion Module.
Satellite Re-entries: Eight Indian satellites re-entered the atmosphere in 2023, including a
controlled re-entry of Megha-tropiques-1.
Space Operations and Collision Avoidance

Collision Avoidance Manoeuvres (CAM): ISRO conducted 23 CAMs in 2023, with detailed
strategies to mitigate close approach risks with other space objects.
Space Object Proximity Analysis (SOPA): Over 137,565 close approach alerts were
analyzed, leading to the detection of 3,033 alerts for close approaches within 1 km for ISRO
satellites.
Launch Collision Avoidance: The report highlights collision avoidance analysis for launches,
with specific instances where launch times were adjusted to avoid potential collisions.
Spacecraft Decommissioning and Post Mission Disposal

Collision Avoidance Manoeuvres (CAM): ISRO conducted 23 CAMs in 2023, with detailed
strategies to mitigate close approach risks with other space objects.
Space Object Proximity Analysis (SOPA): Over 137,565 close approach alerts were
analyzed, leading to the detection of 3,033 alerts for close approaches within 1 km for ISRO
satellites.
Launch Collision Avoidance: The report highlights collision avoidance analysis for launches,
with specific instances where launch times were adjusted to avoid potential collisions.
Spacecraft Decommissioning and Post Mission Disposal
Decommissioning Highlights: The report details the end-of-life procedures for satellites like Megha-tropiques-1, which
was de-orbited safely into the South Pacific Ocean.
Compliance with Guidelines: Decommissioning activities are conducted in compliance with internationally recognized
guidelines to ensure minimal environmental impact and space debris.

International Cooperation and Long-term Sustainability
Global Engagement: ISRO's active participation in international bodies like the Inter-Agency Debris Coordination
Committee (IADC) and contributions to the UN Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space (UN-COPUOS)
emphasize its commitment to global space safety and sustainability standards.
Future Challenges and Reforms: The report discusses the challenges posed by increasing space traffic and the
need for global space traffic management, highlighting the importance of international collaboration for sustainable
space activities.
About ISRO Key Features

Establishment: ISRO was
established in 1969 under the
stewardship of Dr. Vikram Sarabhai,
often considered the father of the
Indian space program. It evolved from
the Indian National Committee for
Space Research (INCOSPAR) formed
in 1962.
Parent Department: Operates under
the Department of Space,
Government of India.
Headquarters: Located in Bengaluru,
Karnataka, India.
Vision: To harness space technology
for national development and to
conduct space science research and
planetary exploration.
Wings of ISRO
Antrix Corporation
Established: Founded in September 1992, Antrix Corporation Limited is the commercial arm of
the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Purpose: It was set up to promote and commercially exploit the products, services, and
technologies developed by ISRO.
NewSpace India Limited (NSIL)
Established: Incorporated in March 2019, NSIL is a Government of India company under the
administrative control of the Department of Space (DOS).
Purpose: NSIL was set up to commercially exploit the research and development work carried
out by ISRO in the field of space. Its aim is to scale up industry participation in Indian space
programmes.
InSPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre)
Established: InSPACe was officially established in 2020 as part of a significant reform aimed at
fostering greater private sector participation in the Indian space sector.
Purpose: The primary purpose of InSPACe is to function as a facilitator and regulator of space
activities conducted by private entities.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. How many Indian satellites, including those from (b) Satellite Evasion
private operators/academic institutions, had been (c) Trajectory Adjustment
launched by December 31, 2023? (d) Collision Avoidance Maneuvers
(a) 110 (b) 127
(c) 138 (d) 145 4. Where was the Kheda Communications Project (KCP)
specifically implemented?
2. Which satellite launch vehicle successfully carried the (a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra
Chandrayaan-3 Propulsion Module to space in 2023? (c) Kerala (d) Rajasthan
(a) PSLV-C56 (b) GSLV-F12
(c) LVM3-M4 (d) SSLV-D2 5. When was Antrix Corporation Limited founded?
(a) July 1990 (b) September 1992
3. What is carried out by ISRO to safeguard operational (c) March 1994 (d) December 1995
spacecraft in case of critical close approaches?
(a) Space Detour

1. Correct Answer: (b) 127 4. Correct Answer: (a) Gujarat
Explanation: By the end of December 31, 2023, a total of Explanation: The Kheda Communications Project (KCP)
127 Indian satellites had been launched, including those was specifically implemented in the Kheda district of
from private operators and academic institutions. Gujarat. The project focused on providing localized and
need-based program transmissions, which were tailored
2. Correct Answer: (c) LVM3-M4 to the specific needs and contexts of the local population
Explanation: The LVM3-M4 launch vehicle successfully in Kheda. This approach was designed to ensure the
carried the Chandrayaan-3 Propulsion Module to space in relevance and effectiveness of the content, thereby
2023. enhancing the impact of the communications delivered
through the project.
3. Correct Answer: (d) Collision Avoidance Manoeuvres
Explanation: When critical close approaches are 5. Correct Answer: (b) September 1992
predicted, ISRO performs Collision Avoidance Explanation: Antrix Corporation Limited, the commercial
Manoeuvres (CAM) to protect its operational spacecraft arm of ISRO, was founded in September 1992.
from potential collisions with other space objects.

Greater Ice on Moon Critical for Missions
Why in news?
ISRO's Space Applications Centre (SAC), in collaboration with various research institutions, has conducted a
study revealing significant findings about the presence of water ice on the Moon's polar craters.
The research highlights that there is more subsurface ice than surface ice at the lunar poles, which is crucial for the
feasibility of future lunar missions and establishing a human presence on the Moon.
Key Findings of the Study
Subsurface Ice Distribution: The study points out a notable amount of water ice
within the first couple of meters below the lunar surface, significantly more
abundant than the ice at the surface in both poles.
Regional Differences: Data indicates that the northern polar region of the
Moon contains double the amount of water ice compared to the southern
polar region, suggesting regional disparities in ice distribution.
Source and Formation: The subsurface water ice at the lunar poles is
believed to primarily derive from outgassing related to volcanism during the
Moon's Imbrian period. Additionally, the distribution of this ice is influenced
by Mare volcanism and patterns of impact cratering.
Significance of the Study

Mission Planning: The insights into the distribution and quantity of water ice are vital for
designing future lunar missions, particularly those aimed at extracting and utilizing lunar
volatiles.
Support for ISRO’s Goals: This study is integral to ISRO's strategic planning for future in-situ volatile
exploration missions on the Moon, supporting broader goals of sustainable lunar exploration.
ISRO’s In-Situ Volatile Exploration
Future Missions and Objectives: ISRO is preparing for missions
that aim to utilize in-situ resources on the Moon. These include
harnessing the water ice in the permanently shadowed polar
regions to create rocket propellant and other vital resources.
Technological Developments: Key technologies under
development for these missions involve:
Advanced landers and rovers designed to drill and extract
sub-surface volatile deposits like water ice.
Systems for handling cryogenic samples.
Plants for extracting volatiles and producing propellant on-
site.
Chandrayaan-3 Mission: This upcoming mission, expected to launch in 2024, will deploy a lander and rover to further
study the lunar soil's composition and investigate the lunar exosphere.
Long-Term Goals: Looking ahead, ISRO plans to execute the Lunar Polar Exploration Mission to find the optimal sites
for water extraction, aiming to support a sustainable human presence and longer-term lunar bases.

Timeline of Various Moon Missions attempted by different Countries
United States
1966, Lunar Orbiter Program: The U.S. initiated its direct explorations of the Moon with the Lunar Orbiter program,
aiming to map the lunar surface to prepare for manned landings.
1969-1972, Apollo Missions: Marking some of the most significant achievements in space exploration, the Apollo
program successfully landed the first humans on the Moon with Apollo 11 in 1969. Neil Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin
became the first and second humans, respectively, to walk on the Moon. Subsequent missions continued to explore
more lunar surface areas.
2009, LCROSS: NASA’s LCROSS mission aimed to discover water in the permanently shadowed lunar craters by
crashing a probe into the Cabeus crater near the Moon's south pole.
Soviet Union / Russia
1959, Luna 1: The first spacecraft to reach the vicinity of the Moon and the first spacecraft to reach the vicinity of the
Earth's orbit.
1959, Luna 2: The first human-made object to impact the lunar surface.
1959, Luna 3: The first mission to photograph the far side of the Moon.
1970, Luna 16: Successfully returned lunar soil samples to Earth, making it the third country to retrieve lunar soil
samples (after the U.S. from manned Apollo missions).
China
2007, Chang’e-1: Launched as part of the Chinese Lunar Exploration Program, this mission aimed to map and obtain
images of the lunar surface.
2013, Chang'e 3: This mission notably deployed the Yutu rover, marking China's first soft landing on the Moon and
making it the third country to manage a controlled landing on the lunar surface.
2019, Chang'e 4: Achieved the first-ever soft landing on the far side of the Moon, deploying the Yutu-2 rover to
explore the lunar surface.
2020, Chang'e 5: Successfully returned lunar rocks and soil to Earth, the first such mission since 1976.
India
2008, Chandrayaan-1: India’s first lunar probe provided critical data on the presence of water molecules on the
Moon's surface.
2019, Chandrayaan-2: Aimed to explore the south pole of the Moon, the mission included an orbiter, a lander, and a
rover. Although the lander crashed, the orbiter continues to study the Moon.
European Space Agency (ESA)
SMART-1, 2003: ESA’s first lunar mission, focused on testing solar-electric propulsion and performing scientific
investigations during its orbit around the Moon.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which lunar region contains more water ice? (a) Radar (b) Laser
(a) Southern (b) Equatorial (c) Thermal radiometer (d) Neutron spectrometer
(c) Northern (d) Western
4. According to the recent study by SAC/ISRO and
2. What historical period is believed to contribute collaborators, how much larger is the amount of
primarily to the subsurface water ice at the lunar poles? subsurface ice compared to surface ice in the lunar
(a) Nectarian (b) Imbrian poles?
(c) Copernican (d) Eratosthenian (a) 2 to 3 times (b) 5 to 8 times
(c) 10 to 12 times (d) 15 to 20 times
3. Which instrument on the Lunar Reconnaissance Orbiter
was used for detecting hydrogen, an indicator of water
presence?

5 Which of the following institutions did NOT collaborate on the study revealing enhanced possibility of water ice in
the polar craters of the Moon?
(a) Massachusetts Institute of Technology (b) University of Southern California
(c) IIT Kanpur (d) Jet Propulsion Laboratory

1. Correct Answer: (c) Northern 4. Correct Answer: (b) 5 to 8 times
Explanation: The research indicated that the northern Explanation: The study conducted by the scientists of the
polar region of the Moon contains double the amount of Space Applications Centre (SAC)/ISRO, in collaboration
water ice compared to the southern polar region, with other research institutions, found that the amount of
suggesting significant regional disparities in ice subsurface ice within the first couple of meters below the
distribution. lunar surface is approximately 5 to 8 times larger than the
ice at the surface in both poles. This significant difference
2. Correct Answer: (b) Imbrian underscores the potential for accessing more substantial
Explanation: The subsurface water ice at the lunar poles water resources below the surface, which could be crucial
is believed to derive mainly from outgassing related to for future lunar missions and the establishment of a
volcanism during the Moon's Imbrian period, which human presence on the Moon.
shaped much of the current ice distribution.
5. Correct Answer: (a) Massachusetts Institute of
3. Correct Answer: (d) Neutron spectrometer Technology
Explanation: A neutron spectrometer was employed to Explanation: The study on the possibility of water ice in
detect hydrogen, which indicates the presence of water. the polar craters of the Moon was conducted by scientists
This tool helps identify potential areas where water ice from the Space Applications Centre (SAC)/ISRO, IIT
might be located beneath the lunar surface. Kanpur, University of Southern California, and Jet
Propulsion Laboratory. The Massachusetts Institute of
Technology (MIT) was not mentioned as a collaborating
institution in this particular study.

WEF Report on Earth Observation Data
Why in news?
A new report by the World Economic Forum (WEF), in partnership with Deloitte, highlights the significant economic
and environmental benefits of Earth Observation (EO) data.
The report, endorsed by industry and climate leaders, emphasizes the role of EO data in economic growth and
sustainability.
Global Economic Impact:
EO data can generate over USD 3 trillion in economic benefits globally by 2030.
The global value of EO data is expected to grow from USD 266 billion at present to over USD 700 billion by 2030.
This growth could contribute a cumulative USD 3.8 trillion to global GDP by 2030.
Sectoral Benefits:
Agriculture:
Farmers can use EO data to enhance crop yield and sustainability practices.
Energy:
EO data can help optimize energy production and distribution.
Finance:
Insurance companies can better understand and mitigate environmental risks.
Environmental Impact
Reduction in Greenhouse Gas Emissions:
EO data can help eliminate two gigatonnes of greenhouse gas emissions annually by 2030.
This reduction is equivalent to the estimated combined annual emissions of 476 million gasoline-powered cars.
Regional Impact
Asia Pacific:
The Asia Pacific region is poised to capture the largest share of EO's value by 2030, with a potential value of USD
315 billion.
Africa and South America:
These regions are positioned to realize the largest percentage growth in EO data value.
Statements from Leaders
Jeremy Jurgens, Managing Director and Head of the Centre for the Fourth Industrial Revolution at WEF:
"Earth observation is a vital component of the Fourth Industrial Revolution."
"It converges with artificial intelligence, digital twins, and climate technology to offer a powerful toolset for
economic prosperity and sustainable growth."
Jennifer Steinmann, Deloitte Global Sustainability Leader:
"Earth data can play an instrumental role in helping organizations understand their impacts and dependencies on
nature."
"It can help comply with sustainability regulations and shape strategies that contribute to a nature-positive and
net-zero economy."
Challenges and Recommendations
Challenges:
Limited awareness of EO data's potential.
Talent shortage in the field of EO data.
Fragmented standards hindering widespread adoption.
Recommendations:
Collaborative efforts and informed policies are needed to stimulate demand for EO data.
Advancement in technology and establishment of key standards are crucial for maximizing the benefits of EO data.

ABOUT WORLD ECONOMIC FORUM
FOUNDING AND EVOLUTION
2
1
Founded by Klaus Schwab in 1971,
originally as the European
Management Forum.
Schwab, a German professor,
introduced the concept of
ANNUAL MEETING
"stakeholder capitalism." The Davos meeting gathers
around 3,000 participants,
including political, and
business leaders, economists,
celebrities, and journalists.
3
It features up to 500 sessions
FUNDING AND VENUE discussing global, regional,
and industry-specific issues.
Funded largely by partnering
corporations with annual turnovers
greater than $5 billion.
Chosen for its serene environment,
Davos was inspired by Thomas
Mann’s novel The Magic Mountain.
IMPACT AND
4
INITIATIVES
5
Influenced the creation of the G20, initially
proposed to include major developing and
developed economies focusing on global finance.
The G20 was elevated to a summit level in 2008 to
address the global economic crisis.
MAJOR REPORTS BY WEF

Global Competitiveness Report: Global Travel and Tourism Report:
Global Gender Gap Report: Energy Transition Index:
Global Risk Report:

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Who founded the World Economic Forum? (c) EOS-06 (d) EOS-07
(a) Klaus Schwab (b) George Soros
(c) Bill Gates (d) Warren Buffett 4. What does VEDAS stand for in the context of ISRO's
initiative?
2. What is the title of the recent report by the World (a) Visualization of Earth Data and Satellite System
Economic Forum that discusses the potential of Earth (b) Visualisation of Earth Observation Data and Archival
Observation data? System
(a) Global Earth Observation Insights (c) Verification of Earth Data and Satellite System
(b) Amplifying Earth Observation Benefits (d) Visionary Earth Data Archival System
(c) Amplifying the Global Value of Earth Observation
(d) Expanding Earth Observation Utilization 5. What makes the NISAR satellite unique in the field of
radar imaging satellites?
3. Which ISRO satellite was launched in February 2023? (a) Single-frequency use (b) Triple-frequency use
(a) EOS-04 (b) EOS-05 (c) Dual-frequency use (d) Quad-frequency use

1. Correct Answer: (a) Klaus Schwab launched in February 2023. It is part of ISRO's series of
Explanation: Klaus Schwab founded the World Economic Earth Observation satellites, which contribute to a range
Forum in 1971. The organization, which is based in of environmental and geographical analyses and
Geneva, Switzerland, focuses on global economic issues management strategies.
and plays a significant role in shaping global, regional,
and industry agendas. 4. Correct Answer: (b) Visualisation of Earth Observation
Data and Archival System
2. Correct Answer: (c) Amplifying the Global Value of Earth Explanation: VEDAS stands for Visualisation of Earth
Observation Observation Data and Archival System. It is an initiative
Explanation: The report titled "Amplifying the Global by the Space Applications Centre (SAC) of ISRO, providing
Value of Earth Observation" by the World Economic access to a comprehensive repository of thematic spatial
Forum highlights the significant potential of Earth data derived from satellite imagery.
Observation (EO) data in driving economic growth and
sustainability worldwide. This title directly captures the 5. Correct Answer: (c) Dual-frequency use
emphasis of the report on broadening the impact and Explanation: The NISAR satellite is unique because it will
applications of EO data. be the first radar imaging satellite to use dual frequencies.
This capability allows for more detailed and varied
3. Correct Answer: (d) EOS-07 observations of the Earth's surface, enhancing the ability
Explanation: EOS-07 is the ISRO satellite that was to monitor and study the planet.

WHO Releases Progress Report on Neglected Tropical Diseases
Why in news?
The World Health Organization (WHO) has released its "Global report on neglected tropical diseases 2024"
ahead of the 77th session of the World Health Assembly (WHA77), scheduled to take place in Geneva from May 27
to June 1, 2024.
The report provides an update on progress made in 2023 towards the implementation of the "Road map for
neglected tropical diseases 2021–2030."

Global Overview 2023:
Elimination Milestones: As of December 2023, 50 countries have eradicated at least one Neglected Tropical Disease
(NTD), achieving half of the target of 100 countries by 2030.
Recognition: This year, 5 countries were recognized for eliminating one NTD each, and one country for eradicating
two NTDs.
Significant Achievements:
Iraq's Progress: In July 2023, Iraq was recognized as the 50th country to eradicate at least one NTD.
New NTD Recognition: Noma was officially recognized as an NTD in 2023.
Bangladesh's Success: In October 2023, Bangladesh was validated by WHO for successfully eliminating visceral
leishmaniasis as a public health concern.
Global Overview 2022:
Treatment and Prevention: By 2022, the number of people needing interventions against NTDs was 1.62 billion, a
26% decrease since 2010, indicating progress yet highlighting the need for ongoing efforts to meet the 2030 target of a
90% reduction.
Treatment Coverage: Around 848 million people received treatments for NTDs via preventive chemotherapy in 2022,
a decline from 2021 but an increase from 2020.
Mortality Increase: There was a 22% increase in reported deaths from vector-borne NTDs compared to 2016.
India-Specific Findings:
Disease-Free Certifications: India has been declared free from certain NTDs such as dracunculiasis and yaws.
Treatment Reduction: In 2022, treatments for lymphatic filariasis and soil-transmitted helminthiasis decreased by
approximately 117 million from the previous year.
Population at Risk: About 40.56% of the Indian population required interventions against NTDs in 2022.
India-Specific Findings:
Disease-Free Certifications: India has been declared free from certain NTDs such as dracunculiasis and yaws.
Treatment Reduction: In 2022, treatments for lymphatic filariasis and soil-transmitted helminthiasis decreased by
approximately 117 million from the previous year.
Population at Risk: About 40.56% of the Indian population required interventions against NTDs in 2022.
About Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs)

Definition and Impact: NTDs encompass a varied group of illnesses caused by numerous pathogens such as viruses,
bacteria, parasites, fungi, and toxins. These diseases lead to severe health, societal, and economic impacts.
Prevalence: They primarily affect poor communities in tropical regions, though their reach extends beyond these
areas.
Complex Epidemiology: NTDs feature intricate epidemiological profiles, closely tied to specific environmental
conditions.
Study of Epidemiology: Epidemiology involves analyzing how diseases affect certain populations, focusing on
patterns, causes, and effects.
Transmission Dynamics: Many NTDs are spread by vectors, involve animal hosts, and have complicated life cycles.

GLOBAL AND INDIAN INITIATIVES TO COMBAT
NEGLECTED TROPICAL DISEASES (NTDS)
Global Initiatives:
WHO 2021-2030 Roadmap: This strategic framework focuses on
more than just treating NTDs; it aims for meaningful impacts
through integrated health approaches, improved sanitation, and
community engagement. It also motivates countries to manage
and sustain their NTD efforts independently.
2012 London Declaration: This declaration is a global pact that
acknowledges the burden of NTDs and advocates for a collective
strategy to eradicate these diseases.
Indian Initiatives:
Elimination Efforts: India has declared the eradication
of diseases like guinea worm, trachoma, and yaws. The
country has also set a target to eliminate lymphatic
filariasis by 2027 through the Accelerated Plan for
Elimination of Lymphatic Filariasis (APELF).
Partnerships with WHO: India actively collaborates
with WHO and neighboring countries such as
Bangladesh and Nepal, focusing on the early detection
and treatment of diseases like Kala-azar since 2005.
Mass Drug Administration (MDA): This initiative
periodically distributes free anti-parasitic medicines in
regions vulnerable to NTDs to help curb their
transmission.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which new disease was added to the list of neglected for Elimination of Lymphatic Filariasis (APELF) for
tropical diseases in 2023? elimination by 2027?
(a) Ebola (b) Zika (a) Lymphatic Filariasis (b) Yaws
(c) Noma (d) Malaria (c) Guinea worm (d) Trachoma
2. Where is the 77th session of the World Health Assembly 4. As of December 2023, how many countries have
(WHA77) scheduled to take place? successfully eliminated at least one neglected tropical
(a) New York (b) Paris disease (NTD)?
(c) Geneva (d) Tokyo (a) 25 (b) 50
(c) 75 (d) 100
3. Which disease is the target of India's Accelerated Plan

5. Which country became the 50th to eliminate at least one NTD in July 2023?
(a) India (b) Brazil
(c) Iraq (d) Kenya

1. Correct Answer: (c) Noma Lymphatic Filariasis (APELF) in India aims to eliminate
Explanation: In 2023, noma (cancrum oris, gangrenous Lymphatic Filariasis as a public health problem by the
stomatitis) was added to the list of neglected tropical year 2027. This plan is part of India's broader efforts to
diseases. This addition reflects the ongoing assessment tackle various neglected tropical diseases.
and recognition of diseases that impact marginalized
populations. 4. Correct Answer: (b) 50
Explanation: By December 2023, a total of 50 countries
2. Correct Answer: (c) Geneva had successfully eliminated at least one neglected tropical
Explanation: The 77th session of the World Health disease. This achievement marks the halfway point
Assembly (WHA77) is scheduled to take place in Geneva, towards the World Health Organization's 2030 target of
Switzerland, from May 27 to June 1, 2024. This annual 100 countries eliminating at least one NTD.
gathering hosted by the World Health Organization is
critical for discussing global health policies and 5. Correct Answer: (c) Iraq
initiatives. Explanation: Iraq became the 50th country to eliminate at
least one neglected tropical disease in July 2023. This
3. Correct Answer: (a) Lymphatic Filariasis milestone is significant in the global effort to meet the
Explanation: The Accelerated Plan for Elimination of WHO's 2030 target for NTD elimination.

Miscellaneous
Dr. Naima Khatoon's Appointment as Vice Chancellor of AMU
Why in news?
Dr. Naima Khatoon has been appointed as the first woman Vice Chancellor of Aligarh Muslim University (AMU),
marking a significant milestone as this is the first time a woman has held this position in the university’s history
spanning over 100 years.
Her appointment was officially approved by President Droupadi Murmu
and the Election Commission of India. Dr. Khatoon will serve a term of five
years.
Background
Educational Background: Dr. Khatoon earned her PhD in psychology from
AMU. She has a distinguished academic and administrative career at AMU and
other institutions.
Professional Experience:
Roles at AMU: Prior to becoming Vice Chancellor, she served as a lecturer,
professor, and principal of the Women’s College at AMU.
International Experience: She has also held the position of lecturer at the
National University of Rwanda.
Research and Publications: Dr. Khatoon has actively participated in
international conferences and is a published author in fields such as clinical, Dr. Naima Khatoon
health, applied social, and spiritual psychology.
Award and Recognisation
Papa Mian Padma Bhushan Best Girl Award: She has been recognized for her outstanding academic and professional
achievements with awards like the Papa Mian Padma Bhushan Best Girl Award.
Aligarh Muslim University
Establishment and Founder: Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) was originally established as the
Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College in 1875 by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan and later became Aligarh
Muslim University in 1920.
Location: The university is located in Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh, India.
Academic Offerings: AMU offers a broad spectrum of undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral programs
across various disciplines including arts, science, commerce, law, and engineering.
Diversity and Contribution:
Student Body: The university boasts a diverse student body, drawing students from across India and
abroad.
Role in Society: Recognized for its significant contributions to education, research, and social
empowerment, AMU plays a crucial role in the educational landscape of India.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Who appointed Professor Naima Khatoon as the first Which award has been received by Dr. Naima Khatoon
woman Vice-Chancellor of Aligarh Muslim University for her outstanding academic and professional
(AMU)? achievements?
(a) Prime Minister (b) President (a) Papa Mian Padma Bhushan Best Girl Award
(c) Chief Justice of India (d) Minister of Education (b) Shakti Women Excellence Award
2. 4. (c) Bharat Ratna Best Scholar Award
2. In which year was Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) (d) National Women Leader in Education Award
established?
(a) 1857 (b) 1864 Who is the founder of Aligarh Muslim University (AMU)?
(c) 1875 (d) 1919 (a) Mir Osman Ali Khan (b) Hafiz Ahmad Saeed Khan
3. (c) Syed Raza Ali Khan (d) Syed Ahmad Khan
For how many years will Dr. Naima Khatoon serve as
the Vice-Chancellor of Aligarh Muslim University (AMU)
following her appointment?
(a) Three years (b) Four years
(c) Five years (d) Six years

1. Correct Answer: (b) President 4. Correct Answer: (a) Papa Mian Padma Bhushan Best Girl
Explanation: President Droupadi Murmu appointed Award
Professor Naima Khatoon as the first woman Vice- Explanation: Dr. Naima Khatoon has been recognized with
Chancellor of Aligarh Muslim University (AMU), marking the Papa Mian Padma Bhushan Best Girl Award for her
a historic moment in the university's history. exceptional academic and professional achievements. This
prestigious award highlights her distinguished
2. Correct Answer: (c) 1875 contributions and excellence in her field, underscoring
Explanation: Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) was her role as a leading figure in academic circles.
established in the year 1875 by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan.
This was a significant year in the history of Indian 5. Correct Answer: (d) Syed Ahmad Khan
education as it marked the beginning of a new era with Explanation: Sir Syed Ahmad Khan is the founder of
the founding of an institution that aimed to modernize Aligarh Muslim University (AMU), established in 1875.
the education of Indian Muslims through the Aligarh The university was a result of the Aligarh Movement, led
Movement. by Sir Syed, which aimed to modernize Indian Muslims
through education, religious reinterpretation, and social
3. Correct Answer: (c) Five years reform.
Explanation: Dr. Naima Khatoon has been appointed to
serve as the Vice-Chancellor of Aligarh Muslim University
(AMU) for a term of five years.

Advertisers to Submit Self-Declarations Before Promoting Products
in Media: SC Orders
Why in news?
The Supreme Court has directed advertisers to submit self-declarations affirming that their advertisements do not
misrepresent or make false claims about products before promoting them in the media. This directive aims to
protect consumers from misleading advertisements.
The Supreme Court's directions stem from a case involving misleading advertisements run by Patanjali Ayurved, co-
founded by yoga guru Baba Ramdev, for several years.
Background of A Patanjali Ayurved Limited
Overview
Establishment: Founded in 2006 by Baba Ramdev and Acharya Balkrishna.
Headquarters: Located in Haridwar, Uttarakhand, India.
Purpose: Established to integrate Ayurveda with modern technology and promote natural and herbal
products.
Products and Services: Offers a broad range of products, including food, beverages, cleaning agents,
personal care items, and Ayurvedic medicines, all emphasizing natural components.
Market Approach: Known for its focus on health and wellness, competing strongly in India's fast-
moving consumer goods sector.
Growth of Company
Market Presence
Retail Network: Operates a widespread network through Patanjali Arogya Kendra and Patanjali
Chikitsalaya outlets, alongside availability in mainstream retail stores.
Expansion: Has shown rapid growth in market presence, challenging both local and international
consumer goods companies.
Growth and Strategy
Achievements of the Hasdeo
Manufacturing Aranya
Capabilities: OwnsCampaign
multiple manufacturing units in India, including a major facility in
Haridwar.
Promotional Strategies: Engages in vigorous marketing, often featuring its founders who are
prominent in the fields of yoga and Ayurveda.
Key Features of the Supreme Court Order

Self-Declarations Requirement: Advertisers are required to submit self-declarations that their advertisements are
truthful and do not misrepresent or make false claims about the products.
Compliance with Regulations: The self-declarations must comply with the Cable TV Network Regulations Rules of
1994.

Implementation:
Television Advertisements: Advertisers intending to run advertisements on TV channels must upload their self-
declarations on the Information and Broadcasting Ministry’s ‘Broadcast Seva’ portal. Additionally, a copy of the
self-declaration must be provided to the broadcaster.
Print Advertisements: The Ministry is directed to create a similar portal for print advertisers within four weeks.
Once the portal is activated, advertisers must file their self-declarations before issuing advertisements in the
Press/Print Media.
Social Media Influencers and Celebrities:
Social media influencers, celebrities, and public figures promoting products must act responsibly and avoid being part
of deceptive advertising.
Endorsers should have adequate experience and information about the products they promote.
Health Ministry Directive
The Ministry of Health must provide data on the number of complaints received by the Food Safety and Standards
Authority of India (FSSAI) regarding misleading advertisements and misbranding of food and health products.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which rule prohibits the advertisement of Ayurvedic, Act, 2006, is deceptive advertising made punishable?(a)
Siddha, or Unani drugs without the approval of licensing Section 50 (b) Section 51
authorities? (c) Section 52 (d) Section 53
(a) Rule 150 (b) Rule 160
(c) Rule 170 (d) Rule 180 4. In which year did the Consumer Protection Act come
into force?
2. Under which department does the Central Consumer (a) 1985 (b) 1986
Protection Authority (CCPA) operate? (c) 1987 (d) 1988
(a) Department of Consumer Affairs
(b) Department of Consumer Protection 5. Under which section of the Consumer Protection Act,
(c) Department of Consumer Welfare 2019, is a misleading advertisement defined?
(d) Department of Consumer Services (a) Section 1 (28) (b) Section 4 (28)
(c) Section 8 (28) (d) Section 2 (28)
3. Under which section of the Food Safety and Standards

1. Correct Answer: (c) Rule 170 Affairs. This department is responsible for regulating
Explanation: Rule 170 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, matters related to consumer rights and ensuring the
1945, specifically prohibits the advertisement of enforcement of consumer protection laws.
Ayurvedic, Siddha, or Unani drugs without the prior
approval of licensing authorities. This regulation is crucial 3. Correct Answer: (d) Section 53
for ensuring that advertisements for these types of drugs Explanation: Deceptive advertising falls under Section 53
are accurate and compliant with legal standards, thereby of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, making it
protecting consumers from misleading information. punishable. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of
India (FSSAI) requires that advertisements be truthful,
2. Correct Answer: (a) Department of Consumer Affairs unambiguous, and scientifically substantiated to ensure
Explanation: The Central Consumer Protection Authority consumers are not misled.
(CCPA) operates under the Department of Consumer

4. Correct Answer: (b) 1986 Explanation: A misleading advertisement is defined under
Explanation: The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 came Section 2 (28) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. This
into force on December 24, 1986. This act was enacted by definition includes various criteria such as providing false
the Parliament of India to protect the interests of descriptions, offering false guarantees, constituting unfair
consumers and establish councils and authorities for the trade practices, and omitting essential information, all of
settlement of consumer grievances. which can mislead consumers about the nature or quality of
a product or service.
5. Correct Answer: (d) Section 2 (28)

Smart Cities Mission Status
Why in news?
The Smart Cities Mission (SCM), a flagship program of the NDA-1 government, has not been prominently featured in the
recent list of poll promises and achievements. This indicates a possible shift in priorities or focus areas in the current
political landscape.
Background to Smart Cities

The term 'Smart City' became widely used after the 2009 financial crash. Urban practitioners conceptualized smart cities as
new Silicon Valleys, characterized by advanced Information and Communication Technology (ICT), and strong integration
of airports, highways, and other communication networks.
Adoption in India:
The NDA-1 government aimed to adapt to these global trends through the Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal
Mission (JNNURM). Subsequently, the SCM was announced in June 2015.
Selection of Cities: 100 cities were selected to be developed over five years.

Smart City Mission
Key Aspects:
Area-Based Development:
This included three
components:
Redevelopment: City
renewal projects.
Retrofitting: City
improvement initiatives.
Greenfield Projects: City
extension plans.
Pan-City Solutions: These
solutions were based on ICT to
improve urban infrastructure
and services.
Funding:
Approximately ₹2 lakh crore
was allocated for the mission,
with public-private
partnerships (PPP) envisioned
as a significant driver.
Timeline:
Initially, the mission was to be
completed in 2020. However,
it was extended twice and is
now set to conclude in June
2024.
Status of the SCM?

Project Outlay:
As of April 26, the Urban
Ministry’s dashboard shows
that 8,033 projects were
sanctioned under the SCM. The
total outlay decreased from the
expected ₹2 lakh crore to
₹1,67,875 crore, representing a
16% reduction.
Completed Projects:
5,533 projects worth ₹65,063
crore have been completed.
Ongoing Projects:
921 projects worth ₹21,000 crore are still ongoing.
Missed Deadlines:
Approximately 400 projects in about 10 cities are unlikely to meet the extended deadline of June 2024.
PPP Funding:
Less than 5% of the funding has come through the PPP route.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In which year was the Smart Cities Mission (SCM) (a) Redevelopment (b) Retrofitting
launched? (c) Greenfield Projects (d) Waste Management
(a) 2010 (b) 2013
(c) 2015 (d) 2017 4. Which government initiative preceded the Smart Cities
Mission (SCM) and aimed to adapt to global urban trends?
2. Under which Act was the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) (a) Swachh Bharat Mission
for the Smart Cities Mission created? (b) JNNURM
(a) Companies Act, 1956 (c) AMRUT
(b) Companies Act, 2013 (d) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
(c) Municipal Corporation Act
(d) Urban Development Act 5. How many cities are targeted for transformation under
the Smart Cities Mission?
3. Which of the following is NOT a component of Area- (a) 50 (b) 75
Based Development under the Smart Cities Mission (c) 100 (d) 150
(SCM)?

1. Correct Answer: (c) 2015 (SCM). The three components of Area-Based Development
Explanation: The Smart Cities Mission (SCM) was are Redevelopment (city renewal projects), Retrofitting
launched in 2015 with the aim of promoting cities that (city improvement initiatives), and Greenfield Projects
provide core infrastructure and a decent quality of life to (city extension plans).
their citizens, along with a clean and sustainable
environment through the application of smart solutions. 4. Correct Answer: (b) JNNURM
Explanation: The Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban
2. Correct Answer: (b) Companies Act, 2013 Renewal Mission (JNNURM) was an initiative by the NDA-
Explanation: The Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) for the 1 government to adapt to global urban trends. The Smart
Smart Cities Mission was created under the Companies Cities Mission (SCM) was subsequently announced in June
Act, 2013. This entity is led by a bureaucrat or a 2015 as a further step in this direction.
representative of a multinational corporation (MNC) to
ensure the effective implementation of the mission's 5. Correct Answer: (c) 100
objectives. Explanation: The Smart Cities Mission aims to transform
100 cities, enhancing the quality of life for citizens
3. Correct Answer: (d) Waste Management through sustainable and inclusive development, and
Explanation: Waste Management is not a component of providing the necessary infrastructure and environment
Area-Based Development under the Smart Cities Mission to support this goal.

WHO’s New Global Malaria Strategy for 2030
Why in news?
The World Health Organization (WHO) has recently announced a new strategic plan aimed at intensifying the global fight
against malaria. This plan aligns with the objectives set forth in the Global Technical Strategy for Malaria 2016-2030.
Global Malaria Status

Current Statistics: As of 2022, malaria continues to pose a significant health threat globally, with approximately 249
million new cases and 608,000 deaths.
Geographical Impact: Africa is the most affected region, with 95% of malaria deaths and 94% of total cases
reported.
Challenges: Recent years have seen a plateau in progress against malaria in high-burden countries, largely due to
resource limitations, humanitarian crises, climate change, and increasing drug and insecticide resistance.
Key Elements of the Strategy
Strategic Objectives:
Develop norms and standards: To create a consistent technical vision and implement evidence-based strategies for
controlling malaria.
Introduce new tools and innovations: To encourage the development and implementation of new technologies to
enhance existing preventive measures.
Promote strategic information for impact: To track trends, evaluate effectiveness, and identify gaps in malaria
prevention and treatment efforts.
Provide technical leadership: To engage stakeholders, advocate for essential activities, and ensure communities have
access to quality health services.
Equity-Oriented Principles: The strategy emphasizes country ownership, resilient health systems, and equitable
access to quality health services.
Addressing Inequities
Focus on Vulnerable Populations: The strategy prioritizes reducing disparities in malaria service access for
vulnerable groups, including young children, pregnant women, refugees, migrants, and indigenous communities.

Goals for Service Integration: It seeks to address the underlying factors contributing to malaria prevalence and to
ensure that interventions are accessible, efficient, sustainable, and integrated within broader health services.
World Malaria Day 2024
Theme: "Accelerating the fight against malaria for a more equitable world."
Significance: This theme highlights the necessity of equity in malaria response and aligns with the Yaoundé
Declaration, which was endorsed by African health ministers in March 2024, emphasizing the commitment to equitable
malaria intervention access, especially in remote and conflict-affected regions.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is the theme for World Malaria Day 2024? 3. In which year was the WHO founded?
(a) "Towards a Malaria-Free Future" (a) 1942 (b) 1945
(b) "Fighting Malaria Worldwide" (c) 1948 (d) 1950
(c) "Ending Malaria Now Globally"
(d) "Accelerating the Fight Against Malaria" 4. Which region is the most affected by malaria, accounting for
95% of global malaria deaths and 94% of total cases as of 2022?
2. Which body determines the financial policies and (a) South America (b) Europe
approves the budget of the WHO? (c) Asia (d) Africa
(a) Economic and Social Council
(b) UN Development Programme 5. Where is the World Health Assembly (WHA) held annually?
(c) WHO Executive Board (a) Geneva, Switzerland (b) New York, USA
(d) World Health Assembly (c) Vienna, Austria (d) Paris, France

1. Correct Answer: (d) "Accelerating the Fight Against founded in 1948 and has since worked as an inter-
Malaria" governmental organization to address global health
Explanation: Miss Saima Wazed stated, “On World challenges.
Malaria Day 2024, we unite under the theme
'Accelerating the fight against malaria for a more 4. Correct Answer: (d) Africa
equitable world”. Explanation: Africa is the region most severely impacted
by malaria, accounting for 95% of global malaria deaths
2. Correct Answer: (d) World Health Assembly and 94% of all malaria cases reported in 2022.
Explanation: The World Health Assembly supervises the
financial policies of the WHO and reviews and approves 5. Correct Answer: (a) Geneva, Switzerland
its budget. Explanation: The World Health Assembly (WHA) is held
annually at the WHO headquarters in Geneva,
3. Correct Answer: (c) 1948 Switzerland.
Explanation: The World Health Organization (WHO) was

WHO Amendments to International Health Regulations (2005)
Why in news?
The World Health Organization (WHO) is on the verge of finalizing significant amendments to the International Health
Regulations (2005), following the identification of gaps exposed by the COVID-19 pandemic.
International Health Regulations (IHR)
Nature and Purpose:
The IHR is a legally binding framework established among 196 countries, including all WHO member states, aimed
at preventing and managing international public health threats.
History and Evolution:
Initially adopted in 1969 and subsequently revised in 2005, the regulations are designed to prevent, protect
against, control, and respond to the international spread of diseases and other health risks.
Key Features:
The IHR encompasses a broad spectrum of public health emergencies, including those related to infectious diseases,
chemical agents, and radioactive materials.
It mandates member countries to report specific disease outbreaks and health events to the WHO.
The regulations require countries to bolster their public health capabilities to meet these international standards.
Operational Mechanisms:
An Emergency Committee advises the WHO Director-General on the issuance of Public Health Emergency of
International Concern (PHEIC) declarations.
Negotiation and Implementation Process

Working Group on Amendments: The Working Group on Amendments to the IHR (WGIHR) has convened since 2022
to deliberate on these changes.
Progress and Timeline:
Significant advancements were made during the 8th WGIHR meeting held from April 22-27, 2024.
A final session is scheduled for May 16-17, 2024, to finalize the amendments before they are presented to the
World Health Assembly in late May.

Proposed Amendments to the IHR
Purpose of Amendments: The suggested changes to the International Health Regulations arise from the challenges
demonstrated by the COVID-19 pandemic, highlighting the current system's shortcomings and the necessity for
enhanced global health preparedness.
Objectives of the Amendments: These modifications are designed to:
Strengthen worldwide disease surveillance and response systems.
Enhance the sharing and transparency of health data and information.
Improve cooperation among nations and with international entities.
Address the challenge of insufficient funding by creating a specialized fund dedicated to emergency health
responses.
Next Steps for the Amendments
Progression of Negotiations: The initial phase of discussions has been completed.
Upcoming Meeting: The next session for the Working Group on Amendments to the International Health
Regulations is scheduled for 17-20 April, aiming to further deliberate and refine the proposed changes.
Adoption Process: For these amendments to be implemented, they must be approved by the World Health
Assembly. Although this procedure could span several years, it is a crucial move towards bolstering global health
security and enhancing responses to public health crises.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. When was the International Health Regulations (IHR) 4. What will happen if a country rejects the amendments to
first adopted? the IHR?
(a) 1969 (b) 2005 (a) It must still implement them
(c) 1998 (d) 1987 (b) It can challenge them
(c) It is exempt from the amendments
2. What organization facilitates the International Health (d) It will lose WHO membership
Regulations?
(a) UN (b) CDC 5. Who is the current Director-General of the World Health
(c) WHO (d) UNICEF Organization (WHO)?
(a) Dr. Margaret Chan
3. Which group is responsible for discussing the proposed (b) Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
changes to the International Health Regulations (IHR)? (c) Dr. David Nabarro
(a) G7 (b) ILO (d) Dr. Gro Harlem Brundtland
(c) UNDP (d) WGIHR

1. Correct Answer: (a) 1969 3. Correct Answer: (d) WGIHR
Explanation: The IHR was first adopted in 1969. It was Explanation: The Working Group on Amendments to the IHR
then revised in 2005 to include broader provisions to (WGIHR) has been meeting since 2022 to negotiate and discuss
prevent and respond to global health threats. proposed changes to the International Health Regulations.
2. Correct Answer: (c) WHO 4. Correct Answer: (b) Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
Explanation: The World Health Organization (WHO) Explanation: Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus has been
facilitates the International Health Regulations, which the Director-General of the World Health Organization
aim to strengthen global preparedness for health (WHO) since 2017. He oversees the organization’s global
emergencies. health policies and initiatives.

5. Correct Answer: (c) It is exempt from the amendments
Explanation: If a country formally rejects the amendments to the International Health Regulations, it will be exempt
from their implementation, while other IHR parties will follow the new regulations after a set period.

Border Roads Organisation's 65th Raising Day
Why in news?
The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) recently celebrated its 65th Raising Day, a significant milestone that
underscores its commitment to using modern technology and techniques. This adoption aims to accelerate the completion
of infrastructural projects, vital for strategic connectivity and national security.
Border Roads Organisation

Establishment and Purpose: BRO was established on May 7, 1960, and is a pivotal arm of the
Ministry of Defence in India. Its primary mandate is the development and maintenance of road
networks in India's border areas, facilitating strategic infrastructure that bolsters both national
security and economic development in remote regions.
Contributions: Throughout its history, BRO has been responsible for constructing over 62,214 km
of roads, 1,005 bridges, 7 tunnels, and 21 airfields. These projects are not confined to Indian
territory; BRO also extends its services to neighboring countries like Bhutan, Myanmar, Afghanistan,
and Tajikistan, enhancing diplomatic and strategic ties.
Strategic Importance: By improving connectivity and facilitating the mobility of armed forces, BRO
plays an essential role in the defense framework of India, significantly contributing to the country's
capability to maintain border security and undertake economic initiatives in isolated areas.
Impact on National Security and Connectivity

Role in Emergencies: The organisation is not only involved in construction but also in emergency response, playing a
crucial role in rescue operations during crises such as the Silkyara tunnel collapse and the floods in Sikkim.
Vibrant Villages Programme: In its efforts to boost socio-economic development, BRO supports the Vibrant
Villages Programme. This initiative focuses on the comprehensive development of border villages, thus improving
the quality of life for border communities and reinforcing the nation's frontier areas.
Empowerment and Inclusivity at BRO
Gender Equality: A core ethos of the BRO is the promotion of gender equality and inclusivity. It has been proactive in
empowering women by assigning them to key roles within the organization. For instance, Colonel Ponung Doming and
Assistant Executive Engineer Nikita Chaudhary have been entrusted with leading significant projects, showcasing
BRO's commitment to gender inclusivity and empowerment.
Key Projects Undertaken
Atal Tunnel (Rohtang Tunnel): The world’s longest highway tunnel at 9.02 km, built at an altitude of 3,000
meters in Himachal Pradesh. This tunnel provides all-weather connectivity between Manali and Lahaul-Spiti.
Delaram-Zaranj Highway: A strategically important 218 km road constructed in Afghanistan, facilitating
connectivity to the Iranian border, completed in 2009.
Dhola-Sadiya Bridge: Known as India’s longest river bridge at 9.15 km, it spans the Lohit River in Assam,
connecting Assam to Arunachal Pradesh.
Umling La Pass and Others: Including the construction of the world’s highest motorable road at 19,300 feet
in Eastern Ladakh. Additional strategic projects include Sela Tunnel, Kailash-Mansarovar Road, and
extensive networks of roads along the India-China border in various states like Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim,
Uttarakhand, and Ladakh, all contributing to enhanced border connectivity and defense preparedness.

Major Upcoming Project - Shinkun La Tunnel
The forthcoming Shinkun La Tunnel, set to be the world’s highest tunnel at 15,800 feet, will surpass the
Mila Tunnel in China. Spanning 4.10 km, it aims to enhance connectivity between the Ladakh and Lahaul and
Spiti regions, signifying a major advancement in high-altitude infrastructure development.
Future Directions of BRO

With a renewed focus on integrating advanced technologies and mechanization, BRO aims to reduce human effort, enhance
operational efficiency, and maintain safety in project execution.
This strategic shift is anticipated to not only improve the pace of work but also ensure the timely completion of
projects, thereby continuing BRO’s legacy of 'Connecting Places, Connecting People'.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. When was the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) established? (d) Over the Yamuna River, connecting Delhi to Uttar
(a) 1950 (b) 1955 Pradesh
(c) 1960 (d) 1965
4. What is the motto of the Border Roads Organisation
2. Which of the following was one of the original projects (BRO)?
of the Border Roads Organisation when it was (a) "Vidya Sarvasva Bhushanam"
established? (b) "Karma Brahma Bhavitam"
(a) Project Tusker (b) Project Delta (c) "Dharma Rakshati Rakshitah"
(c) Project Summit (d) Project Horizon (d) "Shramena Sarvam Sadhyam"
3. Where is the Dhola-Sadiya Bridge located and what is 5. Which tunnel is currently the world's highest before
its significance? being surpassed by the forthcoming Shinkun La Tunnel?
(a) Over the Brahmaputra River, connecting Tripura to (a) Zhongnan Mountain Tunnel
Mizoram (b) Mila Tunnel
(b) Over the Lohit River, connecting Assam to Arunachal (c) Taihang Mountain Tunnel
Pradesh (d) JinPing Underground Laboratory
(c) Over the Ganges River, connecting Bihar to Jharkhand

1. Correct Answer: (c) 1960 3. Correct Answer: (b) Over the Lohit River, connecting
Explanation: The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) was Assam to Arunachal Pradesh
established in 1960 to secure India's borders and develop Explanation: The Dhola-Sadiya Bridge is India's longest
infrastructure in remote areas of the country. The river bridge, spanning 9.15 km across the Lohit River in
organization plays a crucial role in the construction and Assam. It connects Assam to Arunachal Pradesh,
maintenance of road networks in India's border areas. enhancing transportation and strategic connectivity in the
region.
2. Correct Answer: (a) Project Tusker
Explanation: When the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) 4. Correct Answer: (d) "Shramena Sarvam Sadhyam"
was established in 1960, one of its initial projects was Explanation: The organisations motto is Shramena
Project Tusker, which later came to be known as Project Sarvam Sadhyam (everything is achievable through
Vartak. This project was focused on infrastructure hardwork). BRO is instrumental in significantly upgrading
development in the eastern regions of India. and building new India-China Border Roads (ICBRs).

5. Correct Answer: (b) Mila Tunnel
Explanation: The Mila Tunnel in China is currently recognized as the world's highest tunnel. The forthcoming Shinkun La
Tunnel, set to be located at 15,800 feet, will surpass the Mila Tunnel, claiming the title of the world's highest tunnel upon
its completion.

World Bank Report on Agri-food System
Why in news?
The World Bank has released a report titled "Recipe for a Livable Planet: Achieving Net Zero Emissions in the
Agrifood System," highlighting the agrifood sector's significant role in global greenhouse gas emissions, which constitute
about a third of all emissions worldwide.
Findings of the Report
Emission Reduction Potential: The report underscores the substantial potential for emission reduction in the
agrifood sector, emphasizing the need for systemic changes to achieve net-zero emissions while enhancing food
security and resilience against climate change.
Investment and Benefits: It suggests increasing annual investments in the agrifood sector to $260 billion to halve
emissions by 2030 and reach net-zero by 2050.
The projected benefits of these investments could exceed $4 trillion, impacting human health, food security, job
quality, and environmental sustainability.
Top Agrifood System Emitters

The report identifies the top ten agrifood system emitters including China, Brazil, India, the United States, and
Indonesia. These countries collectively account for 55% of the global agrifood emissions, with the top 20 emitters
responsible for 67%.
Role of High-Income and Middle-Income Countries
Leadership and Support: High-income countries are encouraged to lead global efforts by supporting low- and middle-
income countries in adopting low-emission farming methods and technologies.
Potential in Middle-Income Countries: Middle-income countries have the capacity to reduce up to three-quarters of
global agrifood emissions by adopting greener practices.
Solar Irrigation Pumps as Sustainable Alternatives
Technology and Benefits: Solar irrigation pumps use photovoltaic panels to convert sunlight into energy, offering a
sustainable alternative to fuel-based pumps. These systems are especially beneficial in remote areas without reliable
electricity access, reducing dependence on fossil fuels and lowering operational costs after initial setup.
Support and Incentives: The adoption of solar pumps is often supported by governments and NGOs through
subsidies and incentives, which promote environmental sustainability and economic opportunity in agricultural
sectors.

Food systems are responsible for a third of global anthropogenic GHG emissions
Emission Effects of Enteric Fermentation

Enteric fermentation, a natural digestive process in ruminants like cows, sheep, and goats, produces methane—a potent
greenhouse gas. This process is a significant focus of agricultural research aimed at reducing emissions through dietary
changes, genetic selection, and improved management practices.
India’s Potential for Emission Reduction

Innovative Solutions: In India, replacing a quarter of the 8.8 million diesel irrigation pumps with solar pumps
could reduce agrifood emissions by 11.5 million tonnes annually.
Cost-saving Measures: The report highlights that 80% of the emission mitigation potential in Indian agriculture
could be achieved through cost-saving practices, emphasizing efficiency and sustainability.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is the title of the World Bank report highlighting 4. Who holds the largest share of votes in the World Bank
the agrifood sector's impact on greenhouse gas Group?
emissions? (a) United States
(a) Global Warming Facts (b) Sustainable Farming (b) Japan
(c) Agrifood Emissions (d) Recipe for a Livable Planet (c) Germany
(d) United Kingdom
2. Which country is not a member of the International
Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes 5. What is the name of the specialized stomach
(ICSID)? compartment where enteric fermentation occurs in
(a) USA (b) Japan ruminants like cows, sheep, and goats?
(c) India (d) Germany (a) Gizzard
(b) Pancreas
3. By what year does the World Bank report aim to (c) Rumen
achieve net-zero emissions in the agrifood sector? (d) Cecum
(a) 2040 (b) 2050
(c) 2060 (d) 2070

1. Correct Answer: (d) Recipe for a Livable Planet 4. Correct Answer: (a) United States
Explanation: The report titled "Recipe for a Livable Explanation: The United States holds the largest share at
Planet: Achieving Net Zero Emissions in the Agrifood 16.41% of the votes within the World Bank Group,
System" discusses the significant role of the agrifood making it the major shareholder. This positioning reflects
sector in global greenhouse gas emissions. the significant influence the U.S. has in the decision-
making processes of the World Bank.
2. Correct Answer: (c) India
Explanation: India is not a member of the International 5. Correct Answer: (c) Rumen
Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID), Explanation: Ruminants such as cows, sheep, and goats
which is one of the five institutions that make up the have a unique stomach structure that includes a
World Bank Group. Brazil, India and South Africa are specialized compartment called the rumen. This
countries with large economies that have never been compartment houses microbes that break down complex
ICSID members. plant materials like cellulose into simpler compounds
through a process known as enteric fermentation. A
3. Correct Answer: (b) 2050 significant byproduct of this microbial activity in the
Explanation: The report sets a goal of reaching net-zero rumen is methane gas, a potent greenhouse gas.
emissions in the agrifood sector by 2050. This target
aligns with global climate objectives and emphasizes the
urgent need for comprehensive changes within the sector
to mitigate its impact on climate change.

Hindu Population Share Dipped 7.82%: PM-EAC
Why in news?
According to a new analysis by the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (PM-EAC), the percentage of the
Hindu population in India has decreased by 7.82% over a 65-year period from 1950 to 2015. Conversely, the
populations of Muslims, Christians, and Sikhs have increased during the same period.
The report, titled ‘Share of Religious Minorities: A cross-country analysis,’ interprets these demographic shifts as
indicative of a ‘conducive environment’ for increasing diversity within the country.
Methodology and Scope of the Study
The PM-EAC's report examined the religious composition of 167 countries using the Religious Characteristics of
States Dataset 2017. The focus was on nations where a single religion constituted more than 50% of the population
in 1950.
Global and Regional Context: The trend of a declining majority religion and increasing minority religions in India
aligns with patterns observed in Europe, distinguishing India from its neighboring countries.
Findings of the Report

Population Trends:
Hindus: The Hindu population saw a decrease of 7.82%.
Muslims: The Muslim population increased from 9.84% to 14.09%.
Christians: The Christian population slightly increased from 2.24% to 2.36%.
Sikhs: The Sikh population rose from 1.24% to 1.85%.
Buddhists: The Buddhist population significantly increased from 0.05% to 0.81%.
Jains: The Jain population declined from 0.45% to 0.36%.
Parsis: The Parsi population saw a dramatic decrease, falling 85% from 0.03% to 0.0004%.
Report Insights:
The Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister’s report highlights these shifts in religious demographics,
suggesting they reflect a conducive environment for diversity.
The analysis was conducted without speculating on the causes of demographic changes, focusing purely on statistical
outcomes.
Societal and Political Environment:
The report criticized media narratives of minority oppression in India as "noise," contrasting them with the statistical
evidence suggesting that minority populations are not only protected but flourishing.
It highlighted the comparative growth of minority populations in India against the backdrop of decreasing minority
numbers in neighboring countries like Pakistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Afghanistan, and Sri Lanka.
Neighbouring Countries:
The demographic changes in India stand out compared to neighboring countries such as Pakistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan,
Afghanistan, and Sri Lanka, where minority populations are decreasing.
OECD Countries Analysis
European Trends: Among the 35 OECD countries analyzed, 25 are in Europe where there has been a 29% decline in
the share of majority religious groups.
Fertility Rate Trends
General Decline in TFR: The report highlighted a declining Total Fertility Rate (TFR) among all religious groups in
India.
Specific Observations: The most significant reduction in TFR was observed among Muslims, with a drop of 1
percentage point from 2005-06 to 2019-21, while Hindus experienced a decrease of 0.7 percentage points.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which theory, proposed by Thomas Robert Malthus, in total fertility rate (TFR) from 2005-06 to 2019-21,
discusses the relationship between population growth according to the report?
and resources? (a) Muslims (b) Hindus
(a) Keynesian Theory (b) Malthusian Theory (c) Christians (d) Sikhs
(c) Darwinian Theory (d) Friedman Theory
4. Who is the Chairman of the EAC-PM as of July 2019?
2. According to the analysis by the Economic Advisory (a) Dr. Rathin Roy (b) Dr. Ashima Goyal
Council to the Prime Minister (PM-EAC), by what (c) Shri Ratan P. Watal (d) Dr. Bibek Debroy
percentage has the Hindu population in India decreased
between 1950 and 2015? 5. Which country most recently joined the OECD in 2021?
(a) 5.67% (b) 6.54% (a) France (b) Germany
(c) 7.82% (d) 8.45% (c) Costa Rica (d) Japan
3. Which religious group saw the most significant decrease

1. Correct Answer: (b) Malthusian Theory Explanation: The report mentioned by Poonam Muttreja
Explanation: The Malthusian Theory was proposed by noted that among all religious groups in India, Muslims
Thomas Robert Malthus, an English economist and experienced the most significant decrease in total fertility
demographer, in his 1798 work "An Essay on the rate (TFR), with a drop of 1 percentage point from 2005-
Principle of Population." This theory revolves around the 06 to 2019-21. This decrease was compared to a 0.7
concept that population growth will inevitably outpace percentage point drop among Hindus, marking it as the
agricultural production and resource availability, leading largest decline among the major religious groups.
to widespread poverty and degradation unless controlled.
Malthus's theory emphasizes the tension between the 4. Correct Answer: (d) Dr. Bibek Debroy
rates of population growth and the slower pace of Explanation: As of July 2019, Dr. Bibek Debroy is the
resource increases. Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime
Minister.
2. Correct Answer: (c) 7.82%
Explanation: The analysis conducted by the Economic 5. Correct Answer: (c) Costa Rica
Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (PM-EAC) Explanation: Costa Rica is the most recent country to join
highlights that the percentage of Hindus in India has the Organization for Economic Co-operation and
decreased by 7.82% between 1950 and 2015. Development (OECD), having become a member in May
2021. This followed Colombia's membership, which was
3. Correct Answer: (a) Muslims granted in April 2020.

Idashisha Nongrang Appointed Meghalaya’s First Woman DGP
Why in news?
On May 11, 2024, Senior IPS Officer Idashisha Nongrang was appointed as Meghalaya's first woman Director
General of Police (DGP).
This appointment is a landmark event for Meghalaya, marking the first time a woman, and specifically a tribal woman,
has ascended to this prestigious position.
Selection Process
Oversight by Meghalaya Security Commission: The selection process was conducted under the supervision of the
Meghalaya Security Commission, which is chaired by Chief Minister Conrad K Sangma.
UPSC Shortlist: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) played a key role by providing a shortlist of three
qualified candidates for the DGP position.
Final Selection: From this UPSC-approved shortlist, Idashisha Nongrang was selected to take on the role of DGP.
About Idashisha Nongrang

Idashisha Nongrang is a seasoned officer of the Indian Police Service (IPS),
bringing extensive experience and a deep understanding of law enforcement
to her new role as the Director General of Police in Meghalaya.
Significance of the Appointment
First Woman DGP: This historic appointment is a significant step
forward for gender representation in Meghalaya's law enforcement
leadership, as Nongrang becomes the first woman to hold the top police
position in the state.
First Tribal Woman DGP: In addition to being the first woman DGP,
Idashisha Nongrang is also the first tribal woman to achieve this rank,
highlighting progress in diversity, inclusivity, and representation within
Meghalaya's police force.
Ranks in Police in India
National Level Idashisha Nongrang
Director General of Police (DGP): Highest-ranking officer in the state police forces; reports directly to the Home
Ministry.
Special Director General of Police: Typically in charge of a specific bureau or wing within the state police.
Additional Director General of Police (ADGP): Often heads specialized departments like intelligence, crime, or
administration.
State Level
Inspector General of Police (IGP): Commands multiple ranges within a state.
Deputy Inspector General of Police (DIG): Oversees several districts, also known as a range.
Senior Superintendent of Police (SSP) / Superintendent of Police (SP): Heads the police force of a district; called
SSP in larger districts.
Additional Superintendent of Police (Addl. SP) / Deputy Superintendent of Police (Dy. SP): Assists the SP or
heads large police stations; Dy. SP is often the head of police in smaller towns.
Station Level
Inspector: Manages a police station in towns or cities; handles day-to-day operations and reporting.
Sub-Inspector (SI): The first officer rank in the police force; supervises police stations and work of assistant sub-
inspectors.
Assistant Sub-Inspector (ASI): Assists in the supervision of police stations and heads branches within stations.
Head Constable: Responsible for the police outpost and leading constables.
Constable: Entry-level rank; performs the groundwork, patrolling, and enforcing law at the most fundamental level.

Specialized Units
Central Armed Police Forces: Includes ranks like Director General (DG), Additional DG, Inspector General (IG),
Deputy IG, Commandant, Deputy Commandant, Assistant Commandant, which apply to paramilitary forces like CRPF,
BSF, CISF, ITBP, and SSB.
Traffic Police: Traffic police ranks generally align with the local police ranks but are designated for traffic
management and control duties.
Railway Police: Railway police ranks are parallel to general police but focus exclusively on railway security and crime
prevention.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Who chaired the Meghalaya Security Commission that (c) Director of Public Prosecutions
supervised the selection process for the new DGP? (d) Director of State Security
(a) LR Bishnoi (b) Conrad K Sangma
(c) RP Meena (d) GP Singh 4. Who did Idashisha Nongrang replace as the Director
General of Police in Meghalaya?
2. Which of the following is not one of the matrilineal (a) Conrad Sangma (b) Deepak Mishra
communities in Meghalaya? (c) Lajja Ram Bishnoi (d) Vinay Chaubey
(a) Khasis (b) Garos
(c) Jaintias (d) Munda 5. Which of the following officers was not recommended by
the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) for the
3. What was Idashisha Nongrang's position before being position of Director General of Police in Meghalaya?
appointed as the Director General of Police in Meghalaya? (a) Ram Prasad Meena (b) Deepak Kumar
(a) Director General of Police Training (c) Idashisha Nongrang (d) Vinay Tiwari
(b) Director General of Civil Defence and Home Guard

1. Correct Answer: (b) Conrad K Sangma 4. Correct Answer: (c) Lajja Ram Bishnoi
Explanation: The Meghalaya Security Commission, which Explanation: Idashisha Nongrang has been appointed the
oversaw the selection process for the new DGP, is chaired first woman Director General of Police (DGP) of
by Chief Minister Conrad K Sangma. Meghalaya, a hill State dominated by three matrilineal
ethnic communities.
2. Correct Answer: (d) Munda A 1992 batch Indian Police Service officer, she will replace
Explanation: The Khasis, Garos, and Jaintias are the three Lajja Ram Bishnoi who will retire on May 19.
matrilineal ethnic communities in Meghalaya.
5. Correct Answer: (d) Vinay Tiwari
3. Correct Answer: (b) Director General of Civil Defence and Explanation: The Union Public Service Commission
Home Guard (UPSC) recommended Idashisha Nongrang, Ram Prasad
Explanation: Before being appointed as the Director Meena (ADG, Border Security Force), and Deepak Kumar
General of Police (DGP) in Meghalaya, Idashisha (ADG, Central Reserve Police Force) for the position of
Nongrang served as the Director General of Civil Defence Director General of Police in Meghalaya.
and Home Guard.

Ruskin Bond Awarded Sahitya Akademi Fellowship
Why in news?
Eminent author Ruskin Bond has been awarded the Sahitya Akademi Fellowship, the highest honor given by the Sahitya
Akademi, India's National Academy of Letters.
About Ruskin Bond and his Contributions to Literature

Background: Ruskin Bond was born on May 19, 1934, in Kasauli,
Himachal Pradesh. His literary career, enriched with a variety of
genres, has spanned over five decades.
Literary Works: Bond is a versatile author who has written short
stories, novels, non-fiction, romance, and children’s literature.
Notable Titles:
Novels and Stories: Includes works like "Vagrants in the Valley,"
"Once Upon a Monsoon Time," "Angry River," "Strangers in the
Night," "All Roads Lead to Ganga," "Tales of Fosterganj," "Leopard
on the Mountain," and "Too Much Trouble."
Adaptations: His historical novel "A Flight of Pigeons," set during
the Indian Rebellion of 1857, was adapted into the 1978 Hindi
film "Junoon."
Awards and Honors:
National Awards: Received the Padma Shri in 1999 and the
Padma Bhushan in 2019.
Literary Awards: Won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1992 and Ruskin Bond
the Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar in 2012.
Highest Literary Honor: Conferred the Sahitya Akademi
Fellowship in 2021, recognizing his outstanding contribution to
Indian literature.
Types of Fellowships Conferred by Sahitya Akademi

Sahitya Akademi Fellowship
Description: Recognized as the highest literary honor in India, dubbed as the "Immortals of Indian Literature."
Capacity: Limited to 21 active Fellows at any given time.
Sahitya Akademi Honorary Fellowship
Target Group: Awarded to non-Indian scholars who have made substantial contributions to the study and promotion
of Indian literature.
Capacity: Restricted to no more than 10 Honorary Fellows at any time.
Premchand Fellowship
Purpose: Aimed at creative writers from SAARC countries, excluding India, who are engaged in research on Indian
literature and culture.
Establishment: Launched in 2005 during the celebration of Munshi Premchand’s 125th birth anniversary.
Benefits: Includes a stipend, travel expenses, and accommodation for a period ranging from 1 to 3 months.
Ananda Coomaraswamy Fellowship
Target Group: Designed for Asian scholars (excluding Indians) working on literary projects related to Indian
literature and culture.
History: Instituted in 1996 and revitalized in 2005.
Support: Offers benefits similar to those of the Premchand Fellowship, including stipends, travel, and accommodation.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is the highest literary honour bestowed by the 3. What is the name of the 1978 Hindi film that was based
Sahitya Akademi that was recently conferred upon on Ruskin Bond's novel 'A Flight of Pigeons'?
Ruskin Bond? (a) Junoon (b) Shatranj Ke Khilari
(a) Sahitya Akademi Award (c) Umrao Jaan (d) Garm Hava
(b) Sahitya Akademi Fellowship
(c) Sahitya Akademi Young Writer Award 4. How many types of Fellowships does the Sahitya
(d) Sahitya Akademi Translation Prize Akademi confer to honor contributions to Indian
literature and encourage research?
2. Where was Ruskin Bond born? (a) Two (b) Three
(a) Shimla, Himachal Pradesh (c) Four (d) Five
(b) Dehradun, Uttarakhand
(c) Mussoorie, Uttarakhand 5. When was the Premchand Fellowship established?
(d) Kasauli, Himachal Pradesh (a) 1995 (b) 2000
(c) 2005 (d) 2010

1. Correct Answer: (b) Sahitya Akademi Fellowship 4. Correct Answer: (c) Four
Explanation: Ruskin Bond received the Sahitya Akademi Explanation: The Sahitya Akademi confers four types of
Fellowship, the most prestigious recognition awarded by Fellowships to recognize significant contributions to
the Sahitya Akademi. Indian literature and to promote research on Indian
literature and culture by international scholars. These
2. Correct Answer: (d) Kasauli, Himachal Pradesh fellowships aim to honor and encourage literary
Explanation: Ruskin Bond was born in Kasauli, Himachal achievements and scholarly research in the field.
Pradesh, on 19th May 1934.
5. Correct Answer: (c) 2005
3. Correct Answer: (a) Junoon Explanation: The Premchand Fellowship was established
Explanation: The 1978 Hindi film Junoon is based on in 2005 during the 125th birth anniversary of Munshi
Ruskin Bond's historical novel A Flight of Pigeons, set Premchand, a prominent figure in Indian literature. This
during the tumultuous period of the Indian Rebellion of timing highlights the fellowship’s dedication to
1857. The film explores themes and historical events commemorating Premchand’s legacy and promoting the
depicted in the novel, capturing the essence of the era and study of literature and culture that he greatly influenced.
its impact on the characters.

Indian Literary Works in UNESCO’s Memory of the World Register
Why in news?
UNESCO’s Memory of the World (MOW) program has recently added three Indian literary works—Ramcharitmanas,
Panchatantra, and Sahṛdayaloka-Locana—to its Asia-Pacific Regional Register.
This marks the first successful nomination by India since the inception of the Memory of the World Committee for
Asia and the Pacific (MOWCAP) in 2004.
The inclusion occurred during the tenth meeting of MOWCAP, held in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia.
Key Features of the Selected Works
Ramcharitmanas
Author: Written by Goswami Tulsidas in the 16th century.

Language: Composed in the Awadhi dialect.
Content: Unlike Valmiki’s Ramayana, it starts with the curse on Lord Shiva’s attendants. It encapsulates seven
Kands, with Lav-Kush Kand exclusive to it.
Cultural Reach: Revered epic widely read across Southeast Asia, including Cambodia, Thailand, Sri Lanka, and
Indonesia.
Significance: Tulsidas’ work reflects the philosophies of Vedanta and Bhakti. Known for its Chaupais and
Dohas, it plays a prominent role in the Hindu ritual of Ramayana recitation.
Panchatantra
Author: Attributed to Vishnu Sharma.

Origin: Dates back to around the 3rd century BCE.
Content: A collection of interrelated animal fables in verse and prose, designed as a political science manual
based on ‘niti’ (policy) teachings to educate young princes.
Translations: One of the most translated non-religious books in history, with over 200 versions in more than
60 languages.
Global Influence: Influenced world folklore, directly inspiring works like ‘The Arabian Nights,’ ‘The
Decameron,’ ‘The Canterbury Tales,’ and ‘The Fables of La Fontaine.’
Sahṛdayaloka-Locana
Author: Attributed to the literati Rājaśekhara, who flourished in the 9th to 10th centuries AD.
Content: Renowned for synthesizing aesthetic theories, featuring discussions on dramaturgy and poetics. It
provides insights into Sanskrit theatrical traditions.
Significance: Builds on the ‘rasa’ theory initially formalized by Bharata in the ‘Natya Shastra.’ Despite not
being as widely known, it holds significance for its in-depth analysis of emotional aspects in performance arts.

Memory of the World Programme
Establishment: Launched by UNESCO in 1992 to safeguard the documentary
heritage of humanity against collective amnesia, neglect, the ravages of time and
climatic conditions, and willful and deliberate destruction.
Purpose: Aims to protect the world's documentary heritage, including manuscripts,
oral traditions, audio-visual materials, and library and archive holdings.
Recognition: Helps in recognizing and maintaining records of heritage of
significant importance at international, regional, and national levels, facilitating
research, education, and preservation.
International Register: As of May 2023, there are 494 inscriptions globally on the
International Memory of the World Register.
Asia-Pacific Focus: MOWCAP focuses on documents highlighting achievements in
literature, genealogy, and science in the Asia-Pacific region.
2024 Cycle: Recognized contributions from various Asian countries, emphasizing
key regional literary traditions and scientific discoveries.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Where was the tenth meeting of the Memory of the initiated?
World Committee for Asia and the Pacific (MOWCAP) (a) 1982 (b) 1992
held, during which three Indian literary works were (c) 2002 (d) 2012
added to the register?
(a) Beijing, China (b) Tokyo, Japan 4. As of May 2023, how many inscriptions are there on the
(c) New Delhi, India (d) Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia International Memory of the World Register?
(a) 294 (b) 394
2. Who is the author attributed to the literary work (c) 494 (d) 594
Sahṛdayaloka-Locana?
(a) Rā jaśekhara (b) Vishnu Sharma 5. Who is attributed as the author of the Panchatantra?
(c) Kalidasa (d) Vā lmīki (a) Valmiki (b) Vyasa
(c) Vishnu Sharma (d) Kalidasa
3. When was UNESCO's Memory of the World Programme

1. Correct Answer: (d) Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia Explanation: The Memory of the World Programme was
Explanation: The tenth meeting of the Memory of the launched by UNESCO in 1992.
World Committee for Asia and the Pacific (MOWCAP)
was held in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia. 4. Correct Answer: (c) 494
Explanation: As of May 2023, there are 494 inscriptions
2. Correct Answer: (a) Rā jaśekhara globally on the International Memory of the World
Explanation: Sahṛdayaloka-Locana is attributed to the Register.
literati Rā jaśekhara, who flourished in the 9th to 10th
centuries AD. He is known for his contributions to 5. Correct Answer: (c) Vishnu Sharma
Sanskrit literature, particularly in the realms of Explanation: The Panchatantra is attributed to Vishnu
dramaturgy and poetics. Sharma. This collection of animal fables was designed to
impart political and moral education to young princes
3. Correct Answer: (b) 1992 and has been a significant educational tool throughout
history.
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NATIONAL
Uttarakhand Suspends Licences of 14 Patanjali Ayurved Products
 The Uttarakhand government has suspended the manufacturing licenses of 14 products from Patanjali Ayurved,
founded by Baba Ramdev, citing misleading advertisements about their efficacy.
Indian Army and Punit Balan Group Collaborate to Develop India’s First Constitution Park
 The Indian Army and the Punit Balan Group joined hands to inaugurate the nation’s first Constitution Park in Pune.
The ceremony, led by Lt. Gen.
 Ajai Kumar Singh, emphasized the importance of citizens honoring their duties outlined in the Constitution to drive
India towards development by 2047.
Kathmandu Tops the List of Cities With ‘unhealthy air’ in the World
 The Ministry of Health and Population of Nepal has urged residents to wear masks due to the alarming increase in air
pollution levels in the Kathmandu valley.
Eight Railway Station in Amethi, Uttar Pradesh Renamed

 The Union Ministry of Home Affairs has granted approval to the Uttar Pradesh Government’s proposal to rename eight
railway stations in Amethi district.
Uttarakhand Tourism Announced India’s First Astro Tourism Campaign Named ‘Nakshatra Sabha’
 The Uttarakhand Tourism Development Board has joined hands with Starscapes, a leading astro-tourism company, to
introduce Nakshatra Sabha, a new initiative to provide a comprehensive Astro Tourism experience to people.
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contests, camping under the stars, and more. The initiative aims to bring together astronomy enthusiasts, adventurers,
and travellers to marvel at the wonders of the cosmos, as reported by ET Travel.
GSL lays keel of 1st Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel

 The keel laying ceremony of the first Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel (NGOPV) (ex-GSL) was held at Goa
Shipyard Limited (GSL), Goa. The ceremony was presided by VAdm B Siva Kumar, Controller Warship Production &
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Indian Navy and GSL.
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Ministry of Defence and GSL and Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata, with seven ships to be
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Bengaluru’s Flying Wedge Defence Unveils India’s First Indigenous Bomber UAV
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India’s inaugural indigenous bomber unmanned aircraft.
 The company plans rigorous flight testing followed by certification from the Centre for Military Airworthiness &
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Preventing Child Marriage in Rajasthan: Rajasthan High Court’s Directive

 In response to a public interest litigation (PIL) on child marriage, the Rajasthan High Court has issued a directive
aimed at curbing the practice in the state.
 India’s Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006 establishes the minimum marriage age for girls and boys as 18 and 21
years, respectively.
 According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS)-5, India has seen a decline in child marriage from 47.4% in
2005–06 to 26.8% in 2015–16.
144
The Hindu Triumphs at 6th International Newspaper Design Competition
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newspaperdesign.in.
 The Hindu clinched the highest honor, the ‘Best of Show’ award, recognizing its outstanding contribution to
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The Centuries-Old Tradition Of Ajrakh From Kutch Gets GI Tag

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regions for 2,500 to 5,000 years. Recently, the Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trademarks
(CGPDTM) has officially granted the Geographical Indication (GI) certificate to the traditional artisans of 'Kutch
Ajrakh,' who are renowned for their exceptional artistry from Gujarat's Kutch region.
 The GI tag is a certification that helps identify the product, service, or art as originating from a specific geographical
region.
Bajaj Auto is all set to launch World’s First CNG Motorcycle

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18, 2024. Anticipated to slash running costs by up to 50 per cent or more, this innovative Bajaj CNG motorcycle
announcement came directly from Rajiv Bajaj, ( Managing Director of Bajaj ) during the recent Pulsar NS400Z launch
event.
 This groundbreaking development has piqued the interest of budgetconscious commuters, offering an eco-friendly
and cost-effective alternative. Yet, many details remain undisclosed about this upcoming CNG motorcycle. Recently
leaked blueprints of the chassis, however, shed some light on its intriguing features.
 The prototype of Bajaj’s CNG motorcycle, which has been spotted multiple times during testing, resembles a typical
commuter bike. It features halogen turn indicators, telescopic forks, and a monoshock unit for suspension.
Uttarakhand Government Launches Pirul Lao Paise Pao Campaign

 Uttarakhand Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami launched the Pirul Lao-Paisa Pao in the Rudraprayag district on 8
May 2024. He urged the people to actively participate in the campaign to prevent forest fires. He said that the
cooperatives, Yuva Mangal Dal and Van Panchayat, would also participate in the campaign to make it a people's
campaign.
 Under the Pirul Lao-Paise Pao campaign, the local youth and villagers will collect dry Pirul (Pine tree leaves) in the
forest and take them to the designated Pirul collection centre. The Tehsildar in their respective areas will manage the
pirul collection centre under the supervision of the Sub-Divisional Magistrate.
Manipur government launches ‘school on wheels’ for children in relief camps

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library, computers, and sports items, would visit different camps accompanied by a teacher.
 The Governor after launching the pioneering initiative at Bal Vidya Mandir Complex in Imphal said that the incidents
which started on May 3 last year affected thousands of people, especially huge number of students of Manipur.
India’s first utility-scale, standalone storage project gets regulatory nod

 The Delhi Electricity Regulatory Commission (DERC) has granted regulatory approval to India’s first commercial
standalone battery energy storage system (BESS) project.
 The project is being developed by BSES Rajdhani Power (BRPL) in partnership with IndiGrid and the Global Energy
Alliance for People and Planet’s (GEAPP). It is supported by GEAPP’s concessional loan, covering 70% of the total
project cost.
145
DRDO Collaborates With IIT Bhubaneshwar for AI-Driven Surveillance Projects
 India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has collaborated with the Indian Institute of
Technology (IIT) Bhubaneswar for undertaking artificial intelligence (AI) driven surveillance and other projects,
according to a PTI report republished by the Indian Defence Research Wing.
 Head of the School of Electrical Sciences at IIT, Prof S.R. Samantaray, emphasized that the collaboration is aligned with
the evolving needs of defence applications, contributing to the vision of ‘Atma Nirbhar Bharat’ (Self-reliant India). He
believes this collaboration will bolster defence research programs, fostering sustainability and contributing to the
national ecosystem.
Mines Secretary Inaugurates Registered Office of Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL) in New Delhi
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 KABIL, a Joint Venture Company formed by NALCO, HCL and MECL, the CPSEs under the Ministry of Mines, is entrusted
with the important mission of identifying, exploring, acquiring, and developing critical & strategic mineral assets
overseas.
IndiaSkills 2024: Showcasing India’s Top Talent

 IndiaSkills Competition 2024, the nation’s largest skill event, is set to kick off in New Delhi. Organized by the Ministry
of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), this event promises to highlight the best in skill development
across the country. Over 900 students from 30 states and Union Territories, along with 400 industry experts, will
participate in this grand event.
 Lasting four days, IndiaSkills will feature competitions in 61 skills, ranging from traditional crafts to modern
technologies. While 47 competitions will be held onsite, 14 will take place offsite in states like Karnataka, Haryana,
Uttar Pradesh, and Gujarat, ensuring access to top-notch infrastructure. Additionally, participants will engage in 9
exhibition skills such as Drone-Film making, Textile-Weaving, Leather-Shoemaking, and prosthetics-makeup.
Special Commemorative Coin Released on MDL Shipyard 250th Anniversary

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of the foundation of Mazagaon Dock Limited (MDL).
 The defence secretary was the chief guest of the function, which was organised by the MDL in New Delhi on 14 May
2024 to mark the 250th anniversary of the MDL.
Hero MotoCorp Becomes First Indian Two-Wheeler Company To Join ONDC Network
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products to the platform. The company says joining the ONDC network will provide easy digital accessibility to
customers. Hero MotoCorp will initially offer two-wheeler parts, accessories, and merchandise on the open network.
 Through ONDC’s buyer apps like Paytm and Mystore, customers gain access to Hero genuine parts with greater ease.
This integration facilitates faster local deliveries, leveraging Hero MotoCorp’s extensive physical distribution network.
Ultimately, the initiative aims to benefit over 115 million Hero customers nationwide, ushering in a new era of
convenience and efficiency in two-wheeler retail.
SAIL-Bhilai to Set Up Chhattisgarh’s First 15-Mw Floating Solar Plant

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the state's first 15-megawatt (MW) floating solar project in its Maroda-1 reservoir to improve its carbon footprint. The
steel major is undertaking various projects to reduce carbon emissions, conserve energy, and promote renewable energy.
L&T Bags Project For Constructing Medical College And Hospital In Kolkata
 Larsen & Toubro has secured a significant order for its Buildings & Factories (B&F) business. The company will
construct a Medical College and Hospital Campus at Rajarhat, Kolkata, as part of a project commissioned by the
Institute of Neurosciences Kolkata.
146
 What Happened: L&T announced the news on Friday. The project, to be executed in two phases over 60 months, will
include a 605-bed hospital, a medical college with an annual intake capacity of 150 students, and hostels for students,
interns, nurses, and residents. The total built-up area will be 1.21 million square feet. The infra giant said that this is
a “significant” order valued between ₹1,000 crore to ₹2,500 crore.
Assam Launches DRIMS for reporting damages during disasters

Source: The hans India
 The Disaster Reporting and Information Management System (DRIMS), a digital platform for online reporting of
damages incurred during various disasters, was launched by Assam Chief Secretary Dr Ravi Kota.
 DRIMS is a state-of-the-art initiative of the Assam State Disaster Management Authority (ASDMA), for accurate
reporting and assessment of damages caused by disasters, and disbursal of aid to those affected.
Tata Motors partner with Bajaj Finance to finance their passenger and electric vehicle dealers
 Tata Motors’ subsidiaries, Tata Motors Passenger Vehicles (TMPV) and Tata Passenger Electric Mobility (TPEM), have
partnered with Bajaj Finance to offer a financing programme for authorised passenger and electric vehicle dealers.
 TMPV and TPEM have been leading the Indian automotive market with their innovative efforts in both the Internal
Combustion Engine (ICE) and Electric Vehicle (EV) segments.
Swiggy Leverages SHIELD’s Device-First Risk AI Platform to Enhance Fraud Prevention

Source: The Print
 Swiggy, India’s leading on-demand convenience platform, today announced its partnership with SHIELD, a device-first
risk AI platform, to enhance its Fraud Prevention and Detection capabilities. SHIELD’s Device Intelligence will enable
Swiggy to reduce promo abuse and deter fraudulent practices within the Delivery Partner ecosystem.
 Delivery partners can also use malicious tools and techniques to falsify their location and meet targets and unfairly
collect incentives they have not earned. These impact Delivery Partners’ perception of platform fairness and hence
their experience with the platform.
First Ever Emergency Medical Response System inaugurated by Air Chief Marshal VR Chaudhari
Source: The Economic times
 In order to provide expert guidance and definitive care during medical emergencies of serving personnel and their
families of the Indian Air Force (IAF) across the nation, an Emergency Medical Response System (EMRS), was
inaugurated by Air Chief Marshal VR Chaudhari, Chief of the Air Staff, Indian Air Force at Command Hospital Air Force
Bangalore (CHAFB) on 21 May 2024.
 The EMRS is a first of its kind 24/7 telephonic medical helpline for serving IAF personnel and their families across
India. The system aims to provide prompt response by a team of medical and paramedical professionals to the caller
experiencing the emergency anywhere across the country.
Noise Acquires SocialBoat to Bolster Smart Ring Innovation

Source: Infomance
 Leading smartwatch and connected lifestyle brand, Noise announced that it has acquired AI-powered women’s
wellness platform SocialBoat for an undisclosed amount. This strategic move is part of Noise’s broader strategy to
advance innovation in smart rings.
 SocialBoat, a startup with expertise in AI and women’s health, analyzes data from various sources, including
wearables, to offer personalized recommendations for nutrition, fitness, menstrual health, and overall well-being.
India’s project ISHAN to streamline air traffic, benefit airlines and passengers
 India has initiated the process of consolidating its four airspace regions into a single entity spanning the entire nation,
in order to refine and strengthen air traffic management (ATM).
 The Airports Authority of India (AAI) has called for expressions of interest to prepare a detailed project report for the
Indian Single Sky Harmonized Air Traffic Management (ISHAN) initiative, centered in Nagpur.
147
INTERNATIONAL
Zimbabwe Introduced New Currency amid Skepticism
 Zimbabwe has launched a new currency called the ZiG (short for Zimbabwe Gold) in an attempt to address the
country’s long-running currency crisis.
 The ZiG, backed by Zimbabwe’s gold reserves, was introduced electronically in early April and has now been released
in banknote and coin form.
 Despite being the sixth currency since the collapse of the Zimbabwe dollar in 2009, the ZiG is already facing mistrust
and rejection from some quarters.
India and Europe to Strengthen 6G Collaboration

 India’s Bharat 6G Alliance is set to sign a cooperation agreement with Europe’s Industry Alliance 6G, following a
similar agreement with the US. This partnership aims to foster collaboration in developing 6G technology.
China to Launch Chang’e-6 Lunar Probe Carrying Pakistan’s ICUBE-Q Mission

 China is set to launch the Chang’e-6 lunar probe on a round trip to the Moon, marking a significant advancement in
their space exploration.
 Pakistan is set to launch its maiden lunar mission, ICUBE-Q, aboard China’s Chang’e-6 probe.
India to Host 46th Antarctic Treaty Consultative Meeting in Kochi

 The Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Government of India, in collaboration with the National Centre for Polar and
Ocean Research (NCPOR), is set to host the 46th Antarctic Treaty Consultative Meeting (ATCM 46) and the 26th
Meeting of the Committee for Environmental Protection (CEP 26) from May 20 to 30, 2024, in Kochi, Kerala.
India Renews Agreement to Train 1500 Bangladeshi Officers

 The Government of India has signed an agreement with the Government of Bangladesh to renew the Memorandum of
Understanding (MoU) for training 1500 Bangladeshi officers from 2025 to 2030.
 The agreement was signed between the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG),
Government of India, and the Bangladeshi Ministry of Public Administration.
 The agreement was signed during a three-day (28-30 April 2024) visit of a four-member DARPG delegation to
Bangladesh, led by V. Srinivas, Secretary, DARPG.
Solomon Islands Elects Pro-China Leader Jeremiah Manele as New Prime Minister
 In a significant political development, the Solomon Islands has elected former Foreign Minister Jeremiah Manele as its
new prime minister, indicating that the South Pacific island nation is likely to maintain close ties with China.
American Express Announces Inauguration of 1 Million Sq Ft Campus in Gurugram

 American Express is set to inaugurate its expansive new campus in Gurugram, spanning nearly one million square
feet.
 The new campus, located in Sector 74A, Gurugram, Haryana, is designed to promote employee well-being and
collaboration.
India Nigeria to soon finalise Local Currency Settlement System Agreement
 India and Nigeria have agreed to an early conclusion of the Local Currency Settlement System Agreement to boost
bilateral trade between the two countries. Under the local currency settlement system, the trade will be settled in
India's local currency and Nigerian local currency, Nigerian naira. This was decided at the 2nd session of the India-
Nigeria Joint Trade Committee held in Abuja, Nigeria.
 India and Nigeria enjoy close political and economic ties. India established a Diplomatic House in Lagos, Nigeria, in
November 1958; even before Nigeria gained independence, Nigeria gained independence from Britain in 1960.
148
Jose Raul Mulino wins Panama’s Presidential election
 José Raúl Mulino has won Panama’s presidential election after three of his nearest rivals conceded defeat. The 64-
year-old former security minister has secured nearly 35% of the counted votes, with more than 92% of the votes
counted. He has an unassailable 9 per cent lead over his nearest rival.
 Jose Raul Mulino was initially chosen as a Vice-Presidential candidate by former president Ricardo Martinelli, who
was himself the Presidential candidate.
Nepal introduce new Rs 100 currency note featuring Indian territories
 Nepal recently announced the printing of a new Rs 100 currency note featuring a map that includes the Indian
territories of Lipulekh, Limpiyadhura, and Kalapani, a move that has been contested by India.
 In a meeting chaired by Nepali Prime Minister Pushpakamal Dahal Prachanda, the council of ministers decided to
incorporate the controversial territories into the new map of Nepal, government spokesperson Rekha Sharma
informed the media during a briefing.
Ukraine unveils AI-generated foreign ministry spokesperson

 Ukraine presented an AI-generated spokesperson called Victoria who will make official statements on behalf of its
foreign ministry.
 The ministry said it would “for the first time in history” use a digital spokesperson to read its statements.
 The foreign ministry’s press service said that the statements given by Shi would not be generated by AI but will be
written and verified by real people.
Putin begins new six-year term as President of Russia

 President Vladimir Putin began his fifth term at a glittering Kremlin inauguration Tuesday, embarking on another six
years as leader of Russia after destroying his political opponents, launching a devastating war in Ukraine and
concentrating all power in his hands.
 Putin won 87.3% of the vote on a record turnout of 77.5%, the Central Election Commission (CEC) reported Monday
after all the ballots from the three-day presidential vote were counted.
Dubai’s Ministry Of Tourism Launches ‘Cool Summers of India’ Campaign at the Arabian Travel Mart 2024
 In a bid to strengthen India’s presence in the Middle East tourism market, the Ministry of Tourism is participating in
Arabian Travel Mart 2024, being held in Dubai from May 6 to 9, 2024, Aligning with it, ‘Incredible India’ pavilion was
inaugurated on Monday, aiming to capture the entirety of the UAE market.
 Highlighting lesser-known yet refreshing destinations, the Ministry of Tourism also launched the ‘Cool Summers of
India’ campaign at Arabian Travel Mart. The digital campaign challenges the notion of India being too hot for summer
travel, emphasizing on its offerings in hill resorts, including the Himalayas.
India’s Adani Green Energy signs PPA with Sri Lanka for two wind projects
 Adani Green Energy has secured a 20-year power purchase agreement (PPA) with Sri Lanka for the development of
two wind projects.
 A cabinet statement from the Sri Lankan government confirmed the agreement, which involves projects in the town
of Mannar and the village of Pooneryn in the country’s Northern province.
 The renewable energy company, led by Indian billionaire Gautam Adani, received approval in February 2023 to invest
$442m in the construction of wind projects with a total capacity of 484MW.
 The Sri Lankan Cabinet has established a negotiation committee to assess the project proposal submitted by Adani
Green, Adani will receive $0.0826 per kilowatt hour (kWh) for the energy supplied.
India – France Joint Military Exercise Shakti 2024 to be held in Meghalaya

 Joint military Exercise Shakti between the Indian and the French forces will be held at the Joint Training Node of the
Indian Army in Umroi, Meghalaya, from 13 -26 May 2024. The opening ceremony of the 7th edition of Exercise Shakti
will be attended by the French Ambassador to India, Thierry Mathou. Brigadier Mayur Shekatkar, Commander of the
24 Mountain Brigade, and other civilian and military dignitaries,
 Emphasis will be on developing an understanding of operations, and building shared knowledge, awareness, and
familiarity with each other's operational procedures.
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Climeworks opens world's largest plant to extract CO2 from air in Iceland
 Climeworks has opened the world’s largest operational direct air capture (DAC) plant to suck carbon dioxide out of
the atmosphere, with its Mammoth plant in Iceland almost ten times larger than the current record holder.
 Worsening climate change and inadequate efforts to cut emissions have led U.N. scientists to estimate billions of tons
of carbon must be removed from the atmosphere annually to meet global climate goals.
Nepal climber Kami Rita Sherpa climbs Mt Everest for 29th time
 Nepali Sherpa climber Kami Rita has scaled Everest for the 29th time, surpassing his own record of 28 ascents. He
now holds the record for the most ascents of the world's tallest peak in its 71-year climbing history.
 Kami Rita Sherpa, also known as 'Everest man,' embarked on the Spring Season Everest expedition from Kathmandu,
accompanying a team of approximately 28 climbers. Seven Summit Treks organised the expedition to conquer the
world's highest peak.
India, Oman to jointly undertake research on sharks and rays in Arabian Sea
 A joint initiative between India and Oman to boost research and conservation of sharks and rays in the Arabian Sea
will be launched at an upcoming workshop at ICAR-Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI).
 Experts from both countries will take part in the workshop which is expected to take place shortly, here, which will
take up the collaborative research works and capacity building in elasmobranch research.
Indonesia’s Mount Ibu Erupts, Spewing Ash Clouds

 Indonesia’s Ibu volcano on the remote island of Halmahera erupted on Monday (May 13) morning, spewing thick
columns of grey ash several kilometres into the sky, the country’s volcanology agency said.
 The volcano erupted at 9.12 a.m. (0012 GMT) for about five minutes, projecting ash into the sky as high as 5 km (3.1
miles), officials said. A smaller eruption was also recorded at the volcano on Friday (May 10).
India and Iran Ink Long-Term Deal for Chabahar Port Operations
 In a significant milestone for the India-Iran relationship and to foster close cooperation to make Chabahar Port a
regional trade transit and connectivity hub, the two countries signed a long-term contract for operating the Shahid-
Beheshti Port Terminal in presence of Indian and Iranian Ministers.
 The Indian delegation to Iran was led by Union Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways Sarbananda Sonowal, while
Mehrdad Bazrpash, Minister for Roads and Urban Development, was present from the Iranian side.
Greenko ZeroC Partners with Norway’s Yara to Supply Renewable Ammonia

 Greenko ZeroC, the green ammonia production division of India’s AM Green, has finalized a significant agreement with
Norway’s Yara Clean Ammonia, the leading global ammonia distributor, to supply renewable ammonia.
 This partnership is anchored in a term sheet that commits Greenko to deliver up to 50% of the renewable ammonia
produced during the initial phase of its new facility in Kakinada, Andhra Pradesh. The project is an ambitious
undertaking by AM Green, with plans to start by producing 1 million tonnes of green ammonia annually, scaling up to
5 million tonnes by 2030.
TCS announces creation of Global AI Center of Excellence in Paris

 Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) announced the creation of a Global Artificial Intelligence (AI) Centre of Excellence in
Paris, during the Choose France Summit, hosted by President Emmanuel Macron.
 The new AI centre will be based in the upcoming TCS PacePort in the La Défense area of Paris, which will be
inaugurated in June 2024, becoming the seventh such facility in TCS’ global Pace network, following Amsterdam,
London, New York, Pittsburgh, Toronto, and Tokyo.
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PhonePe partners with LankaPay, enables UPI payments for users travelling to Sri Lanka
 PhonePe on Wednesday announced a partnership with LankaPay to allow its users to pay using UPI across Sri Lanka.
 At an event to mark the collaboration, PhonePe said its app users travelling to Sri Lanka can make payments using UPI
across LankaPay QR merchants, The transactions will be facilitated by the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and
LankaPay National Payment Network.
Wong sworn in as Singapore's new Prime Minister

 Economist Lawrence Wong was sworn in as Singapore's fourth prime minister in a planned political transition for the
island state.
 Wong, 51, succeeded Lee Hsien Loong, 72, who relinquished his position after two decades; both belong to the ruling
People’s Action Party (PAP) that has been driving Singapore’s economic progress for more than five decades
UAE launches 10-Year Blue Resident Visa for environmental advocates

 In an attempt to promote the culture of sustainability and environment protect, the United Arab Emirates Cabinet led
by Prime Minister, Sheikh Mohammed bin Rashid, has announced a 10-year Blue Residence Visa for those who are
making exceptional contributions to environmental protection.
 The Prime Minister on X emphasised the UAE's unwavering devotion to environmental protection, writing, “The
sustainability of our economy has become linked to the sustainability of our environment, and our national directions
in this area are clear and consistent." He further emphasised UAE's commitment to protect the environment, how the
nation is also ready to develop its international technologies, and develop its higher education systems.
India To Soon Take Delivery Of Russian Man-Portable Igla-S Air Defence Systems
 The Indian Army is set to receive another batch of Russian-made man-portable Igla-S very short-range air defence
systems (VSHORADs) by the end of May or early June.
 Man-portable VSHORADs like Igla-S and American Stinger are shoulder-fired missiles that can be used to shoot down
low-flying helicopters, fighter jets, drones, and cruise missiles.
IIT Delhi - Abu Dhabi campus to commence its first Academic Session in 24-25
 The first international campus of IIT Delhi will commence its first academic session in 2024-25 in Abu Dhabi, United
Arab Emirates (UAE). Initially, the IIT Delhi Abu Dhabi campus will offer undergraduate courses.
 As part of the central government’s effort to internationalise the Indian education sector, the prestigious Indian
Institute of Technology (IIT) has set up two campuses outside India. IIT Madras has set up a campus in Zanzibar,
Tanzania, which commenced its academic season in 2023-24 and IIT Delhi Abu Dhabi will start its academic season
this year.
Indian Oil signs second long-term LNG deal with France's TotalEnergies
 Indian Oil signs second long-term LNG deal with France's TotalEnergies. This is the second long-term contract
between the two countries within the past one year. In July last year they had signed an agreement for supply of 0.8
mmtpa to IndianOil.
Jyoti Ratre, 55, becomes oldest Indian woman to conquer Mount Everest
 Jyoti Ratre, an entrepreneur and fitness enthusiast from Madhya Pradesh, has become the oldest Indian woman to
conquer Mount Everest. The 55-year-old mountaineer reached the summit at 6:30 a.m. on Sunday, May 19.
 Ratre's accomplishment comes precisely six years after Sangeeta Bahl, at 53, earned the title of ‘India’s oldest woman
to climb Mount Everest' on May 19, 2018. This was Ratre's second attempt to summit the highest peak in the world.
In 2023, she had to return from 8,160 mt due to harsh weather.
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Iranian President Ebrahim Raisi Passes Away In a Chopper Crash
Source: India Today
 Iranian President Ebrahim Raisi and his foreign minister died when their helicopter crashed as it was crossing
mountain terrain in heavy fog, The helicopter, carrying the 63-year-old President Raisi, Foreign Minister Hossein
Amir-Abdollahian, and other officials, lost contact approximately 30 minutes into the flight.
Elon Musk Launches Starlink in Indonesia, Aims to Bridge Connectivity Gap

 Elon Musk traveled to Bali, Indonesia's resort island, to launch Starlink satellite internet service in the world's largest
archipelago nation. Photos showed Musk greeting officials at a community health clinic where the launch event
occurred.
 Starlink aims to provide fast, affordable internet access to remote regions lacking connectivity. Speed tests were
conducted with health workers in remote regions to demonstrate the service. An agreement was signed to enhance
connectivity for Indonesia's health and education sectors.
RITES signs pact with Bangladesh Railway to supply 200 passenger coaches
 State-owned RITES Ltd signed a contract with Bangladesh Railways to supply 200 broad-gauge passenger carriages
to the neighbouring country, The export arm of Indian Railways, RITES has won the USD 111.26 million (approx. Rs
915 crore) contract, funded by European Investment Bank (EIB), through a global competitive bidding process.
 RITES will offer its expertise in design, spare parts support and training, under the terms & conditions. The contract
has a supply with commissioning period of 36 months, followed by a warranty period of 24 months. The agreement
was signed by officials of RITES and Bangladesh Railway in the presence of Minister of Railways, Bangladesh, Md. Zillul
Hakim in Dhaka on 20 May, 2024.
Luis Abinader Re-elected as President of Dominican Republic for second term

 Luis Rodolfo Abinader Corona has been re-elected as the President of the Dominican Republic for 2nd four-year term
from 2024 – 2028, He has been serving as the President of Dominican Republic since 2020.
 With around 38% of votes counted, Abinader held 59.24% of the vote, followed by three-time former President Leonel
Fernandez with 26.97%, according to preliminary data from the nation's central electoral board.
To Lam elected as the New President of Vietnam

Source: Firstpost
 General To Lam was elected as the new president of Vietnam by the Vietnamese parliament on 22 May 2024. To Lam,
who was the public security minister, was removed from his post as minister by the Vietnamese parliament before
being elected president. The appointment comes after Vietnam’s former President Vo Van Thuong resigned two
months back amid a corruption crackdown.
 66 years old To Lam as head of public security minister played a crucial role in the anti-corruption campaign in the
country also known as "blazing furnace". The campaign aimed to root out widespread corruption in the country which
saw the resignations of three out of top five leaders of the country.
Spain Becomes 99th Member Of International Solar Alliance

Source: TOI
 Spain has become the 99th member of the International Solar Alliance. External Affairs Ministry spokesperson
Randhir Jaiswal said that Spain handed over the International Solar Alliance Instrument of Ratification, during the
meeting of Ambassador José María Ridao Domínguez of Spain with the Head of Depository, Joint Secretary in the
External Affairs Ministry Abhishek Singh in New Delhi.
 The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is a collaborative platform for increased deployment of solar energy
technologies as a means for bringing energy access, ensuring energy security, and driving energy transition in its
member countries.
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Google to tie-up with Taiwan’s Foxconn Technology to manufacture Pixel phones in Tamil Nadu
Source: Reuters
 Alphabet Inc-owned Google will partner with Taiwan’s Foxconn Technology Group to set up a plant in Tamil Nadu to
manufacture Pixel smartphones.
 Tamil Nadu, chief minister MK Stalin on Thursday said that the decision to start its production unit was a result of
negotiations initiated by the state government with Google management.
Maldives to launch India’s RuPay service

Source: NDTV
 Notwithstanding the turbulence in their bilateral ties, the Maldives will soon launch India’s RuPay service, which a
senior minister has said "will bolster the Maldivian Rufiyaa".
 RuPay, a product of the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), is the first of its global card payment network
in India, with wide acceptance at ATMs, POS devices, and e-commerce websites across India.
University of Tokyo inaugurates world’s highest observatory in Chile

 The University of Tokyo has inaugurated the Atacama Observatory (TAO) built on the summit of Cerro Chajnantor in
the Antofagasta Region, at 5,640 meters above sea level.
 TAO also houses a 6.5-meter optical-infrared telescope. The telescope will focus on understanding the nature of the
universe, according to Emol’s academic section.
 After 26 years of planning and construction, TAO is officially now the highest observatory in the world, and has been
awarded a Guinness World Record.
SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

DRDO’s Supersonic Missile-Assisted Torpedo Delivery System Achieves Success
 The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has achieved a significant milestone in enhancing
India’s anti-submarine warfare capabilities with the successful flight-test of the Supersonic Missile-Assisted Release
of Torpedo (SMART) system.
 This next-generation torpedo delivery system was successfully flight-tested on May 01, 2024, at around 8:30 AM from
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Island off the coast of Odisha.
Sunita Williams's third space flight aborted hours before liftoff

 The long-awaited first crewed test flight of Boeing's new Starliner space capsule was called off on Tuesday over a
technical issue. The postponement, attributed to an issue with a valve in the rocket's second stage, was announced
during a live NASA webcast.
 The Boeing Starliner was set to lift off from the Kennedy Space Center in Florida's Cape Canaveral at 8.04 am India
time.
Setu unveils Sesame, India's first domain-specific LLM for BFSI sector
 Setu, a leading Indian fintech company and part of the Pine Labs Group, unveiled Sesame, India’s first Large Language
Model (LLM) specifically designed for the banking, financial services, and insurance (BFSI) sector.
 Developed in collaboration with indigenous AI research firm Sarvam AI, the company said this marks a "ChatGPT
moment" in financial services. The unveiling took place at Adbhut India, an event organised by the non-profit
People+ai, in the presence of Nandan Nilekani (co-founder and director of EkStep Foundation), Shankar Maruwada
(co-founder and chief executive officer of EkStep Foundation), Tanuj Bhojwani (head of People+ai), and other
prominent figures in fintech, AI, and digital public infrastructure.
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Google launches wallet app in India for Android users
 Tech giant Google announced the launch of the Google Wallet app in India, enabling users to save their travel tickets
gift cards and event passes in one place. It however does not support payment features such as saving credit cards or
debit cards in the wallet for on-tap payments.
 This Wallet app offers fast and secure access to everyday essentials, enabling people to conveniently store and retrieve
important digital documents like boarding passes, loyalty cards, movie tickets, and more. Google Wallet complements
Google Pay, which will continue to serve the payments needs of users across India.
Infosys Receives ISO 42001:2023 Certification for Artificial Intelligence Management System
 Infosys a global leader in next-generation digital services and consulting, announced that it has been certified with
ISO 42001:2023, world's first international standard on AI management systems, by TUV India (part of TÜV Nord
Group), a leading independent provider of technical quality and safety services.
 Infosys is among the first IT services companies globally to have earned the certification for implementing an Artificial
Intelligence Management System (AIMS) framework that fosters responsible AI practices and adherence to regulatory
requirements for enhanced efficiency and accountability in AI initiatives.
Kadet Defence systems introduces India's first loitering aerial munitions for Armed Forces
 Kadet Defence Systems (KDS) has achieved a significant milestone in bolstering India's defence capabilities by
pioneering the development of India's first Loitering Aerial Munitions (LAM). Through a distinctive Development cum
Production Partner (DCPP) arrangement with the Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO).
 The LAM Systems, achieved through continuous innovation and strategic collaboration, comprise a wide array of
advanced technologies. These include Canister Aerial Loitering Munition (CALM), Combat UAVs equipped with stand-
off capabilities for munition release, and Tactical VTOL UAVs. Kadet's LAMs mark a significant shift in modern warfare
tactics.
Gopi Thotakura becomes 1st Indian space tourist on Blue Origin's private astronaut launch
Source: News18
 Gopi Thotakura, an entrepreneur and a pilot, on Sunday May 19, became the first Indian to venture into space as a
tourist aboard Amazon founder Jeff Bezos's Blue Origin’s NS-25 mission.
 Thotakura was selected as one of the six crew members for the NS-25 mission, making him the first Indian space
tourist and the second Indian to venture into space after the Indian Army's Wing Commander Rakesh Sharma in 1984.
 Blue Origin's seventh human flight, NS-25, lifted off from Launch Site One in West Texas on Sunday morning, the
company announced on social media.
DD Kisan channel to launch AI anchor Krish and Bhoomi

 The government of India-run public broadcaster Doordarshan has announced that its channel DD Kisan will launch
two artificial intelligence (AI) anchors, Krish and Bhoomi, on 26 May 2024. The DD Kisan channel was launched on 26
May 2015 and is celebrating the 9th year of its foundation.
 From 26 May 2024, the DD Kisan channel will become the first government TV channel to use AI anchors to broadcast
information related to the latest prices in agricultural mandis, weather updates, and the latest research in agriculture
done in India and abroad, The two anchors, which are basically computers that look like human beings, can speak in
50 languages.
L&T Technology Services Launches Simulation Centre of Excellence for Airbus in Bengaluru
 L&T Technology Services inaugurated a simulation centre of excellence (CoE) for Airbus at its Bengaluru campus. The
CoE is designed to provide engineering support for Airbus aircraft structural simulation activities across its business
units in France, Germany, the UK, and Spain.
 Launched about 18 months ago with a specialised core team, the CoE is likely to be scaled up over the next two years,
The establishment of the simulation CoE marks a decade of collaboration between LTTS and Airbus India.
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APPOINTMENT & RESIGNATIONS
Pratima Singh (IRS) Appointed as Director in DPIIT
 The Department of Personnel & Training (DoPT) has announced the appointment of Pratima Singh, an officer of the
Indian Revenue Seravice (IRS), as the Director in the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
MCA Approves Hitesh Sethia as Jio Financial Services’ MD and CEO for 3 Years
 The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) has granted its approval for the appointment of Hitesh Kumar Sethia as the
Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of Jio Financial Services for a three-year period, effective from
November 15, 2023.
Sanjaya Kumar Mishra to head GST Appellate Tribunal

 Retired Justice Sanjaya Kumar Mishra has been appointed as the President of the Goods & Services Tax Appellate
Tribunal (GSTAT) by the Centre.
RBI Approves Re-appointment of Atanu Chakraborty as HDFC Bank Part-Time Chairman

 Atanu Chakraborty’s re-appointment as part-time Chairman of HDFC Bank for three years, effective from May 5, 2024,
to May 4, 2027, has been approved by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Bhavesh Gupta, Paytm COO and President, resigns; cites personal reasons
 Paytm, the digital payments and financial services firm, announced the resignation of its COO and president, Bhavesh
Gupta, via a regulatory filing on 4 May, 2024.
 He, however, expressed his intention to continue supporting the company in an advisory capacity within the chief
executive's office.
UNICEF India Welcomes Kareena as National Ambassador

 Bollywood actress Kareena Kapoor Khan has been appointed as the National Ambassador for UNICEF India.
Air Marshal Nagesh Kapoor Assumes Command as AOC-in-C, Training Command

 Air Marshal Nagesh Kapoor has taken charge as the Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief (AOC-in-C) of the Training
Command (TC) in the Indian Air Force.
Paytm Money appoints Rakesh Singh as its CEO; Varun Sridhar moves to become Paytm Services' CEO
 Paytm Money, a subsidiary of One97 Communications, has appointed Rakesh Singh as the new CEO following Varun
Sridhar's resignation, as per reports on Mint. Sridhar will now lead Paytm Services, which focuses on distributing
mutual funds and wealth management products.
 Singh, with over 18 years of experience in the banking sector, has previously served as the head of Fisdom, a discount
brokerage firm. Under Sridhar's leadership, Paytm Money became profitable in the fiscal year 2023, with a net profit
of Rs. 42 crore and revenue nearly doubling to Rs. 131 crore.
Gurugram Administration Appoints Yuzvendra Chahal as brand ambassador to Boost Voter Turnout
 Ahead of the Lok Sabha elections in Gurugram scheduled for May 25, the district administration has roped in India
cricketer Yuzvendra Chahal as the brand ambassador to boost voter turnout, Popular singers MD Desi Rockstar and
Naveen Punia, are also appointed brand ambassadors.
 Yuzvendra Chahal, the ace leg-spinner currently playing for the Rajasthan Royals in the Indian Premier League (IPL),
will soon be making an appeal to the voters of Gurugram to actively participate in the polling process.
Justice Sanjaya Kumar Mishra sworn in as President of GST Appellate Tribunal

 Justice (retired) Sanjaya Kumar Mishra was sworn in as the first President of the GST Appellate Tribunal on 6 May
2024. The Union Finance and Corporate Affairs Minister Nirmala Sitharaman administered the oath of office in New
Delhi. Justice (retired) Sanjaya Kumar Mishra has been appointed for a term of four years, With Justice Mishra's
appointment, the GST Appellate Tribunal is expected to become operational on 1 July 2024.
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 Qualification - According to section 110 of the Central Goods and Service Tax Act 2017, a person who has been the
Judge of the Supreme Court or has been the Chief Justice of a High Court can be appointed as the President of the GST
Appellate Tribunal.
VISA Appoints Sujai Raina as India Country Manager

 Visa onboarded Sujai Raina as the country manager for India. In his new role, Raina will be responsible for the India
business, taking on the responsibility of leading and executing Visa’s strategic initiatives for the market, partnering
with clients and the payments ecosystem.
 Sandeep Ghosh will continue in his role as the group country manager for India and South Asia, overseeing operations
in India and other markets in the subcontinent, including Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bhutan and the Maldives.
Subodh Kumar (IAS) appointed as Director in Ministry of Ayush

 Subodh Kumar (IAS) has been appointed as selected for the appointment as Director in the Ministry of Ayush on
Friday. According to an order issued from the Department of Personnel (DoPT) on May 3, Kumar has been selected
for the appointment to the post with effect from the date of taking over charge of the post for a period up-to October
8 or until further orders, whichever is earlier.
 Kumar is a 2010- batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer of Tamil Nadu cadre. Presently, he is on
'Compulsory wait' in the Ministry of Food Processing Industries. He may kindly be relieved immediately with
instructions to take up his new assignment in the Ministry of Ayush.
IRDAI approves appointment of Keki Mistry as Chairman of HDFC Life

 The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDAI) on May 7 approved the appointment of Keki Mistry as
Chairman of HDFC Life.
 Earlier, the insurer had appointed Mistry as the Chairman of the Board as Deepak Parekh stepped down from the post.
The board has unanimously approved the appointment of Keki M Mistry as the Chairman of the Board with immediate
effect subject to approval of Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority.
Mr R Shankar Raman elevated as President of L&T

 Larsen & Toubro is pleased to announce that Mr R Shankar Raman, who has been Sr EVP, Whole-time Director & CFO,
is elevated as President, Whole-time Director & CFO with immediate effect.
 Mr Shankar Raman joined L&T Group in November 1994 to set up L&T Finance Limited, a wholly-owned subsidiary.
He later assumed the role of the CFO at L&T and was appointed to the Board in October 2011. As CFO of L&T, he plays
a pivotal role in shaping the company's financial strategy, driving growth initiatives, and ensuring financial
sustainability in a dynamic business environment. He is widely respected in the industry for his professionalism,
integrity, and dedication to excellence.
SBI General Insurance Appoints Jaya Tripathi as Head of Key Relations Group
 SBI General Insurance, one of India’s leading general insurers, has announced the appointment of Ms. Jaya Tripathi as
Head – Key Relations Group. In her new role, Ms. Tripathi will lead the expansion of new business opportunities and
partnerships, drive sales team growth, and deepen partner relationships to enhance profitability.
 With a diverse background spanning general insurance, fashion retail, and tourism, Ms. Tripathi brings an array of
experience to her new position. Her extensive background includes holding senior leadership roles at renowned
organizations such as Mahindra Holidays, ICICI Lombard, Forevermark Diamonds (De Beers Group), and Aditya Birla
Group, where she has significantly contributed to business and strategic development.
Vice Admiral Sanjay Bhalla, Assumes Charge as The Chief of Personnel of Indian Navy
 Vice Admiral Sanjay Bhalla, AVSM, NM assumes charge as the Chief of Personnel of the Indian Navy, on 10 May 24. He
was commissioned in the Indian Navy on 01 Jan 1989. In a career spanning 35 years, he has held a number of
specialists, staff and operational appointments, both afloat and ashore.
 Vice Admiral Bhalla specialised in Communication and Electronic Warfare. He served aboard several frontline
warships, honing his skills and expertise. Subsequently, he had the privilege of holding commanding roles at sea,
including the coveted appointment of Flag Officer Commanding Eastern Fleet (FOCEF).
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 During his tenure as FOCEF, Vice Admiral Bhalla served as the Officer in Tactical Command for the prestigious
President’s Fleet Review (PFR – 22) and the Sea Phase of the Indian Navy’s flagship multinational exercise MILAN –
22, which witnessed an unprecedented participation from friendly foreign countries.
Vladimir Putin re-appoints Mikhail Mishustin as Russia's prime minister

 Russian President Vladimir Putin re-appointed Mikhail Mishustin as the country's prime minister after the previous
stint on the job during which the low-key technocrat has shown a distinct lack of political ambitions.
 In line with Russian law, Mishustin, 58, who held the job for the past four years, submitted his Cabinet’s resignation
on Tuesday when Putin began his fifth presidential term at a glittering Kremlin inauguration.
Rizwan Koita Appointed as NABH Chairperson

 Rizwan Koita, Director of Koita Foundation and co-founder of CitiusTech, has been appointed as the chairperson of
the National Accreditation Board for Hospitals and Healthcare Providers (NABH).
 NABH is a constituent board of the Quality Council of India (QCI) that is responsible for setting benchmarks for quality,
accrediting and certifying hospitals and other healthcare organisations. Mr. Koita has been a Board member of NABH
over the past 2 years and has been actively involved with the Digital Health initiatives at NABH.
N Chandrasekaran to Chair Tata Electronics

 N Chandrasekaran, Tata Sons chairman, will assume the role of chairman of Tata Electronics, highlighting Tata's
determination to enter the semiconductor industry as the group forays into semiconductors, EVs, and iPhone
manufacturing amid India's ambition of Atmanirbhar Bharat.
 In addition to Thakur, Tata Electronics has made several key appointments to bolster its semiconductor expertise.
Srinivas Satya, formerly country president of semiconductor products group at Applied Materials, joined as chief
supply chain officer and president of components business in January 2024.
 The company has also hired 50-60 top-level expatriates in recent months, leveraging their extensive expertise in
semiconductor technology, strategic planning, and design to drive its business forward.
Wipro Appoints Vinay Firake as CEO of APMEA Strategic Market Unit

 IT major Wipro has appointed Vinay Firake as the chief executive officer (CEO) of the Asia Pacific, India, Middle East,
and Africa (APMEA) strategic market unit (SMU), effective immediately. Vinay will be based in Dubai and report to
chief executive Srini Pallia. He will also join the Wipro executive board.
 Wipro has undergone significant C-level restructuring this year. On April 6, Wipro appointed Srini Pallia as the CEO
and managing director, succeeding Thierry Delaporte. A few days later, Wipro appointed company veteran Malay Joshi
as CEO of its largest and fastest-growing market, Americas 1, a unit earlier headed by Pallia.
Dileep Sanghani Elected as Chairman Of IFFCO

 Indian Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative (IFFCO) conducted its 15th RGB elections for its Board of Directors, covering
members from more than 36,000 cooperative societies at IFFCO Sadan, New Delhi.
 A massive exercise that was started in the month of March saw Dileep Sanghani emerge as the Chairman of IFFCO and
Balvir Singh as the Vice Chairman, The elections for the post of 21 Directors were held on May 9, 2024, at the corporate
office of IFFCO, New Delhi.
IPS officer Nongrang appointed Meghalaya's first woman police chief

 Senior IPS officer Idashisha Nongrang has been appointed as Meghalaya's first woman DGP, Nongrang will replace LR
Bishnoi who will retire on May 19, 2024.
 The Meghalaya Security Commission, chaired by Chief Minister Conrad K Sangma, selected Nongrang out of the three
officers approved by the UPSC last month for the role of police chief, a senior home department official informed PTI.
IIFL Securities Appoints Nemkumar as Managing Director

 IIFL Securities Limited, a leading financial services house, said that it has appointed Mr. Nemkumar H, Whole-Time
Director on the Board, as the Managing Director with effect from May 15, 2024 for a period of 5 years.
 Mr. R. Venkataraman is currently the Chairman and Managing Director of the company. His tenure as Managing
Director is due to expire on May 14, 2024. Mr. Venkataraman has decided not to seek renewal of his term as Managing
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Director. However, Mr. Venkataraman shall continue as the Chairman & Non-Executive Director on the Board of the
Company. The Board believes that the separation of the posts of Chairman and Managing Director is better aligned
with good corporate governance standards.
NASA appoints their first Chief AI Officer, following the Executive Order
 NASA has named David Salvagnini its new chief artificial intelligence (AI) officer. David Salvaginini used to be NASA’s
chief data officer. His new role is an expansion of his current position.
 NASA uses various AI tools to benefit humanity by supporting mission and research projects across the agency,
analyzing data to reveal trends and patterns, and developing systems capable of autonomously supporting spacecraft
and aircraft.
Senior IPS Officers A.Y.V. Krishna & N. Venu Gopal Appointed as Additional Directors in CBI
 Senior IPS officers A Y V Krishna and N Venu Gopal have been appointed as additional directors in the Central Bureau
of Investigation (CBI). Krishna, a 1995-batch Indian Police Service (IPS) officer of Assam-Meghalaya cadre, is currently
working as Inspector General in the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).
 He has been inducted as the additional director of CBI for a tenure up to August 6, 2028, an order issued by the
Personnel Ministry said, Krishna's batchmate Venu Gopal (Himachal Pradesh cadre) is presently working as joint
director in the CBI.
Kapil Sibal Elected as the President of Supreme Court Bar Association

 Senior Advocate Kapil Sibal has won the election for the President post of the Supreme Court Bar Association (SCBA).
Kapil Sibal secured 1,066 votes and defeated his nearest rival and senior advocate Pradeep Rai.
 This is the fourth time, Kapil Sibal will serve as the president of the SCBA. Sibal had announced his candidature for for
the post of Supreme Court Bar Association (SCBA) president on May 8.
RBI approves appointment of Pradeep Natarajan as Whole Time Director for IDFC FIRST Bank
 IDFC FIRST Bank announced that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has greenlit the appointment of Pradeep Natarajan
as a Whole Time Director on its Board. In a regulatory filing on Thursday, the private sector lender stated, “RBI…has
granted approval for the appointment of Pradeep Natarajan as a Whole Time Director, with the title of Executive
Director, for a term of three years.”
 The bank assured that it would undertake all necessary procedures to finalise Natarajan’s appointment as an
Executive Director. However, it emphasized that shareholder approval is requisite for the appointment.
IndiaFirst Life Insurance names Rushabh Gandhi as its next MD & CEO
 IndiaFirst Life Insurance’s board has approved the appointment of Rushabh Gandhi as the managing director (MD)
and chief executive officer (CEO) for five years effective July 1, 2024, or the date of regulatory approvals, whichever is
earlier.
 Gandhi is the deputy chief executive officer of the insurer. The new appointment is subject to the approval of the
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), shareholders, and other statutory approvals. After
approvals, Gandhi’s date of appointment will be announced.
SC Approves Appointment Of Justice Susmita Phukan Khaund And Justice Mitali Thakuria As Permanent Judges
Of Guwahati HC and more
 The Supreme Court Collegium has approved the proposal for appointment of two Additional Judges, namely Justice
Susmita Phukan Khaund and Justice Mitali Thakuria as permanent Judges of the Guwahati High Court.
 The Supreme Court Collegium also approved the proposal for the appointment of Mr Justice Rajesh Sekhri, Additional
Judge, High Court of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh, for a fresh term of one year with effect from 29 July 2024.
 The recommendation was made by Supreme Court Collegium comprising Chief Justice of India Dhananjaya Y
Chandrachud, Justice Sanjiv Khanna, and Justice BR Gavai.
Sanjiv Puri, ITC MD elected CII President for 2024-25 and more
Source: The Print
 Chairman and Managing Director of ITC, Sanjiv Puri, has been elected as the President of the Confederation of Indian
Industry (CII) for 2024-25. Sanjiv Puri replaces R Dinesh, Chairman of TVS Supply Chain Solutions as the President of
CII.
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 Rajiv Memani has been appointed as the new President-Designate, and R Mukundan has been elected as the new Vice
President of the CII for 2024-25
Mohammad Mokhber, appointed acting President of Iran
Source: The Hindi
 Iran's first Vice President Mohammad Mokhber was appointed as acting President of the Islamic Republic on May 20
after the death of President Ebrahim Raisi in a helicopter crash in the country's northwest.
 Born on June 26, 1955, in Dezful, Iran, is a prominent figure in Iranian politics. He holds two doctoral degrees, one in
international law and another in management, along with a master’s degree in management.
BARC India appoints Dr Bikramjit Chaudhuri as chief of measurement science & analytics
 Broadcast Audience Research Council (BARC) India has appointed Dr Bikramjit Chaudhuri as its new chief of
measurement science & analytics. He will succeed Dr Derrick Gray, a veteran audience measurement and advanced
analytics executive, who has been a well-respected member of the BARC India family for six years.
 Chaudhuri is a Ph.D. from IIT Bombay and holds a Master of Statistics degree from the Indian Statistical Institute, Delhi.
He comes in with a rich experience spanning over three decades in the areas of Statistics, Stochastic Modelling, Market
Measurement, Consumer Segmentation, AI & ML, Demand Forecasting and Big Data Analytics. He has several research
papers, publications, and patents in these aspects under his belt.
John Slaven Appointed Vice-Chairman of International Aluminium Institute

 Vedanta Aluminium, India’s largest producer of aluminium, today announced the appointment of its CEO Mr. John
Slaven as Vice-Chairman of the International Aluminium Institute (IAI), In this capacity, Mr Slaven will spearhead
global initiatives aimed at fostering the sustainable transformation of the aluminium industry and promote the critical
role of aluminium in enabling the energy transition to a zero-carbon modern world.
 Established in 1972, the International Aluminium Institute (IAI) is the sole organization representing the primary
aluminium industry worldwide. It is tasked with enhancing awareness of the industry’s operations, advocating for
responsible production, and emphasizing the significant benefits of using aluminium in building green technologies.
Government appoints Shri Ramesh Babu V as Member in Central Electricity Regulatory Commission
Source: PIV Govt
 Shri Ramesh Babu V. has taken oath of office and secrecy as Member, Central Electricity Regulatory Commission, on
May 21, 2024. The oath of office and secrecy was administered to him, by the Union Minister for Power and New &
Renewable Energy Shri R. K. Singh.
 Shri Ramesh Babu V. holds M. Tech Degree in Thermal Engineering and B. Tech degree in Mechanical Engineering. He
held the post of Director (Operations), NTPC from May 2020 till his retirement, before which he served in various
positions in NTPC.
Andhra-Born Lawyer Jaya Badiga Appointed Judge In US County Superior Court

Source: India Today
 Indian-American attorney Jaya Badiga a certified family law specialist, has been appointed as a Judge in the
Sacramento County Superior Court in the US state of California.
 Gavin Newsom, the Governor of California, made the appointment of Badiga, who has earlier served as a Commissioner
at the Sacramento County Superior Court since 2022.
 Badiga, born in Vijayawada city of Andhra Pradesh, fills the vacancy created by the retirement of Judge Robert S.
Lapham.
World Economic Forum Founder Klaus Schwab To Step Back From Executive Role
Source: NDTV
 Klaus Schwab, the founder and executive chairman of the World Economic Forum, will be stepping down from his
executive role. He will be transitioning to a non-executive role by January 2025, The Forum's governance is also set to
change as a consequence of the move and Schwab hasn't yet named a successor.
 The WEF, which the 86-year-old founded in 1971, organises a yearly gathering of world leaders in finance, economy
and politics in Davos, Switzerland as well as several smaller events throughout the world.
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AWARDS & RECOGNITION
Eminent Personalities Honoured with Prestigious Pandit Lacchu Maharaj Award
 Noted Hindi film superstars Hema Malini and Saira Banu, along with other prominent personalities from the fields of
art and culture, will be honoured with the prestigious Pandit Lacchu Maharaj Award.
 The award ceremony will take place on 31 August 2024 in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
Dr. Bina Modi Honoured for Outstanding Contribution to Corporate Social Responsibility
 Dr. Bina Modi, Chairperson and Managing Director of Modi Enterprises – KK Modi Group, was honoured by the
esteemed Vice President of India, Jagdeep Dhankar, for her ‘Outstanding Contribution to the cause of Corporate Social
Responsibility (CSR)‘.
Purnima Devi Barman Gets the ‘Green Oscar’ Whitley Gold Award 2024
 Dr. Purnima Devi Barman, a wildlife biologist from Assam, has been recognized with the prestigious Whitley Gold
Award for her exemplary conservation efforts aimed at protecting the endangered Greater Adjutant Stork and its
wetland habitat.
 Dr. Barman’s journey in conservation began with her childhood fascination for the Greater Adjutant Stork, locally
known as “Hargila” in Assamese.
UNESCO Guillermo Cano Prize 2024 Awarded to Palestine Journalists in Gaza

 Palestinian journalists covering the crisis in Gaza have been named laureates of the 2024 UNESCO/Guillermo Cano
World Press Freedom Prize.
 Established in 1997, the UNESCO/Guillermo Cano World Press Freedom Prize recognizes individuals who have made
exceptional contributions to the defense and promotion of press freedom, especially in the face of danger.
2024 Pulitzers Winner Announced, Check the Complete Winners List

 Columbia University of the United States of America announced the 2024 Pulitzer Prize winners on 7 May 2024.
Columbia University announced the winners on the recommendation of the Pulitzer Prize Board. The award will be
conferred by the president of Columbia University in a ceremony later.
 The Pulitzer Award is considered the most prestigious prize in the field of Journalism, It recognises work in 15
journalism categories and eight arts categories. It also gives special citations and awards.
 Some of the important winners of the 2024 Pulitzer Prize are as follows =
Journalism Category
Public Service - Pro Publica. Pro Publica is a non-profit investigative journalist body in California. It was given the award
for the investigative work of its reporters Joshua Kaplan, Justin Elliott, Brett Murphy, Alex Mierjeski and Kirsten Berg.
Investigative Reporting - Hannah Dreier of The New York Times International Reporting - Staff of The New York Times.
The award was given for its wide-ranging and revelatory coverage of Hamas’ lethal attack in southern Israel on October
7, Israel’s intelligence failures and the Israeli military’s response in Gaza.
Editorial Writing - David E. Hoffman of The Washington Post Newspaper.
Breaking News Photography - Photography Staff of Reuters news agency.
Feature Photography - Photography Staff of Associated Press news agency.
Audio Reporting - Staff of the Invisible Institute and USG Audio.
Book Drama and Music Category
Fiction - Night Watch. The novel has been written by American novelist Jayne Anne Phillips.
Drama - Primary Trust. The Primary Trust has been written by American playwright Eboni Booth,
History - No Right to an Honest Living: The Struggles of Boston’s Black Workers in the Civil War Era. The book was written
by American historian Jacqueline Jones.
Biography - two books have been chosen this time.
King: A Life, by Jonathan Eig, is a biography of American Black civil rights activist Martin Luther King Jr.
Master Slave Husband Wife: An Epic Journey from Slavery to Freedom, by Ilyon Woo
Memoir and Autobiography - Liliana’s Invincible Summer: A Sister’s Search for Justice, by Cristina Rivera Garza.
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Poetry - Tripas: Poems, by Brandon Som. Brandom Som is an American poet.
Music - Adagio (For Wadada Leo Smith), by Tyshawn Sorey.
General nonfiction - A Day in the Life of Abed Salama: Anatomy of a Jerusalem Tragedy, by Nathan Thrall.
Oxford Bookstore Honors Bhavi Mehta with 9th Book Cover Prize and Reveals Art Book Prize 2024
 Oxford Bookstores announced Bhavi Mehta as the winner of the 9th edition of Oxford Bookstore Book Cover Prize at
a celebratory event hosted at the India Habitat Centre. Mehta won the prize for the book jacket of “The Book Beautiful”
published by Hachette India and authored by Pradeep Sebastian.
 The winner was felicitated with a trophy, certificate and 1 Lakh Indian Rupees cash prize by Dr. Alka Pande, Museum
curator, art historian, author and jury chair; Dr. Shashi Tharoor, well-known author, politician and Member of
Parliament; H.E Ms. May-Elin Stener, Ambassador of Norway to India, Ms. Anja Riedeberger, Director Information
Services South Asia Goethe-Institut / Max Mueller Bhavan and Mr. Swagat Sengupta, CEO, Apeejay Oxford Bookstores,
in the presence of designers, publishers, artists and literary enthusiasts from the industry.
Pawan Sindhi Honored with Global Pride of Sindhi Award 2024 for Outstanding Social Work
 In a glittering ceremony held at the Mukesh Patel auditorium in Juhu, Mumbai, social worker Mr. Pawan Sindhi was
bestowed with the prestigious Global Pride of Sindhi Award 2024. The event, attended by esteemed saints, Mahatmas,
and sadhus, was a celebration of Mr. Sindhi’s remarkable contributions to society.
 The Global Pride of Sindhi Award 2024 is a well-deserved honor for Pawan Sindhi, recognizing his exceptional efforts
in making a positive impact on society. His dedication to the betterment of humanity serves as an inspiration to others,
encouraging them to actively contribute to the welfare of society.
Prez Droupadi Murmu Conferred Padma Shri To Romalo Ram Of J&K In Field Of Art
 President Droupadi Murmu conferred Padma Shri to Romalo Ram of Jammu and Kashmir in the field of Art in New
Delhi. Akashvani Jammu Correspondent reports that Romalo Ram is a Dogri Folk artist of the Jammu region and is
known as the real founder of the Dogri folk song Geetru. He revived the dying folk form “Geetru and Bhakh” with his
dedication and hard work. He published a book ‘Geetruyen Di Fouhar’.
Dr. Soumya Swaminathan to get Honorary Doctorate by McGill University

 Dr Soumya Swaminathan, most recently WHO's Chief Scientist, has been named among the 10 exceptional individuals
who will receive honorary degrees from Canada’s prestigious McGill University as part of the Spring 2024 Convocation
ceremonies.
 In 2017, Swaminathan joined the World Health Organisation (WHO) as Deputy Director General (Programmes), and,
in March 2019, was named its first Chief Scientist, a role she filled through the Covid-19 pandemic until late 2022.
HSL CMD receives PSU Samarpan Award by Gov Connect

 Hindustan Shipyard Limited's (HSL) Chairman and Managing Director (C&MD) Cmde Hemant Khatri has been
honoured with the esteemed 'PSU Samarpan Award' by Gov Connect at the award ceremony held in New Delhi.
 The 'PSU Samarpan Award' by Gov Connect, is an initiative by ilouge Media, recognised the exemplary leadership of
HSL's CMD for driving the transformation of the shipyard and inspiring countless individual within the industry.
Chandrakant Satija Honored with Global Excellence Award 2024

 Chandrakant Satija, a renowned educationist and the Founder and CEO of Chandra Admission Consultants was
honored with the Global Excellence Award 2024 at a grand event held at Sahara Star Hotel in Mumbai on May 12th.
The award was presented to him by the famous Bollywood actress Shilpa Shetty Kundra. He was adjudged as the Most
Trusted Admissions Consultant in Vidarbha Region.
Kavita Krishnamurthy conferred with Lifetime Achievement Award in UK

 Well-known playback and classical singer Kavita Krishnamurthy has been conferred with a Lifetime Achievement
Award for her contribution to music by the annual UK Asian Film Festival (UKAFF) in London.
 The 66-year-old singer behind several Bollywood box-office hits from films like ‘Mr India’ and ‘Hum Dil De Chuke
Sanam’ received the Golden Flame Lifetime Achievement Award at a glittering ceremony over the weekend, followed
by a celebration event.
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Ruskin Bond receives Sahitya Akademi Fellowship
 Eminent English author Ruskin Bond was awarded the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Fellowship at his Mussoorie
home.
 Born on May 19, 1934, in Kasauli, Himachal Pradesh, Ruskin Bond has been an active and influential voice in the
literary world for over 50 years. His diverse body of work spans various genres, including short stories, novels,
autobiographical works, non-fiction, romance, and children’s books. However, his favourite genres remain essays and
stories.
IN-SPACe honoured with Geospatial World Forum Leadership Award 2024

 The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe) has been honoured with the Geospatial
World Forum (GWF) Leadership Award for “Public Policy: Enabling Industry Development”.
 The award was presented at the 2024 Geospatial World Forum in Rotterdam in a special ceremony on May 14, 2024.
The award recognizes IN-SPACe’s contributions to the global geospatial industry through its ground-breaking work
in fostering the growth and development of India’s space sector and support to non-government entities working in
the space economy,
Kairos by Jenny Erpenbeck wins International Booker prize

Source: times of India
 Jenny Erpenbeck and Michael Hofmann have won the 2024 International Booker prize for Erpenbeck’s “personal and
political” novel Kairos, translated by Hofmann from German.
 Erpenbeck is the first German writer to win, while Hofmann is the first male translator to win. The £50,000 prize
money will be split equally between the pair.
 Erpenbeck and Hofmann were announced as the winners at a ceremony held at the Tate Modern in London, sponsored
by the Italian luxury fashion house Maison Valentino.
NTPC secures 3rd rank at ATD BEST Awards 2024 for Talent Development
Source: ET Govt
 The public sector company NTPC was awarded the third rank in the world for the Talent Development category at the
ATD BEST Awards 2024. The award ceremony was held in New Orleans, United States of America, on 21 May 2024,
Ms. Rachana Singh Bhal, NTPC's chief general manager strategic HR & talent management, accepted the award.
 The Association of Talent Development (ATD), USA, gives the ATD BEST Awards in the field of Learning and
Development. The award was instituted in 2003, The award recognises small and large private, public and not-for-
profit organisations that use talent development as a strategic business tool and demonstrate enterprise-wide success
through effective employee development practices.
Indian-Origin US Scientist Shrinivas R Kulkarni Wins Prestigious Shaw Prize in Astronomy

Source: India TV News
 Shrinivas R Kulkarni, an Indian-origin professor of astronomy from the US will be bestowed the prestigious Shaw
Prize in Astronomy for his ground-breaking discoveries about millisecond pulsars, gamma-ray bursts, supernovae,
and other variable or transient astronomical objects.
 Apart from Mr Kulkarni, who is the George Ellery Hale Professor of Astronomy and Planetary Science, Division of
Physics, Mathematics and Astronomy at the California Institute of Technology, the other Shaw Prize awardees are
Swee Lay Thein and Stuart Orkin, both from the US, who received the Shaw Prize in Life Science and Medicine is
awarded in equal shares, and Peter Sarnak, another US scientist who received the Shaw Prize in Mathematical
Sciences.
NHPC conferred with - The Economic Times HR World Future Ready Organization Award 2024-25
 NHPC, India’s premier hydropower company, has been conferred with the prestigious ‘The Economic Times HR World
Future Ready Organization Award 2024-25’. The Award has been given to NHPC in recognition of its preparedness in
the areas of upskilling of employees, Environmental, Social and Governance (ESG) interventions, Diversity, Equity &
Inclusion (DE&I) initiatives, constant technological upgradations, Employee Engagement processes, robust Corporate
Governance strategies etc. which establish it as a trusted brand amongst all its stakeholders.
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Thiruvananthapuram International Airport Becomes India’s First Airport to receive Zero Waste To Landfill
Accolade
 Thiruvananthapuram International Airport became India's first airport to receive the famous zero waste to landfill
(ZWL) certification. The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII-ITC) Centre of Excellence for Sustainable Development
has recognized the airport's dedication to ecologically friendly practices.
 Thiruvananthapuram International Airport has adopted exceptional waste management measures, as evidenced by
an impressive 99.50 percent trash diversion from landfills. This achievement demonstrates the airport's commitment
to sustainability and establishes a high example for others to follow.
BOOK & AUTHOR

Sam Pitroda’s New Book ‘The Idea of Democracy’
 Renowned author Sam Pitroda has written a new book titled ‘The Idea of Democracy’, which explores the current state
of democracy and its potential challenges in countries like India and the United States.
 Pitroda has also served as the founder and first Chairman of India’s Telecom Commission.
Goa Governor P.S. Sreedharan Pillai releases "Heavenly Islands of Goa" book
Governor P.S. Sreedharan Pillai of Goa is on a literary journey to showcase the state's abundant natural heritage through
captivating books. His recent work, "Heavenly Islands of Goa," reflects his commitment to preserving and promoting Goa's
lesser-known aspects.
EAM Jaishankar Receives Book ‘India’s Nuclear Titans’

Source: Telangana today
 External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar received a copy of the book ‘India’s Nuclear Titans,’ edited by Soumya Awasthi
and Shrabana Barua.
 The book traces the evolution of India into a nuclear state while highlighting the pivotal roles played by renowned
figures like Homi Bhabha, Vikram Sarabhai, Abdul Kalam, and K. Subrahmanyam, among others.
"The Winner’s Mindset" by Shane Watson

In "The Winner’s Mindset," Watson offers insights and strategies that helped him overcome fears and achieve success in
cricket. Although not a conventional autobiography, the book serves as a compelling self-help guide, providing a peek into
the mindset essential for reaching new heights.
IMPORTANT DAY
Gujarat Foundation Day 2024:
 Gujarat Day, celebrated on May 1st, commemorates the formation of the vibrant state of Gujarat on May 1st, 1960.
 Gujarat was carved out of the Bombay State on May 1, 1960, following the enactment of the Bombay Reorganisation
Act.
International Labour Day 2024 Celebrated on 1st May

 International Labour Day, also known as May Day or Workers’ Day, is celebrated on Wednesday, May 1st, 2024.
 The pivotal moment in labour history occurred on May 1st, 1886, in the United States, when labour unions initiated a
strike advocating for an eight-hour workday.
 In India, the first May Day celebrations were organized in Chennai on May 1st, 1923, by the Labour Kisan Party of
Hindustan, led by Comrade Singaravelar.
About International Labour Organization:
Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland;
Founded: 1919;
Gilbert F. Houngbo was elected as the ILO’s 11th Director-General.
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World Press Freedom Day 2024 Celebrates on May 3rd
 On May 3rd, the global community will come together to observe World Press Freedom Day.
 This year, World Press Freedom Day falls on a Friday, and the theme for 2024 is “A Press for the Planet: Journalism in
the Face of the Environmental Crisis.”
 World Press Freedom Day was first proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly in December 1993.
World Tuna Day 2024 Observed Annually on May 2nd

 World Tuna Day, observed annually on May 2nd, is dedicated to raising awareness about the critical importance of
tuna conservation. Tuna is popular for its numerous health benefits, as it provides Omega-3 fatty acids.
 The World Tuna Day was first observed in 2017.
International Day for Mine Awareness and Assistance in Mine Action 2024 Observed on May 4th
 The International Day of Mine Awareness and Assistance in Mine Action, observed annually on April 4th, serves as a
poignant reminder of the ongoing threats posed by landmines and explosive remnants of war (ERW) worldwide.
 The theme for the 2024 International Day for Mine Awareness and Assistance in Mine Action, observed on April 4, is
centered on survivors of explosive hazards with disabilities and those living with disabilities in conflict.
World Laughter Day (first Sunday of May)

 World Laughter Day is celebrated annually on the first Sunday of May to promote the joy of laughter and its many
health benefits. This day holds a special place in the hearts of people worldwide, as it brings attention to the healing
power of laughter and its ability to uplift spirits.
World Athletics Day

 World Athletics Day is organized by the IAAF (International Amateur Athletic Federation) on May 7 every year. It was
first celebrated in the year 1996. More than 100 sports federations of the world took part in the 2016 IAAF World
Athletics Day to promote sports and exercise to lead to good health.
 About the IAAF - The International Amateur Athletic Federation (IAAF) was founded on 17 July 1912 in Stockholm
(Sweden). The IAAF is the world governing body for the sport of field athletics and track.
World Asthma Day

 Every year, World Asthma Day is observed on the first Tuesday of the month of May. This year, World Asthma Day
will be observed on May 7.
 The first World Asthma Day was observed in the year 1998. Organised by Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA), World
Asthma Day is observed with the intention of spreading awareness about the challenges faced by people suffering
from Asthma.
World Red Cross and Red Crescent Day

 World Red Cross and Red Crescent Day is celebrated every year on May 8 to commemorate the birth anniversary of
the founder of the Red Cross and the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) Henry Dunant. He was born on
8th May 1828 in Geneva and was the recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize.
 World Red Cross Day's theme for the year 2024 is "I give with joy, and the joy I give is a reward." People are reminded
of the significance of compassion, love, affection, support, and treatment on this day.
World Thalassaemia Day

 World Thalassaemia Day is observed on May 8 every year to spread awareness about thalassaemia being a blood
disorder, myths related to the disease, and to help the patients lead a normal life. The day also deals with the social
stigma attached to the lives of individuals who are suffering from or living with this disease.
 The theme of World Thalassemia Day 2024 is ”Empowering Lives, Embracing Progress: Equitable and Accessible
Thalassemia Treatment for All”.
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Rabindranath Tagore Jayanti 2024
 Every year, Tagore's birth anniversary is observed with a lot of respect and honour by the Bengalis. According to the
Gregorian calendar, his birth anniversary – affectionately referred to as Rabindra Jayanti – falls on May 7. However,
according to the Bengali calendar, Rabindra Jayanti will be observed on May 8 this year.
 Rabindranath Tagore is celebrated as a timeless poet, novelist, author, playwright, songwriter and philosopher in
West Bengal. The poet is known all over the world for his huge volume of work. Tagore is the first non-European to
receive the Nobel Prize in Literature in the year 1913.
World Lupus Day

 World Lupus Day is observed every year on May 10 to raise awareness about this chronic autoimmune disease and to
show support for those who are living with it. This day was first observed in 2004 and has since then become an
important date in the calendar for lupus awareness.
 Lupus is an autoimmune disease makes your body's immune system attack your own tissues and organs due. This
inflammation can affect joints, skin, kidneys, blood cells, brain, heart and lungs.
International Day of Argania

 Every year on May 10, people worldwide celebrate the International Day of Argania. This special day celebrates the
Argan tree, an ancient species that has grown in Morocco for about 80 million years. These trees are not just old; they
play a crucial role in the local economy and environment.
 This unique region, where argan trees have been cultivated for centuries, combines agricultural biodiversity, resilient
ecosystems, and valuable cultural heritage. For that reason, it has received recognition and protection from various
UN entities.
National Technology Day: India

 National Technology Day is celebrated every year in India on 11 May. This day is dedicated to recognizing the
contributions of innovators, scientists, and engineers, and to promoting scientific and technological innovation in the
country.
 The day was first established in 1998 to commemorate the successful nuclear test at Pokharan. This test was a
significant milestone in India's technological advancement, and it paved the way for the country to acquire a leading
position in the field of nuclear weapons technology.
International Nurses Day

 Every year, 12 May is observed as International Nurses Day as a tribute to Florence Nightingale, who was born on this
day. In certain countries of the world like Australia, Canada, and the United States, International Nurses Day is part of
a weeklong celebration which ends on 12 May. This celebration is often known as National Nurses Week.
 Our Nurses. Our Future. The economic power of care, is the theme chosen by ICN for International Nurses Day 2024,
Nursing is the foundation of healthcare, although it is frequently undervalued by society and faced with financial
difficulties. The goal of IND 2024 is to change people’s perspectives by showcasing the significant social and economic
advantages that may result from wise investments in nursing.
Mother's Day
 Mother's Day annually falls on the second Sunday of May. This year, it is on May 12. Mother's Day honours mothers
and mother figures around the globe. It is a day to express our gratitude, love and appreciation for them through
words, gifts, selfless gestures, and a reminder that one day is not enough to thank them for all the sacrifices they have
made for us in the past.
 Mother's Day was first celebrated by Anna Jarvis in the early 20th century, inspired by her own mother's dedication
to humanitarian work. Mother's Day is a special occasion celebrated on the second Sunday in May around the world
to honour mothers and motherhood.
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International Day of Families
 International Day of Families is observed every year on 15 May. The day highlights the importance of families. The UN
focuses on some important issues that are central to the well-being of families across the world like health, education,
children's rights, gender equality, work-family balance, and social inclusion among others.
 The theme for International Day of Families 2024 is “Families and Climate Change.” Climate change is a pressing issue
of our times. The changes in climate and weather patterns can have serious consequences to human life, leading to
loss of livelihood and displacement of families. Climate change can lead to “economic disruption in industries sensitive
to climate impacts such as agriculture and fisheries,” notes the UN.
International Day of Light

 Every year on May 16, people around the world observe the International Day of Light. The day honours the date of
physicist and engineer Theodore Maiman's first productive laser operation in 1960. UNESCO's International Basic
Science Programme (I.B.S.P.) coordinates the day's celebration on behalf of the United Nations.
 This year that is 2024 theme of International Day of Light is Light in Our Lives, to let the light guide us the way forward.
World Hypertension Day

 The world observes 17 May as World Hypertension Day. The day is observed to raise public awareness about
hypertension as a silent but deadly public health issue. Hypertension rarely causes any symptoms but can cause a high
death rate as it increases the risk of heart attacks, stroke, renal failure, and other end-organ damage.
 World Hypertension League selects a theme for the World Hypertension Day, The theme for 2024 World Hypertension
Day is "Measure Your Blood Pressure Accurately, Control It, Live Longer!"
World Telecommunication and Information Society Day

 World Telecommunication Day is observed every year on 17 May. It marks the founding of ITU when the first
International Telegraph Convention was signed in Paris on 17 May 1865. It is also known as World
Telecommunication and International Society Day. Since 1969, it has been celebrated annually.
 The World Telecommunication and Information Society Day (WTISD) will be celebrated with the theme 'Digital
Innovation for Sustainable Development.
International Museum Day

 International Museum Day is celebrated every year on May 18, and this year it falls on Saturday, International Museum
Day is an annual event that aims to raise public awareness of museums. As invaluable repositories of artistic, cultural,
historical, traditional and fascinating artefacts, museums offer a wealth of knowledge and insight.
 The event focuses on a different theme each year, reflecting relevant topics or challenges encountered by museums
globally. The theme for this year, "Museums for Education and Research," emphasizes the crucial role of cultural
institutions in delivering a comprehensive educational experience.
International Day for Women in Maritime

 May 18th is observed as the International Day for Women in Maritime, an annual event initiated by the International
Maritime Organization (IMO) of the United Nations. The purpose of this day is to highlight women's participation in
the industry and emphasize the efforts to include more women.
 Theme of this year’s International Day for Women in Maritime is "Safe Horizons: Women Shaping the Future of
Maritime Safety", it emphasizes the significant impact women have on maritime safety.
World Bee Day

Source: News18
 Globally, May 20 is celebrated as World Bee Day. As bee population is declining, people are stepping up to create
awareness about importance of bees. The date for this observance was chosen as it was the day Anton Janša, a pioneer
of modern apiculture, was born.
 In recognition of the pivotal role that youth can play in addressing challenges bees and other pollinators are facing,
World Bee Day 2024 focuses on the theme "Bee engaged with Youth." This theme highlights the importance of
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involving young people in beekeeping and pollinator conservation efforts, recognizing them as the future stewards of
our environment.
International HR Day
Source: HR-ON
 Every year, International HR Day, or IHRD, is a celebration of the revolutionary impact that HR has on both individuals
and organizations. The European Association for People Management established it in 2019 with the goal of
highlighting the important role that HR professionals and practices play within the organization and increasing public
awareness of the changing demands and vital role that HR professionals play in today's dynamic workplace and their
crucial role in the success of organizations.
 This year's International HR Day theme is HR shaping the new future, focusing on four sub-themes:
 Ethical use of technology and AI
 Future workplaces
 People leadership
 Continued innovation in skills and education
World Day for Cultural Diversity for Dialogue and Development

Source: X.com
 Held every year on 21 May, UNESCO leads the celebration of World Day for Cultural Diversity for Dialogue and
Development highlighting not only the richness of the world’s cultures, but also the essential role of intercultural
dialogue for achieving peace and sustainable development.
 The United Nations General Assembly first declared this World Day in 2002, following UNESCO's adoption of the 2001
Universal Declaration on Cultural Diversity, recognizing the need to enhance the potential of culture as a means of
achieving prosperity, sustainable development and global peaceful coexistence.
International Day for Biodiversity (IDB)

 The International Day for Biodiversity (IDB) is celebrated every year on 22 May. This universal observance
commemorates the adoption of the text of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) on 22 May 1992 and provides
a unique opportunity to foster wide support for the Convention, its Protocols and related action frameworks.
 The Theme of Biodiversity Day 2024, is "Be part of the Plan" the theme of IDB 2024, is a call to action for all
stakeholders to halt and reverse the loss of biodiversity by supporting the implementation of the Kunming-Montreal
Global Biodiversity Framework, also referred to as the Biodiversity Plan.
Buddha Purnima
Source: Hindustan times
 Buddha Purnima also popularly known as Buddha Jayanti or Vesak, is an immensely important festival celebrated by
Buddhist followers all around the world. This special day honours the birth of Gautam Buddha, the founder of
Buddhism.
 This festival falls on the full moon day of the lunar month of Vesakha, which is usually in the month of May, according
to the Buddhist calendar.
International Day of the Markhor: UNGA

Source: X.com
 The UN General Assembly proclaimed 24 May the International Day of the Markhor, and we celebrate it for the first
time in 2024.
 The markhor (Capra falconeri) is an iconic and ecologically significant species found across the mountainous regions
of Central and South Asia, including Afghanistan, India, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan.
 The greatest threats to the survival of the markhor are habitat loss, illegal hunting, including poaching, and climate
change.
International Week of Solidarity with the Peoples of Non-Self-Governing Territories 25-31 May
 The U.N. commemorates International Week of Solidarity with Peoples of Non-Self-Governing Territories annually
from May 25 to May 31.
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 The U.N. describes a Non-Self-Governing Territory as a territory “whose people have not yet gained a complete degree
of self-government.” This day aims to request the administering Powers to protect and respect the rights of the peoples
in these territories to their natural resources and their property rights. Currently, there are 17 non-self-governing
territories left in the world.
OBITUARY
Playback Singer Uma Ramanan Bids Adieu at 72
 Renowned playback singer Uma Ramanan, who predominantly sang in Tamil, passed away at the age of 72 in Chennai.
The veteran singer, known for her melodious voice and extensive repertoire, has left an indelible mark on the Indian
music industry.
Frank Shrontz, Former Boeing CEO, Passes Away at 92

 Frank Shrontz, who spent a decade leading US aviation giant Boeing Co. through upswings and downturns amid fierce
competition, has died. He was 92.
 Shrontz, an attorney by training, was Boeing’s chief executive officer from 1986 to 1996. It was an era of innovation,
from designing ground-breaking new jets such as the Boeing 777 to elevating quality standards after he studied
processes pioneered by Japanese automakers such as Toyota Motor Corp. Boeing needed all that to compete against
its European rival Airbus SE.
Acclaimed Urdu litterateur Salam Bin Razzaq passes away at 83

 Mumbai, May 7 (IANS): Renowned Urdu litterateur and academician, Shaikh Abdussalam Abdurrazzaq, famous by his
pseudonym Salam Bin Razzaq, passed away at his residence in Navi Mumbai after a prolonged illness, a family friend
said here on Tuesday.
 Razzaq was 83 and is survived by his wife, daughter, son, plus several grandchildren and great-grandkids.
Sangeeth Sivan, renowned film-maker from Kerala, passes away at 61

 Renowned filmmaker from Kerala Sangeeth Sivan passed away at the age of 61 on 8 May while undergoing treatment
at a private hospital in Mumbai.
Sangeeth Sivan was an Indian film director and screenwriter who worked in Malayalam and Hindi film industries. He
is best known for directing Vyooham, Yodha and Kyaa Kool Hai Hum and Yamla Pagla Deewana 2.
Punjabi poet Padma Shri Surjit Patar passes away

 Surjit Patar, 79, a renowned Punjabi poet who received the Padma Shri, passed away, Patar's poetic works include
‘Hawa Vich Likhe Harf’, ‘Hanere Vich Sulagdi Varanmala’, ‘Patjhar Di Pazeb’, ‘Lafzaan Di Dargah’ and 'Surzameen'.
 Surjit Patar was honoured with the Padma Shri in 2012 for his contributions to literature and education. He served as
the president of the Punjab Arts Council and had previously held the position of president at the Punjabi Sahit
Akademi.
Roger Corman, Hollywood mentor, Oscar-winning 'King of the Bs', Passes Away at 98
 Roger Corman, the Oscar-winning King of the Bs who helped turn out such low-budget classics as Little Shop of
Horrors and Attack of the Crab Monsters and gave many of Hollywood's most famous actors and directors early
breaks, has died. He was 98.
 Roger William Corman was an American film director, producer, and actor. Known under various monikers such as
"The Pope of Pop Cinema", "The Spiritual Godfather of the New Hollywood", and "The King of Cult", he is known as a
trailblazer in the world of independent film.
Sushil Modi, Ex Deputy Chief Minister of Bihar, Passes Away

 Sushil Kumar Modi, the former Deputy Chief Minister of Bihar and ex-Rajya Sabha MP, passed away on Monday at the
age of 72 after battling cancer. The veteran politician’s demise was announced by the Bihar unit of the Bharatiya Janata
Party (BJP).
 Sushil Kumar Modi was born on January 5, 1952, in Bihar. He studied at Patna Science College and got a degree in
Botany. However, he left his further studies to join the student movement led by Jai Prakash Narayan.
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Birubala Rabha, activist who campaigned against witch hunting, passed Away
 Assam-based social activist Birubala Rabha, who campaigned against witch hunting in the state, died in Guwahati after
battling with cancer.
 She was honoured with the Padma Shri award by the central government in 2021 and nominated for the Nobel Peace
Prize in 2005.
Alice Munro, Nobel Prize winner and ‘master of the short story,’ dies at 92
 Alice Munro, the Nobel Literature Prize winner best known for her mastery of short stories and depictions of
womanhood in rural settings, has died in Ontario, Canada, at the age of 92. The news was confirmed to CNN “with
great sadness” by a spokesperson at her publisher, Penguin Random House.
 Born in 1931 in Wingham, Ontario, Munro grew up on what she described as the “collapsing enterprise of a fox and
mink farm, just beyond the most disreputable part of town” in a 1994 interview with “The Paris Review.” Amid familial
struggles, Munro found an escape in reading as a child. Her early enthusiasm for renowned writers such as Emily
Brontë, Charles Dickens, and Lucy Maud Montgomery, among others, reflected an appreciation for literature beyond
her age.
Veteran Congress Leader and Former Governor Kamla Beniwal Passes Away
 Veteran Congress leader and former governor of Gujarat Kamla Beniwal died at a private hospital in Jaipur on
Wednesday, She was 97.
 Born on January 12, 1927, in Gorir, Jhunjhunu district, Rajputana Agency, British India, Beniwal’s journey was deeply
rooted in the Indian independence movement. At the tender age of 15, she joined the Indian National Congress and
actively participated in the Quit India Movement, showcasing her unwavering dedication to the cause of freedom.
Vineet Nayyar, former Vice Chairman of Tech Mahindra passes away at 85

 Vineet Nayyar, the former Vice Chairman of Tech Mahindra, has passed away at 85. Former Tech Mahindra MD and
CEO CP Gurnani shared the news via the social media site X (formerly known as Twitter).
 Former MD and CEO of Tech Mahindra, CP Gurnani too shared the grief and said, "Heartbreaking news..India has lost
one of its finest leaders today.. #VineetNayyar.. Personally it's like losing the light that has led me for decades...He was
friend, philosopher, brother, guide & statesman par excellence.. My heart and thoughts with Reva and family.
#OmShanti."
Padma Shri awardee writer Malti Joshi dies at the age of 90 years
 Noted storyteller and Padma Shri awardee Malti Joshi passed away at the age of 90 years at her residence in New Delhi
on 15 May 2024. She was suffering from oesophagus cancer. Malti Joshi was known for her work in Hindi and Marathi
language. She was awarded Padam Shri in 2018.
Legendary banker and former ICICI Bank Chairman N Vaghul Passes Away
Source: Mint
 Narayanan Vaghul, legendary banker and former ICICI Bank Chairman, passed away at Apollo hospital, Chennai,
earlier today. According to people familiar with the development, Vaghul was unconscious and critical for the last two
days after he had a fall at home.
 During his decades-long career path, Vaghul was instrumental in building ICICI Bank from an early-stage financial
institution into a full-fledged bank. Vaghul mentored many senior executives at the bank, including the likes of KV
Kamath.
RANKING
Indian EdTech Giants Shine on TIME’s Global Ranking
 In a remarkable achievement, Emeritus, the Indian edtech startup, has secured the coveted top spot in TIME
Magazine’s “World’s Top EdTech Companies of 2024” ranking. Founded in 2015 by Ashwin Damera and Chaitanya
Kalipatnapu.
 Emeritus is not alone in this prestigious recognition, as the list features 14 more Indian edtech firms
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World Press Freedom Index 2024 Announced, India Ranked 159th Out of 180 Countries
 In the latest edition of the World Press Freedom Index published annually by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), India
finds itself at a concerning position, ranking 159th out of 180 countries.
 India trails behind its neighboring nation Pakistan, which holds the 152nd position, while Sri Lanka stands at 150th
place.
World’s Wealthiest Cities Report 2024: by Henley & Partners

 Featuring exclusive data including the world’s Top 50 wealthiest cities, and accompanied by expert insights, this
informative report published annually by Henley & Partners in partnership with New World Wealth is a must-read
for followers of private wealth and investment migration trends — from high-net-worth investors and their advisors,
to wealth professionals, and policy makers looking to transform their cities into tomorrow’s wealth magnets.
 The Top 10 Cities are as follows =
1. New York
2. The Bay Area
3. Tokyo
4. Singapore
5. London
6. Los Angeles
7. Paris & Île-de-Franc
8. Sydney
9. Hong Kong
10. Beijing
India surpassed Japan to become 3rd largest solar power generator in 2023
 India's rapid solar energy deployment has pushed it past Japan to become the third-largest solar power generator in
the world in 2023. India was ranked ninth in solar energy deployment in 2015 by global energy think tank Ember.
 In 2023, solar energy accounted for 5.5 percent of global electricity production. Following the global trend, India
generated 5.8 per cent of its electricity from solar last year, Ember's "Global Electricity Review" reported.
Forbes’ list of the world’s highest-paid athletes

 Cristiano Ronaldo may be in the twilight of his career, but the soccer star still tops Forbes’ list of the world’s highest-
paid athletes thanks to his huge wages in Saudi Arabia.
 According to Forbes’ list, which was released on Thursday, Ronaldo earned $260 million over the last 12 months, $200
million from his club contract with Al-Nassr and $60 million in off-field earnings.
Forbes’ 10 highest-paid athletes in 2024 =
1. Cristiano Ronaldo (soccer) - $260 million
2. Jon Rahm (golf) - $218 million
3. Lionel Messi (soccer) - $135 million
4. LeBron James (basketball) - $128.2 million
5. Giannis Antetokounmpo (basketball) - $111 million
6. Kylian Mbappé (soccer) - $110 million
7. Neymar (soccer) - $108 million
8. Karim Benzema (soccer) - $106 million
9. Steph Curry (basketball) - $102 million
10. Lamar Jackson (football) - $100.5 million
Mukesh Ambani and Gautam Adani in World’s Top 15 Super Rich List
Source: Business today
 Mukesh Ambani and Gautam Adani have been included in the top 15 world’s super-rich list of the Bloomberg
Billionaires Index. Gautam Adani made it to the list after he lost his place in 2023 due to short selling in his company's
stock after the publication of the Hinderberg report.
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 The short selling in 2023 led to an erosion in Adani's wealth, leading to his exit from the top 15 super-rich list. For the
first time, every individual included in the top 15 super rich in the world has a networth of $100 billion or more.
India Climbs to 39th Position in World Economic Forum’s Travel & Tourism Development Index 2024
 India has climbed to the 39th position in the World Economic Forum’s Travel & Tourism Development Index 2024,
while US topped the list. India also ranks the highest in South Asia among the lower-middle-income economies. Earlier,
India was ranked 54th in 2021 published index.
 On an overall index score of 7, where 1 is the worst, and 7 the best, India scored 4.25. India’s significant leap in the
rankings underscores its growing competitiveness in the global tourism landscape. The biennial index analyzed the
travel and tourism sectors of 119 countries, evaluating them on a range of factors and policies that foster tourism
development.
Oxford Economics’ Global Cities Index: Delhi highest ranked among Indian city
Source: The Financial Express
 Delhi has scored the 350th rank in the Oxford Economics’ Global Cities Index, which has compared the world's 1000
largest cities on parameters ranging from economics to human capital, The index contains five categories: Economics,
Human Capital, Quality of Life, Environment, and Governance, which are aggregated to create an overall score for each
city.
 New York ranks first on the index, followed by London, San Jose, Tokyo, Paris, Seattle, Los Angeles, San Francisco,
Melbourne and Zurich.
 In India, Bengaluru is ranked 411, Mumbai 427, Chennai 472, Kochi 521, Kolkata 528, Pune 534, Thrissur 550,
Hyderabad 564 and Kozhikode 580, Chandigarh (584), Tiruchirappalli (634), Pondicherry (646), Kottayam (649),
Ahmedabad (654), Mysore (667), Coimbatore (669), Jalandhar (672), Thiruvananthapuram (686), Madurai (691),
Bhubaneswar (704), Amritsar (717), Vellore (729), Ludhiana (730), Nagpur (744), Dehradun (745), Vasai-Virar (748),
Kannur (759), Srinagar (761), Hubli-Dharwad (766), Salem (767), Guwahati (770), Jaipur (772), Belgaum (777),
Mangalore (779) and Bhopal (792)
SPORTS
ICC Imposes Five-Year Ban on West Indies Cricketer Devon Thomas for Anti-Corruption Breaches
 The International Cricket Council (ICC) has taken strong action against West Indies player Devon Thomas by imposing
a five-year period of ineligibility from all cricket after he admitted to breaching multiple anti-corruption codes.
 Thomas accepted breaching seven counts of the anti-corruption codes of Sri Lanka Cricket (SLC), the Emirates Cricket
Board (ECB), and the Caribbean Premier League (CPL).
Amul Becomes Lead Sponsor for USA and South Africa in T20 World Cup 2024
 The renowned Indian dairy giant Amul has been named the Lead Arm sponsor for the USA and South Africa cricket
teams during the highly anticipated T20 World Cup in June.
Lionel Messi sets multiple MLS records for Inter Miami

 Lionel Messi set new records in Major League Soccer (MLS) during a match on May 5. Playing for Inter Miami CF
against the New York Red Bulls, Messi was involved in all six goals of a 6-2 win. He scored one goal and made five
assists.
 At Chase Stadium, Messi set two MLS records: the most assists in one game and the most goal contributions in one
game.
Japan win 2024 Men’s AFC U-23 Title by beating Uzbekistan in final
 Japan defeated Uzbekistan in the final to win the Men’s AFC U-23 Asian Cup for the second time. Japan had earlier won
the tournament title in 2016.
 In the final match played at the Jassim bin Hamad Stadium in Doha, Qatar, Japan won by a solitary goal and also
qualified for the 2024 Paris Olympics.
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Thomas & Uber Cup 2024: China secure both men’s and women’s crowns
 The People’s Republic of China has reclaimed its throne as the top badminton nation, clinching both the men’s and
women’s titles at the prestigious 2024 BWF Thomas & Uber Cup Finals in Chengdu.
Lando Norris wins F1 Miami Grand Prix for historic maiden victory
 Lando Norris of McLaren won his first-ever Grand Prix victory in a pulsating showdown at the Miami Grand Prix.
 Lando Norris is a British and Belgian racing driver currently competing in Formula One with McLaren, racing under
the British flag.
36th La Liga Title for Real Madrid football club

 The Spanish football club Real Madrid has been crowned the La Liga 2023-24 season title after beating Cadiz 3-0. In
the other match, which had a bearing on the title, the Girona football club defeated Barcelona 4-2 to ensure that Real
Madrid won its 36th La Liga title.
 Real Madrid, also known as Los Blancos by its supporters, leads the 2023-24 La Liga season with 87 points, with four
games still to play, Real Madrid has taken an unassailable lead of 13 points over its nearest rival, Girona.
Yuzvendra Chahal Creates History to Become First Indian Bowler to 350 T20 Wickets
 Yuzvendra Chahal continues to create history in the ongoing edition of the Indian Premier League. The Rajasthan
Royals’ leg-spinner reached yet another historic feat after picking the wicket of the Delhi Capitals skipper, Rishabh
Pant at the Arun Jaitley Stadium in New Delhi,
 Earlier Chahal became the first bowler to reach 200 IPL wickets. Now he also went on to become the first Indian
bowler to reach 350 wickets in T20 cricket following his lone scalp against DC.
Coca-Cola India announces its first ever partnership with Hockey India
 The Coca-Cola India Foundation, announces its first ever partnership with Hockey India, for the National Women's
Hockey League 2024. The 1st Phase of the tournament commenced on 30thApril, and it will conclude on 9thMay 2024,
in Ranchi, Jharkhand. The domestic league promises an exhilarating showcase of talent and skill.
 The National Women's Hockey League features teams that secured top-eight positions in Pune's recently concluded
14thHockey India Senior Women National Championship 2024. The participating athletes represent various states,
including Haryana, Maharashtra, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Bengal, Mizoram, Manipur, and Odisha.
Indian Contingent Bags 43 Medals at ASBC Asian U-22 And Youth Boxing Championships
 In boxing, the Indian contingent wrapped up their electrifying journey at the ASBC Asian U-22 and Youth Boxing
Championships with a remarkable haul of 43 medals in Astana, Kazakhstan. This includes 12 gold, 14 silver, and 17
bronze medals from both categories.
 The Indian U-22 team finished with 21 medals, including seven gold, five silver, and nine bronze medals, yesterday,
while the youth section bagged 22 medals, including five gold, nine silver, and eight bronze medals, on Monday. India
finished with the second-highest medal count, only behind the hosts, Kazakhstan, who have won 48 medals.
World wrestling body suspends Bajrang Punia until end of 2024

 Wrestling's world governing body (UWW) has suspended Bajrang Punia till the end of this year following NADA's
decision to hand him a provisional suspension for refusing to undergo a dope test.
 However, despite being well aware of NADA's order, the Sports Authority of India (SAI) sanctioned close to Rs 9 lakh
for his training abroad. Bajrang, one of the country's most successful wrestlers, was suspended by NADA on April 23
after being served a whereabouts failure notice on April 18.
Amul becomes ‘Official Sponsor’ Of Sri Lanka Men’s Team For ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2024
 Sri Lanka Cricket has announced that Indian milk producer Amul has become the ‘Official Sponsor’ of the Sri Lanka
Men’s Team for the duration of the ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2024.
 CEO of Sri Lanka Cricket Ashley De Silva said that Amul’s partnership with Sri Lanka Cricket is an excellent move, as
associating with an international sports brand is going to help the firm gain market growth and further enhance its
brand visibility among the international audience.
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India won three gold, two bronze medal at the Asian Open Pickleball
 The Indian team put out a dominant show in the Asian Open Pickleball Championship in Vietnam with a total of five
medals.
 In the mixed doubles intermediate 35+ category, Sachin Pahwa and Priyanka Chhabra bagged the gold medal after a
thrilling 11-9, 5-11, 11-9 win over Ruben Hellberg and Chitlada Hemasee.
 Continuing the winning streak, Isha Lakhani and Pei Chuan Kao emerged victorious in the women's doubles open
category with a commanding 15-7, 15-3 win against Dang Kim Ngan and Tyak K.
 In the men's doubles event, Aniket Patel and Rohit Patil overcame Nik Alessandro Isagan and Lester Ga in a hard-
fought match to claim the gold medal. They won 5-11, 11-6, 11-8.
 Vijay Menon secured a bronze medal by defeating Yu Hsuan Cher in the men's singles advanced 35+ category. Priyanka
Chhabra won a bronze in the women's singles intermediate 35+ category, defeating Marissa Phongsirikul.
New Zealand’s Colin Munro announces retirement after being ignored for ICC T20 World Cup 2024
 Colin Munro, the hard-hitting New Zealand top-order batsman, has announced his retirement from international
cricket after being ignored for the upcoming ICC T20 World Cup 2024.
 Munro represented New Zealand in 1 Test, 57 ODIs, and 65 T20Is, amassing a total of 3,010 runs. However, it was in
the shortest format of the game that Munro truly showcased his batting prowess, earning a reputation as a T20
specialist.
 In T20Is, Munro struck runs at an impressive strike rate of 156.44, a testament to his ability to take the opposition
attack apart. The 37-year-old remains one of the few players to have scored upwards of 10,000 runs across all T20
competitions, a remarkable feat in itself.
India’s Star Javelin Thrower Neeraj Chopra Seals Second-Place Finish In Doha Diamond League 2024
 India’s star javelin thrower, Neeraj Chopra sealed a second-place finish in the Doha Diamond League 2024. With an
unusual slow start, Chopra’s spear landed at 88.36 metre, just 2 cenitmetres short of event topper Jakub Vadlejch’s
88.38 metre. The windy conditions in Doha played an unfriendly part in Chopra’s attempt to win the second Doha
season in a row.
 Fellow Asian Games medallist Kishore Jena, returned disappointed as he was eliminated at the halfway stage after a
throw of 76.31 metre.
Japan defeated Pakistan to win the 30th Sultan Azlan Shah Trophy
 Japan won its maiden Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey trophy by defeating Pakistan 4-1 in the penalty shoot-out in the final.
The final was played at the Azlan Shah Stadium in Ipoh, Malaysia, on 11 May 2024, It was the first Sultan Azlan Shah
Title for Japan.
 The Japanese men’s hockey team defeated Pakistan to claim its first Sultan Azlan Shah Trophy. In the final, the match
ended at 2-2 after the end of the normal. In the penalty shoot-out, Japan defeated Pakistan by 4-1.
 The Pakistani team, also popularly called the Green Shirts, was appearing in the final of the Azlan Shah for the 10th
time. It last played the final in 2011, which it lost to Australia. Pakistan has won the Sultan Azlan Shah trophy three
times.
R Praggnanandhaa Beats World Number One Magnus Carlsen - Grand Chess Tour
 In Chess, India’s R Praggnanandhaa scored yet another victory over world number one Magnus Carlsen of Norway to
keep himself afloat even as Wei Yi of China stretched his lead to a massive 2.5 points in the Superbet rapid and blitz
tournament.
 With nine rounds still to go in the blitz event, Wei Yi has amassed 20.5 points with seven wins on the first day of blitz.
Ending the day with 7.5 out of a possible nine, Yi seems like a man possessed and is poised to win the first leg of the
Grand Chess Tour.
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Mumbai City FC beat Mohun Bagan Super Giant 3-1 to win the Indian Super League 2023-24
 Mumbai City FC beat Mohun Bagan Super Giant 3-1 in the Indian Super League 2023-24 final at the Salt Lake Stadium
in Kolkata. Incidentally, Mumbai City FC's first title, in the 2020-21 season, came after beating ATK Mohun Bagan in
the final.
 The 2023–24 Indian Super League was the 10th season of the Indian Super League (ISL) and the 28th season of the
top-tier in Indian football. It commenced on 21 September 2023 and concluded with the ISL Cup final on 4 May 2024.
Pramac Ducati's Jorge Martin wins the 2024 French MotoGP

 Jorge Martin of Pramac Ducati emerged victorious in the nail-biting 2024 French MotoGP. The Spaniard fended off
fierce challenges from Marc Marquez and Francesco Bagnaia to claim the top spot on the podium, extending his lead
in the championship standings.
 The Prima Pramac Racing rider astride his Ducati also won the Sprint Race on Saturday and set Pole position while
setting the all-time lap record at the circuit on a MotoGP bike. While he dominated the Sprint, the victory in the main
race wasn’t so.
Magnus Carlsen wins the Superbet Rapid & Blitz Poland 2024 with a score of 26.0
 World number-one Magnus Carlsen posted an incredible 10-game winning streak to overhaul GM Wei Yi and win the
2024 Superbet Rapid & Blitz Poland despite starting the day 2.5 points behind. Carlsen caught Wei by beating him in
the fourth round of the day. His rival didn't crack, but couldn't keep up the pace as he had to settle for second place, a
full six points ahead of third-placed GM Jan-Krzysztof Duda.
 With this victory, Carlsen further solidified his position as the undisputed king of rapid chess. His ability to stage a
remarkable comeback from a significant deficit showcased his unwavering determination and exceptional skills,
leaving his opponents in awe of his prowess.
Indian Gymnast Srishti Khandagale Wins Silver at Asian Championships

 In Trampoline, India’s Srishti Khandagale scripted history by becoming the first ever Indian to win a medal at the
Asian Trampoline Gymnastics Championships. She clinched the silver medal in Women’s Individual Age group
category at the 6th Asian Trampoline Gymnastics Championship held in Hong Kong, China.
 However, she did not qualify for the upcoming Paris Olympics, as she was competing in an age group event.
Kazakhstan’s Dolgopolova secured the gold medal, while Hong Kong’s S Hung won the bronze.
P Shyaamnikhil of Tamil Nadu becomes India’s 85th Grandmaster

 Tamil Nadu’s P Shyaamnikhil became India’s 85th chess Grandmaster (GM). The 31-year-old chess prodigy, who
started his career at the age of eight, finally secured his third and final GM norms at the 2024 Dubai Police Masters
Chess Tournament. R Vaishali was the 84th Indian GM.
 Before the start of the Dubai Police Master Chess Tournament, Shyaamnikhil needed just one win and eight draws to
achieve the coveted GM title.
 Shyaamnikhil had accumulated the required 2500 ELO rating points and two GM norms in 2012 itself . But he had to
wait further 12 years to get the mandatory third GM norm to be accorded GM status. He finally achieved the third GM
norm in the Dubai Police Masters Chess Tournament.
Sunil Chhetri, Indian football team captain, announces retirement,

 Sunil Chhetri, India's most decorated footballer, has announced his retirement from international football. Chhetri,
39, made the announcement through a video on social media platform X, mentioning that India's upcoming FIFA World
Cup Qualifier game against Kuwait in Kolkata on June 6 will be his last.
Brazil picked to host 2027 Women’s World Cup at FIFA Congress

 Brazil has been declared host of the 2027 Women’s World Cup after winning a vote at the annual FIFA Congress on
Friday, beating the joint bid of Belgium, Netherlands and Germany to become the first South American country picked
to stage the tournament.
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 Brazil won with 119 votes versus 78 for the joint European entry, boosted by a technical evaluation from world
governing body FIFA that gave a high score for its commercial plan and stadiums purpose-built for the 2014 Men’s
World Cup.
Satwik-Chirag win Thailand Open title

 Star Indian pair of Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty received a major boost ahead of the Paris Olympics as
they secured the men's doubles title at the Thailand Open Super 500 badminton tournament with a straight-game win
over Chen Bo Yang and Liu Yi of China here on Sunday.
 It was also the second title of the season for the Asian Games champions following their triumph at the French Open
Super 750 in March. They had also finished runners-up at Malaysia Super 1000 and India Super 750.
Nikhat Zareen & Minakshi Clinch Gold Medals at Elorda Cup in Kazakhstan
 In Boxing, India’s reigning world champion, Nikhat Zareen and Minakshi clinched gold medals at the Elorda Cup 2024
in Astana, Kazakhstan. Nikhat in the women’s 52 kg category, triumphed over Zhazira Urakbayeva of Kazakhstan with
a 5-Nil victory, while Minakshi defeated another Uzbekistan boxer Rahmonova Saidahon, 4-1 in the women’s 48 kg
event.
 Meanwhile, Anamika in the 50kg and Manisha in the 60kg suffered losses to end their campaigns with silver medals.
Anamika conceded a 1-4 loss against reigning world champion China’s Wu Yu while Manisha faced a nil-5 defeat
against Kazakhstan’s Viktoriya Grafeeva.
 The Indian pugilists concluded their Elorda Cup 2024 campaign with 12 medals, including two gold, two silver and
eight bronze medals.
Deepthi Jeevanji wins gold with world record time in 400m T20 class in World Para C'ships
Source: Orissa post
 India's Deepthi Jeevanji clinched the gold medal with a world record time of 55.07 seconds in the women's 400m T20
category race at the World Para Athletics Championships here on Monday ( May 20, 2024 ).
 Deepthi smashed American Breanna Clark's earlier world record of 55.12 seconds set during last year's edition of the
championships in Paris.
Nandini Dairy becomes the official sponsor of the Scotland team for T20 World Cup
Source: Best MediaInfo
 The management of the Scotland cricket team unveiled its jersey with a logo of Karnataka’s home-grown Nandini dairy
for the upcoming T20 World Cup. The Karnataka Milk Federation (KMF) that runs the Nandini brand is the official
sponsor of the Scotland team, and this is the first time the milk brand has gone international.
 Nandini is also an official sponsor of the Ireland cricket team, which will play in the T20 World Cup, which is scheduled
for the West Indies and the United States of America.
Alexander Zverev and Iga Swiatek win Singles Title of Italian open and more
Source: India today
 Alexander Zverev won the single title of the Italian Open tennis tournament, while the women’s singles title was won
by the world no.1 player Iga Swiatek. This was the second Italian open title for Alexander Zeverv, while it was the third
Italian title for Iga Swiatek.
 In the men’s doubles the pair of Marcell Granollers (Spain) and Horacio Zeballos (Argentina) defeated the pair of Mate
Pavic(Croatia) and Marcelo Arevalo (El Salvador) in straight sets 6-2 6-2.
 In the women’s doubles, the Italian pair of Sara Errani and Jasmine Paolini defeated the pair of Coco Gauff (America)
and Erin Routliffe (New Zealand) in the final.
Max Verstappen Wins Emilia Romagna Grand Prix 2024, Lando Norris Finishes Second
Source: Business today
 Red Bull's Max Verstappen clinched the Emilia Romagna Grand Prix as McLaren's Lando Norris finished second, less
than a second behind the leader, and ahead of Ferrari's Charles Leclerc here on Sunday – 19 May. It was the 59th career
win for the three-time Formula 1 world champion who kept Norris at bay despite struggling with his car. Verstappen
took his third consecutive win in Imola to take his season's tally to five in seven races.
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Ekta wins gold in club throw at World Para Athletic Championships
Source: The Hindu
 India's Ekta Bhyan secured the gold medal with a season's best throw of 20.12m in the women' F51 club throw
competition at the World Para Athletic Championships.
 A day after Deepthi Jeevanji clinched the gold medal in women's 400m T20 category race, Indian athletes continued
their impressive run with Ekta producing the goods to finish in the top, while Kashish Lakra took the silver with an
effort of 14.56m. Nadjet Boucherf of Algeria won the bronze with a score of 12.70m.
Atalanta wins the Europa League ends Bayer Leverkusen's unbeaten run
Source: News18
 The Italian football club Atalanta BC defeated the German football club Bayer Leverkusen 3-0 in the final of the 2023-
24 UEFA Europa League, played at the Aviva Stadium in Dublin, Republic of Ireland, on 23 May 2024. The defeat ended
Bayer Leverkusen's 51-match unbeaten record.
 First European Trophy for Atalanta Football Club - Serie A Italian football club, Atalanta BC, was playing its first
European final. It was Bayer Leverkusen's third European final, having won one and lost two.
 In the final, Ademola Lookman scored twice to give a 2-0 lead to the Atalanta side at half-time and scored his third and
final goal of the match in the 75 minutes of the match to seal a historic victory for his side.
Australia to host AFC Women’s Asian Cup 2026

Source: The Guardian
 Australia were confirmed as the hosts of the AFC Women’s Asian Cup 2026 by the Asian Football Confederation (AFC).
 The continental football federation made the announcement after the AFC Executive Committee ratified the AFC
Women’s Football Committee’s recommendations at its third meeting held in Bangkok, Thailand on the eve of the 34th
AFC Congress.
ICC names Shahid Afridi as Men’s T 20 WC 2024 Brand Ambassador

 The International Cricket Council (ICC), the world cricket governing body, has appointed Pakistan’s Shahid Afridi as
the brand ambassador of the forthcoming 9th ICC Men’s T20 World Cup. The tournament will be co-hosted by the
West Indies and the United States of America from 1 to 29 June 2024.
 Shahid Afridi joins Indian Yuvraj Singh, Chris Gayle of West Indies, and Jamaican sprinter Usain Bolt as brand
ambassadors for the event.
SUMMIT’S & MOU’S

Mines Ministry Inks MoU with Shakti for Providing Knowledge Support in Critical Minerals
 A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between the Ministry of Mines and Shakti Sustainable Energy
Foundation, aimed at providing knowledge support in the field of critical minerals.
 Critical minerals are crucial for India's economic development, national security, and low-carbon energy transition.
2nd Session of India-Nigeria Joint Trade Committee held in Abuja

 A seven-member delegation from India led by Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce
and Industry, Shri AmardeepSingh Bhatia, accompanied by High Commissioner of India to Federal Republic of Nigeria,
Shri G Balasubramanian and Economic Adviser, Department of Commerce, Ms. Priya P. Nair held a Joint Trade
Committee (JTC) meeting with their Nigerian counterparts in Abuja from 29.04.2024 to 30.04.2024.
 The JTC was co-chaired by Permanent Secretary, Federal Ministry of Industry Trade and Investment, Nigeria,
Ambassador Nura Abba Rimi; and Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce.
26th ASEAN-India Senior Officials’ Meeting (AISOM)

 The 26th ASEAN-India Senior Officials’ Meeting (AISOM) held in New Delhi welcomed the positive developments in
the ASEAN-India Comprehensive Strategic Partnership (CSP) and shared mutual commitment to further augment the
relations.
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 The meeting was co-chaired by ASEAN-Singapore SOM Leader, Albert Chua, and the SOM Leader of India, Jaideep
Mazumdar. Senior Officials of ASEAN Member States (AMS) or their representatives, the Deputy Secretary-General for
ASEAN Political-Security Community were in attendance, along with representatives from Timor-Leste who were
present as Observer.
ICG and Hindalco Industries signes MoU for supply of indigenous marine-grade aluminum for construction of
ships
 Indian Coast Guard (ICG) and Hindalco Industries, on May 09, 2024, inked a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
in New Delhi for the manufacturing and supply of indigenous marine-grade aluminium to Indian public and private
shipyards for the construction of ships. The MoU will also provide benefits such as quarterly pricing, priority in
supplies and Turnover discount.
 The ICG fleet is presently operating 67 ships with aluminium hull with capability of operating in shallow waters. To
further boost coastal security, it has planned to induct more such vessels where the indigenously manufactured
marine-grade aluminium will be utilised.
Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship signs MoU with Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd.
 Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with
Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd to conduct two Pilot Projects under the Drone Didi Yojana.
 Secretary, Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Shri Atul Kumar Tiwari; Group CEO & MD, Mahindra
Group Dr. Anish Shah and senior officials of the MSDE were present at the event. Launched earlier this year, the scheme
aims to train 15,000 women to operate drones for agricultural purposes such as fertilising the crop, monitoring crop
growth and planting seeds, thereby creating new livelihood opportunities for women through imparting skills in new
technology areas.
UAE-India CEPA Council and Indian Chamber of Commerce inks MoU to enhance bilateral relations
 The UAE-India CEPA Council (UICC) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Indian Chamber of
Commerce (ICC), commencing a strategic partnership to bolster economic and trade ties between the UAE and India.
 In alignment with their respective mandates, the UICC and the ICC will synergise efforts, resources, and ideas, and
collaborate on increasing awareness within the UAE and India of the significant potential of the UAE-India bilateral
economic partnership.
Nepal’s Ambassador to India arrives in Sikkim to attend 38th India-Nepal Foundation Board Meeting
 Dr. Shankar Prasad Sharma, Nepal’s Ambassador to India, has arrived in Sikkim accompanied by his spouse, Mrs.
Kalpana Sharma, to attend the 38th Board Meeting of the India Nepal Foundation.
 The ambassador was warmly welcomed at the Rangpo Facilitation Centre by local dignitaries including Mr. Thendup
Lepcha, SDM Rangpo, and Mr. Sanjiv Khati, President of Rangpo Nagar Panchayat, among others. The meeting,
scheduled from May 12th to 14th, 2024, to underscores the strengthening ties between Nepal and India.
Maiden Indian Pavilion set up at the World Hydrogen Energy Summit

 India has set up its maiden pavilion at the World Hydrogen Summit and Exhibition 2024. The Pavilion was set up by
the Union Ministry of New & Renewable Energy, and it was inaugurated by the Secretary of the Ministry of New and
Renewable Energy, Bhupinder Singh Bhalla, on May 12, 2024.
 The World Hydrogen Summit 2024 is being held in Rotterdam, Netherlands, from 13-15 May 2024. The Summit is
being attended by 15,000 delegates from around the world.
ReNew and Societe Generale ink MoU to provide up to $1-b financing for energy transition projects
 ReNew has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Societe Generale for providing up to $1 billion
financing for development of energy transition projects both in India and overseas.
 Both parties will help strengthen the collaboration on utility-scale energy projects including solar, wind, complex
renewables and green hydrogen. They will leverage respective capabilities in energy storage and solar modules
manufacturing. As a key milestone towards aspiration in India and worldwide,
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3rd EPG meeting of BIMSTEC held In Dhaka, Bangladesh
 The third meeting of the Eminent Persons’ Group (EPG) on the future direction of BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative
for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) was held on 12 and 13 May 2024 at the BIMSTEC Secretariat
in Dhaka, Bangladesh. The meeting was chaired by Dr. Soonthorn Chaiyindeepum of Thailand, as Thailand is the
current chairman of BIMSTEC.
 The EPG comprises eminent personalities from all seven BIMSTEC members: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar,
Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. It was set up to prepare a roadmap for BIMSTEC's future.
FICCI & IESA Sign MoU To Boost India’s Semiconductor And Electronics Industry
 India Electronics and Semiconductor Association (IESA) has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with
Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) to promote innovation, support the semiconductor
and electronics industry, strengthen supply chains, and foster development of the ecosystem in India.
 This collaboration will work on setting up joint task force on semiconductor and critical technologies of the future.
Conducting technology consultative roundtables, fostering business partnerships would be the core objective of this
MoU.
India, UAE conclude meeting on India Middle East Europe Economic Corridor
 The first inter-ministerial delegation from India held meetings from May 15-17 under the Intergovernmental
Framework Agreement between the two countries concerning cooperation for the empowerment and operation of
the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC).
 According to the Indian Embassy in Abu Dhabi press release, the IMEEC will provide effective alternate supply routes
generating efficiencies and reducing costs. Indian Ambassador to UAE Sunjay Sudhir led the discussions with key
entities like DP World UAE, AD Ports Group and UAE's Federal Customs Authority.
12th India-Mongolia Joint Working Group meeting held in Ulaanbaatar

 The 12th Joint Working Group (JWG) meeting between the Defence Ministries of India and Mongolia took place in
Ulaanbaatar on May 16-17, 2024. The meeting was co-chaired by Joint Secretary, MoD, India Shri Amitabh Prasad and
State Secretary of MoD, Mongolia Brigadier General Gankhuyag Davagdorj. India’s Ambassador to Mongolia Shri Atul
Malhari Gotsurve also attended the meeting.
 During the JWG, both sides expressed satisfaction at the ongoing defence cooperation between the two countries. They
reviewed the progress on various bilateral defence cooperation initiatives and identified means to further enhance
cooperation in these areas, articulating steps in this direction. Both sides also exchanged views on the current
geopolitical situation.
Conference on Administration of Criminal Justice held in Guwahati

Source: Nagaland tribune
 The Union Ministry of Law and Justice, in association with the Assam Government, has organised a two-day
conference, ‘India's Progressive Path in the Administration of Criminal Justice System’, in Guwahati, Assam, on 18th-
19th May 2024.
 The aim of the conference was to create awareness about the recent changes made by the government in repealing
British-era criminal law and the enactment of new laws related to the criminal justice system in the country.
DAHD and UNDP signs MoU on Digitalization of Vaccine Cold Chain Management
 The Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying (DAHD), Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying signed
a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) today with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) India on
Digitalization of Vaccine Cold Chain Management, Capacity Building, and Communication Planning.
 The MOU was signed today at “We the People Hall”, UNDP Country office, Lodhi Estate, New Delhi between Smt. Alka
Upadhyay, Secretary, Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying and Ms. Caitlin Wiesen. UNDP Resident
Representative in India. This strategic partnership aims to enhance the digitalization of vaccine cold chain
management, capacity building, and communication planning in India.
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Airbus Helicopters and SIDBI sign an MoU for helicopter financing in India
 Airbus Helicopters and Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI), the Government of India’s principal
financial institution for promoting, financing and developing the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector,
have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for financing the purchase of Airbus’ helicopters in India.
 The MoU was signed by Rahul Priyadarshi, Chief General Manager, SIDBI and Sunny Guglani, Head of Airbus
Helicopters, India and South Asia. Under the MoU, both Airbus Helicopters and SIDBI will identify potential civil
helicopter operators in India who are interested in financing solutions for purchasing Airbus helicopters.
VST Tillers Tractors inks MoU with Axis Bank

Source: Krishi Jagran
 Axis Bank, one of the leading private sector banks in India signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) with VST
Tillers Tractors Limited (VST), India's leading farm equipment manufacturer, to offer financial solutions to the farmers
for purchasing tractors and farm mechanisation products.
 As per the agreement, Axis Bank will provide financial solutions to VST’s prospective customers through its network
of 5370 branches.
 As per the MOU both the companies will also leverage their extensive footprint to reach out to the farmers community
to ensure that they have an easy access to credit facility for adapting farm mechanisations.
India Hosts Inaugural Working Group Discussions on Antarctic Tourism

Source: The Print
 India is set to play a pivotal role in facilitating the first-ever focused discussions on regulating tourism in Antarctica at
the 46th Antarctic Treaty Consultative Meeting (ATCM) and 26th Meeting of the Committee for Environmental
Protection (CEP).
 National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR), Goa under Ministry of Earth Sciences, and the Antarctic Treaty
Secretariat will organize these meetings in Kochi, Kerala, from May 20 to May 30, 2024. The gathering has over 350
participants from nearly 40 nations.
The 10th World Water Forum Officially Begins in Bali

 Indonesian President Joko Widodo officially opened the 10th World Water Forum on Monday (5/20/2024) at the Bali
Nusa Dua Convention Center (BNDCC). In his speech, Jokowi introduced the Balinese Subak irrigation system, which
was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 2012.
The forum focused on four critical topics: water conservation, clean water and sanitation, food and energy security,
and mitigation of natural disasters.
BANKING & ECONOMY

India Reduces Windfall Tax on Petroleum Crude
 India has adjusted its windfall tax on petroleum crude, reducing it to 8,400 Indian rupees ($100.66) per metric ton
from 9,600 rupees, effective May 1.
 This decision comes after a recent increase in the tax from 6,800 rupees to 9,600 rupees per metric ton on April 16.
Indian Oil Corporation’s Investment in Renewable Energy: Rs 5,215 Crore for 1 GW Capacity
 Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) has announced a significant investment of Rs 5,215 crore to develop 1 gigawatt (GW) of
renewable energy capacity in India.
Record High GST Revenue Collection in April 2024

 In April 2024, India witnessed a historic milestone in its Goods and Services Tax (GST) revenue collection, reaching
an unprecedented Rs 2.10 lakh crore.
This marked a substantial 12.4% increase from the previous year’s collections. The surge was primarily driven by a
robust 13.4% growth in domestic transactions and an 8.3% rise in imports.
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Adani Green Energy Secures $400 Million Finance for Solar Projects
 Adani Green Energy Ltd (AGEL) has successfully obtained a $400 million finance package from a consortium of five
international banks to support its ongoing solar projects in Gujarat and Rajasthan.
NPCI Partners with Bank of Namibia to Develop UPI-Like Instant Payment System
 NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL) has joined hands with the Bank of Namibia (BoN) to introduce a real-
time payment system akin to India’s Unified Payment Interface (UPI) in Namibia.
YES Bank Collaborates with ANQ to Launch Pi and Phi Credit Cards
 YES Bank has partnered with ANQ to introduce two innovative credit cards, Pi and Phi, aiming to blend traditional
banking with fintech solutions.
 The Pi card offers digital-only credit on UPI for domestic transactions.
OECD Raises Indian Economy Growth Forecast to 6.6% for 2024-25

 The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) has revised India’s GDP growth projection
upward to 6.6% for the fiscal year 2024-25.
About The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD):
Headquarters: Paris, France
Founded: 30 September 1961
Deputy Secretaries-General: Ulrik Vestergaard Knudsen; Yoshiki Takeuchi;
Sebi makes mandatory registration of PMS distributor with APMI

 In a significant move aimed at enhancing oversight and streamlining operations in the financial sector, the Securities
and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) has made it compulsory for Portfolio Management Services (PMS) providers to
register with the Association of Portfolio Managers in India (APMI).
 This decision, announced recently by Sebi, is part of a broader initiative to promote collective oversight of PMS
distributors, ultimately fostering a more efficient and transparent business environment for portfolio managers.
REC Receives RBI Approval to Establish Subsidiary in GIFT City

 In a significant development, REC Ltd., under the Ministry of Power, has obtained approval from the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) to establish a subsidiary in Gujarat International Finance Tech-City (GIFT), Gandhinagar.
 REC Limited has received a ‘No Objection Certificate’ from the RBI for setting up a wholly owned subsidiary in GIFT
City, Gujarat, dated May 3, 2024.
India and Ghana Strengthen Financial Integration for Enhanced Trade
 India and Ghana are poised to integrate their payment systems, UPI and GHIPSS, to facilitate instant and cost-effective
fund transfers between the two nations.
RBI Report: 97.76% of Rs 2000 Currency Notes Returned

 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has disclosed that 97.76% of the Rs 2000 denomination banknotes have been
reabsorbed into the banking system, leaving only Rs 7,961 crore in circulation with the public.
 Since the announcement of their withdrawal from circulation on May 19, 2023, the total value of Rs 2000 banknotes
has significantly decreased.
GetVantage becomes first RBF start-up to get NBFC licence

 GetVantage, a start-up providing revenue-based finance (RBF) to emerging businesses, has secured a non-banking
financial company (NBFC) license from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), becoming the first RBF and alternative
funding platform in the country to do so.
 GetVantage, which is backed by investors including Chiratae Ventures, Varanium, InCred, DMI, and Japanese Investors
like Sony and DI, will capitalise the NBFC with Rs 50 crore and aims to raise a cumulative amount of Rs 200 crore to
scale its lending operations.
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ICICI Bank now lets NRIs use international numbers for UPI payments in India
 New Delhi, May 7 (IANS) ICICI Bank on Monday announced that it has enabled NRI (Non-Resident Indian) customers
to use their international mobile number to make UPI payments instantly in India.
 This will allow the bank’s NRI customers to make payments for their utility bills, merchant and e-commerce
transactions with their international mobile number registered with their NRE/NRO bank account held with ICICI
Bank in the country.
Canara HSBC Life Insurance introduces Promise4Growth Plan
 Canara HSBC Life Insurance has introduced Promise4Growth, a new Unit Linked Insurance Plan (ULIP) designed for
customers embarking on a journey towards financial prosperity and security. The product underscores our
commitment towards providing holistic financial solutions, seamlessly integrating lucrative investment avenues with
comprehensive protection.
HDFC Bank, Atal Innovation Mission empower social sector startups with Rs 19.6 cr grants
 HDFC Bank supported social sector startups in India with grants worth Rs 19.6 crore in FY24, in partnership with Atal
Innovation Mission (under NITI Aayog).
 In FY 2023-24, 170 social start-ups received funding via 41 incubators, with a total of Rs 19.6 crore in the ‘Parivartan
Start-up Grants programme.’
 The focus areas for the 2024 grants included climate innovation, financial inclusion, agriculture and sustainable rural
economy, accessible and affordable healthcare, education and livelihood enhancement, gender diversity and inclusion.
YES BANK and EBANX announce strategic partnership to empower cross-border commerce in India
 YES BANK and EBANX announced a strategic partnership for payment processing in India, for the global digital
economy. This collaboration represents a significant milestone in the digital payments landscape, aimed at
streamlining cross-border payment processing and enhancing global commerce opportunities for global merchants
and Indian customers in India.
 This partnership will leverage EBANX’s extensive global experience and proficiency in cross-border payments
alongside YES BANK’s digital prowess, to provide global merchants with seamless access to a suite of scalable payment
solutions, crafted within an innovative business architecture framework and aligned with the latest regulatory
guidelines.
Bharti Enterprises sells stake of ICICI Lombard General Insurance worth Rs. 663 Crore and more
 Bharti Enterprises sold 38.5 lakh ICICI Lombard General Insurance shares at an average price of Rs 1,722.5 per share,
totalling Rs 663 crore.
 Axis Mutual Fund (MF), Aditya Birla Sun Life MF, Invesco MF, Morgan Stanley Asia Singapore, Societe Generale,
Goldman Sachs Singapore and Blackstone Aqua Master Sub-Fund acquired shares of Mumbai-based general insurer,
ICICI Lombard shares settled 3.63 percent lower at Rs 1,660 on May 9, Meanwhile, investor Seetha Kumari bought
78,454 shares of Nilkamal Limited at an average price of Rs 1,870.2 per share, totalling Rs 14.67 crore. The stock fell
1.37 percent to Rs 1,865 on Thursday.
 Gopalkumar Bhikhalal Baldha sold 1.14 lakh shares of CMM Infraprojects at an average price of Rs 2.31 per share. The
stock fell 2.13 percent to Rs 2.3 on May 9.
Thomas Cook India launches 'TCPay' for international money transfers

 Omnichannel forex services company Thomas Cook (NS:THOM) India launched a new digital service called 'TCPay' to
bring ease and efficiency to international money transfers.
 According to the company, TCPay offers multiple benefits that will transform the way individuals transfer funds. The
platform coupled with the Video KYC process, empowers customers with paperless transfers from the comfort and
convenience of their home.
India contributes US$ 500,000 to the Counter Terrorism Trust Fund (CTTF)
 The Permanent Representative of India to the United Nations in New York Ambassador Ruchira Kamboj, handed over
India’s voluntary financial contribution of half a million dollars towards the Counter Terrorism Trust Fund (CTTF) to
Mr Valdimir Voronkov, Under Secretary General, United Nations Office of Counter Terrorism (UNOCT).
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 This is a testament to India’s commitment to international cooperation on countering terrorism and continued
implementation of the announcement made by Dr S. Jaishankar, the External Affairs Minister of India during the
Special Meeting of the Counter Terrorism Committee in New Delhi on 29 October 2022, to contribute to the Counter
Terrorism Trust Fund.
Tata Capital, 14 other NBFCs surrender their registration certificates: RBI

 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Friday said 15 NBFCs, including Tata Capital Financial Services and Revolving
Investments, have surrendered their certificates of registration due to various reasons.
 Nine Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC) have ceased to be legal entities due to amalgamation, merger,
dissolution, or voluntary strike-off.
 These are Tata Capital Financial Services, Tata Cleantech Capital, Naperol Investments, USG Financial Services, Urja
Capital, Vandana Dealers, ABRN Finance, Jodhani Management, and JDS Securities.
 The RBI further said six NBFCs surrendered their certificate of registration after exiting from Non-Banking Financial
Institution (NBFI) business.
 These were Vian Growth Capital, Drap Leasing and Finance, Jewel Strips, Revolving Investments, Anshu Leasing, and
A V B Finance.
Hinduja Group gets IRDAI approval for Reliance Capital acquisition

 Hinduja Group’s IndusInd International Holdings (IIHL) on May 10 received the long-awaited Insurance Regulatory
and Development Authority of India’s approval for the acquisition of Reliance Capital.
 The acquisition will include the takeover of Reliance Capital’s insurance arms — wholly-owned subsidiary Reliance
General Insurance and 51:49 JV with Nippon Life, Reliance Nippon Life Insurance.
 The insurance regulator has cleared the transfer of Reliance Capital’s 26 per cent stake in Reliance Nippon Life to
Aasia Enterprises. Post the transaction, Reliance Capital, Nippon Life Insurance and Aasia Enterprises LLP will be the
promoters of the company.
RBI Allows Quant Mutual Fund to Increase Stake in RBL Bank

 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has given permission to Quant Mutual Fund to raise its holding in RBL Bank to 9.98%.
This means Quant can now buy more shares of RBL Bank through its various investment plans, increasing its overall
ownership stake in the bank.
 Prior to this approval, Quant Mutual Fund, which manages different investment portfolios, held 4.68% of the total
shares (equity capital) of RBL Bank, a private sector lender. With the RBI’s nod, Quant can now increase this ownership
to nearly 10%.
HDFC Bank launches its first virtual credit card with Visa
 The country’s largest private sector lender, HDFC Bank, on May 14, launched PIXEL, its first virtual credit card with
Visa’s network. The card is available in two variants: PIXEL Play and PIXEL Go and allows users to build their own
cards with personalised benefits, offers, etc.
 Customers can register for the cards on the bank’s PayZapp mobile application which can be digitally managed. The
PayZapp application will provide credit card users with features like card controls, rewards, EMI dashboard,
notifications, statements, repayments, disputes, hotlisting, recent transactions, etc., the bank said in a press release.
ADB approves USD 148 mn loan to improve power supply in Sikkim

 Asian Development Bank ADB has approved a USD 148.5 million loan to help modernise and enhance the reliability,
quality and resilience of electricity supply in Sikkim. This project fully supports Sikkims Power for All initiative,
ensuring round-the-clock uninterrupted access to quality electricity for households, industries, businesses, and the
public.
 The project will modernise Sikkim’s power distribution system by upgrading it with approximately 770 kilometres of
climate-resilient medium-voltage underground and/or covered conductors,
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UN revises India’s 2024 GDP growth upwards to 6.9% from 6.2% projected in Jan
 The United Nations has revised India’s growth projections for 2024, and has projected the economy to expand by close
to 7 per cent this year. The agency’s World Economic Situation and Prospects (WESP) report as of mid-2024, released
on Thursday, stated that India’s economy is forecast to expand by 6.9 per cent in 2024 and 6.6 per cent in 2025.
Mahindra & Mahindra to invest ₹26,000 crore in automotive business in next 3years
 Expecting a surge in auto demand, Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd has announced plans to invest ₹26,000 crore in its
automotive business over the next three years. Of this, ₹12000 crore will be invested in the electric vehicle unit
Mahindra Electric Automobile Limited (MEAL).
 The investment will be made between FY25 and FY27 for developing new vehicles and building up capacity. M&M’s
SUV business will get ₹8,500 crore investments, while commercial vehicles will get ₹4,000 crores. The company will
also invest ₹5,000 crore in its farm equipment business.
IFC lends $500 million HDFC Bank for financing micro loan to women
 The International Finance Corporation (IFC) has provided $ 500 million loan to HDFC Bank to provide loans to the
women microfinance borrowers.
 India’s largest private sector bank will use the loan amount to provide loans to the women's self-help group (SHG) and
the joint liability group (JLG) that is engaged in a sustainable livelihood initiative (income generation).
SBI General unveils 'Surety Bond Bima' for infrastructure projects

Source: News18
 SBI General Insurance, the non-life insurance arm of State Bank of India (SBI), on Tuesday announced the launch of
the General Surety Bond Bima (Conditional & Unconditional)' insurance product.
 Surety Bond Insurance will act as a security arrangement for infrastructure projects and will insulate the contractor
as well as the principal (contract awarding authority).
 The product is designed to provide protection against breach of terms and conditions by the contractors either during
the bidding stage or during the performance stage of a project, SBI General said in a statement.
Fusion Micro Finance gets $25 million loan from US International DFC
Source: The Hindu Business line
 Fusion Micro Finance has entered into a loan agreement with the United States International Development Finance
Corporation (DFC) for an overall facility of $25 million,
 The microfinancier has received an initial disbursement of $20 million as external commercial borrowing (ECB),
which will be used for the expansion of business operations with the aim of advancing financial inclusion and
economic access among rural women entrepreneurs.
Bank of Maharashtra tops among PSU lenders in business growth in FY24

Source: The Economic times
 State-owned Bank of Maharashtra recorded the highest growth rate last fiscal in terms of total business and deposit
mobilisation among public sector lenders at a time when most banks are facing difficulty in achieving double-digit
growth.
 The Pune-headquartered lender has registered a 15.94 per cent rise in the total business (domestic) in FY24, followed
by the country's largest lender State Bank of India (SBI) with 13.12 per cent growth, according to published financial
numbers of the public sector banks (PSBs).
Yes Bank launches premium services under ‘Yes Grandeur’ for affluent, elite customers
Source: The Hindu
 Private lender, YES Bank has introduced YES Grandeur, an exclusive banking program designed to cater to the
financial and lifestyle needs of the fast-growing segment. The launch marks an important step in the bank's strategy
to embrace the evolving market dynamics driven by rising incomes and sophisticated consumer habits.
 YES Grandeur targets this evolving demographic with a threshold requirement of either an Average Monthly Balance
(AMB) of Rs 5 Lakh or a Net Relationship Value (NRV) of Rs 20 Lakh, including considerations for loan relationships.
183
The program promises a blend of financial benefits and lifestyle privileges tailored to meet the discerning tastes of its
clients.
SBI acquires 6.125% stake in CCIL IFSC, strengthens presence in GIFT City
 State Bank of India (SBI) has executed transaction documents to acquire a 6.125 per cent stake in CCIL IFSC Limited
for ₹6.125 crore. CCIL IFSC, which will be incorporated with an authorized and paid-up capital of ₹200 crore and ₹100
crore, respectively, will operate the foreign currency settlement system and act as a clearing house and system
operator at the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) within the Gujarat International Finance Tec City (GIFT
City).
Mahindra Finance gets IRDAI nod to sell insurance as corporate agent

 Mahindra & Mahindra Financial Services has received corporate agency licence from insurance regulator IRDAI, which
will enable it to sell life and general insurance policies offered by various insurers, The registration shall be valid from
May 21, 2024 to May 20, 2027.
 As a subsidiary of the Mahindra Group, Mahindra & Mahindra Financial Services is renowned for its focus on the rural
and semi-urban sectors. With a customer base exceeding 10 million and assets under management (AUM) surpassing
$11 billion, the company offers vehicle and tractor financing, loans to SMEs, and fixed deposits. Despite a slight decline
in standalone net profit in Q4 FY24, Mahindra Finance remains a key player in India’s NBFC landscape.
 On the same day, the political sessions began with the Parliamentary Meeting which was officially opened by the
Chairperson of the Indonesian House of Representatives Puan Maharani. She stated that the Parliament will support
the agenda to achieve water security through diplomacy.
184
MADHYA PRADESH
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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25
CLAT MOCK
TR ID.
(In Figures)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes) Maximum Marks : 120
1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader (OMR) 10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for
Response Sheet is supplied along with this writing the roll No. and other details on OMR
Questions Booklet and the carbon copy has to be response Sheet.
detached and taken by the candidates. 11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for shading
2. In case of any discrepancy in the question booklet the circles. Indicate only the most appropriate
(QB), please request the invigilator for answer by shading from the options provided. The
replacement of a fresh packet of QB with OMR. Do answer circle should be shaded completely
not use the previous OMR response Sheet for a without leaving any space.
fresh booklet so obtained. 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected on
3. Candidates will not be given a second blank OMR the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have to take
response Sheet under any circumstance. Hence, necessary precautions before marking the
OMR response Sheet shall be handled carefully. appropriate circle.
4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be 13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card duly
sought on the Questions Paper Signed by the invigilator, as the same has to be
5. Possession of electronic devices in any form is produced at the time of Admission.
strictly prohibited in the examination Hall. 14. Handle the OMR response Sheet with care. Do not
6. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall fold.
result in the cancellation of his/her examination. 15. Ensure that invigilator puts his/her signature in
7. Impersonation is an offense and the candidate, the space provided on the OMR response Sheet.
apart from disqualification, will be liable to be Candidate should sign in the space provided on the
prosecuted. OMR response Sheet.
8. The test Paper for Five Year integrated Law 16. The candidate should write Question Paper
Programme is for 120 marks containing 120 booklet No., and OMR response Sheet No., and sign
multiple Choice Questions. in the space/column provided in the attendance
9. There will be Negative marking for multiple choice sheet.
objective type questions. 0.25 marks will be 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response Sheet to
deducted for every wrong answer or where the invigilator after the examination.
candidates have marked more than one response. 18. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR
response Sheet other than the details required and
in the spaces provided for
185
SECTION -A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): The recent 2011 provincial census figures for Rajasthan show an alarming drop in sex ratio in
the 0-6 age group from 909 in 2001 to 883 in 2011. A decline of 26 points is indicative of a clear bias against the girl
child in a cultural milieu mediated by a range of factors- a feudal history, stringent patriarchy, rigid gender norms
and deep-rooted disadvantages which pervade all spheres of domestic and social life. The state has also witnessed
considerable action from civil society beginning with media exposure to the more recent scaled-up action against
the unscrupulous ultrasound clinics. However, the insidious trend has not been reversed and unless strong action
is taken, will lead to disastrous consequences.
For the past decade, several networks, coalitions and individual NGOs active in the field have been addressing the
issue of declining sex ratio and female foeticide along with ensuring that the PCPNDT Act is implemented in all its
seriousness. They have focused on campaigns, community-based programmes and initiatives involving religious
and caste leaders. Decoy operations carried out in various districts by NGOs have succeeded in identifying
unscrupulous doctors. However, no action has been taken against them and district-level authorities continue to
shield those involved in this malpractice. Under the larger rubric of addressing issues of violence against women
and girls, some groups have also tried to identify and create awareness on the various types of violence and
discrimination women and girls in the state face throughout the life cycle.
The declining sex ratio is seen as a symptom of the discrimination meted out to women. Several risk factors have
come to the fore as a result of the campaign on the implementation of the PCPNDT Act launched in the last few years.
These risk factors must be recognised and mitigated because they could compromise some of the gains of the
women’s rights movements. On its part, the state has for long claimed promotion of women’s empowerment
beginning with the Women’s Development Project (WDP) in 1984. However, the systematic dismantling of the WDP
which had a network of change agents at the grassroots level is indicative of the lackadaisical approach of the state
towards issues of women’s equality and dignity. The sathins (grass-roots workers, literally “companions”) could
have played a proactive role in creating an environment for empowering the girl child and acted as catalysts for
monitoring the implementation of the act at the district level provided their activities had not been curtailed. Today
no alternative programme exists that addresses women’s empowerment and issues of violence against them. The
lack of coordination between different line departments working on women and child-related issues also add to the
woes. Despite the rhetoric, an obvious lack of political will to save the girl child shows that the development graph
of the state is on the brink of disaster.
1. What are the reasons at the root of the women’s 3. Which of the following governance issue can be
discrimination? seen as the most prominent obstacle to women’s
A. Feudal lords rights?
B. Patriarchal culture (a) Lack of political will to save the girl child.
C. Fixed gender rules (b) Lack of coordination between different
D. Discord in domestic and social life. departments.
(a) A and B (b) B and C (c) No alternative programme to sathins to
(c) A, B, C only (d) All of these address women’s empowerment.
(d) The systematic dismantling of the WDP.
2. Which of the following does not reflect violence
against women in the passage? 4. If a paragraph is added in the passage, what shall it
(a) Declining sex ratio and female foeticide. discuss?
(b) Various types of discrimination against (a) Discussion on how the PCPNDT Act,1994 can
women and girls. be made more effective.
(c) Identification of unscrupulous doctors. (b) Discussion on another institutional
(d) Women’s equality and dignity mechanism that is currently defunct.
(c) Discussion on strategies to work toward the
promotion of women’s empowerment.
(d) Discussion on strategies to ensure that the girl
child is protected forever.
186
5. Which of the following word can replace 6. Which figure of speech is demonstrated by the
‘lackadaisical’ in the passage? phrase "the development graph of the state is on
(a) Fastidious (b) Laidback the brink of disaster"?
(c) Interfering (d) Insipid (a) Simile (b) Metaphor
(c) Personification (d) Hyperbole
Passage(Q.7-Q.12): It is the central contention of Rawls that the principles of justice essential to the structure of
constitutional democracy must be characterized as political in contrast to more comprehensive moral, philosophical
and religious doctrines on which agreement is not possible within the pluralism of modernity and that the concept
of justice is not its being true to an antecedent moral order, but its congruency with our self-understanding within
history and traditions embedded in our public life. But Rawls emphasizes that the concept of justice as political is
not a mere modus vivendi, for it embodies an overlapping consensus by specifying the fair terms of cooperation
between citizens that are regarded as free and equal. This consensus encompasses the concept of primary goods:
basic rights and liberties, powers and prerogatives of office; income and wealth; the basis of self-respect. It also
encompasses the "difference principle": in which economic inequalities are allowed so long as this improves
everyone's situation including that of the least advantaged. The overlapping consensus, Rawls further specifies, is
not a consensus simply in accepting a certain authority, or simply as compliance with certain institutional
arrangements. "For all those who affirm the political conception start from within their own comprehensive view
and draw on the religious, philosophical and moral grounds it provides."
Critical reaction to Rawls' approach to defining the concept of justice as fairness has centred upon alleged
incoherency or problem in his contention that principles of justice must be seen as political in opposition to a more
comprehensive view of the good, while yet also believing that justice as political does have a moral basis. In the view
of Patrick Neal, Rawls' theory of justice involves an unresolved tension between political and metaphysical
implications. Rawls, on the one hand, speaks of justice as fairness as a political concept independent of controversial
philosophical, moral and religious doctrines, and arising from an interpretive understanding within the traditions
of constitutional democracy. Yet Rawls believes, at the same time, that justice as fairness is not to be interpreted as
a Hobbesian modus vivendi; it has a moral component, serving as a political agreement between citizens viewed as
free and equal persons, an "overlapping consensus" which more comprehensive philosophical, moral and religious
doctrine can accept in their own way.
7. Which of the following makes Rawls distinct from 9. What is the meaning of ‘Modus Vivendi’?
his critics? (a) A way of living.
(a) Rawls believes that justice is merely political, (b) A special way to do things without
while his critics believe that it has a moral disagreements.
basis. (c) The method of doing things in moral ways.
(b) Rawls believes that justice can have both a (d) The modern way of doing things.
political and moral basis, which is
contradictory and problematic according to 10. What is the writing style of the author in the
his critics. passage?
(c) Rawls claims that his theory of justice is (a) Lucid and simple.
original, while critics point out that it is (b) Circumlocutory and misleading.
essentially Hobbesian. (c) Loosely structured.
(d) Rawls’s theory of justice wavers between the (d) Professionally Esoteric.
political and metaphysical and is ambiguous.
11. Which of the following best describes the
8. What can be inferred about the Hobbesian theory organisation of the passage?
of justice? (a) A hypothesis is presented and explained by the
(a) It was not a mere modus vivendi. author.
(b) It was very similar to Rawls’ theory. (b) A widely accepted belief of an individual is
(c) It had a moral component. described, and implications are suggested.
(c) Controversial views of an individual are
(d) It did not have a moral component.
propagated with valid arguments and
criticisms.
(d) An observation was made and explained in
detail with the use of illustrations.
187
12. Which of the following is the antonym of (a) Alignment (b) Discrepancy
“congruency”? (c) Agreement (d) Harmony
Passage (Q.13-Q.18): Global history has taken a boost from the current conflicts, protests and riots against
corporate globalization, and the threat of worldwide terrorism against the West. These events fit into a global
pattern of the rise and fall of societies that can be traced back to ancient times. True of all the ancient empires we
know, the cycle of rising and decline appears to be accelerating. The twentieth century saw the collapse of seven
great empires – Mandarin China, Germany, Austria-Hungary, Ottoman Turkey, Japan, the British empire, and twice
over in the case of Tsarist and Soviet Russia. Since the events of September 11th, 2001, the twenty-first century
seems likely to threaten the sole remaining superpower, the United States, with nemesis. The key to the formation,
survival and decline of all historical societies is their use of surplus income and resources. Without the extraction,
by an elite, of products surplus to immediate requirements – in the form of food, arms, luxuries and other goods and
services produced by farmers, craftsmen, traders and servants – no society, beyond the most primitive, would be
able to afford the protection, law and order, administration, defence, spiritual advice, personal services, cultural
production and so on essential to its existence. This is so obvious that it scarcely needs expressing, yet we know
little about the way it arose out of the chaos of pre-civilized experience. The rise is shaded in pre-history since the
formation of a society cannot be known until it has acquired the tools – written language or a reliable oral tradition
– to express it.
The few traditional sources that look back to the time of state formation are mostly so tainted by the accumulated
myth that they confuse more than they inform. In the eighth century bc, Homer looked back some five hundred
years: but even in that epoch, kings of small island and city communities already existed, and the process was
substantially complete. Priam's Troy was already a rich state worth plundering, with gold as well as plentiful food,
equipment and weapons. Though the Greeks who attacked it were thugs and pirates, they too were 'civilised' in the
sense of being resourced by a home population that could provide them with the means of subsistence and warfare.
13. As per the passage, what is the most important (a) Extraction (b) Subsistence
lesson for societies’ survival? (c) Plundering (d) Remaining
(a) Optimal use of Income and Resources
(b) Constructive use of Excess income and 17. ‘Which of the following will be the most suitable
resources follow-up to the last lines of the passage?
(c) Global Rise and fall (a) The origins of other civilised societies are so
(d) Free from terrorism and conflicts embedded in myths and miracles that it is
almost impossible to guess at the underlying
14. What is common for all societies? reality.
(a) Terrorism (b) The Hebrew Testament, which was compiled
(b) Surplus of Income and Resources over a period of more than a thousand years,
(c) Rise and fall cycle tells the story of the formation of the Jewish
(d) Conflicts nation from Semitic desert tribes united by the
myth that they were descended from a
15. The author would most likely disagree with - common ancestor with a personal relation to
(a) Rise and fall are imminent for all societies. God.
(b) Language and writing knowledge are the tools (c) Once the system is inaugurated and surplus
through which we can know the history of the income flows freely; however, those who
formation of a society. control the flow ensure that they absorb
(c) The few traditional sources that look back to benefits from the other two faces.
the time of state formation provide warped (d) It also shows how the various groups who
knowledge. extract surplus from the producers can
(d) The United States is on the brink of extinction compete between themselves.
like other societies after the events of 11th
September. 18. Which amongst the following best describes the
meaning of the word “nemesis”?
16. Which of the following word from the passage is a (a) Ally (b) Benefactor
synonym of ‘marauding’, as used in the passage? (c) Downfall (d) Success
188
Passage (Q.7-Q.11): Surveys frequently point to the enormous heterogeneity in individual attitudes towards free
trade policies. While a majority of relatively rich and educated individuals seem to favour lowering barriers to trade,
up to 80% of the poor do not feel helped by globalisation and consistently oppose free trade policies. What is the
reason for this large gap between the poor and the rich in terms of their views on the potential benefits of
international trade? Conventional wisdom suggests that the reason for this disparity is broadly related to the
Stolper–Samuelson‐type effects when people with different skills, abilities or employment statuses experience
heterogeneous effects of trade on their earnings. I argue, however, that even in the absence of asymmetric wage
effects, the welfare gains from trade are highly heterogeneous across consumers due to consumer‐specific price
effects. For instance, in 2006 in the US, 32% of consumers believed that free trade agreements would lead to a
decrease in domestic prices, while 30% believed they would increase them and 23% expected no significant change.
This large degree of heterogeneity of opinions suggests that people consume different bundles of goods and that the
price effects of trade liberalisation may be asymmetric across those bundles. I develop a general equilibrium model
of trade that gets to grip with these two features by combining consumer heterogeneity, non‐homotheticity of
preferences and sector‐specific trade elasticity parameters. In the model, consumers are heterogeneous in two
ways. First, they differ in terms of their labour endowment, which can be interpreted as heterogeneity in capital,
abilities and/or skills endowment. Second, consumers are heterogeneous in their marginal propensity to consume
necessities versus luxuries. I argue that the conventional assumption of a representative consumer (ARC)
completely ignores these issues which leads to significant quantitative and qualitative deviations of the welfare
gains calculated under ARC from consumer‐specific gains. This result offers potentially important policy
implications since many studies targeting policy makers and trade negotiators are based on ARC and homothetic
preferences. For example, a recent independent study carried out for the European Commission that calculated
potential welfare gains from the Transatlantic Trade and Investment Partnership is based on ARC and
homotheticity.
I calibrate the model to data from 92 countries and structurally estimate the model’s parameters. The calibrated
model suggests that:
(i) there is a larger heterogeneity in technologies in the manufacturing sector relative to the agricultural sector;
(ii) rich consumers spend a larger share of their total income on manufacturing goods and services; and that
(iii) the rich have a relatively higher propensity to consume manufacturing goods and services.
These insights imply that an equal reduction in trade costs for both manufacturing and agricultural goods would
offer relatively higher welfare gains to the rich. I use the model to conduct two counterfactual trade liberalisation
experiments and demonstrate that the welfare gains from trade differ significantly both qualitatively and
quantitatively across individuals.
19. Which of the following is not supported by the (a) A Heterogeneous Individual Attitudes To Free
passage? Trade Policies
(a) There is a large gap between the poor and the (b) A Homogenous Collective Response To Free
rich in terms of their views on the potential Trade Policies
benefits from international trade. (c) Globalisation and the Free Trade Policies.
(b) People with different skills, abilities or (d) Asymmetric Liberalisation.
employment statuses experience
heterogeneous effects of trade on their 21. This large degree of heterogeneity of opinions
earnings. suggests that people consume different bundles of
(c) Even in the absence of asymmetric wage goods and that the price effects of trade
effects, the welfare gains from trade are liberalisation may be asymmetric across those
highly heterogeneous across consumers due bundles.’ Which of the following options reflects
to consumer‐specific price effects. the correct parts of speech for the highlighted
(d) In 2006 in the US, 23% of consumers believed words?
that free trade agreements would lead to a (a) Noun, verb, adjective
decrease in domestic prices. (b) Noun, noun, adjective
(c) Verb, verb, adverb
20. Which of the following is a suitable title for the (d) Adjective, verb, adverb
passage?
189
22. Which of the following is the synonym for the word 24. Based on the passage above, choose the word that
heterogeneity? is closest in meaning to "non-homotheticity."
(a) Equivalence (b) Medley (a) Conformity (b) Variability
(c) Standardized (d) Luminous (c) Regularity (d) Simplicity
23. The writing style of the author is:

(a) Narrative (b) Descriptive
(c) Persuasive (d) Expository
190
SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Passage (Q.25-Q.30): Emission Gap Report 2023

The report finds that there has been progress since the Paris Agreement was signed in 2015. Greenhouse gas
emissions in 2030, based on policies in place, were projected to increase by 16 per cent at the time of the
agreement’s adoption. Today, the projected increase is 3 per cent. However, predicted 2030 greenhouse gas
emissions still must fall by 28 per cent for the Paris Agreement 2°C pathway and 42 per cent for the 1.5°C pathway.
As things stand, fully implementing unconditional Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) made under the
Paris Agreement would put the world on track for limiting temperature rise to 2.9°C above pre-industrial levels this
century. Fully implementing conditional NDCs would lower this to 2.5°C. The EGR report calls for all nations to
accelerate economy-wide, low-carbon development transformations. Countries with greater capacity and
responsibility for emissions will need to take more ambitious action and support developing nations as they pursue
low-emissions development growth.
The report looks at how stronger implementation can increase the chances of the next round of NDCs, due in 2025,
bringing down greenhouse gas emissions in 2035 to levels consistent with 2°C and 1.5°C pathways. It also looks at
the potential and risks of Carbon Dioxide Removal methods – such as nature-based solutions and direct air carbon
capture and storage.
https://www.unep.org
25. What is the name of the conference in which United 28. As per the report the world will get warm by at
Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) which is least 3°Celsius by the year:
responsible for the release of Emissions Gap (a) 2040 (b) 2070
Report was formed? (c) 2060 (d) 2100
(a) Stockholm Conference
(b) Paris Conference 29. Which country has passed the Inflation Reduction
(c) New York Conference Act that aims to fight inflation and in turn reduce
(d) Beijing Conference the country’s carbon emissions?
(a) United States (b) European Union
26. According to the report, "emission" refers to the (c) Russia (d) Germany
difference between the expected and actual
locations of greenhouse gas emissions in (x) in 30. Consider the following statements:
order to keep global warming well below 2°C or I. The United Nations Environment Programme
1.5°C. Replace (x) with appropriate option: (UNEP) is the leading global authority on the
(a) 2032 (b) 2028 environment.
(c) 2030 (d) 2050 II. UNEP’s mission is to inspire, inform, and
enable nations and peoples to improve their
27. Which of the following country is not considered as quality of life without compromising that of
one of the three largest emitters of carbon dioxide? future generations.
(a) China (a) Only I is correct.
(b) India (b) Only II is correct.
(c) United States (c) Both I & II are correct.
(d) Russia (d) Both I & II are incorrect.
Passage (Q.31-Q.36): Supreme Court's Verdict on Electoral Bonds Scheme

After a protracted legal battle, the information on electoral bonds is finally out in the public domain. On March 12,
the Supreme Court came down heavily on an attempt by the State Bank of India (SBI) to evade its directions to
disclose, within three weeks, details of electoral bonds transacted. Dismissing the bank’s application seeking four
additional months to provide the data, the Chief Justice of India-led bench set a deadline of one day for the SBI to
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furnish details of the donors and recipients of electoral bonds to the Election Commission of India (ECI). The ECI
was directed to upload this to their website by March 15. There are three important questions regarding the impact
of the Supreme Court’s seminal judgement, which warrant consideration.
In its judgement, the Supreme Court directed the disclosure of two sets of information since April 12, 2019: details
of electoral bonds purchased, including “the date of purchase of each Electoral Bond, the name of the purchaser of
the bond and the denomination of the Electoral Bond purchased”; and details of bonds redeemed by political parties,
including the date of encashment and the denomination of the electoral bonds. While hearing the SBI’s plea for an
extension of the time frame to provide the information, the court clarified that it had never asked for information
on purchasers and recipients to be decoded and matched.
Source:https://thewire.in
31. The Supreme Court, strike down the Electoral 34. After striking down of the Electoral Bond Scheme
Bond Scheme (EBS), stating that it the violation of: (EBS) by SC, the political parties now need to
(a) Article 23 (b) Article 12 disclose contributions of more than:
(c) Article 19 (1) (a) (d) Article 25 (a) Rs 20,000 (b) Rs 10,000
(c) Rs 70,000 (d) Rs 100,000
32. Which of the following act was not amended to
enact the Electoral Bond Scheme? 35. On which day National Voters Day is celebrated?
(a) The Finance Act, 2017 (a) 26th February (b) 9th April
(b) The Representation of the People Act, 1951 (c) 11th May (d) 25th January
(c) The Income Tax Act, 1961
(d) The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 36. After India attained independence in 1947, the
Constitution of India came into being on 26
33. In which year the Electoral Bond Scheme (EBS) January 1950. The Supreme Court of India also
was introduced? came into existence and its first sitting was held
(a) 2015 (b) 2018 on_______.
(c) 2014 (d) 2022 (a) 20 May 1951 (b) 25 June 1952
(c) 28 December 1951 (d) 28 January 1950
Passage (Q.37-Q.42): India-EFTA Agreement

India has been working on a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) with EFTA countries comprising
Switzerland, Iceland, Norway & Liechtenstein. The Union Cabinet chaired by the Hon’ble Prime Minister has
approved signing of the TEPA with EFTA States. EFTA is an inter-governmental organization set up in 1960 for the
promotion of free trade and economic integration for the benefit of its four Member States.
Speaking on the occasion, Shri Piyush Goyal, Minister of Commerce and Industry, Food and Consumer Affairs and
Textiles said:
"TEPA is a modern and ambitious Trade Agreement. For the first time, India is signing FTA with four developed
nations - an important economic bloc in Europe. For the first time in history of FTAs, binding commitment of $100
bn investment and 1 million direct jobs in the next 15 years has been given. The agreement will give a boost to Make
in India and provide opportunities to young & talented workforce. The FTA will provide a window to Indian
exporters to access large European and global markets."
The agreement comprises of 14 chapters with main focus on market access related to goods, rules of origin, trade
facilitation, trade remedies, sanitary and phytosanitary measures, technical barriers to trade, investment
promotion, market access on services, intellectual property rights, trade and sustainable development and other
legal and horizontal provisions.
Source: https://www.businesstoday.in
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37. India have signed Trade and Economic Partnership 41. The Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement
Agreement with EFTA. Which of the following non- (TEPA) marks the second such full-fledged Free
European country is not a part of European Free Trade Agreement. With which country, India
Trade Association (EFTA)? singed the first full-fledged Free Trade Agreement?
(a) Iceland (b) Liechtenstein (a) United Arab Emirates
(c) Norway (d) Sweden (b) United Kingdom
(c) United States of America
38. In which year European Free Trade Association (d) Russia
(EFTA) was established?
(a) 1967 (b) 1960 42. Consider the following statements about EFTA:
(c) 1961 (d) 1969 I. The European Free Trade Association (EFTA)
is the intergovernmental organisation of
39. Which country is the India’s largest trading Iceland, Liechtenstein, Russia and Netherland.
partner in European Free Trade Association II. It was set up in 1969 by its then five Member
(EFTA)? States for the promotion of free trade and
(a) Netherland (b) Switzerland economic integration between its members.
(c) Norway (d) Iceland (a) Only I is correct.
(b) Only II is correct.
40. In the upcoming [x] years, EFTA has pledged to (c) Both I & II are correct.
encourage investments to raise the stock of foreign (d) Both I & II are incorrect.
direct investments in India by USD 100 billion.
Replace [x] with appropriate option:
(a) 5 years (b) 4 years
(c) 15 years (d) 17 years
Passage (Q.43-Q.48): UAE Rain

The United Arab Emirates (UAE) recorded the heaviest rain ever after a severe thunderstorm hit the country on
Monday (April 15) late night, killing at least one person, causing damage to homes and businesses, and bringing air
travel to a standstill in Dubai.
According to the state-run WAM news agency, the rain was “a historic weather event” that surpassed “anything
documented since the start of data collection in 1949” – that was before the UAE was established in 1971. Heavy
rains are unusual in the UAE, which is an arid, Arabian Peninsula country. However, they occasionally occur in the
region during cooler winter months.
The thunderstorms began on Monday night and by Tuesday evening had dumped more than 142 millimetres (mm)
of rain onto the desert city of Dubai. Usually, the city witnesses this much rain in a year and a half. An average year
sees 94.7 millimetres of rain at Dubai International Airport — the world’s second busiest airport, which recorded
more than 80 million visitors in 2023. The heavy rains led to disruption of air travel as flights were either diverted
or delayed. According to airport authorities, operations were temporarily suspended for 25 minutes on Tuesday
afternoon. Although heavy rains calmed down by late Tuesday, disruptions continued to Wednesday.
https://indianexpress.com
43. Choose the correct statement: 44. Choose the correct statement:
Statement 1: Anticyclones are areas of high Statement 1: UAE lies in the arid regions of the
atmospheric pressure. world, so such heavy rainfalls are unusual there.
Statement 2: Winds in anticyclones move downward Statement 2: On average, Dubai experiences 109.7
and compress, causing heating. They often lead to mm of rain in a year. But this event was historic as it
large-scale heat waves. brought more than 124 mm of rainfall that had
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 soaked Dubai over 24 hours.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
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45. _________ is a process in which chemicals such as 47. Global warming has led to higher temperatures
silver iodide crystals are implanted into clouds to causing evaporation of water not only from land but
increase rainfall in an environment where water also oceans and other water bodies, causing a
scarcity is a concern. warmer atmosphere to hold more moisture. For
(a) Cloud Seeding every 1-degree Celsius rise in average temperature,
(b) Thunderstorm the atmosphere can hold about _______.
(c) Hydroscopic Formation (a) 7% more moisture.
(d) Dynamic Cloud Storm (b) 7% less moisture.
(c) 11% more moisture.
46. Thunderstorms also known as an electrical storm or (d) 11% less moisture.
a lightning storm is formed in which of the following
stages? 48. Who is the current President of the United Arab
(a) Cumulus stage Emirates?
(b) Mature Stage (a) Khurshid Mahmud Kasuri
(c) Dissipating Stage (b) Muhammad bin Abdul Karim
(d) All the given options are correct (c) Sheikh Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan
(d) Sheikh Tamim bin Hamad Al Thani
Passage (Q.49-Q.52): WTO

The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an international body that determines international trade rules. At the
heart of the WTO is a series of multilateral agreements that set legal rules for international trade in goods, services
and intellectual property. Australia has been a Member of the WTO since its founding in 1995.Australia's economy
relies on a strong and open global trading environment. The Australian Government is strongly committed to the
WTO and its framework of rules, which helps promote and protect the open global trading system. Our membership
in the WTO means that we benefit from its trade rules and we have a process to settle disputes if other trade partners
breach these rules.
The WTO operates by consensus. Every Member's opinion carries the same weight, and all Members must agree
before a decision can be made. This means that progress can be slow, but once an agreement is reached, all members
are obliged to honour it.
Australia is also committed to reforming the WTO to ensure it can function more effectively, and continues to meet
the needs of Members and business in today’s modern global trading environment. The WTO operates by consensus;
all Members must agree before decisions are made.
https://www.dfat.gov.au
49. Which institution was established under 1944 (a) 44 nations (b) 54 nations
Bretton Woods Conference? (c) 64 nations (d) 24 nations
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) World Bank 51. Choose the correct statement:
(c) World Trade Organisation Statement 1: The topmost decision-making body of
(d) Both A and B the WTO is the Ministerial Conference.
Statement 2: It usually meets every three years
50. The Bretton Woods Conference, officially known as (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
the United Nations Monetary and Financial (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Conference, was a gathering of delegates from
________ that met from July 1 to 22, 1944 in Bretton 52. Who is the current President of World Bank?
Woods, New Hampshire, to agree upon a series of (a) Ajay Banga (b) Vinay mittal
new rules for the post-WWII international (c) Sukesh Mishra (d) Eugene Meyer
monetary system.
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SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.53-Q.85): Read the comprehensions carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.53-Q.57): Section 80 of IPC exempts a person from criminal liability if, the act must have been done
without any criminal intention or knowledge; the act alleged to have been done against the accused must be lawful;
the act must have been done in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution. To bring an act
within the meaning of the term accident used in section 80, an essential requirement is that the happening of the
incident cannot be attributed to human fault. It is something happens out of ordinary course of things. The word
misfortune means the same thing as accident plus that it was as unwelcome as it was unexpected. It was only an
accident with attendant evil consequences. Both these words “accident” and “misfortune” are used in the sense of
implying the injury to another. In order to invoke this section it must be proved that the act is done without any
“criminal intent or knowledge”. It is mandatory to prove that the act is done without mensrea or guilty mind. Thus
injuries caused due to accidents in sports and games are covered this section. In Tunda v. Rex13, two friends fond
of wrestling participated in a wrestling match and one of them suffered injury which resulted in death of the other.
The other person was charged under s 304 A IPC. The High Court held that when both agreed to wrestle with each
other, there was an implied consent on the part of each to suffer accidental injuries. In the absence of any proof of
foul play, it was held that the act was accidental and unintentional.
53. Kushal lay in his bed remembering an incident 54. Kushal lay in his bed remembering an incident
which had occurred in his past. He narrated to which had occurred in his past. He narrated to
Nanda about howhe had killed a young man named Nanda about how, by accident, he had killed a
Shravana, mistaking him to be a deer. Kushal, who young man named Shravana, mistaking him to be a
was then a crown prince, had gone hunting on the deer. Kushal, who was then a crown prince, had
banks of River Saryu. He was an expert in hunting gone hunting on the banks of River Saryu. He was
by determining the direction of sound and heard an expert in hunting by determining the direction
the gurgle of an animal drinking water. Kushal shot of sound and heard the gurgle of a person drinking
an arrow at the bushes. He became mortified when water. In hope that it’ll turn out to be a deer, Kushal
he heard a human cry as the arrow found its target. shot an arrow. He became mortified when he heard
Kushal hurried there to find a boy lying sprawled a human cry as the arrow found its target. Kushal
on the banks of the river with an arrow lodged in hurried there to find a boy lying sprawled on the
his chest. Can this illustration be termed as an act banks of the river with an arrow lodged in his
of accident by Kushal to claim an exemption from chest. Decide the liability of Kushal in the present
his liability of killing Shravana? case.
(a) It was an innocent act with no mensrea on the (a) The act is to be considered as an accident as
end of Kushal that killed Shravana. Thus, clearly Kushal had no intention to kill
Kushal can claim this to be an act of accident Shravana.
under section 80 of IPC. (b) The act cannot be claimed by Kushal to be an
(b) Kushal, even though lacking mensrea to kill accident as the alleged act had been done with
Shravana, had an intention to kill. Thus, this knowledge.
cannot be termed as an act of accident and (c) Kushal will be held liable as though he did not
therefore Kushal cannot get exempted from have any mens rea to kill Sharavan but had
the liability. mensrea for hunting a wild animal.
(c) Kushal is innocent as he had no mensrea and (d) Cannot be determined as the facts lack
had done the act without any criminal sufficient information to reach a conclusion.
intention or knowledge.
(d) Kushal is not liable as the act alleged to have 55. The accused, Mahi went with a view to killing
been done against the accused must be lawful Hyena and heard a sound from a direction and
and have been done in a lawful manner by fired a shot at its direction. But later it was
lawful means and with proper care and discovered that it was a person, not Hyena. He
caution. pleaded that it was raining and he had a bona fide
impression that it was Hyena and fired the shot
with a view to protecting people around him from
being attacked by it. Choose the correct answer
195
with respect to the facts and the information given (b) Since the accused was hitting his wife and
in the passage. accidentally hit his own mother, he will be
(a) This case is based on the principle that an act entitled to the benefits of Section 80 of the IPC.
done by an accident, will come under Section (c) Even if the accuser's act was unintentional, it
80 of Indian Penal Code. was not a lawful act done in a lawful manner
(b) The accused will be entitled to the benefits and via lawful means. Hence section 80 will be
mentioned under Section 80 of Indian Penal applicable.
Code as besides other facts, there was no (d) Since the accused acted deliberately and
expectation of any other person being present without due care and caution, Section 80 of the
in that area in which the death happened IPC would not apply. As a result, the accused
(c) The accused will not be held liable as the act will be held liable.
was accident and not intentional. And thus,
Mahi can claim an exception under section 80 57. Dhanur and Chanda were officers posted to a
of IPC. militant area, which was a frequent target of
(d) The accused will be held liable and cannot terrorist attacks. Chanda spotted Dhanur
claim defense under section 80 of IPC as his exchanging money with one of the detainees while
actions were not accidental and unintentional. on duty, and allowing him to escape the prison. She
immediately confronted him and demanded an
56. During a disagreement between a husband and his explanation. On Dhanur's refusal, Chanda leveled
wife, the mother of the husband intervenes and is her gun at him and fired a shot without thinking
punched by her own son. The mother claimed that twice. Chanda believes that she is exempt from the
the son knew she was an elderly lady who could be act because it was an accident given the
wounded while halting the brawl, yet he still circumstances. Decide.
continued. The court denied the old lady's (a) The accused demonstrates a complete lack of
application, stating that it was clearly an accident care and caution, and hence she cannot claim
and that the son can claim exemption under any benefits under Section 80 of the IPC.
Section 80 of the IPC. Is the court's ruling correct? (b) The accused was on duty and the act in
Choose the correct statement: question is covered by Section 80.
(a) This case is based on the idea that an act that is (c) The accused cannot claim that this was an
not lawful if done in a lawful manner through accident because she was well aware of the
lawful means is not punishable under Section repercussions of her unlawful act.
80 of the Indian Penal Code. (d) The accused may claim that this was an
accident since Dhanur was fleeing and the only
lawful way to stop him was to fire a shot.
Passage (Q.58-Q.62): Zubair was slapped with Section 153A for “promoting enmity” between different groups on
religious grounds. Soon after, multiple first information reports, or FIRs, were filed against Zubair in Uttar Pradesh
based on allegations over his past tweets. Notwithstanding the wide usage of these words in the public discourse,
there exist no definitions of blasphemy or hate speech in India’s legal statutes. Typically, the aforementioned
provisions of the Indian Penal Code are used to prosecute actions that could fall within the realm of blasphemy or
hate speech, and over the years, the Supreme Court has cautiously sought to maintain the tricky balance of
criminalising speech while preserving the sanctity of the fundamental right of freedom of expression. Pertinently,
the Supreme Court has noted that the objective of Section 295A (Deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage
religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs) is to “curb speech made with ‘malicious
intent’ and not ‘offensive speech’”. In other words, speech – or movie scenes, for that matter – may well be offensive
but in the absence of a deliberate or malicious intent to outrage religious feelings, criminal action cannot follow.This
is a crucial distinction and while granting bail to Zubair on July 15, the Delhi court noted the existence of malice as
the sine qua non – or an essential component – to establish criminality. The Delhi court also noted that the
movie Kissi Se Na Kehna had been cleared by the Central Board for Film Certification without any complaint being
raised. When deliberating on the applicability of Section 153A, the Supreme Court has in the past observed that “the
effect of the words must be judged from the standards of reasonable, strong-minded, firm and courageous men, and
not those of weak and vacillating minds, nor of those who scent danger in every hostile point of view”.
196
58. Delhi University assistant professor Ratan Lal, was result, she will be charged with "hate speech and
arrested in May on charges of offending religious fostering animosity" between religious
sentiments and promoting enmity on grounds of communities.
faith. Lal had, through a sarcastic tweet, questioned (c) Josephine will be charged with "hate speech and
the authenticity of the discovery of a cylindrical fostering hostility" between religious groups
object made of stone — Similar to an object deemed since a reasonable person could have imagined
sacred by the members of religion "X", according to the possible impact of his/her words.
some members of religion "X"—discovered during a (d) Even if the statement were widely considered as
recent, inspection of a 100 year old haveli in blasphemous in character, Josephine will not be
Varanasi. Right-wing organizations claimed that his held accountable because she merely expressed
tweet hurt religious sensibilities and pitted one her opinion which lacked the intent to outrage
religious group against another. However, days after religious feelings.
his arrest, a Delhi judge granted him bail, citing the
tweet as a "failed attempt at satire." Is the bail 60. Veeli Kumar claimed to be a Vedic Scholar, Priest,
granted to the accused valid? Consider the reasons and Upadhivantha of the Shree Mahabaleshwar
given by the Delhi High Court. Temple in Gokarna. It was his custom to give a sweet
(a) The bail granted to the accused is valid since to every visitor to the temple. He recently began
such posts are protected under the Right to distributing CDs and cassettes to visitors that show
freedom of speech. how the temple has been preserved despite
(b) The bail granted to the accused is invalid as the numerous obstacles. The story on the CDs and Tapes
tweet was directed at a sacred object of religion mentions a community 'X,' which accounts for 25%
'X,' hurting the religious sentiments of one of Gokarna's entire population. It mentions that only
group. the community 'X' from all across the states did not
(c) The bail granted to the accused is valid because participate or were interested in the temple's
the tweet was posted as a satire and there was development, but the temple still persists today
no malicious intent on the part of the accused in thanks to the efforts of all the other communities.
the current case. Community 'X' filed a case against the priest for
(d) The bail granted to the accused based on his post spreading derogatory materials against the
being a failed attempt at satire is invalid because community 'X' to the public of Gokarna in order to
his tweet offended religious sensibilities and slander the community members and create a
pitted one religious community against another. breach of peace and harm to the religious sentiments
of the temple's devotees. Decide.
59. Josephine has always piqued the interest of the (a) The Court will rule that an offence under Section
media by delivering unvarnished remarks. This is 153-A of the IPC has been committed if the
why she was invited today to every news debate spoken or printed word promotes or incites
show where the channel could reveal to the public hostility between members of a religious group
the raw side of the politics performed by various or disturbs public tranquility.
politicians to persuade and play fraud with the (b) The community X has no case here because
people. During a heated television debate, Josephine, Section 153-A of the IPC can be invoked only if
made a remark that instead of feeding statues and the act resulted in the promotion of hostility
the middlemen one should feed the poor to gain between amongst a group on religious grounds.
blessings. Even though the comments were personal (c) Community X has no case here because in
opinion, they were widely perceived as absence of any evidence to the contrary malice
blasphemous in nature, attracting national ridicule, will always presumed to be absent.
prompting even those who had previously (d) The court will rule in favour of community X
supported Josephine and her right to free speech to since the priest's actions resulted in encouraging
come out against her and demand that she be enmity between two separate religions and
charged under Section 153A. Decide fosters enmity within the same religious group
(a) This is not a case of hate speech as Josephine had in general, disrupting public tranquilly.
no intent to be held liable for disseminating hate
speech or blasphemous speech.
(b) Josephine will be charged with disseminating
hate speech because the content of the speech
was directed at the deity of the X faith. As a
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61. The complainant is journalist Munni, who is one of remarks are made, they will be subject to
the petitioners in the PIL seeking criminal law action sections 295A and 153A.
in connection with the anti-'X' religious hate
speeches delivered at the Dharam Sammelan in 62. Naveen junior is the director and producer of the
Jamnagar and Delhi in December. The other film "Desh" which depicted how Indians broke the
petitioner is Senior Advocate Prakash, a former bond of slavery, fought tooth and nail, and eventually
Patna High Court judge. While issuing notice in the won the battle of independence. The
petition on January 12, the Supreme Court film scene climax was shown with the Indian
authorised the petitioners to submit an appeal with shouting slogans like "Traitors shall be shot dead, if
the authorities against the likelihood of they don’t leave." A FIR was filed against the film's
inflammatory comments in the anticipated Dharm director, claiming that such dialogue is not only
Sammelans meetings going to be held at held in the objectionable but will have a negative impact on the
State of Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh and youngsters watching the video. Given any situation,
Uttarakhand. What possible reason could the it will only foster angry conduct among them.
Supreme Court have had for issuing such an order? Following that, the complainant launched a lawsuit
(a) Taking into account the prior occurrence and against the director of the film and The Central
protests following the Dharam Sammelan Board of Film Certification, questioning how they
incident in Delhi and Jamnagar, the Supreme could approve such content for screening while
Court believes that a similar episode could occur labeling it as a family film. The case is brought before
again if a similar event is scheduled. Thus, the your court for a final ruling. Decide
SC's order can be termed as precautionary (a) The court will hear the case since the film's
measure. content is both insulting and, to some extent,
(b) The court believes that even if there is slight promotes feelings of animosity amongst
possibility of an event that encourages individuals.
animosity between the two religious groups, it (b) The court will hear the case because, on the face,
should be avoided and thus passed injunctory it appears to be a case of purposeful offensive
orders. speech because the context of the discourse is
(c) According to the court, if similar meetings are offensive.
held in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Himachal (c) The matter will not be considered in court
Pradesh, and Uttarakhand, and comparable because the movie was only permitted for
remarks are made, it will not only disrupt public screening after the Central Board of Film
order, but will also amount to various criminal Certification approved the scene.
offences. And hence allowed the petition. (d) The court will not consider the complaint since
(d) The court believes that if similar meetings are the plaintiff has no cause of action against the
hosted in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Himachal respondents in this case.
Pradesh, and Uttarakhand, and comparable
Passage (Q.63-Q.67): Indian anti-doping rules mirror the WADA code and prescribe a framework of strict liability.
For this, the athlete first needs to establish how the prohibited substance entered his/her system. This burden is
justifiably onerous. In reality, it disables an athlete caught in inadvertent doping. Inadvertent doping is due to
contaminated or mislabeled supplements, misguided medical treatment and at worst, sabotage. Harmless food
supplements like proteins or vitamins used by athletes are often from unreliable sources like private shops or online
purchase. The National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) of India has had life easy in this respect. Its argument often
hinges on a simple statement written in the WADA (World Anti-Doping Agency) Code itself. It is the definition of the
“strict liability” principle: “it is not necessary that intent, fault, negligence, or knowing use on the athlete’s part be
demonstrated by the Anti-Doping Organization in order to establish an anti-doping rule violation.”
Finally, there is an argument for restorative, rather than simply retributive justice. A framework must be created to
constructively counsel athletes to understand the real causes, degrees of fault and administrative lapses. Merely
subjecting them to an arduous legal process before NADA is not a long-term solution. We must recognize the socio-
cultural reality of our sportspersons. Quite a few are from semi-urban or rural backgrounds. To them, sports is the
only route to a better economic status. Literacy and language are serious impediments. They are subject to the
whims and dictates of administrators. Amidst such intense pressure, they compete and carry our nation’s hopes.
198
But when they err, or are accused of doing so, we disclaim all responsibility. Sports federations, more famous for
politicking, must take this blame upfront.
Making doping a criminal offence, as was once proposed, is an untenable idea which would subject athletes to an
already crippled criminal justice system. A nation with a burgeoning young population cannot let inertia put it on a
murky sporting track.
63. The author states that “Finally there is an supplements he took, he is entitled to the
argument for restorative, rather than simply benefit of the doubt and will not be held liable
retributive justice”. Which of the following is the for inadvertent doping.
assumption behind the statement? (c) Bhullar will not be given the benefit of the
(a) Steps have been taken to reducing future harm doubt because he was unable to demonstrate
through crime prevention. how MHA entered his system satisfactorily.
(b) The athletes will take responsibility for their (d) Bhullar will face strict liability under the code.
actions and for the harm they have caused.
(c) The offenders will be punished as per the 66. Chang was charged with an infraction in May 2020.
crime committed. At the provisional hearing, he explained that the
(d) Criminal justice that focuses on rehabilitation positive result had come from a medicine
rather than punishment. prescribed by his family doctor. His doctor advised
the use of it on two occasions, first in December
64. What can be construed true about the strict 2018 and then for one month from 10 January
liability principle with respect to the athletes in the 2020. The sample was collected on 28 February
case of doping? 2020. Will Chang be able to avoid liability in this
(a) The strict liability principle is to pin the athlete case?
(a) No, according to the strict liability rule,
down on the contention that the athlete is
knowing use of the medicine is not a defense.
responsible for what is in his/her body.
(b) Yes, because the doctor prescribed the
(b) It does not, however, determine the severity of
medication and he did not voluntarily
the charge. administer such substance.
(c) Intent per se is not required to apply the rule (c) No, because he should have been wary of
of strict liability. consuming prohibited substances.
(d) The Anti-Doping Organization must (d) Yes, as an athlete, he can prove how the
demonstrate knowing use on the part of the prohibited substance entered his system.
athlete in order to establish an anti-doping
rule violation. 67. The case of Himanshu Kumar, who tested positive
at the National weightlifting championships in
65. Bhullar an athlete has recently been arrested by 2019, is curious mix of a wrong category of
NADA on grounds that he tested positive substances and a wrong clause in the rules being
methylhexaneamine (MHA), a prohibited applied by the disciplinary panel. The appeal panel
substance. The substance has been injected in the tries to argue that the route through which the
body cells to stops the cancer from accessing the substance has taken has to be established in all
hormones they need to multiply and grow. Bhullar cases. What, according to your interpretation of
submitted that he was consuming dietary the passage, will support the author's argument in
supplements three months before the competition this instance?
which might have prohibited specified substance (a) The appeal panel is correct is applying the rule
or might be contaminated or the presence of of strict liability on himanshu kumar.
specified substance could have been the possible (b) The appeal panel shall not impose the rule of
reaction of these supplements. Bhullar could not strict liability as there exists other reformative
forms of punishments.
establish how MHA got into his system. What
(c) The appeal panel should give a chance to
repercussions will follow? Decide
Himanshu for to establish how the prohibited
(a) Since Bhullar was unable to establish the substance entered his/her system.
presence of the specified substance, he will be (d) The process of establishing the existence of
held liable for inadvertent doping. prohibited substance in ones’s system is not
(b) Since Bhullar stated that the presence of the burdensome.
substance could have been caused by the
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Passage (Q.68-Q.73): Anticipatory bail, a preventive relief that was not originally included in The Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 ('CrPC'). The necessity for granting anticipatory bail arises mainly because sometimes influential
persons try to implicate their rivals in false cases for the purpose of disgracing them or for other purposes by getting
them detained in jail for some days. Apart from false cases, where there are reasonable grounds for holding that a
person accused of an offense is not likely to abscond, or otherwise misuse his liberty while on bail, there seems no
justification to require him first to submit to custody, remain in prison for some days and then apply for bail. The
very purpose of the provisions relating to anticipatory bail is to ensure that no person is confined in any way until
and unless held guilty. It has also been held that anticipatory bail cannot be granted to a person to do something
which is likely to be interpreted as a commission of a crime even if the offender intended it as something in the
exercise of his rights. The rationale behind enacting S. 438 was to safeguard the personal liberty of individuals,
however, the use of words 'may, if it thinks fit’ in S. 438(1) of CrPC and the absence of any specific restraints on the
exercise of the power to grant anticipatory bail clearly indicates that the legislature intended to confer very wide
discretionary power on the courts to grant anticipatory bail. This wide discretion should be used cautiously by the
courts since with the massive increase in the cases of socio-economic offenses in India where the accused have fled
the country to evade prosecution there is an increased chance of misuse of this preventive relief. The courts need to
establish a fine balance between the personal liberty of an individual and public interest before granting
anticipatory bail.
68. Why the author believes that the court should (a) It is quite imperative to observe that there are
cautiously use the discretionary power of chances of infringement of personal liberty in
anticipatory bail? false cases.
(a) It is pertinent to establish a fine balance (b) Anticipatory bail should be available to every
between the general interest of the public and accused because it is not wise that he is arrested
safeguarding individual rights. first and then files a bail application.
(b) Anticipatory bail is vulnerable to abuse since (c) It is tried and tested and hence reasonable that a
criminals can evade prosecution. person who is accused will never abscond.
(c) It is a preventive measure that was not included (d) It can be reasonably deduced that an accused
in the 1973 Code of Criminal Procedure ('CrPC'). will misuse the personal liberty granted to him
(d) The rationale behind enacting S. 438 was to via anticipatory bail.
safeguard the personal liberty of individuals.
71. In which of the following cases anticipatory bail will
69. What was not the intention of the drafters of CrPC to be given to the accused?
include ‘anticipatory bail’ in the code? (a) X kills Y and files for an anticipatory bail.
(a) To safeguard people's personal liberties with (b) X is accused of fraud and an arrest warrant is
the reasonable assumption that a person who is issued against him.
accused will not flee. (c) X is accused of terrorism and is immediately
(b) So that High Courts can prevent anyone from arrested.
getting imprisoned. (d) X is arrested for theft and when he is accused of
(c) So that powerful people do not try to incriminate murder he files for an anticipatory bail.
their opponents in spurious cases in order to
discredit them. 72. Assertion (A): A person will be denied anticipatory
(d) To ensure that no one is imprisoned in any way bail, if he commits a crime in furtherance of his
unless they are found guilty. exercise of right(s).
Reason (R): There has to be a fine balance between
70. With the strict examination of the statement- “Apart individual rights and greater public interest.
from false cases, where there are reasonable (a) Both A and R are individually true but R is not
grounds for holding that a person accused of an the correct explanation of A.
offense is not likely to abscond, or otherwise misuse (b) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
his liberty while on bail, there seems no justification correct explanation of A.
to require him first to submit to custody, remain in (c) A is true but R is false.
prison for some days and then apply for bail.” Choose (d) A is false but R is true.
which of the following options can be directly
inferred.
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73. X was worked as a RAW officer. He was deployed in (a) He is not entitled to anticipatory bail because he
the field duty and the only task he had was to exceeded his rights and committed a murder.
identity terrorist and kill them, one time, when he (b) He is entitled to anticipatory bail because he
was on vacation he was following a lead and had to satisfies all the prerequisites for the same.
catch and identify and catch a terrorist, he mistook a (c) He is not entitled to anticipatory bail because he
civilian to be the terrorist and shot him at point does not satisfies all the prerequisites for the
blank range. Later, some NGO filed a case against X anticipatory bail.
that he killed a civilian and exceeded his powers. X (d) He is not entitled to anticipatory bail because he
immediately filed for anticipatory bail because he was on a vacation and hence protection would
has to identify one more terrorist and kill him. not be available.
Choose the best option as per your understanding of
the passage.
Passage (Q.74-Q.79): The SC has observed – delegated legislation can be considered as a “necessary evil”, and an
unfortunate but inevitable infringement of the doctrine of separation of powers – which postulates that ‘law-making’
is the sole prerogative of the legislature. The SC has also highlighted the inherent danger in the process of delegation,
where an over-burdened legislature may unduly overstep the permissible limits of delegation and may not rightly
articulate the guiding principles within which the delegated legislations must operate. This note of caution is most
relevant in the corporate law realm, where a large number of delegated legislation directly touch upon substantive
policy issues, which should ideally be covered by a law passed by Parliament – keeping in mind the cardinal rule
that the formulation and declaration of ‘legislative policy’ is the sole prerogative of the legislature and cannot be
delegated to the executive. However, given the complexities and the practical considerations involved, delegated
legislation in the realm of corporate law is here to stay.
Regulators are likely to continue using the subordinate legislation route, as rules and regulations can be easily
amended to address practical difficulties, or to plug loopholes. While delegated legislation in the corporate law
realm may have its merits, it also results in frequent changes to the law and many such overnight changes have
significant implications on the structuring and execution of corporate transactions. Besides resulting in uncertainty,
such frequent changes also profoundly impact the stability of our legal system. The stability and consistency of the
legal system is an integral component of the rule of law, which forms part of the “basic structure” of our Constitution.
In addition to ensuring meaningful parliamentary supervision, a periodic review is necessary for evaluating whether
the delegated legislations are in conformity with the policy enunciated by the parent statute. While we await the
implementation of suitable parliamentary safeguards, keeping track of an unending list of rules, regulations,
notifications, and circulars has long become the ‘new normal’ for corporate law practitioners!!
Source:https://corporate.cyrilamarchandblogs.com/2022/01/the-rise-rise-of-delegated-legislation-do-we-need-
more-safeguards/
74. Which of the following statement cannot be (a) For corporate law practitioners, an endless
deduced as per the passage? litany of rules, regulations, notifications, and
(a) Delegated legislation destroys the very fabric circulars has become ubiquitous due to
of doctrine of separation of powers. delegated legislations(s).
(b) All delegated legislation seeks to cover the (b) An overburdened legislature may go over the
ambit of those policy framework, upon which permissible delegation limitations and the
the parliament should hold the authority. corporate law realm is considerably most
(c) The basic structure of the constitution is affected by this.
basically the rule of law which further entails (c) The execution of corporate transactions is
the stability and consistency of the legal significantly affected because the frequent
system. changes in law; all thanks to the delegated
(d) Delegated legislation in all likelihood never legislation.
become obsolete because it helps in (d) The scope of delegated legislation should be
addressing the practical difficulties. kept aloof from corporate law realm, due to
lack of merits.
75. Which of the following statement is not true about
the delegated legislation in corporate law realm?
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76. Which of the following option(s) can be directly (d) Since delegated legislation has been so closely
inferred from the statement- “In addition to intertwined with corporate law, it has become
ensuring meaningful parliamentary supervision, a the ‘new normal’ for corporate law
periodic review is necessary for evaluating practitioners, hence there is no requirement of
whether the delegated legislations are in declaring the delegated legislation as void.
conformity with the policy enunciated by the
parent statute”? 78. Suppose in the previous question, the suit filed by
(a) The parliament has failed to supervise if the CEO has reached the courts and they have sent
delegated legislation transcends the boundary a notice to the regulators to give a response within
of permissible limits or not. 2 days, which of the following according to your
(b) Seldom, it is the case that the delegated understanding of the passage can be the valid
legislation does not conforms with the ambit counter argument of the regulators in the court of
provided by the parent legislation. law, against the argument of the plaintiff?
(c) Delegated legislations derive their authority (a) It is convenient for them and it saves a lot of
from a parent legislation created under time since the entire process of parliamentary
parliamentary supervision. legislation is avoided.
(d) It would not be wrong to say that periodic (b) Because rules and regulations can be quickly
review can ensure meaningful parliamentary changed with the help of delegated legislation
supervision over delegated legislation. to solve practical issues or close gaps which
are needed for the laws to operate smoothly.
77. The CEO of a very reputed company was recently (c) The rule of law is dependent on the stability
made aware of the new developments in the and uniformity of the legal system which can
corporate sector, wherein the ministry of only be derived from delegated legislation.
corporate affairs was delegated certain powers by (d) It leads to regular changes in the law, with
a new act to ascertain that all the big corporate many of these changes having major
houses maintain transparency in their business ramifications for the growth of corporate
transactions. The CEO filed a case citing that this transactions.
new development is intrusive in his business and
hence should be declared null and void. With the 79. Which of the following is the correct reason as to
understanding of the passage choose the best why the supreme court believes that delegation
answer. per se is intrinsically dangerous?
(a) The new act should not be declared void (a) The delegated authority may not correctly
because delegated legislation is the part and describe the governing principles under which
parcel of the ‘law-making’ prerogative of the the delegated legislations must function.
legislature. (b) A law issued by Parliament should include
(b) The new act should be declared void because substantial policy problems that are
multiple legislation directly touches upon frequently delegated.
substantive policy issue(s), pertaining to (c) Legislative policy is the legislature's sole
corporate law hence delegated legislation is authority, and it cannot be delegated to the
not required. executive.
(c) The new act should not be declared void (d) The stability of our legal system is severely
because the complexities and the practical harmed by frequent changes in the law
considerations involved in the corporate law through delegated legislation.
realm can only be tackled with the help of
delegated legislation.
Passage (Q.80-Q.84): Abortion is a highly debateable around the globe due to its socio-medical, religious as well as
constitutional aspects. There exists a continuous question on woman's rights with regards to her will to abort, as is
the abortion rights really a free right to a woman or is it a conditional right and also whether women's right to abort
or the foetus (unborn child's) rights to live should be focused upon.
Issues related to abortion in India raises questions under Article 21 of the Constitution as there is Right to privacy
granted as a fundamental right that takes under its purview immunity from outside interference in matters that are
personal and intimate such as marriage, child-rearing and the use of contraception and along with this the Right to
202
life with dignity is given which permits abortion for reasonable reasons for the dignified life of the woman and it is
a woman's absolute right to live with human dignity.
The Indian penal code of 1860 under section 312-316 has made the process of induced abortion punishable that is
causing to miscarriage which is not done in good faith for saving the life of the woman is considered as a crime.
Under these sections miscarriages which are not done for the purpose of saving the life of a woman is punishable
and if the "woman is quick with the child" i.e. when movements can be felt by the mother in her womb it is
considered as culpable homicide.
Intent of legislature in formation of the medical termination of pregnancy act 1971 was aimed to legalize the process
the abortion in exceptional cases and the main purpose of the act or the intent of legislation was to provide the
medical filed, doctors, medical staff, nurses 'a safeguard' from the investigations under IPC as the laws were very
strict and many illegal and unsafe abortions were done.
80. A petition was filed in the court for getting (c) The Indian Constitution allows abortion under
permission for a 20 week post pregnancy as under the fundamental right under Article 21 as right
the MTP act. The unborn child was suffering from to life with personal liberty but still there is
heart defect which was diagnosed by the medical various restriction, checks and balances placed
practitioner after 20 weeks of the pregnancy and and there is a requirement to meet different
the condition was very serious at that when the needs of the society.
child would be born he would need to have an (d) The constitution on one hand states that a
operation of heart and a pacemaker which may woman should have complete freedom
could also harm him in other ways, this petition towards her body and her decisions but on the
was dismissed on the grounds that the medical other hand the MTP Act restricts this right as a
board appointed for an opinion said that the child woman herself is not allowed to decide
would not suffer any serious disability in life and regarding her own will to abort or not.
with the help of a heart surgery everything could
be okay. Determine if this is a violation of Nikita 82. Assertion: More than anything a person's right to
constitutional rights provided under article 21. abortion is a person's right to their own body.
(a) Yes, because the doctor's refusal to grant the Reason: There is a recurring dilemma about a
abortion request directly violates Nikita's right woman's rights in relation to her desire to abort, if
to live with dignity under Article 21. women's right to abort or the foetus' right to life
(b) No, because article 21 protects the right to life should be prioritised.
of the foetus. (a) Both A and R are true but R is not correct
(c) Yes, because the woman has the right to life explanation of A.
with dignity, which allows for abortion in some (b) Both A and R are true and R is correct
circumstances. explanation of A.
(d) No, as miscarriages done when movements (c) A is true but R is false.
can be felt by the mother in her womb is (d) A is false but R is true.
considered as culpable homicide.
83. Choose a sentence that perfectly balances the
81. "foetus's right to life" under Article 21 is alleged to position of MTP, IPC, and article 21 on women and
be debatable issue in the opinion of the author. foetus’s right to life:
Choose an appropriate remark on this subject in I. Laws which criminalise all abortions, except
accordance with the information provided in the those required to save a mother’s life, were
passage. unconstitutional and violated the right to
(a) There are numerous debates about the stand privacy of a pregnant woman.
of law in this regard and various judgements II. Right should be balanced against the right of
have given different views. the state’s legitimate interest in protecting
(b) the article 21 of Constitution guarantees right both the pregnant woman’s health and the
to life with liberty and right to privacy to a potentiality of human life at various stages of
woman within the right as a freedom to choose pregnancy under the provision of various
on her own whether she wants abort the child laws.
or not under reasonable condition.
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III. Abortion under any circumstances, except 84. Choose a statement which correctly describes the
danger to a pregnant woman’s life, was illegal position the women with respect to right to
in India. abortion in the present scenario:
IV. The MTP Act overrides the IPC by allowing a (a) A woman can terminate her pregnancy, under
woman to get an abortion within the first 12 certain circumstances in which a pregnancy
weeks of pregnancy, provided a registered can be terminated at any stage.
medical practitioner diagnoses grave danger (b) It is clear that the objective of enacting the
to the pregnant woman’s physical and mental MTP Act was far from any consideration of a
health. woman’s right to make reproductive choices.
V. It was observed that as a result of these (c) The right to have an abortion is a facet of the
stringent provisions of the law, the health and right to privacy guaranteed under Article 21.
lives of many women seeking abortions were (d) Although women’s reproductive decisional
being compromised. autonomy has been recognised by the
(a) I, II , III and V (b) II Supreme Court, its full realisation would only
(c) III and V (d) V be possible if the provisions of the IPC making
abortions a criminal offence were to be struck
down, and a woman’s decision to terminate
her pregnancy be left up to her and her doctor.
20
4
SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
Passage (Q.85-Q.90): Oxfam’s report on global inequality, Inequality INC., has been published at the onset of the
Davos meeting, which is considered to be a conclave of the richest among the rich. Some numbers in the report are
truly startling. According to Oxfam, the top five billionaires of the world have doubled their wealth since 2020, while
4.8 billion people have experienced a drop in their real incomes compared to what they were in 2019. Poverty has
sharpened and the wealth gap widened. The biggest firms earned $1.8 trillion in profits during 2022-23 — a 52%
jump compared to the profits earned during 2018-21. At the same time, 791 million workers failed to keep up their
real incomes in the face of stiff consumer price inflation. Collectively, they lost $1.5 trillion in wages. The wealth of
the top five individuals would take 476 years to be exhausted if they chose to spend it at their current rate of
consumption. The picture in India continues to be bleak and unacceptable. The top 10% owns 77% of the nation’s
wealth. The wealth of billionaires has increased by a factor of ten in one decade. In 2017, out of all the wealth
generated in India, 73% went to the richest 1% and only 1% went to the poorest 50%. It is claimed that it will take
a rural worker in India 941 years to earn what a top executive in a garment factory receives. In India, the brunt of
poverty and deprivation is faced by women and children. The measure of unpaid work for women, in terms of
cooking, cleaning and looking after children, is estimated to be equivalent to 3.1% of the national income.
Like India, many parts of the world are fractured in terms of caste, class, gender, and religion. Growing inequalities
add another fissure: it concentrates power and influence in the hands of a tiny few. Politics, commerce, government
policies, consumer tastes, environmental conservation are all heavily influenced by the members of the corporate
club. Politicians are, more often than not, mere puppets in their hands. Economic inequality breeds and reinforces
other kinds of inequalities. For instance, income and wealth inequalities lead to unequal access to health services,
educational opportunities, credit lines, and social recognition. The quality of life, even if one takes only the average,
is not something to be proud of. It is certainly the best of times for a handful. It is the worst of times for most.
85. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the 87. Considering the statement that the wealth of the top
trend in global wealth distribution since 2020, five individuals would take 476 years to exhaust at
especially in relation to the top five billionaires and their current rate of consumption, what conclusion
the general populace? can be drawn about the rate of wealth accumulation
(a) The general populace's wealth has increased versus the rate of consumption among these
proportionally with that of the billionaires. individuals?
(b) The wealth of the top five billionaires has (a) The rate of wealth accumulation far exceeds the
remained relatively constant since 2020. rate of consumption.
(c) The wealth gap between the richest and the (b) The wealth accumulation and consumption
poorest has significantly widened. rates are approximately equal.
(d) The real incomes of the majority have grown, (c) The rate of consumption is significantly higher
but not as fast as those of billionaires. than the rate of wealth accumulation.
(d) The rate of consumption has increased
86. The passage mentions a significant increase in dramatically over the past few years.
corporate profits alongside a decrease in real
incomes for a large segment of workers. What 88. The passage provides specific statistics on wealth
assumption does the passage make about the distribution in India. What does this data imply
relationship between these two phenomena? about the economic structure and inequality within
(a) Corporate profits and workers' incomes are the country?
directly proportional to each other. (a) There is a balanced distribution of wealth
(b) Increased corporate profits lead to a among different economic classes in India.
corresponding increase in workers' wages. (b) The economic structure in India favors equitable
(c) The rise in corporate profits is at the expense of wealth accumulation for all citizens.
workers' real incomes. (c) The wealth distribution in India is skewed,
(d) Corporate profits and workers' real incomes are favoring the top 10% of the population.
independent variables. (d) The middle class in India holds the majority of
the nation's wealth.
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89. Based on the passage, how does economic inequality 90. The passage suggests a link between economic
appear to affect political and commercial power inequality and other forms of inequality. What kind
dynamics, particularly in relation to politicians and of relationship does the passage imply exists
corporate entities? between economic disparities and access to
(a) Economic inequality has little to no influence on essential services and opportunities?
political and commercial power dynamics. (a) Economic disparities ensure equal access to
(b) Economic inequality consolidates power and essential services for all social classes.
influence in the hands of a few. (b) There is no significant correlation between
(c) Politicians and corporate entities collaborate to economic disparities and access to services.
reduce economic inequality. (c) Economic disparities lead to improved access to
(d) The passage suggests that economic equality is services for underprivileged groups.
prevalent in political circles. (d) Income and wealth inequalities result in unequal
access to essential services.
Passage (Q.91-Q.96): Across states, individual rights – including those enshrined in the Constitution – seem to be
under constant threat from the mob, acting as a self-styled moral police. Last week, two horrific incidents of assault
in Karnataka underlined, once again, the disturbing intolerance for inter-faith relationships among consenting
adults – real and imagined – and the casual resort to violence. In these cases, the criminals objected to Muslim
women being involved with men from other communities. Their logic is the same as those who raise the bogey of
“love jihad” and the prevalence of this disturbing phenomenon across communities and geographies needs a more
robust response from the criminal-justice machinery.
On January 13, seven men were arrested after they assaulted two people – mistaking them for an inter-faith couple
– at a park in Belagavi city. The young Muslim woman was with her cousin, a Hindu. A day later in Haveri district,
five men barged into a hotel room and allegedly assaulted a man and attacked and raped the woman. They recorded
and circulated videos of their criminal act. State Home Minister G Parameshwara said the law will take its course.
Perhaps it will. But the violence on couples for “love jihad” in UP, Haryana Rajasthan, or in the case of Karnataka
between Muslim women and non-Muslim men, the casual manner in which incidents of violence are recorded and
distributed online, call for a broader response. Chief Minister Siddaramiah had promised action against such crimes
when he took office. Thus far, it seems his government has fallen short. Instead, his colleague, Parameshwara, is
engaging in whataboutery by asking, “Weren’t there crimes against women doing BJP’s rule”.
Governments – whether of the Congress, BJP or any other party – need to draw sharp lines. Leaders and parties
cannot hint at even tacit support for such acts of violence. Unfortunately, many of those who have sworn their oath
on the Constitution have equivocated on the issue of inter-faith and sometimes, even inter-caste relationships.
Another disturbing aspect of the attack in Haveri was the culprits using the internet to broadcast their crime. The
misuse of technology in this manner requires the police to increase their capabilities in dealing with cybercrime.
Campaigns that address the stigma that often gets attached to victims of sexual violence must be launched. As of
2021, the conviction rate in India for crimes against women was an abysmal 26 per cent. That figure represents a
shortcoming that must be urgently addressed by investigating and prosecuting agencies. For the broader political
class and civil society, the task is simple: The freedom of choice of individuals must be protected, not sacrificed at
the altar of thin-skinned prejudice.
91. How does the passage construct the argument that (c) Highlighting the government's failure to protect
the freedom of choice in relationships is being inter-faith couples as an infringement on
compromised, and what role do the examples of freedom.
violence in Karnataka play in this argument? (d) Demonstrating that societal attitudes towards
(a) By showing that inter-faith relationships often inter-faith relationships are largely positive.
lead to violence and societal disruption.
(b) The examples are used to illustrate the 92. What is the passage suggesting as a primary cause
consequences of prejudice against inter-faith for the low conviction rate in crimes against women
relationships. in India, and how does this relate to the broader
issue of violence against inter-faith couples?
206
(a) Insufficient legal frameworks leading to (c) To highlight the inadequacy of the government's
ineffective prosecution of inter-faith violence measures against inter-faith violence.
cases. (d) To show the government's proactive approach
(b) Inadequate police capabilities in dealing with in enhancing cybercrime capabilities.
cybercrime linked to inter-faith violence.
(c) Tacit support for violence by political leaders 95. Based on the information provided, what can be
influencing judicial outcomes. inferred about the impact of political leadership and
(d) The stigma attached to victims of sexual violence party stance on the issue of inter-faith violence and
affecting their willingness to testify. communal intolerance in Karnataka?
(a) Political leadership has been effective in
93. The passage discusses the need for a robust significantly reducing incidents of inter-faith
response from the criminal-justice machinery to violence.
address the issue of violence against inter-faith (b) Political equivocation has contributed to a lack
couples. What criteria would be most important in of decisive action against inter-faith violence.
evaluating the effectiveness of such a response? (c) Party stances have had little to no impact on the
(a) The increase in public awareness campaigns prevalence of inter-faith violence.
about inter-faith tolerance. (d) Political parties have uniformly condemned
(b) The number of arrests made in cases of inter- inter-faith violence, leading to improved
faith violence. harmony.
(c) Improvement in the conviction rate for crimes
against inter-faith couples. 96. What assumption underlies the author's claim that
(d) The implementation of stricter laws against campaigns addressing the stigma attached to victims
inter-faith violence. of sexual violence are necessary?
(a) Victims of sexual violence are often blamed for
94. In the context of the passage, how does the author the incidents, hindering justice.
use the statement by State Home Minister G (b) There is a lack of awareness about the
Parameshwara to further the argument about the consequences of sexual violence in society.
government's response to inter-faith violence? (c) Sexual violence cases are predominantly caused
(a) To illustrate the government's commitment to by inter-faith relationships.
justice in inter-faith violence cases. (d) Campaigns can directly lead to an increase in the
(b) As evidence of the government's passive stance conviction rate for such crimes.
on inter-faith violence.
Passage (Q.97-Q.102): As we wend our way from toddlerhood to older adulthood, we have a desire to be useful.
It's a fundamental aspect of human experience that evolves as we traverse different stages of life. From toddler
years, when little ones eagerly mimic their parents in an effort to be helpful, to the later years, when adults find
fulfillment in providing for their families or contributing to their communities, the need to feel useful runs deep.
Toddlers are not merely playing make-believe when they attempt to assist parents with chores or activities; they
seek validation and purpose through usefulness. The drive to feel useful is vital for their development, fostering
confidence and autonomy as they grow. During adolescence, the urge for usefulness can surface through academic
accomplishments or extracurricular activities, indicating their adolescent's value and significance to themselves and
others.
Adults find meaning and fulfillment in being of service to others. Young adulthood is fraught with the quest for
identity and purpose. Feeling useful and needed helps young adults navigate this pivotal phase, anchoring them as
they explore their place in the world (Fuligni, 2021). Middle age is a time when adults need their usefulness to be
reflected in generative or outward-focused activities, such as caregiving, volunteering, or mentoring others.
As we age, mattering becomes increasingly significant. Feeling useful and needed bolsters our sense of importance
to others, a buffer against loneliness and physical decline. Even for individuals grappling with dementia (van Vliet,
2017), the desire to feel useful remains, highlighting the enduring nature of this drive.
207
Conversely, the absence of feeling useful can profoundly affect well-being. Feelings of worthlessness, depression,
and anxiety may take root, leading to harmful coping mechanisms, such as substance abuse or self-harm. The
importance of fostering a sense of usefulness throughout life cannot be overstated.
For some individuals, retirement can bring about loss of a sense of purpose and onset of feeling useless. The
importance of engaging in activities that provide a sense of usefulness and fulfillment is key to maintaining well-
being. Whether pursuing personal projects driven by intrinsic motivation, such as a hobby, or engaging in
mentorship, finding avenues to contribute and feel useful can imbue life with purpose.
The pursuit of usefulness is a fundamental aspect of the human experience woven into the fabric of our lives from
early childhood to older adulthood. It's a journey marked by moments of fulfillment, significance, and connection,
reminding us of our inherent capacity to make a difference in the world around us.
97. What evidence from the passage most effectively (d) The absence of feeling useful can lead to feelings
reinforces the claim that the need to feel useful is of worthlessness and depression.
vital for toddler development?
(a) Toddlers mimic their parents to seek validation 100. Which statement best encapsulates the author's
and purpose through usefulness. main argument regarding the role of usefulness in
(b) The drive to feel useful fosters confidence and human life across different life stages?
autonomy as toddlers grow. (a) Usefulness fosters personal growth and
(c) Adolescents find significance in extracurricular autonomy from childhood through adulthood.
activities, indicating their value. (b) The need to feel useful is a fundamental human
(d) Feeling useful helps young adults navigate the desire that evolves over a lifetime.
quest for identity and purpose. (c) Engaging in useful activities primarily prevents
feelings of worthlessness in adults.
98. Based on the passage, which criterion is most critical (d) Usefulness in later life stages is less about
for assessing the impact of usefulness on mitigating personal fulfillment and more about legacy.
feelings of worthlessness and depression in adults?
(a) The number of activities adults engage in to feel 101. What does the passage suggest is a likely effect of
useful and needed. adolescents achieving academic accomplishments or
(b) The depth of personal fulfillment adults derive engaging in extracurricular activities in terms of
from engaging in useful activities. their need to feel useful?
(c) The recognition adults receive from others for (a) It enhances their social status among peers,
their contributions to the community. thereby increasing their confidence.
(d) The variety of roles adults assume in their (b) It directly contributes to their sense of value and
professional and personal lives. significance to themselves and others.
(c) It prepares them for future professional success
99. What information in the passage could be used to by building necessary skills.
argue against the idea that feeling useful can serve (d) It alleviates the pressures of adolescent identity
as a significant buffer against loneliness and physical crises by providing a clear path forward.
decline in older adults?
(a) Toddlers mimic their parents to seek validation, 102. What is the central theme of the passage ?
not older adults. (a) The importance of academic achievements
(b) Adolescents value extracurricular activities for during adolescence.
their sense of significance. (b) The role of caregiving in middle age.
(c) Adults find fulfillment in being of service, (c) The fundamental human desire to feel useful
without specific mention of older adults. and needed throughout various life stages.
(d) The impact of retirement on mental health.
208
Passage (Q.103-Q.108): The young state of Jharkhand has proved to be quite a political minefield. A reliable
marker of its tremor-filled political terrain is the number of chief ministers it has had — 12 — in its existence of 24
years. Champai Soren of the Jharkhand Mukti Morcha taking up the reins — his government won the trust vote on
Monday — would have been consistent with Jharkhand’s topsy-turvy political record but for the unprecedented
circumstances that led to his anointment. His predecessor, Hemant Soren, resigned as chief minister after he was
arrested by the Enforcement Directorate on charges of money-laundering in a land deal. The Jharkhand High Court,
which is hearing the case, has sought a response from the investigating agency. Hemant Soren has denied the
allegations and alleged the involvement of not just the Bharatiya Janata Party but also the governor for hatching a
plot to remove him from power. His resignation and arrest were followed by the now familiar whispers of the BJP
trying to poach members from its opponents. But the result of Monday’s floor test confirms that Operation Lotus —
the term for the BJP’s mischievous strategy of winning power by engineering defections in rival camps — has been
stalled for now in Jharkhand.
The impact of the goings-on in Jharkhand would not be limited to that particular state. They have wider
ramifications. Hemant Soren’s recent remarks and, in particular, his choice of Champai Soren as his successor
indicate his willingness to take the battle to the BJP. Aggrieved Adivasi sentiments would undoubtedly be harnessed
in this campaign since the JMM’s core support base stems from scheduled tribes who are an influential bloc that
decides Jharkhand’s political trajectory. The BJP’s move to counter this mobilisation would be crucial in deciding
which way the political wind blows in the general elections. Hemant Soren’s decision to court arrest instead of
wilting to coercion could also have an additional implication: it could galvanise the Opposition that has been
beleaguered by desertions of political leaders who claim to have a heftier clout. In fact, Hemant Soren’s credibility
as a feisty leader unafraid to stand up to challenges on his way could also create for him some elbow room for
manoeuvring within the alliance. How his competitive allies respond to the sheen in his image would be interesting
to watch.
103. Which piece of evidence, if true, would most (c) The BJP has increased its efforts to engage with
strengthen the argument that Hemant Soren's the public through community service
choice of Champai Soren as his successor was a initiatives.
strategic move to consolidate support among the (d) Recent polls indicate a slight increase in public
Adivasi community? support for the BJP in Jharkhand.
(a) Champai Soren has previously led successful
campaigns for Adivasi rights and land 105. To evaluate the impact of Hemant Soren's arrest on
preservation. the BJP's political strategies in Jharkhand, which of
(b) Hemant Soren and Champai Soren share a long the following would be most important to know?
history of political alliance and mutual support. (a) The level of public support for Hemant Soren in
(c) Champai Soren has announced plans to Jharkhand before his arrest.
introduce policies specifically benefiting the (b) The BJP's current standing and popularity in
Adivasi community. constituencies predominantly supporting
(d) A recent survey shows that Champai Soren is the Hemant Soren.
most popular political figure among the Adivasi (c) The historical effectiveness of the BJP's
community. strategies in similar political situations in other
states.
104. What information, if confirmed, would most (d) The number of political leaders in Jharkhand
significantly weaken the claim that Operation Lotus who have been arrested on similar charges.
has been effectively stalled in Jharkhand following
the recent trust vote? 106. What can most reasonably be inferred about the
(a) Several members of the opposition have publicly political climate in Jharkhand from the description of
expressed dissatisfaction with their party its history of frequent changes in chief ministership?
leadership. (a) Political parties in Jharkhand are highly
(b) A significant number of legislators are collaborative and frequently form coalition
reportedly considering a shift to the BJP after the governments.
trust vote.
209
(b) The electorate in Jharkhand is highly volatile, (c) Opposition parties will likely rally around
often swinging between different political Hemant Soren, strengthening their unity.
parties. (d) The arrest will cause a shift in the opposition's
(c) Political stability in Jharkhand is challenged by focus towards economic issues.
frequent leadership changes and political
rivalries. 108. What is the primary concern expressed in the
(d) Economic policies in Jharkhand are highly passage regarding the political tactics employed by
consistent despite the frequent changes in the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in Jharkhand?
leadership. (a) The BJP's extensive use of social media
campaigns to influence voter opinions.
107. Based on the passage, what is the most likely effect (b) The alleged involvement of the BJP in
of Hemant Soren's arrest and subsequent events on engineering defections from other parties.
the unity and strategy of the opposition parties in (c) The BJP's focus on economic development as a
the context of the upcoming general elections? means to gain electoral support.
(a) It will lead to an immediate fragmentation (d) The implementation of new laws that could
among the opposition parties. potentially suppress opposition voices.
(b) The opposition will be galvanized, focusing their
strategy on anti-corruption narratives.
210
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Direction (Q.109-Q.120): Refer to the following information and answer the following questions.
Directions (Q.109- Q.114): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow:
There are total 1200 employees in two branches of an office having five different departments viz. Finance, HR,
Operations, Sales and Accounts. The two branches are in Delhi and Mumbai.
Forty-eight percent of the employees work in D elhi branch. One-fourth of the employees in Mumbai branch work
in Finance department. One- eighth of the employees working in Mumbai are in Sales department. Total 250
employees work in Finance department. The number of employees working in Operations in Mumbai is fifty percent
more than the number of employees working in Sales in the same branch. 150 employees work in Accounts
department in Delhi branch which is twice the number of employees working in HR department of the Mumbai
branch. Half of the remaining employees in Delhi work in Operations. The number of employees in the HR
department of Mumbai branch is twenty-five percent less than the number of employees working in the Sales
department of the Delhi branch.
109. What is the difference between the number of 112. What is the ratio between the number of
employees working in HR and Sales department in employees working in HR department of Delhi
the Mumbai branch together and the number of branch and number of employees working in
employees working in the Operations and Accounts department of the Mumbai branch?
Accounts department in the Delhi branch (a) 2:1 (b) 3:7
together? (c) 2:5 (d) 1:3
(a) 163 (b) 155
(c) 161 (d) 159 113. What percent of the total employees work in the
Sales department of the Delhi branch?
110. Approximately what percent of employees in the (a) 20% (b) 8.33%
Delhi branch work in Accounts department? (c) 12% (d) 16.66%
(a) 32% (b) 28%
(c) 26% (d) 20% 114. Find the sum of the average number of employees
working in Sales and Operations department of the
111. What is the sum of the number of employees Delhi branch and the average number of
working in Finance and Sales department of both employees working in the HR and Operations
branches? department of the Mumbai branch.
(a) 428 (b) 432 (a) 235 (b) 229
(c) 416 (d) 445 (c) 225 (d) 244
Directions (Q.115-Q.120): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow:
In an International Sports Tournament, four Asian countries (India, China, Pakistan and Bangladesh) took part and
won one of the three medals – Gold, Silver or Bronze. China won 21 silver medals in the tournament. The number of
bronze medals won by Pakistan is thrice the number of silver medal won by it. The ratio between the number of
gold medals won by China and Pakistan is 5:4. Bangladesh won 26 bronze medals. India won 10 more gold medals
than China. The number of Gold medals won by China and India is 25% more than the number of gold medals won
by Pakistan and Bangladesh. The number of Gold medal won by India is 13 more than the number of gold medal
won by Bangladesh. Pakistan won 108 medals. The number of gold medals won by Pakistan is equal to the bronze
medal won by China. The gold medals won by Bangladesh is 1 less than the bronze medals won by India. The number
of silver medals won by India is twice the number of silver medals won by Pakistan. The ratio between the number
of silver medal won by Bangladesh and number of bronze medal won by China is 1:2.
211
115. What is the total number of medals won by for bronze medal winners, then what is the total cash
Bangladesh in the tournament? prize won by Pakistan(in lakhs)?
(a) 98 (b) 125 (a) 36.4 (b) 38.2
(c) 122 (d) 100 (c) 35.5 (d) 32.6
116. The number of silver medals won by India and China 119. What is the ratio between the number of medals won
is what percent of the number of bronze medals won by India and China?
by India? (a) 5:7 (b) 4:5
(a) 80% (b) 100% (c) 6:7 (d) 5:4
(c) 150% (d) 125%
120. Find the difference between the number of silver
117. What is the average number of gold medals won by medals won by Pakistan and Bangladesh together
all the countries? and the number of bronze medal won by India and
(a) 58 (b) 55 Pakistan together.
(c) 54 (d) 56 (a) 63 (b) 65
(c) 69 (d) 72
118. If the cash prize for Gold medal winners is Rs.50,000,
Rs.30,000 for silver medal winners and Rs.20,000
212
ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (d) There is a clear bias against the girl child as mentioned Insipid is boring or has too little taste, flavour or
in the initial part of the passage. colour.
Refer to the lines – ‘A decline of 26 points is indicative From the meanings of each word, it is clear that option
of a clear bias against the girl child in a cultural milieu (b) gives the correct answer.
mediated by a range of factors- a feudal history, 6. (d) (D) Hyperbole
stringent patriarchy, rigid gender norms and deep- The phrase "on the brink of disaster" exaggerates the
rooted disadvantages which pervade all spheres of severity of the situation regarding the state's
domestic and social life.’ It is clear that all the factors development graph, suggesting an imminent and
given in the options are correct. Hence, option (d) is extreme outcome. This exaggeration serves to
the correct answer. emphasize the urgency of the issue and the potential
2. (d) Women and girls face various types of violence and catastrophic consequences if not addressed promptly.
discrimination throughout their life cycle. This reflects Hyperbole is a figure of speech characterized by
in the declining sex ratio and the decoy operations exaggerated statements or claims not meant to be
which highlights the role of unscrupulous doctors in taken literally, which is precisely the function of the
female foeticide. Options (a), (b) and (d) are related to phrase in this context.
the violence against the fairer sex. Option A) Simile- It involves comparing two unlike
But option (d) is not correct in this context. It is things using "like" or "as." However, the phrase "on the
positive and not negatively related to the violence brink of disaster" does not contain a direct comparison
against women and girls. using "like" or "as," making it unsuitable for a simile.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. Option B) Metaphor- It is a figure of speech that
3. (a) It is mentioned in the last sentence of the passage that implies a comparison between two unlike things by
despite the rhetoric, an obvious lack of political will to stating that one thing is another. While the phrase "on
save the girl child shows that the development graph the brink of disaster" does convey a sense of
of the state is on the brink of disaster. comparison, it does not directly equate one thing to
The lack of political will reflected in the lackadaisical another, as required for a metaphor.
approach of the state towards issues of women’s Option C) Personification- It involves attributing
equality and dignity -weakening of WDP, curtailing of human qualities or actions to non-human entities.
activities of ‘Sathins’ and lack of coordination in However, the phrase "on the brink of disaster" does
government departments show that the political class not assign human characteristics to any non-human
is not interested in improving the condition of women. entity, making it inappropriate for personification.
So, option (a) is the correct answer. Other options are 7. (b) Refer to the lines, ‘Critical reaction to Rawls' approach
not related to governance directly; these are to defining the concept of justice as fairness has
dependent on the lack of political will to improve the centred upon alleged incoherency or problem in his
status of women. contention that principles of justice must be seen as
4. (c) The author ends the passage by highlighting the lack of political in opposition to a more comprehensive view
political will. He has discussed in the last passage how of the good, while yet also believing that justice as
the actions against women’s discrimination are not political does have a moral basis.’ Rawls, on the one
bringing the desired results. So, he can suggest in the hand, speaks of justice as fairness as a political concept
next additional paragraph the strategies and reasons independent of controversial philosophical, moral and
the state can use to address the issues Promoting religious doctrines and arising from an interpretive
women’s empowerment. understanding within the traditions of constitutional
Hence, option (c) is the best logical answer. Other democracy. He also considers the relevance of
options do not find the connection with the last morality, on the other hand. His critics find this
paragraph of the passage. Hence, these options are not contradictory and problematic.
the extension of the passage. Option (a) does not form Hence, option (b) is the correct option. Other options
the part of the last paragraph; therefore, it cannot be fail to show the views of Rawls. Option (a) is ruled out,
the subject matter of the add on paragraph. Option (b) as the word ‘merely’ defies the ideology of Rawl. Rawl
is ruled out as it is not the purpose that will highlight is not criticised for his views on metaphysics or
the add on paragraph. Why would the author discuss a Hobbesian. These ( options (c) and (d) ) are out of the
defunct institutional mechanism? Option (d) is context of the passage.
extreme, even if true as the add on paragraph. 8. (d) The answer to this question can be found in the last
5. (b) Lackadaisical means not showing any interest, care or part of the last paragraph, where it is mentioned that
enthusiasm. In the case of the passage, it indicates Rawls‘views about justice shall not be considered as
halfhearted approach of the state towards issues of the Hobbesian modus vivendi as they have a moral
women’s equality and dignity. component. Refer to the lines, ‘Yet Rawls believes, at
Laidback means not showing any interest or care; a the same time, that justice as fairness is not to be
relaxed approach. Therefore, it is the correct answer. interpreted as a Hobbesian modus vivendi; it has a
Fastidious means difficult to please; wanting moral component, serving as a political agreement
everything to be perfect. between citizens viewed as free and equal persons, an
213
"overlapping consensus" which more comprehensive Option D "Harmony" means the quality of forming a
philosophical, moral and religious doctrine can accept pleasing and consistent whole; it is similar in meaning
in their own way.’ This makes option (d) as the correct to congruency, not an antonym.
answer. Option (c) is contrary. Option (a) provides the 13. (a) The author has said that the key to the formation,
wrong information, for the line given in the passage, survival and decline of all historical societies is their
‘Yet Rawls believes, at the same time, that justice as use of surplus income and resources. Hence, it can be
fairness is not to be interpreted as a Hobbesian understood that societies shall use the resources
modus vivendi; it has a moral component…’ optimally for survival. Hence, option A is the correct
contradicts it. Option (b) is incorrect, for one cannot answer. Option B is contrary to what is stated in the
infer that the Hobbesian theory of justice is similar passage. Option C is not the lesson but the effects of the
to Rawl’s theory. Hence, option (d) can be inferred events. While option D may be true, it is by no means
from the passage. the important lesson cited in the passage. Instead, it is
9. (a) Refer to the lines, ‘But Rawls emphasizes that the the evil borne out of surplus income and resources,
concept of justice as political is not a mere modus leading to the demise of a society.
vivendi, for it embodies an overlapping consensus by 14. (c) It is explicitly mentioned in the passage that the rise
specifying the fair terms of cooperation between and fall of societies can be traced back to ancient times.
citizens that are regarded as free and equal.’ In the It is true of all the ancient empires we know that the
context of the given passage, the author states that cycle of rising and decline appears to be accelerating.
according to Rawls, political justice is not merely a way Terrorism, conflicts, and surplus income might or
of living (Modus Vivendi ), but a political justice might not be the characteristics of all societies. This
specifying the fair terms of cooperation between has not been discussed in the passage. Hence, only
citizens that are regarded as free and equal. Therefore option C is the correct answer.
option (a) is the most suited answer. Option (b) 15. (d) Option (a) is written in the passage. The cycle of rising
comers close, as Modus vivendi is an arrangement or and falling of societies is imminent.
agreement made between people, institutions or Option (b) is correct. The tools of written language or
countries with different opinions to exist and work a reliable oral tradition are needed to know about any
together without disagreeing. But one cannot deduce society. It is mentioned in the second last sentence of
the philosophy based on the contents of the passage. the passage.
Other options are incorrect meanings of the Option (c) is in agreement with the views of the author.
expression. Therefore, only (a) is correct. Refer to the lines, ‘The few traditional sources that
10. (d) The author has not written the text simply and lucidly; look back to the time of state formation are mostly so
instead, he looks professionally esoteric (difficult to tainted by the accumulated myth that they confuse
understand) in his writing. Hence, option (d) is the more than they inform.’
correct answer. Option (d) is an extreme statement. It cannot be
Neither his writing style can be described as loosely understood that the United States is on the brink of
structured (the writing is compactly structured with extinction due to a single terrorist attack. However, it
proper organisation of thoughts) nor circumlocutory might be the start of the fall.
(confusing). His construction of passage and sentence Hence, (d) is the correct statement with which the
structure makes it complicated to comprehend the text author will most likely disagree.
for an average reader. Concludingly, we can say that 16. (c) The meaning of MARAUDING is roaming about and
option (d) is the best. raiding in search of plunder. Option (c) is the correct
11. (c) The passage is about the views of Rawls’ Theory of answer. Plundering( robbing or marauding) given in
Justice and the criticism of his views by others about the passage is the correct synonym.
justice based only on principles of fairness or morality. Extraction means the action of extracting something,
Option (c) is the correct answer. especially using effort or force.
Option (a) is incorrect as no hypothesis is explained in Subsistence means the condition of remaining in
the passage. existence.
Option (b) and option (d) are not relevant to the Remaining means residual or lasting.
passage. Thus, option (c) is the correct answer. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
12. (b) Discrepancy 17. (b) The last paragraph talks about the traditional sources
Explanation- "Congruency" means agreement or not providing authentic information about the rise of
harmony. The antonym of congruency would imply a the empires as they are wrapped in myths, and the last
lack of agreement or harmony. "Discrepancy" means a line is an illustration of the same; therefore, option (b),
lack of compatibility or similarity between two or which provides another example of why traditional
more facts, which is the opposite of congruency. sources cannot be accounted genuinely for the origin
Option A "Alignment" means arrangement in a straight of a state, as they are tainted with myth, is the correct
line or in correct relative positions; it is similar in answer. Option (a) is close enough but more as the
meaning to congruency, not an antonym. conclusion. Between the two options (a) and (b), the
Option C "Agreement" means harmony or accordance immediate follow-up would be option (b), not (a).
in opinion or feeling; it is similar in meaning to Option (c) finds no link with the last line. Option (d)
congruency, not an antonym. will not form the last lines as a follow-up, for it is
disjointed to the last lines that give an example of why
historical sources cannot be trusted.
214
18. (c) Downfall hence, it is an adjective. Thus, option (b) is the correct
Explanation- "Nemesis" refers to a long-standing rival answer. Other options do not reflect the right parts of
or an agent of someone's or something's downfall. In speech of one or more words.
the context of the passage, it suggests a force that Hence the correct answer is option (b).
brings about the decline or destruction of a 22. (b) Rationale: Heterogeneity is the composition of
superpower, in this case, the United States. Therefore, dissimilar parts. It is discrepancy or inconsistency;
"downfall" is the word closest in meaning to therefore, ‘medley, which means a mixture, especially
"nemesis." of heterogenous elements, is the correct answer.
Option A "Ally" means a state or person formally Options (a) and (c) are contrary to the meaning; hence
cooperating with another for a military or other they are antonyms. ‘luminous’ which means bright, is
purpose. This is almost the opposite of "nemesis," unrelated, making Option (d) incorrect. Therefore,
which indicates an adversarial relationship. Option (b) is the correct answer.
Option (b) "Benefactor" refers to a person who gives Hence the answer is (b).
money or other help to a person or cause. This is not 23. (c) Rationale: In the passage, the author disagrees with
related to the concept of a "nemesis," which implies the Stolper–Samuelson‐type effects and presents their
opposition rather than support. own views regarding the discrepancy in individual
Option (d) "Success" refers to the accomplishment of attitudes toward free trade policy. The author tries for
an aim or purpose. This is the opposite of "nemesis," the readers to see their concept through
which signifies downfall or failure. rationalization; hence the writing style is persuasive.
19. (d) Rationale: Refer to the lines, ‘What is the reason for Persuasive: In this writing style, the writer is trying to
this large gap between the poor and the rich in terms convince the reader of the validity of a certain position
of their views on the potential benefits from or argument. Persuasive writing includes the writers’
international trade? Conventional wisdom suggests opinions and provides justifications and evidence to
that the reason for this disparity is broadly related to support their claims.
the Stolper–Samuelson‐type effects when people with Examples: Letters of recommendation; cover letters;
different skills, abilities or employment statuses Op-Eds and Editorial newspaper articles;
experience heterogeneous effects of trade on their argumentative essays for academic papers.
earnings. I argue, however, that even in the absence of Hence, Option (c) is the correct answer.
asymmetric wage effects, the welfare gains from trade Narrative: Often seen in longer writing samples, the
are highly heterogeneous across consumers due to purpose of this writing style is to share information in
consumer‐specific price effects. For instance, in 2006 the context of a story. Narratives should include
in the US, 32% of consumers believed that free trade characters, conflicts, and settings.
agreements would lead to a decrease in domestic Examples: Short stories; novels; poetry; historical
prices, while 30% believed they would increase them accounts.
and 23% expected no significant change.’ The above Descriptive: This type of writing is used to depict
lines make options (a), (b) and (c) correct, and Option imagery to create a clear picture in the mind of the
(d) false. reader. This method helps the readers become more
Hence the correct answer is Option (d). connected to the writing by appealing to their senses.
20. (a) Rationale: The entire passage is about the Descriptive writing employs literary techniques such
heterogeneous Individual attitudes to free trade as similes, metaphors, allegory, etc to engage the
policies, especially the rich and poor perceiving it audience.
differently. While conventional wisdom suggests that Examples: Poetry; fictional novels or plays; memoirs
the reason for this disparity is broadly related to the or first-hand accounts of events
Stolper–Samuelson‐type effects when people with Expository: This type of writing is used to explain a
different skills, abilities or employment statuses concept and share information with a broader
experience heterogeneous effects of trade on their audience. Expository writing provides evidence,
earnings, the author states that the individual statistics, or results and focuses on the facts of a
difference in attitude is due to consumer‐specific price certain topic. This type is not meant to express
effects. Nevertheless, the disparity exist in how opinions.
individual perceive free trade policies in times of Examples: How-to articles; textbooks; news stories
globalisation, making Option (a) the correct answer. (not editorials or Op-Eds); business, technical, or
Option (b) is contrary to the essence of the passage. scientific writing.
Options C and D are too narrow to be considered titles. 24. (b) Variability
Also, one is unable to figure out what the passage is Explanation- "Non-homotheticity" refers to the
about by reading the titles. absence of uniform proportional changes across
21. (b) Rationale: In the expression‘ heterogeneity of different levels of income or other variables. It
opinions’, the preposition has nouns on either side; implies that preferences or functions exhibit
therefore, the first word is a noun. The same is the case variability across different conditions. Therefore,
with ‘effects’, which can be confused to be a verb, but "variability" is the word closest in meaning to "non-
is a noun. Look carefully at the expression, ‘effects’ is homotheticity."
offset by a preposition. Effects means the Option (a) "Conformity" refers to the act of complying
consequences or outcomes. The word ‘asymmetric’ with rules, standards, or expectations. It does not
describes the price effects of trade liberalisation;
215
capture the idea of variability across different the Supreme Court (SC) of India in a historic ruling that
conditions. has profound implications for political financing in
Option (c) "Regularity" refers to the state of being India. The SC claimed that the EBS had breached
consistent or following a pattern. It is not directly Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution, which guarantees
related to the concept of non-homotheticity, which a person's fundamental right to information.
implies variability rather than consistency. 32. (d) The SC ruled that the EBS was unconstitutional, as
Option (d) "Simplicity" refers to the quality of were the modifications made to the Companies Act of
being easy to understand or do. It does not convey 2013, the Finance Act of 2017, the Representation of
the idea of variability in preferences or functions the People Act (RPA), 1951, and the Income Tax Act of
1961. Similar to promissory notes, electoral bonds are
across different conditions.
financial instruments that businesses and individuals
in India can purchase from the State Bank of India
SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL (SBI) and give to a political party, which has the option
KNOWLEDGE to cash them in.
33. (b) In an effort to purge political funding in India, the
25. (a) The United Nations Conference on the Human Electoral Bonds Scheme was introduced in 2018.
Environment, sometimes referred to as the Stockholm Transparency in electoral funding in India
Conference since it took place in Stockholm, Sweden, was the primary goal of the electoral bonds program.
in 1972, established the UNEP. It helps implement In a nation transitioning to a "cashless-digital
environmental commitments at the national, regional, economy," the government had referred to the plan as
and international levels by using its knowledge to a "electoral reform."When the Electoral Bond Scheme
strengthen environmental standards and practices. was launched in 2018, these bonds were made
26. (c) According to the report, "emission" refers to the available for ten days in January, April, July, and
difference between the expected and actual locations October, depending on what the federal government
of greenhouse gas emissions in 2030 in order to keep might have decided.
global warming well below 2°C or 1.5°C. 34. (a) Originally, parties were required by Section 29C of the
27. (d) CO2 emissions derived from fossil fuels account for Representation of the People Act, 1951, to declare any
about two thirds. Three halves of the present warming contributions exceeding ₹20,000 and to indicate
is the fault of the G20 countries. China, the United whether they came from companies or individual
States, and India are the top three countries that emit donors. Nevertheless, this clause was changed by the
carbon dioxide. The net zero commitments made by 97 Finance Act of 2017 to include an exemption that
parties, covering 82% of global emissions varies states donations made through electoral bonds are
widely and are insufficient. exempt from this requirement.
28. (d) According to a UN assessment, if countries continue 35. (d) Since 2011, National Voters' Day has been celebrated
with their current climate policies, the world would on January 25 every year, across the country to mark
warm by at least 3 degrees Celsius by the end of the the foundation day of the Election Commission of
century. By 2100, the global temperature is expected India, i.e. 25th January 1950
to rise by at least 3°C, and as of 2023, 86 days had gone 36. (d) After India attained independence in 1947, the
above the 1.5°C threshold established by the Paris Constitution of India came into being on 26 January
Agreement. 1950. The Supreme Court of India also came into
29. (a) The US government passed the Inflation Reduction Act existence and its first sitting was held on 28 January
in an effort to combat inflation, cut the deficit, lower 1950. The law declared by the Supreme Court is
the cost of prescription medications for the elderly, binding on all Courts within the territory of India.
and cut carbon emissions. Fit for 55 is a collection of 37. (d) Following fifteen years of negotiations, India recently
recommendations put out by the European signed the Trade and Economic Partnership
Commission to modernize and amend laws within the Agreement (TEPA) with the European Free Trade
European Union (EU) with the aim of reaching climate Association (EFTA), which consists of Iceland,
neutrality by 2050 and lowering net greenhouse gas Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland, four non-EU
emissions by at least 55% by 2030. nations. The agreement promises economic growth,
30. (c) The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) job opportunities, and the strengthening of bilateral
is the leading global authority on the environment. relations; however, it also comes with challenges that
UNEP’s mission is to inspire, inform, and enable need to be addressed in order to move towards a more
nations and peoples to improve their quality of life prosperous and integrated global economy.
without compromising that of future generations. 38. (b) A convention that was signed in Stockholm on January
For over 50 years, UNEP has worked with 4, 1960, created EFTA. It was intended to act as a
governments, civil society, the private sector and UN substitute trade bloc for European nations unable or
entities to address humanity’s most pressing unwilling to become members of the European
environmental challenges - from restoring the ozone Economic Community (EEC), which was the principal
layer to protecting the world's seas and promoting a antecedent of the European Union (EU).
green, inclusive economy. 39. (b) India's 2022–2023 exports to EFTA nations totaled
31. (c) The Electoral Bond Scheme (EBS) and related USD 1.92 billion, compared to USD 16.74 billion in
amendments were unanimously declared imports. In 2022–2023, India and EFTA's bilateral
unconstitutional by a five-judge Constitution Bench of trade was valued at USD 18.65 billion. Norway is
216
India's second-biggest trading partner after atmosphere to hold more moisture. For every 1 degree
Switzerland. India actually has a trade deficit with Celsius rise in average temperature, the atmosphere
Switzerland, which is mostly the result of imports of can hold about 7% more moisture. This makes storms
gold. In March 2024, the Trade and Economic more dangerous as it leads to an increase in
Partnership Agreement (TEPA) between India and the precipitation intensity, duration and/or frequency of
European Free Trade Association was signed. storm.
40. (c) Throughout the next 15 years, EFTA has pledged to 48. (c) Sheikh Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan, popularly
encourage investments that will raise the stock of known by his initials as MBZ or MbZ, is an Emirati
foreign direct investments in India by USD 100 billion royal and politician who currently serves as the third
and help create 1 million direct jobs in the country. A president of the United Arab Emirates and the ruler of
legal commitment to support target-oriented Abu Dhabi.
investment and job creation is being made for the first 49. (d) The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
time in the history of free trade agreements. 99.6% of traces its origins to the 1944 Bretton Woods
India's exports are covered by EFTA's 92.2% tariff Conference, which laid the foundations for the post-
lines. 95.3% of EFTA exports are covered by India's World War II financial system and established two key
82.7% tariff lines, of which more than 80% are imports institutions, the International Monetary Fund (IMF)
of gold. There is no change to the effective duty on gold. and the World Bank. The conference delegates also
41. (a) Following India's agreement with the United Arab recommended the establishment of a complementary
Emirates, the Trade and Economic Partnership institution to be known as the International Trade
Agreement (TEPA) is the second such full-fledged free Organization (ITO), which they envisioned as the third
trade agreement signed. It is anticipated that these leg of the system.
free trade agreements will result in significant tariff 50. (a) The Bretton Woods Conference, officially known as the
reductions, expanded market access, and streamlined United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference,
customs procedures. In 1998, India signed its first FTA was a gathering of delegates from 44 nations that met
with Sri Lanka, followed by the South Asia Free Trade from July 1 to 22, 1944 in Bretton Woods, New
Agreement (SAFTA), which was signed in 2004. Hampshire, to agree upon a series of new rules for the
42. (d) The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is the post-WWII international monetary system. The two
intergovernmental organisation of Iceland, major accomplishments of the conference were the
Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland. It was set up creation of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and
in 1960 by its then seven Member States for the the International Bank for Reconstruction and
promotion of free trade and economic integration Development (IBRD).
between its members. The lessons taken by U.S. policymakers from the
43. (c) The reason for Mumbai’s hot weather is a huge Anti- interwar period informed the institutions created at
Cyclonic Effect developed in the region. Anticyclones the conference. Officials such as President Franklin D.
are areas of high atmospheric pressure. Winds in Roosevelt and Secretary of State Cordell Hull were
anticyclones move downward and compress, causing adherents of the Wilsonian belief that free trade not
heating. They often lead to large-scale heat waves. only promoted international prosperity, but also
Anticyclones can block other weather systems, causing international peace. The experience of the 1930s
extreme conditions around them. In Mumbai, the certainly suggested as much.
anticyclone caused a “heat dome” effect, warming the 51. (a) The topmost decision-making body of the WTO is the
air further. Ministerial Conference, which usually meets every two
44. (a) UAE lies in the arid regions of the world, so such heavy years. It brings together all members of the WTO, all of
rainfalls are unusual there. On average, Dubai which are countries or customs unions. The
experiences 94.7 mm of rain in a year. But this event Ministerial Conference can take decisions on all
was historic as it brought more than 142 mm of rainfall matters under any of the multilateral trade
that had soaked Dubai over 24 hours. agreements.
45. (a) Cloud seeding is a process in which chemicals such as 52. (a) Ajay Banga was selected 14th President of the World
silver iodide crystals are implanted into clouds to Bank Group and began his five-year term as World
increase rainfall in an environment where water Bank Group President on June 2, 2023.
scarcity is a concern. UAE, located in one of the hottest
and driest regions on earth, has been leading the effort SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
to seed clouds and increase precipitation. 53. (a) Option (a) is correct as Section 80 exempts a person
46. (d) There are 3 stages in the formation of a thunderstorm. from criminal liability if, the act was done without any
Cumulus stage: The ground is greatly heated due to criminal intention or knowledge; thus, since Kushal
solar insolation. Due to the intense lifting of an air had no mensrea, the act will come under the ambit of
parcel, a low pressure begins to form (convention). Air section 80. Option (b) is incorrect as the factual query
from the surrounding area rushes in to fill the void resolved around killing Shravana for which Kushal had
created by the low pressure. A towering no intention. Thus, Option (b) is incorrect as it states
cumulonimbus cloud forms due to the intense that it is not an act of accident and Kushal “cannot” be
convection of wet hot air. exempted from the liability. Thus, incorrect.
47. (a) Global warming has led to higher temperatures Option (c) is incorrect as it does not determine
causing evaporation of water not only from land but whether or not Kushal can claim exemption under
also oceans and other water bodies, causing a warmer section 80. That is present in Option (a) making it the
217
better answer. Option (d) is not correct as it the given fleeing but merely refused to explain his actions. Thus,
statement is no where relevant with the factual query incorrect
presented. Thus, not correct. 58. (c) As per Supreme Court, a post/movie may well be
54. (b) Option (a) is erroneous since Kushal willfully hit the offensive but in the absence of a deliberate or
arrow, so he will be held accountable and will not be malicious intent to outrage religious feelings, criminal
eligible for an exemption under Section 80 in this action cannot follow. Hence, (c) is correct. (a) is
situation. Option (b) is right because Kushal heard incorrect because it focuses on freedom of speech not
someone drinking water and confused it for a deer on intent. (B) is incorrect as it doesn’t amount to a
when he shot the arrow. As a result, it demonstrates crime if someone’s religious feelings were hurt due to
that the accused lacked necessary care and caution on a statement which wasn’t meant to be offensive. For
his part. As a result, be considered liable. Option (c) is same reason (d) is incorrect. Not just the impact but
meaningless because the factual question is about the intent behind the message is taken into
Shavana's death and not about hunting an animal. consideration.
Option (d) is incorrect. The facts provide enough 59. (d) As per Supreme Court, a post/movie may well be
information to infer that Kushal is accountable in this offensive but in the absence of a deliberate or
case. malicious intent to outrage religious feelings, criminal
55. (c) As per the passage, an act done by an accident, will action cannot follow. Hence, (d) is correct. Therefore,
come under Section 80 of Indian Penal Code. In this (b) and (c) are eliminated. (a) is close, but (d) is better
case, the accused went with a view to killing Hyena and worded and the speech will not be considered as hate
heard a sound from a direction and fired a shot at its speech as Josephine had no intent. Hence, (d) is
direction. But later it was discovered that it was a preferred.
person, not Hyena. It was contended in the facts that 60. (a) As per the passage a case under section is attracted
Mahi had a bonafide intention to save people. Thus, when there is an act done to promote enmity “between
Option (c) is correct. Option (a) is incorrect as the different groups on religious ground”, and liability
statement generally provides for an argument purely under section 295A is attracted when a speech is made
based on the information given in the passage. Thus, with malicious intent. In the present case the priest
not considered. In comparison C is more complete; it gave the tape and CDs to the visitor which contained
tackles intention as well. Option (b) is incorrect as the demeaning remarks about community X. The remarks
reasoning given cannot be inferred from the facts. made by the priest against community X are
Option (d) is incorrect as the accused will not be held derogatory and thus will attract liability under section
liable and can claim defense under section 80 of IPC. 153 A. Hence, Option (a) is correct choice here. Option
56. (d) Section 80 exempts a person from criminal liability if, (b) is not correct as it has an element of “if” present in
the act must have been done without any criminal the reasoning which makes it suggestive rather
intention or knowledge; the act alleged to have been passage based. Option (c) is incorrect the reasoning
done against the accused must be lawful; the act must provided is beyond the passage. Thus, not correct.
have been done in a lawful manner by lawful means Option (d) is not correct as the facts do not state that
and with proper care and caution. The said act was the the priest's actions resulted in encouraging enmity
neither done with proper care and caution but also between two separate religions and fosters enmity
was unlawful. Thus, Option (d) is correct. Option (a) within the same religious group in general, disrupting
defends an unlawful act. Hence, not correct. It also public tranquilly. Thus, not correct.
does not determine whether or not the ruling given by 61. (c) The facts suggest that a complainant has been filed
the court is correct or not. Hence, not considered. alleging hate speech. The petitioner was also a part of
Option (b) is not correct as it ignores the aspect the the a PIL, which sought strict criminal action against such
act was unlawful in itself. Option (c) though correct in events which is going to be held in State of Uttar
reasoning wrongly supports the application of S. 80. Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. It can be
Hence, incorrect. inferred from the facts that in its order the court
57. (a) Option (a) is correct as to bring an act within the allowed the petition to file an appeal with the
meaning of the term accident used in section 80; an authorities against the likelihood of inflammatory
essential requirement is that the happening of the comments in the anticipated Dharm Sammelan
incident cannot be attributed to human fault. It is meetings going to be held at held in the State of Uttar
something happens out of ordinary course of things. In Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Thus, it
the present set of facts, on Dhanur's refusal, Chanda cannot be assumed that the court gave a precautionary
leveled the gun at him and fired a shot without measure and hence, Option (a) is incorrect. Option (c)
thinking twice. Hence, a case attributed to human fault is correct which states that, if similar meetings are held
and was deliberate. Thus, the accused demonstrates a in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, and
complete lack of care and caution, and hence she Uttarakhand, and comparable remarks are made, it
cannot claim any benefits under Section 80 of the IPC. will not only disrupt public order, but will also amount
Option (b) is incorrect as an act of duty cannot be taken to various criminal offences. And hence allowed the
as a defense under section 80. Thus, incorrect. Option petition. Hence, correct. Option (d) would have been
(c) is correct but the Option (a) provides for a correct, but the passage does not explicitly state that
conclusive reasoning. Option (d) is not correct as the the PIL was filed with the intent of turning it into a
reasoning based on facts rather on the information matter under section 295A or 153A. It was filed with
presented in the passage. Moreover, Dhanur was not anticipation that such even could promote religious
218
disharmony amongst public. As a result, according to the passage The Anti-Doping
incorrect. Option (b) is incorrect because it states that Organization need not demonstrate knowing use on
the court issued "injunction orders," but the court just the part of the athlete in order to establish an anti-
ordered and permitted the petitioners to file an appeal doping rule violation. Thus, incorrect.
with the appropriate authorities. As a result, incorrect. 65. (a) Option (a) is correct because the facts indicate that
62. (d) Option (d) is correct. As per the passage, Section 153A Bhullar was unable to determine how MHA entered his
provides for “promoting enmity” between different system. As a result, he will be held accountable for
groups on religious grounds. And section 295A inadvertent doping. Inadvertent doping is caused by
provides for “curb speech made with ‘malicious contaminated or mislabelled supplements, poor
intent’. In the present acse, it was the case of the medical treatment, and, in the worst-case scenario,
complainant that the content of the movie is offensive sabotage. As a result, correct. Option (b) and (c) are
on the ground that it encourages angry behaviour eliminated because the passage implies strict liability
amongst them. But it can nowhere be deduced from on the accused. As a result, the accuser’s argument for
the passage that the content alleged was promoting the benefit of the doubt is irrelevant in this case. As a
enmity between “different religion” neither it can be result, both options B and C are rejected. Option (d) is
seen that the content was made with any malicious correct, but Option (a) provides a reasoned
intent. Thus, the court will not consider the complaint alternative; thus, Option (a) is chosen over Option (d).
since the plaintiff has no cause of action against the 66. (a) Option (a) correct as It is the definition of the “strict
respondents in this case. Option (c) is incorrect liability” principle: “it is not necessary that intent,
because it presents an answer based on facts rather fault, negligence, or knowing use on the athlete’s part
than the information provided in the passage. Film be demonstrated by the Anti-Doping Organization in
certification can be employed to defend the Producer order to establish an anti-doping rule violation. Thus,
against charges discussed in the passage but in the Chang cannot escape the liability even if the substance
facts no such case is made out against the Producer. is consumed out of prescription by the doctor. The
Option (a) is incorrect since the passage discusses passage provides that inadvertent doping disables an
promoting animosity among individuals on religious athlete. Thus, Option (d) and B are eliminated as the
grounds. The passage contains no information that can code prescribes for strict liability on the accused.
be used to instill feelings of enmity among persons. As Option (c) is not correct as the given statement
a result, incorrect. Option (b) is incorrect because it provides for suggestive answer i.e., reasoning not in
cannot be inferred from the facts that the dialogues line with the passage or as suggested in Option (a).
exhibited were made with the malicious intent of thus, eliminated.
promoting religious strife among a group of 67. (b) As per the passage, author states that finally, there is
individuals. As a result, incorrect. an argument for restorative, rather than simply
63. (d) Option (a) is not correct as the author in the passage, retributive justice. A framework must be created to
asserts for a framework to be created to constructively constructively counsel athletes to understand the real
counsel athletes to understand the real causes, causes, degrees of fault and administrative lapses.
degrees of fault and administrative lapses. Merely Merely subjecting them to an arduous legal process
subjecting them to an arduous legal process before before NADA is not a long-term solution. Here the
NADA is not a long-term solution. As a result, Option author is in support of giving accused of anti doping
(a) is eliminated because no steps have been taken; it reformative justice by counselling them making them
is simply an assumption made by the author for future understand the real cause. Thus, Option (b) is correct
perspective. As a result, Option (d) is a viable option in in this regard as it provides for the panel to not impose
this case. According to the context of the author's strict liability onto the accused and prescribe a
statement, the author calls for a framework that reformative punishment. Option (a) provides for the
focuses on rehabilitation rather than punishment. contrary. Thus, incorrect. Option (c) is not correct as
Option (c) states the opposite, so it is eliminated. the author’s argument in the passage’s context talks
Option (b) is incorrect because no such assumption on about the kind of punishment that the accused should
the author's part can be deduced from the text of the be given in these cases.
passage. As a result, incorrect. Option (d) is not correct. The passage states, “For this,
64. (a) Option (a) is correct. As per the passage, it is the the athlete first needs to establish how the prohibited
definition of the “strict liability” principle: “it is not substance entered his/her system. This burden is
necessary that intent, fault, negligence, or knowing use justifiably onerous”. Hence, the author suggests that it
on the athlete’s part be demonstrated by the Anti- is a burdensome process.
Doping Organization in order to establish an anti- 68. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer and it can be easily
doping rule violation.” Hence, Option (a) is correct as concluded from the statement, “This wide discretion
the rule pin the athlete on the contention that the should be used cautiously by the courts since with the
athlete is responsible for what is in his/her body. massive increase in the cases of socio-economic
Hence, correct. Option (b) iscorrect but Option (a) is offenses in India where the accused have fled the
better answer as it is more specific. We can say Option country to evade prosecution there is an increased
(a) includes Option (c). Option (c) though correct but chance of misuse of this preventive relief”. Option (a)
it is just a part of the rule of strict liability applied on is true as per the passage but it is incorrect since it fails
the athlete in case of doping. Option (a) provides for a to address the asked question of why the court should
conclusive answer. Option (d) is not correct as cautiously use the discretionary power of anticipatory
219
bail, and the same goes with Option (d) as well. Option the very fabric of democracy. Hence Option (b) is the
(c) is incorrect because it has no relation altogether correct choice.
with neither the question nor context and is vague is 73. (c) Option (c) is the correct answer. As per the given facts,
the truest sense. the two things we should take note to form a
69. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer because the same can conclusive answer is that firstly he was on vacation
neither be concluded from the passage nor it is in the hence he did not have the right to perform his duties,
line with the given passage. The rest of the options are secondly he committed a mistake and still filed for
in consonance with the gist of the passage hence anticipatory bail to find another terrotist to kill despite
correct. Option (a) is incorrect as it is given in the 13 th being on vacation and as per the passage, “It has also
line of the passage that the rationale behind enacting been held that anticipatory bail cannot be granted to a
S. 438 was to safeguard the personal liberty of person to do something which is likely to be
individuals which makes both Option (a) and (d) as interpreted as a commission of a crime even if the
incorrect. Option (c) stands incorrect as 1st line of the offender intended it as something in the exercise of his
passage clearly states that Anticipatory bail, a rights”, hence X is not entitled to anticipatory bail,
preventive relief that was not originally included in thereby eliminating Option (b). Option (a) and Option
The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ('CrPC'). (d) seems to be correct but C offers a more substantive
70. (a) Option (a) is the correct answer. Option (b) is incorrect answer and encapsulates both the ideas of A and D.
because it deals with extremity that every accused 74. (b) Is the correct answer as cannot be deduced from the
should be given the privileged of anticipatory bail; this passage. Option (a), (c) and (d) can be deduced from
cannot be deduced from the given statement. C and the passage itself from the following statements,
Dare incorrect due to the same reasoning and “delegated legislation can be considered as a
especially because of the word never & will never “necessary evil”, and an unfortunate but inevitable
respectively. Option (a) is the only correct choice and infringement of the doctrine of separation of powers”;
can be easily deduced with a plain reading, because as “The stability and consistency of the legal system is an
per the statement there are two circumstances where integral component of the rule of law, which forms
a person might have to submit to custody, remain in part of the “basic structure” of our Constitution.”;
prison for some days and then apply for bail, one of the “Regulators are likely to continue using the
circumstance is when he is accused in a false case and subordinate legislation route, as rules and regulations
the other case is when there is a reasonable belief that can be easily amended to address practical difficulties,
he will not abscond or misuse his liberty, and hence or to plug loopholes.”, respectively. As a result options
anticipatory bail is apt in both of these circumstances, (a), (c) and (d) stands incorrect.
else there will be infringement of personal liberty and 75. (d) Option (d) is the correct answer. Option (a) is true as
this is exactly what the Option (a) is trying to portray. per the passage and can be clearly deduced from the
71. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer, there is one last few lines of the passage and also the entire tone of
prerequisite as per the passage for the anticipatory the passage is to critique how delegated legislation is
bail to be given i.e., no arrest has been taken place yet impacting the corporate law realm. Option (b) is also
because the name itself of anticipatory bail suggests true as per the passage and can be deduced from the
that it is given before arrest. Option (a) is incorrect statement- “where an over-burdened legislature may
because X has not been accused yet, he cannot file for unduly overstep the permissible limits of delegation
anticipatory bail before a case has been filed. Option and may not rightly articulate the guiding principles
(c) is incorrect because Option (c) is arrested hence within which the delegated legislations must operate.
anticipatory bail cannot come into picture. Option (d) This note of caution is most relevant in the corporate
is incorrect because he is already under arrest for a law realm”. Option (c) is true and (d) is untrue, and the
different case, so how will he get the benefit of same can be observed from the statement-“While
anticipatory bail. delegated legislation in the corporate law realm may
72. (b) As per the passage, “. It has also been held that have its merits, it also results in frequent changes to
anticipatory bail cannot be granted to a person to do the law and many such overnight changes have
something which is likely to be interpreted as a significant implications on the structuring and
commission of a crime even if the offender intended it execution of corporate transactions.”
as something in the exercise of his rights.” Which leads 76. (d) Option (d) is the correct answer, and can be directly
us to conclude that the a person who shall receive the inferred from the given statement. Option (a) is
anticipatory bail in no circumstance would be allowed incorrect because it makes generalized statement that
to commit a crime in veil of ‘exercise of right’. The ‘parliament has failed’, which cannot be concluded
assertion in the given question becomes correct due to from the given statement. Option (b) is incorrect
the reason that it captures the true essence of the because although there is a mention in the passage,
aforementioned statement. The reason is individually there is nothing in the passage which can lead us to
true and can be deduced from the last line of the believe that ‘seldom’ delegated legislation does not
passage, and it can be said that the reason is the conforms with the ambit provided by the parent
correct explanation of the assertion because as per the legislation. Option (c) is factually correct, but nothing
passage, the very fact that a person is required to not in the passage suggests the same.
commit any offence when granted anticipatory bail 77. (c) Option (c) is the correct answer, and it can be
because in that case, individual rights would concluded from the statement –“However, given the
supersede the greater public interest, which destroys complexities and the practical considerations
220
involved, delegated legislation in the realm of 81. (b) Option (a) is inaccurate since the passage makes no
corporate law is here to stay.” Option (a) is incorrect mention of a judgment. As a result, inaccurate. Option
because the statement from which it has been (b) is true, as may be deduced from paragraph 2 of the
concluded does not have the context of ‘corporate law’. passage, which discusses article 21, that contains the
Option (b) is incorrect, it cannot be concluded that just right to privacy and the right to abortion under specific
because there are already laws in place, the same conditions. Option (c) is only partially correct because
eliminates the scope and requirement of delegated the Indian Constitution allows abortion under the
legislation. Option (d) is incorrect because nothing in fundamental right under Article 21 as right to life with
the passage suggests that delegated legislation and personal liberty can be deduced from the passage, but
corporate law has been closely intertwined, hence it existence of checks and balances placed, and a
can be straightaway eliminated. requirement to meet different needs of the society can
78. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer. Option (a) is incorrect nowhere be found in the passage. As a result,
because it is not at all related to the passage nor the inaccurate.
question asked. Option (c) is incorrect because it does Option (d) is partially true because the constitutional
not provide a substantive answer to the question right of women under abortion legislation may be
asked, and moreover the option is also intrinsically drawn from paragraph 2, but the portion where it
incorrect as per the passage. Option (d) is incorrect indicates that the MTP act does not enable a woman to
because the statement from which it is derived i.e., decide for herself whether or not to abort cannot be
“While delegated legislation in the corporate law inferred. As a result, inaccurate
realm may have its merits, it also results in frequent 82. (b) Assertion is correct as in relation to article as stated in
changes to the law and many such overnight changes Para 2, Right to privacy granted as a fundamental right
have significant implications on the structuring and that takes under its purview immunity from outside
execution of corporate transactions.”, does not talk interference in matters that are personal and intimate
about the ‘growth’ as mentioned in the passage. On such as marriage, child-rearing and the use of
basis of same statement Option (b) is correct answer. contraception. Thus, right to abortion comes under the
79. (a) Option (a) is the correct answer and the same can be purview of right to privacy and thus, cannot be
concluded from the statement, - “The SC has also curtailed.
highlighted the inherent danger in the process of The statement given in reason is correct as again para
delegation, where an over-burdened legislature may 1, states that there exists a continuous question on
unduly overstep the permissible limits of delegation woman's rights with regards to her will to abort, as is
and may not rightly articulate the guiding principles the abortion rights really a free right to a woman or is
within which the delegated legislations must operate.” it a conditional right and also whether women's right
Option (b) is incorrect as exception to the subtentive to abort or the foetus (unborn child's) rights to live
policy is given in the passage i.e. practical should be focused upon.
considerations. Thus it is eliminated. 10th line of the Both statements are correct and reason do stands as
passage states that however, given the complexities the correct explanation of A as assertion solidifies
and the practical considerations involved, delegated right to abortion whereas the reason also discuss
legislation in the realm of corporate law is here to stay. about right to abortion as a person's right to their own
Thus, Option (c) stands incorrect. 13th line of the body with "foetus's right to life".
passage states that while delegated legislation in the Therefore Option (b) is correct.
corporate law realm may have its merits, it also results 83. (b) Statement I is erroneous since it does not provide
in frequent changes to the law and many such for the right to life of the foetus. It solely discusses
overnight changes have significant implications on the women's issues. As a result, cannot be considered.
structuring and execution of corporate transactions. Statement III is similarly omitted.
Thus, Option (d) stands incorrect. Statement II is accurate because it gives a balanced
80. (c) Option (a) is not correct as according to the text of the answer to the subject of women's right to life and the
passage in para 2, Article 21 of the Constitution as right of the foetus to survive. As a result, accurate.
there is Right to privacy granted as a fundamental Statement IV is erroneous since no such information
right that takes under its purview Right to life with can be derived from MTP regulations stated in last
dignity is given which permits abortion for reasonable para of the passage. As a result, incorrect.
reasons for the dignified life of the woman and it is a Statement V is incorrect since it only speaks about
woman's absolute right to live with human women's health and not about the foetus, despite the
dignity. Thus, “refusal to grant permission cannot be fact that both are crucial to the question. As a result,
treated as violation” as it is not explicitly discussed in not considered.
the passage’s context. Therefore Option (c) is Therefore, Option (b) is correct.
considered as it more relevant with the information 84. (c) Option (a) is not correct as the passage only talks
given in the text of the passage. about the provisions of MTP under which a women can
Option (b) is not correct as article 21 includes foetus’s terminate her pregnancy but it is not specified that it
right to live is still an debatle issue, according to para can be terminated at any stage. Thus, incorrect.
1. Hence, not correct. as Option (d) provides for Option (c) is correct as under article 21 as stated in
miscarriage done as culpable homicide which ha snot para 2, a women has right to abortion. Thus, correct.
been asked in the factual query. Thus, incorrect. Option (b) is also incorrect as according to the text of
the passage, the information provided for the intent of
221
legislation to provide the medical field, doctors, wealth, clearly indicating a skewed distribution in
medical staff, nurses 'a safeguard' from the favor of a small percentage of the population. Option
investigations under IPC as the laws were very strict (d) is designed to mislead by suggesting that the
and many illegal and unsafe abortions were middle class holds most of the wealth, which is not
done. Thus, not correct. supported by the passage's data.
Option (d) is incorrect as the passage makes no 89. (b) A is a trap, suggesting that economic inequality does
reference with SC rulings. Thus, cannot be considered. not significantly impact power dynamics, which is
contrary to the passage’s implications. Option (b) is
SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING correct. The passage indicates that growing
inequalities concentrate power and influence in the
85. (c) A is a trap, suggesting an equal increase in wealth hands of a tiny few, affecting politics, commerce, and
across all social strata, which contradicts the passage's policies. Option (c) might mislead by implying a
indication of a widening wealth gap. Option (b) is collaborative effort between politicians and
designed to mislead by implying stability in the corporations to address inequality, but the passage
billionaires' wealth, whereas the passage explicitly suggests the opposite. Option (d) is designed to
states their wealth has doubled since 2020. Option (c) mislead by implying economic equality in politics,
is correct as the passage notes a stark contrast which the passage does not support.
between the doubling of wealth for the top five 90. (d) A is a subtle trap, suggesting that economic disparities
billionaires and the decrease in real incomes for the lead to equality in service access, which is contrary to
majority, indicating a widening wealth gap. Option (d) the passage's implications of inequality. Option (b)
is subtly incorrect. It acknowledges growth in might mislead by implying a lack of correlation
billionaires' wealth but incorrectly suggests an between economic disparities and access to services,
increase in the general populace's real incomes, which but the passage suggests a direct connection. Option
the passage contradicts by mentioning a drop in real (c) is designed to mislead by suggesting that economic
incomes for 4.8 billion people. disparities positively impact access for
86. (c) A is a trap, as it suggests a direct and positive underprivileged groups, which is not supported by the
correlation between corporate profits and workers' passage. Option (d) is correct. The passage indicates
incomes, which is contrary to the passage's that economic inequality, specifically income and
implications. Option (b) might seem plausible but is wealth disparities, leads to unequal access to health
incorrect. It implies a positive impact of corporate services, educational opportunities, and other
profits on workers' wages, which contradicts the essential services.
passage's indication of a decrease in real incomes. 91. (b) The passage uses the examples of violence in
Option (c) is correct. The passage mentions a Karnataka to illustrate the severe consequences of
significant increase in corporate profits alongside a societal and communal prejudice against inter-faith
decrease in workers' real incomes, implying that the relationships. These examples serve to underscore the
profit increase comes at the cost of the workers' argument that the freedom of choice in relationships is
income. Option (d) is designed to mislead by being compromised by such intolerance. Option (a) is
suggesting that there is no correlation between misleading because the passage doesn't argue that
corporate profits and workers' incomes, which is not inter-faith relationships lead to violence, but rather
supported by the passage's contrasting presentation that violence is a consequence of societal attitudes
of these two phenomena. towards these relationships. Option (c), while
87. (a) A is correct. The fact that it would take 476 years to relevant, is not the primary way the argument is
exhaust their wealth at the current rate of constructed. Option (d) is incorrect as it contradicts
consumption implies that their wealth accumulation the passage's depiction of societal attitudes as being
rate is substantially higher than their rate of intolerant towards inter-faith relationships.
consumption. Option (b) might mislead by implying 92. (b) The passage specifically mentions the misuse of
equilibrium between accumulation and consumption, technology to broadcast crimes against inter-faith
but the passage suggests a disparity in favor of couples and the need for police to enhance their
accumulation. Option (c) is a subtle trap, suggesting cybercrime capabilities. This suggests a link between
that consumption is outpacing accumulation, which is cybercrime handling and the broader issue of violence
incorrect given the context of the passage indicating a against inter-faith couples, which could contribute to
476-year sustainability. Option (d), though it might the low conviction rate. Option (a) is a trap because
seem plausible, is misleading. The passage does not while legal frameworks are important, they are not
provide information on recent changes in explicitly linked to cybercrime in the passage. Option
consumption rates, only the current state. (c), though plausible, is not directly supported by the
88. (c) A is a trap, as it suggests a balanced wealth passage's focus on cybercrime and police capabilities.
distribution, which is contrary to the passage's Option (d) is misleading because, while stigma is a
indication of significant inequality. B might seem significant issue, it's not highlighted as a primary cause
plausible but is incorrect. It implies equitable wealth related to cybercrime and police effectiveness in the
accumulation, which contradicts the passage's passage.
information about the concentration of wealth in the 93. (c) The passage explicitly mentions the abysmal
hands of a few. Option (c) is correct. The passage conviction rate in India for crimes against women,
mentions that the top 10% owns 77% of the nation’s highlighting this as a significant issue. Thus, an
222
improvement in the conviction rate, especially for Option (c) is incorrect because it refers to adolescents,
crimes against inter-faith couples, would be a direct not toddlers, introducing a subtle trap by shifting the
indicator of the effectiveness of the criminal-justice focus to a different age group. Option (d), similar to C,
machinery's response. Option (a), while important, is distracts with information about young adults rather
more about societal change than a direct measure of than toddlers, making it a less suitable choice.
the criminal-justice system's effectiveness. Option (b) 98. (b) Option (b) is correct because it directly addresses the
is a trap, as the number of arrests does not necessarily internal aspect of feeling useful, which is personal
correlate with effective justice or convictions. Option fulfillment, a key factor in mitigating feelings of
(d), implementing stricter laws, is important but worthlessness and depression. It emphasizes the
doesn't directly measure the effectiveness of law quality of the experience over quantity or external
enforcement and the judicial process, which is more validation, aligning with the passage's focus on the
aligned with conviction rates. intrinsic benefits of feeling useful. Option (a), while
94. (c) The statement by State Home Minister G relevant, is a trap because it focuses on quantity rather
Parameshwara is used in the passage to underscore than the quality or impact of the activities. Option (c)
the perceived inadequacy of the government's introduces a subtle trap by suggesting external
response to inter-faith violence. This is evident as the validation (recognition from others) as the most
passage critiques the government's actions, or lack critical factor, which the passage does not emphasize
thereof, in addressing such issues. Option (a) is as the primary means of mitigating negative feelings.
misleading because the passage does not portray the Option (d) misleads by focusing on the variety of roles,
statement as illustrating commitment to justice. which is not directly linked to the impact of usefulness
Option (b), suggesting a passive stance, is a trap on feelings of worthlessness and depression as
because the passage focuses more on the inadequacy described in the passage.
of actions rather than passivity. Option (d) is incorrect 99. (d) Option (d) is correct because it suggests that the
as the passage does not specifically link the minister's absence of feeling useful is linked to negative
statement to enhancing cybercrime capabilities, psychological states, like worthlessness and
although it mentions the need for such enhancements depression, rather than serving as a buffer against
elsewhere. loneliness and physical decline. This option indirectly
95. (b) The passage implies that political leadership and party challenges the idea by highlighting the consequences
stance have not been effective in dealing with inter- of not feeling useful, which could imply that simply
faith violence and communal intolerance in Karnataka. feeling useful may not be enough to combat loneliness
It mentions that leaders and parties have sometimes and physical decline if feelings of worthlessness and
shown tacit support or have equivocated on the issue. depression are present. Option (a) is a trap because it
This suggests that such equivocation has contributed is irrelevant to the discussion about older adults.
to a lack of decisive action against these issues. Option Option (b) is incorrect because it focuses on
(a) is incorrect as the passage does not suggest adolescents, which does not address the question.
effective reduction in violence. Option (c) is a trap; Option (c) is misleading because it talks about adults
while it might seem plausible, the passage implies that in general but does not directly counter the idea that
political stances do influence the situation. Option (d) feeling useful can buffer against loneliness and
is misleading because the passage does not indicate physical decline in older adults.
that political parties have uniformly condemned such 100. (b) Option (b) is correct because it broadly and accurately
violence or that this has led to improved harmony. summarizes the author's main argument, emphasizing
96. (a) The author's claim that campaigns addressing the the evolving nature of the need to feel useful
stigma attached to victims of sexual violence are throughout all stages of life. This Option captures the
necessary rests on the assumption that such victims essence of the passage that the desire to be useful is
face blame or stigma, which can be a barrier to seeking not static but grows and changes with individuals as
justice. This assumption is implied in the passage they age. Option (a), while relevant, is too narrow in its
when discussing the challenges in addressing violence focus on personal growth and autonomy, failing to
against women and inter-faith couples. Option (b), encompass the full spectrum of usefulness discussed
though relevant, is not as directly linked to the in the passage. Option (c) is incorrect because it limits
author's claim about stigma. Option (c) is incorrect as the role of usefulness to preventing feelings of
the passage does not suggest that sexual violence is worthlessness in adults, which is only a part of the
predominantly caused by inter-faith relationships. broader discussion. Option (d) introduces a
Option (d) is a trap; while campaigns might contribute misleading distinction between personal fulfillment
to a broader solution, the passage does not make a and legacy in later life stages, which does not align
direct causal link between campaigns and an increase with the passage's emphasis on usefulness as a
in conviction rates. fundamental human desire across all ages.
97. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer because it directly ties 101. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer as it aligns with the
the concept of feeling useful to the development of passage's indication that adolescents' engagement in
confidence and autonomy in toddlers, which is vital for academic and extracurricular activities fulfills their
their growth. This choice clearly links the need to feel need to feel useful by enhancing their sense of value
useful with positive developmental outcomes. Option and significance to themselves and to others. This
(a), while tempting, merely describes toddlers' actions Option directly correlates the activities with the
without connecting them to developmental benefits. internal benefit of feeling useful, which is the focus of
223
the passage. Option (a), while possibly true, is more of 104. (b) The correct answer, Option (b), directly undermines
a byproduct rather than the core impact of feeling the claim that Operation Lotus has been stalled by
useful, making it a subtle trap. Option (c) shifts focus suggesting that the BJP might still be successfully
to future outcomes rather than the immediate effect on inducing defections, which is the core strategy of
adolescents' need to feel useful, making it incorrect. Operation Lotus. This information implies that the
Option (d), although appealing, introduces the concept trust vote's outcome hasn't deterred potential
of identity crises, which, while related to adolescence, defections, directly challenging the claim of stalling.
does not specifically address how these activities Option (a) might seem relevant, but public
impact their need to feel useful according to the dissatisfaction within the opposition doesn't
passage. necessarily translate to a successful Operation Lotus
without evidence of defection. Option (c), while
102. (c) The fundamental human desire to feel useful and indicative of BJP's active presence, does not directly
needed throughout various life stages. relate to the political maneuvering of Operation Lotus.
A) The importance of academic achievements during Option (d) shows a general increase in BJP support but
adolescence. does not specifically indicate that Operation Lotus—
This option focuses specifically on academic aimed at engineering defections—is ongoing or
achievements during adolescence, which is only one successful. Therefore, Option (b) is the strongest
aspect of the broader theme discussed in the passage. Option because it points to actual political shifts that
While academic achievements may contribute to a would directly counter the claim of stalling Operation
sense of usefulness for some individuals during this Lotus.
stage of life, the passage addresses a wider range of 105. (b) The correct answer, Option (b), directly addresses the
experiences and stages beyond just adolescence. relationship between Hemant Soren's arrest and the
B) The role of caregiving in middle age. potential recalibration of BJP's strategies to capitalize
This option highlights the role of caregiving on any shifts in public sentiment within areas that are
specifically in middle age, which again is only one crucial to Soren's base. Understanding the BJP's
aspect of the broader theme discussed in the passage. position in these areas is key to evaluating how the
While caregiving may indeed be an example of how arrest might alter their approach to consolidating
individuals find usefulness in middle age, the passage power or gaining new supporters. Option (a), while
explores a variety of ways in which people seek to feel seemingly pertinent, offers a broader perspective on
useful throughout their lives. Soren's popularity but lacks the direct correlation to
C) The fundamental human desire to feel useful and how the BJP might adjust its strategies in response to
needed throughout various life stages. the arrest. Option (c) is a distractor, focusing on
This option correctly identifies the central theme of historical data from other states that may not reflect
the passage. It captures the overarching idea that the the unique political dynamics in Jharkhand. Option (d),
desire to feel useful and needed is a fundamental regarding the number of political leaders arrested on
aspect of human experience that transcends different similar charges, might hint at a pattern but does not
stages of life. specifically inform on the BJP's strategic adjustments
D) The impact of retirement on mental health. in the wake of Soren's arrest. Hence, B is the most
While the impact of retirement on mental health is direct measure of the arrest's impact on BJP strategies,
mentioned in the passage as one potential considering it reflects the party's potential to exploit
consequence of not feeling useful, it is not the main or adjust to the changing political landscape directly
focus or central theme of the passage. The passage is tied to Soren's support base.
more broadly about the pursuit of usefulness across 106. (c) The correct answer, Option (c), directly correlates
the lifespan, rather than specifically about retirement. with the information provided about the frequent
Correct Answer: C) The fundamental human desire to changes in chief ministership, suggesting a lack of
feel useful and needed throughout various life stages. political stability and the presence of significant
103. (d) The correct answer, Option (d), directly links Champai rivalries that lead to these changes. This inference
Soren’s popularity within the Adivasi community to logically follows from the premise that numerous
the strategic advantage his selection as successor changes in leadership within a short span of time
would provide, making it the strongest piece of indicate underlying instability and contention among
evidence for consolidating support among this key political factions. Option (a) introduces the idea of
demographic. Option (a), although seemingly strong, collaboration and coalition, which, while possible in a
only indicates past achievements without directly multi-party system, doesn't necessarily follow from
tying them to current political support. Option (b) the premise of frequent leadership changes—these
suggests a close relationship between Hemant and changes more likely indicate competition rather than
Champai Soren but does not specifically address the collaboration. Option (b) addresses the electorate's
strategy of garnering Adivasi support. Option (c), behavior, suggesting volatility, but the passage focuses
while relevant, is speculative about future actions on leadership changes rather than election results,
rather than evidencing an existing strategic move. The making this inference less direct. Option (d) discusses
key to the correct answer is its direct measurement of economic policies, which is a leap from discussing
Champai Soren's current appeal to the Adivasi political leadership stability; consistency in economic
community, which is the most concrete evidence of policy isn't directly related to the frequency of chief
strategic alignment with Hemant Soren's goals. ministership changes. Therefore, Option (c) is the
224
most defensible inference as it directly addresses the Number of employees in the Accounts department of
implications of the described political dynamics. the Delhi branch = 150
107. (c) The correct answer, Option (c), is the most defensible Number of employees in the HR department of the
because the passage suggests that Hemant Soren's Mumbai branch =
150
= 75
2
arrest, under charges seen as politically motivated,
Remaining employees in Delhi branch = 576 – (94 +
could serve as a rallying point for the opposition. This
150) = 332
event, framed as part of a struggle against perceived
Number of employees in Operations of the Delhi
injustices, is likely to unify the opposition as they
branch = 332/2 = 166
prepare for the general elections, positioning them
Number of employees working in Sales department of
against a common adversary. Option (a) suggests 75×100
fragmentation, which is contrary to the typical effect of Delhi branch = = 100
75
a perceived political martyrdom, which more often Number of employees in the HR department of the
unites rather than divides. Option (b), focusing on anti- Delhi Branch = 166 – 100 = 66
corruption, doesn't directly follow from the passage, Number of employees in the Accounts department of
which implies the arrest is viewed as unjust by the the Mumbai branch =
opposition, not a cue to adopt anti-corruption as their 624 – (156+75+78+117) = 198
central narrative. Option (d) posits a shift to economic The table given below shows the exact values:
issues, but this doesn't directly address the unity and Mumbai
Department Delhi Branch
strategy of the opposition in response to the arrest; it's Branch
an issue-based shift rather than a strategic or unity- Finance 94 156
based one. Therefore, rallying around Soren as a HR 66 75
symbol of their collective struggle is the most logical Sales 100 78
and direct outcome in terms of unity and strategy for
the opposition. Accounts 150 198
108. (b) The correct answer, Option (b), is the most defensible Operations 166 117
because the passage specifically addresses concerns Total 576 624
around the BJP's strategy known as Operation Lotus,
which involves engineering defections from rival 109. (a) Required difference = (166 + 150) – (75 + 78) = 163
camps to gain power. This tactic is highlighted as a 110. (c) Required percentage =
150
× 100 = 26% (approx.)
primary concern due to its implications for democratic 576
processes and political stability. Option (a), regarding 111. (a) Required sum = (94 + 156) + (100 + 78) = 428
social media campaigns, while plausible as a general 112. (d) Required ratio = 66:198 = 1:3
100
concern, is not mentioned in the passage and thus does 113. (b) Required percentage = × 100 = 8.33%
1200
not directly relate to the expressed concerns about the 114. (b) Required sum = [
100+166
]+ [
75+117
] = 133 + 96 = 229
BJP's tactics in Jharkhand. Option (c), focusing on 2 2
Hint [115-120]:
economic development, suggests a positive strategy
Let the number of silver medals won by Pakistan be x
that does not align with the concern over potentially
Number of bronze medal won by Pakistan = 3x
undemocratic tactics. Option (d), about implementing
Since the ratio between the number of gold medals
laws to suppress opposition, is a serious concern but is
won by China and Pakistan is 5:4
not the focus of the passage, which centers on the
Let the number of gold medals won by China and
specific strategy of inducing defections to alter the
Pakistan be 5y and 4y respectively.
balance of power. Therefore, B directly reflects the
The number of gold medals won by Pakistan is equal
passage's concern with the BJP's political maneuvers
to the bronze medal won by China = 4y
that challenge the integrity of the political process in
Number of gold medals won by India = 5y + 10
Jharkhand.
Number of gold medals won by Bangladesh = 5y + 10
– 13 = 5y – 3
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES Number of bronze medal won by India = 5y – 3 + 1 =
Hint [109-114]: 5y – 2
Total number of employees in the office = 1200 Number of silver medal won by India = 2x
48
Number of employees in the Delhi branch = × 1200 Ratio of silver medal of Bangladesh : Ratio of bronze
100
= 576 medal of China = 1:2
Number of employees in the Mumbai branch = 1200 – 𝑆𝑖𝑙𝑣𝑒𝑟 𝑚𝑒𝑑𝑎𝑙 𝑜𝑓 𝐵𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑎𝑑𝑒𝑠ℎ 1
=
4𝑦 2
576 = 624
silver medal of Bangladesh = 2y
Number of employees in the finance department of the
1 The following table shows the values:
Mumbai branch = × 624 = 156 Country Gold Silver Bronze
4
Number of employees in the sales department of the India 5y + 10 2x 5y - 2
1
Mumbai branch = × 624 = 78
8 China 5y 21 4y
Number of employees working in the Finance
Pakistan 4y x 3x
department of the Delhi branch = 250 – 156 = 94
Number of employees working in Operations in the Bangladesh 5y – 3 2y 26
Mumbai branch =
150
× 78 = 117 It is given that,
100
225
The number of Gold medals won by China and India is 4x = 64
25% more than the number of gold medals won by x = 16
Pakistan and Bangladesh. Number of silver medals won by Pakistan = x = 16
5y + 10 + 5y =
125
[4𝑦 + 5𝑦 − 3] Number of bronze medals won by Pakistan = 3x =
100
3(16) = 48
40y + 40 = 45y – 15
Number of silver medal won by India = 2x = 2(16) = 32
5y = 55
The following table shows the exact values:
y = 11
Number of gold medals won by India = 5y + 10 = 5(11) Country Gold Silver Bronze
+ 10 = 65 India 65 32 53
Number of gold medals won by China = 5y = 5(11) = China 55 21 44
55 Pakistan 44 16 48
Number of gold medals won by Pakistan = 4y = 4(11)
Bangladesh 52 22 26
= 44
Number of gold medals won by Bangladesh = 5y – 3 =
5(11) – 3 = 52 115. (d) Required sum = 52 + 22 + 26 = 100
32+21
Number of bronze medals won by China = 4y = 4(11) 116. (b) Required percentage = × 100 = 100%
53
= 44 65+55+44+52
117. (c) Required average = = 54
Number of silver medal won by Bangladesh = 2y = 4
2(11) = 22 118. (a) Total cash prize = 44 × 50000 + 16 × 30000 + 48 ×
Number of bronze medal won by India = 5y – 2 = 5(11) 20000 = 36.4 lakhs
– 2 = 53 119. (d) Required ratio = (65 + 32 + 53) : (55 + 21 + 44) =
Number of medals won by Pakistan = 108 150:120 = 5:4
4y + x + 3x = 108 120. (a) Required difference = (53 + 48) – (16 + 22) = 63
4x = 108 – 44
226

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TABLE OF CONTENTS

Misinformation on Social Media Specific Case Highlighted

Actions Taken by the Supreme Court

Contempt Proceedings Judicial Concerns

How is Social Media Regulated in India?

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ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

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Diphu Constituency Profile Administrative Setup

North Cachar Hills

Geographical Span Community Diversity

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Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO)

PESO has been recognized as an institution of excellence for its persistent

Enhanced Fines and Penalties

Regulatory Oversight and Compliance

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ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

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ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

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Key Directives Issued by the Court

Communication and Sensitization

Awareness and Compliance

Accountability and Enforcement

Scope and Significance of the Guidelines

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ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

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Supremacy over Fundamental Rights: It

Introduction of Article 31C

Amendment Act: Introduced by the Constitution (Twenty-fifth) Amendment Act, 1971.

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Minerva Mills Case (1980) 3

The Supreme Court struck down

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ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

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Rottweiler Tosa Inu Pitbull Terrier

Fila Brasileiro Japanese Akita

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LEGALEDGE 7676564400 support@toprankers.com www.toprankers.com 20

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Oleander in Traditional Medicine and Its Dual Nature

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ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

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TIMELINE OF THE EXCISE POLICY CASE

November 2, 2023 - March 21, 2024

before March 21, 2024

March 21, 2024

March 22, 2024

April 10, 2024

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Senior Advocate Abhishek Manu Singhvi appeared on behalf of

On May 3, the Supreme Court first expressed an inclination

Solicitor General Tushar Mehta and Additional Solicitor General S.

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ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS