College of Natural and Applied Science

Department of Geology

Exit Exam Model Questions [100%]

March, 2024

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 1. Which type of bond is responsible for the strong cohesion in single crystals of minerals?
A) Ionic bond
B) Covalent bond
C) Metallic bond
D) Van der Waals bond
2. In crystallography, what term describes the growth pattern of a mineral that reflects its
internal atomic arrangement?
A) Cleavage
B) Fracture
C) Twinning
D) Crystal habit
3. What is the name for the visual representation of a crystal face where each face is labeled
with its Miller indices?
A) Crystal lattice
B) Stereographic projection
C) Crystal form
D) Crystal projection
4. The presence of flat crystal faces indicates:
A) A high level of cleavage
B) Strong bonding within the crystal structure
C) A rough, irregular fracture
D) The presence of impurities within the crystal
5. How many crystal systems and class are there in total respectively?
A) 4 and 28
B) 5 and 30
C) 6 and 32
D) 32 and 6

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 6. Euler's formula relates the number of vertices (V), edges (E), and faces (F) of a polyhedron
according to the formula:
A) V + E = F
B) V - E + F = 2
C) V - E + F = 1
D) V + E - F = 0
7. ------------- is the most common group of minerals that forming the earth’s crust
A) Oxide
B) Silicate
C) Carbonate
D) Hydrogen atom
8. A mineral is a natural solid that usually is
A) Inorganic, with characteristic physical properties
B) Organic, with uncharacteristic physical properties
C) Organic, with characteristic physical properties
D) inorganic, with uncharacteristic physical properties
9. The following minerals are listed in the correct order of hardness from low to high
A) Quartz, Diamond, calcite
B) Talc, Quartz, Diamond
C) Corundum, Calcite, Daimond
D) Apatite, corundum, Quartz
10. One of the best ways to tell for sure whether a ruby is natural or synthetic is by
A) Color
B) Inclusions
C) Pleochroism
D) Specific gravity.
11. Which one of the following minerals is correctly matched with its optical property?
A) Sillimanite – Isotropic
B) Orthoclase – High relief
C) Pyroxene – Nearly orthogonal cleavage
D) Garnet – Lamellar twinning

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 12. Which of the following minerals are built from the sheet silicate structure?
A) Olivine ((Mg, Fe) 2 SiO4)
B) Pyroxene ((Mg, Fe)Si 2 O6 )
C) Amphibole (NaCa2 (Mg, Fe, Al) 5 (Si, Al) 9 )O22(OH) 2 )
D) Biotite (K(Mg, Fe) 3 (AlSi 3 O10 )(OH)2
13. A clastic rock is:
A) A rock formed from the cementation of transported grains
B) A rock formed from evaporation of sea water
C) Transformed by heat into limestone
D) Transformed by pressure into limestone
14. In which of the following sedimentary environments would you expect the sand deposits to
be poorly sorted?
A) Alluvial
B) Beach
C) Desert
D) Glacial
15. Which of the following lists is written in order of decreasing particle size?
A) sandstone, siltstone, conglomerate
B) sandstone, conglomerate, siltstone
C) conglomerate, sandstone, siltstone
D) siltstone, sandstone, conglomerate
16. Which of the following groups represent the most abundant sedimentary rocks?
A) limestones and dolomites
B) sandstones and conglomerates
C) cherts and evaporites
D) mudstones and shales
17. The type of sandstone where cementing material is clay is ______________
A) Siliceous sandstone
B) Calcareous sandstone
C) Argillaceous sandstone
D) Ferruginous sandstone

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 18. Shale differs from mudstone in that:
A) shale has larger grains than mudstone
B) shale is layered and fissile whereas mudstone is massive
C) mudstone is layered and fissile whereas shale is massive
D) there is no difference between shale and mudstone
19. An intrusive igneous rock composed of crystals that are large enough to see with the naked
eye is said to exhibit a ______________________ texture.
A) aphanitic
B) phaneritic
C) porphyritic
D) aphyric
20. When a basaltic liquid first starts to crystallize the first mineral in the Discontinuous
Reaction Series to form is
A) Ca-rich plagioclase
B) Amphibole
C) Pyroxene
D) Olivine
21. The texture of an igneous rock is primarily determined by which factor?
A) The mineral composition of the rock
B) The cooling rate of the magma or lava
C) The pressure and temperature during formation
D) The presence of dissolved gas in the magma
22. According to Bowen's reaction series, which of the following pairs of phases are likely to
be incompatible?
A) Quartz and alkali feldspar
B) Ca-Plagioclase and olivine
C) Quartz and olivine
D) Na-plagioclase and amphibole

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 23. The plate tectonic settings where you would expect to find granitic/rhyolitic rocks is......
A) Subduction zone
B) Continent/continent collision
C) Spreading center
D) Transform boundary
24. Which of the following statements about mafic rocks is true?
A) Mafic rocks are richer in silica than felsic rocks
B) Mafic rocks crystallize at higher temperatures than felsic rocks
C) Mafic rocks are more viscous than felsic rocks
D) Mafic rocks tend to be lighter in color than felsic rocks
25. Time is important in metamorphism because
A) Chemical reactions are usually slow to attain change
B) It influences grain size
C) It influences mineral alignment
D) A & B
26. Metamorphic grade is dependent upon the
A) Geothermobarometer
B) Geotherms
C) Lithology
D) None.
27. Which of the following metamorphic facies represent rocks that were metamorphosed
under subduction zone?
A) Eclogite
B) Granulite
C) Sanidinite
D) Siliciclastic
28. Mineral assemblage of andesitic volcanic rock in the greenschist facies include
A) Quartz-plagioclase-microcline
B) Sericite-chlorite
C) Hornblende-pyroxene
D) Chlorite-actinolite-epidote
29. Information conveyed by metamorphic rock name do not concern
A) Nature of the parent material
B) Mineral assemblage
C) Nature of the fabric
D) Mineral zonation

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 30. Metamorphic facies
A) Is similar to sedimentary facies
B) Signify restricted P-T range controlling degree of metamorphism
C) Indicate primary formational environmental variables
D) None
31. During magmatic crystallization the elements that separate first are
A) Siderophile elements
B) Lithophile elements
C) Both chalcophile and lithophile elements
D) Chalcophile elements
32. Hydrogen is converted to helium in the sun this nuclear reaction produces:
A) Solar radiation
B) Potential energy
C) Kinetic energy
D) Radiation energy
33. Which method is used for dating relatively recent geological event?
A) K-Ar method
B) U - Pb method
C) Sm-Nd method
D) Rb - Sr method
34. Crystallisation of magma is a -------reaction and progressive metamorphism is a…..
reaction:
A) Endothermic / Exothermic
B) Exothermic/ Endothermic
C) Both are Exothermic
D) Both are Endothermic
35. What type of meteorite do we think most closely approximates the composition of the early
primitive mantle of the Earth?
A) Stony-Iron Meteorites
B) Carbonaceous Meteorite
C) Stony Meteorite
D) Iron-Meteorite
36. LREE enriched basalts with very low concentrations of HREE suggest the presence of
___________ in the source and _____________ degree of partial melting
A) Olivine and small
B) Garnet and high
C) Sphene and small
D) Pyroxene and high

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 37. What is the cause of the correlations or trends in Harker diagram?
A) Fractional crystallization and erosion
B) Partial melting, fractional crystallization, magma mixing or crustal contamination,
either individually or in combination
C) Magma mixing and physical weathering
D) Chemical and physical weathering
38. What kind of plot do you expect when REE abundances of chondrite plot on chondrite
normalized REE Plot diagram
A) LREE enriched
B) HREE depleted
C) Unity
D) Convex MREE
39. Scanning electron microscopy helps us to map _____.
A) Surface texture of a sample
B) The inside of a sample
C) The atoms of a sample
D) The electrons of a sample
40. Identify the correct taxonomic hierarchy
A) Kingdom-Phylum-Order-Class-Family-Genus-Species
B) Kingdom-Phylum-Order-Class-Genus-Family-Species
C) Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species
D) Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Genus-Family-Species
41. Identify the wrong statement about the most important uses of fossils
A) Tracing the development of the plants and animals of our planet earth
B) To determine the distribution of geologic units of similar age
C) To give proof of Continental Drift or Plate Tectonics
D) To reveal information about mineral deposits
42. What makes brachiopod species stratigraphically useful for some horizons?
A) They are easy to identify
B) Their time span from Cambrian to present
C) They are widely distributed
D) Common occurrence in almost all marine environments
43. Stratigraphy can be considered as a powerful tool for the following purposes, except:
A) Understanding how forms of life have changed through time.
B) Testing ideas on how varying combinations of processes affect the planets through
time.
C) Understanding the physical and chemical change of sediments.
D) Predicting future climate change

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 44. Which one of the following is not among the intracontinental rift basins in Ethiopia which
were formed as a result of extensional stresses induced by the break-up of Gondwanaland
in Late Paleozoic.
A) Southern Rift Basin
B) Blue Nile Basin
C) Mekele Basin
D) Ogaden Basin
45. ______________ is lithologically distinctive stratigraphic unit that is large enough in scale
to be mappable at the surface or traceable in the subsurface.
A) Formation
B) Bed
C) Member
D) lense
46. What term describes the process by which rocks respond to tectonic forces by bending or
breaking?
A) Metamorphism
B) Deformation
C) Erosion
D) Melting
47. What does dynamic analysis in structural geology primarily focus on?
A) Stress and strain within rock masses
B) Identification of folding patterns
C) The movement of tectonic plates
D) Analysis of crystal structures within minerals
48. Which principle is important in understanding the kinematics of folding in rock layers?
A) Law of Original Horizontality
B) Principle of Isostasy
C) Principle of Uniformitarianism
D) Principle of Superposition
49. What type of data are commonly used to establish the sense of movement along a fault
plane during geological structures interpretation?
A) Fossil records
B) Slicken lines
C) Bedding orientations
D) Crosscutting relationships
50. How does the rate of strain affect the rheological behavior of rocks in terms of their
response to stress?
A) Faster strain rates favor brittle deformation
B) Faster strain rates favor ductile deformation
C) Strain rates have no effect on rheological behavior
D) Strain rates cause rocks to become more elastic

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 51. Which of the following is the operative physical property of the Gravity Method?
A) Density
B) Magnetic susceptibility
C) Dielectric constant
D) Spatial variation in the strength of the gravitational field of the Earth
52. In volcanic massive sulfide (VMS) hosted Gold prospect, ____________ are the primary
geophysical methods conducted for detailed mineral explorations?
A) Electrical method (IP and SP Method)
B) Gravity and Seismic method
C) Seismic and Magnetic method
D) Gravity and Magnetic Method
53. In Ethiopia, we have broad categories of geological formation that have distinct
geochronological time, in which type of geological units that the seismic wave propagates
with relatively decreased velocity during earthquake incidents?
A) Basement rocks
B) Mesozoic sedimentary rocks
C) Territory volcanic and trap series
D) In quaternary sediments
54. Magnetic anomalies are the variation of the earth magnetic field due to the presence of:
A) Earth’s rotation and pyroclastic rock
B) Earth’s magnetic poles and ionization in the atmosphere
C) Metallic minerals and geological structures
D) Magnetic storm
55. Which well log measures the natural radioactivity of the rocks?
A) Sonic log
B) Density log
C) Neutron log
D) Gamma ray log
56. If the original scale of a map is 1:100,000 & the scale is reduced 4 times. What will be the
new scale?
A) 1:400,000
B) 1:250,000
C) 1:25,000
D) 1:50,000
57. Reading a topographic map demand knowing of the
A) Preparation process
B) Author and publication date
C) Cartographers skill
D) Symbols and understanding contour lines
58. How are streams indicated on a topographic map?
A) By contour lines that form U's downhill
B) By contour lines that form V's which point downstream
C) By contour lines that form V's which point upstream D) None

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 59. On a topographic map, the closer the contour lines the
A) Flatter the land surface
B) Steeper the slope
C) Lower the elevation
D) Higher the elevation.
60. What do the colors on a geologic map represent?
A) Basins
B) Contacts
C) Folds
D) Different geologic units.
61. On a geologic map, a very thick line will indicate a ______, while a very thin line will
indicate a ___________.
A) Contact, Fold
B) Fault, Contact
C) Strike-dip, Fault
D) Fold, Fault
62. The first capital letter symbol on a color geologic map indicates
A) Age of units
B) Rock Formation
C) Rock unit
D) None.
63. Geologic cross-section may show subsurface lithology distribution from
A) Bore hole data alone
B) Field vertical section log
C) Both field and bore hole lithologic data
D) Spectral data
64. Bedrock geologic maps show
A) Only exposed rocks
B) Only surficial materials
C) Both exposures as well as interpretation of geology in between
D) None
65. Surficial geologic maps show
A) Loose sediments and bedrock where exposed
B) Alluvial deposits only
C) Talus and fluvial sediments
D) Colluvium deposits
66. Selection of Field geologic surveying method depends on
A) Scale of mapping
B) Exploration Time
C) Significance and type of mapping
D) Availability of literature.

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 67. Ideal base map for Geologic mapping is
A) Topographic maps
B) Aerial photograph
C) Combination of topographic maps with Satellite digital images or aerial photographs
D) Landsat image
68. The description of volcanic rock in the field involves
A) Determine the color
B) Identify the texture
C) Measure primary and secondary structures
D) All
69. In reconnaissance mapping a geologist can use
A) Google Image, Pacing, GPS
B) GPS, compass, Topomap, Landsat image
C) Meter tape, plan table
D) Compass, Previous geologic map
70. Field geologic unit names can be modified after
A) Interpretation of digital images alone
B) Only geochemical analysis
C) Petrographic study of thin sections and consultation of previous formation names
D) None
71. The width of inclined bed on the earth’s surface is related to
A) The nature of topography
B) The amount of dip
C) The strike direction
D) Both the amount of dip and topography
72. Presentation design depends on
A) Symposium, time
B) Time, colloquium
C) Work place, facility
D) Purpose, audience, time.
73. What is the purpose of including sketches or diagrams in a geological field report?
A) To showcase artistic skills
B) To make the report longer
C) To visually represent geological features and structures
D) To add color to the report
74. Which of the following is an example of a primary source of data in geological fieldwork?
A) A textbook on geology
B) A research article on rock formations
C) Field notes recorded during an expedition
D) A documentary on geological processes

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 75. What is the purpose of conducting a geological cross-section in mapping?
A) To estimate the age of rock layers
B) To visualize the subsurface geology
C) To identify mineral deposits
D) To measure the magnetic field strength
76. What is water obtained from precipitation called?
A) Meteoric water
B) Connate water
C) Magmatic water
D) Juvenile water
77. An aquifer in which hydraulic conductivity (K) varies from place to place but is the same
in all directions emanating from a point is
A) Homogenous and isotropic
B) Homogenous and anisotropic
C) Heterogeneous and isotropic
D) Heterogeneous and anisotropic
78. The best groundwater reservoirs have __________.?
A) Low permeability and low porosity
B) Low permeability and high porosity
C) High permeability and low porosity
D) High permeability and high porosity
79. With respect to the Earth's land surface, which of the following expressions is correct?
A) Precipitation = evaporation - runoff
B) Precipitation = runoff – evaporation
C) Precipitation = evaporation + runoff
D) Precipitation = evaporation * runoff
80. Darcy's law states that:
A) Discharge is directly proportional to the loss of head
B) Discharge is directly proportional to the length flow path
C) Discharge is directly proportional to the loss of head and length of the flow path
D) Discharge is inversely proportional to the loss of head and length of the flow path
81. ___________is the difference between the level of groundwater in a well when a pumping
stops.
A) Draw down
B) Residual draw down
C) Cone of depression
D) All
82. The chemistry of groundwater indicates:
A) The extent of water rock interaction
B) The geological environment
C) The water origin
D) All

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 83. What is often a key consideration in the decision to invest in the development of a mineral
deposit?
A) Total area of the mineralization
B) Potential impact on biodiversity
C) Quantity and quality of the ore reserves
D) Historical market recessions and upturns
84. Which of the following factors is a key determinant of mineral commodity prices?
A) Geological age of the host rocks
B) Global economic trends and demand-supply dynamics
C) Technological advancements in the mining industry
D) Remote sensing data accuracy
85. What type of mineralization is commonly associated with the collision of tectonic plates
and the resulting mountain-building processes?
A) Lead-zinc carbonate replacement deposits
B) Orogenic gold deposits
C) Phosphorite nodules
D) Vanadium titanomagnetite deposits
86. What type of mineralization is often linked to subduction zones and convergent plate
boundaries, giving rise to valuable metal deposits such as gold and copper?
A) Epithermal vein deposits
B) Kimberlite diamond pipes
C) Banded iron formations
D) Lateritic nickel deposits
87. What non-metallic mineral is commonly associated with Ethiopia's Danakil Depression?
A) Fluorspar
B) Potash
C) Phosphates
D) Barite
88. To what depth beneath the surface does supergene enrichment typically extend?
A) Several kilometers
B) A few hundred meters
C) Less than a meter
D) Approximately 10-20 meters
89. What mineral is commonly associated with supergene enrichment in copper deposits?
A) Galena
B) Chalcopyrite
C) Magnetite
D) Bauxite

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 90. How can hydrothermal ore deposits contribute to the formation of economic mineral
resources?
A) Through the weathering and erosion of volcanic ash deposits
B) By forming placers in riverbeds
C) By concentrating valuable minerals from aqueous solutions
D) Through metamorphic recrystallization of sediments
91. Which of the following is not true about soils?
A) Soils are formed by the physical and chemical weathering of rocks
B) Rock chemistry plays a role for the type of soil produced
C) Many of the physical properties of soils are dictated by the size, shape and chemical
composition of mineral grains
D) The soils formed from basalt and granite are sandy and clay soils respectively
92. If a certain sandstone has the same intrinsic property but with different discontinuity
conditions at different places, then which of the following will have the highest strength?
A) Spacing of 30 cm, very smooth discontinuity, joints filled with water and five set of
discontinuities
B) Spacing of 30 cm, very rough discontinuity, joints filled with quartz and one set of
discontinuities
C) Spacing of 25 cm, smooth discontinuity, dry & open joint and four set of discontinuities
D) Spacing of 15 cm, rough discontinuity, joints filled with calcite and two sets of
discontinuities
93. Which of the following is not a landslide stabilization method?
A) Constructing walls or other retaining elements
B) Inserting resistant structural elements
C) Providing drainage
D) Loading the sliding mass with a huge weight
94. Which of the following is true about a dam founded on a strata dipping downstream?
A) It causes lubrication on the bed
B) It causes dissolution
C) The resultant force R due to the weight of the dam and the horizontal water pressure
endangers the stability of the dam.
D) All
95. Which of the following is not the characteristics of the best reservoir site?
A) Poor water tightness
B) Low rate of siltation
C) Adequate capacity to hold water
D) Low probability of seismic and landslide hazards
96. Larger surface area of Ethiopia is covered by
A) Precambrian metamorphic rocks
B) Cenozoic volcanics
C) Paleozoic sediments
D) Mesozoic sediments

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 97. The Precambrian terrain is the most explored terrain in Ethiopia because
A) It comprises all types of economic minerals
B) It can be the resource for industrial and construction material raw material
C) It can be a potential resource for precious and rare metal resource
D) All
98. Examples of Coal deposit in Ethiopia
A) Dilbi-Moye
B) Yayu
C) Chilga
D) All
99. Industrial minerals found along the Main Ethiopian Rift include
A) Diatomite
B) Soda ash
C) Bentonite
D) All
100. Hydrocarbon potential of Ethiopia is associated to
A) Precambrian Metamorphics
B) Paleozoc to Cenozoic sediments
C) Quaternary sediments
D) None

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