PAPER 1 Merged

Question Bank - Right to Public Services (Bihar) Act, 2011 and Rules
Question 1:
Under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 the maintenance of records of all disposed cases has been mentioned
1. Rule 17
2. Rule 18
3. Rule 19
4. None of these
Question 2:
BRTPS Act 2011 In case of delay or denial of the Service the Designated Public Servant shall communicate the applicant
1. To File a case against the designated Public servant
2. the period within which an appeal be prefrred
3. To File a civil suit
4. None of these
Question 3:
Under Tatkal Seva of BRTPS Act the designated officer will be the same as before; namely
1. Block Development Officer
2. Revenue Officer
3. DPO, ICDS
4. None of these
Question 4:
Under which provision of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 has the individual presence of applicant/designated Public Servant/appellate authority in a matter of appeal been provided
1. Rule 12
2. Rule 13
3. Rule 14
4. None of these
Question 5:
BRTPS 2011 Act Ration cards are being issued by

1. SDO
2. CO
3. Marketing officer
4. None of these
Question 6:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Services Act Non-compliance of the orders of Appellate/reviewing Authority amounts to
1. Misconduct
2. Criminal Act
3. Irregularity
4. None of these
Question 7:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, 2011 the amended time limit for the issuance of caste certificate at Officer's level is fixed to be
1. 3 working days
2. 5 working days
3. 7 working days
4. 10 working days
Question 8:
Under which provision of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 has the individual presence of applicant/designated Public Servant/appellate authority in a matter of appeal been provided ?
1. Rule 12
2. Rule 13
3. Rule 14
4. None of these
Question 9:
The software designed for the implementation of the provisions of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 is
1. Important
2. Tatkal
3. Adhikar
4. None of these
Question 10:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, 2011 Designated Public Servant for the convenience of common public shall
1. Depute a person to inform the persons concerned
2. come to display all selevant of information regarding services on Notice Board
3. Not display anything on the Notice Board
4. None of these
Question 11:
Total number of services has been placed/covered under Tatkal Seva is

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Question 12:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, 2011 the amended the time limit for issue of caste certificate at SDO and DM level is also fixed as
1. 5 working days
2. 10 working days
3. 15 working days
4. None of these
Question 13:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011 a designated public servant in case of service denied or delayed shall
1. Communicate the reasons to the person eligible for applying for the service
2. Instruct the applicant to reapply
3. Suggest the person concerned to seek remedy at other authority
4. None of these
Question 14:
BRTPS 2011 Act Tatkal Seva has been and started w.e.f from
1. 15.01.2013
2. 06.01.2014
3. 15.01.2014
4. None of these
Question 15:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Act, Fast track service delivery means
1. Short term delivery
2. Long term delivery
3. "Tatkal Seva"
4. None of these
Question 16:
BRTPS 2011 Act Who is the appellate authority in the transport related matters
1. DTO
2. RTA Secretary of a Division
3. District Magistrate
4. None of these
Question 17:
Is RO designated public sevant to issue any other certificate other than income certificate
1. Yes
2. No
3.
4.
Question 18:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, 2011 In case of delay or denial of the Service the Designated Public Servant will communicate the person/applicant concerned to
1. To file a case against the designated Public servant
2. The period within which appeal be preferred
3. To file a civil suit
4. None of these
Question 19:
BRTPS 2011 Act Who is the reviewing authority for the matters of services related to transport
2. Transport Commissioner
4. Commissioner of a division
Question 20:
BRTPS 2011 Act Under the amended provision the time limit for the issuance of residential certificate at circle office level is fixed to be
1. 3 working days
2. 5 working days
3. 10 working days
4. None of these
Question 21:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, 2011 after the expiry of the period of 30 days for appeal, the Appellate Authority
1. May admit the appeal if he/she is satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from filing an appeal in time
2. Will reject the appeal
3. Will not entertain the appeal the appellant for being prevented from filing an appeal within time
4. None of these
Question 22:
Can an appeal be filed after the expiry of stipulated time is elapsed. If so within how many days an appeal be filed in that case ?
1. Within 60 days from the expiry date of stipulated time
4. None of these
Question 23:
Relaxation of fee in filing appeal has been provided under which rule of the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 ?
1. Rule 7
2. Rule 8
3. Rule 9
4. None of these
Question 24:
Procedure of application for first and second appeal have been provided under which rule of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 ?
1. Rule 7
2. Rule 8
3. Rule 9
4. Rule 10
Question 25:
The software designed for the implementation of the provisions of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 is
1. Important
2. Tatkal
3. Adhikar
4. None of these
Question 26:
BRTPS 2011 Act Can any fee be taken from an applicant under the Tatkal Seva
1. Yes
2. No
3. With the permission of the designated of public Officer
4. None of these
Question 27:
BRTPS 2011 Act Under Tatkal Seva an applicant for identification has to furnish a self attested copy of any one of the documents listed in
1. Group-B
2. Group-C
3. Group-A
4. None of these
Question 28:
BRTPS Rules 2011 In case during the hearing of an appeal if an applicant/designated public servant the appellate authority is not present under certain circumstances then before passing an order how many chances be shall given to the concerned
1. Two more chances
2. Three more chances
3. One more chance
4. None of these
Question 29:
Before whom can an appeal be filed under Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011
1. High Court
2. Subordinate Court
3. Notified Appellate Authority
4. None of these
Question 30:
Public Holidays menas

1. Durga Puja Holidays
2. Government Holidays
3. Holidays notified by the Government by issuing notification
4. None of these
Question 31:
In teh amended provision the time limits for the issue of tax token is fixed as
1. 1 working day
2. 3 working days
3. 5 working days
4. None of these
Question 32:
under BRTPSA who is the designated public servant to issue fitness certificate for a vehicle
1. Any Gazetted Officer
2. Motor Vehicle Inspector
4. None of these
Question 33:
BRTPS 2011 Act Who is the reviewing authority for the purposes of residential certificate services
1. CO
2. SDO
3. BDO
Question 34:
In amended provision the time limit for issue of caste certificate at SDO and DM level is also fixed as
1. 5 working days
2. 10 working days
3. 15 working days
4. None of these
Question 35:
The Bihar Right to Service Act 2011 was Published on Bihar Gazette (Ext. ord.)
1. 4th May 2011
2. 3rd June 2011
3. 5th May 2011
4. 2nd May 2011
Question 36:
Under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 the maintenance of records of all disposed cases has been mentioned
1. Rule 17
2. Rule 18
3. Rule 19
4. None of these
Question 37:
Recovering of penalty has been provided under which rule of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011
1. Rule 15
2. Rule 16
3. Rule 17
4. None of these
Question 38:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 "format" means

1. GST Format
2. Formats annexed with these rules
3. Income Tax Format
4. Those under which rules have been framed
Question 39:
The penalty imposed under the provisions of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 shall not exceed to-
1. Rs. 1000
2. Rs. 2500
3. Rs. 4000
4. Rs. 5000
Question 40:
In case of review the information for hearing be the provision of ending communication through the department is mentioned which rule of the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011
1. Rule 13 (1)
2. Rule 13 (2)
3. Rule 13 (3)
4. Rule 13 (4)
Question 41:
Who is the appellate authority in the transport related matters

1. DTO
4. None of these
Question 42:
Can any fee be taken from an applicant under the Tatkal Seva of Bihar Right to Public Services Act
1. Yes
2. No
3. With the permission of the designated public Officer
4. None of these
Question 43:
Has the General Adminsitration Department, Govt. of Bihar minimized the time limits of certain services
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 44:
Under Tatkal Seva if a person wants to take the service of getting his residential certificate he is to furnish which one of the following documents
1. Marksheet
2. His photograph
3. The Photocopy of updated rent receipt
4. None of these
Question 45:
The time limit of the renewal of the petrol pump registration in the amended provision is fixed to be
1. 7 working days
2. 15 working days
3. 21 working days
4. 30 working days
Question 46:
Under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 the Appellate Authority can impose penalty ?
1. Section 6
2. Section 5
3. Section 4
4. Section 7
Question 47:
BRTPS Rule 2011 Can a communication of information for hearingof appeal be made by hand delivery through special massanger
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 48:
BRTPS 2011 Act In the amended provision the time limit for the issuance of caste certificate at Revenue officer level is fixed to be
1. 3 working days
2. 5 working days
3. 7 working days
4. 10 working days
Question 49:
Under the Bihar RIght to Public Services Rules, the amended time limit for the issuance of Income certificate at subdivisional officer & District Magistrate level is fixed to be
1. 3 working days
2. 5 working days
3. 10 working day
4. None of these
Question 50:
RTPS stands for

1. Right to Public Safety
2. Right to Public System
3. Right to Public Services
4. None of these
Question 51:
Under the Bihar Right to public services Rules 2011 the commencement of the Rules have been explained in
1. Rule 5
2. Rule 4
3. Rule 2
4. Rule 1
Question 52:
Who is the appellate authority in the matters of stipend distribution

1. RDD (Edcuation)
2. Dy. Director Welfare
3. Director Education
4. None of these
Question 53:
Under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011 the State Govt. notify the services to be provided ?
1. Section 1
2. Section 2
3. Section 4
4. Section 3
Question 54:
BRTPS Rules 2011 In the matter of first or second appeal an order passed in writing shall also be
1. Read during open hearing
2. Dictated
3. Agreed
4. None of these
,
Question 55:
BRTPS 2011 Act The Appellate Authority can impose penalty upto what amount
1. Ten thousand Rs.
2. Fifteen thousand Rs.
3. Five thousands Rs.
4. None of these
Question 56:
The enforcement of Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 has been dealt with in which provision of the Act
1. Section 1 of the Act
4. Section 1 Cl.(3) of the Act
Question 57:
The amount of the penalty imposed under the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 will not be less than
1. Rs. 1,000/
2. Rs. 1,500/
3. Rs. 2,000/
4. Rs. 500/
Question 58:
under RTPS the amended time limit for issunace of International driving licence is
1. 15 working days
2. 21 working days
3. 30 working days
4. None of these
Question 59:
under BRTPS Act In the amended provision the time limit for issuing the 2nd copy of fitness certificate for a vehicle is fixed to be
1. 3 working days
2. 5 working days
3. 7 working days
4. None of these
Question 60:
Can a designated public servant deny any public service sought for
1. No
2. Yes
3. Can’t say
4. None of these
Question 61:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011 Can public holidays be counted within the stipulate time limit for providing services ?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Can’t say
4. None of these
Question 62:
The provision for passing an order in the first or second appeal is made under which the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011
1. Rule 13
2. Rule 14
3. Rule 15
4. None of these
Question 63:
Tatkal Seva of Bihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011 has started with effect from
1. 15.01.2013
2. 06.01.2014
3. 15.01.2014
4. None of these
Question 64:
The State Govt. may from time to time notify appellate authorities for the redressal of the aggrieved persons under the Bihar Right to Public Services Act. The notification of appellate authority is covered under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011
?
1. Section 3
2. Section 4
3. Section 5
4. None of these
Question 65:
Under the circular of the Bihar Right to public Services for Tatkal Sevan, relative do mean the Mother, Father, Husband, Wife Brother, Unmarried Sister, Son and Unmarried daughter of the applicant.
Is this a correct statement ?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 66:
BRTPS 2011 Act Who is supposed to dispose of the petitions relating to Rashtriya Parivarik Labh Yojna
1. CO
2. BDO
3. SDO
4. None of these
Question 67:
The Total number of sections covered under Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 is
1. 11
2. 12
3. 13
4. 14
Question 68:
under RTPSA In the original notification what was the time limit fixed for the issuance of international driving licence
1. 15 working days
2. 21 workng days
3. 30 working days
4. None of these
Question 69:
Who amongst these is not a member of the committee that recommends appointment of central central information commissioners –
1. Leader of the opposition party in the Lok Sabha
2. Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister
3. Prime Minister of India
4. Election Commissioner of India
Question 70:
BRTPS 2011 Act In case an applicant directly files a petition to a Reviewing Authority against the non-compliance of the order under 6(2) by designated public servant then in that case the Reviewing Authority will dispose of the matter in accordance with the manner
prescribed for
1. 1st Appeal
2. 2nd Appeal
3. Simple proceeding
4. None of these
Question 71:
Can an appellate authority while deciding appeal under the BRTPS require production and inspection of documents
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 72:
Under section 13 of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act it is provided that State Government shall by notification in the official gazette make ______________________________ the provisions of the Act. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option
1. Rules to carryout
2. Laws to impose penalty
3. The people of India aware regarding
4. None of these
Question 73:
In the amended provision the time limit for the issuance of caste certificate at at Circle Officer level is fixed to be
1. 3 working days
2. 5 working days
3. 7 working days
4. 10 working days
Question 74:
The minimum penalty under the provisions of the Bihar right to Public Services Act & Rules 2011 shall not be less than_________________.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate option
1. Rs. 1500
2. Rs. 1000
3. Rs. 500
4. None of these
Question 75:
Can State Govt. send any application directly to appellate authority in case that application alleges regarding non-compliance of the provisions of the Act ?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 76:
Under the Tatkal Seva of Bihar Right to Public Services Act the time limit for the services rendered would be
1. 1 working day
2. 2 working days
3. 3 working days
4. None of these
Question 77:
In the amended provision under BRTPS Act a driver's licence 2nd copy of to be issued within
1. 15 Working days
2. 10 Working days
3. 8 Working days
4. 7 Working days
Question 78:
The Bihar Right to Public services Rules 2011 came into effect from
1. 15 Aug. 2011
2. 2nd May 2011
3. From the date of Notification in the Official Gazette
4. None of these
Question 79:
The Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 has been passed by the
1. State Legislature
2. Parliament
3. Rajya Sabha
4. None of these
Question 80:
Designated Public Servant under Bihar Right to Public Service Act 2011 provides
1. Service
2. Opinion
3. Platform for discussion
4. None of these
Question 81:
In the amended provision under BRTPS 2nd apply of a driver’s licence for a vehicle is to be issued within
1. 15 working days
2. 10 working days
3. 8 working days
4. 7 working days
Question 82:
Relaxation of fee in filing appeal has been provided under which rule of the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011
1. Rule 7
2. Rule 8
3. Rule 9
4. None of these
Question 83:
Is R.O designated public servant to issue any other certificate other than income certificate
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 84:
can a suit or proceeding other than an appeal in respect of an lie in any court order passed within the provisions of the Bihar Right to Public services Act 2011 ?
1. No
2. With the permission of the State Govt.
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 85:
Acording to the preamble to Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 the Act is to provide for the ________ of notified public services. Fill in the blanks with the correct options given.
1. Betterment
2. Delivery
3. Encouragement
4. None of these
Question 86:
Eligible person under the meaning of Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 is
1. A sensible person
2. All persons
3. A person eligible for the notified service
4. None of these
Question 87:
BRTPS 2011 Act Fast track service delivery means

1. Short term delivery
2. Long term delivery
3. "Tatkal Seva"
4. None of these
Question 88:
The time limit in the original notification for issuing tax token was fixed as
1. 3 working days
2. 7 working days
3. 10 working days
4. None of these
Question 89:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, 2011 is an appellant is entitled to have a receipt of the appeal filed ?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 90:
Stipulated time under BRTPS means

1. Maximum time to provide service by the Designated public servent or to devide Appeal / Review
2. Minimum time to provide service
3. One month time
4. None of these
Question 91:
BRTPS 2011 Act Under Tatkal Seva if a person wants to take income cerftificate then which one of the following documents is required to be furnished
1. Phone No. of Chartered Accountant
2. Documents regarding joint assets & properties
3. Updated document regarding Payment of Income Tax
4. None of these
Question 92:
An action taken in ______ can not be questioned. Fill in the blanks with appropriate given option.
1. Irregular manner
2. Good faith
3. Bad faith
4. None of these
Question 93:
In the amended provision the time limit for issuing the 2nd copy of fitness certificate for a vehicle is fixed to be
1. 3 working days
2. 5 working days
3. 7 working days
4. None of these
Question 94:
BRTPS Rules 2011 In case any party remains absent on the date of hearing even after the information of hearing being duly executed to him/her then the application for first or second appeal be, shall be decided in
1. Negative manner
2. Positive manner
3. Absentia
4. None of these
Question 95:
BRTPS Rules 2011 Act Is a designated public servant/appellate authority supposed to maintain the records of all disposed of cases
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 96:
In the amended provisions under what is the time limit fixed for the issuance of temporary registration of a vehicle.
1. 15 woking days
2. 30 working days
3. 7 working days
4. None of these
Question 97:
By which Notification the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 was passed
1. No.3/M-72/2011-1353
2. No.3/M-71/2011-1353
3. No.3/M-72/2011-1553
4. None of these
Question 98:
The State Govt. has issued instructions for the implementation of the provisions of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 by issuing
1. Reward
2. Check list
3. Ex-gratia
4. None of these
Question 99:
In the amended provision the issuance of 2nd copy of the vehicle registration is fixed to be
1. 30 days
2. 21 days
3. 15 days
4. 7 days
Question 100:
Under which Schedule notified by the General Administration Department, the time limits of all the Services under Bihar Right to Public Services Act have been specified
1. Schedule 2
2. Schedule 3
3. Schedule 1
4. None of these
Question 101:
BRTPS 2011 Act Which one of the following is not covered by Tatkal under sewa as per the instructions issued by the General Administration department, Govt. of Bihar
1. Caste certificate
2. Residential certificate
3. Character certificate
4. Income certificate
Question 102:
BRTPS Act 2011 In case of a denial or delay in the service sought for the designated public servent under which provision is applicant required to communicate necessary informations to the
1. Rule 3
2. Rule 4
3. Rule 5
4. None of these
Question 103:
Can a penalty be imposed under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 more than Rs. 5000/ ?
1. No
2. Yes
3. With the consent of the State Govt.
4. None of these
Question 104:
Designated Public Servant under BRTPS 2011 provides

1. Service
2. Opinion
3. Platform for discussion
4. None of these
Question 105:
Under the circular of the Bihar Right to Public Servcies Tatkal sewa, relative do mean the mother, father, husband, wife, brother, unmarried sister, son and unmarried daughter of the applicant. Is this a correct statement?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 106:
Protection of action taken in good faith is covered under which section of the BRTPS 2011 Act .
1. Section 9
2. Section 10
3. Section 11
4. .Section 12
Question 107:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011 Can an appellate authority impose penalty ?
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 108:
Can an appellate authority under the BRTPS Act, 2011 issue summons to appellant and designated public servant for hearing
1. No
2. Yes
3. Not at all
4. None of these
,
Question 109:
Can a fee be charged for providing Tatkal Seva under the Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011
1. Yes
2. No
4. None of these
Question 110:
Recover of penalty has been provided under which rule of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011
1. Rule 15
2. Rule 16
3. Rule 17
4. None of these
Question 111:
BRTPS 2011 Act What will be the mode of recovery of penalty

1. Penalty amount be recovered from the next salary/honourarium/remuneration of the designated public servant/ appellate authority/personal concerned
2. By cheque
3. By cash
4. None of these
Question 112:
Process of communicating the information of hearing is explained in which rule of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011
1. Rule 12
2. Rule 13
3. Rule 14
4. None of these
Question 113:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Services Act the appellate authority shall have the same powers in deciding the appeals as are vested in the civil courts while trying suit under
1. Cr.P.C. 1973
2. C.P.C. 1908
3. Indian Penal Code
4. None of these
Question 114:
Before whom can an appeal be filed under Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 ?
1. High Court
2. Subordinate Court
3. Notified Appellate Authority
4. None of these
Question 115:
BRTPS 2011 Act In an amended provision the caste, income & residential certificate could be obtained from the office of resident commissioner, Bihar, New Delhi and the time limit has been reduced and accordingly fixed as
1. 5 working days
2. 10 working days
3. 15 working days
4. 16 working days
Question 116:
Can a suit or proceeding other than an appel in respect of an lie in any court order passed within the provisions of the Bihar Right to Public services Act 2011
1. No
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 117:
Under amended provision the time limit for the issue of income certificate at circle officer’s level is fixed as
1. 5 working days
2. 10 working days
3. 15 working days
4. None of these
Question 118:
Is Tatkal Seva listed in the Schedule-1 notified under the BRTPS Act
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 119:
BRTPS 2011 Act Name the services which have been included/covered under the Tatkal Seva
1. Caste, Income & Character certificate
2. Income , Residential & Character certificate
3. Caste, Income & Residential certificates
4. None of these
,
Question 120:
Under Bihar Redressal of Public Grievance Act, 2015 while deciding the first or seecond apppeal can any officer be authorized for required investigation in exceptional circumstances
1. Yes
2. No
3.
4.
Question 121:
In case of a denial or delay in the service sought for the Designated Public Servant under which provision is required to communicate necessary informations to the person concerned
1. Rule 3
2. Rule 4
3. Rule 5
4. None of these
Question 122:
BRTPS 2011 Act Under amended provision the time limit for the issue of income certificate at circle office level is fixed as
1. 5 working days
2. 10 working days
3. 15 working days
4. None of these
Question 123:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules can a communication of information for hearing of appeal be made by hand delivery through special messenger ?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 124:
Bar of jurisdiction of courts is provided under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011
1. Section 5
2. Section 6
3. Section 7
4. Section 9
Question 125:
Is Tatkal Seva listed in the Schedule-1 notified under Bihar Right to Public Services Act.
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 126:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, 2011 in case of a denial or delay in the service sought, under which rule the Designated Public Servant is required to communicate necessary informations to the applicant concerned ?
1. Rule 3
2. Rule 4
3. Rule 5
4. None of these
Question 127:
The Time limit for filing an appeal under the Right to Bihar Public Services Act 2011 is
1. Within 60 days from rejection of application or expiry of stipulated time limit
4. None of these
Question 128:
Who can file an appeal under Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011
1. Anybody who wants to file an appeal
2. A person seeking information can also file an appeal
3. No person other than the aggrieved person can file an appeal
4. None of these
Question 129:
Right to Public Service under Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 means
1. Right to file a suit for the service
2. Right to obtain the service
3. Right to Complain for the service
4. None of these
Question 130:
Can an appellate authority under the Bihar Right to Public Services Act issue summons to appellant and designated public servant for hearing ?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 131:
Bar of jurisdiction of courts is provided under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 ?
1. Section 5
2. Section 6
3. Section 7
4. Section 9
Question 132:
Can an Appellate Authority while deciding appeal under Bihar Right to Public Services Act require production and inspection of documents ?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 133:
As per Bihar Right to Public Service Act, 2011 can a suit prosecution or any other proceeding can lie against any person for anything which is done in good faith
1. No
2. Yes
4. None of these
Question 134:
For the purposes of services relating to distribution of stipends the Reviewing authority will be
1. District Education Officer
2. SDO
4. Director (Primary) & Director (Secondary)
Question 135:
Process of deciding the first or second appeal has been explained in which rule of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011
1. Rule 10
2. Rule 11
3. Rule 12
4. None of these
Question 136:
Under the Bihar Right to public services Rule 2011 the commencement of the Rules have been explained in
1. Rule 5
2. Rule 4
3. Rule 2
4. Rule 1
Question 137:
Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 has made a provision for the monitoring of implementation of the provisions of the Act. Is this correct
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 138:
In the amended provisions under what is the time limit fixed for the issuance of temporary registration of a vehicle.
1. 15 Working days
2. 30 Working days
3. 7 Working days
4. None of these
Question 139:
Under which Schedule notification the GAD the time limits of all the Services under BRTPS Act have been specified
1. Schedule 2
2. Schedule 3
3. Schedule 1
4. None of these
Question 140:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011 Can an applicant aggrieved from non-compliance by the designated public servant of order passed under section 6 (2) submit an application directly to the reviewing authority
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 141:
Under Tatkal Seva if a person require caste certificate to be issued then which one of the following document is permissible to be furnished
1. Candidate’s Photograph
2. Date of Birth
3. Place of Birth
4. Photocopy of a Khatiyan
Question 142:
General Administration Department, Govt. of Bihar had issued an important order regarding the successful implementation of the provisions of Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011. The said order was letter no. issued by
1. 1923 dt. 16.08.2011
2. 17233 dt. 10.08.2011
3. 1923 dt. 16.06.2011
4. None of these
Question 143:
The informations regarding the provisions and the checklist of Tatkal Seva of Bihar Right to Public Services Act shall ___________________ displayed at the notice board of Block and Anchal Office
Please fill in the blanks by appropriate option.
1. Not be
2. Necessarily be
3. Discuss
4. None of these
Question 144:
Under Tatkal Seva of Bihar Right to Public Services Act what must be mentioned on the face of the receipt issued for application
1. Important
2. Services
3. Tatkal Seva
4. None of these
Question 145:
Under Tatkal Seva an applicant for identification has to furnish a self attested copy of any one of the documents listed in
1. Group-B
2. Group-C
3. Group-A
4. None of these
Question 146:
Rules have been framed in order to

1. Differenciate between Act & Rule
2. Discuss any conflict between the Act and the Rule
3. Override the provisions of the Act
4. Carry out the provisions of the Act
Question 147:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, the amended time limit for the issuance of residential certificate at circle office level is fixed to be
1. 3 working days
2. 5 working days
3. 10 working days
4. None of these
Question 148:
The minimum penalty under the provisions of the Bihar right to Public Services Act & Rules 2011 shall not be less than_________________
1. Rs. 1500
2. Rs. 1000
3. Rs. 500
4. None of these
Question 149:
BRTPS 2011 Act Who is the appellate authority for the purposes of services of income certificate
1. SDO
3. Additional Collector
4. None of these
Question 150:
Can Additional collector issue the ration cards

1. Yes
2. No
3. With the permission of SDO
4. None of these
Question 151:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 "format" means

1. GST Format
2. Formats annexed with these rules
3. Income Tax Format
4. Those under which rules have been framed
Question 152:
Under which group the documents have been listed which is to be furnished for obtaining special services like caste, residential & income certificate
1. Group-A
2. Group-B
3. Group-C
4. None of these
Question 153:
By a CIC decision it has been held that information which is not available with the Publice Information Officer cannot be created by a PIO. Is this a correct statement ?
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 154:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, 2011 Who is the designated public servant to give fitness certificate for a vehicle
4. None of these
Question 155:
In the matters of appeal the communication of hearing date be made at least 7 days before the date of hearing. This provision is made under which Rule of the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 ?
1. Rule 13
2. Rule 14 (2)
3. Rule 15
4. Rule 14 (1)
Question 156:
BRTPS 2011 Act Total number of services has been placed/covered under Tatkal Seva is
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Question 157:
The Bihar Right to Public services Rules 2011 came into effect from
1. 15 Aug. 2011
2. 2nd May 2011
3. From the date of Notification in the Official Gazette
4. None of these
Question 158:
The Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 has a provision which empowers the State Govt. to remove difficulties. Name the section.
1. Section 14
2. Section 15
3. Section 16
4. None of these
Question 159:
Is Tatkal Seva listed in the Schedule-1 notified under the BRTPS Act
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 160:
All departments have been asked to depute an officer who will visit the offices to concered ensure the arrangements as per the check list under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules. The deputed officer is called as
1. Nodal Officer
2. Principal Officer
3. Touring Officer
4. None of these
Question 161:
Under the amended provision the time limit for the issuance of residential certificate at circle office level is fixed to be
1. 3 working days
2. 5 working days
3. 10 working days
4. None of these
Question 162:
Under Tatkal Seva the detailed descriptions of Adhikar Software is mentioned in which Enclosure
1. Enclosure I
2. Enclosure II
3. Enclosure III
4. None of these
Question 163:
Service under Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 means any service notified under which section of the Act
1. Section 1
2. Section 2
3. Section 3
4. None of these
Question 164:
Can any fee be taken from an applicant under the Tatkal Seva of
1. Yes
2. No
3. With the permission of the designated public Officer
4. None of these
Question 165:
Which one of the following is not covered byTatkal Seva As per the instructions issued by the General Administration Department, Govt. of Bihar
Question 166:
Under Tatkal Seva of Bihar Right to Public Services Act an applicant, for the purpose of identification, has to furnish a self attested copy of any one of documents listed in
1. Group-a
2. Group-b
3. Group-c
4. None of these
Question 167:
Under which Rule of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 the provision is made for the issuance of acknowledgement to the applicants
1. Rule 2
2. Rule 3
3. Rule 4
4. Rule 5
Question 168:
The Bihar Right to Public Services Act has been enacted in which year of the Republic of India ?
1. Sixty first year of the Republic of India
2. Sixty third year of the Republic of India
3. Sixty second year of the Republic of India
4. None of these
Question 169:
The State Govt. may from time to time notify the designated Public Servant and the provision is explained under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011 ?
1. Section 2
2. Section 3
3. Section 4
4. Section 5
Question 170:
Right to obtain notified services within stipulated time limit is provided under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011 ?
1. Section 3
2. Section 4
3. Section 5
4. None of these
Question 171:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, the amended time limit for the issuance of residential certificate at sub-divisional officer level and District Magistrate level is fixed as
1. 2 working days
2. 3 working days
3. 5 working days
4. 10 worknig days
Question 172:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, the amended time limit for the issue of income certificate at circle officer’s level is fixed as
1. 5 working days
2. 10 working days
3. 15 working days
4. None of these
Question 173:
In an amended provision the time limit for the issuance of Income certificate at subdivisional officer & District Magistrate level is fixed to be
1. 3 working days
2. 5 working days
3. 10 working days
4. None of these
,
Question 174:
The Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 is a

1. Local Act
2. State Act
3. Municipal Act
4. None of these
Question 175:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011 in case an applicant directly files a petition to a Reviewing Authority against the non-compliance by a designated public servant of the order under 6(2), then in that case the Reviewing Authority will dispose of the matter in
the manner prescribed for
1. 1st Appeal
2. 2nd Appeal
3. Simple proceeding
4. None of these
Question 176:
BRTPS 2011 Act Can a Designated Public Servant authorize any of his subordinate to receive the applications for seeking service
1. No
2. Yes
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 177:
The documents to be enclosed with first or second appeal are listed and provided under which Rule of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011
1. Rule 10
2. Rule 11
3. Rule 12
4. None of these
Question 178:
The enforcement of Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 has been dealt with in which provision of the Act ?
4. Section 1 Cl.(3) of the Act
Question 179:
Under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act the State Govt. is empowered to make rules to carry out the provisions of the Act
1. Section 12
2. Section 11
3. Section 13
4. Section 14
Question 180:
Can a suit prosecution or any other proceeding can lie against any person for anything which is done in good faith ?
1. No
2. Yes
4. None of these
Question 181:
How many Rules have been provided under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011
1. 16
2. 17
3. 18
4. 19
Question 182:
Under section 13 of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act it is provided that State Government shall by notification in the official gazette make __________ the provisions of the Act. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option.
1. Rules to carryout
2. Laws to impose penalty
3. The people of India aware regarding
4. None of these
Question 183:
BRTPS 2011 Act Non-compliance of the orders of appellate/Reviewing Authority amount to

1. Misconduct
2. Criminal act
3. Irregularity
4. None of these
Question 184:
Under Tatkal Seva of RTPSA, 2011 the receipt of the what application must be mention on the receipt
1. Important
2. Services
3. Tatkal Seva
4. None of these
,
Question 185:
under BRTPS Right to Public Service means

1. Right to file a suit for the service
2. Right to obtain the service
3. Right to Complain for the service
4. None of these
Question 186:
Can a fee be charged for filing an appeal under Bihar Right to Public Services rules 2011
1. No
2. Yes
3. With the permission of the State of Govt.
4. None of these
Question 187:
The process of communicating the information of hearing in 1st or 2nd Appeal by registered post with acknowledgement receipt under which rule of the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 ?
1. Rule 13 (1)
2. Rule 13 (2)
3. Rule 13 (3)
4. Rule 13 (4)
Question 188:
BRTPS 2011 Act Under Tatkal Seva if a person wants to take the service of getting his residential certificate he is to furnish which one of the following documents
1. Marksheet
2. His photograph
3. The Photocopy of updated rent receipt
4. None of these
Question 189:
Under BRTPS for appeal, the Appellate Authority after the expiry of the period of 30 days for
1. May admit the appeal if he is satisfied that the appellate was prevented by suffcient come from filing the appeal in time
2. Will reject the appeal
3. Will not entertain the appeal
4. None of these
Question 190:
Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 has made a provision for the monitoring of implementation of the provisions of the Act. Is this correct
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 191:
The Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 has a provision which empowers the State Govt. to remove difficulties. Name the section ?
1. Section 14
2. Section 15
3. Section 16
4. None of these
Question 192:
Dy. Director Education will be the appellate authority for the purposes of which services
1. Education loan
2. Sports Prizes
3. Stipends Distribution
4. None of these
Question 193:
Under BRTPS Act,2011 designated public servant in case of service denied or delayed shall
1. Communicate the reasons to the person eligible for applying for the service
2. Instruct the applicant to reapply
3. Suggest the person concerned to seek remedy at other authority
4. None of these
Question 194:
General Administration Department, Govt. of Bihar had issued instructions for the initiation of the Tatkal Seva. The concerned letter no. is
1. Letter no.19621 dt. 27.11.2013
2. Letter no.19421 dt.27.12.2013
3. Letter no.19221 dt.27.11.2013
4. Letter no.19621 dt.27.12.2013
Question 195:
BRTPS 2011 Act Is an appellant is entitled to have a receipt of the appeal filed
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 196:
Under the Tatkal seva of Bihar Right to Public Services Act, is an applicant required to annex a self attested copy of Physically handicapped certificate for identification of applicant
1. No
2. Yes
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 197:
Which department had issued order for deleting certain services from the original list
1. Home Department Govt. of Bihar
2. Bihar Administrative Reforms Mission Society
3. General Administration Department Govt. of Bihar
4. None of these
Question 198:
Under Tatkal Seva if a person wants to take income cerftificate then which one of the following documents is required to be furnished
1. Phone No. of Chartered Accountant
2. Documents regarding joint assets & properties
3. Updated document regarding Payment of Income Tax
4. None of these
Question 199:
under BRTPS Act The time limit of the renewal of the petrol pump registration in the amended provision is fixed to be
1. 7 working days
2. 15 working days
3. 21 working days
4. 30 working days
Question 200:
Is The Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 applicable to other states
1. No
2. Yes
3. With the consent of Govt. of Bihar
4. None of these
Question 201:
The Report regarding the implementation of the provisions of the RTI Act would be prepared by the Central Information Commission and is placed in the floor of the
1. Vidhan Sabha
2. Vidhan Parishad
3. Rajya Sabha
4. Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
Question 202:
If State Govt. gets an application alleging the non-compliance of the provisions of the Act it may send the application directly to the Appellate Authority for taking further actions as per the Act. This provision is explained under which section of the Act
1. Section 9
2. Section 10
3. Section 11
4. None of these
Question 203:
Under which provision of the BRTPS 2011 Act the State Govt. is empowered to make rules to carry out provisions of this Act.
1. Section 12
2. Section 11
3. Section 13
4. Section 14
Question 204:
BRTPS 2011 Act Under amended provision for the issuance of residential certificate at sub-divisional officer level and District Magistrate level is fixed as
1. 2 working days
2. 3 working days
3. 5 working days
4. 10 worknig days
Question 205:
In the matters of appeal the communication of hearing date be made atleast 7 days before the date of hearing. This provision is made under which Rule of the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011
1. Rule 13
2. Rule 15
3. Rule 14 (2)
4. Rule 14 (I)
Question 206:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, the amended time limit for obtaining the caste, income & residential certificate from the office of resident commissioner, Bihar, New Delhi is fixed as
1. 5 working days
2. 10 working days
3. 15 working days
4. 16 working days
Question 207:
BRTPS 2011 Act While deciding the first or second appeal can any officer be authorized for required an investigation in exceptional circumstances
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 208:
Under what provision of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 is it mentioned that in case any party remains absent on the date of hearing even after the information was duly executed then a first or second appeal shall be decided in inabsentia
1. Rule 13
2. Rule 15
3. Rule 12
4. Rule 14 (4)
Question 209:
Has the under RTPS been seduel from the time unit notified earlier the limits of certain services
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 210:
In the amended provision the time limit for issuing the 2nd copy of fitness certificate for a vehicle is fixed to be
1. 3 working days
2. 5 working days
3. 7 working days
4. None of these
Question 211:
What was the time limit for the issuance of learners licence for vehicles in the original notification before the amendment under RTPS Act, 2011
1. 30 working days
2. 45 working days
3. 60 working days
4. 15 working days
Question 212:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules Prescribed Format means

1. Prescribed Format by the concerned Department delivering a notified services
2. A Format in which the list of designated Public servants have been given
3. To be used in all matters
4. None of these
Question 213:
The time limit in the original notification for issuing tax token was fixed as
1. 3 working days
2. 7 working days
3. 10 working days
4. None of these
Question 214:
The State Govt. may from time to time notify the stipulated time limit. under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011 it is mentioned
1. Section 3
2. Section 4
3. Section 5
4. None of these
Question 215:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, in case any party remains absent on the date of hearing even after the information of hearing being duly executed to him/her then the application for first or second appeal, shall be decided in
1. Negative manner
2. Positive manner
3. Absentia
4. None of these
Question 216:
Has the the time limits of certain services under RTPS been reduced from the time limit notified earlier
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 217:
Public authority means the State Govt. and its departments and includes any authority or body or institution established or constituted by or under any law made by the State Legislature. The Public authority is defined under which provision of the Act ?
1. Section 2 (e)
2. Section 2 (f)
3. Section 2 (g)
4. None of these
Question 218:
BRTPS 2011 Act Can a penalty be imposed under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 more than Rs. 5000/-
1. No
2. Yes
3. With the consent of the State Govt.
4. None of these
Question 219:
By which Notification No. the Right to Bihar Public Services Act was notified
1. Not. No.3/M-71/2011-1421 Dt. 11 May 2011
2. Not. No.4/M-72/2011-1431 Dt. 11 June 2011
3. Not. No.4/M-73/2011-1441 dt. 15 Aug. 2011
4. None of these
Question 220:
If State Govt. gets an application alleging the non-compliance of the provisions of the Act it may send the application directly to the Appellate Authority for taking further actions as per the Act. This provision is explained under which section of the Bihar Right to Public
Services Act ?
1. Section 9
2. Section 10
3. Section 11
4. None of these
Question 221:
BRTPS 2011 Act Prescribed Format means

1. Prescribed Format by the concerned Department delivering a notified service
2. A Format in which the list of designated Public servants have been given
3. To be used in all matters
4. None of these
Question 222:
BRTPS 2011 Act Can a Reviewing Authority impose a penalty on Appellate Authority
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 223:
Under what provision of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 it is mentioned that in case any party remains absent on the date of hearing even after the information was duly executed then a first or second appeal shall be decided in inabsentia
1. Rule 13
2. Rule 15
3. Rule 12
4. Rule 14 (4)
Question 224:
BRTPS 2011 Act In amended provision the time limit for issue of caste certificate at SDO and DM level is also fixed as
1. 5 working days
2. 10 working days
3. 15 working days
4. None of these
Question 225:
The second appeal can be filed before __________________ authority

Fill in the blanks with appropriate option given
1. Reviewing
2. appellate
3. designated Public servant
4. None of these
Question 226:
Is there any provision for the dissemination & Training of the provisions of the Bihar Right to Public Servcies Rules 2011
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 227:
BRTPS 2011 Act If an application is filed annexing all necessary documents and the application is complete in all respects then the authorized person will make
1. A reference to designated public servant
2. The appellate authority know
3. The mention of stipulated time limit on the receipt
4. None of these
Question 228:
BRTPS 2011 Act For the purposes of services relating to distribution of stipends the reviewing authority will be
1. District Education Officer
2. SDO
4. Director (Primary) & Director (Secondary)
Question 229:
Can an appeal be filed after the expiry of stipulated time is elapsed. If so within how many days an appeal be filed in that case
4. None of these
Question 230:
In the matter of surrender of vehicles the reviewing authority would be -

1. DTO
2. RTA Secretary
4. None of these
Question 231:
Right to obtain notified services within stipulated time limit is provided under which section of the BRTPS Act,2011 -
1. Section 3
2. Section 4
3. Section 5
4. None of these
Question 232:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Services Act total number of services has been placed/covered under Tatkal Seva is
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Question 233:
Who is authorized to give fitness certificate for a vehicle

4. None of these
Question 234:
In the original notification under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, 2011 before the amendment what was the time limit for the issuance of learner's licence of vehicle
1. 30 working days
2. 45 working days
3. 60 working days
4. 15 working days
Question 235:
Who is the reviewing authority for the matters of services related to Transport
2. Transport Commissioner
Question 236:
Is a annexing attastted copy of Physically handicapped certificate sufficent for identification of the applicant under Tatkal Seva of BRTPSA
1. No
2. Yes
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 237:
The penalty imposed under the provisions of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 shall not exceed to
1. Rs. 1000
2. Rs. 2500
3. Rs. 4000
4. Rs. 5000
Question 238:
BRTPS 2011 Act Can Additional Collector issue the ration cards
1. Yes
2. No
3. With the permission of SDO
4. None of these
,
Question 239:
Stipulated time under Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 means
1. Maximum time to provide service by the designated public servant or to decide appeal/review
2. Minimum time to provide service
3. One month time
4. None of these
Question 240:
All departments have been asked to depute an officer who will visit the offices concerned to ensure the arrangements as per the check list. The deputed officer is called as
1. Nodal Officer
2. Principal Officer
3. Touring Officer
4. None of these
Question 241:
Under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules Public holidays have been excluded from counting within the stipulated limit for providing service time
1. Rule 4
2. Rule 5
3. Rule 6
4. None of these
Question 242:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, 2011 in the matter of first or second appeal an order passed in writing shall also be
1. Read during open hearing
2. Dictated
3. Agreed
4. None of these
Question 243:
under BRTPS Act The time limit for the issuance of 2nd of RC was fixed in the original notification is
1. 7 working days
2. 15 working days
3. 21 working days
4. None of these
Question 244:
RTPS stands for

1. Right to Public Safety
2. Right to Public System
3. Right to Public Services
4. None of these
Question 245:
The Notification for enactment of Bihar Right to public Services Act was prepared and notified by
1. Cabinet Coordination department Govt. of Bihar
2. Home Department, Govt. of Bihar
3. Human Resource Development Department, Govt. of Bihar
4. General Administration Department Govt. of Bihar
Question 246:
The process of communicating the information of hearing in 1st or 2nd Appeal is provided by registered post with acknowledgement receipt under which rule of the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011
1. Rule 13 (1)
2. Rule 13 (2)
3. Rule 13 (3)
4. Rule 13 (4)
Question 247:
In the amended provision the time limits for the issue of tax token is fixed as
1. 1 working day
2. 3 working days
3. 5 working days
4. None of these
Question 248:
Ration cards are being issued by

1. SDO
2. CO
3. Marketing officer
4. None of these
Question 249:
Under amended provision for the issuance of residential certificate at sub-divisional officer level and District Magistrate level is fixed as
1. 2 working days
2. 3 working days
3. 5 working days
4. 10 worknig days
,
Question 250:
Bihar Right to Public Servcies Rules 2011 has discussed at length for the dissemination & training under which provision of the Rules
1. Rule 16 (1) to (4)
2. Rule 17 (1) to (6
3. Rule 18 (1) to (6)
4. None of these
Question 251:
under BRTPS Act The time limit in the original notification for issuing tax token was fixed as
1. 3 working days
2. 7 working days
3. 10 working days
4. None of these
Question 252:
The Bihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011 was proclaimed as

1. Bihar Act, 02, 2011
2. Bihar Act, 04, 2011
3. Bihar Act, 06, 2011
4. None of these
Question 253:
The software designed for the implementation of the provisions of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011
1. Important
2. Tatkal
3. Adhikar
4. None of these
Question 254:
Certain matters services for registration which are not being done at district level are being done at the level of
1. I.G. Registration
2. Home Department
3. Board of Revenue
4. None of these
Question 255:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, in case during the hearing of an appeal if an applicant/designated public servant is not present under certain circumstances then before passing an order how many chances shall be given to the concerned
1. Two more chances
2. Three more chances
3. One more chance
4. None of these
Question 256:
The State Govt. may from time to time notify the stipulated time limit which has been provided under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011.
1. Section 3
2. Section 4
3. Section 5
4. None of these
Question 257:
Who is the appellate authority under the Mukhyamantri Kanya Vivah Yojna
1. BDO
2. SDO
3. District Programme Officer (ICDS)
4. None of these
Question 258:
BRTPS 2011 Act Who is the appellate authority under the Mukhyamantri Kanya Vivah Yojna
1. BDO
2. SDO
3. District Programme Officer
4. None of these
Question 259:
BRTPS 2011 Act Which officer is notified the designated public servant entitled to issue learning licence for driving vehicle
1. BDO
2. CO
3. SDO
4. DTO
Question 260:
Under the Tatkal Seva of the time limit for the services rendered would be
1. 1 working day
2. 2 working days
3. 3 working days
4. None of these
Question 261:
Under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, 2011 Public holidays have been excluded from counting within the stipulated time limit for providing services ?
1. Rule 4
2. Rule 5
3. Rule 6
4. None of these
Question 262:
The Bihar Right to Public Services Act came into force from
1. 15 July 2011
2. 10 August 2011
3. 15 August 2011
4. None of these
Question 263:
Process of deciding the first or second appeal has been explained in which rule of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 ?
1. Rule 10
2. Rule 11
3. Rule 12
4. None of these
Question 264:
Which officer is notified as the designated public servant to issue learning licence for vehicle driving
1. BDO
2. CO
3. SDO
4. DTO
Question 265:
The State Govt. may from time to time notify appellate authorities for the redressal of the deprived persons under the Bihar Right to Public Services Act. The notification of appellate authority is covered under which section of the Act
1. Section 3
2. Section 4
3. Section 5
4. None of these
Question 266:
The provision of Appeal is covered under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011
1. Section 5
2. Section 6
3. Section 7
4. None of these
Question 267:
An action taken in ____________________ cannot be questioned. Fill in the blanks with appropriate given option
1. Irregular manner
2. Good faith
3. Bad faith
4. None of these
Question 268:
BRTPS 2011 Act Under which group the documents have been listed which is to be furnished for obtaining special services like caste, residential & income certificate
1. Group-a
2. Group-b
3. Group-c
4. None of these
Question 269:
The amount of the penalty imposed under the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 will not be less than
1. Rs. 1,000/
2. Rs. 1,500/
3. Rs. 2,000/
4. Rs. 500/
Question 270:
Under RTPS Act the amended time limit for issuance of International driving licence is
1. 15 working days
2. 21 working days
3. 30 working days
4. None of these
Question 271:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, 2011 which officer is notified as the designated public servant to dispose of the petitions relating to Rashtriya Parivarik Labh Yojna ?
1. CO
2. BDO
3. SDO
4. None of these
Question 272:
The Bihar Right to Public Services Act was notified on

1. 02 May 2011
2. 11 June 2011
3. 15 Aug, 2011
4. None of these
Question 273:
The provision for the dissemination and training of the provisions of the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 has been made under which Rule
1. Rule 17
2. Rule 18
3. Rule 19
4. None of these
Question 274:
Can a Reviewing Authority impose a penalty on Appellate Authority

1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 275:
How many Rules have been Provided under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 ?
1. 16
2. 17
3. 18
4. 19
Question 276:
The third party information is explained in which section of the RTI Act ?
1. Section 9
2. Section 10
3. Section 11
4. Section 12
Question 277:
The State Govt. has issued instructions for the implementation of the provisions of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 by issusing
1. Reward
2. Check list
3. Ex-gratia
4. None of these
Question 278:
Under BRTPS Act,2011 Can public holidays be counted within the stipulated limit for providing service time
1. Yes
2. No
3. Can’t say
4. None of these
Question 279:
Right means
1. To do anything
2. To expect anything
3. Rights given under the statutes
4. None of these
Question 280:
The time limit for the issuance of 2nd of RC was fixed in the original notification is
1. 7 working days
2. 15 working days
3. 21 working days
4. None of these
Question 281:
Who can file an appeal under Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 ?
1. Any body who wants to file an appeal
2. A person seeking information can also file an appeal
3. No person other than the aggrieved person can file an appeal
4. None of these
Question 282:
Under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 the Appellate Authority can impose penalty
1. Section 6
2. Section 5
3. Section 4
4. Section 7
Question 283:
BRTPS 2011 Act The second appeal can be filed before of __________________ authority
1. Reviewing
2. appellate
3. designated Public servant
4. None of these
Question 284:
Service under BRTPS Act,2011 means any service notified under which section of the Act
1. Section 1
2. Section 2
3. Section 3
4. None of these
Question 285:
Under which Rule of the Bihar Right to Public Service Rules,2011 the display of information on the notice board regarding services have been dealt with
1. Rule 4
2. Rule 5
3. Rule 6
4. Rule 7
Question 286:
The Bihar Right to Public Services Act,2011 has been enacted in which year of the Republic of India
1. Sixty first year of the Republic of India
2. Sixty third year of the Republic of India
3. Sixty second year of the Republic of India
4. None of these
Question 287:
What was the time limit for the issuance of learners licence for vehicles in the original notification before the amendment under RTPS Act, 2011
1. 30 working days
2. 45 working days
3. 60 working days
4. 15 working days
Question 288:
The provision for passing an order in the first or second appeal is made under which Rule BRTPS Rules 2011
1. Rule 13
2. Rule 14
3. Rule 15
4. None of these
Question 289:
The State Govt. from time to time may notify the reviewing authority for the purposes of the fulfillment of the provisions of the Act. Under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011 it is mentioned ?
1. Section 2
2. Section 4
3. Section 3
4. None of these
Question 290:
The provision of Appeal is covered under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 ?
1. Section 5
2. Section 6
3. Section 7
4. None of these
Question 291:
Who is the reviewing authority for the puposes of resdential certificate services
1. CO
2. SDO
3. BDO
Question 292:
Under BRTPS Act in the original notification what was the time limit fixed for the issuance of international driving licence
1. 15 working days
2. 21 working days
3. 30 working days
4. None of these
Question 293:
In the matter of surrender of vehicles the reviewing authority would be BRTPS 2011 Act
1. DTO
2. RTA Secretary
3. Commissioner of a Division
4. None of these
Question 294:
Under which Rule of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 the provision is made for the issuance of acknowledgement to the applicants
1. Rule 2
2. Rule 3
3. Rule 4
4. Rule 5
Question 295:
Under BRTPS Rules,2011 Designated Public Servant for the convenience of common public shall
1. Depute a person to inform the persons concerned
2. come to display all relevant of information regarding services on Notice Board
3. Not display anything on the Notice Board
4. None of these
Question 296:
Dy. Director Education will be the appellate authority for the purposes of which services
1. Education loan
2. Sports Prizes
3. Stipends Distribution
4. None of these
Question 297:
BRTPS 2011 Act Can an applicant aggrieved from designated public servant for non-compliance of order u/s 6(2) may submit an application directly to the reviewing authority
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 298:
The State Govt.may notify the services from time to be provided Under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act,2011-
1. Section 1
2. Section 2
3. Section 4
4. Section 3
Question 299:
under BRTPS Act In the amended provision the issuance of 2nd copy of the vehicle registration is fixed to be
1. 30 days
2. 21 days
3. 15 days
4. 7 days
Question 300:
Certain services for registration which are not being done at district level are being done at the level of
1. I.G. Registration office
2. Home Department
3. Board of Revenue
4. None of these
Question 301:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules, 2011 can a Designated Public Servant authorize any of his subordinate to receive the applications seeking service
1. No
2. Yes
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 302:
BRTPS 2011 Act In an amended provision the time limit for the issuance of Income certificate at subdivisional officer & District Magistrate level is fixed to be
1. 3 working days
2. 5 working days
3. 10 working days
4. None of these
Question 303:
The Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 has been passed by the
2. Parliament
3. Rajya Sabha
4. None of these
,
Question 304:
Under which Rule of the Bihar Right to Public Service Rules, 2011 the display of information on the notice board regarding services have been dealt with ?
1. Rule 4
2. Rule 5
3. Rule 6
4. Rule 7
Question 305:
'' Definatiions'' is covered under which Section of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 ?
1. Section 1
2. Section 2
3. Section 3
4. Section 4
Question 306:
Can a fee be charged for filing an appeal under Bihar Right to Public Services rules 2011 ?
1. No
2. Yes
3. With the permission of the State of Govt.
4. None of these
Question 307:
BRTPS 2011 Act Under Tatkal Seva if a person require caste certificate to be issued then which one of the following document is permissible to be furnished
1. Candidate’s Photograph
2. Date of Birth
3. Place of Birth
4. Photocopy of 'Khatiyan'
Question 308:
Process of communicating the information of hearing is explained in which rule of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 ?
1. Rule 12
2. Rule 13
3. Rule 14
4. None of these
Question 309:
Is there any provision for the dissemination & Training of the provisions of the Bihar Right to Public Servcies Act 2011 under its rules
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 310:
BRTPS 2011 Act Can an appellate authority impose penalty

1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 311:
As per the instructions issued by the General Administration department, Govt. of Bihar, Which one of the following is not covered under Tatkal Seva of Bihar Right to Public Services Act
Question 312:
According to the preamble to Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 the Bihar Right to Public Services Act is to provide for the ________ of notified public services. Fill in the blanks with the correct options given.
1. Betterment
2. Delivery
3. Encouragement
4. None of these
Question 313:
In case of review the information for hearing be the provision of ending communication is mentioned which rule of the Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011
1. Rule 13 (1)
2. Rule 13 (2)
3. Rule 13 (3)
4. Rule 13 (4)
Question 314:
under BRTPS Act In the amended provision the time limits for the issue of tax token is fixed as
1. 1 working day
2. 3 working days
3. 5 working days
4. None of these
,
Question 315:
Under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules if an application is filed annexing all necessary documents and the application is complete in all respects then the authorized person will make
1. A reference to designated public servant
2. The appellate authority know
3. The mention of stipulated time limit on the receipt
4. None of these
Question 316:
The Bihar Right to Public Services Act was enacted in the year
1. 2011
2. 2010
3. 2009
4. None of these
Question 317:
Under Tatkal Seva of Bihar Right to Public Services Act if a person requires his residential certificate to be issued, he is to furnish which one of the following documents
1. Marksheet
2. His photograph
3. The Photocopy of updated rent receipt of the Holding/Residence
4. None of these
Question 318:
For the implementation of the provisions of Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 which department had issued instructions to all superintendent of police
1. Home (Police) Department Bihar Govt.
2. General Administration Deparment Bihar Govt.
3. Director General Police, Bihar
4. None of these
Question 319:
Public means
1. Any Eligible person
2. General person
3. Local person
4. Government/Governmental
Question 320:
Tatkal Seva has been started w.e.f from

1. 15.01.2013
2. 06.01.2014
3. 15.01.2014
4. None of these
Question 321:
The informations regarding the provisions and the checklist of Tatkal Seva shall ___________________ displayed at the notice board of Block and Anchal Office
Please fill in the blanks appropriate option.
1. Not be
2. Necessarily be
3. Discuss
4. None of these
Question 322:
BRTPS Act 2011 The State Govt. may from time to time notify the designated Public Servant and the provision is explained under which section of the Act
1. Section 2
2. Section 3
3. Section 4
4. Section 5
Question 323:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Services Act, the Appellate Authority can impose penalty upto what amount ?
1. Rs 10000
2. Rs. 15000
3. Rs. 5000
4. None of these
Question 324:
BRTPS 2011 Act The appellate authority shall have the same powers in deciding the appeals as are vested in the civil courts while trying suit under
1. Cr.P.C. 1973
2. C.P.C. 1908
4. None of these
Question 325:
Under Tatkal Seva of Bihar Right to Public Services Act, the designated officer will be the same as before namely
2. Revenue Officer
3. DPO, ICDS
4. None of these
Question 326:
The documents to be enclosed with first or second appeal are listed and provided under which Rule of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 ?
1. Rule 10
2. Rule 11
3. Rule 12
4. None of these
Question 327:
Who is the appellate authority for the purposes of services of income certificate
1. SDO
4. None of these
Question 328:
Which of these organizations of Bihar Govt. monitors the implementation of the provisions of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011
1. Bihar State Financial Corporation
2. Bihar Prashasnik Sudhaar Mission Society
3. Social Welfare Department
4. None of these
Question 329:
In an amended provision the caste, income & residential certificate could be obtained from the office of resident commissioner, Bihar, New Delhi and the time limit has been reduced and accordingly fixed as
1. 5 working days
2. 10 working days
3. 15 working days
4. 16 working days
Question 330:
Bihar Right to Public Servcies Rules 2011 has discussed at length for the dissemination & training under which provision of the Rules
1. Rule 16 (1) to (4)
2. Rule 17 (1) to (6)
3. Rule 18 (1) to (6)
4. None of these
Question 331:
The State Govt. from time to time may notify the reviewing authority for the purposes of the fulfillment of the provisions of the Act. Under which provision of Bihar Public Service Guarantee Act it is mentioned
1. Section 2
2. Section 4
3. Section 3
4. None of these
Question 332:
Which of these organizations of Bihar Govt monitor the implementation of the provisions of the Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011
1. Bihar State Financial Corporation
2. Bihar Prashasnik sudhar Mission Society
4. None of these
Question 333:
BRTPS 2011 Act Under Tatkal Seva of BRTPS Act the designated officer will be the same as before; namely
2. Revenue Officer
3. DPO, ICDS
4. None of these
Question 334:
Is the Bihar Right to Public Services Act 2011 applicable to other states
1. No
2. Yes
3. With the consent of Govt. of Bihar
4. None of these
Question 335:
The Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 What will be the mode of recovery of penalty
1. Penalty amount be recovered from the next salary/honourarium/remuneration of the designated public servant/appellate authority/personal concerned
2. By cheque
3. By cash
4. None of these
Question 336:
Under The informations regarding the provisions and the checklist of Tatkal Seva shall ___________________ displayed at the notice board of Block and Anchal Office
Please fill in the blanks with appropriate option.
1. Not be
2. Necessarily be
3. Discuss
4. None of these
Question 337:
Can State Govt. send any application directly to appellate authority in case that application alleges regarding non-compliance of the provisions of the Act
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 338:
Procedure of application for first and second appeal have been provided under which rule of Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011
1. Rule 7
2. Rule 8
3. Rule 9
4. Rule 10
Question 339:
BRTPS 2011 Act In the office of Superintendent of Police the amended time limit for the disposal of character report verification in the under the provision of RTPS is
1. 7 working days
2. 14 working days
3. 21 woring days
4. None of these
Question 340:
In which of the following year the Bihar Right to service (Amendment) code was passed ?
1. 2011
2. 2012
3. 2014
4. None of these
Question 341:
Name the services which have been included/covered under the Tatkal Seva
1. Caste, Income & Character certificate
2. Income , Residential & Character certificate
3. Caste, Income & Residential certificates
4. None of these
Question 342:
BRTPS 2011 Act Is a designated public servant/appellate authority supposed to maintain the records of all disposed of cases
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 343:
Under Tatkal Seva of RTPS Act the receipt of the application must be mention on the receipt
1. Important
2. Services
3. Tatkal Seva
4. None of these
Question 344:
In the office of Superintendent of Police, the amended time limit for the disposal of character report verification under the provision of RTPS is
1. 7 Working days
2. 14 Working days
3. 21 Working days
4. None of these
Question Bank - Bihar TA Rules
Question 1:
After how many night halts,the halting place of the Govt. servants will be treated as temporary headquarter?
1. 8
2. 9
3. 10
4. 11
Question 2:
The daily Allowance admissible to the Pay level 11, 12, 13, & 13A for class ‘Y’ (Patna) is:-
1. 700- General
2. 750- General
3. 800- General
4. 1000-General
Question 3:
The classification of the towns for travelling allowance is done

1. By Central Government
2. By State Government
3. Both (a) & (b)
4. None of the above
Question 4:
In the case of inter district transfer within the state, Transfer grant will be…………………..of the basic pay.
1. Half
2. one third
3. Two third
4. Three fourth
Question 5:
Which of the following Pay-level employees/officers have the eligibility to travel by Bus/Auto?
1. Pay level-4 & 5
2. Pay level-3 & 4
3. Pay level-3 & below it
4. All of the above
Question 6:
By which rule of the Bihar Travelling Allowance Rule, advance for travelling allowance has been provided?
1. Rule-426 to 428
2. Rule-427 to 429
3. Rule-428 to 430
Question 7:
Travel by rail in A/c 1 class is admissible to which of the following Pay level employees/officer?
(i) Pay level -12 & more
(ii)Pay level –more than 11
1. Only (i) is correct
2. Only (ii) is correct
3. (i) & (ii) both are correct
4. (i) & (ii) both are incorrect
Question 8:
Travelling allowance bills are prepared on which from of the Bihar Treasury Code
1. B T C from 18
2. B T C from 19
3. B T C from 20
4. B T C from 21
Question 9:
In which rule of the Bihar Travelling Allowance Rules, travel by air has been provided?
1. Rule-61
2. Rule-62
3. Rule-62 (1)
4. Rule-63
Question 10:
The daily allowance admissible for the Pay-level 14 & above for the class y (Patna) is:-
1. 700- General
2. 800- General
3. 400- General
4. 1000-General
Question 11:
Travel by Train in A.C 3rd class/A.C chair car is admissible to which of the following Pay level
employees/ officers?
(i) Pay level -5 & below it
(ii)Pay level – 4 & below it
3. Both (i) & (ii) are correct
4. both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
Question 12:
Under which Rule of the Bihar Travelling Allowance Rules, the travelling allowance has been defined?
1. Rule-21
2. Rule-22
3. Rule-23
4. Rule-24
Question 13:
From which date, The Bihar travelling Allowance Rule is effective?

1. 1st July 1949
2. 1st July 1950
3. 1st July 1951
4. 1st July 1952
Question 14:
Pay for the purpose of travelling allowance means:-

1. Pay with Personal Pay
2. Pay with special Pay
3. Both (a) & (b)
4. Pay without Personal Pay & spl. Pay.
Question 15:
Travel by train in 2nd A.C is admissible to which of the following Pay-level Employees/officers?
1. Pay level -6 to 11
2. Pay level – 5 & below it
3. Pay level -5,6 & 7
4. Pay level -4, 5 & 6
Question 16:
Under which rule of the Bihar Travelling Allowance Rules, towns have been classified for the purpose of daily allowance?
1. Rule-68
2. Rule-69
3. Rule-69 (1)
4. Rule-70
Question 17:
Travel by air in Economy class in admissible to which of the following Pay level
employees/officers?
1. Pay level -11, 12, & 13
2. Pay level -8, 9 & 10
3. Pay level – 7, 8 & 9
4. Pay level - 6, 7, & 8
Question 18:
Under which Rule of The Bihar Travelling Allowance Rules, Transfer grant is described?
1. Rule-86
2. Rule-88
3. Rule-90
4. Rule-89
Question 19:
In which Rule of the Bihar Travelling Allowance Rule, travel by road has been provided?
1. Rule-55
2. Rule-56
3. Rule-57
4. Rule-58
Question 20:
Under which rule of the Bihar Travelling Allowance Rules, travelling allowances for joining the Govt. service on first appointment is not admissible?
1. Rule-97
2. Rule-98
3. Rule-99
4. Rule-100
Question 21:
Under which rule of the Bihar Travelling Allowance Rules, in special circumstances, the state govt. can allow the travelling allowance to the person, joining the gov’t service on 1st appointment?
1. Rule-97
2. Rule-98
3. Rule-99
4. Rule-100
,
Question 22:
Which Type of penalty has been prescribed for the government servants whose travelling allowance claim is found false ?
1. Suspension
2. Departmental Proceeding
3. Dismissed from service
4. Recovery of amount
Question 23:
Travel by air in Economy Class with special Permission is admissible to which of the following Pay level employees/officers?
1. Pay level -7, 8 & 9
2. Pay level -6,7 & 8
3. Pay level -8, 9 & 10
4. Pay level -8, 9 & 10 (AIS & Central services)
Question 24:
In the case of transfer outside the state the admissible travelling grant is--------------of basic Pay:-
1. 50%
2. 60%
3. 75%
4. 80%
Question 25:
By which Rule of the Bihar travelling Allowance Rule, transfer grant has been provided?
1. Rule-87
2. Rule-88
3. Rule-89
4. Rule-90
Question 26:
For the purpose of daily allowance, classification of towns has been done in how many classes?
1. 01
2. 02
3. 03
4. 04
Question 27:
By which rule of the Bihar Travelling Allowance Rules,provision for train journey has been provided?
1. Rule-44
2. Rule-45 (1)
3. Rule-46
4. Rule-47
Question 28:
Travel by train in A.C 2nd class is admissible to which of the following Pay level
employees/officers?
(i) Pay level -6 to 11
(ii)Pay level – 5 & below it
1. only (i) is correct
2. only (ii) is correct
4. Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
Question 29:
Under which rule of the Bihar Travelling Allowance Rules, the Headquarter of Govt employees has been defined?
1. Rule-13
2. Rule-14
3. Rule-14 (1)
4. Rule-15
Question 30:
Under which Rules of Bihar Service code, Travelling Allowance Rules have been mentioned ?
1. Rule-107
2. Rule-108
3. Rule-109
4. Rule-109(1)
Question 31:
Travel by train in 1st class A.C is admissible to which of the following Pay level employees/ officers?
1. Pay level -12 & more
2. Pay level - more than 12
3. Pay level -11, 12 & 13
4. Pay level -8,9 & 10
Question 32:
Which of the following Pay-level employees/officers are eligible for travel by A.C Bus/A.C Taxi/A.C Car?
(i) Pay level-6 & above
(ii) Pay level-above 13
Question 33:
By which resolution of the finance department under the recommendation of the State Pay
commission, the rules of travelling allowances of State Govt. servents have been revised?
1. Finance Dept. resolution No-8043
Question 34:
50% of the basic pay is admissible as transfer grant if the govt. servant is
1. Transfered within the state & inter-district.
2. Transfered outside the state.
3. Both (a) & (b)
Question 35:
By which rule of the Bihar Travelling Allowance Rule, advance for travelling allowance has been provided?
1. Rule-427
2. Rule-428
3. Rule-429
4. All than above
Question 36:
Which of the following Pay level employees/officer have the eligibility for travel by AC bus/A.C Taxi/A.C car?
1. Pay level-06 & above
2. Pay level-more than 13
3. Pay level-10, 11 & 12
4. Rule-11, 12 & 13
Question 37:
Under which Rule of the Bihar Travelling Allowance Rules, the halting place of the Gov’t Servants
will be treated as temporary headquarter after How many continuous might halts?
1. Rule-67
2. Rule-67 (a)
3. Rule-68
4. Rule-67(a)
Question 38:
Which of the following Pay-level employees/officers are eligible to travel by Bus/Auto only ?
1. Pay level-13 & above
2. Pay level-more than 13
3. Pay level-6 to 12
4. pay Level 5 and below.
Question 39:
The daily Allowance admissible to the employees/officers of Pay level 11, 12, 13, &13 A for the class ‘x’ (Metro) is:-
1. 800- General
2. 1000- General
3. 1200- General
4. 1400-General
Question 40:
The daily allowance admissible for the Pay-level 14 & above for the class ‘z’ (others) is:-
1. 500- General
2. 600- General
3. 700- General
4. 800-General
Question 41:
In which rule of the Bihar Travelling Allowance Rules, provision to daily allowance has been made ?
1. Rule-68
2. Rule-69
3. Rule-69(1)
4. Rule-70
Question 42:
The Daily Allowance admissible to the Pay level 11,12,13 & 13A for class ‘Z’ (Others) is:-
1. 500- General
2. 600- General
3. 700- General
4. 800-General
Question 43:
As per the recommendation of the state Pay commission, the rules of travelling allowances of State Govt. servents have been revised by the Finance Department?
1. Resolution no 8044 of 10.11.17
Question 44:
Which of the following Pay-level employees/officers are eligible only to travel by Bus/Auto?
(i) Pay level-4 & 5
(ii) Pay level-3 & below it
Question 45:
Travel by air in Business class is admissible to which of the following Pay level employees/ officer?
1. Pay level -14 & more
2. Pay level -more than 14
3. Pay level -11, 12 & 13
4. Pay level -8, 9 & 10
Question 46:
How much kilometer of journey is necessary for claiming daily Allowances.?

1. 7
2. 8
3. 9
4. 10
Question 47:
The daily allowance admissible to the Pay level 14 & above for class ‘x’ (Metro) :-
1. 1000- General
2. 1200- General
3. 1400- General
4. 1500-General
Question 48:
Travel by train in A.C 3rd class /A.C chair car is admissible to which of the following Pay level employees/officers?
(i) Pay level -4 & below it
(ii)Pay level -5 & below it
4. both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
Question 49:
The officer, who is authorized for sanctioning the travelling allowance for joining on first posting is
1. District magistrate
2. Government Department
3. Head of Department
4. All of the above

Question Bank - Functional Knowledge of Goods and Service Tax covering Chapters 1,3,6,7,9 & 10 of Bihar Goods and
Service Tax Act, 2017 and Chapters 2, 3, 6, 8, 9 & 16 of Bihar Goods and service tax Rules, 20
Question 1:
Which is the GST code of Bihar?

1. 8
2. 9
3. 10
Question 2:
Which commodity is not proposed to be kept outside the purview of GST?

1. Supply of alcoholic liquor for human consumption
2. Five petroleum products viz. petroleum crude, motor spirit (petrol), high speed diesel, natural gas and aviation turbine fuel have temporarily been kept out and GST Council shall decide the date from which they shall be included in GST
3. Electricity
4. Heart Surgery Valve
Question 3:
Read following statements carefully

i. GST Council is the body of State Finance Ministers
ii. GST Council is headed by Union Finance Minister
iii. GST Council can only take decision on the basis of Consensus
Select correct answer
1. Only Statement (i) is Correct
2. Only Statement (i) and (ii) are correct
3. Only Statement (ii) and (iii) are correct
4. All Statements are correct
Question 4:
With reference to CGST Act 2017 consider the statement given below whether it is true or false?
1.In India GST became effective from 01.04.2017
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 5:
1.The section 51 deals with tax deduction at source.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 6:
TDS Deductor under GST shall be required to furnish to the deductee a certificate mentioning therein:
1. The contract value, the rate of deduction, the amount deducted
2. An amount paid to the appropriate Government and
3. Both (a) and (b) are required
4. None of these details mentioned in (a) or (b) are required
Question 7:
With reference to Bihar GST Act 2017 consider the statement given below whether it is true or false?
1.An appellate authority means an authority who is appointed or authorized hear appeals under section107
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 8:
The details of inward supplies of goods or services or both furnished in FORM GSTR-2 shall include the —
1. Invoice wise details of all inter-State and intra-State supplies received from registered persons or unregistered persons
2. Import of goods and services made; and
3. Debit and Credit notes, if any, received from supplier
4. All the above
Question 9:
The highest rate of tax under IGST is

1. 12 %
2. 18 %
3. 28 %
Question 10:
What does N in GSN stand for?

1. National
2. Network
3. Nomenclature
,
Question 11:
When will the third quarter end under BGST.

1. 31 march
2. 30 December
3. 30 September
Question 12:
Bihar e-way bill ‘form IX’ can be applied for

1. Incoming movement
2. Outgoing movement
3. Within state movement
4. None of these options
Question 13:
On which of the following items GST is not levied.

1. Diesel
2. Dry fruits
3. Computer
Question 14:
Which of the following is included in sin tax under GST?

1. Chocholate
2. Dry fruits
3. Both A and B
Question 15:
Which one is NOT correct about Tax Deducted at Source (TDS under Bihar GST Act Regime?
1. TDS provision is meant only for Government and Government agencies and other notified entities making contractual payments in excess of Rs.2,5000/- to suppliers.
2. While making such payment, the concerned Government/authority shall deduct 1% of the total payable amount and remit it into the appropriate GST account.
3. Any amount shown as TDS will be reflected in the electronic credit ledger of the concerned supplier.
4. Supplier can utilize this amount towards discharging his liability towards tax, interest fees and any other amount.
Question 16:
Read following statements about the validity of e-Way Bill (EWB) Validity?
i. Less than 200 km distance – one Day
ii. For every Additional 100 kms or part thereof – additional 1 day
Select any one correct answer-
1. Only Statement (i) is correct
2. Only Statement (ii) is correct
3. Both Statements (i) & (ii) are correct
4. None of the option is correct
Question 17:
A bill of supply can be issued in case of inter-State and intra-State:

1. Exempted supplies
2. Supplies by composition suppliers
3. Supplies to unregistered persons
4. None of the above.
Question 18:
Which one is a supply of Service, under the GST regime ?

1. Supply of goods by any unincorporated association or body of persons to a member thereof for cash, deferred payment or other valuable consideration
2. Works contract
3. Where any person ceases to be a taxable person, any goods forming part of the assets of any business carried on by him shall be deemed to be supplied by him in the course or furtherance of his business immediately before he ceases to be a taxable person
4. any transfer of title in goods under an agreement which stipulates that property in goods shall pass at a future date upon payment of full consideration as agreed
Question 19:
How many types of taxes will be in Indian GST?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Question 20:
Balance in electronic credit ledger under SGST can be used against which liability?
1. SGST Liability only
2. SGST and IGST liability
3. SGST, IGST and CGST liability
4. None of them
Question 21:
Is keeping a PAN legally necessary for registration in GST?

1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 22:
1.The section 50 deals with interest on delayed payment of interest.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 23:
Which one is not a local authority under Bihar GST Act, 2017
1. Panchayat
2. Municipality
3. Cantonment Board
4. District Collector
Question 24:
The section 48 of BGST Act deals with

1. Final return
2. GST practitioner
3. Both A and B
Question 25:
Which of the following tax rate is not applicable under GST?

1. 5%
2. 12%
3. 30%
Question 26:
Which form is to be used for registration?

1. Form GSTR -1A
2. Form GSTR – 2
3. Form GST REG-01
4. Form GST REG
Question 27:
GST Stands for

1. Goods and Supply Tax
2. Government Sales Tax
3. Goods and Services Tax
4. General Sales Tax
Question 28:
The registered recipient must issue an invoice in the following cases:

1. The supplier fails to issue an invoice
2. The supplier is unregistered
3. The goods or services received notified for tax on reverse charge basis
4. All of the above
Question 29:
With reference to BGST Act 2017 consider the statement given below whether it is true or false?
1.A small tax payer having a turnover less than Rs.75 lakhs can not opt for composition scheme
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 30:
1.GSTN is a company that provides technology support for GST
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 31:
Which of the following taxes was subsumed under GST?

1. Customs duty
2. Vat
3. Both A and B
Question 32:
Which of the following is included in the definition of family under BGST.

1. Sisters of the person if fully dependent on the person
2. Step son of the person
3. Both A and B
Question 33:
By whom is the Chief Commissioner State tax appointed ?

1. State Government
2. Central government
3. Both A and B
Question 34:

1. Chocholate
2. Tobacco
3. Both A and B
Question 35:
Which of the following account is to be maintained by a owner of a godown?

1. Record of consigner
2. Record of consignee
3. Both A and B
Question 36:
When will the second quarter end under BGST.

1. 31 march
2. 30 June
3. 30 September
Question 37:
The Chapter III of Central Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with
1. Scope of supply under GST Regime
2. Officers under CGST
3. Both A and B
Question 38:
1.The section 13 deals with time of supply of services.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 39:
The section 11of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with
1. Tax invoice
2. power to grant exemption from tax
3. Both A and B
Question 40:
Under which of the following conditions the registration can be cancelled under provisions of BGST?
1. The registered person has contravened the Act.
2. The tax paying person has not filed returns for three consecutive years.
3. Both A and B
Question 41:
1.Service does not include goods or money
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 42:
When can a registered person avail credit on inputs?

1. on receipt of goods
2. on receipt of documents
3. Both
Question 43:
Which of the following is included in Local Authority under GST?
1. Panchayat
2. Municipality
3. Both A and B
Question 44:
Which one is NOT correct about CPIN?

1. CPIN stands for Common Portal Identification Number (CPIN)
2. given at the time of generation of challan.
3. It is a 14 digit unique number to identify the challan.
4. The CPIN remains valid only for a period of 30 days.
Question 45:
Which of the following taxes was subsumed under GSTN?

1. Anti dumping duty
2. Entertainment tax
3. Both A and B
Question 46:
The Section 1 of Central Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with
1. Short Title
2. Definitions
3. Doubtful
Question 47:
Which one is true about code in space marked in 13th Digits in a 15 digit Goods and Services Tax
Identification Number (GSTIN)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
I. 13th digit of a GSTIN can be Albha-numeric

II. It refers to a serial no of a business vertical of the same legal entity within a same state
III. It is linked with a PAN No
Select Which one is correct
1. Only Statement (I) is correct
2. Only Statement (II) is correct
3. Only Statement (I) and (III) are correct
Question 48:
The procedure for the recovery of the penalty amount is explained in rule
1. Rule 15
2. Rule 16
3. Rule 17
4. Rule 18
Question 49:
Which one is NOT true about the linkage between GSTN and the authorized Banks in GST Regime?
1. There will be real time two way linkage between the GSTN and the Core Banking Solution (CBS) of the Bank
2. CPIN is automatically routed to the Bank via electronic string for verification and receiving payment and
3. A challan identification number (CIN) is manually sent by the Bank to the Common Portal confirming payment receipt
4. No manual intervention will be involved in the process by any one including bank cashier or teller or the taxpayer.
Question 50:
Who is liable to pay tax under GST?

1. A business man with annual sale above Rs.6 lakhs
Question 51:
What are the documents that need to be carried along with the goods being transported?
1. The person in charge of a conveyance shall carry the tax invoice or bill of supply or delivery challan, bill of entry as the case may be
2. a copy of the e-way bill or the e-way bill number generated from the common portal
3. Both (a) and (b) mandatory
4. Any of the options (a) or (b)
Question 52:
Under which section of BGST a person is registered?

1. Section 22
2. Section 24
3. Both A and B
Question 53:
Which one is a mode of generation of e-Way Bill (EWB)?

1. Tool –based bulk generation of e-way Bills
2. Third party based system of Suvidha Providers
3. Via API( Application Program Interface)

4. All the options are mode of EWB
Question 54:
A GST practitioner or GSTP is a person approved by the Central and State Governments to perform any or all of the following activities, on behalf of a taxable person:
1. Furnish monthly, quarterly, annual or final GST returns
2. Make payments for credit into the electronic cash ledger, i.e. payments for tax, interest, penalty, fees or any other amount
3. File a claim for refund
4. He is responsible for correctness of particulars filed by him
Question 55:
What has to be entered in GSTIN column, if consignor or consignee is not having GSTIN?
1. Enter ‘PAN’ [Permanent Account Number] in corresponding GSTIN column
2. Enter ‘RMN’ [Registered Mobile Number] in corresponding GSTIN column
3. Enter ‘URP’ [Unregistered Person] in corresponding GSTIN column
4. Enter ‘NA’ [Not Applicable] in corresponding GSTIN column
Question 56:
Which one is NOT a mode of generation of e-Way Bill (EWB)?

1. Tool –based bulk generation of e-way Bills
2. Third party based system of Suvidha Providers
3. Via API( Application Program Interface)
Question 57:
The details of inward supply furnished by the registered taxable person shall be matched with:
1. For duplication of claims of input tax credit
2. Corresponding details of outward supply furnished by the corresponding taxable person
3. additional duty of customs paid under section 3(5) of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975
4. All of the above
Question 58:
Which is not a benefit of GST for Citizens

1. Reduction in prices of goods and services due to elimination of cascading of taxes
2. Uniform prices throughout the country
3. Transparency in Taxation System
4. Reduction in compliance costs
Question 59:
Which of the following is included in the place of business under BGST.

1. A place from where a taxable person receives goods
2. A place from where a taxable person supplies goods
3. Both A and B
Question 60:
An invoice must be issued:

1. At the time of removal of goods.
2. On transfer of risks and rewards of the goodsto the recipient
3. On receipt of payment for the supply
4. Earliest of the above dates
Question 61:
1.An appellate authority means an authority who is appointed to hear appeals under section 115.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 62:

i. The peak GST rate of 28% has now been confined only to about 50 items
ii. GST law mandates matching of the details of inward supply with the corresponding details of outward supply to curb tax evasion.
3. All Statements are incorrect
Question 63:
The section 2(69) of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017 defines
1. Central tax
2. Local authority
3. Both A and B
Question 64:
i. GST is a source based single tax on the supply of goods and services
ii. GST is one indirect tax for entire nation
Question 65:
Which of the following is included in the defination place of business under BGST.
1. A place from where business is ordinarily carried on
2. A godown
3. Both A and B
Question 66:
Which of the following is included in the person under BGST.

1. An association of persons
2. A Co-operative society
3. Both A and B
Question 67:
Read following Statements carefully

i. Generally, the person effecting taxable supplies (supplier) is liable to pay taxes.
ii. Recipient shall be liable to pay GST under reverse charge for Supply of any goods and/or services by unregistered supplier to register recipient.
iii. When supplied through E-commerce operator, GST shall be payable by electronic commerce operator.
Select any one correct answer in the light of above statements.
1. Only Statements (i) and (iii) are Correct
2. Only Statements (ii) and (iii) are Correct
3. Only Statements (i) and (ii) are Correct
Question 68:
Maximum rate prescribed under UTGST/SGST?

1. 5%
2. 14%
3. 20%
4. 28%
Question 69:
Renting of immovable property is considered as ……. As per Bihar GST Act /Rule2017
1. A Supply of Goods
2. A Supply of Services
3. Neither Supply of Goods nor Services
4. Both Supply of goods and services
Question 70:
Which types of transactions that need the e-way bill? (For transportation of goods in relation to all types of transactions such as)
1. Outward supply whether within the State or interstate
2. Inward supply whether from within the State or from interstate
3. Inward or outward supply of goods intra-state or interstate
Question 71:
Which of the following is an agent under the provisions of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017?
1. Commission agent
2. Broker
3. Both A and B
Question 72:
Which of the following is included in the definition of goods under BGST.

1. Movable property
2. Money
3. Both A and B
Question 73:
Company “X” has a policy of rewarding outstanding employees once in a financial year. Mr.
Ganesh Jha is one such worker. Company “X” gifts a costly wrist watch of Rs. 70,000/-to him on his wedding anniversary
1. Mr. Jha will have to pay GST
2. Mr. Jha’s company has to pay GST
3. None of them have to pay GST
4. Both of them have to pay on 50:50 basis
Question 74:
1.An agent is a person who does not carry on business to receive services on behalf of a principal
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 75:
What is location of supply in case of importation of goods?

1. Customs port where the goods are cleared
2. Location of the importer
3. Place where the goods are delivered after clearance from customs port
4. Owner of the goods
Question 76:
What does the H in HSN stand for?

1. Home
2. Hindustan
3. Harmonised
Question 77:
In case supplier has deposited the taxes but the receiver has not received the goods, is receiver entitled to avail credit?
1. Yes, it will be automatically show in recipient monthly returns.
2. No, as one of the conditions of section 16(2) is not fulfilled.
3. Yes if the receiver can prove later that goods are received subsequently
Question 78:
What is not “works contract ”as per Bihar GST Act, 2017
1. A contract for building improvement
2. A contract for building renovation
3. Annual Maintenance Contract of Computers
4. Commissioning of any immovable property wherein transfer of property in is involved in the execution of such contract
Question 79:
Which one is true about code in space marked ‘X” ( 14th Digits) in 15 digit Goods and Services
Tax Identification Number (GSTIN)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
X
1. It is a checksum code
2. By default it is “Z”
3. None of the above is correct
4. Both (a) and (b) are correct
Question 80:
Which chapter of Central Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with search and seizure
1. Chapter II
2. Chapter XIV
3. Chapter IX
Question 81:
1. Exempt supply
2. place of business
3. Both A and B
Question 82:
Read Following Statements

i. Import of Goods is conspicuous by its absence in Section 3 of GST Act 2017
ii. Import of goods is dealt separately under the Customs Act, 1962, wherein IGST shall be
levied as additional duty of customs in addition to basic customs duty under the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.
Select any one correct answer
2. Only Statement (ii) is Correct
3. Both Statements are incorrect
Question 83:
Can any officer be authorized to hear appeal under section 107 of Bihar GST Act 2017?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 84:
1.Reverse Charge is a tax which is levied on the buyers of the goods.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 85:
Which of the following slab of tax is included under GST?

1. 7 %
2. 8 %
3. 5 %
Question 86:
Read Following Statements about ‘e-Way’ under GST regime

i. E-Way Bill is generated every time a cargo item worth more than Rs. 50000/- and crosses 100 km.
ii. Only the logistics company or the transporter can generate the e-way bill under GST
Question 87:
1.The section 30 deals with revocation of cancellation of registration.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 88:
2. Definitions
3. Both A and B
Question 89:
What is meant by a revisional authority?

1. An authority appointed under section 106 to hear revision of orders
2. An authority authorised under section 123 to hear revision of orders
3. Both A and B
Question 90:
GST threshold limit of Normal States is _______ lakh

1. 5
2. 10
3. 12
4. 20
Question 91:
Every registered taxable person shall be entitled to take credit of input tax in his return and such input tax credit shall be credited to
1. Electronic Credit Ledger
2. Electronic Cash Ledger
3. Refund account
4. Personal Ledger Account
Question 92:
Is a PAN number essential for registration under provision of BGST?

1. Yes
2. No
3. Doubtful
Question 93:

i. E-Way Bill Portal launched successfully on 1st Feb 2018 and operationalised.
ii. The e-way bill, a key element of GST regime, is a complex new digital document tracker of cargo transportation.
Question 94:
1. File a claim for refund
2. Appear as an authorised representative before any officer of department, appellate authority or appellate tribunal
3. Make payments for credit into the electronic cash ledger, i.e. payments for tax, interest, penalty, fees or any other amount
,
Question 95:
Which is the second state to ratify GST?

1. Haryana
2. Bihar
3. Tripura
Question 96:
3. Any amount shown as TDS will be reflected in the electronic cash ledger of the concerned supplier.
4. Supplier cannot utilize this amount towards discharging his liability towards tax, interest fees and any other amount
Question 97:
Read following statements carefully about ‘actionable claim’ under Bihar GST
i. It is a claim to any debt, other than a debt secured by mortgage or
ii. By hypothecation or pledge of moveable property to any beneficial interest in moveable property not in possession either actual or constructive, of the claimant, which the civil courts recognize as affording grounds of relief whether such debt or beneficial interest be
existent, accruing or conditional or contingent
Question 98:
Can all the records be maintained in an electronic form?

1. Yes
2. No
3. Only if authenticated by digital signature
4. Few records
Question 99:
Input tax credit on capital goods and Inputs can be availed in

1. In 36 instalments
2. In 12 Instalments
3. In six instalments
4. In one instalments
Question 100:
Which is the GST code of Andhra Pradesh?

1. 8
2. 37
3. 10
Question 101:
1.The GST does not apply to an agriculturist.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 102:
In India GST became effective from

1. 1st April, 2017
2. 1st January, 2017
3. 1st July, 2017
4. 1st March, 2017
Question 103:
Under Bihar GST "agriculturist"means an individual or a Hindu Undivided Family who undertakes cultivation of land under GST
i. By own labour
ii. By the labour of family
iii. By servants on wages payable in cash or kind
iv. By hired labour under personal supervision or the personal supervision of any member of the family
1. Only Statement (i) and (ii) are Correct
2. Only Statement (iii) and (iv) are Correct
3. Only Statement (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Question 104:
Which section of BGST deals with person liable for registration?

1. Section 32
2. Section 42
3. Section 19
Question 105:
For an E-commerce operator registration threshold limit is?
1. Rs.20 lacs
2. Rs.50 lacs
3. Rs.75 lacs
4. None of above
Question 106:
1 - As per Section 9, which of the following would attract levy of CGST?

1. Inter-state supplies
2. Intra-state supplies
3. Any of the above
Question 107:
Under which section of Bihar GST Act 2017 a Tribunal is set up to hear appeal?
1. Section 123
2. Section 132
3. Section 109
Question 108:
1. Competent authority
3. Both A and B
Question 109:
Which one is not correct about Tax Collected at Source (TCS) as per Bihar GST Act 2017?
1. TCS provision is applicable to every E-Commerce Operators
2. Every E-Commerce Operator needs to withhold a percentage (notified on the recommendation of the GST Council) of the amount which is due from him to the supplier at the time of making actual payment to the supplier.
3. Upper Ceiling of TCS is 1% of the net value of taxable supplies by the operator.
4. The amount deposited as TCS will be reflected in the electronic credit ledger of the supplier.
Question 110:
First Return filed under GST is

1. GSTR-1
2. GSTR-3A
3. GSTR-2
4. GSTR-3B
Question 111:
When can the transaction value be rejected for computation of value of supply
1. When the buyer and seller are not related and price is not the sole consideration
2. When the buyer and seller are related or price is not the sole consideration
3. It can never be rejected
4. When the goods are sold at very low margins
Question 112:
What does “I” stands for in IGST?

1. International
2. Internal
3. Integrated
4. Intra
Question 113:
1. Definition
2. Business
3. Both A and B
Question 114:
GST imposed on import of goods and services is called

1. CGST
2. SGST
3. IGST
Question 115:
Read following statements about ITC (Input Tax Credit) Ledger

i. Input Tax Credit as self-assessed in monthly returns will be reflected in the ITC Ledger.
ii. The credit in this ledger can be used to make payment of TAX ONLY and not other amounts such as interest, penalty, fees etc.
Select Which one is correct
3. None of the statment is correct

,
Question 116:
Which chapter of Central Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with tax invoice
1. Chapter III
2. Chapter VII
3. Chapter X
Question 117:
1. Government hold 49 % of share of GSTN
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 118:
What is not “business” as per Bihar GST Act, 2017

1. Supply or acquisition of goods including capital goods and services in connection with commencement or closure of business
2. Provision by a club, association, society, or any such body (for a subscription or any other consideration) of the facilities or benefits to its members
3. Online Consultancy to local citizens by an NRI from USA
4. Admission, for a consideration, of persons to any premises
Question 119:
An agent supplies or receives goods or services on behalf of his principal who will be held liable to pay GST?
1. Agent
2. Principal
3. Both A and B
Question 120:
Which of the following is not a court under the provisions of chapter XII of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017 ?
1. Supreme court
2. High court
3. Family court
Question 121:
Which one is NOT correct about TDS under Bihar GST Act Regime?
1. TDS stands for Tax Deducted at Source (TDS).
2. TDS provision is meant only for Government and Government agencies and other notified entities making contractual payments in excess of Rs.10 Lakhs to suppliers.
Question 122:

1. Last return
2. First return
3. Both A and B
Question 123:

i. ISBN Code will be printed on each e -way bill for ease of seeing details.
ii. As many E-way bills has to be generated as number of consignments for a vehicle carrying multiple consignments.
Question 124:
Any registered taxable person who fails to furnish the details and file the return within the due date prescribed shall be liable to
1. Late fee of Rs 100 for every day up to Rs 5,000
2. Interest at the rate of 1% per month
3. Both (a) and (b)
Question 125:
1. Definition
3. Both A and B
Question 126:
GST is a _______ based tax on consumption of goods and services.

1. Duration
2. Destination
3. Dividend
4. Development
Question 127:
GSTN is regulated by
1. The Goods Act
2. The Services Act
3. The Companies Act
Question 128:
What is the code in space marked ‘X” (3rd to 12th Digit) in 15 digit Goods and Services Tax
Identification Number (GSTIN).
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
X X X X X X X X X X
1. Checksum Code
2. District Code
3. State Code
4. PAN No of Tax Payer
Question 129:
What is the validity of the registration certificate?

1. Five year
2. Ten Years
3. No Validity Period
4. Valid till it is cancelled
Question 130:
Which of the following requires amendment in the registration certificate?

1. Change of name of the registered person
2. Change in constitution of the registered person
3. Switching over form composition scheme to normal scheme or vice versa.
4. All of the above
Question 131:
How many of tax structures are there in GST?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
Question 132:
Which one is not correct about this GSTIN “10AAAGM0289C1ZY”

1. This Business entity is situated in Bihar
2. PAN No of Business entity is AAAGM0289C
3. This is the first business vertical of a Business Entity in Bihar
4. Tax Rate to this entity will be at 28%
Question 133:
The annual return shall be filed by the registered taxable person (other than composition suppliers) in Form
1. GSTR 7
2. GSTR 9
3. GSTR 9A
4. GSTR 10
Question 134:

1. 30 %
2. 28 %
3. 10 %
Question 135:
Which of the following is a court under the provisions of chapter XII of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017 ?
1. DM court
2. High court
3. CJM court
Question 136:
Payment made through challan will be credited to which registers/ledgers?

1. Electronic Tax liability register
2. Electronic Credit ledger
3. Electronic Cash ledger
4. All of them
Question 137:
The Chapter IX of Central Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with
1. Tax invoice
2. Accounts and other records
3. Both A and B
Question 138:
1. Short Title
2. Levy and collection
3. Both A and B
Question 139:
Will a not-for-profit entity be liable to tax on any supplies affected by it e.g. supply of assets received as donation?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Depends on Nature of Work by such entity
Question 140:
e-Way Bii (EWB )portal RRL is:

1. www.cbec.gov.in
2. http://ewaybill.nic.in
3. www.gstcouncil.gov.in
4. www.gstindia.com
Question 141:
1.The section 24 deals with compulsory registration in certain cases
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 142:
TDS deductors is not required to follow one of the following rules under GST?
1. Obtain TAN issued under the Income Tax Act.
2. Remit the TDS collected by the 10th day of the month succeeding the month in which TDS was collected and reported in GSTR 7.
3. TDS certificate not issued or delayed beyond the prescribed period of five days Late fee of Rs. 100/- per day subject to a maximum of Rs. 5000/.
4. Late filing of TDS returns Late fee of Rs. 100/- for every day during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum amount of 10000/-
Question 143:
The time limit beyond which if goods are not returned, the input sent for job work shall be treated as supply
1. One year
2. Three years
3. Six months
4. Five years
Question 144:
What deductions are allowed from the transaction value

1. Discounts mention on invoice
2. Packing Charges mention on invoice
3. Any amount paid by customer on behalf of the supplier
4. Freight charges mention on invoice
Question 145:
Read following statements about the e-Way Bill (EWB)?

i. Users of EWB can create masters of his Customers, Suppliers & Products foe easy generation of EWB
ii. Vehicle Number can be entered only by the Supplier of goods who generates EWB or the transporter.
Question 146:
The Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC) announced that every year _______ will be considered as GST Day.
1. 1st April
2. 1st March
3. 1st June
4. 1st July
Question 147:
How many types of tax are there in GST?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4

,
Question 148:
1.The section 35 deals with accounts and other records.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 149:
What does the G in GST stand for ?

1. Government
2. Goods
3. Governor
Question 150:
The details submitted by the outward supplier in Form GSTR 1 shall be furnished to the recipient (not being a composition supplier) in Form
1. GSTR 4A
2. GSTR 5A
3. GSTR 2A
4. GSTR 6A
Question 151:
Which one is NOT true about the linkage between GSTN and the authorized Banks in GST Regime?
1. There will be real time two way linkage between the GSTN and the Core Banking Solution (CBS) of the Bank
2. CPIN is automatically routed to the Bank via electronic string for verification and receiving payment and
3. A challan identification number (CIN) is automatically sent by the Bank to the Common Portal confirming payment receipt
4. Bank officials and Tax payers reconcile payments manually
Question 152:
Bihar e-way bill ‘form X’ can be applied for

2. outgoing movement
3. within state movement
Question 153:
1.Bihar is the state that first launched GSTN
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 154:
1.Sin taxes are imposed to discourage consumers from using goods or services that are considered detrimental to society
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 155:
What is meant by taxable person under the provisions of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017?
1. A person who is registered under section 22 of BGST
2. A person who is liable to be registered under section 24 of BGST
3. Both A and B
Question 156:

i. e-way bill trial period was scheduled originally from 15th Jan2018 to 31st March 2018
ii. The Trial Period of e-Way Bill was strictly followed as per its original schedule.
Question 157:
Temporary transfer or permitting the use or enjoyment of any intellectual property right is considered as ……. As per Bihar GST Act /Rule2017
Question 158:
1. SDO court
2. High court
3. Supreme court
Question 159:
On which of the following GST is levied?

1. Consumers
2. Retailers
3. Both A and B
Question 160:

1. CPIN stands for Common Portal Identification Number (CPIN).
4. the CPIN remains valid only for a period of 15 days.
Question 161:

i. ISBN Code will be printed on each e -way bill for ease of seeing details.
ii. A Consolidated E-way bill can be generated for vehicle carrying multiple consignments.
Question 162:
Which of the following is included in the definition of input tax under BGST.
1. IGST
2. Central tax
3. Both A and B
Question 163:
Which chapter of Central Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with Assessment
1. Chapter I
2. Chapter V
3. Chapter XII
Question 164:
1.GST Council is a joint committee of the centre and the staes to make suggestions on important issues regarding GST
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 165:
Which one is not correct about ‘TDS Deductor’ account for TDS?
1. TDS deductors needs to get compulsorily registered.
2. They need to remit such TDS collected by the 5th day of the month succeeding the month in which TDS was collected and reported in GSTR 7.
3. The amount deposited as TDS will be reflected in the electronic cash ledger of the supplier.
4. hey need to issue certificate of such TDS to the deductee within 5 days of deducting TDS failing which fees of Rs. 100 per day subject to maximum of Rs. 50000/- will be payable by such deductor.
Question 166:
Any modification / deletion done by the recipient to the details contained in Form GSTR 2A shall be communicated to the supplier in
1. Form GSTR 6A
2. Form GSTR 3A
3. Form GSTR 2A
4. Form GSTR 1A
Question 167:
Which one is NOT correct about Tax Collected at Source (TCS) as per Bihar GST Act 2017?
3. Such withheld amount is to be deposited by such E-Commerce Operator to the appropriate GST account by the 18th of the next month.
4. The amount deposited as TCS will be reflected in the electronic cash ledger of the supplier.
Question 168:
Whether credit on capital goods can be taken immediately on receipt of the goods?
1. Yes
2. After usage of such capital goods
3. After capitalizing in books of Accounts

,
Question 169:

2. CPIN is given at the time of registration of a taxpayer.
Question 170:
Who is a supplier under the provisions of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017?
1. A person who supplies goods
2. A person who supplies services
3. Both A and B
Question 171:
Which chapter of Central Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with Registration
1. Chapter VIII
2. Chapter VI
3. Chapter XII
Question 172:
The rate of TDS is..............

1. 18%
2. 1%
3. 4%
4. 5%
Question 173:
What does the T in GST stand for?

1. Total
2. train
3. tax
Question 174:
When will the first quarter end under BGST.

1. 31 march
2. 30 June
3. 30 September
Question 175:
The Principal Commissioner State tax is appointed under

1. Section 5
2. Section 6
3. Section 7
Question 176:

1. Final return
2. Annual return
3. Both A and B
Question 177:
1.122nd Constitution amendment brought about GST.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 178:
On which date GST day is celebrated?

1. 1 April
2. 1 June
3. 1 July
Question 179:
The Chief Commissioner State tax is appointed under

1. Section 5
2. Section 6
3. Section 3
Question 180:
In India GST came effective from July 1st, 2017 India has chosen _______ model of dual – GST.
1. USA
2. UK
3. Japan
4. Canada
Question 181:
The taxes levied on inter state supply is called

1. CGST
2. SGST
3. CGST and SGST
Question 182:
Which one is NOT correct about CIN?

1. CIN stands for Challan Identification Number.
2. It is a 18 digit number that is 14-digit CPIN plus 3-digit Bank Code.
3. CIN is generated by the authorized banks/ Reserve Bank of India (RBI) when payment is actually received by such authorized banks or RBI and credited in the relevant government account held with them.
4. It is an indication that the payment has been realized and credited to the appropriate government account.
Question 183:
Can a registered person under Composition Scheme claim input tax credit?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Input tax credit on inward supply of goods only can be claimed
4. Input tax credit on inward supply of services only can be claimed
Question 184:
Which one statement is a correct about e-Way Bill (EWB) in GST regime?
1. EWB is a 12 digit Number
Question 185:
Which of the following is included in the definition of input tax under BGST.
1. State tax
2. Union territory tax
3. Both A and B
Question 186:

i. e-way bill trial period was scheduled from 15th Jan2018 to 31st Jan 2018
ii. The Trial Period of e-Way Bill was extended beyond 31st Jan 2018 due to E-Way portal crash.
Question 187:
Where any person ceases to be a taxable person and the business is carried on by a personal representative who is deemed to be a taxable person. It is a case of ……
Question 188:

1. Chocholate
2. Sweets
3. Pan masala
Question 189:
Who is a principal under the provisions of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017?
1. A person on whose behalf an agent receives goods
2. A person on whose behalf an agent supplies services
3. Both A and B
Question 190:
Balance in electronic credit ledger can be utilized against which liability?

1. Output tax payable
2. Interest payable
3. Penalty
4. All of above
Question 191:
Which one is NOT correct about GST Return GSRR-3B

1. GSRR-3B is required to be filed by 20th of succeeding month for a Tax Period
2. GSTR-3B is a simplified summary return
3. It facilitates taxpayers to declare their summary GST liabilities for the tax period and the discharge of these liabilities in a timely manner
4. GSTR-3B return is optional
Question 192:

1. Alcohol
2. Tobacco
3. Both A and B
Question 193:
1. Central tax
2. Electronic cash ledger
3. Both A and B
Question 194:
Which is the second state to ratify GST?

1. Haryana
2. Tamilnadu
3. Tripura
Question 195:
1. The registration has been obtained by willful misstatement
2. The registered person has not commenced business within one year of registration.
3. Both A and B
Question 196:
Which of the following is correct about GSTN?

1. It is a private body
2. It is managed by the Centre,States and non government financial organisation
3. Both A and B
Question 197:
In which case Compulsory registration under Bihar GST Act 2017 is not required
1. Persons making any inter-State taxable supply
2. Non-resident taxable persons making taxable supply
3. Persons who are required to pay tax under reverse charge
4. an agriculturist, to the extent of supply of produce out of cultivation of land
Question 198:
Which of the following is the first State to pass GST bill?

1. Bihar
2. Karnatak
3. Telangana
Question 199:
The First return shall be filed by every registered taxable person for the period from
1. The date on which he became liable for registration till the last day of that month
2. The date of registration to the last day of that month
3. The date on which he became liable for registration till the date of grant of registration
4. All of the above
Question 200:
Which one is NOT correct about TDS under Bihar GST Act Regime?
1. TDS stands for Tax Deducted at Source (TDS).
Question 201:
Which of the following country has the maximum GST tax slab?
1. India
2. China
3. France
4. Australia
Question 202:
Which one is not a supply of Service under the GST regime ?

1. Renting of immovable property
2. Temporary transfer or permitting the use or enjoyment of any intellectual property right
3. Development, design, programming, customisation, adaptation, upgradation, enhancement, implementation of information technology software
4. where goods forming part of the assets of a business are transferred or disposed of by or under the directions of the person carrying on the business so as no longer to form part of those assets, whether or not for a consideration
Question 203:

1. Professional tax
2. Property tax
3. Both A and B
Question 204:
Which of the following country is the first one to implement GST?

1. The USA
2. France
3. China
4. Germany
Question 205:
Company “X” has a policy of rewarding outstanding employees once in a financial year. Mr.Gunjiyal is one such worker. Company “X” gifts a costly wrist watch of Rs. 49,999/-to him on his wedding anniversary.
Select correct answer in the light of above facts.
1. Mr. Gunjyal will have to pay GST
2. Mr. Gunjyal’s company has to pay GST
3. None of them have to pay GST
4. Both of them have to pay on 50:50 basis
Question 206:
Under which section of BGST the Government is empowered to grant exemption from tax
1. 15
2. 18
3. 11
Question 207:
Whether credit can be availed without actual receipt of goods where goods are transferred through transfer of document of title before or during the movement of goods?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Yes, in specific instances
4. Can be availed only after transfer of document of title after movement of goods
Question 208:
Which chapter of Central Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with aministration
1. Chapter II
2. Chapter VI
3. Chapter IX
Question 209:
On which of the following GST is levied?

1. Manufacturers
2. Animals
3. Both A and B
Question 210:
1. Power to grant exemption
3. Both A and B
Question 211:
The details of outward supplies of goods or services shall be submitted by

1. 18th of the succeeding month
,
Question 212:
Mr. A obtains new registration, voluntary registration, change of scheme from composition to regular scheme and from exempted goods/services to taxable goods/services. He can avail credit on inputs lying in stock. What is the time limit for taking said credit
1. 1 year from the date of invoice
Question 213:
Is there a provision for voluntary registration under provision of BGST?

1. Yes
2. No
3. Doubtful
Question 214:

Question 215:
The Chapter VII of Central Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with
1. Appointment of officers
2. Credit and debit note
3. Both A and B
Question 216:
1. Central tax
3. Both A and B
Question 217:
What is IGST ?
1. Tax on imported goods
2. Tax on Services
3. Tax on interstate trade
Question 218:
What will be consequences when tax payable under final order passed under subsection (3) is more than tax paid based on provisional assessment?
1. Only Differential tax payable has to be paid on determination of final assessment
2. Differential tax payable has to be paid on determination of final assessment along with interest specified under Section 50
3. Differential tax payable has to be paid on determination of final assessment along with interest specified under Section 50 and penalty of Rs. 20,000
4. Differential tax payable has to be paid on determination of final assessment along with penalty of Rs. 20,000
Question 219:
Statements bout GST

i. India adopted Dual GST
ii. India is a federal country where both the Centre and the States have been assigned the powers to levy and collect taxes through appropriate legislation.
iii. Both the levels of Government have distinct responsibilities to perform according to the division of powers prescribed in the Constitution for which they need to raise resources.
iv. A dual GST will, therefore, be in keeping with the Constitutional requirement of fiscal federalism.
Select any one correct answer In the light of above statements.
1. Only Statements (i) and (iv) are Correct
3. Only Statements (i), (ii) and (iv) are Correct
Question 220:
Inter State e-way bill to be compulsory from (As per the original Schedule in GST regime)
1. 1 Feb, 18
2. 1 March, 18
3. 1 April, 18
4. 1 July, 18
Question 221:
The value of supply of goods and services shall be the

1. Transaction value
2. MRP
3. Market Value
4. None of above
Question 222:
Which chapter of Central Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with payment of tax
1. Chapter III
2. Chapter VII
3. Chapter X
Question 223:
1. Tax invoice
3. Both A and B
Question 224:
When a taxable person under the provisions of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017 transfer his business by sale who will be responsible for paying GST?
1. A person who transferred the business
2. A person who is a transferee
3. Both A and B
Question 225:
The time limit beyond which if goods are not returned, the capital goods sent for job work shall be treated as supply
1. One year
2. Three years
3. Six months
4. Five years
Question 226:
Whether goods supplied on hire purchase basis will be treated as supply of goods or supply of services?
1. Only Supply of Goods
2. Only Supply of Services
3. Both Supply of Goods & Services
4. Supply of Neither Goods nor Services
Question 227:
Which one is not correct about Tax Collected at Source (TCS) as per Bihar GST Act 2017?
1. TCS provision is applicable to every E-Commerce Operators.
3. Such withheld amount is to be deposited by such E-Commerce Operator to the appropriate GST account by the 10th of the next month
4. The amount deposited as TCS will be reflected in the electronic cash ledger of the recipient.
Question 228:
Which one fact is NOT correct about Registration of TDS deductors under GST:?
1. A TDS deductor has to compulsorily register without any threshold limit.
2. The deductor has a privilege of obtaining registration under GST without requiring PAN.
3. He can obtain registration using his Tax Deduction and Collection Account Number (TAN) issued under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
4. None of these options is correct.
Question 229:

1. 8 %
2. 11 %
3. 15 %
Question 230:
1.An agent is a person who does not receive goods on behalf of a principal
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 231:
Which of the following statement is correct about GST?

1. It will abolish direct tax
2. It was implemented from 01.07.2017
3. Both A and B
Question 232:

i. e-way bill trial period was originally scheduled from 15th Jan2018 to 31st March 2018.
ii. The Trial Period was extended beyond 31st Jan 2018 due to E-Way portal crash.
Question 233:
The certificate of details of tax deducted by the deductor shall be furnished to the deductee in Form
1. GSTR 7
2. GSTR 7A
3. GSTR 2A
4. GSTR 1A
Question 234:
Who is a registered person under the provisions of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017?
1. A person who is registered under section 45
2. A person who has not got a unique identity number
3. Both A and B
Question 235:
The concerned authorities will give acknowledgment receipt of an application filed in Form
1. Form 1
2. Form 2
3. Form 3
4. None of these
Question 236:
What one is correct ratio of CGST, SGST, IGST tax rates as per Bihar GST Act 2017
1. 1:2:3
2. 1:1:2
3. 1:2:4
4. 2:1:1
Question 237:
Any lease, tenancy, easement, license to occupy land is considered as ……. As per Bihar GST Act /Rule2017
Question 238:

i. Users of EWB can create masters of his Customers, Suppliers & Products for easy generation of EWB
ii. Vehicle Number can be entered either by the Supplier /Recipient of goods who generate EWB or the transporter.
Question 239:

i. E-way bill is a potent tool to minimise evasion of tax by traders especially under composition scheme.
ii. E-way bill is generated from the GSTN portal with the bill number being made available to the supplier, the recipient, and transporter.
Question 240:
1.GSTIN is based on taxpayer”s PAN
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 241:
Which is not supposed to file GST Returns

1. Mode for transfer of information to tax administration
2. Compliance verification program of tax administration
3. Tax Deduction at source
4. Finalization of the tax liabilities of the taxpayer within stipulated period of limitation
Question 242:

1. A firm
2. A limited liability partnership
3. Both A and B
Question 243:
Which section of BGST deals with compulsory registration?

1. Section 64
2. Section 53
3. Section 38
Question 244:
Which one is NOT correct about E-FPB?

1. These are branches of authorized banks which are authorized to collect payment of GST. Each authorized bank will nominate only one branch as its E-FPB for pan India Transactions.
2. The E-FPB will have to open accounts under one common head for all governments.
3. Total 38 accounts (one each for CGST, IGST and one each for SGST for each State/UT Govt.) will have to be opened.
4. For NEFT/RTGS Transactions, RBI will act as E-FPB.
Question 245:

1. An authority appointed to hear revision of orders
2. An authority authorised to hear revision of orders
3. Both A and B
Question 246:
What is GSTIN?
1. It is a number given to income tax assessee.
2. It is a number given to GST assessee
3. It is a number given to custom duty assessee
Question 247:
Which of the following is included in Local Authority under GST?

1. Cantonment Board
2. Development Board
3. Both A and B
Question 248:
1.An appellate authority means an authority who is appointed or authorized hear appeals under section 115.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 249:
Which of the following is an agent under the provisions of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017 ?
1. Arhatia
2. Broker
3. Both A and B
Question 250:

i. Users of EWB cannot create masters of his Customers, Suppliers & Products foe easy generation of EWB
ii. Vehicle Number can be entered either by the Supplier /Recipient of goods who generate EWB or the transporter.
Question 251:
1. Short Title
2. Definitions
3. Both A and B
Question 252:
On What Value tax at source needs to be deducted under GST?

1. Contract value excluding tax
2. Invoice value including tax
3. Contract Value
4. Invoice value excluding Tax
Question 253:
The Chapter I of Central Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with
1. Short Title
2. Definitions
3. Both A and B
Question 254:
1.Under GST there is no need to pay tax at different stages of a product life cycle.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 255:

1. Grand parents of the person if fully dependent on the person
2. Brothers of the person if fully dependent on the person
3. Both A and B
Question 256:
Which one Statement is NOT correct about e-Way Bill (EBW) under GST regime?
1. E-way bill is valid for movement of goods without vehicle number on it in special circumstances
2. Once E-way bill is generated, it cannot be edited for any mistake. However, it can be Cancelled within 24 hours of generation
3. E-Way Bill may be updated with vehicle number any number of times
4. The latest vehicle number should be available on e-way bill and should match with the vehicle carrying it in case checked by the dept
Question 257:

1. 3%
2. 4 %
3. 12%
Question 258:
i. The GST rate on Composite Supply will be equal to the GST rate applicable on the principal supply of such goods and services, included in the composite supply.
ii. Principal Supply - the pre-dominant element in the Composite Supply of goods or services
iii. Dependent Supply - dependent on the principal supply
Question 259:
Read following Statements carefully

i. The Schedule II appended to CGST Act, 2017 enlists the activities which are to be treated as supply of goods or supply of services.
ii. One may refer Schedule II with reference to Section 7 to classify whether the transaction involves supply of goods or supply of services.
2. Only Statement (ii) is Correct
3. Both Statements are incorrect
Question 260:
Which one is a mode of generation of e-Way Bill (EWB)?

1. Via a SMS through a Registered Mobile Number
2. Web-Online using browser on laptop or desktop or phone,etc
3. Android based Mobile App on mobile Phones
4. All are modes of EBW
Question 261:
Question 262:
Tax on services is levied by

1. Central Government
2. State Government
3. Both A and B
Question 263:
A GST tax return preparer can undertake the following activities if authorized by the taxable person
1. Furnish details inward and outward supplies
2. Furnish monthly / quarterly return
3. Furnish Annual and Final return
4. All of the above
Question 264:
Which section of BGST deals with revocation of cancellation?

1. Section 34
2. Section 23
3. Section 39
Question 265:
2. A person who has a unique identity number
3. Both A and B
Question 266:
Which section of BGST deals with cancellation of registration?

1. Section 64
2. Section 33
3. Section 19
Question 267:
Which one activity is NOT treated as “neither a supply of goods nor a supply of services”?
1. Services by an employee to the employer in the course of or in relation to his employment
2. Services by any Court or Tribunal established under any law
3. Functions performed by members of Parliament, State Legislatures, members of the local authorities, Constitutional functionaries
4. Renting of immovable property
Question 268:
Which of the following is true?

1. The Commissioner may extend the time limit for furnishing the details of outward supplies by notification for valid reasons
2. The details of outward supplies shall include details of debit notes, credit notes and revised invoices issued in relation to outward supplies
3. The details of outward supplies shall be submitted in Form GSTR-1 by all the registered taxable persons, other than ISD, non-resident tax payer and a person paying tax under Section 9, Section 46 and Section 56
4. All the above
Question 269:
The section 2((86) of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017 defines
1. Place of supply
3. Both A and B
Question 270:
Who is an agriculturist under the provisions of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017?
1. A person who undertakes cultivation of land by own labour
2. A person who undertakes cultivation of land by the labour of family
3. Both A and B
Question 271:
Which of the following is liable to be registration under BGST.

1. A successor of business engaged in taxable supply of services
2. A successor of business engaged in taxable supply of goods
3. Both A and B
Question 272:

1. A Panchayat
2. A Municipality
3. Both A and B
Question 273:
An individual buys a car for personal use and after a year sells it to a car dealer. Will the transaction be a “supply” in terms of CGST/ Bihar GST Act?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Information is incomplete to decide
Question 274:
Who is the chairman of GST council?

1. Prime Minister
2. Finance Minister
3. RBI Governor
4. Finance Secretary
Question 275:
1. TDS provision is meant only for Government and Government agencies and other notified entities making contractual payments in excess of Rs.2,5000/- to suppliers
2. While making such payment, the concerned Government/authority shall deduct 1% of the total payable amount and remit it into the appropriate GST account
3. Any amount shown as TDS will be reflected in the electronic credit ledger of the deductor
4. All the options are correct
Question 276:
1. A person who is registered under section 28 of BGST
2. A person who is liable to be registered under section 40 of BGST
3. Both A and B
Question 277:

1. Tax collection at source
2. Annual return
3. Both A and B
Question 278:
Who will notify the rate of tax to be levied under CGST?

1. GST Council suo moto
2. Central Government suo moto
3. Central Government suo moto
4. Central Government as per the recommendations of the GST Council
Question 279:
GST council formation based on Article number _______.

1. 279A
2. 289A
3. 266A
4. 255A
Question 280:
Who is an agent under the provisions of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017?
1. A person who receives goods on behalf of another
2. A person who supplies services on behalf of another
3. Both A and B
Question 281:
What is the rate of TDS under GST?

1. 1%
2. 4%
3. 5%
4. 18%
Question 282:
What does the S in GST stand for?

1. Services
2. State
3. System
Question 283:
What does the acronym HSN stand for ?

1. Home shopping Network
2. Home state number
3. Harmonised system of nomenclature
Question 284:
Notice to non-filers of return shall be sent in Form

1. GSTR 10
2. GSTR 5
3. GSTR 3
4. GSTR 3A
Question 285:
Which of the following is to be compulsorily registered under BGST

1. A person making any inter state taxable supply.
2. A person making any intra state taxable supply.
3. Both A and B
Question 286:
Which of the following account is to be maintained by a registered person?
1. Output tax that was paid
2. Outward supply of goods
3. Both A and B
Question 287:
Which is not a mandatory criterion to become a GST Tax preparer?

1. He/she should be a citizen of India.
2. He/she should be a person of sound mind.
3. He/she should be not adjudicated as insolvent.
4. He/she Should be a registered Chartered Accountant
Question 288:

3. CIN is generated by Taxpayer.
4. It is an indication that the payment has been realized and credited to the appropriate government account.
Question 289:
1. Central tax
2. Non taxable supply
3. Both A and B
Question 290:
1.The section 45 deals with final return.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 291:
Is there any ceiling limit prescribed on the rate under IGST?

1. 12%
2. 18%
3. 28%
4. 40%
Question 292:
Suppose Mr. Gopal Meena purchases online a shirt from Flipcart by paying Rs 2000. This Shirt was supplied by the Rajasthan Trading Company which is a registered business entity under GST.
Flipcart deducts 10% commission and pays balance to the Rajasthan Trading Company. Assume that Reverse Charge in GST is not applicable (not notified on Transaction) and TCS Rate is 1%
Read Following Statements about the above case
i. Flipcart Pays Rs 1782/- to the Rajasthan Trading Company
ii. TCS amount is Rs 18/-
iii. TCS will be paid by Flipcart
iv. The Rajasthan Trading Company will pay GST.
3. Only Statements (i),(ii)and (iv) are correct
4. All four Statements are correct
Question 293:
1.GST is a destination based tax on consumption of goods and services
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 294:
1. Definitions
2. Powers of officers
3. Both A and B
Question 295:

1. First return
2. Annual return
3. Both A and B
Question 296:
1. Furnishing details of outward supply
2. Furnishing of returns
3. Both A and B
Question 297:

1. Furnishing of returns
2. Furnishing of invoice
3. Both A and B
Question 298:
1.A person who is not registered shall not collect GST.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 299:
Read Following Statements

i. The tax liability in case of a mixed supply shall be ascertained with reference to that particular supply which attracts highest rate of tax.
ii. Tax liability in case of composite supply should be determined with reference to the principal supply forming part of such composite supply.
iii. Import of service for a consideration whether or not in the course or furtherance of business is a supply and will be liable to tax under GST regime.
Select any one correct answer in the light above statements.
Question 300:
Which of the following taxes will be levied on Imports of goods and services?
1. CGST
2. SGST
3. IGST
4. Exempt
Question 301:
1.A recommendation of the GST Council is necessary for exempting tax
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 302:
Which of the following is an intrastate supply?

1. Supplier of goods located in Nagpur and place of supply of goods SEZ located in Bihar
2. Supplier of goods located in Kolkata and place of supply of goods in Patna
3. Supplier of goods located in Goa and place of supply of goods in Goa
4. All the above
Question 303:
The maximum rate prescribed under IGST now is _______.

1. 5%
2. 12%
3. 18%
4. 28%
Question 304:
A continuous supply of goods requires one of the following as a must:

1. The goods must be notified by the Commissioner in this behalf
2. The contract for supply lasts for a minimum period of 3 months
3. The supply is made by means of a wire, cable, pipeline or other conduit
4. Supplier invoices the recipient on a regular or periodic basis
Question 305:
Which one is NOT true about Cash Ledger?

1. The cash ledger will reflect all deposits made in cash on account of the taxpayer
2. The cash ledger will reflect all deposits made in TDS on account of the taxpayer
3. The cash ledger will reflect all deposits made in TCS made on account of the taxpayer
4. The information will be reflected on after a gap of 24 hours basis
Question 306:
Which one of the following is NOT correct about GST tax return Preparer?
1. He/ she can Furnish details inward and outward supplies
2. He/ she can Furnish monthly / quarterly return
3. He/ she can Furnish Annual and Final return
4. He/ she cannot file a claim of Refund
,
Question 307:
The Designated Authority is notified by

1. Chief Commissioner
2. Commissioner
3. Departmental Secretary
Question 308:
1.A registered person shall collect tax as per the provision of the act.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 309:
1. District Magistrate court
2. High court
3. District court
Question 310:
First announcement to introduce GST by 2010, is made in Year

1. 2000
2. 2004
3. 2006
4. 2008
Question 311:
Who is not supposed to file GST Returns

1. Agriculturalist
2. Interstate suppliers
3. TDS deductors
4. e-commerce operators/ suppliers
Question 312:
1.An agent is a person who carries on business to receive services on behalf of a principal
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 313:
A return is a statement of specified particulars relating to business activity undertaken by the taxable person during a prescribed period. A taxable person has a legal obligation:
1. To declare his tax liability for a given period in the return
2. Furnish details about the taxes paid in accordance with that return; and
3. File correct and complete return within stipulated time frame
4. All of these options
Question 314:
1. Tax invoice
3. Both A and B
Question 315:
1. Appointments of officers
2. Definitions
3. Both A and B
Question 316:
What is the due date for payment of TDS ?

1. Within 20 days of the subsequent month
2. Within 10 days of the subsequent month
3. Last day of the month to which payment relates
4. Within 15 days of the subsequent mont
Question 317:

1. Tax deducted at the office
2. Tax deducted at source
3. Both A and B
Question 318:

i. GST is a destination based single tax on the supply of goods and services
Question 319:
1.An agent is a person who carries on business to supply goods on behalf of a principal
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 320:
A dealer of air-conditioners permanently transfers an air conditioner from his stock in trade, for personal use at his residence. Will the transaction constitute a supply?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Information is incomplete to decide
Question 321:

3. It is an indication that the payment has been credited to Cash Ledger of Taxpayer.
4. CIN is communicated by the authorized bank to taxpayer as well as to GSTN.
Question 322:
_______ is the first state to ratify GST bill.

1. Bihar
2. Telegana
3. Assam
4. Andhra Pradesh
Question 323:
1.GST has reduced the multiple number of indirect taxes
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 324:
What is date of receipt of payment?

1. Date of entry in the books
2. Date of payment credited into bank accoun
3. Earlier of (a) and (b)
4. Date of filing of return
Question 325:
1.After GST tax on tax no longer exists.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 326:
Which one statement is NOT Correct about gifts given by employer to employee will also qualify as supply under GST regime?
1. Gift by an employer to employee will be a supply and will be liable to tax
2. Any gifts for a value not exceeding fifty thousand rupees in a financial year will not qualify as supply and as such will not be liable to tax
3. Gift by an employer to employee will be a supply and but will not be liable to tax at all
4. None of these options correct
Question 327:
The books and other records U/S 35 are to be maintained at the

1. Place where the books and accounts are maintained
2. Place of address of the Proprietor/ Partner/Director/Principal Officer
3. Principal place of business mentioned in the Certificate of Registration
4. Any of the above
Question 328:
What is not “works contract ”as per Bihar GST Act, 2017
1. A contract for building construction
2. A contract for building renovation
3. Annual Maintenance Contract of Computers
4. A contract for building fabrication
Question 329:
Who is not supposed to fle GST Returns

1. Every registered taxable person – who crosses the threshold limit for payment of taxes
2. interstate suppliers
3. Agriculturalist Supplier
4. e-commerce operators/ suppliers
Question 330:
Which of the following is included in the definition of goods under BGST.

1. Actionable claim
2. Growing crops
3. Both A and B
Question 331:
1.A registered person supplying taxable goods shall issue a tax invoice
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 332:
Which one is NOT a mode of generation of e-Way Bill (EWB)?

1. Via a SMS through a Registered Mobile Number
2. Web-Online using browser on laptop or desktop or phone, etc
3. Android based Mobile App on mobile Phones
Question 333:
Which one fact is NOT correct about Registration of TDS deductors under GST:?
1. A TDS deductor has to compulsorily register without any threshold limit
2. The deductor has a to provide PAN Number for obtaining registration under
3. He can obtain registration using his Tax Deduction and Collection Account Number (TAN) issued under the Income Tax Act, 1961
4. All these options are correct
Question 334:
Which one is NOT correct about E-FPB (Electronic Focal Point Branch)?
1. E-FPBs are branches of authorized banks which are authorized to collect payment of GST. Each authorized bank will nominate only one branch as its E-FPB for pan India Transactions.
2. Total 38 accounts (one each for CGST, IGST and one each for SGST for each State/UT Govt.) will have to be opened.
3. Any amount received by such E-FPB towards GST will be credited to the appropriate account held by such E-FPB.
4. For NEFT/RTGS Transactions, SBI ( State Bank of India) will act as E-FPB.
Question 335:
Which of these Banks do not hold share in GSTN

1. ICICI Bank
2. HDFC Bank
3. SBI Bank
Question 336:
In IGSTN the letter I stands for

1. Indian
2. Internal
3. Integrated
Question 337:
The certificate of details of tax deducted by the deductor shall be furnished to the deductee in Form
1. GSTR 7
2. GSTR 7A
3. GSTR 2A
4. GSTR 1A
Question 338:
What is the rate applicable under CGST to a registered person being a hotelier opting to pay taxes under composition scheme?
1. 1%
2. 0.5%
3. 2.5%
,
Question 339:
Every registered taxable person shall be entitled to take credit of input tax in his return and such input tax credit shall be credited to
1. Personal Ledger Account
2. Refund account
Question 340:
1.The entire process of GSTN is online starting from registration to filing of returns.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 341:
In IGST the letter G stands for

1. Government
2. Goods
3. Governor
Question 342:
Which one of the following is true?

1. A person can collect tax only he is registered
2. Registered person not liable to collect tax till his aggregate turnover exceeds threshold limit
3. A person can collect the tax during the period of his provisional registration
Question 343:
In case of goods sent on sale on approval basis, invoice has to be issued:

1. While sending the goods; another Invoice has to be issued by the recipient while rejecting the goods
2. While sending the goods but the recipient can take credit only when the goods are accepted by him
3. When the recipient accepts the goods or six months from the date of supply whichever is earlier.
4. When the recipient accepts the goods or three months from the date of supply whichever is earlier
Question 344:
The Chapter VI of Central Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with
1. Persons liable for registration
2. Levy and collection
3. Both A and B
Question 345:
Supply of software would be treated as supply of ……….. Under GST law?

1. Only Goods
2. Only Services
3. Both Goods & Services
4. Neither Goods nor Services
Question 346:
1. Central tax
2. Goods
3. Both A and B
Question 347:
1.The section 32 prohibits unauthorized collection of tax
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 348:
How can anyone verify the authenticity or the correctness of e-way bill?
i. Any person can verify the authenticity or the correctness of e-way bill by entering EWB No, EWB Date, Generator ID and Doc No in the search option of EWB Portal
ii. EWB portal RRL is: http://ewaybill.nic.in
Question 349:
Which of the following is to be compulsorily registered under BGST

1. A non resident making taxable suppy of goods.
2. A person making taxable supply of goods on behalf of others.

3. Both A and B
Question 350:
Matching of Input Tax credit on inward supply by recipient is undertaken with

1. Monthly return filed by the supplier
2. Outward supply filed by the supplier
3. Invoices maintained by the supplier
Question 351:
1. Council
3. Both A and B
Question 352:
If excess or erroneous deduction has been made by the deductor and this amount is credited to the Electronic Cash Ledger of the deductee, refund can be claimed by:
1. Deductor
2. Deductee
3. Both Deductor and deductee
Question 353:
1. An agent is that person who will carry on business to supply goods on behalf of a principal
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 354:
What is the code in space marked ‘X” ( 13th Digits) in 15 digit Goods and Services Tax
Identification Number (GSTIN)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
X
1. Serial No of a business vertical in a State
2. District Code
3. State Code
4. PAN No of Tax Payer
Question 355:
On which of the following items GST is not levied.

1. Car
2. TV
3. Petroleum
Question 356:

1. Production of goods
2. Stock of goods
3. Both A and B
Question 357:
1.In India GST became effective from 01.07.2017
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 358:
Under what circumstances physical verification of business premises is mandatory?

1. Physical verification of business premises is a discretionary power of proper officer.
2. If additional information for registration asked by the proper officer is not submitted within specified time.
3. If certificate of registration is obtained on misrepresentation of facts.
4. If photograph of the business premise is not uploaded in the common portal within specified time.
Question 359:
Business which has centralized registration under existing Acts

1. Shall obtain a centralized registration under GST Law.
2. Shall obtain separate registration in each state from where it is making taxable supplies.
3. Shall obtain registration on temporary basis
4. No need to apply for registration under GST.
,
Question 360:
1. The registration has been obtained by fraud.
2. The registration has been obtained by suppression of facts
3. Both A and B
Question 361:
Any registered taxable person who fails to furnish the details and file the return within the due date prescribed shall be liable to
1. Interest at the rate of 1% per month
2. Late fee of Rs. 100 for every day up to Rs. 5000
3. Both (a) and (b)
Question 362:
Balance in electronic credit ledger under CGST can be used against which liability?
1. CGST Liability only
2. CGST and IGST liability
3. GST, IGST and SGST liability
4. None of them
Question 363:

1. Tax on gambling
2. Tax on betting
3. Both A and B
Question 364:
When does liability to pay GST arise in case of supply of goods?

1. On raising of invoice
2. At the time of supply of goods
3. On receipt of payment
4. Earliest of any of above
Question 365:
Which one is not a supply of goods under the GST regime ?

1. any transfer of the title in goods
2. Any transfer of right in goods or of undivided share in goods without the transfer of title thereof
3. any transfer of title in goods under an agreement which stipulates that property in goods shall pass at a future date upon payment of full consideration as agreed
4. where goods forming part of the assets of a business are transferred or disposed of by or under the directions of the person carrying on the business so as no longer to form part of those assets, whether or not for a consideration
Question 366:
1.GST has subsumed all indirect taxes
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 367:
The final return shall be filed by the registered taxable person within
1. 1 month of the date of order of cancellation
2. 3 months of the date of order of cancellation
Question 368:

1. An authority appointed under section 123 to hear revision of orders
2. An authority authorised to hear revision of orders
3. Both A and B
Question 369:
In GSTN the letter N stands for

1. North
2. Node
3. Network
Question 370:
Reverse charge mechanism applicable to...............

1. Only to Goods
2. Only to Services
3. Both goods and services

,
Question 371:
Balance in electronic credit ledger under IGST can be used against which liability?
1. IGST Liability only
2. IGST and CGST liability
3. IGST, CGST and SGST liability
4. None of them
Question 372:
1. A person on whose behalf an agent supplies goods
2. A person who supplies services on behalf of Government
3. Both A and B
Question 373:
2. A person who has a unique identity number
3. Both A and B
Question 374:
1. Services of funeral, burial, crematorium or mortuary
2. Sale of land
3. Works contract as defined in clause (119) of section
4. Actionable claims other than lottery, betting and gambling
Question 375:
What is the threshold limit of turnover in the preceding financial year for opting to pay tax under composition scheme?
1. Rs 20 Lacs
2. Rs 50 Lacs
3. Rs 75 Lacs
Question 376:

i. e-way bill trial period was scheduled from 15th Jan2018 to 31st Jan 2018
ii. The Trial Period of e-Way Bill was strictly followed as per its original schedule.
Question 377:
1. Services by an employee to the employer in the course of or in relation to his employment
2. Services by any Court or Tribunal established under any law
3. Any treatment or process which is applied to another person's goods
4. Services of funeral, burial, crematorium or mortuary
Question 378:
The tax IGST charged by _________Government.

1. Central
2. State
3. Concerned department
4. All a, b and c
Question 379:
Who is liable to pay tax under GST?

2. A business man with annual sale above Rs19 lakhs
Question 380:
Bihar GST Act became effective from

1. 2015
2. 2017
3. 2018
Question 381:
How many countries have dual – GST model?

1. 5
2. 8
3. 14
Question 382:
Which of the following statement is not correct about GST?

1. It will abolish direct tax
2. It was implemented from 01.07.2017
3. Both A and B
Question 383:
Provisional Input tax credit can be utilized against

1. Any Tax liability
2. Self Assessed output Tax liability
3. Interest and Penalty
4. Fine
Question 384:

1. Transfer tax
2. Tax on lottery
3. Both A and B
Question 385:
Which of the following is a court under the provisions of chapter XII of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017 ?
1. SDO court
2. High court
3. Family court
Question 386:
Any input tax paid on purchase of goods or services by an assessee for employees is eligible for ITC?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Yes, on the services notified which are obligatory for an employer to provide to its employees under any law for the time being in force
4. Not applicable
Question 387:
Which of these registers/ledgers are maintained online?

1. Tax liability register
2. Credit ledger
3. Credit ledger
4. All of them
Question 388:
From which date a proper officer may cancel the registration of a person?
1. Current date
2. retrospective date
3. Both A and B
Question 389:
What is not “Supply ”as per Bihar GST Act, 2017

1. Sale of goods and services
2. Barter of goods and services
3. Import of services for a consideration
4. Online Purchase and sale of Bitcoin
Question 390:

i. E-way bill is generated from the State portal of originating State with the bill number being made available to the supplier, the recipient, and transporter.
ii. A robust GSTN network is supposed to ensure automatic matching of inward supply with the corresponding ourt-ward supply.
Question 391:
1.An agent is a person who carries on business to supply services on behalf of a principal
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 392:
1. Definition
2. Appellate authority
3. Both A and B
Question 393:
Which of the following is included in the place of business under BGST.

1. A warehouse
2. A place where a taxable person store his goods
3. Both A and B
Question 394:
Who is the chairman of GSTN?

1. Sunil Singh
2. Ashok kumar
3. Navin kumar
Question 395:
Which is the GST code of Jammu and Kashmir?

1. 3
2. 7
3. 1
Question 396:
When E-suwidha from will be as Bihar e-way bill

1. 1 July, 16
2. 1 July, 17
3. 1 July, 14
4. 1 July, 15
Question 397:
The Tourist can claim Refund of following taxes paid

1. CGST and SGST/UTGST on supply of Goods and services
2. IGST on supply of goods consumed in Jammu & Kashmir
3. Tax paid on the supply of scotch to be taken out of India
Question 398:

1. Sales tax
2. Service tax
3. Both A and B
Question 399:
1.The section 49 deals with payment of interest and penalty.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 400:
Smart Phones will be taxed at _______ under GST.

1. 0%
2. 5%
3. 12%
4. 28%
Question 401:

i. E-way bill is generated from the GSTN portal with the bill number being made available to the supplier, the recipient, and transporter.
ii. A robust GSTN network is supposed to ensure manual matching of inward supply with the corresponding out-ward supply.
Question 402:
Which one is NOT correct about GST Tax Payment

1. TDS (Tax Deduction at Source) is to be done by Government Department
2. TCS( Tax Collection at Source) is to be done by e-Commerce operator
3. Interest, Penalty and Fees can be paid by by Cheque on GST Portal
4. For any inter-state supply, tax to be paid is Integrated GST (IGST) which will have components of both CGST and SGST
,
Question 403:
1.The section 47 deals with accounts and other records.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 404:
1. Prohibition of unauthorized collection of tax
2. Cancellation of registration
3. Both A and B
Question 405:
2. They need to remit such TDS collected by the 10th day of the month succeeding the
month in which TDS was collected and reported in GSTR 7.
4. They need to issue certificate of such TDS to the deductee within 10 days of deducting TDS failing which fees of Rs. 100 per day subject to maximum of Rs. 50000/- will be payable by such deductor.
Question 406:
The details submitted by the supplier in Form GSTR 1 are communicated to the registered taxable person in
1. Form GSTR 2A on 15th of the succeeding month
3. Form GSTR 2A after the due date of filing Form GSTR 1
Question 407:
Which section of BGST deals with procedure of registration?

1. Section 32
2. Section 13
3. Section 49
Question 408:
1.An agent is a person who does not carry on business to supply goods on behalf of a principal
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 409:
Are there four slabs of taxes in GST ?

1. Yes
2. No
3. Both A and B
Question 410:
1.The section 25 deals with procedure for registration.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 411:

i. E-Way Bill Portal launched successfully on 1st Feb 2018 and operationalised nationwide.
ii. The e-way bill, a key element of GST regime, is a Manual document tracker of cargo transportation.
Question 412:

1. Step daughter of the person
2. Step son of the person
3. Both A and B
Question 413:
“Value of consignment of Goods” is interpreted to generate e-way bill by user in GST regime
1. Invoice Value* exceeds Rs. 50,000 OR
2. If a vehicle carries goods against multiple Invoices, then where the aggregate Invoice value* exceed Rs. 50,000
3. Either of option (a) or (b) is satisfied
Question 414:
A person is entitled to take credit of input tax as self-assessed in the return and credited to Electronic credit ledger on
1. Final basis
2. Provisional basis
3. Partly Provisional and partly final basis
Question 415:
If there is Mis-match of supplier’s outward supply and recipient’s claim for Input Tax credit on the same
1. It shall be added as output tax liability in the hands of receiver.
2. It shall be reduced as output tax liability in the hands of receiver.
3. It shall be increased as input tax credit in the hands of receiver.
4. It shall be deceased as input tax credit in the hands of supplier.
Question 416:
Which chapter of Central Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with levy and collection of tax
1. Chapter II
2. Chapter VI
3. Chapter III
Question 417:
Which of the following is not correct about GST?

1. It is a indirect tax
2. It is a direct tax
3. Both A and B
Question 418:
Question 419:
Which one is correct about the code in space marked ‘X” ( 13th Digits) in 15 digit Goods and
Services Tax Identification Number (GSTIN)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
X
1. It is a checksum code
2. By default it is “Z”
3. This digit will be assigned based on the number of registration within a state by tax payer
Question 420:
Which Pair is not matched correctly

GST Return Form - Particulars
1. GSTR-1 Details of outward supplies of taxable goods/services
2. GSTR-6 Return for Input Service Distributor
3. GSTR-3 Return for compounding taxable person
4. GSTR-9 Annual Return
Question 421:
Which of the following tax is not subsumed in GST

1. VAT
2. Stamp Duty
3. Entry Tax
4. Entertainment Tax
Question 422:
If Input credit claimed by recipient is more than the output tax declared by the supplier or if the supplier has not declared the outward supply, then
1. The supplier is given an opportunity of being heard
2. the excess amount claimed as input is added to the output tax liability of the supplier
3. The excess amount claimed as input is added to the output tax liability of the recipient
4. The discrepancy is communicated in GST ITC -1 to both the supplier and receiver
Question 423:
Which one is not maintained for each person liable to pay ............., in “Electronic Liability Register “ as per provisions of Bihar GST Act 2017
1. Tax
2. Penalty
3. Late fee
4. Credit Note
Question 424:
Read the following statements with reference to Central Goods and Services Tax 2017 and select the correct option using the code given below.
1.The section 29 deals with cancellation of registration
2.The section 31 deals with tax invoice
1. Only 1 is correct.
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Question 425:
SAC Code Stands for

1. Services Accounting Code
2. Software Accounting Code
3. System Accounting Code
4. Service Application Code
Question 426:
Accounts are required to be maintained in

1. Manual form
2. Electronic form
3. Manual and electronic form
4. Manual or electronic form
Question 427:

i. QR Code will be printed on each e -way bill for ease of seeing details.
ii. A Consolidated E-way bill can be generated for vehicle carrying multiple consignments.
Question 428:
Which of the following was abolished by GST?

1. Income tax
2. Service tax
3. Both A and B
Question 429:
1.The section 28 deals with amendment of registration.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 430:
1. Powers of officers
2. Timely supply of goods
3. Both A and B
Question 431:

i. E-Way Bill Portal crashed on the launch date on 1st Feb 2018 itself.
ii. The e-way bill, a key element of GST regime, is a complex new digital document tracker of cargo transportation.
Question 432:

i. E-Way Bill is generated every time a cargo item worth more than Rs. 50000/- and crosses 10km.
ii. Only the logistics company or the transporter can generate the e-way bill under GST.
4.
Question 433:
which of the following documents under GST is to be maintained?

1. Payment voucher
2. Delivery challan
3. Both A and B
Question 434:
How a person can apply for registration?

1. Filing FORM GST REG-01 along with necessary documents with the jurisdictional proper officer.
2. Filing FORM GST REG-01 electronically in the common portal and uploading the required documents along with the application.
3. Uploading necessary documents electronically in the common portal and also submitting manually to the jurisdictional proper officer.
Question 435:
HSN Code Stands for

1. Home Shopping Network
2. Harmonised System of Nomenclature
3. Harmonised System Number
4. Home State Number
Question 436:
money is included as …… in Bihar GST Act/Rule 2017

1. As Goods
2. As Services
3. Both goods and services
Question 437:
Is the principal entitled for credit of goods though he has not received the goods and has been sent to job worker directly by vendor
1. Yes
2. No
3. Yes, Vendor should be located in same place
Question 438:
There is a Tribunal to hear appeal under section 109 of BGST. It is called

1. GST Tribunal
2. GST Appellate Tribunal
3. Both A and B
Question 439:
Which of the following is not liable to be registration under BGST.

1. An agriculturist supplying agricultural produce out of cultivation
2. A person engaged in the business of supplying goods or services which is exempt from tax.
3. Both A and B
Question 440:
1. private players hold 51% of share of GSTN
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 441:
Can Mr. A avail credit on Input services or capital goods held in stock, in case of new registration/voluntary Registration
1. Yes
2. No
3. Yes , on Input Services only
4. Yes, on Capital Goods only
Question 442:

i. E-Way Bill Portal crashed on the launch date on 1st Feb 2018 itself.
ii. The e-way bill, a key element of GST regime, is a Manual document tracker of cargo transportation.
Question 443:
If an agent supplies or receives goods or services on behalf of his principal,will the agent be liable to pay GST?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Doubtful
Question 444:
Which of the following country has the second highest tax slabs
1. Netherland
2. Argentina
3. Ireland
4. South Korea
Question 445:

1. Final return
2. Powers of officer
3. Both A and B
Question 446:
Which is not a mode or methods of payment GST?

1. Internet banking and debit/credit cards of authorized banks
2. Over the counter payment through authorized banks
3. Payment through NEFT/RTGS from any bank.
4. Cheque/Bankers Cheque
Question 447:
1. Annual Reurn
2. Amendment of registration
3. Both A and B
Question 448:

i. QR Code will be printed on each e -way bill for ease of seeing details.
ii. As many E-way bills has to be generated as number of consignments for a vehicle carrying multiple consignments.
Question 449:
Which chapter of Central Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with returns
1. Chapter II
2. Chapter VI
3. Chapter IX
Question 450:
1. Procedure for registration
2. Deemed registration
3. Both A and B
Question 451:
who is competent to cancel the registration under provision of BGST?

1. Proper officer
3. Tax officer
Question 452:
The supplier on receiving the communication in Form GSTR 1A shall accept or reject the modified details by ---------------------------
4. 20th of the month succeeding the quarter
Question 453:

1. Central government
2. State Government
3. Both A and B
Question 454:
Indian GST model has _________rate structure.

1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 7
,
Question 455:
1. District court
2. High court
3. Chief judicial Magistrate
Question 456:
The tax IGST is charged by

1. State Government
3. Both A and B
Question 457:

i. Users of EWB cannot create masters of his Customers, Suppliers & Products for easy generation of EWB
ii. Vehicle Number can be entered only by the Supplier of goods who generate EWB or the transporter.
Question 458:

1. A buyer of business engaged in taxable supply of services
2. A buyer of business engaged in taxable supply of goods
3. Both A and B
Question 459:
1.An agent is a person who receives goods on behalf of a principal
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 460:

i. E-Way Bill is generated every time a cargo item worth more than Rs. 1,00,000/- and crosses10 km.
ii. Any entity under GST – the Shipper, Consigner, the logistics company or the transporter can generate the bill.
Question 461:
1. File an application for fresh registration
2. File an application for amendment or cancellation of registration
3. Furnish details of outward and inward supplies
Question 462:
Which one is correct GST Helpdesk Contact Number?

1. 011-4688999
2. 0124-4688999
3. 011-4445555
4. 0124-4445555
Question 463:
Details of outward supplies shall include

1. Invoice
2. Debit Note and Credit Notes
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. Revised invoice issued in relation to outward supplies
Question 464:
1. Definitions
2. Compulsory registration in cetain cases
3. Both A and B
Question 465:
1. Tax invoice
2. First returns
3. Both A and B
Question 466:
Input Tax credit as credited in Electronic Credit ledger can be utilized for
1. Payment of Interest
2. Payment of penalty
3. Payment of Fine
4. Payment of Taxes
Question 467:
What are the taxes levied on an Intra-State Supply?

1. CGST
2. SGST
3. CGST and SGST
4. IGST
Question 468:
Where any person ceases to be a taxable person and the business is transferred as a going concern to another person. It is a case of ……
Question 469:
Refunds will not be allowed in cases of:-

1. Exports made on payment of tax
2. Exports made without payment of tax
3. Where tax on inputs are higher than tax on outputs
4. All of the above
Question 470:
Principal Commissioner state tax is appointed by

2. State Government
3. Both A and B
Question 471:
The details of inward supplies of goods or services in Form GSTR 2 shall be submitted by
Question 472:
How many types of GST are there in India?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
Question 473:
GST threshold limit of North Eastern States is _______ lakhs

1. 5
2. 10
3. 12
4. 15
Question 474:

3. CIN is generated by the authorized banks/ Reserve Bank of India (RBI) when payment is actually received by such authorized banks or RBI and credited in the relevant government account held with them.
4. CIN is communicated by the taxpayer to authorised bank as well as to GSTN.
Question 475:

1. Children of the person
2. Parents of the person if fully dependent on the person
3. Both A and B
Question 476:
The section 2 of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with
1. Definition
2. Short Title
3. Both A and B
Question 477:
An acknowledgement must be given on receipt of advance payment in respect of supply of goods or services:
1. Yes, in the form of a proforma invoice
2. Yes, as a receipt voucher
3. Yes, the invoice must be raised to that extent
Question 478:

i. E-way bill is generated from the State portal of originating State with the bill number being made available to the supplier, the recipient, and transporter.
ii. A robust GSTN network is supposed to ensure manual matching of inward supply with the corresponding our-ward supply.
Question 479:
Under which section of BGST the Government is empowered to levy tax on intra-state trade
1. 15
2. 09
3. 11
Question 480:
Place of supply in case of installation of elevator is

1. Where the movement of elevator commences from the supplier’s place.
2. Where the delivery of elevator is taken.
3. Where the installation of elevator is made.
4. Where address of the recipient is mentioned in the invoice.
Question 481:
Which of the following was abolished by GST?

1. Wealth tax
2. Corporation tax
3. Both A and B
Question 482:
The headquarters of GST council is _______.

1. Mumbai
2. New Delhi
3. Chennai
4. Kolkota
Question 483:
Who can notify a transaction to be supply of ‘goods’ or ‘services’ under GST system?
1. Board
3. GST Council
Question 484:
1.The headquarters of GST Council is at Mumbai
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 485:
Which one is NOT correct about Tax Collected at Source (TCS) as per Bihar GST Act 2017?
2. Every E-Commerce Operator needs to withhold a percentage (notified on the recommendation of the GST Council) of the amount which is due from him to the supplier at the time of making actual payment to the supplier.
4. Such withheld amount is to be deposited by such E-Commerce Operator to the appropriate GST account by the 10th of the next month.
Question 486:
1.The section 52 deals with collection of tax at source.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful

,
Question 487:
What does the acronym SAC stand for ?

1. Software accounting code
2. System accounting code
3. Services accounting code
Question 488:
When will the last quarter end under BGST.

1. 31 march
2. 30 June
3. 30 September
Question 489:
Who is an agriculturist under the provisions of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017?
1. A person who undertakes cultivation of land by hiring labour
2. A person who undertakes cultivation of land on bataidari.
3. Both A and B
Question 490:
How to generate e-way bill for multiple invoices belonging to same consignor and consignee?
i. If multiple invoices are issued by the supplier to recipient, that is, for movement of goods of more than one invoice of same consignor and consignee, multiple EWBs have to be generated. That is, for each invoice, one EWB has to be generated, irrespective of same or
different consignors or consignees are involved.
ii. Multiple invoices cannot be clubbed to generate one EWB.
iii. However after generating all these EWBs, one Consolidated EWB can be prepared for transportation purpose, if they are going in one vehicle.
Select any one correct answer in the light of above Statements.
1. Only Statements (i) & (ii) are correct
2. Only Statements (i) & (iii) are correct
3. Only Statements (ii) & (iii) are correct
4. All three Statements are correct
Question 491:
Forms GSTR 3, GSTR 4 and GSTR 6 filed can be rectified on the grounds of
1. Any omission or incorrect particulars
2. Omission or incorrect particulars found during audit/ scrutiny/ inspection
3. Any omission or incorrect particulars other than (b) above
4. Not applicable (such Forms cannot be rectified)
Question 492:
Read following Statements about the e-Way Bills( EWB)

i. There is a chance that consignee or recipient may reject to take the delivery of consignment due to various reasons. Under such circumstance, the transporter can get one more e-way bill generated with the help of supplier or recipient by indicating supply as ‘Sales
Return’ and with relevant document details and return the goods to supplier as per his agreement with him.
ii. If validity of the e-way bill expires, the goods are not supposed to be moved. However, under circumstance of ‘exceptional nature’, the generator of the e-way bill can generate another e-way bill, by entering the e-way bill number and part-B. Now, the system
generates the new e-way bill with part-A information of previous e-way bill and new Part-B information.
1. Only Statement (i) correct
2. Only Statement (ii) correct
4. None of the statement is correct
Question 493:
1.The section 54 deals with refund of tax
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 494:
Which of the following is correct about GSTN?

1. It is a non-profit non government company
2. it provides one stop solution on GST
3. Both A and B
Question 495:

1. The cash ledger will reflect all deposits made in cash on account of the taxpayer.
2. The cash ledger will reflect all deposits made in TDS on account of the taxpayer.
3. The cash ledger will reflect all deposits made in TCS made on account of the taxpayer.
4. This ledger can be used only for making only GST not interest/penalty.
Question 496:

Question 497:
What is meant by a non taxable territory under BGST?

1. A territory which is outside the taxable territoty
2. A territory which is inside the taxable territoty
3. Both A and B
Question 498:
Which section of BGST deals with amendment of registration?

1. Section 24
2. Section 43
3. Section 29
Question 499:

1. Receipt voucher
2. Refund voucher
3. Both A and B
Question 500:
Registration or unique identity number under provision of BGST can be

1. Granted
2. rejected
3. Both A and
Question 501:
PAN issued under the Income Tax Act is mandatory for grant of registration.
1. It is one of the document listed.
2. Yes, but non-resident taxable person may be granted registration on the basis of any other document.
3. No, for persons who are required to deduct tax at source u/s 51 shall have TAN in lieu of PAN.
4. Both (b) and (c)
Question 502:
Who is not “person” as per Bihar GST Act, 2017

1. A company
2. A firm
3. An NRI ( Non- Resident Indian)
4. Zilla Parishad
Question 503:
Which of the following is not liable to be registration under BGST.

1. An agriculturist engaged in business of agricultural produce
2. A person engaged in the business of supplying goods or services which is not liable to tax.
3. Both A and B
Question 504:

1. Inward supply of services
2. Outward supply of services
3. Both A and B
Question 505:
Which of the following is included in the definition of a person under BGST.

1. An individual
2. A company
3. Both A and B
Question 506:
GST is a self-assessed destination based taxation system. The need of filing return is to -
1. providing necessary inputs for taking policy decision
2. management of audit and anti-evasion programs of tax administration.
3. finalization of the tax liabilities of the taxpayer within stipulated period of limitation.
4. All of these options
Question 507:

1. Husband of the person
2. Wife of the person

3. Both A and B
Question 508:
1.The section 23 deals with persons not liable for registration.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 509:
GST Returns cannot be filed using any of the following methods:

1. GSTN portal (www.gst.gov.in)
2. Offline utilities provided by GSTN
3. GST Suvidha Providers (GSPs)
4. E-Way Bill Portal
Question 510:
For capital goods, proportionate credit is allowed

1. for business and non-business purpose
2. for business or non- business purpose
3. both of the above
4. none of the above
Question 511:

1. Inward supply of goods
2. Outward supply of goods
3. Both A and B
Question 512:
The Chapter II of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017 deals with
1. Appointments of officers
2. Administration
3. Both A and B
Question 513:
How many digits are there in GSTIN?

1. 12
2. 10
3. 15
Question 514:

i. E-Way Bill is generated every time a cargo item worth more than Rs. 50000/- and crosses 10km.
ii. Any entity under GST – the Shipper, Consigner, the logistics company or the transporter can generate the bill.
Question 515:
Who are mandatorily required to obtain registration?

1. Every Person
2. For an agriculturist or exclusively engaged in supplying exempt goods or services is not required and for others if specified threshold limit exceeds in a financial year
3. Not required for an agriculturist or person exclusively engaged in supplying exempt goods or services
4. No, only if specified threshold exceeds in a financial year then only need to obtain
Question 516:
Is Input tax to be reversed in case of supply of capital goods

1. Yes, fully
2. No
3. Yes, to extent of credit taken as reduced by prescribed percentage or tax on transaction value whichever is higher
4. Yes to the extent of transaction value of such goods
Question 517:
GSTN (Goods and Service Tax Network) was established in

1. 2017
2. 2015
3. 2013
Question 518:
2. They need to remit such TDS collected by the 10th day of the month succeeding the month in which TDS was collected and reported in GSTR 7.
3. The amount deposited as TDS will be reflected in the electronic cash ledger of the supplier
Question 519:
Every tax payer paying tax under Section 9 (composition levy) shall file the return in
1. Form GSTR 3 by 18th of the month succeeding the quarter
3. Form GSTR 4 by 18th of the succeeding month
Question 520:
What is the code in space marked ‘X” ( First two Digits) in 15 digit Goods and Services Tax
Identification Number (GSTIN).
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
X X
1. Checksum Code
2. District Code
3. State Code
4. Tax Rate Code
Question 521:
1. A person on whose behalf an agent does not supply goods
2. A person who supplies services on behalf of Government
3. Both A and B
Question 522:
Who is a supplier under the provisions of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017?
1. A person who supplies goods in the capacity of an agent of supplier
2. A person who supplies services in the capacity of an agent of supplier
3. Both A and B
Question 523:
What is meant by state tax under the provisions of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017?
1. A tax levied under BGST
2. A tax levied by income tax authority
3. Both A and B
Question 524:
Which of the following forms of supply are included in Schedule 1 of GST?

1. Permanent transfer of business assets on which input tax credit has been claimed
2. Agency transactions
3. Barter
4. All of the above
Question 525:
Banking company or Financial Institution have an option of claiming ITC:

1. Actual Credit or 50% credit
2. Only 50% Credit
3. Only actual credit
4. Actual credit and 50% credit
Question 526:

1. Input tax credit
2. Output tax payable
3. Both A and B
Question 527:
1. Return
3. Both A and B
Question 528:
1.GST has introduced consumption based tax system
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful

,
Question 529:
What is the due date for issue of TDS Certificate under GST ?
1. Within 10 days from the date of payment of TDS
2. Within 05 days from the date of payment of TDS
3. The date of payment of TDS
4. The date of payment of TDS
Question 530:
Who is not required to register under Bihar GST, Act 2017

1. Every supplier making a taxable supply of goods or services or both in the State shall be liable to be registered under this Act if his aggregate turnover in a financial year exceeds amount fixed by government
2. If a supplier was registered under erstwhile VAT just before 1st July 2017
3. An agriculturist
4. Where a business carried on by a taxable person registered under this Act is inherited by his son. The Son has to register
Question 531:
What is meant by a non taxable supply under BGST?

1. A supply of goods on which no tax is levied
2. A supply of service on which no tax is levied
3. Both A and B
Question 532:
When an e-commerce operator is required to register under GST?

1. When he is required to collect tax at source u/s 52
2. When his aggregate turnover exceeds the threshold limit
3. When he is required to discharge tax on the taxable supply or services made by the supplier through him u/s 9(5)
4. It is mandatory to register irrespective of the threshold limit.
Question 533:
Who is not “person” as per Bihar GST Act, 2017

1. Cantonment Board
2. Regional Council
3. District Council
Question 534:
The details submitted by the outward supplier in Form GSTR 1 shall be furnished to the recipient regular dealer in form
1. GSTR 4A
2. GSTR 2A
3. GSTR 5A
4. GSTR 6A
Question 535:
1. A person who deposits money on behalf of another
2. A person who pays money to the supplier
3. Both A and B
Question 536:
What is the maximum rate of tax under GST?

1. 10 %
2. 15 %
3. 18 %
Question 537:

1. E-FPB stands for Electronic Focal Point Branch
2. These are branches of authorized banks which are authorized to collect payment of GST. Each authorized bank will nominate only one branch as its E-FPB for pan India Transactions.
3. The E-FPB will have to open accounts under each major head for all governments.
4. Total 40 E-FPF accounts (one each for CGST, IGST and one each for SGST for each State/UT Govt.) will have to be opened.
Question 538:
In the untext of GST what does the S in HSN stand for?

1. School
2. State
3. System
Question 539:
What is the maximum rate prescribed under CGST?

1. 12%
2. 18%
3. 20%
4. 28%
Question 540:
The deductee can claim credit of the remittance made by the deductor in his,
2. Tax Liability Ledger
4. None of the Above
Question 541:

1. Luxury tax
2. Excise tax
3. Both A and B
Question 542:

i. Petrol and diesel products are out of GST tax regime
Question 543:
Bihar e-way bill ‘form VII’ can be applied for

2. out going movement
3. within state movement
Question 544:
The lowest rate of tax under IGST is

1. 12 %
2. 5 %
3. 28 %
Question 545:
1.The section 47 deals with levy of late fee.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 546:
Which one statement is NOT correct about e-Way Bill (EWB) in GST regime?
2. Once EWB No is cancelled it is illegal to use it
3. EWB Number can be deleted in 24 hours of generation
4. All are correct
Question 547:
When a taxable person under the provisions of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017 transfer his business by sale who will be responsible for paying GST?
1. The person who sold the business
2. The person who purchased the business
3. Both A and B
Question 548:
In India GST was first proposed in _______.

1. 1993
2. 1996
3. 1999
4. 2000
Question 549:
2. They need to remit such TDS collected by the 15th day of the month succeeding the month in which TDS was collected and reported in GSTR 3B.
Question 550:
1. A person who carries on the business of supply or receipt of goods on behalf of another
2. A person who carries on the business of supply and receipt of service on behalf of another
3. Both A and B
Question 551:
An agent supplies or receives goods or services on behalf of his principal ,principal will not be held liable to pay GST?
1. Right
2. Wrong
3. Both A and B
Question 552:
Suppose Mr. Gopal Meena purchases online a shirt from Flipcart by paying Rs 2000. This Shirt was supplied by the Rajasthan Trading Company. Flipcart deducts 10% commission and pays balance to the Rajasthan Trading Company. Assume that Reverse Charge in GST is
notified on Transaction
Read Following Statements about the above case
i. Gopal Meena is a buyer and the Rajasthan Trading Company is a seller
ii. Mr. Gopal Meena will pay GST
iii. The Rajasthan Trading Company will pay GST
iv. Neither Mr. Gopal Meena nor the Rajasthan Trading Company will pay GST
3. Only Statement (i)and (iv) are correct
4. Only Statements (i)and (iii) are correct
Question 553:
Tax invoice must be issued by________

1. Every supplier
2. Every taxable person
3. Registered persons not paying tax under composition scheme
4. All the above
Question 554:
What is meant by a non taxable supply under BGST?

1. A supply of goods on which tax is levied
2. A supply of service on which tax is levied
3. Both A and B
Question 555:
Which one is not a local authority under Bihar GST Act

1. Cantonment Board
2. Regional Council
3. District Council
Question 556:

1. A taxable supplier of goods
2. A taxable supplier of services
3. Both A and B
Question 557:
How will the goods and services be classified under GST regime?
1. SAC/HSN Code
2. HSN Code
3. SAC Code
4. GST Code
Question 558:

1. The cash ledger will reflect all deposits made in cash on account of the taxpayer.
2. The cash ledger does not reflect all deposits made in TDS/TCS on account of the taxpayer.
3. The information will be reflected on real time basis.
4. This ledger can be used for making any payment on account of GST.
Question 559:
1. A person who is registered under BGST
2. A person who is liable to be registered under BGST
3. Both A and B
Question 560:

1. E-FPB stands for Electronic Focal Point Branch.
2. These are branches of authorized banks which are authorized to collect payment of GST.
3. Each authorized bank will nominate only one branch as its E-FPB for each state.
4. The E-FPB will have to open accounts under each major head for all governments.
Question 561:
Which of the following is an agent under the provisions of Bihar Goods and Services Tax 2017?
1. Peon
2. Clerk
3. Both A and B
Question 562:
The details submitted by the outward supplier in Form GSTR 1 shall be furnished to the recipient (not being a composition supplier) in Form:
1. GSTR 2A
2. GSTR 6A
3. GSTR 5A
4. GSTR 4A
Question 563:
Documents or Details required to generate e-Way Bill under GST regime

1. Invoice/ Bill of Supply/ Challan related to the consignment of goods
2. Transport by road – Transporter ID or Vehicle number
3. Transport by rail, air, or ship – Transporter ID, Transport document number, and date on the document
4. All of the above
Question 564:

i. Petrol and diesel products are out of GST tax regime
ii. GST is one direct tax for entire nation
Question 565:
1.Every registered person whose turnover is greater than prescribed limit shall get his account audited by chartered accountant.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 566:
How to generate e-way bill for multiple invoices belonging to same consignor and consignee?
i. If multiple invoices are issued by the supplier to recipient, that is, for movement of goods of more than one invoice of same consignor and consignee, multiple EWBs have to be generated.
That is, for each invoice, one EWB has to be generated, irrespective of same or different consignors or consignees are involved.
ii. Multiple invoices can be clubbed to generate one EWB.
1. Only Statement (i) correct
2. Only Statement (ii) correct
4. None of the statement is correct
Question 567:
What does the acronym HSN stand for ?

1. Home shopping Network
2. Home state number
3. Both A and B
Question 568:
The annual return shall be filed by the registered taxable person (other than composition suppliers) in Form---------------------
1. GSTR 9
2. GSTR 9A
3. GSTR 10
4. GSTR 7
Question 569:
The time limit to pay the value of supply with taxes

1. 90 days
2. 6 months
3. 180 days
4. 365 days
Question 570:
Who is considered as an e-commerce operator, who _____________digital or electronic facility or platform for electronic commerce
1. Owns
2. Operates
3. Manages
4. Any of the above
,
Question 571:
Which of the following was not included in GST?

1. Wealth tax
2. Stamp duty
3. Both A and B
Question 572:

i. E-way bill is generated from the GSTN portal with the bill number being made available to the supplier, the recipient, and transporter.
ii. A robust GSTN network is supposed to ensure automatic matching of inward supply with the corresponding out-ward supply.
Question 573:

1. Tax invoice
2. Bill of supply
3. Both A and B
Question 574:
Which one is correct about this GSTIN “10AAAGM0289CZZY”

1. This Business entity is situated is not situated in Bihar
2. This is the first business vertical of a Business Entity in Bihar
3. This is the 35th business vertical of a Business Entity in Bihar
4. This is the 9th business vertical of a Business Entity in Bihar

Question Bank - Right to Information Act, 2005 and Rules
Question 1:
Under the RTI Act, 2005 can a penalty be imposed against any public information officer without giving him/her reasonable opportunity of being heard by information commission
1. No
2. Yes
3. With the permission of High Court
4. None of these
Question 2:
Definitions of the RTI Act,2005 is dealt with in Section –

Question 3:
Under Bihar RTI Rules 2006 what cost would be incurred for an information involving larger sized paper other than A4/A3 size paper.
1. Rs. 5 each
2. Rs. 10 each
3. Rs. 2 each
4. Actual cost incurred on photo copying on such bigger paper
Question 4:
In case any order is passed rejecting the application of information, in which form is it to be passed as prescribed under Bihar Right to Information Rules 2006 ?
1. Form (B)
2. Form (C)
3. Form (A)
4. Form (F)
Question 5:
How much fee in Bihar is charged for filing a second appeal under RTI Act 2005.
1. Rs. 25
2. Rs. 15
3. Rs. 10
4. None of these
Question 6:
The additional charge of fee for per page of information provides in A4/A3 size paper under Bihar RTI rules 2006 is?
1. One Rupee
2. Three Rupees
3. Two Rupees
4. Four Rupees
Question 7:
The Central or State Information Commission for inquiring any matter under section 18 of the RTI Act, 2005 shall have the same powers as are vested in a civil court while trying a suit under –
1. Civil Procedure Code 1908
2. Criminal Procedure Code 1973
3. Indian contract Act
4. None of these
Question 8:
The Form of oath or affirmation to be made by the Chief Information Commissioner/the Informatioin Commissioner is prescribed under which provision of the RTI Act 2005 ?
1. Rule 8
2. Section 30
3. First Schedule
4. None of these
Question 9:
The Bihar Central Information Commission (Management) Regulation 2007 provided the provision of appointment of registrar under which chapter ?
1. Chapter 1 regulation 3
4. None of these
Question 10:
The Right to Information Act 2005 has been numbered as –

1. No. 22 of 2005
2. No. 15 of 2005
3. No. 21 of 2005
Question 11:
Can a person force to have any information which is non existent

1. No
2. Yes
3. With the permission of the commission
4. None of these
Question 12:
PIO under the RTI Act 2005 means –

1. Public Informent Officer
2. Public Information Officer
3. Public Investigation Officer
4. None of these
Question 13:
The Right to Information Act, was enacted in the year

1. 2005
2. 2006
3. 2004
4. 2007
Question 14:
Where is the office of State Infromation Commission, Bihar situated

1. Old Secretariat, Patna
2. Information Building, Patna
3. Niyojan Bhawan, Bailey Road, Patna
4. None of these
Question 15:
Section 4 of the RTI Act,2005 deals with the

1. Powers of the Parliament
2. Powers of the State Government
3. Powers of the Central Government
4. Obligations of the public authorities
Question 16:
The provision of appeal is dealt under which section of RTI Act ?

1. Section 16
2. Section 17
3. Section 19
4. None of these
Question 17:
Unde the RTI Act 2005 when a person files a petition for obtaining an information to a PIO and if the information does not relate to the said PIO, in that case in how many days the PIO concerned shall transfer the petition to the appropriate PIO who is supposed to have
such information
1. 2 days
2. 4 days
3. 5 days
4. 10 days
Question 18:
Under RTI Act 2005 the information pertaining to what in respect of agencies listed in schedule 2 it can be provided-
1. Into that Involving allegations of corruption or Human rights violations
2. A person necessarily requires
3. Into that relates to family trouble
4. None of these
Question 19:
The phone no. of Jankari Seva office is

1. 155312
2. 155314
3. 255311
4. 155311
Question 20:
The amount received out of the penalty imposed upon a public information officer will be kept in.
1. The hand of information commissioner
2. Govt. Treasury
3. Bank
4. None of these
Question 21:
Under RTI Act,2005 an appeal can be filed within how many days from the receipt of the decision of the public information officer?
1. Within 60 days
2. Within 30 days
3. Within 90 days
4. None of these
Question 22:
Who amongst the following is not a competent authority under RTI Act,2005 -
1. Chief Justice of a High Court
2. Governor of a State
3. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
4. MLC of a Legislative Council
Question 23:
Request for obtaining information is made under which section of the Act,2005 ?
1. Section 5
2. Section 7
3. Section 8
4. Section 6
Question 24:
Can a penalty be imposed upon a Public Infromation Officer and the amount impose be given to the applicant or not.
1. Yes
2. No
3. Can’t say
4. None of these
Question 25:
Form of first appeal is prescribed in form G of Bihar Right to Information Rules. 2006 Is this a correct statement ?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 26:
Disposal of request for information is dealt under which section of the RTI Act,2005 ?
1. Section 5
2. Section 6
3. Section 7
4. Section 8
Question 27:
Can an information be asked regarding the matters of cleaning of the waste products
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 28:
A registrar of the Information commission represents the commission on the

1. Administrative side
2. Executive side
3. Judicial side
4. None of these
Question 29:
The Central or State Under which provision of the RTI Act, 2005 can require the Public Authority to compensate the complainant for any loss or other detriment suffered.
1. Section 19 Cl. 5
2. Section 19 Cl. 8 (b)
3. Section 19 Cl. 1
4. None of these
Question 30:
In a judicial decision under the RTI Act 2005 it is clear.

1. Files & notings are within the reach of a person
2. No files & notings be taken by a person
3. No exemption from disclosure of information in any case is granted which is beyond the provisions of the Act
4. None of these
Question 31:
Can a suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding lie against any person for anything which is done in good faith under the RTI Act 2005 ?
1. No
2. Yes
3. With the permission of Information commission
4. None of these
Question 32:
Rule 5 of the Bihar Right to Information Rules 2006 deals with

1. Provisions for appeal
2. Provisions for obtaining information
3. Provisions for disposal of the application
4. Rate of fees
Question 33:
If a Public Information Officer refuses to take an application for obtaining an information then what the applicant will do ?
1. To send the application by post
2. To stop trying to submit his application
3. To sit on dharma
4. None of these
Question 34:
Under which section of the RTI Act,2005 the removal of Chief Information Commissioner or Information Commissioner is provided?
1. Section 12
2. Section 13
3. Section 14
4. Section 15
Question 35:
within how many days ( information shall be provided under RTI Act,2005) from the date of receipt of an application for information –
1. Within 15 days
2. Within 30 days
3. Within 45 days
4. Within 60 days
Question 36:
A registrar of the information commission is the ex-officio-

1. Chief Information Officer
2. Chief Executive of the commission
3. Executive Officer
4. None of these
Question 37:
The RTI Act 2005 is a courageous measure which seeks to provide right to information which is
1. In the Public interest
2. Not in a Public interest
3. In the international interest
4. None of these
Question 38:
Under Bihar Right to Information Rules 2006 in which form the intimation to applicant to deposit fee and charges for required information and/or documents is to be given?
1. Form A
2. Form B
3. Form C
4. Form D
Question 39:
Under which rule of Bihar Right to Information Rules 2006 the Departmental Appellate Authority shall maintain the records in respect of all appeals received and disposed of ?
1. Rule 6
2. Rule 7(2)
3. Rule 8
4. None of these
Question 40:
The President of India gave the assent to the Right to Information Act on-
1. 25th June 2005
2. 12th June 2005
3. 12th October 2005
4. 15th June 2005
Question 41:
The chairperson of the committee that recommends appointment of central information commissioners is the -
1. Chief Information Commissioner
3. The Leader of opposition party in the Lok Sabha
Question 42:
In which section of RTI Act,2005 the powers & functions of the Information Commission are explained ?
1. Section 15
2. Section 16
3. Section 17
4. Section 18
Question 43:
Powers &functions of the information commissioner are explained under which section of the RTI Act 2005.
1. Section 15
2. Section 16
3. Section 17
4. Section 18
Question 44:
The RTI Act 2005 reads as-AND WHEREAS as democracy requires an informed ______________________ . Fill in the blanks with the missing word.
1. People
2. Public authority
3. Citizenry
4. None of these
Question 45:
Powers and functions of the Registrar of the Information commission is explained in which chapter of Central information commission regulation 2007?
4. Chaapter 2 regulation 4
Question 46:
Can a person ask any information under RTI Act 2005 which has no material or no text
1. Yes
2. No
3. With the permission of information commission
4. None of these
Question 47:
Who is competent to remove State Chief Information Commissioner or State Information Commissioner under the RTI Act,2005 ?
1. Chief Minister of the State concerned
2. Chief Justice of the High Court Concerned
3. Speaker of the Vidhan Sabha
4. None of these
Question 48:
Bihar Right to Information Rules 2006 was first amended in the year
1. 2006
2. 2007
3. 2008
4. 2009
Question 49:
Can a person inspect a record under the RTI Act,2005 If so under which relevant provision.
1. Section 2 clause 1
2. Section 2 Clause 2
3. Section 2 clause 2 Sub-clause (iii)
4. Section 2 Clause j Sub-Clause (i)
Question 50:
Who have the right of Information under the RTI Act,2005 ?

1. All individuals
2. All persons of India including the foreigners on tour to India
3. All Citizens
4. None of these
Question 51:
Within how many days an information may be provided under RTI Act 2005 from the date of receipt of an application for information –
1. Within 15 days
2. Within 30 days
3. Within 45days
4. Within 60 days
Question 52:
Provisions for penalties are dealt with in which section of the RTI Act, 2005 ?
1. Section 18
2. Section 19
3. Section 20
4. None of these
Question 53:
Under Bihar Right to Information rules, 2006 the application form for obtaining information is to be filed in which form?
1. Form A
2. Form B
3. Form C
4. Form D
Question 54:
No information can be given on a Vague application. Is this a correct statement ?

1. No
2. Yes
3. With the permission of Information Commission
4. None of these.
,
Question 55:
Can a person deposit his fee on phone call for filing an application for obtaining information under RTI Act
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 56:
Under RTI Act 2005 can a person ask for the details of Schemes taken up under MLA/MP fund .
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these.
Question 57:
The Freedom of Information act was passed/enacted in the year

1. 2001
2. 2003
3. 2004
4. 2002
Question 58:
The headquarters of central information Commission is at –

1. Calcutta
2. Mumbai
3. New Delhi
Question 59:
Under RTI Act,2005 the information commission can inspect the documents as per the provision of
4. None of these
Question 60:
Under which provision of RTI Act, 2005 is the Central Govt. empowered to remove difficulties by making provisions which are necessary or expedient for the removal of difficulties ?
1. Section 28
2. Section 29
3. Section 30
4. None of these
Question 61:
Is a manuscript can be termed as a record or not :

1. No
2. Yes
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 62:
Under the provisions of RTI Act 2005 in case of the matters relating to Central Govt. can fee be charged for filing a second appeal ?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Can’t say
4. None of these
Question 63:
In a judicial decision by an Information commission ordered the PIO to make available the facts discovered during Police investigation regarding the death of his daughter in a mysterious conditions
1. Appeal No.C.I.C./A.T./2006
2. Appeal No. C.I.C./A.T./A 2006
3. Appeal No. C.I.C./A.T./A/2007
4. Appeal No. C.I.C./A.T./A/2006/00355/ Dated 26 Dec. 2006
Question 64:
Under Bihar Right to Information Rules 2006 in which form the receipt of any application is to be given ?
1. Form A
2. Form B
3. Form C
4. Form D
Question 65:
Under Bihar RTI Rules 2006 the charges being charged for the inspection of records is.
1. Rs. 10 per hour
2. Rs. 20 per hour
3. No fee for first hour; afterwards Rs.5 per hour and its part there after
4. None of these
,
Question 66:
Application fee for providing information provided under the Bihar RTI Rules 2006 is Rupees
1. Rs. 5 per application
Question 67:
Can a person ask for an information regarding the unavailability of medicines in the Hospital under the RTI Act 2005 ?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 68:
Can a group of persons have any information sought for under the RTI Act 2005
1. Yes
2. No
3. With the consent of the Information Commission
4. None of these
Question 69:
Protection of action taken in good faith is covered under which provision of RTI Act, 2005 ?
1. Section 19
2. Section 20
3. Section 21
4. None of these
Question 70:
Which provision of RTI Act, 2005 gives the power to appropriate Government to make rules ?
1. Section 25
2. Section 26
3. Section 27
4. None of these
Question 71:
Bihar Right to Information Rules 2006 was passed in the year

1. 2005
2. 2004
3. 2006
4. None of these
Question 72:
Is fee for filing a second appeal admissible in the state of Bihar ?

1. Yes
2. No
3. Can’t say
4. None of these
Question 73:
Penalties can be imposed under which Rule of Patna High Court (Right to Information) Rules 2005
1. Rule 6
2. Rule 7
3. Rule 8
4. None of these
Question 74:
Within how many days a second appeal under the RTI Act 2005 can be filed ?
1. Within 60 days from the filing of 1st appeal
4. Within 90 days from the date on which decision of the first Appellate authority or was actually recieved by appellant should have been made by
Question 75:
Procedure have been laid down under which Rule of Patna High Court (Right to Information) Rules 2005 for the disposal of application by the authorized person
1. Rule 1
2. Rule 2
3. Rule 3
4. Rule 4
Question 76:
Under RTI Act 2005 the amount of penalty connot exceed

1. Rs. 10,000/
2. Rs. 5,000/
3. Rs. 20,000/
4. Rs. 25,000/
Question 77:
Provision of Monitoring & Reporting is covered under which provision of the RTI Act, 2005 ?
1. Section 20
2. Section 21
3. Section 24
4. Section 25
Question 78:
Can a suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding lie against any public information officer under the RTI Act, 2005 for an action done in good faith ?
1. Yes
2. No
4. None of these
Question 79:
The amount received out of the penalty imposed upon a public information officer will be kept in
1. The hand of information commissioner
2. Govt. Treasury
3. Bank
4. None of these
Question 80:
Under Bihar RTI Rules 2006 what fee is applicable for filing an appeal ?
1. Rs. 5 for each appeal application
Question 81:
Can a person of Bihar can ask any information which is related to the development programme of Tamil Nadu State under the provision of RTI Act 2005 ?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 82:
Under Section 18 of the RTI Act,2005 if complaint is filed by any body who has been refused access to any information requested under the Act it can be inquired into by
1. Designated officer
2. Circle officer
3. Information officer
4. Information commission
Question 83:
Can a person through phone call file an application for obtaining information under Bihar RTI rules,2006 ?
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 84:
The preamble to RTI Act 2005 reads as- AND WHEREAS as democracy requires an informed ______________________ . Fill in the blanks with the missing word.
1. People
2. Public authority
3. Citizenry
4. None of these
Question 85:
Can a person under the provisions of the RTI Act 2005 inspect the Measurement Book (MB) of any scheme ?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 86:
Who is exempted from the prescribed fee for obtaining an information under Bihar RTI Ruls
1. MLA
2. MP
3. Citizens belonging to Below Poverty Line Category
4. None of these
Question 87:
Which Section of the RTI Act,2005 provides for exemption from disclosure of information in certain matters -
1. Section 7
2. Section 8
3. Section 6
4. Section 9
Question 88:
If a person wants to download a form for obtaining an application from the website then he will have to access to the site of
1. www.righttoinformation.org
2. www.rti.in
3. www.rti.co.in
4. None of these
Question 89:
Maximum number of central information commissioners who can be the members of central information commission is
1. 8
2. 11
3. 10
4. 5
Question 90:
What is the prescribed fee for information in Floppy/CD wherever possible under the Bihar RTI Rules 2006 ?
1. Rs. 50 (Fifty) per floppy or CD.
2. Rs. 100 (Hundred) per floppy or CD
3. Rs. 150 (One Hundred Fifty) per floppy or CD
4. None of these
Question 91:
In a judicial decision under RTI Act 2005 it is held that the information asked in terms of why, in the manner of seeking justification can be denied. Is this a correct statement ?
1. No
2. With the permission of commission
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 92:
Can a Bank Manager disclose the details of Bank Account of any person to an another person ordinarily under the provisions of the RTI Act 2005?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Seldom
4. None of these
Question 93:
Certain provisions of the RTI Act,2005 came into force at once from the date of enactment and remaining provisions came into force on the
1. One hundred twenty days of its enactment
2. 100 the day its enactment
3. 60 the day of its enactment
4. None of these
Question 94:
Which rule of the Patna High Court (Right to Information) Rules 2005 provides for suo motu publication of information by public authorities
1. Rule 5
2. Rule 6
3. Rule 7
4. None of these
Question 95:
As per its preamble, the Right to Information Act,2005 provides for -

1. Practical regime of Right to Information
2. Impractical regime of Right to Information
3. A burden on the public authority
Question 96:
Under RTI Act,2005 can a Public Information officer transfer the application or part there of to other public information officer.
1. Yes, in case the subject matter of the application Or part thereof relates to such public information officer
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 97:
How many fee in Bihar is being taken for filing a second appeal.
1. Rs. 25
2. Rs. 15
3. Rs. 10
4. None of these
Question 98:
Can a nominated Cabinet Minister by Prime Minister of India become a member of central information commission –
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 99:
The Annual Report on the implementation of provisions of RTI Act 2005 prepared by the Central Information Commission shall be placed in the floor of the
1. Vidhan Sabha
2. Vidhan Parishad
3. Rajay Sabha
4. Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
Question 100:
The Freedom of Information Act 2002 was ______ with the enactment of RTI Act, 2005
1. Repealed
2. Amended
3. Made operative
4. None of these
Question 101:
The Central or the State information commission can issue summons for examination of witnesses or documents under which provision of RTI Act,2005 ?
1. Section 18 (a)
2. Section 18 (c)
3. Section 18
4. Section 18 Cl. 3 (e)
Question 102:
An appeal under the RTI Act,2005 can be filed before –

1. Supreme Court of India
2. High Court of the State Concerned
3. Central Administrative Tribunal
4. None of these
Question 103:
Which rule under the Bihar Right to information Rules 2006 provides for disposal of the application, name the no. of Rule.
1. Rule 3
2. Rule 4
3. Rule 5
4. None of these
Question 104:
The Right to Information Act 2005 provided –

1. Practical regime of Right to Information authority
2. Impractical regime of Right to Information
3. A burden on the public
Question 105:
Can a person is required to give reason for seeking any information under the RTI Act.
1. Yes
2. No
3. Seldom
4. None of these
Question 106:
In a case the appellant or complainant dies during the pendency of the appeal the appeal will be-
1. Abated
2. Dismissed
3. Conceded in favour of appellant
4. None of these
Question 107:
Under RTI Act 2005 a judicial decision passed which held as

1. A foreigver can also have an information while on Tour to India
2. An Indian on Tour to Pakistan can have an information of defence matter of have an information of defence matter of Pakistan
3. No question on ‘Yes’ or ‘No’ can be asked
4. None of these
Question 108:
Under RTI Act,2005 the constitution of central information commission is provided for under which section of the Act-
1. Section 9
2. Section 10
3. Section 11
4. Section 12
Question 109:
Which section of the RTI Act 2005 provides for the Act to have overriding effect ?
1. Section 20
2. Section 21
3. Section 22
4. Section 23
Question 110:
In a judicial decision under RTI Act 2005 it is held

1. Information of any matter can be given till 100 years from the date of existence of that information
2. Information asked by a foreigner can also be given
3. No information can be given regarding any matter after the preservation period (time) is completed/finished
4. None of these
Question 111:
Can e-mails under Public Authority be termed under the meaning of information as per the RTI Act,2005 ?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 112:
Where is the Jaankari Seva under Bihar Regulations,2006 RTI Act located
1. In the Ministry of Information
2. In the office of Board of Revenue
3. In the office of District Magistrate
4. In the jaankari call centre, Patna
Question 113:
Under RTI Act,2005 who is competent to remove Chief Information Commissioner or Information Commissioner ?
2. Home Minister of India
3. Union Minister of Information & Broadcasting
4. President of India
Question 114:
The RTI Act 2005 provides for the formation of

1. Judges of the Higher Judiciary
2. Judges of the lower judiciary
3. Central/State Infromation commission
4. None of these
Question 115:
Under which Section of the RTI Act,2005 the citizen shall have a right to information?
1. Section 2
2. Section 4
3. Section 5
4. Section 3
Question 116:
Which Section of RTI Act, 2005 deals with the provision of repeal ?
1. Section 30
2. Section 31
3. Section 32
4. None of these
Question 117:
All provisions of the RTI Act,2005 came into force at once

1. From the date of enactment
2. After 100 days from the day of enactment
3. After 30 days from the day of enactment
4. None of these
Question 118:
Under Bihar Right to Information Rules 2006 in which form the first appeal is filed ?
1. Form A
2. Form C
3. Form E
4. Form G
Question 119:
In a judicial decision under RTI Act 2005 it is held that the information asked in terms of why, what, when can be ignored and ordered in a negative manner. Is this a correct statement.
1. No
2. With the permission of commission
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 120:
Can a State Government is competent to frame rules as RTI rules
1. Yes
2. No
3. With the permission of Supreme Court
4. None of these
Question 121:
The Right to Information Act,2005 aimed to promote –

1. Transparency & accountability in the working of every public authority
2. To create confidence amongst the Public authority.
3. Access amongst the officials
Question 122:
Under which section of the RTI Act,2005 the provision for the removal of a State Chief Information Commissioner or State Information Commissioner is provided?
1. Section 14
2. Section 15
3. Section 16
4. Section 17
Question 123:
From which date the Right to Information Act 2005 was came full fledged into effect ?
1. 15th June 2005
2. 05th June 2005
3. 12th October 2005
4. 21st June 2005
Question 124:
Is Right to Information Act 2005 is a central law or state law or otherwise ?

1. State law
2. Central law
3. Local law
4. None of these
Question 125:
Under RTI Act 2005 the information pertaining to what in respect of agencies listed in 2nd schedule can be provided
1. Information involving allegations of corruption or Human rights violations
2. Information that a person necessarily requires
3. Information that relate to family problems
4. None of these
Question 126:
Under Bihar Right to Information Rules,2006 transfer of application pertaining to other authority is prescribed in which form?
1. Form A
2. Form B
3. Form D
4. Form E
Question 127:
In which year the Central Information Commission (Management) Regulation under the RTI Act was formed ?
1. 2006
2. 2007
3. 2008
4. 2009
Question 128:
Provisions for Appeal under Patna High Court (Right to Information) Rules 2005 is given under which Rule
1. Rule 4
2. Rule 5
3. Rule 6
4. None of these
Question 129:
Which Act before RTI Act 2005 had the similar spirit as RTI Act
1. Right to freedom of knowledge Act
2. Right to freedom of expression and information Act
3. The Freedom of Information Act,2002
4. None of these
Question 130:
In case any confusion arises on the nature of information can a PIO and the applicant solve/resolve it by sitting and discussing together
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
,
Question 131:
Within how many days from the date of enactment of the RTI Act,2005 a Public authority shall designate as many officers as Central Public Information Officers or State public Information officers in all its administrative units?
1. Within 100 days
2. Within 45 days
3. Within 60 days
4. Within 30 days
Question 132:
Before enacting RTI Act 2005 has there been any other Act in operation as RTI Act before 2005.
1. No
2. Yes
3. In 2004
4. None of these
Question 133:
Under which Schedule of RTI Act,2005 agencies have been listed regarding which no information can be given, subject to some provisos
1. Schedule 1
2. Schedule 2
3. Schedule 3
4. None of these
Question 134:
Under Bihar Right to Information Rules 2006 in which form the supply of information to the applicant is made?
1. Form A
2. Form B
3. Form C
4. Form D
Question 135:
The Freedom of Information act 2002 is still in operation or not

1. Still in operation
2. Parthy in operation
3. Not in operation
4. None of these
Question 136:
Is a State Government competent to frame rules under RTI Act, 2005 ?

1. Yes
2. No
3. With the permission of Supreme Court
4. None of these
Question 137:
All District Magistrates of the State have been designated as the appellate authorities for their respective treasuries under the Executive order passed in furtherance of the Bihar Right to Information Rules. Is this a true statement?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 138:
In case a first appeal is decided/order passed on the 30th days from the filing of first appeal in that case within how many days a second appeal can be filed from the date of passing of the order in first appeal ?
1. Within 30 days
2. Within 60 days
3. Within 90 days
4. None of these.
Question 139:
The provisions for filing an appeal under the RTI Act,2005 is dealt under which section of the Act?
1. Section 19
2. Section 20
3. Section 21
4. Section 22
Question 140:
In which section of the RTI Act, 2005 the Designation of Public Information Officers is provided.
1. Section 5
2. Section 6
3. Section 7
4. Section 8
Question 141:
The Chief Information Commissioner’s term of office is for how many years –
1. 4 Years
2. 6 Years
3. 3 Years
4. 5 Years
,
Question 142:
The Right to Information Act,2005 was enacted in which year of Indian republic –
1. Sixty Fifth Year of Republic
2. Fifty Sixth Year of the Republic
3. Forty Sixth Year of Republic
Question 143:
Can a group of persons under the RTI Act 2005 have any information sought for
1. Yes
2. No
3. With the consent of the Infromation Commission
4. None of these
Question 144:
Which provision of RTI Act, 2005 gives the power to competent authority to make rules ?
1. Section 28
2. Section 29
3. Section 30
4. None of these
Question 145:
The powers of the information commissions for inquiring any matter under section 18 of the RTI Act 2005 shall have the same as that of a civil court and be governed by –
3. Indian contract Act
4. None of these
Question 146:
The Central Rules & Notification-the Right to information (regulation of fee and cost) rules was passed in the year
1. 2006
2. 2007
3. 2005
4. None of these
Question 147:
In a judicial decision it is held that no information on the basis of any action/work to be done in future be given to a person. Is this a true statement.
1. No
3. With the consent of the concerned high court
4. Yes
Question 148:
Total amount of penalty under the provisions of RTI Act, 2005 can not be more than
1. Ten thousand Rupees
2. Fifteen thousand Rupees
3. Twenty thousand Rupees
4. Twenty Five thousand Rupees
Question 149:
Can a public authority deny any information sought for ?

1. Not at all
2. Yes in certain cases but citing rules & reasons
3. With the permission of the public Authirity Concerned in any case High Court
4. All of these
Question 150:
Under RTI Act 2005 can a person ask for an information regarding the suspended Govt. scheme
1. No
2. Yes
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 151:
Under Bihar RTI Rules 2006 what is the fee for the inspection of records for the first hour ?
1. Rs. 2 for each record
4. No fee
Question 152:
Can a public information officer refuse to take an application.

1. Yes
2. No
3. Can’t say
4. None of these
Question 153:
Under RTI Act,2005 the provision of third party information is dealt with in the section
1. Section 8
2. Section 9
3. Section 6
4. Section 11
Question 154:
Under RTI Act 2005 Protection of action taken in good faith is explained in section
4. Section 21 of the Act.
Question 155:
The report prepared by central Information commission regarding the implementation of the provisions of the RTI Act,2005 is prepared
1. Monthly
2. Quarterly
3. Half yearly
4. Annual
Question 156:
Can an Information Commission impose penalty against an erring PIO for matters pertaining to RTI
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 157:
The Govt. of Bihar had started a service by which a person can have an application filed for obtaining information on phone call what is the name of that service ?
1. Question
2. Access
3. Knowledge
4. Jaankari
Question 158:
Under RTI Act,2005 any person seeking any information is required to give personal details or not ?
1. No, except those that may be necessary for contacting him
2. Yes
3. Seldom
4. None of these
Question 159:
Which provisions of RTI Act,2005 came into force at once from the day of enactment?
1. Only Provisions of Sub-section (1) of section 4
2. Only Provisions of Sub-section (1) & (2) of section 5
3. Provisions of Sub-section (1) of Section 4, Sub-section (1) and (2) of section 5, sections 12, 13, 15, 16, 24, 27 & 28
Question 160:
Right to Information enables a citizen to.

1. Obtain any information or to ask any Question from the Govt.
2. Compel the Govt. to initiate any Particular Public work.
3. Force the Govt. for an enquiry
4. None of these
Question 161:
Under RTI Act,2005 case manuscript be termed as a record or not :

1. No
2. Yes
3. Not at all
4. None of these.
Question 162:
Is a person is required to give reason for seeking any information under the RTI Act,2005 ?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Seldom
4. None of these
Question 163:
Can a provision of Bihar Right to Information Rules 2006 be passed or amended in contravention of the provisions of the Right to Information Act?
1. No
2. Yes
3. With the consent of State Information commission
4. None of these
Question 164:
The information commissions under the RTI Act 2005 are empowered to.
1. Take action against any person
2. To receive and enquire into a complaint from any citizen
3. Can’t receiv any complaint
4. None of these
Question 165:
Can a the amount imposed as penalty upon a Public Infromation Officer be given to the applicant or not?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Can’t say
4. None of these
Question 166:
Disclosure of Bank Account details of any person to another person ordinarily can be denied for the reasons specified under which section of the RTI Act
1. Section 6
2. Section 7
3. Section 8
4. None of these
Question 167:
In which rule of Bihar Right to Information Rules 2006 the provisions of filing an appeal is given ?
1. Rule 4
2. Rule 5
3. Rule 6
4. None of these
Question 168:
Which provision of RTI Act imposed a bar of jurisdiction of courts

1. Section 21
2. Section 22
3. Section 23
4. None of these
Question 169:
The Chairperson of the central information commission is the –

1. Chief Information Commissioner in the Lok Sabha
3. The Leader of opposition party
Question 170:
Rule 3 of the Bihar Right to Information Rules 2006 deals with

1. The rates of fees
2. Receipt of an application
3. Application for obtaining information
4. None of these
Question 171:
Private organization which are controlled, administered or partially funded by a appropriate government come under the provisions of the RTI Act 2005. Is this a true statement ?
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 172:
Can a person ask an information from a private organization under the RTI Act 2005 ?
1. Yes, in all cases
2. Not at all
3. Yes, about such information relating to a private body. which can be accessed by a public authority
4. None of these
Question 173:
The Patna High Court (Right to Information) Rules 2005 was passed by the order of
2. Hon'ble Chief Justice of Patna High Court
3. Bihar Government
4. None of these
Question 174:
The Right to information (regulation of fee and cost) Central rules was passed in the year
1. 2006
2. 2007
3. 2005
4. None of these
Question 175:
Who amongst these is not a member of the committee that recommends appointment of central information commission as-
1. Leader of the opposition party in the Lok Sabha
2. Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister
4. Election Commissioner of India
Question 176:
The Central Infromation Commission (Appeal Procedure) Rule was passed in the year.
1. 2005
2. 2006
3. 2007
4. None of these
Question 177:
Right to information and obligations of Public Authorities is dealt with in the chapter –
1. Chapter I
2. Chapter II
3. Chapter III
4. Chapter IV
Question 178:
Can a PIO reject the application given for obtaining information only on the ground of application being given in a plain paper
1. Yes
2. No
3. With the consent of the information commission
4. None of these
Question 179:
Which provision of RTI Act, 2005 imposes a bar of jurisdiction of courts in respect of an order made under this Act
1. Section 21
2. Section 22
3. Section 23
4. None of these
Question 180:
Where is the Jaankari Seva for facilitating RTI Act located ?

1. In the Ministry of Information
2. In the office of Board of Revenue
3. In the office of District Magistrate
4. In the Jaankari call centre, Patna
Question 181:
Maintainance of records is to be done under which Rule of Patna High Court (Right to Information) Rules 2005
1. Rule 8
2. Rule 9
3. Rule 7
4. None of these
Question 182:
Can an applicant ask for any compensation against the loss or losses incurred to him due to delayed information. If so under what provision of RTI Act 2005.
1. Yes, under Section 17
4. None of these
Question 183:
Can a person obtain an information regarding sample of materials used in any scheme ?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 184:
In a judicial decision it is cleared that no information be given to a person which is not available with the Publice Information Officer nor can it be created and supplied by a PIO. Is this a correct statement.
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question Bank - Bihar Right to Public grievance Redressal Act, 2015 and Rules
Question 1:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal rules if a complaint is found incomplete and the complainant is not present then what is the Public Grievance Redressal Officer required to do
1. To reject it
2. To undermine it
3. To issue notice to the complainant to furnish the required informations within seven days
4. None of these
Question 2:
Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 Information & facilitation centre is established for the purposes of the ______________of grievance of the people. Fill in the black with appropriate option.
1. Efficient and effective redressal
2. Quick Response
3. Smooth action
4. None of these
Question 3:
Documents to be enclosed in first appeal, second appeal and revision have been mentioned under which rule of Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules
1. Rule 10
2. Rule 11
3. Rule 12
4. Rule 13
Question 4:
Under which provision of Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rule 2016 the procedure for sending acknowledgment receipt of a complaint is mentioned
1. Rule 3 (1)
2. Rule 3 (3)
3. Rule 3 (5)
4. Rule 3 (6)
Question 5:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act the State Govt. may by notification in the official Gazette, make rules to carry out the _________________________ of the Act. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option given
1. Projects
2. Purposes
3. Programme
4. None of these
Question 6:
Which section of the Bihar Right to Public Grivance Redressal Act provides for the notification of Public Grievance Redressal officers
1. Section 2
2. Section 2 (a)
3. Section 3
4. None of these
Question 7:
Rule 20 of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules deals with
1. Establishment of information & facilitation Centre
2. Establishment record room
3. Organization of camps
4. None of these
Question 8:
Actions taken in good faith is protected under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act
1. Section 10
2. Secton 11
3. Section 12
4. None of these
Question 9:
A Public Grievance Redressal officer or appellate authorities will have the powers to require discovery and production of any document or other material object producible as evidence as a civil court under the law of
1. Cr.P.C. 1973
2. C.P.C. 1908
3. IPC
4. None of these
Question 10:
Under Form 8 of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules 2016 has to be maintained in which office
1. Office of 1st appellate authority
2. Office of Revisional authority
3. Office of 2nd appellate authority
4. None of these
Question 11:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act is a Public Grievance Redressal Officer supposed to communicate the decision of rejection of complaint to the complainant
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 12:
The Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act was passed in the year
1. 2014
2. 2015
3. 2016
4. None of these
Question 13:
Summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person and examining him on Oath during the hearing of a complaint under Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 has been provided under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act
1. Section 6
2. Section 7 (8) (a)
3. Section 8
4. None of these
Question 14:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules the procedure for hearing on a complaint is mentioned under the Rule
1. Rule 4
2. Rule 5
3. Rule 6
4. Rule 7
Question 15:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules the procedure for the disposal of first appeal, second appeal and revision has been discussed in the Rule
1. Rule 11
2. Rule 12
3. Rule 13
4. Rule 14
Question 16:
The total number of sections provided under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 is
1. 11
2. 12
3. 13
4. 14
Question 17:
The Public Grievance Redressal officer or Appellate Authorities shall have the right to review its decisions, directions and orders like the civil courts. This provision has been provided under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act
1. Section 7 (8) (f)
2. Section 8
3. Section 9
4. None of these
Question 18:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, who is the Public Grievance Redressal officer at the Departmental level
1. Under Secretary of the Department Concerned
2. Deputy Secretary of the Department concerned, and in the absence of Deputy. Secretary under Secretary
3. Section officer of the concerned Department
4. None of these
Question 19:
Public Grievance Redressal Officer has been defined under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act
1. Section 2 (a)
2. Section 2 (b)
3. Section 2 (c)
4. Section 2 (d)
Question 20:
The Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 also contains for a provision of appeal. Is this true statement
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 21:
The Provision for the notification of first appellate authority is also mentioned in section 3 of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act. Is this correct
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 22:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act the first appellate authority may order the Public Grievance Redressal Officer to give the opportunity of hearing and redressal to the complainant within the period specified by it or may reject the appeal. This
provision is made under which section
1. Section 7 (2)
2. Section 7 (3)
3. Section 7 (4)
4. None of these
Question 23:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules the procedure for the recovery of the penalty amount is explained under
1. Rules 12
2. Rules 13
3. Rules 18
4. Rules 19
Question 24:
Information and facilitation centre under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 has been defined under which provision of the Act
1. Section 2 (b)
2. Section 2 (c)
3. Section 3 (d)
4. Section 2 (d)
Question 25:
The acknowledgment receipt of a complaint may be sent through

1. By postal service only
2. Electronic means only Viz. email, sms and Online portal etc.
3. Through call centre only
4. Either of the above
Question 26:
The provision of second appellate authority is defined under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act
1. Section 2 (e)
2. Section 2 (f)
3. Section 2 (g)
4. Section 2 (h)
Question 27:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act no Civil Court shall have jurisdiction to hear, decide or deal with any question to determine any matter which is by or under this Act required to be heard, decided or dealt with by the -----------------. Fill in the blanks
with appropriate option given.
1. Public Grievance Redressal Officer 1st Appellate authority, 2nd Appellate authority or the officer nominated by the Govt
2. Any Gazetted officer
3. State Govt.
4. None of these
Question 28:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act is there any provision for the removal of difficulties if any
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 29:
The Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules 2016 came into effect from
1. 5 th June 2016
2. 26th Jan. 2016
3. 15 Aug. 2016
4. None of these
Question 30:
Public Authority under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 means The State Government and its departments and includes any authority or body or institution established or constituted by or under any law made by the ________________________________.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate options
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
4. None of these
Question 31:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules a Public Grievance Redressal officer is supposed to inform the complainant regarding the decision/passed in the complaint under Form
1. Form 1
2. Form 2
3. Form 3
4. None of these
Question 32:
Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules 2016 has been notified and acted upon in order to
1. Place a second law so far as the Public Grievance is concerned
2. Carry out the provisions of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Act 2015
3. Establish checks & balances amongst the officials
4. None of these
Question 33:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act can an appeal be admitted after the expiry of forty five days from the date of completion of stipulated time or from date of decision of the Public Grievance Redressal Officer
1. No
2. Yes
3. With the permission of State Govt.
4. None of these
Question 34:
Informations to be displayed at the notice board under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules is mentioned under which provision of the Rules
1. Rule 2
2. Rule 4
3. Rule 6
4. Rule 8
Question 35:
Penalty under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act in no case shall be more than
1. Rs.1,000/
2. Rs.2,000/
3. Rs.4,000/
4. Rs.5,000/
Question 36:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules the records relating to Public Grievance Redressal officer, first appellate authority, second appellate authority and revision authority will be maintained under which Format
1. Form 5 & 6
2. Forms 6 & 7
3. Forms 5, 6, & 7
4. None of these
Question 37:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, where the second appellate authority is of the opinion that the Public Grievance Redressal Officer or any other Public Authority or the First Appellate authority has failed to give an opportunity of hearing and
redressal within the ____________ without any sufficient and reasonable cause, it may impose on him a penalty. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option given.
1. 3 months
2. Reasonable time
3. Sufficient time
4. Stipulated time limit
Question 38:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act can any penalty be imposed without giving an opportunity of being heard
1. No
2. Yes
3. Can’t say
4. None of these
Question 39:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, the time limit for the disposal of revision is fixed as
1. 15 days
2. 30 days
3. 45 days
4. 60 days
Question 40:
The provision of Appeal is explained in which section of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act
1. Section 5
2. Section 6
3. Section 7
4. None of these
Question 41:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act an appeal can be filed within thirty days after the expiry of stipulated time. Is this a correct statement
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 42:
The procedure for the disposal of first appeal, second appeal and revision is dealt with under which rule of the Bihar Right to Public grievance Redressal Act, 2015.
1. Rule 7 & 9
2. Rule 12
3. Rule 13
4. Rule 14
Question 43:
The Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act is a

1. Central Law
2. State Law
3. Municipal Law
4. None of these
,
Question 44:
Under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act the Second appellate authority may recommend action to be taken against the erring authorities under the service rules applicable to them
1. Section 8 (1)
2. Section 8 (2)
3. Section 8 (3)
4. None of these
Question 45:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, at District level who is the Public Grievance Redressal officer
1. SDO
2. Additional Collector(PGRO)
4. None of these
Question 46:
Is Public Grievance Redressal officer or any officer or employee authorized required to give the acknowledgment receipt of a complaint received under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 47:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules is a complainant entilled to know about the decision /passed in a complaint filed by him
1. No
2. Yes
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 48:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules all relevant informations pertaining to hearing of complaint is to be displayed on the notice board in which Form
1. Form 1
2. Form 2
3. Form 3
4. Form 4
Question 49:
As per the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act Under what circumstances an appeal can be admitted within forty five days from the completion of stipulated time
1. If the appellant is an advocate
2. If the appellant could not appear personally
3. If by sufficient cause if the appellant was prevented from filing the appeal in time
4. None of these
Question 50:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, The State Govt. has notified and fixed the time limit for the disposal of a complaint within
1. 30 days
2. 45 days
3. 60 days
4. None of these
Question 51:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal rules if a complaint is found incomplete then the receiving officer will have to-
1. Reject it
2. To Get it completed from the complainant
3. To Undermine it
4. None of these
Question 52:
The provision of notifying the 2nd Appellate authority is mentioned under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act
1. Section 1
2. Section 2
3. Section 3
4. None of these
Question 53:
Definitions under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 is discussed in which section of the Act
1. Section 1
2. Section 2
3. Section 3
4. None of these
Question 54:
Rule 17 of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules 2016 explains
1. Hearing procedure
2. Order in Appeal or Revision
3. Documents to be filed
4. None of these
,
Question 55:
The Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act came into effect from
1. 8 June, 2016
2. 5 June, 2016
3. 5 June, 2015
4. None of these
Question 56:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules the subject matters of an application for first appeal, second appeal and revision are discribed in which of the rules
1. Rule 10
2. Rule 11
3. Rule 12
4. None of these
Question 57:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act can a Public Grievance Redressal officer deny to accept the complaint
1. No
2. Yes
3. With the permission of The State Govt.
4. None of these
Question 58:
An officer or employee whose services has been sought for in hearing and redressal of a complaint by a Public grievance Redressal Officer for the purpose of any contrarentions of he provisions of the BPGRA will be treated as
1. An outsider
2. An inquiring officer
3. Public Grievance Redressal Officer
4. None of these
Question 59:
Complaint under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 is defined in which section & sub section of the Act
1. Section 2 (b)
2. Section 2 (c)
3. Section 2 (a)
4. None of these
Question 60:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act the provision of powers conferred upon the Public Grievance Redressal officer or other concerned authorities alike the civil courts in deciding a complaint is mentioned under
1. Section 7
2. Section 8
3. Section 7 (8) (a) to (g)
4. None of these
Question 61:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal rules a complaint can be received by who of the following
2. Any Officer authorized by Public Grievance Redressal Officer.
3. Any employee or Centre Incharge Authorized by Public Grievance Redressal officer
4. Either of the above
Question 62:
Which rule the mentions the monitaring of implementation of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules is mentioned
1. Rule 19
2. Rule 20
3. Rule 21
4. None of these
Question 63:
Acknowledgment receipt of a complaint is to be provided under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules 2016
1. Rule 2
2. Rule 4
3. Rule 5
4. None of these
Question 64:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules the hearing day for complaints has to be fixed on
1. Every working days
2. Minimum one day in a week
3. All the seven days including Sunday
4. None of these
Question 65:
Is there any provision for second appellate authority in the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 66:
Under Form 3 of the Rules the Public Grievance Redressal officer will issue
1. Notice regarding the decision taken on a complaint
2. Final order
3. Instruction to compromise
4. None of these
Question 67:
Is there any provision of Revision authority under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 68:
The Bihar Right to Publice Grievance Redressal Act 2015 was enacted by
1. The Parliament
2. The Rajya Sabha
3. The Legeslature of the State of Bihar
4. None of these
Question 69:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act an aggrieved person may file an appeal directly to the second appellate authority if the Public Grievance Redressal Officer does not comply with the order of first appellate authority. This provision has been made
under which section
1. Section 7 (1)
2. Section 7 (3)
3. Section 7 (4)
4. Section 7 (5)
Question 70:
The State Government may notify from time to time, the Public Grievance Redressal officer, first appellate authority, second appellate authority and revision authority and stipulated time limits. This has been made under which section of the Act ?
1. Section 2
2. Section 3
3. Section 4
4. None of these
Question 71:
The Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules 2016 extended to

1. Whole of Bihar
2. Whole of Bihar including the State of Jharkhand
3. Bihar, Jharkhand & Orissa
4. None of these
Question 72:
The penalty imposed under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act shall in no case be less than
1. Rs.100/
2. Rs.250/
3. Rs.500/
4. Rs.1000/
Question 73:
Can a complainant be denied the opportunity of being heard ?

1. No
2. Yes
3. With the permission of the Govt.
4. None of these
Question 74:
Public Authority is defined under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015
1. Section 2 (b)
2. Section 2 (c)
3. Section 2 (d)
4. Section 2 (e)
Question 75:
Centre has been defined under Rule 2 of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules 2016 as
1. Central Govt.
2. ICDS Centre
3. Information & facilitation centre
4. None of these
Question 76:
Formats has been defined under Rule 2 of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules as
1. Fomats enclosed as annexure to the Rules
2. General forms
3. Forms of category of officers
4. None of these
Question 77:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act. for sub divisional level who is the 2nd appellate authority
1. SDO
4. None of these
Question 78:
Which provision has been dealt with under rule 15 of Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules
1. Service of notice for hearinig
2. Personal appearance of the complainant
3. Procedure for the disposal of cases
4. None of these
Question 79:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules 2016 a register has to be maintained in the office of Public Grievance Redressal officer which has to be maintained under Form
1. Form 5
2. Form 6
3. Form 7
4. None of these
Question 80:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules, which Form of a register is to be maintained in the office of 2nd appellate authority
1. Form 5
2. Form 6
3. Form 7
4. None of these
Question 81:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules if a Public Grievance Redressal officer that a complaint is related to another Public Grievance Redressal officer, then he shall transmits the complaint to such other Public Grievance Redressal officer &
the informations regarding the transmission of the complaint shall be given to the complainant within
1. 15 days
2. 10 days
3. 7 days
4. None of these
Question 82:
In certain matters the Public Grievance Redressal officers or other concerned authorities shall have the same powers in deciding the complaint as the _________________ do have. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option given
1. Labour Courts
2. Criminal Courts
3. Revenue Courts
4. Civil Courts
Question 83:
The right to get opportunity of hearing & redressal on complaint within the stipulated time limit is mentioned under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act
1. Section 2
2. Section 3
3. Section 4
4. Section 5
Question 84:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules the provision for the personal appearance of the complainant or an appellant has been dealt with in which rule.
1. Rule 15
2. Rule 16
3. Rule 17
4. None of these
Question 85:
Is State Govt. empowered under the provisions of the Bihar Right to Public grievance Redressal Act to make rules?
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 86:
Complaint has been defined under which rule of the Bihar Right to Public Grievances Redressal Rules 2016.
1. Rule 1
2. Rule 2
3. Rule 3
4. Rule 4
Question 87:
The General Administration Department Vide notification no.18/Pub.Gr.Red.-14/04/2016-7691 dated 30.05.2016 has notified
1. The period of time till when Public Grievance Redressal Act would be operative
2. The subject matters of a complaint
3. The designated Public Servant as Public grievance Redressal officer 1st appellate authority, 2nd appellate authority & Revisional authority at different levels
4. None of these
Question 88:
Under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act the State Govt. is empowered to notify and make rules in relation to information and facilitation centre
1. Section 6 (1)
2. Section 6 (2)
3. Section 7
4. None of these
Question 89:
The stipulated time limit under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act starts from the date
1. Of signing of a complaint by the applicant
2. Of filing the complaint before the Public grievance Redressal Officer Appellate Authority concerned or to a person authorized to receive a complaint.
3. On which the competent authority signs over the complaint
4. None of these
Question 90:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, who will is the 2nd appellate authority at departmental level.
1. Joint Secretary of the Department concerned
2. Additional Secretary of the Department concerned
3. Special Secretary of the Department concerned
4. Secretary/ Principal Secretary of the Department concernerd
Question 91:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules during the course of hearing can a complainant file documentary evidence in support of his complaint
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 92:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, who will be the Revisional Authority at department level
1. Additional Secretary of the Department concerned
2. Special Secretary of the Department concerned
3. Departmental Inquiry commissioner
4. None of these
Question 93:
Hearing day for the complaints is explained under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules
1. Rule 5
2. Rule 4
3. Rule 6
4. None of these
Question 94:
The stipulated time limit under has to be notified under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act
1. Section 2
2. Section 3
3. Section 4
4. None of these
Question 95:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules the subject matter of the first appeal or 2nd appeal or Revision have been dealt in which Rules
1. Rule 12
2. Rule 13
3. Rule 14
4. None of these
Question 96:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act can a Public Grievance Redressal Officer reject the complaint filed
1. Yes with reasons to be recorded in writing
2. Not at all
3. With the permission of the state Govt.
4. None of these
Question 97:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, the time limit for the disposal of 2nd appeals is fixed to be
1. 30 days
2. 45 days
3. 60 days
4. None of these
,
Question 98:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act normally a second appeal can be filed against the order of
1. The first appellate authority
2. The revision authority
3. The Public Grievance redressal officer
4. None of these
Question 99:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules if anybody wants to apply for any redressal of a grievance he is supposed to file an application in which Form of
1. Form 1
2. Form 2
3. Form 3
4. None of these
Question 100:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules the hearing day for complaints be fixed and be necessarily displayed on the
1. Office Notice Board
2. Tour programme of the officer
3. Table of the officer
4. None of these
Question 101:
Bar of jurisdiction of courts is provided under which section of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act
1. Section 10
2. Section 11
3. Section 12
4. None of these
Question 102:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act can an appeal be admitted after the expiry of 30 days from the date of completion of stipulated time
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 103:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, for sub divisional level who is the revisional authority
1. Additonal Collector
3. Divisional Commissioner
4. None of these
Question 104:
Is action taken in good faith is protected under the provision of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 105:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, the General Administration Department has issued notification under appointing Designated Public Servant at
1. Sub Divisional Level only
2. District Level
3. Department Level only
4. All of the above level
Question 106:
Under Form 6 of Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal relates to

1. Cases under Public Grievance officer
2. Case under 1st appellate authority
3. Cases under revisiged authority by
4. None of these
Question 107:
Stipulated time limit under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act means
1. Minimum time limit for disposal of complaint/ appeal
2. Maximum time limit for disposal of complaint/ appeal
3. Reasonable time limit for disposal of complaint/ appeal
4. None of these
Question 108:
Public Grievance Redressal Officer under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 means a Public Grievance Redressal Officer notified under
1. Section 2
2. Section 3
3. Section 4
4. None of these
,
Question 109:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, for sub divisional level who will be the first appellate authority
1. SDO
2. Additional Collector (PGRO)
4. None of these
Question 110:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act Who can file an appeal
1. An aggrieved person
2. Public servant
3. A social worker
4. None of these
Question 111:
The calculation of stipulated time limit is mentioned under which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules
1. Rule 8
2. Rule 7
3. Rule 9
4. None of these
Question 112:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, the time limit for the disposal of 1st appeal is fixed and notified as
1. 30 days
2. 60 days
3. 90 days
4. None of these
Question 113:
The Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 under Section 2 (h) defines
1. Appellate authority
2. First Appellate authority
3. 2nd Appellate authority
4. Revision authority
Question 114:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act is there any provision of acknowledgement receipt being given to the applicant in respect of the complaint filed
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 115:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act can a departmental proceeding be started against the Public Grievance Redressal Officer, First Appellate Authority for failures in exercise of duties assigned to them under the Act
1. No
2. Yes
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 116:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules can any fee be charged or taken for any complaint or in Appeal or 2nd Appeal or Revision
1. Yes
2. No
3. With the permission of the Govt.
4. None of these
Question 117:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act a second appeal can be filed against the order of the first appellate authority within how many days from the passing of order
1. 15 days
2. 30 days
3. 45 days
4. None of these
Question 118:
The Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 extends to

1. Whole of Bihar
2. Whole of Bihar including Jharkhand
3. Bihar, Jharkhand & Orissa
4. None of these
Question 119:
Which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act empowers the State Govt. to make rules
1. Section 13
2. Section 14
3. Section 15
4. None of these
Question 120:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, who will be the 1st appellate authority departmental level
1. Under Secretary of the Department concerned
2. Dy. Secretary of the Department concerned
3. Joint Secretary/Additional Secretary/ special Secretary of the Department concerned
4. None of these
Question 121:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act can a Public Grievance Redressal officer seek the assistance of any other officer public authority or employee for hearing and redressal of a complaint
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 122:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, who is the 1st Appellate Authority for District level
3. Secretary/ Principal Secretary of the Department Concerned
4. None of these
Question 123:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, who is the 2nd Appellate Authority for District level
3. Secretary/ Principal Secretary of the department concerned
4. None of these
Question 124:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act is there any right conferred upon the applicant to get opportunity of hearing.
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 125:
The Commencement of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 is explained under which section of the Act
1. Section 1 (1)
2. Section 2 (1)
3. Section 3 (1)
4. Section 1 (3)
Question 126:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act if a Public Grievance Redressal officer does not comply with the provision of section 5 any person aggrieved by such non compliance may submit complaint directly to _____________________________ which shall be
disposed of in the manner of _____________________. Fill in the blacks with appropriate options.
1. Second Appellate Authority and Second appeal
2. First Appellate Authority and First Appeal.
3. Revision Authority and Revision hearing
4. None of these
Question 127:
In which section of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act there is a provision for notifying departmentwise schemes, programmes and services on which complaint may be filed
1. Section 2
2. Section 3
3. Section 4
4. None of these
Question 128:
Right to Public Grievance Redressal under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 means an opportunity of hearing and redressal provided to the citizens on a complaint within the ___________________ and right to get information about the decision made in
the hearing and redressal of the complaint.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate options given
1. Adequate time limit
2. Three months
3. stipulated time limit
4. None of these
Question 129:
Definition under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules has been dealt under rule
1. Rule 1
2. Rule 2
3. Rule 3
4. None of these
Question 130:
The acknowledgment receipt of a complaint is to be made available in which Form of Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules
1. Form 1
2. Form 2
3. Form 3
4. None of these
Question 131:
Which rule of deals with maintenance of the records relating to Public Grievance Redressal officer first appellate authority, second appellate authority, revision authority
1. Rule 18
2. Rule 19
3. Rule 20
4. None of these
Question 132:
The Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act was enacted in which year of the Republic of India
1. Sixty-Fifth year of the Republic of India
2. Sixty-Sixth year of the Republic of India
3. Sixty-Seventh year of the Republic of India
4. None of these
Question 133:
First appellate authority under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 is defined under
1. Section 2 (c)
2. Section 2 (d)
3. Section 2 (e)
4. Section 2 (f)
Question 134:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act can a second appellate authority impose a penalty upon the Public Grievance Redressal officer or the first appellate authority
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 135:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, from the date of passing of an order by the Public Grievance Redressal Officer within which period an appeal can be filed against that order
1. 30 days
2. 45 days
3. 60 days
4. None of these
Question 136:
While deciding the complaint under the provisions of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, the Public Grievance Redressal officers and other concerned authorities shall have the same powers as vested in civil courts while trying a suit under
1. Cr.P.C. of 1973
2. Local Laws
4. CPC 1908
Question 137:
Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules has been made in the year
1. 2015
2. 2016
3. 2017
4. None of these
Question 138:
Under Form 4 of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules 2016 which information has to be given?
1. For appearance
2. Regarding disposal of the complaint
3. For hearing
4. None of these
Question 139:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act the penalty imposed by the second appellate authority under Section 8(1) shall be _____________________ from the salary of the Public Grievance Redressal Officer or any other Public authority or the First Appellate
authority. Fill in the blanks with appropriate word amongst the given option
1. Adjusted
2. Recoverable
3. Refunded
4. None of these
Question 140:
The Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 was called as Act
1. Bihar Act 19, 2015
2. Bihar Act 17, 2015
3. Bihar Act 19, 2016
4. None of these
Question 141:
Section 2 (b) of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 defines the
1. Public Authority
3. Information & facilitation Centre
4. Right to Public Grievance Redresaal
Question 142:
Sixty days time limit has been fixed for the disposal of the complaint/appeals etc. within which it has to be redressed ?
1. Complaint
2. 1st Appeal
3. 2nd Appeal
4. All of the above
Question 143:
The Right to get opportunity of hearing and redressal on complaint within the stipulated time limits is discussed in detail under which provision of the Act ?
1. Section 4
2. Section 6
3. Section 7
4. Section 5 (1) to (5)
Question 144:
Section 7 (8) of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 empowers a Public Grievance Redressal officer and Appellate authorities for
1. Receiving evidence on affidavits
2. Requisitioning of any public record
3. Issuing commission for examination of witnesses
4. All of the above
Question 145:
Under Rule 23 of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules 2016 the State Govt. can
1. Withdraw the notification
2. Issues instructions for the better implementation of the Act
3. issue no instruction
4. None of these
Question 146:
Which department has notified the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules 2016
1. Home Department
2. General Administration Department
3. HRD
4. None of these
Question 147:
The maintenance of records has been dealt with in which provision of the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Rules
1. Rule 18
2. Rule 19
3. Rule 20
4. None of these
Question 148:
Under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act, who is the Revisional Authority for District level
2. Concerned Department Secretary/Principal Secretary
3. Departmental Inquiry Commissioner
4. None of these
Question 149:
Which department of the State Government is the administrative department for the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act
1. Home Department
3. Education Department
Question 150:
The entry in force of Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 was notified under which section of the Act.
1. Sec. 1 Sub. Section 2
4. None of these
Question 151:
Information and facilitation centre under the Bihar Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act 2015 means a centre or a website established or notified under section 5 for the facilitation of submission of complaint and for dessimination of any information for the matters
connected therewith and incidental thereto, including a State portal, Help desk and ___________________________.
1. State Portal
2. Help desk
3. Common Service Centres
4. None of these
Question Bank - Bihar Government Servant Conduct Rules 1976
Question 1:
Is there any provision for the govt. servants who are the players of different sports for special casual leave for specific circumstances
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 2:
Is there any provision available in the code for giving promotion to the govt. servants with retrospective effect ?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 3:
If any govt. servant who had been absent from duty for more than five continuous years is dismissed from the service without giving him the opportunity to be heard, it will be violative of which provision of the constitution of India
1. Article 19
2. Article 14
3. Article 311
4. Article 352
Question 4:
In a case a govt. servant is arrested in any criminal case in that case can he be suspended on the grand of arrest and captivity in jail
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 5:
Under which rule of the code the provisions for maternity leave is explained ?
1. Rule 219
2. Rule 220
3. Rule 221
4. None of these
Question 6:
Can a govt. servant be dismissed from the service on the ground of continuous absence from duty over more than five years without giving him opportunity of being heard
1. Yes
2. No
3. Doubtful
4. None of these
Question Bank - Bihar Treasury Code- All Chapters
Question 1:
In the case of deposit money in treasury by a Triplicate Challan, the original, duplicate and triplicate copies shall be issued respectively to _______?
1. Treasury, Departmental Officer
2. Treasury, Party, Departmental Officer
3. Departmental Officer, Party, Treasury
4. Party, Departmental Officer, Treasury
Question 2:
With reference to Bihar Treasury Code consider the following statement and give answer which of the following statements is/are correct
1.Every Collector should make a systematic inspection of the district treasury every three month.
2.The monthly account of the treasury must be closed on the last day of each month
1. only 1 is correct
3. only 1 and 2 are correct
4. 1 and 2 are incorrect
Question 3:
The Rule 11 of the Bihar treasury code 2011 deals with

1. Schedule for Forest cash Remittance
2. Letter of credit
3. Transfer Of Charge
4. Signature on Treasury Monthly Account
Question 4:
1. Treasury Messenger’s Register
2. Allotment Register
3. Treasury Remittance book
4. Allotment Statement maintain in CFMS
Question 5:
A list of accounts and returns to be submitted by the treasury officer is given in which of the appendix of the Bihar Treasury code ?
1. Appendix-2
2. Appendix-3
3. Appendix-4
4. None of these
Question 6:

2. Letter of credit
3. Revenue Remittances
4. Treasury shall not act on the authority of other state's AG unless it is received through Bihar AG.
Question 7:
The Appendix 7 of Bihar Treasury code 2011 deals with

1. The list of treasury procedure requiring personal attention of the Treasury Officer
2. Receipts exempted from stamp duty
3. The list of returns to be submitted by Treasury Officers
Question 8:
GST-TDS deductions will be made when contract of supply is --------------------------,

1. Rs. 2,50,000/
2. Taxable supply of more than Rs. 2,50,000/
3. Rs. 2,00,000/
Question 9:
Which of the following is an ex officio treasury officer in respect of his district.

1. DDC
2. Collector of the district
3. SDO
Question 10:
Under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code the instructions have been explained under which the appointment of treasury officer is governed ?
1. Rule 10
2. Rule 11
3. Rule 12
4. None of these
Question 11:
Payment of gratuity shall not be made without the authority of……………………….

1. Treasury Officer
2. Accountant general(A/c) Bihar
3. Accountant
Question 12:

2. Questionaire for inspection of treasuries
3. The list showing bill requiring pre-audit
4. Advice list/Register of payments issued by Treasury
Question 13:
In preparing bill an amount less than fifty paisa is

1. Rounded off to a next full Rupee
2. Omitted
3. Both A and B
Question 14:
A Statement of claim against government containing details of nature and amount of claim is a ?
1. Bill
2. Voucher
3. Performa Invoice
Question 15:
As per BTC rule number-------, “charges on account of expenditure on light refreshments at formal meetings and conferences may be drawn on contingent bills with a certificate.
1. 170
2. 173
3. 183
4. None
Question 16:
The assistant collector/probationary deputy collector should undergo training for __________ month/months in the District treasury.
1. 1 month
2. 2 months
3. 3 months
4. 6 months
Question 17:
The advance register maintained in DDO office by the Treasury bill clerk for watching their adjustment in----
1. BTC form-10
2. BTC form-11
3. BTC form-9
4. None
Question 18:
Under which rule of the Bihar Treasury Code, 2011 the Accountant General will inspect the Treasury?
1. Rule-50
2. Rule-28
3. Rule-30
Question 19:
No place should be used as a strong room, unless an officer of the PWD, not below the rank of a/an__________ has certified that it secure and fit for use as strong room.
1. Chief Engineer
2. Superintending Engineer
3. Executive Engineer
4. Assistance Executive Engineer
Question 20:

4. lustruction and guidelines for Treasury officer.
Question 21:
In which section of chapter 4 of the Bihar Treasury Code the letter of credit is mentioned ?
1. Section 12
2. Section 7
3. Section 6
4. Section 2
Question 22:
To whom the Accountant General will submit his annual review of the working of treasuries containing summary of results of his inspection?
1. Finance Department
2. Director of Treasuries
3. Reserve Bank
4. Governor
Question 23:
If the first digit of four digit code of Major Head is 4 or 5, the Head of account will represent
1. Revenue Expenditure
2. Revenue Receipts
3. Capital Expenditure
Question 24:
After the death of a pensioner, the disbursing officer shall sanction pension arrears to the pensioner if applied within------
1. 1 year
2. 2 years
3. 3 years
4. 6 years
Question 25:
Which of the following is not true in respect of permanent advance?

1. It is granted to a Government servant to meet certain expenditure
2. The amount of advance is fixed by competent authority
3. The holder of the permanent advance is not responsible for the safe custody of the money
Question 26:
Counterfoils of used receipt books should be kept under lock and keys in the personal custody of _________
1. Section clerk
2. Head clerk
3. Junior superintendent
4. Head of office
Question 27:
BTC rule--------- provides for the process for undrawn pensions and arrears.
1. BTC rule-208
2. BTC rule-239
3. BTC rule-238
4. BTC rule-218
Question 28:
Advice list of bills payable at the Bank is mentioned in

1. Rule-143
2. Rule-165
3. Rule- 111
Question 29:
In the forest department, which officer has power to order the payment of an earnest money deposit?
1. Divisional forest officer
2. Range officer
3. Forester
4. None of these
Question 30:
Period of preservation of daily scrolls received from the bank is------

1. 1 year
2. 2 years
3. 3 years
4. None of these
Question 31:

1. Rules for payment of compensation for land acquisition
2. List of authorities competent to sanction refund of revenue
3. Instructions for guidance of Treasury Officers
Question 32:
Which of the following is a Government Account?

2. The Consolidated Fund of the State
3. Accountant general
Question 33:
1.The Rule 170 deals with classes of contingencies.
2.There are three classes of contingencies.
Question 34:
Pre-auditing of certain bills is mentioned under Rule ………….of BTC, 2011.

1. 123
2. 86
3. 96
Question 35:
With reference to Bihar Treasury Code consider the following statements and give answer which of the following statements is/are correct
1.A Register in BTC Form 34 is maintained by Treasury Officer showing details of self drawing officer.
2.A Treasury Officer shall entertain correspondence from a Government servant regarding any claim.
4. 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Question 36:
Challan shall be prepared in form no. _________

1. BTC form-4
2. BTC form-5
3. BTC form 56
Question 37:
Repayment of EMD shall be made on

1. Original Challan
2. Duplicate Challan
3. Attested copy of Challan
4. Triplicate copy of Challan
Question 38:
Contingency fund means the contingency fund of the state referred in which Article of the constitution ?
1. Cl.1 of Article 267
2. Cl. 2 of Article 268
3. Cl. (2) of Article 267
4. None of these
Question 39:
Each pensioner should submit life certificate in the treasury for at least---
1. once in a year
2. once in six months
3. once in three months
4. once in two years
Question 40:
Protective endorsement in bills shall be made in _________ ink.

1. Blue
2. Black
3. Red
4. No need to endorse the bill in HRMS/CFMS
Question 41:
When a drawing officer signs a fully vouched contingent bill for presentation at the Treasury for payment or detailed contingent bill for submission to the controlling officer, he should ______ on the attached sub vouchers.
1. Modify
2. Pass
3. Stamped “Paid & Cancelled”
4. Deface
Question 42:
Who is the auditor of State Government Departments?

1. State Audit Department
2. Local Fund Audit Department
3. The Accountant General
4. None of these
Question 43:
Which is/are correct statement-

1. Accountant general periodically inspect the treasury
2. AG must submit a copy of report to the District magistrate
3. Treasury inspection is made in accordance with the Audit manual
4. All of the above

,
Question 44:
All paid vouchers must be----

1. Paid & cancelled
2. Passed for Rs……
3. Amount must be written both in words & figures
4. All of the above
Question 45:
The annual account of the State Government runs from

1. January to December
2. 1st April to 31st march
3. June to July
Question 46:
Payment of pensions can be made only upon Pension Payment Orders issued by the
2. Accountant General.
3. Treasury
Question 47:
The Monthly accounts of the District Treasuries are to be closed at the earliest of closing the transactions for each month not later than
1. 1st of succeeding month
2. 5th of succeeding month
3. 6th of succeeding month
4. 15th succeeding month
Question 48:
Provision for transfer of pension to other States is under BTC, 2011 Rule no.---------
1. Rule-204
2. Rule-205
3. Rule-200
Question 49:
Every strong room should be inspected ________ by the executive engineer and to issue a certificate for its fitness to the treasury
1. Annually
2. Monthly
3. Quarterly
4. Half yearly
Question 50:
The accounts of the State Government shall be maintained in

1. Paise
2. Indian Rupees
3. Dollars
Question 51:
The Treasury Officer shall be responsible to _________ for acceptance of the validity of a claim against which he has permitted withdrawal.
2. The Govt.
Question 52:
Treasuries are periodically inspected by the accountant general in accordance with the audit manual and a copy of which is to be sent to the collector. This has been referred in which section/rule of the chapter 2 of the Bihar Treasury code ?
1. Section II Rule 17
2. Section III Rule 28
3. Section III Rule 27
4. None of these
Question 53:
Select the correct answer for Works Department under CFMS after 01.04.2019-,
1. Works department issues letter of credit.
2. Executive engineer issues cheques for payment to contractors.
3. Payment to contractor is made through treasury bills
Question 54:
Which of the following is a designated bank for manual receipt in a treasury?

1. Canara Bank
2. Union Bank of India
3. Bank of Baroda
4. SBI
Question 55:
If misclassification in the Treasury account is detected before closing the accounts of the day it will be corrected under the initials of
1. Treasury officer
2. Treasurer
3. Senior Superintendent
4. Accountant General
Question 56:
A Pensioner shall be entitled to receive pension up to-

1. One day before the death of pensioner
2. Upto date of death of the pensioner
3. One day after the day of death of pensioner
4. None of these
Question 57:
The responsibility for the timely submission of returns from the Treasury to the Accountant General primarily falls upon _______
1. Treasury Officer
3. Treasurer
4. Junior Accountant
Question 58:
Government Account includes

1. Consolidated fund of State Govt only
2. Contingency Fund of the State Govt only
3. Public Account of State Govt only
4. All of the above
Question 59:
Read the following statements with reference to Bihar Treasury code and select the correct option using the code given below.
1. contingent charges are mentioned in Rule 168 of Bihar Treasury Code.
2.The term contingent charge means and includes all incidental and other expenses which are incurred for the management of an office.
1. Only 1 is correct
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct
Question 60:
The Treasury Rules of each State Govt. is issued under article _______ of the constitution.
1. Article 282
2. Article 283
3. Article 284
4. Article 285
Question 61:
Which of the following is correct?

1. Cash chest or sealed bags containing valuable may be lodged in the treasury for safe custody under the order of the Collector
2. The Collector of the district takes charge of the treasury in BTC Form 1
3. Both (a) and (b)
Question 62:
Accountant General works under the direct control of which departant or organization.
3. Indian Audit + Accounts Department (CAG)
4. None of these
Question 63:
As per BTC rule number--------- Government servant entrusted with the payment of money, shall obtain for every payment he makes, a voucher setting forth full and clear particulars of the claim and all information necessary for its proper classification and identification in
the accounts.
1. 126
2. 127
3. 125
4. 118
Question 64:
1.It is the responsibility of the accountant to bring the irregularity to the notice of the Treasury Officer
2.The Treasury Officer shall not permit any erasures in the cash book.
3. 1 and 2 are correct
Question 65:
Which of the following will require pre-audit from the Accountant General before payment is made under Bihar Treasury Code, 2011?
1. Arrear Pay Bill
2. Bills for gratuity claims remaining undrawn for more than 1 yr
3. Both (a) and (b)
Question 66:
A ….…………..digit code has been allotted to the Major Head

1. Four
2. Three
3. Two
Question 67:
Which of the following rule of Bihar Treasury Code, 2011 defines bill?
1. 2d
2. 2f
3. 4z
Question 68:
Following are the important deductions from works bill sent to treasury for payment to the contractor ---------------------------,
1. Labour Cess
2. Seigniorage charge
3. Penalty, if any.
4. All of the above
Question 69:
Pensions Sanctioning Authority in case of non-Gazetted employee is --------

2. Director
4. Head of the Office
Question 70:
In which Form of B.T.C. every Collector is expected to take charge of a Treasury?

1. 9
2. 3
3. 12
4. 1
Question 71:
Which rule of the Bihar Treasury Code, 2011 discusses inspection of Treasury by Collector of the district?
1. 13
2. 14
3. 27
Question 72:
Provisional Pension order is issued by

3. The Director of treasuries
Question 73:
Bills for abstract contingent expenditure shall be drawn in form__________

1. BTC form 25
2. BTC form-26
3. BTC form-27
4. None of these
Question 74:

1. Rules for payment of compensation for land acquired
2. List of authorities competent to sanction refund of revenue
4. Questions for Treasury inspection by DM
Question 75:
The amount of a lapsed deposit refunded under the rules of Govt. should appear in the treasury accounts as a ________.
1. Miscellaneous refund
2. Repayment of deposit
3. Deduction of lapsed deposit
,
Question 76:
Read the following statements with reference to Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous Rules 1958 and select the correct option using the code given below.
1.Money may be drawn from government account without presenting bills in the treasury.
2.The district collector is not the head of a district treasury.
3. Only 1 and 2are correct
Question 77:
An important monthly statement to be prepared in treasury on account of stamps and stamp papers is
1. Plus and minus memoranda
2. Receipts and issue statement
3. Monthly stock difference statement
4. All the above
Question 78:
1. The BTC Form 26 of Bihar treasury code is used for abstract contingent bill.
2. The BTC Form 17 of Bihar treasury code is used for Pay Bill.
Question 79:
If the first digit of four digit code of Major Head ia a 0 or 1, the Head of account will represent
2. Revenue Receipts
Question 80:
The BTC Form 42 of the Bihar treasury code 2011 is used for withdrawal of ……………………….
1. Grant-in –aid bill
2. Provisional pension
3. Single Pension Bill
Question 81:
In the modern era of financial & cash management, the District Treasury officer shall be responsible to the----
3. Distrct Collector
4. All of these
Question 82:
The bill after payment at the treasury is stamped with

1. Paid and cancelled
2. Paid by transfer
3. Both A and B
Question 83:

1. Statement of transaction of Government account at Reserve Bank
2. Letter of credit
3. revenue deposit
4. A Complete records of cash and Book Transfer will be kept in the Accountan's cashbook.
Question 84:
Provision for transfer of pension to other States is under BTC, 2011 Rule no.---------
1. Rule-204
2. Rule-205
3. Rule-200
Question 85:
Consider the statement given below whether it is true or false?

1.The Rule 377 of the Bihar treasury Code prescribes the security of strong room in the treasury.
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 86:
Family Pensions to minor dependent of the pensioner is Paid -------

1. through Natural Guardian
2. through Legal Guardian

3. In bank account of the Minor dependent
4. First through (A) & in absence of (A), through (B).
Question 87:

2. Register of Payment orders
3. Pay bill
4. The accountant in the treasury is responsible for keeping the complete records of transactions of the treasury and for compilation of prescribed accounts and returns.
Question 88:
1. It is the responsibility of the accountant to bring the irregularity to the notice of the Treasury Officer
2.The Bihar Treasury Code 2011 was implemented on 01.10.2011
3. both 1 and 2 are correct
Question 89:
A departmental officer shall prepare the challan for the dues of loans and interest
1. In a single form
2. In duplicate
3. In triplicate
4. In quadruplicate
Question 90:
Bills requiring authority from Accountant General shall not be accepted by treasury officer without the necessary authority
1. False
2. True
3. Doubtful
Question 91:
Scanned copy of sub vouchers exceeding Rs.--------- shall be attached along with fully vouched contingent & detailed Contingent bill in CFMS.
1. 500
2. 1000
3. 3000
4. 5000
Question 92:
The deposit of Government moneys in the bank shall be governed _______?

1. as per the agreement made between the State Bank of India and the Government.
2. as per the agreement between the Accountant General & RBI.
3. as stipulated by the Central Government from time to time.
4. by terms of the agreement made between the bank and the Government.
Question 93:
If Service pension remains undrawn for three years, shall cease to be payable by the disbursing officer. It can only be Paid on authority of -----------.
3. Department concerned with the pensioner
4. Concerned Treasury officer
Question 94:
The immediate charge of a treasury is vested with

1. Treasury officer
2. Senior accountant of treasury
3. Assistant Treasury Officer
4. Sub treasury officer
Question 95:
The Monthly account and other returns of treasuries are signed by -------------
1. A:-Treasury Officer & Collector
2. Treasury officer & Finance department
3. Treasury officer after implementation of CFMS
4. Collector
Question 96:
The BTC Form 32 of the Bihar treasury code 2011 is used for
1. Register of pension payment order
2. Muster roll
3. Single Pension Bill
Question 97:
The pay of the following establishments may be drawn and charged as contingent expenditure—
1. Hot and cold weather arrangements;
2. Manual labourers engaged on work of occasional nature and paid daily or monthly wages;
3. Temporary field establishments on surveys and settlements.
4. All of the above
Question 98:
A Head of the Officer may authorise which rank of Officer to sign the Salary Bill on his behalf under which Rule of Bihar Treasury code 2011
1. Non-Gazetted Officer
2. Gazetted Officer BTC Rule-84
3. Non-Gazetted Officer of the Work Department
4. None of these
Question 99:
The District treasury officer has to send Treasury Balance Report to----
2. The Finance department
3. Account General and Director of treasuries
4. Accountant General and Finance Department
Question 100:
Which of the following rule of Bihar Treasury Code, 2011 defines Deposit Administrator?
1. 3d
2. 7f
3. 2h
Question 101:
Every payment of pension is to be entered in the

1. Treasury Book
2. Service Book
3. Pension Payment Order
4. Maintained in CFMS
Question 102:
Which one of the following is not included as class of local fund?

1. Municipal fund
2. District board fund
3. Bihar State Road Development Corporation working fund
4. Provident fund
Question 103:
In the case of banking treasuries, the currency chests are kept

1. At the treasury
2. In the sole custody of bank
3. Reserve bank
4. None of these
Question 104:
The Rule no 191of Bihar Treasury Code deals with

1. Detailed contingencies bill
2. Abstract contingencies bill
3. Fully Vouched Contingent Bill
Question 105:
With reference to Bihar Treasury Code consider the statement given below whether it is true or false?
1.The incorrect entry in preparation of bill should be cancelled in red ink.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
4. Bill has to be recalled and cancelled by DDO online no physical bill.
Question 106:
1.All the bills for payment has to be submitted online through HRMS to treasury.
2.Treasury Messenger register is maintained in BTC form 45
Question 107:
A treasury officer shall not honour a claim which he considers to be disputable. He shall require the claimant to refer it to ________.
1. The Finance Dept.
3. Both of the above as the case may be

,
Question 108:
Which of the following is true?

1. Bill presented through Treasury Messenger Register in BTC Form 9 is accepted in Treasury
2. Bill presented through plain paper messenger register is accepted in treasury
3. Both (a) and (b)
Question 109:
Abstract Bill is presented in the Treasury-

1. With details of the Charges
2. With Vouchers
3. Without Supporting Vouchers
4. None of these
Question 110:
BTC rule (--------) deals with-all moneys received as a revenues of the State, loans raised by the Government; all moneys received by in repayment of loans; and all moneys received for deposit in the custody of the Government shall without undue delay be paid in full into
the Government Account
1. Number-3
2. Number-32
3. Number-33
4. All of the above
Question 111:
What is the qualifying period of service for the grant of full Pension of a Government Employee?
1. 15 yrs
2. 30 yrs
3. 20 yrs
4. 40 yrs
Question 112:
No gazetted government servant may draw a changed rate of pay, leave salary etc. unless the bills in which he claims it, is accompanied by a authority from whom?
2. Concerned Department of the officer
3. Accountant general/Finance(Personal claim cell) Department
4. Head of office
Question 113:
Procedure at the treasury for payment into government account is referred in which Rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rules 44 to 49
2. Rule 38
3. Rule 32 and 33
4. None of these
Question 114:
2. Departmental Advance bill
3. Bill for refund of revenue
Question 115:
Pay slip from AG or Finance(Personal claim cell) Department for a gazetted officer deals under---
1. BTC Rule- 65
2. BTC Rule- 66
3. BTC Rule- 64
4. None of these
Question 116:
The permanent advance has to be recouped

1. After it is completely exhausted
2. Before it is completely exhausted
3. Periodically
4. At any time
Question 117:
On the death of a pensioner, payment of any arrears actually due, may be made to his heirs if they apply within --------- of his death.
1. 3 years
2. 2 years
3. 1 year
4. 6 months
Question 118:

2. Register showing the deposit of cash chest at the treasury

Question 119:
Which of the following rule of Bihar Treasury Code, 2011 defines Drawing and Disbursing officer?
1. 5d
2. 2j
3. 4z
Question 120:
A treasury officer is appointed by

1. Treasury directorate
2. Finance department
3. General administration Department
Question 121:
Which of the following provides police for security of strong room in a district?
1. Executive engineer, BCD
2. Superintendent of Police
3. Treasury Officer
Question 122:
Civil court lapsed deposit claims shall be preferred in which of the following forms?
1. BTC form-51
2. BTC form-52
3. BTC form-53
4. BTC form -54
Question 123:
The Rule 366 of the Bihar treasury code 2011 discusses about
2. Online Schedule of General provident Fund Deduction with Pay bill
Question 124:
1.Road Construction department is included in works department under Bihar Treasury Code
2. Public Health Engineering Department is included in works department under Bihar Treasury Code
Question 125:
The BTC Form 27A of the Bihar treasury code 2011 is used for
1. Fully Vouched contingent Bill
2. Detailed Contingent bill
3. Abstract Contingent Bill
Question 126:
A cheque shall remain valid only for ________ months from the date of issue
1. One
2. Two
3. Six
4. Three
Question 127:
2. Miscellaneous bill
Question 128:
Delays in payment and arrear claims have been explained in which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code-2011 ?
1. Rules 71 to 74
2. Rules 75 to 78
3. Rules 79 to 81
4. None of these
Question 129:
Unless the Finance Department otherwise directs in any case, moneys may not be withdrawn from Government Account without the written permission of the Treasury Officer. The Accountant General may also permit withdrawal for any purpose consistent with these
rules. This provision is in the Rule-----
1. BTC rule-58
2. BTC Rule- 51
3. BTC rule -110
Question 130:
A fully vouched contingent Bill is prepared in form

1. BTC form 42
2. BTC form 25
3. BTC form-51
4. BTC form-32
Question 131:
The Internal Financial Adviser ia appointed by

1. Revenue Department
3. The Department conerned
Question 132:
1.The Non judicial stamps are kept in the treasury.
2.The district collector is the head of district treasury
Question 133:

1.The Rule 201 of the Bihar treasury Code defines political pension.
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 134:
3. Salary Bill generated in HRMS from employees database.
Question 135:
A bill pre-checked by the Accountant General enfaced for payment, it should not be paid if it is presented at the treasury after________ from the date of issuance.
1. One month
2. Three months
3. Two months
4. Six months
Question 136:
Under which rule of the Bihar Treasury Code the Treasury officer is required to keep a register of ppo in BTC Form28
1. Rule-76
2. Rule-211
3. Rule-205
Question 137:
The Treasury Officer should prepare statement of lapses of civil and criminal courts deposits and forward them to the _______.
1. The State Accountant General
2. The Presiding Officer of the court
3. The Finance Department
4. No need to Send any where
Question 138:
1.Every voucher must bear a pay order signed by the Disbursing Officer.
2.All paid vouchers must be cancelled
Question 139:
Bills for drawing money from treasury on account of refunds of revenue shall be prepared in form-------
1. BTC. 20
2. T.R. 25
3. BTC. 41
4. T.R. 60
,
Question 140:
Any transaction which cannot be allocated directly to any particular department should be entered in the accounts as an _________.
1. Unclassified item
2. Lapsed item
3. Classified item
4. Appropriated item
Question 141:
The Rule no 82 of Bihar Treasury Code 2011 deals with

1. Abstract bill
2. General Instructions for preparation of Bill + Bill form
3. Both A and B
Question 142:
Permanent advances shall be drawn from the Public Account Fund, Major Head is------
1. 8658
2. 8009
3. 8011
4. 8672
Question 143:
Treasury officer has to obtained following certificates from different pensioners at the periodic interval as a proof, which is/are correct-
1. Life certificate from every pensioner/family pensioners every year.
2. Non employment certificate from every service pensioner every half yearly.
3. Remarriage certificate from every female family pensioner every half yearly.
4. All of the above are correct,
Question 144:
The list of valuables which are to be kept in the treasury for safe custody is dealt under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code ?
1. Rule 27
2. Rule 28
3. Rule 30
4. None of these
Question 145:
_________ is a control of expenditure exercised by various agencies against the funds assigned by legislature.
1. Legislative control
2. Expenditure control
3. Chief control
4. Appropriation control
Question 146:

1.The Rule 201 of the Bihar treasury Code defines disbursing officer for the purpose of pension.
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 147:
''Service pension'' means a pension payable to in respect of a person in consideration of past employment under the States and includes __________.
1. a gratuity or family pension
2. a gratuity only
3. family pension only
4. all other terminal benefits
Question 148:
The daily account of the transactions would be prepared by the Bank officer and after being satisfied on its accuracy the Bank officer will send it to treasury officer after the close of the day alongwith the register of daily receipts and payments with all the supporting
challans and Vouchers. This provision has been made in which rule of the Bihar Treasury code ?
1. Rule 20
2. Rule 14
3. Rule 13
4. None of these
Question 149:
When a drawing officer receives a report that a cheque drawn by him has been lost, he shall at once report the fact to the _________and request him to stop payment of the cheque.
1. Head of the department
2. The treasury officer
3. The accountant general
4. No such cheques are issued by the treasury in the name of DDO.
Question 150:

1. An refundable advance from provident fund may be drawn on ordinary pay bill under rule 368 of Bihar Treasury Code .
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
4. There is no provision of temporary or refundable advance from GOF.
Question 151:
2. Contract Contingencies bill
3. Contingent Charges Register
4. No provision of contract contigency in BTC.
Question 152:
2. Schedule for Public works Department Receipts
4. Payment of leave Salary.
Question 153:
A Treasury Officer may not permit any withdrawal in respect of pay or allowances of a Government servant to whom he has granted a LPC unless ___________.
1. an undertaking of the Govt. servant is obtained
2. the LPC is surrendered
3. the sanction order from the Director is produced
4. the claim was sent through the Accountant General
Question 154:
The prescribed forms of bills and vouchers for making payments for works expenditure are mentioned in the BTC, 2011 Rule----------:
1. BTC rule-135
2. BTC rule-126
3. BTC rule-260
Question 155:
As per BTC rule number-------,the bill for travelling allowance shall be prepared in BTC form-20.
1. 146
2. 167
3. 141
4. 165
Question 156:
Which of the following will require pre-audit from the Accountant General before payment is made under Bihar Treasury Code, 2011?
1. Salary Bill
2. Arrear Claims Bills of Govt. Servants not presented within 3 yrs
3. Both (a) and (b)
Question 157:
Who signs the Bank e-Advice List in CFMS for e-payment?

1. Officer Assistant
2. Accountant
3. Treasury officer
4. All of the Above
Question 158:
Procedure of Signature and counter signature on bill have been referred in which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code ?
1. Rule 82
2. Rule 83 to 86
3. Rule 87
4. None of these
Question 159:
LPC of Government employee is issued by

1. Government
2. Head of office
3. Treasury officer
4. None of these
Question 160:
The pension payment order is an authority issued by __________.

1. Head of department
2. Treasury Officer
4. The Chief treasurer
Question 161:
Treasury Balance is the balance of cash of __________ account.

1. Government
2. Public undertaking
3. Private body
4. Local body
Question 162:
Following documents have to be attached with treasury works bill sent to treasury for payment to contractor ---------------------------,
1. Muster Roll.
2. Measurement Book.
3. Running account bills
4. All of the above
Question 163:
A bill become a 'voucher' when _________.

1. it is presented to a treasury
2. it is signed by the DDO
3. it is passed
4. stamped ''paid'' & “Cancelled”
Question 164:
Under which Article of the constitution the governor of Bihar has made Bihar Treasury code 2011 ?
1. Art. 283 (2)
2. Art. 283 (1)
3. Art. 284
4. None of these
Question 165:
A non gazetted Government can not be made a DDO.

1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 166:
Family Pension payment to dependent mentally disabled child of the pensioner is paid -------
1. through Natural Guardian
2. through Legal Guardian
3. In bank account of the mentally disabled child
4. First through A & in absence of A, through B.
Question 167:

1. Money may not be withdrawn from the govt. account except by presentation of bills to the treasury
2. Treasury Messenger Register is maintained in BTC Form 10
3. Both (a) and (b)
Question 168:
1. refund of lapsed voucher
2. Schedule of recovery
Question 169:
The last pay certificate must contain

1. Forenoon or
2. Afternoon
3. Both A and B
Question 170:
Fully Vouched Contigent Bill is prepared in……………

1. B.T.C Form 25
2. B.T.C Form 27
3. B.T.C Form 27
4. B.T.C Form 42
Question 171:
Under which rule of the Bihar Treasury Code the Treasury officer is authorized to transfer the payment of pension from one district to another within the state.
1. Rule-76
2. Rule-198
3. Rule-205
Question 172:
The Appendix 9 Rule 111 of Bihar Treasury code 2011 deals with
1. Advice list
Question 173:
As per BTC rule 201 "Disbursing Officer" for pension is -----------------.

1. Treasuries
2. Agency Banks
3. Both A & B
Question 174:
Payment may be made into the Government Account by-----

1. cash
2. cheques
3. bank pay orders or by bank credit challans.
4. All of the above
Question 175:
Who is responsible for the handling of the stamp at the treasury

2. The cashier
3. District treasury officer
4. Director of treasuries
Question 176:
A Treasury officer has no authority to act under an order of the Government sanctioning a payment, unless the order is an express order to him to make payment and in the absence of urgency, even such special order should be sent through the __________.
1. Director
2. Finance Secretary
4. None of these
Question 177:
3. Advance Bills register
4. Defective should be returned to DDO online.
Question 178:
Which of the following statement is correct about commutation?

1. on expiry of the specified period commuted value of pension is restored by pension sanctioning authority.
2. on expiry of the specified period commuted value of pension is restored by Accountant General.
3. on expiry of the specified period commuted value of pension is restored by Treasury Officer after obtaining AG's sanction.
4. on expiry of the specified period commuted value of pension is restored by Treasury Officer without obtaining AG's authorisation.
Question 179:
Provision of deduction of income tax is in--

1. BTC rule-143
2. BTC rule-144
3. BTC rule-146
4. BTC rule-147
Question 180:
The Collector, himself shall inspect the district treasuries _________ in a year.
1. Once
2. Twice
3. Three times
4. None of these
Question 181:
Which medium is used to deposit any amount into the Government Treasury?
1. Bill
2. Voucher
3. Challan BTC form-4
4. None of these
Question 182:
After implementation of CFMS which form number should be used by a public works officer who frequently makes deposit to the treasury?
1. BTC form-5
2. BTC form -8
3. BTC form-10
4. BTC form- 4
Question 183:
Which one of the following is the Form of withdrawal of scholarship
1. BTC Form-42A
2. BTC Form-42
3. BTC Form-43
4. BTC Form-25
Question 184:

4. A consolidated Treasury Receipt in BTC form is given to work Division.
Question 185:
4. Deductions Pay bills.
Question 186:
Who is the custodian of treasury bill book?

2. Head of office
3. Treasury officer
4. Drawing and disbursing officer in HRMS as e-bill book.
Question 187:
3. Register of self Drawing officer
4. Audit objection and recoveries.
Question 188:
Gratuity may be paid by the treasury officer on the basis authority of-------
3. Treasury Officer
Question 189:
Under CFMS after 01.04.2019, Divisional officers of Works Department can draw money from treasury through--------------------.
1. BTC bills
2. Through cheques
3. By both of the above
Question 190:
Which BTC rule prescribes the limitation of amount of vouchers to be sent along with fully vouched & detailed contingent bills?
1. 192
2. 135
3. 194
4. None
Question 191:
As per BTC rule number 176 which one in correct?

1. Money must be drawn from treasury and paid at once and no money should be withdrawn from the Treasury unless it is required for immediate payment.
2. Money may be drawn from treasury and keep it in Bank account of Office and then paid at once to the beneficiary.
3. Both the above are true
Question 192:
A pension chargeable under the head -2071 pension and other retirement benefits not drawn for ________ years shall cease to be payable without the previous sanction of AG.
1. One year
2. Two year
3. Three year
4. None of these
Question 193:
To meet such expenses for which no previous provision has been made in the Budget, the money will come from-
1. Consolidated Fund of the State
2. Bihar Contingency Fund
3. Vote on Accounts
4. None of these
,
Question 194:
As per BTC rule number--------- A government servant supplied with funds for expenditure shall be responsible for such funds until an account of them has been rendered to the satisfaction of the Accountant General. He shall also be responsible for seeing that payments
are made to persons entitled to receive them.
1. 126
2. 149
3. 105
4. 118
Question 195:
A Bank Treasury means

1. A treasury, the cash business of which is conducted by the treasury itself
2. A treasury, the cash business of which is conducted by Central Treasury
3. A treasury, the cash business of which is conducted by the bank
4. None of these
Question 196:
Bill for payment of contractor is prepared on the basis of-------,

1. Muster Roll.
2. Measurement Book.
4. All of the above
Question 197:
Which of the following is a pension disbursing authority

2. Treasury officer
Question 198:
Every order issued by a court or other authority for the repayment of a deposit from a treasury shall be drawn on _________
1. BTC form 53
2. BTC form-54
3. BTC form-56
4. None of these
Question 199:
4. if it is not possible to support a payment with voucher a certificate of payment in manuscrip may be prepared.
Question 200:
As per BTC rule number-------, When in paying rewards to informers, or in any other case, it is not desirable to disclose the names of payees, a certificate in handwriting of the disbursing officer to the effect that the payment has been duly made, shall be enclosed to the
bill in support of the payment in lieu of the payee's receipt ordinarily required.
1. 186
2. 129
3. 130
4. 187
Question 201:
Under Rule 176 of BTC, 2011 Money should ....…...........from treasury unless it is required for immediate payment.
1. Be drawn
2. Not be drawn
3. Both A and B
Question 202:
The Rule no 172 of Bihar Treasury Code deals with

1. Abstract bill
2. Instruction for preparing bills
3. Permanent advance or imprest
Question 203:
A treasury Officer is required to submit return of court deposit to the Accountant General by….
1. First of each month
2. Seventh of each month
3. Twelfth of each month
Question 204:
Expenditure on petty construction and repairs, executed by civil officers, is treated as contingent expenditure of the department incurring it, if the amount does not exceed---------------.
1. Rs. 1,00,000
2. Rs. 50,000
3. Rs. 25,000
4. Rs. 20,000
Question 205:
All adjustments against the balance of the state by debit or credit to another govt. shall be made through
1. Accountant general of the State
2. Central Account Section of the RBI
3. The Finance Department concerned State Govt.
4. Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India
Question 206:
As per BTC rule number--------- In cases in which it is not possible to support a payment by a voucher or by the payee's receipt, a certificate of payment with full particulars of the claims, is prepared in manuscript, signed by the disbursing officer and countersigned by his
superior officer, should invariably be placed on record and submitted to the Accountant General, wherever necessary.
1. 136
2. 127
3. 129
4. 128
Question 207:
The legal authority for withdrawal of money from the consolidated fund is---
1. Appropriation Bill
2. Appropriation accounts
3. Demands for grants
4. Appropriation Act
Question 208:
Provision of deduction of house rent is in

1. BTC rule-143
2. BTC rule-144
3. BTC rule-145
4. BTC rule-147
Question 209:
The head of an office may authorise a gazetted government servant serving under him to sign bills.
1. Rule 83 BTC, 2011
2. Rule 84 BTC, 2011
3. Rule 110 BTC, 2011
4. Rule 78 BTC, 2011
Question 210:
Identify the correct Rules and BTC Form of Bihar Treasury Code :-
1. Rule 53 - BTC Form 6
3. Both (a) and (b)
Question 211:
In which of the following Rule of BTC, 2011 specifies with regard to absentee Statement
1. Bihar Treasury code rule-155
Question 212:
BTC rule number---------provides that bills requiring prior countersignature shall not be accepted by a Treasury unless such bills have been countersigned by the controlling officer.
1. 78
2. 85
3. 112
4. 194
Question 213:
Permanent advances shall be drawn on the authority of------

2. Administrative Department of Concerned office
Question 214:
Which of the following is true in respect of permanent advance?

1. It is granted to a Government servant to make salary payment
2. The amount of advance is not fixed by competent authority
3. The holder of the permanent advance is responsible for the safe custody of the money
Question 215:
Which of the following is a pension disbursing authority in Bihar.

2. Agency Bank
3. Treasury officer
4. Both 2 and 3
Question 216:
The claims of deceased government servants are specified in which one of the following sections?
1. 210 of BTC
2. 211 of BTC
3. 212 A of BTC
4. 241 of BTC
Question 217:
When a payment for the pension first time is made, the treasury officer has to __________ the pensioner.
1. Inspect
2. Examine
3. Satisfy
4. Identify
Question 218:
BTC, 2011 Rule ___ describe/s about preparation & submission of detailed contingent(DC) bills.
1. 193
2. 194
3. 1195
4. All the above
Question 219:
Treasury officer has authority to make payments by or under the rules of---
1. Bihar Service code
2. Bihar Financial Rule
3. Bihar treasury code
4. All of the above
Question 220:
A bill becomes a voucher when it is only receipted and ________

1. prepared by section clerk
2. Signed by the officer
3. Stamped paid & cancelled
4. None of these
Question 221:
The Appendix 6 of Bihar Treasury code 2011 deals with….……….

3. The list showing bill requiring pre-audit
Question 222:
The period of validity of gratuity for payment is ___________ from the date of issuance.
1. 1 year
2. 6 years
3. 10 years
4. 12 years
Question 223:
Plus and minus memoranda is prepared under Rule-

1. BTC RULE-353
2. BTC RULE-363
3. BTC RULE-351
4. BTC RULE-349
Question 224:
Which of the following is correct under Bihar Treasury Code, 2011?

1. The head of an office may authorise any gazetted Government Servant serving under him to sign a bill
2. The head of an office may authorise any non-gazetted Government Servant serving under him to sign a bill
3. Both (a) and (b)
Question 225:
With reference to Bihar Treasury Code consider the following statements and give answer using the code which of the following statements is/are correct
1.The accountant of a treasury is not responsible for keeping complete records of all transaction of the treasury.
2.A Treasury officer is required to see that every voucher on which he passes an order for payment is complete in every respect
Question 226:
1.Travelling allowance bill does not require countersignature by the controlling officer.
2.The DDO in respect of treasuries stands for District Development Officer.
Question 227:
A pension granted in consideration of past employment under the government of India or any of the state
1. Compassionate allowance
2. Political pension
3. Service pension
4. Compassionate pension
Question 228:
Which one of the following statements is/are correct about system generated treasury bill book?
1. It gives an abstract of the bills cashed from treasuries
2. It helps the audit officers to verify the cash book
3. It helps the head of office to detect fraud and unauthorised encashment of bills
4. All the above all correct
Question 229:
A treasury officer instead of honouring a disputable claim shall refer the same to………………..the case may be
3. Both A and B
Question 230:
A treasury Officer is required to submit list of Deposit Receipts of Criminal Court to the Accountant General by…..
2. first week of september
Question 231:
1.The accountant’s cash books gives complete records of cash transaction of a treasury.
2.The treasury officer shall allow erasures or overwritings in the cash book of the accountant
Question 232:
The number of cheque books that can be issued by treasury officer in a single requisition is
1. One
2. Two
3. After implementation of CFMS cheque is not issued by the treasury.
4. In case of works department some cheques are to be issued.
Question 233:
1. Grant-in –aid bill
2. Provisional pension
3. Scholarship Bill
Question 234:

1.Under Rule 85 of the Bihar Treasury Code Bills requiring prior countersignature shall not be accepted by a Treasury officer without counter signature
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 235:
Deductions of income tax from pay bills on account of income-tax shall be made strictly in accordance with the relevant provisions of the Income-Tax Act, 1961 under BTC rule---------
1. 146
2. 144
3. 145
4. None
Question 236:

1. The monthly accounts and other returns to the AG Office shall be jointly signed by the Treasury Officer and Collector
2. Signed only by the Treasury officer in CFMS
3. Signed only be Collector in CFMS

,
Question 237:
Important points have been referred in which rule of the Bihar Treasury code for the verification by the treasury officer at the closing of the day regarding Accounts.
1. Rule 21
2. Rule 22
3. Rule 23
4. None of these
Question 238:
The treasury officer should promptly recover the amount once the _______ disallows a payment as unauthorized.
1. Controlling Officer
3. DDO
Question 239:
Civil/Criminal court deposits lapses after -------from the date it becomes repayable.
1. one year
2. two years
3. three years
4. Never lapse
Question 240:
Which is/are correct in case of Detailed Contingent (DC) bills?

1. DC bill must be prepared in BTC Form 27.
2. DC bill should bear the heading 'Not payable at the Treasury'.
3. DC bill shall be accompanied by sub-vouchers above Rs. 5000.
4. All are correct
Question 241:

1.The Treasury Officer is personally responsible for any payment of pension wrongly made.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 242:
Moneys received on behalf of Government shall -----------

1. not be used for departmental expenditure,
2. kept out of the Government Account.
3. it must be deposited in Govt. account without delay
4. All of the above
Question 243:
No Gazetted Government servant may draw a changed rate of pay, leave salary or fixed allowance _______
1. unless the Treasury Officer gives his assent for the changed rate
2. unless the Head of Office specifically authorises the changed rate
3. unless Finance Department or the Accountant General has authorised the changed rate
4. none of these
Question 244:
Wages of labourers engaged departmentally shall be drawn on muster rolls with following information. Select the correct.
1. showing the names of the labourers,
2. number of days they have worked & the amount due to each
3. daily attendance and absence of labourers
4. All of the above are correct.
Question 245:
The form of LPC is prescribed by

3. Law department
4. CAG
Question 246:
A list of matters of treasury procedure which require personal attention of the Treasury officer are given in-
1. BTC rule-14
2. BTC Appendix-3
3. Both are correct
4. None of these
Question 247:
2. Travelling Allowance Bill

4. Voucher with full details of claim.
Question 248:
4. Payment of leave Salary.
Question 249:
You have to comply with the order of attachment of the pay of a government servant for settlement of debt issued by a court of law, you will have to see rule -------of BTC, 2011.
1. 148
2. 149
3. Both the rules
4. None
Question 250:
Which of the following is a designated bank for treasury

1. State Bank of India
2. Central Bank of India
3. Bank of India
4. For Manual receipt SBI, For payment RBI, For e-Receipt all 3
Question 251:
In which rule of Bihar Treasury Code, 2011 the Revenue Deposit is mentioned the Revenue Deposit?
1. 18
2. 348
3. 58
4. 327
Question 252:
Choose the false statement ''The disbursing officer of the pension shall ______''.
1. Identify the pensioner before making pension payment
2. Need not check the personal mark of identification of the pensioner
3. Compare the thump impression if pensioner cannot sign
4. All the above statements are false
Question 253:
The pay and allowances of police constable is presented in which of the following bills?
1. Miscellanies bill
2. Contingent bill
3. Travelling allowance bill
4. Establishment pay bill
Question 254:
2. Schedule of recovery
4. Personal advance like Pay and TA drawal and recovery from the employee.
Question 255:
Payment of arrears of pension due in respect of a deceased pensioner shall be regulated by BTC rule---------
1. BTC rule-228
2. BTC rule-239
3. BTC rule-241
4. BTC rule-218
Question 256:

1.The Rule 201 of the Bihar treasury Code defines service pension.
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 257:
Pensions Sanctioning Authority in case of Gazetted officer is --------

2. Accountant General.
3. Administrative Department
Question 258:
In which section of chapter 6 of the Bihar Treasury Code the personal deposit is mentioned ?
1. Section 12
2. Section 4
3. Section 6
4. Section 5 Rule 338-340
Question 259:
Under Rule 119 bill has to be made in

1. printed form
2. hand written form
3. duplicate form
4. Online bill is generated from HRMS/CFMS
Question 260:
Under which Rule of Bihar Treasury Code is there a provision for detailed contingent bill?
1. Rule-193 & 194
2. Rule-191
3. Rule-145
Question 261:
In which BTC Form of the Bihar Treasury Code, 2011is mentioned the Alltotment Register by Treasury Officer?
1. BTC Form 36
2. BTC Form 10
3. BTC Form 43
4. Online allotment is given by department and are available to treasury and DDO. CFMS maintain the data for allotment and expd.
Question 262:
The position of sentries who guard the treasury strong room---

2. Sub Inspector of Police
3. Circle Inspector of Police
4. Director General of Police
Question 263:
The recovery of excess pay and allowance from the employees are treated as
1. Miscellaneous refund
2. Refund of Revenue
3. Revenue Receipts
4. Reduction of expenditure
Question 264:
The payment for bill headed NIL BILL…………

1. Be made
2. Not be made
3. Be made with condition
Question 265:
The gazetted officers on temporary post awaiting extension of period be paid their salaries in anticipation of the pay slips provided the DDO encloses a certificate on prescribed proforma or puts a certificate on his bill. Under the above circumstances a temporary gazetted
officer can be given salary for not more than
1. 4 months
2. 5 months
3. 6 months
4. None of these
Question 266:
Which of the following Chapter of Bihar Treasury Code, 2011 deals with receipt of money into Government Account?
1. Chapter 3
2. Chapter 5
3. Both (a) and (b)
Question 267:
A treasury Officer is required to submit accounts and return of march account to the Accountant General by…..
3. Tenth of each month
Question 268:
Which is/are correct in case of Detailed Contingent (DC) bills?

1. Delay in Submission of the detailed bill beyond the end of the sixth month, no abstract bill shall be prepared in CFMS after the end of this period.
2. Controlling officer may dis-allowed doubtful amount.
3. A certificate shall be endorsed by the Drawing and Disbursing Officer on the DC bill in respect of amounts below Rs 5000..
4. All are correct
Question 269:
From which year New Contributory Pension Scheme in Bihar came into effect?
1. 2001
2. 2011
3. 2005
4. None of these
Question 270:
1.The DDO is responsible for all types of deductions and selection of correct Head of Accounts.
2.Under Rule 146 of Bihar Treasury Code deduction of income tax is made from bills.
Question 271:
The treasury officer shall not pay any gratuity except or an authority received from the
3. Director of treasuries
4. None of these
Question 272:
Which of the following is not a Government account?

1. Municipal account
2. Consolidated fund
3. Contingency fund
4. Public account
Question 273:
3. Salary Bill generated in HRMS from employees database
Question 274:
Arrear Bills can be presented in the Treasury-

1. At the end of the month
2. On the 10th of the month
3. Any time
4. On the first date of the month
Question 275:
Under CFMS from 01.04.2019 "Disbursing Officer" for pension is ---

2. Agency Banks
3. E-Treasury
4. Treasuries
Question 276:
Claims for which no other specific form has been prescribed shall be made in----------
1. BTC form 51
2. BTC form 50
3. BTC form 60
4. none
Question 277:
The sub-vouchers above Rs.5000 should be scanned + uploaded with contingent Bills in CFMS
1. False
2. True
3. Doubtful
Question 278:
Which of the following statement is correct in the context of mode of withdrawal?

1. Money may not be withdrawn from the govt. account except by presentation of bills to the treasury
2. Treasury Messenger Register is maintained in BTC Form 9
3. Money may be drawn on cheque
Question 279:
As per BTC rule number--------- The Treasury Officer has to satisfy not only himself, but also the Accountant General that the claim is valid.
1. 128
2. 139
3. 91
4. 118
,
Question 280:
The detailed Contingent Bill shall accompanied by?

1. Sub-Vouchers of any amount
2. Above Rs. 1000
3. Scanned copy of vouchers Above Rs. 5000 attached with CFMS from 01.04.2019.
4. Above Rs. 10000
Question 281:
The gazetted officers on temporary post awaiting extension of period be paid their salaries in anticipation of the pay slips provided the DDO enclose a certificate on prescribed proforma or puts a certificate on his bill. Under the above circumstances a temporary gazetted
officer can be given salary for not more than
1. 4 months
2. 5 months
3. 6 months
4. None of these
Question 282:
Provisions of Receipts and Repayments on personal deposit accounts is in _____

1. BTC Rule 341-344
2. BTC Rule 41-48
3. BTC Rule 349
4. BTC Rule 350
Question 283:
Which Officer has to maintain details of allotment in Bihar Treasury Code Form No. 10 :-
1. D.D.O. and Treasury Officer
2. Treasury Officer
3. D.D.O
4. CFMS will maintain the allotment data.
Question 284:
Provision of Deductions from Bills is under BTC rule----- .

1. 143
2. 144
3. 145
4. All of the above
Question 285:
Which of the following bill will require pre-audit?

1. Monthly T.A.bill
2. Bills for pension remaining undrawn for more than one year
3. Monthly salary bill
Question 286:
How many copies of Advice List of passed is prepared by Treasury Officer?

1. e-advice in CFMS is generated no need for physical copy.
2. In Duplicate Copy
3. In Triplicate Copy
4. In Quadruplicate Copy
Question 287:
Permanent advances are granted to meet which of the following mode of payments?
1. Pay and allowances
2. Travelling allowances
3. Contingent charges
4. None of these
Question 288:
From the date of payment, sub-vouchers should be kept for minimum-----

1. 3 years
2. 6 months
3. 2 years
4. 1 year
Question 289:
If a Treasury Officer receives intimation from AG that moneys have been incorrectly withdrawn and that a certain sum should be recovered from a DDO, he shall
1. effect the recovery without delay and without regard to any correspondence
2. effect the recovery after getting necessary direction from the Finance Department
3. effect the recovery after getting necessary order from Concerned Department.
Question 290:
Major & Minor Head of Accounts is prescribed by the ------------------------

with the advice of Comptroller & Auditor General of India.
1. CAG of India
2. Finance Dept. of State
3. Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India

Question 291:
Which is the rule authorizing a Treasury Officer to permit withdrawal from the Bank by the Drawing & Disbursing officer
1. BTC rule 78
2. BTC Rule-59
3. Both of the above
4. None
Question 292:
As per BTC rule number--------- Generally the bills for monthly pay and fixed allowances of government servants may be signed and presented to the Treasury any time not earlier than 15 days before the last working day of the month and shall be due for payment on the
last working day of the month when the Bank is open.
1. 168
2. 135
3. 141
4. None
Question 293:
Under which rule of the Bihar Treasury Code the Executive engineer is required to give a certificate of fitness of the building for strong room
1. Rule-122
2. Rule-288
3. Rule-370
4. Rule-377.
Question 294:
Pension Payment Order is issued by----------- in Bihar.

1. The pension sanctioning authority
2. The pension disbursing authority
4. The Director of Treasuries
Question 295:
Why should a voucher passed be stamped with "Paid and Cancelled"?

1. To use it again
2. Not to be used again
3. To embezzle
4. None of these
Question 296:

2. Letter of credit
3. Transfer Of Charge of Treasury office
4. Taking over or mixing over the charges of Treasury by Dist. Magistrate
Question 297:
Who is authorised to sanction P.P.O ?

2. Disbursing Officer
Question 298:
1. Repayment of lapsed deposit
2. Schedule of General provident Fund Deduction
Question 299:
Pay Bill of Gazetted/non Gazetted establishment is prepared in form----

1. BTC form-17
2. BTC form -2
3. BTC form-25
4. BTC form-20
Question 300:
Permanent advances are granted to government servants who may have to meet certain classes of expenditure before they can place themselves in funds by drawing bills under which Rules of BTC, 2011.
1. 169
2. 170
3. 194
4. 172
Question 301:
In case of transfer of an employee from one office to another office, a ‘last pay certificate’ is issued under rule---
1. BTC rule-66
2. BTC rule-65
3. BTC rule-78
4. None of these
Question 302:
The fines levied by the courts and creditable to the state government shall be remitted into the treasury/banks through ___________
1. Demanded Draft
2. Challan
3. Cheque
4. None of these
Question 303:
The treasury shall be under the control of a Treasury Officer who shall be under the administrative control of the ___________.
3. Reserve Bank of India
4. Additional District Magistrate
Question 304:
1. Schedule of recoveries
2. The first and final bill
Question 305:
Life certificate from a pensioner is taken in the month of

1. January
2. March
3. July
4. November
Question 306:
As per BTC rule number-------, the term 'contingent charges' or 'contingencies' means and includes all incidental and other expenses which are incurred for the management of an office like an office, or for the technical working of a department.
1. 168
2. 167
3. 194
4. 192
Question 307:
Which is/are correct in case of Abstract Contingent (AC) bills?

1. presented at the Treasury without the details of the charges and any supporting vouchers.
2. Contingent charges requiring countersignature after payment for adjustment.
3. drawn on BTC Form 26
4. All are correct
Question 308:
“charges on account of expenditure on light refreshments at formal meetings and conferences may be drawn on ------------- bills with a certificate.
1. BTC form-24
2. BTC form-20
3. BTC form-25
4. None
Question 309:
The Accountant General in the exercise of any of his functions under the Rules of BTC shall be subject to the general control of ____________.
1. Supreme Court of India
2. High Court of Kerala
3. CAG of India
4. Administrative secretariat
Question 310:
Which of the following bill will require pre-audit?

1. Monthly T.A.bill
2. Monthly salary bill
3. Bills for gratuity remaining undrawn for more than one year
Question 311:
1. Statements of rents recoverable from pay bill
4. Parts of an establishment under same officer pertaining to different bill code shall be regarded as distinct establishment and drawn on separate bill.
Question 312:
A Government servant who retires on pension is required to produce before the Accountant General for authorization of pension.
1. Birth Certificate
2. RTC
3. Charge certificate
4. Last pay certificate
Question 313:
Bills for drawing of moneys from the treasury on account of refunds of revenue shall be prepared in which of the following forms?
1. BTC form-42
2. BTC form-43
3. BTC form-41
4. None
Question 314:
Money lying unspent after------------consecutive financial years shall be lapsed in case of Personal Deposit Accounts.
1. 2 Years
2. 3
3. 5
4. Not lapsed
Question 315:
Register of payment order is also known as

1. Common system
2. Regulation system
3. Bank Advice List
Question 316:
The bill is signed by

1. Head of the office
2. An officer authorized by the Head of the Office
3. Both A and B
Question 317:
The Collector make arrangement for inspection treasuries under which rules?
1. BTC Rule-28 & Appendix-5
2. BTC rule-27 & Appendix-5
3. BTC Rule-29
4. None of these
Question 318:
Select the correct statement in case of Personal Deposit

1. The balance amount in a lapsed deposit should be transferred as government receipt in revenue head.
2. The balance amount in a lapsed deposit should be transferred as reduction of expenditure to the concerned budget head from which the money was withdrawn.
3. Both are correct
Question 319:
Which is/are correct in case of Abstract Contingent (AC) bills?

1. Money should not be drawn on AC bills if the charges can be defrayed from permanent advance.
2. detailed bills for AC bills drawn previously must be submitted online to treasury through CFMS.
3. detailed bills have to be submitted within six months from the date of withdrawal of AC bills.
4. All are correct
Question 320:
When does an appropriation lapse at-------------.

1. the close of a financial year
2. the close of a calender year
3. the expiry of six months
4. none of these
Question 321:
Appropriation control register shall be maintained in all treasuries separately for each -----------through CFMS.
1. Calendar year
2. Financial year
3. From June to next May
4. None of these
Question 322:
2. Bill of expenditure from governor's Contract allowance
Question 323:
Under which rule of the Bihar Treasury Code, 2011 a Treasury Officer shall not owner a claim which he considers to be disputable?
1. 85
2. 63
3. 75
Question 324:
Bills for Pay, fixed allowances and leave salaries shall be prepared in BTC Form17 under BTC rule, 2011 through ------------ ,
1. CFMS
2. HRMS
3. Both HRMS & CFMS
4. None
Question 325:
When a pensioner appears in person to draw his pension the certificate “appeared in person” is signed by
1. Accountant
2. Treasury officer
3. Both A and B
Question 326:
From which date Bihar Travelling Allowance Rules is effective?

1. 1 July, 1949
2. 1 July, 1950
3. 1 July, 1951
4. 1 July, 1952
Question 327:
Inspection of treasury by AG is done under rule-

1. BTC rule-27
2. BTC rule-28
3. Under both rule
4. None of these
Question 328:
The monthly accounts shall be closed without fail on the last day of each month in accordance with the provisions contained in accounting rules for treasuries 1992. Is this a true statement.
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 329:
A Bill is a statement of claims against _________.

1. Public undertaking
2. Local body
3. Government
4. Private company
Question 330:
Authorization of salary bills & e-Payment (through e-kuber) in bank account of employees are made through ------------ ,
1. HRMS & CFMS
2. HRMS
3. CFMS
4. None
Question 331:
1.Under rule 228 a pensioner drawing pension for the first time shall be required to produce the copy of the PPO.
2.The treasury is not inspected by Accountant General
Question 332:
List of Department wise competent to sanction refund of revenue in provided in

1. authority Appdx-11
2. Delegation of Financial power Rule
3. Appdx-8
Question 333:
Who is responsible to satisfy the Accountant General that payment made is valid & the payee has actually received the payment
1. Drawing & disbursing Officers
4. Treasury officer
,
Question 334:
A treasury Officer is required to submit return of deceased pensioner to the Accountant General by…..
2. first week of September
Question 335:
The monitoring of expenditure from permanent advance is mandatory for the Head of office, whenever a transfer of charge takes place as per BTC rule number-------,
1. 171
2. 173
3. 177
4. 185
Question 336:
Allotment register is maintained in form _________

1. BTC form- 109
2. BTC form 110
3. Allotment Register is auto-maintained by the system
4. All of the above
Question 337:
Which of the following rule of Bihar Treasury Code, 2011 defines Bank?
1. 2e
2. 2c
3. 4a
Question 338:
A treasury Officer is required to submit return of civil court deposit receipt to the Accountant General by…..
Question 339:
1.The plus and Minus memorandum of unadjusted advances is sent to the Accountant General by the Treasury officer
2.The Advice List is Prepared in quadruplicate
Question 340:

1. The Agreement made between SBI and RBI
2. The Agreement made between SBI and other bank
3. The Agreement made between Governor of Bihar and RBI
Question 341:
1.The pay of a Government servant should be paid into his bank account.
2.The permanent Travelling allowance can not be drawn on establishment pay bill
Question 342:
BTC rule--------- provides for the process for Undrawn pensions and arrears
1. BTC rule-208
2. BTC rule-239
3. BTC rule-238
4. BTC rule-218
Question 343:
Earnest Money Deposit made by intending tenderers of the Forest Department should be credited as _______
1. PW Deposits
2. Revenue Deposits
3. Personal Deposits
4. Election Deposits
Question 344:

1. Rules for payment of compensation for land acquired
2. List of local fund

Question 345:
Which of the following is an inspecting authority of a treasury?

2. DEO
Question 346:
The daily totals of each subsidiary register of the treasury shall be carried over to------
1. Ledger
2. Cash Book
3. Daily Balance sheet
4. Day Book
Question 347:
Following are the important deductions from works bill sent to treasury for payment to the contractor ---------------------------,
1. Income Tax TDS.
2. GST TDS.
3. Security deposit
4. All of the above
Question 348:
Who is authorized to grant advance TA to the clerk in the treasury?

1. Treasurer
3. Treasury director
4. Treasury officer
Question 349:
As per BTC rule number--------- Receipts for all sums exceeding Rs.5000 must be stamped with revenue stamps.
1. 126
2. 129
3. 88
4. 30
Question 350:
Memorandum of challans have been explained in which rule of the Bihar Treasury code ?
1. Rule 40
2. Rule 41
3. Rule 44
4. Rule 42 and Rule 43
Question 351:
Mention the timeline for claim of a life time arrears of pension deceased pensioner -------
1. Within 5 years
2. Within 3 years
3. Within 2 years
4. Within one year
Question 352:
Who of the following is an inspecting authority of a treasury?

1. Deputy Collector
2. DEO
3. Collector of the district
Question 353:
The Government servant concerned should reconcile his accounts periodically at least ________,
1. Once in a year
2. Once in six months
3. Once in a quarter
4. Once in a month
Question 354:
Travelling Allowance bill for Government employee should be prepared in-

1. BTC form-20
2. BTC form-22
3. BTC form-25
4. BTC form 26
Question 355:
Generally expenditure has to be made directly from treasury to the beneficiaries account by the Implementing Agencies of the Government for various schemes but there is an exception where it is mandatory to withdraw money from treasury, keep it in a Single Nodal
Account in a bank of a Single State Nodal Agency & then make e-payment through PFMS. Which type of scheme is exception to this?
1. State schemes implemented by the Nigam/Boards
2. Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented Agencies
3. Both are correct
4. Both are incorrect
Question 356:
Travelling allowance bill should be countersigned by

1. Head of office
3. Junior superintendent
4. Controlling officer
Question 357:
A ‘Register of increment’ will be maintained by the drawing and Disbursing officer in form ------of BTC, 2011.
1. BTC form-18
2. BTC form-19
3. BTC form20
4. None of these
Question 358:
A treasury officer works under the control of a

1. District Accounts Officer
4. None of these
Question 359:
Who is authorised to issue Last Payment Certificate to a Non-gazetted Government Servant?

1. Treasury Officer
3. Deputy Collector
4. None of these
Question 360:
2. Allotment Register
Question 361:
1.The questionnaire for inspection of treasuries by collector is given in Appendix 8
2.The treasury is not inspected by Accountant General
Question 362:
1.The procedure for the safe custody of the duplicate keys is prescribed by Board of Revenue.
2.The treasury officer shall pass all D.C.bill before forwarding it to A.G.Bihar
Question 363:
Which of the following gives a certificate of fitness and security for strong room?
1. Executive engineer, BCD
3. Treasury Officer
Question 364:
Which of the following is a designated bank for a treasury in Sheohar?

2. Central Bank of India
3. Bank of India
Question 365:
Who is responsible to the Government for the proper functioning of the treasuries at the state level?
2. District treasury officer
3. Assistant treasury officer
,
Question 366:
An officer receiving money on behalf of government shall maintain a Cash Book

1. True
2. False
3. Optional
Question 367:
1.Countersigned contingencies require the approval of controlling authority.
2.The fully vouched contingencies do not require countersignature.
Question 368:

2. Register showing the deposit of cash chest at the treasury
3. revenue deposit
Question 369:
The Rule 184 of Bihar Treasury Code deals with.

1. Record of contingent expenditure in BTC Form-23
2. Record of Valuables
3. Record of advance
Question 370:
Each Divisional Forest Officer should verify in person his monthly closing cash balance on the ________ day of each month.
1. First day
2. Last day
3. Any day in first week
4. None of these
Question 371:
Identify the correct Rules and BTC Form of Bihar Treasury Code :-
2. Rule 18 - BTC Form 2.
3. Both (a) and (b).
Question 372:
1.Trausport allowance can be drawn on establishment pay bill.
2.House Rent Allowance can be drawn on establishment pay bill.
3. only1 and 2 are correct
Question 373:
Which is the fifth and last tier of classification in Government accounts?

1. Detailed head
2. Minor head
3. Sub head
4. Major head
Question 374:
Forest revenues collected may be paid into the treasury by means of _________
1. Money order
2. Postal order
3. By challan
4. None of these
Question 375:
Who has the overall charge of treasuries within the district-

1. Treasury Officer
2. District Magistrate Collector
3. District Accounts Officer
4. None of these
Question 376:
Bills sent through messengers to the treasury and the bank should be endorsed by ________ in the name of the messenger
1. The Drawing Officer
2. The Head of Department

4. In HRMS/CFMS there is no need for endorsement of bill.
Question 377:
Treasury messenger register is in form numbers

1. BTC form - 09
2. BTC form - 10
3. BTC form – 11
4. Not in practice in CFMS.
Question 378:
As per BTC rule number--------- In cases in which it is not possible to support a payment by a voucher or by the payee's receipt, a certificate of payment with full particulars of the claims, is prepared in manuscript, signed by the disbursing officer and countersigned by his
superior officer, should invariably be placed on record and submitted to the Accountant General, wherever necessary.
1. 136
2. 127
3. 129
4. 128
Question 379:
Service Book of a Non-Gazetted Government Servant is maintained in prescribed form by the ………..
2. Head of the Office of current Posting
3. Disciplinary Authority
Question 380:
Refund of revenue shall, as a general rule, be taken as __________ the revenue receipts.
1. Charge against
2. reduction against
3. appropriation against
Question 381:
Bill for repayment of lapsed deposit is

1. BTC Form-54
2. BTC Form-53
3. BTC Form-60
4. BTC Form-50
Question 382:
Rate of GST-TDS deductions from the supply of Goods & Services is ---------- .
1. GST-TDS-2%.
2. 1% CGST & 1% SGST or IGST-2%
3. GST TDS- 4%
4. VAT- 2%
Question 383:
Deductions of House Rent Deductions from pay bills on account of Government accommodation is provided under BTC rule---------
1. 143
2. 147
3. 148
4. None
Question 384:
A treasury Officer is required to submit return of certificate of verification of service stamp to the Accountant General by….
2. 31st march
Question 385:
Currency chest balance is verified by the officers of

1. High Court
2. Reserve Bank of India
3. Secretariat
Question 386:
1. A Register in BTC Form 14 is maintained by Treasury Officer showing details of self drawing officer.
2. A Treasury Officer shall not entertain correspondence from a Government servant regarding any claim.
Question 387:
After implementation of CFMS from 1.4.2019 only sub-vouchers above --------need be sent to the Treasury.
1. Rs.5000
2. Rs.1000
3. Rs.3000
4. Rs.500
Question 388:
Can a govt. servant on leave accept any service or take any employment without the prior permission of the authority who appointed him. This is explained under which rule of the Bihar treasury code
1. Rule 166
2. Rule 167
3. Rule 168
4. None of these
Question 389:
The bill requiring pre-audit will be cashed

1. Without pre-audit
2. With pre-audit
3. with condition
Question 390:
As per BTC rule number--------- every voucher must bear a pay order signed or initialled by the responsible disbursing officer, specifying the amount payable both in words and figures. All pay orders must be signed in ink.
1. 180
2. 118
3. 136
4. 132
Question Bank - Bihar Financial Rules
Question 1:
Transfer of Govt. Land & Building have been explained under which rule/s of the Bihar Financial Rules
1. Rule 435
2. Rule 436 & 437
3. Rule 438-441
4. None of these
Question 2:
Under which rule of the Bihar Financial rules fund adjustments with Foreign Govt., outside bodies etc. have been explained ?
1. Rule 463
2. Rule 464
3. Rule 465
4. None of these
Question 3:
Under which rules of the Bihar financial rules general rules for revenue & receipts have been discussed ?
1. Rule 35 & 36
2. Rule 37 to 41
3. Rule 30 to 34
4. None of these
Question 4:
Under which rule of the Bihar finance Rules a govt. employee is required to furnish all necessary information/documents sought for by the audit team.
1. Rule 26
2. Rule 27
3. Rule 28
4. None of these
Question 5:
Rejection of all Bids is justified when?

1. effective competition is lacking
2. all Bids and Proposals are not substantially responsive to the requirements of the Procurement Documents
3. none of the technical Proposals meets the minimum technical qualifying scores.
4. All the above
Question 6:
Provisions related to public works has been dealt with under which ------------------ of the Bihar Financial Rules-
1. Chapter 8
2. Chapter 9
3. Chapter 10
4. None of these
Question 7:
Under which rule of the Bihar finance rules assessment, collection and check of Revenues have been discussed
1. Rule 6
2. Rule 7
3. Rule 8
4. None of these
Question 8:
As per Bihar financial Rule-25, which of the following records of Government is to be retained for 20 years?
1. Registrar of Recoveries
2. Security registers
3. Detailed Budget Estimates of an office
4. Cash book
Question 9:
In which rule of the Bihar financial rules the provision for retrospective sanction has been referred
1. Rule 72
2. Rule 73
3. Rule 74
4. None of these
Question 10:
In which rule read with rule 340-343 of Bihar financial rules grants to local bodies has been explained
1. Rule 356
2. Rule 357
3. Rule 358
4. None of these
Question 11:
Under which rule of the Bihar finance Rules advances to disbursers of the forest departments has been dealt with
1. Rule 21
2. Rule 22
3. Rule 23
4. None of these
Question 12:
What should be the basis Fundamentals of Public Procurement?

i) Fairness
ii) Equitable
iii) Efficiency
iv) Economy
v) Transparency
vi) Promotion of competition among prospective suppliers
Options are:
1. all are correct
2. Only I, ii, iii are correct
3. i to v are correct
4. I, ii, iii correct
Question 13:
In cases where the estimated cost of the work or service is above Rs. 25 lakhs should be the procedure for hiring consultants or outsourcing ?
1. by global tender
2. an enquiry seeking for seeking interest from consultants should be published in at least one national daily and the department website
3. by writing letters to institute of engineering IITs etc
4. Using facebook, twitter or social media
Question 14:
What are the things that should be taken into account before registering a supplier as Registered Supplier under State Purchase Organisation or Registered Departmental Supplier: Options are:
i) Manufacturing capacity
ii) Quality control
iii) Past performance
iv) After sales service
v) General reputation in market
Select the correct
1. (i) & (iii) correct
2. (ii) & (iv) correct
3. all correct
4. None are correct
Question 15:
Under which rule of the Bihar finance rules essentail conditions governing expenditure from public funds has been dealt with
1. Rule 6
2. Rule 7
3. Rule 8
4. None of these
Question 16:
What is the amount of advance given to private firm contractor in case of fabrication contracts, turnkey contracts etc. ? choose from the options below:
1. No advance should be given
2. Only after approval of cabinet advance should be given
3. 30%
4. 30% of the contract value if such payment is demanded by firms.
Question 17:
QCBS stands for

1. Quality Control & Budgeting System
2. Quality and Cost Based Selection
3. Quality Control Based Selection
4. Quality and Cost Based Supply
Question 18:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules the provision of security deposit by theose entrusted with the cuitody of cash or stores has been mentioned
1. Rule 23
2. Rule 24
3. Rule 25
4. None of these
Question 19:
Provisions for procurement of goods through single bid enquiry is given under Bihar Financial Rules number--------------.
1. Rule-131(C)
2. Rule 131(H)
3. 131(L)
4. 131(M)
Question 20:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rules the provisions for reserve of stock and stock have been dealt with
1. Rule 158 & 159
2. Rule 160 & 161
3. Rule 162 to 164
4. None of these
Question 21:
Special rules for public works department and within which provisions have been made for cheque to be drawn on treasuries for contingent charges have been explained under which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rules.
1. Rule 117 & 118
2. Rule 119 to 122

3. Rule 124
4. None of these
Question 22:
As per Bihar financial Rules, 30, If a contract document is preceded by a SCC (Special condition of contract) or GCC (General condition contract) with full details of scope & specification. What needs to be done further?
1. a detailed contract needs to be drafted
2. brief order is sufficient
3. single one page contract document may be drafted by attaching copies of GCC & SCC
4. None of these
Question 23:
The sole legal authority for withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund is the
1. Money bill
2. Appropriation Act
3. Demand for grants
4. Appropriation bill
Question 24:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rules Transfer of Govt. land and Building have been explained
1. Rule 435
2. Rule 436 & 437
3. Rule 438 to 441
4. None of these
Question 25:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules provision for permanent advances have been discussed
1. Rule 110
2. Rule 111
3. Rule 112
4. None of these
Question 26:
The provisions for provident fund have been explained under which rule/s of the Bihar Financial Rules-
1. Rule 348 & 349
2. Rule 350 to 351
3. Rule 356 & 357
4. None of these
Question 27:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rules charges recoverable from local bodies has been referred
1. Rule 359
2. Rule 360 & 361
3. Rule 362
4. None of these
Question 28:
As per BFR Rule 131 H, in all cases of Procurement of Goods exceeding ______ in value invitation to tenders by advertisement should be used for procurement of goods of estimated. Advertisement in such case should be given in the Indian Trade Journal (ITJ), published by
the Director General of Commercial Intelligence and Statics, Kolkata and at least in one national daily having wide circulation, & on website of Department concerned.
Options are:
1. Rs. 5 lakhs
2. Rs. 25 Lakhs
3. Rs. 1 Crore
4. Rs. 5 Crore
Question 29:
Online real-time purchasing technique utilised by the procuring entity to select the successful bid, which involves presentation by bidders of successively more favourable bids during a scheduled period of time and automatic evaluation of bids is called?
1. E-Procurement
2. GeM Procurement
3. Electronic Reverse Auction
4. Auto Bidding
Question 30:
Transfer of funds from one unit of appropriation to another such unit is known as
1. Additional grant
2. Reappropriation
3. Appropriation control
4. Supplementary grant
Question 31:
Under which appendix of Bihar financial rules rules for the check of Measurement Books (MB) have been explained
1. Appendix 7
2. Appendix 8
3. Appendix 9
4. None of these
Question 32:
As per Rule 131K of Bihar Financial Rule, in the case of advertised tender enquiry or limited tender enquiry, late bids (i.e. bids received after the specified date and time for receipt of bids)-------------------?
1. should be accepted
2. can be accepted at the discretion of the administrative ministry
3. can be considered if the amount quoted in the bid is the lowest
4. should not be considered
Question 33:
How the double claim of refund of revenue is guarded against?

1. By keeping a copy of the refund order
2. By keeping a copy of the refund order in the stock file
3. By obtaining a declaration from the party stating that the claim was not preferred earlier
4. By noting the particulars of refund against the original entry of the receipt in the departmental accounts
Question 34:
The first step to be taken by an officer who has to purchase stores for his office
1. To call for a tender
2. To prepare an annual intend
3. To get administrative sanction
4. To assess best time for purchase
Question 35:
In public works Departments office the drawing & disbursing officer is---------
1. Divisional Officer
2. Assistant Engineer posted in Division
3. Chief Engineer
4. Sub-Divisional Engineer
Question 36:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar Financial rules service Books has been referred
1. Rule 97 & 98
2. Rule 99
3. Rule 100 & 101
4. None of these
Question 37:
Which Department is authorized to issue Bihar Budget Manual?

2. Personnel and Administrative Reforms Department
4. State Audit Department
Question 38:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules payment of arrear claims to the persons not in govt. service has been dealt with
1. Rule 444
2. Rule 445
3. Rule 446
4. None of these
Question 39:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules the provision for audit of receipts has been referred
1. Rule 56 & 57
2. Rule 58
3. Rule 59 to 61
4. None of these
Question 40:
In which appendix of the Bihar financial rules procedure to be followed in dealing with the application for advances for the construction, purchase or repair of houses have been dealt with
1. Appendix 12
2. Appendix 13
3. Appendix 14
4. None of these
Question 41:
Under which rule/rules of Bihar financial rule the detailed provisions for inventory management have been discussed
1. Rule 130 & 131
2. Rule 132 to 153
3. Rule 154 & 155
4. None of these
Question 42:
Duties regarding accounts and maintenance of accounts of public money or stores is upon Government servant have been dealt under Rulr----------------of the Bihar Financial Rules-
1. Rule 20 & 22
2. Rule 26 & 27
3. Rule 24
4. None of these
Question 43:
In which appendix of Bihar financial rules transfer of lands and buildings between the Central and the State govt. has been referred
1. Appendix 14
2. Appendix 15
3. Appendix 16
4. None of these
Question 44:
Accountant General means the head of office of Audit and Accounts subordinate to the __________________________. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option given.
1. Finance Department, Government of Bihar
2. Finance Department, Government of India
3. CAG, of India
4. None of these
Question 45:
In respect of purchases above 10 laks or contract above Rs 10 lakh in value, a contract document should be drafted & executed in what manner?
1. A contract document should be executed with all necessary clauses to make it a self-contained contract
2. No work should be commenced without the contract document.
3. Both are correct
4. None of these
Question 46:
Check against irregularities, waste & fraud of appropriation or part of an appropriation is ultimate responsibility of the -------------as per Bihar Financial Rule, 12.
1. Drawing & Disbursing officer
2. Accountant
3. Controlling Officers
4. None of these
Question 47:
Provision that “All transactions in the govt. office must be recorded in the account without delay” is under rule no.__________ of Bihar Financial Rules.
1. Rule 02
2. Rule 03
3. Rule 14
4. None of these
Question 48:
In case of Procurement & Maintenance Contract, what is to be seen to enter maintenance contract for suitable period either with the supplier of the goods or with any other competent firm, not necessarily the supplier of the subject goods:
i) That these contract are done for sophisticated and costly equipment and machinery.
(ii) It should be specified that the equipment or machinery is maintained free of charge by the supplier during the warranty period such other extended periods as the contract terms may provide
(iii) paid maintenance should commence only after expiry of warranty
Options are: select correct
1. only i & are correct
2. i & iii are correct
3. all are correct
4. None of these
Question 49:
As per Rule 7 of Bihar Financial Rule, it is the duty of the controlling officers concerned to ensure that the receipts and dues of the Government are correctly and promptly assessed, collected and duly credited to the?
1. Consolidated Fund
2. Public Account
3. Either A or B as the case may be
4. None of these
Question 50:
What are the essential steps to be followed before commencement of Public works?
(i) Administrative approval
(ii) Technical approval
(iii) Estimate of manpower & labour
(iv) Estimate of quantities of work
(v) Allotment of funds
(vi) Tender enquiry
(vii) Selection of the correct bidder
(viii) DMs approval of site
which one is correct
1. (i) & (ii) correct
2. (i) to (iv) correct
3. all correct
4. (i) to (v) is correct
Question 51:
Appropriation Accounts of the State are prepared by-

3. Director, State Audit department
4. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Question 52:
The maximum amount of House Building Advance payable to Government servants

1. Fifteen lakhs
2. Twenty lakhs
3. Twenty five lakhs
4. Twelve lakhs
Question 53:
All contracts shall be by an authority empowered to do so by or under the order of ---------------------- in the form of written agreements.
1. The Chief Engineer (B & R)
2. The Secretary to Government, Public Works Department
3. The Finance Minister
4. The Governor
Question 54:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules contingencies regulated by scales has been referred
1. Rule 116
2. Rule 117
3. Rule 118
4. None of these
Question 55:
No work of any kind should be commenced without proper execution -----------------

1. Contract agreement
2. Performance Security
3. both of above
4. None is essential
Question 56:
Which of the following financial principles is not true?

1. Inevitable payments should not be postponed
2. All appropriations do not lapse at the close of the Financial year
3. Money paid should not be kept out of Govt. accounts
4. All actual liabilities should be ascertained, liquidated and payment rewarded at the earliest
Question 57:
Performance Security should remain valid for a period of __ days beyond the date of completion of all contractual obligations of the supplier including warranty obligations?
1. 15 days
2. 30 days
3. 45 days
4. 60 days
Question 58:
A grant made by the Legislative Assembly to regularise expenditure incurred on any previous financial year over and above the amounts granted for a service during that is known as
1. Excess grant
2. Supplementary grand
3. Additional grant
4. Special grant
Question 59:
In which Chapter of the Bihar Financial rules alteration in the establishment has been discussed
1. Chapter 4
2. Chapter 5
3. Chapter 6
4. None of these
Question 60:
General System of Financial Management is discussed in which chapter of Bihar Financial Rule?
1. Chapter 2
2. Chapter 3
3. Chapter 4
4. Chapter 5
Question 61:
Which among the following deposits does not belong to the civil court deposits?
1. Sale proceeds of unclaimed perishable property
2. Sums received in satisfaction of decrees
3. Fees for printing copies of judgements pending payment to the printers
4. All of the above
Question 62:
Under which Chapter of the Bihar financial rules Miscellaneous expenditure has been dealt with
1. Chapter 9
2. Chapter 10
3. Chapter 11
4. None of these
Question 63:
“No withdrawal from treasury for expenditure is made without a sanction order” is under the rule _____ of Bihar Financial Rule.
1. Rule 6
2. Rule 7
3. Rule 8
4. None of these
,
Question 64:
The Contingency Fund of the State has been created under which article of the Constitution of India?
1. Art 202
2. Art 112
3. Art 267 (2)
4. Art 205
Question 65:
Under which rule of the bihar financial rules Special rule for sanction of works expenditure is dealt with
1. Rule 76
2. Rule 77
3. Rule 78
4. None of these
Question 66:
A demand for grant before the Legislative Assembly can be made only on the recommendations of the-
1. Speaker
2. Finance Minister
3. Chief Minister
4. Governor
Question 67:
Under which rule of the Bihar finance rules Control of expenditure has been discussed
1. Rule 9
2. Rule 10 & Rule 11
3. Rule 12
4. None of these
Question 68:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rule Interest on capital has been explained
1. Rule 454
2. Rule 455 & 456
3. Rule 457 & 458
4. None of these
Question 69:
In the matters involving grant of land, assignment of revenue, lease, licence of minerals etc., no order can be issued without the previous consent of --------------------.
1. Departmental Secretary
2. Departmental Minister.
4. Chief Secretary
Question 70:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar Financial rules Powers of subordinate authorities to sanction contingent charges have been referred
1. Rule 108 & 109
2. Rule 110 & 111
3. Rule 112
4. None of these
Question 71:
In disposal of surplus or obsolete stores under Bihar Financial Rule by Advertised Tender the procedure should be_________? Choose from the options:
i) Invitation of tender with bid security for the surplus goods to be sold
ii) Opening of bids and analysis and evaluation of bids received
iii) Selection of highest responsive bidder
iv) Collection of sale value from the selected bidder & issue of sale release order to be selected bidder
v) Release of the sold surplus goods of the selected bidder
vi) Return of bid security to the unsuccessful bidders
select correct Options:
1. all are correct
2. i to v are correct
3. i to iv are correct
4. i ii, iv, v are correct
Question 72:
Responsibility of loss is as per provisions in BFR under Rule

1. Rule-33 with Appdx-2
2. Rule-35 with Chapter-4
Question 73:
In a Departmental or Government Library with books numbering less than 20000 books, complete physical verification of books should be done at least once in--------------.
1. 2 years
2. 1 years
3. 5 years
4. 3 years
Question 74:
Under which Chapter of the Bihar Financial rules debt and miscellaneous obligation of Govt. has been dealt
1. Chapter 9 and 10
2. Chapter 10 and 11
3. Chapter 11 and 12
4. None of these
Question 75:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rules special rules for the public works department regarding stores has been referred
1. Rule 150 & 151
2. Rule 152 & 153
3. Rule 154 to 156
4. None of these
Question 76:
While outsourcing a product or services through outside consultants the RFP should contain? Choose from options below
(i) A letter of Invitation.
(ii) Terms of reference (TOR)
(iii) Eligibility and pre-qualification criteria in case the same has not been ascertained through Enquiry for Expression of Interest.
(iv) List of key position whose CV and experience would be evaluated.
(v) Bid evaluation criteria and selection procedure.
(vi) Standard formats for technical and financial proposal
(vii) Proposed contract terms
Select the correct options
1. i & iv, are correct
2. Only I to v are correct
3. i to vii are correct
4. all are correct
Question 77:
Can bidders be allowed to alter or modify their bids after expiry of the deadline for receipt of bids, Options are:
1. Yes
2. No
3. Yes after approval of minister in charge
4. Only after concurrence of chief engineer
Question 78:
What among these should be included in preparing a draft for a bid document?
(i) Provision for settlement of disputes, if any, emanating from the resultant contract
(ii) Legal restrictions or conditions, that may be prevailing(like eg. Sand, procurement) about the origin of goods etc which may required to be met by the successful bidder.
(iii) The procedure as well as date, time and place for sending the bids
(iv) Date, time and place of opening of the bid
(v) Terms of delivery
(vi) The place from which goods are to be procured
(vii) Place where it is to be delivered
(viii) Special terms affecting performance, if any
(ix) The mode of transport
(x) Clear specification about goods
1. All
2. Only i to vii
3. Only i to viii
4. Only I to v, vii, viii, x
Question 79:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar Financial rules remission of disallowances by audit and writing off of over payments made to government servants have been dealt with
1. Rule 62
2. Rule 63 & 64
3. Rule 65 & 66
4. None of these
Question 80:
Under which Chapter of the Bihar financial rules Loans & advances have been discussed
1. Chapter 12
2. Chapter 13
3. Chapter 14
4. None of these
Question 81:
Under which rule of the Bihar finance Rules the provision for cash Book for Forest Department has been dealt
1. Rule 21
2. Rule 22
3. Rule 23
4. None of these
Question 82:
It is the duty of every court or authority having the power to fine are---------------------.
1. Money must be realized in full.
2. It reaches the Treasury.
3. Refund only against the deposited challan & no double refund.
4. All of the above
Question 83:
Besides Newspapers, What else form of Advertising is permissible under BFR?

1. Advertising through TV
2. Social Media like Facebook, Twitter
3. On Department website
4. None of these
Question 84:
Under which section of Chapter 16 of Bihar finance Rules the general rules for the Capital and Revenue accounts is explained.
1. Section I
2. Section II
3. Section III
4. None of these
Question 85:
Powers to sanction permanent andvance for the departmental secretary is limited to

1. Rs. 1,00,000/
2. Rs. 1,50,000/
3. Rs. 2,00,000/
4. None of these
Question 86:
Negotiation with bidders after bid opening must be?

1. Encouraged to negotiate price
2. Be severally discouraged
3. Can be done if directed by chief engineer
4. If there is some missing information in bid document to get it filled
Question 87:
Negotiation with bidders after bid opening must be severely discouraged. However, in exceptional circumstances where price negotiation against an ad-hoc procurement is necessary due to some unavoidable circumstances, the same may be resorted to only with?
1. the lowest evaluated responsive bidder
2. the highest evaluated responsive bidder
3. the bidder recommended by the tender opening committee
4. the bidder with best technical parameters
Question 88:
Under Bihar Financial Rule-41, every Head of Department responsible for the collection of revenue shall keep the_______ fully informed of the progress of collection of revenue under his control and of all important variations in such collections as compared with the Budget
Estimates.:-
1. Secretary to the concerned department
Question 89:
Provision of declaration & report of losses has been given in BFR under Rule
1. Rule-31
2. Rule-63
3. Rule-65
4. Rule-67
Question 90:
What among these is repair & maintenance work under BFR- Options are follows:
i) Renovation of a heritage building.
ii) Conversion of a palace into hotel.
iii) New hostel building after dismantling the old.
iv) Repair of the Embankment washed away by flood.
v) Fixing new windows on constructed building.
vi) Wall putty & painting of existing building.
vii) Construction of a boundary wall around an old govt. quarter.
select the correct
1. vi & vii only
2. only i to iii
3. vi, vii, viii
4. All are correct
Question 91:
Govt. Accounts has been discussed under which chapter of the Bihar Financial Rules-
1. Chapter 16
2. Chapter 17
3. Chapter 18
4. None of these
Question 92:
In which rule of the Bihar financial rules Personal responsibility of govt. servant for losses etc. has been dealt with
1. Rule 33
2. Rule 34
3. Rule 35
4. None of these
Question 93:
The provision for “retrospective sanction” has been referred in which rule of Bihar financial rules:
1. Rule 72
2. Rule 73
3. Rule 74
4. None of these
Question 94:
Creation of abolition of an existing major head or minor head of account requires the advice of-
1. The Finance Minister

3. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
4. The Finance Secretary of the State
Question 95:
Which Rule of Bihar Financial Rule contains “Delegation of Financial Powers”?

1. Rule 17
2. Rule 60
3. Rule 59
4. Rule 106
Question 96:
Expenditure incurred with the object of increasing concrete assets of a material and permanent character is-
3. Charged Expenditure
4. Voted Expenditure
Question 97:
Under which chapter of the Bihar Financial Rules, the responsibility for the preparation of the budget estimate have been discussed
1. Chapter 3
2. Chapter 4
3. Chapter 5
4. None of these
Question 98:
Under which appendix of Bihar financial rules the regulation for the conduct of audit of receipts and of stores and store accounts is explained
1. Appendix 1
2. Appendix 2
3. Appendix 3
4. None of these
Question 99:
The head of account to which money shall be deposited and the withdrawal of money therefrom shall be governed by the provisions of-------------
1. Account code -1 & 2
2. Bihar treasury code
3. Other orders issued in this regard
4. All of the above
Question 100:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules destruction of records have been explained
1. Rule 445 read with annexule B of chapter 2
2. Rule 446
3. Rule 447
4. None of these
Question 101:
Grants of land assignments of revenue and other concessions have been referred & discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rules
1. Rule 58
2. Rule 59 to 61
3. Rule 62
4. None of these
Question 102:
Which section of Under Chapter 6 of Bihar Financial Rules, the date of birth and leave applications have been referred
1. Section III & IV
2. Section IV & V
3. Section V & VI
4. None of these
Question 103:
What does technical bid in a Tender enquiry consists of:?

1. Technology used in production.
2. Know how of production process.
3. Where it was manufactured and there ISI Mark
4. It consisted of all technical details along with commercial terms and conditions
Question 104:
The system of tenders to be adopted when the estimated value of the contract is Rs. 5,00,000 or more-
1. Single tender
2. Limited tender
3. Advertised tender
4. By quotation
Question 105:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules Audit of stores and stock accounts has been referred ?
1. Rule 196
2. Rule 197
3. Rule 198
4. None of these
Question 106:
The duties and responsibilities of a controlling officer in respect of funds placed at his disposal are to ensure except:
1. that the expenditure does not exceed the budget allocation.
2. that the expenditure is incurred for the purpose for which funds have been provided.
3. that the expenditure is not incurred in public interest.
4. that adequate control mechanism is functioning in his Department for prevention, detection of errors and irregularities in the financial proceedings of his subordinate offices and to guard against waste and loss of public money
Question 107:
Procedure for execution of work has been explained under which rule/s of the Bihar Financial Rules-
1. Rule 208
2. Rule 209
3. Rule 210
4. None of these
Question 108:
Under which appendix of Bihar financial rules instructions for regulating the enforcement of responsibility of losses etc. is explained
1. Appendix 1
2. Appendix 2
3. Appendix 3
4. None of these
Question 109:
Choose incorrect-
i) Enlistment of Indian Agents is mentioned in rule 131 of Bihar Financial Rule
ii) Rule 131F of BFR states that “demand for goods should not be divided into small quantities to make piecemeal purchases to avoid the necessity of obtaining the sanction of higher authority required with reference to the estimated value of the total demand.
1. i
2. ii
3. both
4. none
Question 110:
Which stock can be considered a surplus stock?

1. Stock that has remained in stores for more than 2 years
2. A material remaining in stock for over a year shall generally be considered surplus
Question 111:
Identify the original work under Bihar Financial Rules

Options are follows:
i) White washing of existing building.
ii) Construction of a boundary wall around an old office.
iii) New hostel building after dismantling the old.
iv) Repair & maintenance of the existing Road .
v) Fixing new windows on constructed building.
vi) Conversion of a palace into hotel.
select the correct
1. iii, v & vi only
2. only i to ii
3. ii, iii, iv, & vi,
4. All are correct
Question 112:
Under which rule of the Bihar Financial rules Advances for Journeys on Tour has been explained
1. Rule 428
2. Rule 429
3. Rule 430
4. None of these
Question 113:
Registered suppliers are ordinarily exempted from furnishing –

1. Bid Security
2. Performance Security
3. Post Performance Guarantee
4. All of the above
Question 114:
What is a buy back offer in BFR? Is it?

1. an agreement to replace an existing old item(s) with a new and better version, the department may trade off the existing old item while purchasing the new one.
2. It is an agreement to buy any excess than the contractual quantity of materials delivered at go-down.
3. Its an agreement by contractor to buy the surplus materials remaining after the contract is accomplished.
4. None of these
Question 115:
RFP is the document to be used by the Ministry/ Department for obtaining offers from the consultants for the required service. Expand RFP?
1. Registered Firm Policy
2. Request for Proposal
3. Register for Proposal

Question 116:
Utilisation certificate relating to grant-in-aid should be forwarded to-

2. State Auditing Department
4. Chief Secretary to Government
Question 117:
Proprietary Article Certificate is applicable in-

1. Limited Tender Enquiry
2. Advertised Tender Enquiry
3. Single Tender Enquiry
4. Two Bid Enquiry Tender
Question 118:
As per Bihar Financial rules, Departments should follow any one of the methods of procurement by standard method of obtaining bids
1. Advertised Tender Enquiry
2. Limited Tender Enquiry
3. Single Tender Enquiry
4. All of the above
Question 119:
In what circumstances purchases above Rs. 25 lakhs in value can be procured with limited tender enquiry?
1. With approval of Cabinet.
2. by approval of Finance Department.
3. by a certificate of competent authority that the demand is urgent and any additional expenditure involved by not procuring through advertised tender enquiry is justified in view of urgency.
4. in no circumstance
Question 120:
Provision of price variation clause is made in Rule ________ of Bihar Financial Rules ?
1. Rule 30
2. Rule 29
3. Rule 30A
4. Rule 131R
Question 121:
Capital Expenditure is usually met from-

1. Borrowed funds
2. Revenue receipts
3. Small savings
4. Deposits bearing interests
Question 122:
The rates of charges of advertisement of Government should be approved by the-

1. Information and Public Relations Department
2. Director of Printing
3. Information Technology Department
4. MD, Books and Publications Society
Question 123:
What is a Cost plus contract? Options are

1. It is a contract in which price of supplies or service is determined on the basis of actual cost of production plus profit at a fixed rate per unit or a fixed % of actual cost of production
2. Further increase in prices of materials are added to total contract amount
3. Cost of material transport & loading unloading at site
4. Cost of Increase in Taxes Duties are added to contract value
Question 124:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules general principles for Revenue receipts of the Public Works Department has been dealt
1. Rule 40
2. Rule 41
3. Rule 42
4. None of these
Question 125:
Provision of Pre bid conference for clarification of any doubts regarding contract documents is in Rule number------ of Bihar Financial Rules
1. Rule-30
2. Rule-131M
3. Rule 131R.
Question 126:
In case of advance payment to suppliers, in case of maintenance contract, the amount should not exceed the amount payable for ____ months under the contract?
1. two months
2. three months
3. six months
4. 12 months
Question 127:
Under which chapter of the Bihar financial rules Contingencies have been discussed
1. Chapter 7
2. Chapter 8
3. Chapter 9
4. None of these
Question 128:
Which among these is the correct procedure for furnishing & opening of technical & financial bids?
(i) The technical bid and the financial bid should be sealed by the bidder in separate covers duly superscribed
(ii) Both these sealed covers are to be put in a bigger cover which should also be sealed and duly superscribed
(iii) The technical bids are to be opened by the Purchasing committee or departmental officer at the first instance
(iv) The bids are evaluated by a competent committee and authority
(v) At second stage of financial bids of only the technically acceptable offers should be opened for further evaluation and ranking before awarding the contract
Options are:
1. all are correct
2. none is correct
3. only i to iv is correct
4. I to iii is correct
Question 129:
What are the condition in which bid from only one source may be considered? Choose correct from options below:
(i) It is in the knowledge of the user department that only a particular firm is the manufacturer of the required goods
(ii) In case of emergency, the required goods are necessarily to be purchased from a particular source and the reason for such decision is to be recorded and approval of competent authority obtained
(iii) For standardization of machinery or spare parts to be compatible to the existing sets of equipment (on the advice of a competent technical expert and approved by the competent authority), the required item is to be purchased only from a selected firm
1. all are correct
2. none are correct
3. only i to ii are correct
4. only ii & iii, are correct
Question 130:
As per definition of goods under Bihar Financial rule-125, ------------------------------------------- are excluded from goods.
1. Books, periodicals, publications etc. for a library
2. Live stocks
3. Raw materials
4. All of the above
Question 131:
The powers to sanction permanent advance by a subdivisional officer is limited to.

1. Rs. 10,000/-
2. Rs. 20,000/-
3. Rs. 100,000/-
4. None of these
Question 132:
Limitation for signing of Contract document by the contractor within 21days is provided in rule no.--------of Bihar Financial Rules.
1. Rule-131(P)
2. Rule 131(O)
3. Rule 30(iv)
4. Rule 30(vi)
Question 133:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rules Purchases and sale of govt. buildings is discussed
1. Rule 323 & 324
2. Rule 325
3. Rule 326 & 327
4. None of these
Question 134:
Under which rules of the Bihar financial rules Rents of govt. Buildings lands etc. have been dealt
1. Rules 43 & 44
2. Rule 45
3. Rule 42
4. None of these
Question 135:
Procurement of goods from a single source may be resorted enquiry to the following circumstances:-
1. Proprietary Article Certificate in the prescribed form is to be provided by the Department before procuring the goods from a single source.
2. Certificate of Non availability of goods from any source.
3. Certificate from chamber of commerce that the company has monopoly business over the product.
4. A certificate that in spite of all efforts another supplier could not be found.
Question 136:
In procurement of goods through Limited Tender Enquiry,

The number of supplier firms should be-------------.
1. More than 3
2. Not less than 3
3. 2
4. 5
,
Question 137:
Under which appendix of the Bihar financial rules Rules for the administration of the furniture fund of the residence of the governor of Bihar have been explained
1. Appendix 9
2. Appendix 10
3. Appendix 11
4. None of these
Question 138:
A motion moved in the Assembly to reduce the amount of a demand is

1. Reduction
2. Deduction
3. Cut motion
4. Slashing
Question 139:
What is the amount of Performance Security that should be asked to be deposited by successful bidder in procurement of goods?
1. Rs. 25000
2. 5% to 10% of the value of the contract
3. 25% of contract value
4. 20% of contract value
Question 140:
Under which chapter of the Bihar financial rules Procurement of goods and services has been referred & discussed
1. Chapter 6
2. Chapter 7
3. Chapter 8
4. None of these
Question 141:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rules the provisions for provident fund have been explained
1. Rule 348 & 349
2. Rule 350 to 351
3. Rule 356 & 357
4. None of these
Question 142:
The power to re-appropriate within a grant is exclusively that of the-

3. Chief Controlling officer
4. Administrative department concerned
Question 143:
“Delay in payment of money indisputable due by Government is contrary to all rules & budgetary principles and should be avoidable” has been given in BFR under Rule
1. Rule-96
2. Rule-13
3. Rule-06
4. Rule-10
Question 144:
No subordinate authority shall empower to sanction without previous consent of ---------------the any expenditure which involves the introduction of a new principle of practice likely to lead to increased expenditure in future –
1. Head of Office
3. Administrative Department
Question 145:
Earnest money or Bid security is not payable if purchase is made from which of these? Options are-
i) Central Purchase organization
ii) State Purchase organization
iii) National Small Industries Corporation
iv) The suppliers registered with concerned department
v) Registered suppliers under GST
vi) PAN holder & Income Tax payee suppliers
Select correct option/s-
1. all are correct
2. Only i to ii are correct
3. i to iii & vi are correct
4. I to iv are correct
Question 146:
All moneys received by or on behalf of the Government shall be brought into Government Account in accordance with such general or special rules as may be issued under Articles-
1. 149 and 283 of the Constitution
2. 150 and 283 (1) of the Constitution
3. 151 and 284 (1) of the Constitution
4. 151 and 283 of the Constitution
Question 147:
Under which rule of the Bihar Financial Rules Annual returns of non gazetted establishment have been referred
1. Rule 98
2. Rule 99
3. Rule 100
4. None of these
Question 148:
The amount of budget estimate in respect of each detailed head of account should be rounded to the-
1. Nearest thousand
2. Nearest hundred
3. Nearest ten
4. No rounding is necessary
Question 149:
Which among the following is/are correct as contained in Chapter 3 of Bihar Financial Rule?
1. Amounts due to Government shall not be left outstanding without sufficient reasons
2. Where such amounts appear to be irrecoverable, the orders of the competent authority shall be obtained for their adjustment
3. Unless specially authorized by any rule or order made by competent authority, no sums shall be credited as revenue by debit to a suspense head.
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Question 150:
In which rules of the Bihar Financial rules Transfer of charge of office has been referred and discussed
1. Rule 85
2. Rule 86 & 87
3. Rule 88
4. None of these
Question 151:
What is the periodicity of inspection of consumable stores?

1. Once in one year
3. Once in three months
4. Once in two months
Question 152:
Provisions regarding obtaining Bid Security from the bidders is in the rule number------------- of Bihar financial Rules .
1. Rule 131(P)
2. Rule 131(O)
3. Rule 131(R)
4. Rule 30
Question 153:
Procurement of goods through Limited Tender Enquiry may be adopted when the estimated value of goods to be purchased in up to--------------.
1. Rs. 25 Lakh
2. Rs.10 lakh
3. Rs. 20 lakhs
Question 154:
Abandonment of revenue arising from taxation laws, services rendered etc. without exhausting all avenues of recovery is
1. Waiver of receipts
2. Remission of Revenue
3. Write off
4. Liquidation of Liabilities
Question 155:
Standards of financial propriety have been referred to in the GFR under Rule
1. 8
2. 20
3. 9
4. 22
Question 156:
Basic requirements to be followed before works shall be commenced or liability incurred. Options are as follows:
(i) administrative approval from the appropriate authority
(ii) Financial approval from the competent authority
(iii) A properly detailed design has been sanctioned
(iv) Estimates & quantities of various items have been prepared on the basis of the Schedule of rates
(v) Allotment to meet the cost during the year have been sanctioned
(vi) tenders invited and processed in accordance with rules
(vii) Work order issued
select correct
1. only (i), (ii), & (iv) are correct
2. only (i) (iii) & (iv) correct
3. (v), (vi) & (vii) are correct
4. all are correct
Question 157:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules Powers to sanction works has been dealt with
1. 101
2. 201
3. 301
4. None of these
Question 158:
In case of Advertised Tenders of Rs. 25lakh and above. Advertisement in such case should be given in?
1. The Indian Trade Journal (ITJ) published by the Director General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics, kolkata and at least in one National Daily having world wide circulation.
2. At least 2 Dailies of Nationwide circulation
3. Advertise in all National dailies
4. In one Indian & International newspaper
Question 159:
Audit of stores and stock accounts has been referred under which rule of the Bihar Financial Rules-
1. Rule 196
2. Rule 197
3. Rule 198
4. None of these
Question 160:
What BFR 2005 expressly tells while inviting bids for purchases _____. Which is correct?
1. A demand for goods should not be divided into small quantities to make piece meal purchases to avoid the necessity of obtaining the sanction of higher authority required with reference to the estimated value of the total demand.
2. A demand should be broken into small pieces so as to enable small traders SSI units to Take part in Bid
3. It should be broken into piecemeal only if the bid is for supply of scarce item
4. It should be broken into piecemeal for timely supply of items
Question 161:
In which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rules Duties of the Govt. employees regarding accounts & maintenance of accounts have been referred
1. Rule 25
2. Rule 26 & 27
3. Rule 28
4. None of these
Question 162:
Assessment, collection, remission and check of revenues have been laid down in the departmental rules of Bihar Financial Rules-
1. Rule 37
2. Rule 7
3. Rule 38
4. Rule 6
Question 163:
MNREGA is a scheme under

1. State scheme head
2. Establishment committee head
3. Centrally sponsored scheme
4. None of these
Question 164:
Directions for the preparation of the annual establishment return is dealt with which appendix of the Bihar Financial Rules-
1. Appendix 4
2. Appendix 5
3. Appendix 6
4. None of these
Question 165:
Whose responsibility is it to execute normally all original electrical works connected with Government buildings?
1. Head of Department occupying the building
2. Licensed Electrical Contractors
3. Energy Department
4. Electrical wing of the Buildings construction Department
Question 166:
Under which article of the Constitution of India, Budget is presented in the State Assembly-
1. Art 204
2. Art 202
3. Art 243 C
4. Art 112
Question 167:
Under which appendix of Bihar Financial Rules, the regulation for the conduct of audit of receipts and store accounts is explained?
1. Appendix 1
2. Appendix 2
3. Appendix 3
4. None of these
Question 168:
The expenditure which is not contemplated in the budget (Annual Financial Statement) for which a supplementary budget of expenditure should be presented to the legislature is called-
1. Demand for grants
2. Excess grant
3. New service
4. Appropriation
Question 169:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules Loans to local bodies has been referred
1. Rule 358 and 360
2. Rule 359 and 370
3. Rule 360 and 375
4. None of these
Question 170:
Review of projects has been referred under which rule of the Bihar Financial Rules
1. Rule 209
2. Rule 210
3. Rule 211
4. None of these
Question 171:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules Procedure for execution of work has been explained
1. Rule 208 and 209
2. Rule 209 and 211
3. Rule 210 and 213
4. None of these
Question 172:
Write off of losses etc has been mentioned & in which rule of chapter 2 of the Bihar Financial Rules-
1. Rule 33
2. Rule 34
3. Rule 35
4. None of these
Question 173:
Under which demand comes 2014-Administration of Justice-

1. Demand No 27
2. Demand No 28
3. Demand No 33
4. Demand No 05
Question 174:
In the amended Bihar Financial Rule 2005, the word receipt of stores was substituted by what?
1. Stores Inventory
2. Stores Management
3. Inventory Management
4. Material Management
Question 175:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules Review of projects has been referred
1. Rule 209
2. Rule 210
3. Rule 211
4. None of these
Question 176:
For purchase of goods valuing more than 15000/ and less than 1lakh a departmental purchase committee will grant approval of purchase. What certificate they have to sign jointly after finalizing the supplier?
1. Certified that goods are of top quality
2. Certified that the Purchase order was awarded to lowest bidder
3. Certified that goods purchased are from reliable suppliers
4. Certified that we_________ members of the Purchase Commitare jointly and individually satisfied that the goods recommended for purchase of requisite specification & quality at prevailing market rate, supplier recommended is reliable & competent to supply goods in
question.
Question 177:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar Financial rules Drawing of money from treasury have been discussed
1. Rule 12
2. Rule 14 to 19
3. Rule 18
4. None of these
Question 178:
Under which Chapter of the Bihar financial rule Local funds have been explained
1. Chapter 12
2. Chapter 13
3. Chapter 14
4. None of these
,
Question 179:
Under which chapter of Bihar financial rules Revenue and receipts have been discussed
1. Chapter 2
2. Chapter 3
3. Chapter 4
4. None of these
Question 180:
Write off of losses etc. has been mentioned in which rule of chapter - 2 of the Bihar financial rules.
1. Rule 33
2. Rule 34
3. Rule 35
4. None of these
Question 181:
Under which Chapter of the Bihar Financial Rules the responsibility for the preparation of the Budget estimate has been discussed.
1. Chapter 3
2. Chapter 4
3. Chapter 5
4. None of these
Question 182:
What the term L1, L2 mean in terms of bidding?

1. L1 L2 means the least eligible
2. Means the Tenderer quoting lowest and second lowest price
3. Long term contract 1, long term contract 2
4. None of these
Question 183:
Under which Chapter of the Bihar Financial Rules Security deposits has been explained
1. Chapter 13
2. Chapter 14
3. Chapter 15
4. None of these
Question 184:
Purchase of goods without inviting quotations or bids on the basis of a certificate to be recorded by the competent authority up-to the certain has been given in BFR under Rule
1. 131E
2. 131C
3. 131G
4. 131J
Question 185:
Under which Annexure/Appendix of Bihar financial rules Special powers, restrictions etc. regarding individual items of contingent expenditure have been discussed in detail
1. Annexure A to Appendixt 4
2. Annexure B to Appendix 3
3. Annexure A of Appendix 5
4. None of these
Question 186:
In a Departmental or Government Library with less than 20,000 books complete physical verification of books should be done at the interval of:?
1. 2 years
2. 1 years
3. 5 years
4. 3 years
Question 187:
GeM stands for

1. Government Money
2. Government e-marketing
3. Government e-market Place
4. Goods e-market place
Question 188:
All moneys received by or on behalf of the Government either as dues of Government or for deposit, remittance or otherwise, shall be brought into Government Account
1. on the same day
2. within 24 hours
3. as soon as possible
4. without delay
Question 189:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rule Adjustment of pensionsary charges of certain commercial departments have been explained
1. Rule 463
2. Rule 464
3. Rule 465 & 466
4. None of these
,
Question 190:
Under Bihar Financial Rules, 30(iv)(a) a Department issuing purchase order containing basic terms & conditions up to the value of Rs.-------after following the due processes.
1. 50 thousand
2. 1 Lakhs
3. 2 Lakh
4. 5 Lakh
Question 191:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rule Inter departmental adjustment of funds and transaction have been explained
1. Rule 463
2. Rule 464
3. Rule 465
4. None of these
Question 192:
The provision for audit of receipts has been referred under which rule of Bihar Financial Rules?
1. Rule 56 & 57
2. Rule 37
3. Rule 59 & 61
4. Rule 58
Question 193:
Earnest Money deposit required in respect of supply of articles from Public Sector undertaking Industries is-
1. No Earnest Money is required
2. 5% of the cost of the articles
Question 194:
Provisions related to Government Accounts have been dealt under chapter------------------- of the Bihar Financial Rules-
1. Chapter 16
2. Chapter 15
3. Chapter 5
4. None of these
Question 195:
Under which rule/rules of the bihar financial rules. Communication of financial sanction has been referred
1. Rule 67 to 70
2. Rule 71 to 72
3. Rule 73 to 75
4. None of these
Question 196:
Detailed rules and procedure regarding assessment, collection, remission etc, of revenue are prescribed by the------
2. Concerned Administrative Deprtment
3. by both
4. None of these
Question 197:
Under which rules of the Bihar finance Rules. Financial control over departmental accounts of forest for conservancy & works have been referred
1. Rule 21
2. Rule 22
3. Rule 23
4. None of these
Question 198:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar Financial Rules Recoveries of Rents on Buildings & lands have been referred
1. Rule 43 & 44
2. Rule 45
3. Rule 46 to 51
4. None of these
Question 199:
All contracts for supply of goods or services should contain a clause of.?
1. Periodic Maintenance
2. Material replacement in case of theft from godown
3. Warranty repair replacement of defective goods
4. None of these
Question 200:
Who among the following is responsible to watch the realization of miscellaneous demands of Government, not falling under the ordinary revenue administration, such as contributions from central Governments, other State Governments, Local Funds, contractors and
others towards establishment charges?
2. Head of the Department
Question 201:
“A demand for goods should not be divided into small quantities to make piece meal purchases to avoid the necessity of obtaining the sanction of higher authority required with reference to the estimated value of the total demand” is provided in Rule no.---------of Bihar
Financial Rules, 2005
1. Rule-124
2. Rule 131(B)
3. 131(F)
4. 131(M)
Question 202:
Of the following items of expenditure, which is not chargeable on the Consolidated Fund of the State?
1. The expenses of the State Public Service Commission including salaries and allowances, and pension to the staff of the Commission
2. The salaries and allowances payable to the Director to the Agriculture
3. Debt charges for which the State is liable including interest
4. Any sum required to satisfy any judgment, decree or award of any Court
Question 203:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rule Adjustment of financial transaction with the govt. of India and other state govt. have been explained
1. Rule 457 & 458
2. Rule 459 to 462
3. Rule 463
4. None of these
Question 204:
The Bid Security Money should normally be in the range of _______?

1. between 5% to 10% of estimated value of goods to be procured
2. between 2% to 5% of the estimated value of the goods to be procured
3. should be determined accordingly by the department and indicated in the bidding documents
4. may be decided by the executive engineer
Question 205:
No price variation clause is operative beyond the original schedules date of delivery for the defaults on the part of ________ ?
1. On the part of Department
2. Defaults on the part of supplier
3. For default on the part of both Department & Contractor
4. Always operative
Question 206:
What criteria should be taken into account while drafting the eligibility and qualifications criteria before publishing a contract? Choose from the options:
i) Recommendation of departmental minister or secretary
ii) his social status
iii) minimum level of experience
iv) past performance
v) manufacturing facilities
Options are:
1. all are correct
2. i to iv correct
3. ii & v correct
4. iii to v correct
Question 207:
Upon which pay committee’s recommendation the recommendation the order revising unutilized leave encashment on retirement was raised from 180 days to 240 days
1. 3rd pay revision committee
2. 4th pay revision committee
3. 5th pay revision committee
4. None of these
Question 208:
What is a Pre bid conference? Choose from the options below:

1. It is a meeting of all contractors before a tender.
2. It is a meeting of selected contractors after finalization of tender
3. It is a meeting to deposit BOQ.
4. A meeting of bidders including OEM in case turnkey contracts or contracts of special nature for procurement of sophisticated and costly equipment, for clarifying issues and doubts, if any.
Question 209:
An expenditure which is not subject to the vote of the Legislative Assembly is

1. Charged Expenditure
2. Voted Expenditure
3. Excess grant
4. Vote of credit
Question 210:
In cases of original works above Rs. 10 crores, Review committee has the power to approve ______ % variation from the approved estimates? What percentage?
1. 5%
2. 2%
3. 10%
4. As they deem fit
,
Question 211:
Appropriation Accounts of the State Government is scrutinised by the Legislative Committee of-
1. Public Accounts
2. Estimates
3. Public Undertakings
4. Subject Committee
Question 212:
Two bid system are obtained in 2 parts. What are they called?
1. Scientific & Financial Bid
2. Technological & Financial Bid
3. Technical & Financial Bid
4. Monetary & Scientific Bid
Question 213:
Purchase of goods on each occasion may be made on the recommendations of a duly constituted Local Purchase Committee has been referred to in BFR under Rule
1. 131D
2. 131C
3. 131G
4. 131J
Question 214:
Pick the correct one

1. Up to Rs.25,000/through any of the available suppliers on the G eM, meeting the requisite quality, specification and delivery period.
2. Above Rs.25,000/- and up to Rs.5,00,000/- through the GeM Seller having lowest
price amongst the available sellers, of at least three different manu facturers, on GeM, meeting the requisite quality, specification and delivery period.
3. Above Rs.5,00,000/ through the supplier having lowest price meeting the requisite quality, specification and delivery period after mandatorily obtaining bids, using online bidding or reverse auction tool provided on GeM.
4. All of the above are correct
Question 215:
Under which rule of the Bihar Financial Rules, the provisions have been made against internal check for the controlling officer.
1. Rule 12
2. Rule 10
3. Rule 11
4. None of these
Question 216:
Demands for Grants is for the-

1. Net expenditure
2. Gross expenditure without taking into account the recoveries/deductions
3. Expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund
4. Revenue Receipts
Question 217:
Proforma accounts under Bihar Financial Rule-467 are to be adopted in----.

1. Service departments
2. Welfare departments
3. Commercial undertakings
4. Registration department
Question 218:
Provision of buy back offer in Bihar Financial Rules is in Rule number---------------.

1. Rule-131N
2. Rule-131S
3. Rule-131T
Question 219:
Under which chapter of Bihar financial rules Govt. Accounts has been discussed
1. Chapter 16
2. Chapter 17
3. Chapter 18
4. None of these
Question 220:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rules Remissions of and abandonment of claims of Revenue have been referred
1. Rule 56 & 57
2. Rule 58
3. Rule 59 to 61
4. None of these
Question 221:
The public accounts is meant to record transactions relating to-

1. Capital account
2. Grant in aid and contributions
3. Pension and miscellaneous general service
4. Small savings, Provident Fund, deposit and advances etc.

,
Question 222:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules Vouchers for departmental payment has been dealt
1. Rule 18
2. Rule 19
3. Rule 20
4. None of these
Question 223:
What is a Turnkey contract? Is it___________?

1. a contract with a special clause of designing, construction & handing over the project to the department for further operation
2. a contract for construction and maintenance clause for 5 years
3. construction & operation contract
4. Construct and agree to remove all defects in operation for 10years
Question 224:
Who is the competent authority to sanction destruction of records in their own and subordinate offices as may be considered useless.
2. Head of Office
3. Heads of Departments
4. None
Question 225:
Earnest money deposits made by intending tenderers are credited to-

1. Personal deposit
2. Revenue deposit
3. Civil Court deposit
4. Security deposit
Question 226:
Procurement of goods and services has been referred & discussed under which chapter of the Bihar Financial Rules-
1. Chapter 6
2. Chapter 7
3. Chapter 8
4. None of these
Question 227:
Under which rule of the Bihar Financial Rules withdrawal of Moneys from the public account has been discussed.
1. Rule 4
2. Rule 5
3. Rule 6
4. None of these
Question 228:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules Residences for govt. servants has been referred
1. Rule 329
2. Rule 330
3. Rule 331
4. None of these
Question 229:
Insurance of Govt. property has been referred under which rule of the Bihar financial rules
1. Rule 441
2. Rule 442
3. Rule 443
4. None of these
Question 230:
Contract document not being executed by the contractor within 21days of issue of letter of acceptance constitute the ground for ------------------- & ---------------------------.
1. Black listing of contractor
2. Annulment of award of contract & forfeiture of security deposit
3. Forfeiture of SD & cancellation of contract
4. Filing of FIR against contractor and forfeiture of security deposit
Question 231:
As per Bihar Financial Rules all financial sanctions must be Communicated to the------------------------- -
3. Drawing & Disbursing officers
4. None of these
Question 232:
Price variation clause can be provided only in long - term contracts, where the delivery period -----------------.
1. extends beyond 12 months

4. In all cases
Question 233:
In respect of Works Contract exceeding Rs. 1 lakhs & below Rs. 10 lakhs in value, the letter of acceptance result in a binding contract, if, where tender document contains:-
1. General conditions of contract
2. Special Conditions of contract,
3. Scope of Work
4. All of the above
Question 234:
In response to a tender if two or more well-konwn firms offer an article at the same rate and similar conditions the contract may be
1. Contract may be awarded to the firm which has supplied the article earlier
2. Fresh tenders may be invited with wide publicity
3. One of the firms may selected by tossing a coin
4. Contract may be divided equally among the tenderers
Question 235:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules Contract contingencies have been referred
1. Rule 117
2. Rule 118
3. Rule 119
4. None of these
Question 236:
While engaging services of consultants or outsourcing of services there should be the broad points of Terms of reference? Choose from the following:
1. precise statement of objectives & tasks to be carried out
2. schedule for completion of tasks
3. the final outputs that will be required of the consultant
4. All of the above
Question 237:
Transfer of charge of a gazetted Govt. servant has been referred and discussed in which rule/s of the Bihar Financial Rules------.
1. Rule 85
2. Rule 86 to 87
3. Rule 88
4. None of these
Question 238:
Under which rule of Bihar Finance Rule, every departmental and controlling officer is required to furnish all necessary information/ documents sought for by the audit team.
1. Rule 26
2. Rule 27
3. Rule 28
4. None of these
Question 239:
In case of advance payment to suppliers, it should not exceed _ per cent of the contract value to a State or Central Government agency or a Public Sector Undertaking?
1. 30%
2. 50%
3. 60%
4. 40%
Question 240:
Which among the following is/are correct with regard to opening of bids under Two bid system?
i. The technical bids are to be opened by the purchasing entity at the first instance and evaluated by a competent committee or authority.
ii. At the second stage financial bids of only these technically acceptable offers should be opened after intimating them the date and time of opening the financial bid for further evaluation and ranking before awarding the contract.
1. Only i is correct
2. Only ii is correct
3. Both i and ii are correct
Question 241:
Registered suppliers are approved for --------------under Bihar Financial Rule 131.
1. A fixed period of one year
2. A fixed period of three years
3. A fixed period between one to three years depending on nature of goods
4. All times to come.
Question 242:
Who is authorized to place orders for supply after due procedure?

3. The officer who is authorized by Government to sanction contingency bills
4. Purchase officer
Question 243:
The primary function of the Public Accounts Committee is to scrutinise?

1. Audit Report of the C & AG
2. Budget Estimate
3. Inspection Reports
4. Functioning of Public undertakings
Question 244:
What is/are the correct statement about physical verification of fixed assets:-
1. Inventory for fixed assets shall generally be maintained at Site;
2. Fixed assets should be verified at least once in a year;
3. Verification report must be recorded in the concerned asset register;
4. All are correct.
Question 245:
Purchases and sale of govt. buildings is discussed under which rule/s of the Bihar Financial Rules-
1. Rule 323 & 324
2. Rule 325
3. Rule 326 & 327
4. None of these
Question 246:
Under which chapter of the Bihar finance rules Powers of financial sanction has been dealt
1. Chapter 4
2. Chapter 5
3. Chapter 6
4. None of these
Question 247:
In a rate contract which of the following is not mentioned?

1. Quantity
2. Contract period
3. Price of article
4. Quality of item
Question 248:
Powers to sanction permanent advance by the District Magistrate is upto

1. Rs. 50,000/
2. Rs. 1,00,000/
3. Rs. 1,50,000/
4. None of these
Question 249:
All the appropriation lapse at the close of the-

1. Calendar year
2. Month of February
3. Month of June
4. Financial year
Question 250:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rules Irrecoverable loans and advances has been explained
1. Rule 378 & 379
2. Rule 380
3. Rule 381 & 382
4. None of these
Question 251:
Under which appendix of the Bihar financial rules directions for the preparation of the Annual Establishment Returns is dealt with
1. Appendix 4
2. Appendix 5
3. Appendix 6
4. None of these
Question 252:
Condemned stores which are quite worthless & not able to sale even at its scrap value, should be-
1. Kept for two years
2. Produced before the Inspection Party/AG
3. Sold after taking orders from Head of Office
4. Destroyed in an eco-friendly manner.
Question 253:
The 5th and last tier of classification of Government Accounts is?

1. Detailed head
2. Sub head
3. Minor head
4. Major head
Question 254:
Provisions for advance payment given to supplier have been made in rule number----------Bihar Financial Rules.
1. 131(O)
2. 131(Q)
3. No provision of advance is made.
4. None is correct
Question 255:
In which budget document the statement showing the assets and liabilities of Government is included?
1. Annual Financial Statement
2. Detailed Budget Estimates of Revenue
3. Explanatory Memorandum on the Budget
4. Demand for grants and detailed Budget Estimates
Question 256:
Ordinarily what should be the minimum time to be allowed for submission of bids from local suppliers? Choose from the options:
1. Three weeks from the date of publication of the tender notice or availability of the bidding document for sale, whichever is later.
2. Four weeks from the date of publication of the tender notice
3. 30 days from the availability of the bidding document for sale
4. None of these
Question 257:
Which marks the conclusion of the second stage of the budgetary cycle?
1. Execution of Budget
2. Preparation of Budget
3. Review of Budget
4. Passing of Budget
Question 258:
What is performance security? Is it_____ ?

1. security for carrying out exemplary work within stipulated time
2. to ensure due performance of terms of contract
3. It is a precautionary security for unregistered contractors who are doing work for first time
Question 259:
Maintenance Contract is detailed in which Rule of Bihar Financial Rule?

1. Rule 132
2. Rule 131N
3. Rule 131Q
4. None
Question 260:
In a Two bid system, which bids are to be opened by the purchasing entity at the first instance and evaluated by a competent committee or authority?
1. Financial bids
2. Technical bids
3. Either A or B
4. None of these
Question 261:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules Responsibility of departmental officers for maintenance of govt. accounts have been dealt with
1. Rule 451
2. Rule 452
3. Rule 453
4. None of these
Question 262:
The rules regarding the destruction of accounts record apertaining to the accounts audited by the Indian audit department are contained in which annexure of the chapter- 2 of Bihar finance Rules.
1. Annexure A
2. Annexure B
3. Annexure C
4. None of these
Question 263:
Provisions related to disposal of surplus or obsolete stores under Bihar Financial Rule 144 prescribed the procedure should be_________? Choose from the options:
1. Disposal through Limited Bid
2. Disposal through Advertised Tender
3. Disposal through Auction
4. Disposal through any way
Question 264:
General rules for destruction of records have been explained under which rule of the Bihar Financial Rules-
1. Rule 445 read with Annexure B of chapter 2
2. Rule 25 read with Annexure B
3. Rule 447
4. None of these
Question 265:
Purchase of goods costing above Rs. 25,000 and upto Rs_____ on each occasion may be made on the recommendations of a duly constituted Local Purchase Committee consisting of three members of an appropriate level.
1. Rs.5 Lakhs
2. Rs.2 Lakhs
3. Rs.1 Lakh
4. Rs.2.5 Lakhs
Question 266:
Upto what amount of goods can be purchased by a department without inviting quotation?
1. upto Rs. 25000
2. upto Rs. 50000
3. 15000
4. upto Rs. 5000
Question 267:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rules Audit of accounts of local bodies have been referred
1. Rule 362 & 363
2. Rule 364
3. Rule 365 & 366
4. None of these
Question 268:
What among these is/are an irrelevant clause in a bid document?

i) the procedure as well as date, time and place for sending the bids
ii) date, time and place of opening of the bid
iii) place from where to be purchased
iv) place where it is to be delivered
v) terms of delivery.
vi) the mode of transport- truck etc.
Options are:
1. all are relevant
2. only iii & vi are irrelevant
3. iv & vi are irrelevant
4. I, ii, & iii irrelevant
Question 269:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules Fines has been referred
1. Rule 51
2. Rule 52 & 53
3. Rule 54 & 35
4. None of these
Question 270:
In which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rules The sanction of write off lossess have been dealt with in detail
1. Rule 62
2. Rule 63 & 64
3. Rule 65
4. None of these
Question 271:
What is to be done with the bid security money of unsuccessful bidders?

1. deposited as civil deposit
2. Kept in cash chest of the department at treasury
3. Deposited in Bank account
4. It should be returned to them at the earliest after expiry of the final bid validity and latest on or before the 30th day after the award of the contract
Question 272:
Powers to sanction permanent advance for the departmental secretary is limited to:
1. Rs. 1,00,000
2. Rs. 1,50,000
3. Rs. 2,00,000
4. None of these
Question 273:
Responsibility of govt. servant for losses etc. has been dealt with in which rule of the Bihar Financial Rules.
1. Rule 33
2. Rule 34
3. Rule 35
4. None of these
Question 274:
Under which Appendix of the Bihar financial rules Rules for the loan of tools and plant to contractors, local bodies, and others have been explained
1. Appendix 6
2. Appendix 7
3. Appendix 8
4. None of these
Question 275:
Who is the competent authority for sanctioning ex-gratia payment to Government servants sustaining injuries while on duty?
1. Head of Departments under whom the employee is working
2. Finance Minister
3. Government in the administrative department concerned

4. Director of Health Services
Question 276:
In a Departmental or Government Library with books numbering 20000 to 50000 books complete physical verification of books should be done at least once in--------------.
1. 2 years
2. 1 years
3. 5 years
4. 3 years
Question 277:
Bids sent by contractors/ suppliers should be opened ? Choose from option

1. Open in presence of bidders by authorized person
2. Open secretly in officers chamber in absence if bidders
3. The bids should be opened in public and bidders or authorized representatives of the bidders should be permitted to attend the bid opening.
4. In the chamber of departmental secretary or chief engineer
Question 278:
Powers of financial sanction has been dealt under which chapter of the Bihar Financial Rules-
1. Chapter 4
2. Chapter 5
3. Chapter 6
4. None of these
Question 279:
The Contingency Fund of the State is held on behalf of the Governor by the-
1. Chief Secretary to Government
3. Secretary to the Governor
Question 280:
Registered suppliers can be removed from the list, if they –

1. Fail to abide by the terms and conditions of the registration or supply the goods on time
2. Supply substandard goods
3. Make any false declaration to any Government agency
4. All of the above.
Question 281:
Under which Appendix of Bihar Financial rules Power to sanction contingent expenditure including expenditure on the purchase of stores have been explained
1. Appendix 4
2. Appendix 5
3. Appendix 6
4. None of these
Question 282:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules Advances on return from leave or deputation out of India has been referred
1. Rule 426
2. Rule 427
3. Rule 428
4. None of these
Question 283:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules Hire of office accommodation is explained
1. Rule 327
2. Rule 328
3. Rule 329
4. None of these
Question 284:
All moneys received by or deposited with the Supreme Court of India or with any other Court, other than a High Court, shall be paid into-
1. Consolidated Fund of India
2. Contingency Fund of India
3. Public Account
4. Departmental Account
Question 285:
Surplus or obsolete or unserviceable goods of assessed residual value above Rs. 2,00,000 should be disposed of by:
1. Limited tender
2. Inviting quotation
3. by global tender
4. either by obtaining bids through advertised tender or by public auction
Question 286:
In which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rules Special rules for public works department regarding acquisition of stores has been discussed
1. Rule 157 to 161
2. Rule 162
3. Rule 163
4. None of these
Question 287:
Who will ensure the publicity of items through GeM for perspective suppliers?
1. GeM SPV
2. Director of Stores and Stationaries
3. Central Purchase Organization
4. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
Question 288:
The financial powers of the Government, which have not been delegated to a subordinate authority, shall vest in the
1. Governor
2. Legislature
3. State Cabinet
Question 289:
Under which rule of the Bihar financial rules Supply of Forms has been referred
1. Rule 443
2. Rule 444
3. Rule 445
4. None of these
Question 290:
Insurance of Govt. property has been made under which rule/s of the Bihar Financial Rules-
1. Rule 441
2. Rule 442
3. Rule 443
4. None of these
Question 291:
Rate contract is applicable where supply is______?

1. Not fixed when it will be required.
2. Supply date is fixed.
3. Supply for common consumer goods/items of standard types and are needed on recurring basis.
4. None of these
Question 292:
Under which Rule of the Bihar Financial rules the provisions have been made for internal check against irregularities waste and fraud.
1. Rule 12
2. Rule 10
3. Rule 11
4. None of these
Question 293:
In a parliamentary system of Government, control over expenditure is exercised by

1. Legislature, Judiciary and Audit
2. Executive, Judiciary and Audit
3. Legislature and Audit
4. Legislature, Executive and Audit
Question 294:
If a Government execute work for another Government or local body or private party _________ is recovered.
1. Adminitrative charges
2. Centage charges
3. Service charges
4. Contingent charges
Question 295:
Under which rule of the Bihar Financial Rules, provision for permanent advances have been discussed:
1. Rule 110
2. Rule 112
3. Rule 111
4. None of these
Question 296:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar financial rules Irrigation revenue collected in the civil department has been referred
1. Rule 43 & 44
2. Rule 45
3. Rule 48 to 50
4. None of these
Question 297:
Under which chapter of the Bihar financial rules Advances to govt. servants have been dealt with
1. chapter 11
2. chapter 14
3. chapter 13
4. None of these
Question 298:
What does financial bid in a Tender enquiry consists of ? Options are:

1. From where the contractor would procure finance to supply the product
2. Financial background & situation of contractor
3. Indicating item wise price for the items mentioned in the contract
4. Availability of Bank Guarantee along with technical bid

Question Bank - Bihar Pension Rules
Question 1:
What type of leave period will qualify for pension and gratuity?
1. All leave for which leave salary is payable
2. All leave for which leave salary is not payable
3. Both A and B
Question 2:
Read the following statements with reference to Bihar Pension Rule and select the correct option
using the code given below.
1. A qualifying service has to be reckoned in completed years.
2. An employee retires in the forenoon.
4. Only 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Question 3:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of eighty one years of age gets
an additional pension of
1. 15% of revised basic pension
2. 20 % of revised basic pension
3. Both A & B
Question 4:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of eighty eight years of age
gets an additional pension of
Question 5:
What is meant by retiring pension?

1. A retiring pension is granted to a Govt. Servant who is retired in advance of the age of superannuation
2. A retiring pension is granted to a Govt. Servant who retires in advance of the age of superannuation
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 6:
Identify the correct rules of Bihar Pension Rules?

1. Rule 16 First appointment
2. Rule 27 Head of the Office
3. Rule 26 Compensatory allowances
4. None of these.
Question 7:
Identify the correct chapters of Bihar Pension Rules?

1. Chapter15 suspenstion
2. Chapter 7 amount of pension
3. Chapter 14 Dismissal
4. None of above
Question 8:
The liberalized pension Rules is in effect from the date of

1. 10.06.1950
2. 10.04.1950
3. 20.06.1950
Question 9:
Which of the following is not included in emoluments under rules of Bihar Pension Rules:-
1. personal pay
2. special pay if any
3. transport allowance
4. None of these
Question 10:
Which section of CCS Pension Rules deals with invalid pension?

1. Rule 28
2. Rule 36
3. Rule 40
Question 11:
What is the amount of minimum pension after 7th pay commission as per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950?
1. Rs.6000 per month
4. None of these
Question 12:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rules consider the statement given below whether it is true or false?
1.The amount of maximum pension admissible to a Government servant retiring with a qualifying service of 20 years is 60% of average emoluments of the last twelve months.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 13:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of ninety five years of age gets an additional pension of
1. 35% of basic pension
2. 40 % of basic pension
4. None of these.
Question 14:
Identify the correct chapters of Bihar Pension Rules:-

1. Chapter 2: Definitions
2. Chapter 3: Permanent post
3. Chapter 4: Old age pension
4. None of these
Question 15:
Read the following statements with reference to Bihar Pension Rule and select the correct option using the code given below.
1.If a Government servant dies with a qualifying service of ten years while in service his death gratuity will be 40 times of average emoluments.
2. If a Government servant dies with a qualifying service of ten years while in service his death gratuity will be 15 times of average emoluments
Question 16:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 which of the following is a pension sanctioning authority?
2. Drawing and disbursing officer
Question 17:
What is the limit of maximum family pension pension after 7th pay commission?
1. 40% of the last pay
4. None of these
Question 18:
which of the following is not true of a widow of a Government servant who is appointed on a compassionate ground?
1. Family pension will not be paid
2. Dearness allowance will not be paid
3. Both A and B
Question 19:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a Government servant will get compensation pension if
1. The permanent post has been abolished
2. The Government servant has not been accommodated on any other post
3. Both A & B
4. None of these.
Question 20:
who of the following is entitled to get double family pension as per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 ?
1. dependents of Central Government employee
2. dependent of State Government employee
3. dependents of ex military personnel
Question 21:
The Govt.servant employed on or after 01.09.2005 will be covered under

1. Old pension scheme
2. new pension scheme
3. Both A & B

,
Question 22:
Emoluments will mean and include under rules of Bihar Pension Rules:-
1. Pay
2. Special pay if any
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 23:

1. Chapter 3: Condition of pension payment
2. Chapter 10: Application for pension and its sanctioning for pension
3. Chapter 8: Aamount of pension
4. None of these
Question 24:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 pension is calculated at the rate of?
1. 30% of 10 months’emoluments
4. None of these.
Question 25:

1. The treasury shall be under the general charge of the Collector.
2. A pensioner drawing pension for the first time shall be required to provide the copy of the order by which the sanction of his pension was comunnicated.
Question 26:
Under Bihar Pension Rules the amount of pension is calculated on the basis of………
1. Total qualifying service
2. The average emoluments drawn during the last ten months
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 27:
State true or false under rules of Bihar Pension Rules:-

A Govt.servant who is dismissed or removed from service shall forfeit his pension and gratuity
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 28:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of eighty five years of age gets an additional pension of
Question 29:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rules consider the statement given below whether it is true or
false?
1.The different classes of pension is mentioned in rule 107 of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 30:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rule 1950 two PPO books are prepared and are sent to
1. Pensioner
2. Departmental officer
3. Treasury officer or Bank
Question 31:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of ninety four years of age gets
Question 32:
A period of suspension does not count towards qualifying service unless the authority declares so
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 33:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 which of the following is not included in
emoluments
1. Basic pay
3. Transport allowance
Question 34:

1. Chapter 7 definitions
2. Chapter 2 Permanent post
3. Chapter 8 old age pension
Question 35:
Which of the following is included in the average emoluments for gratuity.

1. Pay
2. Dearness Allowance
3. Both A and B
Question 36:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rule 1950 how many copies of gratuity authorisations are prepared?
1. Five
2. Four
3. three
Question 37:
A pensioner of hundred years of age gets an additional pension of-

3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 38:
Read the following statements with reference to Bihar Pension Rule and select the correct option
using the code given below.
1.The maximum amount of gratuity is Rs.10 lakhs.
2.The gratuity is payable to a Government servant in consideration of his services to the people.
Question 39:
How many pensions a govt.servant can earn in the same service or post?
1. One
2. two
3. Three
4. None of these
Question 40:

1. Rule 47 Cadre
2. Rule 31 Permanent post
4. None of these.
Question 41:
The Government dues is recoverable from the amount of retirement gratuity.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 42:
false?
The qualifying service of a Government servant shall not always commence from the date he
takes charge of the post to which he is appointed.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
4. None of these.
,
Question 43:
who is competent to take a decision as to whether a service is pension qualifying or not?

2. State government
Question 44:
A Govt.servant is entitled to get compensation pension on account of

1. The permanent post has been abolished
2. The Govt.servant has not been accommodated on other post
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 45:
1.The maximum amount of pension which can be commuted is 70% of pension
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 46:
What is the extent of neutralization of relief granted to pensioner under Bihar Pension Rules?
1. 50 %
2. 70 %
3. 100 %
Question 47:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rules consider the statement given below whether it is Yes or No?
1.Is a family pension taxable?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Doubtful
Question 48:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of ninety six years of age gets
Question 49:
2.The gratuity is payable to a Government Servant in consideration of his services to the Government.
Question 50:
false?
Pension is to be paid only during the lifetime of a pensioner.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 51:
A qualifying service does not include joining time which has not been regularized by leave salary.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 52:
false?
An interest on delayed payment of gratuity is not allowed to a Government servant if he fails
to submit his pension paper on time.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful

,
Question 53:
What type of pension, new pension scheme is?

1. It is a contributory pension scheme.
2. It is a non contributory pension scheme.
3. It is a pension scheme financed fully by the Government.
Question 54:
Identify the correct rules of Bihar Pension Rules.

1. Rule 19 Cadre
2. Rule 17 Day
4. None of these.
Question 55:

1. The qualifying service for pension of a Govt. servant shall not always commence from the date he takes charge of the post to which he is appointed.
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 56:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rule 1950 a superannuation pension means

1. A pension granted to a Government servant entitled to retire at fifty years of age
2. A pension granted to a Government servant who retires at sixty years of age
3. Both A & B
Question 57:
Which rules of Bihar Pension Rules discusses about service as apprentice?

1. 132
2. 65
3. 106
4. None of these
Question 58:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 the minimum pension of Rs.9000 is effective from the date of
1. 01.04.2016
2. 01.03.2017
3. Both A & B
Question 59:
1.The amount of maximum pension admissible to a Government servant with a qualifying service of 20 years is 30% of average emoluments of the last twelve months.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 60:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rule 1950 a retiring pension means

1. A pension which is granted to a Govt. Servant who retires in advanced age of superannuation
2. A retiring pension is granted to a Govt. Servant who retires at 55 years of age
3. Both A & B
Question 61:
What is meant by superannuation pension?

1. The pension granted to a Govt.servant entitled to retire at a particular age
2. The Pension granted to a Govt.servant who retires at sixty years of age
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 62:
How many PRAN card will be issued to a subscriber?

1. Two cards
2. Three cards
3. One card
4. All of the above
Question 63:
Even If the date of retirement is a holiday, the employee will retire on the last day of the month
1. No
2. Yes
3. Yes with some conditions

Question 64:

1. Rule 18 fee
3. Rule 29 age
Question 65:
State true or false under rules of Bihar Pension Rules:- Pension is not payable to Govt.pleader
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 66:
Under the provision of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 gazetted Government service means ?
1. A gazetted service of the State
2. Any other service which the state Government declared so
3. Both A & B
4. None of these.
Question 67:
A retired Government servant is eligible for retirement gratuity with a qualifying service of 15 years.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 68:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 what is the limit of maximum pension after 7th pay commission?
1. 40% of the last 10 months’ pay
4. None of these.
Question 69:
Which rule of Bihar Pension Rules 1950 deals with conditions of pensionable job ?
1. 162
2. 513
3. 58
Question 70:
How many PPO books are prepared?

1. one
2. two
3. three
4. None of these
Question 71:
Under Bihar Pension Rules the amount of pension is not calculated on the basis of………
2. The average emoluments drawn during the last ten months
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 72:
Under which rule of Bihar Pension Rules it is mentioned that the period spent as probationary Deputy Collector shall not count toward pension?
1. 342
2. 136
3. 67
4. All of these
Question 73:
Can an IAS officers earn two pensions at a time?

1. Yes
2. No
3. Both A and B
Question 74:
false?
The Government dues is not recoverable from the amount of retirement gratuity.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 75:
Under which rule of Bihar Pension Rules is it mentioned that the period spent as probationary
Deputy Collector shall count toward pension?
1. 312
2. 217
3. 68
Question 76:
A family pension is admissible to the family of a Government servant who

1. Dies during service
2. Dies after retirement
3. both a and b
Question 77:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of eighty four years of age gets
3. Both A & B
Question 78:
which of the following is a pension sanctioning authority as per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950?
1. The authority who sanctioned the pension
3. Both A & B
Question 79:
In which month TDS is issued to the pensioner by the Bank?

1. March
2. February
3. April
Question 80:
If any Government servant retires after completing four years of qualifying service pension will be admissible to him.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 81:

1. Rule 69 pay
2. Rule 35 state Government
4. None of these.
Question 82:
Before which year every employee used to retire on the different dates of the month.
1. 1970
2. 1976
3. 1979
4. None of these
Question 83:
What is the amount of maximum pension after 7th pay commission?

1. Rs.1,25000.
2. Rs.100000
3. 90,000
4. All of the above
Question 84:
The Central Civil Services ( Commutation of Pension) Rules came into force in
1. 1980
2. 1981
3. 1982
,
Question 85:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of eighty three years of age
3. Both A & B
Question 86:

1. Counting of pre retirement civil service in the case of re employed govt. servant qualifies for pension
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 87:
false?
1. Counting of pre retirement civil service in the case of re-employed government servant shall
be done for pension
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 88:
Which form is used by Bank for obtaining undertaking from a pensioner ?

1. Annexure-X
2. Annexure-XII
3. Annexure-XI
Question 89:
What is the quality of a PRAN card?

1. It is unique.
2. It is permanment.
3. It is portable
4. All of the above
Question 90:
Read the following statements with reference to Bihar Pension Rules and select the correct
option using the code given below.
1.A period of four months and above but less than six months of qualifying service is not reckoned as completed half year.
2.Dearness allowance is considered for the calculation of gratuity.
Question 91:

1. The treasury shall be under the general charge of the Deputy Collector.
2. A pensioner drawing pension for the first time shall be required to provide the copy of the order by which the sanction of his pension was comunnicated.
Question 92:
which of the following is not true of a widow of a Government servant who is appointed on a
compassionate ground?
1. Family pension will be paid
2. Dearness allowance will be paid
3. Both A and B
Question 93:
false?
56% of average emoluments is regarded as full pension of a retiring Government servant if he
has rendered 33 years of qualifying service
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 94:
How many digits are there in a PRAN card?

1. 15 digits
2. 10 digits
3. 12 digits
4. All of the above
,
Question 95:
Who is the sanctioning authority of pension for a non gazetted employee?

2. Head of the office.
3. finance Department
Question 96:
As per provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules before which of the following year every Government servant used to retire on the different dates of the month.
1. 1973
2. 1976
3. 1989
Question 97:
When did the Bihar Pension Rules come in operation?

1. 26 Jan, 1950
2. 26 Jan, 1960
3. 20 Jan, 1950
4. None of these
Question 98:
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 99:
With reference to the Central Civil Services (Pension) Rules consider the statement given below
whether it is true or false?
1.The Central Civil Services (Pension) Rules 1972 does not apply to persons in casual
employment
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 100:
JEEVAN PRAMAAN is a biometric enabled digital service for the pensioner?

1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 101:

2. Chapter 21 calculation of service for pension
Question 102:
If the service rendered by Govt.servant is less than 10 years pension?

1. 30 % of pension is payable
3. no pension is payable
4. None of these
Question 103:
who of the following is a pension disbursing authority?

4. None of these
Question 104:
The PPO is sanctioned by

2. AG.Bihar
3. Both A and B
4. All of the above
Question 105:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rules 1950 how many pensions a government servant can earn
in the same service or post ?
1. One
2. Three
3. Two
Question 106:
Pension is taxed under?

1. Income from other sources
2. Income from profession
3. Both a and b
Question 107:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 emoluments means and includes
1. Pay
3. Both A & B
Question 108:

A pensioner of All India services shall not accept employment within one year of retirement
without the previous approval of the Central Government
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 109:
Which rule of CCS Pension Rules deals with compulsory retirement?

1. Rule 28
2. Rule 37
3. Rule 38
Question 110:
Which rules of Bihar Pension Rules discusses about retiring pension?

1. 412
2. 302
3. 134
4. None of these
Question 111:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of eighty years of age gets an additional pension of
3. Both A & B
Question 112:
What rule should be followed while sanctioning pension and gratuity of Government Servant?
1. Bihar Gratuity rules
2. Bihar provident Rules
3. Bihar pension Rules
4. None of these
Question 113:

2. Rule 37 Appointment
3. Rule 28 Medical allowances
Question 114:
Under which rule of Bihar Pension Rules is it mentioned that the period spent as probationary
Deputy S.P shall count toward pension?
1. 342
2. 213
3. 67
4. None of these.
Question 115:
Read the following statements with reference to Bihar Pension Rules and select the correct option using the code given below.
1.A period of three months and above but less than six months of qualifying service has to be reckoned as completed half year.
2.Dearness allowance is not considered for the calculation of gratuity.
,
Question 116:

2. Chapter 8: Calculation of service for pension
3. Chapter 6: Conditions of pension payment
4. None of these
Question 117:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of ninety eight years of age
Question 118:

1. Rule 13 pay
3. Rule 27 age
Question 119:

1. A period of suspension does not count towards qualifying service for pension unless the authority declares so.
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 120:
An interest on delayed payment of gratuity is paid to a Government servant if the payment is delayed by six months.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 121:
Family pension taxed under?

1. Income from salary
3. both a and b
Question 122:
which of the following is true of a widow of a Government servant who is appointed on a compassionate ground?
2. Dearness allowance will be paid
3. Both A and B
Question 123:
1.The Central Civil Services (Pension) Rules 1972 does not apply to Railway servants.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 124:

The registration for PRAN is done with National Securities Depository Limited(NSDL).
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 125:

1.The emoluments drawn by a retired IAS officer during the last ten months of his service shall
count for purposes of calculation of average emoluments if the pay is drawn in a cadre post or excadre
post.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 126:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rules 1950 what is the limitation of commutation of pension ?
1. 20 % of the pension
3. 50% of the pension
Question 127:
1.A Government employee dies with a qualifying service of ten years while in service his death gratuity will be10 times of average emoluments.
2. A Government servant dies with a qualifying service of ten years while in service his death gratuity will be 16 times of average emoluments
Question 128:
Can an income tax be deducted at source from the pension?

1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 129:
The personal appearance or furnishing of life certificate isrequired for the initiation of first pension.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 130:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of hundread five years of age
Question 131:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 which of the following will not be included
in emoluments
1. Basic pay
2. Any other remuneration which may be specially declared so by the Goverment.
3. Medical allowance
Question 132:
Identify the correct rules of Bihar Pension Rules:-

1. Rule 19: Pay
2. Rule 35: State Government
3. Rule 23: Compensatory allowances
4. None of these
Question 133:
A pensioner desires 15% commutation of his pension. Is this possible under Bihar Pension Rules?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
4. None of these.
Question 134:

3. Chapter 12 conditions of pension payment
4. None of these
Question 135:
which of the following fixess the dearness relief admissible to pensioner?

1. Additional pension
2. Basic Pension
3. Family pension
Question 136:
false?
A Government servant who is dismissed or removed from service shall forfeit his pension and
gratuity.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
4. None of these.
Question 137:
Minor penalty affects the calculation of pension.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 138:

1. The pension is calculated as per rule 107.
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 139:

1. Pension is not payable to one who is employed on monthly basis.
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 140:
At what rate the extraordinary family pension is granted.

1. 30% of the basic pay
Question 141:
Which rules of Bihar Pension Rules discusses about invalid pension?

1. 432
2. 332
3. 119
4. None of these
Question 142:
consider the statement given below whether it is true or false? Mr X retired from Government service with a qualifying service of 34 years and is average
emoluments was Rs.1,50000 my he will get a pension of.
1. Rs.70000
2. Rs.60000
3. Rs.80000
Question 143:

1. A period of suspension counts towards qualifying service for pension irrespective of what the authority says.
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 144:

1. 56% of average emoluments is regarded as full pension of a retiring Govt if he has rendered not less than 33 years of qualifying service
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 145:

1.The New Pension Scheme is applicable to a Government employees appointed on or after 01.09.2005
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 146:
With JEEVAN PRAMAAN pensioner’s requirement to physically present himself or herself before the pension disbursing authority has become a thing of the past?
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
,
Question 147:
As per provision of the Bihar Pension Rules From which year a Government servant is required to retire in the afternoon of the last day of the month.
1. 1972
2. 1960
3. 1976
Question 148:

A person covered under NPS is not eligible for gratuity.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 149:
From which year pension is calculated at the rate of 50% of emoluments?

1. 2005
2. 2006
3. 2007
4. none of these
Question 150:
A qualifying service does not include overstaying on leave.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 151:
If any government Servant retires before completing the qualifying service no pension will be admissible to him.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 152:
Is there any taxation on gratuity payment?

1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 153:
The amount of ex-gratia compensation to the family of a Government servant killed in accident in the course of performance of duty is 30 lakhs.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 154:

All leave during service for which leave salary is paid shall not count as qualifying service for the purpose of pension
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 155:
which of the following is true of an accused Government servant who dies before the disposal of the criminal case?
2. Gratuity will be paid after the disposal of the case
3. Both A and B
Question 156:
false?
A Government servant seeking voluntary retirement from service is required to give at least
three months’ notice to the appointing authority.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 157:
Which rules of Bihar Pension Rules1950 deals with retiring pension?

1. 407
2. 387
3. 134
4. None of these.
Question 158:
What is the limitation of commutation of pension?

4. None of these
Question 159:
Who is competent to decide as to whether a service is pensionary or not?

2. State government
4. None of these
Question 160:
1.The personal appearance or furnishing of life certificate is not required for the initiation of first pension.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 161:
A pension is taxed as?

Question 162:
What is the amount of minimum pension after 7th pay commission?

2. Rs.8000
3. Rs.9000
4. None of these
Question 163:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rules consider the statement given below whether it is true or false? A resignation from a post means a forfeiture of past service unless the resignation was submitted to take up another appointment.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
4. None of these.
Question 164:
Is there any ceiling on payment of pension?

1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 165:
The period of 15 years for restoration of commuted portion of pension is reckoned

1. From the date of retirement
2. from the date on which reduction in pension becomes effective
3. Both A and B
Question 166:
The compulsory retirement pension is to be sanctioned by a competent authority and such pension will be at a rate not less than two thirds and not more than full pension
1. False
2. True
3. Doubtful
4. None of these.
Question 167:
1.In the case of a Government servant whose Dearness Allowance increases by 20% of his basic pay monetary ceiling on gratuity increases by 20%.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful

,
Question 168:
Which section of CCS Pension Rules deals with invalid pension?

1. Rule 18
2. Rule 32
3. Rule 36
Question 169:
Which rules of Bihar Pension Rules 1950 deals with service as apprentice?
1. 139
2. 115
3. 106
4. None of these.
Question 170:
An interest on delayed payment of gratuity is allowed to a Government servant if a departmental proceeding is pending against the employee.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 171:

1. Rule 16 fee
3. Rule 28 age
4. None of these
Question 172:
Bihar Pension Rules, 1950 has come into force on-

1. 01.01.1950
2. 20.01.1950
3. 01.05.1950
4. 01.06.1950
Question 173:

1. If the qualifying service for the purpose of pension is less than 20 years pension will be calculated proportionately.
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 174:
false?
1.A Government employee retires with a qualifying service of 15 years he will be given a pension
of 50% of his average emoluments.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 175:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 emoluments includes
1. medical allowence
2. Special allowence
3. Both A & B
Question 176:
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
4. None of these.
Question 177:
A family pension is payable to ?

1. One member of the family at a time
2. Two member of the family at a time
3. Three member of the family at a time
Question 178:
Which rule of CCS Pension Rules deals with compulsory retirement?

1. Rule 28
2. Rule 37
3. Rule 39
Question 179:
Which rules of Bihar Pension Rules discusses about compulsory retirement pension?
1. 145
2. 46 a
3. 116
4. None of these
Question 180:
What does the acronym PFRDA stand for?

1. Pension Fund Regulation District Agency
2. Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
3. Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Agency
Question 181:
consider the statement given below whether it is true or false? A qualifying service does not include overstaying on leave.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 182:

1. 50% of average emoluments is regarded as full pension of a retiring Govt. Servant if he has rendered not less than 20 years of qualifying service
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 183:

1. Rule 42: Cadre
2. Rule 36: Permanent post
4. None of these
Question 184:
Retirement benefit includes

1. Pension
2. Gratuity
3. Both A and B
Question 185:
Who is given an invalid pension?

1. The Govt.servant who is compulsorily retired from service as penalty
2. The Govt.servant who is declared by the appropriate medical authority to be permanently incapacitated for further service
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 186:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rule 1950 how many copies of PPO books are prepared?
1. Four
2. two
3. three
Question 187:

1. Rule 12 fee
3. Rule 28 age
4. None of these
Question 188:
Departmental proceeding can be initiated against a retiring servant up to three years from retirement
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 189:
1.A Government servant is eligible for death gratuity with a qualifying service of more than five years but with 20 years of Service.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 190:
Is there a provision for second or subsequent commutation of pension?

1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 191:
1.In the case of a government servant being convicted in a criminal case the competent authority is not empowered to stop or reduce pension
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 192:
Is there any ceiling on gratuity payment?

1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 193:
which of the following a pension disbursing authority?

1. Bank branch
2. Treasury
3. Both A & B
4. None of these
Question 194:
Can an employee have two Pran card?

1. Yes
2. No
3. It is not reqired.
Question 195:
Which of the following is not eligible to receive family pension.

1. Married daughter
2. unmarried daughter
3. Widow
Question 196:
Who is responsible for submitting the pension papers?

1. Employee himself
2. Head of the office.
3. Both A and B
Question 197:
which of the following is a pension disbursing authority as per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950?
4. None of these.
Question 198:
If any government Servant retires after completing the qualifying service pension will be admissible to him.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 199:
which of the following is a pension disbursing authority as per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950?
1. Bank branch
2. Treasury
3. Both A & B

,
Question 200:
Does the resignation of employee becomes effective from the date on which the employee is relieved of his duty?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Yes with conditions
Question 201:
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 202:
consider the statement given below whether it is true or false?

1.The Government dues is recoverable from the amount of retirement gratuity.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 203:
1.A qualifying service has to be reckoned in completed years.
2.An employee retires in the afternoon.
Question 204:
To whom should a pensioner approach for payment of ppo and cvp?

1. Departmental Head
2. Pension Officer
3. Treasury Officer
4. None of these
Question 205:
Can an excess payment made to a pensioner be recovered by the Bank?

1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 206:
An employee has commuted 15 % of his pension on retirement.Now after a lapse of four years he
desires to commute the remaining 25 % of pension.Can he be allowed to do so?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 207:

1. All leave during service for which leave salary is paid shall not count as qualifying service for the purpose of pension.
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 208:
The Central Civil Services (Pension) Rules came into force in

1. 1980
2. 1981
3. 1972
Question 209:
Is the amount of gratuity fully exempt from tax?

1. No
2. Yes
Question 210:
State true or false under rules of Bihar Pension Rules:- A Gazetted Govt. Servant will submit application for pension to the head of the office.
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 211:

2. Chapter 12: Application for pension and its sanctioning for pension
3. Chapter 7: Amount of pension
4. None of these
Question 212:
What is the impact of resignation from Service on qualifying service and pension?
1. Pension is payable
2. Pension is not payable.
3. Both A and B
4. All of the above
Question 213:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 who will be given an invalid pension?
1. A Government servant who is incapacitated physically or mentally for further service
under the Government.
2. A Government servant who is declared by the appropriate medical authority to be

permanently incapacitated for further service under the Government.
3. Both A & B
Question 214:
What is the limit of maximum pension after 7th pay commission?

4. None of these
Question 215:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rules consider the statement given below whether it is true or false? Major penalty does affect the calculation of pension.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 216:
Who is eligible for pension under the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950?
1. A Government Servant who has been appointed to the pensionable service
2. A Government servant who has been appointed on or before 31.08.2005
3. Both A & B
4. None of these.
Question 217:
Which rules of Bihar Pension Rules 1950 deals with counting of pre retirement civil service?
1. 462
2. 122
3. 116
Question 218:
Who of the following is entitled to get double family pension?

1. dependent of State Government employee
2. dependent of central government employee
3. dependent of ex military personnel
4. None of these
Question 219:
1.An average emoluments means the average of emoluments drawn by the employee during the last six months of his service.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 220:
The ex military personnel will receive as per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950?
1. civil pension
2. military pension
3. Both A & B
,
Question 221:

The compulsory retirement pension is sanctioned by competent authority and such pension will be at a rate not less than two thirds and not more than full pension
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 222:

A person covered under NPS can not contribute to GPF.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 223:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rules consider the statement given below whether it is correct or incorrect?
1.The amount of ex-gratia compensation to the family of a Government servant killed during war with enemy is 45 lakhs.
1. Correct
2. Incorrect
3. Doubtful
Question 224:
Which of the following is not included in emoluments under rules of Bihar Pension Rules:-
1. personal pay
2. any other remuneration which may be specially declared so by the Govt.
4. None of these
Question 225:
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
4. None of these.
Question 226:
Identify the correct chapters of Bihar Pension Rules:-.

4. None of these
Question 227:
From which office’s website can a Government servant download the pension/nomination paper?
2. Accountant General Bihar
3. Both A & B
Question 228:
false?
1.50% of average emoluments is regarded as full pension of a retiring Government servant if he
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 229:
false?
Service as an apprentice does not qualify for pension and gratuity.
1. False
2. True
3. Doubtful
Question 230:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 from which year a pension to a government servant is calculated at the rate of 50 %?
1. 2005
2. 2006
3. 2007
Question 231:
Which rules of Bihar Pension Rules 1950 deals with invalid pension?
1. 402
2. 372
3. 116
4. None of these.
Question 232:
false?
All leave during service for which leave salary is paid shall not count as qualifying service for
the purpose of pension
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 233:
What does the acronym PPO stand for?

1. Pay pension officer
2. Pay payment order
3. Pension payment order
Question 234:
All leave during service for which leave salary is paid shall not count as qualifying service for the purpose of pension and gratuity.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 235:
What is the amount of minimum pension after 7th pay commission?

1. Rs.5000
2. Rs,10,000
3. Rs.11,000
Question 236:

1. Rule 14: Foreign service
2. Rule 11: Year
3. Rule 23: Month
4. None of these
Question 237:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of ninety nine years of age
Question 238:
1. Death retirement gratuity is sanctioned to the eligible family members of a Government servant reported to be missing and with unknown whereabouts after six months of lodging FIR for the same?
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 239:
Is Jeevan pramaan a biometric enabled digital service for the pensioner ?

1. Yes
2. No
3. Doubtful
Question 240:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rule 1950 how many copies of commuted pension authority are
prepared?
1. Four
2. Five
3. Three
Question 241:
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
4. None of these.
Question 242:

1. The qualifying service of a Govt. servant for pension shall commence from the date he takes charge of the post to which he is appointed.
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 243:
A pensioner of eighty years of age gets an additional pension of-

3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 244:
Which rule under rules of Bihar Pension Rules 1950 deals with classification of pension?
1. 382
2. 553
3. 88
Question 245:
What does PRAN stand for?

1. It is a name of a person
2. Permanent Retirement Account Number
3. Personal Retirement Account Number
Question 246:
What is new pension scheme?

1. It is a pension scheme started by the NGO.
2. It is a pension scheme started by the State Government.
3. It is a pension scheme started by the Central Government
Question 247:
Can an income tax be deducted at source from the family pension?

1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 248:

1. Rule 14 foreign service
2. Rule 11 year
3. Rule 29 Month
4. None of these.
Question 249:
Which rule of the Bihar pension rules mentions reduction of pension?

1. 148
2. 144
3. 139(a)
Question 250:
Will the date of voluntary retirement be treared as duty under Bihar Pension Rules:-
1. No
2. Yes
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 251:
1.An interest on delayed payment of gratuity is allowed to a Government servant if a delay is caused by judicial proceeding pending against the employee.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 252:
The benefit of added years of qualifying service for commutation of pension has been withdrawn
with effect from
1. 01.01.2004
2. 01.01.2005
3. 01.01.2006
Question 253:
Emoluments will include under rules of Bihar Pension Rules:-

1. personal pay
2. any other remuneration which may be specially declared so by the Govt.
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 254:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of hundred years of age gets an additional pension of
4. None of these.
Question 255:
An average emoluments means the average of emoluments drawn by the employee during the last two years of his service.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 256:
What is a PRAN card?

1. It is a card containing PRAN number.
2. It is a card containing subscriber name and father name.
3. It is a card containing photograph and signature of the subscriber
4. All of the above
Question 257:
1. An interest on delayed payment of gratuity is not allowed to a Government servant if a departmental proceeding is pending against the employee.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 258:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of ninety years of age gets an
additional pension of
Question 259:
1.A Government servant seeking voluntary retirement from service is required to give at least three months’ notice to the appointing authority.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 260:
Who is eligible for pension?

1. The Government Servant who is appointed to the pensionable service
2. The Government servant who is appointed on or before 31.08.2005
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 261:
Family for the purpose of family pension means-

1. Wife/husband
2. Unmarried daughters and sons up to the age of 25 years
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 262:
A pensioner is entitled to get an additional pension if he attains an

1. Age of 60 years
2. Age of 70 years
3. Age of 80 years
,
Question 263:
What is the limit of maximum pension after 7th pay commission?

4. None of these
Question 264:
Under which rule of Bihar Pension Rules it is mentioned that the period spent as probationary Deputy Collector shall count toward pension?
1. 342
2. 213
3. 68
4. None of these
Question 265:
Which rules of Bihar Pension Rules 1950 deals with invalid pension?
1. 482
2. 342
3. 116
4. None of these
Question 266:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of ninety two years of age gets
Question 267:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rules 1950 who should a pensioner approach to for payment of
PPO and CVP
1. Departmental Head
2. Pension Officer
3. Treasury Officer/Bank
Question 268:
Which rules of Bihar Pension Rules discusses about invalid pension?

1. 432
2. 332
3. 116
4. None of these
Question 269:
An interest on delayed payment of gratuity is not allowed to a Government servant if a delay is caused by judicial proceeding pending against the employee.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 270:
1. I retired from Government service with a qualifying service of 32 years and my average emoluments was Rs.1,50000 my I will get a pension of Rs 70,000 per month.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 271:
To whom is a family pension payable?

1. When Govt. servant dies while in service family pension is payable to the family
2. When Govt. servant dies after retirement family pension is payable to the family
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 272:
who of the following is entitled to get double pension as per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 ?
1. Central Government employee
2. State government employee
3. ex military personnel
Question 273:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 family for the purpose of family pension
means?
1. Wife/husband
2. Unmarried daughters and sons up to the age of 25 years.

3. Both A & B
Question 274:

Pension is payable only during the lifetime of a pensioner.
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 275:

1. Under the pension rules service means service under the Govt.and salary is paid by the Govt.from the consolidated fund of the state
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 276:
A Government servant who is removed from service following abolition of post he will be allowed
1. Superannuation pension
2. Retirement pension
3. Compulsory retirement pension
Question 277:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of ninety one years of age gets
Question 278:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 what is the limit of maximum pension after 7th pay commission ?
1. 65% of the last 10 months’ emoluments
2. 55% of the last 10 month’s emoluments
3. 58% of the last 10 month’s emoluments
Question 279:

An average emoluments means the average of emoluments drawn by the employee during
the last ten months of his service.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 280:
Which rules of Bihar Pension Rules 1950 deals with compulsory retirement pension?
1. 185
2. 46 a
3. 176
4. None of these.
Question 281:
what is meant by pension payment order issuing authority?

1. Accountant General (A&E)
4. None of these
Question 282:
Who is eligible for pension?

1. A Government employee in pensionable job.
2. A Government employee with a minimum qualifying service.
3. Both A and B
Question 283:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of ninety sevan years of age
,
Question 284:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 the amount of pension is calculated on the
basis of
2. The average emoluments drawn during the last ten months.
3. Both A & B
Question 285:

1. Rule 12: Fee
3. Rule 28: Age
4. None of these
Question 286:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 to whom is a family pension payable?
1. When a Government servant dies while in service,a family pension is payable to the family
2. When Government servant dies after retirement,a family pension is payable to the family
3. Both A & B
Question 287:
Which rules of Bihar Pension Rules discusses about counting of pre retirement civil service?
1. 432
2. 172
3. 116
4. None of these
Question 288:
An employee whose date of birth is 12 July will retire?

1. In the after noon of 12 th july
2. In the afternoon of 31st July
3. In the forenoon of 1st August
4. All of the above
Question 289:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of eighty sevan years of age
Question 290:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of ninety five years of age gets
Question 291:

2. Chapter 3 Permanent post
4. None of these
Question 292:
false?
The qualifying service of a Government servant shall start from the date he takes charge of
the post to which he is appointed.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 293:
Who of the following is entitled to get double pension?

1. State Government employee
2. Central government employee
3. Ex military personnel
4. None of these
Question 294:
1.A Government servant dies with a qualifying service of ten years while in service his death gratuity will be 20 times of average emoluments.
2. A Government servant dies with a qualifying service of ten years while in service his death gratuity will be 15 times of average emoluments
3. Both are correct
4. Both are incorrect.
Question 295:
false?
1.The amount of ex-gratia compensation to the family of a Government servant killed in accident
in the course of performance of duty is 38 lakhs
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 296:
A pensioner of ninety five years of age gets an additional pension of-

3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 297:

Service as an apprentice does not qualify for pension.
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 298:

1. Rule 49 Cadre
2. Rule 34 Probationary
3. Rule 43 Gazetted servant
Question 299:
Which rule of Bihar Pension Rules deals with superannuation pension?

1. Rule 143
2. Rule 134
3. Rule 123
Question 300:

1.All India Services(Death cum Retirement Benefits)Rules does not apply to officers promoted
from the State Services
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 301:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of eighty Six years of age gets
Question 302:
Who is given an invalid pension?

1. The Govt.servant who is incapacitated physically or mentally for further service
2. The Govt.servant who is declared by the appropriate medical authority to be permanently incapacitated for further service
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 303:
Two PPO books are prepared and are sent to

1. Pensioner
2. departmental officer
3. Treasury officer
4. None of these
Question 304:
From where can an employee download the pension/nomination paper?

3. Both (a) and (b)

4. None of these
Question 305:
Which is reckoned as emolument for pension and gratuity?

1. Basic pay
2. D.A.
3. Both A and B
4. All of the above
Question 306:
Which rule under rules of Bihar Pension Rules discusses about classification of pension?
1. 342
2. 543
3. 78
4. None of these
Question 307:
Under the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a month means.
1. Month of the Hijri calender
2. Month of Gregorian calender
3. Month of the sambat calender
4. None of these.
Question 308:
Which Rule of Bihar Pension Rules, 1950 says that no Pension may be granted to a Government Servant dismissed or removed for misconduct, insolvency or inefficiency?
1. 37
2. 46
3. 49
4. 151
Question 309:
A pensioner desires Zero% commutation of his pension. Is this possible under Bihar Pension
Rules?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
4. None of these.
Question 310:
1.A period of suspension will not count towards qualifying service unless it is declared to be a qualifying service by the authority.
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these.
Question 311:
1.If any government Servant retires after completing a qualifying service of 20 years pension will be admissible to him at full rate.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 312:
false?
All leave during service for which leave salary is paid shall count as qualifying service for the
purpose of pension and gratuity.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 313:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 the amount of pension is not calculated on
the basis of
2. The average emoluments drawn during the last ten months.
3. Both A & B
4. None of these.
Question 314:
Which of the following is not included in emoluments under Bihar Pension Rules:-
1. pay
2. special pay if any
3. Housing Rent Allowance
4. None of these
,
Question 315:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of ninety years of age gets an additional pension of
Question 316:
1.If any Government servant retires after completing a qualifying service of 20 years pension will be admissible to him at half rate.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 317:
The amount of maximum pension admissible to a Government servant retires with a qualifying service of 20 years is 40% of average emoluments of the last twelve months.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 318:
The New Pension Scheme came into effect in Bihar from?

1. 2003
2. 2004
3. 2005
Question 319:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner will get a medical allowance of
1. Rs.500
2. Rs.800
3. Rs.1000
Question 320:
What is meant by Gazetted Government service?

1. Member of the any state service
2. Any other government service which the state Government declares so
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 321:
The minimum pension of Rs.9000 is effective from the date of-

1. 01.01.2016
2. 01.01.20017
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 322:
false?
1.The pension is calculated as per rule 107 of Bihar pension rules 1950.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 323:
Which rules of Bihar Pension Rules 1950 deals with superannuation pension?
1. 422
2. 332
3. 129
Question 324:

1. Rule 16: First appointment
2. Rule 17: Head of the Office
4. None of these
Question 325:
false?
1.An average emoluments means the average of emoluments drawn by the employee during the
last twelve months of his service.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 326:
Under which rule of Bihar Pension Rules it is mentioned that the period spent as probationary Dy S.P shall count toward pension?
1. 342
2. 213
3. 67
4. None of these
Question 327:
false?
1.40% of average emoluments is regarded as full pension of a retiring Goverment servant if he
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 328:
Is the amount of Commuted pension fully exempt from tax?

1. No
2. Yes
Question 329:
The Dearness Relief is to be paid on the basis of

1. Reduced pension after commutation
2. Original pension before commutation
3. Both A and B
Question 330:
Under the provision of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 gazetted Government service means ?
1. Member of the any State service
2. Any other government service which the State Government declared as gazetted
3. Both A & B
4. None of these.
Question 331:
1.The Central Civil Services (Pension) Rules 1972 does not apply to members of All India Service
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 332:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 which of the following is not included in emoluments
1. Basic pay
2. Dearness allowance
Question 333:
An interest on delayed payment of gratuity is allowed to a Government servant if he fails to submit his pension paper on time.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 334:
1. I retired from Government service with a qualifying service of 34 years and my average emoluments was Rs.1,50000 my I will get a pension of Rs 75000 per month
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtfull
Question 335:
Is there any taxation on commuted value of pension?

1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful

,
Question 336:
A family pension is payable to?

1. One member of the family at a time
2. Two member of the family at a time
3. Three member of the family at a time
4. None of these
Question 337:
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 338:
Minor penalty does not affect the calculation of pension.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 339:
How many copies of ppo are prepared?

1. one
2. two
3. three
4. None of these
Question 340:
How many copies of commuted pension authorisations are prepared?

1. one
2. two
3. three
4. None of these
Question 341:
A pensioner dies before exercising option of commutation of pension can the family be given the
benefit of 40 % commutation?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 342:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of ninety three years of age
Question 343:

1.40% of average emoluments is regarded as full pension of a retiring Govt if he has rendered not less than 33 years of qualifying service
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 344:
What is meant by reduced pension?

1. A pension which is payable after commutation
2. A pension from which no amount has been reduced
3. Doubtful
Question 345:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of hundread years of age gets
Question 346:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of hundread one years of age
Question 347:

1. Rule 29: Cadre
2. Rule 34: Probationary
3. Rule 83: Gazetted servant
4. None of these
Question 348:
1. A Government employee retires with a qualifying service of 11 years he will be given a pension of 45% of his average emoluments.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 349:
The All India Services (Death cum Retirement Benefits) Rules came into force in
1. 1980
2. 1958
3. 1972
Question 350:
what is meant by pension sanctioning authority?

2. The authority who sanctioned the pension
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 351:
Family pension taxed under?

Question 352:
The commuted portion of pension is restored after

1. 12 years
2. 14 years
3. 15 years
Question 353:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 a pensioner of eighty two years of age gets
3. Both A & B
Question 354:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rules consider the statement given below whether it is yes or no?
Is Pension payable to employee who is employed on monthly basis.
1. Yes
2. No
3. Doubtful
Question 355:
The ex military personnel will receive-

1. civil pension
2. military pension
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 356:
The minimum pension of Rs.9000 is effective from the date of

1. 01.06.2016
2. 01.08.20017
3. 01.04.2017

,
Question 357:
Bihar Pension Rules came into force with effect from the date of
1. 02 Jan.1950
2. 06 Jan.1950
3. 20 Jan.1950
Question 358:

4. None of these
Question 359:
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
4. None of these.
Question 360:
The Bihar Pension Rules is in effect from the date of

1. 10.03.1950
2. 10.02.1950
3. 20.01.1950
Question 361:

4. None of these
Question 362:
when the service rendered by a Government servant is less than 10 years, will be a paid a
pension ?
3. No pension is payable
4. None of these.
Question 363:
1. If a Government employee retires with a qualifying service of 15 years he will be given a pension of 30% of his average emoluments.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 364:

1. Rule 29 Cadre
2. Rule 44 Probationary
3. Rule 83 Gazetted servant
4. None of these
Question 365:
The Govt.servant employed on or after 01.09.2005 will be covered under-

1. old pension scheme
2. new pension scheme
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 366:
Which rule under rules of Bihar Pension Rules discusses about conditions of pensionable job?
1. 142
2. 343
3. 58
4. None of these
Question 367:
The maximum amount of pension which can be commuted is 30% of pension
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 368:
Is the date of voluntary retirement treated as duty?

1. Yes
2. No
3. Doubtful
Question 369:
Which of the following is not included in emoluments under Bihar Pension Rules:-
1. personal pay
2. any other remuneration which may be specially declared son by the Govt.
3. dearness allowance
4. None of these
Question 370:
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 371:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 which of the following is a pension payment order issuing authority?
Question 372:

1. Rule 19: Cadre
2. Rule 11: Day
4. None of these
Question 373:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rule 1950 how many copies of PPO are prepared?
1. Four
2. Two
3. Three
Question 374:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 who is eligible for an invalid pension?
1. A Government servant who is compulsorily retired from service as a penalty
2. A Government servant who is not declared by the appropriate medical authority to be

permanently incapacitated for further service.
3. Both A & B
Question 375:

2. Chapter 7 : Amount of pension
4. None of these
Question 376:
Which rule of CCS Pension Rules deals with the President’s right to withhold or withdraw pension?
1. Rule 16
2. Rule 18
3. Rule 09
Question 377:
In the case of a Government servant whose Dearness Allowance increases by 50% of his basic pay monetary ceiling on gratuity increases by 20%.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 378:
1. Chapter 8: Re-employment of pensioner
4. None of these
Question 379:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 will the date of voluntary retirement be treated as duty?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Doubtful
4. None of these.
Question 380:
1.A qualifying service has to be reckoned in completed half year.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 381:
Which rules of Bihar Pension Rules discusses about superannuation pension?

1. 402
2. 302
3. 129
4. None of these
Question 382:
1.The Compassionate allowance is granted a Government servant who is dismissed from service
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 383:
A pensioner gets medical allowance of-

1. Rs.200
2. Rs.500
3. Rs.1000
4. None of these
Question 384:

1.A period of suspension will count towards the qualifying service for the purpose of pension or
gratuity irrespective of what the authority passage on order on suspension
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 385:

1.The New Pension Scheme is applicable to a Government employees appointed after 2001
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 386:
A pensioner of ninty years of age gets an additional pension of-

3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 387:
1. A Gazetted Govt. Servant will submit a formal application for pension to the head of the office
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 388:
false?
1.With JEEVAN PRAMAAN pensioner’s requirement for physical presence before the pension
disbursing authority has become a thing of the past,
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 389:
From which year every employee retires on the last day of the month.
1. 1970
2. 1980
3. 1976
4. None of these
Question 390:
What is meant by a month under Bihar Pension Rules:-

1. Month of the calendar year
2. Month of Hijri calender
3. Month of the sambat calender
4. None of these
Question 391:
By whom is a PRAN card issued to an employee?

2. State Government
3. National Securities Depository Limited
4. All of the above
Question 392:

1. All leave during service for which leave salary is paid shall count as qualifying service for the purpose of pension
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 393:

1. The different classes of pension is mentioned in rule 107
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 394:
The maximum Pension is calculated at the rate of?

1. 40% of emolument(last Pay)
4. None of these
Question 395:

A subscriber can have only one PRAN card.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 396:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rules consider the statement given below whether it is true or false?In the case of a government servant being convicted in a criminal case the competent authority is empowered to stop or reduce pension
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 397:
With reference to Bihar Pension Rules consider the statement given below whether it is Yes or no? Is Pension payable to a Government pleader?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Doubtful
Question 398:
false?
A service means a service under the Government and whose salary is paid by the Government
from the consolidated fund of the state
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
4. None of these.
,
Question 399:
State true or false under rules of Bihar Pension Rules:- A resignation from a post means forfeiture of past service unless resignation has been submitted to take up another appointment
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 400:
What rules should be followed for fixing pension and gratuity of a Government Servant under the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950?
1. Bihar Gratuity rules
2. Bihar pension Rules.
3. Bihar provident fund Rules
4. None of these
Question 401:
Can a Departmental Proceeding be started againt a Government employee after retirement?

1. Doubtful
2. No
3. Yes subject to certain conditions
4. All of the above
Question 402:
By whom is TDS issued to a pensioner?

2. Paying Bank
3. AG Bihar
Question 403:
2.The gratuity is payable to a Government in consideration of his services to the Government.
Question 404:
If a Government employee retires with a qualifying service of 20 years he will be given a pension of 50% of his average emoluments.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 405:
The minimum pension of Rs.9000 is effective from the date of-

1. 01.01.2016
2. 01.01.20017
3. 01.04.2017
4. None of these
Question 406:

1. Chapter 45 Permanent Post
2. Chapter 23 Salary
3. Chapter 6 conditions of pension payment
Question 407:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 which of the following is not included in
emoluments
1. Basic pay
2. special pay if any.
3. Housing Rent Allowance
Question 408:

A period of suspension does not count towards qualifying service for pension unless the authority declares so.
1. True
2. False
3. Can not say
4. None of these
Question 409:
Read the following statements with reference to pensions Rules and select the correct option using the code given below.
1. The Contributory pension of the Central Government is also open to any Indian citizen between the age of 18 and 65.
2. A person covered by the NPS can contribute to GPF.
Question 410:
A pensioner of eighty five years of age gets an additional pension of-

3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 411:
In which form a Government servant having no family has to nominate one or more persons to receive death cum retirement gratuity?
1. Form-3
2. Form-2
3. Form-1
Question 412:
Which rule of CCS Pension Rules deals with the President’s right to withhold or withdraw pension?
1. Rule 14
2. Rule 13
3. Rule 07
Question 413:
Consider the statement given below whether it is true or false? National Securities Depository Limited(NSDL) is a Central Record Keeping Agency(RCA).
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 414:

1. Rule 42: Cadre
4. None of these
Question 415:
How many copies of gratuity authorisations are prepared?

1. one
2. two
3. three
4. None of these
Question 416:
As per the provisions of the Bihar Pension Rules 1950 what is the limit of family pension pension after 7th pay commission ?
4. None of these.
Question 417:
What is new pension scheme?

1. It is a pension scheme for employees who joined Government service on or after 01.01.2005.

Question Bank - Board's Miscellaneous Rules
Question 1:
Accounts for petty contractors have been discussed under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 260
2. Rule 261
3. Rule 262
4. None of these
Question 2:
Stamps for receipts has been explained under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 88
2. Rule 89
3. Rule 90
4. None of these
Question 3:
Allotment register has been explained under which rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 106
2. Rule 105
3. Rule 107 and 108
4. None of these
Question 4:
With reference to Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 consider the statement given below whether it is true or false?
1.SDO is required to maintain confidential note-book
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 5:
Read the following statements with reference to Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous Rule 1958 and select the correct option using the code given below.
1. The Rule no 181 of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 deals with transfer of ministerial staff.
2. The Rule no 182 of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 deals with exchange of appointment
Question 6:
Chapter 4 Section III Sub-Section II of the Bihar Treasury code explains

1. Bills for contingent charge
2. TA Bills
3. LTC
4. None of these
Question 7:
1.Government officers are entitled to send communication regarding allowance matters at the expense of the State
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 8:
Under Bihar Treasury Code can a bank refuse to pay the bills, cheque and other documents which have not been included in the advice list.
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 9:
All paid vouchers must be stamped paid or so cancelled that they cannot be used for the second time stamps affixed to vouchers must also be cancelled so that they may not be used again. The provision is made under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code.
1. Rule 131
2. Rule 132
3. Rule 133
4. None of these
Question 10:
1 Every collector should make a thorough inspection of his treasury once in six months.
2.Every collector shall also inspect sub divisional treasury once in a year.
Question 11:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code of local funds has been defined.
1. Rule 348
2. Rule 349 & 350
3. Rule 351
4. None of these
Question 12:
1.A register of securities should be kept in register no.73 at the subdivision
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 13:
Miscellaneous deposit for service for local fund has been discussed under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 352
2. Rule 353
3. Rule 354
4. None of these
Question 14:
Under provision of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 a collector is required to inspect his sub treasury
2. thrice in a year
3. Once in a year
Question 15:
1.The incorrect entry in preparation of bill should be cancelled in red ink
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 16:
1. All clerks handling public money are not required to give security.
2.Rules regarding custody of duplicate keys of strong rooms have not been prescribed by the Board of Revenue
Question 17:
The Rule no 51 of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 deals with

1. Inspection of his own office by collector
3. Both A and B
Question 18:
Who will distribute the work among the superintendens?

1. Establishment Deputy Collector
2. Collector
3. Nazarat Deputy Collector
Question 19:
Under which chapter/section of the Bihar Treasury code pension payments have been dealt with
1. Chapter 4 Section 5
4. None of these
Question 20:
The provision for advance Bills register has been explained in which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 108
2. Rule 109
3. Rule 110
4. None of these
Question 21:
Due date for payment of pension is discussed under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 212
2. Rule 213
3. Rule 214
4. None of these
,
Question 22:
All passed bills have to be paid on the same day as far as possible. This has been explained under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 108
2. Rule 109
3. Rule 112
4. None of these
Question 23:
Place of payment of pension has been referred in which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 201
2. Rule 202
3. Rule 203
4. None of these
Question 24:
Loan and Advances has been covered under which chapter of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Chapter 3
2. Chapter 4
3. Chapter 5
4. None of these
Question 25:
How many superintendents are there in a collectorate?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
Question 26:
Fully vouched contingent charges has been dealt in which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 189
2. Rule 190
3. Rule 191
4. None of these
Question 27:
Is there any provision under Bihar Treasury code of making advice list in duplicate
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 28:
Receipts under revenue deposit have been discussed under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 326
2. Rule 327
3. Rule 328
4. None of these
Question 29:
In preparing bill an amount less than fifty paisa is

1. Rounded off to a full Rupee
2. Omitted
3. Both A and B
Question 30:
1.Collectors should promptly report calamity like flood to Commissioner.
2. Collectors should promptly report incidence of communal riot to Commissioner.
Question 31:
1.Government officers are not entitled to send communication regarding allowance matters at the expense of the State
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 32:
The general Provisions for undrawn pensions and arrears have been explained under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 237 & 238
2. Rule 239 & 240

3. Rule 241
4. None of these
Question 33:
Under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code cheque book have to be issued to the drawing officer by treasury
1. Rule 89
2. Rule 90
3. Rule 91
4. None of these
Question 34:
Revenue advances have been dealt with under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 310 & 311
2. Rule 312 to 315
3. Rule 316 & 317
4. None of these
Question 35:
Receipts and repayments under court deposit have been referred under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 330 & 331
2. Rule 332 & 333
3. Rule 334 & 335
4. None of these
Question 36:
Which of the following is included in agricultural deterioration as per the Bihar Board's miscelianeous rules 1958.
1. Breach of embankment
2. failure of rain
3. Both A and B
Question 37:
1.A higher authority has all the power of any lower authority.
2.The Board’s miscellaneous Rules applies to all the subordinate offices
Question 38:
The detailed instructions for Travelling Allowance Bills have been explained under which Rule/Rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 165 to 167
2. Rule 168 & 169
3. Rule 170 & 171
4. None of these
Question 39:
Revalidation cancellation and lapse of Bank drafts is explained under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 103
2. Rule 102
3. Rule 101
4. None of these
Question 40:
Withdrawals from the provident funds and other funds have been discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar treasuary code
1. Rule 368 to 371
2. Rule 372 & 373
3. Rule 374
4. None of these
Question 41:
1.The Board of Revenue is vested with the power of general superintendence of all escheats
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 42:
1.Commissioner of the division may issue circulars.
2.Government have powers to issue circulars
,
Question 43:
1. Abstract bill
2. Character Roll
3. maintenance of service book
Question 44:
Payments for works done through local bodies has been discussed under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 253
2. Rule 254
3. Rule 255
4. None of these
Question 45:
what is the minimum number of days on tour by Commissioner in a quarter?

1. 100 days
2. 50 days
3. 25 days
Question 46:
Is it necessary for a collector to send the inspection note of the treasury to senior officer under rule 89 of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Both A and B
Question 47:
1.The incorrect entry in preparation of bill should be cancelled in blue pen.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 48:
Advances under special laws have been referred under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 317
2. Rule 318
3. Rule 319
4. None of these
Question 49:
Bills for scholarships and stipends have been discussed under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 271
2. Rule 272
3. Rule 276
4. None of these
Question 50:

1. Abstract bill
3. Inspection by SDO
Question 51:
Instruction for keeping record of contingent expenditure is made under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 183
2. Rule 184
3. Rule 182
4. None of these
Question 52:
Classification of contingent chargess incaussed on public service charge have been explained under which Rule/Rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 165 to 167
2. Rule 168 to 169
3. Rule 170 & 171
4. None of these
Question 53:
The provision of countersigned contingencies abstract Bill have been explained under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 191 & 192
2. Rule 193
3. Rule 194
4. None of these
,
Question 54:
under rule 103 of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 is the Superintendent of collectorate responsible for the conduct of every branch of duties of the establishment?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Doubtful
Question 55:

1. Abstract bill
3. Heads of Department
Question 56:
1.The duration of the Collector’s tour should be annually fixed by commissioner
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 57:
Under Bihar Treasury code can a drawing officer, by sending a messenger with an authority slip get a payment of claims
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 58:
As per the Bihar Board's miscellenous Rules 1958 The office hour of collectorate is
1. 09 am to 05 pm
2. 09.30 am to 05 pm
3. 10.30 am to 05 pm
Question 59:
1.The superintendent of a collectorate is authorized to give copy of decree
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 60:
1.A Government Servant should move straight from pay to pension.
2.There are four classes of leaves
Question 61:
Which of the following is included in agricultural deterioration

1. Flooding
2. failure of rain
3. Both A and B
Question 62:
Detailed bill prepared from monthly totals of contingent register has been explained under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 190
2. Rule 191 & 192
3. Rule 193 & 194
4. None of these
Question 63:
Which of the following is included in agricultural deteriorationas per the Bihar Board's miscelianeous rules 1958.
1. Breach in canal
2. Hailstorm
3. Both A and B
Question 64:
Lapsed deposit has been discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 330
2. Rule 331 to 333
3. Rule 334 & 335
4. None of these
Question 65:
Payments to supplies and contractors have been discussed under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 250
2. Rule 251
3. Rule 253
4. None of these
Question 66:
General rules of Bills for contingent charges have been dealt under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 184 to 186
2. Rule 172 to 175
3. Rule 176
4. None of these
Question 67:
Absentee statement is explained under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 148 & 149
2. Rule 159 & 160
3. Rule 161
4. None of these
Question 68:
1.House property may not be accepted as security.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 69:
Contingent charge has been dealt with under which chapter/section of the Bihar Treasury code
4. None of these
Question 70:
1.Officers to whom advance is made is responsible for the safe custody of money.
2.Collectors are not expected to inspect their offices
Question 71:
Periodical identification of pensioners and the general rules relating to this have been discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 233 & 234
2. Rule 235 & 236
3. Rule 237 & 238
4. None of these
Question 72:
Chapter 6 of the Bihar Treasury code discusses which of the following subject
1. Grants in aid
2. Record of payment
3. Deposit Accounts
4. None of these
Question 73:
Income Tax deductions from the pay bill is referred under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 146
2. Rule 147
3. Rule 148 & 149
4. None of these
Question 74:
1. A service book should be maintained for every Government sevant from the date of first appointment
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
,
Question 75:
What is the minimum number of nights spent away from headquarters in a quarter by Commissioner?
1. 35 nights
2. 18 nights
3. 26 nights
Question 76:
1.Register 26 is called inspection book.
2.Guard file of inspection has to be kept in the collectorate
Question 77:
1. A higher authority may not modify the order passed by the lower authority.
2. An officer is expected to refer the matter for decision of higher authority which he is himself competent to dispose of
Question 78:
Checks to be applied at the treasury on claims presented is explained under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 108
2. Rule 109
3. Rule 110 to 120
4. None of these
Question 79:
Inter Government Transactions have been discussed under which chapter of the Bihar treasuary code
1. Chatper 6
2. Chapter 7
3. Chatper 8
4. None of these
Question 80:
The provisions for Public debt have been discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 276 & 277
2. Rule 278
3. Rule 279 to 283
4. None of these
Question 81:
Under which form of Bihar Treasury code the details of officers who are self drawing officers Lentitled to draw their pay and allowances, in that treasury Listed?
1. BTC form 14
2. BTC form 15
3. BTC form 16
4. None of these
Question 82:
Any erasure or overwriting in preparing bill is

1. Allowed
2. Forbidden
3. Permissible
Question 83:
1. The Rule no 168 of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 deals with censure.
2. The Rule no 177 of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 deals with subsistance allowance to suspended staff.
Question 84:
Under which provision of the Bihar Treasury code the House Rent deductions is specifically made
1. Rule 145
2. Rule 146
3. Rule 147
4. None of these
Question 85:
Departmental advances have been referred under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 316 to 318
2. Rule 319
3. Rule 320
4. None of these
Question 86:
1.Government officers are not entitled to send communication regarding pay matters at the expense of the State
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 87:
1.Every controlling officer should make a thorough inspection of each of disbursing officer working under him once in a year
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 88:
Deposits for work done on behalf of individuals & Public bodies has been referred under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 344
2. Rule 345 & 346
3. Rule 347
4. None of these
Question 89:
Provision for making and presenting separate pay bills and allowances for the part of a month have been discussed in which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 141
2. Rule 142
3. Rule 143
4. None of these
Question 90:
Under provision of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 a collector is required to inspect his treasury
2. thrice in a year
3. Once in a year
Question 91:
Under which provision of the Bihar Treasury code attachment of pay and allowances etc. for settlement of debt is explained
1. Rule 146
2. Rule 147
3. Rule 148 & 149
4. None of these
Question 92:
Reconciliation of balances of local funds has been referred under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 353
2. Rule 354
3. Rule 355
4. None of these
Question 93:
1.All property to which there is no legal claimant does not belong to the State
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 94:
Refunds of revenue have been discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 260 to 262
2. Rule 263 to 268
3. Rule 269 to 270
4. None of these
Question 95:
Gratuityes has been discussed under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 234
2. Rule 235
3. Rule 236
4. None of these
,
Question 96:
The SDO is required to inspect

1. His own office
2. BDO’s office
3. Both A and B
Question 97:
Introductory provisions regarding pension payments have been referred under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 198
2. Rule 199 to 202
3. Rule 197
4. None of these
Question 98:
Entries in Treasury messager register at the time of claims payments has been dealt under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 105
2. Rule 106
3. Rule 107
4. None of these
Question 99:
1.Government officers are entitled to send communication regarding leave matters at the expense of the State
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 100:
Under which Rule of the Bihar Treasury code the provision for withdrawal of bill is made by way of authorized messenger
1. Rule 112
2. Rule 113
3. Rule 114
4. None of these
Question 101:
District Board funds have been referred under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 353 & 354
2. Rule 355 to 358
3. Rule 359
4. None of these
Question 102:
1.A higher authority may modify the order passed by the lower authority.
2.An officer is not expected to refer the matter for decision of higher authority which he is himself competent to dispose of.
Question 103:
1.Money may be drawn from government account without presenting bills in the treasury.
2.The district collector is not the head of a district treasury.
Question 104:
Deposite under workmen’s compensation Act have been in laid down under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 348
2. Rule 349
3. Rule 350
4. None of these
Question 105:
Audit objections and recoveries have been dealt with in which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 132
2. Rule 133 & 134
3. Rule 137 to 140
4. None of these
Question 106:
1.Government officers are not entitled to send communication regarding leave matters at the expense of the State
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 107:
The provisions for making advances to the contractors have been discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 253
2. Rule 254
3. Rule 255 to 259
4. None of these
Question 108:
1.Government officers are entitled to send communication regarding pay matters at the expense of the State
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 109:
Which of the following is not included in the duty of an office superintendent of a collectorate
1. Checking of general cash book
2. Relief distribution
3. Checking of attendance register
Question 110:
Which of the following is not included in the duty of an office superintendent of a collectorate?
1. Checking of Nazarat account
2. Checking of attendance register
3. Passing the vouchers
Question 111:
Personal deposit have been discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 338 to 344
2. Rule 351 & 352
3. Rule 353
4. None of these
Question 112:
Under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code the provision for contract contingencies have been made.
1. Rule 172 to 175
2. Rule 176 to 183
3. Rule 187 to 189
4. Rule None of these
Question 113:
Hand receipt for works expenditure paments has been dealt with under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 261
2. Rule 262
3. Rule 263
4. None of these
Question 114:
1. Distribution of daily Dak
2. Distribution of works among the clerks
3. inspection of Gram Panchayat
Question 115:
A bill, cheque or other document presented as a claim for money shall be received and examined by the Accountant and placed for an order of payment betone whom under the Bihar treasury code
1. District Accounts officer
2. Treasury officer
3. Drawing Disbursing officer
4. None of these
Question 116:
1.The rule 233 deals with preparation of pension paper.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 117:
Overtime allowance has been explained under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 160
2. Rule 161
3. Rule 162 & 163
4. None of these
Question 118:
Payment of claims of pension has been discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 211
2. Rule 212
3. Rule 213 to 221
4. None of these
Question 119:
1.Security bond of a clerk can not be transferred to another post
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 120:
What is the minimum number of nights spent away from headquarters in a year by Collector?
1. 25 nights
2. 38 nights
3. 500 nights
Question 121:
Advances to Govt. servants on personal account have been referred under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 319
2. Rule 320
3. Rule 321
4. None of these
Question 122:

1. Inspection of his own office by collector
2. Inspection book
3. Both A and B
Question 123:
Under which rule of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 there is a provision of inspection by Collector
1. Rule 59
2. Rule 36
3. Rule-38
Question 124:
Under which rule of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 there is a provision for Commissioner’s tour programme
1. Rule 54
2. Rule 39
3. Rule- 35
Question 125:
1.The basic purpose of an office inspection is to
1. Find fault with the office
2. Level charges against the officer
3. Explain difficulties and correct the defects
Question 126:
Which of the following is a deemed to be an office superintendent

1. Head clerk of Establishment section
2. Clerk of Zila Nazarat
3. Head clerk of Block office
Question 127:
Forms of pension bills and connected certificates have been discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 213 & 214
2. Rule 222 to 227
3. Rule 228 & 229
4. None of these
,
Question 128:
Provision for Arrear Bills have been explained under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code.
1. Rule 163
2. Rule 164
3. Rule 165
4. None of these
Question 129:
Provisions of repayments of deposits have been made under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 325
2. Rule 326 & 327
3. Rule 328 to 330
4. None of these
Question 130:
Provision for payment of pension in cases relating to transfer within the state is dealt under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 204
2. Rule 205
3. Rule 206
4. None of these
Question 131:
Running Account bill for lump sum contract bill is made under which BTC Form
1. BTC Form 34
2. BTC Form 35
3. BTC Form 37
4. None of these
Question 132:
1.Young officers should attend senior officers’ inspection
2.For proper inspection of an office questionnaire should be framed
Question 133:
1. A register of securities should be kept at the subdivision.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 134:
Can a govt. employee gets his salary of that month on the last working day of the month.
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 135:
Provisions for general deductions from the pay bills of a Govt. employee has been discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code.
1. Rule 141 & 142
2. Rule 143 to 145
3. Rule 137 to 140
4. None of these
Question 136:
Under which rule of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 there is a provision of inspection by Commissioner
1. Rule 54
2. Rule 34
3. Rule- 38
Question 137:
what is the minimum number of days spent on tour by Commissioner in a year?

1. 100 days
2. 120 days
3. 90 days
Question 138:
Provision for payment of pension cases relating to transfers in India is dealt under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 202
2. Rule 203
3. Rule 204
4. None of these
Question 139:
1.The superintendent of Board of Revenue is authorized to sign reminders
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 140:
As per the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules 1985, The Commissioner is required to forward inspection notes to
1. Board of Revenue
2. State Government
3. Both A and B
Question 141:
Special rules applicable to political pensions have been discussed in which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 232
2. Rule 233 & 234
3. Rule 235
4. None of these
Question 142:
General limitations in dealing with contingent chargess have been discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rules 172 to 175
2. Rule 176 to 183
3. Rule 184 to 186
4. Rule 187 to 192
Question 143:
A civil employment means

1. employment by Government
2. employment by local authority
3. Both A and B
Question 144:
Every Voucher must bear a pay order signed or initialed by the responsible disbursing officer, specifying the amount payable both in words and figures. All pay orders must be signed in ink. This provision is made under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code.
1. Rule 131
2. Rule 132
3. Rule 133
4. None of these
Question 145:
Deposit of fees received by govt servent for work done by them for private bodies have been referred under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 345
2. Rule 346
3. Rule 347
4. None of these
Question 146:
Pluse and Minus memoranda have been explained under which rule/rules of the Bihar treasury code
1. Rule 360
2. Rule 361 & 362
3. Rule 363 & 364
4. None of these
Question 147:
Which of the following is an ex officio Treasury officer in respect of his district.

1. DDC
2. Deputy collector
3. SDO
Question 148:
Which of the following is included in agricultural deterioration, as per the Bihar Board's miscelianeous rules 1958
1. Unavailability of tank
2. Drought
3. Both A and B
Question 149:

1. Abstract bill
2. Agricultural deterioration
3. Both A and B
Question 150:
Payment of claims at the treasury has been explained in an introductory manner under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 102
2. Rule 103
3. Rule 104 and 105
4. None of these
Question 151:
1.The Divisional Commissioner’s P.A. can inspect the different sections of the office.
2.The district collector has to maintain confidential note-book.
Question 152:
Recovries of subscriptions under provident and other funds have been dealt with under which rule/rules of the Bihar treasuary code
1. Rule 365
2. Rule 366 & 367
3. Rule 368 to 370
4. None of these
Question 153:
1.Government officers are entitled to send communication regarding transfer matters at the expense of the State
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 154:
1.The Head clerk in a Commissioner’s office may authenticate copies of letters.
2.The district collector is the head of a district treasury
Question 155:
Arrears of pension due in respect of deceased pensioners has been discussed under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 239
2. Rule 240
3. Rule 241
4. None of these
Question 156:
Loans relating to Municipalties, local bodies etc have been discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 310 & 311
2. Rule 312 & 313
3. Rule 314
4. None of these
Question 157:
Under which rule of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 SDO is required to submit tour diary to the Collector?
1. Rule-45
2. Rule-44
3. Rule-49
Question 158:
Payment of commuted pension has been dealt under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 233 & 234
2. Rule 235
3. Rule 236
4. None of these
Question 159:
1.Collectors are not expected to introduce any new practice in the district.
2.Collector should take opinion of Government pleader before sending any case to the Law Department.

,
Question 160:
Under which rule of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 there is a provision of inspection by SDO
1. Rule 54
2. Rule 34
3. Rule-41
Question 161:
1.Government officers are not entitled to send communication regarding transfer matters at the expense of the State
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 162:
Compensetion for land has been discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 274
2. Rule 275
3. Rule 276
4. None of these
Question 163:
As per Bihar Treasury code, under what circumstances separate bills may be presented for pay and allowances for part of a month
1. Only if a gove. servant is on vacation or proceeds on deputation or on leave within India , or
2. Only when a govt. servant quits the Govt. service or is transferred to Foreign service or.
3. Only when when a Govt. servant is transferred to another account circle, or within the same account circle from one department to another, or in the case of the police department from one branch to another involving a different head of account.
4. All of the above
Question 164:
The procedure and the directions for the use of cheques have been explained under which Rule/Rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 88
2. Rule 89 to 95
3. Rule 96 to 98
4. None of these
Question 165:
Authority for paision payment is discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 195 to 198
2. Rule 199 to 202
3. Rule 206 to 209
4. None of these
Question 166:
1. Collectors are expected to introduce any new practice in the district.
2.SDO while excercising important functions is expected to bring to notice of District Magistrate anything injurious to public interest.
Question 167:
Under which rule of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 a half yearly review of collector’s tour has to be made by Commissioner?
1. Rule-45
2. Rule-34
3. Rule-41
Question 168:
Different types of bills and vounchers for making payments for works expenditnre have been discussed under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 259
2. Rule 260
3. Rule 263
4. None of these
Question 169:
Final bill for lump sum contract is made under which BTC Form
1. BTC Form 35
2. BTC Form 38
3. BTC Form 40
4. None of these
Question 170:
Provision for record of payment on pension payment order is dealt with under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 232
2. Rule 233
3. Rule 234
4. None of these
Question 171:
Register of pension payment orders have been discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rules 206 to 209
2. Rules 210 & 211
3. Rule 212
4. None of these
Question 172:
Under which rule of Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is mentioned the hours of attendance of Government Employee?
1. 332
2. 250
3. 105
4. None of these
Question 173:
Heads of departments are not expected to issue important circulars without sanction of Government.
1. False
2. true
3. Both A and B
Question 174:
In which rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is prescribed the rules for the examination in accounts?
1. 443
2. 8
3. 157
4. 234
Question 175:
Under which rule of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 collector is required to submit tour diary to the Commissioner?
1. Rule-45
2. Rule-44
3. Rule-41
Question 176:
1.One clerk can not stand for surety for another clerk
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 177:
1. Office practice
3. Office hour
Question 178:
Procedure for the necessary checks to be applied by the pension disbursing authority have been discussed in which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 223 & 224
2. Rule 225 to 227
3. Rule 228 to 231
4. None of these
Question 179:
Under Bihar Treasury code The bills for monthly salary be presented in the treasury not earlier then 15 days before the last working day of the month. Is this a correct statement
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 180:
First and final bill formaking payments for works expenditure is made under which BTC form of the Bihar Treasury code.
1. BTC Form 34
2. BTC Form 30
3. BTC Form
4. None of these
Question 181:
1. Rules regarding custody of duplicate keys of strong rooms have been prescribed by the Board of Revenue
2.All clerks handling public money are required to give security
Question 182:
1.Malikana or proprietary allowance is of two types.
2.All property to which there is no legal claimant belongs to the State
Question 183:
Which of the following is a deemed to be an office superintendent

1. Head clerk of legal section
2. Clerk of Establishment section
3. Head clerk of Anchal office
Question 184:
1.Security bond of a clerk can be transferred to another post
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 185:
The provision for the bills of sums payment of reserve bank has been given in which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 284
2. Rule 285
3. Rule 286
4. None of these
Question 186:
1.Those controlling officers who have under him large number of disbursing officer should ask their subordinate to inspect.
2.The district collector is not the head of a revenue administration of the district
Question 187:
1. Half yearly inspection of SDO office
2. Half yearly inspection of BDO office
3. Scheme inspection
Question 188:
Under which rule of Bihar Board’s Miscellaneous rules 1958 there is a provision of inspection by a SDO
1. Rule 54
2. Rule-38
3. Rule -45
Question 189:

1. Pension
2. Agricultural deterioration
3. Field tour by Commissioner
Question 190:
Provisions for letter of credit assignments have been explained under which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 88
2. Rule 89 to 95
3. Rule 96 to 98
4. None of these
Question 191:
what is the minimum number of nights spent away from headquarters in a year by Commissioner?
1. 100 nights
2. 120 nights
3. 90 nights

,
Question 192:
Receipts and payments of moneys pertaining to local funds have been discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 349
2. Rule 350
3. Rule 351 & 352
4. None of these
Question 193:
Grants in aid, contributions etc have been discussed under which rule/rules of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 264 to 266
2. Rule 267 & 268
3. Rule 269 to 275
4. None of these
Question 194:
The procedure to be observed by commissions and committees of the government in drawing moneys for their expenditure shall be governed by orders issued in each case. This provision is dealt with in which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 283
2. Rule 284
3. Rule 285
4. None of these
Question 195:
Increment certificate has been explained in which rule of the Bihar Treasury code
1. Rule 160
2. Rule 161
3. Rule 162
4. None of these
Question Bank - Rules of Executive Business
Question 1:
The administrative department will obtain the opinion of such officers and bodies as it seems necessary on the draft bill and submit the opinion received with a copy of the tentative draft bill to the Minister incharge. This provision is laid down under which rule of the Bihar
rules of executive business.
1. Rule 43
2. Rule 44
3. Rule 45
4. None of these
Question 2:
Can a department be allotted to more than one Minister

1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 3:
Departmental disposal of business has been referred and explained under which part of the Bihar rules of executive business
1. Pat I
2. Part II
3. Part III
4. None of these
Question 4:
The finance department shall be consulted before the issue of orders upon all proposals which affect the finances of the state. This provision is made under which rule of the Bihar rules of executive business
1. Rule 33
2. Rule 34
3. Rule 35
4. None of these
Question 5:
The detailed provisions for a cabinet meeting are explained under which rule of the Bihar rules of executive business
1. Rule 19
2. Rule 20
3. Rule 21
4. None of these
Question 6:
The business of the govt. shall be transacted in the departmens specified in the First schedule and shall be classified and distributed between those department as laid down therein. This is referred under which rule of the Bihar rules of executive business.
1. Rule 4
2. Rule 5
3. Rule 6
4. None of these
Question 7:
Under which Article of the constitution of India have Bihar rules of executive business been made.
1. Article 164
2. Article 165
3. Article 166 (3)
4. None of these
Question 8:
A secretary incharge of cabinet coordination department looks after the matter relating to cabinet secretariat, council of Minister and allied matters. Is this a true statements
1. No
2. not at all
3. yes
4. None of these
Question 9:
The finance department may by general or special order prescribe cases in which its assent may be presumed to have been given. This provision is made under which rule of the Bihar rules of executive businesss
1. Rule 36
2. Rule 37
3. Rule 38
4. None of these
Question 10:
All official communication received from the govt. of India other than those of routine or unimportaint character, shall be placed on receipt of the information by the principal secretary concerned before the Minister incharge. This provision is dealt in which rule of
the Bihar rules of the executive business
1. Rule 28
2. Rule 29
3. Rule 30
4. None of these
Question 11:
The view of the finance department shall be brought on the permanent record of the department to which the case belongs and shall form part of the case. This provision is made under which rule of the Bihar rules of the executive business
1. Rule 36
2. Rule 37
3. Rule 38
4. None of these
Question 12:
For making any legistation the department concerned will send the proposal to the law department asking for drafting a bill accordingly. This is referred under which rule of the Bihar rules of executive business.
1. Rule 41
2. Rule 42
3. Rule 43
4. None of these
Question 13:
A secretary to the council of ministers is to be appointed by the Chief Minister which has been referred in which rule of the Bihar rules of executive business
1. Rule 12
2. Rule 13
3. Rule 14
4. None of these
Question 14:
Proposal to initiate legislation shall be treated as a case and shall be disposed of accordingly. This provision is made under which rule of the Bihar rules of executive business
1. Rule 38
2. Rule 39
3. Rule 40
4. None of these
Question 15:
Under which rule of the Bihar rules of the executive business principal secretary/secretary as official head of department has been discussed
1. Rule 7
2. Rule 8
3. Rule 9
4. None of these
Question 16:
under which part of Bihar Rules of excentive Business has allocation and disposal of business been explanded.
1. Part I
2. Part II
3. Part III
4. None of these
Question 17:
Any matter that could bring the state govt. into controressy with govt. of India or any other state govt. must be brought to the notice of the governor, Chief Minister and the Minister incharge. This provision is given under which rule of the Bihar rules of executive business
1. Rule 30
2. Rule 31
3. Rule 32
4. None of these
Question 18:
Under which rule of the Bihar rules of executive business the governor shall on the advice of Chief Minister allot among the Ministers the business of the govt. by assigning one or more department to the charge of a Minister.
1. Rule 4
2. Rule 5
3. Rule 6
4. None of these
Question 19:
Bihar Rules of executive business has been passed originelly in which year
1. 1978
2. 1979
3. 1980
4. None of these
Question 20:
Each Minister shall by means of standing order arrage with the principal secretary/secretary of the department concerned what matter or classes of matters are to be brought to his personal notice. This provision is referred under which rule of the Bihar rules of executive
business
1. Rule 22
2. Rule 23
3. Rule 24
4. None of these
Question 21:
Certain specific cases/proposal by the Principal secretary/secretary of the department concnered shall be sent to Chief Minister through Chief Secretary after consideration by the Minister incharge has been explained in which rule of the Bihar rules of executive business
1. Rule 30
2. Rule 31
3. Rule 32
4. None of these
Question 22:
Provision for making State minister and Dy. Minister is referred under which rules of the Bihar rules of executive business
1. Rule 7
2. Rule 8
3. Rule 9
4. None of these
Question 23:
Council of Minister is collectively responsible for all advices made to the governor. Is this a true statement.
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 24:
In certain matters where state finances are involved a department has to take advice in consultation with the finance department before authorising an order. This provision has been dealt with under which rule of the Bihar rules of the executive business
1. Rule 11
2. Rule 12
3. Rule 13
4. None of these
Question 25:
Procedure of the council of Ministers has been explained under which part of the Bihar rules of executive business.
1. Part I
2. Part II
3. Part III
4. None of these
Question 26:
The Chief Minister may direct any case referred to in the 3rd schedule may instead of being brought up for discussions in the metting of the council, be circulated to the Minister for opinions is referred to which rule of rules of the executive business
1. Rule 16
2. Rule 17
3. Rule 18
4. None of these
Question 27:
The law department will draft the bill on the request of the concerned department and will send to the concerned department. This provision is made under which rule of the Bihar rules of executive business
1. Rule 41
2. Rule 42
3. Rule 43
4. None of these
Question Bank - Bihar Service Code- All Chapters
Question 1:
Can the rules of Bihar Service Code apply to the staff attached to Patna High Court
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 2:
The deduction of income tax surcharge from subsistence grant of a Government servant is a
1. Compulsory deductions
2. Optional deductions
3. Both A and B
Question 3:
As per the Bihar Service Code the sphere of duty of a Govt. servant means the local area within which his duties are ordinarily____________________. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option
1. Confined
2. Important
3. Unimportant
4. None of these
Question 4:
which of the following offices is not head of department.

1. Excise Commissioner
2. Labour Commissioner
3. Joint Labour Commissioner
4. All of the above
Question 5:
Under which rule of the Bihar Service code increment is discussed

1. Rule 80
2. Rule 81
3. Rule 82
4. Rule 83
Question 6:
A Government servant who is put under suspension will receive subsistence grant
1. At a rate equal to full salary
2. At a rate equal to leave salary on half average pay
3. Both A and B
Question 7:
Under which chapter and section of the Bihar Service Code the provisions of pay and other concessions during foreign service is dealt with
1. Chapter VIII Section III
2. Chapter VII Section III
3. Chapter VI Section III
4. None of these
Question 8:
Read the following statements with reference to Bihar Service code and select the correct option.
1.A Government servant can be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period exceeding six years
2.special leave is not allowed to women staff.
4. 1, and 2 are incorrect
Question 9:
As per Bihar Service Code, can a change of date of birth in the service book by the authority be made without giving an opportunity to the concerned employee of being heard
1. Yes
2. No
3. Doubtful
4. None of these
Question 10:
1.The Government have a right to abolish a permanent post
2.A gazetted Government servant means a member of any of the state services
Question 11:
When a Government servant is reinstated after dismissal from service the competent authority has to take decision regarding
1. Pay to be paid during the period of dismissal from service of a Government servant
2. Allowance to be paid during the period of dismissal from service of a Government servant
3. Both A and B
Question 12:
As per the Bihar Service Code subsistence grant means a monthly grant made to a Government servant who is not in receipt of _______________________. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option
1. Ex-graila
2. Any gift
3. Pay or leave salary
4. None of these
Question 13:
The service book should be verified once every year in the month of
1. January
2. June
3. July
Question 14:
Under which chapter/section of the Bihar Service Code the provisions for special and ordinary leave rules is explained
1. Chapter VI/Section II
2. Chapter V/Section I
3. Chapter IV/Section II
4. None of these
Question 15:
Can study leave be combined with other leave?

1. Yes
2. No
3. Doubtful
Question 16:
Read the following statements with reference to Bihar Service Code and select the correct option.
1.The Government do not have a right to abolish a permanent post
2. Deputy Director Industries is a head of department
Question 17:
The deduction on account of repayment of loans and advances taken from Government from subsistence grant of a Government servant
1. Should be made
2. Should not be made
3. Both A and B
Question 18:
Which of the following offices is not head of department

1. Director,agriculture
2. Deputy Labour Commissioner
3. Bihar Public Service Commission
4. All of the above
Question 19:
The Form A.T.M 14 is used for.

1. keeping leave account
2. Issuing leave salary certificate
3. Issuing medical certificate by Civil surgeon
Question 20:
The list of Gazetted posts is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-5
2. Appendix-6
3. Appendix-4
Question 21:
As per the Bihar Services Code a govt. servant on leave may not take any service or accept any employment without obtaining the previous sanction of the authority empowered to appoint him. Is this statement correct.
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
,
Question 22:
On the recommendation of which Central Pay Commission the Government of India decided that the date of superannuation retirement of its employee shall be the afternoon of the last day of the month in which the date of their retirement falls
1. Second central pay commission
2. Third central pay commission
3. Fourth central pay commission
Question 23:
The principles for grant of casual leave is mentioned in

1. Appendix-12
2. Appendix-11
3. Appendix-9
Question 24:
If a Government servant is fully exonerated of the charges leveled against him the competent authority
1. must pass order on the period of absence during the period of suspension
2. must not pass order on the period of absence during the period of suspension
3. Both A and B
Question 25:
Which Rule of Bihar Service code deals with pay of temporary post
1. Rule- 120
2. Rule -94
3. Rule-210
Question 26:
Two or more Government servants ………………to the same permanent post at the same time.
1. can be appointed
2. can not be appointed
3. Both A and B
Question 27:
Under which section of Chapter VI of the Bihar Service code leave accounts is explained
1. Section I
2. Section II
3. Section III
4. None of these
Question 28:
A compulsory retirement means that a Government servant is compulsorily retired before attaining
1. The age of superannuation
2. The age of 60 years
3. Both A and B
Question 29:
If the date of birth of a Government employee of Bihar is 15th of April the date of his retirement will fall on
1. 30 April
2. 31 march
3. 1 April
Question 30:
The rates of contribution payable during foreign service is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-8
2. Appendix-16
3. Appendix-10
Question 31:
1.The head of department means the Government servant mentioned in appendix 8
2.The casual leave can not be claimed as of right.
3. A headquarter of a government servant is fixed by the government servant.
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Question 32:
The Chapter III of Bihar Service Rule deals with

1. General scope
2. Pay
3. Leave
Question 33:
When a Government servant is permitted to suffix holidays to leave

1. his leave ends on the day on which it would have ended if the holiday had not been suffixed
2. his leave ends on the first day after the holidays
3. his leave begins on the last day after the holidays
Question 34:
The Chapter IX of Bihar Service Rule deals with

1. Foreign service
2. Time scale
3. Leave
Question 35:
The Form A.T.C.4 (revised) is used for.

1. Casual leave account
2. Issuing leave salary certificate
3. Service book of non gazetted servant
Question 36:

1. Local holidays may be granted at the discretion of the Head of department
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 37:
As per rule of the Bihar Service Code Ministerial servant means a government servant of a subordinate service whose duties are entirely ____________________. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option.
1. Supervisory
2. Clerical
3. Inspecting
4. None of these
Question 38:
The deduction of electricity charge from subsistence grant of a Government servant is a

3. Both A and B
Question 39:
As per the Bihar Service Code Probationer means a Government servant employed on probation in or against a substantive vacancy in the _____________________ of a department. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option
1. Cadre
2. Organization
3. Place
4. None of these
Question 40:
Under which Rule of Bihar Service Code the Government can declare any officer as Head of Department
1. 234
2. 123
3. 24
Question 41:
1.A person who is subordinate in rank to the appointing authority is not competent to pass the order of dismissal of a Government servant
2.The question of discrimination on account of sex arises where men and women are doing similar work for which they are paid differently.
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
Question 42:
The Rule no 50 of Bihar Service Rule deals with

1. Pay scale
2. Time scale
3. Post scale
Question 43:
If a Government servant is reinstated after dismissal from service the competent authority has to make specific order regarding
1. Whether the said period shall be treated as a period spent on duty
2. Whether the said period shall be treated as period not spent on duty
3. Both A and B
Question 44:
The payment of subsistence grant to a suspended Government employee is subject to furnishing of which type of the following certificate ?
1. The certificate to the effect that he is suspended
2. The certificate to the effect that he is facing departmental proceeding
3. The certificate to the effect that he is not engaged in any other employment
Question 45:
The calculation of standard rent of a residence is provided under which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 129
2. Rule 130
3. Rule 131
4. None of these
Question 46:
If a Government servant is reinstated after suspension, the competent authority has to make specific order regarding
3. Both A and B
Question 47:
Transfer has been defined in which rule of the Bihar Service Code?
1. Rule 50
2. Rule 51
3. Rule
4. None of these
Question 48:
The Section 1 of Bihar Service code, chapter V deals with

1. Definition
2. Compensatory allowances
3. Foreign service
Question 49:
What is the maximum joining time for a Government servant?

1. 20 days
2. 30 days
3. 15 days
Question 50:
Contribution towards the provident fund by a Govt. servant has been made_________________________. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option
1. Compulsory
2. Optional
3. As per one’s choice
4. None of these
Question 51:
Under which rule of the Bihar Service code the allotment of residence to the incumbent may be suspended under certain circumstances
1. Rule 118
2. Rule 119
3. Rule 120
4. None of these
Question 52:
1.A Government servant who is detained in custody should not be suspended
2.A Government servant can always question the validity of the order passed by the disciplinary authority
Question 53:
If a Government servant is fully exonerated of the charges the Government servant is entitled to
1. Full pay
2. Full allowance
3. Both A and B
Question 54:
If the period of suspension of a Government servant exceeds twelve months,who is a competent authority to vary the amount of subsistence grant?
1. The state Government
2. The authority who made the order of suspension
3. Both A and B
Question 55:
Under which rule of the Bihar Service code the procedure regarding application for grant of leave etc. is mentioned
1. Rule 149
2. Rule 150 Read with Appendix 9
3. Rule 151
4. None of these
Question 56:
The Rule no 64 of Bihar Service Code deals with

1. Vacation department
2. Time scale
3. Lien
Question 57:

1.A Government servant transferred to foreign service shall not draw pay from the foreign employer
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 58:
How many days of casual leaves a Government servant working in Patna secretariat can avail of in a year?
1. 16 days
2. 15 days
3. 12 days
Question 59:
Is Bihar Service Code applicable to an employee of Bihar Vidhan Sabha?

1. NO
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 60:
Child Care leave may be granted to a woman employee having minor child below the age of
1. 10 years
2. 18 years
3. 12 years
Question 61:
Which of the following one will not find in a service book of a government employee?
1. identification marks
2. Age
3. Weight
Question 62:
The amount drawn monthly by a Government servant under Bihar Service Code is called
1. Wages
2. Pay
3. Both A and B
Question 63:
Overseas pay has been defined under which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 30
2. Rule 31
3. Rule 32
4. Rule 33
Question 64:
The chapter VII of Bihar Service Rule deals with

1. Joining time
2. Leave
3. Transfer
,
Question 65:
The Chapter VI of Bihar Service Rule deals with

1. Definition of emoluments
2. Leave
3. Dismissal
Question 66:
Maternity leave can be combined with

1. Half pay leave
2. Earned leave
3. any kind of leave, except casual leave
Question 67:

1.Leave may not be granted to a Government servant under suspension
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 68:
A Government servant, after putting in 20 years of service can take ……. …….retirement.
1. Voluntary
2. Superannuation
3. Dismissal
Question 69:
Which Rule of Bihar Service code deals with Child Care leave
1. Rule- 120 A
2. Rule -130A
3. Rule-220A
Question 70:

1.A Government servant on leave can take any service during the period of leave without obtaining the previous sanction of the competent authority.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 71:

1. Registrar, Co operative societies
2. Director ,industries
3. Deputy Director industries
4. All of the above
Question 72:
Officiating pay has been dealt with under which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 77-78
2. Rule 94
3. Rule 89 to 93
4. None of these
Question 73:
As per the Bihar Service Code every govt. servant while entering into the Govt. service, is required to declare his date of birth supported with documentary evidence. Is this true
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 74:
The leave procedure rule is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-8
2. Appendix-5
3. Appendix-16
Question 75:
The Chapter IV of Bihar Service Rule deals with

1. Leave
2. Definition
3. Record of service
Question 76:
What is true of Maternity leave ?

1. Women employee is given full pay during the leave
2. Women employee is not given salary during leave
3. Women employee is given fifty percent of salary
Question 77:
Under which rule of the Bihar Service code the exchange of quarter can be made by Govt. servants who have been allotted residences
1. Rule 124
2. Rule 125
3. Rule 126
4. None of these
Question 78:
How many days of casual leaves a Government servant working in Patna Collectorate can avail of in a year?
1. 20 days
2. 16 days
3. 12 days
Question 79:
As per the Bihar Service Code can a govt. servant be deputed out of India without the previous sanction of the state govt
1. Yes
2. No
3. The permission of the Ministry of foreign Affairs is adequate
4. None of these
Question 80:

1. Foreign service means a service in which a Government receives his substantive pay from the source other than revenues of the state Government
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 81:

1. A Government is required to subscribe to a provident fund under rule 57 of Bihar Service code
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 82:
Commuted leave is explained under which rule of the Bihar Service Code
1. Rule 233
2. Rule 234
3. Rule 235
4. None of these
Question 83:
As per the Bihar Service Code can a Govt. servant be granted continuous leave for more than five years, unless the State Govt. in view of the special circumastances determines?
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
4. None of these
Question 84:
A Govt. servant may, however, be appointed to officiate in a vacant post on which no other person holds a lien by the authority competent to made a substantive appointment to the _____________________. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option in reference of the Bihar
Service Code
1. Vacant post
2. Reserved post
3. Earmarked to the SC/ST
4. None of these
Question 85:
1.The State government is empowered to declare any post gazetted
2.The joining time means the time allowed to a Government servant to join a new post
Question 86:
1.Paternity leave is allowed to expecting father
2.Paternity leave is allowed for two children only
Question 87:
The reduction of pay is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-7
2. Appendix-6
3. Appendix-8
Question 88:
Which of the following is not true in respect of compensatory allowance

1. It is an allowance granted in consideration of loss of private practice
2. It is grant of free passage by sea
3. It is a grant necessitated by the special circumstances in which duty is performed
Question 89:
A permanent post which an individual Government servant may not hold for more than a limited period is called
1. permanent post
2. Temporary post
3. Tenure post
Question 90:
As per the Bihar Service Code, A Vacation department is a department or part of a department to which regular vacations are allowed, during which govt. servant serving in the departments are permitted to be absent from duty. Is this true?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 91:
Duty is defined under which rule of the Bihar Service Code

1. Rule 13
2. Rule 14
3. Rule 15
4. None of these
Question 92:
1.The Government servant who does not join his post within his joining time is entitled to no pay.
2.Wilful absence from duty after the expiry of joining time may be treated as misconduct
4. 1, and 2 are incorrect.
Question 93:
How many years of service is required for a Government servant to take voluntary retirement under Bihar Service Rule?
1. 14 years
2. 15 years
3. 20 years
Question 94:
Pensionable service is defined under which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 34
2. Rule 35
3. Rule 36
4. None of these
Question 95:
Orders recalling Government servant from leave to duty is either …………

1. Optional
2. Compulsory
3. Both A and B
Question 96:
Under which rule of Bihar Service Code a service book is to verified?

1. Rule- 295
2. Rule -297
3. Rule -298

,
Question 97:
Subsistence grant is defined under which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 41
2. Rule 42
3. Rule 43
4. Rule 44
Question 98:
When a Government servant is reinstated after removal from service the competent authority has to take decision regarding
1. Pay to be paid during the period of removal from service of a Government servant
2. Allowance to be paid during the period of removal from service of a Government servant
3. Both A and B
Question 99:

1.A leave granted to a Government servant shall not extend beyond the date of compulsory retirement.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 100:
In the case of a Government servant whose year and month of birth is known but not the exact date his date of birth should be treated as
1. The 6th of the month
Question 101:
The service which qualifies the Government servant to receive a pension under Bihar Service Code is called
1. Tranferable service
2. Lien service
3. pensionable service
Question 102:
For the sanction of an advance relating to the employees of High Court the decision for taking sanction of an advance be done with the consent of the chief justice of High Court. Is this a true statement?
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 103:
How many appendices are there in the Part 2 of the Bihar Service Code?
1. 5
2. 8
3. 16
Question 104:
From which date and year all the Government employees of Bihar retire from service in the afternoon of the last day of the month in which the date of their retirement falls
1. First april, 1971
2. First January,1975
3. First February, 1976
Question 105:
If a Government servant is detained under custody on a criminal charge he should be considered as under suspension for the period during which he is
1. detained
2. released
3. Both A and B
Question 106:
Under which rule of the Bihar Service Code a Vacation department is defined
1. Rule 62
2. Rule 63
3. Rule 64
4. None of these
Question 107:
which of the following offices is not head of department

1. Cane Commissioner
2. Deputy Chief Controller of Account
3. I.G of police
4. All of the above
Question 108:
As per the Bihar Service Code can a leave be claimed as a matter of right
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
4. None of these
Question 109:
1.The Bihar Service Code came into force in January 1955
2.The University staff are governed by the provisions of the Bihar Service Code.
Question 110:

1. Verification of service records
2. Verification of service book
3. Verification of post
Question 111:
1.Special pay means an addition to the emolument of a post of a Government servant granted in consideration of special nature of the duty
2.A probationer means a Government servant employed on probation.
Question 112:
Under which rule of Bihar Service Code a separate register for service book is to be maintained by every head of office?
1. Rule- 295
2. Rule -299
3. Rule -298
Question 113:
1.The Rule 17 deals with the foreign service of a Government servant
2.The office of the District Judge is not included in the vacation department.
Question 114:
General conditions of leave has been discussed in which Chapter of the Bihar Service code
1. Chapter V
2. Chapter VI
3. Chapter VII
4. None of these
Question 115:
Not more than one day is allowed to a Govt. servant in order to join a new post, when the appointment to such post does not necessarily involve a change of residence from one station to another. This provision is made under which rule of the Bihar Service Code
1. Rule 252
2. Rule 253
3. Rule 254
4. None of these
Question 116:
As per the Bihar Service Code does resignation include voluntary retirement?
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 117:
A Government servant against whom a criminal charge or a proceeding of arrest for debt is pending he
1. Should be placed under suspension by the issue of specific order
2. Should not be placed under suspension by the issue of specific order
3. Both A and B
Question 118:
Leave encashment against the accumulated earned leave is to be paid to a retired govt. servant
1. One month before retirement
2. Within one month after retirement
3. On the date of retirement
4. None of these
Question 119:
The Rule 9 of Bihar Service Code deals with

1. Cadre
2. Salary
3. Age
Question 120:
The payment of emolument allowed to government servant in consideration of additional work or responsibility under Bihar service Code is called
1. personal pay
2. special pay
3. average pay
Question 121:
Under rule 289 of Bihar Service Code a service book is to be kept in the custody of ……
1. Head Clerk
2. head of the office
3. Both A and B
Question 122:
Every entry in a service book has to be attested by

1. A senior gazette officer
2. head of the office
3. Both A and B
Question 123:
As per the Bihar Service Code Permanent post means a post carrying a definite rate of pay and sanctioned without _________________________. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option
1. Allowances
2. Salary
3. Limit of time
4. None of these
Question 124:

1.If a Government servant is transferred to foreign service while on leave he ceases from the date of transfer to be on leave and to draw leave salary
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 125:
The Compensatory leave becoming due to a Government servant in 2018 can only be availed in the year
1. 2018
2. 2019
3. Both A and B
Question 126:
Under special circumstances if no other leave is admisssible under the Bihar Service Code, which leave can be granted to the state govt. servants under Bihar Service Code
1. Special leave
2. Extraordinary leave
3. Half pay Leave
4. None of these
Question 127:

1.The period of probation of a probationer can not be extended by the Government
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 128:
In case a govt. servant on a temporary post is a head of the department then the sanction of advance for him be made by whom ?
1. Himself
2. By immediate superior officer
3. AG
4. None of these
,
Question 129:
The Chapter VI of Bihar Service Rule deals with

1. Record of service
2. foreign service
3. Joining Time
Question 130:
The Chapter V of Bihar Service Rule deals with

1. Definition
2. Leave
3. Foreign service
Question 131:
The payment of emolument allowed to government servant in consideration of unhealthiness of the locality under Bihar service Code is called
1. personal pay
2. Local pay
3. Special pay
Question 132:
1.The leave account is maintained for each Government servant in prescribed proforma.
2.The secretariat staff of Legislature are governed by the provisions of the Bihar Service Code.
Question 133:

1. A Government employee is treated on duty for the purpose of pension and leave if he is a probationer.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 134:
A Government servant may be retained in service beyond the date of superannuation retirement on………..
1. Personal ground
2. National ground
3. Public ground
Question 135:
How many days of Child Care leave a woman Government servant can avail of in her entire service?
1. 200 days
2. 730 days
3. 120 days
Question 136:

1.A Government servant who remains absent from duty on leave or without leave for a continuous period exceeding five years ceases to be in the service of the Government
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 137:
The Form A.T.M 12 is used for.

1. Issuing leave salary
2. Issuing certificate of leave
Question 138:
The constitutional protection to Govt. servants guaranteed by Article 311 of the constitution is also available to persons holding temporary posts, subject to _____________. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option
1. Certain restrictions and limitations
2. Certain clarifications
3. Certain Problems
4. None of these
Question 139:
The Rule 236 of Bihar Service Rule deals with

2. Extra ordinary Leave

3. Dismissal
Question 140:
As per the Bihar Service Code. permanent Govt. Servant means a Govt. Servant who holds a lien on a permanent post or would hold a lien on such a post had his lien ________________. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option
1. Not been withdrawn
2. Not been terminated
3. Not been suspended
4. None of these
Question 141:

2. Leave
3. Dismissal
Question 142:
All corrections in a service book is to be attested by

1. Head of the office or any senior gazetted officer under him
2. Any gazetted officer
3. Both A and B
Question 143:
Can a leave be granted to a Government servant under suspension?

1. No
2. Yes
Question 144:
As per the Bihar Service Code Special pay means an addition of the nature of pay to the emolument of a post or of a Govt. servant, granted in consideration of
1. The Specially arduous nature of the duties or
2. A specific addition to the work or responsibility.
3. The unhealthiness of the locality in which the work is Performed
4. All the above
Question 145:

1. The Government is competent to reduce or refuse joining time
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 146:
Is there a provision for a special compensatory allowance to the govt. servants posted in Tribal areas
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 147:
Leave salary has been explained in which section of Chapter VI of the Bihar Service code
1. Section IV
2. Section V
3. Section VI
4. None of these
Question 148:
After rendering 20 years of service a Government servant takes voluntary retirement will he be allowed the payment of gratuity under Bihar Service Rule?
1. No
2. Yes
3. never
Question 149:
The rules regarding pay fixation of gazetted servant on promotion is mentioned in.
1. Appendix-5
2. Appendix-8
3. Appendix-4
Question 150:
The principles to be observed in granting or refusing leave is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-8
2. Appendix-12
3. Appendix-10
Question 151:
Which one of the following departments is competent to issue directions/ instructions regarding the calculation and fixation of annual increament for the govt. servant
3. A.G. Bihar
4. None of these
Question 152:
In case of doubt who is competent to decide whether A particular Government servant is serving in a vacation department or not
1. The head of the office
2. The state Government
3. Both A and b
Question 153:
The service records of gazette Govt. servants of Group A are maintained by

2. Accountant general of Bihar
Question 154:
A Govt. Servant who has been granted leave on medical certificate is required to produce fitness certificate for resuming duty. made under which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 161
2. Rule 162
3. Rule 163
4. None of these
Question 155:
Whether a Government servant can be compulsorily retired from service if it is considered that his efficiency or conduct is not such as to justify his retention in service
1. Yes
2. No
3. Doubtful
Question 156:
The deduction of water tax from subsistence grant of a Government servant is a

3. Both A and B
Question 157:
Special pay has been defined under which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 40
2. Rule 41
3. Rule 42
4. None of these
Question 158:
which of the following is a competent authority to issue instruction for fixation of annual increment to a Government Servant
1. General administration department
2. A G Bihar
Question 159:
With reference to Bihar Service Code consider the following statement and give answer which of the following statements is/are correct
1.In chapter II there are definitions.
2.The Bihar Service Code does not apply to Secretariat service.
3. it is not necessary for an employee to declare his date of birth
Question 160:
The deduction of house rent from subsistence grant of a Government servant is a

3. Both A and B
,
Question 161:
Which of the following offices is not head of department.

1. Commissioner of the division
2. Commissioner,commercial taxes
3. Deputy Director ,Public relations
4. All of the above
Question 162:
Choose the most appropriate option

As per the Bihar Service Code transfer means the movement of a Govt. servant from one headquarter station in which he is employed to another such station, either
1. to take up the duties of a new post, or
2. in consequence of a change of his headquarters
3. both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 163:
Annual verification of service books of Govt. servants is required under which rule of the Bihar Service Code?
1. Rule 296
2. Rule 297
3. Rule 298
4. None of these
Question 164:
1.A Government servant can not be transferred from a post carrying more pay to a post carrying less pay on the grounds of inefficiency and misconduct.
2.The deduction of income tax from the subsistence grant of a suspended government servant is permissible.
Question 165:

1. District and sessions judge
2. Director Animal husbandry
3. Deputy Director Land Acquisition
4. All of the above
Question 166:
Apprentice means a person deputed for training in a trade or business with a view to employment in govt. service. This is defined under which rule of the Bihar Service Code
1. Rule 9
2. Rule 10
3. Rule 11
4. None of these
Question 167:

1. Joining time
2. Transfer Of Government servant
3. Leave
Question 168:
The procedure followed in the medical examination of Govt. servants appointed to Gazetted posts has been provided under which rule of the Bihar Srevice code
1. Rule 50
2. Rule 51
3. Rule 55
4. Rule 52 A
Question 169:
Under which rule of the Bihar Service Code the provisions for keeping service records of the Gazatted Govt. servants is made
1. Rule 286
2. Rule 287
3. Rule 288
4. None of these
Question 170:
A Government servant who is put under suspension will receive subsistence grant
1. From the date of suspension
2. From and including the date of suspension
3. Both A and B
Question 171:
The Rule no.73 of Bihar Service Rule deals with

1. voluntary retirement
2. Superannuation retirement
3. Foreign service
Question 172:
If a Government servant is fully exonerated of the charges leveled against him the Rule 97 (2) is
1. not applicable
2. Applicable
3. Both A and B
Question 173:

1. Head of department means the Government servants mentioned in Appendix 6
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 174:
A transfer means a movement of a Government servant from one station to another station to
1. take up new assignment
2. join new station
3. Both A and B
Question 175:
A casual leave can not be combined with other leave.

1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 176:
Can a govt. servant on leave accept any service or take any employment without the prior permission of the authority who appointed him? This is explained under which rule of the Bihar Service Code ?
1. Rule 166
2. Rule 167
3. Rule 168
4. None of these
Question 177:
Which of the following is a vacation department?

1. office of school inspector
2. DEO office
3. District Court
Question 178:
Read the following statements with reference to Bihar Service Code and select the correct option.
1.A Government servant shall be considered to be in occupation of his residence when absent on tour
2.A Government servant can be transferred to an undertaking.
Question 179:
The Rule no 253 of Bihar Service Rule deals with the Government power to
1. Refuse joining time
2. Reduce joining time
3. Both A and B
Question 180:
The monthly amount paid by Government to a Government servant on leave under Bihar Service Code is called
1. Holiday salary
2. Leave salary
3. Joining time salary
Question 181:
1.The Rule 22 deals with the headquarter of a Government servant
2.The casual leave can be claimed as a matter of right
Question 182:
1.The Bihar service Code contains the Pension Rules of the Government servant
2.The office of the District Education Officer is included in the vacation department.
Question 183:
Pay of temporary posts has been explained in which rule of the Bihar Service code?
1. Rule 91
2. Rule 92
3. Rule 93
4. Rule 94
Question 184:

1.A Government servant Who is dismissed from service but is subsequently reinstated is entitled to count his former service towards leave.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 185:
1.The Bihar Service Code came into force with effect from 1st December,1952.
2.The secretariat staff of Raj Bhawan are governed by the provisions of the Bihar Service Code.
Question 186:
The Chapter VII of Bihar Service Rule deals with

1. Foreign service
2. Definition
3. Leave salary
Question 187:
1. 30 April
2. 31 march
3. 1 april
Question 188:

1. Additional pay
2. Leave
3. Foreign service
Question 189:
Under which rule of Bihar Service Code a Government servant can be asked to take compulsory retirement
1. Rule- 102
2. Rule-74
3. Rule-65
Question 190:
Overseas pay means pay granted to a Govt. servant in consideration of the fact that he is serving in a country other than the country of his _________________. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option in reference of the Bihar Service Code
1. Choice
2. Taste
3. Domicile
4. None of these
Question 191:

1.A Government servant transferred to foreign service may accept a pension from his foreign employer
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 192:
A pension includes
1. Gratuity
2. leave encashment
3. Both A and B
Question 193:
Consider the statement given below whether it is true or false

A Government servant may be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period exceeding five years
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 194:
As per the Bihar Service Code A Govt. servant may be required to------------------------ to a provident fund, a family pension fund or other similar fund, in accordance with such rules as the state govt. or any higher authority may be order prescribe.
1. prescribe
2. subscribe
3. Deny
4. None of these
Question 195:

1. A medical certificate is necessary for appointment of more than three months
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 196:
Which of the following is not included in compensatory allowance

1. An allowance granted in consideration of personal expenditure
2. A dearness allowance
3. A travelling allowance
Question 197:
A medical certificate of health signed by a commissioned medical officer is required to be affixed to the first pay bill by a person substantively appointed to a permanent post in Govt. service as mandated under which rule of the Bihar Service Code
1. Rule 50
2. Rule 51
3. Rule 52
4. None of these
Question 198:
Leave for field establishment of the Bihar Survey Department has been explained in which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 192
2. Rule 193
3. Rule 194
4. None of these
Question 199:
Grant of an extraordinary leave has been dealt with under which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 180 and 236
2. Rule 181
3. Rule 182
4. None of these
Question 200:
Under which rule of Bihar Service Code it is mentioned that two or more Government servants can not be appointed to the same post at the same time
1. 98
2. 67
3. 45
Question 201:
As per the Bihar Service Code Pension includes ______________________. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option.
1. Leave encashment
2. Commuted pension
3. Gratuity
4. None of these
Question 202:
Under which Rule of Bihar Service Rule the Government can declare any officer as Head of Department
1. 234
2. 123
3. 21
Question 203:
Which of the following leave is not debitable against leave account of a Government servant?
1. Commuted leave
2. Half pay leave
3. Study leave
Question 204:
The term officiate has been defined under which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 31
2. Rule 32
3. Rule 33
4. None of these
Question 205:
If the date of birth of a Government employee of Bihar is first of April the date of his retirement will fall on
1. 30 April
2. 31 march
3. 1 april
Question 206:
1.No Government servant shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period exceeding five years
2.special leave is allowed to women staff.
Question 207:
The provision for not granting continuous leave for more than five years to a Govt. servant is explained in which rule of the Bihar Service code.
1. Rule 74
2. Rule 75
3. Rule 76
4. Rule 77
Question 208:
How much time is allowed to join a new post in which there is no change of headquarter
1. 5 days
2. 2 days
3. 1 day
Question 209:

1.A Government servant on leave not due is entitled to leave salary
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 210:
As per the Bihar Service Code is study leave deducted from the leave account
1. Yes
2. Doubtful
3. No
4. None of these
Question 211:
Compensatory allowance has been defined and explained under which Chapter/Section of the Bihar Service code
1. Chapter V Section I
2. Chapter IV Section II
3. Chapter VI Section III
4. None of these
Question 212:
1.The Bihar Service Code deals with T.A of a Government servant
2.The office of the District Judge is included in the vacation department.
Question 213:
When a Government servant is permitted to prefix holidays to leave

1. his leave begins on the first day before the holidays
2. his leave begins on the first day after the holidays
3. his leave begins on the last day after the holidays

,
Question 214:
Which rule of Bihar Service Rule deals with the retention of a Government servant beyond the date of superannuation retirement
1. Rule- 102
2. Rule-73
3. Rule-45
Question 215:
Whenever no other leave is available in leave account of a Government servant which leave may be allowed in special circumstances
1. Maternity leave
2. Paternity leave
3. Extra ordinary leave
Question 216:
The S.C Form 3 is used for.

Question 217:
The pay and allowance of a Government servant who is dismissed from service ceases from the date of
1. From the date of dismissal
2. From and including the date of dismissal
3. Both A and B
Question 218:
1.The leave account of a Group A gazetted government servant shall be maintained by the Accountant general
2.The leave account of a non-gazetted Government servant shall be maintained by the head of the office in which he is employed
Question 219:
Service Book of a Government servant should be verified

1. annually
2. Half yearly
3. Bi-monthly
Question 220:
Personal pay is defined under which rules of the Bihar Service Code
1. Rule 38
2. Rule 39
3. Rule 40
4. None of these
Question 221:
The special casual leave is admissible to

1. Sports person in Government job
2. Every Government servant
3. Government teacher
Question 222:
Special casual leave for the sports person Govt. servants for participating in state Level/interstate level sports can be sanctioned by
1. Chief Minister
2. Governor
3. Sports Ministrer
Question 223:
Time scale pay has been explained in which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 46
2. Rule 47
3. Rule 49
4. Rule 50
Question 224:
Temporary post has been defined under which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 48
2. Rule 49
3. Rule 50
4. None of these
Question 225:
The list of delegated power is mentioned in

1. Appendix-5
2. Appendix-3
3. Appendix-4
Question 226:

1.Holiday means a holiday notified by section 5 of the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 227:
Leave not due has been dealt with in which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 178
2. Rule 179
3. Rule 180
4. None of these
Question 228:
Child Care leave is granted to

1. Male employee
2. Female employee
3. Both the female and male employee
Question 229:

1. A Government servant may be deputed out of state without previous sanction of the state Government
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 230:

1. Foreign service means a service in which a Government receives his substantive pay from the revenues of the state Government
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 231:
1.The Rule 19 deals with the General Revenues of the Government
2.The casual leave can not be claimed as a matter of right.
Question 232:

1. issuing a medical certificate by Medical Board
Question 233:
An addition of pay to the emolument allowed to government servant in consideration of arduous nature of duty under Bihar service Code is called
1. Average pay
2. Local pay
3. Special pay
Question 234:
Study leave has been explained under which section/sub section of the chapter VI of the Bihar Service Code
1. Section VII Sub-Section (1)
4. None of these
Question 235:
The deduction of income tax from subsistence grant of a Government servant is a
3. Both A and B
Question 236:
Under Section VI Sub-Section (4) of Chapter VI of the Bihar Service code the Leave provisions for which category of working staff is made
1. Part time govt. servants
2. Probationers & Apprentices
3. Field staff of Survey Department
4. None of these
Question 237:

1.When a Government servant is permitted to prefix holidays to leave his leave begins on the first day after the holidays
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 238:
The rates of contribution payable during foreign service is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-8
2. Appendix-6
3. Appendix-10
Question 239:
When a Government servant is suspended he…………..

1. ceases to be a government servant
2. does not cease to be a government servant
3. Both A and B
Question 240:

1. A Government servant who has been allotted a Government accommodation can allow and accommodate another Government servant who has not been allotted a Government accomodation
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 241:
The provision for determination of domicile is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-10
2. Appendix-3
3. Appendix-12
Question 242:
1.The leave applied for can be refused in public interest
2.Leave salary is payable to a government servant
Question 243:
Every period of suspension or interruption of service must be noted

1. with full details in service records
2. With no details
3. Both A and B
Question 244:
Holiday and Sunday can be ………….to casual leave

1. Prefixed
2. Suffixed
3. Both A and B
Question 245:
The Leave procedure in the case of Govt. servants on leave out of India is mentioned in
1. Appendix-11
2. Appendix-9
3. Appendix-10

,
Question 246:

1. A foreign service means a service in which a Government servant receives his substantive pay with the sanction of government from any source other than the revenues of the Government
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 247:
Under which rule of the Bihar Service code sphere of duty is defined
1. Rule 42
2. Rule 43
3. Rule 44
4. None of these
Question 248:
When a Government servant is suspended the Government is under obligation to pay…………..

1. monthly salary
2. monthly subsistence grant
3. Both A and B
Question 249:
The rules made under Rent Rules are mentioned in.

1. Appendix-9
2. Appendix-8
3. Appendix-7
Question 250:
Can a govt. servant take additional wages against the work done in a non government organization
1. Yes
2. No
3. Doubtful
4. None of these
Question 251:
A Government servant granted leave on medical certificate can

1. return to duty without first producing a certificate of fitness
2. not return to duty without first producing a certificate of fitness
3. Both A and B
Question 252:
The principles to be observed in granting or refusing leave is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-8
2. Appendix-7
3. Appendix-10
Question 253:
How much is the duration of maternity leave.

1. 180 days
2. 135 days
3. 150 days
Question 254:
The list of Ministerial government servants is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-8
2. Appendix-6
3. Appendix-4
Question 255:
In which section of the chapter IV of the Bihar Service Code the payments in cases of dismissal, removal or suspension is discussed
1. Section I
2. Section II
3. Section IV
4. Section V
Question 256:
Which Section of Bihar Service Code chapter IV deals with payments in case of dismissal of a Government servant.
1. Section- V
2. Section -IV
3. Section -X
Question 257:
Maternity leave is explained under which section/sub section of the chapter VI of the Bihar Service Code
1. Section VII Sub Section (1)
4. None of these
Question 258:
Is there any provision for the govt. servants who are the players of different sports for special casual leave under specific circumstances
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 259:
The leave encashment of unutilized leave is payable

1. Before retirement
2. After retirement
3. It is not payable
Question 260:
Military pay and allowances has been defined under which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 34 (b)
2. Rule 35
3. Rule 36
4. None of these
Question 261:
How much is the duration of Child care leave

1. 180 days
2. 135 days
3. 730 days
Question 262:
Under what circumstances a govt. servant who is a player of particular sports may be allowed to avail special casual leave ?
1. to take part in state level or interstate level sports
2. When a govt. servant is selected for taking part in state level or interstate level sports
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
Question 263:

1. No Government servant shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period exceeding five years
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 264:
The list of posts classed as inferior is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-5
2. Appendix-6
3. Appendix-7
Question 265:
If the period of suspension exceeds twelve months the amount of subsistence grant may be increased by a suitable amount not exceeding………………….of subsistence grant admissible
1. 20 %
2. 40%
3. 50%
Question 266:
1.The charge of an office must be made over at its headquarters both the relieved and relieving officer being present.
2.It shall not be necessary for both the relieving and relieved officer to be present in some exceptional cases.
Question 267:
which is the date of superannuation/ retirement of a government servant?

1. the date he attains the age of 60 years
Question 268:
The Medical Certificate for appointment to Govt. service in case of examination by Medical Board is to be filed in
1. S.C Form-1
2. S.C Form-2
3. S.C Form-3
Question 269:
Grant of leave has been explained in which section of Chapter VI of the Bihar Service code
1. Section I
2. Section II
3. Section III
4. Section IV
Question 270:
On transfer the making over of charge has been explained under which rule of the Bihar Service Code
1. Rule 56
2. Rule 57
3. Rule 58
4. Rule 59
Question 271:
1.The Bihar Service Code deals with T.A of a Government servant
2.The secretariat staff of Raj Bhawan are governed by the provisions of the Bihar Service Code.
Question 272:
Under which rule of the Bihar Service code a govt. servant has been provided to draw his pay and allowances attached to the tenure of his post, with effect from the date on which he assumes the duties of that post
1. Rule 56
2. Rule 57
3. Rule 58
4. None of these
Question 273:
Superior service has been defined under which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 44
2. Rule 45
3. Rule 46
4. Rule 47
Question 274:
Under which rule of the Bihar Service Code can a govt. servant be retired compulsorily if his/her efficiency is not such as to justify his /her retention in service
1. Rule 76
2. Rule 74
3. Rule 75
4. None of these
Question 275:
The rules regarding pay fixation of gazetted servant on promotion is mentioned in.
1. Appendix-5
2. Appendix-6
3. Appendix-4
Question 276:
As per the Bihar Service Code Pensionable service means service which qualifies the government servant performing it to receive a pension from ____________________. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option
1. Joint fund
3. General revenues
4. None of these
Question 277:
For the sanction of advance to a temporary Govt employee would be made with a security by a permanent Govt. employee. Is this a true statement?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 278:
1. Suspension
2. Rent rules
Question 279:
The payment of monthly grant made to a government servant who is not in receipt of pay or leave salary under Bihar service Code is called
1. Average pay
2. Subsistence grant
3. Special pay
4. Special pay
Question 280:
The Compensatory leave is allowed to a Government servant as compensation for working on

1. Working day
2. Public holiday
3. Both A and B
Question 281:
A compulsory retirement under section 74 of Bihar Service Code amounts to

1. dismissal from service
2. no dismissal from service
3. Both A and B
Question 282:
1. 30 April
2. 31 march
3. 10 April
Question 283:

1.Leave begins on the day on which charge is handed over.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 284:
The rules made under rent Rules is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-9
2. Appendix-6
3. Appendix-7
Question 285:

1. The rule 69 deals with handing over and taking over of charge of Government Service
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 286:
Is there any provision in the Bihar Service code for a Govt. servant who have been allotted Govt. quarter to allow and accommodate one or more govt. Servants in his allotted quarter who have not been allotted govt. quarters.
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 287:
2.The Bihar Service Code does not deal with the service conditions of Government servant.
Question 288:
1.The Rule of Bihar service code does apply to all government servants.
2.The casual leave can be claimed as a matter of right.
3. The State Government may prescribe any place as a headquarter of a Government servant
Question 289:
2.The office of the district magistrate is included in the vacation department.
Question 290:
Can the State govt. reduce or refuse the joining time admissible under Chapter VII
1. No
2. Not at all
3. Yes
4. None of these
Question 291:
The list of Specially declared Gazetted posts is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-5
2. Appendix-6
3. Appendix-2
Question 292:
Which of the following is not true in respect of duty.

1. period spent during joining time
2. period spent during casual leave
3. period spent in learning an oriental language
Question 293:
A post carrying a definite rate of pay and is only for a limited period is called
1. permanent post
2. Temporary post
3. Special post
Question 294:
Under which rule of Bihar Service Code a service book is necessary to be maintained.
1. 345
2. 288
3. 123
Question 295:
What are the permissible deduction from subsistence grant of a Government servant
3. Both A and B
Question 296:

1. No medical certificate is necessary for appointment for three months
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 297:
The rules for grant of casual leave is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-12
2. Appendix-11
3. Appendix-13
Question 298:
If a Government servant is reinstated after removal from service the competent authority has to make specific order regarding
3. Both A and B
Question 299:
The payment of regular salary of a Government servant who is put under suspension ceases from the date of
1. From the date of suspension
2. From and including the date of suspension
3. Both A and B
Question 300:
The Leave Procedure Rules are therein.

1. Appendix-6
2. Appendix-9
3. Appendix-10
Question 301:
Which of the following is competent to issue instructions for fixation of annual increment to a Government servant
1. A.G.Bihar
Question 302:
The rules contained in Bihar Service Code came into effect from
1. 5th December 1952
2. 1st December 1952
3. 1st December 1953
4. None of these
Question 303:
As per the Bihar Service Code temporary post means a post carrying a definite rate of pay and sanctioned for a _______________________. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option.
1. Long terms
2. Limited time
3. Short term
4. None of these
Question 304:
1.Six days for preparation are allowed as joing time to a government servant in cases where there is a change of place of posting
2.maximum joining time allowed to a Government servant is 10 days
Question 305:
1.In 2016 the State Government increased the duration of maternity leave
2.The deduction of income tax from the subsistence grant of a suspended government servant is not permissible.
Question 306:
1.Failure to supply copy of statement of witnesses examined in preliminary inquiry amounts to denial of reasonable opportunity to defend
2.A suspension order can not be made with retrospective effect.
Question 307:
Right of employee to pension and gratuity is ________________. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option.
1. fundamental right
2. statutory right
3. principal right
4. None of these
Question 308:
Special disability leave is explained in which section/Sub-Section of the chapter VI of the Bihar Service code.
4. None of these
Question 309:
The provision for determination of domicile is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-10
2. Appendix-14
3. Appendix-12

,
Question 310:
The list of posts classed as inferior is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-5
2. Appendix-6
3. Appendix-4
Question 311:

1. An increment in salary may be drawn as a routine matter unless it is withheld
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 312:
1.The Cane commissioner of Bihar is a head of the department
2.The Labour Commissioner ,Bihar is also a head of the department.
Question 313:
The list of delegated power is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-5
2. Appendix-1
3. Appendix-4
Question 314:
The time allowed to government servant from one station to another station on his transfer under Bihar Service Code is called
1. Holiday
2. Transfer leave
3. Joining time
Question 315:
Which of the following is not true in respect of compensatory allowance

1. It is an allowance granted in consideration of loss of amenities
2. It is a living allowance
3. It is granted in special circumstances
Question 316:

1. Foreign service includes a service rendered by a Government servant on deputation in a corporation set up by Government
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 317:
The rules of Bihar Service Code will apply to which one of the following
1. All Govt. Servants under the rule making control of the state Govt
2. Gazetted officer state Govt only
3. Non-Gagetted employees state Govt only
4. None of these
Question 318:
1.The State Government is empowered to transfer a Government servant from one cadre to another
2.A Government servant can be transferred from a post carrying more pay to a post carrying less pay on the grounds of inefficiency or misconduct.
Question 319:
Under which Chapter of the Bihar Service Code, service records of the Govt. servants related rules are mentioned
1. Chapter VIII
2. Chapter IX
3. Chapter X
4. None of these
Question 320:
Permanent government servant has been defined under which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 37
2. Rule 38
3. Rule 39
4. None of these
Question 321:
Child Care leave is granted to any women Government servant for

1. one child only
2. Two children only
3. Three children only
Question 322:
1.The State Government have dispensed with the requirement of attaching the Medical certificate of fitness in the first pay bill in respect of Gazetted Government servant
2.The casual leave can not be claimed as of right.
4. both 1 and 2 are incorrect
Question 323:

1.Leave is earned by duty only.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 324:
Every step in a Govt. Servants official life must be recorded in service book of a Government servant is dealt with in
1. Rule.287
2. Rule.290
3. Both A and B
Question 325:
The list of Govt. servants specially classed as Ministerial Government Servant is mentioned in.
1. Appendix-5
2. Appendix-6
3. Appendix-4
Question 326:
The instructions issued by the Auditor General under Fundamental Rule procedure relating to leave are mentioned in.
1. Appendix-8
2. Appendix-9
3. Appendix-10
Question 327:

1. A Government servant may be deputed out of India without previous sanction of the state Government
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 328:
The Chapter II of Bihar Service Rule deals with

1. Pay scale
2. Time scale
3. Leave salary
Question 329:
Ministerial servant has been defined under which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 27
2. Rule 28
3. Rule 29
4. Rule 30
Question 330:

1.When a Government servant reverts from foreign service to Government service his pay shall continued to be paid by the foreign employer.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful

,
Question 331:
Which of the following is a vacation department

1. office of school inspector
2. DEO office
3. RDDE office
Question 332:
The deduction of premium of group insurance from subsistence grant of a Government servant is a
3. Both A and B
Question 333:
To change a date of birth of a Government servant in the Service Book

1. employee should be heard
2. employee should not be heard
3. Both A and B
Question 334:

1. Refusal of joining time
2. Reduction of joining time
3. Both A and B
Question 335:
Average pay means the average monthly pay earned during the twelve complete months preceding the month in which the event occurs which necessitates the calculation of average pay and which has been defined in which rule of the Bihar Service Code
1. Rule 10
2. Rule 11
3. Rule 12
4. None of these
Question 336:
Is Bihar Service Code applicable to an employee of Patna High Court?

1. NO
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 337:
Revised leave rules has been explained under which section of Chapter VI of the Bihar Service code
1. Section III
2. Section VI
3. Section VIII
4. None of these
Question 338:
As per the Bihar Service Code superior service means any kind of service which is not _________________. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option
1. Good
2. Inferior
3. Proper
4. None of these
Question 339:
The provision of age has been discussed in which rule of the Bihar Service Code
1. Rule 9
2. Rule 10
3. Rule 11
4. None of these
Question 340:

1. Board of Revenue
2. Deputy Director Rajbhasa
3. I.G of police
4. All of the above
Question 341:
A right of post retiral benefit is a

1. Constitutional right
2. Statutory right
3. Both A and B

,
Question 342:

1. Definition
2. Leave
Question 343:
How much was the duration of maternity leave in 2014

1. 180 days
2. 135 days
3. 150 days
Question 344:
Permanent post has been defined under which rule of the Bihar Service Code?
1. Rule 35
2. Rule 36
3. Rule 37
4. Rule 38
Question 345:
If in the case of a Government servant it is found that his suspension was fully unjustified he shall be given
1. full pay
2. full allowance
3. Both A and B
Question 346:

1.A Government servant on extra ordinary leave is not entitled to any leave salary
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 347:
The Rule 49 of Bihar Service Code Defines

1. Permanent post
2. Temporary post
3. Tenure post
Question 348:
Foreign Service is defined under which rule of the Bihar Service Code
1. Rule 14
2. Rule 15
3. Rule 16
4. Rule 17
Question 349:
1.The State Government have the right to interpret the provisions of Bihar Service Code.
2.The chapter II has definitions.
Question 350:
The deduction on account of refund of advance from subsistence grant of a Government servant is a
3. Both A and B
Question 351:
16. Consider the statement given below whether it is true or false?

1.A Government employee is treated on duty for the purpose of pension and leave if he is deputed in foreign service the transit period is treated as on duty.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 352:
Which of the following offices is/are head of department?

1. High Court
2. Director of Panchayati Raj
3. Inspector General of Prison
4. All of the above
Question 353:
A permanent Government servant means a Government servant who holds a lien

1. On a temporary post
2. On a permament post
3. On a transferable post
Question 354:
Joining time is explained under which chapter of the Bihar Service code
1. Chapter VI
2. Chapter VII
3. Chapter VIII
4. None of these
Question 355:
1.The Rule 20 deals with the headquarter of a Government servant
2.The casual leave can be claimed as a matter of right.
4. Both1 and 2 are incorrect
Question 356:
In the case of a Government servant whose year of birth is known but not the month and exact date his date of birth should be treated as
1. The first january
2. The First April
3. The first July
4. The first September
Question 357:
Is Bihar Service Code applicable to an employee of Bihar Vidhan Parishad?

1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
Question 358:
Under which rule of the Bihar Service code can State govt. reduce or refuse the joining time admissible under Chapter VII
1. Rule 253
2. Rule 254
3. Rule 255
4. None of these
Question 359:
The leave procedure rule is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-8
2. Appendix-9
3. Appendix-10
Question 360:
The chapter IX of Bihar Service Rule deals with

1. keeping of service record of Government employee
2. keeping name plate of Government employee
3. keeping Tenure post
Question 361:
The deduction of amount due on court attachments from subsistence grant of a Government servant
1. Should be made
3. Both A and B
Question 362:

1. A Government employee is treated on duty for the purpose of pension and leave if he is in transit in account of transfer from one post to another
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
,
Question 363:
The deduction of subscription of GPF from subsistence grant of a Government servant

1. Should be made
3. Both A and B
Question 364:

Question 365:
Study leave can be allowed for 365 days at a time in a year?

1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 366:
It is a duty of every Government servant to see that his service book is properly maintained as prescribed ……
1. Rule-289
2. Rule-288
3. Rule-293
Question 367:
1.A Government servant can be transferred from a post carrying more pay to a post carrying less pay on the grounds of inefficiency and misconduct.
2.The deduction of income tax from the subsistence grant of a suspended government servant is not permissible.
Question 368:
Foreign service has been explained under which chapter of the Bihar Service code
1. Chapter VII
2. Chapter VIII
3. Chapter IX
4. None of these
Question 369:

1. medical examination of Government servants appointed to permanent posts
2. medical examination of Government servants appointed to contractual post
3. medical examination of Government servants appointed to temporary posts
Question 370:
Under which Rule of Bihar Service Code a Government servant has to produce a medical certificate of fitness and attach the same to his first pay bill.
1. 234
2. 123
3. 52
Question 371:

1.A Government servant under suspension may be granted leave.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 372:
As per the Bihar Service Code the Service records of the Group A gazetted govt. servants are to be kept and made by whom.
4. None of these
Question 373:
The date of retirement of a Government employee of Bihar is treated as

1. No duty
2. Duty
3. Leave
Question 374:
When a Government servant is reinstated after suspension the competent authority has to take decision regarding
1. pay to be paid during the period of suspension of a Government servant
2. Allowance to be paid during the period of suspension of a Government servant
3. Both A and B
Question 375:

1.The travelling allowance of a Government servant both when joining foreign service and when reverting to Government service shall be borne by the foreign employer.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 376:
A service book is to be kept in the custody of the head of the office and transferred from…
1. Table to table
2. Office to office
3. Both A and B
Question 377:

1. No government servant other than a police officer acting within his legal rights is entitled to pay or allowance for any time he may spend outside his sphere of duty without proper authority
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 378:

1.Leave ends on the day on which charge is resumed
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 379:
For the purpose of rule 76 of the Bihar Service Code can a suspension period be treated as absence from duly
1. No
2. Yes
3. Doubtful
4. None of these
Question 380:
The list of heads of department is mentioned in

1. Appendix-5
2. Appendix-6
3. Appendix-3
Question 381:
Provision of Half pay leave is under which rules of the Bihar Service Code?
1. Rule 232 and 233
2. Rule 234
3. Rule 235
4. None of these
Question 382:
Compensatory allowance means an allowance granted in consideration of personal expenditure or loss of amenities or private practice, necessitated by the special circumstances in which duty is performed. This is defined under which rule of the Bihar Service Code.
1. Rule 11
2. Rule 12
3. Rule 13
4. None of these
Question 383:
Hospital leave is explained under which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 218
2. Rule 219
3. Rule 220
4. Rule 221
Question 384:
Under which rule of the Bihar Service code probationer has been defined
1. Rule 38
2. Rule 39
3. Rule 40
4. Rule 41
Question 385:
If the period of suspension exceeds twelve months the amount of subsistence grant may be reduced by a suitable amount not exceeding………………….of subsistence grant admissible
1. 30 %
2. 45%
3. 50%
Question 386:
Under which section/subsection of Chapter VI of the Bihar Service code the provisions of leave for part time Govt. servants and government servants remunerated by fees or daily wages have been dealt
1. Section VI Sub-Section (I)
2. Section VI Sub-Section (II)
3. Section VI Sub-Section (3)
4. None of these
Question 387:

1.All orders recalling Government servant to duty should state whether the return to duty is optional or compulsory
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 388:
1.The State government can not bring about changes in the rules of Bihar Service Code.
2.The term age is defined in rule 49 Of the Bihar Service Code.
Question 389:
The reduction of pay is mentioned in.

1. Appendix-7
2. Appendix-6
3. Appendix-9
Question 390:
As per the Bihar Service Code, can a govt. servant who takes voluntary retirement after 20 years of continuous service under the rules provided be entitled to pension and gratuity
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
Question 391:
Which Rule of Bihar Service code deals with payment of subsistence grant to a government servant to a suspended servant.
1. Rule- 96
2. Rule -94
3. Rule-98
Question 392:
The maximum number of Compensatory leave admissible in a year is

1. 10 days
2. 15 days
3. 12 days at a time
Question 393:
Pay has been defined under which rule of the Bihar Service code
1. Rule 33
2. Rule 34
3. Rule 35
4. None of these
Question 394:
The Secretariat Staff of the Bihar Legislative Assembly and Council will also be guided/governed by the rules of the Bihar Service Code. Is this statement true
1. Yes
2. No
3. Not at all
4. None of these
,
Question 395:
From which year all the Government employees of Bihar retire from service in the afternoon of the last day of the month in which the date of their retirement falls
1. 1971
2. 1975
3. 1976

Question Bank - Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules
Question 1:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules deals with inspection of institution?
1. Rule 66
2. Rule 56
3. Rule 123
Question 2:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules deals with the Confidential note-book?
1. Rule 73
2. Rule 35
3. Rule 153
Question 3:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules discusses The procedure when when taking
charge?
1. Rule 114
2. Rule 77
3. Rule 93
Question 4:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules discusses the maintenance and
custody of Service Books?
1. Rule 116
2. Rule 162
3. Rule 236
Question 5:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules related to registry of new estates?
1. Rule 126
2. Rule 35
3. Rule 139
Question 6:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules discusses difficulties to be

explained and defect to be corrected at inspections?
1. Rule 188
2. Rule 44
3. Rule 152
Question 7:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules deals with the Half-yearly review of the
touring of District and Subdivisional Officers?
1. Rule 61
2. Rule 117
3. Rule 83
Question 8:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules provides the Young Officers should
attend senior officers' inspections?
1. Rule 124
2. Rule 117
3. Rule 143
Question 9:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is concerned to the Advocate-General?
1. Rule 45
2. Rule 82
3. Rule 123
Question 10:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules related to the Diaries?
1. Rule 134
2. Rule 69
3. Rule 121
Question 11:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Inspection questions?
1. Rule 144
2. Rule 116
3. Rule 152
Question 12:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Communication of
remarks of superior to inferior officers?
1. Rule 52
2. Rule 89
3. Rule 133
Question 13:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Diary and state of
business?
1. Rule 72
2. Rule 35
3. Rule 139
Question 14:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the important Circulars not to
be issued without sanction of Government?
1. Rule 12
2. Rule 24
3. Rule 44
Question 15:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the case diaries?
1. Rule 126
2. Rule 74
3. Rule 107
Question 16:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the subject to be noticed?
1. Rule 98
2. Rule 133
3. Rule 78
Question 17:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Inspections of District
Offices?
1. Rule 145
2. Rule 91
3. Rule 26
Question 18:
According to which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules the inspection should be
personal?
1. Rule 78
2. Rule 34
3. Rule 125
Question 19:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Medical Certificates?
1. Rule 122
2. Rule 154
3. Rule 136
Question 20:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Officers to act upon their
powers?
1. Rule 80
2. Rule 56
3. Rule 40
Question 21:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the matters which require
attention in all offices?
1. Rule 89
2. Rule 122
3. Rule 35
Question 22:
According to which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules Guard file to be kept of
inspections?
1. Rule 112
2. Rule 23
3. Rule 47
Question 23:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the irregularities?
1. Rule 65
2. Rule 84
3. Rule 99
Question 24:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules Provide for taking evidence
and for the service of process?
1. Rule 133
2. Rule 71
3. Rule 139
Question 25:
According to which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules the collectors not to
introduce new practice?
1. Rule 78
2. Rule 34
3. Rule 40
Question 26:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Period of Probation?
1. Rule 126
2. Rule 149
3. Rule 136
Question 27:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the tours of District and
Subdivisional Officers?
1. Rule 68
2. Rule 47
3. Rule 132
Question 28:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the English Correspondence?
1. Rule 126
2. Rule 35
3. Rule 68
Question 29:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the statistic of work to be
got ready for Inspecting Officers?
1. Rule 156
2. Rule 85
3. Rule 142
Question 30:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Filling up vacancies in
ministerial posts?
1. Rule 151
2. Rule 169
3. Rule 146
Question 31:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the transfer of deputy
collectors?
1. Rule 76
2. Rule 112
3. Rule 42
,
Question 32:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Verification of cash
balance on the morning of 1st April?
1. Rule 84
2. Rule 124
3. Rule 176
Question 33:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the correction slips for
Board's Rules and Manuals?
1. Rule 126
2. Rule 75
3. Rule 133
Question 34:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is related to the file of general power of
attorney?
1. Rule 146
2. Rule 74
3. Rule 136
Question 35:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules clarifies the distinction between
"removal" or "discharge" and "dismissal"?
1. Rule 164
2. Rule 149
3. Rule 136
Question 36:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Order Sheet?
1. Rule 146
2. Rule 127
3. Rule 136
Question 37:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the record room?
1. Rule 69
2. Rule 35
3. Rule 139
Question 38:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Delays?
1. Rule 67
2. Rule 76
3. Rule 111
Question 39:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Registers and books on
clerk's table?
1. Rule 116
2. Rule 72
3. Rule 212
Question 40:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the duration of tour and
sketch of inspection to be made?
1. Rule 83
2. Rule 177
3. Rule 95
Question 41:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Inspection notes of
Commissioners?
1. Rule 144
2. Rule 135
3. Rule 77
Question 42:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Relief of Officers?
1. Rule 246
2. Rule 79
3. Rule 130
Question 43:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the petitions to India
Government?
1. Rule 49
2. Rule 22
3. Rule 77
Question 44:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Library?
1. Rule 129
2. Rule 70
3. Rule 136
Question 45:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the absence form illness?
1. Rule 44
2. Rule 66
3. Rule 153
Question 46:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules discusses about the Work Card?
1. Rule 146
2. Rule 115
3. Rule 136
Question 47:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about Inspection of sub divisional office
Audit Officers?
1. Rule 146
2. Rule 80
3. Rule 136
Question 48:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Collector's duty in
looking to the safety of the strong-room, etc.?
1. Rule 133
2. Rule 83
3. Rule 147
Question 49:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the inspection of treasuries?
1. Rule 51
2. Rule 31
3. Rule 54
Question 50:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Copies of report
regarding officers?
1. Rule 29
2. Rule 63
3. Rule 122
Question 51:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules about the heads of departments?
1. Rule 78
2. Rule 23
3. Rule 123
Question 52:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Inspection book?
1. Rule 14
2. Rule 95
3. Rule 126
,
Question 53:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the unauthorised reports
and returns?
1. Rule 154
2. Rule 78
3. Rule 126
Question 54:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules provides about the Commissioners may
issue circular orders?
1. Rule 78
2. Rule 46
3. Rule 11
Question 55:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Officers to whom money
is entrusted is personally responsible?
1. Rule 74
2. Rule 59
3. Rule 88
Question 56:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is concerned to the Excise Department?
1. Rule 76
2. Rule 35
3. Rule 139
Question 57:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Change of Charges?
1. Rule 146
2. Rule 110
3. Rule 136
Question 58:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the District Officer's
inspection of their own offices?
1. Rule 114
2. Rule 55
3. Rule 122
Question 59:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Special reports on
specific orders?
1. Rule 56
2. Rule 45
3. Rule 128
Question 60:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Collector's duties in
relation to his subordinates?
1. Rule 78
2. Rule 67
3. Rule 49
Question 61:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Division of the work in
the Board's Office?
1. Rule 25
2. Rule 57
3. Rule 112
Question 62:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Hours of Attendance?
1. Rule 105
2. Rule 74
3. Rule 163
Question 63:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the immediate report of
sudden calamities?
1. Rule 78
2. Rule 33
3. Rule 45
Question 64:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules discusses about the memorandum when
delivering over charge?
1. Rule 34
2. Rule 79
3. Rule 13
Question 65:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the reference to authority
superior to two differing authorities?
1. Rule 78
2. Rule 14
3. Rule 40
Question 66:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules discusses the Powers of a Collector?
1. Rule 45
2. Rule 34
3. Rule 66
Question 67:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules discusses the Powers of Collectors and
Commissioners in sanctioning temporary establishments?
1. Rule 216
2. Rule 149
3. Rule 160
Question 68:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Local Government
pleaders to be consulted?
1. Rule 85
2. Rule 56
3. Rule 34
Question 69:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules discusses about the Procedures for placing of
indents on Director-General, Indian Stores Departments?
1. Rule 58
2. Rule 96
3. Rule 40
Question 70:
Which Rule of the Bihar Board's Miscellaneous Rules is about the Rules for the
Examination in Accounts?
1. Rule 134
2. Rule 157
3. Rule 136

Question Bank - Bihar GPF Rules
Question 1:
With reference to Bihar GPF Rules 1948 which of the following maintains the GPF account of
officers belonging to Bihar Bhawan New Delhi.
1. Head Of Department
2. District GPF office
3. Directorate Provident Fund Bihar
Question 2:
officers belonging to Bihar Rural Development Service ?
Question 3:
With reference to Bihar GPF Rules 1948 consider the statement given below whether it is true or
false?
1. BTC Form 50 is used for the withdrawal of non refundable advance from the GPF.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 4:
false?
1. When a Government servant is put under suspension the subscription to GPF account is kept
on holds
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 5:
With reference to Bihar GPF Rules 1948 the GPF is also maintained in
1. Pounds
2. Dollars
3. Both A and B
Question 6:
With reference to Bihar GPF Rules 1948 for which of the following a non refundable advance can
be sanctioned for
1. For medical education in Karnatak
2. For technical education inWest Bengal
3. Both a and B
Question 7:
The number of instalments for recovery of GPF advance is determined by

1. Subscriber
2. Sanctioning authority
3. Both A and B
Question 8:
Which of the following authority is competent for authorization of authority letter in case where
the accumulated amount is due to be paid for a period more than six months of retirement.
1. District General Provident fund Officer
3. Both A and B
Question 9:
false?
1. A web based e-gpf has been initiated from December 2011 to ease the GPF accounting
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 10:
GPF accounts of non gazetted employee up to 31.03.1986 was maintained

1. By AG Bihar
2. Drawing and Disbursing Officer
3. Directorate PF Bihar

,
Question 11:
As per the provisions of the Bihar GPF Rules 1948 under which rule a government servant under
suspension is not required to contribute to GPF.
1. Rule-09
2. Rule-23
3. Rule-17
Question 12:
false?
1. After one year of service the non-refundable advance from GPF can be sanctioned to a
Government employee.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 13:
GPF is maintained by
1. Government bodies
2. Semi-Government bodies
3. Both A and B
Question 14:
The payment of finally withdrawn provident fund can be made

1. In Bihar
2. Any where in India
3. Both A and B
Question 15:
be sanctioned for
1. For medical education in Karnatak
2. For technical education in West Bengal
3. Both a and B
Question 16:
Which of the following is true of GPF?

1. The deposit of provident fund amount should not be less than 5 % of basic pay.
2. The deposit of provident fund amount should not be less 4 % of basic pay.
3. The deposit of provident fund amount should not be less than 3% of basic pay.
Question 17:
The Bihar General Provident Fund Rules 2017 applies to employees on or after
1. 01.04.2016
2. 01.07.2018
3. 01.04.2017
Question 18:

Question 19:
false?
1.New non refundable advance shall be sanctioned six months after the sanction of previous non
refundable advance.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 20:
What is true of GPF and EPF?

1. Both are not provident funds.
2. GPF is for Government employee and EPF is for private sector
3. Both A and B
Question 21:
The limit of advance from GPF for central Government employee is
1. Twelve months of pay or one fourths of the amount at credit whichever is less
2. Twelve months of pay or three fourths of the amount at credit whichever is less
3. Both A and B
Question 22:
The limit of advance from GPF for central Government employee is

1. Ten months of pay or two fourths of the amount at credit whichever is less
2. Ten months of pay or three fourths of the amount at credit whichever is less
3. Both A and B
Question 23:
How much advance from GPF can be sanctioned for the marriage of a daughter of a Government
servant
1. 50 % of the deposit
Question 24:
With reference to Bihar GPF Rules 1948 what is the minimum percentage of monthly subscription
to GPF
1. 7 % of the basic pay
Question 25:
false?
1. Three fourth of total amount at credit in GPF or 75 percent of the cost of the vehicle whichever
is less can be withdrawn by a Central Government employee for the purpose of buying a car
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 26:
Under which rule of the Bihar GPF Rules 1948 a Government servant has to maintain a GPF
account
1. Rule-23
2. Rule-10
3. Rule 09
Question 27:
GPF account number of a non gazetted employee is allotted by

1. By AG Bihar
2. Drawing and Disbursing Officer
3. District GF officer
Question 28:
Read the following statements with reference to Bihar GPF Rules 1948 and select the correct
1.The maximum amount of subscription to the GPF is determined by the Government servant
2.The non refundable advance is sanctioned to an employee who is going to retire within three
months
Question 29:
GPF is also called as

1. Employees’ Provident Fund
2. Statutory Provident Fund
3. Public Provident Fund
Question 30:
Under provisions of the Bihar GPF Rules 1948 what is the percentage of maximum amount that
can be withdrawn by a Government servant from GPF.
1. 45% of the amount at credit
2. 75% of the amount at credit
3. 50 % of the amount at credit
Question 31:

1. It is a fund available to any person
2. A private person can become a member of GPF
3. It is a fund available to a Government servant
Question 32:
false?
1. BTC Form 55 is used for the deduction of the GPF contribution from the salary of a
Government employee.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 33:
With reference to Bihar GPF Rules 1948 which of the following is included in determining the limit
of compulsory GPF deduction from the salary of a Government employee
2. Medical Allowance
3. Both A and B
Question 34:
Advance from GPF to a Government servant deputed to a Corporation is sanctioned by

Question 35:

1. The interest amount credited in GPF during the financial is treated as income.
2. The amount withdrawn at the time of retirement is not exempt from income tax.
3. Both A and B
Question 36:
Which one is true of GPF?

Question 37:
With reference to Bihar GPF Rules 1948 which of the following is responsible for maintaining GPF
accounts of employee deputed in foreign service.
Question 38:

1. The interest amount credited in GPF during the financial is not treated as income.
2. The amount withdrawn at the time of retirement is exempt from income tax.
3. Both A and B
Question 39:
false?
1.The GPF account of officers belonging to Bihar administrative Service is not maintained by
District General Provident Office
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 40:
With reference to Bihar GPF Rules 1948 which of the following is not included in emoluments of a
Government servant
1. Pay
3. Both A and B
Question 41:
false?
1.There is a provision to make entry of all subscription made to the GPF in the Last Pay
Certificate of a Government servant.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 42:
officers belonging to Indian Administrative Service ?
Question 43:
false?
1.There is no provision to make entry of all subscription made to the GPF in the Last Pay
Certificate of a Government servant.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 44:
be sanctioned for
1. For payment of loan taken for house building
2. For purchasing plot of house
3. Both a and B
Question 45:
Which rule of the Bihar GPF Rules 1948 deals with nomination
1. Rule-3
2. Rule-8
3. Rule-6
Question 46:
Under which rule of Bihar GPF Rules 1948 the temporary advance has been stopped
1. Rule-12
2. Rule-14
3. Rule-15
Question 47:
be sanctioned for
1. Purchase of books
2. Purchase of Tablet
3. Marriage of daughter
Question 48:
1The Bihar GPF rules came into effect 01.10.1948.
2.The Compulsory General Provident Fund Scheme came into effect on 01.04.1956
Question 49:
false?
1.The Directorate GPF is headed by a Joint Secretary level officer.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 50:
false?
1.New non refundable advance shall be sanctioned one year after the sanction of previous non
refundable advance.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 51:
false?
1.The GPF account of officers belonging to Indian Administrative Service is maintained by District
Provident Office
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 52:
officers belonging to Bihar Administrative Service ?
Question 53:
false?
1.Under rule 23 a temporary advance from GPF is sanctioned to a Government servant.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 54:
false?
1.The payment of GPF advance is made through the Bank account in which salary of the
employee is deposited.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 55:
be sanctioned for
1. For meeting the cost of legal proceeding in courts
2. For purchasing books
3. Both a and B
Question 56:

1. The contribution made by an employee is not exempted from income tax
2. The contribution made by an employee can not be claimed as deductions under

section 80C of Income Tax Act.
3. Both A and B
Question 57:
Under which rule of Bihar GPF Rules 1948 there is a provision to issue account details to the
subscriber on the part of GPF office
1. Rule-34
2. Rule-37
3. Rule-36
Question 58:
be sanctioned for
1. For treatment
2. For BA course
3. Both a and B
Question 59:
The General Provident Fund (Central Services) Rule came into force in
1. 1961
2. 1962
3. 1960
Question 60:
With reference to Bihar GPF Rules 1948 under which of the following conditions the final
withdrawal of GPF is admissible?
1. when the employee is put under suspension
2. when the employee is dismissed from service
3. Both A and B
Question 61:
Is GPF taxable?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Doubtful
Question 62:
The Bihar General Provident Fund Rules, 1948 has come into force on-
1. 01.10.1951
2. 29.01.1952
3. 01.10.1948
4. None of these.
Question 63:
1.The maximum amount of subscription to the GPF is not determined by the Government
servant.
2.The non refundable advance is not sanctioned to an employee who is going to retire within
three months
Question 64:
As per provisions of Bihar GPF Rules 1948 which of the following is not included in determining
the limit of compulsory GPF deduction from the salary of a Government employee
2. Basic pay
3. Both A and B
Question 65:
1. District General Provident fund Officer
2. Director,GPF Bihar
3. Both A and B
Question 66:
GPF account number of a Gazetted Government servant is allotted by

1. By AG Bihar
2. Directorate GPF Bihar
3. District GF officer
Question 67:
1. Director GPF Bihar
3. Both A and B
Question 68:
The GPF advance can be recovered in equal monthly instalments which could not be
1. Less than ten and more than Fifteen
2. Less than twelve and more than twenty
3. Less than twelve and more than twenty four
Question 69:
be sanctioned for
1. Purchase of cow
2. Purchase of Computer
3. House building
Question 70:
With reference to Bihar GPF Rules 1948 which of the following is included in determining the limit
of compulsory GPF deduction from the salary of a Government employee
2. Basic pay
3. Both A and B
Question 71:
Government servant
1. T.A
2. Special pay
3. Both A and B
Question 72:
With reference to Bihar GPF Rules 1948 which type of interest accrues on GPF
1. Simple interest
2. Compound interest
3. No interest
Question 73:
1. Rule-09
2. Rule-10
3. Rule-25
Question 74:
be sanctioned for
1. For professional course in USA
2. For the marriage of a neighbour
3. Both A and B
Question 75:
false?
1.New non refundable advance shall be sanctioned three months after the sanction of previous
non refundable advance with relaxation from Departmental Secretary.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 76:
With reference to Bihar GPF Rules 1948 which of the following is included in emoluments of a
Government servant
1. Leave salary
2. Subsistence allowance
3. Both A and B
Question 77:
false?
1. In case of serious emergency or illness of Central Government employee the money from
GPF can be withdrawn within seven days
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 78:
be sanctioned for
1. For engineering education in Tamilnadu
2. For Space science education in Odisha
3. Both a and B
Question 79:
false?
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 80:
What is GPF advance?

1. It is a loan with interest from your savings in GPF
2. It is an interest free loan from your savings in GPF
3. Both A and B
Question 81:
false?
1. The provisions of Bihar GPF Rules 1948 applies to government employee deputed on foreign service.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 82:
With reference to Bihar GPF Rules 1948 under which of the following conditions the final
withdrawal of GPF is admissible?
1. when the employee is put under suspension
2. when the employee is proceeded against
3. Both A and B
Question 83:
false?
1.The GPF account of officers belonging to Bihar administrative Service is maintained by District
Provident Office
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 84:
false?
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 85:

1. The contribution made by an employee to GPF is not exempted from income tax.
2. The contribution made by an employee in GPF can be claimed as deductions under

section 80C of Income Tax Act.
3. Both A and B
Question 86:
false?
1.BTC Form 58 is used for the deduction of the GPF contribution from the salary of a Government
employee.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 87:
false?
1. The Central employee can withdraw 90 percent of GPF amount at credit without giving any
reason two years before retirement
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 88:
As per provisions of Bihar GPF Rules 1948 which of the following is not included in determining
the limit of compulsory GPF deduction from the salary of a Government employee
3. Both A and B
Question 89:
Government servant
1. Dearness allowance
2. Leave salary
3. Both A and B
Question 90:
From which date the withdrawal of temporary advance has been stopped?
1. 01.04.2016
2. 01.04.2018
3. 01.04.2017
Question 91:
false?
1. BTC Form 51 is used for the withdrawal of non-refundable advance from the GPF.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 92:

1. The contribution made by an employee is exempted from income tax
2. The contribution made by an employee can be claimed as deductions under section

80C of Income Tax Act.
3. Both A and B
Question 93:
The contribution to Bihar General Provident Fund of an employee must be stopped

1. Four months prior to retirement
2. Three months prior to retirement
3. Six months prior to retirement
Question 94:
1. Rule-09
2. Rule-23
3. Rule-10
4. None of these.
Question 95:
false?
1. BTC Form 56 is used for the final withdrawal from the GPF.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 96:
false?
1. Within one year but before three months of retirement a non refundable advance from GPF
can be sanctioned without any purpose.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 97:
false?
1.Three fourth of total amount at credit in GPF can not be withdrawn for the purpose of buying a
house
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 98:
GPF work was taken back from Accountant General Bihar from the date of
1. 01.04.1984
2. 01.04.1985
3. 01.04.1986
Question 99:
A Government servant deputed in foreign service makes his contribution to GPF through
1. Cash deposit
2. Challan
3. Both A and B
Question 100:
false?
1.The GPF account of officers belonging to Indian Administrative Service is not maintained by
District Provident Office
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 101:
officers belonging to Bihar Revenue Service ?
Question 102:
The Bihar General Provident Fund Amendment Rules came into force with effect from
1. 01.04.2016
2. 01.04.2018
3. 01.04.2017
Question 103:
Is interest paid on the GPF amount taken as advance?

1. Yes
2. No
3. Yes with minimum interest
Question 104:
Under which rule of Bihar GPF Rules 1948 there is a provision for nomination of a person in the
case of employee having no family
1. Rule-3(33)
2. Rule-4(22)
3. Rule-9(33)
Question 105:
With reference to Bihar GPF Rules 1948 what is the minimum percentage of monthly subscription
to GPF
Question 106:
The Bihar GPF Rules 1948 underwent a major amendment on

1. 12.08.2015
2. 01.04.2017
3. 10.10.2018
Question 107:
false?
1. BTC Form 60 is used for the final withdrawal from the GPF.
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 108:
officers belonging to Bihar Administrative Service?
Question 109:

1. The deposit of provident fund amount should not be more than 100 % of basic pay. subject to maximum 5 lac
2. The deposit of provident fund amount should not be more than 105 % of basic pay.
3. Both A and B
Question 110:
With reference to Bihar GPF Rules 1948 which of the following is included in emoluments of a
Government servant
1. Pay
2. Leave salary
3. Both A and B
Question 111:
false?
1. 75 % of total amount at credit in GPF can be withdrawn for the purpose of buying a house
1. True
2. False
3. Doubtful
Question 112:
be sanctioned for
1. Purchase of cycle
2. Purchase of Computer
3. Higher education
Question 113:
Under which rule of Bihar GPF Rules 1948 there is a provision for nomination of a person in the
case of employee having no family
1. Rule-4(33)
2. Rule-5(22)
3. Rule-8

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Question Bank - Right to Public Services (Bihar) Act, 2011 and Rules

2. the period within which an appeal be prefrred

3. To File a civil suit

BRTPS 2011 Act Ration cards are being issued by

2. come to display all selevant of information regarding services on Notice Board

3. Not display anything on the Notice Board

Total number of services has been placed/covered under Tatkal Seva is

2. Instruct the applicant to reapply

3. Suggest the person concerned to seek remedy at other authority

2. Long term delivery

2. RTA Secretary of a Division

2. The period within which appeal be preferred

3. To file a civil suit

3. RTA Secretary of a Division

2. Will reject the appeal

3. Within 90 days from the expiry date of stipulated time

3. With the permission of the designated of public Officer

2. Three more chances

3. One more chance

3. Notified Appellate Authority

Public Holidays menas

3. Holidays notified by the Government by issuing notification

2. Motor Vehicle Inspector

3. Block Development Officer

2. 3rd June 2011

3. 5th May 2011

4. 2nd May 2011

Under Bihar Right to Public Services Rules 2011 "format" means

2. Formats annexed with these rules

3. Income Tax Format

4. Those under which rules have been framed

Who is the appellate authority in the transport related matters

2. RTA Secretary of a Division

3. With the permission of the designated public Officer

3. The Photocopy of updated rent receipt

RTPS stands for

2. Right to Public System

3. Right to Public Services

Who is the appellate authority in the matters of stipend distribution

2. Dy. Director Welfare

2. Fifteen thousand Rs.

3. Five thousands Rs.

2. Section 2 of the Act

3. Section 3 of the Act

4. Section 1 Cl.(3) of the Act

2. Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister

3. Prime Minister of India

4. Election Commissioner of India

2. Laws to impose penalty

3. The people of India aware regarding

2. 2nd May 2011

3. From the date of Notification in the Official Gazette

3. Platform for discussion

2. With the permission of the State Govt.

3. A person eligible for the notified service

BRTPS 2011 Act Fast track service delivery means

2. Long term delivery

Stipulated time under BRTPS means

2. Minimum time to provide service

3. One month time

2. Documents regarding joint assets & properties

3. Updated document regarding Payment of Income Tax

3. With the consent of the State Govt.

Designated Public Servant under BRTPS 2011 provides