220i-2A

1. Select the layer that does not make the microstructure of the skin:
A) hypodermis
B) reticular dermis
C) papillary dermis
D) the endometrium
E) epidermis
2. Select the layer that is not a layer of the epidermis:
A) horny
B) granular
C) basal
D) prickle-cell
E) synovial
3. Indicate the structure, which is not a skin appendages:
A) hair
B) nails
C) sweat glands
D) sebaceous glands
E) mucous membranes
4. True polymorphism - is:
A) the presence of secondary elements of different types
B) tendency of elements to peripheral growth
C) the existence of different types of primary elements
D) the presence of the primary elements of the same species
E) the presence of secondary elements of the same type
5. Specify the primary morphological element:
A) crack
B) scar
C) ulcer
D) scale
E) vesicle
6. Specify the primary morphological element:
A) ulcer
B) papules
C) crack
D) excoriation

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E) lichenification
7. Specify the primary morphological element:
A) lichenification
B) vegetation
C) scale
D) excoriation
E) nodule (tuberculum)
8. Specify the primary morphological element:
A) vegetation
B) erosion
C) scale
D) crust
E) nodus
9. Specify the primary exudative morphological element:
A) tubercle
B) blister
C) nodus
D) spot
E) pustula
10. Specify the secondary morphological element:
A) pustule
B) papule
C) vesicle
D) spot
E) scale
11. Specify the secondary morphological element:
A) tubercle
B) nodus
C) bubble
D) blister
E) crust
12. Specify the secondary morphological element:
A) blister
B) pustula
C) tubercle
D) papule
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E) erosion
13. Specify the secondary morphological element:
A) tubercle
B) blister
C) spot
D) bulla
E) ulcer
14. Specify the secondary morphological element:
A) nodus
B) bulla
C) blister
D) tubercle
E) crack
15. Diascopy (vitropression) - is:
A) scraping element
B) grinding element
C) tingling element
D) palpation element
E) an element pressure by slide
16. Select a spot which disappears by diascopy:
A) hyperpigmented spot
B) purpura
C) petechiae
D) depigmented spot
E) roseola
17. Select a spot which disappears by diascopy:
A) purpura
B) depigmented spot
C) hyperpigmented spot
D) erythema
E) petechiae
18. Specify a disease that relates to bacterial dermatosis:
A) leishmaniasisof the skin
B) warts
C) trichophytiya
D) pyoderma
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E) scabies
19. Specify a disease that relates to bacterial dermatosis:
A) pediculosis
B) molluscum contagiosum
C) tinea cruris
D) mikrosporiya
E) cutaneous tuberculosis
20. Which group of dermatoses include pyoderma:
A) allergic
B) bullous dermatosis
C) occupational dermatosis
D) neyrodermatosis
E) infectious dermatoses
21. Specify causative agent of pyoderma:
A) Demodex folliculorum
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Trichomonas vaginalis
D) Trichophyton verrucosum
E) Streptococcus pyogenes
22. The Causative agents of pyoderma are:
A) fungi
B) parasites
C) viruses
D) simple (protozoa)
E) bacteria
23. Specify the type of pyoderma, which refers to staphylococcal dermititis:
A) vulgar ecthyma
B) streptococcal impetigo
C) angulus infections
D) ostiofolliculitis
E) panaricium
24. Specify type of pyoderma, which refers to staphylococcal dermititis:
A) angulus infections
B) vulgar ecthyma
C) panaricium
D) streptococcal impetigo
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E) folliculitis
25. Specify type of pyoderma, which refers to the streptococcal :
A) furuncle
B) hydradenitis
C) streptococcal impetigo
D) folliculitis
E) carbuncle
26. Specify type of pyoderma, which refers to the streptococcal:
A) furuncle
B) hydradenitis
C) ostiofolliculitis
D) sycosis vulgaris
E) ecthyma vulgar
27. Specify type of pyoderma, which refers to the streptococcal:
A) furuncle
B) hydradenitis
C) ostiofolliculitis
D) angular cheilitis
E) sycosis vulgaris
28. Specify type of pyoderma, which is not common in children:
A) veziculopustulesis
B) multiple abscesses
C) streptococcal impetigo
D) epidemic pemphigus newborns
E) sycosis vulgaris
29. Specify type of pyoderma, which takes place in men and localized on the
beard and moustache:
A) carbuncle
B) hydradenitis
C) sycosis vulgaris
D) impetigo
E) folliculitis
30. Specify the disease which should be differentiated with epidemic pemphigus
of newborns:
A) matotsitoz
B) ichthyosis

5
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C) tuberous sclerosis
D) syphilitic pemphigus of newborns
E) lentiginosis
31. Indicate a type of pyoderma , localized in the axilla:
A) angulus infections
B) sycosis vulgaris
C) hydradenitis
D) ichthyosis
E) impetigo of the nail folds
32. Specify the primary morphological element in pyoderma:
A) nodule
B) spot
C) pustula
D) bulla
E) vesicle
33. Which group of dermatoses is lupus:
A) allergic
B) bullous dermatosis
C) neyrodermatosis
D) occupational deasesis
E) infectious dermatosis
34. Specify Mycobacterium tuberculosis of skin:
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Microsporum ferrugineum
C) Malassezia furfur
D) Candida albicans
E) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
35. A necessary condition for the transfer of exogenous skin tuberculosis is:
A) contact with nettles
B) X-ray on the skin
C) insolation skin
D) a mosquito bite
E) the damaged skin and mucosal barrier
36. Specify diagnostic test for lupus:
A) Wickham test
B) lepromin test
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C) Balser test
D) Kveym test
E) Mantua sample
37. Specify the clinical type of skin tuberculosis with possible localization on the
oral caviti:
A) verrucous lupus
B) papulonecrotic tuberculosis
C) indurated lupus
D) lichenoid lupus
E) ulcerative miliary tuberculosis
38. Specify type of tuberculosis of the skin, which can be regarded as an
occupational disease:
A) indurated lupus
B) tuberculosis papulonecrotica
C) skrofuloderma
D) tuberculous lupus
E) verrucous lupus
39. Specify the primary morphological element in tuberculosis erythematous:
A) bubble
B) tuberculum
C) spot
D) pustule
E) blister
40. Specify the uncharacteristic clinical features for tuberculous lupus:
A) scar atrophy
B) a tendency to join of tubercles
C) solid consistency tubercle
D) soft consistency tubercle
E) a reddish-brown color of tubercles
41. Describe the most common site of tuberculous lupus:
A) the skin of the scalp and nails
B) the skin and genital mucosa
C) and axillary skin folds pahovobedrennyh
D) facial skin, lips and oral mucosa
E) the skin of feet and interdigital spaces
42. Specify the disease which should be differentiate with tuberculous lupus:

7
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A) pemphigus
B) tinea versicolor
C) Melasma
D) gummatous syphilide (tertiary syphilis)
E) Vitiligo
43. Which group of dermatoses is leprosy:
A) neyrodermatosis
B) )infectious dermatosis
C) occupational dermatosis
D) allergic
E) bullous dermatosis
44. What type of microorganism is the causative agent of leprosy:
A) simple
B) fungi
C) parasites
D) viruses
E) bacteria
45. Specify the source of infection in leprosy:
A) water
B) rodents
C) pets
D) infected persons
E) soil
46. Specify the main way of transmission of leprosy infection:
A) sex
B) transmissive
C) per continentum
D) transplacental
E) airborne
47. Material for microscopy studies in case of Mycobacterium leprae is:
A) nails and hair
B) urine and fecals
C) from the genital organs
D) scraping the mucous membranes of the nose and the dissected tissue from the
affected areas
E) blood and saliva
8
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48. Specify feature unusual for lepromatous type of leprosy:

A) a large number of Mycobacterium leprae in scrapings from the nasal mucosa
B) a positive lepromin test
C) later numbness
D) erythematous spots with indistinct contours convertible into infiltration and knots
E) negative lepromin test
49. Specify feature unusual for tuberculoid type of leprosy:
A) erythematous and hypopigmented macules, plaques clearly defined
B) early violation of the sensitivity
C) early loss of vellus hair
D) a positive lepromin test
E) a large number of Mycobacterium leprae in scrapings from the nasal mucosa
50. Which type of leprosy is characterized by Facies leonine:
A) border tuberculoid
B) indeterminate
C) bordeline
D) tuberculoid
E) lepromatous
51. Describe the clinical diagnostic test that confirms the diagnosis of leprosy:
A) test for latent peeling
B) Test Wickham
C) test Balser
D) test "tweak"
E) )test for the sensitivity
52. Specify what type of leprosy is highly contagious:
A) border tuberculoid
B) borderline
C) inderterminate
D) lepromatous
E) tuberculoid
53. Leishmaniasis of the skin belong to:
A) allergic dermatosis
B) neyrodermatosis
C) occupational dermatosis
D) dermatosis bullous
E) infectious dermatosis
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54. Which group of infectious diseases is cutaneous leishmaniasis:

A) virus infection
B) fungal infections
C) infection, sexually transmitted
D) bacterial infections
E) protozoal infections
55. Specify the causative agent of cutaneous leishmaniasis:
A) Sarcoptes scabiei
B) Pediculus pubis
C) Demodex folliculorum
D) Leishmania tropica
E) Chlamydia trachomatis
56. Specify the types of cutaneous leishmaniasis:
A) positive and negative
B) acute and chronic
C) the progressive and regressive
D) zoonotic and anthroponosis
E) common and local
57. Select a carrier of infection in case of cutaneous leishmaniasis:
A) mites
B) parrot
C) mosquitoes
D) cats
E) dogs
58. Specify the source of infection of zoonotic cutaneous leishmaniasis:
A) people
B) underwear and bed linen
C) animals (rodents, dogs, wolves)
D) soil
E) water
59. Specify the disease which should be differentiated with zoonotic cutaneous
leishmaniasis:
A) pemphigus
B) Tinea versicolor
C) vitiligo
D) furuncle
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E) Melasma
60. Which group of dermatoses include dermatomycosis:
A) viral dermatosis
B) bullous dermatosis
C) infectious dermatosis
D) allergic
E) neyrodermatosis
61. Which group of infectious diseases include dermatomycosis:
A) protozoal infections
B) parasitic infections
C) bacterial infections
D) fungal infections
E) viral infection
62. Specify type of dermatomycosis which does not affect the nail plate:
A) favus
B) trichophytia
C) candidiasis
D) Tinea pedis
E) Tinea cruris
63. Specify type of dermatomycosis, which does not affect hair:
A) favus
B) trichophytia
C) Tinea pedis
D) nodular trichophytia (Piedra)
E) mikrosporiya
64. Specify type of dermatomycosis, which is not common in children:
A) trichophytia
B) favus
C) candidiasis
D) Tinea cruris
E) mikrosporiya
65. Specify the causative agent of pityriasis versicolor:
A) Candida albicans
B) Microsporum ferrugenium
C) Epidermophyton floccosum
D) Trichophyton verrukozum
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E) Pityrosporum orbiculare (Malossezia furfur)

66. Specify the source of infection in case of pityriasis versicolor:
A) water
B) rodents
C) soil
D) cattle
E) persons
67. Specify way of transmission of pityriasis versicolor:
A) transplacental
B) sex
C) transmissive
D) exogenous
E) endogenous
68. Specify way of transmission of rubromycosis:
A) sex
B) transplacental
C) transmissive
D) endogenous
E) exogenous
69. Specify the typical morphological elements of pityriasis versicolor:
A) bubble
B) blister
C) pustula
D) spot
E) nodule
70. Describe how to conduct probe Balzera confirming diagnosis of colored
lichen:
A) scratching
B) vitropression lesion
C) palpation of the lesion
D) lesion lubrication with oil
E) of the lesion with iodine
71. Specify color of the glow of the lesions under Wood's lamp with colorful
(pityriasis) versicolor:
A) black
B) yellow

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C) red
D) blue
E) green
72. Specify the localization uncharacteristic for pityriasis versicolor:
A) the face and scalp
B) axillary and inguinal folds
C) the shoulders and hips
D) neck and torso
E) the palms and soles
73. Specify uncharacteristic clinical sign for Pityriasis versicolor:
A) yellowish-green fluorescence under the Wood’s lamp
B) positive test Balser
C) erythematous-squamous, brownish or depigmented circular spots
D) localization of the neck and trunk
E) bubbles
74. Specify which disease should be differentiate with pityriasis versicolor:
A) eczema
B) carbuncle
C) Duhring dermatitis
D) syphilitic leucoderma
E) acne vulgaris
75. Specify the source of infection in case of epidermophytosis inguinal :
A) water
B) persons
C) rodents
D) pets
E) soil
76. Specify the source of infection in rubromikoze:
A) pets
B) soil
C) rodents
D) water
E) persons
77. Specify the path of transmission is unusual for epidermophytosis inguinal:
A) close direct contact with an infected person
B) through infected underwear
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C) in close direct contact with infected cattle

D) through contaminated bedding
E) through the infected bath accessories
78. Specify uncharacteristic clinical sign of epidermophytosis inguinal:
A) a tendency to join of patches and peripheral spread
B) well-demarked lesions
C) erythematous patches in the lesions
D) nodus
E) localization in the inguinal folds
79. Specify the morphological element of epidermophytosis inguinal:
A) nodus
B) abscess
C) tubercle
D) blister
E) spot
80. Specify the disease whic should be differentiate with epidermophytosis
inguinal:
A) lupus erythematosus
B) lichen planus
C) scleroderma
D) candidiasis of skinfolds
E) tinea pedis
81. Specify the way of transmission of infection uncharacterized for
epidermophytosis pedum:
A) through the infected nail accessories
B) initiated through the mats, benches in sports centers, saunas
C) close direct contact with an infected person
D) through the infected socks and shoes
E) )direct contact with infected cattle
82. Specify the location, unusual for uncharacterized for epidermophytosis
pedum:
A) side of the foot
B) interdigital folds 3, 4
C) nail plate 1, 5 toes
D) the plantar surface of the foot
E) ankle
83. Onychomycosis - is:
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A) fungal infection of the hair

B) fungal infection of the interdigital webs
C) fungal infection of the mucous membranes
D) fungal infection of nail fold
E) fungal infection of the nail plate
84. Specify a factor which is not a predisposing factor for epidermomikoza of feet:
A) the narrowness of the interdigital folds
B) tight shoes
C) flat-footedness (platypodia) planus
D) excessive sweating or dry feet
E) mosquito bite
85. Indicate the medicine, which is not used in the systemic treatment of fungal
infection:
A) griseofulvin
B) terbinafin
C) ketoconazole
D) itrakonazol
E) methotrexate
86. Indicate the medicine, which is not used in the topical treatment of
epidermomykosis:
A) lamisil
B) clotrimazol
C) nizoral
D) acyclovir cream
E) iodine 20%
87. Indicate the medicine, which is not used in the topical treatment of
dermatomycoses:
A) Lamisil Spray
B) terbizil cream
C) nizoral cream
D) clotrimazole cream
E) zovirax Cream
88. Specify disease which do not differentiate with epidermomikoz of feet:
A) plantar warts
B) pustular psoriasis Barber
C) eczema dyshidrotic
D) vitiligo
15
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E) palmar-plantar psoriasis
89. Specify causative agent of rubromikoza:
A) Microsporum ferrugineum
B) Trichophyton violaceum
C) Trichophyton mentagrophytes
D) Candida albicans
E) Trichophyton rubrum
90. Rubromikosis should be differentiate with:
A) pemphigus
B) vitiligo
C) )psoriasis
D) furunculosis
E) acne vulgaris
91. Specify the source of infection in case of Favus:
A) soil
B) cattle
C) dogs
D) cats
E) persons
92. Specify the way of transmission uncharacteristic for Trichophyton:
A) close direct contact with an infected person
B) through infected underwear, bed linens, bath accessories
C) close direct contact with infected cattle, cats
D) through the infected hats, combs, hair dryers
E) mosquito bite
93. Specify the way of transmission uncharacteristic for Microsporum:
A) through infected hats, combs, hair dryers
B) through the soil
C) close direct contact with an infected person, dogs, cats
D) tick bite
E) through the infected underwear, bed linens, bath accessories
94. Specify the way of transmission uncharacteristic for Favus
A) through the infected underwear and bed linen
B) through infected hats, combs, hair dryers
C) through the infected bath accessories
D) in close direct contact with infected dogs, cats
16
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E) close direct contact with an infected person

95. Specify the location, unusual for Trichophyton
A) hair
B) nail plate
C) oral mucosa
D) smooth skin of the face, neck, scalp
E) smooth skin of the extremities
96. Specify the location, unusual for Favus
A) hair
B) nail plate
C) smooth skin of the face, neck, scalp
D) smooth skin of the extremities
E) oral mucosa
97. Describe the clinical features, unusual for Trichophyton:
A) well demarcated erythematous-squamous lesions
B) plaque bluish-red color with follicular pustules on the surface
C) broken- off hairs at 2-3mm from the surface of the skin or slightly above ("black dot")
D) Localization of the face, scalp, trunk, extremities
E) )loss of sensation in the lesions
98. Which group of infectious dermatoses include scabies:
A) sexually transmitted infections
B) fungal infections of the skin
C) viral dermatoses
D) bacterial dermatoses
E) parasitic dermatoses
99. Specify the causative agent of scabies:
A) Pediculus pubis
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Sarcoptes scabiei
D) Demodex folliculorum
E) Trichophyton verrucosum
100. Specify the source of infection of scabies:
A) soil
B) rodents
C) persons
D) cats
17
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E) bar
101. Specify the clinical signs, unusual for a typical scabies:
A) itching, worse at night, in the warmth
B) the presence of burrows
C) polymorphism
D) large skinfolds, abdomen, buttocks, and flexor surfaces of the extremities
E) mucous membranes
102. Specify unusual way of transmission for peduculosis:
A) infected bath accessories
B) infected hats
C) infected underwear and bed linen
D) sexual contact with a patient inguinal lice
E) mosquito bite
103. Nit is :
A) crust
B) scale
C) thickened section of hair in the form of "coupling"
D) lice eggs
E) nodules on the hair
104. Specify the pathogen Candida surface of the skin and mucous membranes:
A) Ureaplasma uralyticum
B) Trichomonas vaginalis
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
E) Candida albicans
105. Specify the source of infection, unusual for candidiasis:
A) calves
B) poultry
C) rodents
D) people
E) kittens
106. Specify the path of the transmission unusual for candidiasis:
A) through an infected household items
B) through infected meat and dairy products, fruits, vegetables
C) the endogenous
D) direct contact with a patient
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E) transmissive
107. Indicate which of the following is not endogenous factors involved in the
transformation of Candida albicans from saprophytes in pathogenic forms:
A) systemic glucocorticoids
B) obesity
C) diabetes
D) immunocompromise
E) Hemophilia
108. What location is not typical for mucocutaneous candidiasis:
A) large skin folds
B) interdigital skin folds
C) oral mucosa
D) the mucous membranes of genitals
E) )the skin of the scalp
109. Specify the location, uncharacteristic for pediculosis capitis:
A) back of the head
B) mustache and beard
C) eyebrows and eyelashes
D) scalp
E) interdigital webs
110. Spacify the location, unusual for pediculosis pubis:
A) mustache and beard
B) eyebrows and eyelashes
C) pubic area, thighs, lower abdomen
D) chest, armpits
E) scalp
111. Which group of dermatoses is scabies:
A) genodermatosis
B) skin tumors
C) occupational deceases
D) infectious dermatoses
E) neyrodermatosis
112. What type of microorganism is the causative agent of scabies:
A) fotobakterii
B) viruses
C) fungi
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D) bacteria
E) parasites
113. Specify the primary morphological element unusual for typical scabies:
A) urtica
B) pustule
C) node
D) papula
E) vesicle
114. Which group of dermatoses is pediculosis
A) neyrodermatozy
B) occupational deceases
C) skin tumors
D) genodermatosis
E) infectious dermatoses
115. Specify the source of infection for pediculosis capita:
A) rodents
B) infected underwear
C) a sick man
D) sheep
E) cats
116. Specify the source of infection in pediculosis pubis:
A) rodents
B) sheep
C) infected underwear
D) a sick man(closed personal contact)
E) cats
117. The causative agent of herpes simplex:
A) retrovirus
B) Epstein-Barr virus
C) coxsackie virus
D) The human papilloma virus
E) herpes simplex virus
118. Herpetic infection is not transmitted:
A) airborne
B) kiss
C) through the everyday objects
20
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D) sexually
E) from animals
119. Specify the primary morphological element with herpes:
A) papula
B) pustula
C) vesicle
D) nodus
E) urtica
120. Specify the types of herpes simplex:
A) own stranger
B) the upper and lower
C) an external and internal
D) genital and extragenital
E) symmetrical and asymmetrical
121. The causative agent of herpes zoster is ::
A) the simplest (protozoa)
B) virus
C) fungi
D) Chlamydia
E) the Rickettsia
122. Primary element of herpes zoster:
A) papule
B) urtica
C) tubercle
D) nodus
E) vesicle
123. Which warts do not exist:
A) filiform warts
B) plantar
C) vulgar (common)
D) flat
E) constrained
124. The primary element in the genital warts:
A) bulla
B) nodus
C) urticaria
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D) pustulle
E) papule
125. Mode of transmission of molluscum contagiosum:
A) congenital
B) transfusion
C) through the esophagus
D) direct contact
E) airborne
126. Select primary element usual for localized scleroderma:
A) papule
B) pustule
C) vesicle
D) nodus
E) erythema
127. Specify dermatosis, characterized by localized to the oral mucosa:
A) alopecia
B) vitiligo
C) pityriasis rosea
D) erythrasma
E) pemphigus
128. Choose dermatitis, which is characterized by the location of the oral caviti:
A) erythrazma
B) Vitiligo
C) keratoderma
D) hydradenitis
E) lichen planus
129. Select primary element, usual for discoid lupus erythematosus:
A) node
B) papule
C) erythema
D) tubercle
E) pustule
130. Select a secondary element usual for discoid lupus erythematosus:
A) ulcer
B) vegetation
C) crack
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D) scales
E) erosion
131. Choose the symptom, usual for discoid lupus erythematosus
A) probe symptom
B) Nikolsky sign
C) "apple jelly" symptom
D) Besnier-Meshchersky’s symtom
E) Koebner symptom
132. Indicate typical localization of discoid lupus erythematosus:
A) genital organs
B) palms and soles
C) face
D) large folds
E) interdigital folds
133. Choose the symptoms not typical for limited scleroderma:
A) edema
B) atrophy
C) seal(hardering)-induration
D) )soak
E) Erythema
134. Which symptom is not specific to discoid lupus erythematosus:
A) telangiectasia
B) scar atrophy
C) erythema
D) follicular hyperkeratosis
E) bubbles
135. What is the primary element usual for psoriasis:
A) bubble
B) tubercle
C) spot (macula)
D) pustule
E) papule
136. Indicate the symptom unusual for psoriasis:
A) symptom of "stearin spot"
B) pin-point bleeding
C) symptom of terminal film
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D) symptom Koebner
E) symptom Besnier
137. What kind of vitamins is more effective in the treatment of disorders of
keratinization:
A) E
B) PP
C) C
D) A
E) B
138. Indicate subjective sensations reported with lichen planus:
A) tingling
B) numbness
C) pain
D) )pruritus (itching)
E) burning
139. What area is not affected by lichen planus
A) red border of lips
B) mucous
C) nails
D) skin
E) joints
140. Specify a symptom characteristic of lichen planus:
A) symptom of terminal film
B) symptom of "stearin spot"
C) symptom Besnier
D) symptom Wickham
E) pin-point bleeding symptom
141. What is the clinical form of psoriasis which leads to disability:
A) erythroderma
B) pustular
C) vulgar
D) arthropathic
E) exudative
142. Specify the primary complication of toxicoderma:
A) cirrhosis
B) sepsis
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C) steroid diabetes
D) epidermal nekroliz (Lyell's syndrome)
E) Itsenko-Kushenga syndrom
143. What clinical symptom is unusual for neurodermatitis:
A) itching, worse at night
B) typical localization
C) excoriation
D) red dermographism
E) lihenification
144. Which group of dermatoses is urticaria:
A) bullous dermatosis
B) fungal infection
C) viral dermatoses
D) allergic
E) genodermatosis
145. Specify the characteristical elements of wheal urticaria:
A) vesicle
B) nodus
C) bulla
D) pustules
E) urticaria
146. Indicate primary morphological element in pemphigus:
A) papula
B) urticaria
C) nodus
D) pustula
E) bulla
147. Specify the characteristic diagnostic symptom in pemphigus:
A) symptoms of "stearin spot" and "terminal film"
B) symptoms of "ladies' heel" and "pinch"
C) Nikolsky’s and Asbo-Hansen’s symptoms
D) "apple jelly" and "probe" symptoms
E) pin-point bleeding
148. What clinical form is not the case with pemphigus:
A) vegetans
B) seborrheic
25
 220i-2A

C) vulgaris
D) atrophic
E) foliaceus
149. Specify the primary element that is unusual for dermatitis herpetiformis
Duhring:
A) papule
B) vesicle
C) bulla
D) Erythema
E) nodus
150. Choose the location, unusual for seborrhea:
A) back
B) breast (chest)
C) face
D) scalp
E) palm
151. Specify the localization of acne vulgaris:
A) skin of the genital organs
B) palms and soles
C) face, chest, back
D) large folds
E) red border of the lips
152. Specify the primary morphological element in acne vulgaris:
A) urtica
B) nodus
C) vesicle
D) bulla
E) papules, pustules
153. Specify the primary morphological element unusual for rosacea
A) telangiectasia
B) pustule
C) bulla
D) erythema
E) papule
154. What is accompanied by acne rosacea most often:
A) Candida albicans
26
 220i-2A

B) Trichophytonverrucosum
C) Treponemapallida
D) Sarcoptes scabiei
E) Demodex folliculorum
155. Leukoplakia of the oral mucosa - is:
A) parasitic disorders
B) viral disorders
C) disorder of fungal etiology
D) Disorders of bacterial etiology
E) keratinization of the oral mucosa
156. Choose the syndrome, which is not typical for mucous membranes of the oral
cavity:
A) Layell's syndrome
B) Stevens Johnson syndrome
C) syndrome Ritter
D) Itshenk-Cushing's syndrome
E) Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
157. Disorder of red border of the lips uncharacterized for:
A) allergic dermatitis
B) lupus erythematosus
C) atopic dermatitis
D) lichen planus
E) alopecia
158. Specify dermatosis, characterized by disorder of red border of the lips:
A) tinea pedis
B) pityriasis versicolor
C) acne vulgaris
D) alopecia
E) lichen planus
159. Indicate primary morphological element, characteristic of vitiligo:
A) papula
B) bulla
C) urtica
D) node
E) depigmented spot
160. Alopecia - is:
27
 220i-2A

A) irregular thickening hair

B) total or partial loss of hair
C) breaking of hair
D) graying hair
E) curl hair
161. It is atypical for dermatomyositis:
A) focal erythema on face
B) Gottron’s papule
C) hyperkeratosis follicularis
D) myositis, myalgia
E) creatinuria
162. Favourite rash localization for erythema multiforme is:
A) genital organs
B) scalp
C) nail plate
D) trunk
E) extensor surface of limbs
163. In treatment of erythema multiforme the following is not applied:
A) prednisolone
B) calcium preparations
C) salicylate
D) methotrexate
E) antihistamines
164. Morphological character of pemphigoid:
A) acantholysis
B) evident hyperkeratosis
C) papillomatosis
D) subepidermal disposition of blisters
E) intraepidermal disposition of blisters
165. The following is not specified as benign tumor:
A) lymphangioma
B) hemangioma
C) fibroma
D) basal cell carcinoma
E) lipoma
166. The following is not a malignant tumor:
28
 220i-2A

A) sarcoma
B) melanoma
C) squamous cell carcinoma of skin
D) basal cell carcinoma
E) pigmented nevus
167. Circumscribed alopecia is the pathology:
A) infectious-dependent
B) cicatrical
C) traumatic
D) dystrophic
E) non-cicatrical
168. Inherited types of ichthyosis not-include:
A) lamellar exfoliation
B) simple
C) epydermolytic hyperkeratosis
D) atopic dermatitis
E) Х-linked
169. Indicate the wrong answer. It is typical for inherent epidermolysis bullosa:
A) autosomal- recessive type of inheritance
B) blistering at mechanical injuries
C) retinoids are applied for treatment
D) blistering in the period of infancy
E) hyperkeratosis at the location of blistering
170. The following is not specific for hard chancre:
A) regional lymphadenitis
B) brownish-red colour
C) even borders of ulcer
D) infiltration of base
E) painfulness
171. The following is unspecific for hard chancre:
A) even borders of the ulcer
B) regional lymphadenitis
C) painlessness
D) soft consistence of the base
E) tawny colour
172. The following is unspecific for the hard chancre:
29
 220i-2A

A) even borders of the ulcer

B) regional lymphadenitis
C) absence of painfulness
D) light pink colour
E) infiltration of the base
173. The following is unspecific for the hard chancre:
A) absence of painfulness
B) tawny colour
C) absence of the lymphadenitis
D) infiltration of the base
E) even borders of the ulcer
174. Indicate the incorrect answer. The hard chancre is usually accompanied by:
MUST BE
A) polyadenitis CORRECT
B) regional edema
C) Herksheimer’s reaction
D) regional lymphadenitis
E) roseola
175. Indicate the correct answer. The hard chancre is usually accompanied by:
A) Herksheimer’s reaction
B) pustula
C) polyadenitis
D) regional edema
E) regional lymphadenitis
176. Indicate the correct answer. The hard chancre is usually accompanied by:
A) polyadenitis
B) regional edema
C) Herksheimer’s reaction
D) regional lymphadenitis
E) papula
177. Choose the right answer. The hard chancre is usually accompanied by:
A) nodes
B) polyadenitis
C) Herksheimer’s reaction
D) regional edema
E) regional lymphadenitis
178. The following is unspecific for the primary syphilis:
30
 220i-2A

A) involvement of lymphatic vessels

B) spontaneous scarring of ulcer
C) regional limphodenitis
D) general satisfactory status of patient
E) formation of roseola
179. The following is unspecific for the primary syphilis:
A) general satisfactory status of patient
B) spontaneous scarring of ulcer
C) involvement of lymphatic vessels
D) regional lymphodenitis
E) papule formation
180. Complications of the genital hard chancre in males may be all of the
mentioned below, except for:
A) phagedenism
B) phimosis
C) mortification
D) balanitis
E) regional lymphadenitis
181. Complications of the genital hard chancre in males may be all of the
mentioned below, except for:
A) phimosis
B) phagedenism
C) mortification
D) balanoposthitis
E) regional lymphadenitis
182. Complications of the genital hard chancre may be all of the mentioned below,
except for:
A) paraphimosis
B) phagedenism
C) gangrena
D) regional lymphadenitis
E) balanoposthitis
183. Indicate the correct answer. Hard chancre is not come across in the form of:
A) indurative edema
B) chancre-amygdalite
C) erosion
D) ulcer
31
 220i-2A

E) macules
184. Choose the incorrect statement:
A) hard chancre may be multiple
B) hard chancre has atypical forms
C) hard chancre may localize on any part of the skin and mucous membrane
D) hard chancre localizes only in the areas of the natural orifices (openings)
E) hard chancre may be bipolar
185. Choose the correct answer. Hard chancre is not encountered in the form of:
A) chancre - panaricium
B) erosion
C) indurative edema
D) ulcer
E) lichenification
186. Choose the correct answer. Hard chancre is not encountered in the form of:
A) chancre - amiqdalitis
B) indurative edema
C) ulcer
D) scales
E) erosion

187. Choose the correct answer. Hard chancre is not encountered in the form of:
A) erosion
B) chancre - amiqdalitis
C) blister
D) indurative edema
E) ulcer
188. Choose the correct answer. The varieties of syphilid in the secondary
syphilis:
A) pustular
B) roseolous
C) pigmental
D) papular
E) grumous
189. Indicate the incorrect answer. The varieties of syphilid in the secondary
syphilis: MUST BE
CORRECT
A) pustular

32
 220i-2A

B) pigmental
C) papular
D) roseolous
E) nodular
190. Choose the incorrect answer. The varieties of the papular syphilid in syphilis:
A) palmar-plantar
B) condylomata lata
C) miliary
D) weeping
E) pointed condyloma
191. The following is specific for the tertiary active phase of syphilis:
A) pustular syphilid
B) diffuse alopecia
C) condylomata lata
D) polyadenitis
E) grupped tubercles
192. The following is specific for the tertiary active phase of syphilis:
A) palm and sole papulae
B) polyadenitis
C) grupped tubercles
D) pustular syphilid
E) microfocal alopecia
193. The following is specific for the tertiary active phase of syphilis:
A) pustular syphilid
B) palm and sole papulae
C) diffuse alopecia
D) grupped tubercles
E) polyadenitis
194. The following is specific for the tertiary active phase of syphilis:
A) microfocal alopecia
B) polyadenitis
C) flat condylomata
D) pustular syphilid
E) clustered tubercles
195. The following is unspecific for the tubercles in the tertiary syphilis:
A) red- bluish colour
33
 220i-2A

B) tendency to grouping
C) hard consistence
D) pain
E) resolution with scar formation
196. Hard chancre is:
A) macula
B) wheal
C) blister
D) node
E) erosion, ulcer
197. Hard chancre is:
A) wheal
B) pustule
C) node
D) blister
E) erosion, ulcer
198. All the undermentioned methods are applied to confirm the diagnosis for the
primary phase of syphilis except for:
A) examination for pale treponema from the surface of hard shancre:
B) confrontation
C) serological blood analysis
D) biochemical blood analysis
E) research of lymph nodes punctate
199. Specific manifestations of the secondary syphilis are all the undermentioned,
except for:
A) papular syphilid
B) roseolous syphilid
C) syphilitic alopecia
D) nodular syphilid
E) pustular syphilid
200. Specific manifestations of the secondary syphilis are all the undermentioned,
except for:
A) pustular syphilid
B) flat condyloma
C) papular syphilis
D) roseolous syphilid
E) nodular syphilid
34
 220i-2A

201. All the undermentioned is specific for the skin rash of the secondary phase of
syphilis, except for:
A) absence of subjective signs
B) absence of acute inflammatory signs
C) spontaneous resolution
D) positive serological reactions
E) pruritus
202. Indicate the more infectious skin rash in the secondary phase of syphilis:
A) syphilitic alopecia
B) leukoderma
C) miliary papulae
D) flat condyloma
E) roseola
203. Specific clinical symptoms of the secondary syphilis are all the
undermentioned, except for:
A) palm and sole papulae
B) leukoderma
C) lenticularis papulae
D) node
E) roseola
204. Specific clinical symptoms of the secondary syphilis are all the
undermentioned, except for:
A) dysphonia
B) flat condyloma
C) tubercle
D) papulae
E) alopecia
205. Specific clinical symptoms of the secondary syphilis are all the
undermentioned, except for:
A) Biett”s collar
B) hard chancre
C) leukoderma
D) alopecia
E) flat condyloma
206. Varieties of pustular syphilid in the secondary phase of syphilis are all the
undermentioned, except for:
A) impetiginous

35
 220i-2A

B) comedonic
C) ecthymatous
D) variolar
E) follicular
207. Varieties of pustular syphilid in the secondary phase of syphilis are all the
undermentioned, except for:
A) variolar
B) comedonic
C) ecthymatous
D) impetiginous
E) serpiginous
208. Roseolous syphilid is differentiated with all of the undermentioned diseases
except for:
A) pityriasis versicolor
B) pityriasis rosea
C) measles
D) toxicodermia
E) lupus erythematosus
209. Papular syphilid differentiates with all of the undermentioned diseases except
for:
A) flat verruga
B) pointed condyloma
C) lichen ruber planus
D) Dhuring’s dermatitis
E) psoriasis
210. Papular syphilid differentiates with all of the undermentioned diseases,
except for:
A) flat verruca
B) tuberculosis papulonecrotica
C) lichen ruber planus
D) pemphigus
E) pointed condyloma
211. Specific clinical signs of the tertiary phase of syphilis are all of the
undermentioned except for:
A) stellar scars
B) syphiloma
C) nodular syphilid

36
 220i-2A

D) pustular syphilid
E) affection of the internal organs
212. Indicate the causative agent of syphilis:
A) demodex folliculorum
B) candida albicans
C) treponema pallidium
D) spirochetae refringens
E) spirochetae buccalis
213. Choose the duration of incubation period of syphilis:
A) 3-4 years
B) 6-8 weeks
C) 3-4 weeks
D) 3-4 days
E) 3-4 months
214. Specific clinical symptoms of the primary period of syphilis are all of the
mentioned below except for:
A) regional lymphadenitis
B) lymphangitis
C) genital localization of hard chancre
D) hard chancre
E) alopecia
215. Indicate the element the hard chancre occurs with:
A) macule
B) tubercle
C) wheal
D) node
E) erosion ,ulcer
216. Specific clinical signs of hard chancre are all of the mentioned below, except
for:
A) row meat colour
B) painlessness
C) painfulness
D) absence of acute inflammatory manifestations
E) hard base
217. Indicate the possible localization of hard chancre
A) bladder

37
 220i-2A

B) uterus
C) kidneys
D) uretra
E) cervix
218. Specific clinical signs of labial hard chancre are all the undermentioned
except for:
A) painlessness
B) dense base
C) erosion of pinkish-reddish colour
D) localization on lips
E) sharp painfulness
219. Indicate the atypical forms of hard chancre:
A) solitary, multiple, chancre-imprints
B) nanoid, gigantic, bipolar
C) genital, extragenital
D) erosive, ulcerous, chinked
E) chancre-amygdalite, chancre-panaritium, indurative edema
220. Specific manifestations of the secondary phase of syphilis are the
undermentioned except for:
A) syphilitic alopecia
B) pustular syphilid
C) papular syphilid
D) macular syphilid
E) nodular syphilid
221. Specific manifestations of the secondary phase of syphilis are the
undermentioned, except for:
A) syphilitic alopecia
B) pustular syphilid
C) papular syphilid
D) macular syphilid
E) gummous syphilid
222. Specific clinical symptoms of the secondary fresh syphilis are all of the
undermentioned, except for:
A) erythematous angina
B) polyadenitis
C) roseola
D) lenticularis papulae
38
 220i-2A

E) tubercles
223. Choose the symptom complex specific for the secondary fresh syphilis:
A) hard chancre, regional lymphadenitis, lymphangitis
B) tubercles, gumma, stelate scars
C) leukoderma, flat condyloma, nummiform papulae
D) alopecia, angina, dysphonia
E) roseola, palmar-plantar papulae, remains of hard chancre
224. Specific clinical symptoms of the secondary recurrent syphilis are all of the
undermentioned except for:
A) flat condyloma
B) alopecia
C) dysphonia
D) leukoderma
E) hard chancre
225. Indicate symptom complex specific for the secondary recurrent syphilis:
A) erythematous angina, erosive papulae, remains of hard chancre
B) tubercles, gummas, stellar scars
C) roseola, palmar-plantar papulae, polyadenitis
D) hard chancre, regional lymphadenitis, lymphangiitis
E) leukoderma, flat condyloma, alopecia
226. In the presence of erosion on tunica mucosa of mouth, conducting all of the
undermentioned laboratory researches is necessary except for:
A) Candida albican analysis
B) herpetic cells analysis
C) serological blood analysis
D) acantholytic cells analysis
E) research on Demodex folliculorum
227. Specific clinical signs of polyadenitis in the secondary phase of syphilis may
be all of the undermentioned except for:
A) tight-elastic consistence
B) normal colouring of skin over lymph nodes
C) painlessness of lymph nodes
D) mobility of lymph nodes
E) cohesion of lymph nodes
228. All of the undermentioned is specific for syphilitic angina except for:
A) lilac-tinged border along the upper edge of the tonsil
B) tonsil density
39
 220i-2A

C) painlessness
D) sharpness of the border
E) acute painfulness
229. Varieties of papular syphilid in the secondary phase of syphilis are all of the
undermentioned except for:
A) palmar-plantar papulae
B) papula vegetans (flat condyloma)
C) nummiform papulae
D) hyperkeratosic papulae
E) weeping erosive papulae
230. Varieties of pustular syphilid in the secondary phase of syphilis are all of the
undermentioned except for:
A) comedonic
B) furuncular
C) ecthymatous
D) impetiginous
E) variolar
231. Roseolous syphilid differentiates with all of the undermentioned diseases
except for:
A) toxidermia
B) pityriasis versicolor
C) rubromycosis
D) psoriasis
E) pityriasis rosea
232. Papular syphilid differentiates with all of the undermentioned diseases except
for:
A) pointed condyloma
B) flat verruca
C) pemphigus
D) lichen ruber planus
E) psoriasis
233. Specific clinical symptoms for the tertiary phase of syphilis are all of the
undermentioned except for:
A) internal organs affection
B) gummous syphilid
C) hard chancre
D) nodular syphilid

40
 220i-2A

E) stellar scars
234. For the skin rash of the tertiary period of syphilis all of the undermentioned
is specific except for:
A) absence of acute inflammatory manifestations
B) formation of scars
C) density
D) sluggish growth
E) painfulness
235. Tubercles in the tertiary phase of syphilis unlike the tubercular tumours are
characterized by all of the undermentioned signes except for:
A) without inclination to fusion
B) globular form
C) bluish-red colour
D) hard consistence
E) soft consistence
236. Clinical symptoms of the early congenital syphilis of the infants are all of the
undermentioned except for:
A) Parro's pseudoparalysis
B) Hochsinger’s papular infiltration
C) pemphigus syphiliticus
D) negative serological reactions
E) syphilitic rhinitis
237. Specific clinical signs of the pemphigus syphiliticus are all of the
undermentioned except for:
A) positive serological reactions
B) tight, stretched covering of bubbles
C) obligatory localization on hands and feet
D) primary skin rash of bubbles with serous fluid
E) negative serological reactions
238. Indicate the undermentioned symptom of the early congenital syphilis that
comes to an end with formation of radiar scars around the mouth (Robinson-
Furie), specific for the late congenital syphilis:
A) all of the abovementioned
B) Parrot's pseudoparalysis
C) syphilitic rhinitis
D) pemphigus syphiliticus
E) Hochsinger’s papular infiltration

41
 220i-2A

239. All of the undermentioned refer to the specific drugs applied for the
treatment of syphilis patients except for:
A) cephalosporin antibiotics
B) antibiotics-macrolides
C) corticosteroid hormones
D) tetracycline antibiotics
E) penicillin antibiotics
240. Which organs may be affected in gonorrhea
A) lings
B) liver
C) spleen
D) conjunctiva
E) heart
241. Causative agent of gonorrhea is:
A) staphylococcus
B) streptococcus
C) spirochete
D) virus
E) gonococcus
242. Viability of gonococcus outside human body is:
A) about 48 hours
B) about 72 hours
C) about 12 hours
D) about 24 hours
E) about 4-5 hours
243. Routes of contagion with gonococcus infections are all of the
undermentioned except for:
A) infected household articles
B) maternal passages
C) infected bath accessories
D) transplacental
E) sexual
244. What type of immunity does a human being has against gonococcus?
A) humoral immunity
B) true immunity
C) innate immunity

42
 220i-2A

D) acquired immunity
E) does not have immunity
245. Which gonorrhea is considered fresh
A) more than 2 months
B) up to 4 months
C) up to 2 months
D) more than 3 months
E) more than 4 months
246. Incubation period in gonorrhea is up to
A) 1-2 months
B) 15-30 days
C) 1-2 years
D) 1-2 days - 1-2 weeks
E) 2-3 months
247. Which forms of gonorrhea are encountered in males
A) disgidrotic
B) vegetative
C) serpinginoza
D) reccurent
E) fresh acute
248. What complications may arise in gonorrheal urethritis in males?
A) gastritis
B) bartolinitis
C) peritonitis
D) colitis
E) prostatitis
249. Which epithelium does gonococcus localize in?
A) cornific epithelium
B) superficial
C) inside leukocyte
D) smooth
E) columnar
250. Which drugs are applied for the treatment of fresh gonorrheal urethritis
A) prednisolone
B) baralgin
C) pherezolum
43
 220i-2A

D) ketoconazole
E) ceftriaxone
251. The complications in disseminated gonorrhea infection
A) perihepatitis
B) atrophy
C) arthritis
D) aortitis
E) pleurisy
252. What is specific for the gonorrheal urethritis
A) hepatitis
B) plevritis
C) night itch
D) aortitis
E) diminution of libido
253. Causative agent of the trichomoniasis is
A) ureoplasma ureatiticum
B) triponema pallidum
C) trichomonаs vaginalis
D) treponema buccalis
E) cl.trachomaitis
254. What group of microorganisms does trichomonad refer to
A) fungi
B) rickettsia
C) viruses
D) bacteria
E) protozoa
255. What organs do urogenital trichomonads live in
A) spleen
B) stomach
C) lungs
D) liver
E) urogenital organs
256. What drugs are applied for treatment of trichomoniasis
A) tetracycline
B) baralgin
C) prednisolone
44
 220i-2A

D) nizoral
E) metronidazole
257. Which group of microorganisms does clamydia relate to
A) viruses
B) rickettsia
C) bacteria
D) protozoa
E) intermediate between the virus and rickettsia
258. Causative agent of the urogenital clamidiosis
A) gardanella vaginalis
B) cl.psitae
C) treponema pallidum
D) candida albicans
E) cl.trachomaitis
259. Which organs are affected by clamydia
A) liver
B) gallbladder
C) small intenstine
D) spleen
E) uretra
260. Methods of diagnostics of chlamydial urethritis:
A) KSR
B) Gramm stayn
C) IFR
D) TPIR (Treponema pallidum immobilization test)
E) PCR
261. Which drugs are applied for treatment of chlamydial infections?
A) antihistamine
B) cytostatic
C) hormones
D) penicillin
E) tetracycline and macrolides
262. Which microorganism causes urogenital candidiasis?
A) mobilincus
B) gardnerella
C) bacteriodis
45
 220i-2A

D) trichomonas vaginalis
E) candida albicans
263. Which factors facilitate emergence of candidal urethritis?
A) pneumonia
B) bronchit
C) labirintit
D) takinf of antibiotics
E) hepatit
264. Differential diagnostics of chancroid from hard chancre:
A) absence of inflammatory occurrences on periphery
B) saucer-shaped form
C) absence of painfulness
D) palpatory tenderness
E) lacquered surface
265. What complications are specific for chancroid?
A) prostatitis
B) ooforitis
C) bartolinit
D) vesikulitis
E) bubon
266. All of the undermentioned is applied for treatment of urogenital Chlamydia
except for:
A) ofloxacin
B) azithromycin
C) erythromycin
D) chloroquine
E) doxycycline
267. All of the undermentioned methods are applied for the diagnostics of
urogenital clamidiosis except for:
A) PCR
B) immunoferment
C) bacterioscopic
D) general blood analysis
E) bacteriological
268. Choose the causative agent of trichomoniasis:
A) chlamydia trachomatis

46
 220i-2A

B) staphylococcus
C) candida albicans
D) streptococcus
E) trchomonas vaginalis
269. For treatment of trichomoniasis all of the undermentioned drugs are applied
except for:
A) tiberal
B) secnidazole
C) tinidazole
D) indometacin
E) metronidazole
270. All of the given drugs are used for urogenital candidiasis treatment except
for:
A) orungal
B) nystatin
C) penicillin
D) fluconazole
E) mycosyst
271. Choose the causative agent of HIV(human immunodeficiency virus):
A) streptococcus
B) fungi
C) staphylococcus
D) retrovirus
E) mycobacteria
272. Indicate the dermatological manifestations of HIV infection:
A) pemphigus
B) scabies
C) Kaposi's sarcoma
D) pediculisis
E) Borovski's deasese
273. Which drug is recommended to apply for initial therapy of chancroid?
A) doxiciclina
B) azitromicin
C) ofloxacin
D) biseptol
E) extencilline

47
 220i-2A

274. Which laboratory methods are applied for diagnostics of mycoplasmosis:

A) examination of cerebrospinal fluid
B) direct microscopy
C) TPHA
D) PCR
E) IFA
275. Which complications may mycoplasmal infections bring on in males?
A) pharingitis
B) parametritis
C) bartolinitis
D) endometritis
E) prostatitis
276. What major systems become affected in Reiter's disease?
A) central nervans system
B) circulatory system
C) gastrointestinal tract
D) support-locomotion system
E) vegetative – vascular system
277. In translation from the Greek gonorrhea means:
A) contagious disease
B) untidiness
C) purulent disease
D) purulent flow
E) spermatorrhea
278. Causative agent of gonorrhea is:
A) protozoa
B) gram-negative diplococcus
C) rickettsia
D) gram-positive diplococcus
E) virus
279. Indicate the contagion route of gonorrhea:
A) posttransfusion route
B) through digestive tract
C) genital tracts
D) droplet
E) sting
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280. Causative agent of gonorrhea:

A) Scheonlein trichophyton
B) mycobacteria tuberculosis
C) Ducrei streptobacille
D) Hansen’s mycobacteria
E) Neisseria gonococcus
281. What is the purpose of using two-glass test
A) defining sexual partner
B) defining strain of the causative agent
C) defining the severity of the disease
D) defining the time of the disease
E) defining the localization of the process
282. For microscopic diagnostics of gonorrhea the following is applied:
A) brilliant green stain
B) hematoxylin and eosin stain
C) Romanovsky-Giemsa's (blood) stain
D) Ziehl-Neelsen’s stain
E) Gram’s stain
283. More frequent primary clinical manifestation of clamidiosis in females:
A) vaginitis
B) vulvitis
C) bartholinitis
D) proctitis
E) endocervicitis
284. The following is applied for the clamidiosis treatment:
A) corticosteroids
B) cytostatic
C) antidepressants
D) antibiotics-macrolides
E) antibiotics of penicillin group

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