GATE 2022 - Biotechnology - 22 Years Chapter Wise Solved - DR - Prabhanshu Kumar, DR - Pawan KR - Maurya, Er - Preeti T - 2021 - GK PUBLICATIONS - 9789391061159 - Anna's Archive

Title : GATE 2022 - Biotechnology - 22 Years Chapter wise Solved Papers (2000-2021)
Language : English
Author’s Name : Dr. Prabhanshu Kumar, Dr. Pawan Kr. Maurya, Er. Preeti T. Kumar
Copyright © : 2021 Dr. Prabhanshu Kumar, Dr. Pawan Kr. Maurya, Er. Preeti T. Kumar
No part of this book may be reproduced in a retrieval system or transmitted, in any form or by any
means, electronics, mechanical, photocopying, recording, scanning and or without the written
permission of the Author/Publisher.
Published by :
Career Launcher Infrastructure (P) Ltd.
A-45, Mohan Cooperative Industrial Area, Near Mohan Estate Metro Station, New Delhi - 110044
Marketed by :
G.K. Publications (P) Ltd.
Plot No. 9A, Sector-27A, Mathura Road, Faridabad, Haryana-121003
ISBN : 978-93-91061-15-9
Printer’s Details : Made in India, New Delhi.
For product information :

Visit www.gkpublications.com or email to gkp@gkpublications.com
 Preface (vii)
 About GATE (ix)
 GATE Syllabus (xix)
S olved Papers (Chapter-Wise)

Verbal Ability
1. English Grammar 1.1 - 1.4 2. Percentage and Its Applications 2.1 - 2.2
MCQ Type Questions 1.1 MCQ Type Questions 2.1
– Answers 1.4 Numerical Type Questions 2.1
– Explanations 1.4
– Answers 2.2
2. Sentence Completion 2.1 - 2.4 – Explanations 2.2
MCQ Type Questions 2.1
3. Time and Work 3.1 - 3.4
– Answers 2.4
– Explanations 2.4 MCQ Type Questions 3.1
Numerical Type Questions 3.2
3. Synonyms 3.1 - 3.2
– Answers 3.2
– Answers 3.2 – Explanations 3.3
– Explanations 3.2 4. Ratio, Proportion and Mixtures 4.1 - 4.2

4. Antonyms 4.1 - 4.2 MCQ Type Questions 4.1
MCQ Type Questions 4.1 – Answers 4.1
– Answers 4.1 – Explanations 4.2
5. Permutations and Combinations &
5. Reasoning Ability 5.1 - 5.14
Probability 5.1 - 5.4
– Answers 5.10 Numerical Type Questions 5.2
– Explanations 5.10 – Answers 5.2
Numerical Ability
6. Miscellaneous 6.1 - 6.6
1. Numbers and Algebra 1.1 - 1.12
– Answers 1.6 – Answers 6.4
– Explanations 1.7 – Explanations 6.4
(iii)
5. Microbiology 5.1 – 5.6
E ngineering Mathematics – Answers 5.3
1. Linear Algebra 1.1 – 1.3 – Explanations 5.4
– Answers 1.2 6. Immunology 6.1 – 6.12

– Explanations 1.2 – Answers 6.6
2. Calculus 2.1 – 2.3
– Answers 2.2 7. Genetics - I : Classical and Population
Genetics 7.1 – 7.5
– Answers 7.3
3. Differential Equations 3.1 – 3.3
– Answers 3.1
8. Genetics - II : Molecular Genetics
8.1 – 8.12
4. Probability and Statistics 4.1 – 4.2
– Answers 8.7
– Answers 4.1
9. Advanced Biotechnology 9.1 – 9.34
Technical Section – Answers 9.18
1. Biomolecules : Constituents of Life 1.1 – 1.4
– Answers 1.2
10. Enzyme Science and Technology 10.1 – 10.14
– Answers 10.9
2. Bioenergetics and Metabolism 2.1 – 2.8
– Answers 2.4
11. Biochemical Engineering and
Bioprocess Technology 11. 1 – 11.20
– Answers 11.10
3. Biophysical and Biochemical
Techniques 3.1 – 3.6
12. Bioinformatics 12.1 – 12.6
– Answers 3.4
– Answers 12.3
4. Cell Biology 4.1 – 4.6
– Answers 4.4 Solved Paper 2017 1 - 16
– Explanations 4.4 Solved Paper 2018 1 - 16
Solved Paper 2019 1 - 14
(iv)
IIT Institutes
Indian Institute of Technology, Roorkee
(v)
(vi)
Whether you want to work with esteemed PSUs including the Maharatna and Navratna companies or do your
Masters from IITs and IISc, GATE is your entry to career and academic avenues post your graduation. Thousands
of students write the GATE paper annually. The level of competition is fierce, owing to the increasing competition
every year for a limited number of seats. If you are a serious aspirant, it is advisable to start preparing for
GATE from the second year of your Graduation with the right books.
GK Publications has been the guiding force for GATE aspirants for the last 3 decades. Better known as the
‘‘Publisher of Choice'' to students preparing for GATE and other technical test prep examinations in the
country, we published the first set of books in 1994 when GATE exam, both objective and conventional, was
conducted in the paper and pencil environment and used as a checkpoint for entry to postgraduate courses in
IITs and IISCs. At that time, students had little access to technology and relied mainly on instructor-led
learning followed by practice with books available for these examinations.
A lot has changed since then!
Today, GATE is conducted in an online-only mode with multiple choice and numerical based questions.The
exam pattern too has evolved over the years. Instead of theory, the questions today test a student's basic
understanding and his capacity to put fundamentals to practical applications.The exam only rewards those
with a concrete foundational clarity of basics.
We, at GKP, have also embraced change. Today, our preparatory manuals are not mere books but torchbearers
in your GATE preparation journey. We understand that tackling the syllabus one chapter at a time is not only
easy but also allows students to cope with the looming exam pressure. A major game changer is the habit to
practice and solve previous year questions and this is why, our GATE 2021 Chapter-wise Solved Papers of
Biotechnology is your best bet to be GATE READY by 2021!
The book carries detailed analysis of previous years' solved papers (all sets) so that you are well-versed with
the latest exam pattern and how it has evolved over time. Both MCQs and Numerical have been explained in
a lucid and detailed fashion, so that you take your preparation forward - one question at a time.
With each question, its marks' weightage has also been given so that you can gauge the level of question and
make judicious use of your time.
Today's students have easy access to technology and the concept of a monologue within the classroom has
changed to dialogue where students come prepared with concepts and then discuss topics. We have launched
a web portal and mobile app to help you take your preparation on the go - so that you learn, revise and practice
mock tests online.
The mobile app provides access to video lectures, short tests and provides regular updates about the exam.
The web portal in addition to what is available on the app provides full-length mock tests to mimic the actual
exam to help you gauge your level of preparedness. The combination of practice content in print, video lectures,
and short and full-length tests on mobile and web make this product complete courseware for GATE preparation.
We also know that improvement is a never-ending process and hence we welcome your suggestions and feedback
or spelling and technical errors if any. Please write to us at gkp@gkpublications.com
We hope that our small effort will help you prepare well for the examination.
We wish you all the best!
Team GKP
(vii)
About GATE
The Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) conducted by IISc and IITs has emerged as one of
the bench mark tests for engineering and science aptitude in facilitating admissions for higher education
(M.Tech./Ph.D.) in IITs, IISc and various other Institutes/Universities/Laboratories in India. With the
standard and high quality of the GATE examination in 27 disciplines of engineering and science,
Humanities and Social Sciences subjects, it identifies the candidate's understanding of a subject and
aptitude and eligibility for higher studies. During the last few years, GATE score is also being used as
one of the criteria for recruitment in Government Organizations such as Cabinet Secretariat, and
National/State Public Sector Undertakings in India. Because of the importance of the GATE examination,
the number of candidates taking up GATE exams has increased tremendously. GATE exams are conducted
by the IITs and IISc as a computer based test having multiple choice questions and numerical answer
type questions. The questions are mostly fundamental, concept based and thought provoking. From
2017 onwards GATE Exam is being held in Bangladesh, Ethiopia, Nepal, Singapore, Sri Lanka and
United Arab Emirates. An Institute with various nationalities in its campus widens the horizons of an
academic environment. A foreign student brings with him/her a great diversity, culture and wisdom to
share. Many GATE qualified candidates are paid scholarships/assistantship, especially funded by Ministry
of Human Resources Development, Government of India and by other Ministries. IIT, Kharagpur is
the Organizing Institute for GATE 2022.
Why GATE?
Admission to Post Graduate and Doctoral Programmes
Admission to postgraduate programmes with MHRD and some other government scholarships/
assistantships in engineering colleges/institutes is open to those who qualify through GATE. GATE
qualified candidates with Bachelor’s degree in Engineering/Technology/Architecture or Master’s degree
in any branch of Science/Mathematics/Statistics/Computer Applications are eligible for admission to
Master/Doctoral programmes in Engineering/Technology/Architecture as well as for Doctoral
programmes in relevant branches of Science with MHRD or other government scholarships/
assistantships. Candidates with Master’s degree in Engineering/Technology/Architecture may seek
admission to relevant Ph.D programmes with scholarship/assistantship without appearing in the GATE
examination.
Financial Assistance
A valid GATE score is essential for obtaining financial assistance during Master’s programs and direct
Doctoral programs in Engineering/Technology/Architecture, and Doctoral programs in relevant
branches of Science in Institutes supported by the MHRD or other Government agencies. As per the
directives of the MHRD, the following procedure is to be adopted for admission to the post-graduate
programs (Master’s and Doctoral) with MHRD scholarship/assistantship. Depending upon the norms
adopted by a specific institute or department of the Institute, a candidate may be admitted directly
into a course based on his/her performance in GATE only or based on his/her performance in GATE
and an admission test/interview conducted by the department to which he/she has applied and/or the
(ix)
candidate’s academic record. If the candidate is to be selected through test/interview for post-graduate
programs, a minimum of 70% weightage will be given to the performance in GATE and the remaining
30% weightage will be given to the candidate’s performance in test/interview and/or academic record,
as per MHRD guidelines. The admitting institutes could however prescribe a minimum passing
percentage of marks in the test/interview. Some colleges/institutes specify GATE qualification as the
mandatory requirement even for admission without MHRD scholarship/assistantship.
To avail of the financial assistance (scholarship), the candidate must first secure admission to a program
in these Institutes, by a procedure that could vary from institute to institute. Qualification in GATE
is also a minimum requirement to apply for various fellowships awarded by many Government
organizations. Candidates are advised to seek complete details of admission procedures and availability
of MHRD scholarship/assistantship from the concerned admitting institution. The criteria for
postgraduate admission with scholarship/assistantship could be different for different institutions.
The management of the post-graduate scholarship/assistantship is also the responsibility of the
admitting institution. Similarly, reservation of seats under different categories is as per the policies
and norms prevailing at the admitting institution and Government of India rules. GATE offices will
usually not entertain any enquiry about admission, reservation of seats and/or award of scholarship/
assistantship.
PSU Recruitments
As many as 37 PSUs are using GATE score for recruitment. It is likely that more number of PSUs
may start doing so by next year. Below is the list of PSUs:
MDL, BPCL, GAIL, NLC LTD, CEL, Indian Oil, HPCL, NBPC, NECC, BHEL, WBSEDCL, NTPC,
ONGC, Oil India, Power Grid, Cabinet Secretariat, Govt. of India, BAARC, NFL, IPR, PSPCL, PSTCL,
DRDO, OPGC Ltd., THDC India Ltd., BBNL, RITES, IRCON, GHECL, NHAI, KRIBHCO, Mumbai
Railway Vikas Corporation Ltd. (MRVC Ltd.), National Textile Corporation, Coal India Ltd., BNPM,
AAI, NALCO, EdCIL India.
Important :
1. Admissions in IITs/IISc or other Institutes for M.Tech./Ph.D. through GATE scores shall be
advertised separately by the Institutes and GATE does not take the responsibility of admissions.
2. Cabinet Secretariat has decided to recruit officers for the post of Senior Field Officer (Tele) (From
GATE papers of EC, CS, PH), Senior Research Officer (Crypto) (From GATE papers of EC, CS,
MA), Senior Research Officer (S&T) (From GATE papers EC, CS, CY, PH, AE, BT) in the
Telecommunication Cadre, Cryptographic Cadre and Science & Technology Unit respectively of
Cabinet Secretariat. The details of the scheme of recruitment shall be published in National
Newspaper/Employment News by the concerned authority.
3. Some PSUs in India have expressed their interest to utilize GATE scores for their recruitment
purpose. The Organizations who intend to utilize GATE scores shall make separate advertisement
for this purpose in Newspapers etc.
Who Can Appear for GATE?

Eligibility for GATE
Before starting the application process, the candidate must ensure that he/she meets the eligibility
criteria of GATE given in Table.
(x)
Eligibility Criteria for GATE 2022
Expected
Description of
Degree/Program Qualifying Degree/Examination Year of
Eligible Candidates
Completion
Bachelor’s degree in Engineering /

B.E. / B.Tech. / Technology (4 years after 10+2 or 3 years Currently in the 3rd
year or higher grade 2022
B.Pharm. after B.Sc. / Diploma in Engineering /
Technology) or already completed
Bachelor’s degree of Architecture (5- year 2023 (for 5-year

course) / Naval Architecture (4- year Currently in the 3rd program), 2022
B. Arch. course) / year or higher grade (for 4-year
Planning (4- year course) or already completed program)
Currently in the 3rd

Bachelor’s degree in Science year or higher grade 2022
B.Sc. (Research) / B.S.
(Post-Diploma/4 years after 10+2) or already completed
6 years degree program, consisting of Currently in the
Pharm. D. (after 10+2) internship or residency training, during third 3rd/4th/5th/6th year or 2024
year onwards already completed
Degree holders of M.B.B.S. and

5th, 6th, 7th or higher
those who are in the 5th/6th/7th 2022
semester or already
M.B.B.S. semester or higher semester of
completed
such programme.
Currently in the first
Master’s degree in any branch of year or higher or
M. Sc. / M.A. / MCA or Arts/Science/Mathematics/Statistics/ 2022
already
equivalent Computer Applications or equivalent
Completed
Post-B.Sc Integrated Master’s degree Currently in the 1st /
Int. M.E./ M.Tech. programs in Engineering/ 2nd/3rd/4th year or 2024
(Post-B.Sc.) Technology (4-year program) already completed
Integrated Master’s degree program or
Int. M.E./ M.Tech. or Dual Degree program in Currently in the 3rd
Dual Degree Engineering/Technology (5-year /4th/5th year or 2023
(after Diploma or 10+2) alreadycompleted
program)
Bachelor degree in any Currently in the 3rd

year or already
B.Sc. / B.A. / B.Com. branch of Science / Arts / 2021
Commerce (3 years program) completed
Currently in the 3rd

year or higher or
Int. M.Sc. / Int. B.S. / Integrated M.Sc. or 5-year 2022
integrated B.S.-M.S. program already
M.S.
completed
Professional B.E./B.Tech./B.Arch. equivalent

Society examinations of Professional Societies,
recognized by MoE/UPSC/AICTE Completed Section A
Examinations or equivalent of such NA
(equivalent to (e.g. AMIE by Institution of Engineers-
India, AMICE by the Institute of Civil professional courses
B.E. / B.Tech. /
B.Arch.) Engineers-India and so on)
In case a candidate has passed one of the qualifying examinations as mentioned above in 2020 or
earlier, the candidate has to submit the degree certificate / provisional certificate / course completion
certificate / professional certificate / membership certificate issued by the society or institute. In
case, the candidate is expected to complete one of the qualifying criteria in 2022 or later as mentioned
above, he/she has to submit a certificate from Principal or a copy of marks card for section A of AMIE.
(xi)
Certificate From Principal
Candidates who have to submit a certificate from their college Principal have to obtain one from his/
her institution beforehand and upload the same during the online submission of the application form.
Candidates With Backlogs

Candidates, who have appeared in the final semester/year exam in 2022, but with a backlog (arrears/
failed subjects) in any of the papers in their qualifying degree should upload a copy of any one of the
mark sheets of the final year,
OR
obtain a declaration from their Principal along with the signature and seal beforehand and upload the
same during the online submission of the application form.
GATE Structure
Structure of GATE
GATE 2022 will be conducted on 27 subjects (papers). Table below shows the list of papers and paper
codes for GATE 2022. A candidate is allowed to appear in ANY ONE or UP TO TWO papers of the
GATE examination. However, note that the combination of TWO papers in which a candidate can
appear MUST be from the pre-defined list as given in Table. Also note that for a paper running in
multiple sessions, a candidate will be mapped to appear for the examination in one of the sessions
ONLY.
List of GATE Papers and Corresponding Codes
GATE Paper Code GATE Paper Code
Aerospace Engineering AE Instrumentation Engineering IN

Agricultural Engineering AG Mathematics MA
Architecture and Planning AR Mechanical Engineering ME

Bio-medical Engineering BM Mining Engineering MN
Biotechnology BT Metallurgical Engineering MT
Civil Engineering CE Petroleum Engineering PE
Chemical Engineering CH Physics PH

Computer Science and Information Production and Industrial
CS PI
Technology Engineering
Chemistry CY Statistics ST
Electronics and Communication Textile Engineering and

EC TF
Engineering Fibre Science
Electrical Engineering EE Engineering Sciences XE*

Environmental Science &
ES Humanities & Social Sciences XH**
Engineering
Ecology and Evolution EY Life Sciences XL***
Geology and Geophysics GG
Note: Environmental Science and Engineering (ES) and Humanities and Social Sciences (XH) are two
new papers introduced in GATE 2022.
(xii)
*XE Paper Sections Cod **XH Paper Code ***XL Paper Code
e Sections Sections
Engineering
A Reasoning and B1 Chemistry P
Mathematics Comprehension (Compulsory)
(Compulsory) (Compulsory)
(15 marks) (25 marks)
(25 marks)
Any TWO optional Any ONE optional Any TWO optional
Sections Section Sections
(2x35 = 70 marks) (60 marks) (2x30 = 60 marks)
Fluid Mechanics B Economics C1 Biochemistry Q

Materials Science C English C2 Botany R
Solid Mechanics D Linguistics C3 Microbiology S
Thermodynamics E Philosophy C4 Zoology T
Polymer Science and F Psychology C5 Food U
Engineering Technology
Food Technology G Sociology C6
Atmospheric and H
Oceanic Sciences
*XE (Engineering Sciences), **XH (Humanities & Social Sciences), ***XL (Life Sciences), papers are
of general nature and will be comprised of Sections listed in the above table
Note: Each subject/paper is of total 100 marks. General Aptitude (GA) section of 15 marks is common
for all papers. Hence remaining 85 marks are for the respective subject/paper code.
Combination of Two Papers Allowed to Appear in GATE 2022
(subject to availability of infrastructure and schedule)
Code of The First Codes of Papers Allowed as The Second
(Primary) Paper Paper
AE XE
AG ES
AR CE
BM BT / XL
BT BM / XL
CE AR / ES
CH CY / PE / XE
CS MA
CY CH / XL
EC IN / PH
EE IN
ES AG / CE
EY XL
GG MN / PE / PH
IN EC / EE / PH
MA CS / PH / ST
ME XE
MN GG / XE
MT PH / XE
PE CH / GG / XE
PH EC / GG / IN / MA / MT / ST
PI XE
ST MA / PH
TF XE
XE AE / CH / ME / MN / MT / PE / PI / TF
XH ----
XL BM / BT / CY / EY
(xiii)
General Aptitude Questions
All the papers will have a few questions that test the General Aptitude (Language and Analytical
Skills), apart from the core subject of the paper.
Duration and Examination Type

All the papers of the GATE 2022 examination will be for 3 hours duration and they consist of
65 questions for a total of 100 marks. Since the examination is an ONLINE computer based test
(CBT), at the end of the stipulated time (3-hours), the computer screen will automatically close the
examination inhibiting any further action.
Candidates will be permitted to occupy their allotted seats 40 minutes before the scheduled start of
the examination. Candidates can login and start reading the instructions 20 minutes before the start
of examination. The late login time (if any) recorded by the computer system MUST NOT be beyond
30 minutes from the actual starting time of the examination. Under NO circumstances, will a candidate
be permitted to login after 30 minutes from the actual examination starting time. Candidates will
NOT be permitted to leave the examination hall before the end of the examination.
Pattern of Question Papers

GATE 2022 may contain questions of THREE different types in all the papers:
(i) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each, in all the papers and sections.
These questions are objective in nature, and each will have choice of four answers, out of
which ONLY ONE choice is correct.
Negative Marking for Wrong Answers: For a wrong answer chosen in a MCQ, there will be
negative marking. For 1-mark MCQ, 1/3 mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. Likewise,
for 2-mark MCQ, 2/3 mark will be deducted for a wrong answer.
(ii) Multiple Select Questions (MSQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all the papers and sections.
These questions are objective in nature, and each will have choice of four answers, out of
which ONE or MORE than ONE choice(s) is / are correct.
Note: There is NO negative marking for a wrong answer in MSQ questions. However, there is
NO partial credit for choosing partially correct combinations of choices or any single wrong
choice.
(iii) Numerical Answer Type (NAT) Questions carrying 1 or 2 marks each in most of the papers
and sections. For these questions, the answer is a signed real number, which needs to be
entered by the candidate using the virtual numeric keypad on the monitor (keyboard of the
computer will be disabled). No choices will be shown for these types of questions. The answer
can be a number such as 10 or –10 (an integer only). The answer may be in decimals as well,
for example, 10.1 (one decimal) or 10.01 (two decimals) or –10.001 (three decimals). These
questions will be mentioned with, up to which decimal places, the candidates need to present
the answer. Also, for some NAT type problems an appropriate range will be considered while
evaluating these questions so that the candidate is not unduly penalized due to the usual
round-off errors. Candidates are advised to do the rounding off at the end of the calculation
(not in between steps). Wherever required and possible, it is better to give NAT answer up to
a maximum of three decimal places.
Note: There is NO negative marking for a wrong answer in NAT questions.
Also, there is NO partial credit in NAT questions.
Marking Scheme – Distribution of Marks and Questions

General Aptitude (GA) Questions
In all papers, GA questions carry a total of 15 marks. The GA section includes 5 questions carrying 1-
mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and 5 questions carrying 2-marks each (sub-total 10 marks).
(xiv)
Question Papers other than GG, XE, XH and XL
These papers would contain 25 questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 25 marks) and 30 questions
carrying 2-marks each (sub-total 60 marks) consisting of some MCQ type questions, while the remaining
may be MSQ and / or NAT questions.
GG (Geology and Geophysics) Paper

Apart from the General Aptitude (GA) section, the GG question paper consists of two parts: Part A
and Part B. Part A is compulsory for all the candidates. Part B contains two sections: Section 1
(Geology) and Section 2 (Geophysics). Candidates will have to attempt questions in Part A and questions
in either Section 1 or Section 2 of Part B. The choice of Section 1 OR Section 2 of Part B has to be
made at the time of online registration in GOAPS. At the examination hall, candidate cannot request
for change of section.
Part A consists of 25 questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 25 marks and some of these will be
MSQ and/or numerical answer type questions while remaining questions will be MCQ type). Either
section of Part B (Section 1 and Section 2) consists of 30 questions carrying 2-marks each (sub-total 60
marks and some of these will be MSQ and/or numerical answer type questions while remaining
questions will be MCQ type).
XE Paper (Engineering Sciences)

A candidate appearing in the XE paper has to answer the following:
• GA – General Aptitude carrying a total of 15 marks.
• Section A – Engineering Mathematics (Compulsory): This section contains 11 questions carrying a
total of 15 marks: 7 questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 7 marks), and 4 questions carrying
2-marks each (sub-total 8 marks). Some questions will be of numerical answer type while remaining
questions will be MCQ type.
• Any two of XE Sections B to H: The choice of two sections from B to H can be made during the
examination after viewing the questions. Only TWO optional sections can be answered at a time.
A candidate wishing to change midway of the examination to another optional section must first
choose to deselect one of the previously chosen optional sections (B to H). Each of the optional
sections of the XE paper (Sections B through H) contains 22 questions carrying a total of 35 marks:
9 questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 9 marks) and 13 questions carrying 2-marks each (sub-
total 26 marks). Some questions will be of MSQ and/or numerical answer type while remaining
questions will be MCQ type.
XH Paper (Humanities and Social Sciences)

A candidate appearing in the XH paper has to answer the following:
• Section B1 – Reasoning and Comprehension (Compulsory): This section contains 15 questions
carrying a total of 25 marks: 5 questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and 10 questions
carrying 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions will be of MSQ and/or numerical
answer type while remaining questions will be MCQ type.
• Any ONE of XH Sections C1 to C6: The ONE choice of section from C1 to C6 has to be made at the
time of online registration in GOAPS. At the examination hall, candidate cannot request for change
of section. Each of the optional sections of the XH paper (Sections C1 through C6) contains 40
questions carrying a total of 60 marks: 20 questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 20 marks) and
20 questions carrying 2-marks each (sub-total 40 marks). Some questions will be of MSQ and/or
numerical answer type while remaining questions will be MCQ type.
(xv)
XL Paper (Life Sciences)
A candidate appearing in the XL paper has to answer the following:
• Section P–Chemistry (Compulsory): This section contains 15 questions carrying a total of
25 marks: 5 questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and 10 questions carrying
2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions will be of MSQ and/or numerical answer type
while remaining questions will be MCQ type.
• Any two of XL Sections Q to U: The choice of two sections from Q to U can be made during the
examination after viewing the questions. Only TWO optional sections can be answered at a time.
A candidate wishing to change midway of the examination to another optional section must first
choose to deselect one of the previously chosen optional sections (Q to U). Each of the optional
sections of the XL paper (Sections Q through U) contains 20 questions carrying a total of
30 marks: 10 questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 10 marks) and 10 questions carrying
2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions will be of MSQ and/or numerical answer type
while remaining questions will be MCQ type.
GATE Score
After the evaluation of the answers, the actual (raw) marks obtained by a candidate will be considered
for computing the GATE Score. For multi-session papers (subjects), raw marks obtained by the
candidates in different sessions will be converted to Normalized marks for that particular subject.
Thus, raw marks (for single session papers) or normalized marks (for multi-session papers) will be
used for computing the GATE Score, based on the qualifying marks.
Calculation of Normalized Marks for Multi-Session Papers

In GATE 2022 examination, some papers may be conducted in multi-sessions. Hence, for these papers,
a suitable normalization is applied to take into account any variation in the difficulty levels of the
question papers across different sessions. The normalization is done based on the fundamental
assumption that "in all multi-session GATE papers, the distribution of abilities of candidates is the
same across all the sessions". This assumption is justified since the number of candidates appearing
in multi-session papers in GATE 2022 is large and the procedure for allocation of session to candidates
is random. Further, it is also ensured that for the same multi-session paper, the number of candidates
allotted in each session is of the same order of magnitude.
Based on the above, and considering various normalization methods, the committee arrived at the
following formula for calculating the normalized marks for the multi-session papers.
Nsormalization mark of j th candidate in the i th session 

Mij is given by
g g
  Mt – Mq ( M – M )  M g
Mij ij iq q
M ti – Miq
where
Mij : is the actual marks obtained by the j th candidate in ith session
Mtg : is the average marks of the top 0.1% of the candidates considering all sessions
Mqg : is the sum of mean and standard deviation marks of the candidates in the paper
considering all sessions
Mti : is the average marks of the top 0.1% of the candidates in the ith session
Miq : is the sum of the mean marks and standard deviation of the ith session
(xvi)
Calculation of GATE Score for All Papers
For all papers for which there is only one session, actual marks obtained by the candidates will be
used for calculating the GATE 2022 Score. For papers in multi-sessions, normalized marks will be
calculated corresponding to the raw marks obtained by a candidate and the GATE 2022 Score will be
calculated based on the normalized marks.
The GATE 2022 score will be computed using the formula given below.
( M – Mq )
GATE Score = Sq  (St – Sq )
( Mt – Mq )
where
M : marks obtained by the candidate (actual marks for single session papers and
normalized marks for multi-session papers)
Mq : is the qualifying marks for general category candidate in the paper
Mt : is the mean of marks of top 0.1% or top 10 (whichever is larger) of the candidates
who appeared in the paper (in case of multi-session papers including all sessions)
Sq : 350, is the score assigned to Mq
St : 900, is the score assigned to Mt
In the GATE 2022 the qualifying marks (Mq) for general category student in each subject will be
25 marks (out of 100) or    , whichever is larger. Here  is the mean and  is the standard
deviation of marks of all the candidates who appeared in the paper.
After the declaration of results, GATE Scorecards can be downloaded by the GATE qualified candidates
ONLY.
The GATE 2022 Committee has the authority to decide the qualifying mark/score for each GATE
paper. In case of any claim or dispute with respect to GATE 2022 examination or score, the Courts
and Tribunals in Mumbai alone will have the exclusive jurisdiction to entertain and settle them.
(xvii)
GATE Syllabus
General Aptitude
Verbal Aptitude
Basic English Grammar: tenses, articles, adjectives, prepositions, conjunctions, verb-noun agreement, and
other parts of speech.
Basic Vocabulary: words, idioms, and phrases in context, Reading and comprehension, Narrative sequencing.
Quantitative Aptitude
Data Interpretation: data graphs (bar graphs, pie charts, and other graphs representing data), 2-and
3-dimensional plots, maps, and tables.
Numerical Computation and Estimation: ratios, percentages, powers, exponents and logarithms,
permutations and combinations, and series, Mensuration and geometry, Elementary statistics and probability.
Analytical Aptitude
Logic: Deduction and induction, Analogy, Numerical relations and reasoning.
Spatial Aptitude
Transformation of shapes: translation, rotation, scaling, mirroring, assembling, and grouping Paper folding,
cutting, and patterns in 2 and 3 dimensions.
Section 1: Engineering Mathematics

Linear Algebra: Matrices and determinants; Systems of linear equations; Eigen values and Eigen vectors.
Calculus: Limits, continuity and differentiability; Partial derivatives, maxima and minima; Sequences and
series; Test for convergence.
Differential Equations: Linear and nonlinear first order ODEs, higher order ODEs with constant coefficients;
Cauchy’s and Euler’s equations; Laplace transforms.
Probability and Statistics: Mean, median, mode and standard deviation; Random variables; Poisson, normal
and binomial distributions; Correlation and regression analysis.
Numerical Methods: Solution of linear and nonlinear algebraic equations; Integration by trapezoidal and
Simpson’s rule; Single step method for differential equations.
Section 2: General Biology

Biochemistry: Biomolecules - structure and function; Biological membranes - structure, membrane channels
and pumps, molecular motors, action potential and transport processes; Basic concepts and regulation of
metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, amino acids and nucleic acids; Photosynthesis, respiration and electron
transport chain. Enzymes - Classification, catalytic and regulatory strategies; Enzyme kinetics - Michaelis-
Menten equation; Enzyme inhibition - competitive, non-competitive and uncompetitive inhibition.
Microbiology: Bacterial classification and diversity; Microbial Ecology - microbes in marine, freshwater and
terrestrial ecosystems; Microbial interactions; Viruses - structure and classification; Methods in microbiology;
Microbial growth and nutrition; Nitrogen fixation; Microbial diseases and host-pathogen interactions; Antibiotics
and antimicrobial resistance.
Immunology: Innate and adaptive immunity, humoral and cell mediated immunity; Antibody structure and
function; Molecular basis of antibody diversity; T cell and B cell development; Antigen-antibody reaction;
Complement; Primary and secondary lymphoid organs; Major histocompatibility complex (MHC); Antigen
processing and presentation; Polyclonal and monoclonal antibody; Regulation of immune response; Immune
tolerance; Hypersensitivity; Autoimmunity; Graft versus host reaction; Immunization and vaccines.
Section 3: Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology

Genetics and Evolutionary Biology: Mendelian inheritance; Gene interaction; Complementation; Linkage,
recombination and chromosome mapping; Extra chromosomal inheritance; Microbial genetics - transformation,
transduction and conjugation; Horizontal gene transfer and transposable elements; Chromosomal variation;
Genetic disorders; Population genetics; Epigenetics; Selection and inheritance; Adaptive and neutral evolution;
Genetic drift; Species and speciation.
Cell Biology: Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell structure; Cell cycle and cell growth control; Cell-cell
communication; Cell signaling and signal transduction; Post-translational modifications; Protein trafficking;
Cell death and autophagy; Extra-cellular matrix.
(xix)
Molecular Biology: Molecular structure of genes and chromosomes; Mutations and mutagenesis; Regulation
of gene expression; Nucleic acid - replication, transcription, splicing, translation and their regulatory mechanisms;
Non-coding and micro RNA; RNA interference; DNA damage and repair.
Section 4: Fundamentals of Biological Engineering
Engineering Principles Applied to Biological Systems: Material and energy balances for reactive and
non-reactive systems; Recycle, bypass and purge processes; Stoichiometry of growth and product formation;
Degree of reduction, electron balance, theoretical oxygen demand.
Classical thermodynamics and Bioenergetics: Laws of thermodynamics; Solution thermodynamics; Phase
equilibria, reaction equilibria; Ligand binding; Membrane potential; Energetics of metabolic pathways, oxidation
and reduction reactions.
Transport Processes: Newtonian and non-Newtonian fluids, fluid flow - laminar and turbulent; Mixing in
bioreactors, mixing time; Molecular diffusion and film theory; Oxygen transfer and uptake in bioreactor, kLa
and its measurement; Conductive and convective heat transfer, LMTD, overall heat transfer coefficient; Heat
exchangers.
Section 5: Bioprocess Engineering and Process Biotechnology
Bioreaction engineering: Rate law, zero and first order kinetics; Ideal reactors - batch, mixed flow and plug
flow; Enzyme immobilization, diffusion effects - Thiele modulus, effectiveness factor, Damkoehler number;
Kinetics of cell growth, substrate utilization and product formation; Structured and unstructured models; Batch,
fed-batch and continuous processes; Microbial and enzyme reactors; Optimization and scale up.
Upstream and Downstream Processing: Media formulation and optimization; Sterilization of air and media;
Filtration - membrane filtration, ultrafiltration; Centrifugation - high speed and ultra; Cell disruption; Principles
of chromatography - ion exchange, gel filtration, hydrophobic interaction, affinity, GC, HPLC and FPLC; Extraction,
adsorption and drying.
Instrumentation and Process Control: Pressure, temperature and flow measurement devices; Valves; First
order and second order systems; Feedback and feed forward control; Types of controllers - proportional, derivative
and integral control, tuning of controllers.
Section 6: Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology

Plants: Totipotency; Regeneration of plants; Plant growth regulators and elicitors; Tissue culture and cell
suspension culture system - methodology, kinetics of growth and nutrient optimization; Production of secondary
metabolites; Hairy root culture; Plant products of industrial importance; Artificial seeds; Somaclonal variation;
Protoplast, protoplast fusion - somatic hybrid and cybrid; Transgenic plants - direct and indirect methods of gene
transfer techniques; Selection marker and reporter gene; Plastid transformation.
Animals: Culture media composition and growth conditions; Animal cell and tissue preservation; Anchorage
and non-anchorage dependent cell culture; Kinetics of cell growth; Micro & macro-carrier culture; Hybridoma
technology; Stem cell technology; Animal cloning; Transgenic animals; Knock-out and knock-in animals.
Microbes: Production of biomass and primary/secondary metabolites - Biofuels, bioplastics, industrial enzymes,
antibiotics; Large scale production and purification of recombinant proteins and metabolites; Clinical-, food- and
industrial- microbiology; Screening strategies for new products.
Section 7: Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology

Recombinant DNA technology: Restriction and modification enzymes; Vectors - plasmids, bacteriophage and
other viral vectors, cosmids, Ti plasmid, bacterial and yeast artificial chromosomes; Expression vectors; cDNA
and genomic DNA library; Gene isolation and cloning, strategies for production of recombinant proteins;
Transposons and gene targeting.
Molecular tools: Polymerase chain reaction; DNA/RNA labelling and sequencing; Southern and northern
blotting; In-situ hybridization; DNA fingerprinting, RAPD, RFLP; Site-directed mutagenesis; Gene transfer
technologies; CRISPR-Cas; Biosensing and biosensors.
Analytical tools: Principles of microscopy - light, electron, fluorescent and confocal; Principles of
spectroscopy - UV, visible, CD, IR, fluorescence, FT-IR, MS, NMR; Electrophoresis; Micro-arrays; Enzymatic
assays; Immunoassays - ELISA, RIA, immunohistochemistry; immunoblotting; Flow cytometry; Whole genome
and ChIP sequencing.
Computational tools: Bioinformatics resources and search tools; Sequence and structure databases; Sequence
analysis - sequence file formats, scoring matrices, alignment, phylogeny; Genomics, proteomics, metabolomics;
Gene prediction; Functional annotation; Secondary structure and 3D structure prediction; Knowledge discovery
in biochemical databases; Metagenomics; Metabolic engineering and systems biology.
(xx)
Verbal Ability
English Grammar 1.1
1
C HAPTER English Grammar
5. The policeman asked the victim of a theft, “What
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS did you ?”
2016 (a) loose (b) lose
1. Computers were invented for performing only (c) loss (d) louse
high-end useful computations. However, it is no 6. In a world filled with uncertainty, he was glad to
understatement that they have taken over our have many good friends. He had always assisted
world today. The internet, for example, is them in times of need and was confident that they
ubiquitous. Many believe that the internet itself would reciprocate. However, the events of the last
is an unintended consequence of the original week proved him wrong.
invention. With the advent of mobile computing
Which of the following inference(s) is/are logically
on our phones, a whole new dimension is now
valid and can be inferred from the above passage?
enabled. One is left wondering if all these
developments are good or, more importantly, (i) His friends were always asking him to help
required. them.
Which of the statement(s) below is/are logically (ii) He felt that when in need of help, his friends
valid and can be inferred from the above would let him down.
paragraph? (iii)He was sure that his friends would help him
(i) The author believes that computers are not when in need.
good for us. (iv) His friends did not help him last week.
(ii) Mobile computers and the internet are both (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
intended inventions (c) (iii) only (d) (iv) only
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only 7. An apple costs Rs. 10. An onion costs Rs. 8.
(c) both (i) and (ii) (d) neither (i) nor (ii) Select the most suitable sentence with respect to
2. All hill-stations have a lake. Ooty has two lakes. grammar and usage.
Which of the statement(s) below is/are logically (a) The price of an apple is greater than an onion.
valid and can be inferred from the above (b) The price of an apple is more than onion.
sentences?
(c) The price of an apple is greater than that of
(i) Ooty is not a hill-station. an onion.
(ii) No hill-station can have more than one lake. (d) Apples are more costlier than onions.
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only 8. He turned a deaf ear to my request. What does
(c) both (i) and (ii) (d) neither (i) nor (ii) the underlined phrasal verb mean?
3. Identify the correct spelling out of the given (a) ignored (b) appreciated
options : (c) twisted (d) returned
(a) Managable (b) Manageable
2015
(c) Mangaeble (d) Managible
9. Choose the statement where underlined word is
4. Choose the statement(s) where the underlined used correctly
word is used correctly :
(a) The minister insured the victims that
(i) A prone is a dried plum.
everything would be all right.
(ii) He was lying prone on the floor.
(b) He ensured that the company will not have to
(iii) People who eat a lot of fat are prone to heart bear any loss.
disease.
(c) The actor got himself ensured against any
(a) (i) and (iii) only (b) (iii) only accident.
(c) (i) and (ii) only (d) (ii) and (iii) only (d) The teacher insured students of good results
1.2 English Grammar
10. The following question presents a sentence, part 16. In the following sentence certain parts are
of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you underlined and marked P, Q and R. One of the
find four ways of phrasing the underline part. parts may contain certain error or may not be
Following the requirements of the standard acceptable in standard written communication.
written English, select the answer that produces Select the part containing an error. Choose D as
the most effective sentence. your Answer: if there is no error.
Tuberculosis, together with its effects, ranks one The student corrected all the errors that
of the leading causes of death in India. P
(a) ranks as one of the leading causes of death the instructor marked on the answer book
(b) rank as one of the leading causes of death Q R
(c) has the rank of one of the leading causes of (a) P (b) Q
death (c) R (d) No Error
(d) are one of the leading causes of death 17. Choose the statement where underlined word is
11. Choose the statement where underlined word is used correctly.
used correctly. (a) The industrialist had a personnel jet.
(a) When the teacher eludes to different authors, (b) I write my experience in my personnel diary.
he is being elusive
(c) All personnel are being given the day off.
(b) When the thief keeps eluding the police, he is
(d) Being religious is a personnel aspect.
being elusive
18. Out of the following four sentences, select the
(c) Matters that are difficult to understand,
most suitable sentence with respect to grammer
identify or remember are allusive
and usage:
(d) Mirages can be allusive, but a better way to
express them is illusory (a) Since the report lacked needed information,
it was of no use to them.
12. Fill in the blank with the correct idiom/phrase.
(b) The report was useless to them because there
That boy from the town was a __________ in the
were no needed information in it.
sleepy village.
(c) Since the report did not contain the needed
(a) Dog out of herd (b) Sheep from the heap
information, it was not real useful to them.
(c) Fish out of water (d) Bird from the flock
(d) Since the report lacked needed information,
13. Select the appropriate option in place of it would not had been useful to them.
underlined part of the sentence.
19. Select the alternative meaning of the underlined
Increased productivity necessary reflects greater part of the sentence.
efforts made by the employees.
The chain snatchers took to their heels when the
(a) Increase in productivity necessary
police party arrived.
(b) Increase productivity is necessary
(a) took shelter in a thick jungle
(c) Increase in productivity necessarily
(b) open indiscriminate fire
(d) No improvement required
(c) took to flight
14. Ram and Shyam shared a secret and promised to
(d) unconditionally surrendered
each other that it would remain between them.
Ram expressed himself in one of the following 2014
ways as given in the choices below. Identify the 20. Which of the following options is the closest in
correct way as per standard English. meaning to the word underlined in the sentence
(a) It would remain between you and me below?
(b) It would remain between me and you In a democracy, everybody has the freedom to
(c) It would remain between you and I disagree with the government.
(d) It would remain with me (a) dissent (b) descent
15. What is the adverb for the given word below? (c) decent (d) decadent
Misogynous 21. ‘Advice' is .
(a) Misogynousness (b) Misogynity (a) a verb (b) a noun
(c) Misogynously (d) Misogynous (c) an adjective (d) both a verb and a noun
English Grammar 1.3
22. Which of the options given below best completes 28. Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence:
the following sentence? (a) Two and two add four.
She will feel much better if she . (b) Two and two become four.
(a) will get some rest (c) Two and two are four.
(b) gets some rest (d) Two and two make four.
(c) will be getting some rest
All engineering students
(d) is getting some rest 29.
I
23. While trying to collect an envelope should learn mechanics,
I II
from under the table, Mr. X fell down mathematics and
and
II III III
was losing consciousness. how to do computation.
IV IV
Which one of the above underlined parts of the Which of the above underlined parts of the
sentence is NOT appropriate? sentence is not appropriate?
(a) I (b) II (a) I (b) II
(c) III (d) IV (c) III (d) IV
24. Which of the following options is the closest in 2012
meaning to the phrase underlined in the sentence
30. Choose the most appropriate alternative from the
below?
options given below to complete the following
It is fascinating to see life forms cope with varied sentence :
environmental conditions.
Suresh's dog is the one  was hurt in
(a) Adopt to (b) Adapt to the stampede.
(c) Adept in (d) Accept with (a) that (b) which
25. In a press meet on the recent scam, the minister (c) who (d) whom
said, “The buck stops here”. What did the minister
31. Choose the grammatically INCORRECT
convey by the statement?
sentence :
(a) He wants all the money
(a) They gave us the money back less the service
(b) He will return the money charges of Three Hundred rupees.
(c) He will assume final responsibility (b) This country's expenditure is not less than
(d) He will resist all enquiries that of Bangladesh.
2013 (c) The committee initially asked for a funding of
Fifty Lakh rupeesr, but later settled for a
The professor ordered to the students to go
26. lesser sum.
I II III
(d) This country's expenditure on educational
out of the class.
reforms is very less.
IV
32. One of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence given
Which of the above underlined parts of the
below contains an ERROR. Which one of the
sentence is grammatically incorrect?
following is INCORRECT ?
(a) I (b) II
I requested that he should be given the
(c) III (d) IV driving test today instead of tomorrow.
27. Choose the grammatically INCORRECT sentence: (a) requested that
(a) He is of Asian origin. (b) should be given
(b) They belonged to Africa. (c) the driving test
(c) She is an European. (d) instead of tomorrow
(d) They migrated from India to Australia.
1.4 English Grammar
ANSWERS
MCQ Type Questions
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
11. Elusive: Difficult to answer.
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS
12. From the statement, it appears that boy found it
4. ‘lying prone’ means lie down flat. ‘Prone to’ means tough to adapt to a very different situation.
vulnerable to.
16. The is not required in ‘Q’.
5. Lose (verb)
30. The correct answer is ‘that’. In the given sentence
‘was hurt in the stampede’ determines which dog
9. Insured–the person, group, or organization whose belongs to Suresh.
life or property is covered by an insurance policy.
Ensured–to secure or guarantee
Sentence Completion 2.1
2
C HAPTER Sentence Completion
8. After India’s cricket world cup victory in 1985,
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS Shrotria who was playing both tennis and cricket
2016 till then, decided to concentrate only on cricket.
And the rest is history.
1. The man who is now Municipal Commissioner
worked as ____________________. What does the underlined phrase mean in this
context?
(a) the security guard at a university
(a) history will rest in peace
(b) a security guard at the university
(b) rest is recorded in history books
(c) a security guard at university
(c) rest is well known
(d) the security guard at the university (d) rest is archaic
2. Nobody knows how the Indian cricket team is 9. If I were you, I __________ that laptop. It’s much
going to cope with the difficult and seamer-friendly too expensive.
wickets in Australia.
(a) won’t buy (b) shan’t buy
Choose the option which is closest in meaning to (c) wouldn’t buy (d) would buy
the underlined phrase in the above sentence.
10. Choose the most appropriate set of words from
(a) put up with (b) put in with the options given below to complete the following
(c) put down to (d) put up against sentence.
3. The chairman requested the aggrieved _____ _________ is a will, _________ is a way.
shareholders to _________ him. (a) Wear, there, their (b) Were, their, there
(a) bare with (b) bore with (c) Where, there, there (d) Where, their, their
(c) bear with (d) bare 2015
4. The unruly crowd demanded that the accused be 11. Choose the most appropriate word from the
_____________ without trial. options given below to complete the following
(a) hanged (b) hanging sentence. The official answered _________ that
(c) hankering (d) hung the complaints of the citizen would be looked into.
5. Which of the following is CORRECT with respect (a) respectably (b) respectfully
to grammar and usage? (c) reputably (d) respectively
Mount Everest is ____________. 12. Choose the most appropriate word from the options
given below to complete the following sentence.
(a) the highest peak in the world
The principal presented the chief guest with a
(b) highest peak in the world , as token of appreciation.
(c) one of highest peak in the world (a) momento (b) memento
(d) one of the highest peak in the world (c) momentum (d) moment
6. Despite the new medicine’s ______________ in 13. Choose the appropriate word/phrase, out of the
treating diabetes, it is not ______________widely. four options given below, to complete the following
(a) effectiveness --- prescribed sentence : Frogs .
(b) availability --- used (a) Croak (b) Roar
(c) prescription --- available (c) Hiss (d) Patter
(d) acceptance --- proscribed 14. Extreme focus on syllabus and studying for tests
has become such a dominant concern of Indian
7. The students _____ the teacher on teachers’ day students that they close their minds to
for twenty years of dedicated teaching. anything  to the requirements of the exam
(a) facilitated (b) felicitated (a) related (b) extraneous
(c) fantasized (d) facillitated (c) outside (d) useful
2.2 Sentence Completion
15. The Tamil version of  John Abraham-starrer 2014

Madras café  cleared by the Censor Board
23. Choose the most appropriate word from the
with no cuts last week but the film’s distributors
 no takers among the exhibitors for a release
sentence:
in Tamil Nadu this Friday.
A person suffering from Alzheimer’s disease
(a) Mr., was, found, on (b) a, was, found, at
_________ short-term memory loss.
(c) the, was, found, on (d) a, being, find at
(a) experienced (b) has experienced
16. Choose the appropriate word/phase, out of the
(c) is experiencing (d) experiences
four options given below, to complete the following
sentence: 24. Choose the most appropriate word from the
Apparent lifelessness ______ dormant life.
sentence:
(a) harbours (b) lead to
_________ is the key to their happiness; they are
(c) supports (d) affects satisfied with what they have.
17. Choose the correct verb to fill in the blank below : (a) Contentment (b) Ambition
Let us _____________. (c) Perseverance (d) Hunger
(a) Introvert (b) Alternate 25. Choose the most appropriate word from the
(c) Atheist (d) Altruist options given below to complete the following
18. Choose the most appropriate word from the sentence:
options given below to complete the following One of his biggest _____ was his ability to forgive.
sentence : (a) vice (b) virtues
If the Athlete had wanted to come first in the (c) choices (d) strength
race, he ___________ several hours everyday
26. After the discussion, Tom said to me, ‘Please
(a) should practice (b) should have practiced revert!’ He expects me to .
(c) practiced (d) should be practicing (a) retract (b) get back to him
19. Choose the appropriate word/phrase, out of the (c) move in reverse (d) retreat
four options given below, to complete the following
27. The value of one U.S. Dollar is 65 Indian Rupees
sentence:
today, compared to 60 last year. The Indian Rupee
Dhoni, as well as the other team members of has .
Indian team, _____ present on the occasion.
(a) Depressed (b) Depreciated
(a) were (b) was
(c) Appreciated (d) Stabilized
(c) has (d) have
28. Choose the most appropriate word from the options
20. We ________ our friend’s birthday and we _______ given below to complete the following sentence:
how to make it up to him.
Communication and interpersonal skills are
(a) completely forgot — don’t just known  important in their own ways.
(b) forget completely — don’t just know (a) each (b) both
(c) completely forget —just don’t know (c) all (d) either
(d) forgot completely —just don’t know 29. Choose the most appropriate pair of words from
21. Which of the following options is the closest in the options given below to complete the following
meaning to the sentence below? sentence:
She enjoyed herself immensely at the party. She could not  the thought of 
(a) She had a terrible time at the party the election to her bitter rival.
(b) She had a horrible time at the party (a) bear, loosing (b) bare, loosing
(c) She had a terrific time at the party (c) bear, losing (d) bare, losing
(d) She had a terrifying time at the party 30. Choose the most appropriate phrase from the
22. Didn’t you buy _______ when you went shopping?
sentence:
(a) any paper
The aircraft _________ take off as soon as its flight
(b) much paper plan was filed.
(c) no paper (a) is allowed to (b) will be allowed to
(d) a few paper (c) was allowed to (d) has been allowed to
Sentence Completion 2.3
31. Choose the most appropriate word from the options 40. Choose the most appropriate alternative from the
given below to complete the following sentence: options given below to complete the following
Many ancient cultures attributed disease to sentence :
supernatural causes. However, modern science If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he  the
has largely helped ______ such notions. mattress out on the balcony.
(a) impel (b) dispel (a) should take (b) shall take
(c) propel (d) repel (c) should have taken (d) will have taken
32. If she __________ how to calibrate the 41. Choose the most appropriate word from the
instrument, she ________ done the experiment. options given below to complete the following
(a) knows, will have sentence :
(b) knew, had Given the seriousness of the situation that he
had to face, his  was impressive.
(c) had known, could have
(a) beggary (b) nomenclature
(d) should have known, would have
(c) jealousy (d) nonchalance
33. Who _______ was coming to see us this evening ?
(a) you said (b) did you say 2011
(c) did you say that (d) had you said 42. Choose the most appropriate word from the
34. Choose the most appropriate word from the options
sentence:
given below to complete the following sentence:
If you are trying to make a strong impression on
He could not understand the judges awarding her
your audience, you cannot do so by being
the first prize, because he thought that her
understated, tentative or _______ .
performance was quite ___________________.
(a) hyperbolic (b) restrained
(a) Superb (b) Medium
(c) argumentative (d) indifferent
(c) Mediocre (d) Exhilarating
43. Choose the most appropriate word(s) from the
2013 options given below to complete the following
35. Friendship, no matter how ________ it is, has its sentence.
limitations. I contemplated ______ Singapore for my vacation
(a) cordial (b) intimate but decided against it.
(c) secret (d) pleasant (a) to visit (b) having to visit
36. Were you a bird, you_____ in the sky. (c) visiting (d) for a visit
(a) would fly (b) shall fly 44. Choose the most appropriate word from the
(c) should fly (d) shall have flown options given below to complete the following
sentence:
37. Complete the sentence:
Under ethical guidelines recently adopted by the
Dare __________ mistakes.
Indian Medical Association, human genes are to
(a) commit (b) to commit be manipulated only to correct diseases
(c) committed (d) committing for which_______treatments are unsatisfactory.
38. The Headmaster  to speak to you. (a) similar (b) most
Which of the following options is incorrect to (c) uncommon (d) available
complete the above sentence? 45. Choose the most appropriate word from the
(a) is wanting (b) wants options given below to complete the following
(c) want (d) was wanting sentence:
2012 It was her view that the country's problems had
been_________by foreign technocrats, so that to
39. Choose the most appropriate alternative from the invite them to come back would be counter-
options given below to complete the following productive.
sentence :
(a) identified
Despite several  the mission succeeded in
its attempt to resolve the conflict. (b) ascertained
(a) attempts (b) setbacks (c) exacerbated
(c) meetings (d) delegations (d) analysed
2.4 Sentence Completion
2010 47. Choose the most appropriate word from the

46. Choose the most appropriate word from the options sentence:
given below to complete the following sentence:
His rather casual remarks on politics ________his
If we manage to _________ our natural resources, lack of seriousness about the subject.
we would leave a better planet for our children.
(a) masked (b) belied
(a) uphold (b) restrain
(c) betrayed (d) suppressed
(c) cherish (d) conserve
ANSWERS
MCQ Type Questions
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
24. Contentment is the right word which is
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS
appropriate to the meaning of the sentence.
2. From the given underlined phrase copewith Contentment is the sign of true happiness as it
means put up with. gives a sense of fulfillment.
4. ‘hanged’ means death by hanging ‘hung’ is used 39. The word despite tells us that mission succeeded
only with things and not with people. even though there were problems. Hence the
6. Here ‘effectiveness’ is noun and ‘prescribed’ is verb. correct answer is Setbacks.
So these words are apt and befitting with the given 42. Tone of the sentence clearly indicates a word that
word ‘medicine’. is similar to understated is needed for the blank.
Alternatively, word should be antonym of strong
12. The principal presented the chief guest with a (fail to make strong impression). Therefore, best
memento, as token of appreciation. choice is restrained which means controlled /
reserved / timid.
13. Frogs make ‘croak’ sound.
43. Contemplate is a transitive verb and hence is
14. Extraneous -irrelevant or unrelated to the subject followed by a gerund Hence the correct usage of
being dealt with. contemplate is verb + ing form.
15. John-Abraham starrer Madras Cafe talks about
44. The context seeks to take a deviation only when
the movie not the person, so Mr. is ruled out.
existing / present / current / alternative
‘Find no takers’ is not the correct phrase. At this treatments are unsatisfactory. So word for the
Friday is incorrect. blank should be a close synonym of existing /
So, option (c) is correct. present / current / alternative. Available is the
16. Apparent: looks like; dormant: hidden closest of all.
Harbour: give shelter; Effect (verb): results in 45. Clues: foreign technocrats did something
18. For condition regarding something which already negatively to the problems – so it is counter-
happened, should have practiced is the correct productive to invite them. All other options are
choice. non-negative. Best choice is exacerbated which
means aggravated or worsened.
23. The correct word to fill in the blank is experiences.
This is because the sentence is in present tense 47. Betrayed, means ‘showed’ or revealed.
and the sense is in present indefinite.
Synonyms 3.1
3
C HAPTER Synonyms
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS 2014
8. A student is required to demonstrate a high level
2016
of comprehension of the subject, especially in the
1. The Buddha said, “Holding on to anger is like social sciences.
grasping a hot coal with the intent of throwing it The word closest in meaning to comprehension is
at someone else; you are the one who gets burnt.”
(a) understanding (b) meaning
Select the word below which is closest in meaning
(c) concentration (d) stability
to the word underlined above.
9. While receiving the award, the scientist said, "I
(a) burning (b) igniting
feel vindicated". Which of the following is closest
(c) clutching (d) flinging in meaning to the word ‘vindicated’?
2015 (a) punished (b) substantiated
2. The word similar in meaning to ‘dreary’ is (c) appreciated (d) chastened
(a) cheerful (b) dreamy 10. Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to
the word “coherent”.
(c) hard (d) dismal
(a) sticky (b) well-connected
3. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the
given word : (c) rambling (d) friendly
Educe 11. Match the columns:
Column-1 Column-2
(a) Exert (b) Educate
1. eradicate P. misrepresent
(c) Extract (d) Extend
2. distort Q. soak completely
4. Choose the most suitable one word substitute for
the following expression 3. saturate R. use
Connotation of a road or way 4. utilize S. destroy utterly
(a) Pertinacious (b) Viaticum (a) 1 : S, 2 : P, 3 : Q, 4 : R
(b) 1 : P, 2 : Q, 3 : R, 4 : S
(c) Clandestine (d) Ravenous
(c) 1 : Q, 2 : R, 3 : S, 4 : P
5. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the
given word: (d) 1 : S, 2 : P, 3 : R, 4 : Q
Awkward 2013
(a) Inept (b) Graceful 12. Which of the following options is the closest in
meaning to the word given below:
(c) Suitable (d) Dreadful
Primeval
6. A generic term that includes various items of
clothing such as a skirt, a pair of trousers and a (a) Modern (b) Historic
shirt as (c) Primitive (d) Antique
(a) fabric 13. Which one of the following options is the closest
(b) textile in meaning to the word given below?
(c) fibre Nadir
(a) Highest (b) Lowest
(d) apparel
(c) Medium (d) Integration
7. Which of the following combinations is incorrect?
14. They were requested not to quarrel with others.
(a) Acquiescence – Submission
Which one of the following options is the closest
(b) Wheedle – Roundabout
in meaning to the word quarrel?
(c) Flippancy – Lightness
(a) make out (b) call out
(d) Profligate – Extravagant
(c) dig out (d) fall out
3.2 Synonyms
2012 2011
15. Which one of the following options is the closest 17. Which of the following options is the closest in
in meaning to the word given below? the meaning to the word below :
Mitigate Inexplicable
(a) Diminish (b) Divulge (a) Incomprehensible (b) Indelible
(c) Dedicate (d) Denote (c) Inextricable (d) Infallible
16. Which one of the following options is the closest 2010
in meaning to the word given below ?
18. Which of the following options is the closest in
Latitude meaning to the word below:
(a) Eligibility (b) Freedom Circuitous
(c) Coercion (d) Meticulousness (a) cyclic (b) indirect
(c) confusing (d) crooked
ANSWERS
MCQ Type Questions
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS This sequence is an Arithmetic progression with
common difference –2. Now, the problem reduces
1. The meaning of underlined word grasping means to finding the sum of this A.P.
clutching (or holding something tightly). To find the sum of A.P., we have to find the number
of terms in A.P.
2. dreary - depressingly dull and bleak or repetitive. Let n be the number of terms
3. The word similar in meaning to Educe is Extract. a be the first term
l be the last term
13. Given: A word “Nadir”
d be the common difference.
To find: Closest meaning word to ‘Nadir’ in the
n=?
given options.
a = 44, l = 0, d = – 2
Analysis: The dictionary meaning of ‘Nadir’ is
Now, l = a + (n – 1)d
‘Lowest’ which is potion (b)
15. ‘Mitigate’ means to make something less harmful,
Source: Google serious, intense etc. Hence correct answer is
Given: A sequence 44, 42, 40,...... ‘Diminis’
To find: Maximum sum of the sequence 17. Inexplicable means not explicable; that cannot be
explained, understood, or accounted for. So the
Analysis: To find the maximum sum, we have to best synonym here is incomprehensible.
ignore all the negative terms (they will only
18. Circuitous means round about or not direct
decrease the sum). Hence, we terminate the
sequence at 0. So circuitous : indirect.
Now, the sequence is 44, 42,......,2, 0.
Antonyms 4.1
4
C HAPTER Antonyms
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS
2015
1. Which word is not a synonym for the word vernacular?
(a) regional
(b) indigeneous
(c) indigent
(d) colloquial
2011
2. Choose the word from the options given below that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the given word:
Amalgamate
(a) merge
(b) split
(c) collect
(d) separate
3. Choose the word from the options given below that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the given word
:
Frequency
(a) periodicity
(b) rarity
(c) gradualness
(d) persistency
ANSWERS
MCQ Type Questions
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b)
4.2 Antonyms
EXPLANATIONS
is split. Separate on the other hand, although a
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS
close synonym, it is too general to be the best
1. Vernacular - expressed or written in the native antonym in the given question while Merge is
language of a place the synonym; Collect is not related.
Indigent - deficient in what is requisite
3. Best antonym is rarity which means shortage or
2. Amalgamate means combine or unite to form one scarcity.
organization or structure. So the best option here

Reasoning Ability 5.1
5
C HAPTER Reasoning Ability
6. Sourya committee had proposed the
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS establishment of Sourya Institutes of Technology
2016 (SITs) in line with Indian Institutes of Technology
1. Find the odd one in the following group of words. (IITs) to cater to the technological and industrial
needs of a developing country.
mock, deride, praise, jeer
Which of the following can be logically inferred
(a) mock (b) deride
from the above sentence?
(c) praise (d) jeer
Based on the proposal,
2. Pick the odd one from the following options.
(i) In the initial years, SIT students will get
(a) CADBE (b) JHKIL degrees from IIT.
(c) XVYWZ (d) ONPMQ (ii) SITs will have a distinct national objective.
3. Pick the odd one out in the following : (iii) SIT like institutions can only be established
13, 23, 33, 43, 53 in consulation with IIT.
(a) 23 (b) 33 (iv) SITs will serve technological needs of a
(c) 43 (d) 53 developing country.
4. R2D2 is a robot. R2D2 can repair aeroplanes. No (a) (iii) and (iv) only (b) (i) and (iv) only
other robot can repair aeroplanes. Which of the (c) (ii) and (iv) only (d) (ii) and (iii) only
following can be logically inferred from the above 7. Fact : If it rains, then the field is wet.
statements?
Read the following statements:
(a) R2D2 is a robot which can only repair aeroplanes.
(i) It rains (ii) The field is not wet
(b) R2D2 is the only robot which can repair
(iii) The field is wet (iv) It did not rain
aeroplanes.
Which one of the options given below is NOT
(c) R2D2 is a robot which can repair only aeroplanes.
logically possible, based on the given fact?
(d) Only R2D2 is a robot.
(a) If (iii), then (iv) (b) If (i), then (iii)
5. A poll of students appearing for masters in
(c) If (i), then (ii) (d) If (ii), then (iv)
engineering indicated that 60% of the students
believed that mechanical engineering is a 8. Students taking an exam are divided into two
profession unsuitable for women. A research study groups, P and Q such that each group has the
on women with masters or higher degrees in same number of students. The performance of
mechanical engineering found that 99% of such each of the students in a test was evaluated out
women were successful in their professions. of 200 marks. It was observed that the mean of
group P was 105, while that of group Q was 85.
Which of the following can be logically inferred
The standard deviation of group P was 25, while
from the above paragraph?
that of group Q was 5. Assuming that the marks
(a) Many students have misconceptions regarding were distributed on a normal distribution, which
various engineering disciplines. of the following statements will have the highest
(b) Men with advanced degrees in mechanical probability of being TRUE?
engineering believe women are well suited to (a) No student in group Q scored less marks than
be mechanical engineers. any student in group P.
(c) Mechanical engineering is a profession well (b) No student in group P scored less marks than
suited for women with masters or higher any student in group Q.
degrees in mechanical engineering.
(c) Most students of group Q scored marks in a
(d) The number of women pursuing higher narrower range than students in group P.
degrees in mechanical engineering is
(d) The median of the marks of group P is 100.
small.
5.2 Reasoning Ability
9. A smart city integrates all modes of transport, (c) Mr. X is taller than Mr. Y
uses clean energy and promotes sustainable use (d) Mr. X is lengthier than Mr. Y
of resources. It also uses technology to ensure
14. Social science disciplines were in existence in an
safety and security of the city, something which
amorphous form until the colonial period when
critics argue, will lead to a surveillance state.
they were institutionalized. In varying degrees,
Which of the following can be logically inferred they were intended to further the colonial
from the above paragraph? interest. In the time of globalization and the
(i) All smart cities encourage the formation of economic rise of postcolonial countries like India,
surveillance states. conventional ways of knowledge production have
(ii) Surveillance is an integral part of a smart become obsolete.
city. Which of the following can be logically inferred
(iii) Sustainability and surveillance go hand in from the above statements?
hand in a smart city. I. Social science disciplines have become
(iv) There is a perception that smart cities obsolete.
promote surveillance. II. Social science disciplines had a pre-colonial
(a) (i) and (iv) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only origin.
(c) (iv) only (d) (i) only III. Social science disciplines always promote
10. Find the missing sequence in the letter series. colonialism.
B, FH, LNP, _ _ _ _. IV. Social science must maintain disciplinary
(a) SUWY (b) TUVW boundaries.
(c) TVXZ (d) TWXZ (a) II only (b) I and III only
11. Michael lives 10 km away from where I live. (c) II and IV only (d) III and IV only
Ahmed lives 5 km away and Susan lives 7 km 15. Two and a quarter hours back, when seen in a
away from where I live. Arun is farther away than mirror, the reflection of a wall clock without
Ahmed but closer than Susan from where I live. number markings seemed to show 1 : 30. What
From the information provided here, what is one is the actual current time shown by the clock?
possible distance (in km) at which I live from (a) 8:15 (b) 11:15
Arun’s place?
(c) 12:15 (d) 12:45
(a) 3.00 (b) 4.99
16. M and N start from the same location. M travels
(c) 6.02 (d) 7.01 10 km East and then 10 km North-East. N travels
12. Leela is older than her cousin Pavithra. Pavithra’s 5 km South and then 4 km South-East. What is
brother Shiva is older than Leela. When Pavithra the shortest distance (in km) between M and N
and Shiva are visiting Leela, all three like to play at the end of their travel?
chess. Pavithra wins more often than Leela does. (a) 18.60 (b) 22.50
Which one of the following statements must be (c) 20.61 (d) 25.00
TRUE based on the above?
17. M has a son Q and a daughter R. He has no other
(a) When Shiva plays chess with Leela and children. E is the mother of P and daughter-inlaw
Pavithra, he often loses. of M. How is P related to M?
(b) Leela is the oldest of the three. (a) P is the son-in-law of M.
(c) Shiva is a better chess player than Pavithra. (b) P is the grandchild of M.
(d) Pavithra is the youngest of the three.
(c) P is the daughter-in-law of M.
13. Based on the given statements, select the
(d) P is the grandfather of M.
appropriate option with respect to grammar and
usage. 18. The number that least fits this set: (324, 441, 97
and 64) is ________.
Statements :
(a) 324
I. The height of Mr. X is 6 feet.
(b) 441
II. The height of Mr. Y is 5 feet.
(c) 97
(a) Mr. X is longer than Mr. Y.
(d) 64
(b) Mr. X is more elongated than Mr. Y
19. The overwhelming number of people infected with 2015

rabies in India has been flagged by the World
23. Mr. Vivek walks 6 meters North-East, then turns
Health Organization as a source of concern. It is
and walks 6 meters South- East, both at 60 degrees
estimated that inoculating 70% of pets and stray
to East. He further moves 2 meters South and 4
dogs against rabies can lead to a significant meters West. What is the straight distance in
reduction in the number of people infected with meters between the point he started from and
rabies. the point he finally reached?
Which of the following can be logically inferred (a) 2 2 (b) 2
from the above sentences ?
(a) The number of people in India infected with (c) 2 (d) 1 / 2
rabies is high 24. There are 16 teachers who can teach
Thermodynamics (TD), 11 who can teach
(b) The number of people in other parts of the
Electrical Sciences (ES), and 5 who can teach both
world who are infected with rabies is low
TD and Engineering Mechanics (EM). There are
(c) Rabies can be eradicated in India by a total of 40 teachers, 6 cannot teach any of the
vaccinating 70% of stray dogs three subjects, i.e. EM, ES or TD. 6 can teach
(d) Stray dogs are the main source of rabies only ES. 4 can teach all three subjects, i.e. EM,
worldwide ES and TD. 4 can teach ES and TD. How many
20. A flat is shared by four first year undergraduate can teach both ES and EM but not TD?
students. They agreed to allow the oldest of them (a) 1 (b) 2
to enjoy some extra space in the flat. Manu is (c) 3 (d) 4
two months older than Sravan, who is three 25. The given question is followed by two statements:
months younger than Trideep. Pavan is one select the most appropriate option that solves the
month older than Sravan. Who should occupy the question
extra space in the flat ? Capacity of a solution tank A is 70% of the capacity
(a) Manu (b) Sravan of tank B. How many gallons of solution are in
(c) Trideep (d) Pavan tank A and tank B?
Statements:
21. Today, we consider Ashoka as a great ruler because
of the copious evidence he left behind in the form I. Tank A is 80% full and tank B is 40% full
of stone carved edicts. Historians tend to correlate II. Tank A if full contains 14,000 gallons of solution
greatness of a king at his time with the availability (a) Statement I alone is sufficient
of evidence today. Which of the following can be (b) Statement II alone is sufficient
logically inferred from the above sentences? (c) Either statement I or II alone is sufficient
(a) Emperors who do not leave significant (d) Both the statements I and II together are
sculpted evidence are completely forgotten. sufficient
(b) Ashoka produced stone carved edicts to ensure 26. Operators and  are defined by
that later historians will respect him. ab ab
a b= ; a b= ; a  b = ab.
(c) Statues of kings are a reminder of their ab ab
greatness. Find the value (66 6) (66 6)
(d) A king’s greatness, as we know him today, is (a) – 2 (b) – 1
interpreted by historians. (c) 1 (d) 2
22. Fact 1 : Humans are mammals. 27. Humpty Dumpty sits on a wall every day while
Fact 2 : Some humans are engineers. having lunch. The wall sometimes breaks. A
person sitting on the wall falls if the wall breaks.
Fact 3 : Engineers build houses.
Which one of the statements below is logically valid
If the above statements are facts, which of the and can be inferred from the above sentences?
following can be logically inferred ?
(a) Humpty Dumpty always falls while having lunch
I. All mammals build houses.
(b) Humpty Dumpty does not fall sometimes
II. Engineers are mammals. while having lunch
III. Some humans are not engineers. (c) Humpty Dumpty never falls during dinner
(a) II only (b) III only (d) When Humpty Dumpty does not sit on the
wall, the wall does not break
(c) I, II and III (d) I only
28. If ROAD is written as URDG, then SWAN should 32. Alexander turned his attention towards India,
be written as : since he had conquered Persia.
(a) VXDQ (b) VZDQ Which one of the statements below is logically
(c) VZDP (d) UXDQ valid and can inferred from the above sentence?
29. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship (a) Alexander would not have turned his attention
towards India had he not conquered Persia.
similar to that expressed in the pair :
(b) Alexander was not ready to rest on his laurels,
Children : Pediatrician
and wanted to march to India
(a) Adult : Orthopaedist
(c) Alexander was completely in control of his
(b) Females : Gynaecologist army and could command it to move towards
(c) Kidney : Nephrologist India
(d) Skin : Dermatologist (d) Since Alexander’s kingdom extended to Indian
30. The head of a newly formed government desires borders after the conquest of Persia, he was
to appoint five of the six selected members keen to move further
P,Q,R,S,T and U to portfolios of Home, Power, 33. Tanya is older than Enc.
Defense, Telecom, and Finance. U does not want Cliff is older than Tanya.
any portfolio if S gets one of the five. R wants Eric is older than Cliff.
either Home or Finance or no portfolio. Q says
If the first two statements are true, then the third
that if S gets either Power or Telecom, then she statement is
must get the other one. T insists on a portfolio if
(a) True (b) False
P gets one.
(c) Uncertain (d) Data insufficient
Which is the valid distribution of portfolios?
34. Given below are two statements followed by two
(a) P-Home, Q-Power, R-Defense, S-Telecom,
conclusions. Assuming these statements to be
T-Finance
true, decide which one logically follows:
(b) R-Home, S-Power, P-Defense, Q-Telecom,
Statements:
T-Finance
I. No manager is a leader.
(c) P-Home, Q-Power, T-Defense, S-Telecom,
II. All leaders are executive.
U-Finance
Conclusions:
(d) Q-Home, U-Power, T-Defense, R-Telecom,
P-Finance I. No manager is a executive.
31. Most experts feel that in spite of possessing all II. All executive is a manager.
the technical skills required to be a batsman of (a) Only conclusion I follows.
the highest order, he is unlikely to be so due to (b) Only conclusion II follows.
lack of requisite temperament. He was guilty of (c) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
throwing away his wicket several times after
(d) Both conclusion I and II follow.
working hard to lay a strong foundation. His
critics pointed out that until he addressed this 35. Find the missing sequence in the letter series
problem success at the highest level will continue below :
to elude him. A, CD, GHI, _?___, UVWXY
Which of the statement (s) below is/are logically (a) LMN (b) MNO
valid and can be inferred from the above passage? (c) MNOP (d) NOPQ
(i) He was already a successful batsman at the 36. Ms. X will be in Bagdogra from 1/5/14 to 20/5/14
highest level and from 22/5/14 to 31/5/14. On the morning of
(ii) He has to improve his temperament in order 21/5/14, she will reach Kochi via Mumbai.
to become a great batsman Which one of the statements below is logically valid
(iii) He failed to make many of his good starts and can be inferred from the above sentences?
count (a) Ms. X will be in Kochi for only one day only
(iv) Improving his technical skills will guarantee in May
success (b) Ms. X will be in Kochi for only one day in May
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) Ms. X will be only in Kochi for one day in May
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) only (d) Only Ms. X will be in Kochi for one day in May
37. Given below are two statements followed by two III. The government should ban the water supply
conclusions. Assuming these statements to be in lower areas.
true, decide which one logically follows. (a) Statements I and II follow.
Statement: (b) Statements I and III follow.
I. All film stars are playback singers. (c) Statements II and III follow.
II. All film directors are film stars. (d) All statements follow.
Conclusions:
2014
I. All film directors are playback singers.
41. In a group of four children, Som is younger to
II. Some film stars are film directors.
Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in
(a) Only conclusion I follows the group. Which of the following statements
(b) Only conclusion II follows is/are required to find the eldest child in the
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II follows group?
(d) Both conclusions I and II follow Statements
38. Lamenting the gradual sidelining of the arts in 1. Shiv is younger to Riaz.
school curricula, a group of prominent artists 2. Shiv is elder to Som.
wrote to the Chief Minister last year, asking him
(a) Statement 1 by itself determines the eldest
to allocate more funds to support arts education
in schools. However, no such increase has been child.
announced in this year’s Budget. The artists (b) Statement 2 by itself determines the eldest
expressed their deep anguish at their request not child.
being approved, but many of them remain (c) Statements 1 and 2 are both required to
optimistic about funding in the future. determine the eldest child.
Which of the statement(s) below is/are logically valid (d) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to
and can be inferred from the above statements? determine the eldest child.
i. The artists expected funding for the arts to 42. X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km southeast of
increase this year. Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km south of W. Q is
ii. The Chief Minister was receptive to the idea 1 km east of P. What is the distance between X
of increasing funding for the arts. and Q in km?
iii. The Chief Minister is a prominent artist.
(a) 1 (b) 2
iv. Schools are giving less importance to arts
education nowadays. (c) 3 (d) 2
(a) iii and iv (b) i and iv 43. Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the
(c) i, ii and iv (d) i and iii project on his own. On observing his unhappiness,
39. Four branches of a company are located at M, N, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to
O, and P. M is north of N at a distance of 4 km; P work independently.
is south of O at a distance of 2 km; N is southeast Which one of the statements below is logically
of O by 1 km. What is the distance between valid and can be inferred from the above
M and P in km? sentences?
(a) 5.34 (b) 6.74 (a) Rajan has decided to work only in a group.
(c) 28.5 (d) 45.49 (b) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group
40. The given statement is followed by some courses against their wishes.
of action. Assuming the statement to be true, (c) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajan's request
decide the correct option. to work with him.
Statement:
(d) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would
There has been a significant drop in the water be working together.
level in the lakes supplying water to the city.
44. Find the odd one in the following group:
Course of action: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK
I. The water supply authority should impose a (a) ALRVX
partial cut in supply to tackle the situation.
(b) EPVZB
II. The government should appeal to all the
residents through mass media for minimal use (c) ITZDF
of water. (d) OYEIK
45. Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal 51. The multi-level hierarchical pie chart shows the
live on different floors in a six-storeyed building population of animals in a reserve forest. The
(the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above correct conclusions from this information are:
it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered
floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered Beetle Tige
R r
-a ed
floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors
below Faisal's floor. Dilip does not live on floor nt
Ele
number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor M
am
ph
immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Honey m
an
al
ct
se
-bee
t
Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of
In
the following floor-person combinations is
correct? Leo
par
Reptile
d
Anuj Bhola Chandan Dilip Eswar Faisal sn
ak
M
(a) 6 2 5 1 3 4 Bird e
ot
Cr
h
oc
(b) 2 6 5 1 3 4
Bulb
od
wk
ile
Butterfly
Dro
(c) 4 2 6 3 1 5 Ha
ul
ngo
(d) 2 4 6 1 3 5
46. Find the next term in the sequence: 13M, 17Q, (i) Butterflies are birds
19S,  (ii) There are more tigers in this forest than red
(a) 21W (b) 21V ants
(c) 23W (d) 23V (iii)All reptiles in this forest are either snakes or
47. If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and crocodiles
‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the (iv) Elephants are the largest mammals in this
following indicates ‘ace the exam’? forest
(a) MCHTX (b) MXHTC (a) (i) and (ii) only
(c) XMHCT (d) XMHTC (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
48. “India is a country of rich heritage and cultural (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
diversity.” (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Which one of the following facts best supports 52. Find the odd one in the following group
the claim made in the above sentence? Q,W,Z,B B,H,K,M W,C,G,J M,S,V,X
(a) India is a union of 28 states and 7 union (a) Q, W, Z, B (b) B, H, K, M
territories. (c) W, C, G, J (d) M, S, V, X
(b) India has a population of over 1.1 billion. 53. Lights of four colors (red, blue, green, yellow) are
(c) India is home to 22 official languages and hung on a ladder. On every step of the ladder
thousands of dialects. there are two lights. If one of the lights is red,
(d) The Indian cricket team draws players from the other light on that step will always be blue. If
over ten states. one of the lights on a step is green, the other
light on that step will always be yellow. Which of
49. In which of the following options will the the following statements is not necessarily
expression P < M be definitely true? correct?
(a) M < R > P > S (b) M > S < P < F (a) The number of red lights is equal to the
(c) Q < M < F = P (d) P = A < R < M number of blue lights
50. Find the next term in the sequence: (b) The number of green lights is equal to the
7G, 11K, 13M,  number of yellow lights
(a) 15Q (c) The sum of the red and green lights is equal
to the sum of the yellow and blue lights
(b) 17Q
(d) The sum of the red and blue lights is equal to
(c) 15P the sum of the green and yellow lights
(d) 17P
54. Read the statements: 59. The number of people diagnosed with dengue fever
All women are entrepreneurs. (contracted from the bite of a mosquito) in north
India is twice the number diagnosed last year.
Some women are doctors.
Municipal authorities have concluded that
Which of the following conclusions can be logically measures to control the mosquito population have
inferred from the above statements? failed in this region.
(a) All women are doctors Which one of the following statements, if true,
(b) All doctors are entrepreneurs does not contradict this conclusion?
(c) All entrepreneurs are women (a) A high proportion of the affected population
(d) Some entrepreneurs are doctors has returned from neighbouring countries
55. Find the odd one from the following group: where dengue is prevalent
(a) W,E,K,O (b) I,Q,W,A (b) More cases of dengue are now reported
(c) F,N,T,X, (d) N,V,B,D because of an increase in the Municipal Office’s
administrative efficiency
56. For submitting tax returns, all resident males
with annual income below ` 10 lakh should fill up (c) Many more cases of dengue are being
Form P and all resident females with income diagnosed this year since the introduction of
below ` 8 lakh should fill up Form Q. All people a new and effective diagnostic test
with incomes above ` 10 lakh should fill up (d) The number of people with malarial fever (also
Form R, except non residents with income above contracted from mosquito bites) has increased
` 15 lakhs, who should fill up Form S. All others this year
should fill Form T. An example of a person who 60. Geneticists say that they are very close to
should fill Form T is confirming the genetic roots of psychiatric
(a) a resident male with annual income ` 9 lakh illnesses such as depression and schizophrenia,
(b) a resident female with annual income ` 9 lakh and consequently, that doctors will be able to
eradicate these diseases through early
(c) a non-resident male with annual income ` 16 lakh
identification and gene therapy.
(d) a non-resident female with annual income
On which of the following assumptions does the
` 16 lakh
statement above rely?
57. Which number does not belong in the series
(a) Strategies are now available for eliminating
below?
psychiatric illnesses
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64
(b) Certain psychiatric illnesses have a genetic basis
(a) 17 (b) 37
(c) All human diseases can be traced back to
(c) 64 (d) 26
genes and how they are expressed
58. A dance programme is scheduled for 10.00 a.m.
(d) In the future, genetics will become the only
Some students are participating in the programme
relevant field for identifying psychiatric illnesses
and they need to come an hour earlier than the
start of the event. These students should be 2013
accompanied by a parent. Other students and 61. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship
parents should come in time for the programme. similar to that expressed in the pair:
The instruction you think that is appropriate for Medicine: Health
this is
(a) Science : Experiment
(a) Students should come at 9.00 a.m. and parents
should come at 10.00 a.m. (b) Wealth : Peace
(b) Participating students should come at 9.00 a.m. (c) Education : Knowledge
accompanied by a parent, and other parents (d) Money : Happiness
and students should come by 10.00 a.m. 62. Abhishek is elder to Savar.
(c) Students who are not participating should Savar is younger to Anshul.
come by 10.00 a.m. and they should not bring
Which of the given conclusions is logically valid
their parents. Participating students should
and is inferred from the above statements?
come at 9.00 a.m.
(a) Abhishek is elder to Anshul
(d) Participating students should come before
9.00 a.m. Parents who accompany them (b) Anshul is elder to Abhishek
should come at 9.00 a.m. All others should (c) Abhishek and Anshul are of the same age
come at 10.00 a.m. (d) No conclusion follows
63. Complete the sentence: 67. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship
Universalism is to particularism as diffuseness is similar to that expressed in the pair :
to _____ water : pipe : :
(a) specificity (a) cart : road
(b) neutrality (b) electricity : wire
(c) generality (c) sea : beach
(d) adaptation (d) music: instrument
64. After several defeats in wars, Robert Bruce went 68. All professors are researchers
in exile and wanted to commit suicide. Just before Some scientists are professors
committing suicide, he came across a spider
Which of the given conclusions is logically valid
attempting tirelessly to have its net. Time and
and is inferred from the above arguments :
again, the spider failed but that did not deter it to
retrain from making attempts. Such attempts by (a) All scientists are researchers
the spider made Bruce curious. Thus, Bruce (b) All professors are scientists
started observing the near-impossible goal of the (c) Some researchers are scientists
spider to have the net. Ultimately, the spider (d) No conclusion follows
succeeded in having its net despite several
failures. Such act of the spider encouraged Bruce 2012
not to commit suicide. And then, Bruce went back 69. Wanted Temporary, Part-time persons for the post
again and won many a battle, and the rest is of Field Interviewer to conduct personal
history. interviews to collect and collate economic data.
Which one of the following assertions is best Requirements: High School-pass, must be
supported by the above information? available for Day, Evening and Saturday work.
Transportation paid, expenses reimbursed.
(a) Failure is the pillar of success.
Which one of the following is the best inference
(b) Honesty is the best policy.
from the above advertisement?
(c) Life begins and ends with adventures.
(a) Gender-discriminatory
(d) No adversity justifies giving up hope.
(b) Xenophobic
65. Statement: You can always give me a ring
(c) Not designed to make the post attractive
whenever you need.
(d) Not gender-discriminatory
from the above statement? 70. Given the sequence of terms, AD CG FK JP, the
next term is
(a) Because I have a nice caller tune.
(a) OV (b) OW
(b) Because I have a better telephone facility.
(c) PV (d) PW
(c) Because a friend in need is a friend indeed.
(d) Because you need not pay towards the 2011
telephone bills when you give me a ring. 71. A transporter receives the same number of orders
66. Statement: There were different streams of each day. Currently, he has some pending orders
freedom movements in colonial India carried out (backlog) to be shipped. If he uses 7 trucks, then
by the moderates, liberals, radicals, socialists, and at the end of the 4th day he can clear all the
so on. orders. Alternatively, if he uses only 3 trucks,
then all the orders are cleared at the end of the
10th day. What is the minimum number of trucks
from the above statement?
required so that there will be no pending order
(a) The emergence of nationalism in colonial India at the end of the 5th day?
led to our Independence.
(a) 4
(b) Nationalism in India emerged in the context
(b) 5
of colonialism.
(c) 6
(c) Nationalism in India is homogeneous.
(d) 7
(d) Nationalism in India is heterogeneous.
72. Few school curricula include a unit on how to III. There are no twins.
deal with bereavement and grief, and yet all In what order were they born (oldest first)?
students at some point in their lives suffer from
losses through death and parting. (a) HSIG
Based on the above passage which topic would (b) SGHI
not be included in a unit on bereavement? (c) IGSH
(a) How to write a letter of condolence (d) IHSG
(b) What emotional stages are passed through in 77. Modern warfare has changed from large scale
the healing process clashes of armies to suppression of civilian
(c) What the leading causes of death are populations. Chemical agents that do their work
(d) How to give support to a grieving friend silently appear to be suited to such warfare; and
regretfully, there exist people in military
73. The question below consists of a pair of related
establishments who think that chemical agents
words followed by four pairs of words. Select the
pair that best expresses the relation in the are useful tools for their cause.
original pair : Which of the following statements best sums up
Gladiator : Arena the meaning of the above passage:
(a) dancer : stage (a) Modern warfare has resulted in civil strife
(b) commuter : train (b) Chemical agents are useful in modern warfare
(c) teacher : classroom (c) Use of chemical agents in warfare would be
(d) lawyer : courtroom undesirable
74. The horse has played a little known but very (d) People in military establishments like to use
important role in the field of medicine. Horses chemical agents in war
were injected with toxins of diseases until their 78. If 137 + 276 = 435 how much is 731 + 672?
blood built up immunities. Then a serum was (a) 534 (b) 1403
made from their blood. Serums to fight with
(c) 1623 (d) 1513
diphtheria and tetanus were developed this way.
It can be inferred from the passage, that horses
were NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) given immunity of diseases 2015
(b) generally quite immune to diseases 1. Fill in the missing value
(c) given medicines to fight toxins
6 5 4
(d) given diphtheria and tetanus serums
2010 7 4 7 2 1
75. The question below consists of a pair of related
words followed by four pairs of words. Select the 1 9 2 8 1 2 1
pair that best expresses the relation in the original
pair.
4 1 5 2 3
Unemployed : Worker
(a) fallow : land (b) unaware : sleeper 3 ? 3
(c) wit : jester (d) renovated : house
76. Hari (H), Gita (G), Irfan (I) and Saira (S) are siblings
2014
(i.e. brothers and sisters). All were born on 1st 2. The next term in the series 81, 54, 36, 24,....
January. The age difference between any two is 
successive siblings (that is born one after another) 3. Fill in the missing number in the series.
is less than 3 years. Given the following facts:
2 3 6 15  157.5 630
I. Hari’s age + Gita age > Irfan’s age + Saira’s age
4. What is the next number in the series?
II. The age difference between Gita and Saira is
1 year. However, Gita is not the oldest and 12 35 81 173 357 ____
Saira is not the youngest.
ANSWERS
MCQ Type Questions
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (a)
71. (c) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (c)
Numerical Type Questions
1. (3) 2. (16) 3. (45) 4. (725 to 725)
EXPLANATIONS
Distribution of P:
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Given words ‘mock, deride and jeer’ are synonyms
which means mockery. So, the given word praise
is odd one.
2. C A D B E , J H K I L
+1 +1 +1 +1
+1 +1
Group ‘Q’
X V Y W Z, O N P M Q Mean (2) = 85
+1 +1 +1 +1 Standard deviation (2) = 5
Pr ( –   x   + )  0.6827
+1 –1
So, option (d) is odd one from the given group.

 68% within one standard deviation
3. The given number 33 is odd one out, because the
2 – 2 = 85 – 5 = 80
remaining numbers are prime number.
2 + 2 = 85 + 5 = 90
7. Statements i and ii are not logically possible based
on the given fact.  Range of Q in one standard deviation is 80 to 90
8. Group ‘P’ Distribution of ‘Q’
Mean () = 105
Standard deviation (1) = 25
Pr ( –   x   + )  0.6827
 68% within one standard deviation
1 – 1 = 105 – 25 = 80 68% within one standard deviation of Q is narrower
1 + 1 = 105 + 25 = 130  68% within one standard deviation of Q means
 range = 80 to 130 most students of group Q.
 Most students of group ‘Q’ scored marks in a
narrower range than students in group ‘P’
10. The following letter series is in the order of even

12
letters series 15. 11 1
10 2
11. From given data, the following diagram can be

possible.
7 km S
6.02 m A
5 km Ah
I M Mirror image of 1 : 20 is 10 : 30
10 km 10 : 30 was the time two and quarter hour back
Here S  Susan so time now will be 12 : 45
A  Arun 16. M
Ah  Ahmed
M  Michael km 5 2 km
(Starting point) 10
From the above diagram, Arun lives farthest 
O 10 km
away than Ahmed means more than 5 km but
5 2 km
closer than Susan means less than 7 km, from
5 km
5 km
the given alternatives. 2 2 km
So, only option ‘c’ is possible.
4k 2 2 km
m
12. From the given question two statements will be
N O
followed.
From the given figure
For statment I
Arrange the given data according to their ages MN = (OM)2  (ON)2
Shiva
 OM = 5 2  5  2 2  5  7 2
Age Leela
 ON = 10  5 2  2 2  10  3 2
Pavithra
For statement II MN = (5  7 2)2  (10  3 2)2
Arrange the given data according to their winning
Pavithra = 25  98  70 2  100  18  60 2)
Leela
 20.61 km
(+ or –)
So, from statement I and II, it is clear that only M Q
(+)
option (d) is possible (i.e., statement I). Son
17. Daughter (+) Male
Husband
Grand (–) Female
13. Height R
Dau
ght Child (+ or –)
er- in-la
Height w P
E
Mother
So, from the above relation diagram it is clear
6 Feet that P is the grandchild of M.
5 Feet
20. Manu age = sravan age + 2 months
Manu age = Trideep age – 3 months
X Y Pavan age = Sravan’s age + 1 month
(Statement I) (Statement II)
Hence from the given figure Mr. X is taller than From the above statement
Mr. Y by 1 foot. Trideep age > Man > Pavan > Sravan
14. Social science disciplines had a pre-colonial Hence, Trideep can occupy the extra space in the
origin. flat.
24. TD ES Therefore concluding diagram can be

E E E
6 L E or L M or L M
11 0
4
1 1 35.
11
EM
25. Statement-I can be used to solve the question if 36. Second sentence says that Ms. X reaches Kochi
capacity of both tanks is already known on 21/05/2014. Also she has to be in Bagdogora
on 22/05/2014.
Statement-II can be used if it is known what
quantity of each tank is full/empty.  She stays in Kochi for only one day in may.
Therefore, by using both statements M N
39.
Let capacity of tank B is x 0
1 4 E
70 W
x = 14000 45°
100 2
N
 x = 20000 gallons S
P
80
Solution in tank A =  14000 = 11200 gallons 41. Riaz > Som ...(i)
100
Shiv > Ansu ...(ii)
40 Ansu is youngest in the group
Solution in tank B =  20000 = 8000 gallons
100  From equations (i) and (ii)
 Total solution = 11200 + 8000 = 19200 gallons  Riaz > Som > Shiv > Ansu
42. M N
66  6 60 5 X
26. 66 6 =   1km Z
66  6 72 6 W w E
1 km s 1km 1km
66  6 72 6 y C
66 6 =  
66  6 60 5 W E
P 1 km Q
5 6
(66 6)  (66 6) =  1
6 5
s
28. R + 3 = U, O + 3 = R, Here XE = 1 km
A + 3 = D, D + 3 = G;
2
S + 3 = V, W + 3 = Z, QE =  2
2
A + 3 = D, N + 3 = Q
29. Community of people : Doctor  using Pythagoras theorem,
30. Since U does not want any portfolio, (c) and (d) XQ = (QE) 2  (XE) 2
are ruled out. R wants Home, or Finance or No
portfolio, (a) is not valid. = 2  1 = 3 km
Hence option (b) is correct.
 Statement I itself determines the eldest child
34. S + 1: S+2:
which statement 2 is incorrect as Ansu is youngest
L
in the group is not satisfied by statement 2
M L E
Hence option (a) is correct
44. ALRVX  only one vowel 71. Let each truck carry 100 units.
EPVZB  only one vowel 2800 = 4n + e
ITZDF  only one vowel where n = normal
OYEIK  three vowels 3000 = 10n + e
45. (a) Anuj: Even numbered floor (2, 4, 6) where e = excess/pending
(b) Bhola: Even numbered floor (2, 4, 6) 100 8000
 n= , e=
(c) Chandan lives on the floor above that of Faisal. 3 3
(d) Dilip: not on 2nd floor. 5100 8000
5 days  500 x = +
(e) Eswar: does not live immediately above or 3 3
immediately below Bhola 8500
From the options its clear, that only option  500x = = 17
3
(b) satisfies condition (e).  x >5
So, correct Ans is (b). Minimum possible = 6
47. KCLFTSB: BST-Best, F-Of, LCK-Luck (Reverse 72. The given passage clearly deals with how to deal
order) with bereavement and grief and so after the
SHSWDG: GD-Good, WSHS-Wishes (Reverse tragedy occurs and not about precautions.
order) Therefore, irrespective of the causes of death, a
Similarly “ace the Exam’- C-Ace, T-The, XM-Exam school student rarely gets into details of
48. Diversity is shown in terms of difference causes—which is beyond the scope of the
language. context. Rest all are important in dealing with
grief.
51. It is not mentioned that elephant is the largest
animal. 73. Given relationship is worker: workplace.
52. Q A gladiator is
M
(i) a person, usually a professional combatant
trained to entertain the public by engaging
in mortal combat with another person or a
wild.
(ii) A person engaged in a controversy or debate,
especially in public.
55. W, E, K, O, I, Q, W, A, F, N, T, X, N, V, B, D, 74. From the passage it cannot be inferred that
+8 +6 +4 +8 +6 +4 +8 +6 +4 +8 +6 +2
horses are given immunity as in option (a), since
the aim is to develop medicine and in turn
–2 –2 –2 –2 –2 –2 immunize humans. Option (b) is correct since it
Hence the odd one from the following group is is given that horses develop immunity after some
N, V, B, D. time. Refer "until their blood built up
56. By reading the instructions, it is clear that person immunities". Even option(c) is invalid since
who fills form T is a resident female with annual medicine is not built till immunity is developed
income of ` 9 Lakh. in the horses. Option (d) is incorrect since
59. Among given option, option (d) i.e. the number of specific examples are cited to illustrate and this
cannot capture the essence.
people with malarial fever has increased this year
do not contradic the conclusion. 76. H + G > I + S ...(1)
+2 +3 +4 +5 and G–S=1 ...(2)
70. G is not oldest, S is not youngest
AD , CG , PK , JP , OV  H+1>I
Irfan older than Hari
Gita older than Sarita
+3 +4 +5 +6
From given option SGHI
77. Use of chemical agents in warfare would be 2

undesirable 2. 81 – 54 = 27; 27  18
3
78. 137  001 011 111 2
54 – 36 = 18; 18  =12
3
276  010 111 110
100 011 101  435 2
36 – 24 = 12; 12  =8
3
Octal number system  24 – 8 = 16
 731  111 011 001 3. 2 3 6 15 45 157.5 630
672  110 111 110

1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5 4
100 010 011
2nd number
Hence 1623 is in increasing order as shown
1st number
above
NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS 4. The given series is
1. Middle number is the average of number on both 12, 35, 81, 173, 357, .......
sides The given series follows the following pattern
12  2 + 11 = 35
33 6
 Average of 3 and 3 is = =3 35  2 + 11 = 81
2 2
81  2 + 11 = 173
173  2 + 11 = 357
357  2 + 11 = 725

Numerical Ability
Numbers and Algebra 1.1
1
CHAPTER Numbers and Algebra
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS P Q
2016 9.5 10
9 9
1. In a quadratic function, the value of the product 8 8 8 8
7 7.5
of the roots (,  ) is 4. Find the value of 6.5 6.5 6
4
 n  n
  n   n 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
(a) n4 (b) 4n If the amounts invested in the companies, P and

Q, in 2006 are in the ratio 8 : 9, then the amounts
(c) 22n–1 (d) 4n–1
received after one year as interests from
2. Among 150 faculty members in an institute, 55 companies P and Q would be in the ratio:
are connected with each other through Facebook®
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 4
and 85 are connected through WhatsApp ® .
30 faculty members do not have Facebook® or (c) 6 : 7 (d) 4 : 3
WhatsApp ® accounts. The number of faculty 2015
members connected only through Facebook ®
accounts is ______________. 7. Read the following table giving sales data of five
types of batteries for years 2006 to 2012
(a) 35 (b) 45
(c) 65 (d) 90 Year Type Type Type Type Type
4y I I I I I
3. If 9 y  6  3, then y2  is ________.
3 2006 75 144 114 102 108
1 2007 90 126 102 84 126
(a) 0 (b) 
3 2008 96 114 75 105 135
1
(c)  (d) Undefined 2009 105 90 150 90 75
3
2010 90 75 135 75 90
a 1 1 1
4. If q  and r  b  and s c  , the value of 2011 105 60 165 45 120
r s q 2012 115 85 160 100 145
abc is .
Out of the following, which type of battery
(a) (rqs)–1 (b) 0 achieved highest growth between the years 2006
(c) 1 (d) r+q+s and 2012?
5. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. (a) Type V (b) Type III
If the new number formed by reversing the digits (c) Type II (d) Type I
is greater than the original number by 54, find
8. If a2 + b2 + c2 = 1, then ab + bc + ac lies in the
the original number.
interval
(a) 39 (b) 57
(c) 66 (d) 93  2
(a) 1, 
6. Two finance companies, P and Q, declared fixed  3
annual rates of interest on the amounts invested  1 
with them. The rates of interest offered by these (b)  ,1
2 
companies may differ from year to year. Year-wise
annual rates of interest offered by these  1
companies are shown by the line graph provided (c)  1, 
 2
below.
(d) [2,–4]
1.2 Numbers and Algebra
9. If the list of letters, P, R, S, T, U is an arithmetic 12. The total exports and revenues from the exports
sequence, which of the following are also in of a country are given in the two charts shown
arithmetic sequence? below. The pie chart for exports shows the
I. 2P, 2R, 2S, 2T, 2U quantity of each item exported as a percentage
of the total quantity of exports. The pie chart for
II. P–3, R–3, S–3, T–3, U–3
the revenues shows the percentage of the total
III. P2, R2, S2, T2, U2 revenue generated through export of each item.
(a) I only (b) I and II The total quantity of exports of all the items is
(c) II and III (d) I and III 500 thousand tonnes and the total revenues are
250 crore rupees. Which item among the following
10. The number of students in a class who have
has generated the maximum revenue per kg?
answered correctly, wrongly, or not attempted
Exports Revenues
each question in an exam, are listed in the table
below. The marks for each question are also listed. Item 6 Item 1 Item 1
There is no negative or partial marking. 11%
Item 6
16% 12%
19%
Answered Answered Not Item 2
Item 5 Item 2
Q. No. Marks 20%
Correctly Wrongly Attempted 12% Item 5 20%
1 2 21 17 6 Item 3 20%
Item 4
4
19% Item 3
m
2 3 15 27 2 22%
Ite
6% 23%
3 1 11 29 4
4 2 23 18 3
(a) Item 2 (b) Item 3
5 5 31 12 1
(c) Item 6 (d) Item 5
What is the average of the marks obtained by the
13. The statistics of runs scored in a series by four
class in the examination?
batsmen are provided in the following table. Who
(a) 2.290 (b) 2.970 is the most consistent batsman of these four?
(c) 6.795 (d) 8.795
Batsman Average Standard deviation
2014 K 31.2 5.21
L 46.0 6.35
11. The monthly rainfall chart on 50 years of rainfall in
M 54.4 6.22
Agra is shown in the following figure. Which of the N 17.9 5.90
following are true? (k percentile is the value such
that k percent of the data fall below that value) (a) K (b) L
(c) M (d) N
14. The exports and imports (in crores of ` ) of a
country from 2000 to 2007 are given in the
following bar chart. If the trade deficit is defined
as excess of imports over exports, in which year
is the trade deficit 1/5th of the exports?
120
110 Exports Imports
100
90
80
(i) On average, it rains more in July than in 70
December 60
50
(ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August 40
is more than that in January 30
20
(iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better 10
confidence than February rainfall 0
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
(iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall
(a) 2005
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) 2004
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) 2007
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) 2006
(d) (iii) and (iv)
15. The table below has question-wise data on the 21. Following table provides figures (in rupees) on annual
performance of students in an examination. The expenditure of a firm for two years - 2010 and 2011.
marks for each question are also listed. There is Category 2010 2011
no negative or partial marking in the examination. Raw material 5200 6240
Q.No. Marks Answered Answered Not Power & fuel 7000 9450
Salary & wages 9000 12600
Correctly Wrongly Attempted 20000 25000
Plant & machinery
1 2 21 17 6 Advertising 15000 19500
2 3 15 27 2 Research & Development 22000 26400
3 2 23 18 3 In 2011, which of the following two categories have

registered increase by same percentage?
What is the average of the marks obtained by the
class in the examination? (a) Raw material and Salary & wages
(a) 1.34 (b) 1.74 (b) Salary & wages and Advertising
(c) 3.02 (d) 3.91 (c) Power & fuel and Advertising
16. The ratio of male to female students in a college (d) Raw material and Research & Development
for five years is plotted in the following line graph. 22. What will be the maximum sum of 44, 42, 40,... ?
If the number of female students in 2011 and 2012 (a) 502 (b) 504
is equal, what is the ratio of male students in (c) 506 (d) 500
2012 to male students in 2011?
23. The current erection cost of a structure is ` 13,200.
If the labour wages per day increase by 1/5 of the
Ratio of male to female students
3.5
3 current wages and the working hours decrease
2.5 by 1/24 of the current period, then the new cost
2 of erection in ` is
1.5
(a) 16,500 (b) 15,180
1
0.5 (c) 11,000 (d) 10,120
0 24. Find the sum of the expression
2008 2009 2010 2011 2012
1 1 1 1
  +.....+
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 80  81
(c) 1.5 : 1 (d) 2.5 : 1 (a) 7 (b) 8
17. What is the average of all multiples of 10 from (c) 9 (d) 10
2 to 198? 25. In the summer of 2012, in New Delhi, the mean
(a) 90 (b) 100 temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 41°C
(c) 110 (d) 120 and of Tuesday to Thursday was 43°C. If the
temperature on Thursday was 15% higher than
18. The value of 12  12  12  ... is that of Monday, then the temperature in °C on
Thursday was
(a) 3.464 (b) 3.932
(a) 40 (b) 43
(c) 4.000 (d) 4.444
2
(c) 46 (d) 49
19. If x is real and |x – 2x + 3| = 11, then possible
values of |– x3 + x2 – x| include 26. The set of values of p for which the roots of the
equation 3x2 + 2x + p(p – 1) = 0 are of opposite
(a) 2, 4 (b) 2, 14
sign is
(c) 4, 52 (d) 14, 52
(a) (–, 0) (b) (0, 1)
2013 (c) (1, ) (d) (0, )
20. A number is as much greater than 75 as it is 27. Find the sum to n terms of the series 10 + 84 +
smaller than 117. The number is 734 + …
(a) 91
(b) 93 (a)

9 9n  1  1 (b)

9 9n  1  1
10 8
(c) 89
(d) 96 (c)

9 9 1
n
n (d)

9 9 1
n
n 2
8 8
28. If 3  X  5 and 8  Y  11 then which of the 2011

following options is TRUE? 33. P, Q, R and S are four types of dangerous
3 X 8 3 X 5 microbes recently found in a human habitat. The
(a)   (b)   area of each circle with its diameter printed in
5 Y 5 11 Y 8
brackets represents the growth of a single
3 X 8 3 X 8
(c)   (d)   microbe surviving human immunity system
11 Y 5 5 Y 11 within 24 hours of entering the body. The danger
29. Following table gives data on tourists from to human beings varies proportionately with the
different countries visiting India in the year 2011. toxicity, potency and growth attributed to a
microbe shown in the figure below :
Country Number of Tourists
USA 2000
England 3500
Germany 1200
Italy 1100
Japan 2400
Australia 2300
France 1000
Which two countries contributed to the one third
of the total number of tourists who visited India
in 2011?
A pharmaceutical company is contemplating the
(a) USA and Japan development of a vaccine against the most
(b) USA and Australia dangerous microbe. Which microbe should the
(c) England and France company target in its first attempt?
(d) Japan and Australia (a) P (b) Q
2012 (c) R (d) S
30. If (1.001)1259 = 3.52 and (1.001)2062 = 7.85, then 34. The sum of n terms of the series 4 + 44 + 444 + ...
(1.001)3321 = is
(a) 2.23 (b) 4.33 (a) (4/81) [10n+1 – 9n –1]
(c) 11.37 (d) 27.64 (b) (4/81) [10n–1 – 9n –1]
31. Raju has 14 currency notes in his pocket consisting (c) (4/81) [10n + 1 – 9n –10]
of only ` 20 notes and ` 10 notes. The total money (d) (4/81) [10n – 9n – 10]
value of the notes is ` 230. The number of ` 10 35. Given that f(y) = |y|/y, and q is any non-zero
notes that Raju has is real number, the value of |f(q) – f(–q)| is
(a) 5 (b) 6 (a) 0 (b) –1
(c) 9 (d) 10 (c) 1 (d) 2
32. The data given in the following table summarizes
the monthly budget of an average household. NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS
Category Amount (Rs.) 2016
Food 4000 1. The following graph represents the installed capacity
Clothing 1200 for cement production (in tonnes) and the actual
Rent 2000 production (in tonnes) of nine cement plants of a
cement company. Capacity utilization of a plant is
Savings 1500
defined as ratio of actual production of cement to
Other expenses 1800 installed capacity. A plant with installed capacity of
The approximate percentage of the monthly at least 200 tonnes is called a large plant and a
budget NOT spent on savings is plant with lesser capacity is called a small plant.
(a) 10% (b) 14% The difference between total production of large
(c) 81% (d) 86% plants and small plants, in tonnes is ________.
300
6. The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two
Installed Capacity Actual Production
thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral.
250
Capacity/production(tonnes)
250 220 230 The ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral
200 200 is 3 : 4 : 5 : 6. The largest angle of the triangle is
200 180 190 190 190
160 twice its smallest angle. What is the sum, in
150 160 160 150
140
150 degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle
120 120
100 and the largest angle of the quadrilateral?
100
7. In a sequence of 12 consecutive odd numbers,
50 the sum of the first 5 numbers is 425. What is
0
the sum of the last 5 numbers in the sequence?
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Plant Number
8. A firm producing air purifiers sold 200 units in
2012. The following pie chart presents the share
2. The numeral in the units position of
of raw material, labour, energy, plant &
211870 + 146127  3424 is _________. machinery, and transportation costs in the total
2015 manufacturing cost of the firm in 2012. The
expenditure on labour in 2012 is ` 4,50,000. In
3. The exports and imports (in crores of Rs.) of a
2013, the raw material expenses increased by 30%
country from the year 2000 to 2007 are given in
the following bar chart. In which year is the and all other expenses increased by 20%. What
combined percentage increase in imports and is the percentage increase in total cost for the
exports the highest ? company in 2013?
Transpo
Labour
10%
15%
rtation
Plant and Raw Material
Machinery
20%
30%
Energy
25%
4. The pie chart below has the breakup of the number

of students from different departments in an
engineering college for the year 2012. The proportion 9. A firm producing air purifiers sold 200 units in
of male to female students in each department is 5 : 2012. The following pie chart presents the share
4. There are 40 males in Electrical Engineering. What of raw material, labour, energy, plant &
is the difference between numbers of female students machinery, and transportation costs in the total
in the Civil department and the female students in manufacturing cost of the firm in 2012. The
the Mechanical department? expenditure on labour in 2012 is ` 4,50,000. In
2013, the raw material expenses increased by 30%
and all other expenses increased by 20%. If the
Electrical
20% company registered a profit of ` 10 lakhs in 2012,
Computer at what price (in `) was each air purifier sold?
Mechanical Science
20%
Transport- %
10%
ation
Labour
Civile 15%
30%
10
Plant and Raw Material

Machinery
2014 30%
20%
5. A foundry has a fixed daily cost of ` 50,000 Energy

whenever it operates and variable cost of ` 800Q, 25%
where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What
is the cost of production in ` per tonne for a daily
production of 100 tonnes?
10. The sum of eight consecutive odd numbers is 656. 12. If (z + 1/z) = 98, compute (z + 1/z2)
2 2
The average of four consecutive even numbers 13. In a survey, 300 respondents were asked whether
is 87. What is the sum of the smallest odd number they own a vehicle or not. If yes, they were further
and second largest even number? asked to mention whether they own a car or scooter
11. The ratio of male to female students in a college or both. Their responses are tabulated below. What
for five years is plotted in the following line graph. percent of respondents do not own a scooter?
If the number of female students doubled in 2009, Men Women
by what percent did the number of male students
Car 40 34
increase in 2009? Own
Scooter 30 20
3.5 vehicle
Ratio of male to female students
3 Both 60 46
2.5
Do not own vehicle 20 50
2
1.5
14. Round–trip tickets to a tourist destination are
1
eligible for a discount of 10% on the total fare. In
addition, groups of 4 or more get a discount of 5%
0.5
0
on the total fare. If the one way single person
2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 fare is ` 100, a group of 5 tourists purchasing
round–trip tickets will be charged ` ________.
ANSWERS
MCQ Type Questions
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (d)

1. (120) 2. (7) 3. (2006) 4. (32) 5. (1300 to 1300) 6. (180 to 180) 7. (495) 8. (22)
9. (20,000) 10. (163) 11. (140 to 140) 12. (96) 13. (48) 14. (850)
EXPLANATIONS
put y = 1,
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS
4 1
 n  n  n  n  n  n we get = 1 = 
1.     n  n 3 3
  n   n 1

1  n
  n
1
 n n  n  n and also put y =
3
n   n = (   )n = (4)n 1 4 3 1
we get,  = 
9 9 9 3
 n  n
So, the value of is 4n. 1
  n   n So, the required value is .
3
2. From question 1
Total number of faculty members = 150 4. Given q–a =
r
The number of faculty members having facebook 1 1
 =
account = (FB) = 55 q a r
The number of faculty members having whatsapp  qa = r ...(i)
= (W) = 85
1
The number of faculty members do not have face r–b =
s
book or Whats App accounts = 30
1 1
The number of faculty members having any  b
=
account = 150 – 30 = 120 r s
The number of faculty members having both the  s = rb ...(ii)
accounts = (FB + W) – 120 = (55 + 85) – 120 = 20 1
s–c =
 The number of faculty members connected q
only through Facebook accounts = 55 – 20 = 35
1 1
 =
sc q
 sc = q ...(iii)
From equation (i),
qa = r
(sc)a = r (from eq. (iii))
ac
So the number of faculty members connected S =r
only through facebook accounts is 35. 1
s ac =  s  b (from eq. (ii))
3. Given, 9y  6 = 3 abc 1
s =s=s
It has two values either
 abc = 1
(9y – 6) = 3 ...(i)
So the value of abc is 1
Or – (9y – 6) = 3
5. Let the two digit number be xy
9y – 6 = – 3 ...(ii)
Now sum of the digit of a two digit number is 12
From equation (i),
 x + y = 12 ...(i)
9y = 9
Now according to question,
 y =1
(10y + x) – (10x + y) = 54
Or from equation (ii),
 9y – 9x = 54
9y = 3
 y–x =6 ...(ii)
1
 y = Now solving equation (i) and (ii) we get,
3
x = 3 and y = 9
2
4y
Now y = Hence the original number is 39.
3
 Option (a) is correct.
6. Amount invested by Company P in 2006 = ` 8x Item : 3

23  250  107
and amount invested by Company Q in 2006 = ` 9x
19  500  103
Interest from Company P
1.2 = Item 3
` 8x  6
Item : 6
100
= ` 9x  4 19
 1.18  Item 6
100 16
4 Item : 5
=
3 20 5
  1.6  1.6  Item 5
 Option (d) is correct. 12 3
7. Type-I achieved a growth of 53% in the period 14. For 2005,
which is higher than any other type of battery trade defict = (90 – 70) crores = 20 crores
th
10. Total number of students in class = 44 1 1
Now of export = (70) crores
Average of marks, 5 5
= 14 crores  20 crores.
(2  21)  (3  15)  (1  11)  (2  23)  (5  31)
= Hence option (a) is wrong.
42
For 2004,
42  45  11  46  155 299 Trade defict =(80 – 70) crores = 10 crores
= =  6.795
44 44 th
1 1
 Option (c) is correct. Now of export =
5
(70) crores
5
11. In the question the monthly average rainfall chart = 14 crores  20 crores.
for 50 years has been given.
Hence option (b) is wrong.
Let us check the options.
For 2007
(i) On average, it rains more in July than in
Trade defict = (120 – 110) crores
December  correct.
= 10 crores
(ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August
th
is more than that in January. 1 1
Now of export = (110) crores
 may not be correct because average rainfall 5 5
is given in the question. = 22 crores  10 crores.
(iii)July rainfall can be estimated with better Hence option (c) is wrong.
confidence than February rainfall. For 2006,
 From chart it is clear the gap between Trade defict = (120 – 100) crores
5 percentile and 95 percentile from average = 20 crores
is higher in February than that in July th
1 1
 correct. Now of export = (100) crores
5 5
(iv) In August at least 500 mm rainfall
= 20 crores = Trade deficts
 May not be correct, because its 50 year
Hence option (d) is correct.
average.
15. Total question
So correct option (b) (i) and (iii).
44  2 = 88
12. Item : 2 44  3 = 132
20 144 88
 250  107 =
100 132 308
20 Total marks obtained = (212) + (153) + (232)
 500  103
100 = 133
Total Number of students = 44
0.5  104  5  103 1  Item 2 133
Average = = 3.02
44
16. Take number of female students in 2011 = 100 b2 – 4ac = 4 –4(1)(–8) = 36 > 0
 Number of male in 2011 = 100 Hence roots are real.
No. of female in 2012 = 100 and for x2 –2x + 14 = 0
No. of male in 2012 = 150 b2 – 4ac = 4 –4(1)(14) < 0
150 Hence roots are imaginary
Ratio =
100  The value of x is the root of x2 –2x –8 = 0
17. All multiples of 10 from 2 to 198
2  4  4(1)(8)
= 10, 20,............190 Now x=
2
Now an = a + (n – 1)d
190 = 10 + (n – 1)  10 2  36
=
2
180 = (n – 1)  10
18 = n – 1 26
=
 n = 19 2
Hence total number of multiples are 19.  x = 4, –2.
Now for x= 4,
n
Now Sn = [2a  (n  1) d] –x3 + x2 – x = – 64 + 16 – 4 = 52.
2
and for x = –2
19 –x3 + x2 – x = + 8 + 4 + 2 = 14
= [20  (18)(10)]
2 Hence possible values of –x3 + x2 – x = 14, 52
22. 0 =44 + (n – 1) (– 2)
19
= [20  180] = 1900 n – 1 = 22
2
n = 23
Now average of all multiples of 10 from 2 to198
n
Sum = ( a  l)
10  20  ...  190 2
=
19 23
= (44  0)
2
1900
 = =100 = 23  22 = 506
19
Hence (c) is the answer
18. 12  12  12  ... 23. Let ‘d’ be the # of days required
For a particular type of question Let ‘h’ be the daily working hours.
 dh can be taken as a measure of the total work
i.e. a  a  a  ... we find a two consecutive be done in order to erect the structure.
number whose product is a. The greater 23
Now working hours per day h = h
number among the two consecutive number is 24
the answer.
dh dh 24
Here a = 12  # of days d =   d
h  23  23
 h 
i.e. 12 = 3 4  24 
greater number Let c = daily wages earlier

13, 200
 c=
Hence 12  12  12  ... = 4 d
19. Here it is given that x is real 6

Now daily wages c = c
Now x2 –2x + 3 = 11 5
 x2 – 2x + 3 = 11 or x2 –2x + 3 = –11  Total new cost = c  d

For x2 –2x + 3 = 11  x2 –2x –8 = 0 6 13200 24
=   d  16,500
5 d 23
24. Given: The expression 31. Let number of ` 20 notes be x and ` 10 notes be y
1 1 1  20x + 10y = 230 ...(1)
S=   ...... 
1 2 2 3 80  81 and x + y = 14 ...(2)
To find: Sum of the expression. Solving equations (1) and (2), we have
Analysis: Each term of the expression is having x = 9 and y = 5
irrational denominator. One can also see, that both
the elements in the denominator of a term differ Hence numbers of 10 rupee notes are 5.
by only 1. 32. Total budget = 10,500
This gives an idea that on rationalising the Expenditure other than savings = 9000
denominator, each denominator will become 1, so Hence approximate percentage of monthly
the sum will be easier than earlier.
budget
Rationalising the denominator,
9000
2 1 3 2 81  80 = = 86%
S=   ...  10500
 2   1  3   2    
2 2 2 2 2 2
81 80
33. By observation of the table, we can say S
2 1 3 2 81  80
=   .... 
1 32 81  80 P Q R S
= 2  1  3  2  ....  81  80 Requirement 800 600 300 200
Now, one can see that the terms will cancel out. Potency 0.4 0.5 0.4 0.8
Each term except 1 & 81
34. Let S = 4 (1 + 11 + 111 + ...)
Occurs twice, once as positive and once a negative.
So, after cancelling out, we are left with the 4
= (9 + 99 + 999 +...)
following: 9
S = 81  1 = 9 – 1 = 8 4
= {(10 – 1) + (102 – 1) + (103 – 1) + ......... }
So, the answer is (b). 9
Mon  Tues  Wed. 4
25.  41 = {(10 + 102 + ....+ 10n) – n}
3 9
Mon + Tues + Wed. = 123 ...(1) 4  (10 n  1) 
= 10  n
Tues  Wed  Thurs. 9 9 
 43º
3
4
Tue + Wed + Thu. = 129° ...(2) = {10n+1 – 9n – 10}
81
(2) – (1)
Tues + Wed + Thu – (Mon + Tues. + Wed.) y
= 129 – 123 = 6° 35. Given : f(y) =
y
115 x
Thu. – Mon. = 6°   x  6º q
100
 f(q) =
115 15 x q
Thus. = Mon  = = 6°
100 100
q
Mon = x x = 40° f(–q) =
115 x q
Thurs =
100
115  40
– q
 Thurs =  46º =
100 q
30. Let 1.001 = x q q

 f(q) – f(q) = 
x1259 = 3.52, and x2062 = 7.85 q q
 x3321 = x1259 . x2062
2q
= 3.52  7.85 = =2
= 27.64 q
5. Fixed cost = ` 50,000

NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS
Variable cost = ` 800Q
1. From the given graph large plants which are Q = daily production in tones
having installed capacity of at least 200 tonnes
For 100 tonnes of production daily, total cost of
are 1, 4, 8 and 9.
production = 50,000 + 800  100 = 130,000
So, the total production of large plants So, cost of production per tonne of daily production
= 160 + 190 + 230 + 190
130,000
= 770 = = ` 1300.
100
Now the remaining plants with installed capacity
6. Let the angles of quadrilateral are 3x, 4x, 5x, 6x
is less then 200 tonnes are 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7.
So, 3x + 4x + 5x + 6x = 360
So, total production of small plants
x = 20
= 150 + 160 + 120 + 100 + 120 Smallest angle of quadrilateral = 3  20 = 60
= 650
2
Then difference = 770 – 650 Smallest angle of triangle =  60  40
3
= 120
Largest angle of triangle = 2  40 = 60
2. Unit digit of 211 870
+ 146127  3424 is 1 + 6  1 = 7
Three angles of triangle are 40, 60, 80
3. Increase in exports in 2006
Largest angle of quadrilateral is 120
100  70 Sum (2nd largest angle of triangle + largest angle
= = 42.8% of quadrilateral) = 60 + 120 =180.
70
Increase in imports in 2006 7. 8 th observation is 7  2 = 14 more than 1 st
observation
120  90 9th observation is 14 more than 2nd observation
= = 33.3%
90 10th observation is 14 more than 3rd observation
which is more than any other year. 11th observation is 14 more than 4th observation
4. According to question, 12th observation is 14 more than 5th observation
There are 40 males in Electrical Engg. Total 14  5 =70
 Total number of females in Electrical Engg. Sum of the first five numbers = 425
= 72 – 40 = 32 Sum of last five numbers = 495
 Total number of students in Electrical Engg. = 72 8. 2012 2013
20% = 72 Transport (10%) 300,000 360,000
 30% = Total number of students in Civil Engg. Labour (15%) 450,000 540,000
Raw material (20%) 750,000 780,000
 Total number of students in Civil Engg.
Energy (25%) 750,000 900,000
30  72 Plant and Machinery (30%) 900,000 1,080,000
= = 36 × 3 = 108
20 Total 3, 000, 000 3, 660, 000
 Number of female students in Civil Engg. Percentage increase in total cost = 22%
4  108 15
= = 4 × 12 = 48 9. Total expenditure = x = 4,50,000
9 100
Now, total number of students in Mechanical Engg. x = 3 106
10  72 Profit = 10 lakhs
= = 36
20 So, total selling price = 40,00,000 ...(1)
 Number of female students in Mechanical Engg. Total purifies = 200 ...(2)
4  36 S.P. of each purifier = (1)/(2) = 20,000
= = 16
9 10. Eight consecutive odd number = 656
 Difference between female students in Civil a – 6, a – 1, a – 2, a, a + 2, a + 4, a + 6
and Mechanical departments = 48 – 16 = 32 a + 8 = 656
a = 81
Smallest m = 75 ...(1) 12. Expanding
Average consecutive even numbers 
2
1
 z  z  = 98
a2 a a2 a4  
 = 87
4 1 1
 z  2  2( z)   = 98
2
 a = 86 z  z
1
Second largest number = 88 ...(2)  z2 + 2 = 96
z
Adding equation (1) and (2),
13. Total respondents = 300
75 + 88 = 163
Now men respondents who do not have scooter
11. Ratio of male to female student in 2008 = 5 : 2
= 40 + 20 = 60
In 2009, let the male student be 5x and female
And women respondents who do not have scooter
student be 2x
= 34 + 50 = 84
Now if number of female students double in 2009
 Total respondents who do not have scooter
 Number of female student = 4x
= 60 + 84 = 144
 Number of male student = 12x
Gender 2008 2009  144 
 Required percent =   100  % = 48%
Male 5x 12x  300 
Female 2x 4x 14. One way single person fare = ` 100
% of male student increase in 2009  Two way fare for single person = ` 200
 For 5 persons two way fare = ` 1000
 12 x  5 x  
=    100  % Now, total discount = (10 + 5)% = 15%
  5 x  
 15 
Discount amount = `   1000  = ` 150
7   100 
=   100  %
 5 
Amount to be paid = `(1000 – 150) = ` 850
= 140%

Percentage and Its Applications 2.1
2
C HAPTER
Percentage and Its
Applications
exchange rate. During the period 2012-2013 the
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS exchange rate for the USD increased from
2016 ` 50/ USD to ` 60/ USD. India’s GDP in USD
during the period 2012-2013
1. In a huge pile of apples and oranges, both ripe
and unripe mixed together, 15% are unripe fruits. (a) increased by 5% (b) decreased by 13%
Of the unripe fruits, 45% are apples. Of the ripe (c) decreased by 20% (d) decreased by 11%
ones, 66% are oranges. If the pile contains a total 2013
of 5692000 fruits, how many of them are apples?
8. A firm is selling its product at ` 60 per unit. The
(a) 2029198 (b) 2467482 total cost of production is ` 100 and firm is earning
(c) 2789080 (d) 3577422 total profit of ` 500. Later, the total cost increased
2. A person moving through a tuberculosis prone by 30%. By what percentage the price should be
zone has a 50% probability of becoming infected. increased to maintained the same profit level.
However, only 30% of infected people develop the (a) 5 (b) 10
disease. What percentage of people moving (c) 15 (d) 30
through a tuberculosis prone zone remains
infected but does not show symptoms of disease? 2012
(a) 15 (b) 33 9. An automobile plant contracted to buy shock
absorbers from two suppliers X and Y. X supplies
(c) 35 (d) 37
60% and Y supplies 40% of the shock absorbers.
3. (x % of y) + (y % of x) is equivalent to _______. All shock absorbers are subjected to a quality test.
(a) 2 % of xy (b) 2 % of (xy/100) The ones that pass the quality test are considered
(c) xy % of 100 (d) 100 % of xy reliable. Of X's shock absorbers, 96% are reliable.
Of Y's shock absorbers, 72% are reliable.
2014 The probability that a randomly chosen shock
4. The population of a new city is 5 million and is absorber, which is found to be reliable, is made
growing at 20% annually. How many years would by Y is
it take to double at this growth rate? (a) 0.288 (b) 0.334
(a) 3 – 4 years (b) 4 – 5 years (c) 0.667 (d) 0.720
(c) 5 – 6 years (d) 6 – 7 years 2011
5. One percent of the people of country X are taller
10. There are two candidates P and Q in an election.
than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y
During the campaign, 40% of the voters promised
are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many
to vote for P, and rest for Q. However, on the day
people in country X as in country Y. Taking both
of election 15% of the voters went back on their
countries together, what is the percentage of
promise to vote for P and instead voted for
people taller than 6 ft?
Q. 25% of the voters went back on their promise
(a) 3.0 (b) 2.5 to vote for Q and instead voted for P. Suppose, P
(c) 1.5 (d) 1.25 lost by 2 votes, then what was the total number
6. Industrial consumption of power doubled from of voters?
2000-2001 to 2010-2011. Find the annual rate of (a) 100 (b) 110
increase in percent assuming it to be uniform (c) 90 (d) 95
over the years.
(a) 5.6 (b) 7.2
NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTION
(c) 10.0 (d) 12.2 2015
7. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in Rupees 1. From a circular sheet of paper of radius 30 cm, a
grew at 7% during 2012-2013. For international sector of 10% area is removed. If the remaining
comparison, the GDP is compared in US Dollars part is used to make a conical surface, then
(USD) after conversion based on the market the ratio of the radius and height of the cone is ____.
2.2 Percentage and Its Applications
ANSWERS
MCQ Type Questions
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)
Numerical Type Question
1. (2.06)
EXPLANATIONS
5. Let number of people in country y = 100
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS
So, number of people in country x = 300
1. Given, Total number of people taller than 6ft in both the
Total no. of fruits = 5692000 1 2
countries = 300   100  5
Unripe type of apples = 45% of 15% of 5692000 100 100
45 15 % of people taller than 6ft in both the countries
=   5692000
100 100 5
 100 = 1.25%.
=
= 384210 400
Ripe type of apples = (100 – 66)%  (100 – 15)% 7. Per ` 100 final value ` 107
 5692000 100 107
 per Dollars final value
34 85 50 60
=   5692000 for 100 dollars?
100 100
= 1644988 100  50 107
=  = 89.16
 Total no. of apples = 384210 + 1644988 100 60
= 2029198 Descreased by 11%
9. X Y
2. The percentage of people moving through a
tuberculosis prone zone remains infected but does Supply 60% 40%
not show symptoms of disease. Reliable 96% 72%
Overall 0.576 0.288
70 50 35
= (100 – 30)%  50% =    35% 0.288
100 100 100  P(x) = = 0.334
0.576  0.288
3. (x% of y) + (y% of x)
10. P Q
x y 2 xy 40% 60%
 y x = = 2% of xy
100 100 100 –6% +6%
 Option (a) is correct. +15% –15%
t
 r 
4. A = P 1  
 100  49% 51%
t  2% = 2  100% = 100
 20 
10 million = 5 million 1  
 100  NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTION
t
 1 1. 90% of area of sheet = Cross sectional area of cone
2 = 1  
 5  0.9   30  30 =  r1  30
t
6 6 ( Slant height of cone (l) = 30)
2 =   = log 2 = t log    27 cm = r1
5 5
0.301 = t 0.0791
 Height of the cone = 302  272 = 13.08 cm
0.301
t= = 3.8 years Hence ratio of radius and height is 2.06.
0.0791

 Hence around 3–4 years would it take to
double the growth rate
Time and Work 3.1
3
CHAPTER Time and Work
5. Ananth takes 6 hours and Bharath takes 4 hours
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS
to read a book. Both started reading copies of the
2016 book at the same time. After how many hours is
1. P, Q, R and S are working on a project. Q can the number of pages to be read by Ananth, twice
finish the task in 25 days, working alone for that to be read by Bharath? Assume Ananth and
12 hours a day. R can finish the task in 50 days, Bharath read all the pages with constant pace.
working alone for 12 hours per day. Q worked (a) 1 (b) 2
12 hours a day but took sick leave in the beginning
(c) 3 (d) 4
for two days. R worked 18 hours a day on all days.
What is the ratio of work done by Q and R after 2015
7 days from the start of the project? 6. An electric bus has onboard instruments that
(a) 10:11 (b) 11:10 report the total electricity consumed since the
(c) 20:21 (d) 21:20 start of the trip as well as the total distance
2. S, M, E and F are working in shifts in a team to covered. During a single day of operation, the bus
finish a project. M works with twice the efficiency travels on stretches M, N, O and P, in that order.
of others but for half as many days as E worked. S The cumulative distances travelled and the
and M have 6 hour shifts in a day whereas E and F corresponding electricity consumption are shown
have 12 hours shifts. What is the ratio of in the table below.
contribution of M to contribution of E in the project?
Stretch Comulative Electricity
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 distance(km) used (kWh)
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 2 : 1 M 20 12
3. It takes 10 s and 15 s, respectively, for two trains N 45 25
travelling at different constant speeds to O 75 45
completely pass a telegraph post. The length of
the first train is 120 m and that of the second P 100 57
train is 150 m. The magnitude of the difference The stretch where the electricity consumption
in the speeds of the two trains (in m/s) is ______. per km is minimum is
(a) 2.0 (b) 10.0
(a) M
(c) 12.0 (d) 22.0
(b) N
4. The velocity V of a vehicle along a straight line is
measured in m/s and plotted as shown with (c) O
respect to time in seconds. At the end of the (d) P
7 seconds, how much will the odometer reading
increase by (in m) ? 2014
7. It takes 30 minutes to empty a half-full tank by
draining it at a constant rate. It is decided to
simultaneously pump water into the half-full tank
while draining it. What is the rate at which water
has to be pumped in so that it gets fully filled in
10 minutes?
(a) 4 times the draining rate
(b) 3 times the draining rate
(c) 2.5 times the draining rate
(a) 0 (b) 3 (d) 2 times the draining rate
(c) 4 (d) 5
3.2 Time and Work
2013 From the given data, we can conclude that the

fuel consumed per kilometre was least during
8. A tourist covers half of his journey by train at
the lap
60 km/h, half of the remainder by bus at 30 km/h
and the rest by cycle at 10 km/h. The average (a) P
speed of the tourist in km/h during his entire (b) Q
journey is (c) R
(a) 36 (b) 30 (d) S
(c) 24 (d) 18 2010
9. A car travels 8 km in the first quarter of an hour, 11. 5 skilled workers can build a wall in 20 days;
6 km in the second quarter and 16 km in the third 8 semi-skilled workers can build a wall in 25 days;
quarter. The average speed of the car in km per 10 unskilled workers can build a wall in 30 days.
hour over the entire journey is If a team has 2 skilled, 6 semi-skilled and
(a) 30 (b) 36 5 unskilled workers, how long will it take to build
(c) 40 (d) 24 the wall?
(a) 20 days
2011
(b) 18 days
10. The fuel consumed by a motorcycle during a (c) 16 days
journey while traveling at various speeds is (d) 15 days
indicated in the graph below.
2015
1. A tiger is 50 leaps of its own behind a deer. The
tiger takes 5 leaps per minute to the deer’s 4. If
the tiger and the deer cover 8 metre and 5 metre
per leap respectively, what distance in meters
will the tiger have a run before it catches the
deer?
2014
2. A man can row at 8 km per hour in still water. If
The distances covered during four laps of the it takes him thrice as long to row upstream, as
journey are listed in the table below to row downstream, then find the stream velocity
in km per hour.
Lap Distance Average speed
3. A train that is 280 metres long, travelling at a
(kilometers) (kilometers
uniform speed, crosses a platform in 60 seconds
per hour) and passes a man standing on the platform in
P 15 15 20 seconds. What is the length of the platform in
metres?
Q 75 45
R 40 75
S 10 10
ANSWERS
MCQ Type Questions
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (d)
1. (800) 2. (4) 3. (560 to 560)
Time and Work 3.3
EXPLANATIONS
4th sec  triangle
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS
1
1. Q can finish 1 day’s 1 hour’s work = 1 2  1
2
1 1 5th sec  straight line
= 
25  12 300 =0
R can finish 1 day’s 1 hour’s work
6 sec  triangle
th
1
= 1 1
50  12 = 11 
2 2
1 7th sec  triangle
=
600
1 1
Now Q working hours =11 
2 2
= (7 – 2)  12
Total Odometer reading at 7 seconds
= 60 hr
1 1 1 1
 R working hours = 7  18 = 126 =  1 1 1  0   m
2 2 2 2
After 7 days, the ratio of work done by Q & R is
=5m
Q :R
So, the odometer reading is increased by 5 m.
60 126
:
300 600
Q : R = 120 : 126 12
= 20 : 21 6. For M = 0.6
20
2. M is twice as efficient as E but worked for half as 25
many days. So in this case they will do equal work N = 0.55
45
if their shifts had same timings. But M’s shift is
45
for 6 hours, while E’s shift for 12 hours. Hence, E O = 0.6
will do twice the work as M. 75
57
Ratio of contribution of M : E in work is 1 : 2. P = 0.57
100
120
3. Here the speed of first train (S1) =  12 m/s 7. Vhalf = 30(s) drawing rate = s
10
Total volume = 60 S tank
150
and the speed of second train (S2) =  10 m/s (s1)(10) – (s)10 = 30s
15
s1(s) – s = 3s
 The magnitude of difference in the speeds of
two trains = (S1 – S2) = (12 – 10) m/s = 2 m/s s1 = 4s
4. From the given figure. s1 = 4 drawing rate
The odometer reading increases from starting 8. Given: A tourist covers half the journey at 60 km/h,
point to end point. one fourth at 30 km/h and the remaining one fourth
at 10 km/h
Odometer reading = Area of the given diagram
To find: Avearge speed of the whole journey.
Area of the velocity and time graph per second
Analysis: One approach to this is to find individual
1st sec  triangle time consumed in each of the three parts and use
1 1 that value to get total time, and find average speed.
= 11 
2 2 So,
2 sec  square
nd
Lets assume total length of journey = x km
=11=1  First phase at 60 km/h
3rd sec  square + triangle Distance x 1 x
Time t1 = = = h
1 1 Speed 2 60 120
= 11  11 = 1
2 2
3.4 Time and Work
Second phase at 30 km/h So part of work done in 1 day by 2 skilled, 6 semi-

x skilled and 5 unskilled
Distance = km
4 2 6 5 1
=   =
x x 100 200 300 15
Time t2 = =
4.30 120 So work done by given workers in days = 15
Third phase at 10 km/h
x
Distance = km 1. Tiger – 1 leap  8 meter
4
x x Speed = 5 leap/hr = 40m/min
Time t3 = = h
4.10 40 Deer  1 leap = 5 meter
x x x x 1 1  speed = 4hr = 20m/min
 Total time =   =    1
120 120 40 40  3 3  Let at time ‘t’ the tiger catches the deer.
x (1  1  3) 5x  Distance travelled by deer + initial distance
= =
40 3 120 between them
Total Distance 50 × 8  400m = distance covered by tiger.
 Average speed =
Total time
 40 × t = 400 + 20t
x  120
= = 24 km/h 400
5x  t = 20 min
200
Hence, the answer is (c)
 total distance  400 + 20 × t = 800 m
Total distance
9. Average Speed = 2. Speed of man = 8;
total time taken
8  6  16 30  60 Left distance = d
Total Distance = 
15  15  15 45 d
Time taken =
= 40km/h. 8
Upstream: Speed of stream = s
10. Fuel consumption Actual
 speed upstream = S’ = (8 – s)
15 1
P 60 km/l  l
60 4  d 
t =  
75 5 8s
Q 90 km/l  l
90 6 Downstream:
40 8
R 75 km/l  l d
75 15 Given speed downstream = t =
8s
10 1
S 30 km/l  l 3d d
30 3  3t = t  =
8s 8s
11. 5 skilled workers build wall in 20 days
3d d
1 skilled worker build wall in 20  5 days  =
8s 8s
Hence in 1 day, part of work done by skilled work  s = 4 km/hr
1 3. Let the length of platform = x.m
=
100 and train length = 280 m (given)
Similarly in 1 day part of work done by semi-
According to Question
skilled workers
1 x  280 280
= =
25  8 60 20
and in 1 day part of work done by un-skilled worker  x = 560 m.
1
=
30  10
Ratio, Proportion and Mixtures 4.1
4
C HAPTER
Ratio, Proportion
and Mixtures
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS

2015
1. A cube of side 3 units is formed using a set of smaller cubes of side 1 unit. Find the proportion of the number
of faces of the smaller cubes visible to those which are NOT visible.
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 2 : 3
2011
2. A container originally contains 10 litres of pure spirit. From this container 1 litre of spirit is replaced with
1 litre of water. Subsequently, 1 litre of the mixture is again replaced with 1 litre of water and this process is
repeated one more time. How much spirit is now left in the container?
(a) 7.58 litres
(b) 7.84 litres
(c) 7 litres
(d) 7.29 litres
ANSWERS
MCQ Type Questions
1. (c) 2. (d)
4.2 Ratio, Proportion and Mixtures
EXPLANATIONS
Number of faces per cube = 6
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS
Total number of cubes = 9  3 = 27
1.
 Total number of faces = 27  6 = 162
 Total number of non visible faces = 162 – 54 = 108
Number of visible faces 54 1

 = =
Number of non visible faces 108 2
3 3
 10–1  9 729
2. 10 
 10 
= 10   =
 10  1000
729
  1 = 7.29 litres
1000

Permutations and Combinations & Probability 5.1
5
CHAPTER
Permutations and Combinations
& Probability
6. Ram and Ramesh appeared in an interview for
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS
two vacancies in the same department. The
2016 probability of Ram’s selection is 1/6 and that of
1. Shaquille O’ Neal is a 60% career free throw Ramesh is 1/8. What is the probability that only
one of them will be selected?
shooter, meaning that he successfully makes 60
47 1
free throws out of 100 attempts on average. What (a) (b)
48 4
is the probability that he will successfully make
13 35
exactly 6 free throws in 10 attempts? (c) (d)
48 48
(a) 0.2508 (b) 0.2816
7. Given set A = {2, 3, 4, 5} and Set B = {11, 12, 13,
(c) 0.2934 (d) 0.6000 14, 15}, two numbers are randomly selected, one
from each set. What is probability that the sum
2015
of the two numbers equals 16 ?
2. Four cards are randomly selected from a pack of
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.25
52 cards. If the first two cards are kings, what is
(c) 0.30 (d) 0.33
the probability that the third card is a king?
8. The probabilities that a student passes in
(a) 4/52 (b) 2/50
Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry are m, p
(c) 1/52  (1/52) (d) 1/52  (1/52)  (1/50) and c respectively. Of these subjects, the student
3. Five teams have to compete in a league, with has 75% chance of passing in at least one, a 50%
every team playing every other team exactly once, chance of passing in at least two and a 40% chance
before going to the next round. How many of passing in exactly two. Following relations are
matches will have to be held complete the league drawn in m, p.c:
round of matches? 27 13
I. p + m + c = II. p + m + c =
(a) 20 (b) 10 20 20
(c) 8 (d) 5 1
III. (p)  (m)  (c) =
4. Right triangle PQR is to be constructed in the 10
xy – plane so that the right angle is at P and line (a) Only relation I is true.
PR is parallel to the-axis. The x and y coordinates (b) Only relation II is true.
of P, Q, and R are to be integers that satisfy the (c) Relations II and III are true.
inequalities: –4  x  5 and 6  y  16. How many (d) Relations I and III are true.
different triangles could be constructed with these 2014
properties?
9. A five digit number is formed using the digits
(a) 110 (b) 1,100
1,3,5,7 and 9 without repeating any of them. What
(c) 9,900 (d) 10,000 is the sum of all such possible five digit numbers?
5. A coin is tossed thrice. Let X be the event that (a) 6666660 (b) 6666600
head occurs in each of the first two tosses. Let Y
(c) 6666666 (d) 6666606
be the event that a tail occurs on the third toss.
Let Z be the event that two tails occurs in three 10. You are given three coins: one has heads on both
tosses. Based on the above information, which faces, the second has tails on both faces, and the
third has a head on one face and a tail on the
one of the following statements is TRUE?
other. You choose a coin at random and toss it,
(a) X and Y are not independent and it comes up heads. The probability that the
(b) Y and Z are dependent other face is tails is
(c) Y and Z are independent (a) 1/4 (b) 1/3
(d) X and Z independent (c) 1/2 (d) 2/3
5.2 Permutations and Combinations & Probability
2013 2010
11. Out of all the 2-digit integers between 1 and 100, 15. Given digits 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4 how many
a 2-digit number has to be selected at random. distinct 4 digit numbers greater than 3000 can be
What is the probability that the selected number formed?
is not divisible by 7? (a) 50 (b) 51
(a) 13/90 (b) 12/90 (c) 52 (d) 54
(c) 78/90 (d) 77/90 NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS
12. What is the chance that a leap year, selected at
random, will contain 53 Saturdays? 2015
(a) 2/7 (b) 3/7 1. How many four digit numbers can be formed with
the 10 digits 0, 1, 2, ..... 9 if no number can start
(c) 1/7 (d) 5/7
with 0 and if repetitions are not allowed?
13. In a factory, two machines M1 and M2
manufacture 60% and 40% of the autocomponents 2014
respectively. Out of the total production, 2% of 2. In any given year, the probability of an
M1 and 3% of M2 are found to be defective. If a earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring
randomly drawn autocomponent from the in the Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average
combined lot is found defective, what is the time between successive occurrences of such
probability that it was manufactured by M2? earthquakes is _____ years.
(a) 0.35 (b) 0.45 3. 10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A new
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.4 diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available; this
2012 kit correctly identifies HIV+ individuals 95% of
the time, and HIV– individuals 89% of the time. A
14. A and B are friends. They decide to meet between particular patient is tested using this kit and is
1 PM and 2 PM on a given day. There is a condition
that whoever arrives first will not wait for the found to be positive. The probability that the
other for more than 15 minutes. The probability individual is actually positive is ______
that they will meet on that day is 4. A batch of one hundred bulbs is inspected by
1 1 testing four randomly chosen bulbs. The batch is
(a) (b)
4 16 rejected if even one of the bulbs is defective. A
7 9 batch typically has five defective bulbs. The
(c) (d)
16 16 probability that the current batch is accepted
is 
ANSWERS
MCQ Type Questions
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b)

1. 4536 2. (25 to 25) 3. (0.47 to 0.48) 4. (0.8145)
Permutations and Combinations & Probability 5.3
EXPLANATIONS
9. The digit in unit place is selected in 4! Ways
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS
The digit in tens place is selected in 4! Ways
1. The question clearly explains that shaquille
The digit in hundreds place is selected in 4! Ways
makes 60 free throws out of 100
The digit in thousands place is selected in 4! Ways
60
Hence, Probability of free throw =  0.6 The digit in ten thousands place is selected in 4!
100
Ways
And probability of NOT free throw
Sum of all values for 1
= 1 – 0.6 = 0.4
4!  1  (100 + 101 + 102 + 103 +104)
So required probability of exactly 6 throws in
= 4!  11111  1
10 attempts will be given by
Similarly for ‘3’ 4!  (11111)  3
10
C6 0.66  0.44 = 0.2508
Similarly for ‘5’ 4!  (11111) 5
Similarly for ‘7’ 4!  (11111)  7
2. There are 4 kings in a pack of 52 cards.
Similarly for ‘9’ 4!  (11111)  9
If 2 cards are selected and both are kings,
remaining cards will be 50 out of which 2 will be  sum of all such numbers
kings. 4! (11111) (1+ 3 + 5 + 7 + 9)
3. For a match to be played, we need 2 teams = 24  (11111)  25
No. of matches = No. of ways of selections 2 teams = 6666600
out of 5
1
10. The probability that the other face is tail is .
= 5 C2 = 10 3
5. x = {HHT, HHH} 11. Given: All the 2-digit numbers
y depends on x To find: Probability of selecting a number at
z = {TTH, TTT} random not divisible by 7
Analysis: Total number of 2-digit numbers
 ‘d’ is the correct choice.
10, 11, ....., 99  90 numbers
6. P (Ram) = 1/6; p(Ramesh) = 1/8
Unfavourable numbers i.e. numbers divisible by
p(only at) = p (Ram) × p (not ramesh) + p(Ramesh)
× p(n0 × Ram) 7 : 14, 21, ......., 98
7 1 5 Number of unfavourable numbers = 13
= 1   
6 8 8 6 This can be hand counted or we can use the
12 1 following properties:
 
40 4 Last term= First time + (no. – 1) Diff
98 = 14 + (no. – 1) 7
7. Here the given sets are
 no. = 13
A = {2, 3, 4, 5}
and B = {11, 12, 13, 14, 15} Total – unfavourable
 Probability =
Total
desired outcome = {(2, 14), (3, 13), (4, 12), (5, 11)}
90  13
 n(E) = 4 = = 77/90
90
and total outcome = 4  5 = 20
Hence, the solution is (d)
 n(s) = 20
12. at a leap year
 Probability of an event
52 weeks, and 2 extra day they are (Mon, Tues)
n(E) (Tues, Wed) (Wed Thu.) (Thus. Fri) (Fri. Sat) (Sat.
=
n(s) Sun) (Sun Mond.)
4 1 n(s) = 7
= = = 0.2
20 5 2
n(E) = 2 P(E) =
7
5.4 Permutations and Combinations & Probability
14.
1. In thousands place, 9 digits except 0 can be placed
In hundreds place, 9 digits can be placed (including
0, excluding the one used in thousands place)
In tens place, 8 digits can be placed (excluding the
ones used in thousands and hundreds place)
In ones place, 7 digits can be placed (excluding the
one used in thousands, hundreds and tens place)
OB is the line when both A and B arrive at same
Total number of combinations
time.
= 9  9  8  7 = 4536
Total sample sapce = 60  60 = 3600
Favourable cases = Area of OABC – 2(Area of SRC) 2. Given, in one year, probability of an earthquake
> 6 magnitude = 0.04
1 
= 3600 – 2    45  45  So, average time between successive earthquakes
2 
= 1/0.04 = 25 years
= 1575
3. Given, 10% of the population is HIV + ,
1575 7
 Required probability = = so probability = 0.1 for HIV+ and 0.9 for HIV–
3600 16
The diagnostic kit identifies  0.95 HIV+ and 0.89
15. 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4 x > 3000 HIV– correctly
322 — 3, 4 344 — 2, 3, 4 So, the required probability that the person is
323 — 2, 3, 4 422 — 3, 4 actually HIV+ = 0.95/2 = 0.475
324 — 2, 3, 4 423 — 2, 3, 4 4. Probability for one bulb to be non-defective is
332 — 2, 3, 4 424 — 2, 3, 4 95
333 — 2, 4 432 — 2, 3, 4 100
334 — 2, 3, 4 433 — 2, 3, 4  Probabilities that none of the bulbs is
342 — 2, 3, 4 434 — 2, 3, 4 4
95 
343 — 2, 3, 4 442 — 2, 3, 4 defectives   = 0.8145
 100 
443 — 2, 3, 4
444 — 2, 3, 4
Miscellaneous 6.1
6
CHAPTER Miscellaneous
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS 6. Which of the following curves represents the
  sin x   
2016 function y = ln  e  
 for x < 2 ?
 
1. In a 2  4 rectangle grid shown below, each cell is  
a rectangle. How many rectangles can be Here, x represents the abscissa and y represents
observed in the grid? the ordinate.
(a)
(a) 21 (b) 27
(c) 30 (d) 36
2.
(b)
(c)
Choose the correct expression for f(x) given in
the graph.
(a) f(x) = 1 – |x – 1| (b) f(x) = 1 + |x – 1|
(c) f(x) = 2 – |x – 1| (d) f(x) = 2 + |x – 1|
3. The volume of a sphere of diameter 1 unit is
________ than the volume of a cube of side 1 unit.
(a) least (b) less
(c) lesser (d) low (d)
4. A window is made up of a square portion and an
equilateral triangle portion above it. The base of
the triangular portion coincides with the upper
side of the square. If the perimeter of the window
is 6 m, the area of the window in m2 is .
(a) 1.43 (b) 2.06
(c) 2.68 (d) 2.88
5. The binary operation is defined as a b = ab +
(a + b), where a and b are any two real numbers. 7. Given (9 inches)1/2 = (0.25 yards)1/2, which one of
the following statements is TRUE?
The value of the identity element of this operation,
defined as the number x such that a x = a, for (a) 3 inches = 0.5 yards
any a, is . (b) 9 inches = 1.5 yards
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 9 inches = 0.25 yards
(c) 2 (d) 10 (d) 81 inches = 0.0625 yards
6.2 Miscellaneous
8. The Venn diagram shows the preference of the 17. Based on the given statements, select the most
student population for leisure activities. appropriate option to solve the given question.
What will be the total weight of 10 poles each of
Read Watch TV same weight?
books
12
Statements:
13 19
(I) One fourth of the weight of a pole is 5 kg
7
44 17 (II) The total weight of these poles is 160 kg more
than the total weight of two poles.
15 (a) Statement II alone is not sufficient
(b) Statement II alone is not sufficient
Play sports
(c) Either I or II alone is sufficient
From the data given, the number of students who (d) Both statements I and II together are not
like to read books or play sports is ____. sufficient.
18. Consider a function f(x) = 1 – x on –1 x 1. The
(a) 44 (b) 51 (c) 79 (d) 108
value of x at which the function attains a maximum,
9. A wire of length 340 mm is to be cut into two and the maximum value of function are:
parts. One of the parts is to be made into a square (a) 0, –1 (b) –1, 0
and the other into a rectangle where sides are in
(c) 0, 1 (d) –1, 2
the ratio of 1:2. What is the length of the side of
the square (in mm) such that the combined area 19. In a triangle PQR, PS is the angle bisector of
of the square and the rectangle is a MINIMUM? QPR and QPS = 60. What is the length of PS?
(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 120 (d) 180 q  r P
(a)
10. Find the area bounded by the lines 3x + 2y = 14, qr
2x – 3y = 5 in the first quadrant qr
(b)  q  r  r q
(a) 14.95 (b) 15.25 (c) 15.70 (d) 20.35
11. A straight line is fit to a data set (ln x, y). This line (c) q 2
 r2 
intercepts the abscissa at ln x = 0.1 and has a slope
q  r s
2
of –0.02. What is the value of y at x = 5 from the fit?
(d) Q R
(a) –0.030 (b) –0.014 (c) 0.014 (d) 0.030 qr p
12. A square pyramid has a base perimeter x, and 20. Based on the given statements, select the most
the slant height is half of the perimeter. What is appropriate option to solve the given question.
the lateral surface area of the pyramid? If two floors in a certain building are 9 feet apart,
how many steps are there in a set of stairs that
(a) x2 (b) 0.75 x2 (c) 0.50 x2 (d) 0.25 x2
extends from the first floor to the second floor of
2015 the building?
Statements:
5 1
13. If log x     , then the value of x is I. Each step is ¾ foot high.
7 3
II. Each step is 1 foot wide.
343 125 25 49
(a) (b) (c)  (d)  (a) Statement I alone is sufficient, but
125 343 49 25 statement II alone is not sufficient.
14. A function f(x) is linear and has a value of 29 at
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient, but statementI
x = – 2 and 39 at x = 3. Find its value at x = 5. alone is not sufficient.
(a) 59 (b) 45 (c) 43 (d) 35 (c) Both statements together are sufficient, but
15. If x > y > I, which of the following must be true? neither statement alone is sufficient.
(i) ln x > ln y (ii) ex > ey (d) Statement I and II together are not sufficient.
(iii) yx > xy (iv) cos x > cos y 2014
(a) i and ii (b) i and iii 21. If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3
(c) iii and iv (d) ii and iv (a) passes through x = 0, y = 0
16. log tan1+ log tan2 +------+ log tan89 is ____. (b) has a slope of +1
(c) is parallel to the x-axis
(a) 1 (b) 1 2 (c) 0 (d) –1
(d) has a slope of –1
Miscellaneous 6.3
22. Let f(x, y) = xnym = P. If x is doubled and y is number of weighings required to identify the
halved, the new value of f is heavier bag is
(a) 2n–m P (b) 2m–n P (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 8
(c) 2(n – m) P (d) 2(m – n) P 2011
23. A regular die has six sides with numbers 1 to 6 31. If log (P) = (1/2) Log (Q) = (1/3) Log (R), then
marked on its sides. If a very large number of which of the following options is TRUE?
throws show the following frequencies of
(a) P2 = Q3 R2 (b) Q2 = PR
occurrence: 1  0.167; 2  0.167; 3  0.152;
4  0.166; 5  0.168; 6  0.180. We call this die (c) Q2 = R3 P (d) R = P2 Q2
(a) irregular (b) biased 32. The variable cost (V) of manufacturing a product
(c) Gaussian (d) insufficient varies according to the equation V = 4q, where q
is the quanity produced. The fixed cost (F) of
24. Consider the equation : (7526)8 – (Y)8 = (4364)8,
production of same product reduces with q
where (X)N stands for X to the base N. Find Y.
according to the equation F = 100/q. How many
(a) 1634 (b) 1737 (c) 3142 (d) 3162 units should be produced to minimize the total
25. At what time between 6 a.m. and 7 a.m. will the cost (V + F)?
minute hand and hour hand of a clock make an (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 6
angle closest to 60°?
33. Three friends R, S and T shared toffee from a
(a) 6 : 22 a.m. (b) 6 : 27 a.m.
bowl. R took 1/3rd of the toffees, but returned four
(c) 6 : 38 a.m. (d) 6 : 45 a.m. to the bowl. S took 1/4th of what was left but
26. The roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 are real and positive returned three toffees to the bowl. T took half of
a, b and c are real. Then ax2 + b|x| + c = 0 has the remainder but returned two back into the
(a) No roots (b) 2 real roots bowl. If the bowl had 17 toffees left, how many
(c) 3 real roots (d) 4 real roots toffees were originally there in the bowl?
2012 (a) 38 (b) 31 (c) 48 (d) 41
27. The cost function for a product in a firm is given NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS
by 5q2, where q is the amount of production. The 2015
firm can sell the product at a market price of ` 50
per unit. The number of units to be produced by 1. In the given figure angle Q is a right angle, PS :
the firm such that the profit is maximized is QS = 3:1, RT : QT = 5:2 and PU : UR = 1:1. If area
of triangle QTS is 20 cm2, then the area of triangle
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 25 PQR in cm2 is ______.
28. Which of the following assertions are CORRECT ?
P : Adding 7 to each entry in a list adds 7 to the
mean of the list
Q : Adding 7 to each entry in a list adds 7 to the
standard deviation of the list
R : Doubling each entry in a list doubles the
mean of the list 2. If p, q, r, s are distinct integers such that:
S : Doubling each entry in a list leaves the f (p, q, r, s) = max (p, q, r, s)
standard deviation of the list unchanged g (p, q, r, s) = min (p, q, r, s)
(a) P, Q (b) Q, R (c) P, R (d) R, S h (p, q, r, s) = remainder of (p  q)/(r  s) if
29. A political party orders an arch for the entrance (p  q) > (r  s) or remainder of (r  s)/(p  q) if
to the ground in which the annual convention is (r  s) > (p  q)
being held. The profile of the arch follows the Also a function fgh (p, q, r, s) = f(p, q, r, s)
equation y = 2x – 0.1x2 where y is the height of  g(p, q, r, s)  h(p, q, r, s)
the arch in meters. The maximum possible height Also the same operations are valid with two
of the arch is variable function of the form f(p, q).
(a) 8 meters (b) 10 meters What is the value of fg (h(2, 5, 7, 3), 4, 6, 8
(c) 12 meters (d) 14 meters 2014
30. There are eight bags of rice looking alike, seven 3. When a point inside of a tetrahedron (a solid with
of which have equal weight and one is slightly four triangular surfaces) is connected by straight
heavier. The weighing balance is of unlimited lines to its corners, how many (new) internal
capacity. Using this balance, the minimum planes are created with these lines? _________.
6.4 Miscellaneous
ANSWERS
MCQ Type Questions
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c)
1. 280 2. (8) 3. (6)
EXPLANATIONS
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS 4. The possible window will be as follows :
1. In the given 2  4 rectangle grid, the following

type of rectangles are present.
One figured rectangles = 8
Two figured rectangles = 10
Three figured rectangles = 4
Four figured rectangles = 5
Six figured rectangles = 2 Perimeter of window = 5x = 6m
Eight figured rectangles = 1 x = 1.2 m
 Total number of rectangles So area of window = Area of triangle + Area of square
= 8 + 10 + 4 + 5 + 2 + 1 = 30
3 2
So the number of rectangles observed in the given = x  x2
grid is 30. 4
3
2. From the given graph function f(x) must be equals = (1.2)2  (1.2)2 = 2.06 m2
to zero at x = 3. 4
From Option A : 5. The binary operation is defined
f(x) = 1 – |x – 1|  a b = ab + (a + b)
at x =3 a x=a
f(x) = 1 – |3 – 1| = 1 – 2 = – 1  From the equation ‘b’ is the variable
So, it is false Option A: x = 0
From Option B : a o = a  0 + (a + 0) = 0 + a = a
Option B: x = 1
f(x) = 1 + |x – 1|
a 1 = a  1 + (a + 1) = a + a + 1 = 2a + 1
at x =3
Option C: x = 2
f(x) = 1 + |3 – 1| = 1 + 2 = 3
a 2  a  2 + (a + 2) = 2a + a + 2 = 3a+ 2
So, it is false
Option D: x = 10
From Option C :
a 10  a  10 + (a + 10) = 10a + a + 10
f(x) = 2 – |x – 1|
= 11a + 10
at x =3
 Option ‘A’ only True.
f(x) = 2 – |3 – 1| = 2 – 2 = 0
7. (9 inches)1/2 = (0.25 yards)1/2,
So, it is true.
Solving we get 9 inch = 0.25 yards
From Option D :
(since 1 inch = 0.028 yard)
f(x) = 2 + |x – 1| 8. Given Venn diagram is
at x =3 Read Watch TV
f(x) = 2 – |3 – 1| = 2 + 2 = 4 books
13 12
So, it is false.
7
Hence the correct expression for f(x) given in the 44 17
graph is 2 – |x – 1|.
15
3. ‘Lesser than’ is apt because the sentence should
be in comparative degree. Play sports
Miscellaneous 6.5
The number of students who like to read books 18. The given function is
or play sports f (x) = 1 – x on –1  x  1
= 13 + 12 + 44 + 7 + 15 + 17 = 108 In order to find maximum and minimum value of
function in interval [–1, 1]
 14  At x = –1, f (–1) = 1– –1 = 1–1 = 0
10. A =  ,0 
 3  At x = –0.5, f (–0.5) = 1– –0.5 =1–0.5 = 0.5
B = [0, 7], At x = 0, f (0) = 1– 0 = 1
5  At x = 0.5, f (0.5) = 1– 0.5 = 0.5
C =  ,0  At x = 1, f (l) = 1– 1 = 1–1 = 0
2 
 Hence, maximum value occurs at x = 0 and
 5  its maximum value is 1.
D = 0, 
 3   Option (c) is correct.
E = [4, 1], dy
21. y = 5x2 + 3, = 10x
dx
F = [0, 1]
 dy 
Required area = Area of  BFE + Area of Slope of tangent =   = 10  0 = 0
quadrilateral FEOC  dx  x  0, y  3
1 1 Slope = 0
=  4  6   (4  2.5)  1  tangent is parallel to x-axis.
2 2
1 m
= 2  6   6.5 1
2 22. P  = 2n X n   y m
2
= 12 + 3.25 = 15.25 sq. units
So, the area bounded by the given lines is = 2n–m XnYm = 2n–m P
15.25 sq. units. 23. For a very large number of throws, the
11. The equation of a straight line is frequency should be same for unbiased throw.
As it not same, then the die is baised.
y = mx + c
24. (7526)8 – (y)8 = (4364)8
m = slope = – 0.02
 y8 = (7526)8 – (4364)8
set (log x, y)
Now, the line intercepts the abscissa at 4 (8 + 2=10)
7 5 2 6
log x = 0.1
4 3 6 4
So, at abscissa y = 0
3 1 4 2
 y = mx + c When we have base 8, we borrow 8 instead of 10
0 = – 0.02  0.1 + c as done in normal subtraction.
 c = 0.002 25. 12
11 1
y = mx + c
y = – 0.02  1og x + c 10 2
At x =5
 y = – 0.02  log 5 + 0.002 = – 0.030 9 3
So, the value of y is – 0.030.
3 8 4
5 7 7 343
13. = x–1/3  = x1/3    = x x =
7 5 5 125 7 5
6
14. f(x) = 2x + 33 = 2 (5) + 33 = 43 From option
15. For whole numbers, greater the value greater At 6 a.m.
will be its log.
Both hand – 180 aparts,
Same logic for power of e.
At 6 : 20 a.m. – both hand apart
16. log tan 1 + log tan 89 = log(tan 1 tan 89)  180 + 10 – 120 = 70
= log(tan 1 cot 1) At 6 : 22 a.m. – both hand apart
= log 1 = 0  180 + 12 – 132 = 60 (closest)
Using the same logic total sum is ‘0’.
6.6 Miscellaneous
2
26. ax + bx + c = 0 32. Checking with all options in formula: (4q+100/q)
Roots are real and positive i.e. (V+F). Option (a) gives the minimum cost.
 b2 – 4ac > 0 33. Let total number of toffees in bowl be x
By the above condition we get two positive real 1
roots R took of toffees and returned 4 to the bowl
3
Now, ax2 + b|x| + c = 0 1
This can be written as;  Number of toffees with R = x – 4
3
ax2 + bx + c 2
 = b2 – 4ac > 0 Remaining of toffees in bowl = x+4
3
Now for ax2 – bx + c 12 
Number of toffees with S =  x  4  – 3
(–b)2 – 4ac 43 
 b2 – 4ac 32 
2 Remaining toffees in bowl =  x  4   4
Again b – 4ac > 0 43 
So again we get real roots 132  
Thus we have 4 real roots of ax2 + b|x| + c = 0 Number of toffees with T =   x  4   4   2
2 43  
27. P = 50q – 5q2 Remaining toffees in bowl
dp d2 p 1 3  2  
= 50 – 10q; <0 =   x  4  4  + 2
dq dq2 2 4  3  
 p is maximum at 50 – 10q = 0 or, q = 5 1 3  2  
Else check with options Given :   x  4  4  + 2 = 17
2 4  3 
28. P and R always holds true
32 
Else consider a sample set {1, 2, 3, 4} and check    x  4 = 27
4 3
accordingly
 x = 48
dy d2 y NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS
29. y = 2x – 0.1x2; = 2 – 0.2x; <0
dx dx2
1. Let area of triangle PQR be ‘A’
 y maximises at 2 – 0.2x = 0
SQ 1 1
 x = 10  =
PQ 1  3 4
 y = 20 – 10 = 10m
30. Let us categorize bags in three groups as QT 2 2
 =
A 1 A2 A3 B 1 B2 B3 C1 C2 QR 2  5 7
st
1 weighing A vs B
Case-1 Case-2  Area of QTS = 1  SQ  QT
2
A 1 A2 A3 = B1 B2 B3 A 1 A2 A3  B1 B2 B3
Then either C1 or C2 is Either A or B would be 1 1  2 
=   PQ    QR 
heavier heavier (Say A > B) 2 4  7 
nd
2 weighing
1 2 1 
C1 vs C2 A1 vs A2 =     PQ  QR 
4 7 2 
If C1 > C2, then C1 If A1 = A2, then A3
If C1 < C2, then C2 If A1 > A2, then A1 1
=  Area of PQR
If A1 < A2, then A2 14
1 1
31. log P = log Q Given 20 cm2 = A
2 14
 A = 14 20 = 280 cm2
1
= log (R) = k 2. fg(h(2, 5, 7, 3), 4, 6, 8) = fg(1, 4, 6, 8)
3
= f(1, 4, 6, 8)  g(1, 4, 6, 8)
 P = bk, Q = b2k, R = b3k =81=8
Hence, Q2 = b4k = b3k bk = PR

Engineering Mathematics
Linear Algebra 1.1
1
C HAPTER Linear Algebra
2016 7. The solution for the following set of equations
1. The positive Eigen value of the following matrix is,
is_________. 5x + 4y + 10z = 13
2 1  x + 3y + z = 7
5 2  4x – 2y + z = 0
 
2. The value of determinant A given below (a) x = 2, y = 1, z = 1
is __________ . (b) x = 1, y = 2, z = 0
 5 16 81  (c) x = 1, y = 0, z = 2
 
A= 
0 2 2 (d) x = 0, y = 1, z = 2
 0 0 16 
  8. The solution to the following set of equations is
2015 2x + 3y = 4
3. 2x1 + x2 = 3 4x + 6y = 0
5x1 + bx2 = 7.5 (a) x = 0, y = 0
The system of linear equations in two variables (b) x = 2, y = 0
shown above will have infinite solutions, if and (c) 4x = – 6y
only if, b is equal to _____.
(d) No solution
 4 2 2013
4. If A = 1 3 , then A2 + 3A will be
 
1 1  2 1  3 0 
30 20  28 10  9. If P = 2 2 ,Q= 2 2 and R= 1 3 which one
(a)   (b)        
10 20   4 18 
of the following statements is TRUE?
31 13  20 10  (a) PQ = PR
(c)   (d)  
 7 21  5 15  (b) QR= RP
5. What are the eigenvalues of the following matrix? (c) QP = RP
 1 1 (d) PQ = QR
 2 4 
  10 4 
(a) 2 and 3 10. One of the eigen values of P = 18 12 is
 
(b) –2 and 3
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 2 and –3
(c) 6 (d) 8
(d) –2 and –3
11. The solution of the following set of equations is
2014 x + 2y + 3z = 20
1 4  7x + 3y + z = 13
6. The eigenvalues of A = 2 3 are
  x + 6y + 2z = 0
(a) 2 ± i (a) x = – 2, y = 2, z = 8
(b) –1, –2 (b) x = 2, y = –3, z = 8
(c) –1 ± 2i (c) x = 2, y = 3, z = –8
(d) non-existent (d) x = 8, y = 2, z = –3
1.2 Linear Algebra
2012 2011
12. What is the rank of the following matrix? 13. Value of the determinant mentioned below is
 5 3 1  1 0 1 0
 
 6 2 4  4 7 0 2
 14 10 0  1 1 1 1
 
(a) 0 (b) 1 2 0 2 1
(c) 2 (d) 3 (a) 24 (b) –30
(c) –24 (d) –10
ANSWERS
1. (3.0 : 3.0) 2. (160.0 : 160.0) 3. (2.5) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b)
8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
2 1  1 0   0   1 1   0  1 –  1 
1. A= ;I 0 1  ; I  0   5. A –  = 0    – 0   =  –2 4 –  
5 2       –2 4     
 |A – I| = 0  (1 –) (4 –) – (–2) (1) = 0
2   1   2 – 5 + 6 = 0
 A – I = 
 5 2     2 – 3 – 2 + 6 = 0
= – (2 – ) (2 + ) – 5 = –(4 – 2) – 5  ( – 2) (– 3) = 0
= 2 – 4 – 5 = 2 – 9   = 2,  = 3
 |A – I| = 0 = 2 – 9 = 0 2 = 9 6. For Eigen value
  = ± 3 & +ve Eigen Value = + 3 A –I = 0
4 
A= 
2. Determinent A. 1
Here
2 3 
 5 16 81  
A =  0 2 2  1 4    0  1   4 
Now A –I =   =
 0 0 16 
  2 3   0    2 3   
= 5(32 – 0) – 16 (0 – 0) + 81 (0 – 0) = 160. Now A – I = 0
3. The two equations gives the same line then we 1   4 
  2 =0
have infinite solution.  3   
4 2   4 2   – (1 – ) (3 + ) + 8 = 0
4. A2 =     (1 – ) (3 + ) – 8 = 0
1 3   1 3 
 3 – 2 –2 – 8 = 0
 4  4  2  1 4  2  2 3 
=    2 + 2+ 5 = 0
1  4  3  1 1  2  3  3 
2  4  4(1)(5)
18 14   =
=  , 2
 7 11
2  4  20
12 6  =
3A =   2
 3 9
2  16i2 2  4 i
18  12 14  6  = =
2 2
A2 + 3A =  
 7  3 11  9  = –1  2i
30 20  1 4 
=   Hence the Eigen value of A =   is  = –1  2i
10 20   2 3 
Linear Algebra 1.3
7. 5x + 4y + 10z = 13 (i) 10 – 4 
10. Given, P =  
x + 3y + z = 7 (ii) 18 –12 
4x – 2y + z = 0 (iii) For a 2  2 matrix, the Eigen values are:
From option
x = 2, y = 1 and z = 1, doesnot satisfy equation (i) λ = ½ {(a11 + a22) + 4 a12 a21   a11 – a22  2 }
Hence option (i) is wrong Therefore,  for the given matrix
From option (b)
x = 1, y = 2, z = 0

=12 (10 – 12)  4   – 4)  18 + 10 + 12  2  
For equation (i) = ½ {(– 2)  –288 + 484 }
5x + 4y + 10z = 5(1) + 4 (2) + 0 = 13 = ½ {(– 2) + 14} = 12/2 = 6
Hence equation (i) is satisfied 11. Given, x + 2y + 3z = 20 ...(i)
For equation (ii) 7x + 3y + z = 13 ...(ii)
x + 3y + z = (1) + 3 (2) + 0 = 7 and x + 6y + 2z = 0 ...(iii)
Hence equation (ii) is satisfied Dividing equation (iii) by 2
For equation (iii) x
 + 3y + z = 0
4x – 2y + z = 4(1) – 2 (2) + 0 = 0 2
Hence all the three equations are satisfied for Equation (ii)
the given value of x, y and z  7x + 3y + z = 13
Hence option (b) is correct. (ii) – (iii)
8. 2x + 3y = 4 (i) 13 x
 = 13
4x + 6y = 0 (ii) 2
From option (a) Or x=2
Equation (i) is not satisfied Putting x = 2 in equation (i)  3
From option (b)  6y + 9z = 54 ...(iv)
Equation (ii) is not satisfied Putting x = 2 in equation (iii)
From option (c)  6y + 2z = – 2 ...(v)
Equation (i) is not satisfied Equation (iv) – (v)
 0 + 7z = 56 or z = 8
Also the given lines are parallel and hence they
donot intersect Putting x = 2 and z = 8 in (iii) we have
2 + 6y + 16 = 0
Hence the given equation has no solution.
 6y = –18  y = – 3
1 1  2 1  3 0 
9. Given, P =   Q=   and R =   x =2; y = – 3; and z = 8
2 2  2 2  1 3 
12. A = 5(0 + 40) – 3(0 + 56) –1(60 – 28)
1 1   2 1  4 3 
PQ=      =  = 200 – 200 = 0
2 2  2 2  8 6 
5 3
But 0
1 1   3 0   4 3  6 2
P R =    = 
2 2  1 3  8 6  Hence rank is 2
Hence PQ =PR 13. The value of determinant is 24.

Calculus 2.1
2
CHAPTER Calculus
2016 6. The graph of the function
1. The value of the integral x
F(x) = for 0 < x <  is
0.9
dx k1 x 2  k2 x  1
 (1  x)(2  x)
0
is ____________.
(a) F(x) (b) F(x)
2015
n
 u
2. The limit of the function  1   as n  is
 n
1/k10.5 x (k1/k2)0.5 x
(a) ln x
1
(b) ln (c) F(x) (d) F(x)
x
(c) e–x
(d) ex
2014 (k1/k2)0.5 x k2
0.5
3. The limit of the function e –2t

sin (t) as t   , is ___
dy 2013
4. If y = xx, then is
dx
y u
7. If u = log (ex + ey), then  =
(a) xx(x – 1) x y
(b) xx–1
(a) ex + ey
(c) xx(1 + log x)
(b) ex – ey
(d) ex(1 + log x)
5. Which of the following statements is true for the 1
(c)
series given below? e  ey
x
(d) 1
1 1 1 1
sn = 1     ... 
2 3 4 n 1
8. Evaluate lim x tan
(a) sn converges to log (n)
x  x
(b) sn converges to n (a)  (b) 1

(c) sn converges to exp(n) (c) 0 (d) -1
(d) sn diverges
2.2 Calculus
ANSWERS
1. (1.65 : 1.75) 2. (d) 3. (0 to 0) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (d)
8. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
 x
n 1 dy x
2.  1   as n   =  log x
 n y dx x
dy
n  n – 1 x2
n
 x n  = y(1 + log x)
 1     ........ dx
n 
x +
 n n2 2i
As ncoefficient in n = 1 dy
 = xx(1 + log x) [ y = xx]
dx
x 2 x3
=1+x+   ...... = ex
2! 3! 5. Sn = 1  1  1  1  .... 1
2 3 4 n
3. lim e2 t sin t = lim sin t The given series is divergent
t  t  l2 t
x
sin t 1  2t  6. The graph of the function f(x) =
= lim   lim 2  k1 x  k2 x  1
2
t  t 2 t  l t
For O < x < 
 sin t 
= 0  lim  0
 t  t  f(x)
4. y=x x
Now taking log on both the side –

log y = log xx
 log y = x log x
Now differentiating w.r.t to x
x
1 dy d d (¼) 0.5
= x log x  log x x
y dx dx dx
Calculus 2.3
x y
7. Given, u = log (e + e ) 8. Lim(x tan1/x), x  α
u u Let x =1/n; So for x α, n 0
Now, +
x y Now, lim(1/n tan n) = lim(Sin n/n Cos n)
=
 
 log e x  e y  +
 
 log e x  e y  = lim{(Sin n)/n}/lim(Cos n)
x y We know lim(Sin n)/n, n0 = 1
and lim(Cos n), n  0 = 1 since Cos 0 = 1

a ex  e y  
 ex  e y 
Therefore, lim{(Sin n)/n}/lim(Cos n) = 1
x y
= +
 e  ey
x
 e x
 ey 
ex ey
= +
e x
 ey  e x
 ey 
ex  e y
= =1
e x
 ey 
Differential Equations 3.1
3
CHAPTER Differential Equations
2016  x2 
c0
1. The Laplace transform F(s) of the function f(t) = c( x, t)  exp   
cos (at), where a is constant, is __________. 2Dt  2Dt 
s2 where D and c0 are assumed to be constant. Which

(a) of the following is correct?
s2  a 2
a c 2 c
(a) D 2
(b) 2
s  a2 t x
s c D  2 c
(c) (b) 
s  a2
2
t 2 x2
s
(d) 2 c 2 c
s  a2
2
(c)  D
t 2 x2
d2 y
2.  y  0. The initial conditions for this second
dx 2 2 c D 2 c
order homogeneous differential equation are y(0) (d) 
t2 2 x2
dy
= 1 and  3 at x = 0 2013
dx
The value of y when x = 2 is ___________. 5. The Laplace transform of f(t) = 2t + 6 is
3. Consider the equation 1 2 3 6
(a)  (b) 
s s2 s s2
aS
V= 6 2 6 2
S2 (c)  2 (d)   2
bS s s s s
c
dy
Given a = 4, b = 1 and c = 9, the positive value of 6. The solution to + y cot x = cosec x is
dx
S at which V is maximum, will be _____.
(a) y = (c + x) cot x
2014 (b) y = (c + x) cosec x
4. The concentration profile of a chemical at a (c) y = (c + x) cosec x cot x
location x and time t, denoted by c(x, t), changes
as per the following equation, cosec x
(d) y = (c + x)
cot x
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (14.55 : 14.75) 3. (3.0 : 3.0) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b)
3.2 Differential Equations
EXPLANATIONS
1. The Laplace Transfer Now, c1 & c2 find by given conditions.
0 o

For y(0) = 1 = c1 e  c 2 e  c1  c 2
e
 st
F(s) = F(t) dt
0  c1 + c 2 = 1 ...(i)
here F(t) = cos (at) dy
For = 3 at x = 0
 dx
e
 st
 F(s) = cos at dt 3 = c 1 e 0 – c2 e 0 = c1 – c 2
0
 c 1 – c2 = 3 ...(ii)
Solving by integration by parts
 From equation (i) & (ii)
s c1 = 2, c2 = – 1
F(s) = 2
s  a2
 y = 2e x  e  x
dx A B Now, value of y when x = 2 is
 (1  x)(2  x) = 
(1  x) (2  x) y = 2e2 – e–2 = 14.643
1 A B aS
 =  ...(i) 3. V=
(1  x)(2  x) (1  x) (2  x) b  S  S2
c
To find A multiply equation (i) with (1 – x)
& put (1 – x) = 0. a  4, b  1,c  9.
 A= 1
36S
To find B multiply equation (i) with (2 – x) &  V= 2 , to become Vmax,
S  9S  9
put (2 – x) = 0.
 B= –1 dV d2 V
0& 0
0.9
dx
0.9
1 1
dS dS2
 
  (1  x)(2  x)
=   (1  x) dx  (2  x) dx 
0 0 dV
Now, =0
0.9 0.9 0.9 0.9
dS
dx dx  1  1 
=  (1  x)   (2  x)   1 log 1  x    log 2  x 
 1 0
0 0 0
(S2  9S  9)(36)  36S(2S  9) 36S2  324
= 2 2
 2
1 1 (S  9s  9) (S  9S  9)2
 
   log ax  b  c 
 ax  b a  i.e. S2 + 9S + 9 – 2S2 – 9S = 0
 – S2 + 9 = 0
=   log 0.1  log1    log1.1  log 2
 S = ± 3.
= [2.303 + 0] – [– 0.0953 + 0.693] = 1.705. Now,
2
d y
2.  y  0, has the solution of type d 2 V (S2  9S  9)2 (72S)  (36S2  324)(2)(2S  9)
dx 2 =
dS2 (S2  95  9)4
m x m x
y = c1 e 1 + c 2 e 2 for S = + 3,
Now, m1 & m2 find by
d2 V d 2S
m2 –1 = 0, m = ± 1, 2
 0.1077  0, for S  3, 2  2.667  0
dS dS
m1 = 1, m2 = – 1
 y = c1ex + c2e–x So, V is maximum when S = + 3.
Differential Equations 3.3
4. Given, concentration profile of a chemical, 5. Given f(t) = 2t + 6
 x2 
Applying the Laplace transform, we have
c0  
 2Dt  L{f(t)} = L(2t) + L(6)
c (x, t) = e
2Dt L(2t) = 2/s2
Now, change in concentration w.r.t. time is L(6) = 6/s
given by Therefore the Laplace transform is 6/s + 2/s2
6. dy/dx + y Cotx = Cosec x
  t 1  2 
c0
  
 x2 
c   To find the solution of the differential equation
t e  2Dt  
=  dy/dx = Cosec x – y Cotx
t 2D t  
 
 dy = Cosecx.dx – yCotx.dx
c c0 t    x 2    2Dt 

 x2    dy =   Cosecx – yCotx  .dx
= 1  2    e
t 2D  t  2Dt    y = log(Cosecx – Cotx) – y log(Sinx) + C
 y = log(1 – Cosx) – logSinx – y log(Sinx) + C
c  ^ 3c  y = (x + c) Cosecx
= D 2
t t ^ 2
Probability and Statistics 4.1
4
C HAPTER Probability and Statistics
2016 2012
1. Runs scored by a batsman in five one-day matches 4. Consider the data set 14, 18, 14, 14, 10, 29, 33,
are 55, 75, 67, 88 and 15. The standard deviation 31, 25. If you add 20 to each of the values, then
is __________. (a) both mean and variance change
(b) both mean and variance are unchanged
2015
(c) the rnean is unchanged, variance changes
2. Plasmid DNA (0.5 g) containing an ampicillin
(d) the mean changes, the variance is unchanged
resistance marker was added to 200 l of
competent cells. The transformed competent cells
2010
were diluted 10,000 times, out of which 50 l was Statement for Linked Answer Questions (5 – 6):
plated on agar plates containing ampicillin. A total During bioconversion of sucrose to citric acid by
of 35 colonies were obtained. The transformation Aspergillus niger final samples of 6 batches of
fermentation broth were analyzed for citric acid
efficiency is _____ 106 cfu. g–1. content. The results (in g/L) were found to be 47.3,
2014 52.2, 49.2, 52.4, 49.1 and 46.3.
5. The mean value of acid concentration will be
3. If an unbiased coin is tossed 10 times,
(a) 49.4 (b) 51.0
the probability that all outcomes are same will
(c) 48.2 (d) 50.8
be ___  10–5
6. The standard deviation for the above results is
(a) 2.49 (b) 3.0
(c) 1.84 (d) 5.91
ANSWERS
1. (24.5 : 28.5) 2. (2.8) 3. (191 to 199) 4. (d) 5.(a) 6.(a)
EXPLANATIONS
1. SD or  = Variance 2. DNA = 0.5 g
50
N Dilution = = 2.5  10–5
 (x – x )1
2
200  10000
Variance = i=1 Number of colonies
N TE =
Dilution  Amount of DNA
N = No. of samples = 5 35
= = 2.8  106
x = average of run scored 2.5 10 5  0.5
3. An unbiased coin is tossed 10 times
=  x / N  300 / 5  60
i
Hence probability of all outcomes to see same is
 = (55  60)2  (75  60)2  (67  60)2  (88  60)2  (15  60)2 199  10–5 (approx)
5
4. If each observation is either increased, decreased,
25  225  49  784  2025 3108 divided or multiplied by a constant, then the mean
 =  so obtained also increases, decreases, gets
5 5
multiplied or gets divided respectively by the same
 = 621.6  24.93 constant.
4.2 Probability and Statistics
There will be no change in variance, if each 6. We know, for ungrouped data

observation is increased, decreased, divided or Standard deviation,σ =
multiplied by a constant. Where, y = value of samples, n = number of
5. We have, for actual mean, in an individual series samples
Mean, y = ( ∑ y)/n where, y = value of samples, Given, y = ( ∑ y)/n = 49.4

Y Y2
n = number of samples
47.3 2237.29
Therefore,
52.2 2724.84
∑ y = 47.3 + 52.2 + 49.2 + 52.4 + 49.1 + 46.3 49.2 2420.64
= 296.5 52.4 2745.76
Given, n = 6 49.1 2410.81
Therefore, 46.3 2143.69
= ( ∑ y)/n ∑ y = 296.5 ∑ y2 = 14683.036
= 296.5/6 14683.03
Therefore, σ = − (49.4 * 49.4)
= 49.42 6
Therefore, the mean value of acid concentration = 2447.172 − 2440.36
is 49.42 g/L = 6.182
= 2.49

Technical Section
1 Biomolecules :
C HAPTER Constituents of Life
2016 2014
1. Disaccharide molecules that contain  (1  4) 6. The 4-amino or 4-keto group of pyrimidine bases
glycosidic linkage are is located in the
(a) sucrose and maltose (a) major groove of the double stranded DNA
(b) sucrose and isomaltose (b) minor groove of the double stranded DNA
(c) maltose and isomaltose (c) minor groove of the B form DNA but not the
(d) lactose and cellobiose A form DNA
2015 (d) major groove of the B form DNA but not the A
2. Which one of the following amino acids has the form DNA
highest probability to be found on the surface of a 7. Amino acid residue which is most likely to be
typical globular protein in aqueous environment? found in the interior of water-soluble globular
(a) Ala (b) Val proteins is
(c) Arg (d) Ile (a) Threonine (b) Aspartic acid
3. Levinthal's paradox is related to (c) Valine (d) Histidine
(a) protein secretion 8. If a plant is shifted to cold temperature, which of
(b) protein degradation the following changes would take place in its
(c) protein folding membrane?
(d) protein trafficking (a) Ratio of unsaturated to saturated fatty acids
4. How many different protein sequences of 100 would increase
residues can be generated using 20 standard (b) Ratio of unsaturated to saturated fatty acids
amino acids ? would decrease
(a) 10020 (b) 100  20 (c) Absolute amount of both fatty acids would
(c) 20100 (d) 100!  20! increase keeping the ratio same
5. Match the reagents in Group I with their preferred (d) Absolute amount of both fatty acids would
cleavage sites in Group II. remain unchanged
Group I 9. Which of the following statements with respect
P. Cyanogen bromide to the orientation of the nitrogenous bases to the
Q. o-Iodosobenzoate pentose sugars, and the puckering of the sugar,
R. Hydroxylamine is correct?
S. 2-Nitro-5-thiocyanobenzoate (a) Anti, and 2’-endo in A form DNA
Group II (b) Anti, and 2’-endo in B form DNA
1. Carboxyl side of methionine (c) Syn, and 3’-endo in A form DNA
2. Amino side of methionine (d) Syn, and 3’ -endo in B form DNA
3. Carboxyl side of tryptophan 2013
4. Amino side of cysteine 10. Which one of the following aminoacids in proteins
5. Asparagine-glycine bonds does NOT undergo phosphorylation?
(a) P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-4 (a) Ser
(b) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (b) Thr
(c) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-4 (c) Pro
(d) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-3 (d) Tyr
1.2 Biomolecules : Constituents of Life
2012 (a) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

11. The molarity of water in a water : ethanol mixture (b) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(15 : 85, v/v) is approximately (c) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(a) 0.85 (d) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(b) 5.55 Common Data for Question (14 - 15) :
(c) 8.5 The width of the lipid bilayer membrane is 30 Å. It is
(d) 55.5 permeated by a protein which is a right handed -
helix.
2011
14. The number of h-helical turns permeating the
12. The protein in eukaryotes which is subjected to
membrane is
degradation undergoes
(a) 5.6 turns
(a) phosphorylation
(b) 3.5 turns
(b) carboxylation
(c) 6.5 turns
(c) ubiquitation
(d) 5.0 turns
(d) methylation
15. The number of amino acid residues present in
2010 the protein is
13. Match the chemicals in Group I with the possible (a) 15
type/class in Group II
(b) 18
Group I Group II
(c) 17
P. Picloram 1. Vitamin
(d) 20
Q. Zeatin 2. Auxin
R. Thiamine 3. Amino Acid
S. Glutamine 4. Cytokinin
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d)
Biomolecules : Constituents of Life 1.3
EXPLANATIONS
1. Glycosidic bond or glycosidic linkage is a type as reserved energy. So, ratio of unsaturated to
of covalent bond that joins a carbohydrate (sugar) saturated fatty acids would increase considerably
molecule to another group, which may or may in that plant.
not be another carbohydrate. Lactose (  -D- 9. Nitrogenous bases are always arranged in "anti"
galactopyranosyl (1 4) D-glucopyranose) and positions to their corresponding pentose sugar
cellobiose (  -D-glucopyranosyl (1  4) moieties. In B-form of DNA, sugar puckering
D-glucopyranose) are disaccharides whose occurs predominantly in the C2 position of the
monomeric units are connected by  (1  4) pentose sugar. The sugar pucker determines the
glycosidic bonds. shape of the a-helix, whether the helix will exist
2. Arginine, lysine aspartic, glutamic and histidine in the A-form or in the B-form. So, in C2-endo
can present in aqueous environment. puckering occurs in B-form of DNA.
3. Finding the native folded state of protein. 10. Proline is unique in that it is the only amino acid
100
4. 20 different protein sequences of 100 residues where the side chain is connected to the protein
can be generated using 20 standard amino backbone twice, forming a five-membered
acids. nitrogen-containing ring. Proline is unable to
occupy many of the main chain conformations
5. Group I Group II
easily adopted by all other amino acids. Proline
P. Cyanogen bromide 1. Carboxyl side of
can often be found in very tight turns in protein
methionine
structures (i.e. where the polypeptide chain must
Q. o-Iodosobenzoate 3. Carboxyl side of change direction). It can also function to introduce
tryptophan kinks into alpha helices, since it is unable to adopt
R. Hydroxylamine 5. Asparagine-glycine a normal helical conformation. Proline plays
bonds important roles in molecular recognition,
S. 2-Nitro-5-thiocy 4. Amino side of cysteine particularly in intracellular signalling. The
anobenzoate Proline side chain is very non-reactive and it does
not undergo phosphorylation.
6. The pyrimidine bases, Thymine and Cytosine in
case of DNA have a 4-amino or a 4-keto group 11. 18gm water in 100ml ethanol is 10M. Hence 15gm
present with the amide ring. These 4-amino or 4- in 85ml is approximately- 8.5.
keto groups are present in the major groove of 12. Ubiquitination is an enzymatic, protein post-
the DNA molecule. translational modification (PTM) process in which
7. Globular proteins have no systematic structures. the carboxylic acid of the terminal glycine from
There may be single chains, two or more chains the di-glycine motif in the activated ubiquitin
which interact in the usual ways or there may be forms an amide bond to the epsilon amine of the
portions of the chains with helical structures, lysine in the modified protein. Ubiquitination,
pleated structures, or completely random also known as ubiquitylation, regulates
structures. Common globular proteins include egg degradation of cellular proteins by the ubiquitin-
albumin, hemoglobin, myoglobin, insulin, serum proteasome system, controlling a protein’s half-
globulins in blood, and many enzymes. Water- life and expression levels. This process involves
soluble globular proteins have hydrophobic amino the sequential action of ubiquitin-activating
acids present in the interior of the protein enzymes (E1), ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes
structure forming hydrophobic bonds. So, valine (E2), and ubiquitin ligases (E3). The reaction
is the amino acid residue most likely to be present catalyzed by each enzyme transfers a covalent
on the interior. bond with ubiquitin from one enzyme to the next
and finally to a target protein.
8. When a plant body is shifted from a warm climate
to a cold climate, the number of long chain 13. Picloram is an auxin type of hormone absorbed
unsaturated fatty acids present in the plant would by root. Zeatin is a member of the plant growth
increase to preserve and store body heat as well hormone family, cytokinins. Thiamine is a water-
1.4 Biomolecules : Constituents of Life
soluble vitamin of the B complex. Glutamine is 15. We know, the right handed α-helix has 3.6 residues per
one acids encoded by the standard genetic code turn in the helix.
CAA,CAG. But number of helix turns = 5.6
14. Given, Therefore, No. of amino acids present in the
Width of lipid bilayer membrane= 30 Å protein = 5.6 * 3.6 = 20
We know, each turn of right handed α-helix has a Therefore, No. of amino acid residues present in
pitch of = 5.1 Å the protein is 20.
Thus, total turns = 30 / 5.1 = 5.6 turns.
2
C HAPTER Bioenergetics and Metabolism
2016 5. The product(s) resulting from the hydrolysis of
maltose is/are
1. The equilibrium potential of a biological
membrane for Na + is 55 mV at 37  C. (a) a mixture of -D-Glucose and  -D-Glucose
Concentration of Na+ inside the cell is 20 mM. (b) a mixture of D-Glucose and L-Glucose
Assuming the membrane is permeable to Na+ (c) -D-Glucose only
only, the Na + concentration outside the (d)  -D-Glucose only
membrane will be _________ mM.
6. The reactions leading to the formation of amino
(Faraday constant: 23062 cal.V –1 .mol –1 , acids from the TCA cycle intermediates are
Gas constant: 1.98 cal.mol–1.K–1)
(a) carboxylation (b) isomerization
2015 (c) transamination (d) decarboxylation
2. The standard free energy change (G) for ATP 7. Match the following photoreceptors with their
hydrolysis is –30 kJ.mole –1 . The in vivo prosthetic groups and spectral specificity
concentrations of ATP, ADP and Pi in E. coli are
Photoreceptor Moiety that absorbs light
7.90, 1.04 and 7.90 mM, respectively. When
E. coli cells are cultured at 37  C, the free P. Phototropin 1. Chromobilin
energy change (G) for ATP hydrolysis in vivo is Q. Cryptochrome 2. FAD
______ kJ. mole–1. R. Phytochrome 3. FMN
3. Match the compounds in Group I with the correct Absorption (nm)
entries in Group II. A. 400-500
Group I Group II B. 600-800
P. Cyanide 1. K+ ionophore C. 500-600
Q. Antimycin A 2. Electron transfer from P Q R
cytochrome b to cytochrome c1
(a) 3-A 1-A 1-B
R. Valinomycin 3. F1 subunit of ATP synthase
(b) 1-B, 1-A 3-B
S. Aurovertin 4. Cytochrome oxidase
(c) 3-A 1-A 1-C
5. Adenine nucleotide trans-
(d) 2-C 1-C 1-A
locase
(a) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-1
2013
(b) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-3 8. Match the entries in Group I with the enzymes
in Group II.
(c) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
Group I Group II
(d) P-4, Q-5, R-3, S-1 +
P. NAD 1. Glutathione peroxidase
2014 Q. Selenium 2. Nitrogenase
4. The most plausible explanation for a sudden R. Pyridoxal 3. Lactate dehydrogenase
increase of the respiratory quotient (RQ) of a
phosphate
microbial culture is that
S. Molybdenum 4. Glycogen phosphorylase
(a) cells are dying
(a) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(b) yield of biomass is increasing
(b) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(c) the fermentation rate is increasing relative
to respiration rate (c) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(d) the maintenance rate is decreasing (d) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
2.2 Bioenergetics and Metabolism
Common Data Questions Codes :
Common Data for Questions 9 and 10 : P Q R S
A solution was prepared by dissolving 100 mg of (a) 3 2 4 1
protein X in 100 ml of water. (b) 2 4 3 1
Molecular weight of protein X is 15,000 Da; Avogadro’s (c) 4 3 1 2
number = 6.022  1023. (d) 3 4 2 1
9. Calculate the molarity ( M) of the resulting 14. Match the vitamins in Group I with the processes/
solution. reactions in Group II.
(a) 66.6 (b) 6.6 Group I Group II
(c) 0.67 (d) 0.067 P. Pantothenic acid 1. Electron transport
10. The number of moleculespresent in this solution Q. Vitamin B2 2. Transfer of 1-C units
is
R. Vitamin B6 3. Decarboxylation
(a) 40.15 1019 (b) 6.023 1019 S. Folic acid 4. Fatty acid metabolism
(c) 4.015 1019 (d) 0.08 1019 5. Hydrolysis
2012 Codes :
11. During photorespiration under low CO2 and P Q R S
high O 2 levels, O 2 reacts with ribulose 1, (a) 5 2 4 1
5 - bisphosphate to yield
(b) 4 1 3 2
(a) one molecule each of 3-phosp-hoglycerate and
(c) 4 2 1 3
2-phosphoglycolate
(d) 2 1 3 5
(b) two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate
Common Data Questions
(c) two molecules of 2-phosphoglycolate
Directions (Q. 15– 16) : In a muscle, the extracellular
(d) one molecule each of 3-phosphoglycerate and
and intracellular concen-trations of Na+ are 150 mM
glyoxylate and 12 mM and those of K+ are 2.7 mM and 140 mM
12. Match the entries in Group I with the process respectively. Assume that the temperature is 25C and
parameters in Group II. that the membnine potential is – 60 mV, with the
Group I Group II interior more negatively charged than the exterior.
P. Clark electrode 1. Liquid level (R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1; F = 96.45 kJ mol–1 V–1)
Q. Redox probe 2. Dissolved oxygen 15. The free energy change for the transport of three
Na+ out of the cell is
concentration
(a) + 1.5 kJ/mol
R. Load cell 3. Vessel pressure
(b) + 17.4 kJ/mol
S. Diaphragm gauge 4. pH (anaerobic process)
(c) + 18.9 kJ/mol
Codes :
(d) + 36.3 kJ/mol
P Q R S
16. The free energy change for the transport of two
(a) 2 1 3 4
K+ into the cell is
(b) 4 2 3 1 (a) +8.0 kJ/mol
(c) 2 4 1 3 (b) +11.6 kJ/mol
(d) 2 1 4 3 (c) +19.6 kJ/mol
13. Match the high energy compounds in Group I with (d) +31.2 kJ/mol
the biosynthetic pathways for the molecules in
Group II. 2011
Group I Group II 17. An alternative to glycolysis pathway is
P. GTP 1. Fatty acid (a) glyoxylate pathway
Q. UTP 2. Phospholipid (b) pentose phosphate pathway
R. CTP 3. Protein (c) citric acid cycle
S. Acyl coenzyme A 4. Peptidoglycan (d) gluconeogenesis
Bioenergetics and Metabolism 2.3
18. In N-linked glycosylation, the oligosaccharide 22. Oxidation reduction reactions with positive
chain is attached to protein by standard redox potential (E0) have
(a) asparagine (b) arginine (a) positive G0
(c) serine (d) threonine (b) negative G0
19. Match the products in Group I with their (c) positive E’
respective organisms in Group II.
(d) negative E’
Group I
Linked Answer Questions
P. Glycerol
Statement for Linked Answer Questions
Q. Glutamic acid (23 and 24) :
R. Curdlan The standard redox potential values for two half-
S. Amphotericin B reactions are given below. The value for Faraday’s
Group II constant is 96.48 kJ V–1 mol–1 and Gas constant R is
8.31 JK–1 mol–1.
1. Corynebacterium glutamicum
2. Alcaligenes faecalis NAD+ + H+ + 2e–  NADH – 0.315 V
3. Dunaliella salina
+
FAD + 2H + 2e –
 FADH2 – 0.219 V
4. Streptomyces nodosus 23. The Gfor the oxidation of NADH by FAD is

P Q R S (a) – 9.25 kJ mol–1
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) – 103.04 kJ mol–1
(b) 4 2 1 3 (c) + 51.52 kJ mol–1
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) – 18.5 kJ mol–1
(d) 2 1 4 3 24. The value of  G  , given K eq as 1.7, at 23  C
will be
20. Match items in Group I with Group II.
(a) – 17.19 kJ mol–1
Group I
(b) – 19.8 kJ mol–1
P. Glycolytic pathway
(c) + 52.82 kJ mol–1
Q. Eukaryotic oxidative metabolism
(d) – 117.07 kJ mol–1
R. Glyoxylate cycle
S. Calvin cycle 2007
Group II 25. A protein binds to phosphocellulose column at pH
7.0 and elutes at pH 8.0. If the protein has to be
1. Chloroplast
further purified on a DEAE Sephacel column, the
2. Glyoxysomes binding buffer should have a pH of
3. Mitochondria (a) 5 (b) 6
4. Cytosol
(c) 7 (d) 8
P Q R S
26. Match items in group 1 with correct examples
(a) 1 2 3 4 from those in group 2
(b) 2 3 4 1 Group 1 Group 2
(c) 4 3 2 1 P. Catabolic product 1. Griseofulvin
(d) 3 4 1 2 Q. Bioconversion 2. Bakers yeast
2010 R. Biosynthetic product 3. 6-Aminopenici-
21. During lactic acid fermentation, net yield of ATP llanic acid
and NADH per mole of glucose is S. Cell mass 4. Ethanol
(a) 2 ATP and 2 NADH (a) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-l
(b) 2 ATP and 0 NADH (b) P-3, Q-4, R-l, S-2
(c) 4 ATP and 2 NADH (c) P-4, Q-3, R-l, S-2
(d) 4 ATP and 0 NADH
(d) P-l, Q-4, R-3, S-2
27. The respiratory coefficient for the reaction 2004

aCHmOn + bO2 + cNH3  dCHaON+ eH2O + fCO2 29. The maximum reaction velocity (V m) for an
is defined as enzyme catalyzed reaction was experimentally
measured at two different temperatures and
(a) f/a
following results obtained :
(b) e/b
Temperature, C 27 37
(c) b/f Vm mmol m –3
2.25 4.50
(d) f/b The energy of activation for the reaction is
2005 (a) 12834 cal mol–1
28. What product will result from complete hydrolysis (b) 25668 cal mol–1
of soluble dextran ? (c) 6417 cal mol–1
(a) Sucrose only (d) 19251 cal mol–1
(b) Fructose only 2002

(c) Glucose and fructose only 30. Energy capture efficiency of the aerobic cells using
glucose as a substrate is
(d) Glucose only
(a) 50% (b) 40%
(c) 30% (d) 20%
ANSWERS
1. (147.0 : 170.0) 2. (–48 to – 46) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a)
8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (Marks to All) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (d)
16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (c)
26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
 Na    starch. It is a reducing sugar. In the hydrolysis of
RT
1. Eeq.Na  = ln  0
 any di- or polysaccharide, a water molecule helps
ZF  Na   i  to break the acetal bond. The acetal bond is
broken; the H from the water is added to the
Given Eeq.Na  = 55 mV = 55  10–3 V oxygen glucose. The -OH is then added to the
R = 1.98 cal mol–1 K–1 carbon on the other glucose. In this case the
diastase enzyme is very specific and cuts the starch
T = 273 + 37 = 310 K chain in two units of glucose which is maltose.
F = 23062 cal V–1 mol–1
Na   = 20 mM.
i
Z= 1
1.98  310  Na   

 55  10–3 = ln  0 
1  23062  20 
 
 Na   = 20  7.897 = 157.94 mM
0
2. ATP + H2O  ADP + Pi

G = – 30 KJ/mol
 = 37C
G = G + RT ln
 ADP Pi 
 ATP 
= –30 + 8.314  10–3 
(1.04 10 3  7.90  10 3 )
(37 + 273) ln
(7.90  10 3 )
6. Transamination refers to the transfer of an amine
= –30 – 17.70 = – 47.70 KJ/mol group from one molecule to another. This reaction
3. Group I Group II is catalyzed by a family of enzymes called
P. Cyanide 4. Cytochrome oxidase transaminases. Actually, the transamination
Q. Antimycin A 2. Electron transfer from reaction results in the exchange of an amine group
on one acid with a ketone group on another acid.
cytochrome b to cytochrome
It is analogous to a double replacement reaction.
c1
The most usual and major keto acid involved with
R. Valinomycin 1. K+ ionophore transamination reactions is alpha-ketoglutaric
S. Aurovertin 3. F1 subunit of ATP synthase acid, an intermediate in the citric acid cycle. A
4. High density culture is dependent upon high levels specific example is the transamination of alanine
of available dissolved oxygen at times of maximum to make pyruvic acid and glutamic acid.
growth (using cascades of process parameter such 7. Phototropin have flavin mononucleotide (FAD)
as stirrer speed, gas flow and oxygen molecules present in them which absorb light in
supplementation) or control of feed to match the the range of 400 to 500 nm of wavelength.
quantity of substrate which is already present in Cryptochrome are comprised of flavin
the bulk culture. In a microbial culture, microbial dinucleotide moieties which give light absorbance
metabolism is controlled on the basis of respiratory at the same range of 400-500 nm because of the
quotient (R.Q.). If, however, there occurs a sudden same flavin molecule. Phytochrome has
increase in the R.Q. of the microbial culture, it chromobilin present in it which is excited and
implies that rate of fermentation is increasing shows absorbance within the range of 600-800 nm
more than that of the rate of respiration. of wavelength.
5. Maltose or malt sugar is the least common 8. Lactate dehydrogenase (NAD+ oxidoreductase)
disaccharide in nature. It is present in is a ubiquitous enzyme among vertebrates and
germinating grain, in a small proportion in corn carries out the reaction: NAD+ + lactate <=>
syrup, and forms on the partial hydrolysis of NADH + Pyruvate. Glycogen Phosphorylase
catalyzes phosphorolytic cleavage of  (1, 4) The Diaphragm Pressure Gage uses the elastic
glycosidic linkages of glycogen, releasing glucose- deformation of a diaphragm (i.e. membrane)
1-phosphate as the reaction product. Pyridoxal instead of a liquid level to measure the difference
phosphate (PLP), a derivative of vitamin B6, between an unknown pressure and a reference
serves as prosthetic group for Glycogen pressure.
Phosphorylase. Nitrogenase is a two-protein 13. Guanosine-5–triphosphate (GTP) is used as a
complex. One component, called Nitrogenase source of energy for protein synthesis and
Reductase (NR) is an iron-containing protein that gluconeogenesis. GTP is essential to signal
accepts electrons from ferredoxin, a strong transduction, in particular with G-proteins in
reductant, and then delivers them to the other second-messenger mechanisms where it is
component, called Nitrogenase, or Iron- converted to guanosine diphosphate (GDP)
Molybdenum protein. There are several proteins through the action of GTPases.
in mammalian cells that can metabolize hydrogen
Peptidoglycan, also known as murein, is a polymer
peroxide and lipid hydroperoxides. These proteins
consisting of sugars and amino acids that form a
include four selenium-containing glutathione
mesh-like layer outside the plasma membrane of
peroxidases that are found in different cell
all bacteria (except Mycoplasma), forming the cell
fractions and tissues of the body. These proteins
wall. Uridine triphosphate (UTP), which is a
are called glutathione peroxidases.
pyrimidine nucleotide, has the ability to act as
9. Given, Molecular weight of the Protein X, an energy source for the synthesis of
m = 15,000 Da = 15,000 g/mol = 15 mg/mol peptidoglycan.
Weight of the Protein in solution, W = 100 mg The phosphatidic acid is used to synthesize
Volume of the solution, V = 100 mL additional phospholipids utilizing cytidine
Therefore, molarity of the solution triphosphate (CTP) as an energy source and
creating a CDP-diacylglycerol molecule.
= (W/m)  (1000/V) M
Fatty-acyl-CoA Synthase, or more commonly
= (100/15)  (1000/100)
known as yeast fatty acid synthase, is an enzyme
= 66.67 M complex responsible for fatty acid biosynthesis
10. Number of moles present in the solution of 14. Pantothenic acid, also called pantothenate or
protein = (100/15) = 6.667 moles vitamin B 5 , is a water-soluble vitamin.
Number of molecules present in the solution Pantothenic acid is used in the synthesis of
= no. of moles  Avogadro’s number coenzyme A (CoA). CoA is also important in the
= 6.667  6.022  1022 biosynthesis of many important compounds such
as fatty acids, cholesterol, and acetylcholine.
= 40.146  1022 molecules
Riboflavin is a water-soluble B vitamin, also
11. During photo respiration under low known as vitamin B2. In the body, riboflavin is
CO 2 and high O 2 reacts with ribulose– 1, 5 primarily found as an integral component of the
bisphosphate to yield-one molecule each of coenzymes, flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) and
3-phosphoglycerate and 2-phosphoglycolate. flavin mononucleotide (FMN). FAD is part of the
12. The Clark electrode is an electrode that measures electron transport (respiratory) chain, which is
oxygen on a catalytic platinum surface using the central to energy production.
net reaction: Vitamin B6 is a water-soluble vitamin and is part
O2 + 4e– + 2H2O  4OH– of the vitamin B complex group. Several forms
These are also known as dissolved oxygen of the vitamin are known, but pyridoxal
electrodes. phosphate (PLP) is the active form and is a
Redox probe also known as a pH probe is used for cofactor in many reactions of amino acid
the measurement of pH. metabolism, including transamination,
deamination, and decarboxylation.
A load cell is a transducer that is used to create
an electrical signal whose magnitude is directly Folic acid is a B vitamin. It helps the body make
proportional to the force being measured. It can healthy new cells. Transfer of 1-C units is
be used to measure the liquid levels. To measure important for many biosynthetic reactions. To
level, the load cell must be incorporated into the carry out the transfer of 1-carbon units, NADPH
vessel's support structure. must reduce folic acid two times in the cell.
17. The pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) is a process convert lactose lactic acid in yogurt production.
of glucose turnover that produce NaDPH as In lactic acid fermentation, NADH is oxidized into
reducing equivalents and pentose as essential 2 molecules of NAD+ with a net gain of 2ATP and
part of nucleotides. There are two different 2lactate.
phases in a pathway. One is irreversible oxidase Pyruvate + 2NADH Æ Lactic Acid
phase in which glucose-6-phosphate is converted + 2NAD+ + 2ATP.
to ribulose-6-phosphate by oxidative decarboxylation
22. Redox potential E0 can be calculated by the ratio
and NaDPH is generated. The other is reversible
between Gibbs free energy and product of
non- oxidative phase in which phosphorylated
Faradays Number with number of participating
sugars are interconverted to generate xylulose -
moles. It implies that the value of Δ Go will be negative
5p, ribulose-5p and ribose-5p. Phosphoribosyl
as Faraday’s constant is a positive number.
pyrophosphate formed from ribose-5p is an
23. We have, from Gibbs free energy equation:-
activated compound used in the biosynthesis of
histidine and purine/pyrimidine nucleotides. This ΔG = –nFΔE
pathway main purpose is to regenerate NaDP+ Where,
through an oxidation/reduction reaction. NaDPH ΔG = change in Gibbs free energy,
is used for reductive reaction in anabolism,
n = number of electrons per mole product,
especially in fatty acid synthesis.
F = Faraday’s constant,
18. All N-linked glycans are derived from a common
ΔE = change in electrode potential of the reaction.
14-sugar oligosaccharide synthesized in the ER,
which is attached co-translationally to a protein Now,
while this is being translated inside the ΔGOXIDATION= –nFΔ(EREDUCTION – EOXIDATION)
reticulum. The process of the synthesis of this Given, from equation: n = 2 (2e– are exchanged)
glycan, known as Synthesis of the N-glycan
EOXIDATION = –0.315 V [Since NADH is oxidized
precursor or LLO, constitutes one of the most
to NAD+ by loss of 2e–]
conserved pathways in eukaryotes, and has been
also observed in some eubacteria. The EREDUCTION = –0.219 V [Since FAD is reduced to
FADH2 by accepting 2e–]
attachment usually happens on an asparagine
residue within the consensus sequence Therefore,
asparagine-X-threonine by an complex called ΔGOXIDATION= – 2 * 96.48 * {(–0.219) – (–0.315)}
oligosaccharyl transferase(OST). After being =– 18.524 kJ/mol
attached to an unfolded protein, the glycan is used
Therefore ΔG for oxidation of NADH by FAD is:
as a label molecule in the folding process (also
known as Calnexin/Calreticulin cycle). –18.524 kJ/mol
19. Glycerol is produced by Dunaliella salina. 24. We know, ΔG’ = ΔG0 + RT log Keq
Glutamic acid is produced by corynebacterium Where, ΔG’= change in Gibbs free energy\
glutamicum. Curdlan is synthesised by ΔG0 = standard change in Gibbs free energy
Alcaligenes faecalis . AmphotericinB is R = Universal Gas constant
apolyene antifungal drug, often used
T = absolute temperature
intravenously for systemic fungal infections. It
was originally extracted from Streptomyces Keq = equilibrium constant
nodosus, a filamentous bacterium. Given,
20. In Plants, Cholroplast is the host for Glycolytic ΔG0 = –18.5 kJ/mol, R= 8.31 J/K/mol
pathway. Oxidative oxidation in eukaryotes takes = 8.31 * 10–3 kJ/K/mol, Keq = 1.7,
place at the Glyoxysomes. Mitochondria is the T = 230C = (273 + 23) K = 296K
house of glyoxalate cycle in eukaryotes while
Therefore,
cytosol host the Calvin cycle.
ΔG’ = –18.5 + [8.31 * 10–3 *296 * log(1.7)]
21. Lactic acid fermentation is caused by some fungi
and bacteria. The most important lactic acid = –17.19 kJ/mol
producing bacteria is lactobacillus. It is used to Therefore the value of ΔG’ is –17.19 kJ/mol
25. If the protein is most stable at pH's above its pI, K2 Ea  T2  T1 

29. log =
then an anion-exchange gel matrix should be K 1 2.303R  T1 T2 
used. If it is most stable below its pI, then a
cation-exchange gel matrix should be used. Here E a (10)
log(2) =
the protein eluted at pH 8 so it would take 2.303  1.986(300  310)
pH7 to bind in DEAE column.
0.3010
26. Bioconversed product is 6 Amiono penicillinic Ea =  425359.5
10
Acid, Grisseofuvin is biosynthetic product, Bakers
yeast have definite cell mass ie Biomass and = 12803.3 cal mol–1
Ethanol is a catabolic product. 30. Complete aerobic metabolism of glucose produces
27. The respiratory quotient (RQ) is calculated from water and carbon dioxide as products.
the ratio RQ = CO2 eliminated / O2 consumed C6H12O6 + 6 O2  6 CO2 + 6 H2O
where the term "eliminated" refers to carbon
Energy is released in this process. The overall “G
dioxide (CO2) removed ("eliminated") from the
of glucose breakdown is -720 kcal/mole. Normally
body. So, RQ for the equation is f/b.
about 32% of the energy is released is captured
28. Complete hydrolysis of dextran yield solely
through the formation of ATP the remainder is
β-dglucose i.e., hydrolysis is accompanied by
inversion at carbon-1 in such a way that new released as heat.
reducing ends are released only in the β -
configuration.
3
C HAPTER
Biophysical and
Biochemical Techniques
2016 where H is HETP (m) and u is linear liquid velocity
of mobile phase (m.s–1). The values of A, B and C
1. Cesium chloride density gradient centrifugation
are 3  10–8 m2.s–1, 3 s and 6  10–5 m, respectively.
is commonly used for the separation of DNA
The number of theoretical plates based on
molecules. The buoyant density, , of a double
minimum HETP for a column of 66 cm length
stranded Cs +DNA is given by the equation
will be ___________.
 = 1.66 + 0.098XG+C where XG+C denotes
(a) total number of G and C 2014
(b) mole fraction of G + C 6. If the dissociation constant for solute-adsorbent
(c) number of GC repeats binding is KD, the retention time of the solute in
a chromatography column
(d) ratio of G+C to A+T content
(a) increases with increasing KD
2. Which one of the following techniques relies on
the spin angular momentum of a photon? (b) decreases with increasing KD
(a) CD spectroscopy (c) passes through minimum with increasing KD
(b) Fluorescence spectroscopy (d) is independent of KD
(c) IR spectroscopy 2013
(d) Raman spectroscopy 7. Match the entries in the Group I with the elution
3. In dead-end filtration, rate of filtration is conditions in Group II.
(a) directly proportional to the square root of Group I
pressure drop across the filter medium P. Ion-exchange
(b) inversely proportional to the pressure drop Q. Hydrophobic chromatography
across the filter medium
R. Gel filtration column chromatography
(c) inversely proportional to the viscosity of the
solution S. Chromatofocusing
(d) inversely proportional to the square of Group II

viscosity of the solution 1. Isocratic solvent chromatography
4. The molar extinction coefficients of Trp and Tyr 2. Ampholytes
at 280 nm are 5690 and 1280 M –1 .cm –1 , 3. Increasing gradient of salt
respectively. The polypeptide chain of yeast
4. Decreasing gradient of polarity
alcohol dehydrogenase (37 kDa) contains 5 Trp
and 14 Tyr residues. The absorbance at 280 nm (a) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3
of a 0.32 mg.mL –1 solution of yeast alcohol (b) P-4,Q-3,R-1,S-2
dehydrogenase measured in a cuvette of 1 cm (c) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2
pathlength will be _________.
(d) P-3,Q-4,R-2,S-1
(Assume that the molar extinction coefficient
values for Trp and Tyr apply to these amino acids 2012
in the yeast alcohol dehydrogenase). 8. In transmission electron microscopy, electron
5. A protein is to be purified using ion-exchange opacity is greatly enhanced by treating the
column chromatography. The relationship specimen with
between HETP (Height Equivalent to Theoretical (a) ferrous ammonium sulfate
Plate) and the linear liquid velocity of mobile
(b) uranium acetate
phase is given by:
(c) sodium chloride
A
H=  Bu  C (d) basic fuchsin
u
3.2 Biophysical and Biochemical Techniques
9. The helix content of a protein can be determined 2009

using 12. Match the properties in Group 1 with the
(a) an infrared spectrometer downstream operation in Group 2:
(b) a fluorescence spectrometer Group 1 Group 2
(c) a circular dichroism spectrometer P. Size 1. Extraction
(d) a UV-Visible spectrophotometer Q. Density 2. Distillation
10. Match the entries in Group I with the methods of R. Volatility 3. Filtration
sterilization in Group II. S. Solubility 4. Sedimentation
Group I (a) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
P. Serum (b) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
Q. Luria broth fïltration (c) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
R. Polypropylene tubes (d) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
S. Biological safety cabinets 2008
Group II 13. Match the coefficients in group 1 with their
1. Autoclave corresponding downstream processing steps given
in group 2
2. Membrane
Group 1
3. UV irradiation
P. Sedimentation coefficient
4. Gamma irradiation
Q. Partition coefficient
5. Dry heat
R. Rejection coefficient
Codes : S. Activity coefficient
P Q R S Group 2
(a) 5 3 1 4 1. Aqueous two phase extraction
(b) 1 4 5 3 2. Ultrafiltration
(c) 2 1 4 3 3. Dialysis
(d) 4 1 3 5 4. Centrifugation
2011 P Q R S
11. Match the items in Group I with Group II. (a) 3 1 4 2
Group I (b) 2 1 4 3
P. Circular dichroism (c) 4 3 1 2
Q. X-ray crystallography (d) 4 1 2 3
R. Freeze-drying 2007
S. Ultracentrifugation 14. Match each parameter in group 1 with the
appropriate measuring device in group 2
Group II
Group 1
1. Concentration
P. Pressure
2. Sedimentation coefficient
Q. Foam
3. Secondary structure determination
R. Turbidity
4. Tertiary structure determination
S. Flow rate
P Q R S
Group 2
(a) 4 1 2 3
1. Photometer
(b) 1 4 3 2
2. Rotameter
(c) 2 3 4 1 3. Diaphragm gauge
(d) 3 4 1 2 4. Rubber sheathed electrode
Biophysical and Biochemical Techniques 3.3
(a) P-3, Q-4, R-l, S-2 17. Cibacren Blue dye affinity chromatography can
(b) P-l, Q-3, R-2, S-4 be used for affinity purification of
(c) P-4, Q-l, R-2, S-3 (a) NADPH dehydrogenase
(d) P-l, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (b) glucoamylase
2006 (c) subtilisin
15. When electroporation is used for introducing DNA (d) caspase
into mammalian cells 2002
(P) a carrier for DNA is not required
18. Mechanism of separation of contaminants present
(Q) the lipid bilayer (membrane) interacts with in air by fibrous media are
an electric pulse to generate permeation
(a) Interception
sites
(b) Inertial impaction
(R) the viability of the cells becomes approximately
(c) Diffusion
zero percent
(d) All of these
(S) the first step involves absorption of DNA on
the cell membrane 2001
(a) P, Q 19. The limiting factor in the production of large
(b) Q, R quantities of ethanol as bio-fuel is
(c) P, S (a) Lack of a balanced medium
(d) Q, S (b) Ethanol toxicity to cells
2005 (c) Expensive downstream processing steps

(d) Only (b) and (c) of the above
16. Ultrafiltration process can not be used for
(a) fractionation of proteins
(b) desalting
(c) harvesting of cells
(d) selective removal of solvents
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (0.37 : 0.43) 5. (1000.0 : 1000.0) 6. (b) 7. (c)
8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (a)
18. (d) 19. (d)
EXPLANATIONS
1. The density of DNA (g/mol or g/cm 3 ) as a
A
function of its G : C content is given by following 5. (i) H=  Bu  C
u
equation.
 = 1.66 + 0.098 XG + C The minimum HETP occurs when
  1.66 A 4
B  10 m / sec.
u=
 XG+C =
0.098
A = 3  10–8 m2/sec
as G + C is the mole fraction of G + C in DNA. So
B = 3 sec
it can be expressed in terms of mole % G + C as
falls C = 6  10–5 m
(ii)  H = 6.6  10–4
  1.66
% XG + C =  100. Now, = 6.6  10–2 cm
0.098
L
2. Circular dichroism (CD) is dichroism involving (iii) H= , N = No. of theoretical plates
N
circularly polarized light, i.e., the differential
absorption of left- and right-handed light. Left- L = Length of the column
hand circular (LHC) and right-hand circular (RHC) L
polarized light represent two possible spin angular  H=
N
momentum states for a photon, and so circular
dichroism is also referred to as dichroism for spin 66cm
=  1000
angular momentum. 6.6  10 2 cm
3. In dead end filtration, rate of filtration is inversely 6. Chromatography involves a sample (or sample
proportional to the viscosity of the solution. extract) being dissolved in a mobile phase (which
may be a gas, a liquid or a supercritical fluid).
4. Expected molar extinction sufficient of polypeptide
The mobile phase is then forced through an
chain
immobile, immiscible stationary phase. The
E280nm = (5  5690) + (14  1280)
distribution of analytes between phases can often
= 46370 M–1 cm–1 be described quite simply. An analyte is in
Now, conc.of dehydrogenase equilibrium between the two phases;
Amobile  Astationary
0.32
C=  10 3 The time between sample injection and an analyte
37
peak reaching a detector at the end of the column
= 8.648  106 is termed the retention time (tR).
 A/E = C  A = EC The dissociation constant for solute-adsorbent
binding is KD. So, KD is indirectly proportional to
= 46370  8.648  10–6
the retention time of the column. So, retention time
A = 0.401
(tR) of a column decreases with increasing KD value.
Biophysical and Biochemical Techniques 3.5
7. In Ion exchange chromatography, be it cation for the concentration increase in a solution of

based or anion based resin used, the elution of limited solute. Ultra centrifugation is the unit
the substrate bound to the resins is done through operation for sedimentation.
increasing concentrations of salt in a stepwise 12. All the properties in column A are phenomena
gradient form of elution. For Hydrophobic unit for downstream process in column B.
column chromatography, ligands bound to the
13. Svedbarg Unit stands for sedimentation coefficient
column through various interactions can be
for centrifugation process. Partition coefficient
eluted by decreasing the level of polarity in the
for two layer aqueous extraction unit. Rejection
solution. In Gel filtration chromatography,
coefficient is the unit for ultra filtration. Dialysis
molecules elute based on their different
unit is activity coefficient.
molecular weights through the process of
sieving from the column by the use of any kind 14.  The Diaphragm Pressure Gage uses the
of isocratic solution of particular pH. In elastic deformation of a diaphragm (i.e.
Chromatofocusing or also known as Isoelectric membrane) instead of a liquid level to measure
focussing, samples of proteins are precipitated the difference between an unknown pressure
at the isoelectric point using ampholytes of and a reference pressure.
different charges.  In an antifoam system; if the foam contacts a
8. In transmission electron microscope, to increase rubber sheathed electrode, an electric unit
the electron opacity samples are impregnated actuates a solenoid valve to allow the passage
with heavy metals such as uranyl acetate. Uranyl o f a ste rile antif o am ag e n t in to th e
acetate is a water-soluble uranium compound and fermentor.
is often used as stains in electron microscopy.  A final widely used method for the
9. The helix content of a protein can be determined determination of cell number is a turbidometric
using – circular dichromism spectroscopy. CD measurement or light scattering. This
spectrum of unknown protein = A * [% alpha- technique depends on the fact that as the
helical] + B * [% beta-sheet] + C * [% random number of cells in a solution increases, the
coil] solution becomes increasingly turbid (cloudy).
The solution looks turbid because light passing
10. Membrane filtration traps contaminants larger
through it is scattered by the microorganisms
than the pore size on the surface of the membrane.
present and the turbidity is proportional to the
If contaminants are smaller than the desired
number of microorganisms in the solution. The
particle, decrease the membrane pore size and
turbidity of a culture can be measured using a
trap the product while passing the contaminants
photometer or a spectrophotometer.
through the membrane. Heat labile fluids such
Photometers, such as the Klett-Summerson
as serum are sterilized by membrane filtration.
device, use a red, green or blue filter providing
A widely used method for heat sterilization is the a broad spectrum of light.
autoclave. It can be used to sterilize bacterial
 A rotameter is a device that measures the flow
cultures like Luria Broth.
rate of liquid or gas in a closed tube.
Gamma irradiation is a physical means of
15. Electroporation, or electropermeabilization, is a
sterilisation or decontamination where products
significant increase in the electrical conductivity
are exposed to gamma rays. It can be used to
and permeability of the cell plasma membrane
sterilize polypropylene tubes.
caused by an externally applied electrical field.
In UV irradiation, Ultraviolet lamps are used to It is usually used in molecular biology as a way
sterilize workspaces and tools used in biology of introducing some substance into a cell, such
laboratories and medical facilities. It can be used as loading it with a molecular probe, a drug that
to sterile Biological safety cabinets. can change the cell’s function, or a piece of coding
11. Protein secondary structure can be determined DNA.
by the Circular Dichromism where as XRD can 16. Ultrafiltration (UF) is a variety of membrane
be used for the Tertiary structure prediction of filtration in which hydrostatic pressure forces a
the protein. Freeze drying is an unit operation
liquid against a semipermeable membrane. 17. Cibacren blue dye (ligand) used in affinity
Suspended solids and solutes of high molecular chromatography, due to presence of sulfonated
weight are retained, while water and low polyaromatic compounds which bind with
molecular weight solutes pass through the considerable specificity and significant affinity
membrane. This separation process is used in to nucleotide-dependent enzymes and to a series
industry and research for purifying and of other proteins is used for glucoamylse
concentrating macromolecular (10 3 - 106 Da) purification.
solutions, especially protein solutions. 18. The fibrous filter media are known to capture
Ultrafiltration is not fundamentally different the airborne particles of different sizes due to
from microfiltration, nanofiltration or gas Brownian diffusion, direct interception, inertial
separation, except in terms of the size of the impaction, gravity settling, and particle sieving
molecules it retains. Ultrafiltration is applied in mechanisms.
cross-flow or dead-end mode and separation in
19. For ethanol commercial utilization we need high
ultrafiltration undergoes concentration
purity which leads to heavy downstream
polarization.
processing cost along with high percentage of
ethanol cause dehydration to the microbial
inoculums leading to toxicity to cell.

4
C HAPTER Cell Biology
2016 6. Choose the CORRECT sequence of steps
1. In a typical mitotic cell division cycle in eukaryotes, involved in cytoplast production.
M phase occurs immediately after the (a) Digestion of cell wall  protoplast viability 
(a) G0 phase cybrid formation  osmotic stabilizer
(b) S phase (b) Osmotic stabilizer  digestion of cell wall 
(c) G1 phase protoplast viability  cybrid formation
(d) G2 phase (c) Protoplast viability  osmotic stabilizer 
2. ATP biosynthesis takes place utilizing the digestion of cell wall  cybrid formation
H+ gradient in mitochondria and chloroplasts. (d) Osmotic stabilizer  digestion of cell wall 
Identify the correct sites of H+ gradient formation. cybrid formation  protoplast viability
(a) Across the outer membrane of mitochondria 2014
and across the inner membrane of chloroplast
7. If protoplasts are placed in distilled water, they
(b) Across the inner membrane of mitochondria
swell and burst as a result of endosmosis. The
and across the thylakoid membrane of
chloroplast plot representing the kinetics of burst is
(c) Within the matrix of mitochondria and across (a) Number of intact
the inner membrane of chloroplast
protoplast
(d) Within the matrix of mitochondria and within

the stroma of chloroplast
3. Which one of the following statements regarding
G proteins is INCORRECT?
Time
(a) GDP is bound to G protein in the resting stage
(b) GTP bound a subunit cannot reassemble with (b)
Number of intact
 dimer
protoplast
(c) All G proteins are trimeric

(d) Activation of G protein may result in activation
or inhibition of the target enzymes
2015 Time
4. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about (c)
a typical apoptotic cell ?
Number of intact
protoplast
(a) Phosphatidylserine is presented on the outer

cell surface
(b) Cytochrome c is released from mitochondria
(c) Mitochondrial membrane potential does not
change Time
(d) Annexin-V binds to the cell surface (d)

Number of intact
5. The cytokinetic organelle in plant cells is

protoplast
(a) centriole
(b) phragmoplast
(c) proplastid
(d) chromoplastid Time
4.2 Cell Biology
2012 12. A cell in G1 of interphase has 12 chromosomes.

How many chromatids will be found per cell
8. Choose the correct signal transduction pathway.
during metaphase II of meiosis?
(a) Hormone  7 TM receptor  G protein 
(a) 6 (b) 12
cAMP  PKA
(c) 18 (d) 24
(b) Hormone  G protein  7 TM receptor 
cAMP  PKA 2010
(c) Hormone  7 TM receptor  G protein  13. Ames test is used to determine
PKA  cAMP (a) the mutagenicity of a chemical
(d) Hormone  7 TM receptor  cAMP  G protein (b) carcinogenicity of a chemical
 PKA
(c) both mutagenicity and carcinogenicity of a
9. Match the entries in Group I with those in chemical
Group II.
(d) toxicity of a chemical
Group I
14. The formation of peptide cross-links between
P. MTT
adjacent glycan chains in cell synthesis is called
Q. Annexin V
(a) Transglycosylation
R. Methotrexate
(b) Autoglycosylation
S. Taxo
(c) Autopeptidation
Group II
(d) Transpeptidation
1. Dihydrofolate reductase
15. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the
2. Succinate ehydrogenase following Assertion (a) and the Reason (r)
3. Microtubules Assertion : Cytoplasmic male sterility (cms) is
4. Phosphatidylserine invariably due to defect(s) in mitochondrial
Codes : function.
P Q R S Reason : cms can be overcome by pollinating a
(a) 3 1 4 2 fertility restoring (Rf) plant with pollen from a
non cms plant.
(b) 2 4 1 3
(a) both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct
(c) 2 3 4 1
reason for (a)
(d) 4 2 1 3
(b) both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is not the
10. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the correct reason for (a)
following Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(c) (a) is false but (r) is true
Assertion: Plants convert fatty acids into glucose.
(d) (a) is true but (r) is false
Reason: Plants have peroxisomes.
2009
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct reason for (A) 16. Caspases are involved in the process of
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (a) DNA replication
reason for (A) (b) Mutation and recombination
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false (c) Antibody synthesis
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true (d) Aposptosis
2011 2008
11. Apoptosis is characterized by 17. Which one of the following is the growth factor
(a) necrosis used for growth of tissues and organs in plant
tissue culture?
(b) programmed cell death
(a) Cysteine (b) Cytokinin
(c) membrane leaky syndrome
(c) Cytidylate (d) Cyclic AMP
(d) cell cycle arrest process
Cell Biology 4.3
18. Some living cells (e.g. plant cell) have the capacity 2004
to give rise to whole organism. The term used to
22. In the cell cycle of a typical eukaryote, the
describe this property is
sequence of events operating at the time of cell
(a) morphogenesis
division is
(b) androgenesis
(a) S phase  G2 phase  G1 phase  M phase
(c) totipotency
(b) S phase  M phase  G1 phase  G2 phase
(d) organogenesis
(c) S phase  G2 phase  M phase  G1 phase
2007
(d) S phase  G1 phase  M phase  G2 phase
19. A bioremedial solution to reduce oxides of
nitrogen and carbon in flue gases is to integrate 2003
flue gas emission to 23. In the course of cell cycle, the level of the protein
(a) micro-algal culture cyclin abruptly falls during
(b) fish culture (a) G1 phase
(c) mushroom culture (b) S phase
(d) sericulture (c) G2 phase
2005 (d) M phase
20. The number of replicons in a typical mammalian 24. An animal cell line was transfected with DNA
cell is extracted from a tumorous tissue. Which one of
(a) 40-200 the following will be diagnostic of its tumorous
(b) 400 transformation ?
(c) 1000-2000 (a) altered cell shape
(d) 50000-100000 (b) contact inhibition
21. Identify the following antibiotics with their modes (c) anchorage-independent cell division
of action. (d) increased duration of cell cycle
Antibiotic
2002
A. Ampicillin
25. Plastome is
B. Tetracycline
(a) A type of plastid
C. Nystatin
(b) An organellar genome
D. Anthramycin
(c) Plasmalemma protein
Mode of action
(d) None of (a), (b), (c)
1. inhibition of protein synthesis
2. inhibition of cell wall synthesis 2001
3. damage to cytoplasmic membrane 26. When thymidine synthesis is inhibited, eukaryotic
4. damage to DNA structure cells will be arrested at
(a) A  1, B  2, C  4, D  3 (a) End of S phase
(b) A  2, B  1, C  3, D  4 (b) End of M phase
(c) A  1, B  2, C  3, D  4 (c) Gl/S interphase
(d) A  3, B  4, C  2, D  1 (d) G2/M interphase
4.4 Cell Biology
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
1. G2 phase, or Gap 2 phase, is the third and final 6. Digestion of cell wall  protoplast viability 
subphase of Interphase in the cell cycle directly cybrid formation  osmotic stabilizer
preceding mitosis. It follows the successful 7. The plot of swelling of protoplasts and bursting
completion of S phase, during which the cell's DNA during endosmosis when protoplasts are kept
is replicated. G2 phase ends with the onset of or placed in distilled water is a sigmoidal curve
prophase, the first phase of mitosis in which the where number of intact protoplasts decrease
cell's chromatin condenses into chromosomes. with time. So, the plot is represented by graph
2. During chemiosmosis, the free energy from the in (a).
series of reactions that make up the electron 8. In the G protein associated signal cascade
transport chain is used to pump hydrogen ions system, binding of hormone to a cell surface
across the membrane, establishing an receptor, like the 7TM (a 7 transmembrane
electrochemical gradient. Hydrogen ions in the alpha helices) which is a part of G protein. This
matrix space can only pass through the inner will activate production of second messengers
mitochondrial membrane through a membrane like cAMP by the enzyme adenylate cyclase. The
protein called ATP synthase. cAMP in turn binds and activates down stream
ATP synthesis in chloroplasts is very similar to that signal proteins line cAMP dependent protein
in mitochondria: Electron transport is coupled to kinase A (PKA).
the formation of a proton (H+) gradient across a 9. MTT- binds to succinate dehydrogenase Annexin
membrane. The energy in this proton gradient is
V-specifically binds to phosphatidyl serine
then used to power ATP synthesis. Two types of
processes that contribute to the formation of the Methotrexate- allosterically inhibits
proton gradient are: dihydrofolate reductase
(a) processes that release H+ from compounds that Taxol-suppresses microtubule dynamics.
contain hydrogen, and 10. Plants can make glucose from fatty acids,
(b) processes that transport H+ across the thylakoid but this is only because they are able to use
membrane. the glyoxylate cycle instead of the Krebs
cycle.
3. All G p ro te ins are no t trime ric. GPCR
dimerization also was proposed to participate in 11. Programmed cell death (PCD) is a death of
arrestin-mediated desensitization based on the a cell in any form, mediated by an
size of the cytoplasmic tip of rhodopsin and the intracellular program. PCD is carried out
presence of two cup-like domains in arresting in a regulated process which usually confers
both of which were implicated in receptor binding advantage during an organisms life cycle.
which one arrestin binds to two receptors in a PCD also serves an important function
dimer. during both plant and metazoan
(multicellular animals) tissue development.
4. During apoptotic the mitochondrial membrane
Apoptosis is a form of programmed cell
potential (mmp) decreases.
d e a t h . H o w e v e r, n e c r o s i s i s a n o n
5. The cytokinetic organelle in plant cells is physiological process that occurs as a result
Phragmoplast. of infection or injury.
Cell Biology 4.5
12. Meiosis is a two part cell division process in 16. Caspases, or cysteine-aspartic proteases or
organism that sexually reproduces which results cysteine-dependent aspartate-directed proteases
in gametes with one half the number of are a family of cysteine proteases that play
chromosomes of the parent cell. Chromosomal essential roles in apoptosis (programmed cell
replication does not occur between meiosis I and death), necrosis, and inflammation.
meiosis II; meiosis I proceeds directly to meiosis 17. Cytokinins (CK) are a class of plant growth
II without going through interphase. The second substances (phytohormones) that promote cell
part of the meiosis i.e. meiosis II resembles division, or cytokinesis, in plant roots and
mitosis more than meiosis I. Chromosomal shoots. They are involved primarily in cell
number which have already been reduced to growth and differentiation, but also affect apical
haploid (n) by the end of meiosis I, remains dominance, axillary bud growth, and leaf
unchanged after this division. In meiosis II, the senescence. Folke Skoog discovered their effects
phases are again analogous to mitosis: prophase using coconut milk in the 1940s at the University
II, metaphase II, anaphase II and telophase II. of Wisconsin Madison.
Meiosis begins with two haploid (n=2) cell and
18. Totipotency is the ability of a single cell to divide
end with 4 haploid (n=2) cells.
and produce all the differentiated cells in an
13. Mutagenicity and carcinogenicity are not organism, including extraembryonic tissues.
mutually exclusive biological characteristics. The Totipotent cells include spores and zygotes.
Ames test is an assay of chemicals to determine
19. The advantages of using a microalgal-based system
their mutagenic potential. A positive result
in integration with flue gas emission are that:
implies the carcinogenic property of chemicals as
well. The variable tested is the chemical’s  High purity CO2 gas is not required for algal
potential to cause a reversion to growth and culture. Flue gas containing varying amounts
estimate frame-shift & point mutations. This of CO2 can be fed directly to the microalgal
allows detection of cancer-causing property based culture. This will simplify CO2 separation from
on mutagenic action. flue gas significantly.
14. Transpeptidation is a reaction involving the  Some combustion products such as NOx or
transfer of one or more amino acids from one SOx can be effectively used as nutrients for
peptide chain to another, as by transpeptidase microalgae. This could simplify flue gas
action, or of a peptide chain itself, as in bacterial scrubbing for the combustion system.
cell wall synthesis. The enzyme transpeptidase  Microalgae culturing may yield high value
is also known as DD-transpeptidase, a bacterial commercial products. Sale of these high value
enzyme that cross-links the peptidoglycan chains products can offset the capital and the
to form rigid cell walls. operation costs of the process.
15. Cytoplasmic male sterility (CMS) is a condition  The envisioned process is a renewable
under which a plant is unable to produce cycle with minimal negative impacts on
functional pollen. CMS is a maternally inherited environment.
trait that is often associated with unusual open 20. A replicon is a DNA molecule, or a region of DNA
reading frames (ORFs) found in mitochondrial or RNA, that replicates from a single origin of
genomes. Male fertility can be restored by replication. There are 50000–100000 replicons in
nuclear-encoded fertility restorer (Rf) gene(s). a typical mammalian cell.
These fertility-restorer genes are thought to block 21. Ampicillin inhibits the third and final stage of
or compensate for cytoplasmic dysfunctions that bacterial cell wall synthesis in binary fission,
are phenotypically expressed during pollen which ultimately leads to cell lysis.
development. On the one hand, sterility results
Nystatin forms pores in the membrane that lead
from mitochondrial genes causing cytoplasmic
to K+ leakage and death of the fungus.
dysfunction, and on the other, fertility restoration
Tetracycline antibiotics are protein synthesis
relies on nuclear genes that suppress cytoplasmic
inhibitors, inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl-
dysfunction.
tRNA to the mRNA-ribosome complex.
4.6 Cell Biology
Anthramycin exerts its biological activity through 23.

covalent binding to the C2-NH2 of guanine within
the minor groove of DNA thus damaging the
actual structure.
22. In eukaryotes, the cell cycle consists of four
discrete phases: G 1, S, G 2, and M. The S or
synthesis phase is when DNA replication 24. Tumor tissue generally show anchor dependent
occurs, and the M or mitosis phase is when nature. So Anchor independent test should be
the cell actually divides. The other two phases performed.
— G1 and G2, the so-called gap phases — are 25. The plastome is the genetic material that is found
less dramatic but equally important. During G1, in plastids in plant cells (for example in the
the cell conducts a series of checks before chloroplast). It composes part of the entire genome
entering the S phase. Later, during G2, the cell of photosynthetic organisms.
similarly checks its readiness to proceed to 26. The arrest of thymidine kinase synthesis occurred
mitosis. after completion of the delayed mitosis.

5
C HAPTER Microbiology
2016 6. Match the microorganisms in Group I with their
fermentation products in Group II.
1. Bacteria with two or more flagella at one or both
ends are called Group I Group II
(a) amphitrichous (b) peritrichous P. Leuconostoc mesenteroids 1. Cobalamin
(c) lophotrichous (d) atrichous Q. Rhizopus oryzae 2. Sorbose
R. Gluconobacter suboxydans 3. Dextran
2. Which family of viruses has single stranded DNA?
S. Streptomyces olivaceus 4. Lactic acid
(a) Herpesviridae (b) Poxviridae
5. Butanol
(c) Retroviridae (d) Parvoviridae
(a) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (b) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4
3. Which of the following are TRUE for Treponema
pallidum? (c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (d) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
P. It is the causative agent of syphilis 2014
Q. It is a spirochete 7. Gram-positive bacteria are generally resistant to
complement-mediated lysis because
R. It is a non-motile bacterium
(a) thick peptidoglycan layer prevents insertion
S. It is generally susceptible to penicillin
of membrane attack complex into the inner
Choose the correct combination. membrane
(a) P, Q and R only (b) Gram-positive bacteria import the membrane
(b) P, Q and S only attack complex and inactivate it
(c) P, R and S only (c) membrane attack complex is degraded by the
(d) Q, R and S only proteases produced by the Gram-positive
bacteria
4. Which combination of the following statements
is CORRECT for cyanobacteria? (d) Gram-positive bacteria cannot activate the
complement pathway
P. They can perform oxygenic photosynthesis
8. A bacterium belonging to cocci group has a
Q. Usually filamentous forms are involved in
diameter of 2 m. The numerical value of
nitrogen fixation
the ratio of its surface area to volume (in m–1)
R. Nitrogen fixation occurs in heterocysts is ______
S. They cannot grow in a mineral medium 9. Which of the following essential element(s) is/are
exposed to light and air required as major supplement to enhance the
(a) P, Q and R bioremediation of oil spills by the resident bacteria?
(b) P, S and R (a) Sulfur
(c) Q, R and S (b) Nitrogen and phosphorus
(d) P, Q and S (c) Iron
2015 (d) Carbon
5. Which one of the following organisms is used for 2013

the determination of phenol coefficient of a 10. Phylum proteobacteria is subdivided into -,  -,
disinfectant ? -and -proteobacteria based on
(a) Salmonella typhi (a) G + C content
(b) Escherichia coli (b) 23S rRNA sequences
(c) Candida albicans (c) tRNA sequences
(d) Bacillus psychrophilus (d) 16S rRNA sequences
5.2 Microbiology
11. Match the commercial microbial sources in 2010
Group I with the products in Group II.
15. Under stress conditions bacteria accumulate
Group I
(a) ppGpp (Guanosine tetraphosphate)
P. Corynebacteriumlilium
(b) pppGpp (Guanosine pentaphosphate)
Q. Klebsiellaoxytoca
(c) both ppGpp pppGpp
R. Aspergillusniger
(d) either ppGpp or pppGpp
S. Alcaligeneseutrophus
16. Which one of the following DOES NOT belong to
Group II the domain of Bacteria?
1. 2,3-Butane di-ol (a) Cyanobacteria
2. Poly- -hydroxybutyric acid (b) Proteobacteria
3. Glutamic acid (c) Bacteroids
4. Citric acid (d) Methanobacterium
(a) P-3,Q-1,R-2,S-4 17. Match Group I with Group II
(b) P-3,Q-1,R-4,S-2 Group I Group II
(c) P-1,Q-3,R-2,S-4 P. Staphylococcus aureus 1. Biofilms
(d) P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2 Q. Candida albicans 2. Bacteriocins
12. Match the cell structures in Group I with the R. Mycobacterium 3. Methicillin
organismsin Group II. tuberculosis resistance
Group I S. Lactobacillus lactis 4. Isoniazid
P. Endospores (a) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3 (b) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
Q. Bipolar flagella (c) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (d) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
R. Pseudomurine 18. Match the products in Group I with the microbial
in cell wall cultures in Group II used for their industrial
S. Periplasmic flagella production
Group II Group I Group II
1. Methanobacterium P. Gluconic acid 1. Leuconostoc
2. Treponema mesenteroids
3. Spirillum Q. L – Lysine 2. Aspergillus niger
4. Clostridium R. Dextran 3. Brevibacterium flavum
(a) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 S. Cellulase 4. Trichoderma reesei
(b) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (a) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (b) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (c) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (d) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(d) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2 2009
2011 19. Match the products in Group 1 with their producer
organisms in Group 2:
13. The lipopolysaccharides present in bacterial cell
wall has lipid A which is connected to Group 1 Group 2
(a) O-polysaccharide P. Ethanol from glucose 1. Aspergillus niger
(b) core polysaccharide Q. Probiotics 2. Leuconostoc
(c) both with O-polysaccharide and core mesenteroides
polysaccharide R. Citric acid 3. Saccharomyces
(d) rhamnose-mannose disaccharide cerevisiae
14. Gas vacuoles are present in S. Sauerkraut 4. Bifidobacterium

(a) Anabaena flos-aquae (a) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(b) Bacillus subtilis (b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(c) Acanthurus nigrofuscus (c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (d) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
Microbiology 5.3
2008 2003
20. Match the products in group 1 with their producer 22. Microbes bring about biological transformation
organisms given in group 2 of xenobiotic compounds by
Group 1 (a) degradation
P. Ethanol (b) conjugation
Q. L-Lysine (c) detoxification
R. Biopesticide (d) all of these
S. Vancomycin 2001
Group 2 23. Match the products in Column A with their
1. Streptomyces orientalis corresponding organisms in Column B
2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae Column A Column B
3. Corynebacterium glutamicum (a) Aspergillus niger 1. Lysine
4. Bacillus thuringiensis (b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae 2. Citric acid
P Q R S (c) Penicillium chrysogenum 3. Acetone/butanol
(a) 2 3 4 1 (d) Lactobacillus casei 4. Vitamin B12
(b) 3 4 1 2 (e) Corynebacterium 5. Erythromycin
(c) 4 1 2 3 glutamicum
(d) 2 1 4 3 6. -Lactam
2007 7. Diacetyl
8. Ethanol
21. A bioremedial solution to reduce oxides of
nitrogen and carbon in flue gases is to integrate 2000
flue gas emission to 24. Which of the following eukaryotic organisms has
(a) micro-algal culture been proven to be of great industrial importance ?
(b) fish culture (a) Penicillium chrysogenum
(c) mushroom culture (b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(d) sericulture (c) Bacillus subtilis
(d) Streptomyces griseus
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (3 to 3) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (*) 24. (b)

5.4 Microbiology
EXPLANATIONS
1. There are 4 types of flagellar distribution on 7. Gram positive bacteria have a thick layer of
bacteria- peptidoglycan as their cell wall which provides
strength and support to the bacteria.
Complement-mediated lysis and attack system is
based on the formation of complement proteins
which form membrane attack complex that insert
into the plasma membrane of the cell and undergo
cell lysis. But, due to the thick protection of gram
positive bacteria by peptidoglycan on the outer
cell membrane, complement proteins cannot
1. Monotrichous - Single polar flagellum- enter the cell and cause lysis.
Example: Vibrio cholerae 8. Gram-positive anaerobic cocci (GPAC) are a
2. Amphitrichous- Single flagellum on both sides- heterogeneous group of organisms defined by
Example: Alkaligens faecalis their morphological appearance which are
3. Lophotrichous- Tufts of flagella at one or both spherical-shaped bacterium.
sides- Example: Spirillum Given, diameter of the cocci = 2m
4. Peritrichous- Numerous falgella all over the Therefore, radius = 1m
bacterial body- Example: Salmonella Typhi Hence, surface area: volume of the cocci
2. The virus family Parvoviridae contains 3 genera: = 4r2/ (4/3r3) = 3/r = 3m
the parvoviruses , the dependoviruses, and the
9. Oil spills in seas and oceans can be remedied by
densoviruses (which only infect insects).
the use of certain special kinds of bacteria which
Parvoviridae is the only family of DNA viruses
degrade polyhydrocarbons. Such bacteria are
that infect humans that is single stranded. The utilized in the process of bioremediation to prevent
DNA strand packaged in the virion can be either serious impacts on marine environment caused
negative or positive sense, though in case of some by spillage. Such bacteria require nitrogen and
strains, it is always negative. phosphorus as major supplement for enhancing
3. Treponema pallidum is a spirochaete bacterium the rate of degradation of saturated and unsaturated
with subspecies that cause treponemal diseases hydrocarbons.
such as syphilis, bejel, pinta, and yaws. It is a 10. The phylum Proteobacteria is the largest and
Gram-negative bacteria which is spiral in shape. most diverse group of bacteria. They have many
It is generally susceptible to penicillin. different shapes and ways of living. Some are free-
4. Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic, and so can living, some are parasitic, and others form
manufacture their own food. Cyanobacteria get mutualistic relationships with other organisms,
their name from the bluish pigment phycocyanin, such as those found in the rumen. Many
which they use to capture light for photosynthesis. Proteobacteria are responsible for diseases in
They also contain chlorophyll a, the same animals and humans. The largest and most
diverse Bacterial phylum is the Proteobacteria.
photosynthetic pigment that plants use.
All are Gram-negative and show relationship
Nitrification cannot occur in the presence of
based on 16s RNA comparison.
oxygen, so nitrogen is fixed in specialized cells
called heterocysts. These cells have an especially 11. Mostly, Glutamic acid is produced by the species
thickened wall that contains an anaerobic of Corynebacterium particularly Corynebacterium
lilium. Klebsiella oxytoca produces butanol and
environment. e.g.,: Filamentous form of Nostoc.
in this case 2, 3-butane-diol. Citric acid is a
5. Either Salmonella typhi or Staphylococus aureus. common product of fermentation of the fungi
6. Group I Group II Aspergillus niger. Alkaligenes eutrophus
P. Leuconostoc mesenteroids 3. Dextran commonly produces butyric acids along with
other derivatives through its fermentation.
Q. Rhizopus oryzae 4. Lactic acid
12. Clostridium is a genus of Gram-positive bacteria,
R. Gluconobacter suboxydans 2. Sorbose
belonging to the Firmicutes. They are obligate
S. Streptomyces olivaceus 1. Cobalamin anaerobes capable of producing endospores.
Microbiology 5.5
Spirillum is genus of spiral-shaped bacteria of the 16. Besides cyanobacteria, all the others named were
family Spirillaceae. Spirillum is microbiologically typically sharing the common feature belonging
characterized as a gram-negative, motile helical to bacteria domain – i.e. oxygen intolerance.
cell with tufts of whiplike flagella at each end. However, cyanobacterium is a phylum which
Treponemes are helically coiled, corkscrew- obtains energy through photosynthesis by
shaped cells, 6 to 15 m long and 0.1 to 0.2 m performing oxygenic photosynthesis and reducing
wide. They have an outer membrane which the atmosphere into an oxidising one. The ability
surrounds the periplasmic flagella, a to undergo oxygenic reactions distinctly
peptidoglycan-cytoplasmic membrane complex, distinguishes cyanobacteria from other bacterial
and a protoplasmic cylinder. Multiplication is by domains. Thereby, cyanobacteria play a very
binary transverse fission. Methanobacteria are important role in initiating biodiversity and are
methane producing microorganisms (methanogens) believed to evolve into plant chloroplast and
and have pseudomurine in their cell wall. eukaryotic algae by the process of endosymbiosis.
Cyanobacterium due to its stand-out property of
13. The Gram negative cell envelope contains an
oxygenic photosynthesis in an oxygenic
additional outer membrane composed by
environment is thus distinct from other preferably
phospholipids and lipopolysaccharides which face an-oxygenic bacterial domains.
the external environment. The highly charged
17. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
nature of lipopolysaccharide confers an overall
(MRSA) are a type of staphylococcus or “staph”
negative charge to the Gram negative cell wall.
bacteria that are resistant to many antibiotics.
Lipopolysaccharide is comprised of a hydrophilic
Staph bacteria, like other kinds of bacteria,
polysaccharide and a hydrophobic component normally lives on skin and in nose, usually
known as lipid A which is responsible for the without causing problems. MRSA is different from
major bioactivity of endotoxin. other types of staph because it cannot be treated
Lipopolysaccharide can be recognized by with certain antibiotics such as methicillin (as it
immune cells as a pathogen-associated molecule is methicillin resistant).
through Toll-like receptor 4. Lipid A usually gets Biofilms formed by Candida albicans are resistant
attached to the core polysaccharide of Gram towards most of the available antifungal drugs.
negative cell wall. Therefore, infections associated with Candida
14. Gas-vacuoles consisting of collections of gas- biofilms are considered as a threat to
cylinders, and continuity of the plasma immunocompromised patients. Also, the fungal
membrane with lamellae, are observed at all pathogen Candida albicans is frequently associated
stages of growth of Anabaena flos-aquae. It is with catheter-based infections because of its ability
known to produce endotoxins, the toxic chemicals to form resilient biofilms.
released when cells die. Once released (lysed), Isoniazid is an organic compound that is the first-
and ingested, these toxins can damage liver and line medication in prevention and treatment of
nerve tissues in mammals. tuberculosis. Isoniazid is a prodrug and must be
activated by a bacterial catalase-peroxidase
15. Stress is a stringent response that occurs in
enzyme that in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is
bacteria due to amino acid starvation or fatty acid called KatG.
limitation. Other reasons involve heat shock or
Bacteriocins are the bioactive peptides produced
iron limitation. This response is signalled by p/
by certain bacteria like lactobacillus lactis that
ppGpp as an alarmone. It causes diversion of
inhibit the growth of other bacteria. It is a gram
resources away from growth of cells towards the positive bacterium used in the production of milk
quenching of stress by promoting amino acid and cheese.
synthesis for enhancing survival. It continues until
18. Microbial species such as Aspergillus Niger have
nutrients are restored. p/ppGpp causes inhibition
been utilized in many researches of gluconic acid
of RNA synthesis in cases of AA shortage. It fermentation.
results in AA conservation by decreasing the
Strains of Brevibacterium flavum are used for the
translational machinery. Another mechanism of
synthesis of L- lysine.
p/ppGpp action is the upregulation of genes for
AA uptake and biosynthesis. It functions by Dextran is synthesized from sucrose by certain
lactic-acid bacteria, the best-known being
influencing overall gene expression pattern for
Leuconostoc mesenteroides and Streptococcus
survival in stress conditions.
mutans.
5.6 Microbiology
Trichoderma reesei is an industrially important  Some combustion products such as NOx or SOx
cellulolytic filamentous fungus. T. reesei has the can be effectively used as nutrients for
capacity to secrete large amounts of cellulolytic microalgae. This could simplify flue gas
enzymes (cellulases and hemicellulases). scrubbing for the combustion system.
19. P>3: Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used  Microalgae culturing may yield high value
extensively in batch fermentations to commercial products. Sale of these high value
convert sugars to ethanol for the production products can offset the capital and the operation
of beverages and biofuels. costs of the process.
Q>4: Probiotics are live microorganisms thought  The envisioned process is a renewable cycle
to be beneficial to the host organism. Lactic with minimal negative impacts on environment.
acid bacteria (LAB) and bifidobacteria are 22. microbes use replication procedure for xenobiotic
the most common types of microbes used compound transformation. A xenobiotic is a
as probiotics. chemical which is found in an organism but which
R>1: In production technique of citric acid, cultures is not normally produced or expected to be
of A. niger are fed on a sucrose or glucose present in it. It can also cover substances which
containing medium to produce citric acid. are present in much higher concentrations than
S>2: Sauerkraut (sour cabbage) is finely shredded are usual. Specifically, drugs such as antibiotics
cabbage that has been fermented by various are xenobiotics in humans because the human
lactic acid bacteria, including Leuconostoc, body does not produce them itself, nor are they
Lactobacillus, Pediococcus etc. part of a normal diet. However, the term
20. P>2: Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used xenobiotics is very often used in the context of
extensively in batch fermentations to pollutants such as dioxins and polychlorinated
convert sugars to ethanol for the biphenyls and their effect on the biota, because
production of beverages and biofuels. xenobiotics are understood as substances foreign
to an entire biological system, i.e. artificial
Q>3: Industrially, L-lysine is usually manufa-
substances, which did not exist in nature before
ctured by a fermentation process using
their synthesis by humans.
Corynebacterium glutamicum
24. Its complex genome and advanced splicing
R>4: Bacillus thuringiensis (or Bt) is a Gram-
machinery makes it as a choice of industrial
positive, soil-dwelling bacterium, commonly
exploitation. Its been used for wine making,
used as a biological pesticide.
baking and brewing since ancient times. It is
S>1: Streptomyces orientalis produces the believed that it was originally isolated from the
antibiotic Vancomycin, which is used for skin of grapes (one can see the yeast as a
the prevention and treatment of infections component of the thin white film on the skins of
caused by Gram-positive bacteria, especially some dark-colored fruits such as plums; it exists
staphylococci. among the waxes of the cuticle). It is one of the
21. The advantages of using a microalgal-based system most intensively studied eukaryotic model
in integration with flue gas emission are that: organisms in molecular and cell biology, much
 High purity CO2 gas is not required for algal like Escherichia coli as the model bacterium. It
culture. Flue gas containing varying amounts is the microorganism behind the most common
of CO2 can be fed directly to the microalgal type of fermentation.
culture. This will simplify CO2 separation from
flue gas significantly.
Immunology 6.1
6
C HAPTER Immunology
2016 6. Which one of the following complement proteins
is the initiator of the membrane attack
1. Junctional diversity of antibody molecules results
complex ?
from
(a) C3a (b) C3b
(a) the addition of switch region nucleotides
(c) C5a (d) C5b
(b) the addition of N and P nucleotides
7. Production of monoclonal antibodies by
(c) the joining of V, D and J segments
hybridoma technology requires
(d) mutations in complementarity-determining
(a) splenocytes
regions
(b) osteocytes
2. Find the INCORRECT combination.
(c) hepatocytes
(a) Surface immunoglobulins – B cell antigen
receptor (d) thymocytes
(b) Affinity maturation – isotype switching 8. ABO blood group antigens in humans are
differentiated from each other on the basis of
(c) Fc region of antibodies – binding to
complement proteins (a) sialic acid
(d) Spleen, the secondary lymphoid organ – no (b) lipids
connection with the lymphatic system (c) spectrin
3. Which of the following statement(s) is/are (d) glycoproteins
CORRECT for antigen activated effector T cells? 9. Three distinct antigens X, Y and Z were used to
P. CD4+ cells make contact with macrophages raise antibodies. Antigen Z was injected in a
and stimulate their microbicidal activity mouse on day zero followed by the
Q. CD4+ cells make contact with B cells and administration of antigens X and Y on day 28. A
stimulate them to differentiate into plasma second injection of antigen X was administered
cells on day 70. The antibody titers were monitored
in the serum every day and the results are shown
R. CD8+ cells make contact with B cells and
below:
stimulate them to differentiate into plasma
Antigen Z + Antigen Y
cells
S. CD8+ cells make contact with virus infected
Serumantibody titer
cells and kill them

Antigen X
Antigen Z
(a) Q only (b) Q and S only

(c) P, Q and S only (d) P, Q, R and S
2015
4. Anergy refers to
(a) mitochondrial dysfunction 0 14 28 42 56 70 84 98
Days
(b) allergy to environmental antigens
Which one of the following statements
(c) unresponsiveness to antigens
regarding the antibody titers in the serum is
(d) a state of no energy INCORRECT ?
5. Based on the heavy chain, which one of the (a) Z-specific IgG will be high on day 14
following antibodies has multiple subtypes ?
(b) X-specific antibody titer will be high on day 84
(a) IgM (b) IgD
(c) X-specific IgG will be high on day 42
(c) IgE (d) IgG
(d) Y-specific IgG will be high on day 84
6.2 Immunology
10. Match the cells in Group I with their 13. Reactions between antibodies and antigens that
corresponding entries in Group II. are detected by precipitate formation in an agar
Group I Group II gel are referred as
P. Mast cells 1. Activation of the comple- (a) immunoprecipitation assay
ment pathway (b) immunodiffusion assay
Q. Natural killer 2. Expression of CD 56 (c) immunoaggregation assay
cells (d) immunofixation assay
R. Neutrophils 3. Containsazurophilic granules 14. Cholera toxin increases cAMP levels by
S. Dendritic cells 4. Defense against helminthic (a) modifying Gi protein
infection (b) modifying Gs protein
5. Production of antibodies (c) binding to adenylate cyclase
specific to bacteria (d) activating cAMP phosphodiesterase
6. Contains long membranous 15. In a mouse genome, the numbers of functional V,
projections J, V, D, J gene segments are 79, 38, 21, 2 and
(a) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-5 11, respectively. The total number of possible
combinations for  T cell receptors are ___×106.
(b) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-6
16. Match the items in Group I with Group II
(c) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5
Group–I Group–II
(d) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-6
P. Receptor tyrosine 1. Inactivation of
11. Match the antibiotics in Group I with their modes kinase G-proteins
of action in Group II.
Q. Cyclic GMP (cGMP) 2. Reception of
Group I Group II insulin signal
P. Chloramphenicol 1. Inhibits protein R. GTPase activating 3. Thyroid hormone
synth-esis by acting protein (GAP)
on 30S ribosomal S. Nuclear receptor 4. Receptor guanylyl
subunit cyclase
Q. Rifampicin 2. Interferes with DNA P Q R S
replication by (a) 1 3 4 2
inhibiting DNA
(b) 2 4 3 1
gyrase
(c) 3 1 4 2
R. Tetracycline 3. Inhibits protein
synth-esis by acting (d) 2 4 1 3
on 50S ribosomal 17. Match the immunoglobulin class in Group I with
subunit its properties in Group II
S. Quinolone 4. Interferes with RNA Group–I Group–II
polymerase activity P. IgG 1. Major antibody in external
5. Inhibits  -lactamase secretions such as bronchial
activity mucus
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5 (b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-3 Q. IgA 2. Protects against parasites
R. IgE 3. Antibody that appears first
(c) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (d) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
in serum after exposure to an
2014 antigen
12. Prior exposure of plants to pathogens is known S. IgM 4. Antibody present in highest
to increase resistance to future pathogen attacks. concentration in serum
This phenomenon is known as P Q R S
(a) systemic acquired resistance (a) 4 1 2 3
(b) hypersensitive response (b) 3 2 1 4
(c) innate immunity (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) antibody mediated response (d) 1 4 3 2
Immunology 6.3
2013 2012
18. Protein A, which has strong affinity to Fc region of 24. Idiotypic determinants of an antibody are
immunoglobulin, is extracted from associated with the
(a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (a) constant region of the heavy chains
(b) Staphylococcus aureus (b) constant region of the light chains
(c) Streptococcus pyogenes (c) variable region
(d) Streptococcus sanguis (d) constant regions of light and heavy chains
19. The first humanized monoclonal antibody 25. Identification of blood groups involves
approved for the treatment of breast canceris (a) precipitation (b) neutralization
(a) Rituximab (c) opsonization (d) agglutination
(b) Cetuximab 26. B-lymphocytes originate from the bone marrow
(c) Bevacizumab whereas T-lymphocytes originate from
(d) Herceptin (a) thymus (b) bone marrow
20. The role of an adjuvant is to (c) spleen (d) liver
(a) prolong the persistence of antigen 27. A humanized antibody is one in which the
(b) cross link the antigen (a) heavy and light chains are from human
(c) increase the size of antigen (b) heavy chain is from human and light chain is
(d) avoid inflammation from mouse
21. Endogenous antigens are presented on to the cell (c) light chain is from human and heavy chain is
surface along with from mouse
(a) MHC-II (d) CDRs are from mouse and the rest is from
human
(b) MHC-I
28. Nude mice refers to
(c) Fcreceptor
(a) mice without skin
(d) complement receptor
(b) mice without thymus
22. Which one of the following is an ABC transporter?
(c) knockout mice
(a) multidrug resistance protein
(d) transgenic mice
(b) acetylcholine receptor
29. Heat inactivation of serum is done to inactivate
(c) bacteriorhodopsin
(a) prions
(d) ATP synthase
(b) mycoplasma
23. Match the antibioticsinGroup Iwith the targets
(c) complement
in Group II.
(d) pathogenic bacteria
Group I
30. Match the products in Group I with the
P. Sulfonamide
applications in Group II.
Q. Quinolones
Group I Group II
R. Erythromycin
P. Digoxin 1. Muscle relaxant
S. Cephalosporin
Q. Stevioside 2. Anti-cancer agent
Group II
R. Atropine 3. C a r d i o v a s c u l a r
1. Peptidoglycan synthesis disorder
2. Peptide chain elongation S. Vinblastine 4. Sweetener
3. Folic acid biosynthesis Codes :
4. Topoisomerase P Q R S
(a) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (a) 1 4 3 2
(b) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 (b) 3 2 1 4
(c) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (c) 3 4 1 2
(d) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (d) 2 3 1 4
6.4 Immunology
2011 (c) (A) is true but (R) is false

31. Members of the antibody protein family that have (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
common structural features are collectively 36. Match items in Group I with Group II.
known as Group I
(a) haptens P. Alzheimer's disease
(b) allergens Q. Mad cow disease
(c) antigens R. Sickle cell anaemia
(d) immunoglobulins S. Swine flu
32. In ABO blood group system, antigenic Group II
determinants are 1. H1N1
(a) nucleic acid 2. Hemoglobin
(b) carbohydrate 3. Prions
(c) lipid 4. Amyloid
(d) protein P Q R S
33. The polymorphic domains for Class II MHC (a) 4 3 2 1
proteins are (b) 3 4 1 2
(a) 1 and  2 domains only (c) 2 1 4 3
(b)  1 and 2 domains only (d) 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 and  1 domains only
2010
(d) 2 and  2 domains only
37. Hybridoma technology is used to produce
34. Match the viruses in Group I with their host cell (a) monoclonal antibodies
receptors in Group II.
(b) polyclonal antibodies
Group I Group II
(c) both monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies
P. Hepatitis A virus 1. Heparan sulphate
(d) B cells
Q. Human immunode- 2. Acetylcholine 38. Interferon- is produced by
ficiency virus receptor (a) bacteria infected cells
R. Rabies virus 3. CD4 protein (b) virus infected cells
S. Herpes simplex 4. Alpha-2 (c) both virus and bacteria infected cells
virus type I macroglobulin (d) fungi infected cells
P Q R S 39. A neonatally thymectomized mouse, immunized
(a) 1 3 2 4 with protein antigen shows
(b) 3 4 1 2 (a) both primary and secondary responses to the
antigen
(c) 4 3 2 1
(b) only primary response to the antigen
(d) 2 3 1 4
(c) delayed type hypersensitive reactions
(d) no response to the antigen
following Assertion (A) and the Reason (R).
40. Lymphocytes interact with foreign antigens in
Assertion : I g M is found in serum as a
pentameric protein consisting of five I g M (a) Bone marrow (b) Peripheral blood
monomers. (c) Thymus (d) Lymph nodes
Reason : The pentameric form of IgM is due to 41. Dizygotic twins are connected to a single placenta
cross-linking of I g M monomers via peptide during their embryonic development. These twins
bond. (a) have identical MHC haplotypes
(a) both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (b) have identical TH cells
reason for (A) (c) have identical T cells
(b) both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (d) can accept grafts from each other (both (a)
correct reason for (A) and (b)
Immunology 6.5
2007 (a) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct
reason for [a]
42. Match the recombinant products in group 1 with
their therapeutic applications in group 2 (b) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the
correct reason for [a]
Group 1
(c) Both [a] and [r] are false
P. Human growth hormone
(d) [a] is true but [r] is false
Q. Platelet growth factor
47. Match the items on the left column with those on
R. Factor VIII
the right
S. Erythropoietin
Left
Group 2
P. Programmed cell death at site of infection
1. Pituitary dwarfism
Q. Hormone upregulated during flooding stress
2. Chemotherapy inducred thrombocy-topenia
R. Target for herbicide glyphosate
3. Haemophilia S. Pathogen-derived resistance
4. Anaemia associated with chronic renal failure Right
(a) P-l, Q-2, R-3, S-4 1. TMV coat protein
(b) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 2. EPSP synthase
(c) P-l, Q-4, R-3, S-2 3. Hyper-sensitive response
(d) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-l 4. Ethylene
43. Presence of CX2–4 CX X 8HX 3H sequence in a (a) P-l, Q-2, R-4, S-3
protein suggest that it is
(b) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-l
(a) a protein kinase
(c) P-l, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(b) GTP binding protein
(d) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-l
(c) zinc finger protein
(d) lipase
2004
44. Oils rich in PUFA are NOT desirable for bio-diesel 48. Reverse vaccinology indicates
production because (a) From antigenic protein to vaccine development
(a) they form epoxides in presence of oxygen (b) From antigenic polysaccharide to vaccine
development
(b) they do not form epoxides in presence of
oxygen (c) From antibody to vaccine development
(c) they have high ignition temperature (d) From genome sequence to vaccine development
(d) they solidify at low temperature 49. In a heterogeneous population of cells containing
T-cells, B-cells and macrophages, the cells are
2006 separated in the following scheme
45. Which of these mice fail to develop a thymus ? Cell suspension
Hetero- Supernatant
(a) Motheaten mice geneous left in a cells passed
cell petriplate through nylon
(b) Beige mice for 3 hrs wool column
suspension
(c) Knock out mice
(d) Nude mice Nylon wool Flow
adhered cell through
2005
46. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the Identity the major population of cells present in
fo llowing Asse rtion[ a] an d Reason [ r] petri-plate nylon wool adhered and nylon wool
Assertion: An antigen recognized by one column flow through respectively
immunoglobulin subtype is not recognized by (a) Macrophage, B-cell, T-cell
any other subtype. (b) T-cell, B-cell, macrophage
Reason: Immunoglobulin subtypes differ from (c) Macrophage, T-cell, B-cell
each other body in the variable and in the
(d) B-cell, T-cell, macrophage
constant regions.
6.6 Immunology
2003 (a) A very high level expression is always

obtained
50. Match the activity spectrum of the following
antibiotics (b) Light promote more antibody production
P Actinomycin D 1. Antifungal (c) Such antibodies are free from other antigen
of animal origin
Q Daunorubicin 2. Antituberculosis
(d) Functional antibody cannot be produced in
R Rifamycin 3. Antitumor
plants
S Griseofulvin 4. Antiprotosoal
53. Viral replication within cells is inhibited by
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) IL – 4 (b) IL – 1
P-3 P-3 P-3 P-2
(c) IFN (d) TNF
Q-4 Q-1 Q-1 Q-1
R-2 R-4 R-2 R-4 2001
S-1 S-2 S-4 S-3 54. Antibody diversity is generated by
2002 (a) Protein splicing

(b) Somatic mutation
51. Recombinant live attenuated vaccine against
hepatitis B was prepared from (c) Allelic exclusion
(a) Plasma of chronically infected individual (d) Inter-chromosomal recombination
(b) Recombinant yeast expressing hepatitis B 2000
surface antigen 55. Detection of which hormone is the commonly used
(c) Recombinant vaccinia virus expressing test for pregnancy in humans?
hepatitis B surface antigen
(a) LH
(d) Transgenic plants expressing hepatitis B (b) FSH
surface antigen
(c) Charionic gonadotropin
52. Which of the following statements is most
appropriate for recombinant antibody production (d) Estrogen
in transgenic plants?
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (1.38 to 1.40) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (d) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b)
29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37.(a) 38.(c)
39.(b) 40.(d) 41.(d) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (d)
49. (a) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (c)
Immunology 6.7
EXPLANATIONS
1. Generation of junctional diversity starts as the 10. Group I Group II
proteins, recombination activating gene-1 and -2 P. Mast cells 4. Defense against helminthic
(RAG1 and RAG2), along with DNA repair infection
proteins, such as Artemis, are responsible for
Q. Natural 2. Expression of CD 56
single-stranded cleavage of the hairpin loops and
addition of a series of palindromic, ‘P' nucleotides. killer cells
Subsequent to this, the enzyme, terminal R. Neutrophils 3. Contains azurophilic granules
deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT), adds further S. Dendritic 6. Contains long membranous
random ‘N' nucleotides. The newly synthesised
cells projections
strands anneal to one another, but mismatches
are common. 11. Group I Group II
2. Affinity maturation is the process by which THC P. Chloramphenicol 3. Inhibits protein synt-
cell-activated B cells produce antibodies with hesis by acting on 50S
increased affinity for antigen during the course ribosomal subunit
of an immune response. With repeated Q. Rifampicin 4. Interferes with RNA
exposures to the same antigen, a host will polymerase activity
produce antibodies of successively greater R. Tetracycline 1. Inhibits protein synt-
affinities once the memory has been generated. hesis by acting on 30S
Whereas Isotope switching refers to the ribosomal subunit
generation of IgA, IgD, IgM, IgE, IgG from IgM
S. Quinolone 2. Interferes with DNA
in response to a particular Ag. For e.g.: IgM will
replication by inhibiting
undergo isotope switching to IgE in response to
DNA gyrase
Allergen reaction.
12. Systemic acquired resistance (SAR) is a
3. Activated effector T cells or CD4+ cells initially
mechanism of induced defense that confers long-
contact with the macrophages which possess its
lasting protection against a broad spectrum of
receptor and stimulate microbial activity. It also
microorganisms. SAR requires the signal
make contact with B cells and stimulate
molecule salicylic acid (SA) and is associated with
differentiation into plasma cells. On contrary
accumulation of pathogenesis-related proteins,
CD8+ cells make contact with B cells and
which are thought to contribute to resistance.
stimulate differentiation into plasma cells. CD4
Using the model plant Arabidopsis, it was
is a co-receptor that assists the T cell receptor
discovered that the isochorismate pathway is the
(TCR) in communicating with an antigen-
major source of SA during SAR. In response to
presenting cell. Using its intracellular domain,
SA, the positive regulator protein NPR1 moves
CD4 amplifies the signal generated by the TCR
to the nucleus where it interacts with TGA
by recruiting an enzyme, the tyrosine kinase Lck,
transcription factors to induce defense gene
which is essential for activating many molecular
expression, thus activating SAR.
components of the signaling cascade of an
activated T cell. 13. Immunodiffusion in gels encompasses a variety
of techniques, which are useful for the analysis
4. Inability of T cells to produce or responds to
of antigens and antibodies. An antigen reacts
antigens.
with a specific antibody to form an antigen-
5. Only IgG and IgA has subtypes . IgG has 4 antibody complex, the composition of which
subtypes: Gamma1, Gamma2, Gamma3, depends on the nature, concentration and
Gamma4 proportion of the initial reactants.
6. Main 4 complement proteins are the initiator of Immunodiffusion in gels are classified as single
the membrane attack complex are (C5b, C6,C7 diffusion and double diffusion. In ouchterlony
and C8). double diffusion, both antigen and antibody are
7. Splenocytes obtained from Spleen. allowed to diffuse into the gel. This assay is
8. Generaly oligosaccharide is present. frequently used for comparing different antigen
preparation.
9. Y- specific IgG will be high on day 84
6.8 Immunology
14. Cholera toxin is produced by the CTXf 17. The bulk of the immunoglobulins is found in the
bacteriophage residing within the bacteria. IgG fraction, which also contains most of the
Cholera toxin consists of an A subunit coupled to antibodies. The IgM molecules are apparently
a B subunit: the A subunit consists of an A1 pentamers-aggregates of five of the IgG
domain containing the enzymatic active site, and molecules. Electron microscopy shows their five
an A2 domain that has an a-helical tail, while subunits to be linked to each other by disulfide
the B subunit contains five identical peptides that bonds in the form of a pentagon. The IgA
assemble into a pentameric ring surrounding a molecules are found principally in milk and in
central pore. The A and B subunits of cholera secretions of the intestinal mucosa. Some of them
toxin are produced in the cytosol by two genes contain, in addition to a dimer of IgG, a "secretory
that overlap by one base, and are then assembled piece" that enables the passage of IgA molecules
into a toxin in the periplasm located between the between tissue and fluid; the structure of the
inner membrane and the outer cell wall of the secretory piece is not yet known. The IgM and
bacteria. When cholera toxin is released from the IgA immunoglobulins and antibodies contain 10
bacteria in the infected intestine, it binds to the to 15 percent carbohydrate; the carbohydrate
intestinal cells known as enterocytes through the content of the IgG molecules is 2 to 3 percent.
interaction of the pentameric B subunit of the toxin 18. Protein A is a cell wall component produced by
with the GM1 ganglioside receptor on the several strains of Staphylococcus aureus that
intestinal cell, triggering endocytosis of the toxin. consists of a single polypeptide chain and contains
Next, the A/B cholera toxin must undergo cleavage little or no carbohydrate. The Protein A molecule
of the A1 domain from the A2 domain in order for contains four high-affinity binding sites capable
A1 to become an active enzyme. Once inside the
of interacting with the Fc region from IgG of
enterocyte, the enzymatic A1 fragment of the toxin
several species including human and rabbit.
A subunit enters the cytosol, where it activates
Optimal binding occurs at pH 8.2, although
the G protein GS? through an ADP-ribosylation
binding is also effective at neutral or physiological
reaction that acts to lock the G protein in its GTP-
conditions (pH 7.0 to 7.6). The interaction between
bound form, thereby continually stimulating
Protein A and IgG is not equivalent for all species.
adenylate cyclase to produce cAMP. The high
Even within a species, Protein A interacts with
cAMP levels activate the cystic fibrosis
some subclasses of IgG and not others. For
transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR),
instance, human IgG1, IgG2 and IgG4 bind
causing a dramatic efflux of ions and water from
strongly, while IgG3 does not bind. There are also
infected enterocytes, leading to watery diarrhea.
many instances in which monoclonal antibodies
15. Given, Number of functional gene segments, do not bind to Protein A, especially the majority
V = 79 of rat immunoglobulins and mouse IgG1.
Number of functional gene segments, J = 38 19. Herceptin is approved for the treatment of early-
Number of functional gene segments, V = 21 stage breast cancer that is Human Epidermal
Number of functional gene segments, D = 2 growth factor Receptor 2-positive (HER2+) and
Number of functional gene segments, J = 11 has spread into the lymph nodes, or is HER2+
and has not spread into the lymph nodes. If it has
So, total number of possible combinations for 
not spread into the lymph nodes, the cancer needs
and  chains are:
to be estrogen receptor/progesterone receptor
(79C  38C) + (21C  2C  11C) = 1.375  106 (ER/PR)-negative or have one high risk feature.
16. Tyrosine kinase is used to receive insulin Herceptin has two approved uses in metastatic
hormone signals and regulates the level of insulin breast cancer: i) Herceptin in combination with
in the body. Cycli GMP is a part of 7 helical the chemotherapy drug Taxol (paclitaxel) is
transmembrane domain protein comprising of G- approved for the first line treatment of Human
coupled receptors whose receptor protein is Epidermal growth factor Receptor 2-positive
guanylyl cyclase. GTPase activating protein or (HER2+) metastatic breast cancer and ii)
GAP protein is used for the inactivation of G- Herceptin alone is approved for the treatment of
proteins and stop the signaling. Nuclear receptor HER2+ breast cancer in patients who have
receives thyroid hormone as a signal for signal received one or more chemotherapy courses for
transduction. metastatic disease.
Immunology 6.9
20. Adjuvants are compounds that enhance the specific in part due to widespread resistance. The target
immune response against co-inoculated antigens. of sulfonamides, and the basis for their selectivity,
Adjuvants can be used for various purposes: (i) to is the enzyme dihydropteroate synthase (DHPS)
enhance the immunogenicity of highly purified or in the folic acid pathway. Quinolones are
recombinant antigens; (ii) to reduce the amount of molecules structurally derived from the
antigen or the number of immunizations needed heterocyclic aromatic compound quinoline, the
for protective immunity; (iii) to improve the efficacy name of which originated from the oily substance
of vaccines in newborns, the elderly or immuno- obtained after the alkaline distillation of quinine.
compromised persons; or (iv) as antigen delivery They have antimicrobial activity because of their
systems for the uptake of antigens by the mucosa. action against the topoisomerase enzyme.
Some of the features involved in adjuvant selection Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic used to
are: the antigen, the species to be vaccinated, the treat bacterial infections. By binding to the 50s
route of administration and the likelihood of side- subunit of the bacterial 70s rRNA complex, protein
effects. synthesis and subsequent structure and function
21. T cell recognition of antigen requires that a processes critical for life or replication are
complex form between peptides derived from the inhibited. They prevent peptidoglycan synthesis.
protein antigen and cell surface glycoproteins Cephalosporins are medicines that kill bacteria
encoded by genes within the major or prevent their growth. Cephalosporins disrupt
histocompatibilty complex (MHC). MHC class II the synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer of
molecules present both extracellular (exogenous) bacterial cell walls. The peptidoglycan layer is
and internally synthesized (endogenous) antigens important for cell wall structural integrity. The
final transpeptidation step in the synthesis of the
to the CD4 T cells subset of lymphocytes.
peptidoglycan is facilitated by transpeptidases
Endogenous antigens are internally generated
known as penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs).
molecules that become presented on the cell
PBPs bind to the D-Ala-D-Ala at the end of
surface in the complex with class I
muropeptides (peptidoglycan precursors) to
histocompatibilty molecules (MHC I). Endogenous
crosslink the peptidoglycan. Beta-lactam
antigens may result from exogenous viral or
antibiotics mimic the D-Ala-D-Ala site, thereby
bacterial infections that have altered the host cell.
competitively inhibiting PBP crosslinking of
In autoimmune disorders, endogenous, self-
peptidoglycan.
molecules induce autoimmune attack by CD8+ Tc/
CTLs that have escaped negative selection in the 24. Immunoglobulin idiotypes are serologically
thymus. defined determinants associated with the
variable (V) region of antibody molecules
22. The nine multidrug resistance proteins (MRPs)
represent the major part of the 12 members of 25. All the blood grouping reactions are agglutination
the MRP/CFTR subfamily belonging to the 48 reactions. In these the antibodies against A and
human ATP-binding cassette (ABC) transporters. B antigens when added, they bind to the cell
Cloning, functional characterization, and cellular surface and result in dumping of cells. These
localization of most MRP subfamily members have clumps or settling down of cells is referred to as
identified them as ATP-dependent efflux pumps agglutination.
with broad substrate specificity for the transport 26. All T cells originate from haematopoietic stem
of endogenous and xenobiotic anionic substances cells in the bone marrow. B cells undergo their
localized in cellular plasma membranes. complete maturation in the thymus while, T cells
Multidrug resistance protein (MRP) is a broad during their early stages of maturation migrate
specificity, primary active transporter of organic to the thymus and then undergo a process of
anion conjugates that confers a multidrug maturation. They are released as competent and
resistance phenotype when transfected into drug- mature T cells from Thymus.
sensitive cells. The protein was the first example 27. A humanized chain is a chain in which the
of a subgroup of the ATP-binding cassette complementarity determining regions (CDR) of
superfamily whose members have three the variable domains are foreign (originating
membrane-spanning domains (MSDs) and two from one species other than human, or synthetic)
nucleotide binding domains. whereas the remaining chain is of human origin.
23. Sulfonamides were the first drugs acting 28. A nude mouse is a laboratory mouse from a
selectively on bacteria which could be used strain with a genetic mutation that causes a
systemically. Today they are infrequently used, deteriorated or absent thymus, resulting in an
6.10 Immunology
inhibited immune system due to a greatly broad specificity and high affinity. Class II
reduced number of T cells. molecules are dimers consisting of an α and β
29. Heat-inactivation (heating to 56  C for 30 polypeptide chain. Each chain contains an
minutes) of serum is done to inactivate immunoglobulin like region, next to the cell
complement, a group of proteins present in sera membrane. The antigen binding cleft, composed
that are part of the immune response. of two α -helices above a β -pleated sheet,
specifically binds short peptides, about 15 to 24
30. Digoxin- cardiovascular disorder
residues long. The amino acid sequence around
Stevioside- sweetener the binding site, which specifies the antigen
Atropine- Muscle relaxant binding properties, is the most variable site in
Vinblastine- anticancer agent the MHC molecule.
31. Immunoglobulins (Ig) are glycoproteins 34. Hepatitis A virus (HAV), an atypical
molecules that are produced by plasma cells in Picornaviridae that causes acute hepatitis in
response to an immunogen and which functions humans, usurps the HAV cellular receptor 1
as antibodies. The immunoglobulins derived (HAVCR1) to infect cells. HAVCR1 is a class 1
their name from the findings that they migrate integral membrane glycoprotein that contains
with globular proteins when antibody containing two extracellular domains: a virus-binding
serum is placed in an electric field. immunoglobulin-like (IgV) domain and a mucin-
Immunoglobulins generally assume as one of the like domain that extends the IgV from the cell
two roles-It acts as plasma membrane bound membrane. One of the early hallmarks of HIV
antigen receptor on the surface of B cells. infection is the impairment of a variety of CD4+
T-cell functions including T-cell colony formation,
32. The sequence of oligosaccharides determines autologous mixed lymphocyte reactions,
whether the antigen is A, B, or A1. The ABO expression of interleukin-2 (IL-2) receptors, and
blood group antigens are attached to IL-2 production. The nicotinic acetylcholine
oligosaccharide chains that project above the receptor (nAChR) is the first identified receptor
RBC surface. These chains are attached to for rabies virus. Rabies virus antigen was
proteins and lipids that lie in the RBC detected at sites coincident with nAChR. The
membrane. The ABO locus has three main allelic nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (nAchR) is
forms: A, B, and O. The A allele encodes a located at the postsynaptic muscle membrane.
glycosyltransferase that produces the A antigen Heparan sulfate is a ubiquitously distributed
(N-acetylgalactosamine is its immunodominant polysulfated polysaccharide that is involved in
sugar), and the B allele encodes a the initial step of herpes simplex virus type 1
glycosyltransferase that creates the B antigen (HSV-1) infection. The virus interacts with cell-
(D-galactose is its immunodominant sugar). The surface heparan sulfate to facilitate host-cell
O allele encodes an enzyme with no function, and attachment and entry. 3-O-Sulfonated heparan
therefore neither A or B antigen is produced, sulfate has been found to function as an HSV-1
leaving the underlying precursor (the H antigen) entry receptor.
unchanged. These antigens are incorporated into 35. Immunoglobulin M, or IgM for short, is a basic
one of four types of oligosaccharide chain, type 2 antibody that is produced by B cells. IgM is by
being the most common in the antigen-carrying far the physically largest antibody in the human
molecules in RBC membranes. Thus, in ABO circulatory system. It is the first antibody to
system of blood grouping, the antigenic appear in response to initial exposure to antigen.
determinants are of carbohydrate origin. The spleen is the major site of specific IgM
33. Although similar to Class I, the MHC Class II production.the same time because the large size
molecule is composed of two membrane spanning of most antigens hinders binding to nearby sites.
proteins. Each chain is approximately 30 kDa in 36. Alzheimer’s is a form of dementia which happens
size, and made of two globular domains. The due to the deposition of amyloid beta (Aß). This
domains are named α-1, α-2, β-1 and β-2. The two happen in neural juncture of brain. Mad cow is a
regions farthest from the membrane are α-1 and fatal neurodegenative disease caused in cattles
β-1. The two chains associate without covalent due to a misfolded protein called Prions. Sickle-
bonds. The MHC molecules ability to present a cell disease is a recessive genetic blood disorder.
wide range of antigenic peptides for T cell It causes abnormal, rigid, sickle shape of red
recognition requires a compromise between blood cells due to mutation of the haemoglobin
Immunology 6.11
gene. Swine flu is a infection caused by various two separate and distinct placentas and
types of swine influenza virus. The known SIV membranes, both amnion and chorion. These
strains include influenza C and the sub-types of twins can accept grafts from each other as they
influenza A known as H1N1, H1N2, H3N1, H3N2 have identical MHC haplotypes and identical TH
and H2N3. cells.
37. Hybridoma technology is used to combine the 42. HGH is used in dwarfism, Erythropoetin used
properties of site specific antigen activity of B cells in Annemia treatment, Factor VIII is been used
with the immortality property of Myeloma M in Haemophilia treatment and Plalet derived
(cancerous) cells. Thus, the cells from a successful growth factor used in chemotherapeutic drug
hybridoma experiment have single specificity of induced thrombocytopenia treatment.
B cells with indefinite life span property. 43. A zinc finger protein is a DNA-binding protein
Anitbodies therefore produced are all of single domain consisting of zinc fingers ranging from
specificity and hence are monoclonal in nature. two in the Drosophila regulator ADR1, the more
Using monoclonal Ab’s, cells are categorised on common three in mammalian Sp1 up to nine in
the basis of expression of certain defined markers. TF 111A. They occur in nature as the part of
Prostate specific Ag and other organ-associated transcription factors conferring DNA sequence
Ag are used with the produced monoclonal Ab specificity as the DNA-binding domain.
for determining nature of a primary tumour. 44. PUFAs are long-chain fatty acids containing two
38. Interferon beta is produced mainly by fibroblasts or more double bonds.
and some epithelial cell types. The synthesis of They provide structural & functional
IFN beta can be induced by common inducers of characteristics, and are involved in a wide range
interferons, including viruses, double- stranded of biological components including membranes
RNA, and bacteria. It is also induced by some (in phospholipids). Equally important PUFAs
cytokines such as TNF (Tumor Necrosis Factor) serve as precursors for conversion into
and IL1 (Inter Leukin1). metabolites that regulate critical biological
39. A neonatally thymectomized mouse, appeared functions.Biodiesel is a non-petroleum and
healthy until about 2 to 4 months of age. environmentally-friendly alternative to
Thymectomy after 3 weeks of age was not petroleum-based diesel fuel and not fatty
associated with any significant impairment of acid.PUFA is fatty acid it is not used as it forms
homograft immunity. epoxide in presence of oxygen.
40. Lymphocytes constitute 20- 40% of the body’s 45. A nude mouse is a laboratory mouse from a strain
white blood cells and 99% of the cells in the lymph. with a genetic mutation that causes a deteriorated
Lymphocytes continually circulate in the blood or absent thymus, resulting in an inhibited immune
and lymph and are capable of migrating into the system due to a greatly reduced number of T cells.
tissue spaces and lymphoid organs, thereby The phenotype, or main outward appearance of the
integrating the immune system to a high degree. mouse is a lack of body hair, which gives it the
Lymphocytes interact with foreign antigens in “nude” nickname. The nude mouse is valuable to
lymph nodes. Lymph nodes are the sites where research because it can receive many different
immune responses are mounted to antigens in types of tissue and tumor grafts, as it mounts no
lymph. They are encapsulated bean shaped rejection response.
structures containing a reticular network packed 46. The immunoglobulins can be divided into five
with lymphocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells. different classes, based on differences in the
Lymph nodes are the first organized lymphoid amino acid sequences in the constant region of
structure to encounter antigens that enter the the heavy chains. The valency of Immunog-
tissue spaces. lobulin refers to the number of antigenic
41. A twin is one of two offspring produced in the determinants that an individual immunoglobulin
same pregnancy and developed from one oocyte molecule can bind. The valency of all immuno-
(monozygotic) or from two oocytes (dizygotic) globulins is at least two and in some instances
fertilized at the same time. Dizygotic twins or more than that.
fraternal twins are heterologous twins developed 47. Hypersensitive response is characterized by the
from two separate oocytes fertilized at the same rapid death of cells in the local region
time. They may be of the same or opposite sex, surrounding an infection carried out as a
differ both physically and genetically, and have programmed mechanism for cell death.
6.12 Immunology
Environmental cues such as flooding, drought, 52. Its cross reactivity free in plant as such antibodies
chilling, wounding, and pathogen attack induce can be susceptible for cross reactivity in animal
ethylene formation in plants. Glyphosate is a system.
chemical herbicide which kills plants by inhbiting 53. Interferons (IFNs) are proteins made and
the shikimate pathway. It targets EPSP released by host cells in response to the presence
synthase, the enzyme that catalyzes the of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, parasites
conversion of shikimate-3-phosphate and ortumor cells. They allow for communication
phosphoenolpyruvate into EPSP. between cells to trigger the protective defenses
48. Reverse vaccinology is development of vaccine of the immune system that eradicate pathogens
that employs bioinformatics. It indicates, from or tumors.
genome sequence to vaccine development and 54. Allelic exclusion has been observed most often in
hence the vaccine is better and more specific. genes for cell surface receptors and has been
49. B-cells selectively adhere to the fiber of nylon extensively studied in immune cells such as
wool while T-cells do not and hence found in B lymphocytes. In B lymphocytes, successful
column flow resulting in successful recovery of heavy chain gene rearrangement of the genetic
both cell types. Whereas macrophage attaches material from one chromosome results in the
to the petri plates and hence its major population shutting down of rearrangement of genetic
will be there. material from the second chromosome. If no
successful rearrangement occurs, rearrangement
50. Griseofulvin is an antifungal drug that is
of genetic material on the second chromosome
administered orally. It is used both in animals
takes place. If no successful rearrangement
and in humans,to treat fungal infections of the
occurs on either chromosome, the cell dies. As a
skin (known as ringworm) and nails. It is derived result of allelic exclusion, all the antigen receptors
from the mold Penicillium griseofulvum. on an individual lymphocyte will have the same
Daunorubicin is chemotherapeutic of the amino acid sequence in the variable domain of
anthracycline family that is given as a treatment the heavy chain protein. As the specificity of the
for some types of cancer. It was initially isolated antigen receptor is modulated by the variable
from Streptomyces peucetius. domain of the light chain encoded by one of the
The rifamycins are a group of antibiotics that are immunoglobulin light chain loci, the specificities
synthesized either naturally by the bacterium of B cells containing the same heavy chain
Amycolatopsis mediterranei or artificially. They recombination event can differ according to their
are a subclass of the larger family Ansamycin. light chain recombination event.
Rifamycins are particularly effective against 55. A pregnancy test attempts to determine whether
mycobacteria, and are therefore used to treat a woman is pregnant. Markers that indicate
tuberculosis, leprosy, and mycobacterium avium pregnancy are found in urine and blood, and
complex (MAC) infections. pregnancy tests require sampling one of these
51. A vaccine vector, or carrier, is weekend virus or substances. The first of these markers to be
bacterium into which harmless genetic material discovered, human chorionic gonadotropin
from another disease causing organism can be (hCG), was discovered in 1930 to be produced by
inserted. The vaccine virus, the virus that causes the trophoblast cells of the fertilised ovum
cowpox, is now used to make recombinant vector (blastocyst). While hCG is a reliable marker of
vaccines. Vaccinia is relatively large and has ample pregnancy, it cannot be detected until after
room to accept additional genetic fragments. implantation this results in false negatives if the
test is performed during the very early stages of
pregnancy.
Genetics - I : Classical and Population Genetics 7.1
7
C HAPTER
Genetics - I : Classical and
Population Genetics
2016 (a) Non-random mating
1. Match the type of chromosomal inheritance (b) Random genetic drift
(Column-I) with the corresponding genetic (c) Selection
disease or trait (Column-II).
(d) Combination of non-random mating and
Column-I random genetic drift
P. Autosomal recessive inheritance 5. Consider a population of 10,000 individuals, of
Q. Autosomal dominant inheritance which 2500 are homozygotes (PP) and 3000 are
R. X-linked inheritance heterozygotes (Pp) genotype. The frequency of
S. Y-linked inheritance allele p in the population is ______.
Column-II 6. In a genetic cross between the genotypes WWXX
and wwxx, the following phenotypic distributions
1. Huntington disease
were observed among the F2 progeny: WX, 562;
2. Hairy ears
wx, 158; Wx, 38; and wX, 42. Likewise, a cross
3. Cystic fibrosis between XXYY and xxyy yielded the following
4. Hemophilia results: XY, 675; xy, 175; Xy, 72; and xY, 78.
Codes: Similarly, a cross between WWYY and wwyy
P Q R S yielded: WY, 292; wy, 88; Wy, 12; and wY, 8. In
all the genotypes, capital letters denote the
(a) 1 4 3 2
dominant allele. Assume that the F1 progeny were
(b) 4 3 2 1 self-fertilized in all three crosses. Also, double
(c) 3 1 4 2 cross-over does not occur in this species. Which
(d) 4 2 3 1 of the following is correct?
2. A crossing was performed between the genotypes (a) Relative position: W-X-Y Distances: W-X = 5
DdEeFfgg and ddEeFfGg. Assuming that the map units, X-Y = 17 map units
allelic pairs of all genes assort independently, the (b) Relative position: X-Y-W Distances: X-Y = 15
proportion of progeny having the genotype map units, Y-W = 11 map units
ddeeffgg is expected to be ____________%.
(c) Relative position: Y-W-X Distances: Y-W = 5
2015 map units, W-X = 11 map units
3. A heterozygous tall plant (Tt) was crossed with a (d) Relative position: X-W-Y Distances: X-W = 5
homozygous dwarf plant (tt). The resultant seeds map units, W-Y = 10 map units
were collected. If five seeds are chosen at random, 7. A dioecious plant has XX sexual genotype for
then the probability (in %) that exactly two of female and XY for male. After double fertilization,
these seeds will yield dwarf plants is ______. what would be the genotype of the embryos and
2014 endosperms?
4. In a relatively large but finite and closed (a) 100% ovules will have XXX endosperm and
population of sexually reproducing diploid XX embryo
organisms, the frequency of homozygous (b) 100% ovules will have XXY endosperm and
genotype PP changes from 0.40 to 0.50 and that XY embryo
of pp changes from 0.40 to 0.41 in a span of 10
(c) 50% ovules will have XYY endosperm and XY
generations. Which of the following is the most
embryo, while other 50% will have XXY
likely cause for the above change in frequency of
the PP genotype? endosperm and YY embryo
7.2 Genetics - I : Classical and Population Genetics
2013 Common Data for Questions 13 and 14:

8. Of the two diploid species, species I has 36 Red-green colour blindness is inherited as a recessive
chromosomes and species II has 28 chromosomes. X-linked trait.
How many chromosomes would be found in an 13. What will be the probability of having the colour-
allotriploid individual? blind son to a woman with phenotypically normal
parents and a colour-blind brother, and married
(a) 42 or 54 (b) 46 or 50
to a normal man? (Assume that she has no
(c) 74 or 86 (d) 84 or 108 previous children)
9. Hypophosphatemia is manifested by an (a) 100 % (b) 50 %
X-linked dominant allele.What proportion of the (c) 25 % (d) 12.5 %
offsprings from a normal male and an affected
14. What will be the probability of having the colour-
heterozygous female will manifest the disease?
blind daughter to a phenotypically normal
(a) ½ sons and ½ daughters woman, who already had one colour-blind son,
(b) all daughters and no sons and is married to a colour-blind man?
(c) all sons and no daughters (a) 75 % (b) 50 %
(d) ¼ daughters and ¼ sons (c) 25 % (d) 15 %
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 15:
2012
The abdomen length (in millimeters) was measured in
10. Match the terms in Group I with the ploidy in
15 male fruit flies, and the following data were obtained:
Group II.
1.9, 2.4, 2.1, 2.0, 2.2, 2.4, 1.7, 1.8, 2.0, 2.0, 2.3, 2.1,
Group I Group II
1.6, 2.3 and 2.2.
P. Disome 1. 2n + 1
15. The value of standard deviation (SD) will be
Q. Monosome 2. 2n –1
(a) 0.061 (b) 0.25
R. Nullisome 3. n –1
(c) 0.61 (d) 0.85
S. Trisome 4. n+1
Codes : 2010
P Q R S 16. In transgenics, alterations in the sequence of
uncleotide in genes are due to
(a) 4 2 3 1
P. Substitution
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 4 1 Q. Deletion
(d) 1 4 3 2 R. Insertion
11. A disease is inherited by a child with a probability S. Rearrangement

(a) P and Q (b) P, Q and R
1
of . In a family with two children, the (c) Q and R (d) R and S
4
probability 17. True breeding Drosophila flies with curved
that exactly one sibling is affected by this disease is wings and dark bodies were mated with true
1 3 breeding short wings and tan body Drosophila.
(a) (b) The F1 progeny was observed to be with curved
4 8
wings and tan body. The F1 progeny was again
7 9
(c) (d) allowed to breed and produced flies of the
16 16 following phenotype, 45 curved wings tan body,
2011 15 short wings tan body, 16 curved wings dark
12. Diploid Drosophila has eight chromosomes. body and, 6 short wings dark body.
Which one of the following terms should NOT be The mode of inheritance is
used to describe Drosophila with sixteen numbers (a) Typical Mendelian with curved wings and tan
of chromosomes? body being dominant
(a) Polyploid (b) Typical non-Mendelian with curved wings and
(b) Aneuploid tan body not following any pattern
(c) Euploid (c) Mendelian with suppression of phenotypes
(d) Tetraploid (d) Mendelian with single crossover
2004 2000
18. Some of the genes from viruses introduced into 19. PKU is one of the best known hereditary disorders
plants in fully functional form often exhibit in amino acid metabolism. The defect is attributed
Mendelian inheritance because to a lesion in one of the following enzymatic
(a) the genes are stably integrated in chromosomes activities
(b) the genes are stably maintained in vectors (a) Phenylalanine ammonia lyase
(c) the genes are co-expressed with chromosomal (b) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
genes (c) Tryosine hydroxylase
(d) the genes are not interrupted by introns (d) Phenylalanine transaminase
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (1.3 : 1.8) 3. (31%) 4. (c) 5. (0.6 to 0.6) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a)
10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. The common Chromosomal inheritances Therefore n = s + t.
including Autosomal Recessive inheritance,
5!  1   1  
3 2
Autosomal dominant inheritance, X linked P =   
inheritance, Y linked inheritance are associated 3!  2!  2   2  
with Cystic Fibrosis, Huntington Disease,
5 4  1 1 1 1 1 
Hemophilia, Hairy ears.    
2  2 2 2 2 2 
=
2. Crossing of DdEeFfgg & ddEeFfGg. was
performed hence. 20
P =
Dd  dd : Dd dd Dd dd i.e. dd = 0.5 64
Ee  Ee : EE Ee eE ee i.e. ee = 0.25 20
%P =  100  31.25
Ff  Ff : Ff fF fF ff i.e. ff = 0.25 64
4. The genotype of PP changes from 0.4 to 0.5 while
gg  Gg : gG gG gg gg i.e. gg = 0.50
in case of pp; it changes from 0.4 to 0.41 in a closed
 ddeeffgg = (0.5) (0.25) (0.25) (0.5) population of sexually reproducing diploids. So,
= 0.0156 = 0.0156  100% =1.56% it is clearly suggestive of the fact that the
3. genotype PP is naturally selected and adapted
T t by the environment and so its genotype has a
t Tt tt higher frequency.
t Tt tt 5. We have, according to Hardy-Weinberg's law of
population dynamics and equilibrium,
The probability of dwarf seeds from resultant P2 + 2PQ + Q2 = 1
seeds
Where, P is the allelic genotype or the frequency
= 0.5 = 50% of 'P' and Q is the allelic frequency of 'p'.
Then, probability of selection of 2 seeds which Now, Total population = 10000
yield dwarf plant from selected 5 seeds
Therefore, P2 = 2500/10000 = 0.25
By applying Bionomial theorem
and 2PQ = 3000/10000 = 0.3
n! Therefore, Q2 = 1 – P2 – 2PQ
P = a s bt
s!  t !
= 1 – 0.25 – 0.3 = 0.45
n = The total number of events
So, Q = 0.671 which is the frequency of the allele p
s = The number of times outcome a occurs
6. In the various genetic crosses, it can be seen that
t = The number of times out come b occurs W and Y are more close to each other than X and
7.4 Genetics - I : Classical and Population Genetics
Y. At the same time, X and W are close to each chromosomal pairs for a species (2n–2). A trisomy
other while Y is farthest from X. So, the relative is a type of polysomy in which there are three
positioning of the genes are Y-W-X and y-w-x. instances of a particular chromosome, instead of
Now, Relative distances of genes with respect to the normal two (2n+1).
each other are as follows: 1
11. Given: P(E) = , P E =
3
 
Distance of W gene from Y, Y - W = 5 units and 4 4
W from X, W - X = 11 units 1 3 3
P (x = 1) = 2 C1       =
7. Dioecious plants have male (staminate) flowers 4 4 8
on one plant, and female (pistillate) flowers on 12. Aneuploidy is an error in cell division that results
another plant. Some of these plants are in the daughter cells having the wrong number
polygamo-dioecious, with some male flowers on of chromosomes. It is the second major category
female plants and some female flowers on male of chromosomes mutation in which chromosome
plants. A dioecious plant having XX femal number is abnormal. An aneuploid is an
genotype and XY mal genotype undergoes double individual organism whose chromosome number
fertilization. So, on double fertilization, we have: differs from the wild type by part of a
50% ovules : XXX endosperm and XX embryo chromosome set. Generally, the aneuploid
And rest 50% ovules : XXY endosperm and XY chromosome set differs from wild type by one or
embryo small number of chromosomes. Aneuploids have
chromosome number either greater or smaller
8. Given, Species I has 36 (2n = 36) chromosomes
than of wild type. Aneuploid nomenclature is
and species II has 28 (2n = 28) chromosomes.
based on the number of copies of the specific
Now, species I and II are crossed to obtain an
chromosome in the aneuploid state. So, for
allotriploid individual. That means it has a total
drosophila with 16 chromosomes, it is not
chromosome of 3n. When the two diploid species aneuploid in condition.
are crossed, the chromosome set of one species
would not undergo reduction division for the 13. The probability of having the colorblind son to
purpose of obtaining the allotriploid hybrid. That woman with phenotypically normal parent and
means the 3n would be contributed by 2n and n. a colorblind brother, and married to a normal
So, the 2n can be from species I or II and so the man than may be the woman is a carrier of blind
n can be from species II or I respectively. Hence, trait or else not.
the required chromosome number would be: Then we can say mother can be XRX a carrier or
Species I (2n) + Species II (n) = 3n XX normal and have a cross with a normal man.
 36 + 14 = 50 X Y X Y
Or Species I (n) + Species II (2n) = 3n XR XRX XRY OR X XX XY
 18 + 28 = 46 X XX XY X XX XY
9. Given, Hypophosphatemia is caused due to X- Therefore, there is 1 chance of having a colorblind

linked dominant allele. son out of 4 possible progenies.
Now, when a normal male (XY) and a diseased Hence, probability of one child to be colorblind
female (X H X) are crossed together, the F1 = ¼ = 0.25 = 25% .
generation will have offspring: XX, XHX, XY and Again 2 sons could be born, out of which 1 could
XHY. So from this it can be seen that half of the be colorblind;
male offspring and half of the female offspring Probability for colorblind son = ½ = 50%
bear the diseased allele.
14. Let say woman can be a carrier or normal and
10. Disome is a chromosome set having members married to a colorblind man.
paired (as in a normal somatic cell, n+1).
So, woman can be either XRX or XX and man is
Monosome is a chromosome having no homologue,
XRY
especially an unpaired X chromosome (2n–1,
because only one copy of some specific chromosome Therefore, XRX * XRY and XX * XRY
is present instead of the usual two found in its XR X X X
diploid progenitor. especially an unpaired X X R R
X X R R
X X X X X X RX
R R
chromosome). Nullisome is a genetic condition

Y XRY XY Y XY XY
involving the lack of one of the normal
Therefore, out of 4 children, there is only one 17. Let us denote the dominant curved wings allele
chance of having a colorblind daughter. by C, short wings by c, tan body by D, dark body
The probability for 1 out 4 children = ¼ by d. Assumption is made that curved wings and
tan body are recessive traits and that they follow
= 0.25 = 25% ;
Mendelian genetics.
Now there are 2 probable daughters.
Now, F1 progeny CcDd (Since, F1 progeny was
Probability for daughter to be colorblind = ½
observed to be with curved wings and tan body)
= 50%
Cross breedÆ CcDd X CcDd
15. We know, Standard deviation, S.D. =  (Variance) F2 progeny  CCDD/CcDd/CCDd/CcDD ccDD/ccDd Ccdd/CCdd ccdd
= σ2 (45) (15) (16) (6)
Now, Variance = 0.061 (from previous question) 9 : 3 : 3.2 : 1.2
Hence, Standard deviation = (0.061) which approximately becomes 9: 3: 3: 1, which is

= 0.25 (approx.) the phenotypic ratio of F2 generation according
to Mendelian genetics
16. Transgenics is based on insertion of foreign genes
from a different species, or deletion of existing 18. Mendelian inheritance is observed as the viral
nucleotides from the gene sequence in normal genes have been stably integrated and thus
host cells. Also substitution of bases by transition( expresses itself.
Pu by Pu/ Py by Py) or transversion( Pu replaced 19. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal
by Py of vice-versa). Usually, the process of recessive metabolic genetic disorder
random gene rearrangement is not included in characterized by a mutation in the gene for the
transgenic experiments, because it is a natural hepatic enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase
process not yielding desired transgenic traits. (PAH), rendering it nonfunctional.
Thus, in actual practice, insertion, deletion and/
or substitution is used for yielding transgenics.
Genetics - II : Molecular Genetics 8.1
8
C HAPTER Genetics - II : Molecular Genetics
2016 S. 5’-A T G G A C G T G C T T C C C A A t
1. What will be the binding status of regulatory G C A T C G G G C –3
proteins in lac operon when concentrations of T. 5’-A T G G A C G a G C T T C C C
both lactose and glucose are very low in the A A A G C A T C G G G C –3
culture medium?
[Point mutations are shown in the lower case
(a) Only the repressor remains bound to the or ‘–’ within the sequences]
operator
Which of the above mutant sequences DO NOT
(b) Only the cyclic AMP-Catabolic Activator have frame-shift?
Protein (cAMP-CAP) complex remains bound (a) P, Q and S (b) P, S and T
to the CAP binding site
(c) Q, R and S (d) Q, S and T
(c) Neither the repressor nor cAMP-CAP complex
remain bound to their respective binding sites 2015
(d) Both the repressor and cAMP-CAP complex 5. How many 3-tuples are possible for the following
remain bound to their respective binding sites amino acid sequence ?
2. Based on their function, find the ODD one out. MADCMWDISEASE
(a) miRNA (b) siRNA (a) 4 (b) 5
(c) shRNA (d) snRNA (c) 11 (d) 12
3. Which set of the following events occurs during 6. Match the drugs in Group I with their mechanism
the elongation step of translation? of action in Group II.
P. Attachment of mRNA with the smaller Group I
subunit of ribosome P. Paclitaxel
Q. Loading of correct aminoacyl-tRNA into the Q. Colchicine
A site R. Etoposide
R. Formation of a peptide bond between the S. Methotrexate
aminoacyl-tRNA in the A site and the peptide
Group II
chain that is attached to the peptidyl-tRNA
in the P site 1. Inhibits protein translation
S. Dissociation of the ribosomal subunits 2. Inhibits microtubule depolymerization
T. Translocation of peptidyl-tRNA from the A site 3. Inhibits DNA replication

to the P site of the ribosome 4. Alkylates DNA
(a) P, Q and R (b) P, Q and T 5. Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
(c) Q, R and T (d) R, S and T 6. Inhibits microtubule polymerization
4. A DNA sequence, 5-A T G G A C G T G C T T C C (a) P-1, Q-6, R-3, S-4 (b) P-2, Q-6, R-3, S-5
C A A A G C A T C G G G C –3, is mutated to (c) P-1, Q-3, R-6, S-5 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-6, S-4
obtain 7. An in vitor translation system can synthesize
P. 5-A T G G A C G T G C T T C a peptides in all three reading frames of the RNA
C A A A G C A T C G G G C –3 template. When 5  -UCUCUCUC---(UC) n ---
UCUCUCUC - 3 was used as the template in this
Q. 5-A T G G A C G T G C T T C C C g
in vitro translation system, the synthesized
A A A G C A T C G G G C –3 peptides contained 50% each of serine and leucine.
R. 5-A T G G A C G T G C T T C C – When 5-CCUCCUCCU---(CCU)n---CCUCCU-3
A A A G C A T C G G G C –3 was used as the template, the synthesized peptides
8.2 Genetics - II : Molecular Genetics
contained 33.3% each of serine, leucine, and PER TURN when the molecule is laid flat on the
proline. Deduce the condon for proline. surface is _______ and__________, respectively.
(a) UCU (b) CUC (a) 187, 10.69 (b) 195, 10.25
(c) CCU (d) UCC (c) 200, 10.00 (d) 187, 10.50
8. Cytoplasmic extract from the wild type strain of 11. The percentage SIMILARITIES and IDENTITIES,
a bacterium has the ability to convert a colorless respectively, between the two peptide sequences
substrate (S) to a colored product (P) via three given below will be ______% and _____%.
colorless intermediates X, Y and Z, in that order. Peptide I : Ala-Ala-Arg-Arg-Gln-Trp-Leu-Thr-
Each step of the pathway involves a specific Phe-Thr-Lys-Ile-Met-Ser-Glu
enzyme coded by a distinct gene. Four mutant
Peptide II: Ala-Ala-Arg-Glu-Gln-Tyr-Ile-Ser-
strains (a–, b–, c–, d–) were isolated, whose extracts
Phe-Thr-Lys-Ile-Met-Arg-Asp
are incapable of producing the colored product in
the presence of S. In a series of experiments, (a) 80, 80 (b) 80, 60
extracts from the individual mutants were (c) 60, 60 (d) 90, 60
incubated with X, Y or Z and secored for color 12. For their efficient translation, eubacterial
development. The data are summarized in the mRNAs possess a Shine-Dalgarno sequence for
table below. (Yes : color developed, No : no color its recognition by an anti-Shine-Dalgarno
developed) sequence (ASD) in the ribosomes. The correct
Compounds statement is
X Y Z (a) ASD is present in 5S rRNA
(b) ASD is present in 23S rRNA
a– No No No
(c) ASD is present in 16S rRNA
Mutants
b– No Yes Yes (d) ASD is formed by the interaction of the 16S

rRNA with the 23S rRNA upon docking of the
c– Yes Yes Yes 50S subunit on the 30S subunit of the ribosomes
13. The active site in the alpha/beta barrel structures
d– No No Yes
is usually located
Based on the data, which one of the following (a) inside the barrel
is the correct order of enzymes involved in the (b) at the amino side of the strands
pathway ?
(c) at the carboxy side of the strands
(a) S 
d
 X 
c
 Y 
b
 Z 
a
P (d) at any arbitrary site
(b) S 
a
 X 
d
 Y 
b
 Z 
c
P 2013
(c) S 
b
 X 
a
 Y 
c
 Z 
d
P 14. Under alkaline conditions, DNA is more stable
(d) S 
c
 X 
b
 Y 
d
 Z 
a
P than RNA because
2014 (a) RNA forms secondary structures
9. The 5’ ends of the mature forms of the prokaryotic (b) RNA is a single stranded molecule
mRNAs and tRNAs are (c) RNA has uracil in place of thymidine
(a) a triphosphate group in mRNAs and a (d) RNA is susceptible to hydrolysis
monophosphate group in tRNAs 15. Which one of the following modifications is
(b) triphosphate groups in both mRNAs and common toboth protein and DNA?
tRNAs (a) SUMOylation (b) Nitrosylation
(c) monophosphate groups in both mRNAs and (c) Methylation (d) Ubiquitination
tRNAs
16. The nucleotide analogue used in DNA sequencing
(d) a monophosphate group in mRNAs and a by chain termination method is
triphosphate group in tRNAs
(a) 1,3-dideoxy nucleoside triphosphate
10. Topological winding number of a 2.0 kb covalently
(b) 2,3-dideoxy nucleoside triphosphate
closed circular DNA was found to be 191 with a
writhing number of –4. Hence, its LINKING (c) 2,4-dideoxy nucleoside triphosphate
NUMBER and the NUMBER OF BASE PAIR (d) 2,5-dideoxy nucleoside triphosphate
17. The RNA primer synthesized during the 24. The direction of shell coiling in the snail Limnaea
replication process in bacteria is removed by peregra is a classic example of
(a) DNA gyrase (a) chromosomal inheritance
(b) primase (b) extra-chromosomal inheritance
(c) DNA polymerase I (c) chromosomal translocation
(d) DNA polymerase II (d) homologous recombination
18. Match the entries in Group Iwith the entries in 25. Which one of the following DNA sequences carries
Group II. an invert repeat?
Group I Group II (a) ATGAGCCCCGAGTA
P. RNAse P 1. Polyadenylation TACTCGGGGCTCAT
Q. RNase H 2. Splicing (b) ATGAGCCGGCTCTA
R. snRNAs 3. Ribozymes TACTCGGCCGAGAT
S. CstF 4. DNA-RNAhybrids (c) ATGAGCCGAGCCTA
(a) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 ACTCGGCTCGGAT
(b) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (d) ATGAGCCTATGGTA:
(c) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 TACTCGGATACCAT
(d) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 26. In zinc finger proteins, the amino acid residues
that coordinate zinc are
19. The total number of fragments generated by the
(a) Cys and His
complete and sequential cleavage of the
polypeptide given below by Trypsin followed by (b) Asp and Glu
CNBr is  (c) Arg and Lys
Phe-Trp-Met-Gly-Ala-Lys-Leu-Pro-Met-Asp-Gly- (d) Asp and Arg
Arg-Cys-Ala-Gln 2011
20. In a genetic study, 80 people were found to have
27. Molecular chaperones are class of proteins that
alleles for polydactyly. Only 36 of them were
facilitate
polydactylous. What is the extent of penetrance
(a) the proper folding of newly synthesized
percentage? 
proteins
2012 (b) unfolding of newly synthesized proteins
21. In mismatch correction repair, the parental DNA (c) degradation of newly synthesized proteins
strand is distinguished from the daughter strand (d) targeting of newly synthesized proteins
by 
28. Diphtheria toxin, tetracycline and streptomycin
(a) acetylation (b) phosphorylation inhibit
(c) methylation (d) glycosylation (a) DNA repair (b) DNA replication
22. A protein is phosphorylated at a serine residue. (c) transcription (d) translation
A phosphomimic mutant of the protein can be
generated by substituting that serine with
(a) glycine (b) alanine
Assertion : N-methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine
(c) aspartate (d) threonine (NTG) is an effective chemical mutagen.
23. A truncated polypeptide is synthesized due to a Reason : Mutations induced by NTG mainly are
nonsense mutation. Where would you introduce the GC  AT transitions.
another mutation to obtain a full-length (a) both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
polypeptide? reason for (A)
(a) Ribosomal protein gene (b) both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(b) Transfer RNA gene correct reason for (A)
(c) DNA repair gene (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) Ribosomal RNA gene (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
30. Determine the correctness of the following R. 3 – 5 exonuclease activity
statements S. 5 – 3 exonuclease activity
I. Enhancer sequences are those DNA sequences
(a) P and Q only
that are involved in increasing the rate of
DNA replication. (b) Q and R only
II. Enhancer sequences work by binding with (c) Q and S only
eukaryotic gene activator factors. (d) P and S only
(a) only I is true
2010
(b) only II is true
34. Peptidyl transferase activity resides in
(c) both I and II are true
(a) 16S rRNA
(d) both I and II are false
31. Match the terms in Group I with their associated (b) 23 rRNA
functions in Group II. (c) 5S rRNA
Group I (d) 28 rRNA
P. Shine-Dalgarno sequences 35. During transcription
Q. Leucine zipper (a) DNA Gyrase introduces negative supercoils
R. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase and DNA Topoisomerase I removes negative
S. RNA interference (RNAi) supercoils
Group II (b) DNA Topoisomerase I introduces negative
1. Aminoacylation of tRNA supercoils and DNA Gyrase removes negative
2. Gene silencing supercoils
3. Ribosome binding and facilitation of (c) both DNA Gyrase and DNA
translation initiation Topoisomearse I introduce negative supercoils
4. Transcription factors (d) both DNA Gyrase and DNA Topoisomearse I
P Q R S remove negative supercoils
(a) 3 4 1 2 36. Nuclease-hypersensitive sites in the
(b) 4 3 2 1 chromosomes are sites that appear to be
(c) 2 3 1 4 (a) H2 and H4 histone free
(d) 3 2 4 1 (b) H1 and H2 histone free
32. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the (c) H3 and H4 histone free
(d) Nucleosome free
Assertion : Isopropylthiogalactoside (IPTG) is a
gratuitous inducer of lactose operon.
following Asertion (a) and the Reason (r)
Reason : Gratuitous inducers are chemical
analogs which behave like natural inducer but Assertion : MTT assay is used to determine cell
they do not serve as substrate for the enzymes viability based on the principle of colour formation
that are subsequently synthesized. by DNA fragmentation.
(a) both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct Reason : MTT assay is used to determine cell
reason for (A) viability based on the colour development by
(b) both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the converting tetrazolium soluble salt to insoluble
correct reason for (A) salt.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false (a) both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true reason for (a)
33. Which of the following characteristics with respect (b) both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is not the
to bacterial DNA polymerase III are TRUE? correct reason for (a)
P. Initiation of chain synthesis (c) (a) is true but (r) is false
Q. 5 – 3 polymerization (d) (a) is false but (r) is true
38. Match the following antibiotics in Group I with 44. Mobile genetic elements present in human
their mode of action in Group II genome are
Group I Group II P. long interspersed elements (LINEs)
P. Chloramphenicol 1. Binds to DNA gyrase Q. short interspersed elements (SINEs)
Q. Norfloxacin 2. Binds to RNA R. P elements
Polymerase S. IS elements
R. Puromycin 3. Inhibits peptidyl (a) Q, R (b) P, Q
transferase
(c) P, R (d) Q, S
S. Rifampicin 4. Mimics aminoacyl tRNA
(a) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (b) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 2006
(c) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (d) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 45. The enzymes that can be used in 5 end labeling
of DNA are
2009
(P) alkaline phosphatase
39. Which of the following are commonly used as
reporter genes? (Q) DNA ligase
P. NPTgene Q. Luciferase gene (R) terminal transferase
R. CFTR gene S. GFPgene (S) polynucleotide kinase
(a) Q, S (b) R,S (a) P, S (b) R, Q
(c) P, R (d) P, Q (c) P, R (d) R, S
40. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the 2005
following Assertion (a) and Reason (r): 46. Expression of which of the following reporter
Assertion (a): IPTG (Isopropylthiogalactoside) genes does not require addition of specific
is a gratuitous inducer of lac operon. substrate for detection ?
Reason (r) : IPTG is an efficient inducer, but (a) Luciferase
not a substrate of lac operon (b)  -Glucuronidase
(a) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct (c)  -Glucosidase
reason for (a)
(d) Green fluorescent protein
(b) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the
correct reason for (a) Common Data for Questions 47 and 48:
(c) (a) is true but (r) is false Normal primary hepatocytes can be artificially
immortalized. Certain spontaneous mutants of
(d) (a) is false but (r) is true immortalized hepatocytes are sensitive to ionizing
2008 radiation.
41. Zinc fingers are characteristics of 47. Which of the following genes are involved in
Immortalization of primary hepatocytes?
(a) blood clotting proteins
(a) Telomerase and Cyclin D
(b) RNA chaperones
(b) NFB and Thymidine kinase
(c) DNA binding proteins
(c) Cyclin D and myc
(d) lysosomal hydrolases
(d) Telomerase and Ras
2007 48. What would happen to the mutant cells by
42. Si RNA(s) interfere at ionizing radiation?
(a) transcriptional level (a) Apoptosis (b) Necrosis
(b) post-transcriptional level (c) Cell growth arrest (d) Cell proliferation
(c) DNA replication level 2004
(d) translational level
49. Expression of antisense RNA of ACC synthase in
43. Presence of CX2–4 CX X 8HX 3H sequence in a transgenic tomato plants inhibited the synthesis of
protein suggest that it is ethylene resulting in
(a) a protein kinase (a) Change in colour from green to red
(b) GTP binding protein (b) Change in aroma
(c) zinc finger protein (c) Change in colour from red to green
(d) lipase (d) None of these
2003 56. A heterologous protein for its expression in the

50. Which of the following processes require energy? milk of a transgenic animal should be under the
control of the promoter of the gene coding for
(a) ligation
(a)  -Globin (b)  -Lactoglobulin
(b) transformation
(c) Preproinsulin (d) lac Z
(c) restriction digestion
57. Reverse genetics means
(d) hybridization
(a) Finding the function of a ORF
51. The full-length coding sequence of an eukaryotic
gene was expressed in bacteria and the protein (b) Finding the gene responsible for a trait
was purified. However, in the functional assay, (c) RNA dependent DNA synthesis
no activity was detected for the purified protein. (d) Converting somatic cell to a germ cell
The reason could be
2000
(a) the host bacteria produced an enzyme that
inhibited the activity of the expressed 58. The G + C content of bacteriophage 13 double
eukaryotic protein standed DNA is 68%. What would you expect the
G + C content of its mRNA ?
(b) the purified protein was contaminated with
bacteria (a) About 68% (b) About 34%
(c) the host bacteria did not produce the essential (c) About 32% (d) About 86%
co-factors 59. Rho-dependent and rho-independent
(d) no post-translational modification on the transcription termination mechanisms operate in
prokaryotes. Rho independent termination
protein expressed in bacteria
mechanism involves
2002 (a) Binding of the rho protein upstream of the
52. RNA is very much susceptible to hydrolysis in termination element
alkali because (b) No protein factors and only RNA secondary
(a) It contains uracil residues in its structure structure and run of ‘U' s
(b) Its 2 -OH group participate in intramolecular (c) Presence of UGA or UAA stop codons
cleavage of phosphodiester backbone (d) Binding of accessory factors at termination signal
(c) Cleavage occurs in the glycosylic bonds of 60. In eukaryotes the ribosomal RNA genes are
purine bases transcribed by
(d) Cleavage occurs in the glycosylic bonds of (a) Reverse transcriptase
pyrimidine bases
(b) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
2001 (c) RNA polymerase I
53. Efficient expression of a heterologous protein (d) RNA polymerase III
product is influenced by 61. The term protein splicing refers to
(a) Transcriptional efficiency (a) Removal of intervening sequences between
(b) Copy number of the plasmid the genes
(c) Codon bias (b) Splicing out of introns from RNA
(d) All of these (c) Removal of intervening protein sequences
54. The fundamental feature of the genetic code from the translated protein
which allows the expression of a protein in any (d) Joining (splicing) of two different gene
host is its products to generate a novel protein
(a) Triplet nature (b) Universality 62. The double stranded DNA molecule of a virus was
(c) Degeneracy (d) Redundancy found by electron microscopy to have a length of
55. The major groove of DNA is lined by 34 M.
(a) N3 of purine and N1 of pyrimidine (a) How many nucleotide pairs are there in one
molecule ? (1)
(b) N7 of purine and O2 of pyrimidine
(b) How many complete turns of the two
(c) N7 of purine and C4 of Pyrimidine
polynucleotide chains are present in such a
(d) None of these double helix ? (1)
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (5) 20. (45)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. (a, d) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (c) 62. (*)
EXPLANATIONS
1. The binding status of regulatory proteins, in lac 6. Group I Group II
operon when concentrations of both lactose and P. Paclitaxel 2. Inhibits microtubule
glucose are very low in the culture medium will depolymerization
be both the repressor and cAMP-CAP complex
Q. Colchicine 6. Inhibits microtubule
remain bound to their respective binding sites. polymerization
2. miRNA is associated with RNA interference, R. Etoposide 3. Inhibits DNA replication
nuclear export. siRNA and shRNA also functions
S. Methotrexate 5. Inhibits dihydrofolate
in RNA interference. snRNA is involved in
reductase
spliceosomal reaction.
7. Only two codons are possible in 1st case : UCU
3. On the ribosome, the anticodon of the incoming CUC
aminoacyl-tRNA is matched against the mRNA 3 codons are possible in 2nd case : CCU
codon positioned in the A-site. The translational CUC
machinery select the aminoacyl-tRNA carrying UCC
the matching anticodon out of 64 different Due to wobble hypothesis the unique amino acid
combinations. During this proof-reading, codon in 2nd case is only CCU hence a new amino
aminoacyl-tRNAs with non-cognate anticodons acid is synthesized.
are thrown out of the ribosome and replaced by 8. S  c
 X b
 Y  d
 Z a
P
new amino acyl-tRNAs that are to be checked.
9. In the more matured forms of RNAs in case of
When the right aminoacyl-tRNA enters the A-
prokaryotic organisms, the 5' end of mRNA
site the growing polypeptide in the P-site is
consists of a triphosphate group while there is a
almost immediately linked to the new amino acid single monophosphate group present at the 5'
in the A-site via a peptide bond. Formation of terminal of tRNA molecules.
the peptide bond is catalysed by the ribosome
10. Given topological winding no. of a closed circular
itself. The reaction leaves an empty tRNA in the
DNA = 191
ribosomal P-site and the new peptidyl-tRNA in
the A-site. Writhing number = - 4
4. A frameshift mutation is a genetic mutation So, linking number = Winding No. + Writhing
No. = 191 – 4 = 187 when the molecule is laid flat
caused by insertions or deletions of a number of
on the surface
nucleotides in a DNA sequence that is not
divisible by three. Due to the triplet nature of Number of base pair per turn = Bases/ winding
gene expression by codons, the insertion or no. = 2kb/ 191 = 2048/ 191 = 10.722
deletion can change the reading frame resulting 11. Peptide I has 15 sequences out of which 9 are
in a completely different translation from the identical to the 15 sequences of Peptide II.
original. Therefore P, S and T do not have So, the percentage identity between the two
frameshift. sequences will be = 9/15  100 % = 60 %
5. Number of 3 tuples = L – k + 1 Now, arginine and glutamine, leucine and
L  Total length of sequence = 13 isoleucine and glutamate and aspartate are
similar amino acids = 3 similar + 9 identical
k  tuples = 3 amino acids between the two peptides
Then 3 tuples = 13 – 3 + 1 = 11 So percentage similarity = 12/15  100% = 80%
12. Shine-Dalgarno (SD) sequence is a ribonucleotide nucleotide produces a mixture of 2  and 3 
sequence for the formation of the preinitiation nucleotides at the breakpoint. Moreover, the
complex between a 30S ribosomal subunit and an double stranded DNA has relatively small grooves
mRNA molecule. It is a seven-nucleotide, as opposed to the larger grooves on RNA
pyrimidine-rich sequence near the 3? terminus of molecules. This provides ample docking space for
16S (prokaryotic) or 18S eukaryote ribosomal RNA, damaging enzymes.
found in many organisms, that forms base pairs 15. The addition of a methyl group (-CH 3 ) to a
with a complementary three- to seven-nucleotide, molecule is known as methylation. Extensive
purine-rich sequence (the Shine-Dalgarno methylation of cytosine in DNA is correlated with
sequence) preceding the initiation codon in many reduced transcription. DNA methylation is one of
mRNA molecules, thereby allowing the initiating several epigenetic mechanisms that cells use to
ribosomal subunit to bind the mRNA so as to control gene expression. Proteins can be
discriminate between AUG or GUG (i.e. initiation) methylated on the side-chain nitrogen of arginine
triplets and to select the one at the beginning of a and lysine residues or on carboxy-termini. Protein
cistron. Anti Shine Dalgarno sequences are present methylation is a way of subtly changing the
in 16s rRNA molecules for the recognition of SD primary sequence of a peptide so that it can encode
sequences in eubacterial mRNA. more information. This common posttranslational
13. The most frequent and most regular of the domain modification is implicated in the regulation of a
structures are the alpha / beta domains. These variety of processes including protein trafficking,
domains consist of a central parallel or mixed beta- transcription and protein-protein interactions.
sheet surrounded by alpha-helix. All the glycolytic 16. DNA sequencing is the determination of the
enzymes are alpha / beta structure proteins. There precise sequence of nucleotides in a sample of
are three maim classes of alpha / beta structure DNA. The most popular method for doing this is
proteins, TIM barrel, Rossman fold, and horseshoes called the dideoxy method or Sanger method. DNA
fold (leucine-rich motif). The alpha/beta barrel fold is synthesized from four deoxynucleotide
is adopted by most enzymes performing a variety triphosphates. The dideoxy method gets its name
of catalytic reactions, but with very low sequence from the critical role played by synthetic
similarity. The cluster centers are found to occur nucleotides that lack the -OH at the 3 carbon
in the middle of the strands or in the C-terminal of atom. A dideoxynucleotide can be added to the
the strands. In most cases, the residues forming growing DNA strand but when it is, chain
the clusters are part of the active site or are located elongation stops because there is no 3 -OH for
close to the active site. The active site is majorly the next nucleotide to be attached to. For this
present at the carboxy-terminal side of the  sheets reason, the dideoxy method is also called the chain
or the  strands. termination method. The DNA sample is divided
14. DNA is the repository of genetic information into four separate sequencing reactions,
gathered over incalculable millions of years and containing the four standard deoxynucleotides
it is stored in a stable form inside the cell. (dATP, dGTP, dCTP and dTTP) and the DNA
However, chemical molecules have some degree polymerase. To each reaction is added only one of
of instability and often breakdown with time. But the four dideoxynucleotides (ddATP, ddGTP,
DNA molecules have to remain stable. The ddCTP, or ddTTP). These dideoxynucleotides are
presence of the –OH group on the second carbon the chain-terminating nucleotides, lacking a
chain of the ribose sugar makes a 3 -OH group required for the formation of a
ribopolynucleotide less stable than a deoxyribose phosphodiester bond between two nucleotides
molecule. The presence of 2-OH group on the during DNA strand elongation. Incorporation of
ribose sugar makes it susceptible to nucleophilic a dideoxynucleotide into the nascent (elongating)
attack in the presence of OH (ions) on the 5- DNA strand therefore terminates DNA strand
phosphorous atom, thus causing breakage of the extension, resulting in various DNA fragments of
phosphodiester link and forming a 2 ,3 cyclic varying length. The dideoxynucleotides are added
phosphate. The –OH ion facilitates the reaction at lower concentration than the standard
because it can generate a 2–O ion from the 2- deoxynucleotides to allow strand elongation
OH group, which attacks the phosphorous atom sufficient for sequence analysis.
and converts the phosphodiester group into a 2, 17. DNA Polymerase I is a template-dependent DNA
3  –cyclic nucleotide, thus breaking the polymerase which catalyzes 53 synthesis of
polynucleotide chain. Hydrolysis of the cyclic DNA. DNA Polymerase I catalyzes the template-
directed polymerization of nucleotides into duplex Therefore, the extent of penetrance in the
DNA in a 5  3  direction. In addition to population = 36/80 x 100 % = 45 %
polymerase activity, this DNA polymerase exhibits 21. Mismatch repair deals with correcting mismatch
3 to 5 and 5 to 3 exonuclease activity. It is able of the normal bases using BER or NER enzyme
to utilize nicked circular duplex DNA as a systems. The system assumes that parental
template and can unwind the parental DNA strands are methylated and freshly synthesized
strand from its template. Because of its daughter strands are non methylated.
exonuclease activity in the 3 to 5 direction, the
22. To investigate the effect of serine 78
polymerase can remove or excise the RNA primers
phosphorylation on p21 activity, replacement of
synthesized during replication.
serine 78 with aspartic acid is done, creating the
18. Ribonuclease P (RNase P) is the endoribonuclease phosphomimic p21s78D.
that generates the mature 5-ends of tRNA by
23. Non sense mutations causes premature stop to
removal of the 5-leader elements of precursor-
be introduced that would lead to truncated or
tRNAs. Although it carries out a biochemically
incomplete protein synthesis. If the protein
simple reaction, RNase P is a complex
synthesis has to be continued, another mutation
ribonucleoprotein particle composed of a single
in t-RNA gene would continue be advised to get
large RNA and at least one protein component.
full length polypeptide
RNase H (Ribonuclease H) is an endoribonuclease
that specifically hydrolyzes the phosphodiester 24. The direction of shell coiling in snail is a dassical
bonds of RNA which is hybridized to DNA. The example for extra chromosomal inheritance, as
snRNAs, along with their associated proteins, in this it is determined by maternal gene effects
form ribonucleoprotein complexes (snRNPs), and not that of the offspring.
which bind to specific sequences on the pre-mRNA 25. An inverted repeat (or IR) is a sequence of
substrate. This intricate process results in two nucleotides followed downstream by its reverse
sequential transesterification reactions. These complement. It is a sequence found in identical
reactions will produce a free lariat intron and (but inverted) form, for example, at the opposite
ligate two exons to form a mature mRNA. This ends of a transposon.
results in the splicing. CstF is recruited by Here, the DNA sequence which carries an
cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor inverted repeat is:
(CPSF) and assembles into a protein complex on ATGAGCCCCGAGTA
the 3' end to promote the synthesis of a functional
polyadenine tail, which results in a mature mRNA TACTCGGGGCTCAT
molecule ready to be exported from the cell 26. Zinc fingers coordinate zinc ions with a
nucleus to the cytosol for translation. combination of cysteine and histidine residues.
19. Given sequence: Phe-Trp-Met-Gly-Ala-Lys-Leu- They can be classified by the type and order of
Pro-Met-Asp-Gly-Arg-Cys-Ala-Gln these zinc coordinating residues (e.g., Cys2His2,
Cys4, and Cys6).
First it is digested with Trypsin and than with
Cyanogen Bromide in a process of sequential 27. The folding of many newly synthesized proteins
cleavage. Cyanogen bromide hydrolyzes peptide in the cell depends on a set of conserved proteins
bonds at the C-terminus of methionine residues. known as molecular chaperones. These prevent
Trypsin cleaves peptide chains mainly at the the formation of misfolded protein structures,
carboxyl side of the amino acids lysine or arginine, both under normal conditions and when cells are
except when either is followed by proline. exposed to stresses such as high temperature.
Significant progress has been made in the
After trypsin digestion, fragments generated are:
understanding of the ATP-dependent
Phe-Trp-Met-Gly-Ala-Lys; Cys-Ala-Gln; Leu-Pro- mechanisms used by the Hsp70 and chaperonin
Met-Asp-Gly-Arg families of molecular chaperones, which can
After CNBr digestion, the fragments generated are: cooperate to assist in folding new polypeptide
Phe-Trp-Met; Gly-Ala-Lys; Cys-Ala-Gln; Leu-Pro- chains.
Met; Asp-Gly-Arg 28. Diphtheria toxin consists of a single polypeptide.
20. Given, No. of polydactylous persons = 36 Proteolysis yields two fragments (A and B) which
are held together by a disulfide bond. The toxin
No. of people having the allele for polydactyly
binds to EGF-like domain of Heparin-binding
= 80
EGF-like growth factor (HB-EGF) through
fragment B and is internalized with HB-EGF by a three dimensional structural motif in proteins.
receptor-mediated endocytosis. Diphtheria toxin These motifs are usually found as part of a DNA-
catalyzes the ADP-ribosylation of, and binding domain in various transcription factors,
inactivates, the elongation factor eEF-2. In this and are involved in regular gene expression.
way, it acts to inhibit translation during Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase is an enzyme that
eukaryotic protein synthesis. Tetracyclines are catalyzes the esterification of a specific amino
antibiotics which inhibit the bacterial growth by acid or its precursor to one of all its compatible
stopping protein synthesis. Three different cognate tRNAs to form an aminoacyl tRNA.
specific mechanisms of tetracycline resistance RNAi works for the gene silencing (Small
have been identified so far: tetracycline efflux, interfering RNA is mainly used in gene silencing
ribosome protection and tetracycline and Antisense technology).
modification. Streptomycin is a water-soluble 32. Gratuitous inducer is an analogue of a natural
aminoglycoside derived from Streptomyces inducer that is capable of inducing an operon
griseus. Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside while not serving as a substrate for the enzyme
antibiotic that is currently used largely in the being induced. IPTG is a gratuitous inducer. It
therapy of active tuberculosis. Like other induces gene expression but itself is not
aminoglycosides, streptomycin is thought to act metabolized by the enzyme.
by binding to bacterial ribosomes and inhibiting
34. Peptidyl transferase is an amino acyltransferase
protein synthesis. Nevertheless, streptomycin is
and forms peptide links between adjacent amino
considered bacteriocidal as well as bacteriostatic.
acids using tRNA during translation process. This
29. N-methyl-N’-nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine is a peptidyl transferase activity is mediated by 23
highly reactive chemical that introduces alkyl ribosomal RNA. This ribozyme 23 rRNA is the
radicals into biologically active molecules and transferase component in bacteria. Also in
thereby prevents their proper functioning. It eukaryotic cells, the same 23 rRNA holds the
could be used as an antineoplastic agent, but it subunit containing peptidyl transferase
might be very toxic, with carcinogenic, component acting as the ribozyme.
mutagenic, teratogenic, and immunosuppressant
35. DNA gyrase catalyse ATP dependant –ve
actions. It could also be used as a component of
supercoiling as these are topoisomerases which
poison gases. This substance is reasonably
influence the topological state of DNA. It is type
anticipated to be a human carcinogen. The
II topoisomerase which induce –ve supercoils (or
mutations induced by this mutagen are mostly
relax +ve supercoils) by looping the template and
purine-pyrimidine transitions of GC Æ AT.
cutting one of the double helices and then 2 ends
30. Enhancer sequences are regulatory DNA are twisted for –ve supercoils. Type I
sequences that, when bound by specific proteins topoisomerase unwinds –ve supercoils to control
called transcription factors, enhance the protein synthesis and facilitate DNA replication,
transcription of an associated gene. Regulation and ease out problems due to unwinding of double
of transcription is the most common form of gene helical forms.
control, and the activity of transcription factors
36. Region of eukaryotic chromosome DNA that is
allows genes to be specifically regulated during
specifically vulnerable to nuclease attack perhaps
development and in different types of cells.
because it is not wrapped in histone as
Transcription factors can bind to enhancer
nucleosomes are called the nuclease
sequences located upstream or downstream from
hypersensitive sites in the chromosomes. Thus
an associated gene, resulting in stimulation or
they are H2 and H4 free, H1 and H2 free, H3 and
enhancement of transcription of the related gene.
H4 histone free.
Enhancer sequences act upon genes on the same
DNA molecule; however, enhancer sequences can 37. The MTT assay is a colorimetric assay which is
be located thousands of base pairs away from the used for measuring the activity of cellular
transcription start site of the gene being enzymes that reduce the tetrazolium dye, MTT,
regulated. Because DNA is folded and coiled in to its insoluble formazan dye, giving a purple
the nucleus, the enhancer may actually be color. These assays measure cellular metabolic
located near the transcription start site in the activity via NAD(P)H-dependent cellular
folded state. oxidoreductase enzymes and may, under defined
conditions, reflect the number of viable cells
31. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is a ribosomal
present. MTT (3-(4,5-dimethylthiazol-2-yl)-2,5-
binding site in the mRNA. The leucine zipper is
diphenyltetrazolium bromide, a yellow tetrazole), transcription factors conferring DNA sequence
is reduced to purple formazan in living cells. A specificity as the DNA-binding domain.
solubilization solution (usually either dimethyl 44. Mobile genetic elements are the nucleotide
sulfoxide, an acidified ethanol solution, or a sequences that can change their position in the
solution of the detergent sodium dodecyl sulfate genome. There are two categories of mobile
in diluted hydrochloric acid) is added to dissolve genetic elements: DNA mobile genetic elements
the insoluble purple formazan product into a or DNA transposons and retroelements.
colored solution. Reduction of MTT and other There are 3 kinds of retroelements:
tetrazolium dyes increases with cellular
 LINE( Long Interspersed Nuclear Elements)
metabolic activity due to elevated NAD(P)H flux.
 SINE( Short Interspersed Nuclear Elements)
38. Chloramphenicol binds to the peptidyl
transferase enzyme to inhibit transfer of the  LTR(retrovirus like elements with Long
growing polypeptide to the next amino acid Terminal Repeats)
occupying the “Acceptor” site. Norfloxacin is a 45. Alkaline phosphatase is a hydrolase enzyme
nalidixic acid analogue and one of the most potent responsible for removing phosphate groups from
DNA gyrase inhibitors. Puromycin is a secondary many types of molecules, including nucleotides,
metabolite of Streptomyces alboniger that blocks proteins, and alkaloids. The process of removing
protein biosynthesis. Puromycin is a structural the phosphate group is called dephosphorylation.
analogue of the 32 end of aminoacyl-transfer Polynucleotide kinase (or PNK) is a T7
RNA. Rifampicin inhibits bacterial RNA bacteriophage (or T4 bacteriophage) enzyme that
polymerase by binding to the beta subunit of RNA catalyzes the transfer of a gamma-phosphate from
polymerase. ATP to the free hydroxyl end of the 5' DNA or
39. Commonly used reporter genes that induce RNA.The resulting product could be used to end-
visually identifiable characteristics usually label DNA or RNA, or in a ligation reaction.
involve fluorescent and luminescent proteins. 46. Luciferase bioluminescence color can vary
Examples include the gene that encodes jellyfish between yellow-green ( λmax = 550 nm) to red
green fluorescent protein (GFP), which causes (λmax = 620) There are currently several different
cells that express it to glow green under blue mechanisms describing how the structure of
light, the enzyme luciferase, which catalyzes a luciferase affects the emission spectrum of the
reaction with luciferin to produce light, and the photon and effectively the color of light emitted.
red fluorescent protein from the gene dsRed. One mechanism proposes that the color of the
40. IPTG (I-8000, I-8050) is an artificial inducer of emitted light depends on whether the product is
the lac operon. IPTG binds to the lac repressor in the keto or enol form. The mechanism suggests
and inactivates it, preventing its binding to the that red light is emitted from the keto form of
lac operator and thus inducing the expression of oxyluciferin, while green light is emitted from
beta-galactosidase. IPTG cannot be hydrolyzed the enol form of oxyluciferin.
and broken down by the cell and is therefore
47. Telomerase contains a catalytic unit with reverse
called a "gratuitous" inducer.
transcriptase activity and an RNA part that
41. Zinc fingers function as interaction modules that provides template for telomere extension.
bind DNA, RNA, proteins, or other small, useful Telomerase is normally expressed only in stem cells
molecules. such as those found in hematopoietic tissues and
42. RNA interference (RNAi) also called post germline cells but is nearly absent in most somatic
transcriptional gene silencing (PTGS), is a cells. Induction of telomerase synthesis bypasses
biological process in which RNA molecules inhibit normal cellular senesce in cancer cells and endows
gene expression, typically by causing the them with unlimited replicative potential.
destruction of specific mRNA molecules. Two 48. Ionizing radiation is generally harmful and
types of small ribonucleic acid (RNA) molecules:
potentially lethal to living things but can have
microRNA (miRNA) and small interfering RNA
health benefits in radiation therapy for the
(siRNA) - are central to RNA interference.
treatment of cancer and thyrotoxicosis. Its most
43. A zinc finger protein is a DNA-binding protein common impact is the induction of cancer with a
domain consisting of zinc fingers ranging from latent period of years or decades after exposure.
two in the Drosophila regulator ADR1, the more High doses can cause visually dramatic radiation
common three in mammalian Sp1 up to nine in burns, and/or rapid fatality through acute
TF 111A. They occur in nature as the part of
radiation syndrome. Controlled doses are used 56. β-Lactoglobulin is the major whey protein of cow
for medical imaging and radiotherapy. Some and sheep’s milk (~3 g/l), and is also present in
scientists suspect that low doses may have a mild many other mammalian species; a notable
hormetic effect that can improve health. exception being humans. Its structure, properties
49. ACC synthase catalyzes the synthesis of ACC, a and biological role have been reviewed many
precursor for ethylene. Ethylene serves as a times.
hormone in plants for stimulating or regulating 57. Reverse genetics is an approach to discover the
the ripening of fruit, the opening of flowers, and function of a gene by analyzing the phenotypic
the abscission (or shedding) of leaves and hence effects of specific gene sequences obtained
none of the given options is suitable. by DNA sequencing. This investigative process
50. ligation is the ATP dependent procedure. The proceeds in the opposite direction of so-
mechanism of DNA ligase is to form two covalent called forward genetic screens ofclassical
phosphodiester bonds between 3 hydroxyl ends genetics. Simply put, while forward genetics
of one nucleotide, (“acceptor”) with the 5  seeks to find the genetic basis of a phenotype or
phosphate end of another (“donor”). ATP is trait, reverse genetics seeks to find what
required for the ligase reaction. phenotypes arise as a result of particular genetic
sequences.
51. Prokaryotes do not carry out the same kinds of
posttranslational modifications such as 58. In RNA GC content will be one half of the Double
glycosylation, phosphorylation as eukaryotes do. strand DNA. So G+C content of RNA is 34%.
This affects a protein’s activity or stability, or at 59. Intrinsic termination (also called Rho-
least its response to antibodies. independent termination) is a mechanism
52. While DNA contains deoxyribose, RNA contains in prokaryotes that causes RNA transcription to
ribose (in deoxyribose there is no hydroxyl group be stopped.[1] In this mechanism, the mRNA
attached to the pentose ring in the 2 position). contains a sequence that can base pair with itself
These hydroxyl groups make RNA less stable to form a stem-loop structure 7-20 base pairs in
than DNA because it is more prone to hydrolysis. length that is also rich incytosine-guanine base
pairs. These bases form three hydrogen bonds
53. Heterologous protein expression depends upon
between each other and are therefore particularly
good codon biasing, transcriptional efficiency and
strong.[2] Following the stem-loop structure is a
optimum copy number production of the
chain of uracil residues.
expression vector system.
60. RNA polymerase I (also called Pol I) is, in
54. Degeneracy produces the ultimate amino acid
higher eukaryotes, the enzyme that only
combination for protein expression.
transcribes ribosomal RNA (but not 5S rRNA,
55. Each groove in DNA is lined by potential which is synthesized by RNA Polymerase III), a
hydrogen-bond donor and acceptor atoms that type of RNA that accounts for over 50% of the
enable specific interactions with proteins total RNA synthesized in a cell.
(seeFigure 27.7). In the minor groove, N-3 of
61. Protein splicing is an intramolecular reaction of
adenine or guanine and O-2 of thymine or
a particular protein in which an internal protein
cytosine can serve as hydrogen acceptors, and the
segment (called an intein) is removed from a
amino group attached to C-2 of guanine can be a
precursor protein with a ligation of C-terminal
hydrogen donor. In the major groove, N-7 of
and N-terminal external proteins (called exteins)
guanine or adenine is a potential acceptor, as are
on both sides.
O-4 of thymine and O-6 of guanine. The amino
groups attached to C-6 of adenine and C-4 of
cytosine can serve as hydrogen donors.
Advanced Biotechnology 9.1
9
C HAPTER Advanced Biotechnology
2016 6. A variety of genetic elements are used in the
1. Which one of the following is NOT a therapeutic transgenic plant research. Match the genetic
agent based on nucleic acid for the treatment of elements (Column-I) with their corresponding
genetic disorders? source (Column-II).
(a) Antisense oligonucleotide Column-I
(b) Ribozyme P. Ubiquitin1 promoter
(c) Aptamer Q. Nos transcriptional terminator
(d) Avidin R. bar selection marker gene
2. Which one of the following is NOT used for the S. gus reporter gene
measurement of cell viability in animal cell Column-II
culture? 1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(a) Trypan blue dye exclusion 2. Streptomyces hygroscopicus
(b) Tetrazolium (MTT) assay
3. Escherichia coli
(c) LDH activity in the culture medium
4. Zea mays
(d) Coulter counter
Codes:
3. A biological process is involved in the ________
P Q R S
treatment of industrial effluent.
(a) 2 1 3 4
(a) primary (b) secondary
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) tertiary (d) quaternary
4. Select the CORRECT combination of genetic (c) 3 4 1 2
components that are essential for the transfer of (d) 4 1 2 3
TDNA segment from Agrobacterium tumefaciens 7. In animal cell culture, a CO2 enriched atmosphere
to plant cells. in the incubator chamber is used to maintain the
(a) Border repeat sequences and oncogenes culture pH between 6.9 and 7.4. Which one of the
(b) Border repeat sequences and vir genes following statements is CORRECT?
(c) Opine biosynthetic genes and vir genes (a) Higher the bicarbonate concentration in the
(d) Opine biosynthetic genes and oncogenes medium, higher should be the requirement
of gaseous CO2
5. Match the secondary metabolites (Column-I) with
the corresponding plant species (Column-II). (b) Lower the bicarbonate concentration in the
medium, higher should be the requirement
Column-I Column-II of gaseous CO2
P. Morphine 1. Datura stramonium (c) Higher the bicarbonate concentration in the
Q. Pyrethrins 2. Catharanthus roseus medium, lower should be the requirement of
R. Scopolamine 3. Papaver somniferum gaseous CO2
S. Vincristine 4. Tagetes erecta (d) CO 2 requirement is independent of
Codes: bicarbonate concentration in the medium
P Q R S 2015
(a) 4 3 1 2 8. Which one of the following features is NOT
(b) 3 4 1 2 required in a prokaryotic expression vector ?
(c) 2 3 4 1 (a) oriC (b) Selection marker
(d) 4 1 2 3 (c) CMV promoter (d) Ribosome binding site
9.2 Advanced Biotechnology
9. In DNA sequencing reactions using the chain The numbers below each band in the sample lane
termination method, the ratio of ddNTPs to in the autoradiograph represent their mean
dNTPs should be signal intensity in arbitrary units. Which one of
(a) 0 (b) < 1 the following options is the correct restriction map
of the DNA ?
(c) 1 (d) > 1
BamHI
BamHI
HaeHI
10. Which one of the following is NOT a product of
denitrification in Pseudomonas?
(a)
(a) N2 (b) N2O 2kb 2kb 3kb 1kb
(c) NO2– (d) NH4+
BamHI
BamHI
HaeHI
11. Which one of the following is a second generation
genetically engineered crop ? (b)
(a) Bt brinjal 2kb 2kb 3kb 1kb
BamHI
BamHI
(b) Roundup soyabean
HaeIII
(c) Golden rice
(c)
(d) Bt rice
2kb 2kb 3kb 1kb
12. Choose the appropriate pair of primers to amplify
BamHI
HaeIII
HaeIII
the following DNA fragment by the polymerase
chain reaction (PCR). (d)
5 –GACCTGTGG------------------ATACGGGAT –3 2kb 2kb 3kb 1kb
3 –CTGGACACC-------------------TATGCCCTA –5 14. Assuming random distribution of nucleotides, the
Primers average number of fragments generated upon
P. 5 –GACCTGTGG–3 digestion of a circular DNA of size 4.3  105 bp
with AluI(5-AGCT-3) is ______  103.
Q. 5 –CCACAGGTC–3
15. Plasmid DNA (0.5 g) containing an ampicillin
R. 5 –TAGGGCATA–3
resistance marker was added to 200 l of
S. 5 –ATCCCGTAT–3 competent cells. The transformed competent cells
(a) P and R (b) P and S were diluted 10,000 times, out of which 50 l was
(c) Q and R (d) Q and S plated on agar plates containing ampicillin. A
13. A linear double stranded DNA of length 8 kbp total of 35 colonies were obtained. The
has three restriction sites. Each of these can transformation efficiency is _____ 106 cfu. g–1.
either be a BamHi or a HaeIII site. The DNA was 2014
digested completely with both enzymes. The
16. The statistical frequency of the occurrence of a
products were purified and subjected to an end-
particular restriction enzyme cleavage site that
filling reaction using the Klenow fragment and
is 6 bases long can be estimated to be
[ –32P]-dCTP. The products of the end-filling
reaction were purified, resolved by (a) once every 24 bases
electrophoresis, stained with ethidium bromide (b) once every 256 bases
(EtBr) and then subjected to autoradiography. (c) once every 1024 bases
The corresponding images are shown below.
(d) once every 4096 bases
Marker
Marker
Sample
Sample
17. The growth medium for mammalian cells

contains serum. One of the major functions of
serum is to stimulate cell growth and attachment.
5kb 5kb 5-GGATCC-3 However, it must be filter sterilized to
BamHI
3-CCTAGG-5
3kb 3kb  (a) remove large proteins
300
2kb 2kb 5-GGCC-3 (b) remove collagen only
900 HaeIII
3-CCGG-5 (c) remove mycoplasma and microorganisms
1kb 1kb 
E tB r Autoradiograph (d) remove foaming agents
18. The plasmid DNA was subjected to restriction (a) the coat of the intact seeds blocks the pungent
digestion using the enzyme EcoRI and analysed volatiles from being released
on an agarose gel. Assuming digestion has (b) the pungent chemicals are stored as inactive
worked (the enzyme was active), match the conjugates and compartmentalized from the
identity of the DNA bands shown in the image in enzymes that convert them into active
Group I with their identity in Group II. chemicals
Uncut EcoRI (c) the pungent chemicals are formed only after
A the reaction with atmospheric oxygen
(d) the pungent chemicals are formed only after
B the reaction with atmospheric carbondioxide
D
21. The length of the minimum unique stretch of
C DNA sequence that can be found only once in a 3
billion base pairs long genome is
(a) 14 (b) 15
Group–I Group–II (c) 16 (d) 18
P. Bands labeled as A 1. Nicked 2013
Q. Band labeled as B 2. Supercoiled
22. Human genome sequencing project involved the
R. Band labeled as C 3. Concatemers construction of genomic library in
S. Band labeled as D 4. Linear (a) bacterial artificial chromosome
P Q R S (b) pBR322
(a) 3 1 2 4 (c) bacteriophage
(b) 1 4 3 2 (d) pcDNA3.1
(c) 4 3 1 2 23. In nature, the horizontal gene transfer across
(d) 4 1 2 3 bacteria is mediated by
19. Match the following plant sources with their (a) gene cloning followed by transformation
secondary metabolites and medical uses. (b) conjugation and transformation
Source plant Secondary metabolites (c) conjugation only
P. Belladona 1. Menthol (d) transformation only
Q. Foxglove 2. Atropine 24. In nature, Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated
infection of plant cells leads to
R. Pacific yew 3. Digitalin
P. crown gall disease in plants
S. Eucalyptus 4. Taxol
Q. hairy root disease in plants
Medical use
R. transfer of T-DNA into the plant chromosome
A. Cancer treatment
S. transfer of Ri-plasmid into the plant cell
B. Heart disease
(a) S only (b) P and R only
C. Eye examination
(c) Q and S only (d) Q only
D. Cough
25. Match the herbicides in Group Iwith the target
P Q R S enzymesin Group II.
(a) 2-C 3-B 4-A 1-D Group I Group II
(b) 3-C 2-A 1-D 4-B P. Glyphosate 1. Nitrilase
(c) 2-C 4-B 1-A 3-D Q. Bromoxynil 2. Acetolactatesyn thetase
(d) 1-B 4-C 2-D 3-A R. Sulphonylureas 3. Dehalogenase
20. The pungency of mustard seeds is primarily due S. Dalapon 4. 5-Enolpyruvylshikimate
to secondary metabolites such as isothiocyanate 3-phosphate synthase
and nitrile. The pungency is usually felt only (a) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (b) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
when the seeds are crushed. This is because of
(c) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (d) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
26. A complete restriction digestion of a circular 32. Which one of the following is NOT a protoplast
plasmid (5000bp) was carried out with HindIII, fusion inducing agent?
BamHI and EcoRIindividually. Restriction (a) Inactivated Sendai virus
digestion yielded following fragments.
(b) Ca2+ at alkaline pH
Plasmid + HindIII’ 1200bp and3800bp
(c) Polyethylene glycol
Plasmid + BamHI’ 5000bp
(d) Colchicine
Plasmid + EcoRI’ 2500bp
33. A single base pair of DNA weighs 1.1  10–21
The number of sites for EcoRI, BamHI-
andHindIIIpresent on this plasmid are grains. How many picomoles of a plasmid vector
of length 2750 bp are contained in 1 ug of purified
(a) EcoRI-2, BamHI-1, HindIII-2
DNA?
(b) EcoRI-1, BamHI-1, HindIII-2
(a) 0.30 (b) 0.55
(c) EcoRI-3, BamHI-2, HindIII-1
(c) 0.25 (d) 0.91
(d) EcoRI-2, BamHI-2, HindIII-1
Statement for Linked Answer Q. 27 and 28:
following Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
A DNA fragment of 5000bp needs to be isolated from
Assertion: The production of secondary
E.coli (genome size 4  103kb) genomic library.
metabolites in plant cell cultures is enhanced by
27. The minimum number of independent
the addition of elicitors.
recombinant clones required to represent this
fragment ingenomic library are Reason: Elicitors induce the expression of
enzymes responsibie for the biosynthesis of
(a) 16  10 2
(b) 12  10 2
secondary metabolites.
(c) 8  102
(d) 1.25  102
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
28. The number of clones to represent this fragment
correct reason for (A)
in genomic library with a probability of 95% are
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(a) 5.9  103 (b) 4.5  103
reason for (A)
(c) 3.6  103 (d) 2.4  103
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
2012 (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
29. The basis for blue-white screening with pUC 35. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the
vectors is
following Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
(a) intraallelic complementation
Assertion: In direct somatic embry-ogenesis,
(b) intergenic complementation embryos are developed without going through
(c) intragenic suppression callus formation.
(d) extragenic suppression Reason: This is possible due to the presence of
30. Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used as a pre-embryonically determined cells.
cryopreservant for mammalian cell cultures (a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
because correct reason for (A)
(a) it is an organic solvent
(b) (A) is false but (R) is true
(b) it easily penetrates cells
(c) it protects cells by preventing crystallization
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
of water
reason for (A)
(d) it is aiso utilized as a nutrient
31. Protein-DNA interactions in vivo can be studied
2011
by 36. Embryonic stem cells are derived from
(a) gel shift assay (a) fertilized embryo
(b) southern hybridization (b) unfertilized embryo
(c) chromatin immunoprecipitation assay (c) sperm
(d) fluorescence in situ hybridization assay (d) kidney
37. Yeast artificial chromosomes (YAC's) are used 43. The study of evolutionary relationships is known
for cloning as
(a) large segments of DNA (a) genomics
(b) mRNA (b) proteomics
(c) bacterial DNA (c) phylogenetics
(d) yeast DNA (d) genetics
38. The product commercially produced by animal 44. Protein-protein interactions are studied by
cell culture is
P. DNA foot printing
(a) insulin
Q. Yeast two hybrid system
(b) tissue plasminogen activator
R. Ligase chain reaction
(c) interferon
S. Mass spectrometry
(d) hepatitis B vaccine
(a) P and S only (b) Q and S only
39. Hydrated synthetic seeds which are produced
by ion exchange reaction involve mixing the (c) P and R only (d) Q and R only
somatic embryos in a solution of 45. Identify the CORRECT statements
(a) sodium alginate and dropping it in a solution P. 5 and 3 ends of the transcripts can be mapped
of calcium nitrate by utilizing polymerase chain reaction
(b) calcium alginate and dropping it in a solution Q. S1 nuclease can cleave the DNA strand of a
of sodium nitrate DNA-RNA hybrid
(c) calcium alginate and dropping it in a solution R. T4 polynucleotide kinase is used for labeling
of ammonium nitrate 3 end of DNA
(d) mannitol and dropping it in a solution of S. Baculovirus (Autographa californica) can be
sodium nitrate used as an insect expression vector
40. Shoot organogenesis by tissue culture results into (a) P and Q only (b) R and S only
(a) a bipolar structure that has no vascular
(c) P and S only (d) Q and R only
connection with the explant
46. HAT (hypoxanthine, aminopterin and thymidine)
(b) a monopolar structure that has a strong
is used for selecting the hybridomas based on the
connection with the pre-existing vascular
following
tissue of the explant
I. Only hybridoma will grow since it inherited
(c) a monopolar structure that has no vascular
connection with the explant the HGPRT genes from B-cells and can
synthesize DNA from hypoxanthine.
(d) a bipolar structure that has a strong
connection with the pre-existing vascular II. Myeloma cells will not grow in cultures since
tissue of the explant de novo synthesis is blocked by aminopterin
and due to the lack of HGPRT enzyme.
41. ‘Hairy roots' induced in vitro by the infection of
Agrobacterium rhizogenes, are characterized by (a) only I is true
P. a high degree of lateral branching (b) only II is true
Q. genetic instability of culture (c) both I and II are true
R. an absence of geotropism (d) I is true and II is false
S. poor biomass production Statement for Linked Answer Questions 47 and
(a) P and R only (b) P and Q only 48:
(c) Q and R only (d) R and S only A 200 l of polymerase chain reaction has 100
42. Restriction endonucleases which recognize and template DNA molecules and the reaction was
cut same recognition sequences are known as performed for 10 cycles.
(a) isoschizomers 47. How many molecules of amplicons will be
generated?
(b) isozymes
(a) 1.024  104 (b) 1.024  105
(c) isoaccepting endonucleases
(d) abzymes (c) 2.048  104 (d) 2.048  105
48. How many molecules of amplicons will be present (a) both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct
in 0.1 l of reaction? reason for (a)
(a) 102.4 (b) 1024 (b) both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is not the
(c) 51.2 (d) 512 correct reason for (a)
(c) (a) is true but (r) is false
2010
(d) (a) is false but (r) is true
49. The bacteria known to be naturally competent
55. Match Group I with Group II
for transformation of DNA is
Group I Group II
(a) Escherichia coli
P. Fibronectin 1. Uptake of amino
(b) Bacillus subtilis
acids and glucose
(c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q. Insulin 2. Trypsin inhibitor
(d) Yersinia pestis
R. -Macroglobulin 3. Binds iron
50. Antibiotic resistance marker that CANNOT be
used in a cloning vector in Gram negative bacteria S. Transferrin 4. Cell attachment
is to substratum
(a) Streptomycin (b) Ampicillin (a) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (b) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(c) Vancomycin (d) Kanamycin (c) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (d) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
51. An example for template independent DNA 56. Match the promoters listed in Group I with the
polymerase is tissues listed in Group II
(a) DNA Polymerase I Group I Group II
(b) RNA polymerase P. –Amylase 1. Endosperm
(c) Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase Q. Glutenin 2. Tuber
(d) DNA polymerase III R. Phaseollin 3. Aleurone
52. Somatic cell gene transfer is used for S. Patatin 4. Cotyledon
P. transgenic animal production (a) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
Q. transgenic diploid cell production (c) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (d) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
R. in-vitro fertilization 57. Consider the following statements,
S. classical breeding of farm animals I. T4 DNA ligase can catalyze blunt end ligation
more efficiently than E.coli DNA ligase
(a) P, R and S (b) P, Q and R
II. The ligation efficiency of T4 DNA ligase can
(c) P and R (d) P only be increased with PEG and ficoll.
53. Expressed Sequence Tag is defined as (a) only I is true
(a) a partial sequence of a codon randomly (b) both I and II are true
selected from DNA library
(c) only II is true
(b) the characteristic gene expressed in the cell
(d) I is true and II is false
(c) the protein coding DNA sequence of a gene
58. Match the items in Group I with Group II
(d) uncharacterized fragment for DNA presence
Group I Group II
in the cell
(Vectors) (Maximum DNA
packaging)
following Assertion (a) and the Reason (r)
P.  phage 1. 35–45 kb
Assertion : Somatic embryogenesis in plants is
a two step process comprising of embryo initiation Q. Bacterial Artificial 2. 100–300 kb
followed by embryo production. Chromosomes (BACs)
Reason : Embryo initiation is independent of R. P1 derived Artificial 3.  300 kb
the presence of 2, 4 dichlorop-henoxyacetic acid Chromosomes (PACs)
whereas embryo production requires a high S.  cosmid 4. 5–25 kb
concentration of 2, 4-dichloroph-enoxyacetic (a) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (b) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
acid.
(c) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (d) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
59. A mutant G protein with increased GTPase 66. Which of the following statements are true about
activity would glyphosate tolerant transgenic plants?
(a) not bind to GTP P. Transgenic plants detoxify glyphosate.
(b) not bind to GDP Q. Transgenic plants produce an altered enzyme
(c) show increased signaling that is not affected by glyphosate.
(d) show decreased signaling R. Transgenic plants sequester glyphosate in
vacuoles.
60. A cell has five molecules of a rare mRNA. Each
cell contains 4  105 mRNA molecules. How many S. Transgenic plants overcome the inhibition of
clones one will need to screen to have 99% aromatic amino acid biosynthesis.
probability of finding at least one recombinant (a) P, Q (b) R,S
cDNA of the rare mRNA, after making cDNA (c) Q,S (d) P, R
library from such cell? 67. Match the items in Group 1 with their functions
(a) 4.50  105 (b) 3.50  105 in Group 2:
(c) 4.20  105 (d) 4.05  105 Group 1
61. Match Group I with Group II P. rol genes
Group I Group II Q. Opines
P. Real Time-PCR 1. Biochips R. Virulence genes
Q. 2-D Electrophoresis 2. Syber Green S. Aux and cyt genes
R. Affinity 3. Antibody linked Group 2
chromatography sephrose beads 1. Food and energy source
S. Micoroarray 4. Ampholytes 2. Tumor formation
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 3. Hairy root induction
(b) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 4. T-DNA transfer and integration
(c) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 (a) P-4, Q-3, R -2, S-1 (b) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(d) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (c) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (d) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
2009 68. Which of the following statements hold true for
62. To produce plants that are homozygous for all pluripotent stem cells (PSCs) under in vitro
traits, the best choice is conditions?
(a) Protoplast culture P. PSCs can be maintained in an undifferentiated
state
(b) Cell suspension culture
Q. PSCs exhibit abnormal and unstable karyotypes
(c) Anther and pollen culture
R. PSCs can differentiate into a wide variety of
(d) Apical merisem culture
cell types
63. Restriction endonucleases from two different
S. PSCs cannot be passaged continuously
organisms that recognize the same DNA sequence
for cleavage are called (a) P, Q (b) P, R
(a) Isoschizomers (b) Isozymes (c) Q, R (d) Q, S
(c) Concatamers (d) Palindromes 69. Match the items in Group 1 with correct options
in Group 2 :
64. Baculovirus expression system is used to express
heterologous genes in Group 1 Group 2
(a) Mammals (b) Plants P. DNA footprinting 1. Protein-protein
interaction
(c) Insects (d) Yeasts
Q. Yeast two-hybrid 2. VNTR
65. Virus resistant transgenic plants can be
system
developed by the expression of
R. DNA fingerprinting 3. DNA binding protein
(a) Cowpea trypsin inhibitor
S. SAGE 4. Transcriptome
(b) Crystalline toxin protein
analysis
(c) Defective movement protein
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 (b) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(d) Snowdrop lectin
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (d) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
70. Match the products in Group 1 with their possible 75. Determine the correctness or otherwise of
applications in Group 2: following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]
Group 1 Group 2 Assertion: The enzymatic degradation of cell
P. Erythropoietin 1. Blood clot wall to obtain single cell called protoplast has
Q. Anti-fibrin 99 2. Binding and transport helped immensely in developing somatic cell
of iron genetics in plants
R. Collagenase 3. Anaemia Reason: In plants or animals, fusion to two cells
must occur through the plasma membrane
S. Transferrin 4. Animal cell separation
(a) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct
(a) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
reason for [a]
(b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(b) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the
(c) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 correct reason for [a]
(d) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (c) [a] is true but [r] is false
71. A RNA polymerization assay was performed using (d) [a] is false but [r] is true
3
H UTP as the labelled nucleotide with a specific
76. Which of the following statements are true with
activity of 500 Ci/ mol (1 Ci = 2.2  106 counts
respect to a special complex called 'dicer'?
per min). After 10 min incubation, the
trichloroacetic acid-insoluble radioactivity was (P) It consists of deoxyribonuclease and DNA
found to be 692521 counts per min as determined fragments
in a liquid scintillation counter working at 60% (Q) It consists of ribonuclease and RNA fragments
efficiency for 3H. The amount of UTP incorporated (R) It is involved in gene silencing
into the RNA will be
(S) It triggers apoptosis
(a) 15 nmol (b) 105 nmol
(a) P, R (b) Q, R
(c) 150 nmol (d) 50 nmol
(c) P, S (d) Q, S
2008 77. Match the items in groupl with the terms given
72. Parthenogenetic embryos in plants are those in group 2
which are formed by Group 1 Group 2
(a) unfertilized eggs (b) fertilized eggs P. Lactobacillus and 1. Prebiotics
(c) sporophytic cells (d) male gametophyte Bifidobacteria
73. Multiplication of genetically identical copies of a Q. Polychlorobenzenes 2. Probiotics
cultivar by asexual reproduction is known as
(PCBs)
(a) aclonal propagation
R. Fructo-oligosaccharides 3. Antibiotics
(b) vegetative propagation
S.  -Lactams 4. Xenobiotics
(c) polyclonal propagation
P Q R S
(d) clonal propagation
(a) 2 4 1 3
74. Identify the correct statement for the ‘HAT
medium’ (b) 3 4 1 2
(P) Includes drug aminopterin to block major (c) 4 1 2 3
pathway for synthesis of deoxyri- (d) 1 3 4 2
bonucleotides 78. A polymerase chain reaction was performed
(Q) Hypoxanthine is precursor for thymidine beginning with 400 template DNA molecules in
(R) Includes drug aminopterin to block major a 100 l reaction. After 20 cycles of polymerase
pathway for synthesis of polypeptides chain reaction, how many molecules of the
amplified product will be present in O.1 l of
(S) Cells can grow in presence of aminopterin only
reaction ?
if they have enzymes thymidine kinase and
hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl (a) 2.19  104
transferase (b) 4.19  104
(a) P, Q (b) P, S (c) 2.19  105
(c) R, S (d) Q, S (d) 4.19  105
2007 85. Meristems escape virus invasion because

79. Which of the following reagents is used for (a) vascular system is absent in the meristem
harvesting anchorage-dependent animal cells (b) of low metabolic activity in the meristem
from culture vessels ? (c) the ‘virus inactivating system’ has low activity
(a) Trypsin/Collagensase in the meristem
(b) Trypsin/Collagen (d) of low endogenous auxin level
(c) Collagen/Fibronectin
2006
(d) DMSO
86. A thermostable DNA polymerase that can carry
80. Protein binding regions of DNA are identified by out both reverse transcription reaction and
one of the following techniques polymerizations has been isolated from
(a) finger printing (a) Thermococcus litoralis
(b) foot printing (b) Thermus aquaticus
(c) southern blotting (c) Thermotoga maritima
(d) western blotting
(d) Thermus thermophilus
81. Plant secondary metabolites
87. When present in tissue culture medium,
(a) help to increase the growth rate of plant gibberellin
(b) help in plant reproduction processes (a) helps to break dormancy of buds and bulbs
(c) provide defense mechanisms against (b) promotes dormancy development in buds and
microbial attack bulbs
(d) make the plant susceptible to unfavorable (c) is regarded as plant growth inhibitor
conditions
(d) prevents normal recognition of auxin molecule
82. Oils rich in PUFA are NOT desirable for bio-diesel
88. To promote attachment and spreading of
production because
anchorage-dependent animal cells, the surface of
(a) they form epoxides in presence of oxygen the culture vessel needs to be coated with
(b) they do not form epoxides in presence of (a) trypsin (b) collagen
oxygen
(c) pronase (d) polyglycol
(c) they have high ignition temperature
89. For amplificatio of GC rich sequences by
(d) they solidify at low temperature polymerase chain reacstion, identify the reagent
83. Gynogenesis is a process of development of that binds and stabilizes AT sequences and
haploid plants destabilizes GC regions.
(a) from a fertilized cell of female gametophyte (a) Tetramethyl ammonium chloride
(b) from an unfertilized cell of female gametophyte (b) Betaine
(c) from isolated pollen grains (c) 7-deaza-2-deoxyguanosine triphosphate
(d) by selective elimination of chromosomes (d) Sodium dodecyl sulphate
following distant hybridization
90. Which of the following statements is
84. Match the following marker genes in group 1 with INCORRECT about immobilized plant cell
suitable selecting agent in group 2 cultures?
Group 1 Group 2 (a) It is possible to use high cell densities
P. npt II 1. Glyphosate (b) Cells remain active for long periods
Q. aroA 2. Phosphinothricin (c) Cell products or inhibitors can be removed
R. hpt 3. Kanamycin easily
S. bar 4. Hygromycin B (d) It provides low shear resistance to cells
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 91. All the cells that participate in immune responses
(b) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 originate from a population of
(c) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (a) neutrophils (b) stem cells
(d) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (c) macrophages (d) lymphocytes
92. Identify the natural plant growth regulators from 96. Match items in group 1 with correct options from
the following list. those given in group 2
(P) Zeatin Group 1
(Q) Benzylaminopurine (BAP) P. Amperometric biosensor
(R) Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA) Q. Evanescent wave biosensor
(S) 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid R. Calorimetric biosensor
(a) P, Q (b) Q, S S. Potentiometric biosensor
(c) P, R (d) R, S Group 2
1. Light beam
93. What are the experimental steps needed for
screening an expression library for a clone 2. Flux of redox electrons
encoding a protein X that has been isolated and 3. Field effect transistors
purified ? 4. Exothermic reaction
(P) m-RNA isolation (a) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(Q) Antibody preparation (b) P-2, Q-l, R-4, S-3
(R) Cloning into an appropriate vector (c) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(S) Western blotting on transferred plaques (d) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(a) P, S (b) Q, S 97. Which of the following would result in somaclonal
(c) Q, R (d) R, S variation in micropropagated plants?
94. Majority of the cereals are highly recalcitrant to (P) Propagation by axillary branching in the
Agrobacterium-mediated transformation, and so absence of plant growth regulators
direct transfor-mation methods have been (Q) Cell suspension maintained for five years
developed to transform such plants. Which of the before induction of somatic embryogenesis
following direct transformation methods is (R) Cullus induction using 20 M 2, 4-Dichlo-
applicable to intact plant tissues? rophenoxyacetic acid followed by shoot
(a) Calcium chloride and PEG-mediated organogenesis
transformation (S) Shoot organogenesis from an explant in the
(b) Liposome-mediated transformation absence of an intermediate callus phase
(c) Electroporation (a) P, Q (b) Q, R
(d) Transformation using microprojectiles (c) P, S (d) Q, S
95. Match items in group 1 with correct options from Common Data for Questions 98 and 99 :
those given in group 2 Lignocellulosic biomass was subjected to microbial
Group 1 composting. The microbial consortium produced an
extracellular enzyme xylanase, which was a
P. Tissue plasminogen activator
glycoprotein having a molecular weight of 68 kDa and
Q. Gamman interferon a positive charge. An aqueous extract of the enzyme
R. Podophyllotoxin could be easily prepared from the compost.
S. Polyhydroxyalkanoate 98. What techniques would you recommend for
Group 2 confirming the molecular weight of the purified
enzyme?
1. Immunomodulator
(P) Isoelectric focusing
2. Biodegradable plastic
(Q) SDS-PAGE
3. Clot dissolution
(R) Native PAGE
4. Anti-tumor agent
(S) Gel filtration
(a) P–4, Q–3, R–l, S–2
(a) P, Q
(b) P–l, Q–3, R–4, S–2
(b) Q, S
(c) P–3, Q–l, R–2, S–4
(c) R, S
(d) P–3, Q–l, R–4, S–2
(d) P, S
99. If Con A sepharose column was used for the 105. Which of the following fluorescent probes is used
purification of enzyme, then separation would be to monitor the progress of ampli fication in Real
based on time PCR ?
(a) molecular exclusion (a) SYBR green
(b) affinity binding (b) Rhodamine
(c) ion exchange (c) FITC
(d) hydrophobic interaction (d) Cyan blue
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 100 106. A linear DNA fragment is 100% labeled at one
and 101 : end and has 3 restriction sites for EcoRI. If it is
DNA content of Caenorhabditis elegans was analysed partially digested by EcoRI so that all possible
and found to contain 1.0  108 bp. fragments are produced, how many of these
100. How many standard -phage vectors carrying fragments will be labeled and how many will not
20kb DNA fragments or YACs carrying 250 kb be labeled ?
DNA fragments are theoretically required to (a) 4 labeled; 6 unlabeled
constitute a complete C. elegans genomic library?
(b) 4 labeled; 4 unlabeled
(a) 500 -phage vectors or 40 yeast clones
(c) 3 labeled; 5 unlabeled
(b) 400 -phage vectors or 5000 yeast clones
(d) 3 labeled; 3 unlabeled
(c) 5000 -phage vectors or 400 yeast clones
107. Somatic embryo from cotyledon explant would
(d) 5  104 -phage vectors or 4000 yeast clones
develop in the following sequential stages,
101. How many -phage vectors/yeast clones should
(a) cotyledonary  heart  globular  torpedo
be prepared in order to ensure that every
sequence is included in the library? (b) globular  torpedo  heart  cotyledonary
(a) 25  10 -phage vectors/2000 yeast clones
3 (c) globular  heart  torpedo  cotyledonary
(b) 20  10 -phage vectors/1600 yeast clones
3 (d) cotyledonary  globular  heart torpedo
(c) 5  104 -phage vectors/4000 yeast clones 108. Though the right border (RB) and left border (LB)
(d) 10  104 -phage/10000 yeast clones of T-DNA are identical, the DNA transfer is
specific for the DNA left of the RB (the T-DNA),
2005 rather than for the DNA left of the LB because
102. Cells of meristemoid are best described as (a) the sequence context at the RB defines the
(a) differentiated and non dividing direction of transfer
(b) dedifferentiated and dividing (b) the sequence context at the LB defines the
(c) differentiated and dividing direction of transfer
(d) dedifferentiated and non dividing (c) the nuclear location sequence (NLS) of VirD2
103. The transplastomic plants bear no risk for gene protein drives the excised T-strand
transfer through pollens as (d) the endonuclease activity of VirD2 protein
(a) the pollens degenerate before fertilization allows nicking at RB
(b) the transformed mitochondrial DNA is lost 109. Identical sized RNA transcript is detected by
during pollen maturation Northern blot analysis of UDP glucuronosyl
(c) the transformed chloroplast DNA is lost transferase obtained from human liver and
during pollen maturation kidney. Microarray analysis of the same samples
shows equal spot intensity, ohereas Western blot
(d) the transformed genomic DNA are inherited
detects a 55 kDa strong band in liver, but a very
maternally
faint band in kidney of same size. The regulation
104. The mobility of DNA in agarose gel
of UDP glucuronosyl transferase is
electrophoresis is solely based on its
(a) transcriptionally controlled
(a) charge
(b) post-transcriptionally controlled
(b) conformation
(c) translationally controlled
(c) size
(d) post-translationally controlled
(d) none of these
110. Expression in poor amount and in inactive form 117. Nick translation of DNA is a method for making
of cDNA of a euharyotic protein in Escherichia DNA probes. Identify from below what is NOT
coli using its expression vector is due to required for nick translation method
(P) the absence of capping mechanism of mRNA (a) DNA polymerase
(Q) codon bias (b) DNAase
(R) absence of polyadenylation (c) Primers
(S) absence of proper glycosylation (d) Deoxyribonucleotides
(a) P, Q (b) Q, R 118. During the functioning of biosensor which of the
(c) Q, S (d) P, S following sequences of events occurs
Common Data for Questions 111, 112, 113: (a) Enzymatic/cellular reaction  detector 
A recombinant SV40 virus delivers c-myc cDNA, transducer
which has a unique sal I site, into muscle cells. (b) Enzymatic/cellular reaction  transducer 
Southern analysis of Sal I digested total genomic detector
DNA of the muscle cell using c-myc cDNA porbe (c) Enzymatic/cellular reaction  pressure gauge
generates a smear.  time
111. The DNA smear obtained on Southern blot is due to (d) Enzymatic/cellular reaction  vibrator 
(a) head to head concatamer of viral DNA mechanical signal
(b) head to tail concatamer of viral DNA 119. Somatic embryogenesis is a procedure in plant
(c) tail to tail concatamer of viral DNA tissue culture methodology described best as
(d) random integration of viral DNA (a) Formation of both shoot and root meristem
112. Western blot analysis of c-myc expression of such (b) Formation of stable embryos
transformed cells last for (c) Formation of axillary buds
(a) transiently (d) None of the above
(b) upto five generations 120. The culture fluids of 1000 to 5000 colonies of
(c) upto 10 generations hybridoma are screened for monoclonal antibody
(d) more than 100 generations by
113. Which of the following types of cancer will be P. Western blot analysis
observed in such transformed cells ? Q. Antigen capture analysis
(a) Adenoma (b) Melanoma R. Northern blot analysis
(c) Sarcoma (d) Hepatoma S. Antibody capture analysis
2004 Choose the correct pair from the following:
114. Expression of hundreds of different genes in DNA (a) P, Q (b) Q, R
microarray technology is monitored by using (c) R, S (d) Q, S
(a) Radioactive probe 121. Tobacco leaf discs are transfected with
(b) Visible chromogenic probe Agrobacterium tumefaciens strain containing
binary vector (GUS as reporter gene) with
(c) UV absorbing probe
selectable marker neo (kanamycin resistant gene)
(d) Fluorescent probe and then regenerated to plants. The plants are
115. Transfer of T - DNA from Ti plasmid into plant kanamycin resistant but leaf tissues are negative
cell is mediated by to GUS assay. The explanations are
(a) mob gene (b) vir gene (a) The plants are transformed for both genes by
(c) nif gene (d) octopine gene GUS gene is turned off
116. For the growth of T-cell, the growth factor needed (b) The plants are transformed for only neo gene
would be not the GUS gene
(a) Epidermal growth factor (c) The plants are not transformed at all, but the
(b) Interleukin-2 development of kanamycin resistance is due to
somaclonal variation
(c) Fibroblast growth factor
(d) All of these
(d) TNF- 
122. The restriction endonuclease HaeIII recognizes (a) A  4, B  2, C  1, D  3
the sequence GG  CC and the point of cleavage (b) A  2, B  4, C  1, D  3
is given by the arrow. If you want to clone a piece
(c) A  1, B  4, C  2, D  3
of DNA in a plasmid digested by HaeIII, what
will be restriction enzyme of choice ? (d) A  4, B  2, C  3, D  1
(a) SmaI (CC  GGG) 2003
(b) NotI(GC  GGCCGC) 127. To be a cloning vector, a plasmid does NOT require
(c) SalmIII (GG  CC) (a) an origin of replication
(d) PstI (CTGCA  G) (b) an antibiotic resistance marker
123. For the sequence of ds DNA given below, identify (c) a restriction site
the set of primers required to amplity this DNA (d) to have a high copy number
by PCR
128. In animal cell cultures, the addition of serum to
3 GACTCCA.............TACAACC 5 media is essential for providing
CTGAGGT.................ATGTTGG 3 (a) amino acids for protein synthesis
(a) 5 GGTTGTA and 5 GACTCCA (b) nucleotides for DNA synthesis
(b) 5 CTGAGGT and 5 CCCAACAT (c) growth factors
(c) 5 ACTCAGT and 5 ATGTTGG (d) all of these
(d) None of these 129. For protoplast fusion to be successful in plant cells
124. Agrobacterium based transformation of (a) fusion agents other than polyethylene glycol
protoplasts obtained from dicots is based on the should be used
fact that
(b) cell wall of the two strains of cells should not
(a) These exhibit strong chromosomal structures be damaged
(b) These have two cotyledons (c) DNA between the two cells should be
(c) These exhibit strong wound response compatible
(d) These have long tap root system (d) osmolarity of the medium is not important
125. What would be the effect of addition of 2,4-D on 130. In order to identify the person who committed a
the production of berberine by cell culture of crime, forensic experts will need to extract DNA
Thalictrum minus from the tissue sample collected at the crime
(a) To stimulate growth and thereby urease scene and conduct one of the following procedures
secondary metabolite production for DNA finger-printing analysis
(b) Stimulate dedifferentiation and thereby (a) cut the DNA and hybridize with specific micro-
decrease secondary metabolite production satellite probes
(c) Stimulate proliferation and reduce secondary (b) cut the DNA and subclone the fragments
metabolite production (c) determine the sequence of the subclones
(d) None of these (d) (b) followed by (c)
126. Match the following genetic elements with their Answer Q. 131 – 132 based on the data given
functions. below:
Genetic Functions Dr. Singh isolated a new 5-kb gene and wants to
elements determine its sequence using a sequencer that can
A. neoR 1. Facilitates inducible expression sequence upto 500 bases in a single reaction.
of genes in eukaryotes Therefore, she decides to create subclones having
suitable-size inserts for sequencing
B. SV40 2. Facilitates constitutive
expression of genes in 131. Which one of the following will be the most
eukaryotes appropriate restriction enzyme for this subcloning?
C. LTR 3. Allows amplification of gene (a) 8-bp cutter
D. dhfr 4. Provides way of selecting (b) 6-bp cutter

eukaryotic cells, which have (c) 3-bp cutter
received foreign DNA (d) 5-bp cutter
132. To generate the minimum number of subclones 137. What is the primary purpose of neomycin in
needed for sequencing, what should be the size creating mice with knock-outs in gene X?
of the insert in these subclones ? (a) neomycin selects for the survival of embryonic
(a) 1000 bp (b) 500 bp stem cells (ES) that have incorporated the
(c) 250 bp (d) 2000 bp mutant gene X anywhere in the genome
133. All of the following are true about DNA (b) neomycin selects for the survival of ES cells
microarray technology except that have incorporated the mutant gene in
(a) an electron microscope is used to gather data the place of the wild-type gene
from the arrays (c) neomycin prevents Candida infection during
(b) the technology is used to assess transcription ES cell culture that does not have gene X
from multiple genes simultaneously (d) neomycin makes the gene X knock - out mice
(c) the technology works best for organisms resistant to Candida infection
whose genome is completely sequenced 138. All of the following produced by animal cells in
(d) the technology is derived from computer chip culture and help the cells adhere to the culture
manufacture dish except
134. You have cut the genome of a double-stranded (a) glycoproteins (b) collagen
viral genome with a restriction endonuclease and (c) phospholipase A (d) hyaluronic acid
electrophoresed the products on an agarose gel. 139. The following are useful to introduce genes into
You observe only one band on the gel, equivalent crop plants except
to the size of the genome. This is because
(a) Ti plasmid (b) Particle gun
(a) there are no introns in the genome
(c) breeding (d) auxin
(b) the introns contain the recognition sites and
have already been spliced out 2002
(c) all of restriction fragments are too small to 140. Callus formation from mature tissue explant
detect occurs through
(d) restriction endonucleases do not cut RNA, and (a) Dedifferentiation
this virus has an RNA genome (b) Redifferentiation
135. The restriction endonuclease Eco 52I recognizes (c) Both (a) and (b) of the above
the sequence C/GGCGG and cuts between the
(d) None of (a) and (b)
first C and the first G, indicated by the slash.
DNA cut by which of the following enzymes (given 141. Large scale clonal propagation practically means
with their recognition sequences and cut sites) raising a population of plantlets from
could be cloned into a plasmid digested with Eco (a) A single cell
52I ? (b) A single explant
(a) EcoRI (G/AATTC) (c) Many explants from a single plant
(b) XmaIII (C/GGCGG) (d) Many explants from a group of plants
(c) SmaI (CCC/GGG) 142. T4 Polynucleotide kinase is used for
(d) SacII (CCGC/GG) (a) Labelling 3ends of DNA
136. If bacterial cells are transformed with a mixture (b) Labelling 5 ends of DNA
of linear and circular molecules resulting from a
ligation reaction designed to produce a (c) Creating blunt ends of DNA
recombinant molecule (d) Dephosphorylation of DNA
(a) no recombinant molecule will ever be detected 143. Plant secondary metabolites production in
(b) both linear and circular molecules will suspension culture is mainly targeted for
replicate equally well (a) Obtaining metabolites in aseptic condition
(c) none of the plasmids will express the antibiotic (b) Enhanced in vitro production of desired
resistance gene located on the plasmid metabolite
(d) the circular molecules will be amplified by the (c) Enhanced production of all metabolites
cells (d) Obtaining new metabolites
144. In baculovirus expression vector foreign genes are Column - A Column - B
expressed from the promoter of (a) Diosgenin 1. Holoside
(a) Polyhedron gene (b) Ajmalicine 2. Pyrrolizidine alkaloid
(b) Bacteriophage T7 gene (c) Shikonin 3. Indole alkaloid
(c) E. coli lacZ gene (d) Digoxin 4. Naphthaquinone nucleus
(d) Yeast phosphoglycerate kinase gene (e) Scopolamine 5. Cardenolide
145. The length of each boarder sequence in Ti - 6. Saponin
plasmid is about
7. Tropane alkaloid
(a) 25 million base pairs
(b) 200 kilo base pairs
2001
(c) 25 kilo base pairs 151. To PCR amply the sequence
(d) 25 base pairs ATCTTCTACG...............AAGCTTGCGG
146. Enzyme used in ‘cycle’ sequencing of DNA is TAGAAGATGC...............TTCGAACGCC
(a) T7 DNA polymerase the required primers are

(b) T4 DNA polymerase (a) ATCTTCTA and CGAACGCC
(c) Klenow DNA polymerase (b) ATCTTCTA and CCGCAAGC
(d) Taq DNA polymerase (c) TAGAAGAT and CGAACGCC

147. Cells deficient in hypoxanthine guanine (d) TAGAAGAT and CCGCAAGC
phosphoribosyl transferase (HPRT) enzyme 152. Resistance to herbicide chlorsulfuron in plants
rely on is due to a change in
(a) Synthesis of purine deoxynucleotides by (a) Glutamine synthetase
salvage pathway (b) Threonine deaminase
(b) Synthesis of purine deoxynucleotides by de (c) Acetolactate synthase
novo pathway (d) DNA polymerase
(c) Supply of hypoxanthine in the culture medium 153. To isolate a gene coding for glucagon, the cDNA
(d) Supply of thymidine in the culture medium library has to be constructed using mRNA
148. Enhanced axillary branching for multiple shoot isolated from
productions is promoted by (a) Intestine (b) Pancreas
(a) 2, 4 – D (c) Pituitary (d) Brain
(b) Abscisic acid 154. The essential component of Ti plasmid required
(c) Gibberellic acid for integration into plant genome is
(d) Benzyl adenine (a) Origin of replication
149. Match the organisms in Column A with the (b) Tumor inducing gene
product in Column B. (c) Nopaline utilization gene
Column - A Column - B (d) All of these
(a) Thermus aquaticus 1. Beer 155. Positional cloning approach exploits information
(b) Acetobacter aceti 2. Bioinsecticides (a) On the location of the gene in the genome
(c) Bacillus 3. Hind III (b) On the status of its expression
thermogenesis (c) About the position of promoter relative to MCS
(d) Saccharomyces 4. Taq 1 (d) About the position of the restriction sites
carlbergensis 156. Hormone pairs required for a callus to
(e) Hemophilus 5. Vinegar differentiate are
influenza (a) Auxin and cytokinin
150. Match the secondary metabolites in Column A (b) Auxin and gibberellin
with their most appropriate chemical (c) Ethylene and gibberellin
characteristics in Column B. (d) Cytokinin and gibberellin
157. A gene can not be isolated from a human genomic (c) Break the dormancy of seeds
DNA library by functional complementation in (d) All of the above
E. coli because of
159. (a) Write the reaction catalyzed by penicillin G
(a) Non-functional promoter acylase. (1)
(b) The absence of splicing machinery (b) Name any two techniques by which penicillin
(c) Coupled transcription and translation G acylase may be immobilized. (2)
(d) Codon bias (c) Why are mammalian cells cultured in CO2
158. Embryo rescue is a useful technique to incubators? (1)
(a) Grow/generate hybrids between different (d) Mention an important post-translational
plant species modification absent in prokaryotes making
(b) Complete the growth of embryos susceptible them unsuitable hosts for expressing human
to defects in seed development genes. (1)
160. (a) The sequences at the cloning site of three vectors are given below. The Bam HI (GGATCC) and Hind
III. (AAGCTT) sites are underlined. Only the sequences around the restriction sites are shown. The
symbol “__________” indicates rest of the sequence.
Vector 1: _______ Promoter ... ATGGGTCGCGGATCCGGCTGC .. AAGCTT ______
Vector 2 : _______ Promoter ... ATGGGTCGGGATCCGGCTGCT .. AAGCTT______
Vector 3 : _______ Promoter ... ATGGGTCGGATCCGGCTGCTA.. AAGCTT ______
Which one of the above three vectors is appropriate to clone the following ORF
_______ ATGCCCAACACCCGGATCCCG.. TAAAAGCTT _______
for expression? Give the reason in one sentence.
(b) Draw the restriction map of the plasmid given the following data (the gel pattern shown below is not to
scale). The size of each DNA fragment (in kb) is indicated next to it (3)
EcoRI SalI HindIII EcoRI & HindIII SalI & HindIII EcoRI & SalI
5.4 – 5.4 –
3.6 –
2.1 – 2.1 –
1.9 1.9 – 1.8 –
1.4 – 1.4 – 1.4 –
1.3 – 1.2 –
0.6 – 0.9 –
2000 163. In human populations, 4% of the individuals are

homozygous recessive to a specific RFLP marker.
161. The substrate for restriction enzyme is
What percentage of individuals do you expect to
(a) Single stranded RNA be heterozygous for this trait ?
(b) Partially double stranded RNA (a) 4% (b) 8%
(c) Cell wall proteins (c) 16% (d) 32%
(d) Double stranded DNA 164. Many plasmids have Ampr marker. This implies
162. DNA helicases catalyse the reaction (a) The plasmids contain genes for ampicillin
biosynthesis
(a) DNA supercoiling
(b) Ampicillin is required for bacterial growth
(b) DNA unwinding after transformation
(c) Cleavage of DNA helix (c) The plasmid contains the gene encoding
(d) Interconversion of DNA topoisomers  -lactamase
(d) Ampicillin is essential for cell survival
165. Which of the following has been produced (a) Use relatively simple techniques
commercially from mammalian cell cultures? (b) Generally end up with hazardous waste
(a) Plasminogen activator material
(b) Antibacterial antibiotics (c) Are relatively slow
(c) Insulin (d) Are unobtrusive and non-disruptive
(d) Renin 172. cDNA made from the mRNA of an organism was
166. Mung bean nuclease could be used for used to make a cDNA library in a vector that
allows the expression as a fusion with a reporter
(a) DNA synthesis
tag. What percentage of the cDNA clones is likely
(b) nucleotide hydrolysis to give rise to correct gene products ?
(c) trimming single stranded regions in DNA (a) 10%
(d) removal of phosphate groups from the ends (b) 30%
of the DNA
(c) 50%
167. Phage T7 promoter containing plasmids are used
(d) 100%
for overexpression of cloned genes because
173. Commonly used reporter gene in plant expression
(a) their convenient size
vectors is
(b) their single stranded nature
(a) Ti gene of Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(c) Exquisite specificity of T7 RNA polymerase
(b) GUS gene
to phage promoters
(c)  -lactamase gene
(d) T7 infects E. coli and lysogenizes the cell
(d) - amylase gene
168. Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC) is used for
174. (a) Match the column A with those in column B
(a) cloning large segments of DNA
(A) Chemical (1) Southern
(b) cloning only, yeast genomic sequences
sequencing of DNA
(c) cloning of only cDNA sequences
(B) DNA blotting (2) Temin, Baltimore
(d) all DNA except plant DNA sequences and Dulbecco
169. Which one of the following is not a requirement (C) Monoclonal antibodies (3) F. Sanger
for a PCR reaction ?
(D) Reverse transcription (4) Maxam and Gilbert
(a) DNA template (b) Taq polymerase
(E) Protein sequencing (5) Kohler and milstein
(c) NTPs (d) MgCl2
(F) Polymerase (6) KMullis
170. Plant breeders have an advantage over animal chain reaction
breeders in reproducing a desired type offspring
(b) If all the steps in a PCR reaction were to work at
because the plant breeders can employ
100% efficiency, how many micrograms of 1 Kb
(a) Gene mutations product will be generated from 1 p mole of DNA
(b) Hybridization template after 10 cycles (1 bp = 660 Da)
(c) Clonal propagation 175. (a) What is somatic embryogenesis ?
(d) Selection (b) What is the difference between direct and
171. Which one of the following options related to the indirect somatic embryogenesis ?
following statement is incorrect? In comparison (c) State two methods for direct DNA transfer
to physical/chemical methods of clean up, into plant cells.
bioremediation methods
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (1.68 to 1.7) 15. (2.8) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a)
20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (a)
30. (c) 31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (a)
40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (a)
50. (c) 51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (d)
60. (b) 61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (b)
70. (b) 71. (*) 72. (a) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (a)
80. (b) 81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (d) 85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (a) 88. (b) 89. (b)
90. (b) 91. (d) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (d) 96. (b) 97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (b)
100. (c) 101. (c) 102. (c) 103. (d) 104. (c) 105. (a) 106. (c) 107. (c) 108. (a) 109. (b)
110. (d) 111. (b) 112. (c) 113. (c) 114. (d) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (c) 118. (b) 119. (d)
120. (a) 121. (c) 122. (c) 123. (a) 124. (c) 125. (d) 126. (a) 127. (b) 128. (d) 129. (c)
130. (a) 131. (c) 132. (b) 133. (a) 134. (d) 135. (b) 136. (d) 137. (a) 138. (c) 139. (d)
140. (c) 141. (c) 142. (b) 143. (b) 144. (a) 145. (d) 146. (d) 147. (b) 148. (a) 149. (*)
150. (*) 151. (b) 152. (c) 153. (b) 154. (b) 155. (a) 156. (a) 157. (b) 158. (d) 159. (*)
160. (*) 161. (d) 162. (b) 163. (d) 164. (c) 165. (a) 166. (c) 167. (c) 168. (a) 169. (c)
170. (c) 171. (b) 172. (c) 172. (b) 174. (*) 175. (*)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Gene therapy is the therapeutic delivery of the liquid portion of sewage after primary
nucleic acid polymers into a patient's cells as a treatment has removed settleable solids and
drug to treat disease. Avidin is a protein derived floating material. Secondary treatment is
from both avians and amphibians that shows typically performed by indigenous, aquatic
considerable affinity for biotin, a co-factor that microorganisms in a managed aerobic habitat.
plays a role in multiple eukaryotic biological Bacteria and protozoa consume biodegradable
processes. soluble organic contaminants (e.g. sugars, fats,
2. The culture viability is merely a ratio of viable and organic short-chain carbon molecules from
cells in the culture to total cells in the culture. human waste, food waste, soaps and detergent)
For the purpose, the hemocytometer will only be while reproducing to form cells of biological solids.
used to obtain a viability count, not a total cell 4. The T-DNA transfer process of Agrobacterium
count (cells/mL). The viability will be determined tumefaciens is activated by the induction of the
by the trypan blue assay , and it can be used with expression of the Ti plasmid virulence loci by
the total cell count (obtained from a Coulter plant signal molecules such as acetosyringone.
counter) to determine a total count of viable cells, The overdrive proteins from acetosyringone-
as : Number of viable cells = (% viability)*(Total induced Agrobacterium cells interact with T-DNA
number of cells) border and overdrive sequences. The vir gene
3. Secondary treatment is the portion of a sewage products act in trans to mobilize the T-DNA
treatment sequence removing dissolved and element from the bacterial Ti plasmid. The T-DNA
colloidal compounds measured as BOD. is bounded by 25-base pair direct repeat
Secondary treatment is traditionally applied to sequences, which are the only sequences on the
element essential for transfer. Thus, specific Number of colonies
reactions must occur at the border sites to TE =
Dilution  Amount of DNA
generate a transferable T-DNA copy.
35
5. Secondary Metabolites including Morphine, =
Pyrethrins, Scopolamine, Vincristine are 2.5 105  0.5
extracted from Papaver somniferum, Tagetes = 2.8  106
erecta, Datura stramonium, Catharanthus roses 16. The number of bases present in the restriction
respectively. site of the restriction enzyme = 6
6. Certain genetic elements used in transgenic We know, there are four different types of
research includes Ubiquitin I promoter, Nos nitrogenous bases in a DNA molecule.
Transcriptional terminator, bar Selection Marker So, the statistical frequency of occurrence of the
Gene, gus Reporter gene. They are obtained from restriction site would be = 46 = 4096
Zea mays, Agrobacterium tumifaciens,
17. Serum is commonly used as a supplement to cell
Streptomyces hygroscopicus, Escherichia coli
culture media. It supports cell growth and
respectively.
product formation by providing a broad spectrum
7. Bicarbonate is often included to act as a buffer of macromolecules, nutrients and vitamins as
system in a conduction with the CO2 environment well as certain growth factors and hormones.
(5-10%) in which the cell should be cultured. This However, serum must be filter sterilized with 0.45
allows the cultures to be maintained at the filter paper before using in the media to grow
normally optimum pH range of 6.9 - 7.4. The CO2 mammalian cells because it contains Mycoplasma
is provided by a controlled atmosphere inside an and microorganisms as contaminants.
incubator or alternatively in a sealed flask. 18. The bands which are labeled as A were uncut
8. CMV promoter is plant expression vector. and separated at three different regions on the
ddNTPs agarose gel after digestion with EcoRI. It shows
1
9. About dNTP = th at th e plasm id A se parates is having
s 300 concatemers. Plasmid B labeled as B is nicked
10. NH 4 product is only in anaerobic processes like while Plasmid C which is labeled as C has a
very thick band which suggests that Plasmid
waste water treatment.
C is supercoiled. Band D was the only plasmid
11. 2nd generation crop are the value added crops which was the digested product of Eco RI are
i.e; increased nutritional value. Instead of insect linear because EcoRI has already digested the
resistance (Bt) and herbicide tolerance (HT). plasmid.
12. Respective primers will be anneal to 3 ends of 19. Belladona plant produces a type of secondary
the two template strands; keeping antiparallel metabolite called atropine which helps in the
nature of DNA duplex and complimentarity in ocular examination procedure. Foxglove produces
the mind. a secondary metabolite called digitalin that helps
13. Hae III : GG|CC in the treatment of cardiac diseases. Pacific yew
CC | GG is another plant with medicinal use which
BamHI : G | GATC produces taxol that is extensively used in cancer
research and treatment purposes. Eucalyptus is
CCTAG | G used in the production of menthol that helps in
14. Average number of fragments generated the curing of cough and cold.
1 1 1 1 20. There are several species of mustard. Black
=       4.3  10
5
4 4 4 4 mustard (Brassica nigra) produces small seeds

that become black at maturity. They have an
4.3  105 extremely rich and pungent flavor, stronger than
=
256 yellow mustard. White mustard (Sinapis alba)
= 1.68  103 produces large yellow-colored seeds with a bitter
15. DNA = 0.5 g taste that is not as pungent as other varieties.
Indian mustard or mustard greens (Brassica
50
Dilution = = 2.5  10–5 juncea) is a green vegetable whose very tasty
200  10000 leaves are used in the same way as spinach. The
chemicals that are responsible for pungency are 24. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a gram-negative
stored in inactive conjugate form in compartments rod-shaped bacterium. It infects plants usually
within the seeds and are protected from enzymes. through an open wound. Once it enters its plant
But when seeds are crushed, the pungent host, it injects a section of its DNA called the T-
chemicals come in contact with the enzymes and DNA which is derived from its Ti (tumor inducing)
are converted into active chemicals which give the plasmid into its host. The T-DNA is then
pungent smell. integrated into the plant’s genome, and has two
21. The length of the unique stretch of DNA sequence effects on the plant host. The T-DNA first directs
that can be found only once in 3 billion base pair the plant cells to make auxins and cytokinins,
long genome is a 16 bases long DNA sequence which causes the cells to become irregularly
from which 16s rRNA is transcribed. shaped and form a visible tumour called a gall.
The T-DNA then directs the plant cell to start
22. Several types of DNA library resources were
making opines (usually nopaline or agropine)
sponsored by the DOE before and during the
which A. tumefaciens use as an energy source.
Human Genome Program (HGP). These included
both prokaryotic and eukaryotic vector systems, 25. Glyphosate kills plants by interfering with the
and clone libraries representing single synthesis of the aromatic amino acids
chromosomes. Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan. It does
(BACs) became the most broadly used resource this by inhibiting the enzyme 5-enolpyruvyl-
for several reasons. The large size was a good shikimate-3-phosphate synthase (EPSPS), which
match for capabilities of high throughput catalyzes the reaction of shikimate-3-phosphate
sequencing centres. A bacterial artificial (S3P) and phosphoenolpyruvate to form
chromosome (BAC) is an engineered DNA 5-enolpyruvyl-shikimate-3-phosphate (ESP).
molecule used to clone DNA sequences in bacterial Bromoxynil is a nitrile herbicide and one of its
cells (for example, E. coli). BACs are often used common degradation products (3, 5-dibromo-4-
in connection with DNA sequencing. Segments of hydroxybenzoic acid) have been shown to undergo
an organism’s DNA, ranging from 100,000 to metabolic reductive dehalogenation by the
about 300,000 base pairs, can be inserted into microorganism. Sulfonylureas is used as
BACs. The BACs, with their inserted DNA, are Chlorimuron (Classic) for soybeans. Their site of
then taken up by bacterial cells. As the bacterial action is Acetolactate synthase (ALS) enzyme.
cells grow and divide, they amplify the BAC DNA, Dalapon is a synthetic herbicide and plant growth
which can then be isolated and used in sequencing regulator. It is responsible for inhibition of lipid
DNA. synthesis by acting on dehalogenase enzyme.
23. Natural genetic transformation is believed to be 26. The given plasmid sequence is 5000bp long. When
the essential mechanism for the attainment of it is digested with Hind III, it produces 2
genetic plasticity in many species of bacteria. fragments of 1200bp and 3800bp. This means
During bacterial evolution, the ability of Bacteria that Hind III cuts the plasmid in two different
and Archaea to adapt to new environments most sites. So Hind III has 2 sites in plasmid. When
often results from the acquisition of new genes digested with Bam HI, it produces one fragment
through horizontal transfer rather than by the of 5000bp. This means Bam HI has only 1
alteration of gene functions through numerous recognition site on the plasmid sequence. Eco RI
point mutations. Horizontal gene transfer is cuts the fragment in two equal halves of 2500bp
defined to be the movement of genetic material each. Hence Eco RI also has 2 sites of recognition
between bacteria other than by descent in which on the plasmid.
information travels through the generations as 27. Given, size of the genome of E. coli
the cell divides. It is most often thought of as a = 4  103kb = 4  106 bp
sexual process that requires a mechanism for the
Size of the DNA fragment = 5000 bp
mobilization of chromosomal DNA among
bacterial cells. However, because they are unable Therefore, minimum number of independent
to reproduce sexually, bacterial species have recombinant clones required to represent the DNA
acquired several mechanisms by which to fragment in a genomic library
exchange genetic materials. It can happen = (4  106)/5000 = 8  102
through transformation, conjugation and 28. Given, Probability of finding the fragment in the
transduction. In bacteria, it mainly occurs by library = 95% = 0.95
transformation and conjugation.
29. Both pUC and the bacterial own genome produce 36. Embryonic stem cells possess the capacity to
a faulty gene product of Lac Z gene. The lac Z divide for long periods and retain their ability to
fragment, whose synthesis can be induced by make all cell types within the organism. These
IPTG, is capable of intra-allelic complementation are termed pluripotent stem cells. They are
with a defective form of  -galactosidase enzyme derived from a fertilized embryo. Cells are
encoded by host chromosome (mutation obtained from an embryo in the blastula phase,
lacZDMI5) when they are still only a few days old. Because
they have only begun to differentiate, these cells
30. DMSO is used in cell freezing media to protect
have the capability of developing into any cell in
cells from ice crystal induced mechanical
the human body which makes them potentially
injury.
important in medicine.
31. The strength of ChIP assays is their ability to
37. The yeast artificial chromosome (YAC) is an
capture a snapshot of specific protein: DNA
artificially constructed system that can undergo
interactions occurring in a system and to
replication. The design of a YAC allows extremely
quantitate the interactions using quantitative
large segments of genetic materials to be
polymerase chain reaction (qPCR).
inserted. Subsequent round of replication
32. Fusion of freely isolated protoplasts from produce many copies of the inserted sequence,
different sources with the help of fusion inducing is a genetic procedure known as cloning. The
chemical agents is known as induced fusion. It reason the cloning vector is called the YAC has
includes use of high pH or Ca++ treatment, Use to do with the structure of vector.YACs are
of PEG (Polyethylene glycol) which induces shuttle vector that can be amplified in bacteria
protoplast aggregation and subsequent fusion and employed for the cloning and the
and the use of inactivated Sendai virus for fusion manipulation of large DNA inserts (up to 3mb
which occur in four temperature-dependent pairs) in the yeast-Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
stages. Large DNA (>100 Kb) is ligated between two
Hence Colchicine is not a protoplast fusion arms.
inducing agent. Colchicine is used to prevent gout 38. Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) is a naturally
attacks in adults, and to relieve the pain of gout occurring protein that catalyze the conversion of the
attacks when they occur. Colchicine is also used inactive proenzyme plasminogen into active serine
to treat familial Mediterranean fever (FMF; an protease plasmin. It is one of the two major
inborn condition that causes episodes of fever, endogenous mammalian enzymes with this property
pain, and swelling of the stomach area, lungs, and is found in blood and tissues from various organs.
and joints) in adults and children 4 years of age Although it exerts a similar enzymatic action, it is
and older. structurally different from the other major
33. Given, weight of single base pair of DNA endogenous enzymes, urokinase. t-PA can be used to
= 1.1 * 10–21 grains treat some people who are having a stroke caused by
Length of plasmid vector= 2750bp a blood clot. It plays an important role in cell migration
and tissue remodeling.
Purified DNA= 1ug
39. Synthetic seeds or artificial seeds are seed-like
Thus, 0.55 picomoles of a plasmid vector of length structures derived from somatic embryos under
2750bp are contained in 1ug of purified DNA. in vitro condition after encapsulation by
34. Elicitors are compounds, which activate chemical hydrogen. These are tissue culture derived
defense in plants. Various biosynthetic pathways somatic embryos encased in a protective coating.
are activated in treated plants depending on the Hydrated synthetic seeds are produced in those
compound used. They are compounds that when plant species where the somatic embryos are
introduced into a living organism signals the recalcitrant and sensitive to desiccation.
activation or synthesis of another compound. Hydrated synthetic seeds are produced by
Thus (R) is true but (A) is false. encapsulating the somatic embryos in hydrogel
35. Somatic embryogenesis can be initiated either capsules. The somatic embryos are mixed with
directly without going through the callus phase sodium alginate (2 %) and the suspension is
from predetermined embryonic cells or indirectly dropped into the calcium salts solution (200mM).
through callus proliferation and differentiation The principle involved is when sodium alginate
into embryonic cells within the callus tissue dropped into the calcium salt solutions it form
round firm beads due to the ion exchange electrophoresis-based Sanger sequencing. Now-
between Na+ in sodium alginate and Ca 2+ in a-days, even 3’ end transcripts are being mapped
calcium slat solutions and sodium alginate form using 3’-RACE PCR. Baculoviruses are a very
calcium alginate in 20-30 minutes. The calcium diverse group of viruses with double-stranded,
salt used can be calcium nitrate. circular, supercoiled genomes, with sizes varying
40. Shoot organogenesis is one of the in vitro plant from about 80 to over 180 kb which encode
regeneration pathway. It has been widely between 90 and 180 genes. Baculoviruses have
employed in plant biotechnology for invitro evolved to initiate infection in the insect midgut.
micropropagation and genetic transformation, as Baculovirus-insect cell expression systems have
well as in study of plant development. the capacity to produce many recombinant
Organogenesis continues until the definitive proteins at high levels and they also provide
characteristics of the organs or plant parts are significant eukaryotic protein processing
achieved. capabilities.
41. Hairy roots are produced by infecting sterile 46. Hybridoma technology is a technology of forming
plant with a natural genetic engineer, hybrid cell lines (called hybridomas) by fusing a
Agrobacterim rhizogenes. Genes for auxin specific antibody-producing B cell with
synthesis and sensitivity are engineered into a myeloma (B cell cancer) cell that is selected for
plant cells leading to gravity- insensitive mass its ability to grow in tissue culture and for an
root production. It is very useful for products absence of antibody chain synthesis. The
produced in roots. Aggregation and shear antibodies produced by the hybridoma are all of
sensitivity are a major problem for scale up. a single specificity and are therefore monoclonal
42. Restriction endonucleases that recognize the antibodies Fused cells are incubated in HAT
same sequence are isoschizomers. The first medium (hypoxanthine-aminopterin-thymidine
example discovered is called a prototype and all medium) for roughly 10 to 14 days. Aminopterin
subsequent enzymes that recognize the same blocks the pathway that allows for nucleotide
sequence are isoschizomers of the prototype. For synthesis. Hence, unfused myeloma cells die, as
example, Sph I (CGTAC/G) and Bbu I (CGTAC/ they cannot produce nucleotides by the de
G) are isoschizomers of each other. Isoschizomers novo or salvage pathways because they lack
are pairs of restriction enzymes specific to the HGPRT. Removal of the unfused myeloma cells
same recognition sequence. is necessary because they have the potential to
43. Phylogenetics deals with evolutionary outgrow other cells, especially weakly
relatedness of the species. It calculates the established hybridomas. Unfused B cells die as
distances amongst the species from its origin and they have a short life span. In this way, only the
can track down any ancestral relationship. B cell-myeloma hybrids survive, since the
HGPRT gene coming from the B cells is
44. Yeast two hybrid screening is a molecular biology
functional.
technique used to discover protein-protein
interaction and protein-DNA interaction by 47. Let N0 be the initial number of molecules present
testing for physical interactions. Mass in the aliquot and let N be the end product of
spectrometry (MS) is an analytical technique PCR amplification. Let n be the number of cycles
that measures the mass-to-charge ratio of performed by the PCR.
charged particles. We, know N = N0  2n for n number of cycles since
45. Rapid amplification of cDNA ends (RACE) in each cycle the number of amplicons double
polymerase chain reactions (PCR) are used for the number of parent strands in an exponential
independent high-throughput verification of manner.
transcriptional starting sites (TSSs) determined Here, N0 = 100 for a 200 μL solution (given),
by genome-wide assays. 52 -RACE PCR is a well-
n = 10
established and widely used method to
specifically amplify the 52 end of a transcript, Therefore, N = 100  210
facilitating mapping of the TSS and the = 100  1024
approximate location of promoter elements. = 1.024  105
Conventionally, this mapping is done by cloning
Hence, the required amplicons generated after
the 52 -RACE PCR product into a bacterial vector
10 cycles of PCR run = 1.024  105
and sequencing a few clones by classic
48. From previous question, we have 52. In somatic cell gene transfer, the therapeutic
Number of amplicons in 200 μL of the solution genes are transferred into the somatic cell or body,
after PCR run = 1.024  105 of a patient. It involves using a vector such as a
virus to deliver therapeutic gene to the
Therefore, number of amplicons in 0.1 μL
solution = 1.024  105 x 0.1/ 200 = 51.2 appropriate target cells. This technique is
currently the basis for cloning animals (creating
Hence, the required number of amplicons present
transgenic animals) and is used in vitro.
in 0.1 μL of the solution = 51.2
53. EST is a unique stretch of DNA within a coding
49. E. coli is the bacteria which are known to be
region of a gene that is useful for identifying full-
naturally competent for transformation of DNA.
length genes and serves as a landmark for
It offers many advantageous such as:
mapping. An EST is a sequence tagged site (STS)
Genetic simplicity: E. coli cells only have about derived from cDNA library.
4,400 genes whereas the human genome project
EST’s sequence can be submiited or accessed from
has determined that humans contain
3 universal databases- GenBank, DDBJ, EMBL.
approximately 30,000 genes. E. coli, live their
NCBI also has a database exclusively for EST
entire lifetime in a haploid state.
generation are individual from a cDNA library.
Growth rate: E. coli grows rapidly at a rate of
54. Somatic embryogenesis is a process where a plant
one generation per twenty minutes under typical
or embryo is derived from a single somatic cell or
growth conditions.
group of somatic cells. Somatic embryos are
Safety: E. coli is naturally found in the intestinal formed from plant cells that are not normally
tracts of humans and animals where it helps involved in the development of embryos, i.e.
provide nutrients (vitamins K and B12) to its host.
ordinary plant tissue. In plants, somatic
Conjugation and the genome sequence: The E. embryogenesis comprises of embryo initiation
coli genome was the first to be completely followed by embryo production.
sequenced. Genetic mapping in E. coli was made
Embryo initiation occurs on a medium rich in
possible by the discovery of conjugation.
auxin, which induces differentiation of localized
Ability to host foreign DNA: E. coli is readily meristematic cells. The auxin typically used is
transformed with plasmids and other vectors, 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D). thus
easily undergoes transduction, and preparation embryo initiation is dependent on 2,4-D. While
of competent cells (cells that will take up foreign these are transferred to a medium containing low
DNA) is not complicated. or no auxin, then embryo production does not
50. Vancomycin is the antibiotic resistance marker require high concentration of 2, 4-D.
that cannot be used in a cloning vector in gram 55. Fibronectin is a glycoprotein that can act as
negative bacteria. Vancomycin acts by inhibiting general cell adhesion molecule by anchoring cells
proper cell wall synthesis in Gram-positive to collagen or proteoglycan substrates. Insulin is
bacteria. Vancomycin treats only gram positive
a hormone, produced by beta cells of the
infections (commonly a skin infection, an example
pancreas, and is central to regulating
of a Gram positive infection). It has little/no use
carbohydrate and fat metabolism in the body
against a gram negative bacteria because
Insulin is a hormone that has profound effects
vancomycin acts by binding to parts of the cell
on metabolism. alpha-2-Macroglobulin,is a large
wall that are present in a gram positive bacteria
plasma protein found in the blood. It inhibits
but not in a gram negative bacteria.
the thrombin action at the time of couagulation
51. TDT do not require a template as it adds N- by blocking trypsin enzyme. Transferrins is a
nucleotides to the variable exons during antibody iron binding glycoprotein.
gene recombination. It functions by catalysing the
56. Patatin class- I promoter is a tissue specific potato
addition of nucleotides to the 3’ terminus using 3’
promoter which expresses the potato gene mainly
– overhang as the substrate. Also it can act
in tuber.
independently on blunt or recessed 3’ ends. It is
expressed in immature, pre- B , pre –T lymphoid Phaseollin is a promoter for cotyledon tissue.
cells and uses cobalt as cofactor, also Mg/Mn 2+ Genes encoding High Molecular Weight (HMW)
presence in-vitro. It is used in adding nucleotides glutenin, a wheat seed storage protein, is
labelled with radioactive isotopes in TUNEL expressed in developing endosperm.
assay (terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase Alpha amylase is a promoter for aleurone tissue.
dUTP Nick End Labelling).
57. T 4DNA Ligase catalyzes the formation of a A common approach uses SYBR GREEN I. It
phosphodiester bond between juxtaposed 5'- binds to any double stranded DNA which could
phosphate and 3'-hydroxyl termini in duplex DNA result in inaccurate data.
or RNA. The enzyme repairs single-strand nicks 2-D electrophoresis is used to separate and
in duplex DNA, RNA, or DNA/RNA hybrids. It display all gene products present. This technique
also joins DNA fragments with either cohesive separate proteins in two steps according to two
or blunt termini, but has no activity on single- independent properties: the first-dimension is
stranded nucleic acids. It can ligate blunt-ended isoelectric focussing (IEF), which separated
DNA with much greater efficiency than E. coli proteins according to their more isoelectric points
DNA ligase. Unlike E. coli DNA ligase, T4DNA (pI); the second dimension is SDS-polyacrylamide
ligase cannot utilize NAD and it has an absolute gel electrophoresis (SDS-PAGE) which separates
requirement for ATP as a cofactor. protein according to their molecular weights
The rates of blunt-end and cohesive-end ligation (MW). The procedure involves placing the sample
of DNA by T4DNA ligase are increased by orders in gel with a pH gradient and applying a potential
of magnitude in the presence of high difference across it. There are two alternative
concentrations of a variety of nonspecific methods to create pH gradient Æ carries
polymers such as polyethylene glycol, Ficoll, ampholytes and immobilized pH gradient (IPG)
bovine plasma albumin, or glycogen. Blunt-end gels.
ligation of small self-complementary Affinity chromatography is a powerful tool for the
oligodeoxyribonucleotides is also stimulated. purification of specific biomolecules, including
58. The cloning sites of the vectors are following: proteins. The basic principle is that a biospecific
Lambda phage has size of 5-24kb, BACs have size ligand is immobilized to a solid support or resin
of 5300kb, PACS have size of 100-300kb and to which a solution containing the protein of
Cosmids have size of 35-45kb. interest is passed over. Ligands are often based
59. Alpha, Beta, and Gamma are the three subunits on biological functional pairs, such as enzymes
of the G-protein. The active form is the Alpha- and substrates or antigens and antibodies. The
GTP complex. The intrinsic GTPase activity specific ligand binds the protein of interest and
converts the bound GTP to GDP in the a - subunit, all non-specific molecules are washed away. The
returning it to its original conformation. This protein is eluted in a specific buffer, either by pH
results in the a - subunit diffusing from the or ionic strength shift or by competitively
adenylate cyclase and reassociating with the b & displacement elution. Examples of resin
g subunits. Adenylate cyclase catalyses the areÆCNBr-agarose, antibody linked sepharose
conversion of ATP to cAMP which is then used to beads, etc.
activate another, initially inactive, enzyme. The Microarray is a multiplex lob on a chip. It is 2-D
mutant G alpha protein with increased GTPase array on a solid substrate (usually a glass slide
activity shows decreased signaling because of the or silicon thin-film cell) that assays large amounts
group of proteins present which are specific to G of biological material using high-throughput
alpha subunit called the regulator of G protein screening methods. Types of microarray include
signaling. DNA microarrays (biochips are used), Protein
60. Number of clones which have 99% probability microarrays, etc.
= log10 (1– 0.99)/ log10 (1– 5/4 * 105) 62. In anther culture, the anther swells and dehisces
along its upper margin, lengthwise. This
= log10 (0.01)/ log10 (0.9999875)
phenomenon helps to expose the pollen grain.
= –4.605/–1.25 * 10–5 Alternatively, huge amount of pollen grains can be
= 3.5 * 10–5 isolated manually and can be cultured aseptically
61. Real time quantitative PCR allows the sensitive, very easily. Therefore, pollen is more suitable
specific and reproducible quantification of nucleic material than egg cell for the production of haploid.
acids. Real time PCR allows precise quantification The development and production of haploid plant
of specific nucleic acids in a complex mixture even in vitro is very important for the study of
if the starting amount of the material is at a very fundamental and applied aspects of genetics in the
low concentration. This is accompanied by higher plants. Production of homozygous diploid
monitoring the amplification of a target sequence by doubling the chromosome number of haploid in
in real time using fluorescent technology. vitro makes a pure line in single step and such
homozygous pure line is of great importance in R>4: Genes in the virulence region are grouped
plant breeding. Also it is easy to induce cell division into the operons virABCDEFG, which code
in immature pollen cells in some species. By anther for the enzymes responsible for mediating
and pollen culture, haploids can be produced in transduction of T-DNA to plant cells.
large numbers very quickly. S>2: Agrobacterium rhizogenes transfers a piece
63. Isoschizomers are pairs of restriction enzymes of oncogenic DNA, i.e. T-DNA. The T-DNA
specific to the same recognition sequence. For contains onc genes, the expression of which
example, Sph I (CGTAC/G) and Bbu I (CGTAC/ is responsible for the tumorous character of
G) are isoschizomers of each other. The first the transformed plant cells. Three onc genes
enzyme to recognize and cut a given sequence is are of prime importance: cyt, aux1, aux2.
known as the prototype, all subsequent enzymes
68. In cell biology, pluripotency (from the Latin
that recognize and cut that sequence are
plurimus, meaning very many, and potens,
isoschizomers. Isoschizomers are isolated from
meaning having power) refers to a stem cell that
different strains of bacteria and therefore may
has the potential to differentiate into any of the
require different reaction conditions.
three germ layers: endoderm (interior stomach
64. Baculo v irus e x p re ssio n in inse ct ce lls lining, gastrointestinal tract, the lungs),
represents a robust method for producing mesoderm (muscle, bone, blood, urogenital), or
recombinant glycoproteins. Baculovirus-
ectoderm (epidermal tissues and nervous
produced proteins are currently under study
system). Pluripotent stem cells can give rise to
as therapeutic cancer vaccines with several
any fetal or adult cell type. However, alone they
immunologic advantages over proteins derived
cannot develop into a fetal or adult organism
from mammalian sources.
because they lack the potential to contribute to
65. Cowpea Trypsin Inhibitor: The explanation extraembryonic tissue, such as the placenta.
for this is called co-suppression. The plant
69.  DNA footprinting is a method of
has ways of knowing that the viral coat
investigating the sequence specificity of DNA-
protein should not be produced, and it has ways
of eventually shutting down the protein’s binding proteins in vitro. This technique can
expression. When the virus tries to infect the be used to study protein-DNA interactions both
plant, the production of its essential coat protein outside and within cells.
is already blocked.  Yeast two-hybrid is based on the
66. Statement Q: When glyphosphate expressed in reconstitution of a functional transcription
chloroplasts of transgenic plants, the insensitive factor (TF) when two proteins or polypeptides
enzymes produced by confer tolerance to the of interest interact.
herbicide glyphosphate.  VNTRs have become essential to forensic
Statement S: Glyphosphate acts by inhibiting crime investigations, via DNA fingerprinting
enolpyruvyl-shikimate-3-phosphate synthase and the CODIS database. When removed from
(EPSPS), an enzyme in the pathway leading to surrounding DNA by the PCR or RFLP
biosynthesis of aromatic amino acids. Since methods, and their size determined by gel
transgenic plants exhibit resistance to electrophoresis or Southern blotting, they
glyphosphate, there is no inhibition of the produce a pattern of bands unique to each
synthesis of aromatic amino acids. individual. When tested with a group of
67. P>3: The rolA, rolB and rolC genes are plant independent VNTR markers, the likelihood of
oncogenes that are carried in plasmids of two unrelated individuals having the same
the plant pathogen Agrobacterium allelic pattern is extremely improbable.
rhizogenes. Following agrobacterial  Serial analysis of gene expression
infection, these genes are transferred into (SAGE) is a technique used by molecular
the plant genome and cause tumor biologists to produce a snapshot of the
formation and hairy root disease. messenger RNA population in a sample of
Q>1: Agrobacterium rhizogenes causes hairy interest in the form of small tags that
root disease in plants. The transformed correspond to fragments of those transcripts.
roots start producing opines which serve as It has been successfully used to describe
carbon or nitrogen source for the infecting the transcriptome of other diseases and in a
bacteria. wide variety of organisms.
70.  Erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone that Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase
prevents anemia (low blood count) by making (HGPRT) reacts with hypoxanthine absorbed from
red blood cells. Anemia causes fatigue and low the medium with PRPP, liberating pyrophosphate,
energy levels. It occurs when there are not to produce IMP(Inosine Mono Phosphate) by a
enough red blood cells to carry oxygen from salvage pathway.
the lungs to supply all the body’s needs. Therefore, the use of HAT medium for cell culture
Erythropoietin has its primary effect on red is a form of artificial selection for cells containing
blood cells progenitors and precursors by working TK and HGPRT.
promoting their survival through protecting
these cells from apoptosis. 75. Somatic fusion, also called protoplast fusion
through plasma membrane, is a type of genetic
 Anti-fibrin 99 is involved in animal cell
modification in plants by which two distinct
separation.
species of plants are fused together to form a new
 Collagenase enzyme helps in wound healing hybrid plant with the characteristics of both, a
by assisting in blood clot formation. somatic hybrid. Hybrids have been produced
 Transferrins are iron-binding blood plasma either between the different varieties of the same
glycoproteins that control the level of free iron species (e.g. between non-flowering potato plants
in biological fluids. and flowering potato plants) or between two
71. Since 60%  692551 cpm different species (e.g. between wheat triticum
So, 100% = 1154201.67% cpm and rye secale to produce Triticale).
Number of moles of 3H UTP 76.  Dicer is an endoribonuclease in the RNase III
family that cleaves double-stranded RNA
1154201.67 cpm   mol
= (dsRNA) and pre-microRNA (miRNA) into
500  2.2  106 cpm
short double-stranded RNA fragments about
= 1050  10–12 mole 20-25 base pairs long, with a two-base
= 1.05 nmole overhang on the 3' end. Dicer contains two
There is some error in options. RNase III domains and one PAZ domain; the
distance between these two regions of the
72. Parthenogenesis is a form of asexual
molecule is determined by the length and angle
reproduction in which growth and development
of embryos occur without fertilization. In plants, of the connector helix and influences the length
parthenogenesis means development of an of the siRNAs it produces.
embryo from an unfertilized egg cell, and is a  Dicer facilitates the formation of the RNA-
component process of apomixis. induced silencing complex (RISC), whose
73. By clonal propogation or micropropagation catalytic component argonaute is an
thousands of plants can be produced from a single endonuclease capable of degrading messenger
piece of plant tissue explant. They are genetically RNA (mRNA).
identical. 77.  Probiotics are live bacteria that may confer
74. STATEMENT P: HAT Medium (hypoxanthine- a health benefit on the host. Lactic acid
aminopterin-thymidine medium) is a selection bacteria (LAB) and bifidobacteria are the most
medium for mammalian cell culture, which relies common types of microbes used as probiotics.
on the combination of aminopterin, a drug that  A xenobiotic is a chemical which is found in
acts as a powerful folate metabolism inhibitor an organism but which is not normally
by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase, with produced or expected to be present in it. The
hypoxanthine and thymidine which are
term xenobiotics is very often used in the
intermediates in DNA synthesis. Aminopterin
context of pollutants such as dioxins and
blocks DNA de novo synthesis.
polychlorinated biphenyls.
STATEMENT S: The thymidine present in the HAT
 Fructo-oligosaccharide (FOS) and
medium that can be absorbed by the cells and
lactulose have been classified as prebiotics.
phosphorylated by thymidine kinase (TK) into
TMP. By additional phosphorylation reactions, Prebiotics are non-digestible food ingredients
TMP can be used to make thymidine triphosphate that stimulate the growth and/or activity of
(TTP), one of the four nucleotide precursors that bacteria in the digestive system in ways
are used by DNA polymerases to create DNA. claimed to be beneficial to health.
 β-Lactam antibiotics (beta-lactam 83. A form of asexual reproduction related to
antibiotics) are a broad class of antibiotics, parthenogenesis is gynogenesis. Here, offspring
consisting of all antibiotic agents that contains are produced by the same mechanism as in
a -lactam ring in their molecular structures. parthenogenesis, but with the requirement that
78. In PCR, the template DNA after ‘n’ cycle the egg merely be stimulated by the presence of
= (original DNA)  2n sperm in order to develop. However, the sperm
cell does not contribute any genetic material to
= 400  220
the offspring. Since gynogenetic species are all
But, this is amount in 100l. In 0.1 l we have, female, activation of their eggs requires mating
400  220  0.1 with males of a closely related species for the
= needed stimulus.
100
= 4.194304  105 84.
Marker Selective
Enzyme encoded
79. Cells are harvested when the cells have reached Gene agent(s)
a population density which suppresses growth.
Hygromycin
For adherent cultures, we use trypsin or hpt Hygromycin B
phosphotransferase
collagenase. Trypsin, collagenase, or pronase,
usually in combination with EDTA, causes cells Neomycin Kanamycin
npt II
to detach from the growth surface, thereby aiding phosphotransferase
in harvesting of anchorage dependent animal
Glyphosate
cells from culture vessels. aro A EPSP synthase
(Roundup)
80. DNA footprinting is a method of investigating
the sequence specificity of DNA-binding proteins Phosphinothricin Phosphinothricin
bar
in vitro. This technique can be used to study acetyltransferase (bialaphos)
protein-DNA interactions both outside and
85. The various reasons attributed to the escape of
within cells. The regulation of transcription has
the meristems by virus invasion are:
been studied extensively, and yet there is still
much that is not known. Transcription factors (a)Viruses move readily in a plant body through
and associated proteins that bind promoters, the vascular system which in meristems is
enhancers, or silencers to drive or repress absent,
transcription are fundamental to understanding (b)A high metabolite activity in the actively
the unique regulation of individual genes within dividing meristematic cells does not allow
the genome. Techniques like DNA footprinting virus replication and
will help elucidate which proteins bind to these (c)A high endogenous auxin level in shoot apices
regions of DNA and unravel the complexities of may inhibit virus multiplication.
transcriptional control.
86. TthPlus DNA polymerase is isolated from the
81. Secondary metabolites often play an important Thermus thermophilus strain. TthPlus DNA
role in plant defense against herbivory and other polymerase is a single 92 kDa polypeptide showing
interspecies defenses. Humans use secondary a 52 -32 exonuclease activity but lacking 32 -52
metabolites as medicines, flavorings, and exonuclease activity. It catalyzes the
recreational drugs. polymerization of nucleotides into double-stranded
82. PUFAs are long-chain fatty acids containing two DNA in the presence of MgCl2. Its efficiency has
or more double bonds. been shown more particularly on large DNA
They provide structural & functional fragments up to 12 kb (using lambda phage DNA
characteristics, and are involved in a wide range as a template). TthPlus DNA polymerase is also
of biological components including membranes capable of catalyzing the polymerization of DNA
(in phospholipids). Equally important PUFAs using a RNA template in the presence of Mn2+. The
serve as precursors for conversion into ability of TthPlus DNA polymerase to reverse
metabolites that regulate critical biological transcribe at elevated temperatures (70 C)
functions.Biodiesel is a non-petroleum and minimizes the problems encountered with strong
environmentally-friendly alternative to secondary structures in RNA since they are
petroleum-based diesel fuel and not fatty unstable at higher reaction temperatures. Higher
acid.PUFA is fatty acid it is not used as it forms temperatures also result in increased specificity of
epoxide in presence of oxygen. primer hybridization and extension. In coupled RT/
PCR assays, TthPlus is about 50-100 times more the best known of the auxins, and has been the
efficient than regular Taq DNA polymerase. subject of extensive studies by plant physiologists.
87. Gibberellins (GAs) are plant hormones that 93. Required for the sandwich assay, the capture
regulate growth and influence various antibody binds to the antigen of interest and
developmental processes, including stem generates a detectable signal for quantification.
elongation, germination, dormancy, flowering, sex This antibody is usually polyclonal in nature, and
expression, enzyme induction, and leaf and fruit is conjugated with an enzyme (most commonly,
senescence. horseradish peroxidase), so that, upon substrate
addition, a colored product is formed. The density
88. Type I collagen, a fibrous protein abundant in
of the color can then be measured spectropho-
connective tissues including tendon, ligament,
tometrically as a function of antigen concentration.
dermis and blood vessel, is the major component
The western blot (sometimes called the protein
and the primary determinant of tensile strength
immunoblot) is a widely accepted analytical
of the extracelluar matrix (ECM). It is widely used
technique used to detect specific proteins in the
as a thin layer on tissue-culture surfaces to enhance
given sample of tissue homogenate or extract. It
the attachment and proliferation of a variety of
uses gel electrophoresis to separate native proteins
cells including endothelial cells, fibroblasts,
by 3-D structure or denatured proteins by the
hepatocytes, epithelial cells and etc. In addition, length of the polypeptide. The proteins are then
collagen I can self-assemble into a 3-D transferred to a membrane (typically nitrocellulose
superamolecular gel in vitro, making it an ideal or PVDF), where they are stained with antibodies
biological scaffold to promote more in vivo-like specific to the target protein.
cellular morphology and function.
94. Lipofection (or liposome transfection) is a technique
89. Betaine improves the PCR amplification of GC-rich used to inject genetic material into a cell by means
DNA sequences. Betaine reduces the formation of of liposomes, which are vesicles that can easily
secondary structure caused by GC-rich regions and, merge with the cell membrane since they are both
therefore can be used to assist the amplification of made of a phospholipid bilayer. Lipofection
GC rich sequences by PCR. It facilitates an generally uses a positively charged (cationic) lipid
isostabilizing effect on the differential thermal to form an aggregate with the negatively charged
stability of AT and GC base pairs, which may result (anionic) genetic material and hence is the best
in a larger destabilizing effect on GC pairs and mechanism to transform intact plant tissues.
stabilzes AT rich sequence by binding with them 95. Tissue plasminogen activator is a protein involved
and causing conformational change. in the breakdown of blood clots. The importance of
90. The efficiency of the production process depends IFNγ in the immune system stems in part from its
on the rate of release of products rather than actual ability to inhibit viral replication directly, and most
rate of biosynthesis. The immobilization process importantly from its immunostimulatory and
reduces biosynthetic capacity. The process does not immunomodulatory effects. podophyllotoxin is the
allow easy removal of cell products or inhibitors as pharmacological precursor for the important
release of products/ by-products from cell into anticancer drug etoposide.
medium is hindered. Polyhydroxyalkanoates or PHAs are linear
91. A lymphocyte is a type of white blood cell in the polyesters produced in nature by bacterial
vertebrate immune system.Under the microscope, fermentation of sugar or lipids, used in the
lymphocytes can be divided into large lymphocytes production of biodegradable plastics.
and small lymphocytes. Large granular 96. Amperometric biosensors function by the
lymphocytes include natural killer cells (NK cells). production of a current generated by flux of redox
Small lymphocytes consist of T cells and B cells. electrons when a potential is applied between two
92. Zeatin is a plant hormone derived from the purine electrodes.
adenine. It is a member of the plant growth Evanescent wave biosensors are fiber-optic sensors
hormone family known as cytokinins. Zeatin was which detect the refractive index of the light beams.
first discovered in immature corn kernels from the Many enzyme catalysed reactions are exothermic,
genus Zea. It promotes growth of lateral buds and generating heat, this principle is used as a basis
stimulates cell division to produce bushier plants for measuring the rate of reaction and, hence,
if sprayed on meristems. Again the Indole-3-acetic analyze concentration by calorimetric biosensors.
acid (IAA) is the most common, naturally- Potentiometric biosensors make use of ion-selective
occurring, plant hormone of the auxin class. It is electrodes in order to transduce the biological
reaction into an electrical signal. A recent meristems - SAM and RAM (Root Apical
development from ion-selective electrodes is the Meristem) - divide rapidly and are considered to
production of ion-selective field effect transistors be indeterminate, in that they do not possess any
(ISFETs) and their biosensor use as enzyme-linked defined end fate. In that sense, the meristematic
field effect transistors. cells are frequently compared to the stem cells
97. Somaclonal variation is not restricted to, but is in animals, which have an analogous behavior
particularly common in, plants regenerated from and function.
callus. The variations can be genotypic or 103. A transplastomic plant is a genetically modified
phenotypic, which in the latter case can be either plant in which the new genes have not been
genetic or epigenetic in origin. Typical genetic inserted in the nuclear DNA but in the DNA of
alterations are: changes in chromosome numbers the chloroplasts. The major advantage of this
(polyploidy and aneuploidy), chromosome technology is that in many plant species plastid
structure (translocations, deletions, insertions DNA is not transmitted through pollen, which
and duplications) and DNA sequence (base prevents gene flow from the genetically modified
mutations). Typical epigenetic related events are: plant to other plants.
gene amplification and gene methylation. 104. The separation of the fragments in agarose gel
98. Gel filtration is a separation based on size and same is accomplished by exploiting the mobilities with
is the purpose of SDS-PAGE i.e. to separate which different sized molecules are able to pass
proteins according to their size, and no other through the gel. Longer molecules migrate more
physical feature. slowly because they experience more resistance
within the gel. Because the size of the molecule
99. Con A has varying affinities for various
affects its mobility, smaller fragments end up
polypeptides and hence affinity binding will be
nearer to the anode than longer ones in a given
used.
period.
1.0  108 105. Real-time quantitative reverse transcriptase–
100. Number of -phage vectors = = 5  103
20  103 polymerase chain reaction (RT–PCR) is the
108 method of choice for rapid and reproducible
Number of yeast clones = = 400 measurements of cytokine or growth factor
250  103
expression in small samples. Fluorescence
101. -phage vectors
detection methods for monitoring real-time PCR
in(1  p) in(0.0001) include fluorogenic probes labelled with reporter
= =
in(1  a / b)  20  103 bp  and quencher dyes, such as Taqman probes or
in  1 
108 bp 
Molecular Beacons and the dsDNA-binding dye

SYBR Green I.
in(0.0001) in(0.0001) SYBR Green binds to the minor groove of the
= =
in(1  0.0002) in(0.9998) dsDNA only. In the solution the unbound dye
9.210 exhibits little fluorescence. This fluorescence is
= = 5  104 enhanced when the dsDNA is bound with dye.
2.0  10 4
in(0.0001) 106. Let the DNA be the following line:
Yeast clones =
 250  103 
in  1  
 108
9.210 The cut portions are E.CoRI digestion site. So
=
in(1  0.0025) the partial digestion can generate 3 smaller
9.210 fragments with label and 5 fragments without
= any level.
in(0.9975)
107. In the globular stage, the embryo develops radial
9.210
= = 4000 patterning through a series of cell divisions, with
2.5  10 3
the outer layer of cells differentiating into the
102. The meristematic cells give rise to various organs ‘protoderm.’ The globular embryo can be thought
of the plant, and keep the plant growing. The of as two layers of inner cells with distinct
Shoot Apical Meristem (SAM) gives rise to organs developmental fates; the apical layer will go on
like the leaves and flowers. The cells of the apical to produce cotyledons and shoot meristem, while
the lower layer produces the hypocotyl and root teratomas. N-myc and L-myc have been
meristem. Bilateral symmetry is apparent from identified to induce instead of c-myc with similar
the heart stage; provascular cells will also efficiency. C-Myc cells after transformation last
differentiate at this stage. In the subsequent for 10 generations.
torpedo and cotyledonary stages of 113. Sarcoma is a cancer that arises from transformed
embryogenesis, the embryo completes its growth cells of mesenchymal origin. Thus, malignant
by elongating and enlarging. tumors made of cancerous bone, cartilage, fat,
108. virulence genes are grouped genes for synthesis muscle, vascular, or hematopoietic tissues are,
of opines and plant hormones are contained on by definition, considered sarcomas. This is in
the T-DNA; T-DNA is bordered by 25 bp direct contrast to a malignant tumor originating from
repeats; only the TR border is required for epithelial cells, which are termed carcinoma.
transfer although the Ti border increased the Sarcomas are quite rare. Common malignancies,
efficiency when it is present; no sequences other such as breast, colon, and lung cancer, are almost
that the borders are required for transfer. always carcinoma.
109. Regulation of UDP glucuronosyl transferase is 114. A DNA microarray (also commonly known as
the result of differential UGT gene expression DNA chip or biochip) is a collection of microscopic
and this is in response to those chemicals that DNA spots attached to a solid surface. Scientists
are primarily eliminated by conjugation with use DNA microarrays to measure the expression
glucuronic acid and hence more evident in liver levels of large numbers of genes simultaneously
and hence it can be stated that its regulation is or to genotype multiple regions of a genome. Each
post transcriptionally controlled. DNA spot contains picomoles (10"12 moles) of a
110. The process of 52 capping is vital to creating specific DNA sequence, known as probes (or
mature messenger RNA, which is then able to reporters or oligos). These can be a short section
undergo translation. Capping ensures the of a gene or other DNA element that are used to
messenger RNA’s stability while it undergoes hybridize a cDNA or cRNA (also called anti-sense
translation in the process of protein synthesis. RNA) sample (called target) under high-
Glycosylation confers stability to the proteins and stringency conditions. Probe-target hybridization
is also required for the folding of proteins. is usually detected and quantified by detection
Absence of either of these mechanisms result in of fluorophore-, silver-, or chemiluminescence-
poor expression and inactivity. labeled targets to determine relative abundance
of nucleic acid sequences in the target.
111. The replication intermediates of parvoviruses
thus are concatemers of head-to-head or tail-to- 115. Genes in the virulence region are grouped into
tail structure. Surprisingly, in case of the novel the operons vir ABCDEFG, which code for the
human bocavirus, neither head-to-head nor tail- enzymes responsible for mediating transduction
to-tail DNA sequences were detected in clinical of T-DNA to plant cells
isolates; in contrast head-to-tail DNA sequences 116. IL-2 is necessary for the growth, proliferation,
were identified by PCR and sequencing. Thereby, and differentiation of T cells to become ‘effector’
the head-to-tail sequences were linked by a novel T cells. IL-2 is normally produced by T cells
sequence which can be detected by southern blot. during an immune response. Antigen binding to
112. The Myc family of genes are proto-oncogenes the T cell receptor (TCR) stimulates the secretion
implicated in cancer. Yamanaka et al. and of IL-2, and the expression of IL-2 receptors IL-
Jaenisch et al. demonstrated that c-myc is a 2R. The IL-2/IL-2R interaction then stimulates
factor implicated in the generation of mouse iPS the growth, differentiation and survival of
cells and Yamanaka et al. demonstrated it was a antigen-specific CD4+ T cells and CD8+ T cells
factor implicated in the generation of human iPS As such, IL-2 is necessary for the development
cells. However, Thomson et al., Yamanaka et al., of T cell immunologic memory, which depends
and unpublished work by Johns Hopkins upon the expansion of the number and function
University reported that c-myc was unnecessary of antigen-selected T cell clones.
for generation of human iPS cells. Usage of the 117. This process is called nick translation because
“myc” family of genes in induction of iPS cells is the DNA to be processed is treated with DNase
troubling for the eventuality of iPS cells as to produce single-stranded “nicks.” This is
clinical therapies, as 25% of mice transplanted followed by replacement in nicked sites by DNA
with c-myc-induced iPS cells developed lethal polymerase I, which elongates the 3' hydroxyl
terminus, removing nucleotides by 5'-3' 125. Adding of 2,4-D (1 M), in the cultured cells grew
exonuclease activity, replacing them with dNTPs. rapidly, producing little berberine. On the other
Thus primers are not required. hand, the berberine-producing activity was
118. the sensitive biological element (biological remarkably enhanced by simultaneous
material (e.g. tissue, microorganisms, organelles, administration of auxin and cytokinin, although
cell receptors, enzymes, antibodies, nucleic acids, cell growth was inferior.]
etc.), a biologically derived material or biomimic 126. neoR stands for the eukaryotic gene expression
component that interacts (binds or recognises) marker, SV40 facilitate gene expression in
the analyte, the transducer or the detector eukaryotes, LTR induces new gene expression
element (works in a physicochemical way; optical, and dhfr is a gene amplification factor.
piezoelectric, electrochemical, etc.) that 127. for a cloning vector, origin of replication, a
transforms the signal resulting from the restriction site, high copy number and a
interaction of the analyte with the biological selectable marker are required. A selectable
element into another signal. Biosensor reader marker can be of any type not necessarily to be
device with the associated electronics or signal an antibiotic resistance site.
processors that are primarily responsible for the
128.  Serum provides the basic nutrients (both in the
display of the results in a user-friendly way.
solution as well as bound to the proteins) for
119. Somatic embryogenesis is a process where a plant cells.
or embryo is derived from a single somatic cell or
 Serum provides several growth factors and
group of somatic cells. Somatic embryogenesis is
hormones involved in growth promotion and
thus not fully characterized by the given options.
specialized cell function.
Hence none of the above is the right answer.
 It provides several binding proteins like
120. Monoclonal antibodies bind to a single epitope
albumin, transferrin, which can carry other
within a target antigen. Western blot procedures
molecules into the cell. For example: albumin
allow for flexibility in choosing gel
carries lipids, vitamins, hormones, etc into
electrophoresis and blotting conditions, it is
cells.
possible to modify buffers to retain enough higher
order protein structure for detection by some  It also supplies proteins, like fibronectin,
antibodies. Thus can be brought to usage in which promote attachment of cells to the
screening for monoclonal antibodies. substrate. It also provides spreading factors
that help the cells to spread out before they
121. The plants are not transformed at all, but the
begin to divide.
development of kanamycin resistance is due to
the somaclonal variation.  It provides protease inhibitors which protect
cells from preolysis.
122. The plasmid contains a genetic sequence
corresponding to the recognition site of a  It also provides minerals, like Na+, K+, Zn2+,
restriction endonuclease, such as HaeIII. After Fe2+, etc.
foreign DNA fragments, which have also been  It increases the viscosity of medium and thus,
cut with the same or similar restriction protects cells from mechanical damages during
endonuclease, have been inserted into host cell, agitation of suspension cultures.
the restriction endonuclease gene is expressed  It also acts a buffer.
by applying heat, or by introducing a 129. Protoplasts can be obtained routinely from many
biomolecule, such as arabinose. plant species, bacteria, yeasts and filamentous
123. The polymerase starts replication at the 3' end fungi. Protoplasts from different strains can
of the primer which means 5' end of the template sometimes be persuaded to fuse and so overcome
and hence A is the correct option. the natural sexual mating barriers. However, the
124. Agrobacterium infection method has been range of protoplast fusions is severely limited by
extensively used to transfer foreign DNA into a the need for DNA compatibility between the
number of dicotlyledonous species with the strains concerned. Fusion of protoplasts can be
exception of soybean (Glycine max). However, enhanced by treatment with the chemical
this technique of gene transfer was not successful polyethylene glycol, which, under optimum
in monocotyledons for reasons yet unknown most conditions, can lead to extremely high
probable being the lack of wound response of frequencies of recombinant formation which can
monocotyledonous cells. be increased still further by ultraviolet
irradiation of the parental protoplast 5 ´-hydroxyl terminus of double- and single-
preparations. Protoplast fusion can also occur stranded DNA and RNA, as well as nucleoside
with human or animal cell types. 3´-monophosphates. This modified version
130. The vast majority of a human’s DNA will match exhibits full kinase activity with no 3´
exactly that of any other human, making phosphatase activity.
distinguishing between two people rather Highlights of T4 Polynucleotide Kinase:
difficult. DNA finger printing uses a specific type (1) 5´ phosphorylation of DNA/RNA for
of DNA sequence, known as a microsatellite, to subsequent ligation
make identification much easier. Microsatellites
(2) End-labeling of DNA or RNA
are short pieces of DNA which repeat many times
in a given person’s DNA. In a given area, (3) 5´ phosphorylation of 3´ phosphorylated
microsatellites tend to be highly variable, making mononucleotides to generate a substrate
them ideal for DNA finger printing. By (pNp) that can be added to the 3´ end of DNA
comparing a number of microsatellites in a given or RNA by ligase activity
area, one can identify a person relatively easily. (4) 5´ end labeling of 3´ phosphorylated oligos
131. Total gene size = 5000bp, Because sequencer can 143. The secondary metabolism can be regulated to
sequence upto 500 bases in a single reaction. maximize the production of target compounds.
Then the fragments are = 5000/500 = 10 144. Baculoviruses are insect pathogenic and insect
Therefore 48 = 6536, 46 = 4096 , 45 = 1024, 43 = 64 specific viruses belonging to the group of Nuclear
Only 3 – bp cutter will generate more than 10 polyhedrosis viruses. Cloning vectors exploit the
fragments ( 5000/64 = 78). Rest other cutter will extraordinary strength of the polyhedrin gene
generate less than 10 fragments. promoter.
132. insert size should be 500bp 145. The border sequence of Ti plasmid is known to
133. Array data is naked eye visible entity. be around 25bp long which is sufficient for
134. RE doesn’t recognize RNA. cleavage and overdrive sequences.
135. Check for cutting site specification. Cut by 146. Taq polymerase is necessary for DNA cycle
XmaIII can be cloned into a plasmid with Eco521. sequencing.
136. Bacterial replication machinery is adapted for 147. The antibiotic aminopterin inhibits the de novo
both linear and circular molecule in forms of nucleotide synthesis pathway. However, normal
genomic DNA and plasmid DNA but not equally. cells survive in this medium as they are able to
use the salvage pathway for nucleic acid
137. Common approach to inactivate a selected gene
synthesis. But if the cells are unable to produce
is to insert an antibiotic resistance gene into the
the enzyme Hypoxanthine-Guanine Phospho
cloned gene of interest. This both inactivates the
gene of interest and allows identification of ES Ribosyl Transferase (HGPRT), they are unable
cells that have been successfully transfected. In to utilize the salvage pathway and therefore die
the engineered insertion construct, the target in aminopterin containing medium.
gene is disrupted with the neoR gene which 148. 2,4-D, being a phenoxy auxin, promoted quick
confers neomycin resistance. callus formation from the induced roots and also
138. A phospholipase is an enzyme that hydrolyzes at the base of the shoots.
phospholipids into fatty acids and other lipophilic 151. For sequencing we need complementary forward
substances. There are four major classes, termed and reverse primer to bind with target sequence.
A, B, C and D, distinguished by the type of 152. Chlorsulfuron is a selective systemic herbicide,
reaction which they catalyse. absorbed by the leaves and roots and moves
139. It’s a hormone (auxin). rapidly through the plant. Chlorsulfuron blocks
140. Mature tissue explant first undergoes acetolactate synthase and thus prevents the
dedifferentiation and then redifferentiation in plant from producing a branched chain amino
order to produce a viable callus in cell culture. acids. This inhibits cell division in the root tips
141. Clonal propagation is the asexual propagation of and shoots of sensitive plants.
the plantlets. It needs less time and a single plant 153. The pancreas is a glandular organ in the
to generate a pure verity of the plant. digestive system and endocrine system of
142. T4 Polynucleotide Kinase catalyzes the transfer vertebrates. It is both an endocrine gland
and exchange of Pi from the γ position of ATP to the producing several important hormones,
including insulin, glucagon, somatostatin, and produce seeds which are aborted. Interspecific
pancreatic polypeptide, and a digestive organ, incompatibility in plants can occur for many
secreting pancreatic juice containing digestive reasons, but most often embryo abortion occurs
enzymes that assist the absorption of nutrients In plant breeding, wide hybridization crosses
and the digestion in the small intestine. These can result in small shrunken seeds which
enzymes help to further break down the indicate that fertilization has occurred, however
carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids in the chyme. the seed fails to develop. Many times, remote
154. The Ti plasmid contains most of the genes hybridizations will fail to undergo normal
required for tumor formation. Wounded plants sexual reproduction, thus embryo rescue can
exude phenolic compounds that stimulate the assist in circumventing this problem.
expression of the virulence genes(vir -genes), 161. Restriction enzymes are commonly classified into
which are also located on the Ti plasmid. three types, which differ in their structure and
The vir genes encode a set of proteins responsible whether they cut their DNA substrate at their
for the excision, transfer and integration of the recognition site, or if the recognition and cleavage
T-DNA into the plant genome. The genes in the sites are separate from one another. To cut DNA,
T-DNA region are responsible for the tumorigenic all restriction enzymes make two incisions, once
process. through each sugar-phosphate backbone (i.e.
155. Positional cloning is a method of gene each strand) of the DNA double helix.
identification in which a gene for a specific 162. Helicase proteins are motor proteins that move
phenotype is identified only by its approximate directionally along a nucleic acid phosphodiester
chromosomal location (but not the function); this backbone, separating two annealed nucleic acid
is known as the candidate region. Initially, the strands (i.e., DNA, RNA, or RNA-DNA hybrid)
candidate region can be defined using techniques using energy derived from ATP hydrolysis.
such as linkage analysis, and positional cloning 163. According to the Hardy–Weinberg’s principle, in
is then used to narrow the candidate region until the simplest case of a single locus with two alleles:
the gene and its mutations are found. Positional the dominant allele is denoted A and the
cloning typically involves the isolation of recessive a and their frequencies are denoted
partially overlapping DNA segments from by p and q; freq(A) = p; freq(a) = q; p + q = 1. If
genomic libraries to progress along the the genotype frequencies are in Hardy–Weinberg
chromosome toward a specific gene. proportions resulting from random mating, then
156. Auxin helps in generation of the root while we will have freq(AA) = p 2 for the AA
cytokinin helps in shoot generation. homozygotes in the population, freq(aa) = q2 for
157. Ecoli doesn’t have any splicing system so that it the aa homozygotes, and freq(Aa) = 2pq for
is difficult to achieve the human protein purity the heterozygotes.
in E.Coli cells. So, q2 = 0.04, q = 0.2, p = 1-0.2 = 0.8, p2+q2+2pq=1,
158. Embryo Rescue is one of the earliest and 2pq = 1-(p2 + q2) = 0.32 = 32%
successful forms of in-vitro culture techniques 164. An ampicillin resistance gene (abbreviated ampR)
that is used to assist in the development of plant is commonly used as a selectable marker in
embryos that might not survive to become viable routine biotechnology. bacterial AmpR gene when
plants. Embryo rescue plays an important role complete, encodes b-lactamase conferring
in modern plant breeding, allowing the resistance to ampicillin.
development of many interspecific and 165. Plasminogen activator - protease produced in
intergeneric food and ornamental plant crop the kidney that converts plasminogen to plasmin
hybrids. This technique nurtures the immature and so initiates fibrinolysis. The approval of
or weak embryo, thus allowing it the chance to Chinese hamster ovary (CHO)-derived tissue
survive. Plant embryos are multicellular plasminogen activator (tPA, Activase) in 1986
structures that have the potential to develop revolutionized medicine and raised the possibility
into a new plant. The most widely used embryo of using mammalian cell culture for the
rescue procedure is referred to as embryo manufacturing of protein therapeutic products.
culture, and involves excising plant embryos 166. Mung Bean Nuclease acts as a preferential DNA
and placing them onto media culture. Embryo and RNA endonuclease, hydrolyzing single-
rescue is most often used to create interspecific stranded DNA and RNA into 5'-phosphate and
and intergeneric crosses that would normally 3'-hydroxyl-containing products. If used at very
high concentrations, Mung Bean Nuclease is also ranging from 100kb to 3000kb, i.e. the entire
capable of degrading double-stranded DNA, RNA chromosomes are being replicated in this vector.
or DNA/RNA fragments from both ends. Due to 169. dNTPs are required in place of NTPs in PCR.
its single-stranded DNA and RNA endonuclease
170. Clonal propagation is pure genetic variation with
activity, Mung Bean Nuclease is often
respect to the parents. Thus its only possible in
used during transcript mapping, duplex or
plants where the generation time is low as
hybrid DNA and RNA blunt ending, and cDNA
compare to animals.
preparation.
171. Bioremediation employs the process of natural
167. A novel Eschericha coli expression system
metabolic flux input for the metabolic
directed by bacteriophage T7 RNA Polymerase
degradation of the target. Thus it’s unobtrusive
utilized for overexpression of the cloned gene. The
and non disruptive and not end up with
recombinant cell contains the plasmid with a
hazardous waste material
bacteriophage promoter, the T7 promoter, to
regulate the expression of the target gene. This 172. For all cDNA clones 50% may take gene in
promoter is recognized only by T7 RNA reverse orientation.
polymerase, whose gene has been fused into the 173. The GUS reporter system (GUS: beta-
host chromosome and is under control of the glucuronidase) is a reporter gene system,
lacUV5 promoter. Therefore, the target gene on particularly useful in plant molecular biology.
the plasmid can be expressed only in the presence Several kinds of GUS reporter gene assay are
of T7 RNA polymerase, which is induced by actually available, depending on the substrate
isopropyl-beta-D-thiogalactopyranoside (IPTG). used. The term GUS staining refers to the most
168. These artificial vectors is amplified in yeast and common of these, a histochemical technique.
hence is the name. YACs can hold huge inserts
10
C H A P TE R
Enzyme Science and
Technology
7 2016 at this wavelength. In an assay, 25 L of a sample

of enzyme (containing 5 g protein per mL) was
1. Which one of the following statements is NOT
added to a mixture of pyruvate and NADH to give
true?
a total volume of 3 mL in a cuvette of 1 cm
(a) In competitive inhibition, substrate and
pathlength. The rate of decrease in absorbance
inhibitor compete for the same active site of
at 340 nm was 0.14 min–1. The specific activity of
an enzyme
the enzyme will be _________ mol.min–1.mg–1.
(b) Addition of a large amount of substrate to an
5. Analysis of a hexapeptide using enzymatic
enzyme cannot overcome uncompetitive
cleavage reveals the following result:
inhibition
 Amino acid composition of the peptide is: 2R,
(c) A transition state analogue in enzyme
A,V, S, Y
catalyzed reaction increases the rate of product
formation  Trypsin digestion yields two fragments and the
compositions are: (R, A, V) and (R, S, Y)
(d) In non-competitive inhibition, Km of an enzyme
for its substrate remains constant as the  Chymotrypsin digestion yields two fragments
concentration of the inhibitor increases. and the compositions are: (A, R, V, Y) and
(R, S)
2. Choose the CORRECT combination of True (T)
and False (F) statements about microcarriers used  Digestion with carboxypeptidase A yields no
in animal cell culture. cleavage product.
P. Higher cell densities can be achieved using Given:
microcarriers Trypsin cleaves at carboxyl side of R.
Q. Microcarriers increase the surface area for cell Chymotrypsin cleaves at carboxyl side of Y.
growth Carboxypeptidase A cleaves at amino side of the
R. Microcarriers are used for both anchorage- C-terminal amino acid (except R and K) of the
and nonanchorage-dependent cells peptide.
S. Absence of surface charge on microcarriers The correct amino acid sequence of the peptide is:
enhances attachment of cells
(a) RSYRVA
(a) P-T, Q-F, R-T and S-F
(b) AVRYSR
(b) P-T, Q-T, R-F and S-F
(c) SRYVAR
(c) P-F, Q-F, R-T and S-T
(d) SVRRYA
(d) P-F, Q-T, R-F and S-T
6. An enzyme is immobilized on the surface of a non-
3. In an assay of the type II dehydroquinase of porous spherical particle of 2 mm diameter. The
molecular mass 18 kDa, it is found that the immobilized enzyme is suspended in a solution
Vmax of the enzyme is 0.0134 mol.min–1 when having bulk substrate concentration of 10 mM.
1.8 g enzyme is added to the assay mixture. If The enzyme follows first order kinetics with rate
the Km for the substrate is 25 M, the kcat/Km ratio constant 10 s–1 and the external mass transfer
will be _____ 104 M–1.s–1. coefficient is 1 cm.s –1. Assume steady state
4. The activity of lactate dehydrogenase can be condition wherein rate of enzyme reaction
measured by monitoring the following reaction: (mmol.L–1.s–1) at the surface is equal to mass
Pyruvate + NADH  Lactate + NAD+ transfer rate (mmol.L –1 .s –1 ). The substrate
The molar extinction coefficient of NADH at concentration at the surface of the immobilized
340 nm is 6220 M–1.cm–1. NAD+ does not absorb particle will be ________ mM.
10.2 Enzyme Science and Technology
2015 10. The Ki of novel competitive inhibitor designed

against an enzyme is 2.5 M. The enzyme was
7. The interaction between an antigen (Ag) and a
assayed in the absence or presence of the
single-chain antibody (Ab) was studied using
inhibitor (5 M) under identical conditions. The
Scatchard analysis. The result is shown below.
Km in the presence of the inhibitor was found to
Y be 30 M. The Km in the absence of the inhibitor
is ____ M.
[Ab-Ag]
[Ag] 2014
11. Which of the following is employed for the
X repeated use of enzymes in bioprocesses?
0
[Ab-Ag] (a) polymerization
The affinity of interaction and the total (b) immobilization
concentration of antibody, respectively, can be
determined from (c) ligation
(a) slope and Y-intercept (d) isomerization
(b) Y-intercept and slope 12. The degree of reduction of ethanol is _______
(c) X-intercept and slope 13. Triose phosphate isomerase converts dihydroxy
acetone phosphate (DHAP) to glyceraldehyde-
(d) slope and X-intercept
3-phosphate (G-3-P) in a reversible reaction. At 298
8. A single subunit enzyme converts 420 moles of K and pH 7.0, the equilibrium mixture contains
substrate to product in one minute. The activity
40 mM DHAP and 4 mM G-3-P. Assume that the
of the enzyme is  10–6 Katal.
reaction started with 44 mM DHAP and no G-3-P.
9. Which one of the following graphs represents The standard free-energy change in kJ/mol for the
uncompetitive inhibition ?
formation of G-3-P [R = 8.315 J/mol.K] is _________.
2013
tor
1 ibi
nh 14. The catalytic efficiency for an enzyme is definedas
(a) th
i tor
[v0]
wi hibi
n
ti vmax
ou
ith (a) k cat (b) k
w
cat
0 1
[s]
kcat kcat
(c) k (d) v
m max
r
to
1
bi
tor
hi
[v0] 15. The activity of an enzyme was measured by

ibi
in
(b) h varying the concentration of the substrate (S) in

th
t in
wi
ou the presence of three different concentrations of

th
wi
inhibitor (I) 0, 2 and 4 mM.The double reciprocal
0 1
[s] plot given belowsuggests that the inhibitor (I)
exhibits
r
to
bi
hi
in
1
th
tor [l] = 4 mM
ibi
wi
[v0]
(c) h
t in [l] = 2 mM
ou 1/vo
th
wi [l] = 0 mM
0 1
[s]
0 1/[s]
tor
ibi
(a) substrate inhibition

nh
i
1
tor (b) uncompetitive inhibition
th
[v0] ibi
wi
inh
(d) t (c) mixed inhibition
ou
th
wi (d) competitive inhibition
0 1
[s]
Enzyme Science and Technology 10.3
Common Data for Questions 16 and 17: 19. Identify the statement that is NOT applicable to
The binding efficiency of three different receptorsR1, an enzyme catalyzed reaction
R2 and R3 were tested against a ligand using (a) Enzyme catalysis involves propinquity effects
equilibrium dialysis, with a constant concentration
(b) The binding of substrate to the active site
of receptor and varying concentrations of ligand. The
Scatchard plot of receptor titration with different causes a strain in the substrate
concentration of ligand is given below (r is moles of (c) Enzymes do not accelerate the rate of reverse
bound ligand per moles of receptor and c is reaction
concentration of free ligand) (d) Enzyme catalysis involves acid-base chemistry
4 20. An enzymatic reaction is described by the
R1
following rate expression.
3 R2
r/c 2 R3 m s
=
R4 s2
1 km  s 
ks
0
1 2 3
r Which one of the following curves represents this
16. The number of ligand binding sites present on expression?
receptors R1 and R3, respectively are
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 1
(c) 4 and 1 (d) 2 and 2 s
s
17. Which one of the receptors has thehighestaffinity (a) (b)
for the ligand?
 
(a) R1 (b) R2
(c) R3 (d) R4
2012
(c) s (d) s
18. The activity of an enzyme is expressed in
International Units (IU). However, the S.I. unit
for enzyme activity is Katal. One Katal is  
(a) 1.66  104 IU (b) 60 IU
(c) 6  107 IU (d) 106 IU
Directions (Q. 21 – 22) : The purification data for an enzyme is given below
Step Volume (ml) Total protein (mg) Total activity (Units) Specific activity (Units/mg)
P Cell-free extract 17 177 102 0.58

Q Q-Sepharose 14 18.8 72 3.83
R Phenyl Sepharose 26 9.2 45 4.89
S Sephacryl S-200 7 4.1 30 7.32
21. The fold purification for each step is

(a) P – 0.1, Q – 0.66, R – 0.84, S – 1.26
(b) P – 1.0, Q – 0.52, R – 0.67, S – 0.8
(c) P – 1, Q – 6.6, R – 8.4, S – 12.6
(d) P – 100, Q – 66, R – 84, S – 12
22. The yield (%) for each step is
(a) P – 10, Q – 7.2, R – 4.5, S – 2.0
(b) P – 34, Q – 24, R – 15, S – 1
(c) P – 3.4, Q – 2.4, R – 1.5, S – 0.1
(d) P – 100, Q – 71, R – 44, S – 29
Directions (Q. 23 – 24) : An E. coli cell of volume (b) The velocity of reactions catalyzed by E1 and
10–12 cm3 contains 60 molecules of lac repressor. The E2 at their respective saturating substrate
repressor has a binding affinity (Kd) of 10–8 M and 10–9 concentrations could be equal, if concentration
M with and without lactose respectively, in the medium. of E2 used is 10 times that of E1
23. The molar concentration of the repressor in the (c) The velocity of E1 catalyzed reaction is always
cell is greater than that of E2
(a) 1.1 nM (d) The velocity of E1 catalyzed reaction at a
(b) 1 nM particular enzyme concentration and
(c) 10 nM saturating substrate concentration is lower
than that of E2 catalyzed reaction under the
(d) 100 nM
same conditions
24. Therefore the lac-operon is
29. The dissociation constant Kd for ligand binding to
(a) repressed and can only be induced with lactose. the receptor is 10–7 M. The concentration of ligand
(b) repressed and cannot be induced with lactose. required for occupying10% of receptors is
(c) not repressed. (a) 10–6 M (b) 10–7 M
(d) expressed only when glucose and lactose are (c) 10–8 M (d) 10–9 M
present. 30. Receptor R is over expressed in CHO cells and
2010 analysed for expression. 6  10 7 cells were
25. Identify the enzyme that catalyzes the following incubated with its radioactive ligand (specific
reaction activity 100 counts per picomole). If the total
counts present in cell pellet was 1000 cpm, the
-Ketoglutarate + NADH + NH4+ + H+
? average number of receptors R per cell is (assume
 Glutamate + NAD+ + H2O complete saturation of receptors with ligand and
(a) Glutamate synthetase one ligand binds to one receptor)
(b) Glutamate oxoglutarate aminotransferase (a) 104 (b) 105
(c) Glutamate dehydrogenase (c) 106 (d) 107
(d) -ketoglutarate deaminase
2009
26. The degree of inhibition for an enzyme catalyzed
31. One unit of glucoamylase enzyme activity is
reaction at a particular inhibitor concentration
is independent of initial substrate concentration. defined as the amount of enzyme required to
The inhibition follows produce (imol of glucose per min in a 4% solution
of Lintner starch at pH 4.5 and 60C. If in a
(a) competitive inhibition
reaction mixture with 1ml of the crude enzyme
(b) mixed inhibition preparation containing 8 mg protein and 9 ml of
(c) un-competitive inhibition 4.44% starch, 0.6 mc of glucose/ml-min is
(d) non-competitive inhibition produced, what will be the specific activity of the
27. An immobilized enzyme being used in a continuous crude enzyme preparation?
plug flow reactor exhibits an effectiveness factor (a) 1 unit/mg protein
() of 1.2. The value of  being greater than 1.0 (b) 1.5 units/mg protein
could be apparently due to (c) 0.25 units/mg protein
(a) substrate inhibited with internal pore diffusion
(d) 0.75 units/mg protein
limitation
(b) external pore diffusion limitation 2008
(c) sigmoidal kinetics 32. Which of the following techniques is best suited
(d) unstability of the enzyme for immobilizing an affinity ligand?
28. The turnover numbers for the enzymes, E1 and (a) Physical adsorption
E2 are 150 s–1 and 15 s–1 respectively. This means (b) Gel entrapment
(a) E1 binds to its substrate with higher affinity (c) Cross-linking with a polymer
than E2 (d) Covalent linkage to a spacer arm
33. A DNA fragment of 4500 bp has to be tailed with 38. After completion of Nick translation reaction,
dT residues by using dTTP and the enzyme 10 l of reaction was spotted on a glass-fiber filter
‘terminal transferase’. The stock solution of dTTP that upon counting resulted into 4.2  104 cpm in
that is used as a substrate has a concentration of reaction. Another 10 l was processed for TCA
150 M. Ten l of this stock solution is added to a precipitation to determine redioisotope
total volume of 200 l reaction. What will be the incorporation. The TCA precipitated sample
concentration of dTTP in the reaction? gave 2.94  104 cpm. What is the percent of
(a) 7.5 M (b) 75 M [-32P]-dCTP incorporation into the DNA sample?
(c) 0.75 M (d) 0.075 M (a) 40% (b) 50%
34. Evaluate the Michaelis constant for (c) 60% (d) 70%
the following lipase catalyzed trans-esterification 39. If 2.94  104 cpm of TCA precipitable counts of the
reaction for the production of biodiesel 10 l sample were taken from 1/10 dilutioa of the
k1 100 l Nick Translation reaction containing 1 g

Vegetable oil +Lipase  Oil-lipase complex
k 2 of -Interferon DNA, what is the specific activity
  Biodiesel +Glycerol
k
2
of the labeled product?
where, k1 = 3  108 M–1 s–1; k = 4  103 s–1 and (a) 1.47  106 cpm/ g (b) 1.47  107 cpm/ g
k2 = 2  103 s–1 (c) 2.94  10 cpm/ g
6
(d) 2.94  107 cpm/ g
(a) 4.2  10 M –3
(b) 14.0  10 M–4
(c) 6.4  10 M –6
(d) 1.4  10–4 M 40 and 41:
35. In a chemostat, evaluate the dilution rate at the A double reciprocal plot was created from the specific
cell wash-out condition by applying Monod’s growth rate and limiting-substrate concentration data
model with the given set of data: max = 1h–1; obtained from a chemostat experiment. A linear
Yx/s = 0.5 g g–1; Ks = 0.2 g L–1; S0 = 10 g L–1 regression gave values of 1.25 hr and 100 mg-hr-l–1
(a) 1.00 h–1 (b) 0.49 h–1 for the intercept and slope, respectively.
(c) 0.98 h–1 (d) 1.02 h–1 40. The respective values of the Monod kinetic
constants m (hr–1) and Ks (mg/l) are as follows:
Common Data Questions
(a) 0.08, 8 (b) 0.8, 0.8
Common Data for Questions 36 and 37:
(c) 0.8, 80 (d) 8, 8
An enzyme (24000 Da) undergoes first-order
deactivation kinetics while catalyzing a reaction 41. The same culture (with the m and Ks values as
according to Michaelis-Menten kinetics (Km= 10–4 M). computed above) is cultivated in a 10-litre
The enzyme has a turnover number if 104 molecules chemostat being operated with a 50 ml/min sterile
substrate/min-(molecule enzyme) and a deactivation feed containing 50 g/l of substrate. Assuming an
constant (kd) of 0.1 min–1 at the reaction conditions. The overall yield coefficient of 0.3 g-DCW/g-substrate,
reaction mixture initially contains 0.6 mg/l of active the respective values of the outlet biomass and
enzyme and 0.02 M of the substrate. substrate concentration are
36. The time required to convert 10% of the substrate (a) 15 g/l, 48 mg/l (b) 15 g/l, 0.48 g/l
will be rapproximately (c) 48 g/l, 15 g/l (b) 4.8 g/l, 4.8 g/l
(a) 16 min (b) 24 min 2007
(c) 32 min (d) 8 min 42. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the
37. The maximum possible conversion for the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]
enzymatic reaction will be Assertion : Enzymatic method of tissue dispersion
(a) 100% is milder than chemical and mechanical methods.
(b) 50% Reason : Enzymes work at optimal temperature
(c) 25% and pH
(d) 12.5% (a) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct
reason for [a]
38 and 39: (b) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the
A Nick Translation reaction in a final volume of 100 l
was carried out by using 25 Ci of labeled [-32P]– (c) [a] is true but [r] is false
dCTP for labeling a 1.2 Kb -Interferon DNA fragment. (d) [a] is false but [r] is true
Common Data for Questions 43 and 44 : (a) A  4, B  1, C  2, D  3
Enzyme X converts substrates S1 and S2 (which are (b) A  1, B  4, C  2, D  3
similar but not identical) to products P 1 and P2 (c) A  2, B  3, C  1, D  4
respectively
(d) A  3, B  4, C  2, D  1
43. Km values of enzyme X for substrate S1 and S2 are
48. Using the Hill equation for an enzyme
0.1 mM and 0.01 mM, respectively This suggest that
[S]0 = (v0 Km/ Vmax– v0)1/n and the plot of log 10
P. enzyme X has more affinity towards S1 (v0/Vmax – v0) vs log 10 [S]0 one can find out
Q. enzyme X has low affinity towards S1 (P) Vmax form the intercept on the ordinate
R. enzyme X has more affinity towards S2 (Q) Km form the intercept on the ordinalte
S. enzyme X has low affinity towards S2 (R) ‘n’ from the slope
(a) P, Q (b) R, S (S) Km from the intercept on the abscissa
(c) Q, S (d) Q, R (a) P, Q (b) Q, R
44. What would happen if enzyme X is incubated with (c) R, S (d) P, S
a mixture of 0.1 mM of S1 and S2? Statement for Linked Answer Questions 49a
(a) Products P1 and P2 are produced at equal and 49b
concentrations An aliquot of competent E. coli cells were used for
(b) Only product P2 is produced determination of cell density by plate count method
(c) More P2 and less P1 are produced and another aliquot was used for transformation by
plasmid DNA
(d) More P1 and less P2 are produced
49a. E. coli cell culture (1 ml) was diluted 1:1000000
2006 and 200l of this was used for plating. After 12h
45. Immobilization of enzymes using entrapment incubation of the plate, the number of colony
method requires forming units (CFU) was 150. What is the total
(P) photosensitive polyethylene glycol dimethacrylate CFUper ml in original culture ?
(Q) CNBr activation of sepharose (a) 7.5  108 (b) 1.5  108
(R) polyfunctional reagent like hexamethylene (c) 1.5  106 (d) 3.0  106
diisocyanate 49b. Isolated plasmid DNA (5  g) was used for
(S) radiation of polyvinyl alcohol transformation of 100 l competent E. coli cells
to which 900 l of SOC medium was added. An
(a) P, Q (b) R, S
aliquot of 50ul was plated on a selective plate.
(c) P, S (d) Q, S After overnight incubation, 300 colonies were
46. Immobilization of enzymes observed. Calculate the efficiency of
(P) increases the specificity of the enzyme for its transformation and the percentage of transformed
reactants cells per ml of parent culture
(Q) facilitates reuse of the enzyme in batch reactions (a) 6.0  105 colonies per g of plasmid DNA, 0.01%
(R) makes it unsuitable for its use in a continuous (b) 1.2  105 colonies per g of plasmid DNA, 0.02%
reactor system (c) 1.2  106 colonies per g of plasmid DNA,
(S) decreases the operational cost of the industrial 0.008%
process (d) 6.0  106 colonies per g of plasmid DNA, 0.01%
(a) Q, S (b) Q, R Statement for Linked Answer Questions 50a
and 50b.
(c) R, S (d) P, Q
HMGCoA reductase that binds HMGCoA,
2005 is the major rate limiting step in the cholesterol
47. Match the following products with their starting biosynthetic pathway. Several inhibitors of this
substrates enzyme are used as potential drugs. The assay of the
A. Sake 1. apple juice enzyme is based on labeling the enzyme with
radiolabeled HMGCoA and counting (cpm) the labeled
B. cider 2. grape juice
enzyme substrate complex in the presence (test) and
C. wine 3. barley in the absence (control) of the inhibitor. A bland is set
D. lager 4. rice up that contains no enzyme.
50a. The percent inhibition for this enzyme is Fermentation Microbial

calculated from the equation products cultures
(a) {[cpm (control) – cpm (test)]/[cpm (control) – (A) Ethanol (P) Aspergillus niger
cpm (blank)]}  100 (B) Streptomycin (Q) Zymomonas mobiles
(b) {[cpm (control) – cpm (test)]/[cpm(blank) – cpm (C) Citric acid (R) Streptomyces
(control)])}  100 griseus
(c) {[cpm (test) – cpm (control)]/[cpm (control) – (D) Cellulase (S) Trichoderma reesei
cpm (blank)])}  100 (a) A-P; B-Q; C-R; D-S
(d) {[cpm (control) – cpm (blank)]/[cpm (test) – cpm (b) A-Q; B-R; C-P; D-S
(control)])}  100 (c) A-Q; B-R; C-S; D-P
50b. An inhibitor is considered active if it causes more (d) A-S; B-R; C-Q; D-P
than 65% inhibition. The. cpm Values respectively
54. An enzyme following Michaelis – Menten kinetics
of control, test and blank samples for inhibitors
with Vm = 2.5 mmol m–3 s–1 and Km = 5.0 mM was
W, X, Y and Z are given below. State which of the used to carry out the reaction in a batch stirred
inhibitors is active. reactor. Starting with an initial substrate
(a) X – 8000, 4000 and 100 concentration of 0.1 M. The time required for 50%
(b) W – 7000, 1400 and 135 conversion of the substrate will be about
(c) Y – 7500, 5000 and 90 (a) 01 hr (b) 06 hr
(c) 02 hr (d) 12 hr
(d) Z – 7200, 2800 and 200
55. Inversion of sucrose by immobilized invertase
2004 follows a substrate inhibited kinetics. The
51. An immobilized enzyme being used in a reaction rate (v) in mol m–3 hr–1 can be expressed
continuous plug flow reactor exhibits an as V = 800 [S]/ {400 + 50 [S] + [S]2}, where [S] is
effectiveness factor () of 1.2. The value of  being the sucrose concentration.
greater than one could be apparently due to one The immobilized invertase preparation is used in
of the following reasons. Identify the correct a CSTR with 100 mol m–3 sucrose concentration in
reason. the feed stream. If the reaction velocity passes
(a) The enzyme follows substrate inhibited through a maxima at [S] = 20 mol m–3, the feed
kinetics with internal pore diffusion limitation flow rate for a reactor volume of 1m3 to get the
maximum productivity from the reactor should be
(b) The enzyme experiences external film
diffusion limitation (a) 0.11 m3 hr–1 (b) 1.10 m3 hr–1
(c) 5.05 m3 hr–1 (d) None of these
(c) The enzyme follows sigmoidal kinetics
56. Phytase an enzyme produced by Aspergillus niger
(d) The immobilized enzyme is operationally
can be adsorbed on microcrystalline cellulose
unstable
powder (MCCP). The adsorption follows a
52. The degree of inhibition for non-competitive Langmuir isotherm and the maximum
inhibition of an enzyme catalyzed reaction concentration of the protein that can be obtained
(a) Increases with increases in substrate on the adsorbent is 70 mg cm–3. At a concentration
concentration of 50mgl –1 of protein in the solution the
(b) Reaches a maxima with increase in substrate concentration of protein on the adsorbent reaches
35 mg cm–3. It is desired to recover 90% of the
concentration and then decreases
addition of MCCP to the solution. The
(c) Is independent of substrate concentration concentration of the protein adsorbed on the solid
(d) Decreases with increase in substrate at equilibrium will be
concentration (a) 21.4 mg cm–3
53. The two columns given below indicate some of (b) 214 mg cm–3
the fermentation products and the microbial (c) 2.14 mg cm–3
cultures used for their production. Identify the
(d) None of these
correct set of groups from the four options.
57. Examine the data given below in the table on 2002
purification of a protein X
62. The typical coenzyme present in the
Step Volume Protein Enzyme methanogenes is
concentration activity
(a) Coenzyme A
(ml) (mg/ml) (units/ml)
Crude cell– 500 12.0 5.0 (b) Coenzyme Q
free extract (c) Coenzyme M
Ammonium 125 3.0 11.0
sulfate (d) None of these
precipitation 63. Ethanol concentration is lowest in
Ion-exchange
Chromato- 10 9.0 75.0
(a) Wine
graphy (b) Beer
The yield percent and purification factor (c) Brandy
respectively at the end of the experiment will be (d) Rum
approximately
64. The following cross-linking agents may be used
(a) 25 and 3 (b) 30 and 20 for the immobilization of enzymes
(c) 20 and 30 (d) 75 and 30 (a) Glutaraldehyde
2003 (b) Cyanogen bromide
58. Enzyme papain is used with success to (c) Thionyl chloride
(a) increase meat production (d) All of these
(b) leaven bread 65. The following culture systems are used for growing
large amount of anchorage dependent animal
(c) ripen papaya fruit
cells except
(d) tenderize meat
(a) Roller bottle
59. Which one of the following reactions is used for
(b) Airlift fermenter
the purpose of recycling enzymes inbioprocesses ?
(c) Hollow fibre reactor
(a) Isomerization
(b) Immobilization (d) Microcarrieres
(c) Phosphorylation 2001
(d) Polymerization 66. The factor (s) likely to increase the rate of reaction
60. Match the industrial application of the following catalyzed by a surface immobilized enzyme
enzymes is/are
P Penicillinase 1. Pharmaceutical (a) Increased agitation of the bulk liquid
containing the substrate
Q Pectinase 2. Leather
(b) Continued replacement of the bulk liquid
R Trypsin 3. Wine
containing the substrate
S Rennin 2. Dairy
(c) Increased concentration of the substrate in
(a) (b) (c) (d) the bulk liquid
P-4 P-l P-l P-4 (d) All of these
Q-3 Q-3 Q-2 Q-2 67. Which of the following cases are likely to lead to
R-l R-2 R-3 R-3 faster rates of catalysis by an enzyme immobilized
S-2 S-4 S-4 S-l on a negatively charged support ?
61. Which of the following techniques is NOT ideal (a) A positively charged substrate and a negatively
for immobilizing cell-free enzymes ? charged product
(a) physical entrapment by encapsulation (b) A negatively charged substrate and a positively
charged product
(b) covalent chemical bonding to surface carriers
(c) A positively charged substrate and a positively
(c) physical bonding by flocculation
charged product
(d) covalent chemical bonding by cross-linking the
(d) None of the above
precipitate
68. (a) A chemostat is operating at steady state at a (d) Enzymes which hydrolyse antibodies
dilution rate of 0.1 hr–1 and a limiting nutrient 70. Which one of the following is not a protease ?
concentration of 10 M. If max for the organism
(a) Proteosome
is 0.5 hr–1. Calculate the Monod constant for
the nutrient. (b) Trypsin
(b) Why asparaginase is used in anticancer (c) Chrymotrypsin
therapy? (d) Peptidyl tRNA hydrolase

71. The Pasteur Effect is
2000
(a) Inhibition of glucose utilization and lactate
69. Abzymes are
accumulation in glycolysis
(a) Enzymes that are highly specific like antibodies
(b) Sterilisation of milk
(b) Antibodies that have catalytic activities
(c) Vaccine production
(c) Also referred to as zymogens
(d) Heat treament of bacteria
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (8.6 : 9.4) 4. (525.0 : 555.0) 5. (b) 6. (7.5 : 7.5)
7. (d) 8. (7) 9. (a) 10. (90 or 10)
11. (b) 12. (6 to 6) 13. (2.46 to 2.50) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d)
17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (d)
27. (*) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (b) 31. (*) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (*)
37. (*) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (c) 41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (a)
47. (a) 48. (d) 49a. (a) 49b. (b) 50a. (a) 50b. (b) 51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (b)
55. (d) 56. (*) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (b) 61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (d)
65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (*) 69. (b) 70. (b) 71. (d)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Enzyme inhibitors which resembled the transition 1.8
state structure would bind more tightly to the Et = = 0.1  mol = 0.1  10–6 mol.
18
enzyme than the actual substrate. Transition state
Vmax 2.233  10 10
analogs can be used as inhibitors in enzyme- Now, Kcat =   2.233  10 3
Et 0.1  10 6
catalyzed reactions by blocking the active site of
the enzyme. Eg: Saquinavir. K cat 2.233  10 3
 Km = = 0.0893  103
2. Higher cell densities can be achieved using 25  106
microcarriers which increases the surface area = 8.93  101 M–1s–1
for cell growth and also mediates the culture of 4. Specific Activity of enzyme
different type of cells. They are used for anchorage  
dependant cells. Eg: Cytodex I. Absence of surface  
=  Change in OD. Per min × 1000 × total reaction mix in ml 
charge doesn't help in anchorage.  Extinction coefficient × Vol. of enzyme in sample in ml 
 × concentration of protein in g/ml 
3. Vmax = 0.0134  mol min–1  
= 02.233  10–4  mol s–1 0.14  1000  3

= = 540
= 2.233  10 –10
mol s , Km = 25  m.
–1 (6220  25  10 3  5  10 3 )
5. Trypsin cleaves at carboxy side of R. So R is 11. Enzymes or 'biocatalysts' are remarkable discovery
written on the C termini. On the other hand, in the field of bioprocess technology. Biocatalysis
Trypsin digested fragment includes RAV And RSY. has been widely accepted in diverse sectors owing
Any of the fragment can be placed depending on to their ease of production, substrate specificity
the chymotrypsin digestion which is performed and green chemistry. However, for large extent
after trypsinisation. Chymotripsinisation commercialization of these bio-derived catalysts,
produced ARVY and SR after cleaving C termini their reusability factor becomes mandatory, failing
of another R. So the resultant amino acid which they would no longer be economic.
sequence will be AVRYSR. Consequently, immobilized enzymes with
Vmax A[s] functional efficiency and enhanced reproducibility
6. V1 = , V2  K L A([s o ]  [s]) are used as alternatives in spite of their
K m  [s]
expensiveness. Immobilized biocatalysts can either
Reaction rate Mass transfer rate
be enzymes or whole cells. Enzyme immobilization
The given condition is is confinement of enzyme to a phase (matrix/
V1 = V2 at steady state. support) different from the one for substrates and
Further Vmax= KLso = 1  10 = 10. products. Inert polymers and inorganic materials
are usually used as carrier matrices.
10[s]
 = [10 – s]  s2 + 10s – 100 = 0 12. In ethanol, there are 6 hydrogen atoms which
10  [s]
are present in it. So, the degree of reduction of
Solving for s
ethanol is 6 as there are six hydrogen atoms
 b  b 2  4ac gained by the ethanol molecule. Hence, degree
Using
2a of reduction for ethanol is 6.
s = 6.180 or – 16.180 13. The standard Gibb's free energy change for the
 s = 6.180 formation of G-3-P is given by:
7. Scatchard analysis is plot of ratio of concentration G0 = - RT lnK
of bound ligand to unbound ligand verses  G0 = - 8.315  298  ln 0.4
the bound ligand concentration. The slope  G0 = 2,270.449 J/mol = 2.27 kJ/mol
= affinity for ligand binding and Y intercept
14. The ratio k(cat)/K(M)—often referred to as the
= total concentration of antibody.
“specificity constant”—is a useful index for
 Ab – Ag =  Ab – Ag .ka + nka comparing the relative rates of an enzyme acting
–
 Ag   Ag on alternative, competing substrates. However,
Then compare with equation y = mx + c an alternative description, “catalytic efficiency”,
is frequently used to compare the reactivity of two
8. 1 Katal = The one mole of substrate converted by
enzymes acting on the same substrate.
enzymes in 1 second.
420  moles
K

1
E + S  ES 
K2
 E+ P
= = 7 10–6 katal K1
60 seconds
9. Graph A represent uncompetitive inhibition K2 here is also known as kcat /km, the catalytic
efficiency of enzyme.
1 Km 1 1
10. = + V ...(1) kcat/km = k2 = VMax /[E]0
V V
[S] max max
15. If a reversible inhibitor can bind to the enzyme
1 K m1
 I  1 1 active site in place of the substrate, it is described
= 1  KI  [S]  V ...(2)
V V 
max  min as a “competitive inhibitor.” In pure competitive
Then equation (1) – (2) and by simplification inhibition, the inhibitor is assumed to bind to the
free enzyme but not to the enzyme-substrate (ES)
 5 
Km = 30 1   = 90 complex. At the macroscopic level, the effect of
 2.5 
competitive inhibition is to increase the substrate
Note : If we take Km in the absence of the concentration required to achieve a given reaction
inhibitor 30 M then Km in the presence of velocity; in other words, to raise the Km. Here,
the inhibitor can be calculated as per above with increase in the concentration of the inhibitor
formulae 10 M.
[I], the rate of the reaction changes and so does 28. Turnover number is expressed in molecules of
the slope of the plot. Hence it is a competitive product / active site / second. It can be defined as
inhibition. the number of molecules of a substrate acted upon
16. From the graph we can see that the value of r is in a period of 1 minute by a single enzyme
same for all the receptors. ‘r’ is the moles of bound molecule; with the enzyme working at a maximum
ligand per moles of receptor. So, both R1 and R3 rate.here the statement shows the dP/dt of the
have the same number of sites for ligand binding. two enzymes at unit time. Again dP/dt is the
Now, in the graph, r = 2. Therefore the number of velocity of the reaction i.e. the E1 has greater
ligand binding sites is 2. velocity than of E2.
17. Analysing the graph it can be seen that r/c value 29. Given,
is the maximum for Recpetor1. Here, r is the Dissociation constant, Kd= 10–7M
moles of bound ligand per moles of receptor and c
The reaction is: L + R Æ LR
is concentration of free ligand. So, more the value
of r/c, more will be the efficiency of binding the Thus, Kd for the reaction = [L][R]/[LR]
ligand by a receptor. Since r/c for Recpetor1 is 4 or [LR]/[LR][R] = 10/100
which is the highest, so Receptor1 is the most Therefore, [L] = 1/9 * 10–7M = 10–8M
efficient binder of the ligand. 30. Number of ligands = total radioactivity/
7
18. One katak is 6  10 IU units radioactivity in each ligand
= 1000 cpm/ 100 cpm/pmole
19. Enzymes accelerate the rate of the reverse
reaction as well as the forward reaction, it would = 10 pmole
be helpful to ignore any back reaction by which = 10 * 10 –12
* 6.023 *10–12 * 6.023 * 1023 ligands
E1P might form ES. The velocity of this back Thus, total ligands= 6.023 * 1012
reaction would be given by v = k–2[E][P].
Average number of receptors, R per cell = total
25. Glutamate dehydrogenase (GLDH) is an enzyme, receptor/number of cells
present in most microbes and the mitochondria of
eukaryotes, as are some of the other enzymes = 6.023 * 1012/ 6 * 107
required for urea synthesis, that converts = 105
glutamate to α-ketoglutarate, and vice versa.
32. Affinity chromatography utilizes the specific
The α-ketoglutarate to glutamate reaction does
interactions between two molecules for the
not occur in mammals as glutamate
purification of a target molecule. A ligand having
dehydrogenase equilibrium favours the production
affinity for a target molecule is covalently
of ammonia and α-ketoglutarate. NAD+ or NADP+
attached to an insoluble support and functions
is a cofactor for the glutamate dehydrogenase
as bait for capturing the target from complex
reaction, producing α -ketoglutarate and
solutions. The affinity ligand can be any molecule
ammonium as a byproduct.
that will bind the target without also binding other
26. A non- competitive inhibitor can combine with an molecules in the solution.
enzyme molecule to produce a dead- end complex,
33. Stock solution= 150 M
regardless of whether a substrate molecule is
bound or not. Hence, inhibitor binds at a different Dilution factor= 10/200 l = 1/20 l
site from the substrate. Km (Michelis Menton) Concentration of d TTP= (1/20)*150 M= 7.5 M
constant remains unchanged but the value of
Vmax (maximum velocity) is altered. K 1  K 2
34. KM =
K1
27. The degree of effectiveness factor is determined by
Hill equation for Non Michaelis-Menten kinetics. 4  104 S 1  2  103 S 1
The Hill equation accounts for allosteric binding at =
3  108 M 1 S 1
sites other than the active site. n is the “Hill
42000
coefficient.” When n < 1, there is negative =
effectiveness factor; When n = 1, there is no effect; 3  108
When n > 1, there is positive effectively. = 1.4  10–4M
35. We know, from Monod's equation greater thermal and operational stability than the
soluble form of the enzyme. This reduces the
μ = μmax [S0/(KS + S0)]
operational cost.
⇒ μ = 1 * [10/(0.2 +10)] = 10/10.2 = 0.98 47. Sake or saké is an alcoholic beverage of that is
At wash out, Dilution rate D = μ made from fermented rice. Cider is a fermented
alcoholic beverage made from fruit juice, most
Therefore,
commonly and traditionally apple juice. Grape
the required dilution rate = 0.98 hr–1 juice is obtained from crushing and blending
38. % incorporation is calculated by incorporation into grapes into a liquid. The juice is fermented and
precipitated form. (The polymerized form will made into wine, brandy or vinegar. Barley is used
precipitate). as a source of fermentable material for beer
called lager and certain distilled beverages.
precipitate form cpm
= 48. V m can be plotted and calculated from the
total cpm
intercept on the ordinate while Km will be given
2.94  104 cpm by Hill equation from the intercept of the
=  100  70% abscissa.
4.2  104 cpm
39. 2.94  105 cpm is from 0.1 dilution of 10 l sample. 49a. Since, 1 ml = 1000 l
Thus, 10 l sample will have 2.94  106 cpm but, New volume
this 10 l sample is taken from 100 l which = 103  106 l = 109 l.
contain 1 g of -interferon. So, 100 l of 1 g Since, only 200 l is used we have a dilution factor
interferon sample will have 2.94  107 cmp/g. of
42. A : Enzymatic method is mild. Chemical and
109 l
mechanical methods may tend to destroy the = = 0.5  107
200 l
tissue.
Number of colony in original one ml culture would
R :Enzymes show their catalytic activity at a
be
particular optimum p H and temperature.
= 0.5  107  150
43. The Michaelis constant (Km) is a means of
characterizing an enzyme's affinity for a = 7.5  108.
substrate. The Km in an enzymatic reaction is 50a. The amount of radioactivity will be in order
the substrate concentration at which the reaction control >test > blank
rate is half its maximum speed. Thus, a low Km
control  test
value means that the enzyme has a high affinity % inhibition =
control  blank
for the substrate (as a "little" substrate is enough
to run the reaction at half its max speed). decrease in enzyme complex
44. Because this enzyme has a high KM, less
formation due to inhibitor
substrate is converted into product. =
maximum enzyme- substrate
45. Photosensitive Polyethylene glycol dimethy- complex formation in absence of inhibitor
lacrylate is used in free radical copolymer
50b. For each a, b, c, and d options respectively.
crosslinking reactions which cross links enzyme
The value of % inhibition is
with matrix and hence used in immobilzation of
enzymes. Polyvinyl alcohol is used for formation 8000  4000
For, a= = 50.6%
of spherical structured beads in immobilisation 8000  100
process but after the process is over it needs to be
7000  1400
degraded and for this purpose gamma radiation b= = 81.5%
7000  135
induced degradation of polyvinyl alcohol is carried
out. 7500  5000
c= = 33.7%
46. The immobilized enzyme is easily removed from 7500  90
the reaction making it easy to recycle the 7200  2800
biocatalyst. Immobilized enzymes typically have d= = 62.86%
7200  200
51. The effect of intraparticle diffusion in artificial 59. immobilized enzymes are reusable in long term
membranes on the kinetic behavior of industrial utilization.
immobilized enzymes has been considered 60. Beta-lactamases (penicillinase) are enzymes
theoretically in terms of an effectiveness factor. produced by some bacteria that provide resistance
When the immobilized enxymes obey a to beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillins,
Michaelis-Menten relationship, an approximate cephamycins and carbapenems. Beta-lactamase
equation is proposed for the effectiveness factor. provides antibiotic resistance by breaking
For a substrate inhibited enzymatic reaction, the antibiotic s structure(a four-atom ring known
the effectiveness factor may exceed unity and as a beta-lactam). Through hydrolysis , the
display multiple steady-state behavior. Thus, the lactamase enzyme breaks the β-lactam ring open,
over-all rate of reaction in the artificial deactivating the molecule’s antibacterial
membrane is faster in this case than that when properties.
the substrate concentration in the interior is at
Pectinases have also been used in wine production
the same as that at the exterior surface. In the
since the 1960s. The function of pectinase in
case of a product inhibited enzymatic reaction,
brewing is twofold, first it helps breakdown the
the effectiveness factor is always less than that
plant (typically fruit) material and so helps the
which corresponds to a Michaelis-Menten
extraction of flavours from the mash. Secondly
relationship.
the presence of pectin in finished wine causes a
52. Non-competitive inhibitors are considered to be haze or slight cloudiness, Pectinase is used to
substances which when added to the enzyme break this down and so clear the wine.
alter the enzyme in a way that it cannot accept
One of the steps in leather industry is ‘bating’
the substrate.
which is done to make the leather soft and supple
53. A. niger can ferment Citric Acid, Ethanol can be by using proteolytic bating enzymes of pancreatic
produced by Z. mobilis, Streptomycin is produced or bacterial origin. Trypsin and alkaline
by S.griseus, Cellulose is produced by T. ressei. proteases are commonly used.
54. By MM equation V= Vm .S/Km +S. Rennin is an enzyme generated in the stomachs
of young mammals to help them digest milk. It
800[ s]
55. V = is also the active component in rennet, a
400  50[ s]  [ s]2
substance which is used to make cheeses and
S0 = 100 mol/m3  V0 = 5.195 ml/m3 hr. other dairy products such as junket.
i.e. Vmax when S = 20 ml/m3, 61. Covalent chemical bonding by cross-linking the
 dp  F precipitate is not ideal for immobilizing cell-free
 Vmax = 8.889 ml/m3.hr. V =   D = enzymes.
dt V
Vmax 62. Coenzyme M is a coenzyme required for methyl-
Now, Km = = 4.444
2 transfer reactions in the metabolism of
Now, methanogens. The coenzyme is an anion with the
formula HSCH 2CH 2 SO –3. It is named 2-
S mercaptoethanesulfonate and abbreviated HS–CoM.
V0 =Vmax = 7.27 ml/m3. hr
Km  S The cation is unimportant, but the sodium salt is
58. Papain has utility in breaking down tough meat most available. Mercaptoethanesulfonate contains
fibres and has been used for thousands of years both a thiol, which is the main site of reactivity,
in its native South America. It is sold as a and a sulfonate group, which confers solubility in
component of powdered meat tenderiser aqueous media.
available in most super markets. Papain, in the 63. Amount of ethanol in brandy: 35 to 60%, rum:
form of such a powdered meat tenderizer, made 40%, beer: 4 to 6%.
into a paste with water, is also a home remedy
64. Commonly used methods for the covalent
treatment for, bee, and yellow jacket (wasps)
immobilisation of enzymes includes activation of
stings; mosquito bites; and possibly stingray
Sepharose by cyanogen bromide. Conditions are
wounds, breaking down the protein toxins in the
chosen to minimise the formation of the inert
venom.
carbamate. Glutaraldehyde is used to cross-link
enzymes or link them to supports. It usually consists 69. Proteasomes are protein complexes inside all
of an equilibrium mixture of monomer and eukaryotes and archaea, and in some bacteria.
oligomers. The product of the condensation of In eukaryotes, they are located in the nucleus
enzyme and glutaraldehyde may be stabilised against and the cytoplasm. The main function of the
dissociation by reduction with sodium borohydride. proteasome is to degrade unneeded or damaged
65. Airlift fermenter is a fermenter in which proteins by proteolysis, a chemical reaction that
circulation of the culture medium and aeration breaks peptide bonds.
is achieved by injection of air into some lower 70. Pasteur effect : While the oxygen concentration
part of the fermenter. Usually not suitable for is low, the product of glycolysis, (pyruvate), is
animal cell production. turned into ethanol and carbon dioxide, and the
66. Continuous change in the substrate energy production efficiency is low (2 moles of
concentration in bulk liquid does not allow ATP per mole of glucose). If the oxygen
enzyme to attain the reverse feedback condition. concentration grows, pyruvate is converted to
acetyl CoA that can be used in the citric acid
67. It creates the substrate based higher influx
cycle, which increases the efficiency to 36 moles
leading to a positively charged substrate and a
of ATP per mole of glucose. Therefore, about 15
negatively charged product. times as much glucose must be consumed
68. Abzyme is a monoclonal antibody with catalytic anaerobically as aerobically to yield the same
activity. Abzymes are usually artificial constructs, amount of ATP. Thus it is heat treatment for
but are also found in normal and in patients with bacteria.
autoimmune diseases such as systemic lupus
erythematosus, where they can bind to and
hydrolyze DNA.
11
C H A P TE R
Biochemical Engineering and
Bioprocess Technology
2016 6. The empirical formula for biomass of an unknown

organism is CH1.8 O0.5 N0.2. To grow this organism,
1. Prandtl number is the ratio of
ethanol (C2H5OH) and ammonia are used as carbon
(a) thermal diffusivity to momentum diffusivity and nitrogen sources, respectively. Assume no
(b) mass diffusivity to momentum diffusivity product formation other than biomass. To produce 1
(c) momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity mole of biomass from 1 mole of ethanol, the number
of moles of oxygen required will be ___________.
(d) thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity
7. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is cultured in a
2. Fed batch cultivation is suitable for which of the
chemostat (continuous fermentation) at a dilution
following?
rate of 0.5 h–1. The feed substrate concentration
P. Processes with substrate inhibition is 10 g.L–1. The biomass concentration in the
Q. Processes with product inhibition chemostat at steady state will be _________g.L–1.
R. High cell density cultivation Assumptions: Feed is sterile, maintenance is
(a) P and Q only (b) P and R only negligible and maximum biomass yield with
respect to substrate is 0.4 (g biomass per g
(c) Q and R only (d) P, Q and R
ethanol).
3. The power required for agitation of non-aerated
Microbial growth kinetics is given by
medium in fermentation is ________ kW.
Operating conditions are as follows:  mS
=
Fermentor diameter = 3 m KS  S
Number of impellers = 1 where  is specific growth rate (h–1), m = 0.7 h–1,
Ks = 0.3 g.L–1 and s is substrate concentration
Mixing speed = 300 rpm
(g.L–1).
Diameter of the Rushton turbine = 1 m
8. Decimal reduction time of bacterial spores is
Viscosity of the broth = 0.001 Pa.s 23 min at 121 C and the death kinetics follow
Density of the broth = 1000 kg.m–3 first order. One liter medium containing 10 5
Power number = 5 spores per mL was sterilized for 10 min at 121C
4. Which one of the following is the most suitable in a batch sterilizer. The number of spores in the
type of impeller for mixing high viscosity medium after sterilization (assuming destruction
(viscosity > 105 cP) fluids? of spores in heating and cooling period is
negligible) will be ___________107.
(a) Propeller (b) Helical ribbon
9. A bioreactor is scaled up based on equal impeller
(c) Paddle (d) Flat blade turbine
tip speed. Consider the following parameters for
5. Which of the following events occur during the small and large bioreactors:
stationary phase of bacterial growth?
Parameters Small Large
P. Rise in cell number stops bioreactor bioreactor
Q. Spore formation in some Gram-positive Impeller speed N1 N2
bacteria such as Bacillus subtilis
Diameter of impeller D1 D2
R. Cell size increases in some Gram-negative
Power consumption P1 P2
bacteria such as Escherichia coli
Assuming geometrical similarity and the
S. Growth rate of bacterial cells nearly equals
bioreactors are operated in turbulent regime,
their death rate
what will be P2/P1?
T. Decrease in peptidoglycan crosslinking
(a) (D1/D2)2 (b) (D2/D1)2
(a) P, Q and S only (b) P, S and T only
(c) (D1/D2)5 (d) (D2/D1)5
(c) Q, R and S only (d) P, R and T only
11.2 Biochemical Engineering and Bioprocess Technology
10. An enzyme converts substrate A to product B. 16. Samples of bacterial culture taken at 5 PM and
At a given liquid feed stream of flow rate then the next day at 5 AM were found to have 104
25 L.min–1 and feed substrate concentration of and 107 cells.mL–1, respectively. Assuming that
2 mol.L–1, the volume of continuous stirred tank both the samples were taken during the log phase
reactor needed for 95% conversion will of cell growth, the generation time of this
be _____________ L. bacterium will be _____ h.
0.1CA 17. Biomass is being produced in a continuous stirred
Given the rate equation: – rA = tank bioreactor of 750 L capacity. The sterile
1  0.5CA
feed containing 8 g.L–1 glucose as substrate was
where – rA is the rate of reaction in mol.L–1.min–1
fed at a flow rate of 150 L.h–1. The microbial system
and CA is the substrate concentration in mol.L–1
follows Monod's model with m = 0.4 h–1, Ks = 1.5
Assumptions: Enzyme concentration is contant g.L–1 and Yx/s = 0.5 g cell mass-g substrate –1.
and does not undergo any deactivation during the Determine the cell productivity (g.L –1.h–1) at
reaction. steady state.
2015 (a) 0.85
11. Which one of the following relations holds true (b) 0.65
for the specific growth rate () of a microorganism (c) 0.45
in the death phase ? (d) 0.25
(a)  = 0 (b) < 0 18. Saccharomyces cerevisiae produces ethanol by
(c) = max (d) 0 < < max fermentation. The theoretical yield of ethanol
12. In a fed-batch culture, 200 g . L–1 glucose solution from 2.5 g of glucose is ______ g.
is added at a flow rate of 50 L . h–1. The initial
2014
culture volume (at quasi steady state) and the
initial cell concentration are 600 L and 20 g . L–1, 19. The unit for specific substrate consumption rate
respectively. The yield coefficient (Yx/s) is 0.5 g in a growing culture is
cell mass . g substrate–1. The cell concentration g g
(g . L–1) at quasi steady state at t = 8 h is (a) (b)
L.h h
(a) 40 (b) 52
(c) 60 (d) 68 g gmoles
(c) (d)
g.h L.h
13. A synchronous culture containing 1.8  10 5
monkey kidney cells was seeded into three 20. In a batch culture of Penicillium chrysogenum, the
identical flasks. The doubling time of these cells maximum penicillin synthesis occurs during the
in 24 h. After 24 h, the cells from all the three (a) lag phase (b) exponential phase
flasks were pooled and dispensed equally into each
(c) stationary phase (d) death phase
well of three 6-well plates. The number of cells
in each well will be ______  104. 21. Since mammalian cells are sensitive to shear,
scale-up of a mammalian cell process must
14. The diameters of a large and a small vessel are
consider, among other parameters, the following
1.62 m and 16.2 cm, respectively. The vessels are
(given N = rotations/time, D = diameter of
geometrically similar and operated under similar
impeller)
volumetric agitated power input. The mixing time
in the small vessel was found to be 15 s. (a)  ND
Determine the mixing time (in seconds) in the (b)  N2D
large vessel. (c)  ND2
(a) 15 (b) 30 (d) none of these
(c) 61 (d) 122 22. A T-flask is seeded with 105 anchorage-dependent
15. Oxygen transfer was measured in a stirred tank cells. The available area of the T-flask is 25 cm2
bioreactor using dynamic method. The dissolved and the volume of the medium is 25 ml. Assume
oxygen tension was found to be 80% air saturation that the cells are rectangles of size 5 μm × 2 μm.
under steady state conditions. The measured If the cells grow to monolayer confluence after
oxygen tensions at 7s and 17s were 55% and 68% 50 h, the growth rate in number of cells/(cm2.h)
air saturation, respectively. The volumetric mass is ____ ×105.
transfer coefficient KLa is _____s–1
Biochemical Engineering and Bioprocess Technology 11.3
23. Consider a continuous culture provided with a sterile 30. The maximum cell concentration (g l–1) expected
feed containing 10 mM glucose. The steady state in a bioreactor with initial cell concentration of
cell density and substrate concentration at three 1.75 g l–1 and an initial glucose concentration of
different dilution rates are given in the table below. 125 g l–1 is (Yx/s = 0.6 g cell/g substrate)
Substrate 31. A fed batch culture was operated with intermittent
Dilution Cell density concentration
rate (h–1) (g L–1) (mM) addition of glucose solution at a flow rate of
0.05 0.248 0.067 200 ml h–1. The values of Ks, m and D are 0.3 g l–1,
0.5 0.208 1.667 0.4 h–1 and 0.1 h–1, respectively. Determine the
5 0 10 concentration of growth limiting substrate (gl–1)
The maximum specific growth rate m (in h–1), in the reactor at quasi-steady state. 
will be _____. Statement for Linked Answer (Q. 32 - 33):
24. Lysine is being produced in a lab-scale reactor by During sterilization of a fermentation medium in a
a threonine auxotroph. After 2 weeks of operation given bioreactor heating = 12.56, cooling = 7.48 and the
it was observed that the concentration of lysine total value of required for whole sterilization process
in the reactor was gradually decreasing.
is 52, where is the design criteria.
Microbiological assays of reactor samples showed
absence of contamination and recorded data 32. What is the value of holding?
showed no change in the operating conditions. (a) 31.96
The most probable reason for decrease in lysine (b) 42.32
concentration may be attributed to
(c) 52.43
(a) accumulation of ethanol
(d) 61.18
(b) growth of revertants
33. What is the holding period (min) at a k value of
(c) production of citric acid 3.36 min–1?
(d) unutilized phosphoenol pyruvate (a) 10.6 (b) 9.5
2013 (c) 8.4 (d) 7.2
25. A callus of 5 g dry weight was inoculated on
2012
semi-solid medium for growth. The dry weight of
the callus was found to increase by 1.5 fold after 34. In an exponentially growing batch culture of
10 days of inoculation. The growth index of the Saccharomyces cerevisiae, the cell density is 20
culture is  gl–1 (DCW), the specific growth rate () is 0.4h–1
26. A chemostat is operated at a dilution rate of and substrate uptake rate () is 16 gl–1h–1. The
0.6 h–1. At steady state, the biomass concentration cell yield coefficient Yx/s will be
in the exit stream was found to be 30 g l–1. The (a) 0.32 (b) 0.64
biomass productivity (g l–1h–1) after 3h of steady (c) 0.80 (d) 0.50
state operation will be 
35. Match the downstream processes in Group I with
27. A batch bioreactor is to be scaled up from 10 to the products in Group II.
10,000 liters. The diameter of the large bioreactor
Group I Group II
is 10 times that of the small bioreactor. The
agitator speed in the small bioreactor is 450 rpm. P. Solvent extraction 1. Lactic acid
Determine the agitator speed (rpm) of the large Q. Protein-A linked affinity 2. Penicillin
bioreactor with same impeller tip speed as that chromatography
of the small bioreactor. 
R. Extractive distillation 3. Monoclonal antibody
28. Calculate the percentage sequence identity for
S. Salting out 4. Lipase
the pairwise alignment given below.
Codes :
HELLO–
P Q R S
YELLOW
29. In a batch culture, the specific rate of substrate (a) 2 3 1 4
utilization is 0.25 g (g cell mass)–1 h–1 and specific (b) 4 1 2 3
rate of product formation is 0.215 g (g cell mass)–1 (c) 4 1 3 2
h–1. Calculate the yield of product from the (d) 2 4 1 3
substrate (Yp/s). 
36. A bacterial culture (200 l containing 1.8  109 cells) (a) P, Q and S only
was treated with an antibiotic Z (50 g per ml) for (b) Q, R and S only
4 h at 37C. After this treatment, the culture was
(c) P, Q and R only
divided into two equal aliquots.
(d) S only
Set A: 100 l was plated on Luria agar.
41. Wash out (as defined by D = max) of a continuous
Set B: 100 l was centrifuged, the cell pellet stirred tank fermenter is characterized by
washed and plated on Luria agar. (X = biomass, S = substrate concentration in
After incubating these two plates for 24 h at 37C, bioreactor, S0 = substrate concentration in feed,
Set A plate showed no colonies, whereas the Set P = product concentration in bioreactor)
B plate showed 0.9  109 cells. This experiment (a) X = 0, S = 0, P = 0
showed that the antibiotic Z is
(b) X = 0, S = S0, P = 0
(a) bacteriostatic (b) bacteriocidal
(c) X = 0, S < 0, P = 0
(c) bacteriolytic (d) apoptotic
(d) X < 0, S < 0, P < 0
Directions (Q. 37 – 38) :  -Galactosidase bound to
42. Match the microbial growth characteristics in
DEAE-cellulose is used to hydrolyze lactose to glucose
Group I with the corresponding features in
and galac lose in a plug fiow bioreactor with a packed
Group II.
bed of volume 100 liters and a voidage () of 0.55.
The Km and Vmax for the immobilized enzyme are Group I
0.72 gl –1 and 18 gl –1 h–1, respectively. The lactose P. Growth associated product formation
concentration in the field stream is 20 gl–1, and a Q. Non growth associated product formation
fractional conversion of 0.90 is desired. Diffusional R. Product inhibition
limitations may be ignored.
S. Substrate inhibition
37. The residence time required for the steady state
Group II
reactor operation will be
1. Specific growth rate decreases with increasing
(a) 0.1 h (b) 0.4 h
product concentration
(c) 1.0 h (d) 1.1 h
2. Specific product formation rate is constant
38. The feed flow rate required for the above
3. Specific product formation rate is proportional
bioconversion will be
to specific growth rate
(a) 50 lh–1 (b) 55 lh–1
4. Specific growth rate decreases with increasing
(c) 137 lh–1 (d) 550 lh–1 substrate concentration
2011 P Q R S
39. In balanced growth phase of a cell (a) 1 2 4 3
P. all components of a cell grow at the same rate (b) 3 2 1 4
Q. specific growth determined by cell number or (c) 2 1 3 4
cell mass would be the same (d) 2 3 4 1
R. the growth rate is independent of substrate 43. In a well aerated and agitated microbial culture,
concentration the ‘supply' of oxygen is equal to ‘demand' (uptake)
S. the growth rate decreases with decreasing of the growing culture. The KLa for such a system
substrate concentration will be (KLa = volumetric mass transfer coefficient,
C* = dissolved oxygen concentration in liquid in
(a) P, Q and S only (b) Q, R and S only equilibrium with gaseous oxygen,
(c) P, Q and R only (d) P only C = instantaneous value of dissolved oxygen
40. Substrate consumption in lag phase of microbial concentration, ‘r' = specific oxygen uptake rate
growth is primarily used for per unit weight of cells, X = dry weight of the
P. turn over of the cell material cells per unit volume)
(a) (r X)/ (C* – C)
Q. maintenance of intracellular pH
(b) (r)/ X(C* – C)
R. motility
(c) (C* – C)/ (r X)
S. increase in cell number
(d) (X)/ r(C* – C)
44. Structured William's model 2010
P. can describe the changes in intracellular 49. A culture of bacteria is infected with bacteriophage
components of the cell during growth at a multiplicity of 0.3. The probability of a single
Q. cannot describe the death phase of the cells cell infected with 3 phages is
R. can describe the variation of size of cells in (a) 0.9 (b) 0.27
the different phases of growth (c) 0.009 (d) 0.027
S. cannot describe the lag period of growth 50. In a chemostat operating under steady state, a
Which one of the following is correct? bacterial culture can be grown at dilution rate
(a) P, Q and S only (b) P, Q and R only higher than maximum growth rate by
(c) Q, R and S only (d) P, R and S only (a) partial cell recycling
45. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the (b) using sub-optimal temperature
following Assertion (A) and the Reason (R). (c) pH cycling
Assertion : In synchronous culture, majority of (d) substrate feed rate cyling
the cells move to next phase of the cell cycle 51. A roller bottle culture vessel perfectly cylindrical
simultaneously. in shape having inner radius (r) = 10 cm and length
Reason : Synchronous culture could be obtained (l) = 20 cm was fitted with a spiral film of length
by starving cells for essential nutrient components. (L) = 30 cm and width (W) = 20 cm. If the film can
(a) both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct support 105 anchorage dependent cells per cm2,
reason for (A) the increase in the surface area after fitting the
spiral film and the additional number of cells that
(b) both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
can be grown respectively are
correct reason for (A)
(a) 1200 cm2 and 12  107 cellls
(b) 600 cm2 and 6  107 cells
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
(c) 600 cm2 and 8300 cells
46. Maximum specific growth rate ( max ) of a
microorganism is calculated by taking the (ln = (d) 1200 cm2 and 8300 cells
loge, X = biomass, t = time) 52. Thermal death of microorganisms in the liquid
(a) slope of ln X vs t of the growth cycle medium follows first order kinetics. If the initial
cell concentration in the fermentation medium
(b) slope of ln X vs t during the exponential growth
is 10 8 cells / ml and the final acceptable
phase
contamination level is 10–3 cells, for how long
(c) slope of X vs t should 1m3 medium be treated at temperature of
(d) slope of X vs t during the exponential phase of 120 (thermal deactivation rate constant = 0.23 /
growth min) to achieve acceptable load?
Common Data for Questions 47 and 48: (a) 48 min (b) 11 min
A microorganism grows in a continuous ‘chemostat' (c) 110 min (d) 20 min
culture of 60 m 3 working volume with sucrose Common Data for Question (53 - 54):
as the growth limiting nutrient at dilution rate,
A culture of Rhizobium is grown in a chemostat (100
D = 0.55 h–1. The steady state biomass concentration
m3 bioreactor). The feed contains 12 g/L sucrose, KS
is 4.5 Kg dry biomass m–3 and the residual sucrose
for the organism is 0.2 g/L and m = 0.3 h–1.
concentration is 2.0 Kg m–3. The sucrose concentration
in the incoming feed medium is 10.0 Kg m–3. 53. The flow rate required to result in steady state
concentration of sucrose as 1.5 g/L in the
47. What would be the yield YX/S (Kg biomass/Kg
bioreactor will be
substrate)?
(a) 15 m3 h–1 (b) 26 m3 h–1
(a) 0.562 (b) 0.462
(c) 2.6 m3 h–1 (d) 150 m3 h–1
(c) 0.362 (d) 0.162
54. If YX/S = 0.4 g / g for the above culture and steady
48. What would be the sucrose concentration in the
state cell concentration in the bioreactor is 4 g/ L
input feed for the output to be 45 Kg biomass h–1?
the resulting substrate concentration will be
(a) 3.225 Kg m–3 (b) 4.425 Kg m–3
(a) 2 g/L (b) 8 g/L
(c) 5.115 Kg m–3 (d) 6.525 Kg m–3
(c) 4 g/L (d) 6 g/L
2009 P Q R S
55. A culture vessels in which physical, physicochemical (a) 4 2 1 3
and physiological conditions, as well as cell (b) 3 1 4 2
concentration, are kept constant is known as (c) 3 4 2 1
(a) Cell concentrator (b) Biostat (d) 2 1 4 3
(c) Batch bioreactor (d) Incubator 60. A bacterial culture with an approximate biomass
56. Which of the following statements are true about composition of CH1.8O0.5N0.2 is grown aerobically
bioreactors? on a defined medium containing glucose as the
P. Continuous bioreactors provide less degree of sole carbon source and ammonia being the
control and uniform product quality than nitrogen source. In this fermentation, biomass is
batch bioreactors. formed with a yield coefficient of 0.35 gram dry
Q. Batch bioreactors are ideally suited for cell weight per gram of glucose and acetate is
reaction with substrate inhibition. produced with a yield coefficient of 0.1 gram
R. Choice of a bioreactor is dictated by kinetic acetate per gram of glucose. The respiratory
considerations. coefficient for the above culture will be
S. Fed batch bioreactors are also called (a) 0.90
semibatch bioreactors. (b) 0.95
(a) P, Q (b) Q, S (c) 1.00
(c) R, S (d) P, R (d) 1.05
57. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the 61. A bacterial culture having a specific oxygen
following Assertion (a) and Reason (r): uptake rate of 5 mmol O2 (g-DCW)–1 hr–1 is being
Assertion (a): Bacterial growth is called grown aerobically in a fed-batch bioreactor. The
synchronous when majority of the cells are in same maximum value of the volumetric oxygen
stage of the bacterial cell cycle. transfer coefficient is 0.18s–1 for the stirred tank
Reason (r) : Synchronous culture can be obtained bioreactor and the critical dissolved oxygen
by growing bacteria in an enriched medium. concentration is 20% of the saturation
concentration (8mg/ml). The maximum density
(a) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct
to which the cells can be grown in the fed-batch
reason for (a)
process without the growth being limited by
(b) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the oxygen transfer, is approximately.
correct reason for (a)
(a) 14 g/l (b) 26 g/l
(c) (a) is true but (r) is false
(c) 32 g/l (d) 65 g/l
(d) (a) is false but (r) is true
2008 2007
58. Diauxic pattern of biomass growth is associated with 62. The specific growth rate () of a microorganism
in death phase is
(P) multiple lag phases
(a) 0 (zero) (b) max
(Q) sequential utilization of multiple substrates
(c) less than zero (d) greater than zero
(R) simultaneous utilization of multiple substrates
63. Main functions of baffles in a bioreactor are
(S) absence of lag phase
P. to prevent a vortex
(a) P, R (b) P, Q
Q. to increase aeration
(c) R, S (d) Q, S
R. to reduce interfacial area of oxygen transfer
59. Match the bioreactor components in group 1 with
the most appropriate function given in group 2 S. to reduce aeration rate
Group 1 Group 2 (a) P, Q (b) Q, R
P. Marine type 1. Recirculation of (c) R, S (d) P, S
impeller medium 64. How many kilograms of ethanol is produced from
Q. Draft tube 2. Aeration of medium 1 kilogram of glucose in ethanol fermentation?
R. Diaphragm valve 3. Animal cell cultivation (a) 2.00 (b) 0.20
S. Sparger 4. Sterile operation (c) 0.51 (d) 0.05
65. Downstream processing of an industrial process 69. The antigen is expressed as transmemb-rane
yielded a highly purified bioactive protein. This protein with a single epitope on its extracellular
protein was subjected to cleavage by trypsin. domain. The cells that survived (assume 100%
Chromatographic separation of products resulted transfection and expression of protein) were
in 4 peptides (P, Q, R, S) with the following amino incubated with a radio labeled Fab fragment
acid sequences (specific activity: 100 cpm/picomole) against this
P. phe-val-met-val-arg epitope. After washing, the cell pellet has
1000 cpm. The average number of epitopes present
Q. ala-ala-try-gly-lys on a single recombinant alga are
R. val-phe-met-ala-gly-lys (a) 6  109 (b) 1  109
S. phe-gly-try-ser-thr
(c) 6  103 (d) 1  106
Chemical cleavage of the same protein with
cyanogenbromide and chromatographic separation
2006
resulted in three peptides (i, ii, iii) with the 70. During cultivation of microorganisms in a
following sequences fermenter, various parameters are controlled by
appropriate sensor (probe). Match each probe in
(i) ala-gly-lys-phe-gly-try-ser-thr
group 1 with the appropriate response mechanism
(ii) ala-ala-pry-gly-lys-phe-val-met in group 2.
(iii)val-arg-val-phe-met Group 1 (Probe) Group 2 (Response)
The order of the peptides that gives the primary P. Thermistor 1. Activation of acid
structure of the original protein is
alkali pump
(a) P, Q, R, S (b) Q, P, R, S
Q. Oxygen 2. Activation of vegetable oil
(c) Q, R, P, S (d) R, Q, P, S
electrode pump
R. Metal rod 3. Activation of hot cold
66 and 67 :
water pump
In a Fed-batch culture glucose solution is added with
S. pH electrode 4. Increase/decrease in
a flow rate of 2 m3/day. The initial volume of the
culture is 6m3. stirrer motor speed
66. The volume of culture at the end of second day (a) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (b) P-l, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(neglect loss due to vaporization) is (c) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (d) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(a) 6 m 3 71. Which one of the following monolayer culture
(b) 8 m3 systems have the highest surface area: medium
ratio?
(c) 10 m3
(a) Roux bottle (b) Spiracell roller bottle
(d) 12 m3
(c) Hollow fibres (d) Plastic bag/film
67. What would be the dilution rate of the system at
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 72 & 73 :
the end of second day?
A bioreactor of working volume 50 m3 produces a
(a) 2.00 (b) 0.20
metabolite (X) in batch culture under given operating
(c) 0.02 (d) 0.01 conditions from a substrate (S). The final
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 68 & 69 : concentration of metabolite (X) at the end of each
Absence of cellulosic cell wall, high -carotene content run was 1.1 kg m–3. The bioreactor was operated to
and GRAS status make Dunaliella salina a good model complete 70 runs in each year.
system for producing edible vaccines. 109 Cells of D. 72. What will be the annual output of the system
salina were electroporated with a high expression (production of metabolite (X)) in kg per year ?
DNA vector containing an antigenic gene. (a) 55 (b) 3850
68. If 103 cells survived after electroporation, how (c) 45.5 (d) 77
many cells were killed during this process (round 73. What will be the overall productivity of the system
of to the nearest number) ? in kg year–1 m–3 ?
(a) 109 (b) 108 (a) 19250 (b) 38.50
(c) 106 (d) 105
(c) 3850 (d) 77
2005 ions and the air was sparged in. After 10 minutes,
the air flow was stopped and a 10 ml sample was
74. Aeration in a biorector is provided by
taken and titrated. The concentration of sodium
(a) impeller (b) baffles sulfite in the sample was found to be 0.20 M. The
(c) sparger (d) all of these oxygen uptake rate for this aerated system will
75. In a bioreactor baffles are incorporated to work out to be
(a) prevent vortex and to improve aeration (a) 0.08 gl–1 s–1
efficiency (b) 0.008 gl–1 s–1
(b) maintain uniform suspension of cells (c) 0.8 gl–1 s–1
(c) minimize the size of air bubble for greater (d) None of these
aeration
2003
(d) maintain uniform nutrient medium
80. The separation principle of dialysis used in the
2004 recovery of fermentation products is
76. During the media preparation for cultivation of (a) diffusion (b) charge
cells, insoluble precipitates of calcium phosphates
(c) turbulence (d) solubility
are often formed. Identify which method can be
adopted to avoid this problem? 81. Identify the statement that is NOT correct
(a) Hold the pH at 5.6 (a) Penicillin fermentation is an aerobic process
(b) Hold the pH at 7.5 (b) Penicillin biosynthesis affected by phosphate
(c) Add calcium salt first and then phosphate concentration
source (c) Lysine stimulates penicillin synthesis
(d) None the above (d) Penicillin production shows a distinct
77. Batch fermentation of glucose to ethanol yields a catabolite repression by glucose
productivity of 4.5 g1 –1 hl –1. If the yeast cell 82. A batch culture fermentation was being conducted
concentration in the fermentation brought is 5% with streptomyces rimosus. Analysis of samples
(v/v) and the intracellular NAD/NADH collected indicated doubling of cell number per
concentration in the yeast cells in 10 M the unit time. Youor inference would be that the
cycling rate of NAD+  NADH will be culture is in the
(a) 50,000 cycles hr–1 (a) lag phase
(b) 20,000 cycles hr –1
(b) log phase
–1
(c) 100 cycles hr (c) stationary phase
(d) None of these (d) death phase
78. The kinetics of the disintegration of baker’s yeast 83. To optimize the bioreactor system, which one of
cells in a bead mill is described as dp/dt the following conditions is least important for
= K. (Pm – P), where P is the concentration of anaerobic fermentation ?
protein released and Pm is the maximum protein (a) culture agitation to maintain oxygen supply
concentration achievable. K is the first order rate
(b) restriction of the entry of contaminating
constant and is 0.5 hr–1 for the system studied.
The time required for the release of 90% of the organisms
intracellular proteins will be (c) control of parameters like pH and temperature
(a) 10 hr (b) 2 hr (d) maintenance of constant culture volume
(c) 4.6 hr (d) None of these 84. Power number, also called Newton's number, is
79. Measurement of K1a in a bioreactor can be defined as a dimensionless parameter relating to
carried out by sodium sulfite oxidation method, (a) turbulent flow
that is based on the oxidation of sodium sulfite of (b) the relative velocity between the nutrient
sodium sulfate in the presence of a catalyst solution and individual cells
(Cu ++ or Co ++ ). In a typical experiment, a
(c) energy required by the stirred reactors
laboratory fermenter was filled with 5 liter of 0.5
M sodium sulfite solution containing 0.003 MCu++ (d) none of the above
85. The selection of the appropriate purification 2001

method in the product recovery after microbial 90. The limiting factor in the production of large
fermentation depends on the quantities of ethanol as bio-fuel is
(a) nature and the stability of the end products (a) Lack of a balanced medium
produced
(b) Ethanol toxicity to cells
(b) type of the side products present
(c) Expensive downstream processing steps
(c) degree of purification required
(d) Only (b) and (c) of the above
(d) all of these
91. If the fractional recovery at each step of unit
2002 operation is 0.8, the recovery after 4 steps
86. The precursor for penicillin-G biosynthesis during will be
fermentation process is (a) 0.24 (b) 3.23
(a) Phenylacetic acid (c) 0.41 (d) 0.82
(b) Phenoxyacetic acid 92. Which of the following statements applies to the
(c) Acetic acid operation of a fed-batch process ?
(d) None of these (a) The volume of the culture increases with
time
87. In large scale fermentation process, air is
sterilized by (b) It helps controlling repressive effects of the
nutrient being fed
(a) Jute fiber
(c) It eliminates the need for oxygen supply
(b) Membrane
(d) Only (a) and (b) of the above
(c) Cotton fiber
93. In large-scale fermentation, the preferred method
(d) Glass wool fiber
of sterilization is
88. (a) Name two metal ions which play important
(a) Chemicals
role in citric acid fermentation.
(b) Radiation
(b) How is the agitator speed in a fermenter
(c) Filtration
correlated with the power drawn by the
agitator? (d) Heat
(c) How does the sulfanilamide kill the bacteria ? 94. Which of the following is not true of aerobic
digestion ?
(d) Human insulin gene cloned from a cDNA
library into pUC19 could not be expressed. (a) It generates most sludge
Justify the reason. (b) It generally incurs higher running cost
(e) Mention the specific role of acetosyringone (c) It may generate a usable fuel
in Agrobacterium mediated plant (d) Requires a shorter residence time
transformation ?
2000
89. (a) The volume of a chemostat system is 1000/.
The feed flow rate to the reactor is 200 l/h 95. Choose the correct completion of the following
and the glucose concentration in the feed is statement.
5 g/l. Determine cell and glucose concentration A fermenter sterilisation in situ is less efficient
in the effluent of the reactor under steady state than continuous heat sterilisation because
conditions. Use the following constants for the (a) it uses higher temperature for longer time
cells : (b) it uses longer heating time during which heat
max
= 0.3 h–1, Ks = 0.1 g/l, is lost
Yx/s = 0.4 (g dw cells/g glucose) (c) it uses larger volume and hence takes longer
(b) Find out the dilution rate which gives to cool the medium
maximum biomass productivity. (d) it uses steam as the heating source
96. In secondary metabolism two distinct phases- (d) A pressure cycle is a type of air lift fermentor
trophophase and idiophase refer respectively to (e) Monoclonal antibodies are used extensively
(a) Growth and production phase in diagnosis of haematopoietic cancers
(b) Early and late phase 98. A protein PZ is present in genetically engineered
(c) Primary and secondary metabolism bacteria at 5% of the total protein (0.1 pico
(d) Lag phase and log phase gram) per cell. 1 ml of log phase culture contains
2  10 8 cells while stationary phase culture
97. Write whether the following statements are true
or false: contains 1  109 cells. The molecular weight of
the protein is 30,000 Da and the Avogadro
(a) Three important characteristics in
number is6.02  1023 molecules/mole. What is
performance of biosensors are selectivity,
the number of molecules of PZ per cell?
sensitivity and stability
Calculate the amount of protein in milligrams
(b) Activated sludge process is one of the most in one litre each of log phase and stationary
common anaerobic sewage treatment method
phase cultures.
(c) In a fermentor, impellors increase oxygen
demand by producing high shear forces.
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (625.0 : 625.0) 4. (b) 5. (a)
6. (1.9 : 2.0) 7. (3.65 : 3.75) 8. (3.6 : 3.8) 9. (b) 10. (4986.0 : 4989.0)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (2) 14. (c) 15. (0.07339)
16. (1.2121) 17. (b) 18. (1.20) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (2 to 2) 23. (0.795 to 0.805) 24. (b) 25. (0.5)
26. (18) 27. (45) 28. (66.5 to 66.7) 29. (0.81 to 0.91) 30. (76.7 to 76.9)
31. (0.1) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (*) 38. (*) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (*) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (b)
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (d)
71. (c) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (a) 76. (d) 77. (b) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (a)
81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (c) 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (*) 89. (*) 90. (d)
91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (d) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (a) 97. (*) 98. (*)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Prandlt No is the ratio of Momentum Diffusivity  P = NP Sn3 D5
and Thermal Diffusivity. 3
300 
2. A fed-batch culture is a semi-batch operation in = 5 1000   5
  1 = 625000W
 60 
which the nutrients necessary for cell growth and
P = 625 kW
product formation are fed either intermittently
Where
or continuously via one or more feed streams
during the course of an otherwise batch operation. NP = Power No. = 5
The types of bioprocesses for which fed-batch P = Power required
culture is effective can be summarized as follows: S = Density 1000 kg/m3
1. Substrate inhibition, 300
n = Speed in Hz =  5 Hz
2. High cell density (High cell concentration) 60
3. Glucose effect (Crabtree effect) D = Diameter of turbine = 1 m
4. Catabolite repression 4. For mixing high viscosity fluids 10000cP helical
5. Auxotrophic mutants ribbon impeller is generally used.
6. Expression control of a gene who has 5. Stationary phase of Bacterial growth characterises
of cell size increase of certain gram +ve bacteria,
repressible promoter in recombinant cells
cell divion is halted, spore formation occurs in
7. Extension of operation time, supplement of gram +ve bacteria and the growth rate becomes
water lost by evaporation, and decreasing equal to the death rate owing to nutrient
viscosity of culture broth. limitation, spore formation, starvation util and
P unless the culture is stirred. Peptidogylcan cross
3. NP = linking is also remarkably reduced.
Sn 3 D5
6. The equation for biomass production is

C2 H5OH  a NH3  bO2  CH1.8 O0.5 N0.2  dCO 2  eH 2O
Given 1 : ? 1
Now making elemental balance on both sides.
LHS C= 2
N = a i.e. a = 0.2
RHS C = 1 + d = 2 i.e. d = 1
N = 0.2
Now, putting value of a & d in equation (i)
C2 H5OH  0.2NH3  bO 2  CH1.8 O0.5 N0.2  Co 2  eH2 O
Now, H balance LHS
H = 6 + 0.6 = 6.6
RHS
H = 1.8 + 2e = 6.6
 e = 2.4
and finally O2 balance
LHS
O = 1 + 2b
RHS
0 = 0.5 + 2 + 2.4 (i.e. e = 2.4) = 4.9
hence 1 + 2b = 4.9
 2b = 3.9
 b = 1.95
 Final equation
C2 H5OH  0.2 NH3  1.95O 2  CH1.8 O0.5 N 0.2  CO 2  2.4 H2 O
 ksD  XA = 0.95
7. (1) X = YX / S  SR   0.1CA
 m  D 
–rA =
1  0.5CA
g biomass
(2) HereYX/S = 0.4 g ethanol 0 CAO X A
(ii) V=
SR = 10 gL–1  0.1CA 
 
kS = 0.3 g L–1  1  0.5CA 
D= 0.5 h–1 further CA = CAO (1 – XA)
m = 0.7 h–1  0 CAO X A
 V=
 (0.3)(0.5)   0.1C AO (1  X A ) 
(3)  X = 0.4  10    
 (0.7  0.5)   1  0.5CAO (1  X A ) 
X = 3.70 Putting values & solve
2.303 V = 4987.5 L
8. Dr =
Kd xt
11. ln x   t if xt = 5 105 , x0 = 6.5  105
2.303
 Kd  , Dr  23min
0
Dr then  is –ve  < 0

 Kd = 0.100 min –1 12. For Quasi steady state
Now N0 = 105  1000 x = x0 + FyX/S S0 t
= 108 spores in 1 litre x0 = 20  600
N0 = 12000
 ln = kdt, t = 10 min
N1 F = 50
108 YX/S = 0.5

108
 ln = 0.1  10  = e1 = 2.718
N1 N1 S0 = 200
 N1 = 3.678  107 spores t= 8
9. Scaled up criteria is equal to impeller tip speed  x = 52000 g/1000 lit
So N1D1 = N2D2 = 52 g/lit.
N2 D1 13. Total cells after 24 hours
 N1 = D2 ...(i)
= 1.8  105  2 = 3.6  105
Now, power equation is given by P2  N 23 D52 Total number of wells = 6  3 = 18
 Number of cells in each well
3 5
P2 N D N  D 
3 5
 2  2
2 2 3.6  105
P1 = N D 3
1
5
 N1   D1 
1
=
18
= 2  104
3 5 1/6 2/3
D  D   N D  t2  D2   N1 
=  1   2   2  1  14. =    
 D2   D1   N1 D2  t1  D1   N2 
P2 2 P1 P2
D  Now, =
=  2 V1 V2
P1  D1 
 N13 D12 = N 32 D 22
10. For CSTR
2/3
V N1  D2 
C AO X A   
(i) 0 = N2 =  D1 
rA
= 4.6415
here 0 = 25 L/min
 t2 = 15(10)1 / 6 (4.6415)2/3  61
CAO = 2 ml/L
21. Shear speed of an impeller along with the
 80 – 55 
ln   diameter of the impeller blade have profound
15. KLa =  80 – 68  = 0.07339 impact on the shear stress generated in the
17 – 7 bioreactor system. Mammalian cells are very
shear sensitive. So, for scale up of a small scale
t
16. G = bioreactor where mammalian cells are used as
N2
3.3 log feed, the major parameters to be considered would
N1 be the shear speed and agitator diameter. This is
N2 = 107 because, while scaling up, impeller speed has to
N1 = 104, t = 12hr be considered for controlling the shear speed
G = generation time which is given by: TI = ND
Then G = 1.2121 h 22. Given, Seeding of T-flask with = 10 5 no. of
anchorage dependent cells
 KsD  Area of flask available = 25cm2 and volume of flask
17. Cell productivity = DYx / s  SR – 
 m – D  = 25mL
Size of cells = 5m  2m
150
D = Area of the T-flask covered by a single cell
750
= 0.2 = 10m2 = 10  10–8 cm2
SR = 8 Now, anchorage dependent cells multiply every
hour per unit area
KS = 1.5
So, the growth rate of the cells = 2  105 cells/cm2h
m = 0.4
Yx/s = 0.5 23. At dilution rate = 5h-1, cell density = 0. This means
cell wash out occurs at this dilution rate
Then after calculation cell productivity = 0.65
The mass balance on the microorganisms in a
18. C6H12O6  2C2H5OH + 2CO2 CSTR of constant volume is:
180 246 = 92 [Rate of accumulation of cells, g/s] = [Rate of cells
92 entering, g/s] – [Rate of cells leaving, g/s] + [Net
So, Yield = g ethanol/g glucose rate of generation of live cells, g/s]
180
So, maximum specific growth rate max = 0.8 h-1
92
So, for 2.5 gm = 2.5  24. In a lab-scale bioreactor, lysine is produced from
180
threonine auxotroph but it was found that
= 1.27 gm concentration of lysine was gradually decreasing.
19. Specific substrate concentration is defined as the The most probable reason was found to be
amount of substrate consumed in grams per unit revertants. Reversion is the process by which
gram of substrate provided to the growing culture mutant DNA is changed so that the protein
per unit time or per hour. So, the unit of specific inactivated by the first mutation is reactivated by
substrate concentration is gg-1h-1. the second. There are three classes of reversion:
Class I, class II and class III. Revertant is a mutant
20. In batch cultures of microorganisms, especially
gene, individual, or strain that regains a former
bacteria, the exponential phase is concerned with
capability (as the production of a particular protein)
the multiplication and high metabolic activities
of the microbes along with growth. But as the by undergoing further mutation.
microbe advances to the stationary phase, 25. Given, Initial dry weight = 5 g
metabolic activities reach the maximum limit with After inoculation for 10 days, dry weight
stagnancy in multiplication and growth of the = 1.5  5 = 7.5 g
bacteria. During this phase, there occurs
Therefore Growth index of the callus
maximum production of secondary metabolites
=(Difference or change in weight)/ (Originalweight)
such as toxins. So, Penicillium chrysogenum
synthesizes penicillin at maximum concentrations = (7.5 – 5)/5
during the stationary phase of the batch culture. = 0.5
26. Given, Biomass concentration in the exit stream where,
= 30 g/L = rate of substrate consumed per unit time.
Dilution rate of the chemostat = 0.6 h-1 = maximum rate of substrate consumed.
max
Therefore, Biomass productivity of the chemostat KS = Monod’s constant.
= 30  0.6 gL–1h–1 = 18 gL–1h–1
S = steady state substrate concentration.
27. Let the agitator speed in the large bioreactor
In steady state, mass balance equation is given
be VL
by:-
Now, we have for scale up:
Input – Output – Consumption = 0
VL  D L = V S  D S
 (F/V)*SR – =0
Where,
 D(S) – {( max
*S)/(KS + S)} = 0
DL=diameter of the large bioreactor,
Therefore,
VS = agitator speed of the small bioreactor = 450 rpm,
D(S) = {( max
*S)/(KS + S)} = {( max
*S)/(KS + S)}
DS = diameter of the small bioreactor,
= {(0.4S)/(0.3 + S)}
n = scale up ratio = 10,000/10 = 1000
 DS = 0.4S/ (0.3 + S)
Now, DL = 10 DS
 0.1 = 0.4S/ (0.3 + S)
Therefore, VL  10 DS = 450 DS
 0.4S = 0.03 + 0.1S
 VL = 45
 0.3S = 0.03
Hence the agitator speed of the large bioreactor
 S = 0.1
is 45 rpm.
Therefore, the concentration of the limiting
28. Given, two sequences HELLO- and YELLOW
substrate = 0.1 g/L
The % identity between the two sequences would
be: No. of identical positions/ Total no. of positions 32. Given,  heating = 12.56,  cooling = 7.48
No. of identical positions = 4 (ELLO); Total no. of
positions = 6
Now we have,  total =  heating   cooling   holding
Therefore, percentage identity  52 = 12.56 + 7.48 +  holding
= 4/6  100 = 66.667 %   holding = 31.96
29. Given, for a batch culture
33. Given k value = 3.36 min–1
Specific rate of substrate utilization = 0.25 g/g/h
Specific rate of product formation = 0.215 g/g/h Holding value of design criteria,  holding = 31.96
Yield of product (YP/S) = 0.215/.25 = 0.86 Therefore, time of holding, t =  holding /k
30. Given, Initial cell concentration, X = 1.75 g/L
= 31.96/3.36 min = 9.512 min.
Initial concentration of substrate glucose,
S = 125 g/L 34. Yield coefficient = mass of new cells formed/ mass
Given, Yield of biomass, YX/S = 0.6 g/g of substrate consumed
Now, Concentration of biomass produced New cells mass formed = cell density X specific
= YX/S x S = 125 x 0.6 g/L = 75 g/L growth rate = 20  0.4 = 8
Therefore, maximum concentration of cell Substrate consumed = 16 g/l/h
expected in the bioreactor 8
Yield coefficient = = 0.5.
= 75 + 1.75 g/L = 76.75 g/L 16
31. Given, flow rate for the glucose solution, 35. Solvent extraction is a method for processing
F = 200 mL/hr materials by using a solvent to separate the parts.
KS = 0.3 g/L; m = 0.4 h-1; D = 0.1 h-1 It can be used for penicillin extraction.
Therefore, Volume of the reactor, Affinity chromatography is the preferred method
V = F/D = 200/0.1 mL = 2000 mL = 2L of bioselective adsorption and subsequent
recovery of a compound from an immobilized
We have, from Monod’s equation of substrate
ligand. Each is designed for highly specific and
consumption
efficient purification of proteins and related
=( max
* S)/ (KS + S) compounds like monoclonal antibody.
Extractive distillation is defined as distillation in formation shows the constant sp. Growth rate.
the presence of a miscible, high boiling, relatively Product induced inhibition can be seen at increase
non-volatile component, and the solvent that in product concentration with decrease in sp
forms no azeotrope with the other components growth rate, this phenomena is vice versa with
in the mixture. It can be used for lactic acid substrate inhibition.
recovery. 43. The “gas out-gas in” method can directly
Salting out is a purification method that utilizes determine the volumetric mass transfer
the reduced solubility of certain molecules in a coefficient in a bioreactor system and provide
solution of very high ionic strength. Crude lipase estimates of the volumetric microbial oxygen
can be purified by using salting out method. uptake rate and the average oxygen saturation
concentration at the gas-liquid interface. The rate
36. Bacteriostatic antibiotics limit the growth of of oxygen transfer from the bubble air to the
bacteria by interfering with bacterial protein liquid phase is described by the equation:
production, DNA replication, or other aspects of dCL/ dt = KLa (C* – CL)
bacterial cellular metabolism. Since after Ö KLa = dCL/dt * 1/ (C* – CL)
incubation, plate A showed no colonies and plate
Ö KLa = r*X/(C* – CL)
B showed 0.9 * 109 colonies (half of the bacterial
Where r*X = dC L/dt, r is the specific oxygen
culture before inoculating), thus it shows that
uptake rate per unit weight of cells and X is the
antibiotic Z is bacteriostatic which has stopped
dry weight of cells per unit volume.
the bacteria from reproducing.
For reliable measurements, deconvolution of the
39. Balanced growth of the cell depends upon the
oxygen probe measurements must be made.
concentration of the medium component
44. Williams proposed a simple structured model that
concentration. The components are been uptaken
divides the biomass into two parts: Part 1 is
in uniform rate which yields the specific growth
composed of intermediates, enzymes, and other
rate constant. When it goes to decline phase, entities involved in the formation of materials
concentration of the component decreases. used for synthesis of structural and genetic
40. In lag phase, environmental condition is adapted material; Part 2 is the structural and genetic part
by bacteria themselves. In this phase each of the biomass. It can be used to describe the
bacterium is matured enough but cannot divide. change in intracellular components during cell
Synthesis of enzymes and other molecules occur growth. In the different phases of cell growth,
in this phase. So, the substrate consumed by this model enables analytical depiction and
explanation of the variation in the size of the
microbes in lag phase is involved in the motility
cells. But the model is not structured for
of the micro-organisms, maintenance of
reasoning with the death phase of the cells.
intracellular pH and cell materials required for
growth and physiology of the microbes in the 45. Synchronous growth of a bacterial population is
upcoming phases. that during which all bacterial cells of the
population are physiologically identical and in the
41. Dilution rate is defined as rate of flow of medium
same stage of cell division cycle at a given time.
into a continuous culture system. It is equal to
Synchronous growth helps studying particular
the rate of cell division when the number of cell
stages or the cell division cycle and their
remains constant in vessels because the cells that
interrelations. A synchronous culture can be
are replaced by medium outflow by cell division
obtained either by manipulating environmental
equally. In continuous culture, rate of dilution
conditions such as by repeatedly changing the
regulates the rate of microbial growth through
temperature or by adding fresh nutrients to
concentration of growth limiting nutrient in the
cultures as soon as they enter the stationary
medium. This is the advantage of this culture
phase, or by physical separation of cells by
system.
centrifugation or filtration. Synchronous cultures
42. At growth associated product formation specific rapidly lose synchrony because not all cells in
product formation rate is proportional to specific the population divide at exactly the same size,
growth rate when Non growth associated product age or time.
46. By Monod model, ln X Vs t graph is linear and Thus, the increase in the surface area after fitting
slope = μ, where μ is specific growth rate, μmax is of surface film = 30 * 20 = 600 cm2
maximum specific growth rate. It represents the Also, the film can support 10 5 anchorage
log phase of the growth. dependent cells per cm2
47. We know, Thus, the film will add = 105 cells/cm2 * 600 cm2
Yield of biomass, = 6 * 107 cells.

52. Initial number of cells= 108 cells/ml * 1m3
YX/S = Biomass produced/ Substrate consumed
But, we know,
Now,
1m3 = 106cm3
Substrate consumed,
Also, 103cm3 = 1000ml
S = Initial substrate concentration (Si) Therefore, total initial number of cells
– Final substrate concentration (Sf )
= 108 cells * 106
= Si – Sf
= 1014 cells
3 3
Si = 10 kg/ m and Sf = 2 kg/ m Final acceptance of contamination
Biomass produced, X = 4.5 kg dry biomass/ m3 = 10–3 cells/ml or 103 cells/m3
Therefore, Thus, using the first order rate constant equation:
YX/S = X/ (Si – Sf) = 4.5 (10 – 2) t = 2.303/K log10 [1014]/103
= 0.562 Kg of biomass/ kg of the substrate. = 2.303/ 0.23 per min log10 (1014/103)
= 10 * 11 log10 (10)
48. Data is insufficient to solve the question.
t = 110 min.
49. Probability of bacteria getting infected by a single
bacteriophage= 0.3 i.e. P(A)= 0.3 53. By using the Monod Equation under steady state,
Given, 3 phages, So, probability of bacteria getting We have,
infected by 3 phages = P(A) * P(B) * P(C) = max
[S]/[S] + KS
= 0.3 * 0.3 * 0.3 = 0.3 hr–1 * 1.5g/l/ [1.5g/l] + [0.2g/l]
= 0.027 = 0.2648 hr–1
50. Chemostat is operated by supplying an essential D = (by using the Monod model)
growth limiting nutrient at a constant rate with Also, D = F/V
the result that the culture density and growth
rate adjust themselves to the supply. Therefore, equating the two, we get,
At steady state, F = V
dx/dt= 0 Therefore, μ= D = 0.2648 * 10
This equation shows that by simply varying the F = 26.5 m3hr–1

medium supply rate the growth rate can be 54. We know,
varied.This equation holds true if μ eD or Yield, YX/S = – ΔX/ΔS
μ–D = positive.
YX/S = 0.4 g/L
Here, Dc = μ max, i.e. the critical dilution rate is
Therefore,
defined as the lowest dilution rate at which
washout occurs. ΔX = Xfinal – Xinitial
Thus, for a bacterial culture to grow at dilution = 4 g/L
rate higher than maximum growth rate, the From the equation,
partial cell recycling is needed under steady state
YX/S = – ΔX/ΔS
condition.
0.4 = –[4/( Sfinal – 12)] 0.4 Sfinal – 4.8
51. Given,
= –4, 0.4 Sfinal
Inner radius (r) = 10 cm
= 0.8, Sfinal = 2
Length (l) = 20 cm
Final substrate concentration,
Length of spiral film (L)= 30 cm
Sfinal = 2 g/L
Width (W) = 20 cm
55. Biostat keeps all the given parameters constant. 59. Sparger is being used for the aeration of the
56. Bioreactor choice should be dependent upon the medium in bioreactor. Diaphram valve is being
kinetic properties if the reactor and its stability used for the air sterilization in large scale animal
condition. Fed batch reactors are semi batch or microbial cell culture condition. Draft tube
reactor as it holds the nutrient media for a specific has been used for the feed circulation in semi
retention time. fedbatch culture. Marine type turbine is being
used to reduce shear stress on fluid medium in
57. Assertion: A synchronous or synchronized
animal cell culture.
culture is a microbiological culture or a cell
culture that contains cells that are all in the g acetate g dry cell
same growth stage. 60. Yx/s = 0.35 g/g, YP/S = 0.1
g glucose g glucose
Reason: Synchronous cultures can be obtained The respiratory coefficient
in several ways: M oles of CO2 formed
Respiratory quotient =
 External conditions can be changed, so as to M oles of CO2 consumed
arrest growth of all cells in the culture, and
5
then changed again to resume growth. = = 1.01
4.95
 Cell growth can also be arrested using chemical C6 H12 O6 + b NH3 + O2  CH1.8O0.5 N0.2 + eH2O + f CO2
growth inhibitors.
C : 6a = 1 + f ...(1)
 Cells in different growth stages have different
H : 12a + 3b = 1.8 + 2e ...(2)
physical properties. Cells in a culture can thus
be physically separated based on their density O : 6a + 2d = 0.5 + e + 2F ...(3)
or size, for instance. This can be achieved using b = 0.2
centrifugation (for density) or filtration (for N : b = 0.2
size).  12a = 1.2 + 2e
 In the Helmstetter-Cummings technique, a 6a = 1 + F
bacterial culture is filtered through a Let if a = 1, i.e. F = 5
membrane. Most bacteria pass through, but
e = 5.4
some remain bound to the membrane. Fresh
medium is then applied to the membrane and d = 4.95
the bound bacteria start to grow. Newborn b = 0.2
bacteria that detach from the membrane are a= 1
now all at the same stage of growth; they are 61. KLa = 0.185 S–1 = 5.139  10–5 hr–1
collected in a flask that now harbors a
Critical dO2 is 20% of the saturate conc.(8 mg/ml)
synchronous culture.
Cell density. CL = 1.6  103.m/l C = (8  103 mg/l)
58. When both the substrates are present in a batch do2 = KLa (C – CL)
bioreactor, microbial cells do not consume both
substrates simultaneously or additively but 1/
OUR = 1 / o
instead grow on the sugars sequentially. The 2
sequential consumption results in an interesting
= qo2X.
pattern of the cells first consuming one preferred
qo2 = mmo2/gm sw. hr.
substrate and then after an intermediate lag
phase, consuming the remaining less preferred = 5  10–3 gm dm hr
substrate. That is, the less preferred substrate  KLa (C – CL) = q02X.
is not utilized until the preferred substrate is
K La (C  CL )
completely consumed and is no longer available  X=
q02
in the growth medium. This sequential utilization
of two substrates in batch cultures has been
5.139  10 5 (8  1.6)  10 3
observed in numerous experiments by Monod,  X=
5  10 3
who has termed this phenomenon as the "diauxic
pattern of growth". It has multiple lag phases. = 65.779 g/lit.
62. Specific growth rate is defined as the increase in 69. 103 cpm in pellet is due to Fab binding to epitope
cell mass per unit time. In death phase, no cellular present on recombinant living cells/algae
growth is observed. During this, the cell Total Fab or epitope
population continuously decreases with time and
Radioactivity in pellet
the population is said to have entered into death =
Specific activity
phase of the growth cycle. Therefore the value
of specific growth constant for death phase is 103 cpm
=
zero. 10 2 cpm( picomole) 1
63. The main roles of a baffle in a bioreactor are 103  10 12
=
 Increase aeration rate 102
 to prevent a vortex = 10  10–12 mole
= 10 picomole
64. C6H12O6 + Zymase → 2 C2H5OH + 2 CO2 use mass
balance process to calculate the ethanol production. These 10 picomole epitopes are present on 103
cells (assuming) 100% transfection and expression
180g of Glucose yields = 92 g of ethanol
of protein).
Therefore, Average number of epitopes on single
1000g of glucose yields = 92/180 * 1000 = 0.51 kg recombinant alga
65. Cyanogen bromide hydrolyzes peptide bonds at 10  10 12
= mole
the C-terminus of methionine residues. This 103
reaction is used to reduce the size of polypeptide = 10–14 mole
segments for identification and sequencing. The = 6.023  1023  10–14
aspartate residue (Asp 189) located in the
= 6  109
catalytic pocket (S1) of trypsins is responsible for
70. Thermistors monitor temperature and as per
attracting and stabilizing positively charged
requirements very precisely activate hot/cold water
lysine and/or arginine, and is, thus, responsible pump to heat or cool down the system. The oxygen
for the specificity of the enzyme. This means that electrode directly measures the concentration of
trypsin predominantly cleaves proteins at the dissolved oxygen in the liquid phase and so as to
carboxyl side (or "C-terminal side") of the amino regulate the oxygen level it increases the stirrer
acids lysine and arginine except when either is motor speed for more aeration whereas decreases
bound to a N-terminal proline. Although large- speed if oxygen concentration has to be decreased.
scale mass spectrometry data suggest cleavage Metal rod is used to switch on/off the vegetable oil
occurs even with proline. Trypsins are considered pump as vegetable oil has defoming action but its
endopeptidases, i.e., the cleavage occurs within higher concentration can as well has negative
the polypeptide chain rather than at the terminal effects. Thus metal rod maintains appropriate oil
amino acids located at the ends of polypeptides. concentration in the fermentor. pH electrode
66. Final volume = initial volume measures the pH of the system liquid and thus
varies acid/alkali pump to increase and decrease
+ Flow rate  Number of day
pH respectively.
= 6m3 + 2m3 day–1 (2day)
71. Hollow fibers also provide a tremendous amount
= 10m3 of surface area in a small volume. Cells grow on
67. Dilution rate at end of 2nd day and around the fibers at densities of greater than 1
Flow rate X 108 per mL. Hollow fiber cell culture is the only
= Total volume at end of 2nd day means to culture cells at in vivo like cell densities.
72. In single run metabolite (X) concentration is
2 m3
= = 0.2 =1.1 kg m–3.
10 m3
Since, total number of runs = 70
68. Number of cell died
Total concentration of (X)
= Total cell – Number of cell survived
= 70  1.1 kg m–3 run–1
= 109 – 103
= 70  1.1 kg m–3
= 9.9  108
= 77 kg m–3
= 109
3
Now, total volume of batch culture = 50 m . 80. Diffusion helps in dialysis procedure to separate
Total amount will be compounds in medium and product. Dialysis
works on the principles of the diffusion of solutes
= 50 m3  77 kg m–3
and ultrafiltration of fluid across a semi-permeable
= 3850 kg per year membrane. Diffusion is a property of substances
73. Overall productivity in water; substances in water tend to move from
= Total number of runs  final an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration at each end concentration.
= 70 runs  1.1 kg m–3 81. lysine repress the penicillin production by
feedback inhibition.
= 77 kg m–3 year–1
82. Log phase shows the doubling in cell concentration
74. Air is provided through sparger in bioreactors.
with in a stipulated time unit.
75. The main roles of baffles are prevent vertex
83. anerobic fermentation doesn’t need agitation to
formation, improve aeration and help in mixing.
maintain oxygen supply.
76. The equilibrium solubility of four calcium salts
84. The power number, N P is a commonly-used
(calcium oxalate hydrate, calcium citrate
dimensionless number relating the resistance
tetrahydrate, calcium phosphate, calcium
force to the intertia force.
glycerophosphate) were determined at controlled
The power number has different specifications
pH values (7.5, 6.0, 4.5 and < or = 3.0) and in
according to the field of application e.g., for
distilled water.
stirrers, the power number is defined as :
77. P = 4.5 gm/l.hr Ethanol production yeast cell
conc.(X) = 5% v/v P
NP = with
NAD /NADH ceme in yeast cell = 10 m (m = ml/lit)
+ n 3 d 5
= (me/t) the cycling rate of NAD+ NADH P = power
will be.  = fluid density
5 n = rotational speed
X= ml in 1 liter of broth,
100 d = diameter of stirrer
NAD+/NADH = 10–5 ml/lit. 85. The degree of protein purity required depends
50 ml No.of cy dest on the intended end use of the protein. For some
= 10–5 ml/lit = cycle rate.
100 lit unit time applications, a crude extract is sufficient.
5  10–5/lit However, for other uses, such as in foods and
pharmaceuticals, a high level of purity is
NAD+ NADH required. In order to achieve this, several protein
v = Am3
Am3 purification methods are typically used, in a
x = 5%
Glucose EtoH x1 = 10m series of purification steps. Protein purification
step also differs for intra-cellular and extra-
Total NAD /NADH conc = 5  10–5(v/v)
+
cellular products.
 1  cycle
Now, cycle rate = 
 5  10 5  hr 86. Penicillium chrysogenum utilizes phenylacetic acid
= 20,000 cycle/hr. as a side chain precursor in penicillin G biosynthesis.
During industrial production of penicillin G,
dP phenylacetic acid is fed in small amounts to the
78. = K(Pm – P)
dt medium to avoid toxic side effects. Phenylacetic acid
2.303  100 P  is taken up from the medium and intracellularly
K = log 10 
t  10 P  coupled to 6-aminopenicillanic acid.
87. To prevent contamination of either the fermentation
2.303
K = by air-borne microorganisms or the environment
t by aerosols generated within the fermenter, both
2.303 air input and air exhaust ports have air filters such
t =  4.606 hour
0.5 as glass fibre filters, mineral fibers filters.
90. For ethanol commercial utilization we need high 94. Organic ingredients intended for composting can
purity which leads to heavy downstream alternatively be used to generate biogas through
processing cost along with high percentage of anaerobic digestion. Anaerobic digestion is fast
ethanol cause dehydration to the microbial overtaking composting in some parts of the world
inoculums leading to toxicity to cell. including central Europe as a primary means of
91. The recovery after four steps downcycling waste organic matter.
4
= (0.8) = 0.4096 ~ 0.41 95. It uses longer heating time during which heat is
92. Fed Batch process is based on feeding of growth lost.
limiting nutrient substrate to a culture. This 96. In secondary metabolism two phases are
process is used to control repressive effects of the apparent: trophophase and idiophase.
particular nutrient which at higher concentration Trophophase is the growth phase of the culture;
inhibit the growth of the culture or product. idiophase is the time when the secondary
93. Heat sterilization likely the steam sterilization metabolites are formed. The success of the
is helpful in large scale production. idiophase is dependent on the trophophase.
12
C H A P TE R
Bioinformatics
2016 7. In an affine gap penalty model, if the gap opening

1. Which one of the following is NOT an algorithm penalty is -20, gap extension penalty is -4 and gap
for building phylogenetic trees? length is 8, the gap score is _________.
(a) Maximum parsimony 8. The amino acid substitution matrices in

decreasing order of stringency for comparing
(b) Neighbor joining protein sequences are
(c) Maximum likelihood (a) PAM250, PAM120, PAM100
(d) Bootstrap (b) PAM100, PAM120, PAM250
2015 (c) PAM250, PAM100, PAM120
2. Identify the file format given below: (d) PAM120, PAM250, PAM100
>Pl; JMFD 2013
Protein X – Homo sapiens 9. The suitable substitution matrix to align closely
MKALTARQQEVFDLIRDHISRTLRQQGDWL related sequences is
(a) GDE (b) FASTA (a) PAM 250 or BLOSSUM 80
(c) NBRF (d) GCG (b) PAM 40 or BLOSSUM 80
3. Consider the following multiple sequence (c) PAM 120 or BLOSSUM 40
alignment of four DNA sequences. (d) PAM 250 or BLOSSUM 40
A C T A 10. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the
A C T G following Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
A G T C Assertion: UPGMA method produces ultrametric
A G C T tree.
Shannon's entropy of the above alignment is ____ Reason:Sequence alignment is converted into
4. An isolated population on an island has the evolutionary distances in UPGMA method.
following genotypic frequencies : (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
reason for (A)
Genotype AA Aa aa
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
Frequency 0.3 0.4 0.3 correct reason for (A)
Assuming that there are only two alleles (A and (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
a) for the gene, the genotypic frequency of AA in (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
the next generation will be _______.
11. Match the entries in the Group Iwith the entries
5. How many rooted and unrooted phylogenetic inGroup II.
trees, respectively, are possible with four different
Group I Group II
sequences ?
P. Threading 1. Gene duplication
(a) 3 and 15 (b) 15 and 3
Q. FASTA 2. Fold prediction
(c) 15 and 12 (d) 12 and 3
R. Profile 3. HMM
2014
S. Paralogs 4. k-tuple
6. The algorithm for BLAST is based on
(a) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(a) Dynamic Programming
(b) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(b) Hidden Markov Model
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(c) k-tuple analysis
(d) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(d) Neural Network
12.2 Bioinformatics
2012 (a) Multiple sequence alignment

12. An example of a derived protein structure (b) Homology modeling
database is (c) Phylogeny
(a) Pfam (b) SCOP (d) Docking
(c) GEO (d) Prosite 20. Match the item in Group I with an appropriate
13. An example of a program for constructing a description in Group 2:
phylogenetic tree is Group 1 Group 2
(a) phylip (b) phrap P. UPGMA 1. Protein sequence
(c) prodom (d) PHDsec database
14. Synteny refers to Q. CLUSTAL 2. Phylogenetic
analysis
(a) gene duplication from a common ancestor
R. SWISS-PROT 3. 3-D structure
(b) a tree representation of related sequences
visualization
(c) the extent of similarity between two sequences
S. RasMOl 4. Multiple sequence
(d) local conservation of gene order alignment
15. While searching a database for similar sequences, (a) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
E value does NOT depend on the
(b) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(a) sequence length
(c) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(b) number of sequences in the database
(d) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(c) scoring system
(d) probability from a normal distribution
2008
21. In bioinformatics, the term ‘BLAST’ refers to
2011
(a) database retrieval tool
16. The most widely used program for multiple
(b) computational tool for sequence homology
sequence alignment is
searching and alignment
(a) BLAST
(c) computational tool to view genomic sequences
(b) FASTA
(d) computational tool to view protein structures
(c) CLUSTAL
22. Match the terms in group 1 with their possible
(d) Chime explanations in group 2
2010 Group 1
17. Program used for essentially local similarity P. Orthologs
search is Q. Paralogs
(a) BLAST R. Proteome
(b) RasMol S. Transgenic
(c) ExPASY Group 2
(d) SWISS-PROT 1. A cell or an organsim having foreign gene
18. Accession number is a unique identification 2. The complement of a protein expressed by a
assigned to a genome
(a) single database entry for DNA/Protein 3. Genes from different spe-cies related to each
(b) single database entry for DNA only other
(c) single database entry for Protein only 4. Genes from same species related to each other
(d) multiple database entry for DNA/Protein P Q R S
2009 (a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
19. The method used for prediction of three
dimensional structure of a protein from known (c) 3 4 2 1
structure(s) of one or more related proteins is (d) 1 2 3 4
Bioinformatics 12.3
2007 2006
23. Match the methods available on world wide web 24. For prediction of three dimensional structure of
in group 1 for performing the jobs listed in group 2 protein
Group 1 Group 2 (P) homology modeling tries many possible
P. Boxshade 1. Searching family data base alignments
Q. BCM launcher 2. Finding alignments (Q) threading first identifies homologues
R. Prosite 3. Displaying alignments (R) threading evaluates many rough models
S. PSI-BLAST 4. Searching for multiple (S) homology modeling optimizes one model
alignments (a) Q, S
(a) P-l, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (b) P, Q
(b) P-2, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (c) R, S
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-l, S-4 (d) Q, R
(d) P-3, Q-2, R-l, S-4
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (3.80-3.82 bits) 4. (0.25) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (– 52 to – 52)
8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a)
18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
and genotype frequency = p2
1. Bootstrapping is a resampling analysis that = 0.5  0.5
involves taking columns of characters out of your
analysis, rebuilding the tree, and testing if the = 0.25
same nodes are recovered. 5. Here n = 4
2. GDE  Start with # $ @ etc  2n – 3  !
Number of rooted trees (NR) =
FASTA  Start with > Description 2n – 2 (n – 2)!
NBRF Start with > P1; (2n – 5)!
Number of unrooted trees (NU) =
GCG  Start with Anotation lines n –3
2 (n – 3)!
3. H(p) = – Pi log2 Pi  NR = 15 and NU = 3
P1 = 0
6. The BLAST program sets a size k for k-tuple
P2 = 0.5 subwords. The program then looks for diagonals in
P3 = 0.25 the comparison matrix between query and search
P4 = 0.25 sequence along which many k-tuples match. This
program also aims at identifying core similarities
 Pi = 1 for later extension. The core similarity is defined
H(p) = 0 + (– 0.5 log2 0.5)+ (– 0.25log2 0.25) by a window with a certain match density on DNA
+ (– 0.25 log 2 0.25) or with an amino acid similarity score above some
threshold for proteins. Independent of the exact
= 3.80 bits
definition of the core similarity, BLAST rests on the
4. f(AA) = 0.3, f(Aa) = 0.4, f (a,a) = 0.3 precomputation of all strings which are in the given
sense similar to any position in the query. n BLAST
( Allele frequency in next generation = p nomenclature this set of strings is called the
1 neighborhood of the query. The code to generate
= f(AA) + f (Aa) = 0.3 + 0.2 = 0.5)
2 this neighborhood is in fact exceedingly fast.
12.4 Bioinformatics
7. Gap score = 2  Gap opening penalty + Gap the root. In molecular terms, this means that
extension penalty – Gap length UPGMA assumes a molecular clock, i.e. all
Here, Gap opening penalty = –20, Gap extension lineages are evolving at a constant rate.
penalty = –4 and gap length = 8 11. Threading is the method of three dimensional
Therefore, Gap score = 2  (–20) – 4 – 8 = – 52 structure predictions of proteins by generating
8. Substitution matrices like PAM100, PAM120 and threads that help to determine folds in a protein.
PAM250 are constructed by observing the FASTA is a program for rapid alignment of pairs
frequencies of amino acid replacements in large of protein and DNA sequences. Rather than
samples of protein sequences. For a given comparing individual residues in the two
replacement, the PAM value is proportional to sequences, FASTA instead looks for matching
the natural log of the frequency with which that sequence patterns or words, called k-tuples, and
replacement was observed to occur. One PAM then attempts to build a local alignment based
upon these word matches. Profile HMMs turn a
unit is defined as the amount of sequence
multiple sequence alignment into a position-
divergence corresponding to a 1% amino acid
specific scoring system suitable for searching
replacement rate. For closely-related sequences,
databases for remotely homologous sequences.
it is appropriate to use a PAM100 matrix, in which
Profile HMM analyses complement standard
PAM units have been extrapolated to 100% pairwise comparison methods for large-scale
replacement. In other words, 100% of the positions sequence analysis. Paralogs are genes related by
show at least one replacement. For most database duplication within a genome. Orthologs retain the
searches, a PAM250 matrix is preferred, since same function in the course of evolution, whereas
larger databases will tend to have sets of more paralogs evolve new functions, even if these are
distantly-related sequences. So, decreasing order related to the original one.
of stringency of point accepted mutation matrices
would be: PAM100 > PAM120 > PAM250. 12. Protein structural database: Primary database:
PDB Secondary database: SCOP, CATH
9. Point accepted mutation (PAM) matrix is used for
13. A program for constructing phylogenetic tree is
species having deletion or insertion at any
PHYLIP. It is a Phylogeny Inference Package. It
particular point in the nucleotide sequence. Block
is a free computational phylogenetic package
substitution matrix (BLOSUM) is used for species
which has programs for inferring evolutionary
whose sequences have undergone substitution.
tree constructions.
PAM 40 means that 40 % of the sequences are
mutated and 60% are conserved while BLOSUM 14. Synteny can be defined as the local conservation
80 means that 80% of the sequences are conserved of gene order. It is the condition of two or more
and rest 20% are mutated. So, PAM 40 and genes being located on the same chromosome
BLOSUM 80 can be used for less divergent or whether or not there is demonstrable linkage
closely related species for performing the between them.
alignment. 15. The Expect value (E) is a parameter that describes
10. The unweighted pair-group method with arithmetic the number of hits one can "expect" to see by
mean (UPGMA) is a popular distance analysis chance when searching a database of a particular
method. UPGMA is the simplest method for size. It decreases exponentially as the Score (S)
constructing trees. The great disadvantage of of the match increases. Essentially, the E value
UPGMA is that it assumes the same evolutionary describes the random background noise. Virtually
speed on all lineages, i.e. the rate of mutations is identical short alignments have relatively high E
constant over time and for all lineages in the tree. values. This is because the calculation of the E
This is called a ‘molecular clock hypothesis’. This value takes into account the length of the query
would mean that all leaves (terminal nodes) have sequence and also depends upon the number of
the same distance from the root. In reality the sequences in the database. These high E values
individual branches are very unlikely to have the make sense because shorter sequences have a
same mutation rate. Sequence alignment is higher probability of occurring in the database
converted into evolutionary distances. UPGMA is purely by chance.
“ultrametric”, meaning that all the terminal nodes Thus the E value does not depend on the
(i.e. the sequences/taxa) are equally distance from probability from a normal distribution.
Bioinformatics 12.5
sequences amongst homologues, but sequences
16. The Clustal series of programs are widely used falling below a 20% sequence identity can have
in molecular biology for the multiple alignment very different structure.
of both nucleic acid and protein sequences and 20.  UPGMA (Unweighted Pair Group Method with
for preparing phylogenetic trees. The popularity Arithmetic Mean) is a simple agglomerative or
of the programs depends on a number of factors, hierarchical clustering method. Inbioinformatics,
including not only the accuracy of the results, UPGMA is used for the creation of phenetic
but also the robustness, portability and trees (phenograms). In a phylogenetic context,
user-friendliness of the programs. New features UPGMA assumes a constant rate of evolution
include NEXUS and FASTA format output, (molecular clock hypothesis).
printing range numbers and faster tree  CLUSTAL is a general purpose multiple
calculation. Although, Clustal was originally sequence alignment program for DNA or
developed to run on a local computer, numerous proteins.
Web servers have been set up, notably at the
 SWISS-PROT is a curated protein sequence
EBI (European Bioinformatics Institute).
database which strives to provide a high level
17. BLAST (Basic Local Alignment Search Tool) is a of annotation (such as the description of the
program which is used for local similarity search. function of a protein, its domain structure, post-
BLAST is an algorithm for comparing primary translational modifications, variants, etc), a
biological sequence information, such as the minimal level of redundancy and a high level
amino-acid sequences of different proteins or the of integration with other databases.
nucleotides of DNA sequences. A BLAST search  RasMol is a computer program written for
enables a researcher to compare a query sequence molecular graphics visualization intended and
with a library or database of sequences, and used primarily for the depiction and exploration
identify library sequences that resemble the query of biological macromolecule structures
sequence above a certain threshold. Different
types of BLASTs are available according to the 21. In bioinformatics, Basic Local Alignment Search
query sequences like nBLAST (nucleotide Tool, or BLAST, is an algorithm for comparing
BLAST), pBLAST (protein BLAST) etc. primary biological sequence information, such as
the amino-acid sequences of different proteins
18. An accession number is a unique identifier or the nucleotides of DNA sequences. A BLAST
assigned to a particular genome or protein search enables a researcher to compare a query
sequence to uniquely identify it in a database. It sequence with a library or database of sequences,
is assigned to the entire sequence record (whether and identify library sequences that resemble the
DNA or protein) when the record is submitted to query sequence above a certain threshold.
GenBank. The NCBI Entrez System is searchable
by accession number using the Accession [ACCN] 22. Orthologs, or orthologous genes, are genes in
different species that originated by vertical
search field.
descent from a single gene of the last common
19. Homology modeling, also known as comparative ancestor. Paralogous sequences provide useful
modeling of protein, refers to constructing an insight into the way genomes evolve. The genes
atomic-resolution model of the “target” protein encoding myoglobin and hemoglobin are
from its amino acid sequence and an experimental considered to be ancient paralogs.
three-dimensional structure of a related
23.  BOXSHADE is a program for pretty-printing
homologous protein (the “template”). Homology
multiple alignment output. The program itself
modeling relies on the identification of one or
doesn't do any alignment, you have to use a
more known protein structures likely to resemble
multiple alignment program like ClustalW or
the structure of the query sequence, and on the
Pileup and use the output of these programs
production of an alignment that maps residues
as input for BOXSHADE. Of course, you can
in the query sequence to residues in the template
also use manually aligned sequences (in a
sequence. It has been shown that protein
proper format).
structures are more conserved than protein
12.6 Bioinformatics
 BCM Launcher, i.e. Baylor College of Medicine computational protein structure prediction) which
Search Launcher is an on-going project to is used to model those proteins which have the
organize molecular biology-related search and same fold as proteins of known structures, but
analysis services available on the WWW by do not have homologous proteins with known
function by providing a single point-of-entry for structure. It differs from the homology modeling
related searches (e.g., a single page for method of structure prediction as it (protein
launching protein sequence searches using threading) is used for proteins which do not have
standard parameters). It helps in finding their homologous protein structures deposited in
alignments. the Protein Data Bank (PDB), whereas homology
 PROSITE is a database of protein families and modeling is used for those proteins which do.
domains. It is based on the observation that, Threading works by using statistical knowledge
while there is a huge number of different of the relationship between the structures
proteins, most of them can be grouped, on the deposited in the PDB and the sequence of the
basis of similarities in their sequences, into a protein which one wishes to model. Homology
limited number of families. Proteins or protein modeling, also known as comparative modeling
domains belonging to a particular family of protein, refers to constructing an atomic-
generally share functional attributes and are resolution model of the “target” protein from its
derived from a common ancestor. PROSITE amino acid sequence and an experimental three-
currently contains patterns and profiles specific dimensional structure of a related homologous
for more than a thousand protein families or protein (the “template”). Homology modeling
domains. Each of these signatures comes with relies on the identification of one or more known
documentation providing background protein structures likely to resemble the
information on the structure and function of structure of the query sequence, and on the
production of an alignment that maps residues
these proteins.
in the query sequence to residues in the template
24. Protein threading, also known as fold recognition, sequence.
is a method of protein modeling (i.e.
SOLVED PAPER - 2017
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks, out of which 10 questions carrying a total of 15 marks are in
General Aptitude (GA)
2. The Engineering Mathematics will carry around 15% of the total marks, the General Aptitude section
will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining 70% of the total marks.
3. Types of Questions
(a) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. These
questions are objective in nature, and each will have a choice of four options, out of which the candidate
has to mark the correct answer(s).
(b) Numerical Answer Questions of 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. For these questions
the answer is a real number, to be entered by the candidate using the virtual keypad. No choices will
be shown for these type of questions.
4. For 1-mark multiple-choice questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong answer. Likewise, for
2-marks multiple-choice questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong answer. There is no negative
marking for numerical answer type questions.
5. In a thin layer chromatography experiment using

TECHNICAL SECTION
a silica gel plate, a compound showed migration
(Q.1 – 25) : Carry One Mark Each of 12.5 cm and the solvent front showed migration
1. An enzyme catalyzes a reaction by of 18 cm. The R f value for the compound
(a) decreasing the energy of the substrate. is________.
(b) decreasing the activation energy of the sin( x)
reaction. 6. lim
x 0
is __________.
x
(c) decreasing product stability.
7. Which one of the following mechanisms is used
(d) increasing the activation barrier of the
by human pathogens to evade host immune
reaction.
responses?
2. Natural proteins are composed primarily of 20
(a) Somatic hypermutation
-amino acids. Which one of the following
statements is true for any of these amino acids (b) Antibody production
in a solultion of pH 1.5? (c) Antigenic variation
(a) Only the amino group is ionized. (d) Complement activation
(b) Only the carboxylic acid group is ionized. 8. If the nucleotide composition (%) of a viral genome
(c) Both amino and carboxylic acid groups are is A = 10, U = 20, C = 40, and G = 30, which one of
ionized. the following is this genome?
(d) Both amino and carboxylic acid groups are (a) Double stranded RNA
neutral. (b) Single stranded RNA
3. Which one of the following organisms is an (c) Single stranded DNA
indicator of fecal contamination?
(d) Double stranded DNA
(a) Escherichia coli
9. Which one of the following techniques can be used
(b) Streptococcus lactis
to determine the structure of a 15kDa globular
(c) Bacillus subtilis protein at atomic resolution?
(d) Lactobacillus acidophilus (a) Raman spectroscopy
4. The surface area (in m2) of the largest sphere
(b) IR spectroscopy
that can fit into a hollow cube with edges of length
1 meter is ________. (c) UV spectroscopy
Given data :  = 3.14 (d) NMR spectroscopy
2 Solved Paper - 2017
10. Assertion (a) : Gram negative bacteria show 18. In eukaryotes, cytokinesis is inhibited by
staining with saffranin. (a) cytochalasin D (b) vinblastine
Reason (r) : Gram negative bacteria have an (c) nocodazole (d) colchicine
outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides.
19. A proto-oncogene is suspected to have undergone
(a) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct duplication in a certain type of cancer. Of the
reason for (a) following techniques, which one would verify the
(b) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the gene duplication?
correct reason for (a) (a) Northern blotting
(c) Both (a) and (r) are false. (b) Southern blotting
(d) (a) is true but (r) is false. (c) South western blotting
11. The plant hormone indole-3-acetic acid is derived (d) Western blotting
from
20. A polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was set up
(a) histidine with the following reagents : DNA template, Taq
(b) tyrosine polymerase, buffer, dNTPs, and Mg2+. Which one
(c) tryptophan of the following is missing in the reaction
mixture?
(d) proline
(a) Helicase
12. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is
used for (b) Single-stranded binding proteins
(a) quantifying antibody levels in blood (c) Primers
(b) determining the molecular weight of an (d) Reverse transcriptase
antigen 21. An enzymatic reaction exhibits Michaelis-Menten
(c) purifying proteins from biological fluids kinetics. For this reaction, on doubling the
concentration of enzyme while maintaining
(d) determining the molecular weight of an
[S] >> [E0].
antibody
(a) both Km and Vmax will remain the same.
13. Macrophages eliminate pathogenic bacteria upon
activation by (b) K m will remain the same but V max will
increase.
(a) NK cells
(c) Km will increase but Vmax will remain the
(b) basophils
same.
(c) CD4+ T cells
(d) both Km and Vmax will increase.
(d) plasma cells
22. A 5 liter chemostat is fed fresh medium at 0.2
14. If a protein contains four cysteine residues, the liters/minute having a substrate concentration of
number of different ways they can simultaneously 25 grams/liter. At steady state, the outgoing
form two intra-molecular disulphide bonds stream has substrate concentration of 2.5 grams/
is______. liter. The rate of consumption (grams/liter/
15. Secretory proteins synthesized by ER-associated minute) of the substrate in the reactor is ______.
ribosomes traverse through 23. The transcription factor X binds a 10 base pair
(a) mitochondria DNA stretch. In the DNA of an organism, X was
(b) peroxisomes found to bind at 20 distinct sites. An analysis of
(c) the Golgi apparatus these 20 binding sites showed the following
distribution:
(d) the nucleus
Base Position in the binding site
d2 y dy
16. For y = f(x), if 2
 0,  0 at x = 0, and y = 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
dx dx
A 11 0 0 0 16 2 4 0 4 3
at x = 1, the value of y at x = 2 is __________.
T 3 0 19 0 1 3 4 20 2 4
17. During protein synthesis, tRNAs are NOT
involved in G 4 20 0 0 2 4 6 0 12 2
(a) charging (b) initiation C 2 0 1 20 1 11 6 0 2 11
(c) elongation (d) termination
Solved Paper - 2017 3
What is the consensus sequence for the binding 29. Match the proteins in Group I with cellular
site of X? processes in Group II
(a) NGTCNNNTNN Group I Group II
(b) AGTCACNTGC P. p53 1. DNA packaging
(c) CACCTANCTG Q. Lysozyme 2. Apoptosis
(d) ANNNACGNGC R. Tubulins 3. Hydrolysis of
24. A bacterium has a genome of size 6 million base polysaccharides
pairs. If the average rate of DNA synthesis is 1000 S. Histones 4. Chromosome segregation
base pairs/second, the time taken (in minutes) (a) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
for replication of the genome will be _______.
(b) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
25. At the transcription strat site of a gene, any of
(c) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
the four nucleotides can occur with equal
probability p. The Shannon Entropy S, given by (d) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
30. The circular dichroism spectra of three proteins
S =  4i1 pt ln pi, for this start site is________.
P, Q, and R are given below :
Given data : ln(2) = 0.69
(Q.26 – 55) : Carry Two Marks Each
26. Which one of the following graphs represents the
kinetics of protein precipitation by addition of
ammonium sulphate? On the Y-axis, [Protein]
represents the concentration of free protein in
solution.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
27. The distribution of marks scored by a large class

in an exam can be represented as a normal
distribution with mean and standard deviation
. In a follow-up exam in the same class, everyone
scored 5 marks more than their respective score
in the earlier exam. For this follow-up exam, the
distribution of marks can be represented as a
normal distribution with mean 2 and standard
deviation 2. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) = 2;  > 2
(b) < 2;  > 2
Choose the correct combination.
(c) > 2;  < 2
(a) P : -helix, Q :  -sheet, and R : Random coil
(d) < 2;  = 2
(b) P :  -sheet, Q : -helix, and R : Random coil
28. The angle (in degrees) between the vectors
(c) P : -helix, Q : Random coil, and R :  -sheet
 
x  iˆ  ˆj  2 kˆ and y  2iˆ  ˆj – 1.5 kˆ is ________. (d) P : Random coil, Q : -helix, and R :  -sheet
31. Match the organisms in Column I with the 38. Match the plant hormones in Column I with
characteristics in Column II functions in Column II
Column I Column II Column I Column II
P. Methanococcus 1. Halophile P. Gibberellic acid 1. Seed and bud dormancy
Q. Dunaliella 2. Acidophile Q. Zeatin 2. Fruit ripening
R. Sulfolobus 3. Meshophile R. Ethylene 3. Delaying leaf senescence
S. Escherichia 4. Barophile S. Abscisic acid 4. Regulation of plant
(a) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 height
(b) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (a) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (b) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(d) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (c) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
32. Which one of the following amino acids has three (d) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
ionizable groups? 39. For an E. coli culture in the exponential phase of
(a) Glycine growth, optical density (OD) at 540 nm is 0.3 at 2
hours and 0.6 at 4 hours. Assuming that the
(b) Leucine
measured OD is linearly proportional to the
(c) Valine number of E. coli cells, the growth rate (per hour)
(d) Lysine for this culture is __________.
33. Consider an infinite number of cylinders. The first 40. An immunocompetent person becomes infected
cylinder has a radius of 1 meter and height of with a pathogenic strain of bacteria. Which one
1 meter. The second one has a radius of 0.5 meter of the following graphs correctly depicts bacterial
and height of 0.5 meter. Every subsequent load in this person over time?
cylinder has half the radius and half the height of
the preceding cylinder. The sum of the volumes
(in cubic meters) of these infinite number of
cylinders is_________. (a)
Given data :  = 3.14
34. The concentration (in micromolar) of NADH in a
solution with A340 = 0.50 is _________.
Given data : Path length = 1 cm; Molar extinction
coefficient of NADH 340 = 6220 M–1cm–1.
35. The specific activity of an enzyme in a crude
extract of E. coli is 9.5 units/mg of protein. The
specific activity increased to 68 units/mg of protein (b)
upon ion-exchange chromatography. The fold
purification is ____________.
36. Which one of the following organisms is
responsible for crown gall disease in plants?
(a) Xanthomonas campestris
(b) Rhizobium etli (c)
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(d) Erwinia stewartii
37. The value of c for which the following system of
linear equations has an infinite number of
solution is __________.
1 2  x   c  (d)
1 2  y   4 
    
41. The genome is diploid at the end of which phases Which one of the following explains the digestion
of a human mitotic cell cycle? results shown in (R)?
(a) G2 & S (a) The insert did not ligate to the vector.
(b) G1 & M (b) One copy of the insert ligated to the vector.
(c) M & S (c) The insert ligated to the vector as two tandem
(d) G1 & G2 copies.
42. A recombinant protein is to be expressed under (d) The insert ligated to the vector as two copies
the control of the lac promoter and operator in a but not in tanden.
strain of E. coli having the genotype lacI+ crp+. 44. Which one of the following CANNOT be a
Even in the absence of inducer IPTG, low levels recognition sequence for a Type II restriction
of expression of the recombinant protein are seen enzyme?
(leaky expression). Which one of the following (a) GAATTC
should be done to minimize such leaky
(b) AGCT
expression?
(c) GCGGCCGC
(a) Addition of lactose to the medium
(d) ATGCCT
(b) Removal of all glucose from the medium
45. A pedigree of an inheritable disease is shown
(c) Addition of excess glucose to the medium
below.
(d) Addition of allo-lactose to the medium
43. Shown below is a plasmid vector (P) and an insert
(Q). The insert was cloned into the BamHI site of
the vector. The recombinant plasmid was isolated
and digested with BamHI or XhoI. The results
from the digestion experiments are shown in (R)
This inheritable disease is

(a) X-linked dominant
(b) X-linked recessive or Y-linked
(c) only Y-linked
(d) only X-linked recessive
46. If the chemical composition of proteins in an
organism is CH 1.5 O 0.3 N 0.3 S 0.004 , the mass
percentage of carbon in the proteins is ________.
P Given data : Atomic weights (Da) of C = 12, H = 1,
O = 16, N = 14, and S = 32.
47. For the probability density P(x) = 0.5e–0.5x, the

Q
integral 
0
P ( x) dx  _________,
48. Growth of a microbe in a test tube is modeled as

dX  X
 rX  1   , where, X is the biomass, r is
dt  K
the growth rate, and K is the carrying capacity of
the invironment (r  0; K  0) . If the value of
K
starting biomass is , which one of the
100
following graphs qualitatively represents the
growth dynamics?
R
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(d)
51. EcoRI restriction sites on a 10kb DNA fragment

are shown below.
(d) Upon partial digestion, what are the lengths (in

kb) of all the possible DNA fragments obtained?
(a) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 10
(b) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7
49. A zero-order liquid phase reaction A  k
B (c) 2, 3, 4, and 7
is being carried out in a batch reactor with (d) 2 and 3
k = 10–3 mol/min. If the starting concentration 52. A DNA strand of lenght 25 nm wraps
of A is 0.1 moles/liter, the time (in minutes) diametrically around the circumference of a
taken by the system before A is exhausted in a spherical histone-octamer once. The radius (nm)
100 liter reactor is ____________. of the histone-octamer is ___________.
50. The interaction energy E between two spherical Given data :  = 3.14
particles is plotted as a function of the distance
(r) between them. When r < a, where a is a 53. One hundred E. coli cells are each infected by a
constant, the net force between the spherical single  phase particle. The ratio of the number
particles is requlsive. When r  a, they attract of phage particles committing to lysogeny to those
via van der Waals attraction. Which one of the committing to lysis is 4:1. Assuming that the
following plots correctly represents the average burst size is 80, the number of free phage
interaction energy between the above two particles released after one round of infection
particles ? is________.
54. During anaerobic growth, an organism converts 59. 40% of deaths on city roads may be attributed to
glucose (P) into biomass (Q), ethanol (R), drunken driving. The number of degrees needed
acetaldehyde (S), and glycerol (T). Every mole of to represent this as a slice of a pie chart is
carbon present in glucose gets distributed among (a) 120 (b) 144
the products as follows : (c) 160 (d) 212
1 (C-mole P)  0.14 (C-mole Q) + 0.25 (C-mole R) 60. Some tables are shelves. Some shelves are chairs.
+ 0.3 (C-mole S) + 0.31 (C-mole T) All chairs are benches. Which of the following
From 1800 grams of glucose fed to the organism, conclusions can be deduced from the preceding
the ethanol produced (in grams) is ________. sentences?
Given data : Atomic weights (Da) of C = 12, H = 1, i. At least one bench is a table
O = 16, and N = 14 ii. At least one shelf is a bench
55. Which of the following conditions promote the iii. At least one chair is a table
development of human autoimmune disorders? iv. All benches are chairs
P. Inability to eliminate self-reactive lymphocytes (a) Only i
Q. Generation of auto-antibodies (b) Only ii
R. Ability to eliminate self-reactive T-cells (c) Only ii and iii
S. Induction of regulatory T-cells in the thymus (d) Only iv
(a) P, R (b) Q, S (Q.61 – 65) : Carry Two Marks Each
(c) P, Q (d) R, S 61. ‘‘If you are looking for a history of India, or for an
account of the rise and fall of the British Raj, or
GENERAL APTITUDE (GA) for the reason of the cleaving of the subcontinent
into two mutually antagonistic parts and the
(Q.56 – 60) : Carry One Mark Each
effects this mutilation will have in the respective
56. She has a sharp tongue and it can occasionally sections, and ultimately on Asia, you will not find
turn___________ it in these pages; for though I have spent a
(a) hurtful lifetime in the country. I lived too near the seat
(b) left of events, and was too intimately associated with
the actors, to get the perspective needed for the
(c) methodical
impartial recording of these matters’’.
(d) vital
Here, the word ‘antagonistic’ is closest in meaning
57. I ___________ made arrangements had I _______ to
informed earlier.
(a) impartial (b) argumentative
(a) could have, been
(c) separated (d) hostile
(b) would have, being
62. S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z are seated around a
(c) had, have circular table. T's neighbours are Y and V. Z is
(d) had been, been seated third to the left of T and second to the
58. In the summer, water consumption is known to right of S. U's neighbours are S and Y; and T and
decrease overall by 25%. A Water Board official W are not seated opposite each other. Who is third
states that in the summer household consumption to the left of V?
decreases by 20%, while other consumption (a) X (b) W
increases by 70%. (c) U (d) T
Which of the following statements is correct? 63. Trucks (10 m long) and cars (5 m long) go on a
(a) The ratio of household to other consumption single lane bridge. There must be a gap of at least
is 8/17 20 m after each truck and a gap of at least 15 m
(b) The ratio of household to other consumption after each car. Trucks and cars travel at a speed
is 1/17 of 36 km/h. If cars and trucks go alternately, what
is the maximum number of vehicles that can use
(c) The ratio of household to other consumption
the bridge in one hour?
is 17/8
(a) 1440 (b) 1200
(d) There are errors in the official's statement.
(c) 720 (d) 600
64. There are 3 Indians and 3 Chinese in a group of 6 65. A contour line joins locations having the same
people. How many subgroups of this group can height above the mean sea level. The following
we choose so that every subgroup has at least is a contour plot of a geographical region. Contour
one Indian? lines are shown at 25 m intervals in this plot.
(a) 56
(b) 52
(c) 48
(d) 44
The path from P to Q is best described by

(a) Up-Down-Up-Down
(b) Down-Up-Down-Up
(c) Down-Up-Down
(d) Up-Down-Up
ANSWERS
Technical Section
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (3.10 to 3.20) 5. (0.68 to 0.70)
6. (1 to 1) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (3 to 3) 15. (c)
16. (1 to 1) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (0.85 to 0.95) 23. (b) 24. (100 to 100) 25. (1.35 to 1.42)
26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (90 to 90) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (3.50 to 3.70) 34. (78 to 82) 35. (7.00 to 7.40)
36. (c) 37. (4 to 4) 38. (a) 39. (0.13 to 0.17) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (c)
46. (52.00 to 54.00) 47. (1 to 1) 48. (a) 49. (100 to 100) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (3.90 to 4.10) 53. (1600 to 1600) 54. (345 to 345) 55. (c)
56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (b) 61. (d) 62. (a)
63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
1. The activation energy is the energy required to 6. We know that
start a reaction. Enzymes are proteins that bind
to a molecule, or substrate, to modify it and lower x3 x
sin (x) = x –  ......
the energy required to make it react. The rate of 3! 5!
reaction is given by the Arrhenius equation.
2. The 20 standard amino acids have two acid-base  x2 x4 x6 
or sin (x) = x 1 –    ......
gorups: the alpha-amino and the alpha-carboxyl  3! 5! 7! 
groups attached to the C atom. Those amino acids
with an ionizable side-chain (Asp, Glu, Arg, Lys, x x 2 x 4 x6 
sin( x) lim 1 –    ......
His, Cys,Tyr) have an additional acid-base group. or lim = x 0 x  3! 5! 7!
At low pH (i.e. high hydrogen ion concentration)
x 0 x  
both the amino group and the carboxyl group are
fully protonated so that the amino acid is in the sin( x)  x 2 x4 x6 
or lim lim
= x 0 1 –    ......
cationic form H3N + CH2COOH. As the amino acid x 0 x  3! 5! 7! 
in solution is titrated with increasing amounts of
a strong base (e.g. NaOH), it loses two protons,first Applying limit
from the amino group which has the higher
sin x
pK value (pK=9.6). The pH at which Gly has no = lim 1
x 0 x
net charge is termed its isoelectric point, pI. The
-carboxyl gorups of all the 20 standard amino 7. Antigenic variation refers to the mechanism by
acids have pK values in the range 1.8-2.9, while which an infectious agent such as a protozoan,
their -amino groups have pK values in the range bacterium or virus alters its surface proteins in
8.8-10.8. The side-chains of the acidic amino acids order to evade a host immune response. It is
Asp and Glu have pK values of 3.9 and 4.1, related to phase variation. Immune evasion is
respectively, whereas those of the basic amino particularly important for organisms that target
acids Arg and Lys, have pK values of 12.5 and long-lived hosts, repeatedly infect a single host
10.8, respectively. Only the side-chain of His,with and are easily transmittable. Antigenic variation
a pK value of 6.0, is ionized within the not only enables immune evasion by the pathogen,
physiological pH range (6-8). It should be borne but also allows the microbes to cause re-infection,
in mind that when the amino acid are linked as their antigens are no longer recognized by the
together in proteins, only the side-chain groups host's immune system. When an organism is
and the terminal -amino and -carboxyl gorups exposed to a particular antigen (i.e. a protein on
are free to ionize. the surface of a bacterium) an immune response
3. Certain bacteria can be used as indicator is stimulated and antibodies are generated to
organisms in particular situations. The presence target that specific antigen.
of bacteria commonly found in human feces, 8. The presence of uracil shows that it is RNA and
termed coliform bacteria (e.g. E. coli), in surface the base composition is unequal, hence it must
water, is a common indicator of fecal be single stranded RNA.
contamination. For this reason, sanitation 9. NMR spectroscopy is usually limited to proteins
programs often test water for the presence of smaller than 35 kDa, although larger structures
these organisms to ensure that drinking water have been solved. NMR spectroscopy is often the
systems are not contaminated with feces. only way to obtain high resolution information
4. Surface area of sphere = 4r2 on partially or wholly intrinsically unstructured
Given r = 0.5 mt proteins.
Then S, Area = 4 (0.5)² = 3.14 m² NMR is well suited for determining the atomic-
resolution structures of proteins. It is possible to
Distance traveled by test compound obtain a separate signal for each atom in a protein.
5. Rf =
Distance travelled by solvent Not only can these signals be assigned to specific
12.5 sites, but also they can be characterized by
Rf = = 0.69 cm frequencies that provide both distance and
18
orientation constraints as input for structure
determination. The potential for determining the 12. ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) is
structures of proteins with NMR spectroscopy has a plate-based assay technique designed for
always been recognized, 6,7 and for globular detecting and quantifying substances such as
proteins that reorient rapidly in solution, the peptides, proteins, antibodies, and hormones.
sample conditions, instrumentation, experiments, Other names, such as enzyme immunoassay
and calculations that lead to structure (EIA), are also used to describe the same
determination are now well established and technology. In an ELISA, an antigen must be
widely employed. However, the Achilles' heel of immobilized to a solid surface and then complexed
high-resolution NMR spectroscopy-the correlation with an antibody that is linked to an enzyme.
time problem-has severely limited its applications Detection is accomplished by assessing the
to proteins in supramolecular assemblies, conjugated enzyme activity via incubation with a
especially membrane proteins with their substrate to produce a product that can be
associated lipids. measured. The most crucial element of the
10. Gram-negative bacteria display these detection strategy is a highly specific antibody-
characteristics: An inner cell membrane is antigen interaction.
present (cytoplasmic). A thin peptidoglycan layer This test can be used to determine if you have
is present (This is much thicker in gram-positive antibodies related to certain infectious conditions.
bacteria). Has outer membrane containing Antibodies are proteins that your body produces
lipopolysaccharides (LPS, which consists of lipid in response to harmful substances called antigens.
A, core polysaccharide, and O antigen) in its outer 13. A number of important pathogens live within
leaflet and phospholipids in the inner leaflet. macrophages, whereas many others are ingested
Porins exist in the outer membrane, which act by macrophages from the extracellular fluid. In
like pores for particular molecules. Between the many cases, the macrophage is able to destroy
outer membrane and the cytoplasmic membrane such pathogens without the need for T-cell
there is a space filled with a concentrated gel- activation, but in several clinically important
like substance called periplasm. infections CD4 T cells are needed to provide
Gram staining differentiates bacteria by the activating signals for macrophages. The induction
chemical and physical properties of their cell walls of antimicrobial mechanisms in macrophages is
by detecting peptidoglycan, which is present in known as macrophage activation and is the
the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria. principal effector action of TH1 cells. Among the
Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet extracellular pathogens that are killed when
dye, and thus are stained violet, while the Gram- macrophages are activated is Pneumocystis
negative bacteria do not; after washing, a carinii, which, because of a deficiency of CD4 T
counterstain is added (commonly safranin or cells, is a common cause of death in people with
fuchsine) that will stain these Gram-negative AIDS. Macrophage activation can be measured
bacteria a pink color. Both Gram-positive bacteria by the ability of activated macrophages to damage
and Gram-negative bacteria pick up the a broad spectrum of microbes as well as certain
counterstain. The counterstain, however, is tumor cells. This ability to act on extracellular
unseen on Gram-positive bacteria because of the targets extends to healthy self cells, which means
darker crystal violet stain. that macrophages must normally be maintained
11. Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA, 3-IAA) is the most in a nonactivated state.
common, naturally occurring, plant hormone of 14. The numbr of ways in which disulfide bond formed
the auxin class. It is the best known of the auxins, is given by
and has been the subject of extensive studies by
plant physiologists. IAA is predominantly n!
i =
produced in cells of the apex (bud) and very young (n  2 p)! p!2 p
leaves of a plant. Plants can synthesize IAA by
i = no. of way in which disulfide formed
several independent biosynthetic pathways. Four
of them start from tryptophan, but there is also a n = no. of cysteine present = 4
biosynthetic pathway independent of tryptophan. p = no. of disulfide bonds that are formed = 2
Plants mainly produce IAA from tryptophan
through indole-3-pyruvic acid. IAA is also 4!
then, i =
produced from tryptophan through indole-3- (4  2  2)! 2!  22
acetaldoxime in Arabidopsis thaliana.
cycloheximide, chloramphenicol, tetracycline,

4  3 2 1
i = =3 streptomycin, erythromycin, puromycin, etc.
1 21 4
18. Cytochalasins are fungal metabolites that have
i = 3 i.e. the ability to bind to actin filaments and block
No. of ways = 3 polymerization and the elongation of actin. As a
15. Golgi apparatus is a major collection and dispatch result of the inhibition of actin polymerization,
station of protein products received from the cytochalasins can change cellular morphology,
endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Proteins synthesized inhibit cellular processes such as cell division, and
in the ER are packaged into vesicles, which then even cause cells to undergo apoptosis.
fuse with the Golgi apparatus. These cargo Cytochalasins have the ability to permeate cell
proteins are modified and destined for secretion membranes, prevent cellular translocation and
via exocytosis or for use in the cell. In this respect, cause cells to enucleate. Cytochalasins can also
the Golgi can be thought of as similar to a post have an effect on other aspects of biological
office: it packages and labels items which it then processes unrelated to actin polymerization. For
sends to different parts of the cell or to the example, cytochalasin A and cytochalasin B can
extracellular space. The Golgi apparatus is also also inhibit the transport of monosaccharides
involved in lipid transport and lysosome across the cell membrane, cytochalasin H has
formation. been found to regulate plant growth, cytochalasin
D inhibits protein synthesis and cytochalasin E
d2 y dy prevents angiogenesis.
16. As 2 = 0 & =0
dx dx 19. Duplications of oncogenes are a common cause
so the given point is inflection point as well of many types of cancer. In such cases the genetic
as stationary point with constant function duplication occurs in a somatic cell and affects
value = 1 for all value of x. So the function value only the genome of the cancer cells themselves,
y is constant and = 1 for all values of x. not the entire organism, much less any
subsequent offspring. Southern transfer may be
17. The synthesis of proteins from RNA is known as
used for homology-based cloning on the basis of
translation. In eukaryotes, translation occurs in
amino acid sequence of the protein product of the
the cytoplasm, where the ribosomes are located.
target gene. Oligonucleotides are designed that
Translation proceeds in four phases: activation,
are similar to the target sequence. The
initiation, elongation, and termination (all
oligonucleotides are chemically synthesised,
describing the growth of the amino acid chain, or
radiolabeled, and used to screen a DNA library,
polypeptide that is the product of translation). In
or other collections of cloned DNA fragments.
activation, the correct amino acid (AA) is joined
Sequences that hybridize with the hybridization
to the correct transfer RNA (tRNA). While this is
probe are further analysed, for example, to obtain
not, in the technical sense, a step in translation,
the full length sequence of the targeted gene.
it is required for translation to proceed. The AA
is joined by its carboxyl group to the 3' OH of the Southern blotting can also be used to identify
tRNA by an ester bond. When the tRNA has an methylated sites in particular genes. Particularly
amino acid linked to it, it is termed "charged". useful are the restriction nucleases MspI and
Initiation involves the small subunit of the HpaII, both of which recognize and cleave within
ribosome binding to 5' end of mRNA with the help the same sequence. However, HpaII requires that
of initiation factors (IF), other proteins that assist a C within that site be methylated, whereas MspI
the process. Elongation occurs when the next cleaves only DNA unmethylated at that site.
aminoacyl-tRNA (charged tRNA) in line binds to Therefore, any methylated sites within a sequence
the ribosome along with GTP and an elongation analyzed with a particular probe will be cleaved
factor. Termination of the polypeptide happens by the former, but not the latter, enzyme.
when the A site of the ribosome faces a stop codon 20. PCR reaction components include purified nucleic
(UAA, UAG, or UGA). When this happens, no acid template, deoxyribonucleotides (dNTPs),
tRNA can recognize it, but releasing factor can oligonucleotide primers and DNA polymerase.
recognize nonsense codons and causes the release Nucleic acid purification and quality assessment
of the polypeptide chain. The capacity of disabling are important steps in the PCR experimental
or inhibiting translation in protein biosynthesis workflow. It is important to use proper techniques
is used by some antibiotics such as anisomycin, to isolate and purify nucleic acids from starting
material because this step can affect amplification 4

reactions. 25. S = –  pi ln pi
i 1
DNA polymerases catalyze the addition of dNTPs
to an elongating DNA strand by adding bases where pi = 0.25
complementary to the template strand. The S = 4  (0.25)  (–2) ln 2
identification of thermostable DNA polymerases
and subsequent modifications of these enzymes
n  m ln ]
[ ln m n
have played critical roles in the advancement and
widespread adoption of PCR. The following 25
section provides detailed information about DNA = 4  2  (0.69)
100
polymerases commonly used in PCR.
= 2 × 0.69
21. Km has dimensions of concentration. It is the
concentration at which the rate is half- = 1.38
maximum, i.e., the rate is Vmax/2. Vmax is a Hence start site is = 1.38
rate and has dimensions of concentration/time. 26. As we are adding ammonium sulphate, It will bind
Vmax is directly proportional to enzyme the free protein and precipitate thus the amount
concentration [E] so if [E] is varied Vmax will of free protein will decrease which can be
vary in tandem. This will not affect Km which represented by graph (A).
remains the substrate concentration at which
27. = + 5 i.e. [ < ]
the rate is exactly Vmax/2. Looking at a [V] vs. 2 2
[S] graph, you derive the km as 1/2 of Vmax. ( xi  x )

Conceptually, what does this mean to you? To Now, S.D.() =
n
me, it means that it's the minimum number of
[S] that requires an enyzme to work at half So for follow up exam ( xi  x ) 2 = same as
capacity. Thus, you would think that a lower [S]
previous exam
would mean at a certain 1/2 Vmax would be
better. This indicates greater affinity for a Hence
substrate. Km is not affected by [E] because it is New xi = xi + 5
an innate quality of the enzyme itself. It is and New x = x  5
looking at the concentration where an enzyme
can work at 1/2Vmax. Increasing [E] only Therefore  = 2
increases turnover rate assuming it is not Hence answer will be D i.e. < 2
;  = 2
already at saturation. In no way does Km should
change when it's an inherent quality of the 28. x = 1, 1,2 , y  2, 1,1.5
enzyme itself. x. y = (1  2)  (1  1)  (2  1.5)
Then
22. Rate of consumption of substrate
x. y = 0
= s  Dilution rate, D
xy
0.2 but cos =  x   y  = 0
= (25  2.5) 
5
Then  = cos–1 0 = 90
= 0.9
29. (P) p53  Function as tumor suppression by
23. The Dominant base :
Apoptosis
AGTCA CNTGC
(Q) Lysozyme  Affecting peptidoglycans and
Total genome size hydrolyzing the polysaccharides
24. Time taken = (R) Tubulins  Kill cancerous cells by inhibiting
Average synthesis rate
microtubule dynamics which are required for
6  106 DNA (chromosome) segregation and therefore
= cell division.
1000
(S) Histones  are highly alkaline proteins that
= 6000 sec
package and order the DNA into structural
or 100 minutes. units.
30. For  - helix, the molar ellipticity is minimum at 36. Agrobacterium tumefaciens (updated scientific
208 nm and 222 nm. name Rhizobium radiobacter, synonym
For  - sheet, the molar ellipticity is minimum at Agrobacterium radiobacter) is the causal agent
around 218 nm of crown gall disease (the formation of tumours)
in over 140 species of eudicots. It is a rod-shaped,
For disordered (random) coil, the molar ellipticity
Gram-negative soil bacterium. Symptoms are
is minimum at around 202 nm.
caused by the insertion of a small segment of DNA
Therefore the correct combination will be (A) i.e., (known as the T-DNA, for 'transfer DNA', not to
P :  - helix, Q :  - sheet and R : Random coil. be confused with tRNA that transfers amino
31. (P) Methanococcus  Can withstand high acids during protein synthesis, confusingly also
pressure, also called as piezophile or Barophile called transfer RNA), from a plasmid, into the
plant cell, which is incorporated at a semi-ran-
(Q) Dunaliella  Can tolerate very high salt
dom location into the plant genome.
concentration also known as Halophile
(R) Sulfolobus  Can grow in pH between 1 2   x   c 
2 – 3. Hence termed as Acidophile 37.    =  
1 2   y  4 
(S) Escherichia  Can grow in moderate
temperature hence termed as mesophile.  x  2 y  c 
32. Lysine contains an -amino group (which is in   = 
 x  2 y 4 
the protonated-NH 3 + form under biological
conditions), an -carboxylic acid group (which is  x + 2y = c
in the deprotonated –COO– form under biological x + 2y = 4
conditions), and a side chain lysyl ((CH2)4NH2), For infinite number of solutions both equations
classifying it as a charged (at physiological pH), will be equal.
aliphatic amino acid. Lysine has three ionizable Hence c = 4
functional groups with the following pKa values:
38. (P) Gibberellic acid  used for increase in cell
-amino group = 9.04, -carboxylic group = 2.17,
growth of plants.
R group = 12.48.
(Q) Zeatin used for retarding the yellowing of
33. Volume of cylinder = V = r2h
plants.
Total volume of number of cylinders
(R) Ethylene used in trace amount to help in
 fruit ripening.
Vtotal = v = v + v
i 1
i
1 2
+ v3 + ....... (S) Abscisic acid  Also known as Dormin or
Dormic acid. It is a plant hormone and has
many functions like seed and bud dormancy.
= [ .(1)2  1  (0.5) 2  0.5
39. O.D. reading  growth of culture
(.25)2  0.25  ....]  OD
Growth rate =
= 3.14(1 + 0.125 + 0.015625 + ...)  Time
vtotal = 3.582
34. As per Bear’s law 0.6 – 0.3
= = 0.15 hr –1
A = lc 4–2
A 0.50 Hence growth rate of E. coli per hour = 0.15.
or c= 
 l 6220  1 40. The bacterial load will increase till the triger of
c = 80.4 × 10–6 M immune response of immune competent person.
Once the immune response started then bacterial
or Concentration = 80.4 m
load will starts decreasing. It can be represented
 by graph (B).
Vtotal = v = v + v
i 1
i
1 2
+ v3 + ....... 41. The cell cycle consists of four distinct phases: G1
(Gap1) phase, S phase (synthesis), G2 (Gap2) phase
35. No. of fold purification (collectively known as interphase) and M phase
(mitosis). M (mitosis) phase is itself composed of
68 two tightly coupled processes: mitosis, in which
=  7.16
9.5
the cell's chromosomes are divided between the

1 ax
two daughter cells, and cytokinesis, in which the
cell's cytoplasm divides in half forming distinct
Because  e ax dx 
a
e
cells. Activation of each phase is dependent on Then

the proper progression and completion of the 
=  – e
–0.5 x 
previous one. Cells that have temporarily or 0
reversibly stopped dividing are said to have
entered a state of quiescence called G0 phase. = [– e –   e –0 ]
The first phase of interphase is G1 phase, from
=0 + 1 = 1
the end of the previous Mitosis phase until the
beginning of DNA replication is called G1 (G dx  x
indicating gap). It is also called the growth phase. 48. = rx  1 – 
dt  k 
During this phase the biosynthetic activities of
the cell, which had been considerably slowed down dx rx
during M phase, resume at a high rate. This phase  = ( k – x)
dt k
is marked by synthesis of various enzymes that
are required in S phase, mainly those needed for 1 dx r
DNA replication. Duration of G1 is highly variable, or = ( k – x)
x dt k
even among different cells of the same species.
42. Addition of about 1 – 5% glucose to the growth dx r
medium will reduce the T7 expression i.e. leaky or = dt
x( k – x) k
expression. Hence option (c) is correct.
43. When two copies of the insert molecule are in dx
tandem the distance between two XhOI sites is But = k[log x – log( k – x)]
x( k – x)
1kb leading to appearance of 1 kb band. When
this molecule is digested with BamHI the two x
= k log
tandem inserts of  kb each appear as a single ( k – x)
band. In XhOI digest 0.3kb fragment of one insert
Then
molecule and 0.7 kb of other insert molecule add
to the vector size which appears as 6kb fragment x r r
in XhOI digest. k log = dt  t
( k – x) k k
44. The options (A), (B) & (C) are palindromic
sequences D is non palindromic hence D is correct x rt
answer.  log = 2
( k – x) k
45. C option is correct because (i) Can’t be X-linked
dominant as females in F1 and F2 are not affected. rt
x
 ek
2
(ii) It can’t be X-linked recessive as it is never or x=
( k – x)
passed from father to son (iii) only males are
affected. It is passed from father to all sons. It
does not skip generations. Hence inheritable rt
2
disease reflecting in pedigree is only Y linked. ke k
or x=
46. Mol. weight of CH1.5O0.3N0.3S0.004 = 22.628  
 rt

 1  e k2

12  
% Mass of carbon =  100 = 53.03
22.628
This equation can be expressed by the graph (A)

 0.5 e–0.5 x dx i.e. exponential.
47.
0 49. For zero order reaction
 kt = CAO
 1 –0.5 x 
=  – (0.5)  e 
 0.5 0
The r–12 term is repulsive term which is applicable

C 0.1
or t = AO  –3 for r < a, describe the repulsion at short range
k 10 due to overlapping of electron radius. While r–6
t = 100 minutes is attractive term when r  a, which describes
the attraction at long ranges but the force of
51. In a partial digest not all sites are targeted by a
attraction is of either vander walls or dispersion
restriction enzyme.
force.
Therefore all possible sized frequents are
52. Circumference of sphere is = 2r
generated
Then
8 kb.
2r = 25 nm
5 kb
Then
2 kb
25
r=  3.98 nm
2
0 kb 2 kb 4 kb 7 kb 10 kb
r = 3.98 nm
2 kb 53. The number of free phage particles released after
4 kb one round of infection is
7 kb 80  1
=  100
10 kb (4  1)
3 kb = 1600
6 kb 54. C6H12O6 = 180 & CH3CH2OH = 46
3 kb 1800 gm glucose = 10 mole glucose
The lengths (in kb) of all possible In 1 mole of glucose = 6 mole carbon
DNA fragments are In 10 mole glucose = 60 mole carbon
2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 10  60 mole carbon gives
50. The given plot () is a plot for Lennard Jones (L-J) = 60 × 0.25 C mole R
potential which is givenby following equation = 15 C mole R
  12  
6
Now one C mole R contains 2 carbon atoms as in
VLJ = 4        formula of ethanol i.e CH3CH2OH
 r   r  
 r 12 15
r  
6
And VLJ =   m   2  m   Now 15 C mole R = mole ethanol

2
 r   r  
1 mole of ethanol contains 2 C mole or R
 a 12  a 
6
Then
As vm = a, so that VLJ =     2   
 r   r   7.5 mole ethanol = 7.5 × 46 gm ethanol
= 345 gm ethanol
55. The human immune system typically produces
both T-cells and B-cells that are capable of being
E(t) or V/ reactive with self-antigens, but these self-reactive
cells are usually either killed prior to becoming
active within the immune system, placed into a
state of energy (silently removed from their role
where, r = Distance between the particles within the immune system due to over-
 = Depth of the potential well activation), or removed from their role within the
immune system by regulatory cells. When any
 = finite distance at which the inter
one of these mechanisms fail, it is possible to have
particle potential is zero.
a reservoir of self-reactive cells that become
For given plot rm = a = is the distance at which functional within the immune system. The
the potential reaches its minimum. mechanisms of preventing self-reactive T-cells
At ‘a' the potential function has value – .
from being created takes place through Negative 63. Total distance travelled in 1 hr = 36 km = 36000 mt
selection process within the thymus as the T-cell Total distance cover by 1 set of vehicles (i.e car +
is developing into a mature immune cell. trcuk)
Autoimmunity, on the other hand, is the presence = 5 + 15 + 10 + 20 = 50 mt
of self-reactive immune response (e.g., auto-
Then No. of sets of vehicles can pass through the
antibodies, self-reactive T-cells), with or without
bridge
damage or pathology resulting from it. This may
be restricted to certain organs (e.g. in 36000
autoimmune thyroiditis) or involve a particular = = 720 sets of vehicles
50
tissue in different places (e.g. Goodpasture's
disease which may affect the basement But 1 set of vehicle = 1 car + 1 truck so Total no. of
membrane in both the lung and the kidney). vehicles can use bridge = 720 × 2 = 1440 vehicles.
56. She has a sharp tongue and it can occasionally 64. Total number of sub-groups which can be choose
turn hurtful. with at least one Indian in following ways:
57. I could have made arrangements had I been (6c1 + 6c2 + 6c3 + 6c4 + 6c5 + 6c6) – (3c1 + 3c2 + 3c3 – 1)
informed earlier. (6 + 15 + 20 + 15 + 6 + 1) – (3 + 3 + 1 – 1)
58. There are errors in the official's statement. 65. P is at 575 mt contour line height Q is at 525 mt
59. 360 × 40/100 = 144 contour line height. Now path from P to Q as
shown in plot follows the following contour line
60. At least one shelf is a bench.
height.
61. The word antagonistic is closest in meaning to
575  550  525  500  475  500  525  550  575  550  525
hostile.
P Q
62. X is third to the left of V Down UP Down
So the path from P to Q is best describe by

Down-up-down.
SOLVED PAPER 2018
INSTRUCTIONS
2 SOLVED PAPER 2018
8. To pass a test, a candidate needs to answer at

GENERAL APTITUDE
least 2 out of 3 questions correctly. A total of
1. “When she fell down the ______, she received 6,30,000 candidates appeared for the test.
many ______but little help.” The words that best Question A was correctly answered by 3,30,000
fill the blanks in the above sentence are candidates. Question B was answered correctly
(a) stairs, stares (b) stairs, stairs by 2,50,000 candidates. Question C was answered
(c) stares, stairs (d) stares, stares correctly by 2,60,000 candidates. Both questions
A and B were answered correctly by 1,00,000
2. “In spite of being warned repeatedly, he failed to
candidates. Both questions B and C were
correct his ______ behaviour.” The word that best
answered correctly by 90,000 candidates. Both
fills the blank in the above sentence is
questions A and C were answered correctly by
(a) rational (b) reasonable 80,000 candidates. If the number of students
(c) errant (d) good answering all questions correctly is the same as
3. For 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π, sin x and cos x are both decreasing the number answering none, how many
functions in the interval ______. candidates failed to clear the test?
(a) 30,000 (b) 2,70,000
⎛ π⎞ ⎛π ⎞
(a) ⎜⎝ 0, ⎟⎠ (b) ⎜⎝ , π⎟⎠ (c) 3,90,000 (d) 4,20,000
2 2
1
⎛ 3π ⎞ ⎛ 3π ⎞ 9. If x2 + x – 1 = 0 what is the value of x 4 + ?
(c) ⎜⎝ π, ⎟⎠ (d) ⎜⎝ , 2π⎟⎠ x4
2 2
(a) 1 (b) 5
4. The area of an equilateral triangle is 3. What
(c) 7 (d) 9
is the perimeter of the triangle?
10. In a detailed study of annual crow births in India,
(a) 2 (b) 4
it was found that there was relatively no growth
(c) 6 (d) 8 during the period 2002 to 2004 and a sudden spike
5. Arrange the following three-dimensional objects from 2004 to 2005. In another unrelated study, it
in the descending order of their volumes: was found that the revenue from cracker sales in
(i) A cuboid with dimensions 10 cm, 8 cm and India which remained fairly flat from 2002 to
6 cm 2004, saw a sudden spike in 2005 before declining
again in 2006. The solid line in the graph below
(ii) A cube of side 8 cm refers to annual sale of crackers and the dashed
(iii) A cylinder with base radius 7 cm and height line refers to the annual crow births in India.
7 cm Choose the most appropriate inference from the
(iv) A sphere of radius 7 cm above data.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Annual sate of crackers in India
(c) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) (d) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Annual crow births in India
6. An automobile travels from city A to city B and

returns to city A by the same route. The speed of
the vehicle during the onward and return journeys
were constant at 60 km/h and 90 km/h,
respectively. What is the average speed in km/h
for the entire journey?
(a) 72 (b) 73
(c) 74 (d) 75 2001 2003 2005 2007
7. A set of 4 parallel lines intersect with another set (a) There is a strong correlation between crow
of 5 parallel lines. How many parallelograms are birth and cracker sales.
formed? (b) Cracker usage increases crow birth rate.
(a) 20 (c) If cracker sale declines, crow birth will decline.
(b) 48 (d) Increased birth rate of crows will cause an
(c) 60 increase in the sale of crackers.
(d) 72
SOLVED PAPER 2018 3
BIOTECHNOLOGY (a) P, Q, R
(b) R, Q, P
1. Consider an unfair coin. The probability of getting
heads is 0.6. If you toss this coin twice, what is (c) Q, R, P
the probability that the first or the second toss is (d) P, Q and R elute together
heads? 9. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about
(a) 0.56 (b) 0.64 protein structures?
(c) 0.84 (d) 0.96 (a) A protein fold is stabilized by favorable non-
2. If serum is removed from the growth medium of covalent interactions
human embryonic kidney cell line (HEK), then (b) All parts of a fold can be classified as helices,
the cells will strands or turns
(a) proliferate faster (c) Two non-covalent atoms cannot be closer than
(b) proliferate normally the sum of their van der Waals radii
(c) undergo cell cycle arrest (d) The peptide bond is nearly planar
(d) undergo immediate apoptosis 10. Which one of the following metabolic processes
3. The repeat sequence of telomere in humans is in mammalian cells does NOT occur in the
(a) 5′-TATAAT-3′ (b) 5′-TTAGGG-3′ mitochondria?
(c) 5′-GGGCCC-3′ (d) 5′-AAAAAA-3′ (a) Citric acid cycle
4. If a segment a of sense stand of DNA is (b) Oxidative phosphorylation
5′-ATGGACCAGA-3′, then the resulting RNA (c) Fatty acid β-oxidation
sequence after transcription is
(d) Glycolysis
(a) 5′-AGACCAGGTA-3′
11. Which one of the following is NOT A principal
(b) 5′-UCUGGUCCAU-3′
component of innate immunity?
(c) 5′-UACCUGGUCU-3′
(a) Mucosal epithelia
(d) 5′-AUGGACCAGA-3′
(b) Dendritic cells
5. Which one of the following is an example of a
(c) Complement system
neurotoxin?
(a) Cholera toxin (c) Streptolysin-O (d) Memory B-cells
(c) Botulinum toxin (d) Diphtheria toxin 12. Which of the following technique(s) can be used
to study conformational changes in myoglobin?
6. Which of the following components constitute a
molecular mechanics force field? P. Mass spectrometry
P. Bond stretching Q. Fluorescence spectroscopy
Q. Bond angle bending R. Circular dichroism spectroscopy
R. Torsional bond rotation S. Light microscopy
S. Non-bonded interactions (a) P only (b) P and S only
(a) P and Q only (b) P, Q and R only (c) Q and R only (d) S only
(c) P, Q and S only (d) P, Q, R and S 13. Which one of the following bioreactor configurations
7. Which one of the following BLAST search programs is the basis for a trickling biological filter?
is used to identify homologous of an genomic DNA (a) Stirred tank (b) Packed bed
query in a protein sequence database?
(c) Air lift (d) Fluidized bed
(a) blastp (b) blastn
14. Cell type A secretes molecule X into the culture
(c) blastx (d) tblastn medium. Cell type B in the same culture responds
8. A mixture contains three similarly sized peptides to the molecule X by expressing protein Y. Which
P, Q and R. The peptide P is positively charged, Q one of the following modes of signaling represents
is weakly negative and R is strongly negative. If the interaction between A and B?
this mixture is passed through an ion-exchange
(a) Autocrine (b) Juxtacrine
chromatography column containing an anionic
resin, their order of elution will be (c) Paracrine (d) Intracrine
4 SOLVED PAPER 2018
15. Which one of the following statements is true for 23. The absorbance of a solution of tryptophan
actin? measured at 280 nm in a cuvette of 2.0 cm path
(a) Actin filament is structurally polarized and the length is 0.56 at pH 7. The molar extinction
two ends are not identical coefficient (ε) for tryptophan at 280 nm is 5600
M–1 cm–1 at pH 7. The concentration of tryptophan
(b) De novo actin polymerization is a single-step
(in μM) in the solution is ______.
process
24. A single stem cell undergoes 10 asymmetric cell
(c) The pointed end of the actin filaments is the
divisions. The number of stem cells at the end is
fast growing end
______.
(d) Actin forms spindle fibres during mitosis
25. Genomic DNA isolated from a bacterium was
16. Standard error is digested with a restriction enzyme that recognizes
(a) the probability of a type I error in a statistical a 6-base pair (bp) sequence. Assuming random
test distribution of bases, the average length (in bp)
(b) the error in estimating a sample standard of the fragments generated is ______.
deviation 26. In leguminous plants, both the rhizobium genes
(c) the standard deviation of a variable that and the plant genes influence nodulation and
follows standard normal distribution nitrogen fixation. Which one of the following
(d) the standard deviation of distribution of sample functions is NOT encoded by the host plant
means genes?
17. Which one of the following techniques is used to (a) Production of inducers that modify rhizobial
monitor RNA transcripts, both temporally and cell wall
spatially? (b) Production of flavonoid inducers
(a) Northern blotting (c) Establishment of contact between bacteria and
(b) In situ hybridization legume
(c) Southern blotting (d) Root hair curling
(d) Western blotting 27. Which of the following cytokines are endogenous
pyrogens?
18. Identify the character based method(s) used for
the construction of a phylogenetic tree. P. Tumor necrosis factor-α
P. Maximum parsimony Q. Interleukin-I
Q. Neighbor joining R. Transforming growth factor-β
R. Maximum likelihood S. Interleukin-10
S. Bootstrapping (a) P and Q only (b) P and R only
(a) Q only (b) P and R only (c) R and S only (d) Q and S only
(c) Q and S only (d) S only 28. Match the classes of RNA molecules in Group I
with their functions in Group II.
19. Which one of the following is the solution for
cos2x + 2cosx 1 = 0, for values of x in the range of Group I Group II
0 + < x < 360°? P. snoRNA 1. Protects germline from
(a) 45° (b) 90° transposable elements
(c) 180° (d) 270° Q. piRNA 2. Blocks translation of selected

mRNA
20. Which one of the following plant secondary
metabolites is a natural insecticide? R. miRNA 3. Template for telomere
elongation
(a) Digitoxin (b) Pyrethrin
S. snRNA 4. Modification and processing
(c) Salicyclic acid (d) Avenacin A-1 of rRNA
⎛ 4 −6⎞ 5. Splicing of RNA transcripts
21. The determinant of the matrix ⎜ is _____.
⎝ −3 2 ⎟⎠ (a) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-4
22. The variable z has a standard normal distribution. (b) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5
If P(0 ≤ z ≤1) = 0.34, then P(z2 > 1) is equal to (up (c) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-2
to two decimal places) ______.
(d) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5
SOLVED PAPER 2018 5
29. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the 33. Which one of the following statements is true
following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r] with regard to processing and presentation of
Assertion : Ab initio gene finding algorithms that protein antigens?
predict protein coding genes in eukaryotic (a) In the class II MHC pathway, protein antigens
genomes are not completely accurate. in the cytosol are processed by proteasomes
Reason : Eukaryotic slice sites are difficult to (b) In the class I MHC pathway, extacellular
predict. protein antigens are endocytosed into vesicles
and processed
(a) Both [a] and [r] are false
(c) In the class I MHC pathway, transporter
(b) [a] is true but [r] is false associated antigen processing (TAP) protein
(c) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct is required for translocating processed
reason for [a] peptides generated in the cytosol
(d) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the (d) Invariant chain in endoplasmic reticulum is
correct reason for [a] involved in transport of peptides and loading
30. Which one of the following amino acids is of class I MHC
catalyzed by activated macrophages to produce 34. Which of the following are true about bacterial
reactive nitrogen species? superoxide dismutase?
(a) Arginine (b) Asparagine P. Present in obligate aerobes
(c) Cysteine (d) Histidine Q. Present in facultative aerobes
31. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the R. Present in aerotolerant anaerobes
following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r] S. Absent in obligate aerobes
Assertion : The association constant in water (a) P and Q only (b) P, Q and R only
for the G-C base pair is three times lower than (c) P and R only (d) Q and S only
that for the A-T base pair. 35. Which of the following are true with regard to
Reason : There are three hydrogen bonds in the anaerobic respiration in bacteria?
G-C base pair and two in the A-T base pair. P. The final electron acceptor is an inorganic
(a) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct substance other than molecular oxygen
reason for [a] Q. The number of ATP molecules produced per
(b) [a] is false but [r] is true glucose molecule is more than that produced
in aerobic respiration
(c) Both [a] and [r] are false
R. The number of ATP molecules produced per
(d) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the
glucose molecule is less than that produced
32. Which one of the combinations of the following
S. Only substrate level phosphorylation is used
statements is true about antibody structure? to generate ATP
P. Limited proteolysis of rabbit IgG with the (a) P and S only (b) Q and S only
enzyme pepsin generates two antigen-binding
(c) P and R only (d) P, Q and S only
regions (Fab) and an Fc fragment
36. Shear stress versus shear rate behaviour of four
Q. Limited proteolysis of rabbit IgG with the
different types of fluids (I, II, III and IV) are shown
enzyme papain generates a single bivalent
in the figure below.
antigen-binding region F(ab′)2 and peptide
fragments II
R. The Fc fragment of IgG can self-associate and
crystallize into a lattice
Shear stress (Nm )
–2
S. The F(ab′)2 fragment of IgG is composed of IV

both light and heavy chains I
(a) P and Q only
(b) P and R only III
(c) R and S only
(d) Q and S only
–1
Shear rate (S )
6 SOLVED PAPER 2018
Which one of the following options is correct? 39. Match the industrial products mentioned in Group
(a) I-Newtonian, II-Bingham plastic, III-Dilatant, I with their producer organisms in Group II
IV-Pseudoplastic Group I Group II
(b) I-Pseudoplastic, II-Dilatant, III-Newtonian, IV- P. Citric acid 1. Trichoderma viride
Bingham plastic Q. Cellulase 2. Clostridium
(c) I-Newtonian, II-Pseudoplastic, III-Bingham acetobutylicum
plastic, IV-Dilatant R. Vitamin B12 3. Aspergillus niger
(d) I-Newtonian, II-Bingham plastic, III- S. Butanol 4. Propionibacterium
Pseudoplastic, IV-Dilatant freudenreichii
37. An analysis of DNA-protein interactions was (a) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
carried out using all DNA-protein complexes in (b) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
the protein data bank (PDB). The frequency (c) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
distribution of four amino acid residues, (d) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
represented as P, Q, R and S, occurring in non-
40. 5′ capping of mRNA transcripts in eukaryotes
covalent interactions between the protein and
involves the following events:
DNA backbone is shown below.
P. Addition of GMP on the 5′ end
60
Q. Removal of γ-phosphate of the triphosphate
50 on first base at the 5′ end
Frequency (%)
40 R. 5′-5′ linkage between GMP and the first base

at 5′ end
30 S. Addition of methyl group to N7 position of
20 guanine
Which one of the following is the correct sequence
10 of events?
0 (a) P, Q, R, S (b) P, R, Q, S
Q P R S (c) Q, P, R, S (d) Q, P, S, R
Which one of the following is correct? 41. Calculate the following integral (up to two decimal
(a) P-Lys, Q-Arg, R-Gln, S-Glu places)
(b) P-Gln, Q-Glu R-Lys, S-Arg 1
(c) P-Asn, Q-Asp, R-Arg, S-Lys

∫0
( x + 3) ( x + 1) dx = _______
42. The probability distribution for a discrete random

(d) P-His, Q-Glu, R-Gln, S-Lys
variable X is given below.
38. A pedigree of an inheritable disease is shown
below. X 1 2 3 4
P ( X ) 0.3 0.4 0.2 0.1
The expectation value of X is (up to one decimal
place)______
43. If 1 + r + r2 + r3 +....∞ = 1.5, then 1 + 2r + 3r2 + 4r3
+ ....∞ = (up to two decimal places) _____
Unaffected Female Carrier Female Affected Female
44. Moist heat sterilization of spores at 121°C followes
first order kinetics as per the expression:
Unaffected Male Carrier Male Affected Male
dN
What type of inheritance does the disease follow? = − kd N
dt
(a) Autosomal dominant where, N is the number of viable spores, t is the
(b) X-linked dominant dN
time, kd is the rate constant and is the rate
(c) X-linked recessive dt
of change of viable spores.
(d) Autosomal recessive
SOLVED PAPER 2018 7
If kd value is 1.0 min–1, the time (in minutes) Assuming an affine gap scoring scheme of an
required to reduce the number of viable spores identity matrix for substitution, a gap initiation
from an initial value of 1010 to a final of 1 is (up to penalty of 1 and a gap extension penalty of 0.1,
two decimal places) ______ the score of the alignment is (up to one decimal
45. An aqueous solution containing 6.8 mg/L of an place) ______
antibiotic is extracted with amyl acetate. If the 52. First order deactivation rate constants for soluble
partition coefficient of the antibiotic is 170 and and immobilized amyloglucosidase enzyme are
the ratio of water to solvent is 85, then the 0.03 min–1 and 0.005 min–1, respectively. The ratio
extraction factor is ______ of half-life of the immobilized enzyme to that of
46. A microbial strain is cultured in a 100 L stirred the soluble enzyme is (rounded off to the nearest
fermenter for secondary metabolite production. integer)______
If the specific rate of oxygen uptake is 0.4 h–1 and 53. Consider a simple uni-substrate enzyme that
the oxygen solubility in the broth is 8 mg/L, then follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics. When the
the volumetric mass transfer coefficient (KLa) (in enzyme catalyzed reaction was carried out in the
s–1) of oxygen required to achieve a maximum cell presence of 19 nM concentration of an inhibitor,
concentration of 12 g/L is (up to two decimal there was no change in the maximal velocity.
places) ______ However, the slope of the Lineweaver-Burk plot
47. In a chemostat, the feed flow rate and culture increased 3-fold. The dissociation constant for the
volume are 100 ml/h and 1.0 L, respectively. With enzyme-inhibitor complex (in nM) is ______
glucose as substrate, the values of μmax and Ks 54. The product of complete digestion of the plasmid
are 0.2h–1 and 1 g/L, respectively. For a glucose shown below with EcoRI and HaeIII was purified
concentration of to g/L in the feed, the effluent and used as a template in a reaction containing
substrate concentration (in g/L) is ______ Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase, dNTPs and
48. Mammalian cells in active growth phase were [α–32P]-dATP in a suitable reaction buffer. The
seeded at a density of 1 × 105 cell/ml. After 72 product thus obtained was purified and subjected
hours, 1 × 10 6 cells/ml were obtained. The to gel electrophoresis followed by autoradiography.
population doubling time of the cells in hours is
(up to two decimal places) _______ 3 kb
49. Yeast converts glucose to ethanol and carbon HaeIII EcoRI 5′ -GAATTC-3′
EcoRI
dioxide by glycolysis as per the following reaction: 3′ -CTTAAG-5 ′
1 kb
C6H12O6 → 2C2H5OH + 2CO2
HaeIII
Assuming complete conversion, the amount of HaeIII ′
5-GGCC-3 ′
ethanol produced (in g) from 200 g of glucose is ′
3-CCGG-5 ′
5 kb
(up to two decimal places)______
50. At the end of a batch culture, glucose solution is
added at a flow rate of 200 ml/h. If the culture The number of bands that will appear on the
volume after 2 h of glucose addition is 1000 ml, X-ray film is______
the initial culture volume (in ml) is ______ 55. A rod shaped bacterium has a length of 2 μm,
51. Consider the following alignment of two DNA diameter of 1 μm and density the same as that of
sequences: water. If proteins constitute 15% of the cell mass
and the average protein has a mass of 50 kDa,
AGTAAC
the number of proteins in the cell is ______
AA--AC
(1 Da = 1.6 × 10–24g)
8 SOLVED PAPER 2018
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a)
Technical Section
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c)

6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a)
16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (– 10) 22. (0.32) 23. (50) 24. (1) 25. (4096)
26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (c)
36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (5.33) 42. (2.1) 43. (2.25) 44. (23.04) 45. (2)
46. (0.167) 47. (1) 48. (21.67) 49. (102.22) 50. (600)
51. (1.8) 52. (6) 53. (5) 54. (2) 55. (2945000)
EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL APTITUDE Now perimeter of equilateral triangle
= 3a = 3 × 2 = 6
1. Stares - To look at someone for a long time
5. (i) Volume of cuboid = (8 × 10 × 6) cm3 = 480 cm3
Stairs - A construction designed to bridge a large
vertical distance by dividing it into smaller (ii) Volume of cube = (8 × 8 × 8) cm3 = 512 cm3
vertical distances, called steps (iii) Volume of cylinder = πr 2 h
2. Errant means misbehaving, exhibiting ⎛ 22 ⎞
inappropriate behaviour / offending conduct. ⎜ 7 × 7 × 7 × 7 ⎟ cm3 = 1078 cm3
⎝ ⎠
3.
cos x 4 3 ⎛4 2⎞
(iv) Volume of Sphere = πr = ⎜ π × ( 7 ) ⎟ cm3
3 ⎝3 ⎠
= 1436.75 cm3
3π
π Hence, the descending order of their volumes is
0 2
x
π (iv), (iii), (ii), (i).
2 2(S1 × S2 )
sin x 6. Average speed =
S1 + S2
From the curve it is clear that sin x and cos x 2(60 × 90)
= km/h
⎛π ⎞ (60 + 90)
both are decreasing in the interval ⎜⎝ , π⎟⎠
2 2 × 60 × 90
= = 72 km / h
3 2 150
4. Area of equilateral triangle = a
4 7. Number of parallelogram = 4C2 × 5C2
3 2 4! 5!
∴ 3 = a = ×
4 2! × 2! 3! × 2!
∴ a2 = 4 5×4
∴ a=2 = 6× = 60
2
SOLVED PAPER 2018 9
8.
100,000 2. During G1, cells synthesize all of the molecules
A B
(3,30,000) (2,50,000) needed for a new round of cell division. The serum
in growth media contains everything needed for
this, including growth factors, which are important
150000 + y 100000 – y 60000 + y signals for cell division. Therefore, starving cells
of serum can prevent them from dividing.
y
80000 – y
Human embryonic kidney cells 293, also often
90000 – y
referred to as HEK 293 or less precisely as HEK
80,000 cells, are a specific cell line originally derived
90,000
from human embryonic kidney cells grown in
90000 + y C tissue culture.
(2,60,000)
Cell Cycle Arresting Compounds rely on differing
mechanisms of action to prevent the normal
From above diagram, progression of the cell cycle. Some of these
compounds interfere with CDK/cyclin complexes
∴ 6,30,000 = 2y + 1,50,000 + 100000 + 80000
leaving cells stuck at the G2/M phase border, while
+ 60000 + 90000 + 90000 others affect CaMKII phosphorylation, inducing
∴ 63000 = 2y + 57000 arrest at the G1 phase. Other mechanisms of
action include interference with RNA function and
∴ 6,30,000 – 5,70,000 = 2y inhibition of protein synthesis. Many of these
∴ 60000 = 2y compounds ultimately induce apoptosis as a
∴ y = 30000 result of their interruption of the cell cycle.
The cell cycle checkpoints play an important role
Students who failed to clear the test
in the control system by sensing defects that
= 150000 + 60000 + 90000 + 4y occur during essential processes such as DNA
= 300000 + 4 × 30000 ( y = 30000) replication or chromosome segregation, and
inducing a cell cycle arrest in response until the
= 420000
defects are repaired.
Students who failed to clear the test = 420000 3. Telomeres are sections of DNA found at the ends
2
9. x – 1 = –x of each of our chromosomes. They consist of the
1 same sequence of bases repeated over and over.
x– =–1 In humans the telomere sequence is TTAGGG.
x
This sequence is usually repeated about 3,000
1 times and can reach up to 15,000 base pairs in
x2 + = 0.2
x2 length.
2 4. Wherever a gene exists on a DNA molecule, one
1 ⎛ 1 ⎞
Now, x4 + = ⎜ x2 + ⎟ −2 strand is the coding strand (or sense strand
4
x ⎝ x2 ⎠
or non-template strand), and the other is the
= (3)2 – 2 noncoding strand (also called the antisense
=9–2 strand, anticoding strand, template strand,
or transcribed strand). Sequence of the
=7
transcribed strand is complimentary to the
sequence of sense strand. Hence the sequence of
BIOTECHNOLOGY mRNA will also be same as that of sense strand
1. Probability of getting head (p) = 0.6 (Ts will be replaced with Us).
⇒ Probability of getting tail (q) = 11 – p = 0.4 5. Botulinum toxin (BTX) is a neurotoxic protein
Desired outcomes = {HT, TH, HH} produced by the bacterium Clostridiumb
botulinum and related species. It prevents the
= 0.6 × 0.4 + 0.4 × 0.6 × 0.6 × 0.6
release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine
= 0.24 + 0.24 + 0.36
from axon endings at the neuromuscular junction
= 0.84
and thus causes flaccid paralysis. Infection with
∴ Option (c) is correct. the bacterium causes the disease botulism.
10 SOLVED PAPER 2018
Cholera toxin (also known as choleragen) is This program is used to find distant relatives of a
protein complex secreted by the bacterium protein.
Vibrio cholerae. CTX is responsible for the Nucleotide 6-frame translation-protein
massive, watery diarrhea characteristic of (blastx)
cholera infection. This program compares the six-frame conceptual
Streptolysin O is a toxin secreted by Streptococcus translation products of a nucleotide query
pyogenes and is a prototype member of sequence (both strands) against a protein sequence
poreforming bacterial cytolysins. It is used database.
permeabilize cell membranes to permit cellular Nucleotide 6-frame translation-nucleotide 6-
uptake of large or charged molecules. It is used frame translation (tblastx)
to study macromolecule delivery. It is a potential This program is the slowest of the BLAST family.
anticancer agent and is used to study suicide It translates the query nucleotide sequence in all
cancer gene therapy. six possible frames and compares it against the
Diphtheria toxin is an exotoxin (extracellular six-frame translations of a nucleotide sequence
protein) secreted by Corynebacterium database. The purpose of tblastx is to find very
diphtheriae, the pathogenic bacterium that distant relationships between nucleotide
causes diphtheria, inhibits protein synthesis sequences.
and kills susceptible cells. The gene that encodes Protein-nucleotide 6-frame translation
DT (tox) is present in some corynephages, and (tblastn)
DT is only produced by C. diphtheriae isolates This program compares a protein query against
that harbor tox+ phages. the all six reading frames of a nucleotide sequence
6. Molecular mechanics describes the potential database.
energy of a molecule in terms of a set of potential Large numbers of query sequences
energy equations that are reminiscent of classical (megablast)
mechanics in physics. The potential energy When comparing large numbers of input
equations to calculate the energy, the “atom sequences via the command-line BLAST,
types” that define different atoms in a molecule, “megablast” is much faster than running BLAST
and the parameters/constants used in the multiple times. It concatenates many input
equations are known as a force-field. sequences together to form a large sequence
The total potential energy of a molecular system before searching the BLAST database, then post-
is the sum of individual potential components. analyzes the search results to glean individual
Simple molecular mechanics force fields include alignments and statistical values.
bond stretching, angle bending, torsion, and van 8. Anion exchange resins exchange the negative ions
der Waals interactions in their make-up. The readily, so when various peptides with different
sums extend over all bonds, bond angles, torsion
charges pass through it, then they will be eluted
angles, and non-bonded interactions in the
in order from strong negative charge to positive
molecule. Modern force fields add other terms
for greater accuracy. charge. Therefore the order of elution will be R
(Strongly negative), followed by Q (Weakly
7. BLAST is actually a family of programs (all
included in the blastall executable). These include: negative) and the last P (Positively charged)
peptides.
Nucleotide-nucleotide BLAST (blastn)
9. When the van der Waals attraction between two
This program, given a DNA query, returns the
atoms exactly balances the repulsion between
most similar DNA sequences from the DNA
their two electron clouds, the atoms are said to
database that the user specifies.
be in van der Waals contact. Each type of atom
Protein-protein BLAST (blastp) has a van der Waals radius at which it is in van
This program, given a protein query, returns the der Waals contact with other atoms. The van der
most similar protein sequences from the protein Waals radius of an H atom is 0.1 nm, and the
database that the user specifies. radii of O, N, C, and S atoms are between 0.14
Position-Specific Iterative BLAST (PSI- and 0.18 nm. Two covalently bonded atoms are
BLAST) (blastpgp) closer together than two atoms that are merely
in van der Waals contact. For a van der Waals
SOLVED PAPER 2018 11
interaction, the internuclear distance is 14. Paracrine signaling is a form of cell-to-cell

approximately the sum of the corresponding radii communication in which a cell produces a signal
for the two participating atoms. Thus the distance to induce changes in nearby cells, altering the
between a C atom and an H atom in van der Waals behavior of those cells.
contact is 0.27 nm, and between two C atoms is
Autocrine : mode of hormone action to which
0.34 nm. In general, the van der Waals radius of
hormons bind to receptors on to the cell and
an atom is about twice as long as its covalent
affects the cell that produces it.
radius. For example, a C—H covalent bond is
about 0.107 nm long and a C—C covalent bond is Paracrine : describes hormone action where
about 0.154 nm long. hormones are released from cells and bind to
10. Glycolysis occurs in most organisms in the cytosol receptor on nearby cells and affects their function.
of the cell. The most common type of glycolysis Hence the answer is Paracrine.
is the Embden–Meyerhof–Parnas (EMP pathway). 15. In the presence of physiological concentrations
In mammalian cells, both peroxisomes and of monovalent and divalent cations, actin
mitochondria contain a beta-oxidative pathway. monomers polymerize into filaments. The actin
Beta-oxidation is a key pathway for the filament is structurally polarized and the two ends
breakthrough of fatty acids. In yeasts and plants, are not identical.
fatty acid oxidation occurs uniquely in
16. The standard error (SE) of a parameter is the
peroxisomes.
standard deviation of its sampling distribution or
Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA, the citric
an estimate of the standard deviation ]. If the
acid cycle takes place in the matrix of the
parameter or the statistic is the mean, it is called
mitochondria. Oxidative phosphorylation is a
the standard error of the mean (SEM).
process occurring in the intermembrane space of
the mitochondria that results in the formation of The standard error of the sample mean depends
ATP from the flow of electrons to oxygen. on both the standard deviation and the sample
11. The main components of the innate immune size, by the simple relation SE = SD/√(sample
system are (1) physical epithelial barriers, (2) size). The standard error falls as the sample size
phagocytic leukocytes, (3) dendritic cells, (4) a increases, as the extent of chance variation is
special type of lymphocyte called a natural killer reduced—this idea underlies the sample size
(NK) cell, and (5) circulating plasma proteins. calculation for a controlled trial, for example. By
Memory B-cells is NOT a principal component of contrast the standard deviation will not tend to
innate immunity change as we increase the size of our sample.
12. Electrospray ionization mass spectrometry (ESI- 17. In situ hybridization (ISH) is a powerful
MS) was employed to monitor the heme release technique for localizing specific nucleic acid targets
and the conformational changes of myoglobin (Mb) within fixed tissues and cells, allowing you to
under different solvent conditions, and to observe obtain temporal and spatial information about
ligand bindings of Mb. ESI-MS, complemented by gene expression and genetic loci.
circular dichroism and fluorescence spectroscopy, 18. Construction of the phylogenetic tree : (1)
was used to study the mechanism of acid- and Distance methods (2) Character methods: (a)
organic solvent-induced denaturation by probing Maximum parsimony and (b) Maximum
the changes in the secondary and the tertiary likelihood.
structure of Mb. The light microscope can be used
to provide information about the activity of cells Distance based methods (eg. Neighbour
and to look at very small structures such as Joining (NJ)): find a tree such that branch lengths
nanostructures. of paths between sequences (species) fit a matrix
of pairwise distances between sequences.
13. A trickling filter, is a fixed-bed, biological reactor
that operates under (mostly) aerobic conditions. Maximum Parsimony : find a phylogenetic tree
Pre-settled wastewater is continuously ‘trickled’ that explains the data, with as few evolutionary
or sprayed over the filter. As the water migrates changes as possible.
through the pores of the filter, organics are Maximum likelihood : find a tree that
aerobically degraded by the biofilm covering the maximizes the probability of the genetic data
filter material. given the tree.
2
19. cos x + 2cos x + 1 = 0 to 360° curls, shepherd’s crooks, which are formed
by the host’s root hairs. Purified bacterial signal
Let cos x = y
2
molecules, the nodulation factors (NFs), which
∴ y + 2y + 1 = 0 are lipochitooligosaccharides, induce root hair
2
∴ (y + 1) = 0 deformation in the appropriate host legume and
have been proposed to be a key player in eliciting
∴ y = −1 root hair curling.
∴ cos x = – 1 27. In essence, all endogenous pyrogens are
∴
–1
x = cos (–1) cytokines, molecules that are a part of the
–1 immune system. They are produced by activated
∴ x = π – cos (1) immune cells and cause the increase in the
=π–0 thermoregulatory set point in the hypothalamus.
Major endogenous pyrogens are interleukin 1
∴ x=π
( α and β ) and interleukin 6 (IL-6). Minor
∴ x = 180° endogenous pyrogens include interleukin-8,
∴ Option (c) is correct. tumor necrosis factor-β, macrophage inflammatory
protein-α and macrophage inflammatory protein-
20. The pyrethrins are a class of organic compounds
β as well as interferon- α, interferon- β , and
(mixture of six chemicals) normally derived from
interferon-γ. Tumor necrosis factor-α also acts as
Chrysanthemum cinerariifolium flowers that a pyrogen. It is mediated by interleukin 1 (IL-1)
have potent (toxic) insecticidal activity by targeting release.
the nervous systems of insects. Pyrethrins are These cytokine factors are released into general
commonly used to control mosquitoes, fleas, flies, circulation, where they migrate to the
moths, ants, and many other pests. circumventricular organs of the brain due to easier
4 −6 ⎤ absorption caused by the blood–brain barrier’s
21. The given matrix is A = ⎡ reduced filtration action there. The cytokine factors
⎢ −3 2 ⎥
⎣ ⎦ then bind with endothelial receptors on vessel walls,
∴ A = 4(2) − (−3)(−6) or interact with local microglial cells. When these
= 8 – 18 cytokine factors bind, the arachidonic acid pathway
is then activated.
= – 10
28. Small nucleolar RNAs (snoRNAs) are a class
23. A = εcl, l = 2cm, A = 0.56, ε = 5600 m–1cm–1
of small RNA molecules that primarily guide
∴ concentration of tryptophan = A/(εl) chemical modifications of other RNAs, mainly
0.56 ribosomal RNAs, transfer RNAs and small nuclear
= = 5 × 10–5 M
2 × 5600 RNAs.
= 50 × 10–6 M = 50 μm In animals, small RNA molecules termed PIWI-
24. When stem cells undergoes the asymmetric cell interacting RNAs (piRNAs) silence
divisions then these gives rise to one cell of the transposable elements (TEs), protecting the
same type while another differentiated into a germline from genomic instability and mutation.
specialized cell types such as neurons etc. piRNAs have been detected in the soma in a few
animals, but these are believed to be specific
Thus when one stem cells undergoes 10
adaptations of individual species.
asymmetric cell divisions only one cell will have
same property of stem cell while the rest cells MicroRNAs (miRNA) regulate the expression
will have any specified cell type like neurons. of protein-coding genes in animals and plants.
They function by binding to mRNA transcripts
25. DNA have 4 bases = C, G, A, T
with complementary sequences and inhibit their
Now, restriction enzyme recognizes 6 bp sequence. expression. The level of sequence complementarity
So, Avg. length (bp) of fragment generated between the microRNA and mRNA transcript
= 46 = 4096 (bp) varies between animal and plant systems. Owing
26. A critical step in establishing a successful nitrogen- to this subtle difference, it was initially believed
fixing symbiosis between rhizobia and legume that animal and plant microRNAs act in different
plants is the entrapment of the bacteria between ways. Recent developments revealed that,
root hair cell walls, usually in characteristic 180° although differences still remain in the two
kingdoms, the differences are smaller than fi rst
thought. It is now clear that both animal and plant in IgG and produced three fragments (I, II, and
microRNAs mediate both translational repression III). The three fragments had similar molecular
of intact mRNAs and also cause mRNA weights (50 kD) but different charges. Two of the
degradation. three fragments were identical and retained the
A small nuclear RNA (snRNA) is one of many ability to bind antigen. These two fragments were
small RNA species confined to the nucleus; called the Fab fragments (for fragments of
several of the snRNAs are involved in splicing antigen-binding). Because the intact IgG is
or other RNA processing reactions. Many snRNAs bivalent and the two Fab fragments each could
of eukaryotic cells are involved in the maturation bind antigen, Porter concluded that the Fab
of primary transcripts of messenger RNAs fragments must be univalent. The third fragment
(mRNAs). Certain snRNAs are involved in the produced by papain digestion did not bind with
formation and function of the spliceosome, a large antigen and crystallized during cold storage.
ribonucleoprotein structure in which pre-mRNA Porter called this piece the Fc fragment (for
splicing takes place. fragment crystallizable). Thus the ratio of Fab to
Fc is 2:1. Edelman confirmed Porter’s results by
29. Ab initio gene finding in eukaryotes, especially
cleaving and electrophoresing human IgG into two
complex organisms like humans, is considerably
antigenically different fractions equivalent to the
more challenging for several reasons. First, the
two fragments from rabbit IgG (Figure 4-2). In
promoter and other regulatory signals in these
similar studies, Alfred Nisonoff used pepsin,
genomes are more complex and less well-understood
which hydrolyzes different sites on the IgG
than in prokaryotes, making them more difficult to
molecule than does papain. IgG treated with pepsin
reliably recognize. Two classic examples of signals
yielded one large fragment with a molecular
identified by eukaryotic gene finders are CpG islands
weight (100 kD) double that of one Fab fragment,
and binding sites for a poly(A) tail.
and many small fragments. Nisonoff called the
Second, splicing mechanisms employed by large fragment F(ab9)2. This fragment also could
eukaryotic cells mean that a particular protein- bind antigen, but unlike the Fab fragment, it led
coding sequence in the genome is divided into to a visible serologic reaction. It had both of the
several parts (exons), separated by non-coding antigen-binding sites of IgG (the chains remained
sequences (introns). (Splice sites are themselves linked) and could be treated further with reducing
another signal that eukaryotic gene finders are agents to yield two Fab-like fragments called Fab9.
often designed to identify.) A typical protein- Collectively, the two enzymes cleave at about the
coding gene in humans might be divided into a same region of the IgG molecule. Papain splits the
dozen exons, each less than two hundred base molecule on one side, and pepsin on the other side,
pairs in length, and some as short as twenty to of the bond that holds Fab fragments together.
thirty. It is therefore much more difficult to
detect periodicities and other known content
properties of protein-coding DNA in eukaryotes.
30. L-arginine-dependent production of reactive
nitrogen intermediates (RNls: nitric oxide, nitrite,
and nitrate) by mammalian macrophages has
been proposed to occur via an L-arginine oxidative
deimination pathway and is known to be
responsible for certain antineoplastic and
antimicrobial effect or functions.
31. Assertion : The association constant in water
for the G-C base pair is three times lower than
that for the A-T base pair.
Reason : There are three hydrogen bonds in the
G-C base pair and two in the A-T base pair.
Assertion is false. Reason is correct. The ‘‘reason
statement’’ is itself an explanation why the
assertion is false.
32. Porter fragmented rabbit IgG with the proteolytic
enzyme papain in the presence of the reducing
agent cysteine. Papain hydrolyzed peptide bonds
33. Endogenous antigens are processed by cytosolic The following are true with regard to anaerobic
pathway. In the cytoplasm antigen is first respiration in bacteria:
processed by proteasomes and then smaller (P) The final electron acceptor is an inorganic
peptides are transported inside endoplasmic substance other than molecular oxygen
reticulum by TAP protein.
(R) The number of ATP molecules produced per
Protein antigens in the cytosol are processed by
glucose molecule is less than that produced
proteasomes in the class I MHC pathway.
In the class II MHC pathway, extracellular protein
36. Curve II is bingham plastic follows the τ
antigens are endocytosed into vesicles and
processed. du
= τ0 + k
Invariant chain in endoplasmic reticulum is dy
involved in transport of peptides and loading of Now, for rest type i.e. I, III, IV they follows the
class II MHC pathway. n
⎛ du ⎞
34. Distribution of superoxide dismutase, τ= k⎜ ⎟
catalase and peroxidase in prokaryotes with ⎝ dy ⎠
different O2 tolerances. n = flow behaviour index
Group Superoxide Cata- Pero- Now if n = 1 then fluid is newtonian which is
dismutase lase xidase curve I.
Obligate aerobes If n < 1 then fluid is pseudoplastic which is curve III.
and most Yes Yes If n > 1 then fluid is Dilatant which is curve IV.
facultative No Now, curve for newtonian (I) will be standard line
anaerobes (e.g. passing through origin.
Enterics)
Curve for pseudoeplastic (III) will be concave
Most aerotolerant downward passing through origin.
anaerobes (e.g. Yes No Yes Curve for Dilatant (IV) will be concave upward
Streptococci) through passing through origin.
Obligate 37. DNA has net negative charge due to the presence
anaerobes (e.g. No No of phosphate groups. Lys, Arg and Gln are basic
Clostridia, No amino acids whereas Glu is acidic amino acid. Arg
Methanogens, (Q) attracts more phosphate and forms extensive
Bacteroides) hydrogen bonding with its five H-bond donors
present in its structure that stabilizes the
35. For aerobic, the cells involved include those in
interactions in DNA-protein complexes reflecting
most organisms and body cells; however,
anaerobic may occur in muscle cells and red blood the highest percentage frequency in the graph.
cells, and is some types of bacteria and yeast. Followed by Arg the next higher frequency is
shown for Lys (P) due to its basic nature and
Lactic acid is produced during Anaerobic, and none
hydrogen bonding capacity which is followed by
is produced during aerobic. A high amount of
the frequency of Gln (R ). Glu (s) due to negative
energy is produced in aerobic respiration with 38
charge has least frequency.
glucose molecules, and low energy with only 2
glucose molecules during anaerobic. 38. It can’t be autosomal dominant as carriers are
In addition, the reactants for aerobic respiration not possible in such cases. It can’t be X-linked
is both oxygen and glucose, yet for anaerobic the dominant. If that was the case, all female carriers
reactant is just glucose. The reaction site in the actually would have been affected. It can’t be
cell for aerobic is in the cytoplasm or mitochondria, autosomal recessive as affected children in such
and just in the cytoplasm for anaerobic respiration. cases are born when both the parents are carriers.
Both aerobic and anaerobic respiration involves Answer is X-Linked Recessive as most of the
a first stage called glycolysis. The additional stage following traits of X-linked recessive inheritance
in anaerobic is fermentation, but in aerobic there are fulfilled by the given pedigree chart:
is the Krebs cycle and electron transfer chain. 1. More males than females are affected
Finally, combustion is complete in aerobic 2. Affected sons are usually born to unaffected
respiration, and incomplete during anaerobic mothers, thus the trait skips generations
respiration.
3. Approximately 1/2 of carrier mothers’ sons are 42. x 1 2 3 4

affected
p( x) 0.3 0.4 0.2 0.1
4. It is never passed from father to son
E(x) = 1 × p (x = 1) + 2 × p (x = 2) + 3 × p (x = 3)
5. All daughters of affected fathers are carriers
39. + 4 × p (x = 4)
Product Producing Organism = 1 × 0.3 + 2 × 0.4 + 3 × 0.2 + 4 × 0.1
Citric acid Aspergillus niger = 0.3 + 0.8 + 0.6 + 0.4
Cellulase Trichoderma viride = 2.1
43. The given series 1, r, r2, r3, ... ∞ is infinite G.P.
Vitamin B12 Propionibacterium freudenreichii
series with common ratio p(r)
Butanol Clostridium acetobutylicum
a
40. The starting point for capping with 7- Now S =
n 1−r
methylguanylate is the unaltered 5′ end of an
RNA molecule, which terminates at a triphosphate 1
∴ 1.5 =
group. This features a final nucleotide followed 1−r
by three phosphate groups attached to the 5 ′ ∴ 1.5 – 1.5 r = 1
carbon. The capping process is initiated before 0.5 = 1.5 r
the completion of transcription, as the nascent
pre-mRNA is being synthesized. 1
∴ r=
1. One of the terminal phosphate groups is 3
removed by RNA triphosphatase, leaving a 1 1
⇒ 1+
+ + ...∞ = 1.5 ...(i)
bisphosphate group (i.e. 5′(ppN)[pN]n); 3 9
2. GTP is added to the terminal bisphosphate by Now sum of 1 + 2r + 3r2 + .... + ∞
mRNA guanylyltransferase, losing a
pyrophosphate from the GTP substrate in the = 1 + 2 ⎛⎜ 1 ⎞⎟ + 3 ⎛⎜ 1 ⎞⎟ + ...∞
process. This results in the 5′–5′ triphosphate ⎝3⎠ ⎝9⎠
linkage, producing 5′(Gp)(ppN)[pN]n; = 1.5 × 1.5 ( from eq. (i) )
3. The 7-nitrogen of guanine is methylated by
mRNA (guanine-N7-)-methyltransferase, with = 2.25
S-adenosyl-L-methionine being demethylated 44. ln (N0/Nt) = Kdt
to produce S-adenosyl-L-homocysteine, Here Given, N0 = 1010; Nt = 1; Kd = 1 min–1
resulting in 5′(m7Gp) (ppN)[pN]n (cap-0);
Therefore t = ln(1010/1) = 23.03 min.
4. Cap-adjacent modifications can occur,
45. (Separation factor) Extraction factor is one
normally to the first and second nucleotides,
distribution ratio divide by another, Here,
producing up to 5′(m7Gp) (ppN*) (pN*)[pN]n
(cap-1 and cap-2) partition coefficient of antibiotic is 170, and
distribution ratio of water to solvent is 85.
5. If the nearest cap-adjacent nucleotide is 2′-O-
ribose methyl-adenosine (i.e. 5 ′ (m7Gp) ∴ Extraction factor
(ppAm)[pN]n), it can be further methylated at Partition coefficient of antibiotic
the N6 methyl position to form N 6 - =
Distribution coefficient of water to solvent
methyladenosine, resulting in 5 ′ (m7Gp)
(ppm6Am)[pN]n. 170
= =2
1 85
41.
∫ ( x + 3)( x + 1)dx
0
46. qo2 = 0.4 h–1
1 = 0.4/3600 = 1.111 × 10–4 sec–1
∫ ⎡⎣ x + 4 x + 3 ⎤⎦ dx
2
= x = 12 g/L
0
∴ OUR = qo2 X = 1.333 × 10–3
⎡ x3 4 x 2 ⎤
= ⎢ + + 3x⎥ ∴ ΔC = 8 mg/L = 8 × 10–3 gm/L
⎣⎢ 3 2 ⎦⎥ 0
∴ OUR = kLaΔC
⎡1 ⎤
= ⎢ + 2 + 3⎥ 1.333 × 10 −3
⎣3 ⎦ ⇒ KLa = = 0.167
= 5.33 8 × 10 −3
k SD ln c1 c0
S= but ln c2 c0 = 1
47.
μ−D
F 100 ml Because final concentration is half of the initial
D = Dilution rate = = = 0.1
V 1000 ml concentration for both types of enzymes.
Therefore
1 × 0.1
∴ S= =1
0.2 − 0.1 t11 2 K1
∴ =
⎛x ⎞ t21 2 K2
48. ln ⎜ t ⎟ = n ln 2,
⎝ xo ⎠ t11 2 0.03
We know that number of cycles n = t/td ∴ =
t21 2 0.005
t = time given = 72 hrs
t d = doubling time t11 2
∴ =6
xt = 106 cells/ml t21 2
xo = 105 cells/ml 53. Slope = Km/Vm, as Vm = constant
So, td = t ln 2 = 72 × 0.6931 = 21.67 hrs K m2 = 3 K m1

⎛x ⎞ 2.303
ln ⎜ t ⎟ Now, K m2 = K ⎡1 + [ I ] ⎤ = 3 K m1
⎝ xo ⎠ m1 ⎢ ⎥
⎣ KI ⎦
49. C6H12O6 → 2C2H5OH + 2CO2
⇒ 2KI = [I] = 10 nM
1 mol of glucose produces → 2 mole of ethanol
⇒ KI = 5 nM
MW of glucose = 180, MW of ethanol = 46,
As per equation 180 gm glucose produces 54. From the diagram, we observe that one of the
enzymes (EcoRI) used is a sticky end enzyme and
= 2 × 46 i.e., 92 gm of ethanol
the other (HaeII) is a blunt end cutter. For
Hence, 1 gm of glucose will produce 92/180 gm of
incorporation of the radioactive ATP, Klenow
ethanol
fragment needs a free 3’-OH end and a template
Therefore 200 gm glucose will produce
to read. This will only be provided at the sticky
= 200 × (92/180) gm ethanol ends generated by EcoRI enzyme. EcoRI will
= 102.22 gm ethanol generate two such ends on two different DNA
50. Let x = initial culture volume in ml. fragments. Hence we will finally see two bands
glucose addition = 200 ml/h, so in 2 hr total on the X-ray film.
400 ml glucose added. 55. S = 1 kg/l
Final culture volume = 1000 = x + 400 l = 2 × 10–6 mt
⇒ x = 600 ml
D = 1 × 10–6 mt
51. For, affine gap scoring scheme, penalty is
calculated using following formula = n (A + B) π 2
Volume of bacterium = Dl
where n = number of gaps 4
A = gap initiation penalty = 1 = 1.5708 × 10–18 m3
B = gap extension penalty = 0.1 = 1.5708 × 10–15 kg
Total gap penalty = 2(1 + 0.1) = 2.2 [  1 m3 = 1000 kg]
Now in the given structure the total number of = 1.5708 × 10–12 gm
matches = 4.
15% of this is proteins = 2.356 × 10–13 gm.
∴ Score of Alignment = Match score – Total gap
penalty Now, average weight of one protein
= (4 × 1) – 2.2 = 4 – 2.2 = 1.8 = 50 kDa
52. Data for soluble enzyme : = 50 × 1000 × 1.6 × 10–24
K1 = 0.03, half life = t11 2 = 8 × 10–20 gm.
Data for immobilized enzyme 2.356 × 10 −13
∴ No. of proteins =
K2 = 0.005, half life = t21 2 8 × 10 −20
ln c1 c0 K t1 2 = 2.945 × 106
∴ = 1 11 2
ln c2 c0 K 2 t2 = 2945000
§ ·
¨ ¸
o ¨ ¸
© ¹
'
'
'
'
'
P
P
w w
w w
w w
w w
w w
w w
w w

w w
P
ª º
« »
¬ ¼
o
c c
c c
c c

c c
'
'


P
q
q
For X
Time taken = t
1. Until Iran came along, India had never been
defeated in kabaddi Distance x = velocity × time
2. The fishermen, to whom the flood victims owed x
their lives, were rewarded by the government. x 80t t ...(1)
80
3. Initial Stage
For y time taken = t
Distance y = 100t
h 1.10h y
h t ...(2)
100
10
x + y = 540 km ...(3)
From (1) and (2)
r 1.10r x y
After increasing 10% for radius & height cone, t x 0.8y
0.8
80 100
1 2
Vi r h x + y = 540 x = 0.8y + y = 540
3
1 1.331 2 1.8y = 540 y = 300km
2
Vf 1.1r 1.1h
1.1 r h
3 3 y 300
Percentage increase Time taken y 3hrs
3h
1.331 2 100 100
Sr h
Vf Vi 3 Time at which these trains
u 100 u 100
Vi 1 2 = 7.00 AM + 3hrs
Sr h
3 = 10.00 AM
1.331 1
100 33.1%
33 8. Total population = 1400 million
1
4. Number are 2, 4, 5, 7, and 10. Number of people whose having own mobile
phones
The correct order of arrangement 10, 5, 4, 7, and
2 Thus an arrangement follows given three = 70% of 1400
condition. = 0.7 × 1400 = 980 million
5. 'Some students were not involved in the strike'. Number of people whose accesses the internet
If this statement is true, then the logically
= 294 million
necessary conclusion is : (4) Some who were not
involved in the strike were students. Number of people who buy goods from
e-commercial portals
6. 10. Based on the given paragraph, the prestige of
a head-hunter depended upon: the number of head = Half of internet users
he could gather.
294
7. Second number from right = 7 147 million
N 2
147 million
Train A Percentage buyers 100
x 1400 million
illi
80km/h
10.
10.5%
7 AM 9. Based on the given para, NOT correct pairings is :
y (C) baaj, institution
Train B
10. From the given passage, the statements can be
100km/h
inferred as: 'A reduction in interest rates on small
saving schemes follow only after a reduction in
S repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India'.
7. In mathematics, a geometric series is a series

with a constant ratio between successive terms.
1. Oxygen's atomic weight is 16.00 amu. In General we write a Geometric Sequence like
Oxygen's molecular weight is 32.00 amu. this:
1 mole of oxygen is 6.02 u 1023 atoms of oxygen {a, ar, ar2, ar3, ... }
1 amu = 1.661 u 10 –24
g; Where : a is the first term, and r is the factor
Then, Mass of 1 kmol of oxygen molecules is between the terms (called the "common ratio")
= 32.00 amu u 1000 u 1.661 u 10–24 u 6.02 u 1023 8. The eukaryotic cell cycle consists of four distinct
= 319.97504 u 100 = 31997.504 g or 31998.00 g phases: G1 phase, S phase (synthesis), G2 phase
2. PROSITE is a protein database. It consists of (collectively known as interphase) and M phase
entries describing the protein families, domains (mitosis and cytokinesis). DNA synthesis in
and functional sites as well as amino acid patterns eukaryotes (chromosome replication) occurs
and profiles in them. PROSITE offers tools for during S phase of the mitotic cell cycle.
protein sequence analysis and motif detection. 9. First, calculate the number of electrons each
The database ProRule builds on the domain atom of the molecule can donate to reach a full
descriptions of PROSITE. valence shell. For example, Hydrogen = 1, Carbon
= 4, Oxygen = – 2 (since it receives electrons
3. Given data is
instead of donating), Nitrogen = – 3. This value
12, 10, 16, 8, 90, 50, 30, 24. is the same as the charges of the elements.
The proper ordered data set [increasing order] is After finding these values, calculate the sum of
8, 10, 12, 16, 24, 30, 50, 90 these values for all atoms of the molecule. For
example, for ethanol (C2H4O2) = (2 × 4) + (4 × 1) +
? Median value
(2 × – 2) = 8.
= Average of middle most observations
Secondly, divide this value by the number of
16 24 Carbon atoms in the molecule.
20
2 For acetic acid (C2H4O2 i.e. 2 Carbon atoms),
4. The successful replication of human Degree of reduction = 8 / 2 = 4.
immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1) requires
10. Most of the commercially available culture media
viral genome reverse transcription to generate
include phenol red as a pH indicator, which allows
proviral DNA and integration into the target cell
constant monitoring of pH. During the cell
genome. These events are carried out by the viral
growth, the medium changes color as pH is
encoded enzymes, reverse transcriptase (RT) and
changed due to the metabolites released by the
integrase (IN), respectively. The RT is a
cells. At low pH levels, phenol red turns the
heterodimer of p66 and p51 subunits, which can
medium yellow, while at higher pH levels it turns
copy both RNA and DNA templates thus
the medium purple. Medium is bright red for pH
producing double stranded proviral DNA.
7.4, the optimum pH value for cell culture.
5. Match of the human diseases in Group I with the
11. Antibody is not a part of the human nonspecific
causative agents in Group II is given bellow:
defense system however interferon, mucous and
Group-I Group-II saliva are parts of the human nonspecific defense
P. Amoebiasis 3. Entamoeba histolytica system. In animals, there are two types of defenses
Q. African sleeping 4. Trypanosoma gambiense against foreign invaders: specific and nonspecific.
Specific immune responses can distinguish among
sickness
different invaders. The response is different for
R. Kala azar 1. Leishmania donovani each invader. With nonspecific defenses, the
S. Chagas' disease 2. Trypanosoma cruzi protection is always the same, no matter what the
6. In biochemical reactions total mass, number of invader may be. Whereas only vertebrates have
atoms of each element and total energy remain specific immune responses, all animals have some
conserved however Total moles need NOT be type of nonspecific defense. Examples of nonspecific
conserved in a biochemical reaction. defenses include physical barriers, protein defenses,
cellular defenses, inflammation, and fever.
x 2 64 x 8 x 6 Sample value = 10 PL
12. lim l
lim
x 8 x 8 x 8 x 8 Activity of 10 PL Sample = 5 Pmol min–1
lim
im x 8 8 8 16 Total No. of Sample of 10uL each in 1 ml
x 8
1000
13. The general definition of the heat transfer 100
10
coefficient is:
Total Activity of 1ml Sample = 5 × 100
h = q /'T ;
= 500 Pmol min–1.
Where:
Total Activity of1ml sample
q : heat flux, W/m2; ? Specific Activity
Pr otein concontration
i.e., thermal power per unit area, q = dQ/dA
500
h : heat transfer coefficient, W/(m2 · K) 50 mg 1
10
'T : difference in temperature between the solid
17. Internal reserves are catabolized during
surface and surrounding fluid area, K
endogenous metabolism in a batch bacterial
It is used in calculating the heat transfer, typically cultivation. Many bacteria are able to accumulate
by convection or phase transition between a fluid polymers that are considered to function as energy
and a solid. The heat transfer coefficient has SI reserves. These compounds may accumulate
units in watts per square meter kelvin: W/(m2K). during growth or at the end of the growth phase
14. Nonsense mutation : changes an amino acid to and provide either energy or a source of a
a STOP codon, resulting in premature termination component no longer available from the
of translation. environment.
Missense mutation : changes an amino acid to 18. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) crops are plants
another amino acid. This may or may not affect genetically engineered (modified) to contain the
protein function, depending on whether the endospore (or crystal) toxins of the bacterium, Bt
change is "conservative" or "nonconservative," to be resistant to certain insect pests. Currently,
and what the amino acid actually does. the most common Bt crops are corn and cotton.
"Silent" mutation : does not change an amino The crystal, referred to as Cry toxins, is proteins
acid, but in some cases can still have a phenotypic formed during sporulation of some Bt strains and
effect, e.g., by speeding up or slowing down protein aggregate to form crystals. Such Cry toxins are
synthesis, or by affecting splicing. toxic to specific species of insects belongs to
orders: Lepidoptera, Coleoptera, Hymenoptera,
Frameshift mutation : Deletion or insertion of
Diptera, and Nematoda.
a number of bases that is not a multiple of 3.
Usually introduces premature STOP codons in 19. Intracellular carbon source can NOT be a limiting
addition to lots of amino acid changes. substrate if Monod's growth kinetics is applicable.
A synonymous mutation is a change in the 20. The wave equation is an important second-order
DNA sequence that codes for amino acids in a linear partial differential equation for the
protein sequence, but does not change the description of waves — as they occur in classical
encoded amino acid. physics - such as mechanical waves (e.g. water
waves, sound waves and seismic waves) or light
15. Enzymes do not change the equilibrium state of
waves. It arises in fields like acoustics,
a biochemical reaction. 'G and Keq remain the
electromagnetics, and fluid dynamics.
same. Instead, the enzyme reduces the activation
energy needed for the reaction to proceed, and The wave equation in one space dimension can
thus increase the rate of reaction. Say for example, be written as follows:
Keq = 1, and you start with reactants only. Under
normal conditions it may take 100 years, but
eventually the concentration of reactants will
equal the concentration of products. Now start This equation is typically described as having only
over, but add an enzyme. In this case we reach one space dimension x, because the only other
equilibrium in 100 seconds, but it still results in independent variable is the time t. Nevertheless,
a 1:1 ratio of reactants to products. the dependent variable u may represent a second
16. Given data : space dimension, if, for example, the displacement
u takes place in y-direction, as in the case of a
mg string that is located in the x-y plane.
Protein Conc. of crude enzyme 10
ml
21. Paul Andersen describes mechanisms that Given x = 0, y = 1

increase the genetic variation within a population.
1 1 x2 y2 1
He begins by discussing how horizontal transfer 0 c c
2 2 2 2 2
can move genetic material between bacteria.
Transformation, transduction, and conjugation in x = y – 1 y = x2 + 1
2 2 2
bacteria are all included. He also explains how 27. For plasmid manipulations other site-directed
crossing over, random assortment, and random mutagenesis techniques have been supplanted,
fertilization can maintain genetic variation in An example of these techniques is the Quik
change method, wherein a pair of complementary
eukaryotes.
mutagenic primers are used to amplify the entire
22. Method - I : plasmid in a thermocycling reaction using a high-
AT = – A A is skew – symmetric fidelity non-strand-displacing DNA polymerase
such as pfu polymerase. The reaction generates
0 6
Given A a nicked, circular DNA. The template DNA must
P 0 be eliminated by enzymatic digestion with a
0 6 restriction enzyme such as DpnI, which is specific
A for methylated DNA.
P 0
28. Given table is clearly discrete probability
T 0 P distribution; since 6P (x) = 1; where x is discrete
A
6 0 R.V.
? A = –A ? Mean of x = 6x.p(x)
0 P 0 6 = (–100)[0.25] + (0)(0.5) + (100)(0.2) + (500)(0.05)
6 0 P 0 P = –6 = – 25 + 20 + 25 E(x) = 20
23. Tetracycline antibiotics inhibit bacterial protein ? E(x2) = 6x2.p(x)
synthesis by preventing the association of = (–100)2[0.25] + (0)2[0.5] + (100)2[0.2] + (500)2(0.05)
aminoacyl-tRNA with the bacterial ribosome. 1000 2 5
1000 250000
24. The number of possible rooted trees in a phylogeny 4 10 100
of three species is 3. A rooted phylogenetic tree = 2500 + 2000 + 12500 = 17000
is a directed tree with a unique node - the root - ? Variance of x = E(x2) – [E(x)]2
corresponding to the (usually imputed) most
= 17000 – (200)2 = 16,600
recent common ancestor of all the entities at the
leaves of the tree. The root node does not have a ? S.D of x var iance 16600 129
parent node, but serves as the parent of all other 29. Given data:
nodes in the tree. The root is therefore a node of
min. delectable Absorbance = 0.02
degree 2 while other internal nodes have a
minimum degree of 3. Molar extinction co.effi. of protein
25. A DNA microarray (also commonly known as = 10000 Lmol–1 cm–1,
DNA chip or biochip) is a collection of microscopic length of cuvette path length = 1 cm.
DNA spots attached to a solid surface. Scientists As per the bur Lambert law. A = ecl.
use DNA microarrays to measure the expression C = minimum of Protein in Sample that can be
levels of large numbers of genes simultaneously measured reliably.
or to genotype multiple regions of a genome. A 0.02
26. Given D.E is C 2 10 6 mol
m / lit
ell 10000 1
dy x C = 2 μM
dx y 30. Molecular mass of Protein = 22 kDa = 22000 Da
Avg. molecular col of Amino Acid = 110 Da
y.dy = x.dx o variable - seprate D.E.
? No. of Amino Acid in given Protein
x dx y.dy
y 22000
200
20
110
x2 y2 So, No. of nucleotide = 200 × 3 = 600.
c ...(1)
2 2 600
So, the size of the cDNA = 0.6 kb
1000
31. Given 1
C6H12O6 + 0.48NH3 + 3O2 o 0.48C6H10O3N + 3.12 CO2 + 4.32 H2O
Moles: 1 0.48 3 0.48 3.12 4.32
MW: 180 144
Working volume = 100000 L. Group-I Group-II
Amount of yeast biomass. = 100000 L × 50 g/L (Spectroscopic methods) (Biomolecular applications)
= 50,00,000 gm P. Infrared 1. Identification of
= 5000 kg functional groups
Q. Circular Dichroism 2. Determination of
Total moles of yeast biomass
secondary structure
5000
34.722 kmol.
34 R. Nuclear Magnetic 4. determination of 3-D
144
Now, 1 kmol of yeast biomass required Resonance structure
1 36. ? Given data : Pressure drop 'p = 2 atm.
2.083 kmol of glucose
0.48 Inlet feed Pressure pi = 3 atm.
? 34.722 kmol of b/yeast biomass required Filtrate Pressure pf = 1 atm.
= 34.722 × 2.083 retandate Pressure pr = pi – 'p = 3 – 2 = 1 atm.
= 72.33 kmol glucose. Now average transmembrane pressure drop
? Total amount of glucose required = 72.33 × 180
Pi Pr 31
= 13019.4 kg, 'Pm Pf 1
2 2
32. Correct Match of instruments in Group I with = 2 – 1 = 1 atm.
their corresponding measurements
37. Pro amino acid residues will destabilize an D-helix
Group I Group II when inserted in the middle of the helix because
(Measurement) (Instrument) Proline does not have the D—NH group that acts
P. Manometer 2. Pressure difference as a stabilizing H-bond donor in the middle of the
Q. Rotameter 4. Air flow rate helix and Proline is not able to adopt the ideal I
and \ angles for an D = helix.
R. Tachometer 1. Agitator Speed
38. f(t) = t2 + 2t + 1
S. Haemocytometer 3. Cell Number
L[f(t)] = L[t2 + 2t + 1]
33. Histo-blood group ABO system transferase is an
enzyme with glycosyltransferase activity, which = L[t2] = 2L[t] + L[1]; Using linearity property
is encoded by the ABO gene in humans. It is
ubiquitously expressed in many tissues and cell 2! 2 1 n
n!
3 2
;sin ceL t n n 1
types. ABO determines the ABO blood group of s s s s
an individual by modifying the oligosaccharides
on cell surface glycoproteins. Variations in the 2 2 1
sequence of the protein between individuals L t t 3 2
.
s s s
determine the type of modification and the blood
group. 39. X Purple
Purple
34. In eukaryotes, the 5c cap (cap-0), found on the 5c
? Pp
end of an mRNA molecule, and consists of a Pp
guanine nucleotide connected to mRNA via an 3 : 1
unusual 5c to 5c triphosphate linkage. This Purple White
guanosine is methylated on the 7 position directly
after capping in vivo by a methyltransferase. It is
referred to as a 7-methylguanylate cap, 40. The statements: (Q) E-value < 10–10 indicates
sequence homology & (R) A higher BLAST score
abbreviated m 7G.
indicates higher sequence similarity, are
35. Correct Match of methods in Group I with the CORRECT when a protein sequence database is
applications in Group II. searched using the BLAST algorithm.
41. The CORRECT statements about the function of 47. Given data:
fetal bovine serum in animal cell culture are (P) It Difference in conc. of solute Between two
stimulates cell growth; (Q) It enhances cell compartment = 1.6 fold
attachment; (R) It provides hormones and minerals.
C2
42. Using trapezoid rule, we have 1.6
C1
b
h Now, Active transport eq. is given by.
d
f x dx y0 yn 2 y1 y2 ... y n 1
2 C2 E
a ,
ln C RT
Given 1
y0 = 0.37, y1 = 0.51, y2 = 0.71, y3 = 1.0, y4 = 1.40, R = 1.987 cal mol–1 k–1
1 T = 37 + 273 = 310 K
y5 = 1.95, y6 = 2.71 & h =
3 E = Energy required for active transport in cal
1 mol–1
1
? From 1 l; f x dx 3 0.37 32.271 C2
2 E ln R
RT
1 C1
+ 2[0.51 + 0.71 + 1.0 + 1.40 + 1.95]] = ln 1.6 × 1.987 × 310
1 = 289.50 cal mol–1
3.08 2 5
3 5.57
6 48. Given data: V1 = 1 L, N1 = 600 rpm, V2 = 8000 L
1 Now, Scale-up factor
³1 f x dx | 2.37
D2 Impeller diameter of large fermentor
43. The hexapeptide P has an isoelectric point (pI) of
D1 Impeller diameter of small fermentor
6.9. Hexapeptide Q is a variant of P that contains
valine instead of glutamate at position 3. The two D2 8000 D2 8000
peptides are analyzed by polyacrylamide gel ? 3 20 3 .
D1 1 D1 1
electrophoresis at pH 8.0. The correct statement
? D2 = 20D1
is P will migrate faster than Q towards the anode.
Now, the Scale-up criteria is constant impeler tip
44. Proportional Control action is the simplest and
speed NiDi, So, N1D1 = N2 D2
most commonly encountered of all continuous
control modes. In this type of action, the D1 1
N2 N1 600 30 rpm.
controller produces an output signal which is D2 20
proportional to the error. Hence, the greater the ? N2 = 30 rpm.
magnitude of the error, the larger is the
49. All three factors i.e. (P) Mg2+ concentration, (Q)
corrective action applied.
pH and (R) Annealing temperature, affect the
45. The statement 'Hydrogen bonds are weaker than fidelity of DNA polymerase in polymerase chain
van der Waals interactions' is incorrect. Van der reaction
Walls intermolecular forces form weak bonds
50. Correct Match of organelles in Group I with their
compared to hydrogen bonds.
functions in Group II.
46. Given data :
Group-I (organelles) Group-II (functions)
Phenol Conc. in 10000 ppm,
P. Lysosome 1. Digestion of foreign
= 10000 mgL –1 = 10 gL–1 = SR substances
Phenol Conc. out = 10 ppm, = 10 mg L–1 = 0.01 Q. Smooth ER 3. Lipid synthesis
gL = S –1
R. Golgi apparatus 2. Protein targeting
Input feed rate of wastewater = 80 Lh–1. = F S. Nucleolus 5. rRNA synthesis
μm = 1 h–1, Ks = 100 mg L–1, kd = 0.01 h–1 51. The statements, (P) Substrate concentration
= 0.1 gL–1 inside the chemostat is equal to that in the exit
stream; (Q) Optimal dilution rate is lower than
S 0.01
Now, D μm 1 0.091
0.0 critical dilution rate; (S) Cell recirculation
Ks S 0.1
0 1 0.01
00
0.0
01 facilitates operation beyond critical dilution rate;
F F 80 are ALWAYS CORRECT about an ideal chemostat.
D 0.091 V 879.1lit
V 0.091 0.091
52. Assertion [a] : It is possible to regenerate a whole 54. Tumor cells that are able to replicate endlessly
plant from a single plant cell. are fused with mammalian cells that produce a
Reason [r] : It is easier to introduce transgenes specific antibody which result in fusion called
in to plants than animals. hybridoma that continuously produce antibodies.
Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct Those antibodies are named monoclonal because
reason for [a]. they come from only 1 type of cell, which is the
hybridoma cell.
53. Given data: Kd = 4 min–1
55. Many factors influence the duration of lag time,
Nt = Desired Probability of containation = 10–3
including inoculum size, the physiological history
No = total No. of spores = 10000 L × 1000 ml × 106 of the cells, and the precise physiochemical
=1013 environment of both the original and the new
No growth medium.
? ln k d t nd , where t nd holding time
Nt Therefore, all three factors i.e. (P) Inoculum size;
13
(Q) Inoculum age; (R) Medium composition can
No 10
ln influence the lag phase of a microbial culture in
Nt 3
? The holding time t nd ln 10 a batch fermenter.
kd 4
? tnd = 9.21
S OLVED PAPER - 2020
INSTRUCTIONS
( a ) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. These
( b ) Numerical Answer Questions of 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. For these questions the
answer is a real number, to be entered by the candidate using the virtual keypad. No choices will be
shown for these type of questions.
period, helping winter sown crops such as wheat

GENERAL APTITUDE
and pulses during the November-February period.
Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each Which of the following statements can be inferred
1. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratana Award was conferred from the given passage?
______ Mary Kom, a six time world champion in (a) Officials declared that the food grain
boxing, recently in ceremony ____ the Rashtrapati production target will be met due to good rains
Bhawan (the President’s official residence) in New
(b) Officials want the food grain production
Delhi.
target to be met by the November-February
(a) with, at (b) on, in period.
(c) to, at (d) on, at (c) Officials feel that the food grain production
2. Despite a string of poor performances, the chances target cannot be met due to floods
of K.L Rahul’s selection in the team are _____ (d) Officials hope that the food grain production
(a) Slim (b) Bright target will be met due to a good rabi
(c) Obvious (d) Uncertain produce
3. Select the word that fits the analogy: 5. The difference between the sum of the first 2n
natural numbers and the sum of the first n odd
Cover: Uncover:: Associate: _____
numbers is _____
(a) Unassociate
(a) n2 – n (b) n2 + n
(b) Inassociate
(c) 2n – n
2
(d) 2n2 + n
(c) Misassociate
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each
(d) Dissociate
6. Repo rate is the rate at which Reserve Bank of
4. Hit by floods, the kharif (summer sown) crops in India (RBI) lends commercial banks, and reverse
various parts of the country have been affected. repo rate at which RBI borrows money from
Officials believe that the loss in production of the commercial banks.
kharif crops can be recovered in the output of
Which of the following statements can be inferred
the rabi (winter sown) crops so that the country
from the above passage?
can achieve its food-grain production target of 291
(a) Decrease in repo-rate will increase cost of
million tons in the crop year 2019-20 (July-June).
borrowing and decrease lending by commercial
They are hopeful that good rains in July- August
banks
will help the soil retain moisture for a longer
2 Solved Paper- 2020
(b) Decrease in repo-rate will decrease cost of 70

borrowing and increase lending by commercial Company P
60
banks Company Q
Profit percentage
(c) Increase in repo-rate will decrease cost of 50
borrowing and decrease lending by commercial
banks 40
(d) Increase in repo-rate will decrease cost of 30
borrowing and increase lending by commercial
banks 20
7. P,Q,R,S,T,U,V and W are seated around a circular 10
table
0
I. S is seated opposite to W 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018
II. U is seated at the second place to the right of R Year
III. T is seated at the third place to the right (a) 15 : 17 (b) 16 : 17
of R (c) 17 : 15 (d) 17 : 16
IV. V is a neighbour of S
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Which of the following must be true?
Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each
(a) P is a neighbour of R
1. Protein P becomes functional upon phosphorylation
(b) Q is a neighbour of R
of a serine residue. Replacing this serine with
(c) P is not seated opposite to Q _____ will result in a phosphomimic mutant of P.
(d) R is the left neighbour of S (a) alanine (b) aspartic acid
8. The distance between Delhi and Agra is 233 km. (c) phenylalanine (d) lysine
A car P started travelling from Delhi to Agra and
2. Ras protein is a
another car Q started from Agra to Delhi along
the same road 1 hour after the car P started. The (a) trimeric GTPase involved in relaying signal
two cars crossed each other 75 minutes after the from cell surface to nucleus.
car Q started. Both cars were travelling at (b) monomeric GTPase involved in relaying signal
constant speed. The speed of car P was 10km/hr from cell surface to nucleus.
more than the speed of car Q. How many (c) trimeric GTPase involved in regulation of
kilometres the car Q had travelled when the cars cytoskeleton.
crossed each other? (d) monomeric GTPase involved in regulation of
(b) 75.2 cytoskeleton.
(a) 66.6 3. Which of the following statements are
(d) 116.5 CORRECT?
(c) 88.2 [P] Viruses can play a role in causing human
cancer
9. For a matrix M = [mij]: i, j = 1, 2, 3, 4: the diagonal
elements are all zero and m ij = –m ji. The [Q] A tumor suppressor gene can be turned off
minimum number of elements required to fully without any change-in its DNA sequence
specify the matrix is _______. [R] Alteration in miRNA expression levels
(a) 0 (b) 6 contributes to the development of cancer
(c) 12 (d) 16 (a) P and Q only (b) Q and R only
(c) P and R only (d) P, Q and R
10. The profit shares of two companies P and Q are
shown in the figure. If the two companies have 4. Which class of antibody is first made by developing
invested a fixed and equal amount every year, B cells inside bone marrow?
then the ratio of the total revenue of company (a) IgG (b) IgE
P to the total revenue of company Q, during (c) IgA (d) IgM
2013-2018 is ______
Solved Paper- 2020 3
5. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the (c) Opine catabolism genes are located within the
following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r] T-DNA segment
regarding mammalian cells. (d) Opine biosynthesis genes are located within
Assertion [a]: Cells use Ca2+, and not Na+, for cell- the T-DNA segment
to-cell signaling 12. Which of the following types of molecules act as
Reason [r]: In the cytosol, concentration of Na+ is biological catalysis?
lower than that of Ca2+
[P] Protein [Q] RNA
[R] Phospholipid
reason for [a].
(a) P and Q only (b) P and R only
correct reason for [a]. (c) Q and R only (d) P, Q and R
(c) Both [a] and [r] are false. 13. Which one of the following media components is
(d) [a] is true but [r] is false. used to maintain pH in, mammalian cell culture?
6. Vincristine and vinblastine, two commercially (a) CaCl2 (b) MgSO4
important secondary metabolites from (c) NaCl (d) NaHCO3
Catharanthus roseus, are examples of 14. Which of the following are energy transducing
(a) alkaloids. (b) flavonoids. membranes?
(c) terpenoids. (d) steroids. [P] Plasma membrane of bacteria
7. DNA synthesized from an RNA template is called [Q] Inner membrane of chloroplasts
(a) recombinant DNA (b) transcript [R] Inner membrane of mitochondria
(c) T-DNA (d) complementary DNA (a) P and Q only
8. Two monomeric His-tagged proteins of identical (b) P and R only
molecular weight are present in a solution, pIs of
(c) Q and R only
these two proteins are 5.6 and 6.8. Which one of
the following techniques can be used to separate (d) P, Q and R
them? 15. Amino acid sequences of cytochrome c and ribulose
(a) Denaturing polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis 5-phosphate epimerase from 40 organisms were
chosen and phylogenetic trees were obtained for
(b) Size-exclusion chromatography
each of these two protein families.
(c) Ion-exchange chromatography
Determine the correctness or otherwise of the
(d) Nickel affinity chromatography
following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]
9. During a positive-negative selection process,
Assertion [a]: The two trees will not be identical
transformed animal cells expressing _______ are
killed in presence of ganciclovir in the medium. Reason [r]: The nature and frequency of mutations
in the two families are different
(a) pyruvate kinase
(b) viral thymidine kinase
reason for [a].
(c) viral serine/threonine kinase
(d) viral tyrosine kinase correct reason for [a].
10. A vector derived from which one of the following
(c) Both [a] and [r] are false.
viruses is used for high-frequency genomic
integration of a transgene in animal cells? (d) [a] is false but [r] is true.
(a) Adenovirus 16. A microorganism isolated from a salt-rich (salt
concentration ~2 M) lake was found to possess
(b) Adeno-associated virus
diglycerol tetraethers, with polyisoprenoid alcohol
(c) Lentivirus side chains, as the major lipid component of its
(d) Herpes simplex virus cell membrane. The isolated organism is
11. Which one of the following statements about (a) a planctomycete
Agrobacterium Ti plasmid is CORRECT?
(b) a cyanobacteria
(a) Vir genes are located within the T-DNA segment
(c) a unicellular amoeba
(b) Phytohormone biosynthesis genes are located
(d) an archaea
outside the T-DNA segment
17. A function f is as follows: Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each

26. A block of ice at 0°C is supplied heat at a constant
15 if x < 1
f (x)   rate to convert ice to superheated steam. Which
 cx if x  1 one of the following trajectories correctly
The function f is a continuous function when c is represents the trend of the temperature of the
equal to _______ (answer is an integer). system with time? Assume that the specific heat
of H2O is not a function of temperature.
Z
18. Given that Z = X2 + Y2, the value of for X = 1
Temperature
X
and Y = 0 is _______ (answer is an integer),
19. The elemental composition of dry biomass of a (a)
yeast species is CH 1.6O0.4N0.2S0.0024P0.017. The
contribution of carbon to the dry biomass is _____
% (round off to 2 decimal places). Time
[Given: atomic weights of H, C, N, O, P and S are
Temperature
1, 12, 14, 16, 31 and 32, respectively]
20. Solvents A and B are completely immiscible.
Solute S is soluble in both these solvents. 100 g (b)
of S was added to a container which has 2 kg each
of A and B. The solute is 1.5 times more soluble
Time
in solvent A than in solvent B. The mixture was
agitated thoroughly and allowed to reach Temperature
equilibrium. Assuming that the solute has
completely dissolved, the amount of solute in
solvent A phase is _________ g. (c)
21. The number of molecules of a nucleotide of
molecular weight 300 g/mol present in 10 Time
picomoles is ________ × 1012 (round off to 2
decimal places).
Temperature
22. To facilitate mass transfer from a gas to a liquid

phase, a gas bubble of radius r is introduced into
the liquid. The gas bubble then breaks into 8 (d)
bubbles of equal radius. Upon this change, the
ratio of the interfacial surface area to the gas Time
phase volume for the system changes from 3/r 27. The DNA sequence shown below is to be amplified
to 3n/r. The value of n is _______. by PCR:
5'GCTAAGATCTGAATTTTCC...TTGGGCA ATA
4 1 ATGTAGCGC3'
23. The largest eigenvalue of the matrix  2 1 
 3'CGATTCTAGACTTAAAAGG ... AACCCGTTAT
is _______ . TACATCGCG5'
Which one of the following pair of primers can be
24. A normal random variable has mean equal to 0,
used for this amplification?
and standard deviation equal to 3, The probability
that on a random draw the value of this random (a) 5GGAAATTCAGATCTTAGT3 and
5TGGGCAATAATGTAGCGC3
variable is greater than 0 is __________ (round
off to 2 decimal places). (b) 5GCTAAGATCTGAATTTTC3 and
5GCGCTACATTATTGCCCA3
25. A variable Y is a function of t. Given that Y (t = 0)= 1
(c) 5CGGAAATTCAGATCTTAG3 and
dY 5GCGCTACATTATTGCCCA3
and Y(t = 1) = 2, in the interval t = [0, 1] can
dt (d) 5GCTAAGATCTGAATTTTC3 and
be approximated as _________ . 5TGGGCAATAATGTAGCGC3
28. Which of the following statements about immune 31. In tomato plant, red (R) is dominant over yellow
response are CORRECT? (r) for fruit color and purple (P) is dominant over
green (p) for stem color. Fruit color and stem color
[P] T cells are activated by antigen-presenting
assort independently. The number of progeny
cells plants of different fruit/stem colors obtained. from
[Q] Foreign peptides are not presented to helper a mating are as follows:
T cells by Class II MHC proteins Red fruit, purple stem – 145
[R] Dendritic cells are referred to as professional Red fruit, green stem – 184
antigen-presenting cells Yellow fruit, purple stem – 66
(a) P and R only (b) P and Q only Yellow fruit, green stem – 47
(c) Q and R only (d) P, Q and R What are the genotypes of the parent plants in
29. Which of the following statements are this mating?
CORRECT about eukaryotic cell cycle? (a) RrPp × Rrpp (b) RrPp × RrPp
[P] CDKs can phosphorylate proteins in the (c) RRPP × rrpp (d) RrPP x Rrpp
absence of cyclins 32. Some of the cytokinins used in plant tissue
culture media are given below:
[Q] CDKs can be inactivated by phosphorylation
[P] BAP [Q] Zeatin
[R] Degradation of cyclins is required for cell cycle
[R] Kinetin [S] 2iP
progression
Which of these are synthetic analogs?
[S] CDKs are not involved in chromosome
(a) P and Q only (b) Q and S only
condensation
(c) R and S only (d) P and R only
(a) P and R only
33. Carl Woese used the gene sequence of which one
(b) P and S only of the following for phylogenetic taxonomy of
(c) P, Q and R only prokarvotes’?
(d) Q and R only (a) A ribosomal RNA of large ribosomal subunit
30. W, X and Y are the intermediates in a biochemical (b) A ribosomal RNA of small ribosomal subunit
pathway as shown below: (c) A ribosomal protein of large ribosomal subunit
S  W  X  Y  Z (d) A ribosomal protein of small ribosomal subunit
34. A list of pathogens (Group I) and a list of anti-
Mutants auxotrophic for Z are found in four
microbial agents (Group II) used to treat their
different complementation groups, namely Z1,
infections are given below. Match the pathogens
Z2, Z3 and Z4. The growth of these mutants on with the corresponding anti-microbial agents.
media supplemented, with W, X, Y or Z is shown
Group I Group II
below (Yes: growth observed; No: growth not
P. Influenza A virus 1. Isoniazid
observed):
Q. Fungus 2. Amantadine
Media supplemented with R. Plasmodium 3. Fluconazole
Mutants
W X Y Z S. Mycobacterium 4. Artemisinin
Zl No No Yes Yes 5. Iodoquinol
Z2 No Yes Yes Yes (a) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-5 (b) P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-1
Z3 No No No Yes (c) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5
Z4 Yes Yes Yes Yes 35. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the
What is the order of the four complementation following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].
groups in terms of the step they block? Assertion [a]: Dam methylase protects E. coli DNA
Z1 Z2 Z3 Z4 from phage endonucleases
(a) S ......  W  X  Y  Z Reason [r]: E. coli Dam methylase methylates the
adenosine residue in the sequence “GATC”
Z4 Z2 Z1 Z3
(b) S ......  W  X  Y  Z (a) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct
reason for [a]
Z3 Z1 Z2 Z4
(c) S ......  W  X  Y  Z
Z4 Z1 Z2 Z4 (c) Both [a] and [r] are false
(d) S ......  W  X  Y  Z
(d) [a] is false but [r] is true
36. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the 39. Which of the following strategies are used by cells
following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]. for metabolic regulation?
Assertion [a]: Embryonic stem cells are suitable [P] Phosphorylation - dephosphorylation
for developing knockout mice [Q] Allostery
Reason [r]: Homologous recombination is more [R] Feedback inhibition
frequent in embryonic stem cells than that in
(a) P and Q only (b) P and R only
somatic cells
(c) Q and R only (d) P, Q and R
(a) Both [a] and [r] are false
(b) Both [a] and [r] are true, and [r] is the correct following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].
reason for [a]
Assertion [a]: A zygote and its immediate
(c) Both [a] and [r] are true, but [r] is not the descendant cells are unspecialized and are called
correct reason for [a] totipotent
(d) [a] is true, but [r] is false Reason [r]: Totipotent cells retain the capacity to
37. The schematic of a plasmid with a gap in one of differentiate into only a few cell types
the strands is shown below: (a) Both [a] and [r] are false
ATCGCGATG (b) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the
TAGC AC correct reason for [a]
(c) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct
3OH 5OH
reason for [a]
(d) [a] is true but [r] is false
41. Which of the following statements about gene
therapy are CORRECT?
[P] Affected individuals, but not their progeny, can
be cured through germline gene therapy
[Q] Affected individuals, as well as their progeny,
can be cured through germline gene therapy
[R] Affected individuals, but not their progeny, can
be cured through somatic gene therapy
[S] Affected individuals, as well as their progeny,
Which of the following enzyme (s) is/are required can be cured through somatic gene therapy
to fill the gap and generate a covalently closed (a) P and R only
circular plasmid?
(b) P and S only
[P] DNA ligase
(c) Q and R only
[Q] Alkaline phosphatase
(d) Q and S only
[R] DNA polymerase
[S] Polynucleotide kinase
following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].
(a) P only (b) P, R and S only
Assertion [a]: A genetically engineered rice that
(c) P and R only (d) P, Q and R only produces beta-carotene in the rice grain is called
38. Match sub-cellular organelles listed in Group I Golden rice
with their features listed in Group II; Reason [r]: Enabling biosynthesis of provitamin
Group I Group II A in the rice endosperm gives a characteristic
[P] Mitochondrion 1. Single-membrane enclosed yellow/orange color
[Q] Chloroplast 2. Double-membrane enclosed (a) Both [a] and [r] are false
[R] Nucleus 3. Maternal inheritance (b) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the
[S] Endoplasmic 4. Endosymbiotic origin correct reason for [a]
reticulum (c) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct
(a) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3 (b) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 reason for [a]
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (d) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (d) [a] is true but [r] is false
43. The sequence of a 1 Mb long DNA is random. This 50. A function f is given as:
DNA has all four bases occurring in equal f (X) = 4X – X2
proportion. The number of nucleotides, on average,
The function f is maximized when X is equal
between two successive EcoRI recognition site
to ________ .
GAATTC is ________ .
51. An infinite series S is given as:
44. E. coli was grown In 15N medium for several
generations. Cells were then transferred to S = 1 + 2/3 + 3/9 + 4/27 + 5/81 + .... (to infinity)
14
N medium, allowed to grow for 4 generations The value of S is _________ (round off to 2 decimal
and DNA was isolated immediately. The places).
proportion of total DNA with intermediate density 52. Protein A and protein B form a covalent complex.
is ______ (round off to 2 decimal places). Gel filtration chromatography of this complex
45. A batch reactor is inoculated with 1 g/L biomass, showed a peak corresponding to 200 kDa. SDS-
Under these conditions, cells exhibit a lag phase PAGE analysis of this complex, with and without
of 30 min. If the specific growth, rate in the log beta-mercaptoethanol, showed, a single band
phase is 0.00417 min–1, the time taken for the corresponding to molecular weight 50 and 25 kDa,
biomass to increase to 8 g/L is ___________ min respectively. Given that the molecular weight of
(round off to 2 decimal places). protein A is 25 kDa, the molecular weight of
protein B is _______ kDa.
46. The system of linear equations
53. The concentrations of ATP, ADP and inorganic
cx + y = 5
phosphate in a cell are 2.59, 0.73 and 2.72 mM.
3x + 3y = 6 respectively. Under these conditions, free energy
has no solution when c is equal to __________ . change for the synthesis of ATP at 37°C is
47. The amino acid sequence of a peptide is Phe-Leu- _________ kJ/mol (round off to 2 decimal places),
Ile-Met-Ser-Leu. The number of codons that Given: free energy change for ATP hydrolysis
encode the amino acids present in this peptide is under standard conditions is –30.5 kJ/mol and
given below: R = 8.315 kJ/mol.K
Phe: 2 codons 54. An algorithm was designed to find globins in
Leu: 6 codons protein sequence databases. A database which has
Ile: 3 codons 78 globin sequences was searched using this
algorithm. The algorithm retrieved 72 sequences
Met: 1 codon of which only 65 were globins. The sensitivity of
Ser: 4 codons this algorithm is __________ % (round off to 2
The number of unique DNA sequences that can decimal places).
encode this peptide is ______. 55. The mitochondrial electron transfer chain oxidizes
48. Assume that a cell culture was started with five NADH with oxygen being the terminal electron
human fibroblast cells. Two cells did not divide acceptor. The redox potentials for the two half-
even once whereas the other three cells reactions are given below:
completed three rounds of cell division. At this
NAD  H  2e   NADH, E0  0.32V
stage, the total number of kinetochores in all the
cells put together is __________ . 1
O2  2H  2e   H2O, E0  0.816V
2
49. Growth of an organism on glucose in a chemostat
is characterized by Monod model with specific The free energy change associated with the
growth rate = 0.45 h–1 and Ks = 0.5 g/L. Biomass transfer of electrons from NADH to O2 is _______
from the substrate is generated as YXS = 0.4 g/g. kJ/mol (round off to 2 decimal places).
The chemostat volume is 0.9 L and media is fed Given: F = 96500 C/mol.
at 1 L/h and contains 20 g/L of glucose. At steady
state, the concentration of biomass in the
chemostat is __________ g/L.
ANSWERS
General Aptitude
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)
Biotechnology
1. (b) 2. (b or d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (a)
7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (a)
13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (15 to 15) 18. (2 to 2)
19. (51.01 to 52.99) 20. (60 to 60) 21. (5.99 to 6.05) 22. (2 to 2) 23. (3 to 3)
24. (0.49 to 0.51) 25. (1 to 1) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (d)
30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d)
36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (d) 41. (c)
42. (c) 43. (4096 to 4096)44. (0.11 to 0.14) 45. (526.01 to 529.99) 46. (1 to 1)
47. (864 to 864) 48. (1196 to 1196)49. (0 to 0) 50. (2 to 2) 51. (2.20 to 2.30) 52. (25 to 25)
53. (48.50 to 49.50 or 18521.20 to 18521.30) 54. (83.30 to 83.40) 55. (-219.30 to -219.20)
EXPLANATIONS
6. Decrease in repo-rate will decrease cost of
GENERAL APTITUDE borrowing and increase lending by commercial
1. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratana Award was conferred banks is the correct inference.
on Mary Kom, a six time world champion in 7. V
boxing, recently in ceremony at the Rashtrapati
Bhawan (the President's official residence) in New S
Delhi.
2. Despite means without being affected by R V
something.
3. Dissociate is the opposite of Associate.
W T
4. Officials hope that the food grain production target U
will be met due to a good rabi produce. V can take any of the two positions.
5. Sum of first n natural numbers In above diagram, P can not be seated opposite to
 n  n  1  Q.
=  y
2 x
8. Delhi Agra
Sum of first 2n natural numbers P X Q
 2n  2n  1 233 km
=  ....(1)
2 VP = VQ + 10 ...(i)
Sum of first n odd numbers = n2 ...(2) x = VP × 2.25
Difference of (1) and (2) y = VQ × 1.25
D = 2n2 + n – n2 = n2 + n x + y = 233
VP × 2.25 + VQ × 1.25 = 233 ...(ii) unintended and overactive signaling inside the
cell, even in the absence of incoming signals.
491
VP = km/hr Because these signals result in cell growth and
7
division, overactive Ras signaling can ultimately
421 lead to cancer.
VQ = km/hr 3. All three sentences are correct i.e. [P] Viruses
7
can play a role in causing human cancer [Q] A
Distance travelled by Q tumor suppressor gene can be turned off without
 y = VQ × 1.25 any change-in its DNA sequence [R] Alteration
in miRNA expression levels contributes to the
421
  1.25 development of cancer
7
4. IgM is not only the first class of antibody to appear
y = 75.17 km on the surface of a developing B cell. It is also the
9. Total no. of elements in in 4 × 4 matrix is 16; of major class secreted into the blood in the early
which four diagonal elements are zero. stages of a primary antibody response, on first
Remaining 12 elements can be divided in to two exposure to an antigen. (Unlike IgM, IgD molecules
equal groups of 6 elements each. Both groups are are secreted in only small amounts and seem to
opposite signed elements to meet the given function mainly as cell-surface receptors for
condition. antigen.) In its secreted form, IgM is a pentamer
10. Let the fixed investment annually be ‘A’. composed of five four-chain units, giving it a total
of 10 antigen-binding sites. Each pentamer contains
Total revenue of company P (2013 to 2018)
one copy of another polypeptide chain, called a J
= 1.1A + 1.2A + 1.4A + 1.4A + 1.5A + 1.4A = 8A
(joining) chain. The J chain is produced by IgM-
Total revenue of Company Q (2013 to 2018) secreting cells and is covalently inserted between
= 1.2A + 1.3A + 1.3A + 1.5A + 1.6A + 1.6A = 8.5 A two adjacent tail regions.
5. Assertion [a]: Cells use Ca2+, and not Na+ , tor
BIOTECHNOLOGY cell-to-cell signalling is true but the Reason [r]:
1. Protein P becomes functional upon In the cytosol, concentration of Na+ is lower than
phosphorylation of a serine residue. Replacing this that of Ca2+ is false.
serine with aspartic acid will result in a
6. Vinblastine and vincristine are alkaloids found in
phosphomimic mutant of P.
the Madagascar periwinkle, Catharanthus roseus
2. These proteins are monomeric proteins of (formerly known as Vinca rosea).
approximately 20–30 kDa with conserved
The natives of Madagascar traditionally used the
structures and functions. These proteins bind
vinca rosea to treat diabetes. In fact it has been
guanine nucleotides and function as a molecular
used for centuries throughout the world to treat
switch by shuttling between GTP-bound and
all kinds of ailments from wasp stings, in India,
GDP-bound forms.
to eye infections in the Caribbean.
Ras is a family of related proteins which is
They work by preventing mitosis in metaphase.
expressed in all animal cell lineages and organs.
These alkaloids bind to tubulin, thus preventing
All Ras protein family members belong to a class
the cell from making the spindles it needs to be
of protein called small GTPase, and are involved
able to divide. This is different from the action of
in transmitting signals within cells (cellular signal
taxol which interferes with cell division by
transduction). Ras is the prototypical member of
keeping the spindles from being broken down.
the Ras superfamily of proteins, which are all
related in 3D structure and regulate diverse cell Vinblastine is mainly useful for treating Hodgkin’s
behaviours. disease, advanced testicular cancer and advanced
breast cancer. Vincristine is mainly used to treat
When Ras is ‘switched on’ by incoming signals, it
acute leukemia and other lymphomas.
subsequently switches on other proteins, which
ultimately turn on genes involved in cell growth, 7. Complementary DNA (cDNA) is the DNA
differentiation and survival. Mutations in ras produced on an RNA template by the action of
genes can lead to the production of permanently reverse transcriptase (RNA-dependent DNA-
activated Ras proteins. As a result, this can cause polymerase). The sequence of the cDNA becomes
complementary to the RNA sequence.
8. Given two proteins have similar molecular weight. 14. [P] Plasma membrane of bacteria and [R] inner
The ISO electric points are 5.6 & 6.8. membrane of mitochondria are energy
transducing membranes.
Now, we know that ISO electric focusing can
resolve protein that differ in PI values as little as 15. As given per paragraph; Both [a] and [r] are true
0.01. and [r] is the correct reason for [a] i.e. Assertion
[a]: The two trees will not be identical and Reason
 Isoelectric focusing is the 1st step in [r]: The nature and frequency of mutations in the
two-dimensional gate electrophoresis. two families are different are true and [r] is the
 So, given proteins can be separated by using correct reason for [a].
Denaturing Poly a chefamide. 16. Halophiles are organisms that thrive in high
9. During a positive-negative selection process, salt concentrations. They are a type of
transformed animal cells expressing viral extremophile organism. The name comes from
thymidine kinase are killed in presence of the Greek word for “salt-loving”. Halophiles can
ganciclovir in the medium. be found anywhere with a concentration of salt
10. A vector derived from Lentivirus is used for high- five times greater than the salt concentration of
frequency genomic integration of a transgene in the ocean, such as the Great Salt Lake in Utah,
Owens Lake in California, the Dead Sea, and in
animal cells. The kinetics of lentivirus integration
evaporation ponds.
into the target genome defines the degree of
genotypic mosaicism found in the resulting lim f ( x) = lim f ( x)
17. x 1
animal. Integration events occurring subsequent x 1
to the first cell division will, indeed, limit the 15 = c

presence of individual proviruses to only a subset
of cells and, hence, condition their rate of c  15
transmission to the first generation (G1) progeny. 18. z = x + y
2 2
11. Opines are low molecular weight compounds

found in plant crown gall tumours or hairy root z
= 2x
tumours produced by pathogenic bacteria of the x
genus Agrobacterium and Rhizobium.[1] Opine
biosynthesis is catalyzed by specific enzymes  z 
  =21=2
encoded by genes contained in a small segment  x  at x1& y0
of DNA (known as the T-DNA, for ‘transfer DNA’),
which is part of the Ti plasmid (in Agrobacterium) 19. The molecular weight of yiest can found using
or Ri plasmid (in Rhizobium), inserted by the composition
bacterium into the plant genome. The opines are CH1.6O0.4N0.2S0.0024P0.017
used by the bacterium as an important energy, = 12 + (1.6 × 1) + (0.4 × 16) + (0.2 × 14)
carbon and nitrogen source. + (0.0024 × 32) + (0.017 × 31)
12. Protein and RNA, types of molecules act as = 23.404
biological catalysis.
12
13. The most commonly used buffer in tissue culture Now, amount of carbon present = 100
23.404
media is the bicarbonate + carbon dioxide buffer
= 51.27%
but phosphate or tris buffers have also been used.
Each of these buffers has particular disadvantages 20. Solvent A = 2 kg
for use with in vitro biological systems. The Solvent B = 2 kg
bicarbonate+ CO2 buffer, pKa of 6"3 at 37 °, has Now, 100 gm solute S is added.
the obvious limitation that one component is in Solubility of solute S in solvent A is 1.5 times
the gaseous phase and tissue cultures must be than in solvent B.
maintained in a closed system. Although the Let assume x amount of solute S dissolved in
phosphate buffer has a more suitable pKa, 6"9 at solvent B
37 °, phosphates form insoluble complexes with
 1.5 x amount of solute S dissolve in solvent A.
essential divalent cations when used at
concentrations necessary for a suitable buffering Now, 1.5x + x = 100 gm
capacity.  x = 40 gm
So, amount of solute in solvant A = 1.5x |A – I| = 0

= 1.5 × 40 = 60 gm
4 1
21. Molecular weight of nucleotide = 300 gm =0
2 1
1 mole contains 6.023 × 1023 molecules
1 Pico mole = 10–12 moles (4 – ) (1 –) + 2 = 0
 Pico mole = 10–11 moles 4 –  + 2 – 4 + 2 = 0
 10–11 moles contain = 6.023 × 1023 × 10–11 2 – 5 + 6 = 0
= 6.023 × 1012 molecules 2 – 3– 2 + 6 = 0
22. Radius of original gas bubble = r (– 3) (– 2) = 0
Interfacial surface area of large bubble = 4r2  = 3, 2
4 3 Largest eigen value = 3
Volume of large bubble = r 24.
3
Mean ± SD
Interfacial surface area 0±3
 Ratio of of large bubble
Gas phase volume
4r 2 3
= 4 
r
r 3 3 0 –3
3
Now, large bubble breaks into 8 small bubble of Probability of random variable more than 0
equal radius. (shaded area) = 0.5 or 50%
r 25. Y2 = 2 Y2 – Y 1 = 2 – 1 = 1
So, the radius of small bubble = Y1 = 1
8
Now, interfacial surface area of small bubble t1 = 0
2 t2 = 1
r
= 4  
8 2 1
 Y= =1
10
3
4 r 26. When ice block which is at 0°C supplied heat at
Gas phase volume of small bubble =  
3 8 constant rate than it posses a heat of fusion at
0°C. Until entire block of ice over come the heat
Interfacial surface area of fusion than temperature of the melted water
 Ratio of of small bubbles
Gas phase volume is constant upon supplying heat. Then the
temperature of water will rise linearly with the
2
supplied heat. Again near vaporization point, the
r water does not get starting vaporize until the
4  
8 3 3 8 latent heat of vaporization will not be overcome
= = 
4 r
3
r r by the supplied heat so during this temperature
    is constant for some time and after that
3 8 8
temperature is increasing again. So option (a)
As per the problem statement the ratio is changed shows this behaviour.
from 27. The 3’ end of a primer has to be towards the inside
of the target sequence to be amplified. In other
3 n words, a primer should bind to the 3’ end of any
to 3 template strand for its amplification. Considering
r r
this rule plus the anti-parallel nature of
3n 3  8 complimentary strands of DNA the answer is B
So, 
r r i.e.
So, n=8 5GCTAAGATCTGAATTTTC3 and
5GCGCTACATTATTGCCCA3
 4 1
23. Let A =   pair of primers can be used for the given
  2 1 amplification.
28. Statements about immune response i.e. [P] T cells Most laboratory strains of E. coli contain three
are activated by antigen-presenting cells and [R] site-specific DNA methylases. The methylase
Dendritic cells are referred to as professional encoded by the dam gene (Dam methylase)
antigen-presenting cells are CORRECT. transfers a methyl group from S-
29. Statements i.e. [Q] CDKs can be inactivated by adenosylmethionine (SAM) to the N6 position of
phosphorylation [R] Degradation of cycling is the adenine residues in the sequence GATC (1,2).
required for cell cycle progression are CORRECT 36. Both i.e. Assertion [a]: Embryonic stem cells are
about eukaryotic cell cycle. suitable for developing knockout mice and Reason
30. Auxotrophic mutants are strains that require [r]: Homologous recombination is more frequent
a growth supplement that the organism isolated in embryonic stem cells than that in somatic cells
from nature (the wild-type strain) does not require are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a].
i.e. mutant strain of microorganism that will
37. The DNA polymerase will add new nucleotides at
proliferate only when the medium is
the 3’OH end, Polynucleotide will transfer
supplemented with some specific substance not
phosphate group to the 5’OH end and Ligase will
required by wild-type organisms.
create the phosphodiester bond to create the final
32. Synthetic analogs are defined as the artificial covalently linked double stranded plasmid.
compounds differing from the natural compounds
in their structure, resemblance and function. 38. Correct match of sub-cellular organelles with their
Synthetic refers to any material made from non- features is:
natural sources. Cytokinins used in plant tissue Group I Group II
culture media i.e. [P] BAP and [R] Kinetin are (sub-cellular organelles) (features)
synthetic analogs.
(P) Mitochondrion 3. Maternal inheritance
33. Carl Woese used the gene sequence of a ribosomal
RNA of small ribosomal subunit for phylogenetic (Q) Chloroplast 4. Endosymbiotic origin
taxonomy of prokaryotes. n the early 1970s, (R) Nucleus 2. Double-membrane
Woese realized that the sequence of 5S enclosed
ribosomal RNA contained too few nucleotides (S) Endoplasmic 1. Single-membrane
(120) to provide a way to classify thousands of reticulum enclosed
organisms. This led him to take on the daunting
39. (P) Phosphorylation and dephosphorylation
task of analysing 16S ribosomal RNA, which
contains more than 1,500 nucleotides are important posttranslational modifications
of native proteins, occurring site specifically
34. Correct match of the pathogens with
on a protein surface. These biological
corresponding microbial agent is:
processes play important roles in intracellular
Group I Group II signal transduction cascades and switching
(Pathogens) (microbial agent) the enzymatic activity.
(P) Influenza A virus 2. Amantadine (Q) Allostery is the process by which biological
(Q) Fungus 3. Fluconazole macromolecules (mostly proteins) transmit
(R) Plasmodium 4. Artemisinin the effect of binding at one site to another,
often distal, functional site, allowing for
(S) Mycobacterium 1. Isoniazid
regulation of activity.
35. Assertion [a]: Dam methylase protects E.coli DNA
from phage endonucleases is FALSE but Reason (R) Feedback inhibition is defined as the
[r]: E.coli Dam methylase methylates the process in which the end product of a reaction
adenosine residue in the sequence “GATC” is true. inhibits or controls the action of the enzyme
that helped produce it. In other words, it
DAM methylase, an abbreviation for
refers to a situation wherein the end products
deoxyadenosine methylase, is an enzyme that adds
a methyl group to the adenine of the sequence 5'- formed at the end of a sequence of reactions
GATC-3' in newly synthesized DNA. Immediately participate in suppressing the activity of the
after DNA synthesis, the daughter strand remains enzymes that helped synthesis the end
unmethylated for a short time. It is an orphan product(s).
methyltransferase that is not part of a restriction- Therefore (P) Phosphorylation and depho-
modification system and regulates gene sphorylation, (Q) Allostery and (R) Feedback
expression. Dam methylase is unique to inhibition, strategies are used by cells for
prokaryotes and bacteriophages metabolic regulation.
40. Assertion [a]: A zygote and its immediate 45. Initial conc. of biomass = 1 g/L = X0
descendant cells are unspecialized and are called Lag phase of cells = 30 min
totipotent is TRUE but Reason [r]: Totipotent cells Specific growth rate in log phase,  = 0.00417 min–1
retain the capacity to differentiate into only a few
Now, final conc. of biomass = Xt = 8 g/L
cell types is FALSE
41. Statements, given bellow about gene therapy are dx
We know that, = X
CORRECT: dt
[Q] Affected individuals, as well as their progeny, Nt
can be cured through germline gene therapy  ln = t
N0
[R] Affected individuals, but not their progeny,
can be cured through somatic gene therapy ln N t N 0 ln  8 1
 t= 
42. Both i.e. Assertion [a]: A genetically engineered  0.00417
rice that produces beta-carotene in the rice grain = 498.67 min
is called Golden rice and Reason [r]: Enabling
So, total time to reach cell conc 8 g/L = lag phase
biosynthesis of provitamin A in the rice endosperm time + log phase time
gives a characteristic yellow/orange color, are true
= 30 min + 498.67 min = 528.67 min
and [r] is the correct reason for [a].
46. cx + y – 5 = 0
43 Sequence of DNA = 1 Mb
3x + 3y – 6 = 0
= 1024 base. No solution condition is as follows
DNA has all four bases. Occuring in equal
proportion. a1 b1 c1
 
So, the number of nucleotides between two a2 b2 c2
successive EcoRI recognition site GAATTC is equal
to the total nucleotides on 1 Mb sequence of DNA. c 1 5
 
This equal to 1024 × 4 = 4096 number of nucleo 3 3 6
tides.
c 1
44. Let assume E.coli was grown in 15N medium for
n generation. 48. 5 human fibroblast cells from these 2 are not
So, the total DNA forms cells after growing in divide while 3 undergone 3 rounds of cell division.
15N medium. So, total number of cells after 3 rounds of cell
division.
Nt1 = N02n
= 2 + 23 + 23 + 23 = 26 cells.
Now, these Nt1 cells transferred to 14N medium
So, total number of Kinetochores in all cells
and allows to grow for 4 generations.
= 26 × 46 = 1196
So, the total DNA from cells after growing in 14N
medium. 49. Given,  = 0.45 h–1, KS = 0.5 g/L, Yxis = 0.4 g/g
Feed rate F = 1 L/hr,
Nt2 = Nt1 24 = N02n24 = N02(n + 4)
Chemostate volume V = 0.9 L
So, the proportion of total DNA with intermediate
density. Glucose concentration in feed = 20 g/L
F
1  Nt1  1  N 0 2 n  1  1  Dilution rate D =  1.11
=       V
0.5  Nt 2  0.5  N 0 2 n 4  0.5  2 4 
As dilution rate is higher than the volume of
= 0.125 chemostate itself so, during the process the
biomass as well as substrate will carried away or
Because after transfering cells from 15N medium it will be displaced from the chemostate.
14N 1 So, no biomess will be grown. (washout will occurs)
to medium the DNA is heavy (from the
2 So, concentration of biomass in chemostate
1
Parent 15N) and light (Newly grown i.e. from = O g/L.
2
14N medium).
50. f(x) = 4x – x 2
(2.59 mm)  1000
=
f(x) = 0  0.73 mm  2.72 mm 
4 – 2x = 0 K = 1304.4
 G° = G° + RT ln K
x2
= + 30.5 + (8.315 × 310 × ln 1304.4)
2 3 4 5 = 18521.26 KJ/mol.
51. S = 1      ............
54. Database has 78 globin sequences.
3 9 27 81
The algorithm retrived 72 sequences from 78
2 3 4 globin sequences.
S = 1  21  31  4 1  ............
3 3 3 Further, out of 72 retrived sequences 65 were
globins.
2 3 n
S = 1   ............ n1  72  65 
32 1 331 3  Sensitivity of algorithm =     100
 78  72 
S = 1 + 0.6666 + 0.3333 + 0.1481 + 0.0617 + 0.0247 = 83.33%
+ 0.0096 + 0.0037 + 0.0014 + ......
55. Two half-cell reactions are given by
S = 2.2 (approximately)
NAO+ + H+ 2e–  NAOH E0 = –0.32 V
53. ATP synthesis equal is given by
1/2 U2 + 2H+ + 2e–  H2O E0 = 0.816 V
ADP + Pi  ATP
The concentration of each species is given as, NAO+ + 3H+ + 1/2 O2 + 4e–  NADH + H2O E0
[ADP] = 0.73 mm, [Pi] = 2.72 mm, [ATP] = 2.59 = 0.496
mm Number of electron transfered n = 4,
Temp T = 273 + 37 = 310 K F = 96500 C/mgl
R = 8.315 KJ/(ml K)
 96500 
G° = + 30.5 KJ/ml  f ° = – nFE0 = 4   (0.496) kJ/ml
 1000 
G = G° + RT ln K = – 191.46 KJ/ml
Now, K per the ATP synthesis reaction is given
by
 ATP  1M
K =
 ADP  1M   Pi  1M 
SOLVED PAPER - 2021
INSTRUCTIONS
(c) Multiple Select Questions (MSQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all the papers and sections.
These questions are objective in nature, and each will have choice of four answers, out of which ONE
or MORE than ONE choice(s) is / are correct.
marking for numerical answer type questions & multiple selection questions.
GENERAL APTITUDE Which of the following is the CORRECT

observation about the above two sentences?
Q.1 to Q.5 : Multiple Choice Question (MCQ),
carry ONE mark each (for each wrong (a) (i) is grammatically correct and (ii) is
answer: - 1/3). unambiguous
1. The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 7 to 3. Among (b) (i) is grammatically incorrect and (ii) is
the options below, an acceptable value for the total unambiguous
number of students in the class is: (c) (i) is grammatically correct and (ii) is
(a) 21 (b) 37 ambiguous,
(c) 50 (d) 73 (d)(i) is grammatically incorrect and (ii) is
ambiguous
2. A polygon is convex if, for every pair of points, P
and Q belonging to the polygon, the line segment
PQ lies completely inside or on the polygon. 4.
Which one of the following is NOT a convex
polygon?
A circular sheet of paper is folded along the lines

(a) (b) in the directions shown. The paper, after being
punched in the final folded state as shown and
unfolded in the reverse order of folding, will look
like_______.
(c) (d) (a) (b)
3. Consider the following sentences:

(i) Everybody in the class is prepared for the
exam. (c) (d)
(ii) Babu invited Danish to his home because he
enjoys playing chess.
2 SOLVED PAPER - 2021
5. _____ is to surgery as writer is to _____ 9. Given below are two statements 1 and 2, and two
Which one of the following options maintains a conclusions I and II.
similar logical relation in the above sentence? Statement 1: All bacteria are microorganisms.
(a) Plan, outline Statement 2: All pathogens are microorganisms.
(b) Hospital, library Conclusion I: Some pathogens are bacteria.
(c) Doctor, book Conclusion II: All pathogens are not bacteria.
(d) Medicine, grammar Based on the above statements and conclusions,
Q.6 to Q.10 : Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), which one of the following options is logically
carry TWO marks each (for each wrong CORRECT?
answer: - 2/3). (a) Only conclusion I is correct
6. We have 2 rectangular sheets of paper, M and N, (b) Only conclusion II is correct
of dimensions 6 cm  1 cm each. Sheet M is rolled (c) Either conclusion I or II is correct.
to form an open cylinder by bringing the short
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is correct.
edges of the sheet together. Sheet N is cut into
equal square patches and assembled to form the 10. Some people suggest anti-obesity measures
largest possible closed cube. Assuming the ends (AOM) such as displaying calorie information in
of the cylinder are closed, the ratio of the volume restaurant menus. Such measures sidestep
of the cylinder to that of the cube is _____ addressing the core problems that cause obesity:
poverty and income inequality.
 3 Which one of the following statements
(a) (b)
2  summarizes the passage?
(a) The proposed AOM addresses the core
9
(c) (d) 3 problems that cause obesity.

(b) If obesity reduces, poverty will naturally
7. Items Cost (`) Profit % Marked Price (`) reduce, since obesity causes poverty.
P 5,400 --- 5,860 (c) AOM are addressing the core problems and
are likely to succeed.
Q --- 25 10,000
(d) AOM are addressing the problem superficially.
Details of prices of two items P and Q are
presented in the above table. The ratio of cost of BIOTECHNOLOGY
item P to cost of item Q is 3:4. Discount is Q.1 to Q.17 : Multiple Choice Question
calculated as the difference between the marked (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong
price and the selling price. The profit percentage answer – 1/3).
is calculated as the ratio of the difference between 1. Coronavirus genome consists of
selling price and cost, to the cost
(a) double-stranded DNA
 Selling price  Cost 
 Pr ofit%   100 . (b) double-stranded RNA
Cost 
(c) negative-sense single-stranded RNA
The discount on item Q, as a percentage of its
(d) positive-sense single-stranded RNA
marked price, is ____
2. The enzyme that transcribes the eukaryotic genes
(a) 25
encoding precursor ribosomal RNAs
(b) 12.5 (pre-rRNAs) of 28S, 18S and 5.8S rRNAs is
(c) 10 (a) RNA polymerase I
(d) 5 (b) RNA polymerase II
8. There are five bags each containing identical sets (c) RNA polymerase III
of ten distinct chocolates. One chocolate is picked
(d) RNA polymerase IV
from each bag.
3. Number of unrooted trees in a phylogeny of five
The probability that at least two chocolates are
sequences is
identical is _____
(a) 3 (b) 15
(a) 0.3024 (b) 0.4235
(c) 105 (d) 945
(c) 0.6976 (d) 0.8125
SOLVED PAPER - 2021 3
4. Which one of the following methods is used to 10. Under standard temperature (T) and pressure (P)
test the significance of a predicted phylogeny? conditions, 128 g of an ideal gas molecule A
(a) Bootstrap occupies a volume of 1L. The gas molecule A
obeys the relationship RT = 0.25PV. R and V are
(b) Maximum likelihood
universal gas constant and ideal gas volume,
(c) Maximum parsimony respectively. The molecule A is
(d) Minimum evolution (a) CO2 (b) H2
5. The Cartesian coordinates (x, y) of a point A with (c) N2 (d) O2
  11. CRISPR-Cas system is associated with
polar coordinates  4,  is
 4 (a) adaptive immunity in eukaryotes
(b) adaptive immunity in prokaryotes
(a)  3, 2 2  
(b) 2,2 3  (c) innate immunity in eukaryotes
(d) innate immunity in prokaryotes
(c) 2 2, 3  
(d) 2 2, 2 2  12. The process by which intracellular
6. The order of genes present in a chromosome is macromolecules are supplied for lysosomal
as follows. degradation during nutrient starvation is
(a) apoptosis (b) autophagy
L M N O P Q
(c) phagocytosis (d) pinocytosis
Which one of the following rearrangements
13. The process and instrumentation diagram for a
represents a paracentric inversion?
feedback control strategy to maintain the level
(a) L O N M P Q (h) of a liquid by regulating a valve (V) in a tank
is shown below. F1 is inlet liquid flow rate, F2 is
(b) L M N P O Q outlet liquid flow rate, LT is the liquid level
transmitter, LC is the liquid level controller, hsp
(c) L M M N N O P Q is the setpoint value of the liquid level, hm is the
measured value of the liquid level and PV is the
(d) L M N O P Q valve pressure.
7. Which one of the following statements is
INCORRECT about hybridoma production?
(a) Hybridoma cells can use hypoxanthine and
thymidine
(b) DNA synthesis in myeloma cells is blocked by
aminopterin
(c) Hybridoma cells are made to produce
polyclonal antibodies
(d) Polyethylene glycol is used to fuse myeloma The manipulating variable(s) is/are
cells to B-cells (a) F1 only (b) F2 only
d (c) hm and PV only (d) hsp and PV only
8.
dx
 ln(2 x) is equal to
14. A protein without its prosthetic group is known
1 1 as
(a) (b)
2x x (a) apoprotein (b) hemoprotein
1 (c) holoprotein (d) lipoprotein
(c) (d) x
2
15. The enzyme which adds phosphate group to the
9. Which one of the following techniques/tools is free 5' terminus of a DNA sequence is
NOT used for inserting a foreign gene into a cell?
(a) adenosine kinase
(a) DNA microarray
(b) alkaline phosphatase
(b) Electroporation
(c) polynucleotide kinase
(c) Gene gun
(d) terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase
(d) Microinjection
16. Which one of the following is CORRECT about valve is closed and pressure P in R1 and R2 are
microbial growth medium? 9 and 6 atm, respectively. Later, when the valve
(a) Luria-Bertani broth is a synthetic medium is opened, the system reaches equilibrium. If the
(b) Nutrient broth is a defined medium temperature T of both the reactors is maintained
constant, the final equilibrium pressure in atm
(c) Sabouraud dextrose agar is a differential
of the system is _____.
medium
25. The enzyme  -amylase used in starch hydrolysis
(d) Trypticase soy agar is a complex medium
has an affinity constant (Km) value of 0.005 M.
17. The cellular process which utilizes RNA-induced
To achieve one-fourth of the maximum rate of
silencing complex to block gene expression is
hydrolysis, the required starch concentration in
(a) RNA editing mM (rounded off to two decimal places) is ____.
(b) RNA interference Q.26 to Q.34 : Multiple Choice Question (MCQ),
(c) RNA polyadenylation carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer
(d) RNA splicing – 2/3).
Q.18 & Q.19 : Multiple Select Question (MSQ), 26. Which one of the following represents non-
carry ONE mark each (no negative marks). growth associated product formation kinetics in
18. Which of the following layer(s) is/are formed from a bioprocess system? X and P denote viable cell
the inner cell mass of the blastocyst? and product concentrations, respectively.
(a) Ectoderm
(a) X (b) X
Concentration
Concentration
(b) Endoderm
(c) Mesoderm P P
(d) Trophectoderm
19. Which of the following cell organelle(s) is/are Time Time
surrounded by a single phospholipid membrane?
(a) Golgi apparatus (b) Lysosome (c) X (d) X
Concentration
Concentration
(c) Mitochondria (d) Nucleus

Q.20 to Q.25 : Numerical Answer Type (NAT), P P
carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).
20. The sum of the infinite geometric series Time Time
1 1 1 27. Match enzymes in Group I with their

1    ... (rounded off to one decimal
3 32 33 corresponding industrial application in Group II.
place) is _____. Group I Group II
21. Three balls, colored in blue, green and red, are P. Amylase 1. Laundry detergent
successively transferred from box A to box B in Q. Invertase 2. Fruit juice clarification
the order BLUE-GREEN-RED. The probability of R. Pectinase 3. Liquefaction of sucrose
a reverse transfer of the balls to the box A in the
S. Xylanase 4. Pulp and paper processing
same order (rounded off to two decimal places)
is _____. (a) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (b) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
22. Decimal reduction time of a bacterial strain is (c) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (d) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
20 min. Specific death rate constant in min–1 28. Match separation methods in Group I with
(rounded off to two decimal places) is _____. associated properties in Group II.
Group I Group II
 x  sin 2 x 
23. The value of lim  (rounded off to two P. Centrifugation 1. Density
x0  x  sin 5 x 
Q. Dialysis 2. Diffusivity
decimal places) is _____.
R. Solvent extraction 3. Size
24. A system consists of two reactors, connected by
S. Ultrafiltration 4. Solubility
a valve. The first reactor (R1) contains an ideal
gas A of volume 5 L and the second reactor (R2) (a) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (b) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
has an ideal gas B of volume 10 L. Initially, the (c) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (d) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
29. Match the autoimmune diseases in Group I with (3) poky 

the corresponding primarily affected organ in  × wild-type  All progeny are poky
Group II. (4) poky 
 × poky  All progeny are poky
Group I Group II Which one of the following explains the
P. Hashimoto's disease 1. Brain inheritance mode of poky?
Q. Juvenile diabetes 2. Pancreas (a) Episomal inheritance
R. Multiple sclerosis 3. Skeletal muscle (b) Mendelian inheritance
S. Myasthenia gravis 4. Thyroid (c) Mitochondrial inheritance
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (b) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (d) X-linked inheritance
(c) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (d) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 34. Tertiary structure of a protein consisting of
30. Match hypersensitivity types in Group I with their  -helices and  -strands can be determined by
corresponding condition in Group II.
(a) circular dichroism spectroscopy
Group I Group II (b) mass spectrometry
P. Type I 1. Erythroblastosis fetalis (c) nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy
Q. Type II 2. Host reaction to bee venom (d) UV spectroscopy
R. Type III 3. Systemic lupus Q.35 to Q.38 : Multiple Select Question (MSQ),
erythematosus carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).
S. Type IV 4. Tuberculin reaction 35. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
(a) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (b) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 CORRECT about Agrobacterium tumefaciens?
(c) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (d) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (a) It contains tumor inducing plasmid
31. Which of the following combinations of plant (b) It causes crown gall disease in dicotyledonous
hormones and their associated function are plants
CORRECT? (c) It is a Gram-positive soil bacterium
Hormone Function (d) It is used in generating transgenic plants
P. Abscisic acid Breaks seed dormancy 36. Which of the following antimicrobial agent(s)
Q. Auxin Induces cell division is/are growth factor analog(s)?
R. Ethylene Stimulates ripening of fruits (a) 5-Fluorouracil (b) Isoniazid
S. Gibberellin Promotes seed dormancy (c) Sulfanilamide (d) Tetracycline
(a) P and R only (b) P and S only 37. Which of the following chemical messenger(s)
is/are derivative(s) of tryptophan?
(c) Q and R only (d) Q and S only
(a)  -amino butyric acid
32. Which one of the following tools is used to
compare all the possible six-open reading frames (b) Indole acetic acid
of a given nucleotide query sequence with all the (c) Melatonin
available six-open reading frames of the nucleotide (d) Serotonin
sequence database?
38. Which of the following nucleus/nuclei is/are NMR
(a) BLASTN active?
(b) BLASTX (a) 1H (b) 13C
(c) TBLASTN (c) 16O (d) 32S
(d) TBLASTX Q.39 to Q.55 : Numerical Answer Type (NAT),

33. In Neurospora crassa, a mutation in the poky gene carry TWO marks each (no negative marks).
results in a slow growth phenotype (poky). The 39. In a Mendel's dihybrid experiment, a homozygous
results of four crosses are given below. pea plant with round yellow seeds was crossed
(1) wild-type  with a homozygous plant with wrinkled green
 × wild-type  All progeny are
seeds.
wild-type
F1 intercross produced 560 F2 progeny. The
(2) wild-type 
 × poky  All progeny are wild- number of F2 progeny having both dominant traits
type
(round and yellow) is _____.
40. A 0.1 mL aliquot of a bacteriophage stock having 49. Calculate the following integral
a concentration of 4 × 109 phages mL–1 is added
to 0.5 mL of E. coli culture having a concentration 2 / 4
of 2 × 108 cells mL–1. The multiplicity of infection  sin x dx  _______.
is _____. 0
41. If the area of a triangle with the vertices (k, 0),
50. A feed stream (F1) containing components A and
(2, 0) and (0, –2) is 2 square units, the value of k
B is processed in a system comprising of separation
is _____.
unit and a mixer as shown below in the schematic
42. In a chemostat with a dilution rate of 0.8 h–1, the diagram. The mole fractions of the components
steady state biomass concentration and the A and B are xA and xB, respectively. If F1 + F2 =
specific product formation rate are 8 mol m–3 100 kgh–1, the degrees of freedom of the system
and 0.2 (mol product)(mol biomass) –1 h –1 ,
is _____.
respectively. The steady state product
concentration in mol m–3 is _____.
43. If the values of two random variables (X, Y) are
F4
(121, 360), (242, 364) and (363, 362), the value of
correlation coefficient between X and Y (rounded XA4
off to one decimal place) is _____. XB4
F1 F3 F5 F6
1 1 1 1 Separation
Mixer
 1 1 1 1 XA1 XA3 Unit XA5 XA6
A 
44. The determinant of matrix  1 1 1 1 XB1 XB3 XB5 XB6
 1 1 1 3
F2
is _____. XA2
45. It is desired to scale-up a fermentation from 1L
XB2
to 1000 L vessel by maintaining a constant power-
to-volume ratio. The small fermenter is operated
at an agitator speed of 300 rotations per minute
(rpm). If the value of scale up factor is 10, agitator 51. A batch cultivation of E. coli follows zeroth order
speed in rpm (rounded off to the nearest integer) Monod's growth kinetics. The cell growth is
for the large fermenter is____ . terminated when the residual dissolved oxygen
46. The specific growth rate of a mold during concentration attains 10% of its saturation value
exponential phase of its growth in a batch and oxygen mass transfer coefficient (kLa) reaches
cultivation is 0.15 h–1. If the cell concentration at its maximum value (80 h–1). The saturation value
30 h is 33 g L–1, the cell concentration in gL–1 of dissolved oxygen concentration is 0.007 kg m–
3. If the maximum specific growth rate and yield
(rounded off to the nearest integer) at 24 h
 
is _____.
47. A sedimentation tank of height 100 cm is used in coefficient YX / O2 are 0.2 h–1 and 1.5 (kg cells)
a conventional activated sludge process to (kg O 2) –1 , respectively, then the final cell
separate a suspension of spherical shaped
concentration in kg m–3 (rounded off to two
granular sludge biomass of 0.5 mm diameter. The
decimal places) at the end of the batch cultivation
viscosity of the liquid is 1 cP. The difference in
is _____.
density between the suspended biomass and the
liquid is 0.1g cm–3. If the biomass reach their 52. Milk flowing through a stainless steel inner tube
terminal velocity instantaneously, the biomass (40 mm inner diameter) of double tube-type heater
settling time in min (rounded off to two decimal is to be heated from 10 °C to 85 °C by saturated
places) is ____. steam condensing at 120 °C on the outer surface
48. In a random mating population, Y and y are of the inner tube. Total heat transferred (Q) is
dominant and recessive alleles, respectively. 146200 kcal h–1 and the overall heat transfer
If the frequency of Y allele in both sperm and egg coefficient is 750 kcal h–1 m–2° C–1. The total length
is 0.70, then the frequency of Y/y heterozygotes of the heating tube in m (rounded off to one
(rounded off to two decimal places) is_____. decimal place) is _____.
53. A DNA solution of 50 g mL–1 concentration gives 55. A bacterium produces acetic acid from ethanol as
an absorbance of 1.0 at 260 nm. An aliquot of per the following reaction
20 L from a 50 L purified plasmid solution is 2CH3CH2OH + 2O2  2CH3COOH + 2H2O
diluted with distilled water to a total volume of The thermodynamic maximum yield of acetic acid
1000 L. The diluted plasmid solution gives an from ethanol in gg–1 (rounded off to two decimal
places) is _____.
absorbance of 0.550 at 260 nm. The concentration
of the purified plasmid in g L1 (rounded off to
two decimal places) is _____.
54. The possible number of SalI restriction sites in a
9 kb double-stranded DNA, with all four bases
occurring in equal proportion (rounded off to the
nearest integer) is ____ .
ANSWERS
General aptitude (GA)
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c)
7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)
Biotechnology
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b)
7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (a; b; c)
19. (a; b) 20. (1.5 to 1.5) 21. (0.16 to 0.18) 22. (0.10 to 0.13) 23. (0.25 to 0.25) 24. (7 to 7)
25. (1.60 to 1.80) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (a; b; d) 36. (a; b; c)
37. (b; c; d) 38. (a; b) 39. (315 to 315) 40. (4 to 4) 41. (0 or 4) 42. (2 to 2)
43. (0.5 to 0.5) 44. (8 to 8) 45. (64 to 65) 46. (13 to 14) 47. (1.20 to 1.30) 48.(0.41 to 0.43)
49. (2 to 2) 50. (6 to 6) 51. (3.70 to 3.80) 52. (23.0 to 24.0) 53. (1.37 to 1.38) 54. (2 to 2)
55. (1.90 to 2.00)

EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL APTITUDE Where h = 1, r is radious of base of cylender
1. Given: Ratio of boys to girls if 7 to 3 But, perimeter of base is 2r = 6 cm
 Multiples of 10 are : 6 3
 r= =
10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, 70, .......... 2 
2
 An acceptable value for the total number of  3 9
 V =    (1)  V = cm
3
students is 50.  
2.
1 cm
Here line segment does not lie inside of on the 6 cm

polygon. Hence the figure in option (B) is not a Sheet N
convex polygon
3. (i) is grammatically correct and
(ii) is ambiguous.
Statement 2 is ambiguous because we do not
know who enjoys playing chess, Babu or Danish!!
Statement 1 is grammatically correct.
4. A circular sheet of paper is folded along the lines
in the directions shown. The paper, after being 1
punched in the final folded state as shown and
unfolded in the reverse order of folding, will look
like figure (a).
1 cm
5. Doctor is to surgery as writer is to book i.e. option
(a) maintains a similar logical relation in the
sentence
6. Given, Volume of unit cube = 1 cm3
9 9
Required ratio = =
1 cm  
(1)
6 cm
7. Given: Ratio of cost of item P to cost of item
Sheet M Q=3:4
Cost of item P = 5400
Cost of item Q = 7200
Profit % on item Q = 25
1 125
 Selling price of item Q = 7200  = 9000
100
 Discount of item Q
= Marked price – Selling price
6 cm = 10,000 – 9000 = 1000
Volume of cylinder  Discount % = 1000  100 = 10

10000
V = r2h
3. Formula for unrooted tree in phylogeny

(2n  5)!
8. = n3 where n is number of taxas
2 (n  3)!
For 5 sequences,
Total number of cases in sample space
(2  5  5)! 5! 5  4  3  2!
= 10  10  10  10  10 =105 53 = 2 = = 15
2 (5  3)! 2 2! 4  2!
Event A  At least two chocolates are identical 4. Boot’s strapping is on method which provides
Probability of A, ie., P (atleast two are identical) confidence of the phylogenetic tree created
= 1– P (all different) showing the number of times a branch will be
observed while constructing the tree.
10  9  8  7  6 
 P(A) = 1  5. r = 4,  =
105 4
= 1 – 0.3024 = 0.6976 1
 x = r cos  = 4  =
2 2 2
9. Using Venn diagrams, the different possibilities
are 1
y = r sin  = 4  =
2 2 2
M M
M M
B P  
 Required point A is 2 2, 2 2 , option (c) is
B B P B correct.
P
P 6. L M NOPQ
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) L M NPOQ
From figure (i), conclusion I is incorrect
Because paracentric inversion do not involve
From figure (ii), conclusion II is incorrect centromere. It occurs within a single arm of
Hence, neither conclusion I nor II is correct chromosome.
10. As AOM are not addressing the core problems, 7. Hybridoma technology used to form monoclonal
they are superficial. antibodies not poly clonal antibodies, which binds
Superficial: shallow, cursory mean lacking in to single epitope of an antigen.
depth or solidity. superficial implies a concern only PEG is used to fuse myeloma cells to B-cell. It
with surface aspects or obvious features. acts as Fusogen.
Aminopterin block de novo synthesis of purine
BIOTECHNOLOGY formation, so therefore DNA replication is stop.
1. Coronaviruses are enveloped virus with positive- Hybridoma cells use hypoxanthine and Thymidine
sense SS RNA genome and a nucleocapsid of due to presence of enzyme hypoxanthine guanine
helical symmetry. phosphoribosyl transfer rase (HGPRT) Thymidine
Genome size –26 to 32 kbp. They cause respiratory kinases (TKs).
tract infections. SARS, MERS and COVID -19 are
d 1 d 1 1
lethal. 8.  l n(2 x) =  (2 x) = 2 =
dx 2 x dx 2x x
Coronavirus can cause pneumonia viral or
9. A microarray is a tool used to detect the
bacterial and bronchitis than may be lethal to
expression of thousand of genes or it is used to
humans.
check the gene expression of thousand genes at
2. To eukaryotes RNA pol I catalyze the formation a time. It is a Nucleic acid hybridization based
of r-RNA such as 28S, 18S and 5.8S rRNA method to detect expression of genes.
exception SS rRNA is catalyzed by RNA pol III.
Electroporation with the help of electric
RNA pol II catalyzes mRNA formation and other current temporary pores are formed DNA insert
regulatory RNA formation. into the cells.
RNA pol III catalyzes transfer RNA formation and Gene Gun: DNA coated on Gold or Tungsten
5S rRNA formation. particle and transfer into plant cells.
r-RNA is responsible for ribosome formation, Microinjection: It deliver foreign DNA into
which is involved in protein synthesis. living cells through glass micropipette.
10. Given, RT = 0.25 PV height setpoint) and sends a pressure signal (Pv)
We know that, RT = nPV to the valve. This valve top pressure moves the
valve stem up and down, changing the flow rate
Where n = number of moles
through the valve (F1). If the controller is
m designed properly, the flow rate changes to bring
And n = (m = given mass in g and M is molar
M the tank height close to the desired setpoint. In
mass in g) this process and instrumentation diagram dashed
lines are used to indicate signals between
128
 0.25 = different parts of instrumentation.
M
14. Apoprotein means protein part of an enzyme. It
128 lacks prosthetic group which may be metal ions
 M= = 512 g
0.25 or vitamin B complex such as NAD+, FAD, Biotin,
TPP etc.
512
So, A is O2 as = 16 Lipoprotein: It is a lipid protein complex and
32
involve in lipid transport such an HDL, LDL,
11. This system was discovered from prokaryotic
ULDL etc.
organism showing resistance to phages and
viruses whose guide sequence is already present Hemoprotein: It contains Heme such as
in the palindromic repeat sequence. Hemoglobin and its transport oxygen to body.
Hence is called an adaptive immunity and not Halo protein: It is a combination of protein and
innate. Non protein part of enzyme.
12. During starvation autophagy occurs it remove Holoenzyme: Apoprotein + Prosthetic group.
damage protein and organelles to prevent cell 15. Polynucleotide kinase add 5´ terminal phosphate
damage and intracellular molecules are digested to DNA. The kinases enzyme responsible for the
to provide the nutrients of cell needs. Transfer of phosphate.
Apoptosis is a programmed cell death process Alkaline phosphates remove phosphate from 5’
catalyzed by Fas, FasL, caspases lead to cell terminal phosphate of DNA molecule.
death. Tdt enzyme odd nucleotides to 3’ end of the DNA
Phagocytosis is the entrapment and engulfment molecule. It makes DNA sticky.
of antigen; it is done by phagocytic cell known as Adenosine kinase add phosphate group to
macrophage. Adenosine nitrogenous base.
Pinocytosis: It is a process by which liquid droplets 16. Trypticase soy agar is a complex media to grow
are injected by living cells. many types of bacteria, it grows certain
13. The measured variable for a feedback control pathogenic bacteria which have high nutritional
strategy is the tank height. Which input variable requirements.
is manipulated depends on what is happening in Sabouraud Dextrose Agar (SDA) is a selective
the 2 processes (process 1 and process 2). Let us media for the isolation of Dermatophytes such as
consider two different processes- process 1 and fungi and yeast.
process 2.Assume that the process 2 regulates LB and N.B is a complex media because nutrient
the flow-rate F2 and process 1 controls flow rate not defined, it contains beef extract and peptone
F1. This could happen, only, if process 2 is a steam where exact chemical composition is unknown.
generation system and process 1 is a deionization
process. Process 2varies the flow rate of water 17. RNA interference is a biological process where
(F2) depending on the steam demand. As far as RNA molecule inhibits gene expression or
the tank process is concerned, F2 is a “wild” translation, mi-RNA, si-RNA play a important
(disturbance) stream because the regulation of role, double stranded RNA molecule form cleaved
F2 is determined by another system. In this case, by DICER enzyme, that leads to RNA induced
the F1 would be used as the manipulated variable; silencing complex (RISC) formation.
that is, F1 is adjusted to maintain a desired tank RNA poly-adenylation: Where 50-250 adenine
height. Notice that the level transmitter (LT) residues bind to 3 end of mRNA catalyze by Pdy-
sends the measured height liquid in the tank (hm) Adenylate Polymerase (PAP).
to the level controller (LC). The LC compares the RNA Splicing: It removes introns and join the
measured level with the desired level (hsp, the exons which is coding region.
RNA editing: RNA molecules are edit by Guide After removal of valve – the environmental
RNA, by addition and deletion in RNA leads to condition is same then
truncated protein formation. Vtotal = V1 + V2 = 5 + 10 = 15
18. Gastrulation is the formation of the three layers ntotal = n1 + n2
of the embryo: ectoderm, endoderm, and
For ideal gas PV = nRT
mesoderm. The endoderm gives rise to the lining
of the digestive system and respiratory system. P = pressure,
The ectoderm gives rise to the nervous system V = volume,
and epidermis. The mesoderm gives rise to the R = gas constant,
muscle and skeletal systems. T = temperature
19. Vacuole, lysosome, Golgiapparatus Endoplasmic n = number of moles
reticulum are single membrane bound organelles
present only in eukaryotic cell. For n1 and n2 , P1 = 9 atm, P2 = 6 atm
Nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplast are double V1 = 5L, V2 = 10L
membrane bound organelles present only in P1 V1 PV
eukaryotic cells. n1 = , n2 = 2 2
RT RT
So therefore, lysosome and Golgi apparatus are
Let temperature T = 303K (constant),
correct.
and value of R = 0.08205 L.atm.mol–1.k–1
1 1 1
20. 1   2  3  ....... is infinite geometric series n1 = 1.81, n2 = 2.41
3 3 3
1 n = (n1 + n2 ) = 1.81 + 2.41 = 4.22
with common ratio r = (i.e., –1 < r < 1) and So for the two gas system
3
first term, a = 1
P * V*
a 3 1 = n,
 Required sum is = = = 1.5 RT
1– r 1 2 4.22  0.08205  303
1 p* =  7 atm
3 15L
21. The probability that three balls (red, green, blue, 
25. Given km = 0.005 M and  = m
respectively)successively, transferred from box A 4
to box B is
m m s
So, = k s (using MM kinetics)
1 1 1 1 4 m
  = = 0.1666  0.17
3 2 1 6 m ms
i.e., no change in both directions. =
4 0.005  s
 Xt 
 0.005 + s = 4s
22. l n  X  = –kdt 0.005
 o
 =s
3
 0.1   1.67 mM
ln
 1  = –kd(20)
26. X X X
Concentration
Concentration
Concentration
kd = 0.115 min–1 = 0.12 min–1

P
P P
  sin 2 x    sin 2 x  
 x  1  x     1  x  
lim   lim   Time Time Time
23. x  0   sin 5 x   = x  0   sin 5 x   Mixed growth Growth Non-growth
 x  1  5     1  5   Associated Associated Associated
27. Amylases: are the enzyme used in detergent
1 2  sin ax  formulation to improve the detergency. It is used
= = 0.25  lim  a
15 x0 x  to digest the starch grains.
24. Given a system with two reactor Xylanases: It is used in paper and pulp industry,
it act as bio bleaching agent, increase the pulp
R1 having ideal gas A – 5L at 9 atm
fibrillation and water retention. It reduce the
R2 having ideal gas B –10L at 6 atm beating time in virgin pulps.
Pectinases: It is involved in fruit juice clarification. Gibberellins, it is responsible for seed

This enzyme used to breakdown pectin polymer into germination, stem elongation, leaf expansion,
monomeric form galacturonic acid. pollen maturation and induction of flowering.
Invertase: It catalyze the hydrolysis of sucrose Abscisic acid is a growth inhibitor hormone in
into glucose and fructose, it is responsible for plants. It acts as antagonist to gibberellic acid. It
liquefaction of sucrose. is responsible for stress tolerance in plants.
28. Centrifugation is a technique used for the 32. Variants of BLAST
separation of particles from a solution according • BLASTN: Compares a DNA query to a DNA
to their size, shape, density, viscosity of the database. Searches both strands automatically.
medium and rotor speed. The particles are It is optimized for speed, rather than
suspended in a liquid medium and placed in a sensitivity.
centrifugal tube. The tube is then placed in a rotor
• BLASTP: Compares a protein query to protein
and spun at a defined speed.
database.
Ultra-Filtration (UF) is a pressure-driven barrier
• BLASTX: Compares a DNA query to a protein
to suspended solids, bacteria, viruses, entotoxins
database, by translating the query sequence
and other pathogens to produce water with very in the 6 possible frames and comparing each
high purity and low silt density. Ultra Filtration against the database (3 reading frames from
(UF) is a variety of membrane filtration in which each strand of the DNA) searching.
hydrostatic pressure forces a liquid against a semi
• TBLASTN: Compares a protein query to a DNA
permeable membrane.
database, in the 6 possible frames of the
29. Myasthenia gravis is a rare autoimmune disease database.
at the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle.
• TBLASTX: Compares the protein encoded in
Auto-anti bodies block the acetylcholine
DNA database, in the 6*6 possible frames of
receptors.
both query and database sequences (Note that
Diabetes it affects the pancreatic beta cells which all the combinations of frames may have
forms insulin, and the insulin formation defective different scores).
result in hyperglycemia.
• BLAST 2: Also called advanced BLAST. It can
Multiple sclerosis, it affects brain which matter, perform gapped alignments.
Th1, Tc and autoantibodies damages the brain
white matter. 33. 
 poky  progency poky
Hashimoto’s diseases: Thyroid protein and cells  wild type  progency wild type

are damaged by TDTH and autoantibodies.
Mitochondrial inheritance
30. Type I: 19E mediated hypersensitivity 19E Ab
34. Tertiary structure of a protein consisting of a-
binds to mast cells release Histamine that leads
helices and ß-strands can be determined by NMR.
to systemic and localized anaphylaxis.
Several methods are currently used to determine
Type II: 19G mediated hypersensitivity, it the structure of a protein, including X-ray
includes erythroblastosis fetalis, Autoimmune crystallography, NMR spectroscopy, and electron
hemolytic anemia. microscopy. Each method has advantages and
Type III: Immune complex mediated, in includes disadvantages. In each of these methods, the
systemic lupus erythema matosus, Arthritis and scientist uses many pieces of information to create
glomerulonephritis. the final atomic model.
Type IV: Cell mediated hypersensitivity TDTH 35. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a
cell mediated, it includes tubercular lesion • Gram Negative Bacteria
contact dermatitis and graft rejection. • Rod shaped bacterial
31. Auxin promote cell elongation, inhibits growth of • Present in soil
lateral buds, it induces cell division, cell expansion
• It infects dicots plants.
and cell differentiation.
• It has Ti-plasmid.
Ethylene act as plant growth regulator it
stimulates senescence, ripening and abscission. • It is responsible for crown gall Tumor in
It plays an important role in ripening of fruits. bacteria.
• The T-DNA (Transfer DNA) is entering to plant 40. Multiplicity of infection

cause Tumor in plants. 4  109 cells m l 1  0.1m l
• The T-DNA contains Auxin, cytokinin and = 2  108 cells m l 1  0.5ml = 4 (Ans)
opines genes.
41. Area of triangle with the vertices A (x1, y1), B (x2,
36. Option A B D is correct, because they are growth y2) and C (x3, y3) is
factor analogue, they inhibit PABA and stop purine
synthesis. But tetracycline is an antibiotic which 1 x1 y1
inhibits protein synthesis by blocking A site of 1
1 x2 y2 2
Ribosome therefore tetracycline drug is protein 2
synthesis inhibitor not growth factor analogue. 1 x3 y3
37. Melatonin is a hormone formed by PINEAL 1 k 0
GLAND, It is produced from tryptophan amino
1
acid. It is involved in circadian rhythms or diurnal 1 2 0 2
 2 =2
variations; it performs and Neurotransmitters also.
1 0 2
Serotonin: It is Neurotransmitter derive from
tryptophan. It is formed in intestinal cells. It is a 1
  2(k  2) = 2
vasoconstrictor, and it controls behavior patterns 2
sleep, blood pressure and body temperature.  |2 – k|= 2
Indole Acetic acid: It is a phytohormone.  2–k=2
Derived from tryptophan.  k=0
It regulates growth in plants. It is responsible for 42. Given, D =  = 0.8h–1 for chemostat, D = dilution,
cell division and elongation process.  = Specific growth rate of biomass production
 - amino butyric Acid: x = 8 mol/m3
It is inhibitory neurotransmitter.
1 dP
It is deriving from glutamate amino acid not from Qp = =0.2 h –1 , Q P = Specific product
X dt
truptophan amino acid.
formation rate constant
38. Except 1H all other elements needs to be present
in stable isotope form in order to be NMR active 1 dp
dp Qp
the element which changes its spin position when Yp/X = = = X dt = 0.2 = 0.25,
placed in a magnetic field. dX  1 dX 0.8
Example: 12C and 16O are not NMR active. X dt
Yp/x = Product yield (g of prod/ g of biomass)
RRYY rryy
39. Product Concentration
round yellow wrinkled green
P = Yp/X  X = 0.25  8 = 2 mol m3
X 1  121 Y1  360
_______ F1 43. n  3 X 2  242 Y2  364
RrYy
X 3  363 Y3  362
RY Ry rY ry
RY RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy 1
X = 3 [121  242  363] = 242
Ry RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy
rY RrYY RrYY rrYY rrYy 1
Y = 3 [360  364  362] = 362
ry RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy
1 1
 
2
Both dominant trait =

9 x =
n
 xi  X =
3
(121)2  (0)2  (121)2
16
9 2
Number of pea plant =  560 = 315 =  121 = 98.796
16 3
33 = X0e015  30
1 1
 
2
y =
n
 yi  Y =
3
(2)2  22  02 X0 = 0.367 g/L
Xt at 24h, Xt = 0.367  e015  24
8 = 13.43 g/L
=  1.632
3
47. Given,
1 Biomass (cell) Diameter
Cov(x,y) =  xi yi  XY
n
0.5
1 = 0.5 mm = = 0.05 cm
= [121 ]–242  10
3
121
P = Particle density, = solvent density
 [360 + 728 + 1086] – 242  362 (P – ) = 0.1 gcm–3
3
= 87684.6667 – 87604 = 80.667  = viscosity = 1Cp = 0.01 g/cms
cov( x, y) 80.6667 g = 9.8 m/s = 980 cm/s
 r=  x y = (98.796)  (1.632) = 0.5 So we know,Velocity of sedimentation exposed by
Stokes equation
1 1 1 1 g( p  )D2P
Vs =
1 1 1 1 18 
44.
1 1 1 1 980  0.1  (0.05)2
1 1 1 3 = = 1.36 cm/s
18  0.01
(Applying R2 + R1; R3 + R1; R4 – R1)
100 cm 100 1
1 1 1 1 Now time, =  min = 1.22 min
Vs 1.36 60
0 2 2 2 48. Y = dominant
= 0 0 2 2
y = recessive
0 0 0 2
Y = 0.70 and y = (1 – 0.70) = 0.30
is determinant of upper triangular matrix. Heterozygotes = 2pq
=1  2  2  2 = 8
= 2  0.70  0.30 = 0.14  0.3 = 0.42
45. Given, 1L to 1000 L
49. Put x = t2
Scale up factor –10
 dx = 2tdt
D1 1
N1 = 300 rpm, D = And x=0t=0
2 10
2 
N2 = ? x=  t =
4 2
P
For power to volume ratio    D2i  /2
V  Given integral becomes  sin t  2tdt
0
So,  D =  D


r
1


2
2
2
= 2[(t)(–cost)–(1)(–sint)] 0 / 2
D 
(300)3  1  = N32 ( Integration by parts)
D  2
= 2 [(0 – 0) + (1 – 0)] = 2
6
27  10 50. Consider F1 as independent variable and F2 as
3 = N2 = 64.63
102 dependent
Answer is 64 to 65 F1 + F2 = 100 kgh–1
46. Given, exponential growth rate = 0.15h–1 F = 100 – F1  (F2  dependent)
Cell concentration at 30hr is 33gL –1
F 1 – F 2 = F3
Cell concentration at 24h is _______ . F3 = F1 – (100 – F1)
We know, Xt = X0eut F3 = 2F1 –100 (F3  dependent)
F4 In mixer, mole fraction again changes

XA4 xA6 + xB6 = 1
XB4 xA6  independent xB6  dependent
Number of independent variables
F1 F3 F5 F6
Separation = Degree of freedom = 6
Mixer
XA1 XA3 Unit XA5 XA6 [F1, F4, xA1, xA4, xA5, xA6]
XB1 XB3 XB5 XB6 51. Given the cell growth will terminate at 10%
saturated oxygen concentration
F2
kLA = 80h–1,
XA2  = 0.2h–1,
XB2 YX / o2 = 1.5 kg.cells/kg of O2
Between F4 and F5, consider F4 as independent
C* = 0.007 kg.m–3, C = C*  10%
variable
We know for mass transfer equation,
Also, F3 – F4 = F5
F5 = 2F1 – 100 – F4 (F5  dependent) XqO2 = K La (C* – C)  constant
F6  F5 + F2 This formula will follow at equilibrium or at no
F6 = 2F1 – 100 – F4 + 100 – F1 (F6  dependent) growth
Hence, F1 and F4 are independent variables So, in the case at 10% saturation
Given, Mole fraction of A  xA We know, qO2 = oxygen up take rate constant.
Mole fraction of B  xB
1 dCO2 1 dX dCO2
Now, x A1 + x B1 = 1 =  = 
X dt X dt dX
or, x B1 = 1–x A1
Hence XA1 is independent  0.2
= Y = = 0.133
and XB1 is dependent X / O2 1.5
Hence, X(0.133) = 80(0.007 – 0.0007)
F1 F3
80(0.007  0.0007)
XA1 XA3 X= = 3.789
0.133
XB1 XB3
52. Given,
F2
40 mm
XA2 10ºC 85ºC
XB2 120ºC steam
We know,
Division in flow, does not result in change in
concentration. Overall heat transfer across heat exchanger
Hence, xA1 = xA3 and xB1 = xB3 Q = U  Aoverall TLMTD
Similarly, xA2 = xAl and xB2 = xB1 = 1 – xA1 U = overall heat transfer coefficient
Hence, xA3, xB3, xA2, xB2 are dependent variables. A = Area
In separation unit, flow divides concentration LMTD = Log mean temperature difference
changes Aoverall = 2r.L = 2   20  10-3.L = 0.1256L
Hence xA4 + xB4 = 1 T1 = (120 – 10) = 110ºC
Considering xA4 independent T2 = (120 – 85) = 35ºC
xB4 = 1 – xA4
xA4  independent, xB4  dependent T1  T2 110  35
TLMTD = = = 65.5ºC
Similarly, xA5  independent  T1   110 
ln l n  
xB5  dependent  T2  35 
Given, 54. Sal I restriction size = 6 base power frequency of

U = 750 kcal h .m .ºC
–1 –2 sal I restriction size = 46 = 4096
Q = 146200 kWh–1 The possible number of restriction size in 9kb
double-stranded DNA is
Q = U  Aoverall  TLMTD
146200 = 750  0.1256.L  65.5 9  10 3 9000
= = 2.19  2
46 4096
146200
= L = 23.69 m 55. 2CH3CH2OH + 2O2  2CH3COOH + 2H2O
750  0.1256  65.5
53. Given, To find maximum yield of acetic acid = YP/S max
First condition OD = 1 and C1 = 50g/ml Ethanol  C2H6O  46
We know from Beer-Lambert Law, OD = .C.l Acetic acid  C2H4O2  60
Where, C = Concentration 4262

rs = = 6,
 = constant 2
l = path length 42422
rp = =4
Then 1 = l  50 2
Maximum number of moles
1  rs
= l 26
50 We know, fmax = jr = = 1.5 mole
p 24
But as given in second condition
1.5  MW of product
OD = 0.55 Maximum yield yPS =
MW of substrate
As we know OD = .C.l 1.5  60
= = 1.95 g/g
1 46
0.55 = C
50 2
Hence C2 = 27.5g/ml
Now concentration of purified plasmid
27.5
=  Dilution factor
1000
27.5  50
= = 1.37 g/l
1000

GATE 2022 - Biotechnology - 22 Years Chapter Wise Solved - DR - Prabhanshu Kumar, DR - Pawan KR - Maurya, Er - Preeti T - 2021 - GK PUBLICATIONS - 9789391061159 - Anna's Archive

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

GATE 2022 - Biotechnology - 22 Years Chapter Wise Solved - DR - Prabhanshu Kumar, DR - Pawan KR - Maurya, Er - Preeti T - 2021 - GK PUBLICATIONS - 9789391061159 - Anna's Archive

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

GATE 2022 - Biotechnology - 22 Years Chapter Wise Solved - DR - Prabhanshu Kumar, DR - Pawan KR - Maurya, Er - Preeti T - 2021 - GK PUBLICATIONS - 9789391061159 - Anna's Archive

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Title : GATE 2022 - Biotechnology - 22 Years Chapter wise Solved Papers (2000-2021)

For product information :

S olved Papers (Chapter-Wise)

– Explanations 3.2 4. Ratio, Proportion and Mixtures 4.1 - 4.2

– Explanations 1.7 – Explanations 6.4

1. Linear Algebra 1.1 – 1.3 – Explanations 5.4

– Answers 1.2 6. Immunology 6.1 – 6.12

Indian Institute of Technology, Roorkee

Who Can Appear for GATE?

Bachelor’s degree in Engineering /

Bachelor’s degree of Architecture (5- year 2023 (for 5-year

Currently in the 3rd

Degree holders of M.B.B.S. and

Bachelor degree in any Currently in the 3rd

Currently in the 3rd

Professional B.E./B.Tech./B.Arch. equivalent

Candidates With Backlogs

GATE Paper Code GATE Paper Code

Aerospace Engineering AE Instrumentation Engineering IN

Architecture and Planning AR Mechanical Engineering ME

Biotechnology BT Metallurgical Engineering MT

Civil Engineering CE Petroleum Engineering PE

Chemical Engineering CH Physics PH

Electronics and Communication Textile Engineering and

Electrical Engineering EE Engineering Sciences XE*

Fluid Mechanics B Economics C1 Biochemistry Q

Duration and Examination Type

Pattern of Question Papers

Marking Scheme – Distribution of Marks and Questions

GG (Geology and Geophysics) Paper

XE Paper (Engineering Sciences)

XH Paper (Humanities and Social Sciences)

Calculation of Normalized Marks for Multi-Session Papers

Nsormalization mark of j th candidate in the i th session 

Section 1: Engineering Mathematics

Section 2: General Biology

Section 3: Genetics, Cellular and Molecular Biology

Section 6: Plant, Animal and Microbial Biotechnology

Section 7: Recombinant DNA Technology and Other Tools in Biotechnology

15. The Tamil version of  John Abraham-starrer 2014

2010 47. Choose the most appropriate word from the

19. The overwhelming number of people infected with 2015

So, option (d) is odd one from the given group.

10. The following letter series is in the order of even

11. From given data, the following diagram can be

24. TD ES Therefore concluding diagram can be

77. Use of chemical agents in warfare would be 2

672  110 111 110

(a) n4 (b) 4n If the amounts invested in the companies, P and

3 2 23 18 3 In 2011, which of the following two categories have

28. If 3  X  5 and 8  Y  11 then which of the 2011

4. The pie chart below has the breakup of the number

Plant and Raw Material

5. A foundry has a fixed daily cost of ` 50,000 Energy

Numerical Type Questions

6. Amount invested by Company P in 2006 = ` 8x Item : 3

greater number Let c = daily wages earlier

19. Here it is given that x is real 6