1 Dr. Anil Pedgaonkar Ph.D, M.Tech, M.PHIL, M.Sc, Net, B.Ed profanilp@gmail.

com
https://sites.google.com/site/anilpedgaonkar/ DOI: 10.13140/RG.2.2.34457.21604

Inverse and Implicit function theorems

Abstract : In this article we shall discuss inverse and implicit mapping theorems for

mappings from one Banach space to other along with a dozen examples, a couple of which

are constructed by us. As remarked in the classic Dieouodenes “Foundations of Modern

Analysis” the proofs do not become shorter by even one line if we impose the restriction of

finite dimensions. Our proofs are based on Rudins approach for open mapping and injective

mapping, but Rudins derivation of the formula for derivative of inverse mapping is long and

further implicit function theorem is dragged. With modesty we want to state that our

approach is original shortest and besides Dieuodeene , Bourbaki, Land , Cartan , Keshavavn

,ours is the only treatment which is coordinate free.

In finite dimensions one can offer proofs avoiding contraction mapping theorem as for

example done in Apstol, but the price we pay is that the proofs are not coordinate free.

Further the proofs depend upon the existence of maxima and minima of real valued

functions. Current trends and demands of constructive real analysis [ theschool of “Bishop

with Bishops influential book rightly underemphasizees the existence of maxima and accept

only the fact that continuous mappings are bounded.

This is because there is no constructive procedure to locate maxima of arbitrary continuous

function and the constructive school rightfully rejects the existence of maxima but accepts

only boundedness of continuous functions. Not only in constructive analysis but in

Dieuodenne’s classic also the same objection is raised by him, for Mean value theorem and

he does not include the mean value theorem but uses only the mean inequality.

However most people teach calculus in finite dimension setting so we have avoided the detail

that the proof works in Banach spaces. In particular lemma in the proof of the implicit

function theorem is carefully stated and works even for Banach spaces.

Some other proofs of these results are available in Krantz book dedicated to these two

theorems only. This book also offers classical proof of implicit function theorem in two

varaibles generalized to n variables as well as an inductive proof. The book on nonlinear

analysis by Aubin gives an implicit function theorem for set valued mappings and says
2 Dr. Anil Pedgaonkar Ph.D, M.Tech, M.PHIL, M.Sc, Net, B.Ed profanilp@gmail.com
https://sites.google.com/site/anilpedgaonkar/ DOI: 10.13140/RG.2.2.34457.21604

distinction in inverse and implicit function theorem disappears for set valued mappings. The

usual theorems are obtained as corollary..

Our proof can be generalized to the inverse function theorem in Tamed Frechet space Iit

could be generalized to obtain NASH equilibrium theorem.

Further we offer a dozen examples a couple of which are our original

We first consider two examples.

Ex (1)f: ℝ  ℝ f(x) = x3. f is continuously differentiable. f has continuous inverse g:ℝℝ

g(y)= y1/3. Note g is differentiable at all points except y = 0. g′(0) does not exist. f′(0) = 0.

Ex(2) f: ℝ  ℝ, f(x) =x + 2x.Sin-11/x, if x  0 and f(0) = 0. Then f is differentiable at 0 but

not even injective in any open interval around 0. f ′(0) exists from first principles.

But f ′(x) is not continuous at 0.

We use the abbreviation L.T for a linear transformation.

Def of derivative : A mapping f:  is called differentiable at a point x in X if ,  a

continuous L.T f ′(x) Such that, f(x+h) - f(x) = f′(x)+ r(h), where r(h)is o(h) that is,

r(h)/|h| 0 as h 0. Alternatively f( x+h)- f(x) = f′(x)+ | h|E(h),where E(h)  0as h . 0.

(Note that each L.T on a finite dimensional space is continuous and a L.T is continuous iff it

is bounded that ,is it has finite norm)

Def: A mapping f:  is called a C1 mapping ( continuously differentiable ) in an open

set E  if the derivative f ′ (x) , is continuous in the space L( , ) of bounded linear maps

in the operator norm.

Remarks

1) | Tx |  |T|| | x| for any vector x.

2) If f: ℝN  ℝM is C1 in an open set ,E  ℝN, iff all partial derivatives exist and are

continuous in E.

Definition : We call a mapping f, smooth in an open set E if f is infinitely differentiable, that

is derivatives of all orders exist in E.

3 Dr. Anil Pedgaonkar Ph.D, M.Tech, M.PHIL, M.Sc, Net, B.Ed profanilp@gmail.com
https://sites.google.com/site/anilpedgaonkar/ DOI: 10.13140/RG.2.2.34457.21604

A mapping of N variables is smooth, in an open set E  ℝ N . if all partial derivatives of all

orders exist in E.

Remarks :

1)If a mapping is differentable at a point x in ℝN, then all partial derivatives ( which are

simply directional derivatives in the direction of the basis vectors ek) exist at the point.

2)The derivative is given by M  N, jacbian matrix denoted by ∂(y1…… yM)/ ∂(x1…xN)

3)If f:  and if = 1  2. f is differentiable at a pt x then f is differentiable at (a, y)

iff both block partial derivatives exist that is derivative Dxf and Dyb exist and

f ′( a, b) = Dxf(a, b) + Dy(a, b)

4) It is seen then the jacobian matrix is split coulmnwise into two blocks.

Inverse functionn Theorem:

Suppose f is a C1 mapping of an open set E  (= N )Y ( = N ) .f ʹ(a) is invertible

L.T.with continuous inverse for some a E. b = f( a).

Then f is a C1 diffeomorhism of some nbd U of a, onto a nbd V of b , that is f has a C1

inverse g and g′(y) = (f ′(x))-1,  y  V.

Remark:f ʹ(a) is invertible means the determinant of the derivative matrix that is called

jacobian is non zero at the point a.

We prove the theorem by deducing the following results.

Part A:Injective mapping Thm: Suppose f: E  ( = N ) ( = N ) is continuously

differentiable at a point a in the open set E , with the derivative f′(a) invertible linear mapping

with continuous inverse . Then  an open set U in such that aU & f is injective on U.

To prove this we need a lemma.

Lemma: Fix y,x  define (x)= x+A-1(y–f(x))(1),where A = fʹ(a). Then

1)f(x) = y iff x is a fixed point of   ( 1 )

2) is a contraction mapping, that is |(x1) - (x2)|  ½ | x1 – x2|(2)

4 Dr. Anil Pedgaonkar Ph.D, M.Tech, M.PHIL, M.Sc, Net, B.Ed profanilp@gmail.com
https://sites.google.com/site/anilpedgaonkar/ DOI: 10.13140/RG.2.2.34457.21604

Proof of the lemma: x is a fixed pt iff  (x) = x iff A-1(y -f(x)) = 0 iff y =f(x) as A is

invertible. Since A is invertible, || A|| ≠ 0. Select λ, so that 2 λ || A-1 || = 1  ( 3 )

Since f is a C1 mapping , fʹ is continuous at a, so  an open ball U centred at a such that ||f

ʹ(x) - fʹ(a)| = || f ʹ(x) – A|| < λ  (4)

 ʹ(x) = I – A-1(f′(x)) = A-1(A - f′(x)) (5),as the derivative of x is the identity L.T. I ,

thevderivative of the constant y is the zero L.T. Thus ʹ(x)|< ½ (6).By mean

inequality,|(x1)-(x2)| ½|x1–x2|, x1,x2  U.

So  is a contraction map.

Pf of injective mapping Thm: ϕ s a contraction mapping, so it has at most one fixed point in

U. By (1), f is injective in U, where U is open ball centred at a such that ( 2) holds. ○

Part B:Open mapping Thm: Under the hypotheis in injective mapping theorem fis an open

mapping and V = f(U) is an open set. f has a continuous inverse g defined on V.

Pf:-put V = f(U).Pick arbitrary y0 V then y0 = f(x0),for some x0 in U.

Select an open ball B with center x0 & radius r > 0,so small so that (closure of B)lies in U.

We show that a nbd of y0  V & thus V is open.

We consider a ball D, centre y0 with radius λr. Let y D. so |y–y0| < λr.

We note ɸ(x0) = x0+A-1(y–f(x0)) we have y0 = f(x0)

|(x0)–x0|= ||A-1(y-y0)|<||A-1||.|y–y0| = ||A-1||λ r = r/2 by choice of λ.

If x  ,|(x)-x0|  |(x)- (x0| + |(x0)– x0| by triangle inequality < ½|x–

x0| ( by lemma ) + r/2 = r/2 + r/2 = r. Thus (x)  B.

Now  is a contraction map of the complete metric space

So  has a unique fixed point say x, in  U.

For this x, f(x) = y. So y is in image of . But  U. So yf(U)= V. Thus any y in the ball

D, centred at y0 belongs to V. So the pt.y0 has a nbd in V. So V is open. Since the same

argument applies to any open set contained in U, image of an open set under ɸ is open.

As f is injective f(U) = V, the inverse of f say g exists on V.

g(V) = U. Since f is open the inverse map g is continuous. ○

5 Dr. Anil Pedgaonkar Ph.D, M.Tech, M.PHIL, M.Sc, Net, B.Ed profanilp@gmail.com
https://sites.google.com/site/anilpedgaonkar/ DOI: 10.13140/RG.2.2.34457.21604

Partc:Formula for derivative of inverse

Suppose f is a Ca1 mapping U V ( both are open sets ) f is bijective open mapping and for
some a  U, f ʹ(a)= A is invertible (that is linear isomporphism ) then g is the inverse of f
defined on V and g is C1 mapping with gʹ(y) = [ f ʹ (g(y) ) ] -1.

Proof :- let M = || A-1 ||. y = f(x). Select r so small so that the ball S centered at y with radius
r is contained in V. let y + k lie in S, so that | k| < r and y + k = f(x+ h) .
With  defined as in the lemma, (x)= x+A-1(y–f(x)), |( x+ h) - (x) | ≤ h/2(*)
|( x+ h) - (x) | = | x+ h – A-1 ( y –f(x+ h) ) - x – A-1 ( y –f(x) ) |
= | h - A-1 ( f( x+ h) – f( x)) | = | h - A-1( y + k –y) |
= | h - A-1 .k |  | h | /2 by ( *)
But | | h | - | A-1 k | |  | h – A-1 k |
So | | h | - | A-1 k | |  | h | /2 . So | | A-1 k |  | h | /2 .
Thus | h |  2 | A-1 k |  2|| A-1 || | k| = | k|/ λ , by def of operator norm as inf & 2 λ || A-1|| = 1.
Thus as k  0 h  0, Since in U, | f ʹ (x) – A| < λ ,|| f ʹ(x) || ≠ 0 and f ʹ(x) is invertible

We set g s inverse of f . L let T be the in verse of f ʹ ( x) then,

g( y + k) – g( y) – Tk = x+ h – x – Tk (as g is the inverse of f ) = h – Tk
Now (f ʹ(x) ) o T = I ( identity mapping )
g( y + k) – g( y) – Tk = h – Tk = T( T-1 h – k) = T [ f ʹ(x). h – ( y + k – y ) ]
= T [ f ʹ(x) h – ( f( x+ h) – f( x) ]
– – ʹ
Thus = .|h|/|k|

But | h | / | k| = 1/ λ a nonzero constant. Further since f is injective, h 0 as k 0.

ʹ
The right hand side is thus | T . ( |  0 as h 0 ,as f is differentiable.

Thus g is differentiable and gʹ( y ) = T, which is inverse of f ʹ(x), where x = g( y),

g being the inverse mapping Thus gʹ(y) = [ f ʹ (g(y) ) ] -1.

Since g is differentiable it is continuous f is given in hypothesis as continuous and inversion

is a continuous mapping thus g is a C1 mapping.
6 Dr. Anil Pedgaonkar Ph.D, M.Tech, M.PHIL, M.Sc, Net, B.Ed profanilp@gmail.com
https://sites.google.com/site/anilpedgaonkar/ DOI: 10.13140/RG.2.2.34457.21604

Implict function Theorem

Let X (= N), Y (= M), Z (= N) . Let f be a C1 mapping of an open set E  X  Y  Z

such that f(a, b) = 0 for some point (a,b) E. Let A = f ʹ(a, b) & suppose Ax = A(x, 0),is

invertible at x = a ,( only x component, i.e N component, of A)

Then  open sets, U  X  Y and W  Y with (a,b) U and b  W,

having the following property,

 a C1 mapping, g : W X such that x = g(y), f (x=g(y),y)= 0, a = g(b),

gʹ(y) = - (Ax)-1.Ay.

(The . stands for composite of linear maps, that is multiplication of Jacobian matrices ).

Prooff:

Step 1: We define F: X  Y  W  Y as F(X, Y) = ( f(X, Y), Y).

F(a + h, b + k) – F(a, b) = (f(a+h, b+k), k)

= ( A(h, k) k)+(r(h, k), 0) where  0 as (h, k) (0, 0).

So F′(a, b) is an L.T, that maps the vector (h, k) to ( A(h,k), k).

If the image vector is 0 then K =0 and A.(h, k) = 0 .

But as k = 0, we have A(h, 0) = 0 and as Ax is invertible, h = 0.

So F’(a,b) is injective and hence invertible L.T on its range.

So inverse fn theorem applies to F.

Thus  open sets U  X  Y, V  W  Y with (a,b)U, (0,b) V such that,

F is injective open mapping of U onto V & the continuously differentiable inverse map

G: V  U is defined. Let W = {yY : (0, y)  V}.

Note b  V. As V is open, W is open.

If y  W, then (0, y) = F(x, y), for some (x, y) U. So f(X, Y) = 0 for this y.

For y  W, We define g(y) = x, such that, G(0, y) = (x,y)=(g(y),y)

Thus f(g(y), y) = 0,for y W. So g is C1 mapping on Was G is so.

Step 2: We obtain the formula for derivative of g.

Df = 0 By chain rule Df = ∂f/∂x.g′(y) + ∂f/∂y =0.

So g′(y) = - (∂f/∂x)-1 .∂f/∂y = -(Ax)-1.Ay

7 Dr. Anil Pedgaonkar Ph.D, M.Tech, M.PHIL, M.Sc, Net, B.Ed profanilp@gmail.com
https://sites.google.com/site/anilpedgaonkar/ DOI: 10.13140/RG.2.2.34457.21604

Lemma(can be dropped):A nbd of origin exists in which D1f(x,y)is invertible.

Proof : Let Ax= T. Let D1f(x, y) = D.

First we note that any Lt B such that ||B||< 1 is invertible as it is the sum of convergent

geometric series (I +B+ B2+….). So any Lt M such that || M –I || < 1 is invertible, as ||M || =

||I – (I –M)||.

We select  so that 2||T-1|| = 1. As T is continuous at origin, we select D in a nbd ( which we

take as U) so that || D – T|| < 

So ||T-1D –I||  |T-1||||D – T||| < ½ so T-1D is invertible.

So D = TT-1D is invertible as D-1 = T-1 (T-1D)-1.

Many examples follow.

Ex(3)f: 2 :2 f(x, y) = ( ex cosy, exsiny ) = (u, v)f is simply ez in

complex notation So rae is 2\{(0, 0)}.Jacobian of f = =

≠ at origin.Jacobian det of f = e2x(cos2y + sin2y)

= e2x ≠ 0 at any point, as exp function is never zero. f is C1 , as all

partial derivatives exist and are continuous .So for each point (u, v)

in range of f , a nbd in which the inverse of f locally exists . that

is for each point (x, y) we have a nbd U , f(U) = V and f is injective

on U. But f is not globally injective on 2.

+2I
As ez =ez,f (x, y+ 2i) = f(x, y) Let g be inverse of f in nbd of b.

gʹ(u,v) = [fʹ[x, y] ]-1= = .

gʹ(u,v) = = = , as e2x = u2 +v2.

If we directly find g′. In complex notation z = (x, y) = log w, where w

=(u, v).Log w = logr+iθ,r = √(u2 + v2),θ = tan-1v/u .

So z =(√(u2 + v2, tan-1v/u) = (g1, g2) dz/dw = = .

a =(0,0) b = f(a) =(1 0),dw/dz(b) = which is inverse of dw/dz

Ex 4)f(x,y) = ( x2–y2,2xy).f is simply z2 in complex notation. range is 2

8 Dr. Anil Pedgaonkar Ph.D, M.Tech, M.PHIL, M.Sc, Net, B.Ed profanilp@gmail.com
https://sites.google.com/site/anilpedgaonkar/ DOI: 10.13140/RG.2.2.34457.21604

Jacobian of f = = ≠ (0, 0) unless z =(x, y) = (0, 0).

f is C1 , as all partial derivatives exist and are continuous .

So for each point (u, v) ≠(0, 0) in range of f ,  a nbd in which the

inverse of f locally exists. But f is not globally injective on 2,as z2

= (-z)2. Let a =(0,1) = i. b = f(a) = (-1, 0) = -1.

let g be inverse of f in nbd of b.

gʹ(u, v) = [ f ʹ[x, y] ]-1 = = = . But

z in polar notation = reiθ.= ( rcosθ, r sinθ), where r = |z| = √(x2+ y2)

w =(u, v) = z2 = r2.e2iθ. |w| = |z|2 = r2. = √ (u2+v2) ,w = (u, v)

=(r2.cos2θ, r2,sin2θ). x = rcosθ =, y = r sin θ.

In complex notation inverse fn is z = √w, that is (u, v)  (x,y).

dz/dw = 1/(2√w) inverse fn z = √w.so gʹ(w)= gʹ(u,v)= 1/(2√w)= 1/2z.

Now z = reiθ hence 1/2z =. e-iθ = ( (cosθ – isinθ)

= θ–irsinθ) = ( x-iy)= so verified.

if a = (0, 1) then b =(-1, 0).f′(z) = =

inverse is and even directly it is .

5) Polar coordinates: Let f : ℝ2  ℝ2 , f(r, ) = (rcos , r sin).The

 
Jacobian is determinant is r  0 so invertible at any pt
 

so f is invertible inverse mapping is given r = , = sin-1( )

6) spherical polar coordinates: Let f : ℝ3  ℝ3 .

F( r, , ) = ( rcossin, rsinsin, rcos) the jacobiian det = -r2sin

ans is not equal to zero except when  isan integral multiple of .for

such pts f is localy invertible in a nbd. Inverse is given by,

g(x, y, z) = ( , sin-1( ), cos-1( ))

V = the open setI quadrant = {(x, y, z) : x > 0, y > 0, z > 0}

The open set u will be r > 0, 0<  < /2 , 0 <  < /2).

Ex7) Let : ℝ2  ℝ2 given by (x, y)= ( x + x2f(x, y), y + y2g(x, y).

9 Dr. Anil Pedgaonkar Ph.D, M.Tech, M.PHIL, M.Sc, Net, B.Ed profanilp@gmail.com
https://sites.google.com/site/anilpedgaonkar/ DOI: 10.13140/RG.2.2.34457.21604

Where f and g are c1 functions. Thgen jacobian of  atbthe origin is

simply the identity Matrix , then  is locally invertible at

origin. One views  as perturbation of the identity mapping by means of

extra terms x2f(x, y), y2g(x, y), which are very small near the origin.

Ex 8) Consider f (x, y) : x2 + y2 =1 that is f(x, y) =0 is (Implicit)

x2 + y2 -1 = 0 , X =Y =Z = R, N = M = 1.

i ) Point is P(a, b) = (1, 0). The eqn is a circle. a = 1, b = 0.

Since f is:2 its derivative is 1 2 matrix that is gradient vector =

( f/ x, f/ y ) =(2x, 2y). Since both partial derivatives are continuous

in 2. , the function f is C1.

 f = (2x, 2y).A = f (P) = ( 2, 0), Ax = 2. Ax is a 1 1 matrix and

invertible as nonzero. So implicit function theorem applicable in a

nbd. of P and so in a nbd of y =0 say W,x is a function g(y). In fact x

= g(y) = +√(1- y2),& derivative dx/dy = -y /( √1- y2) = 0, at y = 0.

By implicit function theorem dx/dy = - ( f/dx)-1. f/dy. We note both

partial derivatives are 1 1 matrices, since when treated as a function

of single variable x or y, f is a function from  and so derivative

at a point is a linear trans :, which is a number .

By implicit function thm dx/dy = -(2x)-1.(2y)= -y/x = -y/ ( + √1- y2).

And at point P we have dx/dy = 0, so theorem is verified . Actually

there are two signs for the square root √1- y2. The implicit function

theorem enables to select one branch namely with positive sq root in nbd

of P, &allows to find dx/dy without knowing the formula for g(y).

ii)If we had the point Q ( -1, 0) then x = g(y) = - √(1- y2),

f = [2x, 2y] , A = [-2, 0].Ax = -2 is invertible .dx/dy = from formula

of g = y / ( √1- y2) = 0 at y =0. If we apply implicit function theorem

formula then dx/dy = - (2x)-1.(2y) = y / ( √1- y2) =0

iii) If we had taken a point C = ( -1/√2, 1/√2) ,  f= (2x, 2y),

A = (-√2, √2). Ax = -√2.Ax ≠ 0 invertible .so theorem applicable.

x = g(y) = -√(1- y2), As the point C is in II quadrant. by implicit

function theorem formula then dx/dy = - (2x)-1.(2y) = -y/x =1 .at C

And directly using formula for g , dx/dy = y / ( √1- y2) , if we

differentiate x = g(y) = - √1- y2 ,At point y = 1/√2 we get the value 1

tallying with implicit function theorem.

10 Dr. Anil Pedgaonkar Ph.D, M.Tech, M.PHIL, M.Sc, Net, B.Ed profanilp@gmail.com
https://sites.google.com/site/anilpedgaonkar/ DOI: 10.13140/RG.2.2.34457.21604

iv) Suppose we take S = (0, 1) then S is on circle and satisfies the

graph of the function f(x, y) =0 .But implicit function theorem is not

applicable as f (S) = ( 0, 2) and Ax = 0 not invertible. In this case

the point is on the y axis, and in any nbd of y =0, we have both right

semicirle as well as left semicircle. So it is not possible to write x

as a function of y, as each nbd has arcs from both semicircles and thus

we can not select unique sign for square root.

Ex 8) :Consider f (x, y) : x2 + y2 + z2=1 that is f(x y, z,) =0 is x2 +

y2+ z2 -1 = 0 X =Z= R, N =1. Y =2 .

. N =1, M =2.
i
i)The point is P(a, b) = P (1, 0, 0) . a = 1, b = (0, 0). The eqn is a

sphere. Since f is:3 its derivative is 13 matrix that is gradient

vector f = ( f/ x, f/ y , f/ z) =(2x, 2y, 2z). Since all partial

derivatives are continuous in 3. , the function f is C1.

A = f (P) = ( 2, 0, 0),Ax = 2 it is a 1 1 matrix &invertible as

nonzero. So implicit function theorem applicable in nbd. of P and for

(y , z) =(0,0), we get a nbd W , so that x is a function g(y, z) in nbd

W of (0, 0) , x = g(y, z). In fact x = g(y, z) = + √(1- y2 –z2).

derivative gʹ(y, z) is 2 1 matrix that is gradient ( x/ y, x/ y)

= [-y / {√(1- y2-z2)} , -z / { √(1- y2-z2)}] = [ 0 0 ] at P.

By implicit function theorem gʹ(y, z) = - ( f/dx)-1. Ay.

= - (2x)-1.[ 2y, 2z]= [ -y/x,-z/x]

= [-y / { √(1- y2-z2)}, -z / { √(1- y2-z2)}] , when we put x = g(y, z),

and it is [0, 0] at P. So thm is verified Actually there are two signs

for square root √(1- y2 -z2).The implicit fn thm enables to select one

branch with positive root in nbd of P.

ii )If we had the point Q ( -1/√2, , 0, 1/ √2) , then x = g(y, z) =

- √(1- y2- z2). A = [2x, 2y, 2z]

A = [√2, 0, √2 ] at Q. Ax = √2 ≠ 0 is invertible theorem applicable.

Derivative gʹ(y, z) is gradient vector, that is 2  1 matrix

= [y / { √(1- y2-z2)} , z / { √(1- y2-z2)}] = [ 0, 1].at Q. This

is obtained directly from formula of g. If we apply implicit function

theorem formula then gʹ(y, z) = - (2x)-1[2y, 2z] = [ 0, 1] at Q.

iv)If we take S = (0, 1, 0) then S is on sphere satisfies the graph of

the function f(x, y) =0 but implicit function theorem is not applicable

as f (S) = ( 0, 2, 0) and Ax = 0 not invertible. In this case the point

11 Dr. Anil Pedgaonkar Ph.D, M.Tech, M.PHIL, M.Sc, Net, B.Ed profanilp@gmail.com
https://sites.google.com/site/anilpedgaonkar/ DOI: 10.13140/RG.2.2.34457.21604

is on the y axis and in any nbd of ( y =1, z =0) it is not possible to

write x as a function of (y, z) .

Ex 9) let X = 2, Y = 4, Z = 2. N = 2, M =4.

Define f :6 ;2. f(x, y, u, v, λ. μ) = (excosy–uλ+vμ, exsiny–uμ-vλ)

= (f1, f2).Verify implicit function theorem at (0, /2, 1, 0,0, 1)

a= (0, /2), b = (1, 0, 0, 1). We see f(a, b) = (0, 0).

derivative of f is 26 matrix

A = the matrix Ax = is invertible. All partial

derivatives exist & are continuous Hence f is C1.,Implicit funct thm

applicable. We write (x, y) = g(u, v, λ, μ) Ax-1 = gʹ(u,v,λ,μ) = -

(Ax)-1 Ay = -  = . If we translate in complex

notation f(z, w, ξ) = ez –wξ, f(i/2, 1, i) =0, a =i/2, b = (1,i)Then z

= log(wξ) = logw + logξ.gʹ(w, ξ) =  g = (1/w, 1/ξ) = ( 1, -i) at pt P.

Ex10)Show that system of eqns is solvable for x,y,u in terms of z, but

not for x,y,z in terms ofu. 3x+ y –z + u2=0, x-y+2z+u =0, 2x+2y-3z+2u=

ans clearly O(0, 0, 0, 0) satisfies system thee equations are f1, f2 ,f3 .

all partial derivatives of f = (f1, , f2 ,f3) exist and are continuous If

we want to express x, y, u in terms of Z , X = 3 , Y = , Z = 3. N =3,

M =1.We sequence as (x, y, u, z) and derivative of f is 3 4 matrix

= = A = at O. Ax =

Det is -12 ≠ 0.So invertible. so x, y, u can be expressed as a fn of z.

If x, y, z has to be expressed as a function of u third and fourth

column of A get interchanged.

12 Dr. Anil Pedgaonkar Ph.D, M.Tech, M.PHIL, M.Sc, Net, B.Ed profanilp@gmail.com
https://sites.google.com/site/anilpedgaonkar/ DOI: 10.13140/RG.2.2.34457.21604

A = = Ax = det = 0.So may not be

possible.In the first eqn u2 is there so two choices .of sq root.

Ex 11) g : ℝ2  ℝ 2
g(x, y) = (2ye2x, xey).

f: ℝ2  ℝ3 f(x, y) = (3x –y2, 2x+ y, xy +y3). Find D(fog-1) at (2, 0)

Ans ; fog-1: ℝ2  ℝ3 , so D(fog-1) is a 3 2 matrix.Let p =(2, 0).Q = g-1(p).

so D(fog-1)= f′(q).(g-1)′(p).By formula of g we have p= g(q) =(2,0).Hence

(2ye2x,xey) = (2,0).Looking at second compo x =0 & then y =1.So q=(0, 1).

g′(q)= = det = -2 is invertible. Inverse is g-1(p)= g′(q)-1 =

so f´= f′(q) = ans = 

Ex12 show f: ℝN  ℝN f(x) = || x ||2. X is C∞ carries open unit ball into

itself injectively yet inverse function not differentiable at 0 .

Ans for simplicity let N = 2.We write in place of x z & we let z =(x,

y). derivative is 2  2 matrix. f1(z) =x (x2+y2), f2(z) =y(x2+y2) We find

f′(z) = . All partial exist and are continuous at all pts

so f isC1. We find second order pd of both f1, f2 exist and are continuous

same with higher orders pds. So f is c∞. If f(z) =f(w) then z =w. so f is

injective & unit ball is carried into itself.f(0) =0 But the inverse

function is not differentiable at 0 as inverse is w  w/|w|2/3 . but

1/|w|2/3 is not differentiable at origin. And as w  0 it tends to ∞.

13 Dr. Anil Pedgaonkar Ph.D, M.Tech, M.PHIL, M.Sc, Net, B.Ed profanilp@gmail.com
https://sites.google.com/site/anilpedgaonkar/ DOI: 10.13140/RG.2.2.34457.21604