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MOCK ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST 2021
MOCK AILET #10
ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS
SECTION-A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (c) The first line of the last paragraph tells that the 8.
author is an artist. That means he can be a painter
or a movie maker. The second line of the last
paragraph says that the images and sounds are
created. This establishes that the artifacts the
author creates are movies.
2. (b) The first line of the second paragraph says that the 9.
mind will not react to things as they are, but only in
a manner that supports the current fable... Thus the
correct option is (b), which refers to the perception
of reality by preconceived notions.
3. (d) The paragraph before the last is about the poisoned
world driven by fear, greed and anger. And the first 10.
line of the next paragraph starts with, into this void.
4. (d) The repeated references to the irreparably
poisoned world, and the fable that embalms us, the
misunderstood culture; all point to the pity the
author has for the present situation of the world.
5. (c) Choice (a) has 2 errors. The sentence should read, 11.
…….. the world created by him is ……. and the
singular subject ‘world’ should take the singular
verb ‘describes’. In choice (b) the relative pronoun
‘which’ is inappropriately placed. That sentence
should read …….. created by him, which is sordid
and violent, describes ………. Choice (c) is 12.
appropriate. In choice (d), ‘being’ leaves the
sentence incomplete for want of an effect or a
result.
6. (d) The context of the sentence needs a clause that
starts with ‘when’, not ‘while’. ‘Confronted with’ is 13.
when you come up to a problem, as in this case.
‘Confronted by’ is when the problems come to face
you. ‘On, the one hand’ requires the use if ‘on the
other’. Choice d is, therefore, the appropriate
sentence.
7. (a) In choice (c), the singular subject ‘reason’ does not
agree with the plural verb ‘arise’. Choices (b) and
(d) distort the meaning by using ‘which’ rather than
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‘and is’ which is the appropriate connection to the
subject — ‘reason’. Choice (a) is appropriate.
(c) Choices (a) and (b) contain subject-verb
disagreement. The singular subject ‘spate’ has to
take the singular verb ‘has’. Additionally, ‘coincided
against’ is inappropriate in choice (b). Moreover, ‘so
unsurprisingly that’ is erroneous and distorts the
meaning.
(b) Choice (a) should read “…….. into a darker territory
…….. The absence of the article makes it
erroneous. In Choice (c), ‘lives become invaded’ is
inappropriate. The use of ‘life’ is inappropriate in
choice (d), for we are talking of the ‘lives’ of many
people.
(c) The sentence canveys that judge has to consider
the verdict as definite even when there is room for
doubt. Only choice (3) conveys the correct
meaning. Although choices (2) and (4) seem to fit,
‘accessible’ and ‘admissible’ do not fit in the second
blank.
(a) The author believes that businessmen, whatever
else they lack, have one particular good quality
since they are ‘paragons’. Therefore choice (2) can
be ruled out. Choice (3) can be ruled out for we
need words that are not Opposites. Ambitious
people are not always successful.
(b) The sentence conveys that Swift was a satirist. The
first blank has to be a word that goes with ‘satire’.
Only ‘contempt’ and ‘vitriol’ fit in. ‘Anachronisms’ is
inappropriate in the second blank. So choice (3)
can be ruled out.
(a) The sentence needs a pair of contradictory words.
The meaning conveyed is that the enmity between
cats and dogs is a myth in reality they coexist in a
friendly manner. Only choice (1) conveys this
meaning. ‘Easily’ is inappropriate. Although
‘animosity’ fits, ‘together’ is implied in ‘coexist’ so it
becomes redundant and does not take the
sentence forward. In choice (3) ‘amiably’ is
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incorrect. ‘Amiable’ refers to a person while 24.
‘amicable’ refers to a relationship.
14. (b) In statement B the use of the conjunction ‘and’ is
incorrect. The contrast intended in the sentence is
best expressed using the conjunction ‘but’. Hence
‘and’ should be replaced with ‘but’ Statement C is 25.
incorrect due to the inappropriate placement of the
adverb ‘entirely’ The correction is ‘once, they were
entirely made of ….. rubber’. Statements A and D
are grammatically correct. 26.
15. (a) In statement A, ‘Garden of Eden should be
preceded by the definite article ‘the’ because there
is only one ‘Garden of Eden. In statement C the use
of its without an apostrophe which is a pronoun
does not make sense. It’s meaning it is, is the
correct expression to be used here. Statements B
and D are correct statements.
16. (b) In statement C the use of the verb + ing form in the 27.
word ‘befriending’ creates an error of parallelism in
the sentence, as the preceding verb is in the simple
form. Therefore, the correction is ‘…… more likely
to try to eat their neighbours than befriend them’. In
statement D the intention is to convey that spiders
have overcome their grumpiness and teamed up to
form societies. This meaning is conveyed only if the
word few is preceded by the article ‘a’. The word 28.
‘few’ without the article ‘a’ does not make sense
here because ‘few’ means none. Only A and B are
grammatically correct statements.
17. (b) In ‘A’ the adjective slippery should be in the
comparative degree i.e. ‘slipperier’ in order to bring
out the comparison intended in the sentence 29.
(leadership has always been slippery now it is
getting slipperier). Statement ‘D’ is incorrect due to
the inappropriate positioning of the adverb ‘often’.
The correction is ‘In India and China, leaders are
often.......’. Only statements B and C are correct.
18. (d) The sentence has an auxiliary(will), subject (Mr.
reddy) and verb (regain) in that order, so the
sentence should start with an adverb. Therefore
options (a) and (b) are wrong. (c) is wrong because
of the usage of the word ‘hardly’.
19. (d) It is redundant to say ‘return... back’, hence (a) is 30.
wrong. When the indirect object precedes the direct
object, no preposition is possible. Hence, (b) is
wrong. ‘Originally’ is an adverb and here it modifies
the noun owner, hence (c) is not correct.
20. (a) Whenever the construction of the sentence is
auxiliary(did) + subject(Joseph) + verb(accept), the
sentence must start with an adverb. Hence (a) is
correct choice.
21. (a) The judges is the subject of ‘having finished’ and
hence should immediately follow the comma.
Hence, (b) is wrong due to the use of passive voice.
In (c) there is no noun for the pronoun ‘they’. ‘a
bunch of is not used in formal language, hence (d)
is wrong.
22. (b) Paradox is a person or thing that combines
contradictory features or qualities. In this statement 31.
the contradictory features are having nothing to do
and doing that very well.
23. (a) (a)is the correct answer. Personification is the
representation of inanimate objects or abstract
ideas as living beings.
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(a) (a)is the correct answer. Irony is a dryly humorous
or lightly mode of speech, in which words are used
to convey a meaning contrary to their literal sense,
as in the above quote from the Irish satirist
Jonathan Swift.
(a) (a)is the correct answer. Antithesis is the
juxtaposition of two words, phrases or sentences
contrasted or opposed in meaning in such a way as
to give emphasis to contrasting ideas.
(a) The topic of the passage is introduced by telling
about a teacher, and the profession of teaching is
discussed in R, thus it follows logically. Further, the
qualities required for teaching is mentioned in P.
The narrator then talks about his own teachers,
which is introduced in Q. The further details of
those teachers are given in S. So the correct order
is RPQS.
(b) The source of knowledge in sentence 1 is added in
by Q, through the mention of books which
corresponds to studying. The use of ‘therefore’ in P,
suggests the cause effect relationship between R
and P, and thus P follows. The use of the pronoun
‘she’ sentence 6 tells us about the student
mentioned in S. Thus, the correct order must be
QRPS.
(d) Sentence 1 speaks about the thirst for knowledge,
which is elaborated in P, and its consequence is
talked about in S. The contrast to the previous
statement is stated in R, characterized by the use of
‘but’. Q talks of the effect of the cause in R. Thus
the correct order is PSRQ.
(b) Statement 1 introduces ChatrapatiShivaji to be one
of the greatest warrior kings. P follows next as it
further tells about ‘Shivaji’s’ life. S using the
pronoun ‘he’ must be next. It also introduces
Sambhaji (which we know was Shivaji’s son.) Then,
R must follow as it discusses Sambhaji’s son and
many more brave warriors. Q follows next as it tells
something common about all the warriors
mentioned in the previous lines. Finally, 6
concludes the paragraph. Thus the correct order is
PSRQ and the correct option is 2.
(a) The right answer is an option (a); other options fail
to answer/address the three questions according to
what is implied by them. The three questions also
imply that their skills aren’t up to date and don’t
seem to be well-honed. Even when a tourist
whizzes, he or she will have a few niggling doubts
about the efficiency of this three personnel implied
by the three questions. It’s evident that the zip-wire
wasn’t regularly serviced by anyone who is qualified
enough to do the job; are there safety advisers to
advise and guide the operators about the safety of
the zip-wire. If there are injuries during the ride, who
will administer first aid? In the eyes of the author,
none of the people involved were up to standard to
instill confidence in tourists and others. Choices (b)
to (d) swerve from the passage.
(d) The meaning of the idiom is given in (d); other
choices do not fully define the idiom. Further
meanings of the idiom include (a) “mentally
prepared: aware of what is happening and ready to
do what is needed or wanted”; (b) “to be aware of
and understand what is happening and able to react
quickly”; (c) “able to think or act quickly and
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intelligently.” Example sentences: Jenny seems to
be on the ball about who’s doing what, and what
needs to be done; the new publicity manager is
really on the ball.
32. (c) The correct option is (c); other options are wrong
and rejected. The answer can be found in the last
sentence of the second paragraph of the passage.
33. (c) The correct answer or description of the noun
phrase “anecdotal evidence” is (c); other choices
fail to give fuller description or definition of the 40.
phrase. The meaning of “anecdote” is “a short story
about an interesting or funny event or occurrence”
“Anecdotal” is the adjective.
34. (d) The correct answer is (d); other options deviate
from the standard meaning or definition of “gold-
dust”. The literal meaning of gold-dust is “gold in the
form of powder” The author of the piece has used
the figure of speech figuratively in the passage. The
figurative meaning is the one used in the correct
option (d). The figure of speech used at the end of 41.
the third paragraph is simile. Example sentences:
Tickets for the film are gold dust: admittance to the
hospital is gold dust.
35. (d) While there could be innumerable reasons why
Indian education is bad, inadequate, outmoded,
etc., the one reason given by the passage is that it
is extremely bad” or ‘atrocious” One of the reasons
why the education is extremely bad is that this 42.
education doesn’t equip the students with skills to
do a job well enough. The right answer option is (d);
other options aren’t given in the passage.
SECTION-B: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS 43.
36. (a) The exercise drills are codenamed &
“AsterX” tocommemorate the first
Frenchsatellite Asterix from 1965. The exercises
are part ofFrance’s strategy to become the
world’s third-largest space power, after the USA
andChina. These space military exercises are the 44.
first ever attempt not only for the Frencharmy but
also for Europe. Moreover, France has planned to
develop anti-satellite laserweapons and to
strengthen surveillance capabilities to close the gap
with rivals; Chinaand Russia.
37. (a) India’s defence cooperation with Qatar has so far
been limited to training,participation in each other’s
conferences/events and visits by ships of Indian
Navyand Coast Guard. Za’ir-Al-Bahr (Roar of the
Sea) is the naval exercise betweenIndian and Qatar 45.
Navy.
38. (a) American scientist Norman Borlaug was behind the
success of the green revolution. He is also called as 46.
the ‘Father of the Green Revolution”.
39. (a) IRNSS is an independent regional navigation
satellite system developed bythe Indian Space
Research Organization (ISRO). The main objective
is to provide reliableposition, navigation and timing 47.
services over India and its neighbourhood. The
IRNSSconstellation was named as
“NavIC” (Navigation with Indian Constellation) by
the PrimeMinister.
NavIC provides two types of services:Standard
Positioning Service (SPS) is meant for the general
public. Restricted Service (RS)is an encrypted
service meant for authorised users and agencies.
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Unlike the widely used GPS which includes 24
satellites, NavIC has 8 satellites and theirrange is
within India and its adjoining regions extending up
to 1,500 km from the country’sborder.Technically
satellite systems with more satellites provide more
accurate positioninginformation. However,
compared to GPS which has a position accuracy of
20-30metres, the NavIC is able to pinpoint location
to an estimated accuracy of under 20metres.
(c) Starlink is a SpaceX project to build a
broadband network with acluster of orbiting
spacecraft that could eventually number thousands.
The Starlinksatellites carry Hall thrusters, which use
electricity and krypton gas to
generatean impulse, to manoeuvre in orbit,
maintain altitude and guide the spacecraft back
intothe atmosphere at the end of their mission.
The Starlink network is one of severalongoing
efforts to start beaming data signals from space.
(a) SKAO is a new intergovernmental organisation
dedicated to radio astronomy and
is headquartered in the UK.
At the moment, organisations from ten countries are
a part of the SKAO.
These include Australia, Canada, China, India,
Italy, New Zealand, South Africa, Sweden, the
Netherlands and the UK.
(c) Chamoli Flash Floods occurred in river Rishi Ganga
due to the falling of a portionof Nanda Devi glacier
in the river which exponentially increased the
volume of water.
(c) India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) contracted
by 7.3% in 2020-21, as perprovisional National
Income estimates released by the National
Statistical Office onMonday, marginally better than
the 8% contraction in the economy projected
earlier.GDP growth in 2019-20, prior to the COVID-
19 pandemic, was 4%.
(b) Chhetri now leads Barcelona starMessi by two
goals and is placed above Ali Mabkhout of UAE,
who is at thirdplace with 73 strikes. He achieved
this feat against Bangladesh in joint
preliminaryqualifying round match for 2022 FIFA
World Cup and 2023 AFC Asian Cup.
Indianprofessional footballer plays as striker or
winger and is captain of both IndianSuper League
side Bengaluru FC and Indian national football
team. He ispopularly known as Captain Fantastic.
(a) This corridor connects India Ocean and the Persian
Gulf to the Caspian Sea. Therefore, II is incorrect,
while I is true.
(c) Prevention of Money Laundering Act was passed in
2002 by the Parliament of India. It was enacted by
the NDA government to prevent money laundering
and to provide for confiscation of property derived
from money-laundering.
(d) According to Rule 4(1), a significant social media
intermediary, i.e., a social mediaintermediary
having more than 5 million registered users in
India, within three months from the date of
notification of the threshold thereof, has to establish
a three-tier systemfor observing due diligence,
comprising of a Chief Compliance Officer, a Nodal
Contactand a Resident Grievance Officer, all
residing in India. The three-month deadline forsocial
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media platforms to comply with the IT Rules, 2021
ended on May 25, 2021.
48. (b) The Ever Given was on its way to the Dutch port of 55.
Rotterdam on March 23when it slammed into the
bank of a single-lane stretch of the canal about 6
kilometers(3.7 miles) north of the southern
entrance, near the city of Suez. A massive effort by
aflotilla of tugboats, helped by the tides, freed the
skyscraper-sized ship six days later,ending the 56.
crisis and allowing hundreds of waiting vessels to
pass through the canal.
49. (b) In 1997, following ethnic clashes, nearly 37,000
Brus fled Mamit, Kolasib andLunglei districts of
Mizoram and were accommodated in relief camps
in Tripura.
50. (a) Under the plan, the USA proposed a regional
conference under the UnitedNations auspices with 57.
foreign ministers of the USA, India, Russia, China,
Pakistan andIran to discuss a “unified approach” on
Afghanistan. 58.
USA President’s New Peace Initiative: Delay in
Withdrawal of Troops: This peace planhas kept
open the possibility that the USA troops, currently
deployed in Afghanistan,might stay on for a longer
time. Under the earlier USA- Taliban Deal, the USA 59.
hadpromised to withdraw all troops by May, 2021.
51. (a) The Central and Eastern Europe (CEE) member
countries have accepted the“Sinatra Doctrine” as a
counter to the increasing China’s aggressiveness to 60.
undermine theunity of the European Union through
the divide and rule policy. The Sinatra Doctrine
willbe based on two pillars: 1. Continuing
cooperation with China with respect to address
theglobal challenges like covid-19, climate change
& regional conflicts and 2. Strengtheningthe
strategic sovereignty of European Union by
protecting the technological sectors of itseconomy.
52. (a) Min Aung Hlaing is a Burmese army general who
has served as Chairman of the StateAdministration
Council of Myanmar since 2 February 2021, a
position which makes him the country's de facto 61.
leader. He has also been the commander-in-chief of
Defence Services since March 2011.
53. (d) Authorities in Bangladesh sent the first group of
more than 1,500 Rohingyarefugees to an isolated
BhasanChar island in the Bay of Bengal. The
Rohingya people arestateless, Indo-Aryan ethnic
group who reside in Rakhine State, Myanmar. 62.
There were anestimated 1 million Rohingya living in
Myanmar before the 2016–17 crisis. An
estimated625,000 refugees from Rakhine,
Myanmar, had crossed the border into Bangladesh
sinceAugust 2017. The majority are Muslim while a
minority are Hindu.
54. (c) India has been ranked 85 th in the most powerful
passport report ‘HenleyPassport Index 2021’. The 63.
Henley Passport Index is the original ranking of all
the world’spassports according to the number of
destinations their holders can access without a
priorvisa. Originally created by Dr. Christian H.
Kaelin (chairman of Henley & Partners),
theranking is based on exclusive data from the
International Air Transport Association(IATA), which 64.
maintains the world’s largest and most accurate
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database of travel Information. It was launched in
2006 and includes 199 different passports.
(a) Indian Navy has launched Operation Samudra
Setu-II for shipment of Oxygen-filled containers to
India. Operation Samudra Setu was launched in
May 2020 as part of thenational effort to repatriate
Indian citizens from overseas during the Covid-
19pandemic.
(c) The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is
alsoplanning a mission to Venus, tentatively called
Shukrayaan.The Shukrayaan orbiter will be the first
mission to Venus by the India Space Research
Organization (ISRO) and will study the planet for
four years, according to SpaceNews, which cited a
presentation by an ISRO research scientist at a
NASA-chartered committee Nov. 10.
(a) In August, 2020 the Prime Minister had declared
that the Andaman and NicobarIslands will be
developed as a maritime and startup hub.
(a) The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR),
the apex body in India for theformulation,
coordination and promotion of biomedical research,
is one of the oldest andlargest medical research
bodies in the world.
(c) This reserve requirement may be met either in the
form of cash stored physically in a bank vault or
through deposits made with a central bank. It
usually lingers around 4% in India.
(c) The Supreme Court struck down the findings of the
Justice N.G. Gaikwad Commissionwhich led to the
enactment of Maratha quota law and set aside the
Bombay High Court judgment which validated the
Maharashtra State Reservation for SEBC Act of
2018. TheHigh Court had, in June 2019, reduced
the quantum of reservation for Marathas from
the16% recommended by the Gaikwad Commission
to 12% in education and 13% inemployment. The
Supreme Court concluded that even the reduced
percentages of reservationgranted by the High
Court were ultra vires.
(a) Syrian President Bashar al-Assad, who has
overseen one of the century’s
bloodiestconflicts, has been re-elected for a 4th
term, renewing his stranglehold on power.With his
campaign slogan, “Hope through work”, Mr. Assad
cast himself as the sole architectof a reconstruction
phase for the war-ravaged country.
(a) Hong Kong mountaineer Tsang Yin-hung has
recorded the world's fastest ascent of
Everestby a woman with a time of just under 26
hours, a Nepal official said Thursday.
Tsang, 44, scaled the 8,848.86-metre (29,031 feet)
mountain in a record time of 25 hours and50
minutes on Sunday, Everest base camp's
government liaison officer Gyanendra Shresthasaid.
(c) Indian economist and Nobel Laureate Amartya
Kumar Sen has been conferred with Spain’s top
Princess of Asturias Award in the social sciences
category, the Spanishprize foundation announced
on Wednesday.Sen, 87, was selected out of
41candidates from 20 nationalities, the Princess of
Asturias Foundation said.
(b) The Blue Nature Alliance is a global partnership of
five core partners and few other Non-Profit
Organisations. The core partners are Conservation
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International, The Global Environment Facility, the
Pew Charitable Trusts, Minderoo Foundation and
Rob and Melani Walton Foundation. The Blue
Alliance was launched on April 20, 2021. The
alliance aims to protect 5% of the world ocean in
five years.
65. (c) 47th G7 summit is scheduled for June 11 to June
13, 2021 in United Kingdom which also holds
presidency of the G7 this year. Leaders of seven
G7 member states and representatives of European
Union will participate in the summit. President of
European Commission has been a permanently
welcome participant for all G7 meetings and
decision-making since 1981. 47th G7 Summit will
be the first summit for Japanese Prime Minister
Yoshihide Suga, Italian Prime Minister Mario Draghi
and U.S. President Joe Biden.
66. (d) According to the Disturbed Areas (Special Courts)
Act of the year 1976 once an area is declared
‘disturbed’, the area has to maintain status quo for a
minimum of 3 months.
67. (c) This sub-regional organization came into being in
1997 through the Bangkok Declaration. Initially, it
was formed with four Member States with the 72.
acronym ‘BIST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Sri-Lanka
and Thailand Economic Cooperation). It became
renamed ‘BIMST-EC’ in 1997, following the
inclusion of Myanmar. With the admission of Nepal
and Bhutan in 2004, the name of the grouping was
changed to ‘Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-
Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation’
(BIMSTEC).
68. (a) Rubber Board has started field trial of world’s first
GM (genetically modified) rubber in the state of
Assam. GM Rubber was developed in
biotechnology laboratory at Rubber Research
Institute of India (RRII) in Puthuppally, Kottayam.
It was planted at Rubber board’s Sarutari research
farm in Guwahati. Rubber Board launched field trial
of GM Rubber in Assam a decade after Kerala
Government denied permission for the same
because of its adverse impact on environment.
69. (d) Kerala government has launched ‘Knowledge
Economy Mission’ to boost job prospects in the
state by supporting knowledge workers. Initiative
was announced in State Budget on June 4. It was
being spearheaded by Kerala Development and
Innovation Strategic Council (K-DISC) and they will
submit a comprehensive project report before July
15.
70. (c) Lee won the Presidential Medal of Freedom for her
contribution to Literature in 2007. The author of
‘And Then There Were None’ is Agatha Christie, of
‘A Critique of Pure Reason’ is Immanuel Kant and
of ‘A Catcher in The Rye’ is J.D Salinger. 73.
SECTION – C: LEGAL APTITUDE AND REASONING
71. (d) No, because the consent was not free and the
object was unlawful. As per the principles the
consent should be free, but consent given in an
intoxicated state where the person is incapable of
understanding the terms of contract is not free.
Further, object of an agreement should be lawful,
but selling of cocaine is forbidden by law. The
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correct option is (d). Going by the principles, the
consent should be free, but Arzoo was given the
offer in an intoxicated state where she was
incapable of understanding the terms of the
contract, thus consent given by her was not free.
Also, the object of the agreement should be lawful
in the eyes of the law, but selling Cocaine is
forbidden by law, hence unlawful. Thus, this is not a
contract.
Option (a) is wrong. No, Arzoo was not fully aware
of the contract and its terms because she was
intoxicated. Hence, it was not a contract. Option (b)
is wrong. The question of inadequate consideration
does not arise in this question in the first place, as
the principles do not mention anything about it. The
reason was, as the object of the agreement was
unlawful and consent given was not free in the first
place, this was never a contract. Option (c) is
wrong. This option is inherently correct in the
sense that consent was not given as Arzoo was
intoxicated, but does not cover the part where the
object, Cocaine, was unlawful. As option (d) covers
both these aspects, it is a better answer.
(a) Isha had not committed theft because Bakshi had
impliedly consented to borrowing of car by Isha. In
this case, though Bakshi could not understand
which car key was Isha holding but still he nodded
and assented to her borrowing the car. Isha
understood his nod and goodbye as the permission
to borrow his car. Moreover, he had no dishonest
intention to steal Bakshi’s car. The correct option
is (a). When Isha asked Bakshi if she could borrow
his car and showed the key, Bakshi, although not
understanding which car’s key it was, nodded in
compliance, which Isha thought was an implied
consent to use his car. She never had any
dishonest intention to steal away his car. Hence,
Isha did not commit the offence of theft.
Option (b) is wrong. The main component of theft,
that is a dishonest intention, was never possessed
by Isha. She, in good faith asked to borrow his car,
and when he nodded she thought it to be an implied
consent. Hence, she is not liable for theft.
Option (c) is wrong. Isha is not liable for theft, not
because of the fact that Bakshi was in love with her,
but because he nodded in compliance which she
thought was an implied consent. Also, she did not
have any dishonest intention.
Option (d) is wrong. Isha never had a dishonest
intention to commit theft, because she, in good
faith, showed Bakshi the key, and asked for his
permission. When she thought he nodded giving his
consent, only then did she drive away in the car.
Thus, she did not commit theft.
(c) Under the principle, auctioneer's knowledge of the
status of ownership of the goods sold is
inconsequential; what matters is whether the
customer had the title to the goods, which in this
case, he did not. If we apply both the principles
to the factual situation, Sanjay owe the real title
of the Rolex and does makes Kavita liable for
conversion.
Option (d) is not the right answer as the reason
presented is based on facts and not on the legal
principle.
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Option (a) and (b) says that Kavita should not 76.
be held liable but as we know that Varun had
actually stolen the watch from Sanjay and
Sanjay owe the title to the goods, so both of
these options are wrong.
74. (d) In this case, it would not be hurt because as per
Principle I, if the person has caused bodily pain,
disease or infirmity, then only it would amount to
hurt. In this case, she caused death of a person.
Shweta’s act of shooting Megha and then locking
the door so that she can’t escape, shows that she
had knowledge that her act would in high probability
cause death of Megha. Therefore, she is liable for
murder and not culpable homicide. Correct answer
Option D. In this case, Shweta shot Megha’s legs
and bolted the door from outside and left for her
village. Had she only hurt Megha’s legs, she would
have been liable for hurt. Rather, she was aware
that Megha would not be able to seek help in a
bolted house and the excessive bleeding might
result in death. Inspite of knowing this, she bolted
the door and left for her village. Therefore, her
actions are a clear indication that she had the 77.
intention to kill Megha. Therefore, as per the
principles she is liable for murder as she had the
intention to kill Shweta. The only option making
Megha liable for murder is Option D and the
reasoning is in consonance with the legal principle.
Therefore, it is the correct answer. Option C is not
correct as she just did not hurt Megha but had the
intention of killing Megha, as established above.
Option B is not correct and this is not a case of
culpable homicide as she was aware that bolting
the door and leaving would lead to Megha’s death.
Therefore, there was clear intention of murder.
Option A is not correct as it is in nowhere with
consonance with the legal principles and there was
no sudden or grave provocation in this case.
75. (a) Sue would not be liable for the offence of bribery
because she promised a public action to help
people recover. Principle II provides that a promise
of public action or policy is exempted from the rule.
Thus, offering food and shelter to people affected
by flood is a promise of public action. Correct
answer Option A. According to the principle,
promising things for public good which form a part
of election manifesto does not amount to
gratification or bribery. Sue’s action of promising to 78.
provide shelters and distributing food is just to
ensure public benefit and goodwill and does not in
any way amount to bribery. Therefore, Sue is not
liable for the offence of bribery. This logic and
adherence to legal principles is reflected in Option
A and therefore, Option A most closely resembles
the legal principle and therefore is the correct
answer. Option C is based on an assumption
behind the motivation of Sue and does not adhere
to any legal principle and is therefore is not the
correct answer. Option B and Option D are not the
correct answers because they hold Sue liable for
bribery. But, the actions of Sue were in furtherance
of public actions and does not amount to bribery as
per principle 2. Therefore, both the options are
incorrect.
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(a) The writ would not succeed because the police had
lawful justification to detain Mani. His book had
incited people and created hatred against the
government. Correct answer Option A. According
to the legal principle, the writ of Habeas Corpus
cannot be justified to question an order that is
legally valid. In this case, although Rishi tried using
his contacts to get Mani arrested, Mani was actually
arrested due to a legally binding order passed by
the superintendent in the offence of Sedition.
Therefore, a writ of Habeas Corpus cannot be
successful in this case, according to the principle.
Option A restates above and justifies the legal
principle and therefore is the correct answer.
Option C is factually incorrect as it goes against
Principle 3. Therefore, it is an incorrect answer.
Both Option B and Option D state that the writ of
Habeas Corpus will be successful and it goes
against principle 1 as Mani is detained lawfully and
the same cannot be altered by Habeas Corpus.
Therefore, both the options are incorrect according
to the principle.
(b) Rohini has misrepresented because she made the
statement about Sagar and therefore about the
spirits on the belief that there are no supernatural
powers. When Mr. Sharma asked her about the
spirits, she had an obligation to tell him the truth.
She said what she innocently believed. Correct
answer Option B. The facts of the case state that
Rohini herself never believed in supernatural
powers. Therefore, when Mrs Sharma asked her
about the same, she went on to deny it because
she does not believe in the same. Therefore, this
does not amount to fraud but misrepresentation as
Rohini believed in whatever she said and did not
actively conceal anything she believed in.
Therefore, as per the legal principles, it amounts to
misrepresentation. The same has been stated by
Option B in adherence to the legal principles which
make it the correct answer. Option A is not correct
because Rohini does not commit fraud as she
never actively concealed any act she believed in as
established above. Option C and Option D state
that Rohini is not liable for any offence when,
according to the facts, principles and as stated
above, she is liable for Misrepresentation.
Therefore, both the options are incorrect.
(b) The arbitration agreement exist because as per
Principle III, the arbitration agreement is considered
to be in writing if in an exchange of statements of
claim and defence in which the existence of the
agreement is alleged by one party and not denied
by the other. Moreover, arbitration agreement can
exist as a separate agreement as per Principle 1.
Correct answer Option B. Principle 3 states that
even if there is no arbitration clause or there is no
arbitration agreement in writing, if in an exchange of
statement of claim and defence in which the
existence of agreement is alleged by one party and
not denied by other, then it will be treated as an
arbitration agreement. In the facts of the case, the
same course of events as per the above principle
transpired. Mish and Ross had agreed to arbitration
verbally and both of them did not deny it in court
and therefore, arbitration agreement exists in
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writing, as per principle 3 which is exactly stated in
Option B. Therefore, Option B resembles the
principle the most and is in consonance with the
facts and therefore is the correct answer. Option A
is not correct because just agreeing to arbitration
won’t lead to existence of arbitration contract. It has
to exist in writing as per principle 2. Option C and 81.
Option D are incorrect because they state that no
arbitration clause exists but as it is established
above from the facts and the principle, an
arbitration agreement does exist as both parties
agreed to the same in court and therefore, both
options are incorrect.
79. (d) Weenie bought ginger before going to the Office is
the relevant fact to prove that he added Ginger to
the Boss’ tea. The fact that Boss had an external
marital affair or that Jolly refused to marry him or
that he offered tea to everybody are not so
connected with the issue of death of the Boss.
Weenie buying the ginger is so connected with the
fact that death of the Boss was due to his allergic
reaction to Ginger and thereby forms part of the
same transaction. Correct answer Option (D).
According to the principles, it is stated that a
relevant fact must be connected to the offence in
some manner or the other. As per the facts given in
the question, Option A is incorrect as the boss
having an extra marital affair is in no way connected
to the issue of the death of the boss. Option B is
incorrect because Winnie proposing to marry Jolly
is not even mentioned in the facts and goes against
the second principle as it is not associated with the
death of the boss. Again, Option C is incorrect 82.
because Winnie offering tea to everyone in the
office is not relevant to Boss’s death. But, as per
principle 2, Option D which states that Weenie
brought ginger before coming to work is the correct
answer because it is directly connected to the
boss’s death as the boss died due to being allergic
to ginger which was mixed in his tea and was
served to him.
80. (a) Mrs. Banerjee would succeed because she is
unable to live life as she was used to before
separation and therefore unable to maintain herself.
Though she earns 5 lakhs but that amount is
insufficient for her to maintain her lifestyle. Claim of
maintenance depends on the lifestyle and
standards of a person. Correct answer Option (A).
As per the principle, if a person is not able to
maintain herself/himself after divorce and the
spouse is not cooperative, he/she can sue the
spouse for maintenance in the court. In the facts,
Mrs. Banerjee was used to a particular lifestyle and
she was not able to maintain herself in accordance
with the same lifestyle after divorce. As claim of
maintenance depends on the nature of lifestyle of a
person, she can file for the same as per the legal
principle. Therefore, Option A states that Mrs.
Banerjee was not able to sustain her previous 83.
lifestyle and should file for maintenance and it is in
adherence to the legal principle. Therefore, it is the
correct answer. Option B is not correct as it states
that it is the duty of every husband to serve the wife
which is nowhere mentioned in the principles and
cannot be deduced. Option C and Option D are
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not correct as they state that Mrs. Banerjee cannot
file for maintenance but it has been proved above
that she can file for the same as per the principle
since she was not able to sustain her lifestyle in the
present condition. Therefore, both the options are
incorrect.
(d) Cindrella was the visitor. Since Prince allowed her
to enter the premises, there is an implied consent
for her to enter the premises. Prince being the
owner of the premise had the duty of care towards
his visitors and invitees. Correct answer Option
(D). The principle clearly states that the owner of
the premise is responsible to ensure the safety of
both the visitors and invitees. Since, Cindrella used
to come to pick flowers to Prince’s house and
prince never denied her from doing the same, there
was an implied consent from Prince and therefore,
Cindrella is a visitor. Therefore, it was the
responsibility of Prince to ensure the safety of
Cindrella and he failed to do so and therefore,
according to the principles, he is liable as he did not
fulfill his duty of care. This is restated by Option D
and therefore it is the correct answer as it resonates
the legal principle the most. Option A is incorrect
because it does not resemble the principle in any
way and the reasoning is out of the scope of the
question. Option B and Option C are incorrect as
they do not hold Prince liable for the offence.
Cindrella was a visitor and Prince had a duty of
care towards her which he should have fulfilled,
which he did not and hence is liable. Therefore,
both options are incorrect.
(b) No, Ms. Gupta had given enough warnings and the
fence put around her lawn is a reasonable force to
prevent the kids from entering the lawn. Correct
Answer Option (B). The principle talks about the
use of reasonable force in order to keep away
trespassers. In this case, Ms. Gupta had given
enough warnings to the trespasser about the dog
and had also kept the dog tied but the trespassers
went on to befriend the dog and therefore the fence
was a reasonable step taken by her to keep the
trespassers away as she had no other options to
resort to. Since she had given multiple warnings to
the kids, fencing was indeed a reasonable step and
therefore she is not liable for use of excess force,
according to the principle. Option D is close to the
correct answer but it is not the correct answer
because the kids jumping off the fence “voluntarily”
would not justify the legal principle of excessive
force as it does not justify the act as reasonable
force. Option A and Option C are not correct
because they hold Ms. Gupta liable for using
excess force, when in reality she had given multiple
warnings and is therefore justified to use a
reasonable force (fencing the lawns) to keep away
trespasser. So, she was not liable and both options
are incorrect.
(a) Neelam is liable because she requested to be
dropped to the bus terminal. Neelam as an owner
was in possession and in the occupation of the car
at the time of Alex driving the car. Additionally, it
was Neelam who asked for the assistance of Alex.
The principle directly states that if the owner of a
car asks any other person to drive the car on his
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behalf, he would be liable for the accidents and the
liabilities arising out of it. Neelam asked the garage
owner who further authorized Alex to drive the car
and therefore when Alex met with an accident,
Neelam was liable as he had authorized Alex to
drive the car through the garage owner. Therefore,
Option A is correct as it directly applies the
principle to the facts. Option B is not correct
because giving directions to a person driving a
owner’s car is not pertinent and is nowhere 87.
mentioned in the principles. Therefore, the
reasoning is flawed and the option is incorrect.
Option C and Option D hold the garage company
liable but in reality the garage company was just
carrying out the orders of Neelam and it was
Neelam who was the owner of the car and wanted
someone else to drive his car. Therefore, according
to the principle, Neelam is liable and not the garage
company. Therefore, both the options are incorrect.
84. (d) Option (d) is the correct answer because Pepsi
Company and Sunshine&Co. are the manufacturers
and will be liable for the quality of the product,
whereas, the grocery shop owner couldn’t have
known about the constituents of the bottle as it was 88.
sealed. Option (a) is not the correct answer
because Anuj won’t succeed against the grocery
shop owner as he did not sell the unmarketable
good knowingly. Option (b) is not the correct
answer because Anuj will also succeed against
Pepsi Company as they are also manufacturers
who supply the concentrate of the drink and will be
liable for the poor quality of the product. Option (c)
is not the correct answer because Anuj will also
succeed against Sunshine&Co., as they add the
various concentrate, being the manufacturers.
85. (c) Option (c) is the correct answer because Anil sold
his house in Mumbai to Kuldeep for the
consideration of Rs 7000000 and Kuldeep sold his
Pune property to Anil for the consideration of Rs
4500000. These transactions are of sale as they
involve consideration. The transaction between Anil
and Sandeep is a gift as Anil transferred his
property to Sandeep out of love and without any
consideration. Option (a) is incorrect as the 89.
transaction between Anil and Kuldeep is not an
exchange as it involves consideration. And the
transaction between Anil and Sandeep is not of sale
as it doesn’t involve any consideration. Option (b) is
incorrect because the transaction between Anil and
Sandeep is not an exchange but a gift as it involves
transfer only from one end and that too, without
consideration. Option (d) is incorrect as the
transaction between Anil and Kuldeep is sale as it
involves consideration.
86. (d) No, he will not succeed because the bamboos and
rods were not obstructing with the ordinary use and 90.
enjoyment of Karan's property.
Explanation Option (d) is the correct answer
because the bamboos and rods did not obstruct
Karan’s ordinary use and enjoyment of his land and
airspace. Flying kites can’t be considered an
ordinary use, thus, Karan won’t succeed.Option (a)
is incorrect because the bamboos and rods did not
interfere Karan’s ordinary use and enjoyment of his
land. Option (b) is incorrect because the bamboos
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and rods were at a height of more than 30 feet
above Karan’s terrace and did not obstruct his
ordinary use and enjoyment of the land. Even
though widely practised, the construction process
can cause nuisance if it obstructs one’s ordinary
use and enjoyment of land. Option (c) is incorrect
because the interference was not unreasonable and
did not obstruct Karan to use and enjoy his property
ordinarily.
(b) No, he was having the special permission and his
right to remain in the premises was within the
limited time period.
Option (b) is Correct. According to the given
principles, Rahul’s act of re-entering the academy
premise was within the stipulated condition of the
special permission granted to him. Although he left
the academy early but he still has the right to enter
the property because his right expires after the
completion of 1 hours as per the given facts. Option
(c) cannot be the right answer because the question
specifically asked about the act of Rahul to be
considered as an act of trespass to the land. Option
(a) and Option (d) can be eliminated.
(d) Yes, because the guard used excessive force which
was unreasonable and moreover Rahul’s right to
enter the land wasn’t expired at the time when
guard shot him down.
Option (d) is Correct. According to the given
principles, Rahul’s act of re-entering the academy
premise was justifiable and reasonable. Further,
according to Principle 3, sufficient force should be
used against the trespasser and it is clear from the
given facts that the force used by guard wasn’t
reasonable and excessive in nature to expel Rahul
from the property. Option (c) is wrong because no
such information was mentioned in the given facts.
Option (a) cannot be the right answer because
Rahul was having a valid right to enter the premise
and hence guard’s course of action cannot be
justified as a corrective measure. Option (b) is
wrong because there is no need shoot Rahul,
because he was still having valid permission at the
time when the guard shoot him down.
(d) All of the above.
Option (d) is correct. By applying all the Principles
to the given factual scenario, it is clear that Ratan
published a defamatory material against Neelesh.
Further, the defamatory letter published by Ratan
led to an injury to Neelesh and because of which he
got fired from his work place. It is evident from the
given fact that the defamation was caused against
Neelesh because Ratan published a false letter
against Neelesh and no valid defence of truth can
be taken. Hence, all the given options are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the best choice.
(a) The second point in principle (i) states that punitive
damages may be awarded in cases in which the
defendant’s conduct has been calculated by him to
make a profit for himself which may well exceed the
compensation payable to the plaintiff. This is akin to
what happened in the instant case. Hence, the
Court may consider awarding punitive damages in
this case. Option (A) is the correct answer as the
second part of principle (i) states that punitive
damages may be awarded in cases in which the
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defendant’s conduct has been calculated by him to
make a profit for himself which may well exceed the
compensation payable to the plaintiff. This is akin to 94.
what happened in the instant case. Hence, the
Court may consider awarding punitive damage in
this case.
Option B is not correct according to second part of
the principle; the Court will consider awarding
punitive damages in this case.
Option C & D is not correct as neither it depends on
the credentials of Raman nor Heeru
91. (b) Principle (i) categorically delineates cases where
punitive damages may be awarded. The instant
case is not covered by any of them. Further, the
activists were acting to protect the environment and
prevent setting up a factory in place of the park.
Thus, no punitive damages may be imposed on
them. Option (B) is the correct answer as per the 95.
principle (i) categorically delineates cases
where punitive damages may be awarded. The
instant case is not covered by any of them,
further, the activists were acting to protect the
environment and prevent setting up a factory in
place of the park. Thus, no punitive damages
may be imposed on them. Option A is not correct
as the activists were acting to protect the
environment and prevent setting up a factory in
place of the park. Therefore the Court cannot
impose punitive damages on the activist group.
Option C is not correct as there is no question of
loss suffered by the State treasury. Option D is not
correct as the principle (i) categorically delineates
cases where punitive damages may be awarded
and hence option (B) is the most appropriate
answer.
92. (a) As per the principle, the Court has power to order a
person to undergo medical test and such an order
would not be in violation of the right of personal
liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution. In the
instant case, the Court asking Sitaram to undergo a
medical test is not in violation of Article 21. Option
(A) is the correct answer as per the principle, in the
instant case; the Court asking Sitaram to undergo a
medical test is not in violation of Article 21. Option B
is not correct as the order is in consonance with
Article 21. Option C is not correct as it does not
depend on which post Sitaram works. Option D is
not correct as it does not depend on the disease
contracted by Sitaram’s P.A.
93. (c) While principle (i) states that the State shall make 96.
provision for securing just and humane conditions
of work and for maternity relief, it is to be
remembered that it is not the sole prerogative of the
State but also of the management. Hence, the
answer. Option (C) is the correct answer as per
principle (i), the State shall make provision for
securing just and humane conditions of work and
for maternity relief, it is to be remembered that it is
not the sole prerogative of the State but also of the
management. Hence, Women workers must be
protected by the State. Option A & B is not correct
as neither only State nor management is solely
responsible. It is the duty of both to introduce just
and humane conditions of work.
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Option D is not correct as the best possible answer
is Option (C).
(b) Principle (ii) provides that the State shall take steps,
by suitable legislation or in any other way, to secure
the participation of workers in the management of
undertakings, establishments or other organizations
engaged in any industry. Thus, in the instant case,
there is nothing wrong with encouraging workers to
participate in the management of the company.
Option (B) is the correct answer as according to
principle (ii), in this instant case, there is
nothing wrong with encouraging workers to
participate in the management of the company.
Option A is not correct as M/s Golden Yarn Ltd. will
not succeed in his prayer to the Court. Option C is
not correct as status of the company is not the
matter of question.
(c) The contract is enforceable because the arch
reactor made the time machine work and therefore
the contingent event has occurred. The contract
was contingent on the working of the time machine.
Thus, Tony Stark was entitle to 100 million dollars.
The contract has not become impossible merely
because time machine is not possible in real world.
According to the facts, time machine was made
and therefore not impossible. The correct answer
is option (c). The contract between Tony and
Steve was that Steve would pay Tony if Tony
provides the Arch reactor and the Time Machine
becomes successful. Evidently, the time machine
worked once, hence it was successful. Thus, the
contingent event happened and the contract is
enforceable. So, Steve has to pay Tony the 100
million amount.
Option (a) is wrong. This option is clearly wrong
as the making of the Time Machine is clearly
possible according to the facts, and it worked with
the Arc reactor.
Option (b) is wrong. The success of the project
was judged by the fact that the Time machine could
be made and used. The machine worked and Steve
was able to travel through time, thus it was a
successful project indeed. Thus, the contract is
enforceable.
Option (d) is wrong. The contract is successful not
because there was valid consideration, but because
the contingent event connected to the contract
successfully occurred. Hence, the contract is
enforceable.
(d) Hawkeye is liable because he owed duty of care
towards the villagers passing near its premises and
he breached the duty by failing to unload the guns.
The tort of negligence requires breach of duty of
care and that the harm must be reasonably
foreseeable. Hawkeye owed a duty of care to all
the villagers passing near its premises. Moreover,
owing to the dangerous nature of weapons, he had
to take care that the guns should not be loaded
with bullets. But Hawkeye breached the duty of
care. Hawkeye could foresee that any accident
through the weapons could lead to harm to the
people nearby. The correct option is (d).
According to Principle I, the breach of duty of care
results in a tort of negligence. Hawkeye owed a
duty of care to every person who resided or passed
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through his premises, and by failing to unload the 104.
guns, he breached that duty of care, because owing
to the dangerous nature of the guns the result was
foreseeable, which resulted in Thor’s death. Thus,
Hawkeye is liable. 105.
Option (a) is wrong. As explained above,
Hawkeye owed a duty of care to everybody who
passed through or near his premises. The guns
were dangerous in nature and by failing to unload,
he breached the duty of care he owed. Hence, he is
liable.
Option (b) is wrong. This option is wrong because
it does not resonate with the principles. It ought to SECTION - D: LOGICAL REASONING
have explained how by not unloading the guns
Hawkeye breached his duty of care towards the 106.
villagers, due to which he is liable.
Option (c) is wrong. First of all, the principles
never talked about trespassing. Secondly, the
question is not whether Thor committed a tort, but
rather if Hawkeye is liable for breaching the duty of 107.
care. Hawkeye did owe a duty of care as explained
above, and the parties were within the reasonable
proximity of his premises, and by not unloading the
guns, he committed a breach of duty of care.
Hence, he is liable, irrespective of whether or not
anybody trespassed. 108.
97. (d) The Delhi High Court has refused to stay 109.
proceedings related to a Provisional Attachment
Order (PAO) passed against Amnesty International
India in November 2020 by the Enforcement 110.
Directorate (ED).
98. (a) The Madras High Court on Monday directed that
symbol of ruling political party should not be used in
COVID-19 relief distributions centres and packages.
99. (c) The E-committee of the Supreme Court of India has 111.
released a manual for its free e-courts mobile
services application in fourteen languages for better
reach among the litigants and lawyers. The manual
has been made available in English, Hindi,
Assamese, Bengali, Gujarathi, Kannada, Khasi,
Malayalam, Marathi, Nepali, and Odia, Punjabi, 112.
Tamil and Telugu.
100. (b) The acting Chief Justice of Calcutta High Court,
Justice Rajesh Bindal has constituted a 5-judge
Bench to hear the case concerning the arrest of
four All India Trinamool Congress (TMC) leaders in
the Narada sting scam.
101. (d) The President of India, Ram Nath Kovind has
nominated Supreme Court judge Justice Uday 113.
Umesh Lalit as the next executive chairperson of
the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) with
immediate effect.
102. (b) Testing aircraft pilots, cabin crew and air traffic
controllers for alcohol cannot be completely
exempted as it could be detrimental to passenger
safety, the Delhi High Court recently held in ATC
Guild (India) vs UOI .
103. (a) Advocate KR Gouri Amma, the legendary politician
from Kerala passed away. Gouri Amma was the
first woman lawyer from Kerala’s Ezhava
community which is classified as Other Backward
Caste (OBC). As the Revenue Minister, she is
famously known for presenting the Land Reforms
Bill in 1957, which altered land holding in the State
and ushered in social changes.
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(b) The Supreme Court has set up a twelve-member
National Task Force (NTF) to facilitate a public
health response to COVID-19 based on scientific
and specialised domain knowledge.
(d) Administrator of Lakshadweep, Praful Khoda Patel,
is being opposed by people of the union territory
and politicians over policies he drafted in recent
time. Prevention of Anti-Social Activities Act (PASA)
was introduced in January 2021. According to it,
person can be detained without any public
disclosure for a period of up to one year.
(b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
From I: C>D>A
E>B>A
From II: C>E>B/D,and A got the lowest marks.
(c) R drives and so is in the front.P and T are at the
back, with P occupying a window and T,the middle
seat.The remaining seat at the back can only be
occupied by S.So Q sits in the front next to the
driver.
Hence, option (c) is the answer.
(b) aabbcc is repeated thrice.
(a) Editor edits the articles,write-ups etc.of a
magazine.Similarly,Director controls and directs
scenes of a drama.
(c) The series is -9,-18,-27,.
(b) The series is
(a) From 10 am on 1st day to 4 am on 5th day is total
114 hours.When a clock loses 15 min,then 23 hours
45 min of this clock are the same as 24 hours of
correct clock i.e.95/4 hours of this clock = 24 hours
of correct clock.95/4 hours of this clock
=((24×4/95)×114) hours of correct clock = 115.2
hours of correct clock which is equal to 115 hours
12 minThe correct time is 5:12 am.
(d) Given,
M<O<U<R>T;P>R<I<C<L
M<O<U<R;R<I<C<L
M<O<U<R<I<C<L
Conclusions I.L > M (True)
II.O < C (True).
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114. (b) The route traversed by the bus is shown below

As can be seen,the bus finally faces north.

Hence,option (b) is the answer.
Note: The actual distances are irrelevant in this
question as only the direction that the bus faces is
required.Based
on the turns,the bus would face north irrespective of 121. (d) None of the options is correct (d)
the distances.The distances would have been 122. (d) None of the options is correct. (d)
relevant had the direction of the bus been asked 123. (d) None of the options is correct. (d)
w.r.t the original position. 124. (c) Diana. Option (c) is true.
Hint (Q.115-Q.116): 125. (a) Carpenter Option (a)
115. (d) Uncle Hint (Q.126-Q.128): The following can be worked
out based on the clues:

Administration Finance Logistics

F C(least earner) ??
G(max earner) A(male) ??
Nobody else ?? ??

116. (c) M%O@N$P In terms of incomes:

117. (c) On checking option A and option D,D is not
immediate left to C.Therefore these are eliminated.
Option B can be eliminated as A is not two places
away from C.
In C option,D is immediate left to C and A is two
places away from C.So,option C is correct.
118. (a) Condition (i) applies
119. (d) Conditions(ii) applies.
120. (c) After Nov. 1, 1994, 60 days are remaining in 1994,
and (31 + 28 + 27) = 86 days of 1995 are gone till
27th March, 1995.
Total gap between 01/11/94 and 27/03/95 is 60+86
= 146 days
Now, 146/7=20 weeks+6 days
Since there are 6 odd days left, so day on 1
November 1994 will be 6 days back than the day on
27 March 1995. Hence the day on 1 November
1994 was Tuesday. So, Ans. is option c.
Hint (Q.121-Q.125): Based on the clues, the final
figure of placement of people and their professions
would come out.
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G Maximum
H
A We don’t know the relative order
between B,F and E in terms of their
incomes.
B,F,E
C
126. (d) Finance or Logistics. Option (d) is correct.
127. (a) Option (a) is correct.
128. (a) Option (a) is correct.
129. (b) The revolution of the earth around the sun is
responsible for different seasons. If the earth did
not revolve, there would be no seasons.
Hence B
130. (a) Explanation – Correct answer is A
Here the statement is saying about the positive
effect of eating an apple on our health. So definitely
eating apple is good for our health. But nothing in
the statement has been told about the benefits of
the orange. Also we do not know about the
comparison of benefits between orange and apple.
Hence here only first conclusion is valid one. So our
answer is option A.
131. (c) in this question we see that B is irrelevant to the
other statements. That, however, does not help us
much as only option ‘a’ is eliminated. A closer
examination shows that D is the Assertion, for
which A is the supporting reason and C the counter
argument. Hence, ‘c’ is correct.
132. (a) A spy acts in a clandestine manner; an accountant
acts in a meticulous manner.
A lawyer and furrier (a person who makes or sells
clothes made from fur) may or may not be ironic
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and rambunctious (full of energy and difficult to C. The campaign might be expensive but it does
control). not weaken the effectiveness of the campaign and
Hence, A we cannot make an assumption that the
133. (d) The passage speaks about desires and the effect of government does not have the resources to spend.
giving into such desires on our happiness. The D. Correct. If a majority of Sweden’s workforce
overall view of the passage is in opposition to quick needs were met through relaxing the immigration
gratification of our needs. Option B which also laws, then Finland cannot expect that it can achieve
opposes instant gratification is too extreme and can the same only through the campaign especially
be eliminated. Only D, if true, strengthens the when they cite the example of Sweden, the latter
argument by explaining why happiness doesn’t launched a campaign as well as relaxed the
increase when we get what we desire. Hence D. immigration laws.
134. (a) The minister is launching the advertising campaign Thus, choice D is the correct answer.
to increase tourism revenue by launching an 140. (a) The paragraph states that excess demand leads to
advertising campaign to make its tourist attractions an increase in prices if all other factors remain
better known. The assumption obviously is that the constant. Hence, if the supply changes, all other
reason for tourists not coming to Bangladesh is factors will no more remain constant and thus this
because they do not know about the various tourist theory will not be valid. Thus, the paradox will be
attractions it has. resolved. Choice A is therefore correct.
B. Even if this is true it still does not explain why the Choice B is incorrect as the argument is concerned
minister decided to launch an advertising campaign. with all electronic goods available.
C. General statement that is not relevant to the Choice C is also incorrect because if per unit costs
question. reduce with increasing volumes, the paradox of
D. Does not explain why they have launched the keeping prices the same is not explained.
advertising campaign in the first place. Choice D is out of scope.
Thus, choice A is the correct answer. Thus, choice A is the correct answer.
135. (a) A- Correct. Probing into the murders is the best
course of action in such situations. SECTION - E: MATHEMATICS
B- is not a suitable course of action since the
culprits should be found first and then comes their 141. (c) Since the numbers are co-prime, their HCF = 1
punishment. Product of first two numbers = 119
C - does not help in identifying the murderers. Product of last two numbers = 391
D- ‘suspects’ should be handed over to police to The middle number is common in both of these
enquire about them. products. Hence, if we take HCF of 119 and 391,
Hence, A we get the common middle number.
136. (c) Inference Q. Options A, B and D can be inferred HCF of 119 and 391 = 17
from the passage. Option A can be inferred from => Middle Number = 17
the first three lines. Option B and D can be inferred First Number =119/17=7
from the last three lines. Even C seems logical in Last Number =391/17=23
the first glance, but the press release does not Sum of the three numbers = 7 + 17 + 23 = 47
touch upon the particular issues (such as 142. (b) Ratio of the profits of Kamal and Kiran
deforestation) under the environment conservation. = 25000 × 12: 60000 × 8
Hence, C cannot be inferred. = 25 × 12: 60 × 8
137. (b) ‘Chuck de India’ is a movie and Shah Rukh Khan is = 5 × 3: 12 × 2
a performer in it- therefore, the fact that he is an = 5: 4 × 2
actor is implicit. Also, as it is ‘one of the most = 5: 8
compelling..’ makes implicit the assumption that he Let the total profit = 𝑥
gave many compelling performances. However, the 10x x
Then kamal received = commission for
movie could be based on someone else’s life too, 100 10
so we cannot assume that it is about Shah Rukh. managing the business.
𝑥 9𝑥
Hence B – Only 1 and 3 Remaining profit = 𝑥 − = which is shared in
10 10
138. (d) Though an encyclopedia is composed of sentences, the ratio 5 : 8
its primary utility is a book or set of books 𝑥 9𝑥 5
Total amount received by Kamal = + ×
containing many articles and facts arranged in an 10 10 13
x 9x 5
alphabetical order which deal either with the whole ⇒ + × = 58000
10 10 13
of human knowledge or with a particular part of it. 5
⇒ 𝑥 + 9𝑥 × = 580000
Hence, D 13
45
139. (d) A. We cannot make a judgment on the ⇒ 𝑥 (1 + ) = 580000
13
effectiveness of the plan because we do not know 58
⇒𝑥× = 580000
the number of workers that were needed and the 13
1
total population of Sweden which will help us ⇒ 𝑥 × = 10000
13
evaluate if the campaign was successful in meeting ⇒ 𝑥 = 130000
the shortage. Kiran’s share = 130000 – 58000 = 72000
B. Indirectly supports the effectiveness of the 143. (c) Let x and (12−x) litres of milk be mixed from the first
campaign in encouraging people to have kids. and second container respectively.
Amount of milk in x litres of the the first
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container =.75x 91x 3x

− = 48
125 5
Amount of water in x litres of the the first 91x−75x
container =.25x = 48
125
16x
Amount of milk in (12−x) litres of the the second = 48
125
container =.5(12−x) 48×125
Amount of water in (12−x)litres of the the second 𝑥= = 3 × 125 = 𝑅𝑠. 375
16
container =.5(12−x) i.e. the sum is Rs. 375
Ratio of water to milk 147. (d) Let distance travelled upstream be 𝑥 km
x x−4
= [. 25𝑥 + .5(12 − 𝑥)]: [. 75𝑥 + .5(12 − 𝑥)] = 3 ∶ 5 + =6
(.25𝑥+6−.5𝑥) 3 4−2 4+2
⇒ (.75𝑥+6−.5𝑥) = 𝑥
⇒ +
𝑥−4
=6
5
2 6
(6−.25𝑥) 3
⇒ (.25𝑥+6) = ⇒ 3𝑥 + 𝑥 − 4 = 36
5
⇒ 30 − 1.25𝑥 = .75𝑥 + 18 ⇒ 4𝑥 = 40
⇒ 2𝑥 = 12 ⇒ 𝑥 = 10
⇒𝑥=6 148. (c) Suppose pipe A can fill the tank in 𝑥 hours. Then,
x x
Since 𝑥 = 6,12 − 𝑥 = 12 − 6 = 6 pipe B can fill it in hours and pipe C can fill it in
2 4
Hence 6 and 6 litres of milk should mixed from the hours.
1
first and second container respectively Part filled by pipe A in 1 hour =
𝑥
144. (a) Let maximum marks of the examination =x 2
30𝑥 Part filled by Pipe B in 1 hour =
Marks that Arun got = 30% 𝑜𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑥
4
100
Given that Arun failed by 10 marks. Part filled by Pipe C in 1 hour =
𝑥
30𝑥 Given that pipe A, pipe B and pipe C together can
⇒ pass mark = + 10 ........(1) 1
100
40𝑥 fill the tank in 10 hours. i.e., together they can fill
Marks that Sujith got = 40% of 𝑥 = 10
100 of the tank in 1 hour.
Given that Sujith got 15 marks more than the Therefore,
passing marks. 1 2 4 1
40𝑥 = + + =
⇒ pass mark = − 15 .....(2) 𝑥
7
𝑥
1
𝑥 10
100
From (1) and (2), ⇒ =
𝑥 10
30x 40x ⇒ 𝑥 = 70
+= − 15
100
10𝑥
100 149. (c) The word ‘CORPORATION’ has 11 letters. It has
= 25 the vowels ‘O’. ‘O’, ‘A’, ‘I’, ‘O’ in it and these 5
100
𝑥
= 25 vowels should always come together .Hence these
10
5 vowels can be grouped and considered as a
𝑥 = 10 × 25 = 250
single letter. That is, CRPRTN(OOAIO).
Pass mark
30𝑥 30×250 Hence we can assume total letters as 7. But in
= + 10 = + 10 these 7 letters, ‘R’ occurs 2 times and rest of the
100 100
= 75 + 10 = 85 letters are different.
145. (a) Let total number of shots =x Number of ways to arrange these letters.
5x 7! 7×6×5×4×3×2×1
Shots fired by A =
8
= = = 2520
2! 2×1
3𝑥
Shots fired by B = In the 5 vowels (OOAIO), ‘O’ occurs 3 and rest of
8
5𝑥 1 5𝑥 the vowels are different.
Killing shots by A = × = 5! 5×4×3×2×1
8
3𝑥
3
1
24
3𝑥
= = = 20
3! 3×2×1
Missing shots by B = × = Hence, required number of ways
8 2 16
B has missed 27 times = 2520 × 20 = 50400
3𝑥
⇒ = 27 150. (c)
16
27×16
⇒𝑥= = 144
3
Hence, killing shots by A
5𝑥 5×144
= = = 30
24 24
𝑖. 𝑒., A has killed 30 birds
146. (a) Let the sum be Rs. x
Amount after 3 years on Rs. x at 20% per annum
when interest is compounded annually
𝑅 𝑇 20 3 120 3 6 3
= 𝑃 (1 + ) = 𝑥 (1 + ) = 𝑥( ) = 𝑥( )
100 100 100 5
6 3 6 3
Compound Interest = 𝑥 ( ) − 𝑥 = 𝑥 [( ) − 1] = Area of the equilateral ∆ABC
5 5
216 91𝑥 √3 2 √3
𝑥[
125
− 1] =
125
= 𝑎 = × 242
4 4
𝑃𝑅𝑇 𝑥 × 20 ×3 3𝑥
Simple Interest = = = = 144√3 cm2 …….(1)
100 100 5
Given that difference between compound interest Let 𝑟 = radius of the inscribed circle. Then, area of
and simple interest is Rs. 48 ∆ABC

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= Area of ∆OBC + area of ∆OCA + AREA OF ⇒𝑟=

144√3
= 4√3 .......(3)
∆OAB 36
1 1 1 From (3), area of the inscribed circle
= × 𝑟 × 𝐵𝐶 + × 𝑟 × 𝐶𝐴 + × 𝑟 × 𝐴𝐵 2
2 2 2
𝑟 = 𝜋𝑟 2 = 𝜋(4√3) = 48𝜋 ……(4)
= (𝐵𝐶 + 𝐶𝐴 + 𝐴𝐵)
2
𝑟
Hence, area of the remaining portion of the triangle
= (24 + 24 + 24) = area of △ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 − 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑐𝑟𝑖𝑏𝑒𝑑 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑙𝑒
2
= 36𝑟 cm2 …….(2) = 144√3 − 48𝜋 𝑐𝑚2
From (1) and (2),
144√3 = 36𝑟

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Notes:

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Notes:

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