CHEM 111-S1 TEST

Monday, 10 September 2018

Family name (Print clearly): ................................................ Given name: .................................................

Student ID No: .................................................................

Signature: .................................................................

Instructions:
Attempt all questions.
This test paper is divided into two parts:
PART A contains 35 multiple-choice questions, which are answered by filling in the appropriate circle on
the provided answer sheet IN PENCIL. Rough working can be done on the back of the opposite sheet.
Each multiple-choice question is worth 1 mark.

PART B contains three sections worth 40 marks in all. Answers are to be entered in the spaces provided
(continue on the back of the opposite sheet if necessary).

Total marks: 75 Time allowed: 90 minutes

Note:

Included as a separate sheet in accompaniment to this paper are:

1. a periodic table, and

2. a sheet containing physical chemistry formulae.

For examiners’ use only:

Question Part A B1 B2 B3 Total

Mark
/35 /15 /10 /15 /75
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BEFORE YOU ANSWER ANY QUESTIONS YOU MUST READ AND IMPLEMENT THE
FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS:

Step 1: Write your name and subject (CHEM111) at the top right of the multi-choice
answer sheet.

Step 2: Read the instructions about filling in your answers.

Step 3: Fill in your student ID number as both a column of digits and by filling
circles, as instructed here.
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PART A

For each question, indicate your choice for the single correct answer by filling in the appropriate circle on
the provided answer sheet. Each question is worth 1 mark.

A1. The gold-foil experiment performed in Rutherford’s lab:

a) confirmed the ‘plum-pudding’ model of the atom;
b) led to the discovery of the atomic nucleus;
c) was the basis for Thomson’s model of the atom;
d) led to the discovery of the electron.
A2. Which of the following statements about an electron in an atom is incorrect?
a) It emits energy while moving in orbit.
b) It has wave-like properties.
c) It is a particle.
d) Its motion is affected by a magnetic field.
A3. A statement of the Heisenberg uncertainty principle is that:
a) it is impossible to know the position of a particle precisely;
b) it is impossible to know the momentum of a particle precisely;
c) it is impossible to simultaneously know both the position and momentum of a particle precisely;
d) scientists are uncertain of the existence of sub-atomic particles.
A4. “Each orbital can accommodate two electrons with opposite spins” is a statement of:
a) the Pauli exclusion principle;
b) the de Broglie hypothesis;
c) Hund’s rule;
d) the aufbau principle.
A5. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not possible?
a) n=1 l=0 ml = 0 ms = + ½
b) n=1 l=0 ml = 0 ms = – ½
c) n=2 l=1 ml = –1 ms = + ½
d) n=1 l=1 ml = 0 ms = + ½
A6. Which of the following is the ground-state electronic configuration of a nitrogen atom?
a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3d4
c) 1s2 2s2 2p3
d) 1s2 2p5
A7. Which of the words below is used to describe the energy required to remove an electron from an atom
to form a cation?
a) electronegativity;
b) ionisation energy;
c) reduction potential;
d) activation energy.
A8. Which of the following correctly represents the process associated with the electron affinity of
phosphorus?
a) P(g) → P+(g) + e−
b) P+(g) + e− → P(g)
c) P4(g) + 4e− → 4P−(g)
d) P(g) + e− → P−(g)
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A9. For which one of the following molecules are resonance structures necessary to describe the bonding
satisfactorily?
a) H2O b) C2H4 c) SO2 d) HCN
A10. The basis of the VSEPR model of molecular bonding is:
a) regions of electron density in the valence shell of an atom will arrange themselves so as to
maximize their overlap;
b) atomic orbitals of the bonding atoms must overlap for a bond to form;
c) lone pairs of electrons and bonded pairs of electrons in the valence shell of an atom will arrange
themselves so as to maximise their overlap;
d) lone pairs of electrons and bonded pairs of electrons in the valence shell of an atom will arrange
themselves so as to minimise their overlap.
A11. What is the oxidation number of the nitrogen atom in NF3?
a) 0 b) +3 c) –3 d) +5
A12. What is the formal charge of the nitrogen atom in the following electron dot structure?

a) 0 b) +3 c) +5 d) +7

A13. Which of the following statements is incorrect for the reaction Br2(aq) + 2I–(aq)  2Br–(aq) + I2(aq)?
a) Br2 is being reduced.
b) Br2 is the oxidising agent.
c) I– is the reducing agent.
d) I– is being reduced.
A14. If an element is oxidised during a redox process, which of the following statements is not necessarily
correct?
a) The element has reacted with oxygen.
b) The oxidation number of the element has increased.
c) The element has lost electrons.
d) The element is acting as a reducing agent.

A15. Which of the following statements is correct for the reaction 2CrO42–(aq) + 2H+(aq)  2Cr2O72–(aq) +
H2O(l)?
a) This is a redox reaction.
b) The oxidation number of Cr in both CrO42– and Cr2O72– is 6.
c) H+ is the oxidising agent.
d) The oxidation number of H+ is 0.
A16. Which of the following is an expression of Boyle’s law?
a) P ∝ V b) P ∝ T c) P ∝ 1/V d) P ∝ 1/T
A17. Which of the following is a valid expression for the ideal gas law?
a) n = RT/PV
b) n = PV/RT
c) n = RP/TV
d) n = RV/PT
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A18. According to the kinetic theory of gases, pressure can be determined by considering:
a) the number of gas molecules;
b) the speed of gas molecules;
c) the masses of the gas molecules;
d) momentum change upon collisions of gas molecules with the walls of the container holding them.
A19. According to the kinetic theory of gases, increasing the amount of gas in a balloon causes an initial
increase:
a) in volume, followed by a decrease in pressure, with no final volume change;
b) in pressure, followed by a decrease in volume, with no final pressure change;
c) in pressure, followed by an increase in volume, with no final pressure change;
d) in volume, followed by an increase in pressure, with no final volume change.
A20. Which of the following has the highest boiling point?
a) He
b) Xe
c) Kr
d) None, because they are all gases.
A21. Dalton’s Law of partial pressures states that in a mixture of two non-reacting gases:
a) the total pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the individual gases;
b) the total pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the individual gases squared;
c) the total pressure is equal to the pressure of the gas with the greatest abundance;
d) the total pressure is equal to the difference between the partial pressures of both gases.
A22. Which of the following statements correctly describes methane (CH4) gas?
a) It is a flammable, ozone-depleting, greenhouse gas.
b) It is an ozone depleting, greenhouse gas.
c) It is a flammable, greenhouse gas.
d) None of the above is correct.
A23. Carbon dioxide (CO2) can act as a greenhouse gas because:
a) it is abundant in the atmosphere;
b) its dipole moment changes as it vibrates;
c) thermodynamically, it is very stable;
d) it contains C=O double bonds.
A24. Chloroform (CH3Cl) can act as an ozone depleting gas because:
a) it releases a chlorine radical when the C-Cl bond is broken by ultraviolet light;
b) its dipole moment changes as it vibrates;
c) it is reactive because of relatively weak C-H and C-Cl bonds;
d) it is abundant in the atmosphere.
A25. The likely consequences of an increasing build-up of greenhouse gases in the Earth’s atmosphere are:
a) an increase in the Earth’s average surface temperatures and the frequency of destructive storms;
b) a decrease in the polar ice-caps leading to sea-level rise, the inundation of coastal cities and the
displacement of billions of people;
c) an increase in ocean acidification and the destruction of marine ecosystems;
d) all of the above.
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A26. What type of system is depicted at right?

a) open
b) closed
c) isolated
d) adiabatic
A27. Work is:
a) a state function;
b) always a non-state function;
c) generally a non-state function, but can be a state function under special circumstances;
d) energy.
A28. Heat is:
a) enthalpy change at constant pressure;
b) a non-state function;
c) the transfer of energy between two bodies that are at different temperatures;
d) all of the above.
A29. Enthalpy is
a) a state function;
b) U + pV;
c) heat at constant pressure;
d) all of the above.
A30. Which of the following statements is not a valid expression of the first law of thermodynamics?
a) Energy is created if the temperature of a system increases.
b) Energy can be exchanged between a system and its surroundings, but the total energy of the
universe is constant.
c) Exactly the same change in the internal energy of a system can be achieved by heating the system
or by doing work on it.
d) A perpetual motion machine that produces work without the input of energy is impossible.

A31. If a reaction has rH > 0, it is said to be

a) exothermic; b) endothermic; c) exergonic; d) endergonic.

A32. At a particular temperature, rH = 2 kJ mol–1 for 2E  2L and rH = 8 kJ mol–1 for 2F  2M. What
is the value of rH in kJ mol–1 for E + F  L + M at the same temperature?
a) –10 b) –5 c) +5 d) +10
A33. A gas absorbs 50 J of heat while at the same time there is 20 J of work as a result of its volume
expanding. What is the change in internal energy of the gas in J?
a) –70 b) –30 c) +30 d) +70
A34. The molar heat capacity at constant pressure of H2O(g) at 25 °C is 33.6 J mol–1 K–1. In units of
J g–1 K–1, what is the specific heat capacity at constant pressure of H2O(g) at 25 °C?
a) 1.87 b) 4.18 c) 25.3 d) 33.6
A35. For which of the following would you normally use a constant-pressure colorimeter?
a) Determination of the enthalpy change of a melting process.
b) Determination of the enthalpy change of a dissolution process.
c) Determination of the enthalpy change of an acid-base reaction.
d) All of the above.
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PART B

Answers are to be entered in the spaces provided (continue on the back of the opposite sheet if necessary).

Question B1 (15 marks)

(a) In total, how many orbitals can have the principal quantum number n = 3? (1 mark)

(b) Of the orbitals in (a), how many can be classified as s, p, d and f? (1 mark)

s: p: d: f:

(c) On the axes given below, sketch the shapes (or ‘boundary surface’ diagrams) of: (1 mark)

(i) the 3s orbital

(ii) the 3dxz orbital

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(d) The graph above shows the first ionisation energies for elements 1-20. Explain why He, Ne and Ar
have the highest energies for their respective periods? (2 marks)

(e) Draw the Lewis dot structure for the [XeF5]+ cation, and select from the possibilities below the
number of single bonds, double bonds and lone pairs. (Circle your answer.) (2 marks)

(i) 5, 0, 16 (ii) 5, 0, 15 (iii) 4, 1, 15 (iv) 4, 1, 16

(f) Use VSEPR theory to establish the most likely geometry for [XeF5]+. (2 marks)

(i) Draw a diagram that clearly illustrates the geometry of [XeF5]+.

(ii) What is the name of this shape?

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(f) For the following unbalanced reaction in acidic solution: (6 marks)

MnO4–(aq) + I–(aq)  I2(aq) + Mn2+(aq)

(i) Write a balanced ion-electron half equation for the reduction process.

(ii) Write a balanced ion-electron half equation for the oxidation process.

(iii) Write a balanced overall equation for the redox reaction.

(iv) 16.42 mL of 0.1327 mol L–1 MnO4– solution is needed to titrate against 20.00 mL of an aqueous
iodide (I–(aq)) solution. What is the concentration of the aqueous iodide solution?
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Question B2 (10 marks)

(a) A bubble rises from the bottom of a lake, where the temperature is 8 °C and the pressure is 6.4 atm, to
the water’s surface, where the temperature is 25 °C and the pressure is 1.0 atm. Calculate the final
volume (in mL) of the bubble if its initial volume is 2.1 mL. (2 marks)

(b) Oxygen gas (O2) generated by the decomposition of KClO3(s) is

collected over water as depicted in the figure. The volume of the
collected O2 at 24 °C and a pressure of 1.016 bar is 128 mL. The
pressure of water vapour at 24 °C is 0.029 bar.

(i) Calculate the partial pressure of the O2 gas collected. (1 mark)

(ii) Calculate the mass of O2 gas collected. (2 marks)

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(c) A chemist synthesises a greenish-yellow gaseous compound of chlorine and oxygen and finds that its
density is 7.66 g L–1 at 36 °C and 2.88 bar. Calculate the molar mass of the compound and
determine its molecular formula. (5 marks)
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Question B3 (15 marks)

Below is a table of thermodynamic data for ethanol, which evaporates (C2H5OH(l)  C2H5OH(g)) at 351.6
K (78.4 °C) under standard atmospheric pressure. In the table all symbols have their usual meanings.

Substance Cp,m (J K–1 mol–1) fHo298 (kJ mol–1)

C2H5OH(s) 111.5 –277.7

C2H5OH(l) 112.4 –277.4

C2H5OH(g) 78.3 –235.3

(a) Calculate the standard molar enthalpy change for evaporation of C2H5OH at 298 K. (2 marks)

(b) Calculate the standard molar internal energy change for evaporation of C2H5OH at 298 K.
(3 marks)

(c) Calculate the standard molar enthalpy change for evaporation of C2H5OH at 78.4 °C. (3 marks)
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(d) Write down the reaction for which fHo(C2H5OH(g)) is the enthalpy change. (2 marks)

(e) Name the type of instrument used for determining fHo(C2H5OH(g)). (1 mark)

(f) What type of (thermodynamic) system does this instrument in (e) approximate? (1 mark)

(g) Estimate the molar heat capacity at constant volume, CV,m, of gaseous ethanol, C2H5OH(g).
(2 marks)

(h) Estimate the molar heat capacity at constant volume, CV,m, of liquid ethanol, C2H5OH(l). (1 mark)

END OF PAPER