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201 - 300 MCQ Question and Answer in LAW Exam AIBE APP Judiciary Exams
201 - 300 MCQ Question and Answer in LAW Exam AIBE APP Judiciary Exams
Q - 204 : Consider the following statements with reference to the term secularism:
1. Secularism means that the state has no recognized religion of state.
2. Secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally.
3. Secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with Go
Which of these statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3
Ans : B
Q - 206 : The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the
A. Prime Minister
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B. Vice- President
C. Chief Minister
D. Chief Justice
Ans : A
Q - 207 : An accused person has been provided with the following protections by constitution
of India:
1. Ex post facto law
2. Safeguard against arrest and detention
3. Double jeopardy. Arrange the protections in the order in which they appear in the Indian
constitution.
A. Codes: 1, 3, 2
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 3, 1, 2
D. 2, 1,3
Ans : A
Q - 208 : Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in
favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
A. 75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
B. 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
C. 77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
D. 78th Amendment to the Constitution of India
Ans : C
Q - 210 : A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such
period not exceeding
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. Nine months
D. Twelve months
Ans : D
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Q - 219 : If a new state of Indian union is to be created____ schedule of the constitution must
be amended?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
Ans : A
Q - 220 : Which one of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of
the constitution of India?
A. It lists the distribution of powers between the union and the states.
B. It contains the languages listed in the constitution.
C. It contains the provision regarding the administration of tribal areas.
D. It allocates seats in the council of states.
Ans : D
Q - 222 : Provisions regarding anti defection are provided in ____of the constitution of India.
A. 2nd schedule
B. 5th schedule
C. 8th schedule
D. 10th schedule
Ans : D
Q - 223 : At the time of framing there were ____Schedules in the constitution of India.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 11
Ans : A
Q - 224 : The house may declare the seat vacant after_____ , of any member, if he is absent
from all meetings without permission of the house.
A. 30 days
B. 45 days
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C. 60 days
D. 90 days
Ans : C
Q - 225 : When the offices of both the speaker and the deputy speaker are vacant, _____
appoints a person to perform the functions of the speaker.
A. The President
B. The prime minister
C. The chief justice of India
D. Council of ministers
Ans : A
Q - 226 : The framers of the constitution borrowed the idea of judicial review from the
constitution of:
A. France
B. USA
C. United Kingdom
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 229 : It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our constitution lies in
the:
A. Preamble
B. Fundamental rights
C. Fundamental duties
D. Directive principles of state policy
Ans : A
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Q - 233 : The source of Directive Principles of State Policy in our constitution can be traced
back to the constitution of
A. USA
B. United Nations
C. United Kingdom
D. Ireland
Ans : D
Q - 234 : The following are enshrined in the preamble to the constitution of India
(a) Equality of status and opportunity
(b) Liberty of thought , expression , belief ,faith and worship.
(c) Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual.
(d) Unity and integrity of the nation . Which one of the following is the correct order in which
they appear in the preamble ?
A. 5,1,2,4,3
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 3,1,2,5,4
D. 1,2,4,3,5
Ans : B
Q - 235 : Which one of the following is in correct order in the preamble of the Indian
constitution ?
A. Sovereign ,socialist ,secular, democratic and republic
B. Sovereign, secular, socialist, democratic and republic
C. Sovereign , secular, democratic, socialist and republic
D. Sovereign , democratic , secular, republic and socialist.
Ans : A
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Q - 236 : The text of the preamble of the constitution of India aims to secure ?
A. Fundamental rights to all individuals .
B. Fundamental duties of citizen of India
C. Dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation .
D. Security of service to government servants .
Ans : C
Q - 237 : Words secular and integrity were added by ______amendment of the constitution.
A. 1st Amendment Act
B. 24th Amendment Act
C. 42nd Amendment Act
D. 44th Amendment Act
Ans : C
Q - 238 : Preamble of the constitution of India has been amended _____times so far?
A. Two
B. Three
C. One
D. Never
Ans : C
Q - 240 : The term socialist used in the preamble means a state whose basic policy is to:
A. Prohibit concentration of wealth
B. Distribute equitably the natural resources
C. Prohibit concentration of wealth and uplift the living standard of people
D. That the state shall endeavour to achieve socialistic goals through democratic means.
Ans : D
Q - 241 : In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be
suspended?
1. External Aggression
2. Internal Emergency
3. When Martial Law is in force
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : D
Q - 242 : Which of the following rights is/are available to foreigners in India. 1. Right to
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Q - 243 : Article 21 declares that - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty
except according to procedure established by law." The protection under Article 21 is:
A. Against arbitrary legislative action.
B. Against arbitrary executive action.
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans : C
Q - 245 : Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an
aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements w.r.t. Article 32.
1. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency.
2. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR
3. High courts have the power to issue writs under Article 226 of the constitution.
A. I only
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 only
Ans : B
Q - 246 : Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 - "No person shall be
deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law."? 1.
Right to speedy trial.
2. Right against delayed execution.
3. Right against wrongful detention and arrest.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : C
Q - 247 : Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?
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Q - 248 : The directive principles were made non- justiciable and legally non-enforceable
because:
1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them.
2. There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand in the way of
implementation.
A. I only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : C
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Ans : B
Q - 252 : The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by:
A. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament.
B. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament.
C. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified
by half of the state legislatures.
D. By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Ans : A
Q - 254 : Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations?
1. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the executive power rests with
the states.
2. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the legislative power rests with
the centre
3. Residuary powers are assigned to the parliament.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 only
Ans : D
Q - 255 : Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations?
1. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) the Center can give direction to a
state on any matter.
2. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) President can modify the constitutional
distribution of revenues between the Centre and the states.
3. Word 'cabinet' is mentioned only once in the constitution under Art. 352.
A. I only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 only
Ans : C
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the President.
3. Finance commission is mentioned under Art. 280 of the constitution.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2 and 3
Ans : C
Q - 258 : Which of the following situation/s will be proper to impose President's rule in a
state (Article 356)?
1. Where after general elections to the assembly, no Party secures a majority.
2. Serious maladministration in the state.
3. Stringent financial exigencies of the state.
A. I only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : A
Q - 259 : Which of the following situation/s are correct with regard to Proclamation of
Financial Emergency (Article 360)?
1. It can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the parliament for every six
months.
2. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency is to be passed by either
house of Parliament by simple majority.
3. The President may issue directions for reduction of salaries and allowances of Supreme
Court and High Court Judges.
A. I only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : B
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A. 1
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : C
Q - 261 : When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant Art. 95 provides
that
A. The members of Lok Sabha immediately elect a Speaker
B. The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker.
C. The President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker.
D. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected
Ans : C
Q - 263 : The correct statement/s with regard to Ordinance making power of President is/are
1. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws.
2. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend the constitution.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None
Ans : B
Q - 264 : The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his term in
which of the following manner?
A. She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.
B. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
C. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by simple majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
D. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok
Sabha
Ans : D
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Q - 266 : The Representatives of states & UT in the Rajya Sabha are elected by:
1. The members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
2. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of that State legislative assembly or electoral
college of the UT as the case may be.
3. The system of proportional representation by single transferrable vote.
4. The system of proportional representation by List.
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
Ans : C
Q - 267 : Which of the following criteria is laid down by the constitution Read with the
Representation of the People Act, 1951, for a person to be chosen a member of Parliament?
1. If a candidate is to contest a seat reserved for SC/ST, he must be a member of a SC/ST in
any state or Union Territory.
2. He/she must not have been punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as
untouchability, dowry and sati.
3. He/she must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None of these
Ans : C
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C. Austin
D. Holland
Ans : D
Q - 275 : Jurisprudence has been defined as the science of first principle of civil law by:
A. Salmond
B. Holland
C. Gray
D. Paton
Ans : A
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B. command of God
C. command of people
D. command of constitution
Ans : A
Q - 278 : Which of the following is not a statement from the Austinian theory?
A. Every law is a command, imposing a duty, enforced by a sanction.
B. Law is a rule laid down from the guidance of an intelligent being by an intelligent being
having power over him.
C. A legal rule can be defined as one which prescribes a code of conduct which is done with a
feeling of such conduct is obligatory.
D. If a determinate human superior not in a habit of obedience to a like superior, receives
habitual obedience from the bulk of a given society, that determinate superior is sovereign in
that society.
Ans : C
Q - 280 : Who said: Law consists of rules which are of broad application and non-optional
character, but which are at the same time amenable to formulisation, legislation and
adjudication?
A. Hart
B. Salmond
C. Kelsen
D. Austin
Ans : A
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Ans : B
Q - 284 : According to Kelsen, the law is a system of behavioural norms which can be traced
back to some grundnorms or basic norms from which they derive their existence. The
grundnorm: I must be efficacious
II. The Grundnorm is not deduced from anything else but is assumed as an initial hypothesis.
III. should secure for itself a minimum of effectiveness and when it ceases to derive minimum
of support of people, it is replaced by some other grundnorm. Codes:
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and II
Ans : C
Q - 288 : Law is a product of social life and is not created by arbitrary will of individual but
by slow unavoidable advancement of human development. This statement belongs to:
A. Analytical school
B. Historical school
C. Sociological school
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Q - 291 : A legal custom has to possess a sufficient measure of antiquity. Sufficient under the
English law means that it must have existed since 1189. The law in India:
A. is same
B. does not need a fixed period for which custom must have been in existence for its validity
C. antiquity is not essential
D. None of the above
Ans : B
Q - 292 : The actual finding of true meaning of particular word in a statute is called:
A. interpretation of statute
B. construction of statute
C. both (a) and (b)
D. harmonization of statute
Ans : A
Q - 293 : It is one of the cardinal principle of delegate legislation that the legislature should
not delegate to a subordinate body the power make rules on:
A. technical matter
B. policy matter
C. matter of inclusion and exclusion
D. date of commencement of a statute
Ans : B
Q - 294 : Which of the following is not a means for exercising control over delegated
legislation?
A. Parliamentary control
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B. Judicial control
C. Publication of delegated legislation
D. Registration of delegated legislation
Ans : D
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