Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 24

Major Test-1-(Phase-1)-Tallent-Pro

CLASS-XII-(JEE ADVANCED)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
ENTHUSE COURSE Test Pattern : JEE (Advanced)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 189

Instructions CODE: 4602CJA105031240006

A. General :
1. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers, and electronic gadgets are
NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
2. The OMR sheet, a machine-readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
3. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling the ORS :
4. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Black
ball point pen as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
5. Write your Name, Form No. and sign with pen in the boxes provied on part of the ORS. Do not write any of this
information anywhere else.
C. Question Paper Format :
6. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists of Three Sections
(SECTION-I(i)), (SECTION-I(ii)) & (SECTION-III).
7. SECTION–I(i) : This section contains SIX (06) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS. Each question has four options
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE is correct.
8. SECTION-I(ii) : This section contains SIX (06) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS. Each question has four options
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE than ONE is/are correct.
9. SECTION-III : This section contains FIVE (05) SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER (0-9) TYPE QUESTIONS.
10. BOTH SECTION-I(i) AND SECTION-I(ii) SHOULD BE FILLED UNDER SECTION-I IN OMR.
11. SECTION-III SHOULD BE FILLED UNDER SECTION-III IN OMR. (Leave Section-II in OMR).
D. Marking scheme :
12. SECTION-I(i) : For each question you will be awarded +4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
option ONLY. 1 mark will be deducted for incorrect answers in this section.
13. SECTION-I(ii) : For each question you will be awarded +4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the
correct option(s) is (are) darkened. Partial marking of +1 marks will be awarded for each individual correct options. A
Negative marking of –2 marks will be awarded for any wrong option choosen. No marks will be awarded for the
unattempted questions.
14. SECTION-III : For each question you will be awarded +3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer ONLY. 1 mark will be deducted for incorrect answers in this section.

Name of the Candidate : …………….………………………………………………………………………………………


Form Number : ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE: NOIDA | LAJPAT NAGAR | KALU SARAI | PUNJABI BAGH | NSP | JANAKPURI | PREET VIHAR | DWARKA | FARIDABAD |
GURUGRAM | GHAZIABAD
IIT-Enthusiast/Phase:1-TP-MAJOR TEST-1/01-07-2024/Paper-2

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING


PART-A-PHYSICS
SECTION-I(i) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
1. An air capacitor having capacity C0 is filled with dielectric as shown in figure. then the new capacitance
of system will be

(A) C0 (B) 2C0


(C) 3C0 (D) 4C0
2. Components of magnetic induction in Cartesian coordinates B are (0, 0, b), b > 0. From the origin an
electron flies out with velocity components as (ux, uy, 0), where ux > 0, uy > 0. Center of the circle, on
which the electron moves, is in the region:
(A) x > 0, y > 0 (B) x < 0, y > 0
(C) x < 0, y < 0 (D) x > 0, y < 0
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

4602CJA105031240006 1/23
Target:JEE-ADVANCED : 2024-25/01-07-2024/Paper-2
3. A bulb of 220 V and 300 W is connected across 110 V circuit. The percentage reduction in the power is
(A) 25% (B) 50%
(C) 60 % (D) 75 %
4. A body takes 10 minutes to cool from 60°C to 50°C. The temperature of surroundings is constant at
25°C. Then, the temperature of the body after next 10 minutes will be approximately :
(A) 47°C (B) 43°C
(C) 41°C (D) 45°C
5. The variation of potential with distance R from a fixed point is as shown below. The electric field at R = 5m is

(A) 2.5 volt / m (B) – 2.5 volt / m


(C) 2 / 5 volt / m (D) – 2 / 5 volt / m
6. Time period of satellite in a circular orbit around a planet is independent of :
(A) mass of planet (B) mass of satellite
(C) radius of orbit (D) all above
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

2/23 4602CJA105031240006
IIT-Enthusiast/Phase-1-TP-MAJOR TEST-1/01-07-2024/Paper-2
SECTION-I(ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but only three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If all the four options are correct but only two options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +1 If all the four options are correct but only one options are chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options are chosen.
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
7. A planet moves round the Sun in an elliptical orbit such that its K.E. is k1 and k2 when it is nearest to the
Sun and farthest from the Sun respectively.
(A) If total energy of the planet is u, then ratio of largest distance (r2) and smallest distance (r1)
u − k1
between planet and the Sun is .
u − k2
(B) If total energy of the planet is u, then ratio of largest distance (r2) and smallest distance (r1)
u − k2
between planet and the Sun is .
u − k1
(C) if r2 = 2r1 , the total energy of planet in terms of k1 and k2 is 2k1 – k2
(D) if r2 = 2r1 , the total energy of planet in terms of k1 and k2 is 2k2 – k1
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

4602CJA105031240006 3/23
Target:JEE-ADVANCED : 2024-25/01-07-2024/Paper-2
8. A uniformly charged fixed ring (Q) of radius R has a small charge (–q) on its axis at a point A(OA = d and d <<R) when
the charge was released the distance AO was covered in time T. Then which of the following statements is / are true.

T
(A) For OB = 2d if charge was released from B then the distance AO would be covered in a time
6
(B) For OB = √2d if charge was released from B then the distance AO would be covered in a time T/2
(C) If Q is doubled then T doubled
(D) If R is doubled then T increases
9. Figure shows crossection view of a infinite cylindrical wire with a cavity, current density is uniform →j = −j0 k^ as
shown in figure :

(A) magnetic field inside cavity is uniform.


(B) magnetic field inside cavity is along →a .
(C) magnetic field inside cavity is perpendicular to →a
(D) If an electron is projected with velocity v0^j inside the cavity it will move undeviated.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

4/23 4602CJA105031240006
IIT-Enthusiast/Phase-1-TP-MAJOR TEST-1/01-07-2024/Paper-2
10. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor with no dielectric are connected to a voltage source. Now a
dielectric of dielectric constant K is inserted to fill the whole space between the plates with voltage
source remaining connected to the capacitor. Select the correct statement(s) :-
(A) The energy stored in the capacitor will become K-times the initial energy.
(B) The electric field inside the capacitor will decrease K-times the initial field.
(C) The force of attraction between the plates will become K2 -times the initial force.
(D) The charge on the capacitor will become K-times the initial charge.

11. The area of cross section of a current carrying conductor is A0 and A0 at section (1) and (2) respectively.
4
Let (E1 , vd1 ) and (E2 , vd2 ) be the electric field and drift velocity at sections (1) and (2) respectively, then:

1
(A) vd1 : vd2 =
4
(B) vd1 : vd2 = 4

(C) E1 : E2 = 1
4
(D) 4
E1 : E2 =
1
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

4602CJA105031240006 5/23
Target:JEE-ADVANCED : 2024-25/01-07-2024/Paper-2
12. A positive point charge having charge Q is placed at a distance a/2 from centre of an uncharged spherical
conductor of inner radius a and outer radius '2a'. Another positive point charge having charge 'Q' is
placed at distance 4a from centre of this conductor. Then which of the following is correct ?

(A) The surface charge density on inner and outer surface of sphere would be non uniform.
3KQ
(B) The electrostatic potential on outer surface of conductor is .
2a
7KQ
(C) Electric potential at centre of sphere is .
4a
(D) Electric field inside cavity is non-uniform.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

6/23 4602CJA105031240006
IIT-Enthusiast/Phase-1-TP-MAJOR TEST-1/01-07-2024/Paper-2
SECTION-III : (Maximum Marks: 15)
This section contains FIVE (05) questions. The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER (0-9).
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer in the place designated to enter the answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
1. Five identical conducting plates each of area A are placed parallel and equidistant at a distance d from
each other and are connected as shown. Find the ratio of charges on plates 3 to the charges on plate 5.

2. Find the time constant (in second) of circuit shown.

3. In the circuit shown, find the value of E/R.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

4602CJA105031240006 7/23
Target:JEE-ADVANCED : 2024-25/01-07-2024/Paper-2
4. Three charged small spheres are suspended from point O with help of strings of length ℓ as shown. All three
charges are in equilibrium. Tension in middle string is x N . Find x (m = 20 grm; q = 10 µC ; ℓ = 3m)
10

5. A geostationary satellite is nearly at a height of h = 6R from the surface of earth where R is radius of
earth. The area on the surface of earth in which communication can be made using the satellite is found
12 2
to be πR . The value of K is _______ .
K
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8/23 4602CJA105031240006
IIT-Enthusiast/Phase-1-TP-MAJOR TEST-1/01-07-2024/Paper-2
PART-B-CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I(i) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
1. Give rate of dehydration when given compounds are heated with concentrated H2SO4.

(A) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4 (B) 2 > 3 > 1 > 4


(C) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (D) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
2. Which of the following compound can not give CO2 gas on heating ?

(A) (B)

(C) HOOC – CH2 – COOH (D)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

4602CJA105031240006 9/23
Target:JEE-ADVANCED : 2024-25/01-07-2024/Paper-2
3. The correct statement about the compounds A, B and C is _______

(A) A and B are identical (B) A and B are diastereomers


(C) A and C are enantiomers (D) A and B are enantiomers
4. Most stable product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

10/23 4602CJA105031240006
IIT-Enthusiast/Phase-1-TP-MAJOR TEST-1/01-07-2024/Paper-2

5.

The compounds (B) and (C) , respectively, are :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

6.

The product (A) and (B) are respectively :

(A) (B)
& &

(C) (D)
& &

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

4602CJA105031240006 11/23
Target:JEE-ADVANCED : 2024-25/01-07-2024/Paper-2
SECTION-I(ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but only three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If all the four options are correct but only two options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +1 If all the four options are correct but only one options are chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options are chosen.
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
7. Select incorrect statement(s):
(A) Unit of pre-exponential factor (A) for second order reaction is mol L –1 s –1.
(B) A zero order reaction must be a complex reaction.
(C) Molecularity is defined only for RDS in a complex reaction.
(D) Rate constant (k) remain unaffected on changing temperature.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

12/23 4602CJA105031240006
IIT-Enthusiast/Phase-1-TP-MAJOR TEST-1/01-07-2024/Paper-2
8. In the following reactions, P, Q, R, and S are the major products.

The correct statement (s) about P, Q, R, and S is (are)


(A) P and Q are monomers of polymers dacron and glyptal, respectively.
(B) P, Q, and R are dicarboxylic acids.
(C) Compounds Q and R are the same.
(D) R does not undergo aldol condensation and S does not undergo Cannizzaro reaction.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

4602CJA105031240006 13/23
Target:JEE-ADVANCED : 2024-25/01-07-2024/Paper-2
9. The product formed in the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

10. Among the following choose the reaction(s) which are correctly matched :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

14/23 4602CJA105031240006
IIT-Enthusiast/Phase-1-TP-MAJOR TEST-1/01-07-2024/Paper-2
11. Specific rotation of an optically pure compound [X] is +40. In a reaction the compound [X] is obtained
through a series of chemical reactions. If the specific rotation of solution is – 20, what would be the
percentage of levorotatory isomer in the solution?
(A) 50% (B) 25%
(C) 75% (D) 100%
12. Compound P and R upon ozonolysis produce Q and S, respectively. The molecular formula of Q and S is
C8H8O. Q undergoes Cannizzaro reaction but not haloform reaction, whereas S undergoes haloform
reaction but not Cannizzaro reaction :

The option(s) with suitable combination of P and R, respectively, is(are)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

4602CJA105031240006 15/23
Target:JEE-ADVANCED : 2024-25/01-07-2024/Paper-2
SECTION-III : (Maximum Marks: 15)
This section contains FIVE (05) questions. The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER (0-9).
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer in the place designated to enter the answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
1. How many geometrical isomers are possible for the following compound
is __________
2. Number of compound which form single monocholoro derivatives on monochlorination.

3. How many compounds can give Cannizzaro Reaction?


(a) HCHO (b) PhCHO
(c) CH3CHO (d)

(e) (f)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

16/23 4602CJA105031240006
IIT-Enthusiast/Phase-1-TP-MAJOR TEST-1/01-07-2024/Paper-2
4. How many of given alkyl halides will give SN1 reaction at a faster rate?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(f) (g) (h) (i)

5. How many of the following compounds will release CO2 gas on strong heating ?

(i) (ii) (iii)

(iv) (v) HOOC – CH2 – COOH (vi)

(vii) (viii)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

4602CJA105031240006 17/23
Target:JEE-ADVANCED : 2024-25/01-07-2024/Paper-2
PART-C-MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I(i) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
1. Let f(x) = x2 + xg'(1) + g"(2) and g(x) = f(1)x2 + xf '(x) + f "(x), then the value of g'(1) + g''(2) is
(A) 3 (B) – 3
(C) 0 (D) 2
2. The range of ‘ α ’ for which all the points of local extrema of the function
f(x) = x3 – 3 α x2 + 3( α 2 – 1)x + 1 lie in the interval ( – 2, 4), is
(A) ( – 1, 3) (B) (3, 4)
(C) ( – 4, – 2) (D) ( – 2, – 1)
3. If Rolle's theorem holds for the function f(x) = x3 – ax2 + bx – 4, x ∈ [1, 2] with f ′ ( 4 ) = 0, then
3
ordered pair (a, b) is equal to
(A) (5, 8) (B) ( – 5, 8)
(C) (5, – 8) (D) ( – 5, – 8)
4. If f(x) + f(y) + f(xy) = 2 + f(x) f(y) ∀ x, y ∈ R and f(x) is a polynomial function with f(1) = 2, f(4) = 17
then the value of f(5) equals
(A) 26 (B) 17
(C) – 24 (D) 16
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

18/23 4602CJA105031240006
IIT-Enthusiast/Phase-1-TP-MAJOR TEST-1/01-07-2024/Paper-2


⎪x( e1/x −e−1/x
) x≠0
Consider f (x) = ⎨
e1/x +e−1/x
5.


0 x=0
(A) f(x) is neither continuous nor differentiable at x = 0
(B) f(x) is continuous but not differentiable at x = 0
(C) f(x) is continuous as well as differentiable at x = 0
(D) Jump of discontinuity for f(x) at x = 0 is 2
6. The total number of functions
4
f : {1, 2, 3, 4} → {5, 6, 7, 8} such that ∑ f(k) is an odd number is
k=1

(A) 256 (B) 64


(C) 128 (D) 32
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

4602CJA105031240006 19/23
Target:JEE-ADVANCED : 2024-25/01-07-2024/Paper-2
SECTION-I(ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but only three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If all the four options are correct but only two options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +1 If all the four options are correct but only one options are chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options are chosen.
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
1
7. The function f (x) = x 3 (x − 1) has :
(A) has vertical tangent at x = 0
(B) Increasing for x > 1
4
1
(C) Decreasing for x ∈ (−∞, )
4

(D) Inflection point at x = − 1


2
3
x2 − y 2
8. Given the curve ( ) =
512
, then
xy 27
1
(A) the slope of normal drawn to the curve at (3,1) is
3

(B) the value of (2 )


dy d2y 2
−5 =
dx dx2 3
(3,1)

(C) the slope of normal drawn to the curve at (3,1) is – 3.


(D) the equation of tangent at (3,1) to given curve is 3y + x = 0.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

20/23 4602CJA105031240006
IIT-Enthusiast/Phase-1-TP-MAJOR TEST-1/01-07-2024/Paper-2
n −1
Let Sn = ∑ cos−1 ( ),
n 2 + r2 + r
9. then the value of S100 is less than or
r=0 √n4 + r4 + 2r3 + 2n2 r2 + 2n2 r + n2 + r2
equal to
π π
(A) (B)
12 3
π π
(C) (D)
6 4
10. Two functions f & g have first & second derivatives at x = 0 & satisfy the relations,
2
f(0) = , f '(0) = 2g'(0) = 4g(0), g"(0) = 5 f "(0) = 6f(0) = 3 then
g(0)
f(x) 15
(A) if h(x) = then h'(0) =
g(x) 4
(B) if k(x) = f(x). g(x) sin x then k'(0) = 2
g ′ (x) 1
(C) Limit =
x→0 f ′ (x) 2
(D) none
11. Which of the following statement is/are CORRECT ?
(A) fundamental period of |sin3x| + |cos3x| = π
6
(B) sgn(e –x) is periodic but has no fundamental period
1
(C) fundamental period of ecos4(2πx)+{2x+3} is
2
({ } denotes fractional part function)
π
(D) fundamental period of min{sinx, cosx} is
2
12. Consider f(x) = {x2 – 1} [|x|], then
[Note : Where {y} denotes fractional part function and [y] denotes geatest integer function less than or equal to y.]
(A) number of points where f is discontinuous in [ – 2, 2] is 4
(B) number of points where f is discontinuous in [ – 2, 2] is 6
(C) number of solution(s) of the equation 2f(x) = |x| is 5
(D) number of solution(s) of the equation 2f(x) = |x| is 7
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

4602CJA105031240006 21/23
Target:JEE-ADVANCED : 2024-25/01-07-2024/Paper-2
SECTION-III : (Maximum Marks: 15)
This section contains FIVE (05) questions. The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER (0-9).
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer in the place designated to enter the answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
1. Consider curve y = sin(x – y), – 5 π ≤ x ≤ 6 π then number of points on the curve where tangent is
perpendicular to line 2x + y = π , is
x3 x2
2. Let x coordinate of point of inflection of the curve y= − (a2 − a − 2) + 4x + 9 is negative then
6 2
number of possible integral values of a is
3. Let f(x) be a non-constant twice derivable function on R such that f(2 + x) = f(2 – x) and
1
f ′ ( ) = f ′ (1) = 0, then the minimum number of roots of the equation f ″ (x) = 0 is(are)
2
4. Consider a function f : ℕ → ℝ, satisfying
1 1
f(1) + 2f(2) + 3f(3) + … + xf(x) = x(x + 1) f(x); x ≥ 2 with f(1) = 1 and + is equal to
f(2022) f(2028)
L
L then is
900
5. Number of values of x ∈ [0, π ] where f(x) = [4 sin x – 7] is non derivable is ([.] is G. I. F)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

22/23 4602CJA105031240006
IIT-Enthusiast/Phase-1-TP-MAJOR TEST-1/01-07-2024/Paper-2
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

4602CJA105031240006 23/23

You might also like