21/07/2021 TYMRG2

CODE-A2

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 Term Exam for NEET – 2023 Time : 3 Hrs.

Test - 1 (Objective)
Topics covered :
Physics : Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line: Introduction, Position,
Path length and displacement, Average velocity & average speed., Differential calculus,
Applications of differential calculus, Instantaneous velocity & speed, Acceleration.
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom: Sub-atomic particles : Discovery
of electron, Charge to mass ratio of electron, Charge on electron, Discovery of proton and
neutron. Thomson model of atom, Rutherford's nuclear model of atom, Atomic and Mass
number, Isobars and isotopes., Particle nature of electromagnetic radiation : Planck's
quantum theory, Photoelectric effect, Dual behaviour of electromagnetic radiation.
Botany : Cell: The Unit of Life, Cell Cycle & Cell Division, The living world (Upto Systematics).
Zoology : Structural Organisation in Animals–Animal Tissues, Biomolecules (upto Nucleic acid-
DNA, RNA structure, types of it and function).

Instructions:
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on the Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(vii) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions
from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15..

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer : Ax

3. If the formula t = 2π is dimensionally
SECTION-A F
1. The exchange particle responsible for correct, where t is time period, x is distance, F
electromagnetic forces is is force, then A has the dimension of
(1) Velocity (2) Acceleration
(1) Photons (2) π-mesons
(3) Mass (4) Momentum
(3) Gluons (4) Bosons
4. The length of a simple pendulum is about 50
2. Which of the following laws is not a basic cm and is known to 1 mm accuracy. The time
conservation law in physics? period of oscillations is about 1.0 s. The time of
(1) Law of conservation of linear momentum 100 oscillations is measured with a wrist watch
(2) Law of conservation of charge of 1 s resolution. The percentage error in
determination of g is
(3) Law of conservation of angular momentum
(1) 2.2% (2) 3.5%
(4) Law of conservation of mechanical energy
(3) 5% (4) 5.2%
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Term Exam Test - 1 (TYMRG2_Code-A2) Two Year Medical - 2023

5. An athletic coach told his team that ‘muscle aV

RT − RT
times speed equals power’. What dimension 13. Given that pressure P = e . The
V
does he view for muscle?
dimensional formula of a is same as that of
(1) [ML2T–2] (2) [M2LT–2]
(1) Volume
(3) [MLT–2] (4) [L]
(2) Pressure
6. In a particular system the unit of length, mass
and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10 g and 0.1 s (3) Temperature
respectively. The unit of force in this system will (4) Gas constant
be equal to
14. Which of the following is dimensionless quantity
(1) 0.1 N (2) 1 N
(1) Velocity gradient (2) Pressure gradient
(3) 10 N (4) 100 N
(3) Relative density (4) Entropy
7. If a set of defective weights are used by a
student to find the mass of an object using a 15. If 3.8 × 10–6 m is added to 4.2 × 10–5 m, giving
physical balance, a large number of reading will due regard to significant figures, then the result
reduce will be
(1) Random error (1) 8.0 × 10–11 m
(2) Random error as well as systematic error (2) 4.6 × 10–5 m
(3) Systematic error (3) 45.8 × 10–6 m
(4) Neither random error nor systematic error (4) 4.5 × 10 –6 m
8. In a Vernier callipers one main scale division is
16. Which of the following functions of A and B may
x cm and n divisions of Vernier scale are equal
be performed if A and B possess different
to (n – 1) divisions of main scale. The least
dimensions?
count (in cm) of the callipers is
(1) A + B (2) A – B
 n − 1 nx
(1)  x (2) A
 n  (n − 1) (3) AeA + B (4)
B
x x
(3) (4) 17. The true value of a particular length is 4.283 cm.
n n −1
Then which of the following measured value is
9. The volume of a tablet is 1.70 cm3. The volume
most accurate?
of 50 such tablets is
(1) 85 cm3 (2) 85.0 cm3 (1) 4.1 cm (2) 4.24 cm

(3) 85.00 cm3 (4) 85.000 cm3 (3) 4.093 cm (4) 4.5 cm

10. Which of the following numbers has least 18. Which of the following measurement is most
number of significant figure? precise?
(1) 80.267 (2) 0.80200 (1) 2.5 cm (2) 3.01 cm
(3) 0.0807 (4) 0.80760 (3) 2.500 cm (4) 2.0000 cm
11. How are the numerical value (n) and unit (u) of
 GM 
a physical quantity related? 19. The dimensional formula of  2  , where G is
 4π 
1
(1) n ∝ u (2) n ∝ universal gravitational constant and M is mass,
u
is
1
(3) n ∝ u2 (4) n ∝ (1) [M–1L3T–2] (2) [ML3T–2]
u2
(3) [M0LT–2] (4) [M0L3T–2]
12. The unit of force as well as distance are
20. In an experiment to measure the diameter of a
doubled, how many times the unit of kinetic
energy be? wire using a screw gauge of resolution 0.001 cm,
which of the following may correctly represent
1
(1) (2) 2 the measurement?
2
(1) 1.235 cm (2) 1.2351 cm
1
(3) 4 (4) (3) 1.24 cm (4) 1.2350 cm
4
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Two Year Medical - 2023 Term Exam Test - 1 (TYMRG2_Code-A2)

21. The length of a rod is 100.1 cm. The 30. A blind person moves total 100 steps such that
approximate error in the measurement is after each 25 steps he turns through 90°
(1) + 0.2% (2) + 0.5% towards left. If each step is 0.8 m long, then
(3) + 0.3% (4) + 0.1% displacement of person is

22. If the error in the measurement of surface area (1) 40 m (2) 25 2 m

of sphere is 4%. Then the error in the
(3) Zero (4) 20 2 m
measurement of volume of sphere is
31. A student goes from his home to school 4.0 km
(1) 2% (2) 4%
away with speed 8.0 km/h, stay in school for
(3) 6% (4) 8%
3.5 h and returns back to home with speed
23. The pair of physical quantities not having same 4.0 km/h. The average speed of student for
dimensions are whole journey is
(1) Pressure and energy density (1) 4 km/h (2) 8/3 km/h
(2) Torque and work (3) 2.5 km/h (4) 1.6 km/h
(3) Momentum and Planck constant
32. Time taken by a 150 m long train, moving with
(4) Stress and modulus of rigidity constant speed of 45 km/h to cross a 850 m
24. Which of the following sets of quantities cannot long bridge is
enter into the list of fundamental quantities in (1) 80 s (2) 56 s
any system of units?
(3) 68 s (4) 90 s
(1) Length, time and mass
th
(2) Mass, time and velocity  1
33. A car travels   of total distance with speed
(3) Length, mass and velocity 4
(4) Length, time and velocity v1 and remaining with speed v2. The average
speed of whole journey is
25. A dimensionless quantity
4v1v 2 4v1v 2
(1) Never has a unit (2) Always has a unit (1) (2)
3v1 + 4v 2 4v1 + 3v 2
(3) May have a unit (4) Does not exist
25.2 × 1374 4v1v 2 4v1v 2
26. The value of , with due regard to (3) (4)
33.3 3v1 + v 2 v1 + 3v 2
significant figures is
34. If y = 2x + 3, then the slope  dy  will be given
(1) 1039.7838 (2) 1039.7  dx 
(3) 1039 (4) 1040 by
27. The distance travelled by a body is (20.0 + 0.1) (1) 1 (2) 2
m in (5.0 + 0.1) s. The average speed of body
1
with absolute error (3) 3 (4)
2
(1) (4.0 + 0.2) m/s (2) (4.0 + 0.1) m/s
35. The displacement S of a point object, moving in
(3) (4.0 + 0.0) m/s (4) (4.0 + 0.01) m/s
a straight line is given by
28. A person is moving on a circular track of radius
S = 8t2 + 3t – 5
100 m. The displacement of the person in
th where S is in metre and t in second. The initial
5
covering   circumference is velocity of particle is
6
(1) –5 m/s (2) 3 m/s
(1) 100 m (2) 141 m
(3) 16 m/s (4) 8 m/s
(3) 200 m (4) 158 m
SECTION-B
29. For first 1 h a train runs with speed 60 km/h,
36. Which of the following statements about
1
and for next h train runs with speed 40 km/h. distance are true?
2
The average speed of train for whole journey is (1) It cannot be negative
(1) 50 km/h (2) 48 km/h (2) It cannot be zero
160 (3) It can never decrease with time
(3) km/h (4) 45 km/h
3 (4) Both (1) and (3)

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Term Exam Test - 1 (TYMRG2_Code-A2) Two Year Medical - 2023

37. For a moving particle, which of the following is 43. If y = 2sinθ + 2cosθ, then maximum value of y
true? will be
(1) Magnitude of average velocity may be (1) 2 (2) 4
greater than average speed
(3) 2 (4) 2 2
(2) Average speed may be greater than
44. The position of a body varies with time as
magnitude of average velocity
x = 3t2 – 6t + 7, then the particle turns around at
(3) If magnitude of average velocity is zero
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s
than average speed must be zero
(3) 3 s (4) 4 s
(4) Average speed is always greater than
45. If position of a particle in a straight line motion
average velocity
varies as x = 2 + 8t + t2, where x is in metre and
38. The displacement equation of a particle given t is in second. The acceleration of the particle at
by the equation t = 2 s is
Y = A sin(ωt) (1) 2 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2
The maximum particle velocity is (3) 2.5 m/s2 (4) Zero
ω 46. Mass of a body is 42.2 gm and its density is
(1) Aω (2)
A 7.981 g/cm3 what will be its volume, with regard
A to significant digits?
(3) (4) ω2A
ω (1) 52.87 cm3 (2) 26 cm3
39. The position equation of a particle is given by (3) 5.29 cm3 (4) 26.3 cm3
x = –5 + 2t + t2, where x is in meter and t is in 47. The position of a particle varies with time as
second. The average velocity of body from t = 1 s x = 2t3 – 3t2. The magnitude velocity of the
to t = 3 s is particle, when its acceleration is zero, is
(1) 3 m/s (2) 5 m/s (1) 1.5 m/s (2) 3 m/s
(3) 6 m/s (4) 4 m/s (3) 2 m/s (4) 2.5 m/s
dy 48. The displacement of a particle as it moves from
40. If y = 8x , then the value of is
dx (1, 2) to (3, 2) is

1 1 (1) 2 ˆj (2) 2iˆ

(1) (2)
8x 2 x (3) 2 ˆj + 2kˆ (4) 2iˆ + 2 jˆ
2 2 49. Consider the following two statements
(3) (4)
x x A. For a moving particle, if the average
dy velocity is zero, then the average speed will
41. If y = x + cos x2, then is
dx also be necessary zero.
(1) 1 – 2x sin x2 B. The magnitude of displacement in a given
time interval is zero, then the distance may
(2) 1 – sin x2
or may not be zero.
(3) 1 + 2x sin x2
The correct statement(s) is/are
(4) 1 + sin x2
(1) Only A (2) Only B
42. The radius of a solid sphere increases with
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A not B
m
increase in temperature at the rate of 0.01 . 50. Light year is
°C
The rate of increase of area when radius of (1) Light emitted by the sun in one year
sphere is 2 m, will be (2) Time taken by light to travel from sun to
earth
m2 m2
(1) 0.08 (2) 0.5026 (3) The distance travelled by light in free space
°C °C
in one year
m2 m2 (4) Time taken by earth to go once around the
(3) 0.8 (4) 1.6
°C °C sun

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Two Year Medical - 2023 Term Exam Test - 1 (TYMRG2_Code-A2)

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 61. If mole fraction of ethanol in aqueous solution
51. Number of chloride ions present in 100 ml of is 0.1 then the molality of the solution will be
0.1 M CaCl2 solution is (1) 3.25 m (2) 6.17 m
(1) 1.2 × 1022 (2) 6.02 × 1021 (3) 9.25 m (4) 5.15 m
(3) 1.2 × 1023 (4) 6.02 × 1022 62. For which of the following radiations
52. 25 g of NaOH is present in 200 ml of solution. wavelength is maximum?
The molarity of the solution is (1) X-rays (2) IR
(1) 4.5 M (2) 3.1 M (3) Radio waves (4) Microwave
(3) 1.2 M (4) 2.4 M 63. If wave number of an electromagnetic radiation
53. Number of atoms present in 15 g of urea is 108 cm–1 then the frequency of the radiation
 O  will be (speed of light = 3 × 108 ms–1)
 ||  (1) 3 × 1016 Hz (2) 3 × 1018 Hz
 H N — C— NH  is
 2 2
(3) 3 × 1020 Hz (4) 3 × 1017 Hz
(1) 4 NA (2) 3 NA
64. Incorrect statement(s) about photoelectric
(3) 5 NA (4) 2 NA effect is/are
54. If 100 g of sugar is dissolved in 400 g of water (1) In this phenomenon particle nature of
then mass percentage (w/w) of sugar in the electromagnetic radiation is manifested
solution is
(2) Kinetic energies of ejected electrons
(1) 25% (2) 20% increase with increase of wavelength of
(3) 40% (4) 50% light used
55. If mass ratio of N2 and He in a closed vessel is (3) The number of electrons ejected is
7:2 then the molar ratio will be proportional to the intensity of light
(1) 7 : 2 (2) 1 : 2 (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 4 65. Energy of one mole of photons having
56. 100 ml 2 M glucose solution is diluted by frequency 1 × 1012 Hz is (h = 6.625 × 10–34 Js)
adding 700 ml of water. Molarity of the resultant (1) 398.8 J (2) 375.2 J
solution becomes (3) 3.75 kJ (4) 3.99 kJ
(1) 0.35 M (2) 0.75 M 66. 64 g methanol is dissolved in 126 g of water.
(3) 0.25 M (4) 1.2 M The mole fraction of methanol in the solution is
57. SI unit of amount of substance is 2 2
(1) (2)
(1) Kilogram (2) Gram 7 9
(3) Mole (4) Milligram 2 4
(3) (4)
58. If temperature of water bath is 55°C then it 5 7
value in °F scale will be 67. Which among the following contains highest
(1) 131 (2) 85 number of molecules?
(3) 95 (4) 121 (1) 80 g of SO3
59. Number of significant figures in 0.0031 is (2) 50 g of CaCO3
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 28 g of N2
(3) Zero (4) 2 (4) 4 g of H2
60. Volume of 4 g of methane at STP is 68. 100 mL, 2 M KOH solution is mixed with 400 ml
(1) 5.6 L of 5 M KOH solution. The molarity of resultant
(2) 7.25 L solution becomes

(3) 8.25 L (1) 4.4 M (2) 3.2 M

(4) 11.2 L (3) 2.5 M (4) 3.8 M

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Term Exam Test - 1 (TYMRG2_Code-A2)
69. Incorrect statement about cathode rays is
(1) These are negatively charged particles
(2) They originate from cathode and move
towards anode
(3) Characteristics of cathode rays particles
depend upon the nature of gas present in
the tube
Two Year Medical - 2023
79. If work function of a metal is 3.7 eV and 5 eV of
radiation falls on the metal surface then the
kinetic energy of ejected photo electrons will be
(1) 1.38 × 10–18 J (2) 1.3 × 10–20 J
(3) 3.2 × 10–18 J (4) 2.08 × 10–19 J
80. An element A has two isotopes. 21A (30%) and
23A (70%). The average atomic mass of the

(4) In absence of electric or magnetic field, element A is

these rays travel in straight lines (1) 21.8 u (2) 22.1 u
70. Mass percentage of oxygen in glucose (3) 22.4 u (4) 21.6 u
molecule is 81. Volume of CO2 obtained at STP on complete
(1) 46.21% (2) 62.25% decomposition of 20 g of CaCO3 is
(3) 37.21% (4) 53.33% (1) 5.6 L (2) 4.48 L
71. 2 moles of N2 is reacted with 4 moles of H2 to (3) 2.24 L (4) 7.25 L
produce ammonia. Mass of ammonia produced
82. Consider the following statement based on
is
Dalton’s atomic theory
(1) 45.33 g (2) 68 g
(a) Matter consists of indivisible atoms
(3) 34 g (4) 51.31 g
(b) Compounds are formed when atoms of
72. Law of multiple proportions is not applicable to different elements combine in a fixed ratio
which pair of compounds?
(c) Atoms of different elements differ in mass
(1) H2O and H2O2 (2) SO2 and SO3
Correct statements are
(3) NO2 and NO (4) H2O and H2S
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
73. Mass of oxygen required for the complete
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
combustion of 40 g of methane is
83. Total number of electrons present in 640 u of
(1) 64 g (2) 96 g
oxygen gas is
(3) 128 g (4) 160 g
(1) 640 (2) 320
74. 3.01 × 1022 molecules of urea is present in 100
(3) 160 (4) 960
ml of an aqueous solutions. The molarity of the
solution is 84. A given compound always contains exactly the
same proportion of elements by weight is in
(1) 0.05 M (2) 2.5 M
accordance with
(3) 0.5 M (4) 1.5 M
(1) Law of definite proportions
75. If mass percentage of Mg2+ in a biomolecule is
0.6% then the number of Mg2+ ions present in (2) Law of multiple proportions
20 g of the biomolecule is (3) Avogadro’s law
(1) 6 × 1022 (2) 4.5 × 1020 (4) Gay Lussac’s law of gaseous volumes
(3) 3 × 1021 (4) 6 × 1019 85. If mass percentage of carbon in a hydrocarbon
1 is 92.3% then the empirical formula of the
76. 1
H, 12H and 13H are
hydrocarbon is
(1) Isotopes (2) Isobars (1) CH2 (2) CH
(3) Isotones (4) All of these (3) CH3 (4) C3H4
e SECTION-B
77. Magnitude of   is lowest for
m 86. Which among the following observation can be
(1) Proton (2) Electron explained by wave nature of electromagnetic
(3) α-particle (4) Neutron radiation?

78. In Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiment (1) Line spectra of H atom

metal foil was made of (2) Diffraction
(1) Mg (2) Be (3) Interference
(3) Ag (4) Au (4) Both (2) and (3)

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Two Year Medical - 2023 Term Exam Test - 1 (TYMRG2_Code-A2)
87. Number of protons, electrons and neutrons 94. Consider the following statements regarding
present in 37 −
Cl respectively are canal rays.
17
(a) These are positively charged gaseous ions
(1) 18, 20, 17 (2) 17, 20, 17
(b) The charge to mass ratio of particles
(3) 17, 18, 20 (4) 20, 17, 18
depend on the gas from which these
88. If mass percentage of Zn2+ in an enzyme is originate
0.654% then the minimum molecular weight of
(c) Cathode ray particles are heavier than
the enzyme will be (Atomic mass of
canal ray particles
Zn = 65.4 u)
Correct statements are
(1) 100 u (2) 1000 u
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
(3) 10000 u (4) 625 u
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
89. If the mole fraction of acetone in water is 0.2 then
the mass percentage (w/w) of acetone in the 95. 49 g sulphuric acid is present in 200 ml
solution will be (Molar mass of acetone aqueous solutions. The normality of the
= 58 g mol–1) solution is

(1) 44.6% (2) 52.4% (1) 5 N (2) 2.5 N

(3) 32.8% (4) 18.5% (3) 6 N (4) 2 N

90. Number of moles of N2 gas in one litre of air 96. Empirical formula of HO – CH2 – CH2 – OH is
containing 78% nitrogen by volume at STP is (1) CHO (2) CH2O
(1) 3.48 × 10–2 (2) 4.54 × 10–3 (3) CH3O (4) CH4O
(3) 3.48 × 10–1 (4) 3.48 97. Mass of one molecule of water will be
91. 8.4 g of an impure sample of MgCO3 on 18
(1) g (2) 18 g
complete decomposition give 2.8 g of MgO. NA
The percentage purity of MgCO3 in the sample
is NA
(3) 18 mg (4) g
18
(1) 75% (2) 70%
98. 1 L is equal to
(3) 80% (4) 85%
(1) 10–6 m3 (2) 10–3 m3
92. Concentration term which depends on
temperature is/are (3) 10–4 m3 (4) 10 m3
(1) Molarity (2) Molality 99. Correct way of presenting 0.00000345 in
scientific notation is
(3) Mole fraction (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) 34.5 × 10–7 (2) 34.5 × 107
93. If the density of 4 M solution of KOH is 1.4 g
mL–1 then the molality of the solution will be (3) 3.45 × 10–6 (4) 3.45 × 106
(molecular mass of KOH = 56 u) 100. One inch is equal to
(1) 2.5 m (2) 4.2 m (1) 2.54 cm (2) 1.54 cm
(3) 3.4 m (4) 4 m (3) 3.54 cm (4) 0.54 cm

BOTANY
SECTION-A 103. Hypothesis of cell theory was modified and
101. Smallest living cell is finally shaped by
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Blue green algae (1) Schleiden (2) Schwann
(3) Mesophyll cell (4) Virus (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Rudolf Virchow
102. Which of following organelles is not bounded 104. All of the following are related to chloroplast
by membrane? except
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum (1) Circular nucleic acid
(2) Ribosome (2) 70S ribosomes
(3) Chloroplast (3) Main site of aerobic respiration
(4) Peroxisome (4) Thylakoids

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Term Exam Test - 1 (TYMRG2_Code-A2) Two Year Medical - 2023
105. Find the mismatched pair w.r.t. plastids. 113. Chromosome which has one arm extremely
(1) Amyloplast – Stores starch short and another arm very long is known as

(2) Elaioplast – Stores proteins (1) Acrocentric chromosome

(3) Chromoplast – Yellow, orange or (2) Metacentric chromosome

reddish in colour (3) Sub-metacentric chromosome
(4) Chloroplast – Possesses pigments (4) Telocentric chromosome
such as carotenoids and 114. Disc shaped structure on sides of centromere
chlorophylls is known as
106. Which of the following is directly related to (1) Centriole
protein synthesis?
(2) Kinetochore
(1) Polysomes
(3) Chromatin
(2) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Centrosome
(3) Microtubules
115. Cell wall in Mycoplasma is
(4) Centrioles
(1) Composed of peptidoglycan
107. Cytoskeleton involve all the following structures
(2) Composed of chitin
except
(3) Absent
(1) Microtubules
(4) Composed of cellulose
(2) Microfilaments
116. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(3) Nucleolus
(1) Inner membrane of mitochondria forms a
(4) Intermediate filaments
number of foldings called cristae
108. Choose the odd one w.r.t. rough endoplasmic
reticulum. (2) Middle lamella of plants is composed of
chitin
(1) It bears ribosomes on its surface
(3) Plasmodesmata connect the neighbouring
(2) It is associated with synthesis of steroids
plant cells
(3) Actively involved in protein synthesis
(4) ATP synthetase is attached to inner
(4) Seen in eukaryotes
membrane of mitochondria
109. Which of the given organelles is not included in
117. Golgi complex participates in
endomembrane system?
(1) ER (2) Mitochondria (1) ATP production
(3) Golgi complex (4) Lysosome (2) Formation of secretory vesicles
110. Ribosomes were discovered by (3) Breakdown of proteins
(1) Robert brown (2) T. Schwann (4) Photosynthesis
(3) George Palade (4) Flemming 118. ______ contains hydrolytic enzymes
111. Read the statements given below and select (1) Mesosome (2) Lysosome
the correct option.
(3) Nucleolus (4) Polysome
(A) Active transport requires energy for
119. Select the mismatched pair.
transport.
(B) Osmosis requires ATP to transport water. (1) Protists – Eukaryotes

(1) Only statement A is incorrect (2) Algal cell wall – Cellulose

(2) Only statement B is incorrect (3) Blue green algae – Unicellular
(3) Both statements are incorrect eukaryotes

(4) Both statements are correct (4) Mesosome – Helps in respiration

in bacteria
112. Which of the following cells has both 70S and
80S ribosomes? 120. If there are 20 chromosomes in G1 phase, then
what will be the number of chromosomes after
(1) Lactobacillus
S phase of cell?
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Mesophyll cell (1) 20 (2) 40
(4) Nostoc (3) 10 (4) 60
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Two Year Medical - 2023 Term Exam Test - 1 (TYMRG2_Code-A2)
121. Synaptonemal complex formation takes place 130. Homologous chromosomes align themselves at
in the equator during
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene (1) Metaphase-I
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis (2) Prophase-I
122. Match the column I with column II and select (3) Anaphase-II
the correct option. (4) Telophase-II
Column I Column II 131. Phragmoplast during cell plate formation is
(a) G1 phase (i) Quiescent stage formed by
(b) G0 phase (ii) Tubulin protein (1) Mitochondria
synthesis (2) Golgi complex
(c) G2 phase (iii) Interval between (3) Lysosome
mitosis and (4) Chloroplast
initiation of DNA
132. Select the incorrect match.
replication
(1) Spireme stage – Prophase
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(2) Congression stage – Metaphase
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
(3) Protein synthesis – G1 phase
123. Recombinase enzyme functions properly in
(4) Resting stage – M phase
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
133. Most of the cell organelles duplicate in
(3) Diplotene (4) Pachytene
(1) M phase (2) G1 phase
124. Which of the following is correct sequence of
(3) G2 phase (4) S phase
meiotic stages?
134. Attachment site of spindle fibres to
(1) Zygotene → Pachytene → Diplotene chromosomes is also known as
(2) Leptotene → Diplotene → Zygotene (1) Centrosome (2) Centriole
(3) Diplotene → Diakinesis → Leptotene (3) Kinetochore (4) Telomere
(4) Zygotene → Diplotene → Pachytene 135. Meiosis takes place in
125. What will be the amount of DNA in meiosis-II (1) Meristem cell (2) Megaspore
products, if meiocyte contains 60 pg DNA in (3) Meiocyte (4) Prokaryotes
S-phase?
SECTION-B
(1) 15 pg (2) 60 pg
136. Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus begin to
(3) 30 pg (4) 10 pg
disappear at
126. Replication of DNA occurs in
(1) Early metaphase
(1) G1-phase (2) S phase (2) Early prophase
(3) G2-phase (4) M phase (3) Early anaphase
127. _______ phase of cell cycle lasts more than (4) Late anaphase
95% of the total duration.
137. Which of the following is the characteristic
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase feature of meiosis that cannot be seen in
(3) Interphase (4) Anaphase mitosis?
128. Centromere of chromosomes splits during (1) Spindle fibres formation
(1) Telophase (2) Anaphase (2) Crossing over
(3) Metaphase (4) Prophase (3) Chromosome alignment at equator
129. Decondensation of chromosomes occurs (4) Condensation of chromosomes
during 138. Intrameiotic interphase is also known as
(1) Leptotene (1) Cytokinesis
(2) Anaphase-I (2) Interkinesis
(3) Telophase-I (3) G2 phase
(4) Diakinesis (4) G0 phase

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Term Exam Test - 1 (TYMRG2_Code-A2) Two Year Medical - 2023
139. Bivalent chromosome can be clearly seen as 146. Which of the given organelles is important site
tetrad in of glycosylation of proteins?
(1) Zygotene (2) Leptotene (1) Golgi apparatus
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene (2) Endoplasmic reticulum
140. Select the odd one w.r.t. cell division. (3) Nucleolus
(1) Growth (2) Repair (4) Mitochondria
(3) Metabolism (4) Reproduction 147. Read the given statements and select the
141. Scientific name of wheat is correct option
(1) Allium cepa Statement A : Centrosome is an organelle
(2) Triticum aestivum usually containing two cylindrical structures
(3) Solanum melongena called centrioles.

(4) Mangifera indica Statement B : Microtubules forms cytoskeleton

of cilia and flagella.
142. True regeneration can be observed in
(1) Only statement A is correct
(1) Hydra (2) Amoeba
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Planaria (4) Fungi
143 All of the following are the feature of all living (3) Both statements are correct
organisms, except (4) Both statements are incorrect
(1) Metabolism 148. All of the given are significance of mitosis,
(2) Cellular organisation except

(3) Consciousness (1) Growth

(4) Self-consciousness (2) Repair

144. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. growth.
(1) Growth in plants is always definite
(2) Growth is from inside in living organisms
(3) Growth in non-living objects occurs from
outside
(3) Healing and regeneration
(4) Introduction of variations
149. A diploid cell with 32 chromosome is
undergoing meiosis. How many bivalents are
possible?

(4) Animals grow upto a certain age (1) 32 (2) 16

145. Sensitivity is the ability of (3) 8 (4) 64
(1) Grow from inside 150. Rules for scientific names of animals is given
(2) Reproduce by

(3) Detect the change in environment (1) ICBN (2) ICZN

(4) Response to external stimulus (3) ICNCP (4) Both (1) and (3)

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 152. Organs are formed by organization of ___ in
151. Tissue is defined as specific proportion and pattern. Choose the
option which fills the blank correctly.
(1) Group of similar cells having different
function (1) Only similar cells
(2) Group of similar cells along with (2) Different tissues
intercellular substances that perform a (3) Only similar tissue
specific function (4) Connective tissue only
(3) Group of different type of cells that perform 153. Cells are compactly packed with little
a different function intercellular matrix in
(4) Group of different type of cells connected (1) Epithelial tissue (2) Neural tissue
by gap junctions
(3) Connective tissue (4) Muscular tissue

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Two Year Medical - 2023 Term Exam Test - 1 (TYMRG2_Code-A2)
154. Most abundant chemical in living organisms is
(1) Proteins
(2) Water
(3) Carbohydrates
(4) Nucleic acids
155. All biomacromolecules are the result of process
called polymerization in which repeating
subunits termed monomers are linked to form
chains of different lengths except in
(1) Nucleic acids (2) Polysaccharides
(3) Lipids (4) Proteins
156. Match column-A with column-B and choose the
correct option. (A) (B) (C)
Column-A Column-B
(1) Unicellular Multicellular Simple
a. Pigment (i) Curcumin gland – gland – for epithelium –
b. Toxin (ii) Concanavalin-A goblet cells secretion of for protection of
for secretion saliva skin
c. Lectin (iii) Ricin of mucus
d. Drug (iv) Carotenoid (2) Multicellular Unicellular Compound
(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) gland – gland – for epithelium –
for secretion secretion of for protection
(2) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
of milk mucus
(3) a-(iii), b-(iv ), c-(ii), d-(i)
(3) Unicellular Multicellular Stratified
(4) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii) glandular glandular epithelium –
157. Choose correct match w.r.t. epithelium and its epithelium – epithelium – for secretion of
function/position. for secretion for secretion pancreatic juice
of enzymes of milk
(1) Simple – Forming a diffusion
(4) Unicellular Multicellular Compound
squamous boundary for gases
glandular glandular epithelium –
epithelium
epithelium – epithelium – for protection
(2) Cuboidal – Contain cilia in PCT for secretion for secretion against
epithelium for conduction of mucus of digestive chemical and
enzymes mechanical
(3) Simple – Main function is stresses
columnar protection
160. Matrix of bones is
epithelium
(1) Hard and pliable
(4) Ciliated – Present in duct of (2) Hard and non-pliable
epithelium glands for secretion
(3) Soft and non-pliable
and absorption
(4) Soft and pliable
158. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. glandular
161. Cartilage : Chondrocytes : : Bones : _____
epithelium.
Complete the analogy
(1) Cells are specialized for secretion
(1) Osteocytes
(2) Cells may be cuboidal or columnar in
(2) Fibroblasts
shape
(3) Adipocytes
(3) May be unicellular or multicellular on the
basis of organisation (4) Neuroglial cells

(4) Glandular cells are always exocrine 162. All of the following tissues have gap junctions
except
159. Identify figure (A), (B) and (C) given below and
choose the option with correct structure and its (1) Cardiac muscles (2) Skeletal muscles
function. (3) Smooth muscles (4) Epithelial tissue

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Term Exam Test - 1 (TYMRG2_Code-A2) Two Year Medical - 2023
163. Choose the option in following table which 170. Read the following statements carefully and
represents percentage of the cellular choose the option with all incorrect
components in total cellular mass in decreasing statements.
order. (a) Blood is a specialized connective tissue
(1) Ions Carboh- Lipids Water containing plasma and formed elements.
ydrates (b) Cartilage is present between adjacent
bones of vertebral column but is absent in
(2) Water Nucleic Proteins Lipids
bones of limbs and hands in adults.
acids
(c) Bone of the leg is maximum weight bearing
(3) Water Proteins Nucleic Carboh-
bone in our body.
acids ydrates
(d) Blood is main circulating fluid and is rich in
(4) Proteins Ions Lipids Carboh- fibre secreting fibroblasts.
ydrates
(1) (a) and (b)
164. Which of the following elements constitute (2) (b) and (c)
minimum percentage weight of earth’s crust as
(3) (b) and (d)
well as human body respectively?
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
(1) Hydrogen and carbon
171. Mast cells present in connective tissue secrete
(2) Oxygen and sulphur
(3) Sodium and calcium (1) Serotonin, melatonin and melanin

(4) Nitrogen and silicon (2) Calcitonin, serotonin and immunoglobulins

165. Read the statements A and B and select the (3) Heparin, histamine and melanin
correct option. (4) Heparin, histamine and serotonin
Statement A : In glycogen, right end is called 172. Among following, matrix of connective tissue is
the reducing end and left end is called the non- predominantly secreted by
reducing end.
(1) Fibroblasts
Statement B : Starch forms helical secondary
(2) Adipocytes
structures and can hold I2 molecules in the
helical portion. (3) Macrophages
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Leucocytes
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect 173. Dermis of skin largely contains
(3) Only statement A is correct (1) Dense regular fibrous connective tissue
(4) Only statement B is correct (2) Dense irregular fibrous connective tissue
166. Which of the following is not a simple lipid? (3) Areolar connective tissue
(1) Palmitic acid (2) Arachidonic acid (4) Epithelial tissue
(3) Trihydroxypropane (4) Phospholipid 174. All of the following can be present in acid
167. Chitin present in exoskeleton of insects is a soluble fraction except
(1) Homopolymer (1) Sulphate (2) Phosphate
(2) Heteropolymer (3) Glycine (4) Lipid
(3) Conjugated lipid 175. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. lipids?
(4) Conjugated protein (1) R group could be higher number of –CH2
168. The most abundant protein in animal world is
(2) Arachidonic acid is unsaturated fatty acid
(1) RuBisCO (2) Albumins
(3) Lecithin is not a phospholipid
(3) Globulins (4) Collagen
(4) Neural tissues have lipids with more
169. The major components of neural tissue are complex structures
(1) Neurons and muscular tissue
176. Which of the following is not a component of
(2) Neurons and epithelial tissue RNA?
(3) Neurons and neuroglia (1) Ribose (2) Phosphate
(4) Neurons and connective tissue (3) Adenylic acid (4) Thymidine
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Two Year Medical - 2023 Term Exam Test - 1 (TYMRG2_Code-A2)
177. Select the correct match. 183. The major constituent of connective tissue such
(1) Proteins – Homopolymer as tendons in human body are
(2) Glucose – Pentose sugar (1) Vitamins
(3) Palmitic acid – 10C (2) Carbohydrates
(4) Adenine – Substituted purine (3) Lipids
178. Read the following statements (a-d) and (4) Proteins
choose the correct option w.r.t. β-pleated
184. Choose correct match w.r.t. human adults.
sheet.
a. It is a secondary structure (1) Smooth muscles – Triceps

b. Intramolecular hydrogen bonds provide (2) Skeletal muscles – Biceps

stability to it (3) Cartilage – Lamellae
c. It is like a hollow woolen ball (4) Bones – Trachea
d. It provides positional information of amino
185. Read following statements carefully and
acids in a protein
choose the option with all correct statements.
(1) a and b (2) a only
(a) Each muscle is made up of many long,
(3) a, b and c (4) a, b, c and d
cylindrical fibres arranged in parallel
179. In the following given table, choose the option arrays.
containing correct match of type of tissue, its
(b) Each myofibril is formed by numerous
location in the body and function.
muscle fibres.
Type of Location in Function
tissue the body (c) Muscle fibre contracts and relaxes in a
coordinated fashion.
(1) Compound Buccal cavity Protection
epithelium (d) Muscles cannot play an active role in any
movement of our body parts
(2) Muscular Submucosa of Movement of
tissue gut body (1) (a) and (b)
(3) Neural tissue Brain and Conduction of (2) (b) and (c)
spinal cord substances
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) Columnar Renal tubules Secretion and
(4) (a) and (c)
epithelium absorption
SECTION-B
180. Which of the following is not a primary function
of epithelium? 186. Match Column I with Column II and choose the
correct option
(1) Absorption
(2) Diffusion Column I Column II
(3) Impulse conduction
a. Essential amino (i) Body can
(4) Reproduction acids synthesize
181. Ductless glands in human beings produce
b. Biomacromolecules (ii) Glucose
(1) Saliva
(2) Bile juice c. Primary metabolite (iii) Molecular
(3) Pancreatic juice weight >10,000
dalton
(4) Hormones
182. Which of the following statements is incorrect d. Non-essential (iv) Required in diet
w.r.t. the simple columnar epithelium? amino acids
(1) It is composed of single layer of tall and
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
slender cells
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) Nucleus of the cell is located at its base
(3) Free surface may have microvilli (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

(4) It is commonly found in PCT of humans (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

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Term Exam Test - 1 (TYMRG2_Code-A2) Two Year Medical - 2023
187. In a polysaccharide, individual monosaccharides
are linked by a (3)
(1) Peptide bonds (2) Glycosidic bonds
(3) Ester bonds (4) Hydrogen bonds
188. Read following statements and select the
(4)
option with all incorrect statements w.r.t.
double helix model of B-DNA.
(a) The two strands of polynucleotides present 193. Adenylic acid is a
in DNA are parallel to each other. (1) Nucleic acid
(b) The two strands run in opposite direction. (2) Nucleoside
(c) The nitrogen bases are projected more or (3) Nucleotide
less perpendicular to this back bone but (4) Nitrogenous base
face outside.
194. Adult bones can be differentiated from cartilage
(d) A and G compulsorily base pair with T and by presence of
C, respectively, on the same strand.
(1) Lacunae
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) Collagen fibres
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) Chondrocytes
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) Inorganic salts in matrix
(4) Only (c)
195. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. proteins.
189. Heterocyclic ring is not present in
(1) Proteins are complex organic compounds
(1) Uracil
and considered as heteropolymers
(2) Glucose
(2) Primary structure of proteins provides
(3) Adenylic acid information about positional information of
(4) Glycine amino acids
190. How many nitrogenous bases are present in (3) Long chain of myoglobin is folded upon
one pitch of B-DNA? itself forming its quaternary structure
(1) 10 (4) Haemoglobin consists of 4 subunits 2 α
(2) 20 and 2 β chains
(3) 40 196. Select the option which correctly describes
(4) 80 features of a skeletal muscle fibre
191. All of the following are correct for glucose (1) Striated, cylindrical and branched
except (2) Unstriated, fusiform and unbranched
(1) It is a monosaccharide and polymerises to (3) Striated, multinucleated and unbranched
form starch
(4) Striated, multinucleated and involuntary
(2) Commonly known as blood sugar
197. Nissl’s granules are not present in
(3) Blood concentration of glucose in normal
(1) Axon
individual is in nanograms/mL
(2) Cyton
(4) Glucose is a reducing sugar
(3) Dendrites
192. Which of the following represents Zwitterionic
form of an amino acid? (4) Perikaryon
198. The cell junctions which perform the function of
cementing to keep neighbouring cells together
(1)
are called
(1) Tight junctions
(2) Adhering junctions
(2) (3) Gap junctions
(4) Communication junctions

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Two Year Medical - 2023
199. Read the following statements w.r.t.
proteinaceous amino acids and choose the
correct option
Statement A : Based on the nature of R group
there are many amino acids
Statement B : The chemical and physical
properties of amino acids are essentially of the
amino, carboxyl and the R functional groups.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
Term Exam Test - 1 (TYMRG2_Code-A2)
(3) Both A and B statements are correct
(4) Both A and B statements are incorrect
200. Select the correct set of compounds in which
ester bond is present
(1) Uridylic acid and glycerol
(2) Triglyceride and Lecithin
(3) Cytosine and Ribose
(4) Adenine and phospholipid

  

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