Question_Report_2153

Test Pattern
(1001CMD300119036) *1001CMD300119036*
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MINOR
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020) 22-12-2019
PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE (PHASE : MNB)
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TOPIC : Rolling, Fluid (Hydrostatic + dynamic), Elasticity, Viscosity, Wave theory Till Beats
1. The ratio of the lengths of two wires A and B of 4. When a pressure of 100 atmosphere applied on
same material is 1 : 2 and the ratio of their diameter a spherical ball, then its volume reduces to 0.01%.
The bulk modulus of the material of the rubber
is 2 : 1. They are stretched by the same force, then in dyne/cm2 is
the ratio of increase in length will be (1) 10 × 1012 (2) 100 × 1012
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 × 1012 (4) 20 × 1012
(3) 1 : 8 (4) 8 : 1 5. The diagram shows stress v/s strain curve for the
materials A and B. From the curves we infer that
2. The Young's modulus of three materials are in the
ratio 2 : 2 : 1. Three wires made of these materials A
Stress
have their cross-sectional areas in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. B
For a given stretching force the elongation's in the
three wires are in the ratio
Strain
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 : 1 (1) A is brittle but B is ductile
(3) 5 : 4 : 3 (4) 6 : 3 : 4 (2) A is ductile and B is brittle
3. One end of a uniform rod of mass m 1 and (3) Both A and B are ductile
cross-sectional area A is hung from a ceiling. The (4) Both A and B are brittle
other end of the bar is supporting mass m2. The 6. A solid sphere falls with a terminal velocity of
stress at the midpoint is 10 m/s in air. If it is allowed to fall in vacuum,
(1) terminal velocity will be more than 10 m/s
(2) terminal velocity will be less than 10 m/s
m1 (3) terminal velocity will be 10 m/s
(4) there will be no terminal velocity
m2 7. When water flows at a rate Q through a tube of
radius r placed horizontally, a pressure difference
p develops across the ends of the tube. If the
g(m 2 2m1 )
(1) radius of the tube is doubled and the rate of flow
2A
halved, the pressure difference will be
g(m 2 m1 ) (1) 8p (2) p
(2)
2A (3) p/8 (4) p/32
g(2m2 m1 ) 8. A log of wood of mass 120 kg floats in water. The
(3) weight that can put on the raft to make it just sink,
2A
should be (density of wood = 600 kg/m 3)
g(m 2 m1 )
(4) (1) 80 kg (2) 50 kg
A
(3) 60 kg (4) 30 kg
Nurture - MNB 1001CMD300119036
English / 22122019 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Page 1/20
9. The fraction of a floating object of volume V0 and 13. A vertical U–tube of uniform cross–section
density d0 above the surface of a liquid of density contains mercury in both arms. A glycerine
d will be (relative density = 1.3) column of length 10 cm
d0 dd 0 is introduced into one of the arms. Oil of density
(1) (2) d d
d 0 800 kg/m 3 is poured into the other arm until the
upper surface of the oil and glycerine are at the
d d0 dd 0
(3) (4) d d same horizontal level. Find the length of the oil
d 0
column. Density of mercury is 13.6 × 103 kg/m3 .
10. An incompressible liquid flows through a (1) 9.6 cm (2) 9.6 mm
horizontal tube as shown in the following figure. (3) 0.96 cm (4) 96 m
Then the velocity of the fluid is 14. A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to lift cars
2 = 1.5 m/s with a maximum mass of 3000 kg. The area of
cross–section of the piston carrying the load is
A
425 cm 2 . What maximum pressure would the
1= piston have to bear ? (taking g = 10 m/s 2 ).
A
3 m/s
(1) 7 × 105 Pa (2) 7 × 10 5 atm
1.
5A
(3) 7 × 103 Pa (4) 7Pa
15. The total kinetic energy of rolling solid sphere
(1) 3.0 m/s (2) 1.5 m/s having translational velocity is
(3) 1.0 m/s (4) 2.25 m/s
7 2 1 2
11. A wooden block of volume 1000 cm 3 is (1) m (2) m
10 2
suspended from a spring balance. If weighs 12 N
in air. It is suspended in water such that half of 2 2 10 2
(3) m (4) m
the block is below the surface of water. The 5 7
reading of the spring balance is
16. A ring solid sphere and a disc are rolling down
(1) 10 N (2) 9 N (3) 8 N (4) 7 N
from the top of the same height, then the sequence
12. According to Bernoulli's equation
to reach on surface is
2
P 1
h = Constant (1) Ring, disc, sphere
g 2 g
(2) Sphere, disc, ring
The terms A, B and C are generally called
(3) Disc, ring, sphere
respectively
(4) Sphere, ring, disc
(1) Gravitational head, pressure head and velocity
head 17. The relation between frequency 'n' wavelength ' '
(2) Gravity, gravitational head and velocity head and velocity of propagation ' ' of wave is
(3) Pressure head, gravitational head and velocity (1) n = (2) n =
head
(3) n = (4) n = 1/
(4) Gravity, pressure and velocity head
Page 2/20 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English / 22122019
18. When a sound wave of frequency 300 Hz passes 24. A transverse wave of amplitude 0.5 m and
through a medium the maximum displacement of wavelenght 1 m and frequency 2 Hz is
a particle of the medium is 0.1 cm. The maximum propagating in a string in the nagative x-direction.
velocity of the particle is equal to The expression for this wave is
(1) 60 cm/sec (2) 30 cm/sec (1) y (x, t) = 0.5 sin (2 x – 4 t)

(2) y (x, t) = 0.5 cos (2 x + 4 t)
(3) 30 cm/sec (4) 60 cm/sec
(3) y (x, t) = 0.5 sin ( x – 2 t)
19. The relation between phase difference ( ) and
(4) y (x, t) = 0.5 cos (2 x + 2 t)
path difference ( x) is
25. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have
2
(1) x (2) =2 x frequencies ( – 1) , ( + 1). They superpose to
give beats. The number of beats produced per
2 2 x
(3) (4) second will be
x
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
20. If m
is the velocity of sound in moist air, d
is
26. Out of the given four waves (1), (2), (3) and (4)
the velocity of sound in dry air, under identical
y = a sin (kx + t) .......(1)
conditions of pressure and temperature
y = a sin ( t – kx) .......(2)
(1) m
> d
(2) m
< d
y = a cos (kx + t) .......(3)
(3) m
= d
(4) m d
= 1
y = a cos ( t – kx) .......(4)
21. Water waves are
emitted by four different sound sources S1, S2, S3
(1) Longitudinal
and S 4 respectively, interference phenomena
(2) Transverse
would be observed in space under appropriate
(3) Both longitudinal and transverse
conditions when
(4) Neither longitudinal nor transverse
(1) Source S1 emits wave (1) and S2 emits wave (2)
22. The phenomenon of sound propagation in air is
(1) Isothermal process
(2) Isobaric process
(4) S4 emits wave (4) and S 3 emits wave (3)
(3) Adiabatic process
27. Tuning fork F1 has a frequency of 256 Hz and it
(4) None of these
is observed to produce 6 beats/second with
23. A wave propagate from one medium to another
another tuning fork F2. When F 2 is loaded with
medium then which of the following property
wax, it still produces 6 beats/second with F1. The
remain unchanged ?
frequency of F 2 before loading was
(1) Velocity (2) Wave length
(1) 253 Hz (2) 262 Hz
(3) Frequency (4) None
(3) 250 Hz (4) 259 Hz
28. Beats are produced by two waves given by 31. A particle executing SHM with an amplitude A.
The displacement of the particle when its potential
y1 = sin 2000 t and y2 = sin 2008 t. The
energy is half of its total energy is :-
number of beats heard per second is
A A A A
(1) Zero (2) One (1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 4 3
(3) Four (4) Eight
32. A particle is thrown vertically upwards from the
29. The frequency of tuning forks A and B are surface of earth and it reaches to maximum height
respectively 3% more and 2% less than the equal to the radius of earth. The ratio of velocity
of projection to the escape velocity on the surface
frequency of tuning fork C. When A and B are
of earth is :
simultaneously excited, 5 beats per second are
produced. Then the frequency of the tuning fork 1 1
(1) (2) 1/2 (3) 1/4 (4)
'A' (in Hz) is 2 2 2
(1) 98 (2) 100 (3) 103 (4) 105 33. The value of g on the Earth's surface is 980 cm/s2.
30. The displacement-time graph for a particle Its value at a height of 64 km from the Earth's
surface is : (Radius of Earth is 6400 km)
executing SHM is as shown in figure :-
(1) 960.40 cm/s2 (2) 984.90 cm/s2
(3) 982.45 cm/s2 (4) 977.55 cm/s2
34. If a thermometer reads freezing point of water as
Displacement
+A 20°C and boiling point as 150°C, how much

2T/4 T thermometer read when the actual temperature is
0
T/4 3T/4 5T/4 Time 60°C
–A (1) 98°C (2) 110°C
(3) 40°C (4) 60°C
Which of the following statements is correct ?
35. When a bimetallic strip is heated, it
(1) The velocity of the particle is maximum at (1) Does not bend at all
3
t T. (2) Gets twisted in the form of an helix
4
(3) Bend in the form of an arc with the more
T
(2) The velocity of the particle is maximum at t . expandable metal outside
2
(4) Bends in the form of an arc with the more
(3) The acceleration of the particle is maximum
expandable metal inside
T
at t . 36. Calculate the amount of heat (in calories) required
4
to convert 5 gm of ice at 0°C to steam at 100°C
(4) The acceleration of the particle is maximum
(1) 3100 (2) 3200
3
at t T. (3) 3600 (4) 4200
4
37. Two substances A and B of equal mass m are
V(m3)
heated at uniform rate of 6 cal s–1 under similar
2 C B
conditions. A graph between temperature and time
is shown in figure. Ratio of heat absorbed HA/HB
by them for complete fusion is 1
A
2
100 10 P(N/m )
Temperature°C
80
A (1) –5 J (2) –10 J
60 (3) –15 J (4) –20 J
40 B 42. When a system is taken from state i to a state f
along path iaf, Q = 50 J and W = 20 J. Along path
20
ibf, W = 10 J and if W = –7 J for the curved return
path f i, Q for this path is
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
P
9 4 8 5
(1) (2) (3) (4) a f
4 9 5 8
38. Air is filled in a bottle at atmospheric pressure and
it is corked at 35°C. If the cork can come out at
i b
3 atmospheric pressure than upto what
V
temperature should the bottle be heated in order
(1) 33 J (2) 23 J (3) –37 J (4) –43 J
to remove the cork
43. The temperature of sink of Carnot engine is 27°C.
(1) 325.5°C (2) 851°C
Efficiency of engine is 25%. Then temperature of
(3) 651°C (4) None of these source is
39. The r.m.s. speed of the molecules of a gas at a (1) 227°C (2) 327°C
pressure 105 Pa and temperature 0ºC is 0.5 km/s.
(3) 127°C (4) 27°C
If the pressure is kept constant but temperature is
44. Two rods having thermal conductivity in the ratio
raised to 819°C, the velocity will become
of 5 : 3 having equal lengths and equal cross-
(1) 1.5 kms–1 (2) 2 kms–1 sectional area are joined by face to face. If the
(3) 5 kms–1 (4) 1 kms–1 temperature of the free end of the first rod is 100ºC
40. The ratio of mean kinetic energy of hydrogen and and free end of the second rod is 20ºC. Then
nitrogen at temperature 300 K and 450 K temperature of the junction is
respectively is (1) 70° C (2) 50° C (3) 30° C (4) 90° C
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 45. The wavelength of maximum emitted energy of
(3) 2 : 21 (4) 4 : 9 a body at 700 K is 4.08 m. If the temperature of
41. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle the body is raised to 1400 K, the wavelength of
A B C A, as shown in the figure. If the maximum emitted energy will be
net heat supplied to the gas in the cycle is 5 J, the (1) 1.02 m (2) 16.32 m
work done by the gas in the process C A is (3) 8.16 m (4) 2.04 m
TOPIC : G.O.C-I
46. Which of the following has longest C – O bond:- 50. Most stable cation is :-
O CH3
O (1) C CH3
(1) (2) CH3
CH3
O
O C CH3
(2) CH
(3) (4) 3
OH
CH 2 CH 3
47. The correct stability order of following resonance OH
(3)
structure is - CH 3
CH 3
(I) CH2 = N = N (II) CH2 – N = N
CH3
(III) CH 2 – N N (4) CH3
(1) I > II > III (2) II > III > I HO
(3) I > III > II (4) III > I > II 51. Correct stability order is :-
48. Which of the following cation is most stable:-
CH2
(1) (2) (a) (b)

CH3 CH3
(c) CH2 CH CH2(d) CH3 CH2 CH2
(1) a > c > d > b (2) a > b > c > d
(3) (4)
(3) b > c > d > a (4) b > a > c > d
CH3 CH3
52. Correct stability order :-
49. Which of the following is pair of resonance
structure :- CH 2 CH 2
NO2
(1) (a) (b)
NO2
(2)
CH2 CH2
(3) (c) (d)
NO2
(4) (1) a > b > c > d (2) a > c > b > d
O OH (3) c > a > b > d (4) b > a > c > d
53. Correct stability order :- 57. Most basic structure is :-
CH2 CH2
(1) (2)
(a) (b) N N
O
H
OH O C CH3
O
CH2 CH2
(3) (4)
(c) (d) N N
H H
NO2 58. How many structure are aromatic compound:-
(1) a > b > c > d (2) b > a > c > d
(3) d > c > b > a (4) c > a > b > d , , , ,
54. Which compound contain most acidic H?
(1) CH 2 = CH2
(2) CH CH ,
(3) (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3

59. Which of the following can exhibit electromeric
(4) CH2=CH–CH2–CH=CH2 effect :-
55. Correct stability order is :- O
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 (1) CH3 CH2 CH3 (2) CH3 C H
(3) CH3 CH2 Cl (4) CH3 CH2 NH2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
60. Which of the following compound will not show
resonance with +ve charge :-
OCH 3 CHO Cl CH3
CH2
(1) a > b > c > d (2) d > c > b > a
(3) b > c > d > a (4) b > c > a > d (1) (2) CH2 = CH – CH2
56. Which has lowest pKa value :-
NH3
COOH
(3) (4)
(1) (2) HCOOH
61. Which compound will not show hyper
conjugation:-
OH OH
O 2N NO2 CH3 CH = CH2 CH2
(3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
NO2

62. Which group will show +M and –I effect both:- 67. Correct acidic strength order :-
(1) – OH (2) – Cl (1) NH3 > H2O > H2S
(3) – NH2 (4) All
(2) H2S > NH2 > H2O
63. Find correct match :-
Group Effect (3) H2O > NH3 > H2S
(i) – OH –M (4) H2S > H2O > NH3
(ii) – NO2 +M 68. Which compound can show tautomerism :-
(iii) – Cl +M
(iv) – CH3 +M
(1) O
(1) i (2) (ii) (3) (iii) (4) (iv)
OH
64. CH2 CH and CH3 C H are not resonating
(2) CH2 CH CH2 CH2
structure because :-
(1) Molecular formula is same NO2
(2) Position of atom is changed
(3) Degree of unsaturation is same (3)
(4) All of these
65. Most stable carbocation is :-
O
(4)
CH3
(1) (2)
69. Keto form is more stable than enol in :-
O OH
(1)
(3) (4)
O OH
66. Which is strongest base :- (2)

O O OH OH
NH2 NH2
O OH
(1) (2) (3)
NO2 (4) All of these

70. Correct – I effect order is :-
NH 2 NH2
(1) – NO2 > – OH > – Cl
(3) (4) (2) – CN > – CH = CH2 > – Cl
(3) – OH > – Cl > – NO2
OCH3 (4) – OH > – C CH > – CH = CH2
71. Most acidic compound is :-
OH COOH
(1) NaNH2
74. OH
C (2 mol)
NO2 C C–H
OH HO
(2) Product is :-
– +
COO Na
COOH
OH
OH
(1) C
(3)
C C Na
SO 3H HO
OH
– +
COO Na
(4)
72. Total no. of electrophile present here is/are :- (2) OH

C
BF3, :CCl2, NH4, I– C CH
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4
Na O
73. Which have highest value of heat of
hydrogenation :-
COO Na
(1)
(3) O Na
C
C CH
(2) HO
COOH
(3)
(4) O Na
C
C C Na
(4)
HO
75. Least basic compound is :- 80. Hydrogen bonding is absent in :-
(1) CH3COOH (2) H2O
NH2 CH 2 NH2
(3) CH4 (4) C2H5OH
(1) (2) 81. Which of the following species has a linear shape?
(1) O3 (2) NO2
(3) SO2 (4) NO2

O
82. In which of the following molecules/ions are all
NH C CH3 NH2 the bonds not equal?
(1) XeF 4 (2) BF4–
(3) (4)
(3) SF4 (4) SiF4
CH3 83. Which of the following is having a square planar
structure :-
76. Which structure repreasent Gauch form of (1) NH4 (2) BF 4 –
butane:- (3) XeF 4 (4) CCl4
84. T-shape molecules are
CH3 H (1) C F 3 (2) IC 3
CH3 CH3
(1) (2) (3) BrF 3 (4) All of these
H H H CH3 85. The compound containing co-ordinate bond is:-
H H H H
(1) H2SO 4 (2) O3
(3) SO3 (4) All of these
CH3 H H CH3 H CH3
(3) (4) 86. Which of the following doesn’t follow Octet Rule?
CH3 H (1) CCl4 (2) SiF4
H H H H
(3) NH3 (4) PCl5
77. Which can show Geometrical isomerism :- 87. Which of the following pairs of species have the
same bond order ?
CH3 CH3 H
(1) C=N (2) (1) CN and NO (2) CN and CN
C=C
C2 H 5 OH Cl Br (3) O2 and CN (4) NO and CN
88. d-orbital involved in sp3d hybridisation is :-
(3) N2H 2 (4) All of these
(1) dx2–y 2 (2) dz2
78. Total structural isomer possible with molecular (3) dxy (4) dxz
formula C 3H6 is :-
89. What is hybridisation of N in N(CH3) 3 is :-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) sp (2) sp2
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) sp3 (4) sp3d
79. Which of the following has the highest dipole 90. In which of the following molecules/ions BF 3 ,
moment ? NO 2 –, NH 2– and H 2 O, the central atom is sp 2
hybridized ?
(1) o-Dichlorobenzene (2) m-Dichlorobenzene
(1) BF3 and NO2– (2) NO2– and NH2–
(3) p-Dichlorobenzene (4) All have equal values –
(3) NH2 and H2O (4) NO2– and H2O
TOPIC : Kingdom-Plantae, Plant anatomy, Nervous system, Movement & Locomotion,Chemical control & Co-ordination
91. In some monocots like grasses, length of plant 96. Find out the correct match pair ?
organs is increase by the activity of ? (1) Conjoint open vascular bundle - Yucca stems
(1) Procambium (2) Radial vascular bundle - Carrot roots
(2) Inter-fascicular cambium (3) Conjoint closed vascular bundle - Maize stems
(3) Lateral meristem (4) Bicollateral vascular bundle - Mustard roots
(4) Intercalary meristem 97. Main function of ground tissue system is?
92. Select the correct match pair? (1) Mechanical support
(1) Xylem - Vessels, end wall imperforated. (2) Manufacture and food storage
(2) Aerenchyma - Found in stelar-region. (3) Conduction of water and food
(3) Sclerenchyma - Found in fruit wall of nut. (4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) Xylem fibres - Well developed central lumens. 98. Which of following is correct for given
diagramatic sketch?
93. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and
select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) Vessels are main conducting elements in
gymnosperms.
(b) Parenchyma is absent in bryophytes.
(1)Found in stems of grasses.
(c) Both xylem and phloem are conducting tissue
(2)Presence of intra-fascicular cambium.
as well as dead tissue.
(3)Found in stems of sun-flower.
(d) Wood fibres are abundantaly found in (4)Presence of secondary xylem and secondary
secondary xylem. phloem.
(1) a,b,d (2) only d 99. In dorsiventral leaves, cells of mesophyll toward.
(3) a,b,c (4) only b Adaxial surface are arranged vertically and parellel to
94. How many characters are true for sieve tube? each other. Such types of mesophyll cells are help in?
(i) Living conducting element (1) Gaseous exchange
(ii) Unicellular (2) Increase the surface area of petiole
(iii)End wall imperforated (3) Helps in folding of lamina
(iv)Conduction of water (4) Reduce the water loss
(v) Example of syncyte 100. Find out the correct match pairs from the given
(vi)Present in angiosperms table :-
(vii) Lignified elements Column-I Column-II Column-III
Options: Dicot Only
i Pericycle
(1) i, v, vi (2) ii, iii, iv, v stems sclerenchyma
(3) i, v, vi, vii (4) i, ii, v, vi Monocot Closed vascular Cambium
ii
95. The functions of sieve tubes are controlled by the stems bundle absent
nucleus of ? Dicot
iii Casparian strips Suberized
(1) Specialised collenchymatous cells roots
(2) Companion cells Monocot
iv Hypodermis Collenchyma
(3) Phloem parenchyma roots
(4) Sieve tube elements (1) i, iv (2) i, ii, iii (3) ii, iii (4) i, iii, iv
101. During vascularisation metaxylem is derived 106. Select the correct option from given table?
from?
(1) Procambium Column-I Column-II Column-III
(2) Promeristem Heart Highly Conduct
1
(3) Primary xylem wood lignified water
(4) Secondary xylem Dark
2 Sap wood Support
102. "The phloem parenchyma is absent and water brown
containing cavity is present within the vascular Primary
3 Cork Protection
bundle" It is the character of ? tissue
(1) Xerophytic dicot stems Secondary Extra stellar
4 Phellogen
(2) Leaves of desert grass meristem region
(3) Monocot stems
107. Identify the parts labelled A, B and C in the given
(4) Leaves of calotropis plant
diagramatic sketch and select the right option
103. Secondary growth is take place in dicot stems,
about them?
because of ?
(1) Vascular bundles arranged in ring.
(2) Vascular bundles are conjoint collateral open. A
(3) Scattered vascular bundles.
(4) Presence of secondary xylem and secondary
phloem.
104. Which of following is common character in B
between hypodermis, endodermis and pericycle
of dicot stems? C
(1) Made up of parenchyma
(2) Includes in ground tissue system
(3) Part of stelar region A B C
(4) Produced by procambium Vascular Secondary
105. Identify the given diagramatic sketch and select 1 Lenticels
cambium cortex
the correct option in respect of diagram? Complimentary Cork
2 Phelloderm
cells cambium
Cork
3 Epidermis Lenticels
cambium
Complimentary Secondary
4 Phellogen
cells xylem
108. Which of following structures are includes in

rhytidome?
(1) Hypostomatic leaf (1) Epidermis and cork
(2) Amphistomatic leaf
(2) Cork and cork cambium
(3) Found in Eucalyptus plant
(4) Presence of bulliform cells towards abaxial (3) Phellem and phellogen
surface. (4) Bast and wood
109. Which of following tissue is not produce by the 114. Identify the given diagramatic sketch and select
activity of apical meristem? the incorrect option about diagram?
(1) Dermal tissue
(2) Cork tissue
(3) Ground tissue
(4) Vascular tissue
110. Collenchyma and sclerenchyma are similar in
having of ?
(1) Lignified cell wall
(2) Wide lumen
(3) Mechanical tissue
(4) Function of secretion
111. "Protoxylem lies towards periphery and
metaxylem lies towards the centre", such (1) Casparian strips are formed in extra-stelar
arrangement of primary xylem is called? region
(1) Exarch, found in dicot leaves (2) Presence of conjuctive tissue
(2) Endarch, found in monocot stems (3) Hypodermis is made up of collenchyma
(3) Exarch, found in dicot roots (4) Presence of radial vascular bundles
(4) Endarch, found in monocot roots 115. Spring wood is differ from antumn wood in having
112. Find out the correct match from the following of ?
table for given vascular bundles? (1) Narrow lumen
(2) Higher density
(3) Amount of phellogen
(4) Lower density
116. At the time of secondary growth in dicot root,
rhytidome is occur?
(1) Inside the pericycle
(a) (b) (2) Outside the pericycle
(3) Outside the hypodermis
Column-I (a) Column-II (b) (4) Between vascular bundles
1 Dicot root Monocot stem 117. Find out the incorrect match pair ?
(1) Heart wood - Tyloses
2 Dicot stem Gymnosperm stem
(2) Non-porous wood - Single conducting
3 Monocot root Dicot root element
(3) Porous wood - Presence of vessels
4 Dicot leaf Monocot leaf
(4) Sap wood - Non-conducting wood
113. Which of following structures are absent in 118. Prothallus of pteridophytes is differ from thallus
leaves? of marchantia in having of ?
(1) Conjoint vascular bundles (1) Monoecious thallus
(2) Endodermis and pericycle (2) Presence of roots
(3) Protoxylem (3) Absence of vascular tissue
(4) Protophloem (4) Free living and photosynthetic
119. Which of following plant group have Archegonia 124. Movement occurs in most of our internal tubular
but lack of Antheridia? organs which are lined by ____(A)____
epithelium. The coordinated movement of cilia in
(1) Flowering plants
the ____(B)____ help us in removing dust
(2) Cryptogams particles. Passage of ova through female
(3) Naked seed plants reproductive tract is facilitated by the – C –
movement.
(4) Thallophyta
Identify A, B and C to complete the given
120. Endosperm is formed in both gymnosperms and statement :
angiosperms. Endosperm in gymnosperm is?
(1) A-squamous, B-trachea, C-ciliary
(1) Product of pre-fertilization event
(2) A-cuboidal, B-trachea, C-ciliary
(2) Female gametophyte (3) A-ciliated, B-trachea, C-ciliary
(3) Haploid (4) A-stratified, B-trachea, C-amoeboid
(4) All 125. Choose the correct statement about muscles :
121. In which of following character gymnosperms are (1) Muscles are the specialised tissues of
similar with pteridophytes but differ from mesodermal origin
angiosperms? (2) About 40-50% of the body weight is
contributed by muscles
(1) Dependent gametophyte
(3) Muscles have special properties like
(2) Independent sporophyte
excitability, contractibility and extensibility
(3) Absence of vessels in xylem (4) All of the above
(4) Independent gametophyte 126. Fascicles are held together by the structure :
122. In wheat, endosperm cells have 30 chromosomes (1) Intercalated disc
then how many chromosomes are present in (2) Connective fibres
fertilized egg? (3) Fascia
(1) 60 (4) All of these
(2) 90 127. In the centre of each-I-band there is an elastic fibre
(3) 20 called :
(1) I-line
(4) 10
(2) Z-line
123. In which of following algal group sexual
(3) A-line
reproduction is oogamous and accompanied by
complex post fertilisation developments? (4) H-zone
128. Z-lines divides the myofibrils into :
(1) Phaeophyceae
(1) Sarcomere
(2) Chlorophyceae
(2) Sarcolemma
(3) Rhodophyceae (3) Sarcosome
(4) Cyanophyceae (4) Sarcoplasm
129. Head of myosin monomer consists of : 135. Select the correct statement with reference to
(I) Actin binding sites muscle structure :
(II) ATP binding sites (I) Each myosin is a polymerised protein
(III) ADP binding sites (II) Many meromyosin constitutes one thick
(IV) AMP binding sites filament (myosin)
Select the correct options : (III) Each meromyosin's tail is called heavy
meromyosin (HMM) and head is called light
(1) I and II (2) III and IV
meromyosin (LMM)
(3) I and IV (4) II and IV
(IV) The globular head is an active. ATPase
130. Which ion binds with troponin during muscle
enzyme and has binding sites for ATP and
contraction ? active sites for actin.
(1) HCO3– (2) Ca2+ (3) Cl – (4) Na+ (1) All except I and II
131. Arrange the given steps of muscles contraction in (2) All except III and IV
the series of events from first to last :
(3) All except III
(I) Myosin head binds to the exposed active site
(4) All except I and IV
on actin to form a cross bridge
136. Match the following columns :
(II) The Z-line attached to these actin are also
pulled inwards there by causing shortening of Column-I Column-II
sarcomere also called contraction (A) Red muscle (1) Slow twitch fibre
(III) Myosin pulls the attached actin filaments (B) White muscle (2) Fast twitch fibre
towards the centre of A-band (3) Sprint muscle
The correct option is : (4) Marathon muscle
(1) I II III (2) III II I A B A B
(3) I III II (4) III I II (1) 1,2 3,4 (2) 1,4 2,3
132. (I) Myoglobin in very less quantity (3) 2,3 1,4 (4) 4,3 2,1
(II) Appear pale or whitish 137. First vertebrae in humans is called :
(III) Mitochondria are very few (1) Axis (2) Atlas
(IV) Sarcoplasmic reticulum in large quantity (3) Lumbar (4) Cervical
Given characteristics of muscles fibres belong to: 138. Tick the wrong option regarding human beings:
(1) White fibres (2) Green fibres (1) Cranial bones-12 (2) Facial bone-14
(3) Red fibres (4) Pink fibres (3) Mandible bones-1 (4) Zygomatic bones-2
133. Which muscle band remains unchanged during
the contraction and relaxation of the skeletal
Column-I Column-II
muscle ?
(A) Humerus (1) 14 bones
(1) I (2) H (3) A (4) O
134. During skeletal muscle contraction following (B) Radius (2) 5 bones
events occur : (C) Ulna (3) 8 bones
(I) I-band shortens (D) Carpels (4) 1 bone
(II) A-band shortens (E) Metacarpel (5) 1 bone
(III) H-zone shortens (F) Phalanges (6) 1 bone
(IV) Sarcomere contract A B C D E F
(V) ATP changes to ADP and Pi (1) 1 2 3 4 5 6
Choose the option with incorrect events : (2) 6 5 4 3 2 1
(1) Only I (2) Only III (3) 6 3 4 1 2 3
(3) IV and V (4) Only II (4) 1 2 3 6 5 4
140. Pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones and each 145. Gout happens due to accumulation of _____ in
coxal bone consists : joints :
(I) Ilium (II) Ileum (1) Glucose crystals (2) Uric acid crystals
(III) Ischium (IV) Pubis
(3) Urea crystals (4) Ammonia crystals
Choose the correcft option containing all correct
bones : 146. Osteoporosis is a :
(1) I, II and III (2) II, III and IV (1) Age related disorder
(3) I, III and IV (4) I, II and IV (2) Gene related disorder
(3) Viral disease
Column-I Column-II
(4) Bacteria disease
(A) Flat bones (1) Skull bone
(B) Irregular bones (2) Vertebrae 147. Match the following columns :
(3) Sternum Column-I Column-II
(4) Rib Between humerus and
(A) Ball and socket joint (1)
(5) Ear ossicles pectoral girdle
A B
(B) Hinge joint (2) Knee joint
(1) 1, 2, 3 4, 5
(2) 4, 5 1, 2, 3 (C) Pivot joint (3) Between atlas and axis
(3) 1, 3, 4 2, 5 (D) Gliding joint (4) Between the carpals
(4) 2, 5 1, 3, 4
Codes :
142. Myasthenia gravis is a ____(A)____ disorder
affecting ____(B)____ junction leading to fatigue, A B C D
weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle. (1) 1 2 3 4
Fill in the blanks A and B with an appropriate (2) 4 3 2 1
option : (3) 4 2 3 1
(1) A-autoimmune, B-neuromuscular (4) 1 4 3 2
(2) A-liver, B-neuromuscular
(3) A-spleen, B-neuromuscular
Column-I Column-II
(4) A-bone and muscle, B-neuromuscular
(A) Synaptic vesicles (1) Resting potential
143. Which one of the following disease is caused due
Electrical potential
to cancer of somatotroph:- (B) difference across the (2) Nerve impulse
(1) Ateliosis resting plasma membrane
(2) Cretenism Action potential, termed
(C) (3) Neurotransmitter
(3) Acromegaly as a
(4) Both (1) & (2) Granular bodies found in

(D) (4) Nissl's granules
the cell body of a neuron
144. In which of the following condition, progressive
degeneration of skeletal muscles happens ? A B C D
(1) Myasthenia gravis (1) 3 1 2 4
(2) Muscular dystrophy (2) 2 3 1 4
(3) Tetany (3) 4 3 2 1
(4) Arthritis (4) 1 4 3 2
149. Match the following columns : 153. Somatostatin from hypothalamus gland :
(1) Activates the release of growth hormone
Column-I Column-II
(2) Inhibits the release of growth hormone
(A) Electrical signals (1) Neuroglia (3) Inhibits the release of enzymes in the digestive
Bundles of nerve tract
(B) (2) Diffusion
fibres (4) Activates the release of enzymes pineal gland
(C) Packing cells (3) Nerve impulses 154. The ____(A)____ fibres do not innervate all cells
(D) Ion channels (4) Nerves of the body and cellular functions need to be
____(B)____ regulated. A special kind of
coordination and integration has to be provided.
A B C D This function is carried out by ____(C)____. Fill
(1) 1 4 1 3 in the blanks with appropriate combination of A,
(2) 1 3 4 2 B and C :
(3) 4 3 2 1 (1) A-muscle, B-continuously, C-hormones
(4) 3 4 1 2 (2) A-nerve, B-continuously, C-hormones
(3) A-nerve, B-continuously, C-enzymes
150. (I) GH (II) LTH
(4) A-muscle, B-continuously, C-enzymes
(III) TSH (IV) ACTH 155. (I) Non-nutrient
(V) LH (VI) Oxytocin (II) Intercellular messenger
Which of the above hormones are released by (III) Produced in trace amount
anterior lobe of pituitary ? (IV) Intracellular messenger
(1) I, II, III and VI Select the correct properties of hormones from
(2) III, IV, V and VI above list and then choose the option correct
combination :
(3) I, II, V and VI
(1) I, II and III (2) II, III and IV
(4) I, II, III, IV and V (3) I, II and IV (4) I, III and IV
151. In females the ____(A)____ induces the ovulation 156. Which is the organ in frog act as aquatic respiratory
of fully mature follicle called ____(B)____ and
organ?
maintain the ____(C)____ formed from remnants
(1) Lungs
of the Graffian's follicle after ovulation. Select the
correct combination in reference to the above (2) Buccopharyngeal cavity
given statement : (3) Skin
(1) A-LH, B-Graffian follicles, C-Pregnancy (4) Gills
(2) A-FSH, B-Graffian follicles, C-Corpus luteum 157. “Bidder’s canal” present in :-
(3) A-FSH, B-Graffian follicles, C-Pregnancy (1) Female frog
(4) A-LH, B-Graffian follicles, C-corpus luteum (2) Male frog
152. GnRH (Gondotropin Releasing Hormone) (3) Male cockroach
stimulates the : (4) Earthworm
(1) Adenohypophysis to release the gonadotropin 158. Heart of the cockroach present at the :-
(2) Neurohypophysis for synthesis and release of (1) Mid dorsal line of only thorax region
gonadotropin (2) Mid dorsal line of thorax & abdomen
(3) Testis to release the gonadotropin (3) Mid ventral line of only abdominal region
(4) Hypothalamus to release the gonadotropin (4) Mid ventral line of thorax & abdomen.
159. Development of “Periplaneta americana” is :- 163. In earthworm, ovaries are present in :-
(1) Holometabolous type. (1) 14th segment
(2) Hemimetabolous type. (2) 13th segment
(3) Ametabolous type. (3) 10th & 11th segments
(4) Paurometabolous type.
(4) 12th segment
160. Vision of cockroach is :-
164. Which one is not true fish?
(1) Mosaic vision (2) Acute vision
(1) Fighting fish
(3) Binocular vision (4) Telescopic vision
161. Given below the diagram shows alimentary canal (2) Dog fish
of cockroach in which some parts are labelled (3) Rat fish
through A, B, C and D. Find out the correct (4) Hag fish
labelling on different parts & select the correct 165. In which phylum adult shows radial symmetry
option ? while their larva shows bilateral symmetry?
(1) Coelenterata
(2) Mollusca
B (3) Echinodermata
C (4) Ctenophora
A
166. Which is the chordate animal who have only
single fundamental chordate character during their
D adult stage while remaining fundamental features
are disappeared during metamorphosis?
A B C D
(1) Amphioxus
Intestinal (2) Balanoglossus
(1) Stomach Mesentron Ileum
Caeca
(3) Petromyzon
Hepatic (4) Ascidia
(2) Crop Gizzard Colon
caeca 167. Identify the given figure and select the correct
Gastric option?
(3) Gizzard Crop Ileum
Caeca
Intestinal
(4) Crop Mesentron Colon
Caeca
162. “Typhlosole” of earthworm are similar to :- Options :-

(1) Contractile vacuole of Amoeba (1) Hemidactylus : Reptiles and Homeothermal animal
(2) Villi of small intestine in human alimentary (2) Salamandra : Amphibian and cold blooded animal
canal.
(3) Hemidactylus : Reptiles and having dicondylic skull
(3) Hepatic caeca of cockroach.
(4) Salamandra : Amphibian and having monocondylic
(4) Malpighian tubules of cockroach.
skull
168. Which is not correct option about flat worms? 175. When any plane passing through the central axis
(1) Most of the flat worms are endoparasite of of the body, divides the organism into two
vertebrates along with human and causes identical halves". This property of animal is called
parasitic infestation. as ........ [A] and found in [B]. What are A & B?
(2) Flat worm like "Taenia" has incomplete (1) A = Bilateral symmetry; B = Coelenterata
alimentary canal and has flame cells as (2) A = Radial symmetry; B = Ctenophora
respiratory organ. (3) A = Radial symmetry; B = Annelida
(3) They are dorso-ventrally flattened and (4) A = Asymmetry; B = Porifera
acoelomate animals. 176. Identify the given figure and select the correct
(4) Mostly are monoecious and their development option?
is through many Larval form.
169. Cnidoblast cells are characteristic cells of :-
(1) Obelia (2) Pleurobrachia
(3) Leucosolenia (4) Pheretima
170. Which one is not a subphylum of chordata?
(1) Hemichordata (2) Urochordata Options :-
(3) Cephalochordata (4) Vertebrata (1) Pseudocoelom :- Arthropoda
171. Which one is not the adaptation of hind-limbs in (2) Acoelom :- Platyhelminthes
birds? (3) Coelom :- Chordates
(1) Perching (2) Swimming (4) Pseudocoelom :- Aschelminthes
(3) Walking (4) Flying 177. Metameric segmentation is characteristic property
172. Select the correct matched pair? of :-
(1) Chameleon Tree Lizard Reptilia. (1) Earthworm (2) Roundworm
(2) Neophron Ostrich Aves. (3) Flatworm (4) Jelly fish
(3) Gorgonia Sea-pen Porifera. 178. Which is not the function of water canal system
(4) Ancylostoma Hookworm Platyhelminthes. in sponges?
173. Read the following features :- (1) Food gathering.
(a) Ventral mouth. (2) Respiratory exhange.
(b) Cartilagenous endoskeleton. (3) Circulation of different substances in various
(c) Placoid scales present. parts of body.
(d) Lateral line receptor system present. (4) Removal of waste.
(e) Clasper's present. 179. Select the dioecious animal ?
(f) Notochord is persistent. (1) Pheretima (2) Taenia
(3) Ascaris (4) Sycon
How many features are correct for "Torpedo"?
180. What is "Radula"?
(1) Four (2) Five (3) All (4) only two
(1) It is Masticatory organ in Molluscs.
174. Tissue level of Body organisation is found in:-
(2) It is rasping organ in mollusca.
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Coelentrata
(3) It is masticatory organ in sea urchin.
(3) Porifera (4) Aschelminthes
(4) It is respiratory organ of molluscs.
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Test Pattern

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)

Form Number : in figures

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

velocity of the particle is equal to The expression for this wave is

(1) 60 cm/sec (2) 30 cm/sec (1) y (x, t) = 0.5 sin (2 x – 4 t)

+A 20°C and boiling point as 150°C, how much

(1) (2) (a) (b)

(3) (c) (d)

(3) (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3

Nurture - MNB 1001CMD300119036

66. Which is strongest base :- (2)

NO2 (4) All of these

72. Total no. of electrophile present here is/are :- (2) OH

(3) SO2 (4) NO2

108. Which of following structures are includes in

(4) Both (1) & (2) Granular bodies found in

162. “Typhlosole” of earthworm are similar to :- Options :-

Nurture - MNB 1001CMD300119036

4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

Nurture - MNB 1001CMD300119036

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