Test Pattern

(1001CMD300119040) )1//1CMD3//119/4/)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MINOR
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020) 05-01-2020
PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE (PHASE : MNB)
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Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

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TOPIC : Fluid Mechanics, Wave Theory and Doppler’s Effect.
1. Two bodies of mass 2kg and 3 kg collide head on 6. A bullet of mass m is fired into a block of wood
as shown ; of mass M which hangs on the end of pendulum
and gets embedded into it. When the bullet strikes
3m/s 2m/s 3
2 kg 3 kg e= the wooden block. the pendulum starts to swing
5
with maximum rise R. Then, the velocity of the
If V1 and V2 are final velocities of 2 kg and 3 kg bullet is :-
respectively, the which of the following is correct:
(a) V1 = 1.8 (Right wards) M M+m
(1) 2gR (2) 2gR
(b) V2 = 1.2 (Right wards) m+M m
(c) V1 = 1.8 (Left wards)
M
(d) V2 = 1.2 (Left wards) (3) 2gR (4) None of these
m
(1) a, b (2) a, d (3) b, c (4) c, d
7. A body of mass 1 kg initially at rest, explodes and
2. Consider the situation as shown in the diagram, the
breaks into three fragments of masses in the ratio
wall strikes the stationary ball normally and collision
1 : 1 : 3. The two pieces of equal mass fly off
is elastic, velocity of ball after collision is :
perpendicular to each other, with a speed of 15 m/s
10 m/s
each. The speed of the heavier fragment is :-
(1) 5 2m s–1 (2) 45 m s–1
1kg
(3) 5 m s–1 (4) 15 m s–1
rest 8. Three particles of masses 1 kg, 2 kg and 3 kg are
(1) 10 m/s (2) 15 m/s ( ) (
subjected to forces 3iˆ - 2ˆj + 2kˆ N , -ˆi + 2ˆj + kˆ N)
(3) 20 m/s (4) None of these
3. A ball is dropped from a height 'h'. As it bounces ( )
and 4iˆ + 6ˆj + 3kˆ N respectively. The magnitude of
off the floor, its speed is 80 percent of what it was
acceleration of the centre of mass of the system
just before it hit the floor. The ball will then rise is :-
to a height of most nearly :
(1) 0.8 h (2) 0.75 h (3) 0.64 h (4) 0.50 h (1) 13 m/s2 (2) 13 3 m/s2
4. One particle moving with velocity v is space, gets (3) (4) 15 m/s2
3 m/s2
burst into 2 parts of masses in the ratio
9. A rigid body consists of a 5 kg mass connected
1 : 3. The smaller part becomes stationary. What
to a 10 kg mass by a massless rod. The 5 kg mass
is the velocity of the other part ?
r
is located at r1 = (3iˆ + 4ˆj) m and the 10 kg mass at
4v 3v
(1) 4v (2) v (3) (4) r
3 4 r2 = (4iˆ + 3j)
ˆ m. Find the coordinates of the centre
5. A bullet of mass m and velocity v is fired into a
of mass.
block of mass M and sticks to it. The final velocity
of the system equals :- æ 11 10 ö
(1) (11, 10) (2) ç 3 , 3 ÷
M m è ø
(1) .v (2) .v
m+M m+M
æ 11 10 ö
m+M (3) ç 15 , 15 ÷ (4) (3, 4)
(3) .v (4) None of these è ø
m
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10. A uniform sheet is shown below. If the shaded area 15. A ball rises to surface at a constant velocity in
is removed find new position of centre of mass. liquid whose density is 4 times than that of the
a material of the ball. The ratio of the force of friction
acting on the rising ball and its weight is :
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 4
16. If the difference between pressure inside and outside
of a soap bubble is 6 mm of water and its radius is
2a 8 mm. What is the surface tension in dynes per cm.
O
(1) 117.6 (2) 256 (3) 378 (4) 450
17. The excess pressure inside an air bubble of radius r
just below the surface of water is p1. The excess
2a pressure inside a drop of the same radius just outside
a a a a the surface is p2. If T is surface tension, then
(1) + (2) - (3) + (4) - (1) p1 = 2p2 (2) p1 = p2
6 6 3 3
11. Find the position of centre of mass from the base (3) p2 = 2p1 (4) p2 = 0, p1 ¹ 0
of a uniform solid cone of height 20 cm. 18. Two soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 equal to 4cm
20 and 5 cm are touching each other over a common
(1) 5 cm (2) cm surface S1S2 (shown in figure). Its radius will be:
3
(3) 12 cm (4) lie outside the cone S1
4cm 5cm
12. Two blocks A and B are joined together with a
compressed spring. When the system is released, S2
the two blocks appear to be moving with unequal (1) 4 cm. (2) 20 cm. (3) 5 cm. (4) 4.5 cm.
speeds in opposite directions as shown in figure. 19. Two small drops of mercury, each of radius R,
Select the correct statement : coalesce to form a single large drop. The ratio of the
10m/s
10 m/s 15m/s
15 m/s
total surface energies before and after the change is:-
K=500Nm -1
K = 500 Nm –1 (1) 1 : 21/3 (2) 21/3 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
A B 20. Work done in forming a soap bubble of radius R
(1) The centre of mass of the system will remain is W. Then workdone is forming a soap bubble of
stationary. radius '2R' will be :
(2) Mass of block A is equal to that of block B. (1) 2W (2) 4W (3) W/2 (3) W/4
(3) The centre of mass of the system will move 21. Area of liquid film is 6 × 10 cm and surface
2

towards right. tension is T = 20 dyne/cm, what is the work done

(4) It is an impossible physical situation. to change area up to 12 × 10 cm2 :
(1) 120 joule (2) 120 erg (3) 1200 joule (4) 2400 erg
13. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius R,
22. Surface tension of a liquid is 5 N/m. If its thin film
one end of which has n fine holes, each of radius r.
is made in a ring of area 0.02 m2, then its surface
If the speed of the liquid in the tube is V, the speed
energy will be -
of the ejection of the liquid through the holes is :-
(1) 5× 10 –2 Joule (2) 2.5 × 10–2 Joule
V2R VR 2 VR 2 VR 2 (3) 3 × 10 Joule
–1
(4) 2 × 10–1 Joule
(1) (2) (3) (4)
nr n2r 2 nr 2 n3 r 2 23. In a surface tension experiment with a capillary
14. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from tube water rises up to 0.1 m. If the same
(4 cm × 2 cm) to (5 cm × 4 cm). If the work done experiment is repeated on an artificial satellite
is 3 × 10–4 J, the value of the surface tension of which is revolving round the earth, water will rise
the liquid is :- in the capillary tube up to a height of
(1) 0.2 Nm–1 (2) 0.125 N.m (1) 0.1 m (2) 0.98 m
(3) 0.250 Nm–1 (4) 0.125 Nm–1 (3) 9.8 m (4) full length of capillary tube
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24. Two rain drops falling through air have radii in the 31. The displacement-time graphs for two sound
ratio 1:2. They will have terminal velocity in the ratio. waves A and B are shown in the figure, then the
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 ratio of their intensities IA/IB is equal to :-
25. An object of weight W and density r is submerged
in a fluid of density r1 . Its appearent weight will be 2
A
1
( r - r1 ) B
(1) W (r - r1 ) (2) 0
W
æ r ö –1 C
(3) W ç1 - 1 ÷ (4) W( r1 - r)
è rø
–2
26. A liquid does not wet the sides of a solid, if the
angle of contact is :
(1) Zero (2) Obtuse (more than 90°) (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 16 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1
(3) Acute (less than 90°) (4) 90° 32. Two pulses are traveling along a string in opposite
27. A capillary tube is filled with liquid upto a vertical directions towards each other as shown in the
height of 50 cm. The reading of length of water when figure. If the wave velocity is 2 cm/s and the pulses
the capillary tube is tilted to an angle of 45° is : are 6 cm apart, then after 1.5 sec, the energy stored
in the string will be (Assume shapes of pulses to
(1) 50 cm (2) 50 2cm
be similar) :-
(3) Zero (4) None of these
28. If work done in stretching a wire by 1 mm is 2J,
the work necessary for stretching another wire of
same material, but with double the radius and half
the length by 1 mm is : 6 cm
(1) 1/4 J (2) 4J (3) 8J (4) 16J
(1) Kinetic energy only
29. A solid sphere of radius 5 cm floats in water. If
(2) Potential energy only
a maximum mass of 0.1 kg can be put on it without
(3) Kinetic energy as well as potential energy
wetting the load, find the specific gravity of the
(4) None of these
material of the sphere (Take p » 3 )
33. In a stationary wave all the particles :-
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.4 (3) 0.8 (4) 0.5
(1) On either side of a node vibrate in same phase.
30. The diagram below shows an instantaneous
(2) In the region between two nodes vibrate in
position of a string as a transverse progressive wave
same phase.
travels along it from left to right :-
(3) In the region between two antinodes vibrate
1 2 3
in same phase.
Which one of the following correctly shows the (4) Of the medium vibrate in same phase.
direction of the velocity of the points 1, 2 and 3 34. Which two of the given transverse waves will give
on the string ? stationary waves when get superimposed?
1 2 3 z1 = a cos(kx – wt)
(1) ® ® ® z2 = a cos(kx + wt)
(2) ® ¬ ® z3 = a cos(ky – wt)
(3) ¯ ¯ ¯ (1) A and B (2) A and C
(4) ¯ ­ ¯ (3) B and C (4) Any two

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35. A wave represented by the given equation 41. A glass tube 1.5 m long and open at both ends, is
y = a cos(kx – wt) is superposed with another wave immersed vertically in a water tank completely. A
to form a stationary wave such that the point tuning fork of 660 Hz is vibrated and kept at the
x = 0 is a node. The equation for the other wave is:- upper end of the tube and the tube is gradually
(1) y = a sin(kx + wt) (2) y = – a cos(kx + wt) raised out of water. The total number of resonances
heard before the tube comes out of water, taking
(3) y = – cos(kx – wt) (4) y = – a sin(kx – wt)
velocity of sound air 330 m/sec is:-
36. The particle displacement (in cm) in a stationary
(1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 4
wave is given by y(x, t) = 2sin(0.1px) cos(100 pt). 42. An observer approaches towards a stationary
The distance between a node and the next source of sound at constant velocity and recedes
antinode is :- away at the same speed. The graph of wavelength
(1) 2.5 cm (2) 7.5 cm observed with time is :-
(3) 5 cm (4) 10 cm l l
37. Equation of a standing wave is generally
expressed as y = 2A sin wt cos kx. In the equation,
(1) (2)
w
quantity represents :- t t
k
l l
(1) the transverse speed of the particles of the
string
(2) the speed of either of the component waves (3) (4)
(3) the speed of the standing wave t t
(4) a quantity that is independent of the properties 43. With that velocity an observer should move
of the string relative to a stationary source so that he hears a
38. A tuning fork vibrating with a sonometer having sound of double the frequency of source?
20 cm wire produces 5 beats per second. The beat (1) Velocity of sound towards the source
frequency does not change if the length of the wire (2) Velocity of sound away from the source
is changed to 21 cm. the frequency of the tuning (3) Half the velocity of sound towards the source
(4) Double the velocity of sound towards the source.
fork (in Hertz) must be :-
44. A small source of sound moves on a circle as
(1) 200 (2) 210 (3) 205 (4) 215
shown in the figure and an observer is standing on
39. A wire of length l having tension T and radius r
O. Let n1 , n2 and n3 be the frequencies heard when
vibrates with fundamental frequency f. Another the source is at A, B and C respectively. Then:-
wire of the same metal with length 2l having B
tension 2T and radius 2r will vibrate with C
fundamental frequency :-
A
f f
(1) f (2) 2f (3) (4) 2
2 2 2 (1) n1 > n2 > n3 (2) n2 > n3 > n1
(3) n1 = n2 > n3 (4) n2 > n1 > n3
40. Two closed organ pipes, when sounded
45. A source of sound of frequency 256 Hz is moving
simultaneously gave 4 beats per sec. If longer
rapidly towards a wall with a velocity of 5m/s. The
pipe has a length of 1m. Then length of shorter speed of sound is 330 m/s. If the observer is
pipe will be, (v = 300 m/s) between the wall and the source, then beats per
(1) 185.5 cm (2) 94.9 cm second heard will be :-
(3) 90 cm (4) 80 cm (1) 7.8 Hz (2) 7.7 Hz (3) 3.9 Hz (4) Zero
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TOPIC : G.O.C-II, EAR to Elimination.

CH=CH2
A
46. ¾¾¾¾¾
(i)BH3 /THF
(ii)H2 O2 / – OH
® Major product: æ Mononitration ö
50. ¾¾¾¾¾®
Nitrating mixture
ç ÷
è product ø

CH2– CH2 CH–CH3 Find correct statement :

(1) OH (2) OH (1) Product A is more reactive than benzene toward
ESR
(2) Product A is less reactive than benzene toward
CH2–CH3 CH2–CH3 ESR
(3) OH (4) (3) Product A is equal reactive to benzene toward
ESR
(4) Can not be predicted
47. Ph – CH = C – CH3 ¾¾¾
HCl
CCl4
® Major product :
51. Which reaction is not correct :
CH3
(1) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 ¾¾¾ ®
HBr
CCl4

Cl Cl H
CH3– CH – CH2 – CH3
(1) Ph – CH2 – C – CH3 (2) Ph – CH – C – CH3
Br
CH3 CH3
Cl
Cl
(2) ¾¾¾¾®Cl2

(3) Ph – CH2 – CH – CH3 (4) Ph – CH2 – CH – CH2 anhyd.AlCl3

CH3 CH3
NO 2 NO2
48. CH3 – CH = CH2 ¾¾¾ A
® (Major) ¾¾¾
HBrreagent
®
(3) ¾¾¾¾®
CH3 –Cl
anhyd.AlCl3
CH3 – CH = CH2 CH3
Identify the reagent which can be used here:
(4) All are correct
(1) Aq.KOH (2) CCl4
52. Total number of compound which have
(3) alc.KOH (4) All of these deactivating group toward ESR are :
OH
OH NO 2 Cl Å CH3
NH 3
+
H /D
49. ¾¾¾ ®(A) ¾¾¾¾®
CH 3 –Cl
(B) , Product B is :
anhyd.AlCl3
, , , ,

(1) Benzene (2) Toluene

(3) Cummene (4) Phenol (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2

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BH3/THF CH2
53. CH3 – C º CH – (A)
H2O2/OH
57. ¾¾¾
HOCl
® Major product :
Å
H2O/H
+2 (B)
Hg
Product (A) & (B) are : CH2– OH CH2– Cl
(1) Position isomer (2) Chain isomer Cl OH
(3) Functional isomer (4) Metamer
54. Most reactive towards N.A.R. is : (1) (2)
O
O C–H
O CH2– Cl
(1) CH3– C – H (2)

(3) (4)
O
O
C– Ph
C–CH3
(3) (4) CH3

+
58. ¾¾¾
H /H2 O
¾® Major product :
CH3

55. ¾¾¾
Cl2 /hn
® Major product : -
CH3 CH3
OH OH
CH2 – Cl CH3
Cl (1) (2)

(1) (2)
CH3 CH2 – OH
CH3 CH3
Cl
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
OH

Cl CHO
56. CH º C – CH3 ¾¾¾¾ ® Pr oduct
BD3 /THF
–
H 2O2 /O H (Major) 59.
CO+ HCl
¾¾¾¾® , This reaction is
anhyd.AlCl3

O O
(1) CH3 – C – CH3 (2) CH2 – C – CH3 known as :
D (1) Gatterman aldehyde synthesis
O O (2) Gatterman koch synthesis
(3) H – C – CH – CH3 (4) H – C – CH2 – CH3 (3) Reed reaction
D (4) Wurtz reaction
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Ph – CH = CH – CH 3 ¾¾¾¾¾¾®
(CH COO) Hg/H O
Cl 64. 3 2
NaBD4
2
Major
60. CH3 – CH – CH – CH3 ¾¾¾¾
alc.KOH
D
® Major product product :-
CH3 (1) Ph – CH – CH – CH3
OH H
(1) CH3 – CH – CH = CH2 (2) Ph – CH – CH – CH3
CH3 H OH
(3) Ph – CH – CH – CH3
(2) CH3 – C = CH – CH3
OH D
CH 3
(4) Ph – CH – CH – CH3

OH D OH
65. Propyne react with hypochlorous acid to give
(3) CH3 – CH – CH – CH3
major product as :
CH3
O O
(1) CH3 – C – CHCl2 (2) CH3 – C – CH2Cl
(4) CH2 = C – CH2 – CH3
CH3 O Cl O
(3) CH3 – CH – C – H (4) CH3 – C – C – H
CH3 Cl Cl
H+ /D
61. OH ¾¾¾
® Major product : 66. Most reactive towards E.A.R. is :
(1) CH3 – CH = CH2
CH2 CH3 (2) CH 3 – CH =CH – CH3

(1) (2) (3) CH3 – C = CH – CH3

CH3
CH3 CH3 (4) CH 2 = CH2
(3) (4) 4 3
EÅ ® EÅ will attack at which position:
67. 5 2 ¾¾¾
O
CH3 – CH 2 – CH – CH3 ¾¾¾¾ ® Major product:
alc.KOH
62. D 1
F (1) 1 or 3 (2) 2 or 3 (3) 3 or 4 (4) 2 or 5
(1) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 68. Most reactive toward E–1 reaction is :
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2 OH OH
(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
(4) CH3 – CH 2 – CH – CH3 (1) (2)
OH
OH
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – C º CH ¾¾¾ ® Major product :
HBr
63. R 2O 2 CH2–OH
(1) Vicinal Bromide (2) Geminal Bromide (3) (4)
(3) Alcohol (4) Alkane
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alc.KOH 74. Most acidic compound :-
69. CH3 – CH2 – CH – Cl CH3 – CH = CH
Cl reagent Cl OH COOH
CH3–CºCH
NO2
Best reagent used in above reaction is :
(1) (2)
(1) alc.NaOH (2) alc.KOH
(3) alc.NaNH 2 (4) Aq.KOH
NO2
Ph – CH = CH2 ¾¾¾ ® Major product :
HBr
70. R 2O 2

COOH COOH
(1) Ph – CH – CH 3 (2) Ph – CH2 – CH2
HO OH OH
Br Br (3) (4)
(3) Ph – CH2 – CH3 (4) Ph – C º CH
71. Most stable compound :
75. Total number of compound which can show
1 1
(1) CH3 – C H 2 (2) CH2 – CH2 tautomerism are :
NO2 O O
O
1 1
(3) CH3 - O (4) CH3 – N H CH3 – C – CH 3 , , ,
72. Most stable carbocation is : CH3
CH3 CH 3
Å
Å
CH2
CH2 O
O
(1) (2)
,
Cl
CH – CH3

Å Å
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2
CH2 CH2 76. In which compound resonance is absent :
Å
NH3
(3) (4)
(1) (2)
CH2 – OH CH3

73. Least basic compound is : O

Å
NH2 (3) CH2 – C – H (4) All of these
77. Most stable carbocation is :
(1) (2) Å Å
N (1) CH3 – CH2 (2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2
CH3
O Å Å
(3) CH3 – CH – CH2 (4) CH3 – C – CH2
(3) (4)
N N–H CH3 CH3
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78. In which carbocation rearrangement is not done: 84. What will be the entropy change for melting of 10g
Å
CH 2 – CH – CH3 Cal
H2O(s)? If enthalpy of fusion of ice is 80 :-
g
(1)
Cal
(1) 12.25 Cal (2) -12.25
Å K K
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2
Cal Cal
(3) -2.93 (4) 2.93
Å K K
(3) 85. For a reaction enthalpy change and entropy
change are 20 KJ and 30 J/K respectively. The
CH3 reaction will be spontaneous at :-
(1) 666.67 K
(4) Å (2) T > 666.67 K
(3) T < 666.67 K
(4) Always spontaneous
79. In which of the following entropy of system always 86. At 298, for the reaction
decreases. 2A(g) + B(g) ® 2C(g)
(1) Reversible adiabatic process If DU = –10KJ mol –1 and DS = –45 JK–1mol–1
(2) Cyclic process The value of DG will be :-
(3) Nonspontaneous process (1) –25890 Jmol–1 (2) 2000 Jmol –1
–1
(4) Isothermal compression of ideal gas (3) 930 Jmol (4) 8500 Jmol –1
80. Which of the following is an intensive property. 87. For which of the following reaction heat of
(1) Internal energy (2) Entropy reaction is equal to heat of formation of CO2(g) :-
(3) Pressure (4) Enthalpy (1) Cgraphite + O2(g) ® CO2(g)
81. 1 mole of an ideal gas absorb 100 J heat and (2) Cdiamond + O2(g) ® CO2(g)
expands by 2m3 against constant external pressure 1
of 10 N/m2. Change in internal energy of gas will (3) CO(g) + O2(g) ® CO 2(g )
2
be:-
(4) All of the above
(1) 80 J (2) 60 J
88. If heat of formation of CO2 is –393.5 kJ and heat
(3) 0 J (4) 100 J
of combustion of CO(g) is –290 kJ. Then heat of
82. If 20 kCal heat is released during combustion of
formation of CO(g) will be :-
2 mole liquid benzene at constant volume.
(1) –103.5 kJ (2) –93.5 kJ
Calculate heat of combustion at constant pressure
(3) –113.5 kJ (4) –683.5 kJ
and 27ºC.
89. Enthalpy change for the reaction of 1 mole H2SO4
kCal kCal with 1 mole NaOH will be :-
(1) -10.9 (2) -20.9
mol mol (1) –114.4 kJ (2) –57.2 kJ
(3) –55 kJ (4) –38.1 kJ
kCal kCal 90. If bond energies are :-
(3) -25.6 (4) -15.9
mol mol NºN = a H–H = b N–H = C
83. If 20 J heat is required to raise the temperature of Then enthalpy of formation of NH3(g) will be :-
1 mole H 2 gas by 1ºC, at constant pressure. 3c - a - 3b
Calculate DU when 10g H2 is heated from 10ºC (1) a + 3b – c (2)
2
to 20ºC.
(1) 100 J (2) 585 J 6c - a - 3b a + 3b - 6c
(3) (4)
(3) 365 J (4) 698 J 2 2
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TOPIC : Plant morphology, Anatomy, Movement & Locomotion, Endocrine system, Sense organs.
91. Select the incorrect option for different type of roots? 98. In which of following plant, the leaves are small
(1) Fibrous root - Wheat and short-lived. The petiole expand, become green
(2) Adventitious root - Monstera and synthesise food ?
(3) Tap root - Mustard (1) Australian acacia (2) Opuntia
(4) Fibrous root - Sugarbeet (3) Asparagus (4) Citrus
92. Which of following is not correct for offset ?
(1) Organ of perennation
(2) Presence of rosette of leaves
(3) Presence of tuft of roots
99.
(4) Aquatic runner
93. Stem is highly reduced, disc like and surrounded
by numerous fleshy leaves. Such type of stems are?
(1) Tuber (2) Corm (3) Bulb (4) Rhizome (a) (b)
Identify the given diagrame and select the correct
94. option from the following table :-
(a) (b)
(1) China rose, lemon Mustard, Argenome
(2) Dianthus, Primrose China rose, tomato
(3) Mustard, Argemone Dianthus, primrose
(4) Potato, Lily Grass, marigold
100. Which of the following is edible underground
fruit ?
(1) Carrot (2) Potato
Find out incorrect option in respect of given diagrame? (3) Groundnut (4) All
(1) Presence of lenticels 101. Å + K(5)C(5) A5 G(2)
(2) Found in swampy area
(3) Respiratory adventitious roots Which of following plants group are expressed that
(4) Modified roots which are negatively geotropic type of floral formula ?
95. How many plants in the list given below have (1) Petunia, Sesbania (2) Makoi, Petunia
(3) Lupin, Tulip (4) Aloe, Tulip
epigynous flower ?
Guava, rose, mustard, mango, apple, plum, peach,
china rose, cucumber.
(1) Five (2) Two (3) Four (4) Three
96. If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one
102.
another but not in any particular direction, then
such type of aestivation is known as ?
(1) Twisted (2) Imbricate
(3) Valvate (4) Vexillary
97. Formation of staminal tube in flower of china rose,
Which of following character can not be
is due to ?
distinguish by using above diagrame ?
(1) Adhesion of stamens
(1) Two anterior petals are fused with each other
(2) Placentation (2) Diapelphous condition of stamens
(3) Cohesion of stamens (3) Bisexual and zygomorphic symmetry
(4) Aestivation (4) Fruit legume and seeds non-endospermic
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103. Which of following is not a character of members
of liliaceae family ?
(1) Parallel venation (2) Presence of perianth
(3) Adventitious roots (4) Secondary growth
104. Phylloclade is differ from phyllode in having of ?
(1) Photosynthetic properties
(2) Modification of stem
(3) Underground stem modification
(4) Xerophytic character
105.
Identify the given diagramatic sketch and select
the correct option about them ?
(1) Presence of leaflets
(2) a bud is present in the axil of petiole in both
type of leaf
(3) Present in neem and silkcotton
(4) All
106. Which of following is not correct for venation ?
(1) Act as channels of transport for water minerals
and food materials
(2) Provide rigidity to the leaf blade
(3) Veinlets present in parallel venation
(4) Reticulate venation is usually found in dicots
107. In which of following inflorescence bisexual
flowers are present ?
(1) Capitulum (2) Cyathium
(3) Hypanthodium (4) All
108. How many statements are correct for euphorbia ?
(i) Presence of cylindrical phylloclade.
(ii) Cyathium infloresence.
(iii) Presence of complete flowers.
(iv) Ratio of male and female flowers are one :
many respectively.
Options :-
(1) i, ii, iii (2) i, iii, iv (3) i, ii (4) ii, iv
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109. Å + K2+2C4A2+4G(2)
Which of following character can not distinguish
by using above floral formula ?
(1) Cohesion of carpels
(2) Complete flower
(3) Placentation
(4) Position of ovary
110. Trimerous flower and parallel venation present in ?
(1) Tulip and Gloriosa
(2) Brinjal and Petunia
(3) Trifolium and Sesbania
(4) Mustard and Capsella
111. Find out incorrect match pair :-
(1) C1+2+(2) - Descending imbricate
(2) A(9)+1 - Diadelphous condition
(3) K2+2 - Polysepalous
(4) P(3+3)A3+3 - Polyadelphous condition
112. Date palm and betelnut are example of ?
(1) Drupe fruits
(2) Single seeded berry fruits
(3) Multiseeded berry fruits
(4) Seedless fruits
113. A lateral branch with short internode and each
node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots
are found in aquatic plants like :-
(1) Pistia (2) Eichhornia
(3) Wolffia (4) Both (1) and (2)
114. Select the incorrect matching from the following :-
(1) Thorn - Citrus, bougainvillea
(2) Flattened stem - Opuntia
(3) Underground stem - Turmeric
(4) Stem tendril - Colocasia
115. Which of the following is false for vexillary or
papilionaceous aestivation ?
(1) Two smallest anterior petals are known as keel
(2) Two lateral petals are present known as wing
(3) The largest standard petal is posterior
(4) The largest standard petal is anterior and
overlaps wing
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116. The plumule and radicle in monocot seed are 122. Cambium, which produces cork, is known as ?
enclosed in sheaths which are called___and
(1) Phelloderm (2) Phellogen
___respectively:-
(1) Coleoptile and scutellum (3) Periblem (4) Periderm
(2) Scutellum and coleorhiza 123. A narrow layer of thin walled cells found between
(3) Coleoptile and coleorhiza phloem/bark and wood of a dicot is :-
(4) Coleorhiza and coleoptile
(1) Cork cambium (2) Vascular cambium
117. Identify A, B and C in the following figure :-
A B (3) Endodermis (4) Pericycle
124. The middle layer of hyman eye, choroid contains
...A... and looks ...B... in colour.

C Choose the correct option for A,B.

(1) A-Plumule, B-Cotyledon, C-Radicle (1) A-blood vessels, B-bluish
(2) A-Radicle, B-Cotyledon, C-Plumule
(3) A-Cotyledon, B-Plumule, C-Radicle (2) A-connective tissue, B-redish
(4) A-Radicle, B-Plumule, C-Cotyledon (3) A-bipolar cells, B-blackish
118. The meristem that occurs in the mature regions of
(4) A-muscle fibre, B-brownish
roots and shoots of many plants, particularly those
that produce woody axis and appear later than 125. Which of the following statements are correct for iris?
primary meristem is called :- I. The retina extends forward to form iris.
(1) Intercalary meristem
(2) Apical meristem II. It is pigmented and opaque structure.
(3) Secondary or lateral meristem III. It is the visible coloured portion of the eye.
(4) All of these
(1) I and II (2) I and III
119. A simple mechanical tissue devoid of lignin is ?
(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma (3) II and III (4) I, II and III
(3) Sclerenchyma (4) Chlorenchyma 126. Arrange the layers of cells in retina of human eye
120. Select the incorrect statement from the following:- from inside to outside.
(1) End walls of sieve tube have sieve plates
(1) Photoreceptor cells ® ganglion cells ®bipolar cells
(2) Sieve tube and companion cells are connected
(3) Companion cells are specialized parenchymatous (2) Ganglion cells ® Photoreceptor cells ® bipolar cells
cell having nucleus which controls the function (3) Ganglion cells ® bipolar cells ® Photoreceptor cells
of sieve tubes
(4) Bipolar cells ® Photoreceptor cells ® Ganglion cells
(4) Phloem parenchyma is present in most of the
monocots 127. Which of the following is not correct for rods?
121. When xylem and phloem are separated by a strip I. Twilight vision is the function of the rods.
of cambium, it is called ?
II. It is responsible for daylight vision.
(1) Collateral and open
(2) Collateral and closed III. The rods contain a protein called rhodopsin.
(3) Bicollateral and closed (1) Only I (2) Only II
(4) Concentric and closed (3) I and III (4) II and III
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128. The sensations of different colours in human eye
is produced due to the combination of:-
(1) rods and their photopigments
(2) red and blue lights
(3) cones and their photopigments
(4) red and green lights
129. Following are the steps of mechanism of vision in
random order.
I. Neural impulses are analysed and image formed
on retina is recognised by visual cortex.
II. Membrane permeability changes.
III. Ganglion cells are excited.
IV. Bipolar cells are depolarised.
V. Action potential (impulse) is transmitted by
optic nerves to visual cortex.
VI. Potential differences are generated in the
photoreceptor cells.
VII. Light energy causes a change in shape of
rhodopsin, leading to the dissociation of retinal (an
aldehyde of vitamin-A) from opsin (a protein)
VIII.Structure of opsin is changed.
Choose the correct sequence.
(1) I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII
(2) VIII, VII, VI, V, IV, III, II, I
(3) I, IV, III, II, VII, VIII, VI, V
(4) VII, VIII, II, VI, IV, III, V, I
130. Middle ear of humans contains ossicles, i.e.,
(1) Malleus (2) incus
(3) stapes (4) All of these
131. Scala vestibuli, scala media and scala tympani of
human ear contains:-
(1) perilymph, endolymph and perilymph respectively
(2) endolymph, perilymph and endolymph respectively
(3) perilymph, endolymph and endolymph respectively
(4) perilymph, haemolymph and endolymph
respectively
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132. Arrange the following events in a correct order that
lead to the formation of an auditory impulse in
human ears from the codes given
I. Vibration is transferred from the malleus to the
incus and then to stapes.
II. Basiliar membrane moves up and down.
III. Nerve impulse is transmitted by cochlear nerve
to auditory cortex of brain for impulse analysis
and recognition.
IV. Sound waves pass through ear canal.
V. Stereocilia of hair cells of organ of corti rub
against tectorial membrane.
VI. Sound waves causes ear drum to vibrate.
VII. Nerve impulse is generated.
VIII. Vibrations move from fluid of vestibular
canal to the fluid of tymapanic canal.
IX. Membrane at oval window vibrates.
Codes
(1) IV, VI, I, IX, VIII, II, V, VII, III
(2) I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX
(3) IX, VIII, VII, VI, V, IV, III, II, I
(4) IV, VI, I, VIII, IX, V, VII, III
133. The thyroid gland is composed of ...A... lobes
which are located on either side of the ...B... the
lobes are interconnected with a thin flap of
connective tissue called ...C... .
Select the correct combination for A, B and C.
(1) A-3, B-trachea, C-isthmus
(2) A-4, B-traches, C-isthmus
(3) A-2, B-trachea, C-isthmus
(4) A-1, B-trachea, C-isthmus
134. T3 and T4 hormones are synthesised by:-
(1) follicles (2) Parofollicular cells
(3) isthmus (4) Both (1) and (3)
135. I. Hypothyroidism causes irregularity of menstrual
cycle.
II. Hyperthyroidism adversely affects the body
physiology.
III. Hypothyroidism cause cretinism.
IV. Hypothyroidism causes ex-opthalmic goitre.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Choose the correct option.
(1) III and IV (2) I, II and IV
(3) I, II and III (4) All of these
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136. PTH is a :- 142. The Leydig cells or ...A... cells which are present
(1) hypercalcemic hormone in ...B... . Spaces produce a group of hormone
(2) hypocalcemic hormone called androgens mainly ...C... .
(3) endothermic hormone
(4) exothermic hormone Choose the correct option for A, B and C.
137. The thymus gland is a lobular structure located on the (1) A-intrastitial cells, B-intratubular spaces,
...A... side of the ...B... and aorta. The thymus plays C-testosterone
a significant role in the development ...C... system.
Choose the correct combination of A, B and C. (2) A-sertoli cells, B-intratubular spaces,
(1) A-ventral, B-heart, C-immune C-testosterone
(2) A-lateral, B-kidney, C-circulatory (3) A-intrastitial cells, B-intratubular spaces,
(3) A-dorsal, B-heart, C-immune C-estrogen
(4) A-dorsal, B-parathyroid, C-circulatory
138. Major roles of thymus gland to provide:- (4) A-interstitial cells, B-intertubular spaces,
(1) Cell mediated Immunity C-testosterone
(2) Humoral Immunity 143. Androgens act on the ...A... and influence the male
(3) Antibodies
sexual behaviour called ...B... . These hormones
(4) Mediatid Immunity
produce ...C.. effect on protein and carbohydrate
139. The adrenal medulla secretes two hormones called
metabolism. Choose the correct combination of A,
adrenaline or ...A... and noradrenaline or ...B... .
B and C:-
These are commonly called as ...C... Adrenaline
and noradrenaline are rapidly secreted in response (1) A-PNS, B-libido, C-catabolic
to stress of any kind and during ...D... situations
(2) A-ANS, B-libido C-catabolic
and are called emergency hormones or hormones
of fight or flight. (3) A-CNS, B-libido, C-anabolic
Identify A to D and choose the correct option.
(4) A-CNS, B-libido, C-catabolic
(1) A-norepinephrine, B-epinephrine, C- catecholamines,
D-emergency 144. The estrogen is synthesised and secreted mainly
(2) A-epinephrine, B-norepinephrine, C-catecholamines, by growing ...A... . After ovulation the ruptured
D-emergency follicle is converted to a structure called ...B...
(3) A-epinephrine, B-norepinephrine, C-emergency, which mainly secretes ...C... . Choose the correct
D-catecholamines option for A, B, and C.
(4) A-norepinephrine, B-epinephrine, C-emergency,
D-catecholamines (1) A-corpus luteum, B-corpus callosum,
140. Gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis C-progesterone
processes are stimulated by:- (2) A-Graafian follicle, B-corpus luteum,
(1) glucocorticoids
C-progesterone
(2) mineralocorticoids
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) A-corpus callosum, B-corpus lutenum, C-estrogen
(4) None of the above
(4) A-Graafian follicle, B-corpus luteum, C-estrogen
141. Glucagon is:-
(1) Peptide hormone 145. Large number of hormones are secreted by :-
(2) Increases the blood sugar (1) pituitary (2) thyroid
(3) hyperglycemic hormone
(4) All of the above (3) hypothalamus (4) adrenal
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146. Match the following. 149. Match the following columns.
Column-I Column-II
Column-I Column-II A. ADH 1. Pitutary
A. FSH 1. Synthesise the milk in breast. B. ACTH 2. Mineralocorticoid
C. Aldosterone 3. Diabetes mellitus
B. MSH 2. Regulate the pigmentation. D. Insulin 4. Diabetes insipidus
E. Adrenaline 5. 3F hormone
C. ADH 3. Transported axonally to Codes
neurohypophysis
A B C D E
D. PRL 4. Stimulate the development of (1) 1 4 2 3 5
ovarian follicle. (2) 4 2 1 3 5
(3) 4 1 2 3 5
(4) 4 1 3 2 5
Codes
150. I. Regulation of BMR.
A B C D II. Supports the process of RBC formation.
(1) 1 2 3 4 III. Controls the metabolism of carbohydrates,
proteins and fat.
(2) 4 2 3 1 IV.Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance.
(3) 4 1 2 3 V. Secretion of TCT hormone.
(4) 4 3 2 1 Function written above belong to which of the
following gland.
147. Match the following columns. (1) Thyroid gland (2) Parathyroid gland
(3) Adrenal gland (4) Pituitary gland
Column-I Column-II
151. Match the following columns:
A. Hypothalamic hormone 1. Skin Column-I Column-II
B. Thyrotropin (TSH) 2. Adrenal cortex A. Protein 1. Epinephrine
hormones
C. Corticotropin 3. Thyroid
B. Steroid 2. Testosterone,
D. Gonadtropins (LH, FSH) 4. Gonads
hormones progesterone
E. Melanotropin (MSH) 5. Pitutiary gland
C. Iodothyronin 3. Thyroid
hormones
Codes
D. Amino acid 4. Insulin and
A B C D E derivatives glucagon
(1) 5 3 2 4 1 hormones
(2) 1 2 3 4 5
A B C D
(3) 1 3 5 4 2 (1) 1 2 3 4
(4) 5 2 3 1 4 (2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 4 2 3 1
148. A 10 yr child with deficient anterior pitutiary
(4) 4 2 1 3
function is likely to
152. Steroid hormones work as:-
(1) develop acromegaly (1) They enter into target cells and binds with specific
(2) be a short stature but have relatively normal brain receptor and activate specific genes to form protein
(2) They bind to cell membrane
(3) be a constant danger of becoming dehydrated (3) They catalyse formation of AMP
(4) have a high basal metabolic rate (4) All of the above
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153. Correct order of action of hydrophilic hormones. 156. Study the given flow chart and, identify A, B, C,
I. Hormones bind to plasma membrane. D and E.
II. Physiological response. Adrenal Gland
III. Biochemical response. Consists of two region
IV. Generation of secondary messenger.
Choose the correct option. Outer region is called Inner region is called
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) II, I, III, IV (A) (B)

(3) I, IV, III, II (4) III, I, II, IV

154. Match the following columns. Divided into three zones

Column-I Column-II
A. Protein 1. React with receptor Mineralocorticoids Glucocorticoids Sexcorticoids
Released by Released by Released by
hormones on surface of cell (C) (D) (E)
B. Steroid 2. React with receptor
hormones inside the cell (1) A-Cortex, B-Medulla, C-Zona glomerulosa,
3. Result relatively D-Zona reticulata, E-Zona fasciculata
rapid (2) A-Cortex, B-Medulla, C-Zona glomerulosa,
4. Result relatively D-Zona fasciculata, E-Zona reticulata
slow (3) A-Medulla, B-Cortex, C-Zona glomerulosa,
5. Generation of D-Zona fasciculata, E-Zona reticulata
secondary messenger (4) A-Medulla, B-Cortex, C-Zona glomerulosa,
D-Zona reticulata, E-Zona fasciculata
Codes 157. Excretory organ of crustaceans are :-
A B (1) Malpighian tubules (2) Antennal glands
(1) 1,2 3,4,5 (3) Nephridia (4) Flame cells
(2) 1,3,5 2,4 158. Pick-up the correct option with regards to kidney?
(3) 2,4 1,3,5 Colour Weight Length Width Thickness
(4) 1,4,5 2,3 (1) Pale- 170gm 15-17cm 8-10 2-3 cm
yellow cm
155. Match the following columns.
(2) Reddish- 190 gm 10-12 cm 8-10 4-6 cm
Column-I Column-II Brown cm
(3) Dark- 120 gm 8-10 cm 6-8 cm 2-3 cm
A. Adrenaline 1. Myxoedema Black
(4) Reddish- 170 gm 10-12 cm 5-7 cm 2-3 cm
B. Hyperparathyroidism 2. Accelerates heart beat brown
159. Which is a part of nephron found in medulla of kidney?
C. Oxytocin 3. Salt-water balance (1) Proximal convoluted tubules
(2) Malpighian corpuscle
D. Hypothroidism 4. Child birth
(3) Loop of Henle
E. Aldosterone 5. Demineraliation
(4) Distal convoluted tubules
160. Which is not a property of cortical nephron in
human kidney?
Codes (1) Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced
A B C D E (2) Loop of Henle is very long and runs deep into
medulla
(1) 1 2 3 4 5
(3) Majority of nephrons in human kidney are
(2) 5 4 3 2 1 cortical nephron
(3) 2 5 4 1 3 (4) Peritubular capillary network is wel-developed
(4) 2 5 4 3 1 and found around the renal tubule
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161. Given below the longitudinal section of kidney in 165. During blood-coagulation, inactive protein
which some parts are labelled through A,B,C and prothrombin converts into active thrombin with
D. Find out the correct option with regards to help of :-
correct labelling:- (1) Thromboplastin (2) Thrombokinase
C (3) Fibrin (4) Vita-K
A
166. Which are valves remain in contact with
B deoxygenated blood in human heart?
Renal artery (1) Bicuspid & Tricuspid valves
(2) Mitral valve and Pulmonary semilunar valve.
D
(3) Tricuspid & Aortic semilunar valves
(4) Right Atrioventricular value and pulmonary
semilunar valve.
A B C D 167. During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out
1. Renal Minor Column Of Major approximately ....... of blood which is called the
column calyx Bertini Calyx stroke volume. Fill in the blank and select the
2. Cortex Medullary Collecting Ureter correct option?
Pyramid duct (1) 120 ml (2) 5 litres (3) 70 ml (4) 5000 ml
3. Renal Calyx Medullary Renal 168. How many electric leads are used in obtaining a
column Pyramid Pelvis
4. Calyx Renal Medullary Medulla “ standard ECG”?
column Pyramid (1) 12 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 24
162. Carefully read the following statement with regards 169. Select the incorrect statement from following?
to function of the renal tubules :- (1) Sympathetic nervous stimulation can increase
“ Nearly all of the essential nutrients and 70–80%
of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed by this the rate of heart beat.
segment”. (2) Parasympathetic neural signals decrease speed
In the above statement, words “this segment” of conduction of action potential there by
refers to:- decreases cardiac output.
(1) Proximal Convoluted tubule
(2) Distal Convoluted tubule (3) Adrenal medullary hormones can also
(3) Loop of Henle increases the cardiac output.
(4) Collecting duct (4) Neural signals through vagus nerve can
163. When the heart muscles are suddenly damaged by
increase the rate of heart beat.
an inadequate blood supply, this condition is
called as :- 170. Read the following properties of blood vessels:-
(1) Angina (2) Heart block (a) Mostly they supplies oxygenated blood to
(3) Heart attack (4) Cardiac arrest body organs.
164. Match the column-A and B and select the correct option?
(b) They are situated deeply under the skin.
Column-A Column-B
P. Lymphocytes (i) Phagocytic (c) Their wall is very thick and Lumen become
cells constricted.
Q. Erythrocytes (ii) Immune (d) Blood presence and speed become high.
responses
R. Neutrophills (iii) Transportation How many properties correct for artery?
of respiratory (1) Only two (2) Only one
gases. (3) Three (4) All
S. Basophills (iv) Secretion of
histamine 171. Which is organ mainly affected in “Jaundice”?
(1) P-i, Q-ii, R-iv, S-iii (2) P-iv, Q-iii, R-ii, S-i (1) Liver (2) Stomach
(3) P-ii, Q-i, R-iii, S-iv (4) P-ii, Q-iii, R-i, S-iv (3) Heart (4) Intestine
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172. Which is the enzymatic hydrolysis reaction carried 178. Match the column-I and column-II and select the
out in Ileum? correct option?

Lipase Column - I Column - II

(1) Fat ¾¾¾¾ ® Diglycerides
A. Glomerulonephritis (i) Heart is not
Ptyalin pumping blood
(2) Starch ¾¾¾¾ ® Maltose
effectively
Pepsin B. Angina (ii) Ejection of stomach
(3) Pr otein ¾¾¾¾ ® Pr oteoses + Peptones
contents through the
Lactase mouth
(4) Lactose ¾¾¾¾ ® Glucose + Galactose
C. Heart failure (iii) Inflammation of
173. Exocrine portion of pancreas secretes:- glomeruli in kidney.
(1) Alkaline enzymatic pancreatic juice D. Vomiting (iv) Acute chest pain
(2) Hormones only due to hypoxia in
cardiac muscle.
(3) Both hormones & enzymetic juice
(4) Only mucous with bicarbonate salts. (1) A -iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
174. Gastric glands are found in :- (2) A -iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(1) Submucosa of stomach (3) A -iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(2) Mucosa of stomach (4) A -iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(3) Mucosa of duodenum
(4) Submucosa of duodenum 179. Identify the labelling A,B,C,D and E and select the
175. Given below the diagram which shows correct option?
arrangement of different types of teeth in the jaw D A
bone on one side and sockets on the other side.
Identify the teeth which are shown through 4th &
5th number and select the correct option in which
they are correctly given?
2nd 1
st E
B
3rd
th
4
5th C
6th
th
7
th
8
Options A B C D E
(1) Molars (2) Premolars 1. Nutrients H2O NaCl K+ HCO3–
(3) Canines (4) Incisors 2. NaCl K+ NaCl Nutrients H2O
3. HCO3– H2O Urea Nutrients NaCl
176. In small Intestine, inner most layer of mucosa
4. H2O NaCl Urea NH3 H+
forms small finger-like foldings called as:-
(1) Microvilli (2) Rugae 180. An adult human excrete how much amount of
(3) Villi (4) Crypts of leiberkuhn urine per day?
177. Gross calorific value of carbohydrate is:-
(1) 4.1 Kcal/gm (2) 5.65 Kcal/gm (1) 1 to 1.5 litres (2) 2 to 2.5 litres
(3) 9.45 Kcal/gm (4) 9.0 Kcal/gm (3) 500 ml (4) 180 litres
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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English / 05012020 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Page 19/19
Read carefully the following instructions :

1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.

2. No candidate, without special permission of the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.

3. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet
to the Invigilator on duty.

4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules
and Regulations of this examination.

6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

7. The candidates will write the Correct Name and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in

Nurture - MNB 1001CMD300119040