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Lesson 1_ Part-A Multiple Choice Questions 11.

Utility means
A) Equilibrium point at which demand and supply
1. ‘Economics is a study of mankind in the ordinary are equal
business of life’ -It is the statement of B) Want-satisfying capacity of goods and services
A) Adam Smith B) Lionel Robbins C) Total value of commodity
C) Alfred Marshall D) Samuelson D) Desire for goods and services
2. The basic problem studied in Economics is 12. A market is
A) Unlimited wants B) unlimited means A) Only a place to buy things
C) Scarcity D) Strategy to meet all our wants B) Only a place to sell things
3. Microeconomics is concerned with C) Only a place where prices adjust
A) The economy as a whole D) A system where persons buy and sell goods
B) Different sectors of an economy directly or indirectly
C) The study of individual economic units behaviour
D) The interactions within the entire economy 13. Which one of the following is not a point in the
Welfare Definition of Economics?
4. Which of the following is a microeconomics A) Study of and ordinary man
statement? B) Economics does not focus on wealth alone
A) The real domestic output increased by 2.5 percent C) Economics is the study of material welfare
last year. D) Economics deals with unlimited wants and
B) Unemployment was 9.8 percent of the labour limited means
force last year.
C) The price of wheat ddetermines its demand 14. Growth definition takes into account
D) The general price level increased by 4 percent last A) The problem of choice in the dynamic
year. framework of Economics
5. Find the odd one out: B) The problem of unlimited means in relation to
A) “An inquiry into the nature and the causes of wants
the Wealth of Nations” C) The production and distribution of wealth
B) “Principles of Economics” D) The material welfare of human beings
C) “Nature and Significance of Economic
Science” 15. Which theory is generally included under micro
D) “Ceteris paribus” economics ?
A) Price Theory B) Income Theory
6. The equilibrium price is the price at which C) Employment Theory D) Trade Theory
A) Everything is sold
B) Buyers spend their money 16. ....................... have exchange value and their
C) Quantity demanded equals quantity supplied ownership rights can be established and exchanged
D) Excess demand is zero A) Goods B) Services
C) Markets D) Revenue
7. Author of “An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of
Wealth of Nations” 17. Identify the correct characteristics of utility
A) Alfred Marshall B) Adam Smith A) It is equivalent to ‘usefulness’
C) Lionel Robbins D) Paul A Samuelson B) It has moral significance
8. “Economics studies human behaviour as a C) It is same as pleasure
relationship between ends and scarce means which D) It depends upon consumer’s mental attitude
have alternative uses” is the definition of economics of
A) Lionel Robbins B) Adam Smith 18. Who has given scarcity definition of economics?
C) Alfred Marshall D) Paul A Samuelson A) Adam Smith B) Marshall
C) Robbins D) Robertson
9. Who is the Father of Economics?
A) Max Muller B) Adam Smith
19. The process of reasoning from particular to general
C) Karl Marx D) Paul A Samuelson
is
A) Deductive method B) Inductive method
10. “Economics is a science” The basis of this
C) Positive economics D) Normative
statement is—
economics
A) Relation between cause and effect
20. Total revenue is equal to total output sold
B) Use of deductive method and inductive method
multiplied by
for the formations of laws
A) Price B) Total cost
C) Experiments
C) Marginal revenue D) Marginal cost
D) All of the above
By.S.THANGARAJ, PGT-GHSS SINGADIVAKKAM, KANCHEEPURAM DIST.
Lesson 2_ Part-A Multiple Choice Questions
12. Increase in demand is caused by
1. Pick the odd one out A) Increase in tax
A) Luxuries B) Comforts B) Higher subsidy
C) Necessaries D) Agricultural goods C) Increase in interest rate
D) decline in population
2. Choice is always constrained or limited by the
_____ of our resources. 13. The movement on or along the given demand curve
A) Scarcity B) Supply is known as____
C) Demand D) Abundance A) Extension and contraction of demand
B) shifts in the demand
3. The chief exponent of the Cardinal utility approach C) increase and decrease in demand
was D) all the above
A) J.R.Hicks B) R.G.D)Allen
C) Marshall D) Stigler 14. In case of relatively more elastic demand the shape
of the curve is
4. Marginal Utility is measured by using the formula of A) Horizontal
A) TUn-TUn-1 B) TUn-TUn+1 B) Vertical
C) TUn+TUn+1 D) TUn-TUn+1 C) Steeper
D) Flatter
5. When marginal utility reaches zero, the total utility
will be 15. A consumer is in equilibrium when marginal
A) Minimum B) Maximum utilities from two goods are
C) Zero D) Negative A) Minimum
B) Maximum
6. Gossen’s first law is known as. C) Equal
A) Law of equi-marginal utility. D) Increasing
B) Law of diminishing marginal utility
C) Law of demand 16. Indifference curve was first introduced by
D) Law of Diminishing returns. A) Hicks
B) Allen
7. The basis for the law of demand is related to C) Keynes
A) Law of diminishing marginal utility D) Edgeworth
B) Law of supply
C) Law of equi-marginal utility. 17. Elasticity of demand is equal to one indicates
D) Gossen’s Law. A) Unitary Elastic Demand
B) Perfectly Elastic Demand
8. The concept of consumer’s surplus is associated C) Perfectly Inelastic Demand
with D) Relatively Elastic Demand
A) Adam Smith B) Marshall
C) Robbins D) Ricardo 18. The locus of the points which gives same level of
satisfaction is associated with
9. Given potential price is Rs.250 and the actual price A) Indifference Curves
is Rs.200. Find the consumer surplus. B) Cardinal Analysis
A) 375 B) 175 C) Law of Demand
C) 200 D) 50 D) Law of Supply

10. Indifference curve approach is based on 19. Ordinal Utility can be measured by
A) Ordinal approach A) Ranking
B) Cardinal approach B) Numbering
C) Subjective approach C) Wording
D) Psychological approach D) None of these

20. The indifference curve are


11. The concept of elasticity of demand was A) vertical
introduced by B) horizontal
A) Ferguson B) Keynes C) positive sloped
C) Adam Smith D) Marshall D) Negatively sloped

By.S.THANGARAJ, PGT-GHSS SINGADIVAKKAM, KANCHEEPURAM DIST.


Lesson 3_ Part-A Multiple Choice Questions 12. Cobb-Douglas production function assumes
A) Increasing returns to scale
1. The primary factors of production are: B) Diminishing returns to scale
A) Labour and Organisation B) Labour and Capital C) Constant returns to scale
C) Land and Capital D) Land and Labour. D) All of the above

2. The man-made physical goods used to produce other 13. Name the returns to scale when the output
goods and services are referred to as. increases by more than 5%, for a 5% increase in the
A) Land B) Labour inputs,
C) Capital D) Organization. A) Increasing returns to scale
B) decreasing returns to scale
3. Formula for calculating AP is C) Constant returns to scale
A) ∆TP/N B) ∆TP/∆N D) All of the above
C) TP/MP D) TP/N
14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
4. Which factor is called the changing agent of the land?
Society A) Its limited supply. B) It is mobile
A) Labourer B) Land C) Heterogeneous D) Gift of Nature
C) Organizer D) Capital
15. Product obtained from additional factors of
5. Who said, that one of the key of an entrepreneur is production is termed as
“uncertainty-bearing”. A) Marginal product B) Total product
A) J.B)Clark B) Schumpeter C) Average product D) Annual product
C) Knight D) Adam Smith
16. Modern economists have propounded the law of
6. The functional relationship between “inputs” and A) Increasing returns
“outputs” is called as B) decreasing returns
A) Consumption Function C) Constant returns
B) Production Function D) variable proportions.
C) Savings Function
D) Investment Function 17. Producer’s equilibrium is achieved at the point
where:
7. In a firm 5 units of factors produce 24units of the A) Marginal rate of technical substitution(MRTS)
product. When the number of factor increases by one, is greater than the price ratio
the production increases to 30 units. Calculate the B) MRTS is lesser than the price ratio
Avarage Product. C) MRTS and price ratio are equal to each other
A) 30 B) 6 C) 5 D) 24 D) The slopes of isoquant and isocost lines are
different.
8. The short-run production is studied through
A) The Laws of Returns to Scale 18. The relationship between the price of a commodity
B) The Law of Variable Proportions and the supply of commodity is
C) Iso-quants A) Negative B) Positive
D) Law of Demand C) Zero D) Increase

9. The long-run production function is explained by 19. If average product is decreasing, then marginal
A) Law of Demand product
B) Law of Supply A) must be grater than average product
C) Returns to Scale B) must be less than average product
D) Law of Variable Proportions C) must be increasing
D) both a and c
10. An Iso-quant curve is also known as
A) Inelastic Supply Curve 20. A production function measures the relation
B) Inelastic Demand Curve between
C) Equi-marginal Utility A) input prices and output prices
D) Equal Product Curve B) input prices and the quantity of output
C) the quantity of inputs and the quantity of
11. Mention the economies reaped from inside the firm output.
A) financial B) technical D) the quantity of inputs and input prices.
C) managerial D) all of the above
By.S.THANGARAJ, PGT-GHSS SINGADIVAKKAM, KANCHEEPURAM DIST.
Lesson 4_ Part-A Multiple Choice Questions
13. Identify the formula of estimating
1. Cost refers to ________ average cost.
A) price B) value A) AVC/Q
C) fixed cost D) cost of production B) TC/Q
C) TVC/Q
2. Cost functions are derived from _______________ D) AFC/Q
function.
A) production B) investment 14. Find total cost where TFC=I00 and
C) demand D) consumption TVC = 125.
A) 125
3. Money cost is also known as ____________ cost. B) 175
A) explicit B) implicit C) 225
C) social D) real D) 325

4. Explicit cost plus implicit cost denote ___________ 15. Long-run average cost curve is also
cost. called as __________ curve.
A) social B) economic A) demand
C) money D) fixed B) planning
C) production
5. Explicit costs are termed as D) sales
A) out of pocket expenses B) real cost
C) social cost D) sunk cost 16. Revenue received from the sale of
products is known as _______ revenue.
6. The costs of self–owned resources are termed as A) profit
________ cost. B) total revenue
A) real B) explicit C) average
C) money D) implicit D) marginal

7. The cost that remains constant at all levels of output 17. Revenue received from the sale of
is _______ cost. additional unit is termed as ________
A) fixed B) variable revenue.
C) real D) social A) profit
B) average
8. Identify the formula of estimating average variable C) marginal
cost. D) total
A) TC/Q B) TVC/Q
C) TFC/Q D) TAC/Q 18. Marginal revenue is the addition made
to the
9. The cost incurred by producing one more unit of A) total sales
output is______cost. B) total revenue
A) variable B) fixed C) total production
C) marginal D) total D) total cost

10. The cost that varies with the level of output is 19. When price remains constant, AR will
termed as _______ cost. be ________ MR.
A) money B) variable cost A) equal to
C) total cost D) fixed cost B) greater than
C) less than
11. Wage is an example for ________ D) not related to
cost of the production.
A) fixed B) variable 20. A book seller sold 40 books with the
C) marginal D) opportunity price of Rs.10 each. The total revenue
of the seller is Rs.___________.
12. The cost per unit of output is denoted A) 100
by _________ cost. B) 200
A) average B) marginal C) 300
C) variable D) total D) 400

By.S.THANGARAJ, PGT-GHSS SINGADIVAKKAM, KANCHEEPURAM DIST.


Lesson 5_ Part-A Multiple Choice Questions 10. Perfect competition assumes …………
A) Luxury goods
1. In which of the following is not a type of market B) Producer goods
structure Price will be very high? C) Differentiated goods
A) Perfect competition D) Homogeneous goods
B) Monopoly
C) Duopoly
D) Oligopoly 11. Group equilibrium is analysed in …….
A) Monopolistic competition
2. Equilibrium condition of a firm is...... B) Monopoly
A) MC = MR B) MC > MR C) Duopoly
C) MC < MR D) MR = Price D) Pure competition

3. Which of the following is a feature of monopolistic 12. In monopolistic competition, the essential feature
competition? is ..…
A) Same product B) selling cost
A) One seller
C) Single seller D) Single buyer
B) Few sellers
C) Product differentiation
13. Monopolistic competition is a form of .…….
D) No entry A) Oligopoly
B) Duopoly
4. A firm under monopoly can earn …………. in the C) Imperfect competition
short run. D) Monopoly
A) Normal profit
B) Loss 14. Price leadership is the attribute of …………
C) Super normal profit A) Perfect competition
D) More loss B) Monopoly
C) Oligopoly
5. There is no excess capacity under ………………… D) Monopolistic competition
A) Monopoly
B) Monopolistic competition 15. Price discrimination will always lead to………….
C) Oligopoly A) Increase in output B) Increase in profit
D) Perfect competition C) Different prices D) b and c

6. Profit of a firm is obtained when …………….. 16. The average revenue curve under monopolistic
A) TR < TC competition will be……
B) TR - MC A) Perfectly inelastic B) Perfectly elastic
C) TR > TC C) Relaively D) Unitary elastic
D) TR = TC
17. Under perfect competition, the shape of demand
7. Another name of price is…………….. curve of a firm is...............
A) Average Revenue A) Vertical B) Horizontal
B) Marginal Revenue C) Negatively sloped D) Positively sloped
C) Total Revenue
D) Average Cost 18. In which market form, does absence of competition
prevail?
8. In which type of market, AR and MR are equal ….. A) Perfect competition B) Monopoly
C) Duopoly D) Oligopoly
A) Duopoly
B) Perfect competition
19. Which of the following involves maximum
C) Monopolistic competition
exploitation of consumers?
D) Oligopoly
A) Perfect competition
B) Monopoly
9. In monopoly, MR curve lies below …………. C) Monopolistic competition
A) TR D) Oligopoly
B) MC
C) AR 20. An example of selling cost is …
D) AC A) Raw material cost B) Transport cost
C) Advertisement cost D) Purchasing cost

By.S.THANGARAJ, PGT-GHSS SINGADIVAKKAM, KANCHEEPURAM DIST.


Lesson 6_ Part-A Multiple Choice Questions
11. Keynesian Theory of interest is popularly known
as
1. In Economics, distribution of income is among the A) Abstinence Theory
A) factors of production B) Liquidity Preference Theory
B) individual C) Loanable Funds Theory
C) firms D) Agio Theory
D) traders
12. According to the Loanable Funds Theory, supply
2. Theory of distribution is popularly known as, of loanable funds is equal to
A) Theory of product-pricing A) S + BC + DH + DI
B) Theory of factor-pricing B) I + DS + DH + BM
C) Theory of wages C) S + DS + BM + DI
D) Theory of Interest D) S + BM + DH + DS

3. Rent is the reward for the use of 13. The concept of meeting unexpected expenditure
A) capital according to Keynes is
B) labour A) Transaction motive
C) land B) Precautionary motive
D) organization C) Speculative motive
D) Personal motive
4. The concept of ‘Quasi-Rent’ is associated with
A) Ricardo 14. The distribution of income or wealth of a country
B) Keynes among the individuals are
C) Walker A) functional distribution
D) Marshall B) personal distribution
C) goods distribution
5. The Classical Theory of Rent was propounded by D) services distribution
A) Ricardo
B) Keynes 15. Profit is the reward for
C) Marshall A) land B) organization
D) Walker C) capital D) labour

6. ‘Original and indestructible powers of the soil’ is the 16. Innovation Theory of profit was given by
term used by A) Hawley B) Schumpeter
A) J.S.Mill C) Keynes D) Knight
B) Walker
C) Clark 17. Quasi-rent arises in
D) Ricardo A) Man-made appliances
B) Homemade items
7. The reward for labour is C) Imported items
A) rent D) None of these
B) wage
C) profit 18. “Wages as a sum of money are paid under contract
D) interest by an employer to a worker for services rendered” –
Who said this?
8. Money wages are also known as A) Benham B) Marshall
A) real wages C) Walker D) J.S.Mill
B) nominal wages
C) original wages 19. Abstinence Theory of Interest was propounded by
D) transfer wages A) Alfred Marshall B) N.W Senior
C) Bohm-Bawerk D) Knut Wicksell
9. Residual Claimant Theory is propounded by
A) Keynes B) Walker 20. Loanable Funds Theory of Interest is called as
C) Hawley D) Knight A) Classical Theory
B) Modern Theory
10. The reward given for the use of capital C) Traditional Theory
A) rent B) wage D) Neo-Classical Theory
C) interest D) profit

By.S.THANGARAJ, PGT-GHSS SINGADIVAKKAM, KANCHEEPURAM DIST.


Lesson 7_ Part-A Multiple Choice Questions 11. The number of births per thousand
population is called as
1. The main gold mine region in Karnadaka is a. Crude death rate b. Mortality rate
……….. c. Morbidity rate d. Crude Birth Rate
a. Kolar b. Ramgiri
c. Anantpur d. Cochin 12. Density of population =
a. Land area / Total Population
2. Economic growth of a country is measured by b. Land area / Employment
national income indicated by ….. c. Total Population / Land area of the region
a. GNP b. GDP d. Total Population / Employment
c. NNP d. Per capita income
13. Who introduced the National Development
3. Which one of the following is a developed Council in India?
nations ? a. Ambedkar b. Jawaharlal Nehru
a. Mexico b. Ghana c. Radhakrishanan d. V.K.R.V. Rao
c. France d. Sri Lanka
14. Who among the following propagated
4. The position of Indian Economy among the Gandhian Ecomomic thinkings.
other strongest economies in the world is .. a. Jawaharlar Nehru b. VKRV Rao
a. Fourth b. Sixth c. JC Kumarappa d. A.K.Sen
c. Fifth d. Tenth
15. The advocate of democratic socialism was
5. Mixed economy means …… a. Jawaharlal Nehru b. P.C. Mahalanobis
a. Private sectors and banks c. Dr. Rajendra Prasad d. Indira Gandhi
b. Co-existence of Public and Private sectors
c. Public sectors and banks 16. Ambedkar the problem studied by in the
d. Public sectors only context of Indian Economy is …….
a. Small land holdings and their remedies
6. The weakness of Indian Economy is ……. b. Problem of Indian Currency
a. Economic disparities c. Economics of socialism
b. Mixed economy d. All of them
c. Urbanisation
d. Adequate employment opportunities 17. Gandhian Economics is based on the
Principle
7. A scientific study of the characteristics of a. Socialistic idea
population is …. b. Ethical foundation
a. Topography b. Demography c. Gopala Krishna Gokhale
c. Geography d. Philosophy d. Dadabhai Naoroji

8. The year 1961is known as ….. 18. V.K.R.V Rao was a student of
a. Year of small divide a. J.M. Keynes b. Colin Clark
b. Year of Population Explosion c. Adam smith d. Alfred Marshal
c. Year of Urbanisation
d. Year of Great Divide 19. Amartya Kumara Sen received the Nobel
prize in Economics in the year
9. In which year the population of India crossed a. 1998 b. 2000
one billion mark ? c. 2008 d. 2010
a. 2000 b. 2001
c. 2005 d. 1991 20. Thiruvalluvar economic ideas mainly dealt
with
10. The number of deaths per thousand a. Wealth
population is called as … b. Poverty is the curse in the society
a. Crude Death Rate b. Crude Birth Rate c. Agriculture
c. Crude Infant Rate d. Maternal Mortality d. All of them
Rate
By.S.THANGARAJ, PGT-GHSS SINGADIVAKKAM, KANCHEEPURAM DIST.
Lesson 8_ Part-A Multiple Choice Questions 11. The main objective of nationalisation of
banks was …….
1. The arrival of Vasco da Gama in Calicut, a. Private social welfare
India b. Social welfare
a. 1498 b. 1948 c. To earn
c. 1689 d. 1849 d. Industries monopoly

2. In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was successful in 12. The Planning Commission was setup in the
getting permission from year …..
a. Akbar b. Shajakan a. 1950 b. 1955
c. Jahangir d. Noorjakhan c. 1960 d. 1952

3. The power for governance of India was 13. In the first five year plan, The top priority
transferred from the East India Company (EIC) was given to ……. Sector.
to the British crown in a. Service b. Industrial
a. 1758 b. 1858 c. Agriculture d. Bank
c. 1958 d. 1658
14. Tenth Five year plan period was…….
4. Ryotwari system was initially introduced in a. 1992-1997 b. 2002-2007
a. Kerala b. Bengal c. 2007-2012 d. 1997-2002
c. Tamil Nadu d. Maharastra
15. According to HDR (2016), India ranked
5. First World War started in the year …… out of 188 countries.
a. 1914 b. 1814 a. 130 b. 131
c. 1941 d. 1841 c. 135 d. 145

6. When did the Government of India declared 16. Annual Plans formed in the year ……….
its first Industrial Policy ? a. 1989-1991 b. 1990-1992
a. 1956 b. 1991 c. 2000-2001 d. 1981-1983
c. 1948 d. 2000
17. The Oldest large scale industry in India
7. The objective of the Industrial Policy 1956 a. cotton b. jute
was …….. c. steel d. cement
a. Develop heavy industries
b. Develop agricultural sector only 18. The 14 banks were nationalized in the year
c. Develop private sector only a. 1935 b. 1956
d. Develop cottage industries only c. 1969 d. 1959

8. The industry which was de-reserved in 1993 ? 19. The main theme of the Twelth Five Year
a. Railways Plan
b. Mining of copper and zinc a. faster and more inclusive growth
c. Atomic energy b. growth with social Justice
d. Atomic minerals c. socialistic pattern of society
d. faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
9. The father of Green Revolution in India was
………… 20. The PQLI was developed by …………….
a. M.S. Swaminathan a. Planning Commission
b. Gandhi b. Nehru
c. Visweswaraiah c. Morris
d. N.R. Viswanathan D Morrisd.Biswajeet

10. How many commercial banks were


nationalised in 1969 ?
a. 10 b. 12
c. 14 d. 16
By.S.THANGARAJ, PGT-GHSS SINGADIVAKKAM, KANCHEEPURAM DIST.
Lesson 9_ Part-A Multiple Choice Questions 11. Financial Sector reforms mainly related to
a. Insurance Sector b. Banking Sector
1. Which of the following is the way of c. Both a and b d. Transport Sector
Privatisation?
a. Disinvestment b. Denationalization 12. The Goods and Services Tax Act came in to
c. Franchising d. All the above effect on ________
a. 1st July 2017 b. 1st July 2016
2. Countries today are to be _____ for their c. 1st January 2017 d. 1st January 2016
growth.
a. Dependent b. Interdependent 13. The new economic policy is concerned with
c. Free trade d. Capitalist the following
a. foreign investment
3. The Arguments against LPG is _________ b. foreign technology
a. Economic growth c. foreign trade
b. More investment d. all the above
c. Disparities among people and regions
d. Modernization 14. The recommendation of Narashimham
Committee Report was submitted in the
4. Expansion of FDI ____________ year________
a. Foreign Private Investment a. 1990 b. 1991
b. Foreign Portfolio c. 1995 d. 2000
c. Foreign Direct Investment
d. Forex Private Investment 15. The farmers have access to credit under
Kisan credit card scheme through the following
5. India is the largest producer of except
___________in the world. a. co-operative banks b. RRBs
a. fruits b. gold c. Public secstor banks d. private banks
c. petrol d. diesel
16. The Raja Chelliah Committee on Trade
6. Foreign investment includes__________ Policy Reforms suggested the peak rate on
a. FDI only b. FPI and FFI import duties at
c. FDI and FPI d. FDI and FFI a. 25% b. 50%
c. 60% d. 100%
7. The Special Economic Zones policy was
announced in ___________ 17. The first ever SEZ in India was set up at
a. April 2000 b. July 1990 a. Mumbai b. Chennai
c. April 1980 d. July 1970 c. Kandla d. Cochin

8. Agricultural Produce Market Committee is a 18. ‘The Hindu Rate of Growth’ coined by Raj
a. Advisory body b. Statutory body Krishna refers to
c. Both a and b d. non of these above a. low rate of economic growth
b. high proportion of Hindu population
9. Goods and Services Tax is ___________ c. Stable GDP
a. a multi point tax d. none
b. having cascading effects
c. like Value Added Tax 19. The highest rate of tax under GST is
d. a single point tax with no cascading ___________ (as on July1, 2017)
effects. a. 18% b. 24%
c. 28% d. 32%
10. The New Foreign Trade Policy was
announced in the year_____________ 20. The transfer of ownership from public sector
a. 2000 b. 2002 to private sector is known as _____.
c. 2010 d. 2015 a. Globalization b. Liberalization
c. Privatization d. Nationalization

By.S.THANGARAJ, PGT-GHSS SINGADIVAKKAM, KANCHEEPURAM DIST.


Lesson 10_ Part-A Multiple Choice Questions 10. Indicate the cause for rural poverty.
a. Lack of non-farm employment
1. Which is considered as the basic unit for rural b. High employment
areas? c. Low inflation rate
a. Panchayat b. Village d. High investment.
c. Town d. Municipality
11. What is the other name for concealed
2. Which feature is identified with rural areas? unemployment?
a. Low population density a. Open b. Disguised
b. High population density c. Seasonal d. Rural
c. Low natural resources
d. Low human resources 12. How do you term the employment occurring
only on a particular season?
3. Identify the feature of rural economy. a. Open b. Disguised
a. Dependence on agriculture c. Seasonal d. Rural
b. High population density
c. Low level of population 13. Identify an example for rural industries?
d. Low level of inequality a. Sugar factory b. Mat making industry
c. Cement industry d. Paper industry

4. What percentage of the total population live in 14. How much share of rural families in India is
rural area, as per 2011 censes? in debt?
a. 40 b. 50 a. Half b. One fourth
c. 60 d. 70 c. Two third d. Three fourth

5. How do you term people employed in excess 15. Identify the cause for rural indebtedness in
over and above the requirements? India.
a. Unemployment a. Poverty b. High population
b. Underemployment or Disguised c. High productivity d. Full employment
Unemployment
c. Full employment 16. In which year, Regional Rural Banks came
d. Self-employment into existence?
a. 1965 b. 1970
6. What is the term used to denote the c. 1975 d. 1980
coexistence of two different features in an
economy? 17. Identify the year of launch of MUDRA
a. Technology b. Dependency Bank?
c. Dualism d. Inequality a. 1995 b. 2000
c. 2010 d. 2015
7. The process of improving the rural areas, rural
people and rural living is defined as 18. Identify the year in which National Rural
a. Rural economy b. Rural economics Health Mission was launched.
c. Rural employment d. Rural development a. 2000 b. 2005
c. 2010 d. 2015
8. Identify the agriculture related problem of
rural economy. 19. Identify the advantages of rural roads.
a. Poor communication a. Rural marketing b. Rural employment
b. Small size of landholding c. Rural development d. All the above
c. Rural poverty
d. Poor banking network 20. “ An Indian farmer is born in debt, lives in
debt, dies in debt and bequeaths debt”-who said
9. The recommended nutritional intake per this?
person in rural areas. a. Adam Smith b. Gandhi
a. 2100 calories b. 2100 calories c. Amartya Sen d. Sir Malcolm Darling
c. 2300 calories d. 2400 calories
By.S.THANGARAJ, PGT-GHSS SINGADIVAKKAM, KANCHEEPURAM DIST.
Lesson 11_ Part-A Multiple Choice Questions 12. Which district in TN has the highest sex
ratio?
1. In health index, Tamil Nadu is ahead of a) Nagapattinam b) Nilgiris
a) Kerala b) Punjab c) Tiruchy d) Thanjavur
c) Gujarat d) all the above
13. Which district has the lowest child sex ratio?
2. In sex ratio, Tamil Nadu ranks a) Madurai b) Theni
a) first b) second c) Ariyalur d) Cuddalore
c) third d) fourth
14. Which Union Territory has the highest sex
3. Tamil Nadu is rich in ratio?
a) Forest resource b) human resource a) Chandigarh b) Pondicherry
c) mineral resource d) all the above c) Lakshadeep d) Andaman Nicobar

4. The main source of irrigation in Tamil Nadu is 15. The largest contribution to GSDP in Tamil
a) river b) tank Nadu comes from
c) well d) canals a) agriculture b) industry
c) mining d) services
5. Knitted garment production is concentrated in
a) Coimbatore b) Tiruppur 16. In human development index, TN is ranked
c) Erode d) Karur a) Second b) fourth
c) sixth d) seventh
6. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
a) Gateway of Tamil Nadu – Thoothukudi 17. SPIC is located in
b) Home textile city - Erode a) Chennai b) Madurai
c) Steel city - Salem c) Tuticorin d) Pudukkottai
d) Pump city – Coimbatore
18. The TICEL park is
7. Which of the following cities does not have a) Rubber Park b) Textile park
international airport? c) Food park d) Bio park
a) Madurai b) Tiruchirappalli
c) Paramakudi d) Coimbatore 19. In India’s total cement production, Tamil
Nadu ranks
8. TN tops in the production of the following a) third b) fourth
crops except c) first d) second
a) Banana b) Coconut
c) plantation crops d) cardamom 20. The Headquarters of Southern Railway is at
a) Tiruchirappalli b) Chennai
9. Largest area of land is used in the cultivation c) Madurai d) Coimbatore.
of
a) Paddy b) sugarcane
c) Groundnut d) Coconut

10. In literacy rate, TN ranks


a) second b) fourth
c) sixth d) eighth

11. In investment proposals filed by MSMEs,


TN ranks
a) I b) II
c) III d) IV

By.S.THANGARAJ, PGT-GHSS SINGADIVAKKAM, KANCHEEPURAM DIST.


Lesson 12_ Part-A Multiple Choice Questions 11. State of rest is a point termed as
a. Equilibrium b. Non-Equilibrium
1. Mathematical Economics is the integration of c. Minimum Point d. Maximum Point
a. Mathematics and Economics
b. Economics and Statistics 12. Differentiation of constant term gives
c. Economics and Equations a. one b. zero
d. Graphs and Economics c. infinity d. non-infinity

2. The construction of demand line or supply 13. Differentiation of xn is


line is the result of using a. nx(n-1) b. n x (n+1)
a. Matrices b. Calculus c. zero d. one
c. Algebra d. Analytical Geometry
14. Fixed Cost is the -----------term in cost
3. The first person used the mathematics in function represented in mathematical form.
Economics is a. Middle b. Price
a. Sir William Petty b. Giovanni Ceva c. Quantity d. Constant
c. Adam Smith d. Irving Fisher
15. The first differentiation of Total Revenue
4. Function with single independent variable is function gives
known as a. Average Revenue b. Profit
a. Multivariate Function c. Marginal Revenue d. Zero
b. Bivariate Function
c Univariate Function 16. The elasticity of demand is the ratio of
d. Polynomial Function a. Marginal demand function and Revenue
function
5. A statement of equality between two b. Marginal demand function to Average
quantities is called demand function
a. Inequality b. Equality c. Fixed and variable revenues
c. Equations d. Functions d. Marginal Demand function and Total
demand function
6. An incremental change in dependent variable
with respect to change in independent variable is 17. If x+y = 5 and x-y= 3 then, Value of x
known as a. 4 b. 3
a. Slope b. Intercept c. 16 d. 8
c. Variant d. Constant
18. Integration is the reverse process of
7. (y - y1) = m(x - x1) gives the a. Difference b. Mixing
a. Slope b. Straight line c. Amalgamation d. Differentiation
c. Constant d. Curve
19. Data processing is done by
8. Suppose D = 50 - 5P. When D is zero then a. PC alone
a. P is 10 b. P is 20 b. Calculator alone
c. P is 5 d. P is -10 c. Both PC and Calculator
d. Pen drive
9. Suppose D = 150 - 50P. Then, the slope is
a. -5 b. 50 20. The command Ctrl + M is applied for
c. 5 d. -50 a. Saving b. Copying
c. getting new slide d. deleting a slide
10. Suppose determinant of matrix ∆=0, then the
solution
a. Exists b. Does not exist
c. is infinity d. is zero

By.S.THANGARAJ, PGT-GHSS SINGADIVAKKAM, KANCHEEPURAM DIST.

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