IBPS PO PRE 2024 TEST ID - SPP - 907724059

TEST FORM NUMBER Maximum Marks : 100

Total Questions : 100
Time Allowed : 60 Min.
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to attempt the questions.
(1) This booklet contains 100 Questions in all comprising the following three parts.
Part-(I) : Reasoning Aptitude Maximum
(35 Marks
Questions) :
100
Part-(II) : Quantitative Aptitude (35 Questions)
Part-(III) : English Language Total Questions :
(30 Questions)
(2) All the questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. 100
(3) Before you start to attempt the questions you must explore this booklet and ensure that it contains all the pages
and find that no page is missing or replaced. If you find any flaw in this booklet, Timeyou
Allowed : 90it Min.
must get replaced
immediately.
(4) Each question carries negative marking also as 0.25 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
(5) You will be supplied the Answer-sheet separately by the invigilator. You must complete the details of Name, Roll
number, Test name/Id and name of the examination on the Answer-Sheet carefully before you actually start
attempting the questions. You must also put your signature on the Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place. These
instructions must be fully complied with, failing which, your Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and you will be
awarded ‘ZERO’ mark.
(6) Answer must be shown by completely blackening the corresponding circles on the Answer-Sheet against the
relevant question number by pencil or Black/Blue ball pen only.
(7) A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer-Sheet. In case the information is incompletely/
different from the information given in the application form, the candidature of such candidate will be treated as
cancelled.
(8) The Answer-Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination Hall.
(9) Failure to comply with any of the above Instructions will make a candidate liable to such action/penalty as may be
deemed fit.
(10) Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy. Do
not spend too much time on any question.
(11) Mobile phones and wireless communication device are completely banned in the examination halls/rooms.
Candidates are advised not to keep mobile phones/any other wireless communication devices with them even
switching it off, in their own interest. Failing to comply with this provision will be considered as using unfair means in
the examination and action will be taken against them including cancellation of their candidature.
(12) No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet.
(13) No candidate can leave the examination hall before completion of the exam.

NAME OF CANDIDATE:...........................................
DATE :......................... CENTRE CODE :.................
ROLL No ..................................................................

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

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IBPS PO PRE 2024 TEST ID - SPP - 907724059

Reasoning Aptitude (E) bo

1. In a group of 40 ladies, Mrs. Gupta is 20th from the 8. What is the code for 'books?
extreme left end. Twelve ladies are standing (A) yt (B) bo
between Mrs. Gupta and Mrs. Sharma. Mrs. (C) df (D) pv
Sharma is not standing 7 th from any extreme ends. (E) sn
How many ladies are standing to the right side of
Mrs. Sharma? 9. How is 'aside' coded in the given language?
(A) 5 ladies (B) 7 ladies (A) bo (B) yt
(C) 10 ladies (D) 9 ladies (C) pv (D) ud
(E) More than 11 ladies (E) None of the above

2. Which of the following expression will be true if the Directions (10 – 14): Five boxes are stacked over each
expression P > Q = R < S ≥ T ≤ U is definitely true? other and are numbered 1 - 5 from bottom to top.
(A) P > S (B) R < T The names of boxes are English alphabets in the
(C) S ≥ U (D) Q < S consecutive alphabetical order starting from the
(E) None bottom most box. A different computer accessory is
kept in the each box viz. Joystick, Router, Speaker,
Directions [03-05]: A family consisted of 8 persons P, Q, Touchpad and Webcam. The box in which the
R, S, T, U, V and W. There were only 3 touchpad is not kept at the top of the stack. The
generations and each child had either both or none webcam is kept in a box adjacent to the speaker
of his parents alive. but not adjacent to the router. Box H is kept at an
• P's only sister was married to R and P's only odd numbered position and the box in which the
brother was married to S speaker is kept immediately above it. Only one box
• W was U's niece is kept between the boxes in which the joystick and
• U was the daughter of Q the webcam are kept. Only one box is kept
• P was T's son, but T was not his father. between the boxes in which the speaker and the
router are kept.
3. How was V related to U?
(A) Husband (B) Wife 10. Which of the following person(s) is/are not in the
(C) Brother (D) Sister arrangement ?
(E) Brother-in-law I. K
II. H
4. Four of the following bear a similar relationship and III. F
hence form a group, who among the following is (A) Only I (B) Only II
not a part of that group? (C) Both I and II (D) Both II and III
(A) P (B) U (E) Both I and III
(C) S (D) T
(E) W 11. Which box is kept at the top of the stack ?
(A) H (B) G
5. Who among the following is a couple? (C) J (D) F
I. Q, V (E) K
II. T, U
III. S, V 12. What is kept in the box which is kept at the bottom
(A) Only I (B) Only II of the stack ?
(C) Both II and III (D) Only III (A) Speaker (B) Webcam
(E) Both I and III (C) Router (D) Touchpad
(E) Joystick
Directions [06-09]: Study the following information and
answer the given questions. 13. Webcam is kept in box _____.
(A) E (B) J
In an artificial language, (C) F (D) H
"Magazine readers are intelligent" is coded as "qn il (E) G
as rc ".
"Books are the best friends" is coded as "bo rc pv 14. If in the stack, six more boxes are kept, which box
eh df". is kept at the top of the stack according to the
"Keep the magazine aside" is coded as "yt ud df qn same logic?
". (A) Q (B) N
"Keep silence in books library" is coded as "yt mz (C) P (D) O
sn bo wj". (E) R
"Best books are in library" is coded as "pv bo wj mz
rc ". Directions [15-18]: Twelve children- Adaa, Dave, Eden,
Isla, Ivy, Iris, Kiwi, Mala, Oats, Ryn, Tim and Ubed
6. How is 'Silence' coded in the given language? were born from 1971 to 1982, but not necessarily in
(A) sn (B) qn the same order. The persons whose names start
(C) wj (D) bo with consonants were born from 1972 to 1976.
(E) eh Mala was born before Ryn but after Ubed. Dave
was born immediately before Tim. Three persons
7. How is 'library' coded? were born between Kiwi and Iris, who was born on
(A) mz (B) Either (A) or (C) odd number year.
(C) wj (D) yt Not less than three persons were born between Iris
and Isla, who was born immediately before Eden.
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IBPS PO PRE 2024 TEST ID - SPP - 907724059
Oats, who is elder than Ivy, was neither born in (C) E (D) F
1977 nor 1979. Two persons were born between (E) None of the above
Adaa and Ryn.
15. How many persons were born before Oats? 24. Who sits third to the left of the person who faces
(A) 6 (B) 7 F?
(C) 8 (D) 9 (A) U (B) T
(E) 11 (C) R (D) V
(E) P
16. Which among the following options is suitable for
blanks (I), (II) and (III)? Directions [25-28]: Six people are sitting around a circular
__(I)__ was born immediately before __(II)__ while table facing inside. Each one of them has to submit
only six persons were born after __(III)___. the assignment on six different days (Starting from
(A) Tim, Ryn, Ryn (B) Mala, Isla, Eden Monday to Saturday).
(C) Dave, Tim, Eden (D) Dave, Tim, Ivy R sits second to the left of the one who submits the
(E) None of these assignment on Friday. One person sits between the
one who submits the assignment on Friday and the
17. _____ was born in 1979. one who submits the assignment on Saturday. N
(A) Iris (B) Isla sits immediately right of the one who submits the
(C) Eden (D) Adaa assignment on Saturday. N and Q submit the
(E) Ubed assignment on Tuesday and Wednesday
respectively. The one who submits the assignment
18. If Ubed is related to Dave; Kiwi is related to Ryn, in on Thursday sits immediately left of the one who
such a way who is related to Mala ? submits the assignment on Monday. M sits
(A) Oats (B) Ivy immediate right of O but immediate left of Q. P
(C) Tim (D) Eden does not submit the assignment on Friday.
(E) Adaa
25. Who among the following sits immediate right of P?
19. How many pairs of letters in the word "CHAMPION" (A) N
have as many letters between them as in the (B) The one who submits the assignment on
alphabet when counted from both forward and Monday
backwards? (C) Q
(A) Two (B) One (D) The one who submits the assignment on
(C) Three (D) Four Wednesday
(E) More than four (E) R

Directions [20-24]: Study the following information and 26. How many people are sitting between R and M,
answer the given questions. when counted from the left of R?
(A) One (B) Three
Fourteen people are seated in two parallel rows, (C) Two (D) None
containing seven people in each, such that they are (E) More than three
equidistant from each other. In row 1, P, Q, R, S, T,
U and V are seated facing towards the South, but 27. Who among the following submits the assignment
not necessarily in the same order. In row 2, A, B, on Thursday?
C, D, E, F and G, are seated facing towards the (A) P (B) N
North, but not necessarily in the same order. (C) R (D) Q
A sits third to the left of E, who sits third to the left (E) M
of D. Only three people are seated between S and
T, who sits second to the right of R, who sits at any 28. On which day does O submits the assignment?
of the extreme ends. U, who faces B, sits third to (A) Tuesday (B) Monday
the left of Q. G sits third to the right C, who is an (C) Thursday (D) Friday
immediate neighbour of F. Only two people are (E) Saturday
seated between S and V.
29. In the following question, a statement is followed
20. Who among the following faces P? by two conclusions. Assuming the given statement
(A) A (B) C to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) is/are
(C) F (D) G true and then give your answer accordingly.
(E) E Statement: T < I ≤ L < K > G < D; K < U = A
Conclusion: I: A > T II: D > L
21. Who among the following is an immediate (A) Only Conclusion I follow
neighbour of B? (B) Only Conclusion II follows
(A) E (B) F (C) Neither Conclusion I nor II follow
(C) C (D) G (D) Either Conclusion I or II follow
(E) A (E) Both Conclusion I and II follow

22. How many people are seated between Q and the 30. In the question below, a statement is followed by
person who faces D? two conclusions based on the statement. Study the
(A) 2 (B) 1 conclusions and select the correct option as the
(C) 3 (D) 4 answer.
(E) None of the above Statement: N>M≥B>D=S; P<O≥D>Q<A
Conclusion I: N>A II: O≥M
23. Who among the following does V face? (A) Both I and II follow
(A) G (B) C (B) Neither I nor II follows
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IBPS PO PRE 2024 TEST ID - SPP - 907724059
(C) Either I or II follows (C) S – K (D) K – D
(D) Only I follows (E) V - M
(E) Only II follows
31. In the following question, four statements are given
and two conclusions are given below these Quantitative Aptitude
statements. Choose the option which shows the
conclusions which logically follow from the given 36. A and B are respectively inlet and outlet pipes of a
statements, disregarding commonly known facts. tank. Pipe A can fill a tank in 8 hours while pipe B
Statements: All trees are bushes. can empty the same tank in 24 hours. Find the time
No sapling is a shrub. taken by both pipes together to fill the tank.
Only a few trees are saplings. (A) 10 hours (B) 11 hours
Only a few shrubs are woods. (C) 14 hours (D) 12 hours
Conclusions: I. Some bushes are saplings (E) 13 hours
II. Some saplings can be woods
(A) Only I follows 37. A reader read 15 pages more on Tuesday than he
(B) Only II follows read on Monday of a novel. On Wednesday he
(C) Either I or II follows read 40% of the number of pages read in last two
(D) Both I and II follow days. If he read 105 pages in three days, then
(E) Neither I nor II follow number of pages read on Wednesday is what
percent the number of pages read on Monday?
32. In the following question, three statements are (A) 60% (B) 80%
given and two conclusions are given below these (C) 75% (D) 100%
statements. Choose the option which shows that (E) None of these
the conclusions logically follow the given
statements, disregarding the commonly known 38. A person invested total of Rs. 7000 in two schemes
facts. one at 4% rate of simple interest for 2 years and
Statements: All Cash are Money remaining at 8% rate of simple interest for 3 years
No Money is Coin and received total interest of Rs. 1360. Find the
Only a few Coin is Currency amount invested at 8% rate of interest.
Conclusions: I: Some Money being Currency is a (A) Rs. 4500 (B) Rs. 5000
possibility (C) Rs. 3500 (D) Rs. 5500
II: No Cash is Coin (E) Rs. 4000
(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows 39. A motorboat goes 150 km downstream and comes
(C) Both conclusions I and II follow back to its original position in 8 hrs. The ratio of the
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows speed of the motorboat in still water to the speed of
(E) Either conclusion I or II follows the stream is 2:1. If the motorboat travels only in
downstream for 20 hours then find how much
33. Read the given statements and conclusions distance it would have travelled.
carefully. Assuming that the information given in (A) 3500 km (B) 3000 km
the statements is true, even if it appears to be at (C) 2500 km (D) 1500 km
variance with commonly known facts, decide which (E) 2000 km
of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements. 40. What value should come in place of the question
Statement: All Paper is Pen mark?
Some Pen are Pencil 19 * 14 + ? * √25 = 25 * 20 - 132
Only Pencil are Easer (A) 13 (B) 16
Conclusion: I. Some Pen being Easer is a (C) 11 (D) 17
possibility (E) 15
II. No Paper is Pencil
(A) Only Conclusion I follows 41. What value should come in place of the question
(B) Only Conclusion II follows mark?
(C) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows ? + 18 * 12 = 23 * 12
(D) Either Conclusion I or II follows (A) 75 (B) 50
(E) Both Conclusion I and II follow (C) 40 (D) 60
(E) 45
Directions [34-35]: Point Z is 23m to the west of point K.
Point S is 4m to the south of point P. Point M is 42. In the following question, two equations I and II are
30m to the east of point D. Point V is 17m to the given. Solve both the equations carefully and
east of point S. Point K is 10m to the north of point choose the correct option.
M. Point V is 5m to the north of point Z. I: x2 - 36x + 315 = 0 II: y 2 - 23y + 130 = 0
(A) x ≤ y (B) x < y
34. What is the shortest distance between point P and (C) x ≥ y (D) x > y
point K? (E) x = y or no relation can be established between
(A) 35m (B) 41m x and y
(C) 29m (D) 45m
(E) 37m 43. Average monthly income of all employees in a
company is Rs.20000. Average monthly income of
35. Four of the following pairs are related to each other 80 workers is Rs.18000 and average monthly
in some way and thus form a group, which of the income of remaining employees is Rs.24000. How
following pair does not belong to that group? many employees are there in the company?
(A) P – V (B) Z - M
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IBPS PO PRE 2024 TEST ID - SPP - 907724059
(A) 100 (B) 140 hour. What is the distance between her home and
(C) 150 (D) 120 school?
(E) 130 (A) 2200 m (B) 2500 m
(C) 2800 m (D) 3000 m
Directions [44-47]: Study the data carefully and answer the (E) 3200 m
following questions: Directions [51-56]: Study the given information carefully
and answer the related questions.
A survey is conducted on 2400 students who learn
three different foreign languages (French, Russian, Following table represents the data regarding total
and Italian) and each student learn either only one number of footwears manufactured and sold by
language or more than one language. 15%, 18% different stores in 2011.
and 25% of total students learn both French and
Russian but not Italian, learn only Italian and learn Store Total number Ratio of Ratio of
only French, respectively. Number of students who of footwears number of number of
learn all three languages are 40% of the number of manufactured sold to gents to
students who learn both French and Italian but not unsold ladies
Russian. Number of students who learn both footwears footwears
Russian and Italian but not French is 8/15 times the manufactured
students who learn both French and Russian but A 6000 7: 5 1: 4
not Italian and number of students who learn only B 8400 11: 3 9: 5
Russian is 120 more than the number of students C 8000 9: 7 3: 5
who learn both French and Russian but not Italian. D 6400 3: 1 5: 3
E 7000 5: 2 3: 2
44. How many students learn exactly two foreign
languages? 51. What is the ratio of total number of unsold
(A) 764 (B) 778 footwears from stores A and C together to the total
(C) 872 (D) 792 number of unsold footwears from stores D and E
(E) 845 together?
(A) 3: 2 (B) 5: 3
45. What is the ratio of number of students who learn (C) 6: 5 (D) 5: 4
both French and Russian but not Italian to the (E) 2: 1
number of students who learn both Russian and
Italian? 52. From footwears sold from store B, if 40% are ladies
(A) 3: 1 (B) 5: 4 footwear, then what is the number of gents
(C) 2: 1 (D) 6: 5 footwears from store B which are remain unsold?
(E) 5: 3 (A) 1220 (B) 1480
(C) 1440 (D) 1640
46. What is the average number of students who learn (E) 1700
only French and only Russian?
(A) 440 (B) 540 53. If 42% and 48% of unsold footwears in store C and
(C) 520 (D) 560 D respectively are of gents, then what is the sum of
(E) 500 total number of ladies footwears sold from store D
and C taken together?
47. How many students learn exactly one language? (A) 4508 (B) 4518
(A) 1572 (B) 1556 (C) 4528 (D) 4538
(C) 1542 (D) 1512 (E) 4548
(E) 1544
54. If the selling price of each footwear from store A is
48. A sum of Rs.1016 is divided among A, B, C and D Rs.250 and selling price of each footwear from
such that the share of A and C are in the ratio 2: 3 store E is Rs.200, then what is the difference
respectively, share of B and D are in the ratio 5: 6 between total earnings on footwears from store A
respectively and B got Rs.256 less than A. What is and E?
the share of B? (A) Rs.103500 (B) Rs.125000
(A) Rs.80 (B) Rs.54 (C) Rs.124500 (D) Rs.112500
(C) Rs.112 (D) Rs.180 (E) Rs.135000
(E) Rs.148
55. Total number of gents footwears manufactured in
49. Diameter of two circles are in the ratio of 1:2. Sum store C and D taken together are approximately
of the circumference of both the circles is 132 cm. what percent more/less than total number of ladies
Perimeter of a rectangle is 16 cm more than the footwears manufactured from store A and B taken
circumference of the smaller circle. The breadth of together?
the rectangle is 50% of the length. Then find the (A) 7% (B) 13%
ratio of the length of the rectangle and the radius of (C) 10% (D) 16%
the larger circle. (E) 19%
(A) 11:7 (B) 15:7
(C) 13:7 (D) 10:7 56. In 2012, if the total number of footwears
(E) 12:7 manufactured from store A are increased by 10%
than previous years and the ratio of sold to unsold
50. A girl reaches her school 9 minutes late, if she footwears becomes 6: 5 respectively, then what is
walks from her home at 4 km/hr and reaches 6 the percentage increase in the sale of footwears
minutes earlier, if she walks with speed 6 km per from store A in 2012 than previous year?

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IBPS PO PRE 2024 TEST ID - SPP - 907724059
4 4 Below line shows the average number of trousers
(A) 3 % (B) 4 %
7 7
4 stitched by five tailors in two quarters (Quarter 1
(C) 5 % (D) None of these and Quarter 2) and difference between the number
7
4
(E) 6 % of trousers stitched by five tailors in two quarters
7
(Quarter 1 and Quarter 2):
57. Find the wrong term in the series given below. 3000 2880
20, 30, 51, 82, 130, 190
(A) 190 (B) 82
(C) 130 (D) 30 2400 2160
(E) 51

58. The following numbers form a series. Find the odd 1800
one out. 1440 1440 1440
550, 570, 610, 690, 750, 850 1200
(A) 550 (B) 750 1200 960
(C) 690 (D) 850
(E) None of these 600
600 480
240
59. In the following number series only one number is
wrong. Find out the wrong number. 0
126, 217, 344, 513, 730, 999
(A) 344 (B) 999
A B C D E
(C) 513 (D) 730 Average number of trousers stiched in two
(E) 217 quarters (Quarter 1 and Quarter 2)

60. Find the wrong term in the following series - Difference between the number of
64, 82, 126, 172, 244, 334 trousers stiched in two quarters (Quarter
(A) 334 (B) 82
1 and Quarter 2)
(C) 172 (D) 126
(E) 244 Note- Number of trousers stitched by each tailor in
Quarter 1 is more than that of stitched in Quarter 2.
61. The sum of investment made by Tarun and Vijay is
Rs.45000 and sum of investment made by Vijay 65. If number of trousers stitched by tailor E and tailor
and Rohan is Rs.50000. Tarun and Rohan's B in Quarter 3 is 12.5% and 25% less than their
investments are in the ratio 4: 5. Tarun, Vijay and previous Quarter respectively, then what is the total
Rohan's period of investment are in the ratio 3: 4: number of trousers stitched by tailor E and tailor B
2. Find the ratio of profit received by Tarun, Rohan together in Quarter 3?
and Vijay respectively. (A) 790 (B) 760
(A) 6: 10: 5 (B) 3: 2: 5 (C) 780 (D) 750
(C) 6: 9: 4 (D) None of these (E) 740
(E) 2: 1: 3
66. What is the ratio of number of trousers stitched by
62. Ratio of number of men to that of women in a tailor A and tailor C together in Quarter 2 to the
factory is 5:6. 2 people are selected number of trousers stitched by tailor E and tailor D
simultaneously. Probability that both of them are in Quarter 2?
women is 2/7. Find the number of people working (A) 14: 9 (B) 19: 11
in the factory. (C) 18: 7 (D) 15: 8
(A) 22 (B) 33 (E) 11: 3
(C) 10 (D) 12
(E) 11 67. If number of trousers stitched by tailor F and tailor
G in Quarter 2 are 20% and 40% less than the
63. Person A can sell a pen on an average of 23 pens number of trousers stitched tailor B in Quarter 1,
per day in a month. If he sells on an average of 21 respectively, then what is the average number of
pens in the first 10 days and 27 pens in the next 5 trousers stitched by F and G together?
days, then what is the average number of pens (A) 516 (B) 506
sold by him in the remaining days of the month? (C) 504 (D) 514
(Assume 1 month = 30 days) (E) 508
(A) 24 (B) 23
(C) 22 (D) 21 68. What is the average number of trousers stitched by
(E) 20 tailor A, tailor B, tailor C, and tailor D in Quarter 1?
(A) 2440 (B) 2220
64. The sum and difference of 2 two-digit numbers is (C) 2080 (D) 2160
153 and 9 respectively. What is the product of the (E) 2240
numbers obtained by reversing the order of the
digits of both numbers? 69. The number of trousers stitched by tailor C in
(A) 456 (B) 380 Quarter 1 is what percentage more or less than the
(C) 512 (D) 486 number of trousers stitched by tailor D in the same
(E) 632 Quarter?
(A) 33.33% (B) 16.66%
Directions [65 – 70]: Read the data carefully and answer (C) 6.66% (D) 14.28%
the following questions: (E) 7.14%
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IBPS PO PRE 2024 TEST ID - SPP - 907724059
70. What is the difference between the number of (E) Only I, III
trousers stitched by tailor A and tailor B in Quarter
1 and the number of trousers stitched by tailor C 75. In the following question, match the statement from
and tailor D in Quarter 2? Column 1 with Column 2 and find which of the
(A) 1680 (B) 1560 following pairs of statement/s given in the options
(C) 1460 (D) 1440 is/are contextually and grammatically correct.
(E) 1240 Column 1 Column 2
A. The food being D. canteen is extremely
English Language served by the substandard and is the
college authorities in reason why many of us
71. In the following question, a sentence is given, the fell sick.
divided into five parts. The part given in bold is B. The professor E. because it has been
grammatically and contextually correct. Out of the drives in a luxury car used in the centre of the
other four parts, one part may contain an error. while Canadian national flag.
Mark the part having an error as your answer. If C. The leaf of the F. coming to the college
none of the parts contain error, mark 'No error' as maple tree is every day.
your answer. symbolic of Canada
The fund could be utilised (A) / to spread and its people
awareness about (B) / using the benefits of e- (A) All A-D, B-F, C-E (B) Both B-F, C-D
vehicles (C) / for the environment and its (D) (C) All A-F, B-E, C-D (D) Only A-E
/ contribution to make the air clean. (E) (E) Only B-D
(A) B (B) A
(C) D (D) C 76. Match the statements from Column 1 with Column
(E) No error 2 and find which of the following pairs of
statements given in the options make/s
72. In the following question, a sentence is given with contextually and grammatically correct sense.
certain words marked as (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Column 1 Column 2
Choose the option with the pair(s) of words that A. The towering D. from a hydrocarbon-
need to be interchanged to make the sentence mountain peaks were dependent system to a
grammatically and contextually correct. If no covered mineral-intensive one.
change is required, mark 'No change required' as B. Starting day with a E. in a blanket of fresh
your answer. strong cup of coffee snow.
The microbiota community (A) the is (B) of C. The ongoing energy F. did not show any
bacteria, that (C), and viruses fungi (D) calls the transition is signs of recovery yet.
body home (E). transforming the global
(A) Only AB (B) Only AD economy
(C) Only BC and DE (D) Only AB and CD
(A) All C-F, B-D, and A-E (B) Both C-D and B-F
(E) No change required
(C) Both A-E and C-D (D) Both B-D and A-E
(E) Both A-D and B-F
73. Which of the following phrases (A), (B), and (C)
given below the sentence should replace the
77. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the
phrase printed in bold to make the sentence
underlined segment in the given sentence. If no
grammatically correct? Choose the best option
substitution is required, select 'No replacement
among the five given alternatives that reflects the
required' as your answer.
correct phrase(s) to be used in the sentence.
I could tell her how carefully I have contrive to
Her recent project not only gives the warning to
avoid difficulties and evade irksome
reject that complicated theory also ask challenging
responsibilities.
questions to carefully examine what 'natural' might
(A) Has contrived (B) Having been contrive
genuinely mean.
(C) Have contrived (D) Will being contrived
A. Though also asks
(E) No replacement required
B. When also asks
C. But also asks
78. In the question given below, a sentence with four
(A) Only A (B) Only B
words printed in bold type is given. One of these
(C) Only C (D) Both A and C
four words printed in bold may be either wrongly
(E) Both A and B
spelled or inappropriate in context of the sentence.
Find out the word which is wrongly spelled or
74. In the given question, a word has been given and
inappropriate if any. If all the words printed in bold
there are three ways in which the word has been
are correctly spelled and also appropriate in the
used, in similar or different forms. You need to
context of the sentence, mark (e) "All correct" as
see which of the sentences has/have correctly
your answer.
used the highlighted word, and mark that as your
At year-end, two state governments set an
answer.
example - one showed how governments ought to
Answer
act, the other could serve as an ilustration of how
I. Ramsey kept on driving without answer the call
not to.
from his boss.
(A) Set (B) Ought
II. The answer to this problem may look complex,
(C) Serve (D) Ilustration
but the method to solve it is absolutely easy.
(E) All are correct
III. People, usually do not answers the call, during
a meeting, unless it is so important.
79. In the following question, one part of the sentence
(A) Only I (B) Only II
may have an error. Find out which part of the
(C) Only III (D) Only II, III
sentence has an error and select the appropriate

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IBPS PO PRE 2024 TEST ID - SPP - 907724059
option. If the sentence is free from error, select 'No D. fulfilling his good, fascinating and excellent plan
Error'. Ignore errors of punctuation, if any. for us
COVID is often compared (A)/ to flu, as if adding a (A) BCAD
burden (B)/ equivalent to flu (C)/ to a population (B) BDAC
were fine. (D) (C) None of the orders is correct
(A) No error (B) A (D) ADCB
(C) B (D) C (E) DBAC
(E) D
85. The following question consists of five sentences
80. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any labelled A, B, C, D, and E which when logically
grammatical/contextual error in it. The error, if any, arranged form a coherent paragraph. Choose the
will be in one part or more of the sentence. Choose option that gives the correct order.
the option with parts with no errors as your answer. A. This process is called familiar face recognition
If there is no error, mark (e). and it may seem easy for some people.
Simply calling out (A)/ elected officials on the (B)/ B. You easily pick them out from other people in
mistake and saying that its (C)/ a moral failure is the park and correctly identify them.
(D)/ not substantive at all. (E) C. Imagine you lose sight of your friends for a
(A) ABCD moment while you are out at the park.
(B) ABCE D. You glance around and then spot them in the
(C) BCDE distance.
(D) Other than these options E. However, a few people really struggle to
(E) No error recognise the people around them.
(A) ACBDE (B) EADCB
81. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any (C) CDBAE (D) ADBEC
grammatical/contextual error in it. The error, if any, (E) BEDCA
will be in one part or more of the sentence. Choose
the option with parts with no errors as your answer. 86. In the question below, a sentence has been broken
If there is no error, mark (e). into four parts and the parts are jumbled. Choose
The Canadian clearly (A)/ shares a loving the option that provides the correct way of
relationship (B)/ with his large pet, (C)/ as he rearranging the parts to form a grammatically and
accepts affectionately (D)/ kisses on camera. (E) contextually meaningful sentence. If all the parts
(A) ABCD are correctly placed, mark 'No rearrangement
(B) ABCE required' as your answer.
(C) BCDE A. mental preparation in the
(D) Other than these options B. make a substantial impact
(E) No error C. moments before a crisis can
D. on your ability to perform well
82. Read the given sentence to find out whether there (A) BADC
are any grammatical/contextual errors in it. The (B) No rearrangement required
errors, if any, will be in two of the phrases of the (C) ACBD
sentence and the combination of those parts will be (D) CBDA
the answer. If no part in the sentence has an error, (E) DCBA
mark 'No error' as your answer. (Ignore punctuation
errors if any). 87. In the question below, a sentence has been broken
The movement of the (A)/ surface water rarely into four parts and the parts are jumbled. Choose
affects (B)/ the stagnantly deep bottom water (C)/ the option that provides the correct way of
for the oceans (D). rearranging the parts to form a grammatically and
(A) AC (B) BD contextually meaningful sentence. If all the parts
(C) AD (D) CD are correctly placed, mark 'No rearrangement
(E) No error required' as your answer.
A. we are criticized
83. In the following question, one part of the sentence B. shame is an annihilating
may have an error. Find out which part of the C. arises when
sentence has an error and select the appropriate D. experience that often
option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No (A) BDCA
Error'. (B) No rearrangement required
(A) The commissioner said police were (C) DCBA
(B) battling to stopped local violence (D) CABD
(C) gaining more of a foothold (E) ADCB
(D) than it already had.
(E) No error 88. In the following question, a sentence is given with
two blanks, that indicate that some parts are
84. In the given question, a sentence has been broken missing. Identify the correct pair of words that fit in
into four parts and the parts are jumbled up. the sentence to make it grammatically and
Choose the option which provides the correct order contextually correct.
to rearrange the parts to form a grammatically and Greenhouse gases are only a ________ of the
contextually meaningful sentence. story when it comes to the ______ of global
A. we may be made into a flawless piece of work warming
for (A) portion, power (B) part, magnitude
B. God will shape us, make us and help us to (C) issue, matter (D) half, size
C. smile through hardships of the right kinds that (E) constituent, part

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IBPS PO PRE 2024
89. In the question given below, a sentence is given
with two blanks, followed by five options, each
having two words that may or may not fit in the
blanks. Choose the one that gives the correct
words that fit in the blanks.
Human telecommunication _________ not just the
knowledge of how to build devices to capture
signals but also some understanding of the nature
of the ________ through which those signals move.
(A) Demand, lens (B) Establishment, wire
(C) Need, media (D) Requires, medium
(E) Glimpse, people
90. In the following question, a sentence is given with
two blanks, that indicate that some parts are
missing. Identify the correct pair of words that fit in
the sentence to make it grammatically and
contextually correct.
The _____ teacher could not _________ the
persistent requests of his students and he gave in
to their demands.
(A) strictly, tolerate
(B) humble, accept
(C) generous, understand
(D) kind, oversee
(E) kind, overlook
91. In the following question, two sentences are given
with one blank each. Choose the option that
provides the correct word that fits in both the
blanks.
I. I spent the day fishing for ______ and then
headed to the theatre to enjoy a play.
II. Low-pitched ______ instruments are used to
give a well-rounded sound to the musical
performance.
(A) Trout (B) Cod
(C) Tuna (D) Bass
(E) Salmon
Directions [92-100]: Read the passage carefully and
answer the questions that follow.
Named in honour of the trailblazing astronomer
Edwin Hubble, the Hubble Space Telescope is a
large, space-based observatory, which has
revolutionized astronomy since its launch and
deployment by the space shuttle Discovery in
1990. Far above rain clouds, light pollution, and
atmospheric distortions, Hubble has a crystal-clear
view of the universe. Scientists have used Hubble
to observe some of the most distant stars and
galaxies yet seen, as well as the planets in our
solar system. Although the telescope was launched
into space in 1990, its inception was almost a half -
century earlier as astronomer Lyman Spitzer,
Jr. mulled over the possibility of a large space
telescope in a 1946 report.
Funds for space endeavours were abundant, and
plans for a large space telescope, by then
designated the LST, was underway. The designs
called for a 2.4 - meter primary telescope mirror
which could be transported into space by one of
NASA's rockets.
One of the primary challenges involved in
successfully transporting the telescope into space
was protecting the mirror from the jarring vibrations
that occur during launch. It was crucial that the
mirror be able to withstand the shuttle's
vicissitudes as well as the volatile atmospheric
conditions found in space. If not, the precise shape
of the mirror could be compromised, and its
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TEST ID - SPP - 907724059
imaging capability significantly weakened. After the
telescope had been launched, astronomers
subsequently realized that the primary mirror had
not been ground correctly. A lens in the test
instrument was about one millimetre askew, which
is large by optical standards. In 1993, space -
walking astronauts installed corrective lenses
which improved the eyesight of the Hubble. In
2009, the corrective lenses themselves were
replaced with a supersensitive spectrograph with
built - in corrective lenses. The new spectrograph
is expected to provide insight into the origins of
stars and galaxies. The successor to Hubble, the
James Webb Space Telescope, is expected to be
launched in 2014. It will observe only in infrared, so
it will complement the Hubble Telescope, which
observes in the visible and ultraviolet light ranges.
Hubble currently has the capability to view galaxies
that were formed 13.7 billion years ago, long before
humans existed, in an area called the Hubble Ultra
Deep Field.
Astronomers aspire to see beyond the Hubble Ultra
Deep Field to a time that is devoid of galaxies, a
time before galaxies had formed. If H.G. Wells was
onto something in his novella, that time may be
close at hand. As one of the characters in the
popular work asked, "If Time is really only a fourth
dimension of Space, why is it, and why has it
always been, regarded as something different? And
why cannot we move in Time as we move about in
the other dimensions of Space?"
92. In the context of the passage, which of the
following best articulates the author's opinion of the
inception of the Hubble?
(A) It was a pipedream with little imminent chance
of success.
(B) It was a literary vehicle with little basis in
reality.
(C) It was an emergency response to the
quickening Space Race.
(D) It was based on a scientific proposition which
was not proven.
(E) It was a waste of time and money which were
needed elsewhere.
93. In 2009, the corrective lenses themselves were
replaced with spectrograph having ___________.
(A) a convex and a concave lens
(B) a bifocal lens
(C) an implicitly created lens used especially for
Hubble
(D) an in-built corrective lens
(E) a very small curvature lens
94. According to the passage, 'vicissitudes' most
closely means
(A) long delays which may compromise the shuttle
launch
(B) toxic emissions which may cause corrosion
around the mirror
(C) sound waves which may penetrate the mirror
(D) shaking and quivering which may cause
changes in the mirror
(E) atmospheric conditions which may compromise
the mirror
95. According to the passage, which of the following
statements is/are TRUE of the Hubble Telescope?
I) It is unable to observe light on the infrared part of
the spectrum.
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IBPS PO PRE 2024 TEST ID - SPP - 907724059
II) It will be replaced by the James Webb Space (B) unidirectional.
Telescope in 2014. (C) a spatial dimension.
III) It was initially constructed in 1946, but not (D) an impenetrable mystery.
launched until 1990. (E) an imaginary construction.
(A) I only (B) II only
(C) III only (D) I and II only 99. Which of the following part of the sentence has an
(E) II and III only error?
(A)Funds for space endeavours were abundant,/
96. What do you understand you by the phrase 'mulled (B) and plans for a large space / (C) telescope, by
over'? then / (D) designated the LST, was underway. /(E)
(A) to take so many responsibilities No error.
(B) to think carefully about something for a period (A) D (B) A
of time (C) E (D) B
(C) underestimating a topic (E) C
(D) ignoring a person
(E) to do a lot of hard work for a long period of time 100. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) draw a comparison between H.G. Wells' notion
97. It can be said that the author regards time travel as of time travel with Albert Einstein's Special Theory
(A) an effective hook for a work of fiction, but an of Relativity.
improbability in the reality of astronomy. (B) discuss the construction of the Hubble Space
(B) an interesting literary notion but proven to be Telescope as a tool for exploring deep space.
impossible by Einstein's Special Theory. (C) examine difficulties which precipitated
(C) a persuasive topic in fiction, as well as a construction of corrective lenses for the Hubble's
hypothetical possibility. primary mirror.
(D) a ridiculous idea whose time has come and (D) describe the circumstances which underlay the
gone, as well as an astronomical improbability. mid - century national drive toward a large space -
(E) the incoherent literary construction of a fictional based observatory.
author, with little relevance to today's scientific (E) dispute the argument that the Hubble
community. Telescope functions as a modern - day time
machine.
98. It can be said from the passage that scientists
believe that time is
(A) a constant source of everything.

Space for rough work

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