KEAM 2024 PYQ (6 PAPERS)

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 5/2024/OL

Exam:KEAM2024 05
Date of Test: 05-06-2024
1.
A) 1, 3, -2
B) -1, 3, 2
C) -1, 3, -2
D) 1, -3, 2
E) 1, -3, -2
Correct Answer : Option C
2.
A) 20
B) 10
C) 40
D) 50
E) 30
Correct Answer : Option A
If a freely falling body covers 80 m in the first 4 seconds , then in the next 4 seconds it covers a distance
3. of
A) 160 m
B) 240 m
C) 320 m
D) 80 m
E) 100 m
Correct Answer : Option B
4. Find the TRUE statement of the algebraic operations of scalar and vector quantities
A) Adding two scalars of different dimension is possible
B) Adding a scalar to a vector of same dimension is possible
C) Multiplying any two scalars is possible
D) Multiplying any vector by any scalar is not possible
E) Adding any two vectors is not possible
A car moving with a speed, v is stopped at a distance d by a retarding force F. The force needed to stop
5. the same car moving with the speed 3v within the same distance is
A) 3F
B) 6F
C) 8F
D) 9F
E) 12F
Correct Answer : Option D
6.
A) 60 g
B) 80 g
C) 100 g
D) 120 g
E) 40 g
A body of mass M is at equilibrium under the action of four forces F1 , F2 , F3 and F4 . If F1 is removed
7. from the body then the body moves with an acceleration of
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
If a body at rest undergoes one dimensional motion with constant acceleration, then the power delivered
8. to it at a time t is proportional to
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Correct Answer : Option E
9. The collision in which the two colliding particles move together after collision is called
A) completely inelastic collision
B) elastic collision
C) partial inelastic collision
D) collision without transfer of energy
E) partial elastic collision
10. The analogy between linear motion and rotational motion are given. The FALSE one is
A) Force : Torque
B) Linear Displacement : Angular displacement
C) Mass : Moment of inertia
D) Linear momentum : Angular momentum
E) Translational energy : Vibrational energy
11.
A) 30 kW
B) 60 kW
C) 90 kW
D) 150 kW
E) 300 kW
12. If a body is taken above the surface of earth, it looses its weight by 20 % at a height of
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
If a planet orbits the sun in an elliptical orbit the quantities associated with the planet that remain constant
13. are
A) kinetic energy and total energy
B) potential energy and angular momentum
C) linear speed and angular velocity
D) total energy and angular momentum
E) kinetic energy and angular velocity
14. For the flow of incompressible liquid through a pipe, the Venturi-meter is used to measure the
A) pressure of liquid
B) volume of flow
C) speed of flow
D) temperature of liquid
E) mass of liquid flown

Two gases under the same thermal conditions have same number of molecules per unit volume. If the
15. respective molecular diameters of the gases are in the ratio 1 : 3, then their respective mean free paths
are in the ratio
A) 1:1
B) 1 : 3
C) 3 : 1
D) 9 : 1
E) 4 : 9
16.
A) 5J
B) 25 J
C) 10 J
D) 100 J
E) 50 J
If an ideal gas, in an insulated vessel is allowed to expand into another similar evacuated vessel through
17. a valve then
A) external work is done on the gas
B) the pressure of the gas is doubled
C) the volume of the gas is doubled
D) the pressure of the gas remains same
E) the temperature of the gas is increased
In a Carnot engine, the temperature of the sink is 350 K. If the efficiency of the engine is 50 %, the
18. temperature of the source should be
A) 700 K
B) 750 K
C) 800 K
D) 900 K
E) 1000 K
19.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The total energy of a gas mixture of one mole of oxygen and 3 moles of argon at a temperature T by
20. neglecting vibrational modes is
A) 5 RT
B) (7/2) RT
C) (5/2) RT
D) 9 RT
E) 7 RT
21.
A) 660 m
B) 990 m
C) 1320 m
D) 500 m
E) 860 m
22.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

23. The equipotential surface is
A) a plane for a point charge
B) spherical for a dipole
C) cylindrical for a dipole
D) spherical for a point charge
E) cylindrical for a point charge
The electric field intensity due to an ideal dipole at a distance r from its centre on the axial point is directly
24. proportional to
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Two spheres A and B having respective charges 6 C and 12 C placed at a distance d repel each other
25. by a force F. The charge given to sphere A to reverse the force as – F is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The work done by a source in taking a unit charge from lower to higher potential energy is called the
26. source’s
A) electric current
B) electric conductivity
C) electric field intensity
D) electromotive force
E) electric flux
27.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
If a charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field B , with a velocity v such that v has a component
28. along B , then the charged particle describes
A) a circular path
B) an elliptical path
C) a straight line
D) a helical path
E) a parabolic path

A proton with kinetic energy of 2 MeV is describing a circular path of radius R in a uniform magnetic field.
29. The kinetic energy of the deuteron to describe the same circular path in the same field is
A) 0.5 MeV
B) 1 MeV
C) 2 MeV
D) 4 MeV
E) 0.25 MeV
Two straight long parallel wires carrying equal amount of current in opposite directions placed at 5 cm
30. apart are repel each other by a force F. If the current in one of wire is doubled and reversed, then the force
between them is
A) 2 F and attractive
B) F/2 and repulsive
C) F and repulsive
D) 2F and repulsive
E) F/2 and attractive
31. The mutual inductance between a pair of coils A and B placed close to each other depends upon
A) the rate of change of current in A
B) the rate of change of current in A and B
C) the material of the wire of the coils
D) the relative position and orientation of A and B
E) the direction of flow of current in B
32.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The ratio between the magnetic dipole moment of a revolving electron in circular orbit to its angular
33. momentum is ( e charge and m mass of the electron )
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
34. The electromagnetic waves used in LASIK and cell phones are respectively
A) microwaves and radio waves
B) ultraviolet rays and radio waves
C) infrared rays and micro waves
D) X- rays and radio waves
E) radio waves and visible rays
35.
A) 1.67
B) 1.5
C) 1.414
D) 1.33
E) 1.2
36.
A) convex lens, 40 cm
B) concave lens, 50 cm
C) convex lens, 25 cm
D) concave lens, 20 cm
E) convex lens, 30 cm
In an Young double slit experiment without varying the distance of the screen and the slit separation if the
37. wavelength of monochromatic source is changed one by one in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 then the
corresponding fringe widths measured will be in the ratio
A) 4:3:2
B) 1:2:3
C) 2:3:4
D) 6:4:3
E) 3:4:6
Which one of the following phenomena does not occur when a white light falls on an equilateral glass
38. prism?
A) Reflection
B) Refraction
C) Dispersion
D) Deviation
E) Interference
The de Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons accelerated by a potential of 81 V is lying in
39. the region of electromagnetic waves
A) ultraviolet rays
B) infrared rays
C) microwaves
D) X- rays
E)
If the frequency of the incident light on a metal surface is increased by 10% then the kinetic energy of the
40. emitted photoelectrons is increased from 0.5eV to 0.7 eV. Then the work function of the metal is
A) 1 eV
B) 1.2 eV
C) 1.5 eV
D) 1.8 eV
E) 2 eV
The ratio of the velocities of the electron in the second, third and fourth Bohr’s orbits of hydrogen atom
41. is
A) 3 : 2 : 1
B) 1 : 2 : 3
C) 1 : 4 : 9
D) 6 : 4 : 3
E) 9 : 4 : 1
42. Plutonium nucleus undergoes fission with

A) fast neutrons
B) slow neutrons
C) fast deuterons
D) slow deuterons
E)
43. Out of the following pair of elements identify isotones
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
44.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
45. During the formation of p – n junction

A) majority holes diffuse from n side to p side
B) majority electrons diffuse from p side to n side
C) ionized donors formed on p side
D) ionized acceptors formed on n side
E) the space charge region on either side of the junction is called depletion region
46.
A) 63 mg
B) 6.3 mg
C) 31.5 mg
D) 0.063 mg
E) 310 mg
47. The correct electronic configuration of Tc (Z=43) is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
48. What is the mass of water formed when 1.6 g of methane gas is completely burnt in excess oxygen?
A) 1.8 g
B) 2.4 g
C) 3.2 g
D) 3.6 g
E) 4.8 g
49. The number of angular and radial nodes present in ‘4d’ orbitals are respectively
A) 2, 1
B) 4, 3
C) 2, 2
D) 3, 2
E) 4, 2
50. Which of the following isoelectronic species has the smallest radius?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
51. Which of the following molecule has the highest dipole moment?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
52. Which of the following aqueous mixture is a buffer solution?

A) Acetic acid + Ammonium chloride
B) Hydrochloric acid + Potassium acetate
C) Acetic acid + Sodium chloride
D) Acetic acid + Sodium acetate
E) Sodium hydroxide + Potassium acetate

53.
A) 90%
B) 95%
C) 100%
D) 85%
E) 80%
54.
A) 15 min
B) 20 min
C) 30 min
D) 25 min
E) 10 min
55. Some enzyme catalysed reactions which occur at metal surfaces are
A) first order reactions
B) second order reactions
C) third order reactions
D) fractional order reactions
E) zero order reactions
56. The sum of the oxidation numbers of all the carbon and oxygen atoms in carbonate ion is
A) +1
B) +2
C) -2
D) -1
E) -3
57. In which of the following equilibrium, increase in pressure shift the equilibrium in the forward direction?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

58.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
59.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
For which of the following molecule, resonance structures are necessary to describe the bonding
60. satisfactorily?
A) Ozone
B) Boron trifluride
C) Water
D) Acetylene
E) Phosphorous trichloride
61.
A) 3, paramagnetic
B) 2, paramagnetic
C) 3, diamagnetic
D) 1.5, paramagnetic
E) 2, diamagnetic
62. Which of the following 3d block element exhibits +2, +3, +4, +5, +6 and +7 oxidation states?
A) Titanium
B) Vanadium
C) Chromium
D) Manganese
E) Iron
Which of the following explains why dimethyl ether has lower boiling point than its isomeric compound,
63. ethanol?
A) Resonance
B) London dispersion forces
C) Hybridisation
D) Van der Waals forces
E) Hydrogen bonding
64. Which lanthanide element has half-filled 4f orbitals in its +3 state?

A) Terbium
B) Gadolinium
C) Cerium
D) Lanthanum
E) Lutetium
65.
A) Tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride
B) Aquatetraamminechloridocobalt(III) chloride
C) Chloridotetraammineaquacobalt(II) chloride
D) Tetraamminechloridoaquacobalt(III) dichloride
E) Tetraamminechloridoaquacobalt(II) dichloride
66. In which of the following reaction Lindlar’s catalyst is used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
67. The alkene that exhibits optical isomerism is

A) 2-methyl-2-pentene
B) 3-methyl-2-pentene
C) 3-methyl-1-pentene
D) 4-methyl-1-pentene
E) 2-methylpentane

68.
A) 2-Butanol
B) 2-Methyl 2-propanol
C) 2-Methyl 1-propanol
D) 1-Butanol
E) 2-Phenylethanol
69.
A) Finkelstein reaction
B) Wurtz reaction
C) Sandmeyer’s reaction
D) Williamson reaction
E) Swarts reaction
70. Which is incorrect statement with regard to 1-phenylethanol?

A) It is a primary alcohol
B) It is an aromatic alcohol
C) It forms a ketone on oxidation
D) It is optically active
E) It liberates H2 when treated with metallic sodium
In Dumas method of nitrogen estimation 0.14 g of an organic compound gave 22.4 mL of nitrogen at STP.
71. The percentage of the nitrogen in the compound is
A) 12.5 %
B) 15 %
C) 17.5 %
D) 20 %
E) 22.5%
72. Which of the following base is not present in RNA molecule?

A) Adenine
B) Guanine
C) Thymine
D) Uracil
E) Cytosine
73. Which of the following carboxylic acid has the highest pKa?
A) ethanoic acid
B) chloroethanoic acid
C) fluoroethanoic acid
D) dichloroethanoic acid
E) triflouroethanoic acid
74.
A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
D) 9
E) 13
75. Cheilosis disease and digestive disorders are caused by the deficiency of
A) ascorbic acid
B) thiamine
C) cyanocobalamine
D) riboflavin
E) pyridoxine
76.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
77.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
78.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
79.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
80.
A) a straight line
B) a parabola
C) an ellipse
D) any circle of radius 4
E) a circle with centre at the origin
81.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
82.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
83.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
84.
A) -1
B) -2
C) 0
D) 1
E) 2
85.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
86. The area bounded by the curves y=x2 and y=2x in the first quadrant, is equal to
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
87.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
88.
A) -(1+x)
B) 1+x
C) -2x
D) x2
E) 2
89.
A) 3
B) -2
C) -1
D) 1
E) 4
90.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
91.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
92.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

93.
A) y=(x+2)log(x+2)+x+C
B) y=(x+2)log(x+2)-x+C
C) y=(x+1)log(x+1)-x+C
D) y=(x+1)log(x+1)+x+C
E) y=(x+1)log(x+1)+C
94.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
95.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
96.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
97.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
98.
A) 0
B) 5
C) -1
D) -5
E) 1
99.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
100.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
101.
A) reflexive but not symmetric
B) not reflexive but symmetric
C) reflexive and symmetric
D) neither reflexive nor symmetric
E) an equivalence relation
102.
A) {0,1}
B) {1,-1}
C) {0,-1}
D) {1}
E) {0,-1,1)
103.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
104. Let a, b, c be positive numbers such that abc=1. Then the minimum value of a+b+c is
A) 8
B) 4
C) 6
D) 2
E) 3
105.
A) 980
B) 960
C) 1020
D) 860
E) 880
106.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
107.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Number of integers greater than 7000 can be formed using the digits 2,4,5,7,8 is (Repetition of digits is not
108. allowed)
A) 120
B) 168
C) 144
D) 108
E) 124
109.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
110.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
111.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
112.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
113.
A) 4
B) -3
C) 2
D) -1
E) -4
114.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
115.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
116.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
117.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
118.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
119.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
120.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
121.
A) 2
B) 8
C) 4
D) 6
E) 3
122.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E) None of the above
123.
A) 4a2-2b2
B) 4a2-b2
C) 2a2-3b2
D) a2-2b2
E) 4a2-3b2

124.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
125.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
126.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
127.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
128.
A) 3
B) 2
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
129.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
130.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
131. The centre of the circle (x-3)(x+1)+(y-1)(y+3)=0 is

A) (3,1)
B) (-1,-3)
C) (3,-3)
D) (-1,1)
E) (1,-1)
132.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
133.
A) 15
B) 20
C) 16
D) 18
E) 22
134.
A) -5
B) -4
C) -3
D) -6
E) -8
135.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
136.
A) (11,8,-3)
B) (-11,-8,-3)
C) (11,-8,3)
D) (11,-8,-3)
E) (9,8,-3)
137.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
138.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

139.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
140.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
141.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
142.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
143.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
144.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
145.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
146.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
147.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
148.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
149.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
150.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Exam:KEAM2024 06
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
If the initial speed of the car moving at constant acceleration is halved, then the stopping distance S
3. becomes
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

When a cricketer catches a ball in 30 s, the force required is 2.5 N. The force required to catch that
4. ball in 50 s is
A) 1.5 N
B) 1N
C) 2.5 N
D) 3N
E) 5N
5.
A) 20 and 9.8
B) 0 and 9.8
C) 0 and 0
D) 10 and 9.8
E) 0 and 4.9
6. Which one is an INCORRECT statement?

A) Forces always occur in pairs
B) Impulsive force is a force that acts for a shorter duration
C) Impulse is the change in momentum of the body
D) Momentum and change in momentum both have the same direction
E) Action and reaction forces act on different bodies
7. Impending motion is opposed by

A) static friction
B) fluid friction
C) sliding friction
D) kinetic friction
E) rolling friction
A block of 50 g mass is connected to a spring of spring constant 500 Nm-1. It is extended to the
8.
maximum and released. If the maximum speed of the block is 3 ms-1, then the length of extension is
A) 4 cm
B) 1 cm
C) 2.5 cm
D) 3 cm
E) 5 cm
9.
A) 2
B) 1
C) 2.5
D) 3
E) 5
10. The motion of a cylinder on an inclined plane is a

A) rotational but not translation
B) translation but not rotational
C) translational but not rolling
D) rotational, translational and rolling motion
E) rotational and rolling but not translational motion
11. A flywheel ensures a smooth ride on the vehicle because of its

A) larger speed
B) zero moment of inertia
C) large moment of inertia
D) lesser mass with smaller radius
E) small moment of inertia
12. The escape speed of the moon when compared with escape speed of the earth is approximately
A) twice smaller
B) thrice smaller
C) 4 times smaller
D) 5 times smaller
E) 6 times smaller
13. The force of gravity is a

A) strong force
B) noncentral force
C) nonconservative force
D) contact force
E) conservative force
14. The terminal velocity of a small steel ball falling through a viscous medium is
A) directly proportional to the radius of the ball
B) inversely proportional to the radius of the ball
C) directly proportional to the square of the radius of the ball
D) directly proportional to the square root of the radius of the ball
E) inversely proportional to the square of the radius of the ball
The stress required to produce a fractional compression of 1.5 % in a liquid having bulk modulus of
15. 0.9 x 109 Nm-2 is
A) 2.48 x107 Nm-2
B) 0.26 x107 Nm-2
C) 3.72x107 Nm-2
D) 1.35 x107 Nm-2
E) 4.56 x107 Nm-2
16. When heat is supplied to the gas in an isochoric process, the supplied heat changes its
A) volume only
B) internal energy and volume
C) internal energy only
D) internal energy and temperature
E) temperature only
17.
A) 83.72 J
B) 33.52 J
C) 335.72 J
D) 837.24 J
E) 418.72 J
18. All real gases behave like an ideal gas at

A) high pressure and low temperature
B) low temperature and low pressure
C) high pressure and high temperature
D) at all temperatures and pressures
E) low pressure and high temperature
19.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
A wave with a frequency of 600 Hz and wavelength of 0.5 m travels a distance of 200 m in air in a
20. time of
A) 1.67 s
B) 0.67 s
C) 1s
D) 0.33 s
E) 1.33 s
If the fundamental frequency of the stretched string of length 1 m under a given tension is 3 Hz, then
21. the fundamental frequency of the stretched string of length 0.75 m under the same tension is
A) 1 Hz
B) 2 Hz
C) 6 Hz
D) 4 Hz
E) 5 Hz
22.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
23.
A) 2V
B) 10 V
C) 6V
D) 3V
E) 5V
24.
A) 20 Ω
B) 10 Ω
C) 6Ω
D) 8Ω
E) 5Ω
n number of electrons flowing in a copper wire for 1 minute constitute a current of 0.5 A. Twice the
25. number of electrons flowing through the same wire for 20 s will constitute a current of
A) 0.25 A
B) 3A
C) 1A
D) 1.25 A
E) 2.25 A
If a cell of 12 V emf delivers 2 A current in a circuit having a resistance of 5.8 Ω, then the internal
26. resistance of the cell is
A) 1Ω
B) 0.2 Ω
C) 0.3 Ω
D) 0.6 Ω
E) 0.8 Ω
Torque on a coil carrying current I having N turns and area of cross section A when placed with its
27. plane perpendicular to a magnetic field B is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
28.
A) 1.5 A
B) 1A
C) 2.5 A
D) 3A
E) 5A

29. Which one of the following statement is INCORRECT?
A) Isolated magnetic poles do not exist
B) Magnetic field lines do not intersect
C) Moving charges do not produce magnetic field in the surrounding space
D) Magnetic field lines always form closed loops
E) Magnetic force on a negative charge is opposite to that on a positive charge
When a current passing through a coil changes at a rate of 30 As-1 the emf induced in the coil is 12
30.
V. If the current passing through this coil changes at a rate of 20 As-1 the emf induced in this coil is
A) 8V
B) 10 V
C) 2.5 V
D) 3V
E) 5V
31. The reactance of an induction coil of 4 H for a dc current (in Ω) is

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
32. If the total momentum delivered to a surface by an em wave is 3 x 10-4 kgms-1, then the total energy
transferred to this surface is
A) 3 x 104J
B) 4.5 x 104J
C) 6 x 104J
D) 2 x 104J
E) 9 x 104J
33. The radiations used in LASIK eye surgery are
A) IR radiations
B) micro waves
C) radio waves
D) gamma rays
E) UV radiations
34.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
35. If the power of a lens is +4 D, then the lens is a

A) convex lens of focal length 25 cm
B) concave lens of focal length 25 cm
C) concave lens of focal length 40 cm
D) convex lens of focal length 50 cm
E) concave lens of focal length 20 cm
In a single slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit and the wavelength of the light are
36. respectively 5 mm and 500 nm. If the focal length of the lens is 20 cm, then the size of the central
bright fringe will be
A) 5 x 10-5 m
B) 3 x 10-5 m
C) 2.5 x 10-5 m
D) 2 x 10-5 m
E) 1 x 10-5 m
A particle having mass 2000 times that of an electron travels with a velocity thrice that of the
37. electron. The ratio of the de Broglie wavelength of the particle to that of the electron is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
38. The process by which the electrons can come out of the metal in a spark plug is
A) field emission
B) ionic emission
C) secondary emission
D) thermionic emission
E) photoelectric emission
The energy required to excite the hydrogen atom from its first excited state to second excited state
39. is
A) 12.09 eV
B) 1.89 eV
C) 10.2 eV
D) 3.40 eV
E) 1.51 eV
If the maximum number of neighbours of a nucleon within the range of nuclear force is p and k is a
40. constant, then the binding energy per nucleon is approximately
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
41. In gamma emission, the nucleus emits

A) a photon
B) a neutron
C) a neutrino
D) an electron
E) a positron
42.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

43.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
44.
A) insulator
B) semiconductor
C) superconductor
D) dielectirc
E) metal
45. The thickness of the depletion layer on either side of the p-n junction is of the order of
A) μm
B) cm
C) mm
D) nm
E) m
46. The unit of an universal constant is cm-1. What is the constant?

A) Planck’s constant
B) Boltzmann constant
C) Rydberg constant
D) Avogadro constant
E) Molar gas constant
47. Which of the following molecule has the most polar bond?
A) Cl2
B) HCl
C) PCl3
D) N2
E) HF
48.
A) I and III only

B) II and III only
C) I only
D) III only
E) I, II, and III
Equal volumes of pH 3, 4 & 5 are mixed in a container. The concentration of H+ in the mixture is
49. (Assume there is no change in the volume during mixing)
A) 1 x 10-3M
B) 3.7 x 10-4M
C) 1 x 10-4M
D) 3.7 x 10-5M
E) 3 x 10-5M
50.
A) 36
B) 6.0
C) 60
D) 3.6
E) 0.60
51. Strong intra-molecular hydrogen bond is present in

A) water
B) hydrogen fluoride
C) o-cresol
D) o-nitrophenol
E) ammonia
52. Which of the following molecule has a Lewis structure that does not obey the octet rule?
A) HCN
B) CS2
C) NO
D) CCl4
E) PF3
53. The rate and the rate constant of a reaction has the same units. The order of the reaction is
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) zero
E) half
54.
A) 2,1
B) 1,1
C) 1,2
D) 2,2
E) 2,0
The standard molar entropies of SO2(g), SO3(g) and O2(g) are 250 JK-1,257 JK-1 and are 205 JK-1
55. respectively. Calculate standard molar entropy change for the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)
A) -198 JK-1
B) -191 JK-1
C) 198 JK-1
D) 191 JK-1
E) -1219 JK-1

An aqueous solution contains 20g of a non-volatile strong electrolyte A2B (Molar mass=60 g mol-1)
56. in 1 kg of water. If the electrolyte is 100% dissociated at this concentration, what is the boiling point
of the solution? (Kb of water is 0.52 K kg mol-1)
A) 372.482K
B) 374.56K
C) 373.52K
D) 371.44K
E) 374.02K
An organic compound contains 37.5% C, 12.5% H and the rest oxygen. What is the empirical
57. formula of the compound?
A) CH4O
B) C2H3O
C) CH3O2
D) C2H4O
E) CH3O
How many grams of HCl will completely react with 17.4g of pure MnO2(s) to liberate Cl2(g)? (Atomic
58. mass Mn=55.0; H=1; Cl=35.5)
A) 14.6g
B) 7.3g
C) 21.9g
D) 29.2g
E) 34.8g
What is the quantity of current required to liberate 16g of O2(g) during electrolysis of water? (Given
59. 1F=96500C)
A) 4.825 x 104C
B) 9.65 x 104C
C) 2.895 x 105C
D) 4.825 x 105C
E) 1.93 x 105C

60.
A) (a) –(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)- (iii)
C) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)- (ii)
D) (a)-(iv), (b)- (ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
E) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
61. Which of the following amines will not undergo carbylamine reaction?
A) N-methylethanamine
B) Phenylmethanamine
C) Aniline
D) Ethanamine
E) Propan-2-amine
62. The 3d block metal having positive standard electrode potential (M2+/M) is
A) Titanium
B) Vanadium
C) Iron
D) Copper
E) Chromium
Which of the following statement is incorrect with regard to interstitial compounds of transition
63. elements?
A) They have high melting points.
B) They are very hard.
C) They have metallic conductivity.
D) They are chemically inert.
E) They are stoichiometric compounds.
The alloy containing about 95% lanthanoids, 5% iron and traces of S, C, Ca and Al which is used in
64. producing Mg-based bullets is
A) bell metal
B) monel metal
C) misch metal
D) bronze
E) german silver
65. The IUPAC name of the complex [Cr(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3 is

A) triaquatriamminechromium(III) chloride
B) triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
C) triaquatriamminechromium(II) chloride
D) triamminetriaquachromium(II) chloride
E) triaquatriamminechromium(III) trichloride
In the Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.4g of an organic compound gave 0.188g of AgBr.
66. What is the percentage of bromine in the organic compound? (The atomic mass of Ag = 108 g mol-
1& Br = 80 g mol-1)
A) 20%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 25%
E) 30%
Which one of the following compounds can exhibit both optical isomerism and geometrical
67. isomerism?
A) 2-chloropent-2-ene
B) 5-chloropent-2-ene
C) 4-chloropent-2-ene
D) 3-chloropent-1-ene
E) 3-chloropent-2-ene
68. Which one of the following nucleophiles is an ambident nucleophile?

A) CH3O-
B) HO-
C) CH3COO-
D) H2O
E) CN-
69. Choose the achiral molecule in the following:

A) 2-bromobutane
B) 3-nitropentane
C) 3-chlorobut-1-ene
D) 1-bromoethanol
E) 2-hydroxypropanoic acid
70. Phenol can be converted to salicylaldehyde by

A) Kolbe reaction
B) Williamson reaction
C) Etard reaction
D) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
E) Stephen reaction
71. The order of decreasing acid strength of carboxylic acids is

A) FCH2COOH ˃ ClCH2COOH ˃ NO2CH2COOH ˃ CNCH2COOH
B) CNCH2COOH ˃ FCH2COOH ˃ NO2CH2COOH ˃ ClCH2COOH
C) NO2CH2COOH ˃ FCH2COOH ˃ ClCH2COOH ˃ CNCH2COOH
D) FCH2COOH ˃ NO2CH2COOH ˃ ClCH2COOH ˃ CNCH2COOH
E) NO2CH2COOH ˃ CNCH2COOH ˃ FCH2COOH ˃ ClCH2COOH
Chlorophenylmethane is treated with ethanolic NaCN and the product obtained is reduced with H2 in
72. the presence of finely divided nickel to give
A) Phenylmethanamine
B) 1-phenylethanamine
C) 2-phenylethanamine
D) 1-methyl-2-phenylethanamine
E) phenylmethanamine
73. A reagent that can be used to reduce benzene diazonium chloride to benzene is
A) ethanol
B) methanol
C) methanoic acid
D) acetone
E) phosphorous acid
74. Which one of the following is not an essential amino acid?

A) Lysine
B) Tyrosine
C) Threonine
D) Tryptophan
E) Methionine
75. 14g of cyclopropane burnt completely in excess oxygen. The number of moles of water formed is
A) 1.4 moles
B) 2.8 moles
C) 2.0 moles
D) 1.0 mole
E) 4 moles
76.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E) (1,0)
77.
A) reflexive, symmetric and transitive

B) reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
C) not reflexive, not symmetric and not transitive
D) not reflexive but symmetric and transitive
E) reflexive but not symmetric and transitive
78.
A) 27
B) 35
C) 38
D) 29
E) 23
79.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
80.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
81.
A) 2
B) -2
C) 1
D) -1
E) 0
82.
A) 9
B) 12
C) 18
D) 24
E) 27
83.
A) 8
B) 10
C) 16
D) 30
E) 32
84.
A) 0,5
B) 10,15
C) 5,10
D) 5,15
E) 5,20
85.
A) -1
B) 1
C) -2
D) 2
E) 0
86.
A) (4,5)
B) (2,5)
C) (4,10)
D) (2,10)
E) (0,10)
87.
A) 84
B) 36
C) 63
D) 252
E) 128
88.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) -2
E) -1
89.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
90.
A) 5
B) 3
C) 7
D) 15
E) 25
91.
A) 144
B) 120
C) 520
D) 720
E) 620
92.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
93.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
94.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
95.
A) -5
B) 5
C) 4
D) 9
E) -9
96.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
97.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
98.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
99.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
100.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
101.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
102.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
103.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
104.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
105.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
106.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
107.
A) 1
B) -1
C) 2
D) -2
E) 0
108.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
109.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

110.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
111.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
112.
A) 6
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12
E) 14
113.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
114.
A) (7,0) and (-7,0)
B) (6,0) and (-6,0)
C) (4,0) and (-4,0)
D) (5,0) and (-5,0)
E) (3,0) and (-3,0)
The line y=5x+7 is perpendicular to the line joining the points (2, 12) and (12, k). Then the value of k
115. is equal to
A) 12
B) -12
C) 8
D) -8
E) 10
116. The centre of the hyperbola 16x2-4y2+64x-24y-36=0 is at the point

A) (-2,-3)
B) (-4,-6)
C) (2,3)
D) (4,6)
E) (2,6)
117. The focus of the parabola y2+4y-8x+20=0 is at the point

A) (0,-2)
B) (2,-2)
C) (4,-2)
D) (2,0)
E) (4,-4)
118.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
119.
A) 1
B) -1
C) 2
D) -2
E) 0
120.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
121.
A) 3
B) 4
C) -3
D) -4
E) 6

122.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
123.
A) (3,4,3)
B) (7,6,6)
C) (4,3,3)
D) (10,11,10)
E) (11,10,10)
124.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
125.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
126.
A) 64
B) 128
C) 256
D) 512
E) 1024
127.
A) -2
B) 2
C) 4
D) -4
E) 0
128.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
129.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
130.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
131.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
132.
A) -10
B) -5
C) 10
D) 5
E) 0
133.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
134.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
135.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
136.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
137.
A) 10
B) -10
C) 5
D) -5
E) 0
138.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
139.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
140.
A) -1,3,-2
B) 1,3,-2
C) 3,3,-2
D) 0,3,-2
E) 0,-3,2
141.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
142.
A) -7
B) 7
C) 8
D) -8
E) 0

143.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
144.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
145.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
146.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
147.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
148.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
149.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
150.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Exam:KEAM2024 07
1. Choose the INCORRECT dimensions:

A) Linear momentum: MLT-1
B) Angular momentum: ML2T-1
C) Speed of Light: M0LT-2
D) Kinetic energy: ML2T-2
E) Angular frequency: M0L0T-1
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
A person travels in a car from p to q with uniform speed u and returns to p with uniform speed v. The
3. average speed for his round trip is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The velocity (v)-time (t) graph for the motion of a body is a straight line making an angle 600 with the
5.
time axis. Then the body is moving with an acceleration (in m s-2) of
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
A body of weight W is suspended from the ceiling of a room through a chain of weight w. The ceiling
6. pulls the chain by a force
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The coefficient of friction between the road and the tyres of a cyclist is 0.1. The maximum speed with
7.
which he can take a circular turn of radius 2 m without skidding is (g=10 ms-2)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
8. A person standing in an elevator, experiences weight loss, when the elevator

A) moves down with uniform velocity
B) moves upward with constant acceleration
C) moves downward with constant acceleration
D) moves upward with uniform velocity
E) moves down with variable acceleration
The ratio of the maximum kinetic energy to the maximum potential energy of a bob of a simple
9. pendulum executing small oscillations is
A) 1:1
B) 1:2
C) 2:1
D) 1:4
E) 4:1
A constant force of 6 N acting on a stationary body displaces it by 3 m in 2 s. The average power

10. delivered is
A) 18 W
B) 15 W
C) 12 W
D) 9W
E) 6W
A block of mass 3 kg executes simple harmonic motion under the restoring force of a spring. The
11. amplitude and the time period of the motion are 0.1 m and 3.14 s respectively. The maximum force
exerted by the spring on the block is
A) 1.2 N
B) 3N
C) 12 N
D) 30 N
E) 90 N
12. The principle involved in the performance of a circus acrobat is the conservation of
A) translational energy
B) linear momentum
C) angular momentum
D) mass
E) rotational energy

For a smoothly running analog clock, the ratio of the angular velocity of the minute hand to the
13. angular velocity of hour hand is
A) 2
B) 12
C) 24
D) 60
E) 360
The height above the surface of the earth at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes half of
14. that on the surface of the earth is (R is the radius of earth)
A) R
B) 2R
C) 4R
D)
E)

A particle of 100 g mass is projected vertically up with a kinetic energy of 20 J. The maximum height
15. reached by the particle is (g = 10 ms-2) (neglecting air resistance)
A) 5m
B) 10 m
C) 15 m
D) 20 m
E) 25 m
16.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

If the radii of two soap bubbles are respectively 2 cm and 3 cm, then the ratio of the excess pressures
17. inside the soap bubbles is
A) 5:3
B) 3:2
C) 2:3
D) 1:1
E) 3:5
The elastic energy stored per unit volume in a stretched wire is (Y= Young’s modulus of the material
18. of the wire; S= stress acting on the wire)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
19. The zeroth law of thermodynamics leads to the concept of

A) carnot engine
B) work
C) temperature
D) heat
E) internal energy
20.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
21. The work done by a gas on the system is zero in

A) adiabatic process
B) isothermal compression
C) isochoric process
D) isobaric process
E) isothermal expansion
22.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
23.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
24.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
25.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
26. The lowest frequency of the air column in an open pipe of length L is (v= velocity of sound in air)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
27.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Two like charges kept in air medium experience a force F, when they are separated by a certain
28. distance r. When the same charges are kept in a dielectric medium at the same distance of the
separation the force between them is 0.5F. The dielectric constant of the medium is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
29.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Masses of three copper wires are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 1. Then
30. the ratio of their electric resistances is
A) 125 : 15 : 1
B) 5:3:1
C) 1: 25:125
D) 1 : 3: 5
E) 5 : 21 : 25
31.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
32.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The ratio of radii of the circular paths of a proton and a deuteron when projected perpendicular to the
33. direction of a uniform magnetic field with the same speed is
A) 1:1
B) 1:2
C) 2:1
D) 4:1
E) 1: 4

34. An alternative form of Biot-Savart’s law is
A) Gauss’s law
B) Ohm’s law
C) Coulomb’s law
D) Ampere’s circuital law
E) Joule’s law
35.
A) 106
B) 10-6
C) 1012
D) 10-12
E) 1016
36. Electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 x 1014 Hz lie in the

A) ultraviolet region
B) infrared region
C) visible region
D) radio region
E) Microwave region
37. Whenever light travels from rarer medium into denser medium its
A) frequency increases
B) wavelength increases
C) frequency decreases
D) wavelength decreases
E) wavelength remains unchanged
38.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The number of de Broglie waves associated with Bohr electron when it completes one revolution in its
39. third orbit is
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 6
E)
40.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
In a nuclear fusion process, the masses of the fusing nuclei are MA and MB . Then the mass of the
41. product nucleus MC is related to MA and MB as
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
42.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
43.
A) 8
B) 10
C) 6
D) 12
E) 4
44. An intrinsic semiconductor at T= 0 K behaves like

A) insulator
B) n- type semiconductor
C) p- type semiconductor
D) conductor
E) superconductor
45. When a diode is reverse biased

A) applied voltage in the p - side is positive
B) the depletion layer width decreases
C) the applied voltage is in the opposite direction of barrier potential
D) minority carriers are not allowed to cross the barrier
E) the barrier height increases
46. 10 g of alcohol is dissolved in 90 g of water. The percentage of alcohol in the solution is

A) 10%
B) 90%
C) 20%
D) 100%
E) 1%
47. Which of the following set of quantum numbers possible?

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

48. The electronic configuration of Pd (Z=46) is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
49. Which of the following has square planar structure?

A) NH4+
B) XeF4
C) CCl4
D) SiCl4
E) CH4
50. Which of the following molecule is paramagnetic?

A) O2
B) C2
C) N2
D) F2
E) H2
The vapour pressure of H2O at 323K is 95 mm of Hg. 176g of sucrose (Molar mass =342 gmol-1) is
51.
added to 900g of H2O at 323K. The vapour pressure of solution is about
A) 93.94 mm
B) 92.88 mm
C) 96.06 mm
D) 95.33 mm
E) 94.06 mm
52. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A) The greater the disorder in an isolated system, the higher is the entropy.
B) The crystalline solid state of a substance is the state of lowest entropy.
C) Entropy is not the measure of average chaotic motion of particles in the system.
D) The gaseous state of a substance is state of highest entropy.
E) ΔS is related to q and T for a reversible reaction as ∆S = qrev/T.

53.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
54. Which of the following statement is true with regard to Daniell cell?
A) Oxidation occurs at cathode
B) Reduction occurs at anode
C) E0 cell is 1.1 V
D) Electrical energy produces chemical reaction
E) Electrolytes are aqueous solutions of CuSO4 and FeSO4.
55. The conductivity of 0.02 mol L-1 KCl solution is 0.248 S m-1. Its molar conductivity is
A) 20 S m2 mol-1
B) 1.24 x 10-3 S m2 mol-1
C) 1.24 x 10-4 S m2 mol-1
D) 2.48 x 10-2 S m2 mol-1
E) 1.24 x 10-2 S m2 mol-1
56. Which of the following compound has the lowest boiling point?
A) Carbon disulphide
B) Water
C) Ethanol
D) Benzene
E) Chloroform
57. Radioactive decay follows

A) first order
B) second order
C) third order
D) zero order
E) Pseudo first order

In which of the following system, the number of moles of the substance present at equilibrium not be
58. shifted by change in the volume of the system at constant temperature?
A) N2 (g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
B) PCl3 (g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ PCl5(g)
C) CO (g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ CH4(g)
D) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2SO3 (g)
E) NO2 (g) + SO2 (g) ⇌ SO3(g) + NO(g) + H2O(g)
59. Which of the following has the least atomic radius?
A) B
B) C
C) N
D) O
E) F
60. Which of the following tripositive ion has smallest size?

A) Ce3+
B) Nd3+
C) La3+
D) Sm3+
E) Gd3+
61. Lanthanides (Ln) when heated with carbon at 2773K form product with general formula
A) LnC
B) Ln2C3
C) LnC3
D) LnC2
E) Ln3C2
62. Which of the following is an acidic oxide?

A) CrO3
B) CrO
C) V2O4
D) V2O5
E) V2O3
63. The catalyst used in the Wacker process is

A) V2O5
B) PdCl2
C) TiCl4 with Al(CH3)3
D) Fe
E) Mo
64. The coordination number of Pt and Fe in the complexes [PtCl6]2- and [Fe(C2O4)3]3- are respectively
A) 4 and 6
B) 6 and 6
C) 4 and 4
D) 6 and 8
E) 4 and 8
65. The IUPAC name of HOCH2(CH2)3CH2COCH3

A) 2-oxo-heptan-7-ol
B) 7-hydroxyheptan-2-one
C) hydroxyheptan-6-one
D) 2-oxo-heptan-7-ol
E) hydroxy pentyl methyl ketone
66. Which of the following statement is incorrect with Kolbe’s electrolytic method?
A) It gives an alkane with even number of carbon atoms at the anode.
B) At anode decarboxylation and formation of methyl radical occurs.
C) Methane cannot be prepared by this method.
D) At anode acetate ion accepts electrons to give acetate free radical.
E) At cathode hydrogen gas is liberated.
67. Which of the following substitution reaction with methane requires HIO3 as an oxidising agent?
A) Chlorination
B) Bromination
C) Iodination
D) Fluorination
E) Friel-Crafts acylation
68.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

A) (-)-2-bromooctane reacts with NaOH gives (+)-octan-2-ol by SN2 reaction.
B) 2-Bromobutane reacts with NaOH gives racemic mixture by SN1 reaction.
C) β-elimination of 2-bromopentane gives pent-1-ene as major product.
D) The hybridization of the carbon in the intermediate formed in SN1 reaction is sp2.
E) Primary alkyl halide undergoes SN2 faster than secondary alkyl halide.
Compound ‘X’ (C6H6O) reacts with aqueous NaOH to give compound ‘Y’. ‘Y’ reacts with CO2 followed
70. by acidification to give compound ‘Z’. The compounds X, Y and Z are respectively
A) benzene, phenol, salicylaldehyde
B) phenol, benzene, benzoic acid
C) phenol, sodium phenoxide, benzophenone
D) benzaldehyde, sodium phenoxide, salicylic acid
E) phenol, sodium phenoxide, salicylic acid
71. The decreasing order of basic strength in aqueous solution of amines is

A) Dimethylamine > Methylamine > Trimethylamine > Ammonia
B) Methylamine > Dimethylamine > Trimethylamine > Ammonia
C) Trimethylamine > Dimethylamine > Methylamine > Ammonia
D) Ammonia > Trimethylamine > Dimethylamine > Methylamine
E) Ammonia > Dimethylamine > Trimethylamine > Methylamine
72. The melting point of β-form of crystalline glucose is

A) 473 K
B) 303 K
C) 423 K
D) 371 K
E) 503 K
73. Kjeldahl method can be used to estimate nitrogen in

A) azobenzene
B) aniline
C) o-nitrophenol
D) nitrobenzene
E) pyridine
74. Which of the following vitamin deficiency causes increased fragility of RBCs and muscular weakness?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B12
C) Riboflavin
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin E
75. Which of the following is the most reactive in aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction?
A) Benzene
B) Chlorobenzene
C) Phenol
D) Benzaldehyde
E) Nitrobenzene
76.
A) 40
B) 45
C) 60
D) 75
E) 85
77.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
78.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
79.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
80.
A) 10
B) 15
C) 25
D) 35
E) 45
81.
A) 3
B) -3
C) 2
D) -2
E) 0
82.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
83.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
84. The number of positive integers that have at most seven digits and contain only the digits 0 and 9 is
A) 112
B) 127
C) 136
D) 142
E) 150
85.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Let A = {1, 3, 5, 7, …, 21}. The number of ways 4 numbers, containing always 11, can be selected
86. from the set A is equal to
A) 120
B) 160
C) 240
D) 260
E) 320
87.
A) reflexive, symmetric and transitive

B) neither reflexive nor symmetric nor transitive
C) not reflexive but symmetric and transitive
D) reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
E) reflexive but not symmetric and transitive
88.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
89.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 45
D) 50
E) 65
90.
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
E) 10
91.
A) 21
B) -21
C) 14
D) -14
E) 7
92.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
93.
A) 121
B) 66
C) 11
D) 10
E) 0
94.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
95.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
96.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
97.
A) 81
B) -81
C) 243
D) -243
E) -32
The means of two samples of size 30 and 40 are 35 and 42 respectively. Then the mean of the
98. combined sample of size 70 is
A) 36
B) 37
C) 38
D) 39
E) 40
99.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
E) 12
If two dice are rolled simultaneously, then the probability that the difference of the numbers on the two
100. dice equals to zero is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
101.
A) 0.45
B) 0.28
C) 0.4
D) 0.7
E) 0.3

102.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
103.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
104.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
105.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
106.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
107.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

108.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
109.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
110.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
111.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
112.
A) 7,-7
B) 9,-9
C) 12,-12
D) 18,-18
E) 14,-14
113.
A) (6,13)
B) (3,-8)
C) (3,8)
D) (6,-13)
E) (3,11)
114. The equation of the parabola with focus at (3, 1) and vertex at (5, 1) is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
115.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
116.
A) 16
B) 15
C) 14
D) 12
E) 10
117.
A) 1
B) -2
C) 2
D) -3
E) 3
118. If (3, 2) and (5 ,6) are end points of a diameter of a circle, then the equation of the circle is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
119.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
120.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
121.
A) 50
B) -50
C) 49
D) -49
E) 0
122.
A) (1,1,1)
B) (2,2,2)
C) (3,3,3)
D) (4,4,4)
E) (6,6,6)
123.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
124. The symmetric equation of the straight line passing through the points (-1, 4, 2) and (-3, 0, 5) is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
125.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

126.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
127.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
is coated uniformly around a sphere of radius 15cm. If ice is melting at the rate of 80 cm 3 / min
128. Ice
when the thickness is 5cm, then the rate of change of thickness of ice is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
129.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
130.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
131.
A) 7
B) 9
C) 10
D) 12
E) 14
132.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
133.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
134.
A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
D) 13
E) 14
135.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

136.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
137.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
138.
A) 4
B) 2
C) -4
D) -2
E)
139.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
140.
A) 1
B) -1
C) 2
D) -2
E) 0
141.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
142.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
143.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
E) 9
144.
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1
E) 0
145.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

146.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
147.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
148.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
149.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
150.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Exam:KEAM2024 08
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
4. If the slope of the velocity-time graph of a moving particle is zero, then its acceleration is
A) constant but not zero
B) zero
C) constant and is in the direction of velocity
D) not a constant.
E) constant and is opposite to the direction of velocity
5.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
6. A boy sitting in a bus moving at a constant velocity throws a ball vertically up into air. The ball will fall
A) in the bus in front of the boy
B) in the bus on the side of the boy
C) outside the bus
D) in the hands of the boy
E) in the bus behind the boy
7.
A) 4
B) 12
C) 8
D) 6
E) 3
When a vehicle moving with kinetic energy K is stopped in a distance d by applying a stopping force F
8. given by
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The torque required to increase the angular speed of a uniform solid disc of mass 10 kg and diameter 0.5
10. m from zero to 120 rotations per minute in 5 sec. is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11. Radius of gyration K of a hollow cylinder of mass M and radius R about its long axis of symmetry is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
12.
A) the mass of the body thrown from the planet
B) the direction of projection of the body
C) the angle of projection
D) only on the mass of the planet
E)
13.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
14.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

15. A fluid has stream line flow through a horizontal pipe of variable cross-sectional area. Then
A) its velocity is minimum at the narrowest part of the tube and the pressure is minimum at the widest point
B) its velocity and pressure both are maximum at the widest point
C) its velocity and pressure both are minimum at the narrowest point
D) its velocity is maximum at the narrowest point and the pressure is maximum at the widest part
E) its velocity is maximum and pressure is minimum at the narrowest point
16.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
17.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
18.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
19.
A) more in process (ii)

B) more in process (i)
C) same in both the processes
D) zero
E)
20.
A) 3:2
B) 2:3
C) 1:1
D)
E)
A particle is executing linear simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude of A. If the total energy of
21. oscillation is E, then its kinetic energy at a distance of 0.707 A from the mean position is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
22.
A) 5
B) 2
C) 8
D) 1
E) 6
A thin spherical shell of radius 12 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 60 V. Then the
23. potential at the centre of the sphere is
A) 5V
B) Zero
C) 30 V
D) 120 V
E) 60 V
24.
A) 4 kV
B) 25 kV
C) 50 kV
D) 40 kV
E) 2 kV
25.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
A steady current of 2A is flowing through a conducting wire. The number of electrons flowing per second in
26. it is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
If the voltage across a bulb rated 220V – 60 W drops by 1.5% of its rated value, the percentage drop in the
27. rated value of the power is
A) 0.75%
B) 1.5%
C) 4.5%
D) 3%
E) 2.5%
28.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
29.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil having single turn of the wire carrying current I is B. The
30. magnetic field at the centre of the same coil with 4 turns carrying the same current is
A) 16B
B) 8B
C) 4B
D)
E)
31.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
If the magnetic field energy stored in an inductor changes from maximum to minimum value in 5 ms, when
32. connected to an a.c. source, the frequency of the a.c. source is
A) 200 Hz
B) 500 Hz
C) 50 Hz
D) 20 Hz
E) 100 Hz
33. In an LCR circuit, at resonance, the value of the power factor is

A) 1
B) 0
C) 0.5
D) 0.75
E) infinity
34.
A) positive x direction
B) negative x direction
C) positive y direction
D) negative y direction
E) negative z direction
35. When light is reflected from an optically rarer medium

A) its phase remains unchanged but its frequency increases
B) both its phase and frequency remain unchanged
C)
D) its phase remains the same but the frequency decreases
E)
36.
A) 3 cm
B) 10 cm
C) 12 cm
D) 1.5 cm
E) 6 cm
37.
A) 0.4
B) 0.5
C) 0.3
D) 0.7
E) 0.9
38.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

39.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
40. Bohr atom model is invalid for

A) Hydrogen atom
B) doubly ionized helium atom
C) deuteron atom
D) singly ionized helium atom
E) doubly ionized lithium atom
41. The energy equivalent of 1 g of a substance in joules is

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
42. Mass numbers of two nuclei are in the ratio 2:3. The ratio of the nuclear densities would be
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

43.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
44.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
45. Electric conduction in a semiconductor is due to

A) holes only
B) electrons only
C) neither holes nor electrons
D) both electrons and holes
E) recombination of electrons and holes
g of an aqueous solution contains 60 g of urea (Molar mass = 60 g mol-1). The molality of the solution
46. 260
is
A) 2m
B) 3m
C) 4m
D) 5m
E) 6m
47. Which of the following pair exhibits diagonal relationship?

A) Li and Mg
B) Li and Na
C) Mg and Al
D) B and P
E) C and Cl
48. The molecule which has see saw in structure is

A) NH3
B) SF4
C) CCl4
D) SiCl4
E) BrF5
49. The quantum number which determines the shape of the subshell is
A) Principal quantum number
B) Magnetic quantum number
C) Azimuthal quantum number
D) Spin quantum number
E) Principal and magnetic quantum number
50.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
51.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The limiting molar conductances of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa at 300 K are 126.4, 425.9 and 91.0 S cm2
52.
mol-1 respectively. The limiting molar conductance of acetic acid at 300 K is
A) 266 S cm2 mol-1
B) 390.5 S cm2 mol-1
C) 461.3 S cm2 mol-1
D) 208 S cm2 mol-1
E) 108 S cm2 mol-1
53. Which of the following liquid pair shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law?
A) Phenol – Aniline
B) Acetone - Carbon disulphide
C) Benzene – Toluene
D) n-hexane – n-heptane
E) Bromoethane – Chloroethane
54. The half-life period of a first order reaction is 1000 seconds. Its rate constant is
A) 0.693 sec-1
B) 6.93 x 10-2 sec-1
C) 6.93 x 10-3 sec-1
D) 6.93 x 10-4 sec-1
E) 6.93 x 10-1 sec-1
55. Which of the following material acts as a semiconductor at 298 K?

A) Iron
B) Copper oxide
C) Sodium
D) Graphite
E) Glass
The resistance of a conductivity cell filled with 0.02 M KCl solution is 520 ohm at 298 K. The conductivity of
56. the solution at 298 K is (Cell constant = 130 cm-1)
A) 0.50 S cm-1
B) 1.25 S cm-1
C) 0.025 S cm-1
D) 0.25 S cm-1
E) 0.75 S cm-1
For the equilibrium at 500 K, N

2 (g) + 3H
2 (g) ⇌ 2NH
3 (g) , the equilibrium concentrations of N
2 (g) , H2 (g) and
57. NH
3 (g) are respectively 4.0 M, 2.0 M and 2.0 M. The Kc for the formation of NH3 at 500 K is
A) 1/16 mol-2 dm6
B) 1/32 mol-2 dm6
C) 1/8 mol-2 dm6
D) 1/4 mol-2 dm6
E) 1/2 mol-2 dm6
58. The molarity of a solution containing 8 g of NaOH (Molar mass = 40 g mol-1) in 250 mL solution is
A) 0.8M
B) 0.4M
C) 0.2M
D) 0.5M
E) 0.6M
59. Which of the following are the conditions for a reaction spontaneous at all temperatures?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
60. Transition elements act as catalyst because

A) their melting points are high
B) their ionization potential values are high
C) they have high density
D) they show variable oxidation state
E) they have high electronegativity
61. Lanthanides (Ln) burn in O2 to give

A) LnO
B) Ln(OH)3
C) Ln2O3
D) LnO2
E) LnO3
62. The IUPAC name of the coordination compound Hg[Co(SCN)4] is

A) Mercury (I) tetrathiocyanato-S-cobaltate (III)
B) Mercury (II) tetrathiocyanato-S-cobaltate(II)
C) Mercury (I) tetrathiocyanato-S-cobaltate (IV)
D) Mercury (II) tetraisocyanato-S-cobaltate (III)
E) Mercury (I) tetraisocyanato-N-cobaltate (III)
In a combustion reaction, heat change during the formation of 40 g of carbon dioxide from carbon and
63.
dioxygen gas is (Enthalpy of combustion of carbon = -396 kJ mol-1)
A) 320 kJ
B) -320 kJ
C) -360 kJ
D) 360 kJ
E) 240 kJ

A) Hyperconjugation is a permanent effect.
B) Tertiary carbocation is relatively more stable than a secondary carbocation.
C) F has stronger -I effect than Cl.
D) Inductive effect decreases with increasing distance.
E) When inductive and electromeric effects operate in opposite directions, the inductive effect predominates.
65. Which of the following statement is incorrect with regard to ozonolysis?

A) It involves addition of ozone on alkene.
B) An unsymmetrical alkene gives two different carbonyl compounds.
C) It is used to identify the number of double bonds in starting material.
D) It cannot be used to detect the position of the double bonds.
E) Ozonide will undergo cleavage by Zn-H2O.
66. Which of the following statement is true?

A) Dehydration of alcohol takes place in presence of HCl/ZnCl2.
B) Formation of ethene from ethyl iodide occurs on heating with aqueous KOH.
C) Hydrogenation of an unsymmetrical alkyne in presence of Pd/C gives cis- alkene.
D) Hydrogenation of an unsymmetrical alkyne in presence of Na/liq.NH3 gives cis-alkene.
E) The order of reactivity of hydrogen halides towards alkenes is HI < HBr < HCl.
An organic compound X (C H O) on reaction with zinc dust gives ‘Y’. The product ‘Y’ reacts CH3COCl in
67. presence of anhydrous AlCl6 to6 give ‘Z’ (C H O). The compounds X, Y and Z are respectively
3 8 8
A) benzaldehyde, benzene, methyl phenyl ketone
B) phenol, benzene, acetophenone
C) phenol, naphthalene, acetophenone
D) benzene, phenol, diphenyl ketone
E) cyclohexanol, cyclohexane, benzophenone
68. The percentage amylose in starch is about

A) 40-50 %
B) 80-85 %
C) 60-80 %
D) 50-60 %
E) 15 – 20 %
69. Which of the following statement is correct?

A) Bromination of phenol in CS2 at low temperature give 2,4,6-tribromophenol.
B) Oxidation of phenol with chromic acid gives benzene.
C) Conversion of phenol into tribromophenol by bromine water is a nucleophilic substitution reaction.
D) p-Nitrophenol is steam volatile due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
E) The intermediate in Riemer-Tiemann reaction is substituted benzal chloride.
On heating an aldehyde with Fehling’s reagent, a reddish-brown precipitate is obtained due to the formation
70. of
A) cupric oxide
B) cuprous oxide
C) carboxylic acid
D) silver
E) copper acetate
71. The decreasing order of basic strength of amines in aqueous medium is

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
72. Which of the following statement is correct?

A) Sucrose is laevorotatory.
B) Fructose is a disaccharide.
C) Sucrose on hydrolysis gives D(+)-glucose only.
D) Sucrose is made up of a glycosidic linkage between C1 of α-D-glucose and C2 of β-D-Fructose.
E) Sucrose is a reducing sugar.
73. The structure of MnO4- ion is

A) square planar
B) octahedral
C) trigonal pyramid
D) pyramid
E) tetrahedral
74. When benzene diazonium fluoroborate is heated with aqueous sodium nitrite solution in the presence of
copper, the product formed is
A) fluorobenzene
B) benzene
C) aniline
D) nitrobenzene
E) phenol

75. A fibrous protein present in muscles is
A) keratin
B) albumin
C) riboflavin
D) insulin
E) myosin
76. Let P and Q be two finite sets having 3 elements each. The total number of mappings from P to Q is
A) 32
B) 516
C) 6
D) 9
E) 27
77.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
78.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
79.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
80.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
81.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
82.
A) (1,-2)
B) (-1,2)
C) (2,-1)
D) (2,-2)
E) (2,1)
83.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
84.
A) 225
B) 265
C) 269
D) 200
E)
85.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
86.
A) 70
B) 28
C) 42
D) 56
E) 8
87.
A) 72
B) 144
C) 720
D) 2160
E) 4320

88.
A) 18
B) 36
C) 120
D) 360
E) 720
89.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
90.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
91.
A) -8
B) -3
C) 0
D) 3
E) 8
92.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
93.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
94.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
95.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
96.
A) 0
B) 1
C) -1/2
D) 1/2
E) -1
97.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
98.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
99.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
100.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
101.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
102.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
103.
A) -2
B) 3
C) 0
D) 2
E) -3
104.
A) 1
B) -2
C) 2
D) -1
E)
105.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
106.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
107.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
108.
A) x+y=3
B) x-2y=-3
C) 2x-y=0
D) 2x+y=2
E) x-y=-1
109. If the sum of distances of a point from the origin and the line x =3 is 8, then its locus is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
110.
A) 1,3
B) 1,2
C) -1,3
D) 2,3
E) 1,-3
111.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
112.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
113.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
114.
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1
D)
E) 0
115. The direction ratios of the line joining the points (2, 3, 4) and (−1, 4, −3) is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
116.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
117.
A) 6
B) 4
C) 3
D) -3
E) -2
118.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
119.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

120.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
121.
A) 30
B) 25
C) 22
D) 16
E) 4
122.
A) 20
B) 15
C) 10
D) 12
E) 18
123.
A) 0.3
B) 0.4
C) 0.5
D) 0.6
E) 0.7
124.
A) 0.7
B) 1.5
C) 1.1
D) 1.2
E) 0.3
125.
A)
B)
C) 1
D) 0
E) 5
126.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 3
D) 1
E) 0
127.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
128.
A) -1
B) 2
C) 1
D)
E)

129.
A) 0
B) 1
C) -1
D)
E)
130.
A) 288
B) 432
C) 144
D) 216
E) 24
131.
A) 3
B) 2
C) 6
D)
E) 12
132.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
133.
A) -4
B) 2
C) -1
D) -3
E)
134.
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 3
E) 2
135.
A) 2
B) -2
C) 0
D) -4
E) 4
136.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
137.
A) 70
B) 140
C) 35
D) 60
E) 55
138.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
139.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
140.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
141.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

142.
A) 0
B) 2
C)
D)
E)
143.
A) 55
B) 45
C) 35
D) 26
E) 5
144.
A) 72
B) 68
C) 64
D) 48
E) 37
145.
A) 2sin1
B) 2
C) 4
D) -2sin1
E) 0
146.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
147.
A) 2,2
B) 2,1
C) 1,2
D) 4,2
E) 1,1
148.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
149.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
150.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Exam:KEAM2024 09
If the displacement of a body moving on a horizontal surface is 151.25 cm in a time interval of 2.25 s,
1. then the velocity of the body in the correct number of significant figures in cm s-1 is
A) 6722
B) 67.22
C) 67.222
D) 0.672
E) 67.2
2. The dimensions of the torque is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The displacement (x) – time (t) graph for the motion of a body is a straight line making an angle 45° with
4. the time axis. Then the body is moving with
A) uniform velocity
B) uniform acceleration
C) non-uniform acceleration
D) decreasing velocity
E) increasing velocity

A ball is thrown up vertically at a speed of 6.0 m s-1. The maximum height reached by the ball (Take g =
5. 10 m s-2. ) is ;
A) 80 m
B) 100 m
C) 18 m
D) 1.8 m
E) 1m
6. The INCORRECT statement is

A) Forces in nature always occur between pair of bodies
B) Action and reaction forces are simultaneous forces
C) Coefficient of static friction is greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction
D) Force is always in the direction of motion
E) Centripetal force acts towards the centre of a circle
7. A bullet of 10 g, moving at 250 ms-1 penetrates 5 cm into a tree limb before coming to rest. Assuming
uniform force being exerted by the tree limb, the magnitude of the force is:
A) 12.5 N
B) 625 N
C) 62.5 N
D) 125 N
E) 6250 N
8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9.
A) 128 J
B) 128 mJ
C) 12.8 mJ
D) 256 mJ
E) 2.56 mJ
The kinetic energy of a body is increased by 21 %. The percentage increase in the magnitude of its linear
10. momentum is :
A) 10 %
B) 11 %
C) 1%
D) 20 %
E) 21 %
A tennis ball of mass 50g thrown vertically up at a speed of 25 m s-1 reaches a maximum height of 25 m.
11. The work done by the resistance forces on the ball is :
A) 12.5 J
B) 50 J
C) 62.5 J
D) 25 J
E) 31.25 J
12. The radius of gyration of a circular disc of radius R, rotating about its diameter is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
13. For a smoothly running analog clock, the angular velocity of its second hand in rad s-1 is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a planet is 2.5 times that on earth and radius, 10 times
14. that of the earth, then the ratio of the escape velocity on the surface of a planet to that on earth is
A) 1:1
B) 1:2
C) 2:1
D) 1:5
E) 5:1
The time period of revolution of a planet around the sun in an elliptical orbit of semi-major axis a is T.
15. Then
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
16. In an incompressible liquid flow, mass conservation leads to

A) equation of continuity
B) Bernoulli’s law
C) Stoke’s law
D) Toricelli’s law
E) Pascal’s law
17. The maximum velocity of a fluid in a tube for which the flow remains streamlined is called its
A) terminal velocity
B) critical velocity
C) turbulent velocity
D) streamlined velocity
E) surface velocity
18. Coefficient of linear expansion of aluminum is 2.5 x 10-5 K-1. Its coefficient of volume expansion in K-1 is
A) 1.25 x 10-5
B) 5.0 x 10-5
C) 7.5 x 10-5
D) 1 x 10-4
E) 4.0 x 10-5

19. The efficiency of a carnot engine operating between steam point and ice point is
A) 100 %
B) 50 %
C) 77 %
D) 27 %
E) 11 %
20.
A) isothermal and isobaric

B) Isothermal and Adiabatic
C) isobaric and isochoric
D) isochoric and isobaric
E) Adiabatic and isothermal
21.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

According to equipartition principle, the energy contributed by each translational degree of freedom and
22. rotational degree of freedom at a temperature T are respectively ( kB =Boltzmann constant)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The kinetic energy of 3 moles of a diatomic gas molecules in a container at a temperature T is same as
23. that of kinetic energy of n moles of monoatomic gas molecules in another container at the same
temperature T. The value of n is
A) 3
B) 4
C) 2.5
D) 5
E) 3.5
A string of length L is fixed at both ends and vibrates in its fundamental mode. If the speed of waves on
24. the string is v, then the angular wave number of the standing wave is:
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Ratio between the frequencies of the third harmonics in the closed organ pipe and open organ pipe of
25. same length is
A) 2:1
B) 1:2
C) 1:4
D) 4:1
E) 1:5

A tuning fork vibrating at 300 Hz, initially in air, is then placed in a trough of water. The ratio of the
26. wavelength of the sound waves produced in air to that in water is (Given that the velocity of sound in
water and in air at that place are 1500 ms-1 and 350 ms-1 respectively)
A) 1:1
B) 37:23
C) 30:7
D) 7:30
E) 23:37
The ratio of the magnitudes of electrostatic force between an electron and a proton separated by a
27. distance r to that between a proton and an alpha particle separated by the same distance r is
A) 1:1
B) 1:4
C) 4:1
D) 2:1
E) 1:2
28.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
A spherical metal shell A of radius RA and a solid metal sphere B of radius RB (< RA) are kept far apart
29. and each is given charge +Q. If they are connected by a thin metal wire and QA and QB are the charge
on A and B, respectively, then
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

30.
A) 352
B) 35.2
C) 3.52
D) 70.4
E) 17.6
31. Magnitude of drift velocity per unit electric field is known as

A) displacement current
B) mobility
C) electric resistance
D) electrical conductivity
E) relaxation time
32.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
A charged particle will continue to move in the same direction in a region, where (E- Electric field, B –
33. Magnetic field)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
34.
A) 1:1
B) 1:4
C) 2:1
D) 1:2
E) 4:1
An electric appliance draws 3A current from a 200 V, 50 Hz power supply. The amplitude of the supply
35. voltage is nearly:
A) 140 V
B) 200 V
C) 283 V
D) 67 V
E) 600 V
36.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
A path length of 1m in air medium is equal to a path length of x m in a medium of refractive index 1.5.
37. Then the value of x (in metre) is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

38.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
39.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
40.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
41. The constancy of the binding energy per nucleon in medium sized nucleus is due to
A) short range nature of nuclear force
B) attractive nature of nuclear force
C) saturation of nuclear force
D) charge independent nature of nuclear forces
E) strongest nature of nuclear forces
42. In a radioactive decay, fraction of the number of atoms left undecayed after time t is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
43.
A) neutron
B) neutrino
C) antineutrino
D) proton
E) positron
44. The current flowing from p to n side in a pn junction diode irrespective of biasing is termed
A) drift current
B) diffusion current
C) net current
D) displacement current
E) biasing current
45. The energy required by the electron to cross the forbidden band for Germanium is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The molarity of sodium hydroxide in the solution prepared by dissolving 6 g in 600 mL of water is (molar
46. mass of NaOH = 40 g mol-1 )
A) 0.5 M
B) 0.4 M
C) 0.25 M
D) 0.1 M
E) 0.2 M
The volume of ethanol required to prepare 3 L of 0.25 M aqueous solution is (density of ethanol= 0.36 kg
47.
L-1, molar mass = 60 g mol-1)
A) 125 mL
B) 25mL
C) 75mL
D) 50mL
E) 12.5mL
48. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Bohr’s model of atom?
A) It fails to account for the finer details of the hydrogen atom spectrum.
B) Unable to explain the splitting of spectral lines in the presence of magnetic field.
C) The angular momentum of electron is quantised.
D) The ability of atoms to form molecule by chemical bonds.
E) Unable to explain the splitting of spectral lines in the presence of electric field.
49. The decreasing order of first ionisation enthalpy of the following elements is
A) N>O>C>Be
B) O>N>C>Be
C) Be>C>O>N
D) O>N>Be>Ce
E) N>O>Be>C
50. The hybridisation involved in the metal atom of [CrF6]3- is

A) d2sp3
B) dsp2
C) sp3d
D) sp3
E) sp3d2
51. The valence electron MO configuration of C2(atomic number of C = 6) molecule is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
52. Which of the following is used as anode in mercury cell?

A) Paste of NH4Cl and ZnCl2
B) Manganese dioxide and carbon
C) Paste of HgO and carbon
D) Paste of KOH and ZnO
E) Zinc-Mercury amalgam
53. Which of the following is true for a reaction is spontaneous only at high temperature?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
In a process, 600 J of heat is absorbed by a system and 375 J of work is done by the system. The
54. change in internal energy of the process is
A) 975 J
B) -225 J
C) -975 J
D) 985 J
E) 225 J
55.
A) 6 x 10-42 M
B) 12 x 10-44 M
C) 8 x 10-44 M
D) 2 x 10-44 M
E) 4 x 10-44 M

56. The quantity of electricity required to produce 18 g of Al from molten Al2O3 is (Atomic mass of Al = 27)
A) 2F
B) 4F
C) 5F
D) 6F
E) 1.5F
57. The average oxidation state of sulphur in the tetrathionate ion is

A) +3
B) +2.5
C) +5
D) +3.5
E) +1.5
58. The mass percentage of glucose in acetonitrile when 6 g of glucose is dissolved in 294 g of acetonitrile is
A) 6%
B) 10 %
C) 8%
D) 4%
E) 2%
The rate constant of a first order reaction is 4.606 x 10-3 s-1. The time taken to reduce 20 g of reactant
59. into 2 g is
A) 300 s
B) 500 s
C) 150 s
D) 400 s
E) 250 s
60.
A) 3
B) 2.5
C) 3.5
D) 1.5
E) 2
61. Which of the following mixture forms azeotrope?

A) Phenol-aniline
B) Nitric acid-water
C) Ethanol-acetone
D) Chloroform-acetone
E) CS2-acetone
62. A coordination compound of cobalt acts as antipernicious anaemia factor is
A) cyanocobalamine
B) carboxypeptidase
C) [Co(NH3)6]3+
D) haemoglobin
E) myoglobin
63. The type of d-d transition of the electron occurs in [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
64. The increasing order of field strength of ligands in the spectrochemical series is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
65. The reaction, 2I- + S2O82- → I2 + 2SO42- , is catalysed by

A) Iron(II)
B) Manganese(VI)
C) Iron(III)
D) Vanadium(V)
E) Cobalt(III)
66. Which of the following is used in the treatment of lead poisoning?

A) EDTA
B) DMG
C) Cupron
D) α-nitroso-β-naphthol
E) [(Ph3P)3RhCl]
67.
A) (ii)< (i) < (iii)

B) (i)< (iii) < (ii)
C) (ii)< (iii) < (i)
D) (iii)< (ii) < (i)
E) (i)< (ii) < (iii)
68.
A) (ii)> (i) > (iii)
B) (iii)> (ii)>(i)
C) (ii)> (iii)>(i)
D) (i)> (iii)>(ii
E) (i)> (ii) >(iii)
69. The number of unpaired electrons in [CoF6]3- is

A) one
B) four
C) zero
D) two
E) three
One mole of an alkene on ozonolysis gives a mixture of one mole pentan-3-one and one mole methanal.
70. The alkene is
A) 3-ethylbut-1-ene
B) 2-methylpent-1-ene
C) 2-ethylbut-1-ene
D) 4-methylpent-2-ene
E) 4-methylpent-1-ene
A tertiary alkyl halide (X), C4H9Br, reacted with alc.KOH to give compound(Y). Compound(Y) reacted
71. with HBr in presence of peroxide to give compound(Z). The compounds (Y) and (Z) are respectively
A) propene and tert.butylbromide
B) 2-methyl-1-propene and 1-bromo-2-methylpropane
C) but-1-ene and 2-bromopropane
D) but-2-ene and 2-methylpropane
E) but-2-ene and 3-methylpropane

72.
A) 2-methylbutan-1-ol and iodoethane

B) ethanol and 2-methyliodobutane
C) 2-methylbutan-2-ol and iodoethane
D) 2-methylbutan-2-ol and iodomethane
E) 2-methylbutan-1-ol and ethene
73. The reagent used for the conversion of but-2-ene to ethanal is

A) anhydrous CrO3
B) DIBAL-H
C) PCC
D) O3/H2O-Zn dust
E) anhydrous AlCl3
74. Which of the following is used as insect attractant?

A) Propan-1-amine
B) N,N-Dimethylmethanamine
C) Propan-2-amine
D) N, N-dimethylbutan-1-amine
E) Ethanamine
75. Lactose is composed of

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
76.
A) 22
B) 12
C) 32
D) 42
E) 52

77.
A) reflexive
B) symmetric
C) transitive
D) reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
E) an equivalence relation
78.
A)
B)
C)
D) 1
E) 0
79.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
80.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
81.
A)
B)
C) -9
D) 17
E) 9
82.
A) 1 and 0
B) 0 and 1
C) -1 and 0
D) 0 and -1
E) 1 and -1
83.
A) 0
B)
C)
D) 1
E) 2
84. The second term of G.P. is 4, then the product of first three terms is
A) 16
B) 32
C) 48
D) 64
E) 128
85.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
86.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
87.
A) 12
B) 10
C) 38
D) 76
E) 56
88.
A) 1023
B) 1024
C) 511
D) 2047
E) 612
89.
A) 12
B) 15
C) 10
D) 30
E) 20
90.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
91.
A) 210
B) 240
C) 140
D) 120
E) 320
92.
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 10
E) 20
93.
A) 4
B) 7
C) 9
D) 11
E) 13
94.
A) 0
B)
C)
D)
E)
95.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
96.
A) -2 and -6
B) 2 and 6
C) 1 and 4
D) -1 and -4
E) 2 and -6
97.
A) -100
B) -80
C) 0
D) 60
E) 80

98.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
99.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
100.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E) 1

101.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
102.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
103.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
104.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
105.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 3
D) 5
E)
106.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
107.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
108.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
109.
A) 47
B) -25
C) 25
D) -47
E) 0
110.
A) 1
B) 0
C) -1
D) 2
E) -2
111.
A) 3
B) 6
C)
D)
E) -6
112.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
113.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
114.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

115.
A) 2
B) 3
C)
D)
E)
116.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
117.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
118.
A) 3
B)
C) 2
D) 4
E)
119.
A) 2,-1
B) 1,3
C) -1,-3
D) -2,1
E) -1,1
120.
A)
B) 3
C) 4
D)
E)
121.
A) 1
B) 13
C) 24
D) 17
E) 3
122.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
123.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
124.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
125.
A) 2
B) 2.5
C) 2.57
D) 3
E) 3.75
126.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
127.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
128.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

129.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 0
130.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
131.
A)
B) -1
C) 1
D)
E) 0
132.
A)
B)
C)
D) -1
E) 0

133.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
134.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
135.
A) 12
B) 11
C) 10
D) 9
E) 35
136.
A) 4
B) 8
C) 10
D) 16
E) 12

137.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
138.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
139.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
140.
A) 4
B) 0
C)
D) 1
E)

141.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
142.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
143.
A)
B)
C) -1
D) 1
E) 0
144.
A)
B) 1
C)
D)
E) 0
145.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E) 0
146.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
147.
A) a family of circles having centre on the x -axis.
B) a family of circles having centre on the y -axis
C) a family of all circles having centre at the origin
D) a family of ellipses
E) a family of hyperbolas
148.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
149.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) not defined
150.
A) (3,2)
B) (3,0)
C) (0,2)
D) (1,0)
E) (0,1)

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Exam:KEAM2024 10
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
A man loses 50% of his velocity after running a distance of 100 m. If his retardation is uniform, the distance he will
3. cover before coming to rest is
A) 45.2 m
B) 33.3 m
C ) 27.5 m
D ) 15.7 m
E ) 50.5 m
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5. A particle is describing a uniform circular motion with certain constant speed. The INCORRECT statement is
A) The velocity and acceleration vectors are perpendicular to each other
B) The velocity vector is tangential to the circular path
C) The centripetal acceleration is a variable acceleration
D ) The acceleration vector points to the centre of the circle
E ) The acceleration vector is tangential to the circular path
6.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
7. In a ‘tug of war’ game, two persons pull each other through a massless rope. The person who wins is
A) One whose weight is less
B) One who exerts more friction force (shearing force) on the ground
C ) One who exerts more normal force (compressing force) on the ground
D ) One who pulls the rope with a greater force
E ) One whose weight is more
8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
If P is the pressure at which heart is pumping the blood and the volume of blood pumped per second is V, then the
9. power of heart is given by
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
10.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11. The radius of gyration of a regular solid cylinder of radius R about its axis is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
12.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The gravitational potential energy of a system of two bodies each of mass m and distance r between them is (G =
13. gravitational constant, g = acceleration due to gravity)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
14. Which of the following has maximum Young’s modulus value?

A) Aluminium
B) Copper
C ) Brass
D ) Steel
E ) Iron (Wrought)
15.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
16.
A) 1:3
B) 5: 3
C) 3:2
D) 4:1
E) 2:7
Two perfectly black bodies are at temperatures T and 2T. The ratio between the wavelengths corresponding to
17. maximum energy emission by the two black bodies is
A) 2:1
B) 1:2
C) 2:3
D) 3:2
E) 1:4
18.
A)
B)
C) increases continuously
D) decreases continuously
E ) does not change
19.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
20.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
21.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
22.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
23.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
24. In bringing a proton towards another proton, the electrostatic potential energy of the system
A) decreases
B) increases
C) becomes zero
D) first increases and then decreases
E) remains the same
A parallel plate capacitor with a dielectric medium of dielectric constant 1.5 has a capacitance of C. If the dielectric
25. is removed, then the capacitance of the capacitor becomes
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
26. When n identical cells are connected in parallel, they give

A) less current
B) more current
C) less voltage
D) more voltage
E) variable voltage and variable current
27. Resistivity of a conductor increases with

A) increase in its length
B) decrease in its length
C ) increase in its area of cross-section
D ) decrease in its area of cross-section
E ) increase in its temperature
28. Kirchhoff’s junction rule is based on conservation of

A) charge
B) energy
C ) both energy and charge
D ) angular momentum
E ) linear momentum
29.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
30.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
31.
A) small, positive and varies inversely with temperature
B) small, negative and temperature independent
C) small, positive and temperature independent
D) very large, negative and temperature dependent
E) very large, positive and temperature independent
An alternating current having peak value 14.14 A is used to heat a metal wire. The value of the direct current i
32. required to produce the same heating effect in the same wire is
A) 0.707 A
B) 28.28 A
C ) 7.07 A
D ) 10 A
E ) 14 A
The number of windings in the primary and secondary of a transformer are 100 and 2000 respectively. If 50 V a.c is
33. applied to the primary, the potential difference across the secondary is
A) 2000 V
B) 1000 V
C) 500 V
D) 1500 V
E) 2500 V
34. The correct order of arrangement of electromagnetic waves according to their wavelengths is
A) Gamma rays < AM radio waves < FM radio waves < Micro waves
B) Micro waves < AM radio waves < FM radio waves < Gamma rays
C ) Gamma rays < Micro waves < AM radio waves < FM radio waves
D ) Gamma rays < Micro waves < FM radio waves < AM radio waves
E ) AM radio waves < FM radio waves < Gamma rays < Micro waves
35.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
36. If the ratio of amplitudes of two light waves is 2 : 1, then the ratio between the intensities of the two waves is
A) 4:1
B) 1:1
C) 1:2
D) 1:4
E) 2:1
37.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
38. If the speed of a moving particle is decreased by 1%, the de Broglie wavelength of the wave associated with it
A) decreases by 1%
B) increases by 1%
C ) decreases by 2%
D ) increases by 2%
E ) decreases by 5%
The photoelectric work function for a photosensitive material is 5.2 eV. The energy of the incident radiation for
39. which the stopping potential is 6 V is
A) 1.2eV
B) 5.6eV
C ) 6eV
D ) 10eV
E ) 11.2eV
40. When the hydrogen atom is excited from the ground state,
A) potential energy increases but kinetic energy decreases
B) both potential energy and kinetic energy decrease
C) both potential energy and kinetic energy increase
D) potential energy decreases but kinetic energy increases
E) there is no change in the total energy

41.
A) atomic number remains unchanged
B) mass number is reduced by 4 units
C ) mass number is reduced by 8 units
D ) mass number increases by 4 units
E ) atomic number is increased by 2 units
42.
A) 3.6
B) 5
C ) 2.5
D ) 1.7
E ) 4.2
43. Half-life of radon is 3.5 days. The amount of radon left out of 12 mg mass undecayed after 35 days is nearly
A) 0.006 mg
B) 0.012 mg
C ) 0.024 mg
D ) 0.036 mg
E ) 0.048 mg
44. In a p-n junction diode, reverse biasing

A) increases the number of majority charge carriers
B) decreases the number of minority charge carriers
C) increases the potential barrier
D) decreases the potential barrier
E) increases the number of both majority and minority charge carriers
45. Which one of the following is not a semiconductor?

A) Si
B) Sb
C ) Ge
D ) CdS
E ) GaAs
46. The number of significant figures in 0.0500L is

A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
47. Isobars are atoms with the same

A) atomic number
B) mass number
C) number of electrons
D ) number of protons
E ) number of neutrons
48. The element with atomic number 111 was first named as Unununnium. What is its IUPAC name?
A) Nobelium
B) Bohrium
C ) Lawrencium
D ) Rontgenium
E ) Rutherfordium
49. Octet rule is obeyed in

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
50.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
51.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

52.
A) 1.17
B) 1.0
C ) 0.3
D ) log 2 – log 3
E ) log 3 – log 2
53.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
54.
A) 3 and 2
B) 2 and 2
C) 2 and 1
D) 3 and 0
E) 3 and 1
55. Which of the following is an example of pseudo fist order reaction?

A)
B) Decomposition of HI on gold surface

C)
D) Inversion of sucrose
E ) Hydrogenation of ethene
56.
A) Increasing the volume of the reaction vessel

B) Decreasing the volume of the reaction vessel
C ) Addition of catalyst to equilibrium mixture
D)
E) Increasing the temperature
57.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
58. Which of the following pair of aquated first transition metal ions have the same colour?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
59.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
60. In which of the following aqueous solution of salt, pH is independent of concentration of the salt?
A) Ammonium chloride
B) Ferric chloride
C) Ammonium acetate
D) Sodium acetate
E) Ammonium sulphate
61.
A) 24, 4, 8
B) 36, 6, 18
C) 48, 8, 24
D) 48, 8, 16
E) 24, 8, 12
62. Which of the 3d block element has the minimum melting point?
A) Ti
B) Fe
C ) Cr
D ) Mn
E ) Ag
63. Iron does not exhibit ------- oxidation state.

A) +6
B) +4
C) +3
D) +5
E) +2
64. The correct electronic configuration of Uranium (Z=92) is

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
65. Which one of the following is an outer orbital complex?

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
66. Conformational isomerism is not possible in

A) ethane
B) n-butane
C) 2,3-dimethylbutane
D) cyclohexane
E) ethene
When sodium nitroprusside is added to sodium fusion extract the presence of sulphur is indicated by the formation
67. of a violet coloured complex. Its formula is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
68.
A) pyrolysis
B) refining
C ) reforming
D ) cracking
E ) isomerisation

69.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
70. Which of the following is the most acidic compound?

A) p-Nitrophenol
B) o-Nitrophenol
C ) o-Cresol
D ) p-Cresol
E ) Phenol
When propanoic acid is treated with bromine and red phosphorus in aqueous medium, 2-bromopropanoic acid is
71. formed. This reaction is known as
A) Kolbe reaction
B) Wurtz reaction
C) Hell-Volhard -Zelinsky reaction
D) Etard reaction
E) Wurtz-Fittig reaction
72. Which of the following groups is deactivating ortho-para directing in aromatic electrophilic substitution?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
73. Gatterman reaction is used to convert benzene diazonium chloride to

A) benzene
B) nitrobenzene
C) phenetole
D) phenol
E) chlorobenzene

74. The correct increasing order of basic strength is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
75. Animal starch is

A) glycogen
B) lactose
C ) cellulose
D ) amylase
E ) maltose

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FINAL ANSWER KEY

Question Paper Code: 5/2024/OL

Correct Answer : Option C

Correct Answer : Option A

Correct Answer : Option B

Correct Answer : Option C

Correct Answer : Option B

Correct Answer : Option A

Correct Answer : Option E

Correct Answer : Option A

Correct Answer : Option E

Correct Answer : Option B

Correct Answer : Option C

Correct Answer : Option D

Correct Answer : Option C

Correct Answer : Option D

Correct Answer : Option E

Correct Answer : Option C

Correct Answer : Option A

Correct Answer : Option E

Correct Answer : Option B

Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

Correct Answer : Option D

Correct Answer : Option E

Correct Answer : Option B

Correct Answer : Option D

Correct Answer : Option E

Correct Answer : Option D

Correct Answer : Option B

Correct Answer : Option A

Correct Answer : Option D

Correct Answer : Option E

Correct Answer : Option C

Correct Answer : Option B

Correct Answer : Option A

Correct Answer : Option B

Correct Answer : Option C

Correct Answer : Option E

Correct Answer : Option D

Correct Answer : Option C

Correct Answer : Option D

42. Plutonium nucleus undergoes fission with

Correct Answer : Option B

43. Out of the following pair of elements identify isotones

Correct Answer : Option C

45. During the formation of p – n junction

Correct Answer : Option E

Correct Answer : Option A

47. The correct electronic configuration of Tc (Z=43) is

Correct Answer : Option C

Correct Answer : Option D

Correct Answer : Option A

Correct Answer : Option E

Correct Answer : Option A

52. Which of the following aqueous mixture is a buffer solution?

Correct Answer : Option D

Correct Answer : Option A

Correct Answer : Option E

Correct Answer : Option C