neet megalaya 2024 retest

Jhajjar Neet Exam - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
2024 8527521718
1 4 Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
(Application of Gauss Law) (Value of |E|)
λ
A Field inside thin shell I 2πε0 r
^
n
B Field outside thin shell II 4πε0 R

2
^
r
C Field of thin shell at the surface III 4πε0 r

2
^
r
D Field due to long charged wire IV zero

(Here symbols have their usual meaning and R is the
An ideal inductor-resistor-battery circuit is switched on radius of the thin shell)
at t = 0 s. At time t, the current is Choose the correct answer from the options given
(−
t
) below:
) A, where i is the steady-state 1. A-IV,B-III, C-I,D-II
τ
i = i (1 − e
0 0
value. The time at which the current becomes 0.5i is: 2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
0
[Given ln(2) = 0.693] 3. A-IV,B-III, C-II, D-I

4. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
1. 6.93 × 10 s 3
2. 6.93 ms
3. 69.3 s
4. 6.93 s
5 In Young's double slit experiment, if the wavelength
of light used is increased (say from violet to red) then
the:
2 The percentage errors in the measurement of mass 1. fringe width decreases.
and momentum of an object are 1% and 2% respectively. 2. fringe width increases.
The percentage error in the measurement of kinetic 3. central bright fringe becomes dark.
energy of the object is: 4. fringe width remains unaltered.
1. 1%
2. 3% 6 The value of R in the given circuit when there is no
3. 4% current in the 5Ω resistor is:
4. 5%
3 Two identical rectangular plane sheet A and B each

−2
of surface charge density ε Cm are placed parallel to
0
each other as shown in figure. The electric field at the

mid point P will be:
1. 12 Ω
2. 9 Ω
3. 3 Ω
4. 2 Ω
−1
1. 2 NC
−1
2. 1 NC
−1
3. 0.5 NC
4. zero
Page: 1
2024 8527521718
7 A wire of length L and radius r(r << L) is kept 10 Match List-I with List-II
floating on the surface of a liquid of density ρ. The List-I List-II
maximum radius of the wire for which it may not sink is (Series) (Wave number in cm-1)
(Surface tension of liquid is T ): 1 1
T A. Balmer series I. R( − )
1. √ ρg
1
2
n
2
1 1
2. √ 2T B. Lyman series II. R(

4
2
−
n
2
)
ρg
1 1
3. √
2T ρ
C. Brackett series III. R(
2
−
n
2
)
πg 5
1 1
4. √ 2T
πρg
D. Pfund series IV. R(
2
−
n
2
)
2
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

8 Match List-I with List-II (The symbols carry their 1. A-I,B-IV,C-III,D-II
usual meaning) 2. A-II, B-III, C-IV,D-I
List I List II 3. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
4. A-III, B-II, C-I,D-IV
Ampere-Maxwell's
A ∮ E→ ⋅ dA→ =
Q
I
ε0
Law
→ ⋅ dA→ = 0
B∮B II Faraday's Law A conducting circular loop of face area
11
−
→ Gauss Law of 2
C ∮ E→ ⋅ dI m is placed perpendicular to a magnetic

−3
−d(ϕ)
2.5 × 10
= III
dt electrostatics field which varies as B = 0.5 sin(100πt) T. The
→
→ ⋅ dl = μ i + μ ε Gauss
d(ϕE )law of magnitude of induced emf at time t = 0 s is:
D∮ B IV
0 c 0 0
magnetism
dt
1. 0.125π mV
Choose the correct answer from the options given 2. 125π mV
below: 3. 125π V
1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 4. 12.5π mV
2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3. A-III, B-II,C-IV,D-I
12 The pressure experienced by a swimmer 20 m
4. A-IV, B-I,C-III, D-II
below the water surface in a lake is appropriately
−3 −2
[Given density of water = 10 kgm , g = 10 ms and 3
9 Match List I with List II 1 atm = 10 Pa]:

5
List-I List-II 1. 1 atm

(Measured values) (Significant figures) 2. 2 atm
3. 3 atm
A 0.001213 I 2
4. 4 atm
B 2.1 × 10 16
II 3
C 3.70 III 1 13 A vernier calipers has 1 mm marks on the main
D 3000 IV 4 scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the vernier scale
Choose the correct answer from the options given which match with 16 main scale divisions. The least
below: count of this vernier calipers is:
1. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV 1. 0.02 mm
2. A-III, B-I, CII, D-IV 2. 0.05 mm
3. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III 3. 0.10 mm
4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III 4. 0.20 mm
Page: 2
2024 8527521718
14 An object falls freely from height h above the 17 Match List-I with List-II
5
ground. It travels 9
h in the last 1 s. Then height List-I
h is: List-II
−2 (Material) (Example)
(Given g = 10 ms )
1. 5 m A Diamagnet I Alnico
2. 25 m B Paramagnet II Copper
3. 45 m C Soft ferromagnet III Aluminium
4. 58 m D Hard ferromagnet IV Gadolinium
Choose the correct answer from the options given
15 Consider a thin circular ring (A), a circular disc (B), below:
a hollow Cylinder (C) and a solid cylinder (D) of the 1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
same radius R and of same mass: 2. A-IV,B-III, C-II, D-I
3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
4. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
18 For an adiabatic process, the factor which remains

(A) (B) constant is [All the notations have their usual meaning]:
γ
1. P γ−1
T
2. T V 1−γ
γ
3. V γ−1
T
(C) (D) 4. P 1−γ
T
γ
If I , I , I and I are their moments of inertia about

A B C D
the axis shown, then: 19 An excited heavy nucleus X emits radiations in the
A
Z
following sequence:
below: A A−4 A−4 A−8 A−8 A−8
X → D → D → D → D → D
1. I = I and 2I = I
A C B D Z Z−2
1
Z−1
2
Z−3
3
Z−4
4
Z−4
5
2. I = 2I and 2I = I
A B C D
where Z, A are the atomic and mass number of element
3. 2I = I and I = 2I
A C B D
X, respectively. The possible emitted particles or
4. I = I = I = 2I
A B C D
radiations in the sequence, respectively are:
1. e , α, e , α, γ + −
2. e , α, e , α, γ − +
16 Zener diode works: 3. α, e , α, e , γ − +
1. in forward bias only. 4. α, e , α, e , γ + −
2. in reverse bias only.

as a voltage regulator in forward bias and as a simple
3.
pn junction diode in reverse bias.
20 Time taken by sunlight to pass through a glass slab
of thickness 5 mm and refractive index 1.5 is:
as a voltage regulator in reverse bias and as a simple
4. 1. ( 5 −8
s
pn junction diode in forward bias. 3
) × 10
5
2. ( 2
) × 10
−11
s
5
3. ( 3
) × 10
−11
s
5
4. ( 2
) × 10
−8
s
Page: 3
2024 8527521718
21 A particle is displaced through ^ ^

(3 i + 4 j) m by 23 The best suited curve showing the variations of
force 2^i N. The work done is: susceptibility (χ) of a paramagnetic material in free
1. 14 J space with temperature (T ) is:
2. 8 J
3. 6 J
4. 10 J
22 A body of mass 6 kg is moving from its initial 1. 2.

position A to the next position B as shown in figure.
From A to B, the value of momentum of the body is: (in
SI unit)
3. 4.
24 A body weighing 100 N on the surface of earth

−2 1
weights x kg-ms at a height R above the surface of
9
E
earth.
1. 24 −2
The value of x (g = 10 ms at surface of earth and R E
2. 12 is the radius of earth):
3. 8 1. 72
4. 6 2. 54
3. 81
4. 62
25 The speed (s) of a car as a function of time (t) is

shown figure, The distance travelled by the car in 8
seconds is:
1. 180 m
2. 60 m
3. 80 m
4. 18 m
Page: 4
2024 8527521718
26 The equivalent resistance RAB between points A

30 Radiation of wavelength 280 nm is used in an
and B in the given network is: experiment of photoelectric effect with cathode of work
function, 2.5 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of the
photoelectrons is [Take h = 6.62 × 10 J s and
−34
−1
c = 3 × 10 ms
8
]:
1. 4.4 eV
2. 7.103 × 10 J
−15
3. 1.9 eV
4. 4.60 eV
31 If i is the angle of incidence and i is the angle of

′
emergence on a prism, then the relation between i and i ′
to obtain an angle of minimum deviation is:

1. 1R 1. i = i
′
2.
3
R
2. i > i
′
5
7
3. i < i
′
3. R 4. i = 0
8
5
4. R
8 32 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
27 L, C and represent the value of inductance, Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
R
A glass tube partially filled with water
capacitance and resistance, respectively. The factor Assertion A: represents an open organ pipe.
which has the same dimensions as that of the inverse of
The open end corresponds to an antinode
resonance frequency is:
Reason R: and the end in contact with water, to a
1. √LC node.
L
2. √ In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
C
answer from the options given below:
C
3. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
L
1.
R explanation of A.
4.
L
Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct
2.
explanation of A.
28 If F = αt − βt is the magnitude of the force 3. A is true but R is false.
2
acting on a particle at an instant t then the time, at which

4. A is false but R is true.
the force becomes constant, is (where α and β are
constants):
β 33 Given below are two statements:
1. α
The de Broglie wavelength associated
β
2. 2α Statement I: with a material particle depends on its
2β
charge and nature.
3. α The wave nature of particles in sub-
4. zero Statement II: atomic domain is significant and
measurable.
→ →
29 If E and B represent the electric field vector and In the light of the above statements, choose the most
magnetic field vector, respectively, in an electromagnetic appropriate answer from the options given below:
wave then the direction of EM wave is along: 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
→
1. E 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
→ 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
2. B
→ → 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
3. E × B
→ →
4. B × E
Page: 5
2024 8527521718
34 A solar cell is a: 37 A rocket is fired vertically upward with a speed of

ve
1. forward biased zener diode. from the earth's surface, where v is escape velocity
e
√2
2. type of light-emitting diode.
on the surface of earth. The distance from the surface of
diode working on the principle of photo-voltaic earth upto which the rocket can go before returning to
3.
effect. the earth is (Given radius of earth = 6400 km):
4. type of photo-diode with external biasing. 1. 1600 km
2. 3200 km
35 The graph which shows the correct variation of 1v 3. 6400 km
with u for a concave mirror, where u is the object 4. 12800 km
1
distance and v is the image distance, is: An ideal gas at 0 C and atmospheric pressure P has
∘
38
volume V . The percentage increase in its temperature
needed to expand it to 3V at constant pressure is:
1. 100%
2. 200%
1. 2. 3. 300%
4. 50%
39 A particle of mass m and charge q is placed in a

uniform electric field E at t = 0 s. The kinetic energy of
the particle after time t is:
Eqm
1.
t
2 2 2
E q t
2.
2m
2 2
3. 4. 3.
2E t
qm
2
Eq m
4. 2
2t
40 There are two heaters A and B. Heater A takes time

t1 to boil a given quantity of water, while B takes time
36 The correct input (A, B) - output (Y ) combination t2 to boil the same quantity of water across same supply
for the given circuit is: voltage. If the two heaters are connected in series, time
taken by this combination to boil the same quantity of
water will be:
t1 t2
1.
t1 +t2
2. t + t
1 2
1
3. (t + t 1 2)
2
t1 t2
4.
2(t1 +t2 )
1. A = 1, B = 1, Y = 1
2. A = 0, B = 1, Y = 1
3. A = 1, B = 0, Y = 0
4. A = 0, B = 0, Y = 1
Page: 6
2024 8527521718
41 If T 1, T2 , T3 , T4 and T5 represent the tension in the 45 A rod of length L rotates with a small uniform
string of a simple pendulum when the bob is at the left angular velocity ω about its perpendicular bisector. A
extreme, right extreme, mean, any intermediate left and uniform magnetic field B exists parallel to the axis of
any intermediate right positions, respectively. Then rotation. The potential difference between the centre of
which of the following relations are correct? the rod and an end is:
A. T = T BωL
2
1 2
1.
B. T > T
3 2
8
2
C. T > T
4 3 2.
BωL
2
D. T = T
3 4 2
BωL
E. T > T
5 2
3.
4
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options 4. zero
given below:
1. A, B and C only 46 The ratio of nuclear densities and nuclear volumes
2. B, C and D only 56 4
of Fe and He are, respectively:
3. A, B and E only 26 2
4. C, D and E only 1. 13 : 1 and 14 : 1

2. 14 : 1 and 1 : 1
Arrange the following in the order of their 3. 1 : 1 and 14 : 1
42
4. 1 : 1 and 13 : 1
resistance.
A. (0 to 1 A) ranged ammeter. 47 For a smoothly running analog clock, the ratio of
B. (0 to 100 mA) ranged milli-ammeter. number of rotations made in a day by the hour hand and
C. (0 to 500 μA) ranged micro-ammeter. second hand respectively, is:
D. (0 to 100 V) ranged voltmeter. 1. 24 : 1
Choose the correct answer from the options given 2. 1 : 720
below: 3. 1 : 60
1. A > B > C > D 4. 2 : 5
2. D > C > B > A
3. D > A > B > C 48 If an unpolarised light is incident on a plane surface
4. C > B > A > D of refractive index √3 at Brewster's angle then the angle
of refractive is:
43 Object A has half the kinetic energy as that of 1. 0 ∘
object B. The object B has half the mass as that of the 2. 30 ∘
object A. The object A speeds up by 1 ms and then

−1 3. 60 ∘
has the same kinetic energy as that of object B. The 4. 90 ∘
initial speed of object of object A is nearly (Take

√2 ≅ 1.4):
49 A body is falling freely in a resistive medium. The
dv
1. 0.5 ms
−1
motion of the body is described by = 4 − 2v, where
dt
−1
2. 1 ms v is the velocity of body at any instant (in ms ). The
−1
−1
3. 2.5 ms initial acceleration and terminal velocity of the body,
4. 4.8 ms
−1
respectively, are:
−2 −1
1. 4 ms , 2 ms
44 The length of a magnetized iron bar is L and its 2. 2 ms , 4 ms −2 −1
magnetic moment is M . When this bar is bent to form a 3. 6 ms , 2 ms −2 −1
semicircle its magnetic moment is: 4. 2 ms , 6 ms

−2 −1
1. M
Mπ
2.
2
M
3.
2π
2M
4. π
Page: 7
2024 8527521718
50 A dielectric slab of dielectric constant 3 having the 54 Consider the reaction in equilibrium
same area of cross-section as that of parallel plate PCl5 = PCl3 + Cl2
th at 500 K. The concentration of PCl = 1.40 M,
3 5
capacitor but of thickness of the separation of the
4 concentration of Cl = 1.60 M, concentration of
2
plates is inserted into the capacitor. The ratio of potential PCl = 1.60M. Calculate K
3 c
difference across the plates without dielectric to that 1. 2.00

with dielectric is: 2. 2.6
1. 1 : 2 3. 1.83
2. 2 : 3 4. 3.4
3. 3 : 2
4. 2 : 1 55 Phenanthrene is an aromatic compound and follows
Huckel's (4n + 2)π electron rule. The value of n is:
51 Given below are two statements:
Benzoic acid produces effervescence on
Statement I:
treatment with aq. NaHCO 3
The effervescence is due to the release of

Statement II:
hydrogen gas.
In the light of the above statements, choose the not

appropriate answer from the options give below:
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 1. 0
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. 2. 1
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. 3. 2
4. 3
52
The standard enthalpy of neutralization is −57.3 KJ mol
56 Arrange the following hydrides in the order of
−1
as: decreasing bond angle:

HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H O(l), ΔH = −57.3 KJmol
A. SbH−1 3
(aq) (aq) (aq) 2
strong acid strong base B. AsH 3
The enthalpy of neutralization of 0.25 mol of HCI by C. PH 3
0.25 mol of NaOH is :

D. NH 3
1. −57.3 kJ mol −1 Choose the correct answer from the options given
−1
below:
2. −28.3 kJ mol 1. B > A > D > C
−1
3. −14.32 kJ mol 2. B > A > C > D
4. +57.3 kJ mol −1
3. D > C > B > A
4. A > C > B > D
53 Which one of the following molecules is
paramagnetic?
1. H 2
2. Li 2
3. C 2
4. O 2
Page: 8
2024 8527521718
57 4.74 g of an inorganic compound contains 0.39g of 61 Which of the following reaction is not a
K, 0.27 g Al, 1.92 g of SO radicals and 2.16 g of water.
4 disproportionation reaction?
−1 − −
If molar mass of the compound is 948 g mol , the 1. 2 F + 2OH
2(g)
→ 2 F
(aq) (aq)
+ OF2(g) + H2 O(l)
molecular formula of the inorganic compound is: 2. Cl 2(g)

+ 2OH
−
→ ClO
−
+ Cl
−
+ H2 O(l)
(aq) (aq) (aq)
1. KAl(SO ) ⋅ 12H O
4 2 − − −
2
3. 2NO + 2OH → NO + NO + H2 O(l)
2. K Al (SO ) ⋅ 12H O
2 2 4 6 2
2(g) (aq) 2(aq) 3(aq)
3. K SO ⋅ Al (SO ) ⋅ 24H O 4. 2H 2 O2(aq) → 2H2 O(l) + O2(g)

2 4 2 4 3 2
4. K SO ⋅ Al (SO ) ⋅ 12H O
2 6 2 4 2
62 Isotope of an element contains more

3
19.23%
58 The method used for quantitative estimation of neutrons as compared to protons. The correct element
halogens is: along with its mass number is:
1. Dumas method (Given Atomic number Fe : 26, Co : 27 )
2. Carius method 1. Fe56
3. Kjeldahl's method 2. Fe57
4. Combustion method 3. Co57
4. Co60
59 Molar mass of a compound (X) whose 2.6 mol
weighs 312 g is:

−1 63 Which of the following expression is correct for the
1. 312 g mol
−1
reaction given below?
2. 120 g mol 2HI(g) → H2(g) + I2(g)
−1
3. 60 g mol
−1
4. 811.2 g mol −Δ[H]] 2Δ [H2 ] −Δ[HI] 4Δ [I2 ]
1. = 2. =
Δt Δt Δt Δt
60 Identify the incorrect statement: −Δ[HI] 4Δ [H2 ] −Δ[H] Δ [H2 ]
The oxidation state and coordination number (or 3. = 4. =

Δt Δt Δt Δt
2+
1. covalency) of Al in[AlCl(H O) ] are +3 and 6, 2
5
respectively.
2. Na O is a basic oxide and Cl O is an acidic oxide
2 2 7
The following four species are called isoelectronic

3. 2−
species: O , F , Na and Mg − + 2+
2+
Among the four species Mg, Al, Mg and Al 3+
, the
4.
smallest one is Al.
Page: 9
2024 8527521718
64 Given below are two statement: 66 The technique used to purify liquids having high
+
The energy of the He ion in n = 2 state boiling points and getting decomposed at or below their
Statement I: is same as the energy of H atom in n = 1 boiling points is:
state 1. fractional distillation
It is possible to determine simultaneously 2. steam distillation
Statement II: the exact position and exact momentum 3. simple distillation
of an electron in H atom. 4. distillation under reduced pressure
In the light of the above Statements,, choose the correct 67 Match List-I with List-II
answer from the options given below: List-I List-II
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true (Element) (Most Common oxidation state/s)
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false A. Fe I. +2, +7
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false B. V II. +3, +2
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
C. Mn III. +4
D. Ti IV. +5
65
Match List -I with List -II:
below:
List-I List-II 1. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(Reactions) (Products) 2. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
4. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
A. I. (CH3 ) C = O + CO2 + H2 O
2
68 Match List-I with List-II

List-II
B. II. List-I
(Name of the
(Reagent)
reaction)
Gattermann-
A. H2 , Nd − BaSO4 I.
koch reaction
C. III. (i) CrO2 Cl2 , CS2
Reimer-Tiemann
B. II.
(ii)H2 C reaction
CO, HCl, Anhyd.
C. III. Etard reaction
AlCl3 /CuCl
D. IV. (CH3 ) C − OH
D. CHCl , NaOH
3 3IV. Rosenmund reduction
below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given 1. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
below: 2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
1. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I 3. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 4. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Page: 10
2024 8527521718
69 Given below are two statements: 72 Match List-I with List-II

electricity is required for the
2 F List-II
Statement I: List-I
oxidation of 1 mole H O to O . (Name of the
2 2
(Reagent)
To get 40.0 g of Aluminium from molten reaction)
Statement II: A. Liquid ⇌ V apour I. Melting point
Al O required electricity is 4.44 F.
2 3
B. Solid ⇌ Liquid II. Boiling point

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct C. Solid ⇌ V apour III. Sublimation point
answer from the options given below: D. Solute(solid) ⇌ Solute(solution) IV. Saturated solution
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
V. Unsaturated solution
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false Choose the correct answer from the options given
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true below:
1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Match List-I with List-II 2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
70
List-I List-II 4. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-V
(Reagent) (name of the reaction)
A. Carbylamine test I. phenol 73 Match List -I with List-II
B. Bayer's test II. acetone List -I List -II
C. Iodoform test III. ethylene (Complex ion) (Hybridisation)
D. Phthalein dye test IV. aniline A. [Ni(CN) ] 4
2−
I. sp
3
Choose the correct answer from the options given B. [CoF ] 3−

II. d sp
2 3
6
below:
1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I C. [Co(C O ) ] 2 4 3 III. sp d
3− 3 2
2. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I D. (NiCl ) 4

2−
IV. dsp 2
3. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
71 Which pair of the following compounds has one 1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
lone pair of electrons on the central atom? 2. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
1. SF , BrF
4 5 3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. SF , ClF
4 3 4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
3. ClF , XeF
3 4
4. XeF , BrF
4 5
Page: 11
2024 8527521718
74 76 Match List-I with List-II

Identify [X] and [Y] in given reaction: List-I List-II
(Amine) (pK value)
β
A. Benzenamine I. 3.38
B. Phenylmethanamine II. 9.38
C. Methenamine III. 4.70
D. N-Ethylethanamine IV. 3.0
1. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
2. 4. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
77 Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
3. (Process/Property) (Characteristic)
Independent of amount
A. Adiabatic process I.
of substance
Both way process
B. Reversible process II. reactant to product and
4. vice-versa
No transfer of heat
C. Intensive property III. between system and
surrounding
75 The common oxidation state shown by actinoids is Dependent on amount
+3 with the other oxidation states being +4, +3, +6, and D. Extensive property IV.
of substance
+7. The number of oxidation states shown by the
following elements decrease in the order:
below:
A. N p(Z − 93)
B. Am(Z − 95) 2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
C. Ac(Z − 89) 3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
D. P a(Z − 91) 4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
below: 78 Which of the following pair of aqueous solutions
1. A > B > D > C will have the same value of osmotic pressure? (Assume
2. A > B > C > D complete dissociation in aqueous solution)
3. B > A > D > C 1. 0.1 M BaCl and 0.2 M K SO
2 2 4
4. D > B > A > C 2. 0.1 M Na PO and 0.1 M K SO

3 4 2 4
3. 0.2 M NaCl and 0.1 M K SO

2 4
4. 0.2 M NaCl and 0.1 M K [Fe(CN) ]

3 6
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79 The correct 'spin only' magnetic moments of 83 Match List-I with List-II :
3−
[CoF ] and [Co(C O
6
3−
2 4)
3
] List-I
respectively, are: List-II
1, 0 BM and 4.9 BM (IUPAC official name) (IUPAC Symbol)
2. 0 BM and 0 BM A. Mendelevium I. Mt
3. 4.9 BM and 0 BM B. Meitnerium II. Mc
4. 4.9 BM and 4.9 BM C. Moscovium III. No
D. Nobelium IV. Md
80 The behaviour of samarium (Z=62) is very much Choose the correct answer from the options given
like europium (Z=63). Since both elements: below:
1. exhibit +2 and +3 oxidation states. 1. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
have 4f 6s and 4f 6s electronic configurations,
5 2 6 2
2.
respectively. 3. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
have 4f 6s and 4f 6s electronic configurations,
7 2 8 2 4. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
3.
respectively.
4. have same atomic radii. 84 Effective collisions are known to possess:
A: energy greater than threshold energy.
81 The correct shape and hybridisation of BrF is: B: breaking of old bond in reactant.
5
3 2
C: formation of new bond in product.
1. Square pyramidal and sp d D: high activation energy.
2 3
2. Square pyramidal and d sp E: proper orientation.
3. Trigonal bipyramidal and sp d
3 2
2 3 below:
4. Trigonal bipyramidal and d sp
1. A, B, C, D only
2. A, B, C, E only
82 Match List-II with List-II : 3. A, C, D, E only
List-II 4. B, C, D, E only
List-I (Vitamins) (Deficiency/other name/
property) 85 CCl F is one of the most common haloalkanes used
2 2
RBC deficient in in
A. Vitamin K I.
haemoglobin industries. The reaction through which it is manufactured
B. Vitamin B 12
II. Bleeding gums from tetrachloromethane is called:
C. Vitamin C III. Thiamine 1. Finkelstein reaction
D. Vitamin B IV. Fat soluble 2. Sandmeyer's reaction
1
3. Swarts reaction
Choose the correct answer from the options given 4. Wurtz-Fittig reaction
below:
1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. A-VI, B-III, C-II, D-I
4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
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86 The product that cannot be formed in the following 88 The most preferred method for the preparation of
reaction is: pure alkyl chlorides from alcohols is:
ZnCl2
1. R − OH + HCl −−−→ R − Cl + H O 2
2. R − OH + PCl → R − Cl + POCl + HCl

5 3
3. R − OH + SOCl → R − Cl + SO + HCl
2 2
4. R − OH + PCl → R − Cl + H PO
3 3 3
89 In salt analysis group V radicals

(Ba
2+
, Ca
2+
are precipitated as their
and Sr
)
2+
carbonates
by adding solid NH Cl and excess of NH OH solution
1. 4 4
followed by solid (NH ) CO 4 2 3
Choose the correct reagent used for the confirmation of

Ca
2+
ion from the following:
1. Ammonium sulphate
2. Potassium chromate
2. 3. Ammonium oxalate
4. Ammonium nitrate
3.
4.
87 Number of moles of MnO getting reduced to

4
2+
Mn under acidic condition by 4.517 × 10
24
electrons
is:
1. 1.5 moles
2. 7.5 moles
3. 2.5 moles
4. 5.0 moles
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90 The major product P formed in the following 92 When 5 g of non-volatile non-electrolyte solute is
reaction sequence is : dissolved in 100 g of a certain solvent, the freezing point
of the solvent decreases by 0.25 K. The molar mass of
the solute is:
−1
[K of the given solvent = 1.2K kg mol
f
]
−1
1. 242.8 g mol
−1
2. 238.2 g mol
−1
3. 241.8 g mol
−1
4. 240.0 g mol
1. 93 The time taken by the first order decomposition of

SO Cl to decompose to 40% is 560 seconds. The rate
2 2
constant for the reaction is:

(log 2.5 = 0.3979)
−5 −1
1. 2.726 × 10 min
−5 −1
2. 2.276 × 10 min
2. −5 −1
3. 2.216 × 10 min
−5 −1
4. 2.126 × 10 min
94 Identify the incorrect statement:

The relative stability of group 13 elements in +1
3. 1.
oxidation state varies as : Al < Ga < In < Tl.
Boron trioxide is acidic, aluminium and gallium
2. trioxides are amphoteric while indium and thallium
trioxides are basic.
3+ 2 3
3. The hybridisation of Al in [Al(H 2
O) ]
6
is d sp .
4. Two isotopes of Boron, namely 10

B(19%) and
4.
B(81%) are known.
11

Benzendiazonium chloride is a colourless
91 Identify the Incorrect statement: Statement I: crystalline solid. It is insoluble in water
Carbon has the tendency to form chains and rings but reacts with water when warmed.
1.
with itself. Benzendiazonium chloride on
Silicon and Germanium are useful in semiconductor reacting with HCI in presence of copper
2.
industry. Statement II: powder gives chlorobenzene as the
3. Boron trifluoride is a strong Lewis acid. product. This is an example of Gatterman
Common oxidation states of group 14 elements are reaction.
4.
+1 and +3.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the option given below:
1. Both Statement I and Statement II is true.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II is false.
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
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96 The compound that gives blood red colour in 100 In salt analyses, Cl and are identified by
− − −
, Br I
Lassaigne's test is: adding dilute HNO followed by AgNO solution to the
3 3
salt solution. Choose the correct statements from the

following.
A. Cl gives pale yellow precipitate.
−
1. 2. Br gives pale yellow precipitate which is partially

−
B.
soluble in NH OH. 4
I gives yellow precipitate which is insoluble in

−
C.
NH4 OH.
Cl
−
gives white precipitate which is insoluble in
D.
NH4 OH.
E. I
−
gives purple violet gas.
3. 4.
below:
1. B and C only
2. A and B only
3. A and E only
97 Enthalpy of combustion of carbon to carbon dioxide 4. D and E only
−1
is −390.0kJ mol . The amount of heat released when 101 Given below are two statements:
35.0 g of CO is formed from the reaction of carbon and
2
Rain forests which used to cover more than
dioxygen gas, is: Statement
14% of the earth's land surface is now
1. 310 kJ l:
reduced to 6%.
2. 490 kJ
3. 245 kJ Statement Amazon rain forest has greatest
4. 700 kJ II: biodiversity on earth.
98 For the equilibrium
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl (g) 2
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
the value of the equilibrium constant is 3.0 × 10 at 3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
−6
1000 K. Find K for the reaction at this temperature 4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
p
−1 −1
(Given R : 8.314 J K mol )
1. 1.493
−2
2. 2.494 × 10
−6
3. 3.0 × 10
−4
4. 2.494 × 10
99 The Crystal Field Stabilisation Energy (CFSE) and

the 'spin only' magnetic moment of [FeF6 ]
3−
ion
respectively, are:
1. 0 Δ and 5.9 BM
2. 0 Δ and 1.73 BM
3. 2.0 Δ and 5.9 BM
4. 2.0 Δ and 1.73 BM
Page: 16
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102 Read the following statements and choose the set 106 Given below are two statements:
of correct statements : Two DNA sequences were prepared
In cymose inflorescence, the flowers are borne in an Statement corresponding to A and B, chains of human
A.
acropetalous succession. I: insulin and were introduced in the plasmids
B. In gulmohar, the flowers are actinomorphic. of Agrobacterium to produce insulin chain.
In the flowers of cucumber, the margin of the Chain A and B were produced separately,
Statement
thalamus grows upward enclosing the ovary extracted and combined by creating
C. II:
completely and getting fused with it, the other parts disulphide bonds to form human insulin.
of flowers arise above the ovary. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
Bracts are reduced leaves found at the base of the answer from the options given below.
D. 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
pedicle.
E. The flowers are hypogynous in mustard. 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
1. A, B, C only
2. B, D, E only
3. A, C, D only 107 The junction between ovule and funicle is
4. C, D, E only represented by :
1. Nucellus 2. Integument
103 'Golden rice' is a genetically modified rice. It is an 3. Chalaza 4. Hilum
example of
1. Bioprospecting 108 The photochemical phase of photosynthesis
2. Biofortification include:
3. Pest-resistant crop A. Oxygen release
4. Increased mineral usage efficiency B. Formation of NADPH
C. Use of ATP
104 Which of the following statement is incorrect D. Water splitting
about enzymes? E. Carboxylation
1. They are highly substrate specific Choose the correct answer from the options given
In thermophilic organisms enzymes can catalyze below:
2. 1. C and E only
reaction at high temperatures i.e. 90°C
2. A, B and D only
3. All enzymes are proteinaceous in nature 3. B, C and E only
4. Some enzymes have metal ions 4. A, B, C and D only
105 In plants, sucrose is converted into two molecules 109 ABO blood group is an example of
of monosaccharides due to action of invertase and then 1. Incomplete dominance
both enter the glycolytic pathway. Identify the 2. Multiple alleys
monosaccharides. 3. Pleiotropy
1. Glucose and glucose 4. Linkage
2. Glucose and fructose
3. Glucose and galactose 110 The negatively geotropic roots produced by
4. Fructose and galactose Rhizophora are called:
1. Pneumatophores
2. Prop roots
3. Stilt roots
4. Storage roots
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111 Match List-I with List-II 116 Which of the following represent Sister-chromatids
List-I List-II in the given figure?
A C4 Pathway I. 2H O → 4H
2
+
+ O = 4e
2
−
B. Light reaction II. Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate

C. Photorespiration III. Phosphoenol Pyruvate
D. Calvin cycle IV. Phosphoglycolate
:
3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 1. A
2. B
112 Cell wall formation in Bacteria is facilitated by : 3. C
1. Ribosomes 4. D
2. Mesosomes
3. Golgi Apparatus 117 Which of the following represents the female
4. Centrosomes gametophyte?
1. Ovule
113 A cross between tall plants was made resulting in 2. Embryo sac
offspring of tall and dwarf plants with ratio 3 : 1. The 3. Nucellus
genotype(s) of both parents are: 4. Endosperm
1. TT and TT
2. Tt and tt 118 Which of the following is not a selectable marker
3. Tt and Tt of cloning vectors?
4. tt and tt 1. Ampicillin
2. Metformin
114 The asexual spores of Deuteromycetes are: 3. Chloramphenicol
1. Aplanospores 4. Tetracycline
2. Conidia
3. Zoospores 119 Which of the following is not the characteristic
4. Basidiospores feature of genetic code?
1. The codon is triplet
115 The following can be found as a zwitter ion: 2. The code is nearly universal
1. Fatty acid 3. The code has punctuations
2. Monosaccharide 4. Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon,
3. Amino acid hence the code is degenerate
4. Nucleic acid
Page: 18
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120 Given below are two statements : 125 In glycolysis, the conversion of 1, 3-bisphospho-
When the fitness of one species is glyceric Acid to 3-phosphoglyceric Acid is:
Statement significantly lower in the presence of 1. Energy yielding process
I: another species, the process is defined as 2. Energy utilising process
competition. 3. Phosphorylation process
When fungi remain in association with 4. Isomerisation process
Statement
living plants or animals they are called
II: 126 The transverse section of monocot root shows the
saprophytes.
following internal tissue organization. Arrange them in
answer from the options given below : correct sequence starting from periphery to centre.
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are True A. Endodermis
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are False B. Pith
3. Statement I is True but Statement II is False C. Epidermis
4. Statement I is False but Statement II is True D. Pericycle
E. Cortex
121 Which of the following is not a complex Choose the correct answer from the options given
polysaccharide? below:
1. Inulin 1. D, C, E, A, B
2. Chitin 2. A, C, E, B, D
3. Glucosamine 3. C, E, A, D, B
4. N-acetyl galactosamine 4. C, E, D, B, A
Match List-I with List-II

122 The population growing in a habitat with limited 127
resources will show: List-I List-II
Lag phase, followed by phases of acceleration and A. Toxin I. Gum
A.
deceleration and finally an asymptote. B. Polymeric substance II. Concanavalin A
The ability to realise its innate potential to grow in C. Lectin III. Ricin
B.
number and reach enormous densities in short time. D. Drug IV. Vinblastin
C. Exponential growth Choose the correct answer from the options given
D. Logistic growth below:
Choose the correct answer from the option given below: 1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
1. A and B only 2. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
2. C and D only 3. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
3. A and D only 4. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
4. B and C only
128 A yellow seeded and violet flowered pea plant was
123 Which of the following technique was used to crossed with a green seeded and white flowered pea
elucidate the double helix model of DNA? plant. The progeny showed plants with four different
1. γ-radiation phenotypes. The yellow seeded and violet flowered
2. Electromagnetic radiation parent must be:
3. UV-vis spectroscopy 1. Double homozygous
4. X-ray diffraction 2. Double heterozygous
3. Homozygous for seed colour and heterozygous for
124 How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are flower colour.
4. Heterozygous for seed colour and homozygous for
required respectively for fixation of every CO2 molecule
flower colour.
entering the Calvin cycle?
1. 2 and 4
2. 4 and 2
3. 3 and 2
4. 2 and 3
Page: 19
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129 Identify the place(s) from the following where 132 Match List-I with List-II.
sacred groves are not found. List-I List-II
A. Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan. Filaments of stamens united into
B. Chanda and Bastar area of Madhya Pradesh. A. Polyadelphous I.
more than two bundles
C. Mudumalai Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu.
B. Syncarpous II. Sterile stamen
D. Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya.
Choose the correct answer from the options given C. Staminode Stamens are attached to the
III.
below: petals
1. A only D. Epipetalous IV. Carpels are fused
2. C only Choose the correct answer from the options given
3. B and C only below:
4. C and D only 1. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
130 Match List-I with List-II 3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
List-I List-II 4. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
A. Microscopic angiosperm I. Salvinia
133 Synthesis of ATP linked to development of a
B. Tallest gymnosperm II. Marchantia
proton gradient across a membrane is:
C. Thalloid bryophyte III. Sequoia 1. Mass flow hypothesis
D. Heterosporous pteridophyte IV. Wolffia 2. Wobble hypothesis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below 3. Chemiosmotic hypothesis
: 4. Rivet Popper hypothesis
2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 134 Important objective of biotechnology in agriculture
3. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I is to:
4. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 1. produce pest resistant varieties of plant.
2. increase nitrogen content in plant.
131 The given figure with reference to the anatomy of 3. decrease the seed number.
plants represents: 4. increase the plant weight.
135 The phenomenon where a single gene exhibiting

multiple phenotypic expressions is called:
1. Co-dominance
2. Pleiotropy
3. Multiple alleles
4. Polygenic inheritance

In collenchyma cell walls are thickened at
Statement
corners due to deposition of cellulose,
I:
hemicellulose and pectin.
1. Tracheid
2. Xylem fibre Statement Sclerenchyma consists of lignified cell
3. Xylem parenchyma II: walls and possesses pits.
4. Vessel In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are False
3. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
4. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
Page: 20
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137 Bt toxin protein that can kill many insects, doesn't 141 Given below are two statements
kill the Bacillus because: Statement I : The rate of decomposition is not related to
1. Bt toxin requires acidic pH for activation chemical composition of detritus and climatic factors.
2. Bacillus has protective mechanism against it Statement II : In a particular climatic condition,
decomposition rate is faster if detritus is rich in lignin
In Bacillus, it is present in an inactive state and once
3. and chitin.
insects ingests it, it is converted to active form
The protoxin requires protein conjugate for its answer from the options given below:
4.
activation 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
138 Which of the following graphs explains the effect 3. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
of pH on the enzyme activity? 4. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
142 Which of the following is not an example of

Mutualism?
1. 2. 1. Lichens
2. Mycorrhizae
3. An orchid on a branch of mango plant
4. The wasp pollinating fig inflorescence
143 Which experimental material was used by Taylor

and colleagues to prove that DNA in chromosomes
replicates semiconservatively?
3. 4.
1. Vicia faba
2. Pisum sativum
3. Solanum tuberosum
4. Oryza sativa
139 Highest annual Net Primary Productivity is 144 Match List-I with List-II
observed in: List-I List-II
1. Tropical deciduous forest A Ethylene I Increase length of stem
2. Temperate evergreen forest
3. Temperate deciduous forest Promotion of senescence and
B Cytokinins II
4. Tropical rain forest abscission
C ABA III Delaying leaf senescence
140 In the lac operon the i gene codes for: D Gibberellins IV Inhibition of seed germination
1. Inducer
2. Repressor Choose the correct answer from the options given
3. β-galactosidase below:
4. Permease 1. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Page: 21
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145 Given below are two statements: 149 Read the following statements and find out the
Restriction Endonuclease finds its specific correct set of statements:
Statement
recognition sequence and binds to the Companion cells help in maintaining the pressure
I: A.
DNA. gradient in the sieve tubes.
Restriction Endonuclease cuts each of the B. Gymnosperms lack vessels in their xylem
Statement
two strands of the double helix at specific C. The xylem vessels are devoid of cytoplasm
II:
points in their sugar phosphate backbones. D. Xylem fibres may be septate or aseptate
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct A mature sieve element in phloem possesses
answer from the options given below: E.
cytoplasm, vacuole and nucleus.
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
below:
3. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
1. B, C, D , E only
4. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
2. A, B, D, E only
3. A, B, C, D only
146 Match List-I with List-II 4. C, D, E only
List-I List-II
A Collagen I Enzyme 150 Which of the following statements are correct
B GLUT-4 II Most abundant enzyme in biosphere about respiration?
C Trypsin III Most abundant protein in animal world Energy of oxidation-reduction is utilised for
A.
D RuBisCO IV Enables glucose transport into cells phosphorylation
B. Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor
Choose the correct answer from the options given The photo-oxidative energy is utilised for production
C.
below: of proton gradient required for phosphorylation
1. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II The role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage of
2. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV D.
the respiration process
3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II Protons cross the outermembrane of mitochondria
4.A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II E. through the channel formed by an integral membrane
protein complex
147 What is incorrect about ecosystem? Choose the correct answer from the options given
1. It can vary from small sized pond to large sized sea below:
2. It may be anthropogenic in origin 1. A, B, C, E only
3. It may be temporary or Permanent 2. A, B, D only
It involves the function of flow of energy but not 3. B, C, D, E only
4. 4. A, C, D only
recycling of nutrients
Match List-I with List-II
148 The flowers of Amorphophallus provide safe place 151
for the pollinator to lay eggs. This is an example of: List-I List-II
1. Amensalism 1. DNA fingerprinting I. M. Meselson and F. Stahl
2. Anemophily 2. Pneumococcus II. A Harshey and M. Chase
3. Floral reward 3. E.coli III. F. Griffith
4. Commensalism 4. Bacteriophage IV. Alec Jeffreys

below:
1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Page: 22
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152 155 Given below are two statements:

Statement The ground substance of bone is solid, Bacterial infection by Bacillus
Statement
I: pliable and resist compression. thuringiensis can kill only caterpillar
I:
Statement The bone marrow of all bones is site of larvae.
II: production of blood cells. Statement
B. thuringiensis cannot kill adult moths.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most II:
appropriate answer from the options given below. In the light of the above statements, choose the most
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct appropriate answer from the options given below:
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
153 Arrange in a proper sequence the pathway of
sperms from testis to outside in human male 156 Match List I with List II relating to major features
reproductive system. of embryonic development at different timings of
A. Vas deferens pregnancy:
B. Rete testis List-I List-II
C. Seminiferous tubules (No. of weeks) (Major features)
D. Vasa efferentia After 4 weeks of Eye-lids separate and
E. Urethra A. I.
pregnancy eyelashes are formed
F. Epididymis
After 12 weeks of
Choose the correct answer from the options given below B. II. Heart is formed
pregnancy
:
1. F → A → B → D → E → C After 24 weeks of Limbs and digits are
C. III.
2. C → A → B → D → F → E pregnancy developed
3. B → A → D → C → F → E After 8 weeks of External genital organs are
D. IV.
4. C → B → D → F → A → E pregnancy well developed
Choose he correct answer from the options given below:

154 Match List-I with List-II: 1. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
List-I List-II 2. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
3. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
A. Tertiary consumer I. Grass 4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
B. Secondary consumer II. Lion
C. Primary consumer III. Wolf 157 Match List-I with List-II:
D. Primary producer IV. Goat List-I List-II
A Saccharomyces cerevisiae I. Citric acid
Choose the correct answer form the options given
B. Aspergillus niger II. Butyric acid
below:
1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV C. Trichoderma polysporum III. Ethanol
2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I D. Clostridium butylicum IV. Cyclosporin-A
3. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
4. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I Choose the correct answer from the options :
2. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
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158 The animal coelacanth caught in South Africa is an 163 Given below are two statements : One is labelled
example of vertebrate transition from: as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
1. Fish to Amphibia (R).
2. Amphibia to Reptilia Assertion In honey bee population, sons do not have
3. Reptilia to Bird (A): fathers but have grandfathers.
4. Reptilia to Mammal Haploidy in drones of honey bee is due to
Reason
parthenogenesis while fertilisation results
159 Identify the correct statements about Genetic (R): into female bees.
codons. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
A. AUG is initiator codon and codes for Glycine answer from the options given below:
B. UAA codes for Tyrosine Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
C. The codons are mostly universal 1.
explanation of (A).
D. UAG is terminator codon
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
E. More than one codons code for single amino acid 2.
explanation of (A).
1. C, B, D
2. A, D, E 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3, C, D, E 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
4. A, B, C
164 In standard ECG diagram, the P-wave represents:
160 Match List-I with List-II 1. Depolarisation of the atria
List-I List-II 2. Repolarisation of the ventricle
A. Emphysema I. Proliferation of fibrous tissues 3. Depolarisation of the ventricle
4. End of systole
Alveolar walls are damaged and
B. Asbestosis II.
respiratory surface is decreased
165 Name the hormone(s) not secreted by placenta.
C. Asthma III. Serious lung damage
A. Estrogens
Difficulty in breathing due to
B. Progestogens
D. Fibrosis IV. inflammation of bronchi and C. Relaxin and Inhibin
bronchioles D. hCG
E. hPL
Choose the correct answer from the options given Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: below:
1. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II 1. D and E only
2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 2. C only
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 3. B only
4. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III 4. A and C only
161 Which of the following group of animals have 166 MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) with
three chambered heart? oral pills is considered relatively safe upto:
1. Bufo, Alligator, Struthio 1. 7-9 weeks of pregnancy
2. Chameleon, Hyla, Calotes 2. 15-18 weeks of pregnancy
3. Crocodilus, pavo, Clarias 3. 20-24 weeks of pregnancy
4. Exocoetus, Hemidactylus, Rana 4. 28-30 weeks of pregnancy
162 Which of the following is 'NOT' an autosomal 167 Use of hyper immune horse serum raised against a
recessive disorder? specific pathogen, given to a recipient is an example of:
1. Sickle cell anemia 1. Natural active immunity
2. Phenylketonuria 2. Artificial active immunity
3. Haemophilia 3. Natural passive immunity
4. Thalassemia 4. Artificial passive immunity
Page: 24
2024 8527521718
168 171 Given below are two statements:

Match List-I with List-II: Statement I: Aphids and mosquitoes are natural pests.
List-I List-II Statement Lady bird and dragonflies are natural pests
A. Ribozyme I. Glucose transport II: controllers.
B. Lecithin II. Non proteinaceous enzyme In the light of the above statements , choose the most
C. Glut-4 III. Lipid appropriate answer from the options given below:
D. Vitamins IV. Coenzyme 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
:
1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 172 Match List-I with List-II
3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV List-I List-II
4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV A. Ampicillin I. Restriction sites
B. Ori II. Blue/White screening
Multiple cloning
169 Match List-I with List-II. C.
sites
III. Selectable marker
List-I List-II β galactosidase Sequence from where
D. IV.
A. Cilia I. Spindle fibres gene replication starts
B. Endoplasmic Reticulum II. Cristae
C. Mitochondria III. Axoneme Choose the correct answer from the options given
D. Kinetochore IV. Ribosomes below:
1. A-III, B-IV, C-I , D-II
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II , D-I
below:
2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
3. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV 173 Match List-I with List-II
4. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV List-I List-II
A. Vertebrochondral Ribs I. IIum , Ischium Pubis
B. Floating Ribs II. 8th , 9th and 10th Pairs
List-I List-II C. Scapula III. Acromion
Tricuspid Guards the opening between right D. Coxal Bone IV. 11th and 12th Pairs
A. I.
valves atrium and right ventricle
Sino-atrial Guards the opening between the Choose the correct answer from the options given
B. II.
node left atrium and the left ventricle below:
Guards the opening of right and left 1. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Mitral
C. III. ventricles into pulmonary artery 2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
valves
and aorta, respectively 3. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Semilunar Cardiac musculature in the right 4. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
D. IV.
valves upper corner of right atrium

:
Page: 25
2024 8527521718
174 Which part of human nephron impermeable to 177 Which of the following is NOT an example of
water? assisted reproductive technology (ART) ?
1. Proximal convoluted tubule 1. IVF
2. Distal convoluted tubule 2. GIFT
3. Ascending limb of loop of Henle 3. IUI
4. Descending limb of loop of Henle 4. IUD
175 In the following diagram of alimentary canal of 178 Given below are two statements : On is labelled as
cockroach identify the labels A, B, C and D Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
respectively. Some ethical standards are required to
Assertion evaluate the morality of scientific human
(A): activities that might help or harm living
organisms.
Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
make decisions regarding the validity
Reason
of Genetically Modified (GM) research and
(R):
the safety of introducing GM organisms for
public services.
In the light of the above statements choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below :
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
2.
1. A-Gizzard, B-Crop, C-Malpighian tubules, D-Hepatic explanation of (A).
caeca 3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
2. A-Oesophagus, B-Crop, C-salivary glands, D-Hepatic 4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
caeca
3. A-Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Hepatic caeca, D-
Malpighian tubules 179 Match List-I with List-II:
4. A-Gizzard, B-Hepatic caeca, C-Malpighian tubules, List-I List-II
D- Cilia A Parathyroid hormone I. Flight or fight response
Epinephrine and Nor- Regulates the body's
B. II.
176 Match List-I with List-II: epinephrine biological clock
List-I List-II Thyroid stimulating 2+
C. III. Increases blood Ca
A. Limbic system I. Body temperature hormone level
B. Arachnoid II. Tract of nerve fibres Synthesis of T and T
D. Melatonin IV. 3 4
C. Corpus callosum III. Amygdala hormones

D. Hypothalamus IV. Cranial meninge
Choose the correct answer from the options given :
below: 1. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III 3. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV 4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-IV,B-II, C-III, D-I
Page: 26
2024 8527521718
180 The catalytic cyclic of an enzyme action is 183 Given below are two statements: One is labelled
described as: as
A. Enzyme releases products of the reaction and gets Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
free. The interaction, in which one species
B. Substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape. Assertion
benefits and the other is neither harmed nor
C. The substrate binds with the active site of the (A):
benefitted, is known as commensalism.
enzyme. Egrets always forage close to where the
D. Enzymes-product complex is formed. Reason
cattles are grazing, otherwise it is difficult
1. C → B → A → D (R):
for the egrets to find the insect and catch.
2. C → B → D → A In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
3. B → C → D → A answer from the options given below:
4.D → C → A → B
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
List-I List-II 2.
explanation of (A).
(Biological Name) (Common name)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
A. Asterias I. Sea urchin
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
B. Antedon II. Brittle star
C. Echinus III. Sea lily 184 Match List-I with List-II:
D. Ophiura IV. Star fish
List-I (Cell
List-II (Events)
Cycle)
Cell is metabolically active but no
below: A. G1 phase I.
proliferation until required
2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II B. S phase II. Replication of DNA
3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV C. G stage
0 III. Synthesis of proteins
4. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III Cell is metabolically active and
D. G2 phase IV.
grows continuously
182 Given below is a list of some sexually reproducing
animals. Select the hermaphrodite animals from the list. Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A. Cockroach :
B. Leech 1. A-I, B-II, C-IV,D-III
C. Housefly 2. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
D. Tapeworm 3. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
E. Earthworm 4. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Choose the correct answer form options given below :
1. A, B and D only
2. C and D only
3. B, D and E only
4. A, C and E only
Page: 27
2024 8527521718
185 Given below are two statements : One is labelled 188 Match List-I with List-II
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). List-I List-II
Connell's elegant field experiment showed (Cockroach) (Term Used)
that on the rocky sea, the larger and A. Metamorphosis I. Ommatidia
Assertion
competitively superior barnacles dominate B. Brain II. Paurometabolous
(A):
the intertidal area and excludes the smaller
C. Vision III. Spiracles
barnacle from that area.
Supraoesophageal
Generally herbivores and plants appear to be D. Respiration IV.
Reason ganglion
more adversely affected by competition than
(R): Choose the correct answer from the options given
carnivores.
below:
2. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
1.
explanation of (A) 4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
2.
explanation of (A) 189 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. Some human organs like liver, kidney fail to
Assertion function normally and transplantation is the
186 Given below are two statements: (A): only remedy to enable the patient to live a
Degeneration of corpus luteum in the normal life.
Statement
absence of fertilization is the cause for Tissue matching and blood group matching
I:
disintegration of endometrium. Reason are essential before undertaking any
Cyclic menstruation indicates normal (R): transplant and patient has to take
Statement immunosuppresant thereafter.
reproductive phase in human females and
II:
extends between menarche and menopause. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
answer from the options given below: Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are True. explanation of (A)
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are False. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
3. Statement I is True but Statement II is False. explanation of (A)
4. Statement I is False but Statement II is True. 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
187 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 190 The manifestations of phenylketonuria are given
Assertion After death, the body muscles get stiff as a below. Choose the incorrect answer from the given
(A): state of partial contraction of muscles. options:
Reason Attachment of myosin head to unexpected 1. Mental retardation
(R): sites on action can take place partially. 2. Skin rashes
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct 3. Excessive accumulation of phenylpyruvate in blood
answer from the options given below: 4. Furrowed tongue
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A)
2.
explanation of (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Page: 28
2024 8527521718
191 The epithelial tissue has the following features: 194 In human the process of respiration involves the
A. Bear cilia on their free surface. following steps.
B. Provides a lining for some parts of body. A. Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane
B. Diffusion of gases between blood and tissues
Compound epithelium is multilayered meant for
C. C. Transport of gases by blood
limited role in secretion and absorption.
D. Utilisation of O by the cells for catabolic reactions
2
D. Located in the tip of nose. E. Breathing or pulmonary ventilation
E. Exocrine glands possess epithelial tissue. Choose the correct sequence of steps from the options
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
given below: 1. A →E→B→C→D
1. B, D and E only 2. C →E→A→B→D
2. A, B and C only 3. B →D→C→E→A
3. B, C and E only 4. E →A→C→B→D
4. C, D and E only
195 In animal kingdom along with XX-YY
192 With regard to Hormones, identify the correct mechanism, many other variants of chromosomal sex
statements. determination mechanism have been described such as
A. Epinephrine is a peptide hormone. XX-XO mechanism, ZZ-ZW mechanism ZZ-ZO
B. Progesterone is a peptide hormone. mechanism and haplo-diploidy mechanism, which
Hormones that interact with membrane bound present respectively in:
C. receptors normally do not enter target cell, but 1. Birds, Grasshopper, Wasp, Moth
generate second messengers. 2. Grasshopper, Birds, Moth, Wasp
3. Birds, Moth, Grasshopper, Wasp
Hormones that interact with intracellular receptors 4. Grasshopper, Moth, Birds, Wasp
D.
mostly regulate gene expression.
E. Insulin is a amino acid derivative hormone. 196 Given below are two statements:
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
The Golgi cisternae are concentrically
given below:
Statement arranged near the nucleus with distinct
1. A and B only
I: convex cis or the forming face and concave
2. C and E only
trans or the maturing face.
3. C and D only
4. B and C only Statement The cis and trans faces of the orgnelle are
II: identical and interconnected.
193 Assuming Hardy Weinberg's Principle, in certain In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
population the frequencies of three genotype are as
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are True.
follows:
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are False.
Genotypes AA Aa aa 3. Statement I is True but Statement II is False.
Frequency 22% 62% 16% 4. Statement I is False but Statement II is True.
What is likely frequency of 'A' and 'a' alleles?

1. 53% and 47%
2. 40% and 60%
3. 50% and 50%
4. 30% and 70%
Page: 29
2024 8527521718
197 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as 199 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA) plays an There is always a sharp decline in dissolved
Assertion
important role in regulation of glomerular Assertion oxygen downstream from the point of
(A):
filtration rate (GFR). (A): sewage discharge, which causes mortality of
A fall in GFR can activate the J.G. cells to fish and other aquatic creatures
Reason release renin which can stimulate the Micro-organisms involved in bio-
(R): glomerular blood flow and there by bringing Reason degradation of organic matter in the
the GFR to normal level. (R): receiving water body consumes a lot of
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct oxygen
answer from the options given below: In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct answer from the options given below:
1.
explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
2.
explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. explanation of (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
198 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 200 Match List-I with List-II:
Assertion In hemichordates the body cavity is lined List-II
List-I
(A): by mesoderm. (Prophase-
(Events)
In aschelminthes the body cavity is not I)
Reason (R):
lined by mesoderm Chromosomes start pairing together
A. I. Pachytene
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct to form synaptonemal complex
answer from the options given below: Chromosomes visible under light
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct B. microscope and compaction II. Zygotene
1.
explanation of (A). continues
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct Four chromatids of bivalent
2.
explanation of (A). C. chromosomes become distinct and III. Diplotene
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. recombinant nodules appear
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. Dissolution of synaptonemal
D. IV. Leptotene
complex
below:
2. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-III
3. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Page: 30
NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY 38 of 48
FINAL ANSWER KEY FOR NEET (UG) - 2024 EXAM HELD ON 05.05.2024
Test Booklet Code : O2
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 2 41 3 81 1 121 1 161 2
2 4 42 2 82 4 122 3 162 3
3 4 43 3 83 3 123 4 163 1
4 3 44 4 84 2 124 3 164 1
5 2 45 1 85 3 125 1 165 2
6 4 46 3 86 4 126 3 166 1
7 4 47 2 87 1 127 3 167 4
8 1 48 2 88 3 128 2 168 4
9 4 49 1 89 3 129 2 169 2
10 3 50 4 90 3 130 2 170 4
11 2 51 3 91 4 131 4 171 1
12 3 52 3 92 4 132 1 172 1
13 4 53 4 93 1 133 3 173 3
14 3 54 3 94 3 134 1 174 3
15 1 55 4 95 4 135 2 175 3
16 4 56 3 96 1 136 1 176 1
17 4 57 3 97 1 137 3 177 4
18 4 58 2 98 2 138 1 178 1
19 3 59 2 99 1 139 4 179 1
20 2 60 4 100 1 140 2 180 2
21 3 61 1 101 1 141 2 181 2
22 3 62 2 102 4 142 3 182 3
23 2 63 1 103 2 143 1 183 1
24 3 64 3 104 3 144 2 184 2
25 3 65 2 105 2 145 1 185 2
26 2 66 4 106 4 146 3 186 1
27 1 67 1 107 4 147 4 187 3
28 2 68 2 108 2 148 3 188 4
29 3 69 1 109 2 149 3 189 1
30 3 70 1 110 1 150 2 190 4
31 1 71 1 111 3 151 2 191 3
32 4 72 1 112 2 152 2 192 3
33 4 73 1 113 3 153 4 193 1
34 3 74 3 114 2 154 4 194 4
35 2 75 1 115 3 155 1 195 2
36 2 76 1 116 2 156 3 196 3
37 3 77 3 117 2 157 1 197 1
38 2 78 4 118 2 158 1 198 2
39 2 79 3 119 3 159 3 199 1
40 2 80 1 120 3 160 2 200 4

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Jhajjar Neet Exam - Contact Number: 9667591930 /

1 4 Match List-I with List-II:

B Field outside thin shell II 4πε0 R

C Field of thin shell at the surface III 4πε0 r

D Field due to long charged wire IV zero

[Given ln(2) = 0.693] 3. A-IV,B-III, C-II, D-I

3 Two identical rectangular plane sheet A and B each

each other as shown in figure. The electric field at the

2. √ 2T B. Lyman series II. R(

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

C ∮ E→ ⋅ dI m is placed perpendicular to a magnetic

9 Match List I with List II 1 atm = 10 Pa]:

List-I List-II 1. 1 atm

18 For an adiabatic process, the factor which remains

If I , I , I and I are their moments of inertia about

16 Zener diode works: 3. α, e , α, e , γ − +

1. in forward bias only. 4. α, e , α, e , γ + −

2. in reverse bias only.

21 A particle is displaced through ^ ^

22 A body of mass 6 kg is moving from its initial 1. 2.

24 A body weighing 100 N on the surface of earth

25 The speed (s) of a car as a function of time (t) is

26 The equivalent resistance RAB between points A

31 If i is the angle of incidence and i is the angle of

emergence on a prism, then the relation between i and i ′

to obtain an angle of minimum deviation is:

acting on a particle at an instant t then the time, at which

34 A solar cell is a: 37 A rocket is fired vertically upward with a speed of

39 A particle of mass m and charge q is placed in a

40 There are two heaters A and B. Heater A takes time

4. C, D and E only 1. 13 : 1 and 14 : 1

object B. The object B has half the mass as that of the 2. 30 ∘

object A. The object A speeds up by 1 ms and then

has the same kinetic energy as that of object B. The 4. 90 ∘

initial speed of object of object A is nearly (Take

magnetic moment is M . When this bar is bent to form a 3. 6 ms , 2 ms −2 −1

semicircle its magnetic moment is: 4. 2 ms , 6 ms

difference across the plates without dielectric to that 1. 2.00

The effervescence is due to the release of

In the light of the above statements, choose the not

as: decreasing bond angle:

strong acid strong base B. AsH 3

The enthalpy of neutralization of 0.25 mol of HCI by C. PH 3

0.25 mol of NaOH is :

molecular formula of the inorganic compound is: 2. Cl 2(g)

3. K SO ⋅ Al (SO ) ⋅ 24H O 4. 2H 2 O2(aq) → 2H2 O(l) + O2(g)

62 Isotope of an element contains more

3. Kjeldahl's method 2. Fe57

4. Combustion method 3. Co57

59 Molar mass of a compound (X) whose 2.6 mol

weighs 312 g is:

The oxidation state and coordination number (or 3. = 4. =

The following four species are called isoelectronic

68 Match List-I with List-II

69 Given below are two statements: 72 Match List-I with List-II

B. Solid ⇌ Liquid II. Boiling point

Choose the correct answer from the options given B. [CoF ] 3−

2. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I D. (NiCl ) 4

3. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III