CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024)

TARGET : PRE - MEDICAL : 2024

CLASS : LEADER (XIII) (PHASE - I TO IV)
Test Type: Test Date : 30 - 07 - 2023 Test Pattern:
Time : 3 Hours 20 minutes PRACTICE TEST - 01 Maximum Marks : 720

Instructions
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
1. This Question Paper contains 200 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in
any form are not allowed.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
5. Do not Tamper/ mutilate the ORS orthis booklet.
6. How to fill response on OMR (Assuming answer is (1))
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
Correct Method: Wrong Method:
7. Write your ALLEN Form Number, Student's Name, Father's Name and Class with pen in appropriate boxes.
Do not write these any where else.
8. Darken the appropriate bubbles on ORS with blue / black ball point pen only.
B. Question paper format and Marking scheme:
9. The question paper consists of 4 SUBJECTS (Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology). Each subject consists of
50 Multiple Choice Single Correct Questions and two sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions and Section B will
have 15 questions. Out of 15 questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions.
10. For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.
 PRE-MEDICAL - 2024

LEADER COURSE (PHASE - I TO IV)

PRACTICE TEST - 01 DATE : 30 - 07 - 2023

SYLLABUS

PHYSICS : Rectilinear Motion, Projectile Motion, Relative Motion,

NLM (Basics).

CHEMISTRY : Chemical Bonding.

BOTANY : Anatomy Of Flowering Plants.

ZOOLOGY : Breathing And Exchange Of Gases,

Body Fluids and Circulation.

 CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) 55. The correct sequence of increasing covalent
 This section contains 35 questions. character is represented by
 For each question, darken the bubble (1) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. (2) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one (3) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2
of the following categories : (4) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble 56. The attraction that non - polar molecules have for
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. each other is primarily caused by
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is (1) Vander waal’s forces
darkened. (2) Difference in electronegativities
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (3) Hydrogen bonding
51. Among the following which has the highest boiling (4) High ionisation energy
point
57. The correct increasing order of bond angle is
(1) NH3 (2) PH 3
(1) CO2, SO2, BF3, CH4 (2) CH4, SO2, BF3, CO2
(3) ASH3 (4) CH4
(3) BF3, CH4, CO2, SO2 (4) CO2, CH4, BF3, SO2
52. Select the incorrect statement
58. Which of the following theory provides good
(1) Hybrid orbitals are maximum repelled to each explanation about the paramagnetic behaviour of
other oxygen
(2) Only half filled atomic orbitals are participate in (1) VSEPR theory
hybridisation
(2) Valency bond theory
(3) Bond energy of hybrid orbitals are more than
(3) Molecular orbital theory
unhybrid atomic orbital
(4) All
(4) Without hybridisation, geometry of molecules
is uncertain 59. An atom X has three valence electrons and atom Y
has six valence electrons. The compound formed
53. Consider the following statements:
between them will have the formula
I. In F 2 molecule F—F  -bond is formed by
(1) X2Y6 (2) XY2
axial overlapping of two p-orbitals.
(3) X2Y3 (4) X3Y2
II. In O 2 molecule one  -bond is formed by
axial overlap of p-orbitals and one  -bond is formed 60. Which has the minimum melting point
by lateral overlap of p-orbitals. (1) CaF2 (2) CaCl2
III. In N2 molecule one  and two  -bonds, i.e. all (3) CaBr2 (4) CaI2
the three bonds are formed by lateral overlap of p- 61. The bonds present in N2O5 are
orbitals. (1) Ionic (2) Covalent
Which of the above statements are incorrect? (3) Coordinate (4) Both 2 and 3
(1) Only I (2) Only II 62. In which of the following molecules /ions are all the
(3) Only III (4) Both I & II bonds are not equal
54. Which of the following are arranged in the (1) SiF4 (2) XeF4
decreasing order of dipole moment (3) BF 4- (4) SF4
(1) CH3Cl, CH3Br, CH3F 63. Which of the following species is not diamagnetic
(2) CH3Cl, CH3F, CH3Br (1) N2 (2) F2
(3) CH3F, CH3Cl, CH3Br (3) Li2 (4) O2
(4) CH3Br, CH3Cl, CH3F
64. The molecules that will have dipole moment 72. Bond length depends upon the size of
atoms, hybridisation, resonance, bond order etc. In
(1) Carbon tetrachloride
the following relations.
(2) Para - dichloro benzene
I. Bond length size of atoms
(3) Chloroform
II. Bond length hybridisation (no. of hybrid
(4) Xenondifluoride orbitals)
65. In aqueous solution, the largest ion is III. Bond length bond order.
(1) K + (2) Li+ Choose the correct option.
(3) Rb+ (4) CS+ (1) I and II (2) Only I
66. Among H2O, H2S, H2Se and H2Te, the one with (3) I and III (4) I, II and III
highest boiling point is
73. In allene (C3H4)structure three carbons atoms are
(1) H2O because of hydrogen bonding joined by
(2) H2Te because of higher molecular weight (1) 3  bonds and 3 pi bonds
(3) H2S because of hydrogen bonding (2) 2  bonds and 1 pi bonds
(4) H2Se because of lower molecular weight (3) 2  bonds and 2 pi bonds
67. In NO-3 ion, number of bond pairs and lone pairs of (4) 3 pi bonds only
electrons on nitrogen atom are
74. Elements have electronegativities 1.2 and 3.0 bond
(1) 2, 2 (2) 4 , 0 formed between them would be
(3) 3, 1 (4) 1, 3 (1) Ionic (2) Covalent
68. The sulphite of a metal has the formula M2(SO3)3. (3) Co- ordinate (4) Metallic
The formula of its phosphate will be –
75. In an anion HCOO the two carbons - oxygen bonds
(1) M(HPO4)2 (2) M3(PO4)2 are found to be of equal reason for it
(3) M2(PO4)3 (4) MPO4 (1) The C = O bond is weaker than C – O bond
69. Consider the following statements (2) The anion HCOO– has 2 reasonating structures
I. H2O molecule has V-shape with two lone pairs (3) The anion is obtained by removal of proton from
of electrons. acid molecule
II. SF4 molecule has see-saw shape with one lone (4) All
pair of electrons.
76. Which of the following halogens has the highest
III. ClF3 is T-shaped molecule with two lone pairs bond energy ?
of electrons.
(1) F2 (2) Cl2
Which of the above statements are correct?
(3) Br2 (4) I2
(1) I and II (2) II and III
77. Among the following molecules the one with the
(3) I and III (4) I, II and III largest distance between the two adjacent carbon
70. Polarising power of cation increase when atoms is
(1) Charge on the cation increase (1) Ethane (2) Ethene
(2) Size of the cation increase (3) Ethyne (4) Benzene
(3) Charge on the cation decreases 78. The strongest hydrogen bonding exists in
(4) Has no relation to its size or charge (1) H 2S (2) HF
71. An element(X) forms compounds of the formula

XCl3, X2O5 and Ca3X2 but does not form XCl5 which (3) N H (4) H 2 O
3
of the following is the element X
(1) B (2) Al 79. What type of hybridisation is involved in XeF2
(3) N (4) P
(1) sp3d (2) dsp3

(3) sp3d 2 (4) d 3sp3

80. The number of  and  bonds in tetracyanoethane SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
(1) 5 ; 8 (2) 9 ; 7  This section contains 15 questions.
(3) 9 ; 9 (4) 11 ; 8  Attempt any 10 questions.
81. Which of the following has the highest dipole  For each question, darken the bubble
moment corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
(1) o-dichlorobenzene (2) m-dichlorobenzene  For each question, marks will be awarded in one
(3) p-dichlorobenzene (4) All have equal values of the following categories :
82. The hybridisation of central atom in HgCl2 is Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
(1) sp (2) sp 2
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
(3) sp3 (4) sp3d darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
83. Number of  and  bonds present in
86. In which central atom does not have one lone pair
CH 3  CH  CH  C  CH are of electron

(1) 10 , 3 (2) 10 , 2  (1) NH 3 (2) PCl3

(3) 9 , 2 (4) 8 , 3 (3) Cl 2 O (4) XeF6

87. The correct order of C-O bond length is
84. Structure of H 2 O 2 is
(1) Planar (2) Non-planar (1) CO  CO32  CO 2 (2) CO32   CO 2  CO
(3) Linear (4) None of these (3) CO  CO 2  CO32  (4) CO2  CO32  CO
85. In which molecule sulphur atom is not
88. Assertion (A): BrF 5 and SF 6 both have
sp3 -hybridized same hybridisation.
Reason (R): BrF5 is square pyramidal, while
(1) SO 24  (2) SF4 SF6 molecule is octahedral.
(3) SF2 (4) None of these (1) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct
explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct; R is not the
correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct; R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect; R is correct.
89. In which of the following process the bond order
increases and magnetic behaviour changes
(1) N 2  N 2 (2) C 2  C 2

(3) NO  NO  (4) O 2  O2

90. In which of the excitation state of chlorine ClF3 is

formed
(1) In ground state
(2) In third excitation state
(3) In first excitation state
(4) In second excitation state
91. % of ionic character of diatomic HCl molecule

whose bond length and dipolemoments are 1.275A

o
95. The calculated bondorder in O2 ion is
and 1.03 debye respectively (1) 1 (2) 1.5 (3) 2 (4) 2.5
(1) 25% (2) 30% 96. Total number of lonepairs located on central atom
(3) 16.82 % (4) 35.82 % in XeOF4 is
92. A diatomic molecule has a dipolement of 1.2 D. If (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
o 97. Among the compounds NaCl, KCl, RbCl and CsCl
the bond distance is 1.0 A , what fraction of an
the one with greatest ionic character is
electronic charge exists on each atom ?
(1) NaCl (2) KCl
(1) 30% (2) 25%
(3) CsCl (4) RbCl
(3) 16.82% (4) 35.82%
98. The molecule that deviates from octet rule is
93. Assertion (A): The structure of H2O is similar to
SO2. (1) CCl4 (2) BF3
Reason (R): In both molecules (H2O and SO2), (3) MgO (4) NCl3
the central atom has one lone pair of electrons. 99. The % of ‘p’ character in hybrid orbital of the central
(1) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct atom of water molecule
explanation of A (1) 25% (2) 50%
(2) Both A and R are correct; R is not the (3) 75% (4) 33.3%
correct explanation of A. 100. The angle between two covalent bonds is minimum
(3) A is correct; R is incorrect. in
(4) A is incorrect; R is correct. (1) H2 O (2) CO2
94. The angular shape of ozone molecule consists of (3) NH3 (4) CH4
(1) 1 bond ; 1 bond (2) 2 bond ; 1 bond
(3) 1 bond ; 2 bond (4) 2 bond ; 2 bond
 BOTANY
SECTION-A
(All questions attempt)

101. The meristem present in axillary bud is

(1) Primary meristem (2) Apical meristem
(3) Secondary meristem (4) Both 1 & 2
102. The tissue that can show de-differentiation is/are
(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma
(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Sclerenchyma.
103. Primary growth in plants is due to
(1) Interfascicular cambium (2) Intrafascicular cambium
(3) Apical meristem (4) Lateral meristem
104. The meristems that can be present in monocots is / are
(1) Lateral meristem (2) Apical meristem
(3) Intercalary meristem (4) Both 2 & 3
105. The meristems that is present in dicots is / are
(1) Apical meristem (2) Lateral meristem
(3) Intercalary meristem (4) Both 1 & 2
106. Ephemeral primary meristem is
(1) Intercalary meristem (2) Vascular cambium
(3) Interfascicular cambium (4) Intrafascicular cambium
107. Find the incorrect statement
(1) Apical meristem helps in linear growth in plants.
(2) Intercalary meristem is derived from apical meristem.
(3) Intercalary meristem is formed during secondary growth.
(4) Interfascicular cambium is present between vascular bundles of dicot stem
108. The meristem that is present in mature regions of roots and shoots of many (dicots) plants is
(1) Apical meristem (2) Lateral meristem
(3) Intercalary meristem (4) Intrafascicular cambium only
109. The primary permanent tissue that can't undergo de-differentiation is
(1) Sclerenchyma (2) Collenchyma
(3) Parenchyma (4) Medullary ray parenchyma
110. The dermal tissues, ground tissues and vascular tissues in the primary plant body are produced from
(1) Apical meristem (2) Intercalary meristem
(3) Lateral meristem (4) Interfascicular cambium
111. Find the odd one out
(1) Parenchyma (2) Xylem (3) Collenchyma (4) Sclerenchyma
112. Living mechanical tissue is
(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma (3) Sclerenchyma (4) Phloem
113. Lumen is developed in
(1) Sclerenchyma (2) Sieve tube
(3) Phloem parenchyma (4) Xylem parenchyma
114. Statement-I : Collenchyma occurs below the epidermis in primary monocot stem.
Statement-II : Sclerenchyma occurs below the epidermis in dicot stem.
(1) Statement I is true and statement II is false (2) Statement I is false and statement II is true
(3) Both the statement I and statement II are true (4) Both the statement I and statement II are false
115. Water and mineral conducting cells of xylem are
(1) Tracheid (2) Vessels (3) Sieve tube (4) Both 1 & 2
116. Find the incorrect statement
(1) Tracheids are multicellular (2) Vessels are multicellular
(3) Sieve cells are present in angiosperms (4) Xylem parenchyma is living tissue
117. Pick out the odd one out
(1)Mesophyll (2) Endodermis (3) Epidermis (4) Cortex
118. Root hairs are
(1) Unicellular (2) Endogenous (3) Exogenous (4) Both 1 & 3
119. Trichomes are absent in
(1)Dicot root (2) Monocot root (3) Dicot stem (4) Both 1 & 2
120. Stomata and cuticle are not present in
(1) Root (2) Dicot stem (3) Dicot leaf (4) Monocot leaf
121. Stomatal apparatus donot have
(1) Normal epidermal cells (2) Subsidiary cells
(3) Guard cells (4) Stomatal aperture
122. Inner wall of dicot guard cells possess / have
(1) Thin & concave (2) Thick & concave
(3) Thick & convex (4) Thin & convex
123. Conjunctive tissue is present in
(1) Dicot stem (2) Dicot leaf (3) Dicot root (4) Monocot stem
124. Medulla is very well developed in
(1) Monocot root (2) Monocot stem (3) Dicot root (4) Dicot leaf
125. Casparian bands are associated with
(1) Pericycle (2) Endodermis (3) Epidermis (4) Conjunctive tissue
126. The endodermis of stem is called
1) Water tight dam 2) Starch sheath
3) Bundle sheath 4) Fibrous sheath
127. Assertion (A) : In stem vascular bundle, xylem is endarch.
Reason (R) : First formed primary xylem is towards centre in vascular bundle of stem.
1) Both A & R are correct and R explains A. 2) Both A & R are correct, but R not explains A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false and R is true
128. Find the incorrect statement
1) In radial vascular bundles, xylem and phloem are arranged alternately.
2) In conjoint vascular bundles, xylem and phloem present one above the other.
3) In stem vascular bundle, Phloem is towards outer side and xylem is towards inner side.
4) In leaf vascular bundle, xylem is towards abaxial epidermis and phloem is towards adaxial epidermis.
129. Pericycle is sclerenchymatous in
1) Dicot root 2) Dicot stem 3) Monocot root 4) Monocot stem
130. Medullary ray parenchyma is associated with
1) Dicot stem 2) Monocot stem 3) Monocot root 4) Monocot stem
131. De-differentiated tissue in periderm is
1) Phellem 2) Phellogen 3) Phelloderm 4) All
132. Re-differentiated tissue in periderm is / are
1) Phellogen 2) Phelloderm 3) Phellem 4) Both 2 & 3
133. Motor cells or bulliform cells are present on the adaxial epidermis of
1) All monocot leaves 2) Dicot leaves 3) Grass leaves 4) All the above
134. Intrafascicular cambium is present in
1) Vascular bundle of monocot stem 2) Vascular bundle of monocot root
3) Vascular bundle of dicot stem 4) Vascular bundle of dicot leaf
135. Conjunctive tissue is present in
1) Dicot stem 2) Dicot root 3) Monocot root 4) Both 2 & 3

SECTION-B
(Any 10 questions attempt)
136. Conjoint open vascular bundles are present in
1) Monocot stem 2) Dicot stem 3) Dicot root 4) Monocot root
137. When a vascular bundle said to be closed ?
1) If cambium is present in conjoint vascular bundle
2) If cambium is absent in in conjoint vascular bundle
3) If cambium is present in radial vascular bundle
4) If interfascicular cambium is present in conjoint vascular bundle
138. Epiblema is present in
1) Root 2) Stem 3) Leaf 4) All the above
139. Cortex in root composed of
1) Collenchyma 2) Sclerenchyma 3) Parenchyma 4) Vessel
140. Ring arrangement of vascular bundles are present in
1) Dicot leaf 2) Dicot stem 3) Monocot leaf 4) Monocot stem
141. Pith is absent in
1) Monocot stem 2) Dicot stem 3) Monocot root 4) Dicot root
142. Bundle sheath cells of leaf are
1) Thin walled 2) Thick walled 3) Absent 4) Discontinuous
143. Secondary meristem formed from medullary ray parenchyma cells is
1) Intrafascicular cambium 2) Cork cambium
3) Interfascicular cambium 4) Intercalary meristem
144. The secondary xylem formed during unfavourable conditions is
1) Late wood 2) Late bark 3) Early wood 4) Early bark
145. Bark tissue is
1) Outer to cork cambium only 2) Inner to cork cambium
3) Outer to vascular cambium 4) Inner to vascular cambium
146. Lenticels are present in
1) Leaf 2) Young stem 3) Woody stem 4) Young root
147. Type of tissue present in lenticels are
1) Parenchyma 2) Collenchyma 3) Sclerenchyma 4) Tracheid
148. Suberin is present in the cells of
1) Phellem 2) Endodermis 3) Pericycle 4) Both 1 & 2
149. Location of latest formed secondary phloem is
1) Far away outside the vascular cambium 2) Just outer to vascular cambium
3) Just inner to vascular cambium 4) Far away towards centre
150. Vascular cambium of dicot root is
1) Completely primary 2) Partly primary and partly secondary
3) Completely secondary 4) Not formed
 ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) 154. Given figure is showing spirogram of pulmonary
 This section contains 35 questions. volumes and capacities
 For each question, darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one
of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
darkened.
Which represent expiratory reserve volume:-
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
(1) A (2) B
151. Which one of the following statements is incorrect
(3) C (4) D
(1) The residual air in lungs slightly decreases the
efficiency of respiration in mammals 155. A drop of each of the following, is placed
(2) The presence of non-respiratory air sacs, separately on four slides. Which of them will not
increases the efficiency of respiration in birds coagulate?
(3) In insects, circulating body fluids serve to (1) Whole blood from pulmonary vein
distribute oxygen to tissues (2) Blood plasma
(4) The principle of counter current flow (3) Blood serum
facilitates efficient respiration in gills of fishes (4) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic
152. What is true about RBCs in humans? system
(1) They do not carry CO 2 at all 156. Heart of man is
(1) Myogenic (2) Neurogenic
(2) They carry about 20-25 per cent of CO 2
(3) Cardiogenic (4) Digenic
(3) They transport 99.5 per cent of O 2 157. Haemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve is
(4) They transport about 80 percent oxygen only (1) Hyperbolic (2) Sigmoid
and the rest 20 per cent of it is transported in (3) Straight (4) Constant
dissolved state in blood plasma 158. Vital capacity of lungs is
153. Superior vena cava receive blood from:- (1) TV + IRV + ERV (2) TV + IRV + RV
(1) Head, neck, chest (3) TV + ERV (4) IRV + ERV
(2) Digestive system 159. In which part of lungs gaseous exchange takes
(3) Lower limbs place in human
(4) Diaphragm and legs (1) Trachea & alveolar duct
(2) Trachea & bronchi
(3) Alveolar duct & alveoli
(4) Alveoli & Trachea
160. Which of the following structure is not the part of
Respiratory tree?
(1) Alveolar duct
(2) Atria
(3) Segmental bronchi
(4) Respiratory bronchiole
161. Carbon monoxide has greater affinity for 170. Figure shows schematic plan of blood circulation
haemoglobin as compare to oxygen:- in humans with labels A to D, Identify the label
(1) 1000 Times (2) 200 Times and give its function/s.
(3) 20 Times (4) 2 Times
162. In lungs, air is separated from venous blood by
(1) Squamous epithelium + tunica externa of blood
vessel
(2) Squamous epithelium + endothelium of blood
vessel
(3) Transitional epithelium + tunica media of blood
vessel (1) D-Dorsal aorta-takes blood from heart to body
(4) Columnar epithelium + 3 layered walls of blood parts, PO 2  95mm Hg
vessel
163. In TLC neutrophil count is:- (2) A-Pulmonary vein-takes impure blood from
(1) 0 -2% (2) 2 - 8% body parts, PO 2  60 mm Hg
(3) 25% (4) 65% (3) B-Pulmonary artery-takes blood from heart
164. Which organ receives only oxygenated blood? to lungs, PO 2  90 mm Hg
(1) Gill (2) Spleen (4) C-Vena Cava-takes blood from body parts of
(3) Lung (4) Liver the right auricle, PCO 2  45 mm Hg
165. The heartbeat of which animal is myogenic in 171. In which the following factors can interfere in
nature binding of O 2 with haemoglobin.
(1) Cockroach (2) Leech
A- PCO 2
(3) Elephant (4) All of these
166. Jugular vein receives deoxygenated blood from B- H ion concentration
(1) Trunk (2) Head and neck C-Temperature
(3) Fore limbs (4) Intestine (1) Only A (2) B, C
(3) A and C (4) A, B, C
167. Diapedesis means:
172. Which of the following statement is not correct:
(1) Formation of WBC
(1) Formation of oxyhaemoglobin is a process of
(2) Formation of RBC oxidation.
(3) Process by which certain WBCs squeeze (2) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver
through thin capillary wall around 5 ml of O 2 to tissue under physiological
(4) Movement of food in gut condition
168. During the process of blood coagulation vitamin (3) Dissociation curve is curve between
K helps in the: percentage saturation of Hb with oxygen and
(1) Formation of thromboplastin partial pressure of oxygen
(2) Formation of prothrombin (4) High concentration of CO 2 activates
(3) Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin is called
(4) Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin Bohr's effect.
169. Which of the following WBCs are phagocytic 173. Which of the following lung volumes or capacities
cells. can be measured by spirometer:
(a) Monocytes (b) Neutrophils (1) Functional residual capacity [FRC]
(c) Basophils (d) Eosinophils (2) Residual volume
(1) Only (a) (2) (a) and (b) (3) Total lung capacity [TLC]
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (c) and (d) (4) Vital capacity
174. Heiring-Breuer reflex related to :- 181. How many of the following organisms respire
(1) Effect of pH on respiratory centre through gills?
[Aquatic arthropods, Molluscs, Fishes, Leeches,
(2) Effect of CO 2 on respiratory centre
Human, Sponges]
(3) Effect of nerves on respiratory centre
(1) 4 (2) 3
(4) Effect of temp. on respiratory centre
(3) 2 (4) 1
175. Every 100ml of Deoxygenated blood delivers
182. Which information is incorrect about cardiac
approximately of CO 2 to alveoli :-
output?
(1) 4 ml (2) 40 ml (3) 15 ml (4) 19.6 ml (1) It’s average value is 5000 ml
176. The thickness of respiratory diffusion membrane is
(2) The stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate,
(1) 3 mm (2) 2 mm (3) 1 mm (4) < 1 mm gives the cardiac output.
177. When a sea diver goes very deep, he has to breath
(3) It is the volume of blood pumped out by each
on compressed air at high pressure. After some ventricle per minute.
times, he loses his strength to work and feel (4) The body has no the ability to alter the cardiac
drowsy. This is because of... output.
(1) Compressed air 183. Which one of the following couples were suggested
(2) More oxygen diffusing into the blood by Doctors to not have more than one child
(3) More nitrogen diffusing in the blood and body (1) Rh+ male and Rh– female
fats
(2) Rh- male and Rh+ female
(4) Nervous system does not work properly
(3) Rh+ male and Rh+ female
178. The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the
...A...., ventrally by the ....B.... laterally by the (4) Rh- male and Rh- female
...C... and on lower choices for A, B, C and D to 184. Which among the following is correct during each
complete the given statement. cardiac cycle?
(1) A-vertebral column, B-sternum, C-ribs, (1) The volume of blood pumped out by the Rt
D- diaphragm and Lt ventricles is same.
(2) A-vertebral column, B- ribs, C- sternum, (2) The volume of blood pumped out by the Rt
D- diaphragm and Lt ventricles is different
(3) A- diaphragm, B- ribs, C- sternum, (3) The volume of blood received by each atrium
D- vertebral column is different
(4) A-ribs, B- diaphragm, C- sternum, (4) The volume of blood received by the aorta
D- vertebral column and pulmonary artery is different.
179. Inspiration occurs when there is a negative 185. The second heart sound (dubb) is associated with
pressure in the lungs with respect to atmospheric the closure of
pressure. This negative pressure achieved when (1) Tricuspid valve
(1) Intrapulmonary pressure is less than the (2) Semilunar valves
atmospheric pressure (3) Bicuspid valve
(2) Intrapulmonary pressure is greater than the (4) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves
atmospheric pressure
(3) Intrapulmonary pressure is equal to the
atmospheric pressure
(4) Intrapleural pressure becomes more than the
intra-alveolar pressure
180. Primary site for exchange of gases :-
(1) Nostril (2) Pharynx
(3) Alveoli (4) Trachea
 SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40) 192. The protein primarily involved in the maintenance
of osmolarity of blood is
 This section contains 15 questions.
(1) Fibrinogen (2) Prothrombin
 Attempt any 10 questions. (3) Albumin (4) Fibrin
186. Match the following:- 193. Which of the following is a characteristic of
(A) Pectinate muscles - (a) Tricuspid valve systemic circulation?
(B) Inter atrial septum - (b) Valves (1) Highly oxygenated arterial blood
(C) Right AV-valves - (c) Atrium (2) Highly oxygenated venous blood
(D) Lymph vessels - (d) fossa ovalis (3) Increased blood pressure in the veins
(1) (A)-(c), (B)-(b), (C)-(a), (D)-(d) (4) Decreased blood pressure in the arteries
(2) (A)-(c), (B)-(d), (C)-(a), (D)-(b) 194. Which of the following stage in cardiac cycle is
of longest duration?
(3) (A)-(c), B-(d), (C)-(b), (D)-(a) (1) Atrial systole (2) Ventricle diastole
(4) (A)-(d), (B)-(c), (C)-(b), (D)-(a) (3) Joint diastole (4) Atrial diastole
187. How do parasympathetic neural signal affect the 195. Incomplete double circulation is found in
working of heart? (1) Reptiles and Birds
(1) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output (2) Amphibia and Reptiles
(2) Heart rate is increased without affecting the (3) Birds and Mammals
cardiac output
(4) Fish and Amphibia
(3) Both heart rate and cardiac out put
increase 196. Match the following columns
(4) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output Column - I Column - II
increases (A) Insects (I) Branchial
188. Which of the following statements is incorrect respiration
regarding circulatory system of fishes? (B) Earthworm (II) Tracheal tubes
(1) Fishes have two chambered heart with an (C) Molluscs (III) Pulmonary
atrium and a ventricle respiration
(2) Only deoxygenated blood is pumped through (D) Reptiles (IV) Moist cuticle
their heart (1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(3) Mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated (2) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
blood occurs in ventricle (3) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
(4) Oxygenation of blood occurs at gills
(4) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
189. Find the odd one among the following blood
vessels w.r.t. the blood (deoxygenated or 197. The hormone that stimulates Heart beat is
oxygenated) which is carried by them? (1) Insulin (2) Adrenaline
(1) Pulmonary artery (2) Pulmonary vein (3) Glucagon (4) Gastrin
(3) Coronary veins (4) Vena cava 198. The atrio-ventricular septum in the human heart can
190. If the plasma of the recipient does not have both be best described as
anti A and anti B antibodies then the donor groups (1) A thin muscular wall
can be (2) A thick muscular wall
(a) AB (b) A (3) A thin fibrous tissue
(c) B (d) O (4) A thick fibrous tissue
(1) (a), (b) & (c) only (2) (b) & (c) only 199. Reduction of plasma albumin levels will affect
(3) (a), (b), (c) & (d) (d) (4) Only (a)
(1) Osmotic balance (2) Immune functions
191. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. emphysema
(1) It is an acute infection of lungs due to bacterial (3) Coagulation of blood (4) Oxygenation of Hb
growth in alveoli 200. There is a possibility of exposure of the maternal
(2) It is a chronic disorder of lungs caused by blood (of Rh negative mother) to small amounts of
excessive cigarette smoking Rh positive blood from the fetus during the
(3) The walls of alveoli become more elastic (1) 1st trimester of any pregnancy
(4) The condition of the damaged alveoli is (2) Delivery of the baby
reverted back to normal by the cessation of (3) 3rd trimester of the 2nd pregnancy only
smoking (4) No such possibility exists