64 Đề Thi Thử Thpt Quốc Gia Môn Tiếng Anh Năm 2021

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64 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

NĂM 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH
(CÓ ĐÁP ÁN)
 PHẦN I – 64 ĐỀ THI
 PHẦN II – ĐÁP ÁN
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PHẦN I – 64 ĐỀ THI NĂM 2021
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2021 - ĐỀ SỐ 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. final B. writer C. ivory D. widow
Question 2: A. passed B. managed C. cleared D. threatened
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. apply B. persuade C. reduce D. offer
Question 4: A. preservative B. congratulate
C. preferential D. development
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Sirius, the Dog Star, is the most brightest star in the sky with an absolute magnitude
A B
about twenty-three times that of the sun. Giaoandethitienganh.info
C D
Question 6: Killer whales tend to wander in family clusters that hunt, play, and resting together.
A B C D
Question 7: Alloys of gold and copper have been widely using in various types of coins.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 8: There should be an international law against ______.
A. afforestation B. deforestation C. forestry D. reforestation
Question 9: I’d rather you _____ home now.
A. going B. go C. gone D. went
Question 10: Don’t worry! I have _____ tire at the back of my car.
A. another B. other C. others D. the other
Question 11: ______ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. No longer has B. No sooner had C. Not until had D. Hardly had
Question 12: Susan’s doctor insists _____ for a few days.
A. that she is resting B. her resting C. that she rest D. her to rest
Question 13: We couldn’t fly _____ because all the tickets had been sold out.
A. economical B. economy C. economic D. economics
Question 14: Through an ______, your letter was left unanswered.
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A. overtone B. overcharge C. overtime D. oversight
Question 15: My mother told me to ______for an electrician when her fan was out of order.
A. send B. write C. rent D. turn
Question 16: Jane _____ law for four years now at Harvard.
A. is studying B. has been studying
C. studies D. studied
Question 17: He _____ to the doctor after the accident, but he continued to play instead.
A. must have gone B. should have gone
C. couldn’t go D. didn’t have to go
Question 18: I won’t change my mind _____ what you say.
A. whether B. no matter C. because D. although
Question 19: How many times have I told you ______ football in the street?
A. not playing B. do not play
C. not to play D. not to have played
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: -“Mum, I’ve got 600 on the TOEFL test.”
-“________”
A. Good way! B. You are right. C. Oh, hard luck! D. Good job!
Question 21: - John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our
environment?”
- Laura: “_______”.
A. Of course not. You bet! B. Well, that’s very surprising.
C. There’s no doubt about it. D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of the crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
Question 23: The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the examination.
A. effects B. symptoms C. hints D. demonstration
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
Question 24: Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.
A. failed to pay B. paid in full
C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money
Question 25: His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
A. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.
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Question 26: If motorists were to drive carefully, they would have fewer accidents.
A. Motorists are not careful and there are many accidents.
B. Motorists are careful and yet there are many accidents.
C. Motorists are not careful and yet there are few accidents.
D. Motorists are careful and there are few accidents.
Question 27: He had hardly left the office when the phone rang.
A. No sooner had he left the office than the phone rang.
B. No sooner he had left the office than the phone rang.
C. No sooner he had left the office when the phone rang.
D. No sooner he did left the office than the phone rang.
Question 28: My boss works better when he’s pressed for time.
A. The more time my boss has, the better he works.
B. The less time my boss has, he works better.
C. The less time my boss has, the better he works.
D. The less time my boss has, he works the better.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: She was the first woman in the Philippines. She was elected as the president of the
country.
A. She was the first woman to be elected as the president of the Philippines.
B. She was the first woman who is elected as the president of the Philippines.
C. She was the first woman being elected as the president of the Philippines.
D. She was the first woman elected as the president of the Philippines.
Question 30: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to
35.
NEIGHBOURS INFLUENCE BUYING DECISIONS
However objective we believe ourselves to be, most of us do not judge a product solely on
its merits, considering quality, value and style before making a decision. (31) ________, we are
easily influenced by the people around us.
There is nothing (32) _______ with this. It is probably a smarter way to make decisions
than relying on only our own opinions. But it does make life hard for companies. They have long
understood that groups of friends and relatives tend to buy the same products, but understanding
the reasons has been tricky. It is because they are so similar with (33) _______ to how much
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money they make and what television ads they watch that they independently arrive at the same
decision? Or do they copy one another, perhaps (34) ________ envy or perhaps because they
have shared information about the products?
Research in Finland recently found overwhelming evidence that neighbours have a big
influence on buying decisions. When one of a person’s ten nearest neighbours bought a car, the
chances that person would buy a car of the same brand during the next week. The researchers
argued that it was not just a (35) ________ of envy. Used cars seemed to attract neighbours even
more than new cars.
Question 31: A. What’s more B. Instead C. Unlike D. In place
Question 32: A. wrong B. silly C. bad D. daft
Question 33: A. connection B. regard C. relation D. concern
Question 34: A. for B. as to C. out of D. about
Question 35: A. thing B. point C. matter D. fact
A pilot cannot fly a plane by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and
landing in dense fog, a pilot must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes
are not very good at determining speeds of approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast
nearby planes are moving.
The basic principle of radar is exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The
echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person determine the size of the cave. With radar,
however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio waves travel at the speed of
light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short burst of radiation
waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off objects. By determining
the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can determine the
distance between the radar set and other objects. The word “radar”, in fact, gets its name from
the term “radio detection and ranging”. “Ranging” is the term for detection of the distance
between an object and the radar set. Besides being of critical importance to pilots, radar is
essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and
storms.
Question 36: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. the nature of radar B. types of ranging
C. alternatives to radar D. history of radar
Question 37: According to the passage, what can radar detect besides location of objects?
A. size B. weight C. speed D. shape
Question 38: Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage?
A. argumentative B. imaginative C. explanatory D. humorous
Question 39: The phrase “a burst“ in the second paragraph is closet in meaning in which of the
following?
A. an attachment B. a discharge C. a stream D. a ray
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Question 40: The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to which of the following?
A. a radar set B. a short burst
C. a radiation wave D. light
Question 41: Which type of waves does radar use?
A. sound B. heat C. radio D. light
Question 42: Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph?
A. other uses of radar B. uses of sonar technology
C. other technology D. a history of flying
Experiments have shown that in selecting personnel for a job, interviewing is at best a
hindrance, and may even cause harm. These studies have disclosed that the judgments of
interviewers differ markedly and bear little or no relationship to the adequacy of job applicants.
Of the many reasons why this should be the case, three in particular stand out. The first reason is
related to an error of judgment known as the halo effect. If a person has one noticeable good
trait, their other characteristics will be judged as better than they really are. Thus, an individual
who dresses smartly and shows self-confidence is likely to be judged capable of doing a job well
regardless of his or her real ability.
Interviewers are also prejudiced by an effect called the primacy effect. This error occurs
when interpretation of later information is distorted by earlier connected information. Hence, in
an interview situation, the interviewer spends most of the interview trying to confirm the
impression given by the candidate in the first few moments. Studies have repeatedly
demonstrated that such an impression is unrelated to the aptitude of the applicant.
The phenomenon known as the contrast effect also skews the judgment of interviewers.
A suitable candidate may be underestimated because he or she contrasts with a previous one
who appears exceptionally intelligent . Likewise, an average candidate who is preceded by one
who gives a weak showing may be judged as more suitable than he or she really is.
Since interviews as a form of personnel selection have been shown to be inadequate, other
selection procedures have been devised which more accurately predict candidate suitability. Of
the various tests devised, the predictor which appears to do this most successfully is cognitive
ability measured by a variety of verbal and spatial tests.
Question 43: This passage mainly discusses the ______.
A. effects of interviewing on job applicants
B. adequacy of interviewing job applicants
C. judgments of interviewers concerning job applicants
D. techniques that interviewers use for judging job applicants
Question 44: The word “hindrance” in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to ________.
A. encouragement B. assistance C. obstacle D. light
Question 45: The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. judgments B. applicants C. interviewers D. characteristics
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Question 46 : According to the passage, the halo effect _______.
A. stands out as the worst judgmental error
B. takes effect only when a candidate is well dressed
C. exemplifies how one good characteristic colors perceptions
D. helps the interviewer’s capability to judge real ability
Question 47: The word “confirm” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. verify B. conclude C. recollect D. misrepresent
Question 48: According to the passage, the first impression _______.
A. can easily be altered
B. is the one that stays with the interviewer
C. is unrelated to the interviewer’s prejudices
D. has been repeatedly demonstrated unrelated to the applicant’s ability
Question 49: The word “skews” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. biases B. opposes C. improves D. distinguishes
Question 50: The word “this” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. devise personnel selection B. measure cognitive ability
C. predict candidate suitability D. devise accurate tests
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Question 1: A. canoeing B. penalty C. rival D. tsunami
Question 2: A. ejects B. defends C. advocates D. breaths
Question 3: A. president B. physicist C. inventor D. property
Question 4: A. economy B. unemployment
C. communicate D. particular
Question 5: Benny Goodman was equally talented as both a jazz performer as well as a classical
A B C
musician.
D
Question 6: Even though the extremely bad weather in the mountains, the climbers decided
A B
not to cancel their climb.
C D
Question 7: Despite of the pills which are available, many people still have trouble sleeping.
A B C D
Question 8: Please, will you just tidy your room, and stop ______ excuses!
A. having B. making C. doing D. taking
Question 9: This library card will give you free access _______ the Internet eight hours a day.
A. on B. to C. from D. in
Question 10: The United States consists of fifty states, _______ has its own government.
A. each of which B. hence each C. they each D. each of that
Question 11: It is very important for a firm or a company to keep ______ the changes in the
market.
A. pace of B. track about C. touch with D. up with
Question 12: John paid $2 for his meal, _______ he had thought it would cost.
A. not as much B. not so much as C. less as D. not so many as
Question 13: The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil fuel will have _____ by 2015.
A. taken over B. caught up C. used off D. run out
Question 14: Only when you grow up _______ the truth.
A. you will know B. you know C. do you know D. will you know
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Question 15: She had to hand in her notice _______ advance when she decided to leave the job.
A. with B. from C. in D. to
Question 16: They didn’t find _______ in a foreign country.
A. it easy to live B. it easy live
C. it to live easy D. easy to live
Question 17: “Buy me a newspaper on your way back, ______ ?”

A. will you B. don’t you
C. can’t you D. do you
Question 18: There was nothing they could do _______ leave the cat at the roadside where it had
broken down.
A. but B. instead of C. than D. unless
Question 19: If you have anything important to do, do it straight away. Don’t put it _______.
A. on B. off
C. over D. up
Question 20: -“How do you like your steak done?”
-“________.”
A. I don’t like it much B. Very little C. Well done D. Very much
Question 21: - Lora: “Your new blouse looks gorgeous, Helen!”
- Helen: “_______”.
A. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s B. It’s up to you
C. I’d rather not D. You can say that again
Question 22: I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
A. reasonable B. acceptable C. pretty high D. wonderful
Question 23: I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry.
A. hopeless B. hopeful C. successful D. unsuccessful
Question 24: The government is not prepared to tolerate this situation any longer.
A. look down on B. put up with
C. take away from D. give on to
Question 25: I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.
A. unplanned B. deliberate C. accidental D. unintentional
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Question 26: If you need my advice, I would forget about buying a new house.
A. If I were you, I did not buy a new house.
B. If I were you, I would not bought a new house.
C. If I were you, I hadn’t bought a new house.
D. If I were you, I would not buy a new house.
Question 27: He said: “I’m sorry I didn’t reply to the letter.”
A. He apologized for not to reply to the letter.
B. He apologized for not to replying to the letter.
C. He apologized for didn’t reply to the letter.
D. He apologized for not replying to the letter.
Question 28: It’s no use trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
A. There’s no point to try to persuade Tom to change his mind .
B. It’s worth trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
C. It’s useful trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
D. It’s a waste of time trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
Question 29: I’d suggest that we avoid telling any scary stories with Janet around. She’s a bit
unstable and could get hysterical.
A. Janet has trouble keeping her emotions under control, especially when she is told
frightening stories.
B. Since Janet is somewhat unbalanced, the only way to make her laugh is by telling
stories, but we should avoid scary ones as they might cause her to panic.
C. It is no fun to tell frightening stories to Janet, who is not very stable mentally , because
she only laughs instead of getting scared .
D. Janet is somewhat mentally unbalanced and might easily become uncontrollably
emotional, so let’s not tell frightening stories in her presence.
Question 30: We choose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very
inconvenient.
A. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.
B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.
C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the
night.
D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.
35.
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Stories about how people somehow know when they are being watched have been going
around for years. However, few (31) _______ have been made to investigate the phenomenon
scientifically. Now, with the completion of the largest ever study of the so-called staring effect,
there is impressive evidence that this is a recognizable and (32) _______ sixth sense. The study
involved hundreds of children. For the experiments, they sat with their eyes covered and with
their backs to other children, who were told to either stare at them or look away. The results
consistently showed that the children who could not see were able to (33) _______ when they
were being stared at. In a total of 18,000 trials carried worldwide, the children correctly sensed
when they were being watched almost 70% of the time. The experiment was repeated with the
added precaution of putting the children who were being watched outside the room, (34)
_______ from the starters by the windows. The results, though less impressive, were more or less
the same. Dr. Sheldrake, the biologist who designed the study, believes that the results are (35)
_______ enough to find out through further experiments precisely how the staring effect might
actually come about.
Question 31: A. tries B. attempts C. tests D. aims
Question 32: A. genuine B. accepted C. received D. sure
Question 33: A. notice B. find C. reveal D. tell
Question 34: A. parted B. split C. divided D. separated
Question 35: A. persuading B. concluding C. convincing D. satisfying
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Most forms of property are concrete and tangible, such as houses, cars, furniture or
anything else that is included in one’s possessions. Other forms of property can be intangible and
copyright deals with intangible forms of property. Copyright is a legal protection extended to
authors of creative works, for example, books, magazine articles, maps, films, plays, television
shows, software, paintings, photographs, music, choreography in dance and all other forms of
intellectual or artistic property.
Although the purpose of artistic property is usually public use and enjoyment, copyright
establishes the ownership of the creator. When a person buys a copyrighted magazine, it belongs
to this individual as a tangible object. However, the authors of the magazine articles own the
research and the writing that went into creating the articles. The right to make and sell or give
away copies of books or articles belongs to the authors, publishers, or other individuals or
organizations that hold the copyright. To copy an entire book or a part of it, permission must be
received from the copyright owner, who will most likely expect to be paid.
Copyright law distinguishes between different types of intellectual property. Music may be
played by anyone after it is published. However, if it is performed for profit, the performers need
to pay a fee, called a royalty. A similar principle applies to performances of songs and plays. On
the other hand, names, ideas, and book titles are accepted. Ideas do not become copyrighted
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property until they are published in a book, a painting or a musical work. Almost all artistic work
created before the 20th century is not copyrighted because it was created before the copyright law
was passed.
Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Legal rights of property owners B. Legal ownership of creative work
C. Examples of copyright piracy D. Copying creating work for profit
Question 37: The word “extended” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. explicated B. exposed C. guaranteed D. granted
Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that copyright law is intended to protect
_______.
A. the user’s ability to enjoy an artistic work
B. the creator’s ability to profit from the work
C. paintings and photographs from theft
D. computer software and videos from being copied
Question 39: Which of the following properties is NOT mentioned as protected by copyright?
A. music and plays B. paintings and maps
C. printed medium D. scientific discoveries
Question 40: Question 46: It can be inferred from the passage that it is legal if _______.
A. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody
B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
C. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images
D. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and characters
Question 41: With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree?
A. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their students.
B. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters without permission.
C. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which they wrote the music and the lyrics.
D. It is illegal to make photographs when sightseeing or traveling.
Question 42: The purpose of copyright law is most comparable with the purpose of which of the
following?
A. A law against theft B. A law against smoking
C. A school policy D. A household rule
Cooperation is the common endeavor of two or more people to perform a task or reach a
jointly cherished goal. Like competition and conflict, there are different forms of cooperation,
based on group organization and attitudes.
In the first form, known as primary cooperation, group and individual fuse. The group
contains nearly all of each individual’s life. The rewards of the group’s work are shared with
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each member. There is an interlocking identity of individual, group and task performed. Means
and goals become one, for cooperation itself is valued.
While primary cooperation is most often characteristic of preliterate societies, secondary
cooperation is characteristic of many modern societies. In secondary cooperation, individuals
devote only part of their lives to the group. Cooperation itself is not a value. Most members of
the group feel loyalty, but the welfare of the group is not the first consideration. Members
perform tasks so that they can separately enjoy the fruits of their cooperation in the form of
salary, prestige, or power. Business offices and professional athletic teams are examples of
secondary cooperation.
In the third type, called tertiary cooperation or accommodation, latent conflict underlies the
shared work. The attitudes of the cooperating parties are purely opportunistic: the organization is
loose and fragile. Accommodation involves common means to achieve antagonistic goals: it
breaks down when the common means cease to aid each party in reaching its goals. This is not,
strictly speaking, cooperation at all, and hence the somewhat contradictory term antagonistic
cooperation is sometimes used for this relationship.
Question 43: What is the author’s main purpose in the first paragraph of the passage?
A. To urge readers to cooperate more often
B. To offer a brief definition of cooperation
C. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict
D. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes
Question 44: The word “cherished” in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to ________.
A. defined B. agreed on C. prized D. set up
Question 45: The word “fuse” in the second paragraph is closet in meaning to _______.
A. explore B. unite C. evolve D. react
Question 46 : Which of the following statements about primary cooperation is supported by
information in the passage?
A. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to
cooperate.
B. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and writing
skills.
C. It is an ideal that can never be achieved.
D. It was confined to prehistoric times.
Question 47: According to the passage, why do people join groups that practice secondary
cooperation?
A. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation
B. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds
C. To get rewards for themselves
D. To defeat a common enemy
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Question 48: Which of the following is an example of the third form of cooperation as it is
defined in the fourth paragraph?
A. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades.
B. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow.
C. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party.
D. A new business attempts to take customers away from an established company.
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT given as a name for the third type of cooperation?
A. Tertiary cooperation B. Antagonistic cooperation
C. Accommodation D. Latent conflict
Question 50: Which of the following best describes the overall organization of the passage?
A. The author provides a number of concrete examples and then draws a conclusion.
B. The author presents the points of view of three experts on the same topic.
C. The author compares and contrasts two types of human relations.
D. The author describes a concept by analyzing its three forms.
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Question 1: A. produced B. believed C. stopped D. laughed
Question 2: A. alien B. alloy C. alley D. anthem
Question 3: A. elephant B. dinosaur C. buffalo D. mosquito
Question 4: A. abnormal B. initial
C. innocent D. impatient
Question 5: Much fats are composed of one molecule of glycerin combined with three molecules
A B
of fatty acids.
C D
Question 6: Never in the history of humanity has there been more people living on this relatively
A B C D
small planet.
Question 7: As a result of the Women’s Movement, women now holds positions that were
A B
once restricted to men.
C D
Question 8: We _______ today and I got into trouble because I hadn’t done it.
A. were checked our homework B. had our homework checked
C. have our homework checking D. had checked our homework
Question 9: You can go to the party tonight ________ you are sober when you come home.
A. as long as B. as far as C. as soon as D. as well as
Question 10: She must ________ in the garage when we came that’s why she didn’t hear the
bell.
A. have been working B. be working
C. have worked D. work
Question 11: I’m sorry, but I’ve got _______ much work to do to come to the beach today.
A. too B. such C. enough D. so
Question 12: It’s essential that every student _______ the exam before attending the course.
A. passes B. would pass C. passed D. pass
Question 13: I decided to go to the library as soon as I ________.
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A. would finish what I did B. finished what I did
C. finished what I was doing D. finish what I did
Question 14: Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the use of chemicals,
________ ancient Peruvians did through natural processes.
A. because B. whereas
C. whether or not D. even though
Question 15: Please cut my hair _______ the style in this magazine.
A. the same length like B. the same length as
C. the same long like D. the same long as
Question 16: ________ in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in
ten years.
A. For a number of tigers B. The number of tigers
C. A number of tigers D. That the number of tigers
Question 17: ________, he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. Studying more B. Had he studied more
C. If he studied more D. If he were studying more
Question 18: Fire safety in family houses, ________ most fire deaths occur, is difficult.
A. how B. when C. why D. where
Question 19: We intend to _______ with the old system as soon as we have developed a better
one.
A. do up B. do in
C. do away D. do down
Question 20: -“Mr. Adams is going to retire next month.”
-“________.”
A. Oh, I have no idea. B. You don’t say!
C. Right, you’d probably be the next. D. Congratulations!
Question 21: -“______.”
-“Never mind, better luck next time.”
A. I’ve broken your precious vase. B. I have a lot on my mind.
C. I couldn’t keep my mind on work. D. I didn’t get the vacant position.
Question 22: Carpets from countries such as Persia and Afghanistan often fetch high prices in the
United States.
A. Artifacts B. Pottery C. Rugs D. Textiles
Question 23: Though many scientific breakthroughs have resulted from mishaps it has taken
brilliant thinkers to recognize their potential.
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A. accidents B. misunderstandings
C. incidentals D. misfortunes
Question 24: The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. soak B. permanent
C. complicated D. guess
Question 25: The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
A. expensive B. complicated
C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate
Question 26:”It can’t be Mike who leaked the document, it might be Tom.” said our manager.
A. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike.
B. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike.
C. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document: Mike or Tom.
D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike.
Question 27: Their holiday plans fell through because there was a strike at the airport.
A. They couldn’t go on holiday as planned as a result of a strike at the airport.
B. They failed to go on the holiday like they had planned because a strike took place at
the airport.
C. A strike at the airport almost put a stop to their holiday plans.
D. Disappointingly, a strike at the airport forced their holiday plans to nothing.
Question 28: He was driving so fast that he could have had an accident.
A. An accident happened, and it was caused by his very fast driving .
B. He didn’t have an accident although he was driving very fast.
C. If he had been driving very fast, he would have had an accident.
D. He wasn’t driving slow enough to avoid the accident.
Question 29: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill.
A. John needn’t be here yesterday because he was ill.
B. Because of his illness, John shouldn’t have been here yesterday.
C. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here .
D. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
Question 30: “Cigarette?”, he said. “No, thanks.”, I said.
A. He asked for a cigarette, and I immediately refused .
B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him.
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C. He offered me a cigarette, but I promptly declined.
D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once.
35.
Many parents believe that they should begin to teach their children to read when they are
scarcely more than toddlers. This is fine if the child shows a real interest but (31) _______ a
child could be counter-productive if she isn’t ready. Wise parents will have a (32) _______
attitude and take the lead from their child. What they should provide is a selection of stimulating
books and other activities. Nowadays, there is plenty of good material available for young
children, and of course, seeing plenty of books in use about the house will also (33) _______
them to read.
Of course, books are no longer the only source of stories and information. There is also a
huge range of videos, which can (34) _______ and extend the pleasure a child finds in books and
are equally valuable in helping to increase vocabulary and concentration. Television gets a bad
result as far as children are concerned, mainly because too many spend too much time watching
programs not intended for their age group. Too many television programs (35) ________ an
incurious, uncritical attitude that is going to make learning much more difficult; however,
approved viewing of programs designed for young children can be useful.
Question 31: A. insisting B. forcing C. making D. starting
Question 32: A. cheerful B. contented C. hopeful D. relaxed
Question 33: A. provoke B. encourage C. provide D. attract
Question 34: A. uphold B. found C. reinforce D. assist
Question 35: A. induce B. imply C. suggest D. attract
EDUCATION IN THE FUTURE
Education is another area of social life in which information technology is changing the way
we communicate. Today’s college students may not simply sit in a lecture or a library to learn
about their field. Through their computers and the wonders of virtual reality they can participate
in lifelike simulated experiences. Consider the following scenario of the future of education
made possible through developments in information technology.
For children over the age of 10, daily attendance at schools is not compulsory. Some of the
older children attend school only once or twice weekly to get tutorial support or instruction from
a teacher. For the most part, pupils are encouraged to work online from home. Students must
complete a minimum number of study hours per year; however, they may make up these hours
by studying at home at times that suit their family schedule. They can log on early or late in the
day and even join live classes in other countries. In order to ensure that each student is learning
adequately, computer software will automatically monitor the number of hours a week each
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student studies on-line as well as that students’ learning materials and assessment activities.
Reports will be available for parents and teachers. The software can then identify the best
learning activities and condition for each individual student and generate similar activities. It can
also identify areas of weak achievement and produce special programs adjusted to the students’
needs.
Question 36: What is the topic of the passage?
A. The effect of information technology on education.
B. students don’t have to go to school any more.
C. Computer software will make sure students learn at home.
D. Students can know about their weak aspects to focus.
Question 37: How many times are children who are older than 10 required to go to school
weekly?
A. No time B. Once or twice C. Three D. Four
Question 38: Who/What counts the number of hours per week that students spend learning?
A. Virtual reality B. Teacher
C. Parents D. Computer software
Question 39: What CAN’T the software do?
A. Monitor the time the students learn.
B. Design materials for the students.
C. Find out the best activities for the students.
D. Identify weaknesses of the students.
Question 40: What is NOT mentioned as a benefit of information technology to the students?
A. Students can stay at home to learn.
B. Students can learn at times that suit their schedule.
C. Students’ learning time won’t be monitored.
D. Students’ weak achievement can be identified.
Psychologists are interested in the reasons why some people like taking part in risky sports.
When they studied people who were learning to jump from a plane with a parachute, they found
that parachutists’ bodies produced large amounts of two hormones, adrenaline and nor
adrenaline, just before they made their jump.
These hormones help to prepare us for any sudden activity. Adrenaline increases the heart
rate and provides more sugar for the muscles, while nor does adrenaline make us react more
quickly. However, nor adrenaline also stimulates apart of the brain which controls feelings of
pleasure. Some psychologists have concluded that it is a feeling of pleasure caused by this
hormone which makes certain people want to participate in dangerous sports.
Another possible reason is the level of arousal in part of the brain. According to some
psychologists, the brain tries to maintain a certain level of arousal. They believe that people who
20
normally have a low level of arousal look for excitement and new experiences in order to
stimulate themselves, whereas people who usually have a high level of arousal try to avoid risks
and unfamiliar situations in order not to become overexcited. If the psychologists are right,
people with a low arousal are the ones who enjoy participating in dangerous sports and activities.
It is thought that people with low levels of arousal have a slower-reacting nervous system
than people with higher arousal levels. It may therefore be possible to find out your level of
arousal by testing your nervous system. A quick way of doing this is to put some lemon juice on
your tongue. If you produce a lot of saliva, your nervous system has been affected by the lemon
and so you probably have a high level of arousal; if you produce little of saliva, you probably
have a low arousal level. If you have a low level, you might enjoy taking part in risky sports.
However, this does not mean that you have to try parachuting!
Question 41: Why did the parachutists’ bodies produce a lot of adrenaline and nor adrenaline
before they jumped from a plane?
A. This is a natural reaction which helps to prepare one for sudden activity.
B. Because they had high arousal levels.
C. It is a natural reaction which guards them against the effects of accidents.
D. Because they had taken drugs which led to the production of these two hormones.
Question 42: What two possible reasons are given for some people’s desire to participate in
dangerous sports?
A. A lack of common sense, and a high level of arousal.
B. A low level of arousal, and an inborn desire for adventure.
C. The pleasure that results from the production of nor adrenaline, and a low level of
arousal.
D. A desire to show off, and a lack of common sense.
Question 43: What does the brain try to maintain, according to some psychologists?
A. A high temperature. B. A low temperature.
C. A certain level of arousal. D. A sense of safety.
Question 44 : Why do psychologists believe that people with a high level of arousal try to avoid
danger?
A. Because they already have the level of excitement which the brain tries to maintain.
B. Because they are more aware of the dangers involved.
C. Because they already have enough of the two hormones, adrenaline and nor adrenaline.
D. Because they would not be able to cope with accidents.
Question 45: What is shown by putting lemon juice on your tongue?
A. It shows that you have a high level of arousal if no saliva is produced.
B. It indicates your level of arousal by amount of saliva that is produced.
C. It can indicate whether your saliva is more acidic or more alkaline.
D. It is a good test of your sense of taste.
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Question 46: What kinds of substances are adrenaline and nor adrenaline?
A. Subatomic particles.
B. Minerals.
C. Vitamins.
D. Hormones.
Question 47: What substances is thought to stimulate the brain to make us feel pleasure?
A. Adrenaline.
B. Nor adrenaline.
C. Lemon juice.
D. Manganese dioxide.
Question 48: Which of the following does adrenaline do?
A. It weakens the muscles.
B. It makes people afraid.
C. It makes the heart beat more quickly.
D. It makes the heart beat more slowly.
Question 49: Where were the parachutists when, according to the passage, they produced large
amount of the two hormones?
A. On an airplane B. In the air
C. On the ground D. At sea
Question 50: According to some psychologists, what kind of people try to avoid unfamiliar
situations?
A. People who do not like lemon juice.
B. People who have a low hormone content.
C. People who normally have a low level of arousal.
D. People who normally have a high level of arousal.
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Question 1: A. affected B. looked C. decreased D. washed
Question 2: A. sugar B. solar C. super D. subside
Question 3: A. atmosphere B. oxygen
C. release D. fertilize
Question 4: A. contaminate B. garbage
C. eruption D. familiar
Question 5: I don’t believe there is any one best suited for the job than Mrs.Marellis.
A B C D
Question 6: Proofreading a technical article is difficulty for most editors, unless they are very
A B
familiar with the subject.
C D
Question 7: Clients still do not avail themselves of up-to-date investment informations, despite
A B C
every effort to provide them with it .
D
Question 8: He failed in the election just because he _______ his opponent.
A. overestimated B. underestimated C. understated D. undercharged
Question 9: Put your shoes on properly or you’ll ________ over.
A. get B. turn C. fall D. bend
Question 10: What does a ________ like that cost?
A. clothing B. clothes C. garment D. clothe
Question 11: The greater the demand, _______ the price.
A. higher B. high C. the higher D. The high
Question 12: I don’t know If _______ in my essay.
A. is there a mistake B. there a mistake is
C. a mistake is there D. there is a mistake
Question 13: The teacher made a difficult question, but at last, Joe _______ a good answer.
A. came up with B. came up to
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C. came up against D. came up for
Question 14: There are a lot of _______ buildings in the centre of the city.
A. many-floored B. many story
C. multi-storied D. multi-storey
Question 15: According to some historians, if Napoleon had not invaded Russia, he ________
the rest of the world.
A. had conquered B. would conquer
C. would have conquered D. conquered
Question 16: Does that name ________ to you?
A. ring a bell B. break the ice C. foot the bill D. fall into place
Question 17: Captain Scott’s ________ to the South Pole was marked by disappointment and
tragedy.
A. excursion B. visit C. tour D. expedition
Question 18: Some friends of mine are really fashion-conscious, while _______ are quite simple.
A. some other B. some others C. another D. the other
Question 19: Jane will have to repeat the course because her work has been _______.
A. unpleasant B. unnecessary C. unusual D. unsatisfactory
Question 20: -“_________.”
-“I ordered broiled chicken. This is fried chicken.”
A. What would you like?
B. Would you like broiled chicken or fried chicken?
C. How would you like it?
D. Is something the matter, sir?
Question 21: - “I had a really good time. Thank you for the lovely evening.”
- “_________.”
A. Yes, it’s really good B. No ,it’s very kind of you
C. I’m glad you enjoyed it D. Oh, that’s right
Question 22: The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer’s behavior.
A. disgusted B. puzzled C. angry D. upset
Question 23: He didn’t bat an eyelid when he realized he failed the exam again .
A. wasn’t happy B. didn’t want to see
C. didn’t show surprise D. didn’t care
Question 24: In remote communities, it's important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in.
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A. remake B. empty
C. refill D. repeat
Question 25: There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were
banned.
A. clear B. obvious
C. thin D. insignificant
Question 26: Were it not for the money, this job wouldn’t be worthwhile.
A. This job is not rewarding at all.
B. This job offers a poor salary.
C. Although the salary is poor, the job is worthwhile.
D. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is the money.
Question 27: At no time did the two sides look likely to reach an agreement.
A. The two sides had no time to reach an agreement.
B. The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement.
C. If the two sides had had time, they would have reached an agreement.
D. The two sides never look like each other.
Question 28: No matter how hard Fred tried to start the car, he didn’t succeeded.
A. Fred tried very hard to start the car, and succeeded.
B. However hard Fred tried, he couldn’t start the car.
C. It’s hard for Fred to start the car because he never succeeded.
D. Fred tried hard to start the car, and with success
Question 29: The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers.
A. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.
B. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better.
C. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better.
D. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much business.
Question 30: No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was an imitation. It
greatly resembled the original.
A. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so
successfully.
B. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic,
though the experts could judge it quite easily.
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C. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it
was not genuine .
D. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one,
but not for the experts.
35.
From the seeds themselves to the machinery, fertilizers and pesticides - The Green
Revolution regimen depend heavily on technology. One (31) ________ , however, depends
much less on technology - organic farming. Many organic farmers use machinery, but (32)
_______ chemical fertilizers or pesticides. Instead of chemical soil enrichers, they use animal
manure and plant parts not used as food -natural, organic fertilizers that are clearly a renewable
(33) ________. Organic farmers also use alternatives to pesticides; for example they may rely on
natural predators of certain insect pests. (34) ________ the need arises, they can buy the eggs
and larvae of these natural predators and introduce them into their crop fields. They use other
techniques to control pests as well, like planting certain crops together because one crop repels
the other's pests. Organic farmers do not need a lot of land; in fact of organic farming is perfectly
(35) ________ to small farms and is relatively inexpensive. Finally, many organic farmers'
average yields compare favorably with other farmers' yields.
Question 31: A. alteration B. alternate C. alternative D. alternation
Question 32: A. also B. for C. not D. all
Question 33: A. resource B. source C. matter D. substance
Question 34: A. Then B. If C. Because D. Though
Question 35: A. suitable B. open C. likely D. suited
America Online is one of the big names on the internet, and unlike many other digital
companies, it actually makes a profit. But the company which its rivals call the "Cyber-
cockroach" was launched only in 1992. Before that it was a small firm called Control Video
Corporation, and it made video games. Then Steve Case, a former Pizza Hut marketing executive
arrived and took the company online. Innovative, fast moving, and user-friendly, America Online
appeals to people who want to surf the internet, but who do not have a lot of experience. For the
same reason "techies", people who think they are more expert with computers, look down on
America Online and its users. Recently America Online (or AOL, as it calls itself) joined with
Time Warner - a multi-million-dollar movie and magazine company - to create a multimedia
giant.
Now, AOL has begun to expand abroad. In many European countries, including the United
Kingdom, it is hard to buy a computer magazine that does not have a free AOL introductory
offer. The company also puts advertisements onto the television, and employs people to hand out
26
its free introductory disks at places like train stations. As the internet gets faster AOL is
changing. With many homes getting high-speed connections through fiber optic cables or the
new ASDL technology, the "Cyber-cockroach" will have to show that, like real cockroaches, it
can survive in almost any environment.
Question 36: What is the passage about?
A. A computer company B. A software company
C. An internet company D. A video company
Question 37: The word “it” in line 4 refers to ______.
A. American Online B. Cyber-cockroach
C. Control Video Corporation D. Digital company
Question 38: Who does Steve Case work for?
A. AOL B. Pizza Hut
C. Control Video Corporation D. None of these
Question 39: How do "Techies" feel about America Online?
A. They think it is a Cyber-Cockroach
B. They think it is for experts
C. They think it is a movie and magazine company
D. They feel superior to its users
Question 40: America Online is an unusual digital company because ________.
A. It used to make video games
B. It is innovative
C. It makes money
D. It has joined with another company
Question 41: Which marketing idea is NOT mentioned?
A. Advertisements on the Internet B. Advertisements on TV
C. Free disks in journals D. People giving disks away
Question 42: What does the article say about AOL's future?
A. It will do well B. It will do badly
C. It will face challenges D. The article doesn't say
MODERN FASHION TRENDS
Fashion today is changing faster than ever, influenced by a variety of forces. Clearly, many
of these changes are dictated by music-related cultural movements like hip-hop, boy bands, or
grunge. The stars of these music genres are idolized, and their clothing choices directly influence
the fashion of their fans who wish to imitate them. Another undeniable influence on what fashion
is "cool" is technology. Technology that can be worn is now and will become an ever more
important part of the "look" of fashionable young people. There are many other trends, among
them retro or vintage fashion, and so-called disposable fashion.
27
The hip-hop revolution of the 1970s and '80s brought a whole new look to our attention, a
look for an American city culture that made a statement. Modern hip-hop clothes, however, are
often produced by successful, big-name fashion designers, and are quite expensive. In fact, many
hip-hop artists such as Eminem, Kanye West, and others have their own lines of hip-hop
clothing. The essentials of the modern hip-hop look are gold chains, boots or kicks (slang for
sneakers), a bandana tied around the head, often with a cap on top, and large T-shirts. The baggy
look of decades gone by has been replaced by a look that includes polo shirts and tighter denim
jeans.
Another trendy, cutting-edge movement in the world of fashion is technology you wear, and
the blending of technology with clothing. More and more, people are afraid to be without a cell
phone, a computer, or Internet access at any time of the day or night. Wearable technology helps
people keep those crucial connections to the world open, while at the same time giving them a
distinctive look. Clip-on MP3 players with headphones, "hands-free" phones and earpieces, and
personal digital assistants (PDAs) are just a few of the ever more visible portable technology
components that are part of the look. The ultimate in technology-friendly clothing, the solar-
powered jacket can now provide the electricity needed to keep all these gadgets running.
The retro or vintage style of clothing brings trends from past decades back into style.
Grunge was a style of music born in the Seattle area in the 1990s. Grunge fans stayed away from
synthetic fabrics, preferring flannel shirts, stone-washed jeans, and rock T-shirts. They preferred
dark colors like greens, dark purples, or browns. For footwear, grunge fans wore Dr. Martens-
style shoes and boots or high-top sneakers. Although the grunge music craze also ended in the
'90s, a modern retro fashion trend is taking its cue from grunge-era clothing. Modern grunge
fashion is similar in many ways, but it's much less baggy and sloppy than it was in the '90s.
H&M, a chain of Swedish clothing stores, is the name most often connected with the new
trend in youth fashion known as disposable fashion. It's clothing so cheap that you don't mind
buying it and wearing it only several times, perhaps, before discarding it. Disposable fashion is
often brightly colored and stylish, but low in price. The trend, which reportedly started in Japan,
grew popular in Europe, and is taking root in America, shows no signs of slowing down.
What will the future of fashion look like? Well, technology is sure to remain a growing part
of fashion, with ever smaller cell phones, computers, PDAs, and other wearable gadgets. All
around the world, more people are wearing hip-hop fashions than ever before. No longer
exclusive to urban youth or even the United States, hip-hop will remain a popular global fashion
for years to come. Retro fashions from the '80s and '90s, including the grunge look, seem to be
growing in popularity, and disposable fashion is a big hit that won't end soon. And, I'm sure that
we will see new fashion surprises as music, fashion, and technology move forward together into
the future.
Question 43: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. to explain why certain fashions are popular internationally
B. to show the best fashions to wear in order to look "cool"
28
C. to inform us about current and future fashion trends
D. to explain the history of certain fashion trends
Question 44: What does the pronoun “them” in line 5 refer to?
A. fans B. choices C. genres D. stars
Question 45: Which fashion trend is NOT mentioned in the article?
A. grunge B. hip-hop C. retro D. business casual
Question 46 : According to the second paragraph, how has hip-hop changed?
A. Hip-hop clothes are now sold by big-name designers and are less baggy.
B. Boots used to be popular, but now kicks are worn.
C. Hip-hop moved from other countries to the United States.
D. The baggy hip-hop look has replaced tighter jeans and polo shirts.
Question 47: What trend has been brought back by the retro style?
A. hip-hop B. wearable technology
C. grunge D. disposable fashion
Question 48: Which fashion trend would most likely be the most popular with someone who
didn't have much money to spend?
A. hip-hop B. wearable technology
Question 49: Why might disposable fashion clothes not go well with the grunge look?
A. Because disposable fashion is cheap.
B. Because grunge is from Seattle.
C. Because disposable fashion is often brightly colored.
D. Because the grunge music craze ended in the '90s.
Question 50: According to sixth paragraph, which of the following is a likely future trend?
A. Wearable technology will involve smaller devices.
B. Hip-hop will become exclusive to the United States.
C. Retro fashions will go out of style.
D. Disposable fashions will increase in price.
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Question 1: A. achieve B. chorus C. cancel D. chemistry
Question 2: A. missed B. worked C. realized D. watched
Question 3: A. necessarily B. originally
C. mysteriously D. elaborately
Question 4: A. scientific B. intensity
C. disappearance D. expectation
Question 5: Some language students have difficulty to express exactly what they want to say.
A B C
D
Question 6: New laws should be introduced to reduce the number of traffic in the city centre.
A B C D
Question 7: One of the students who are being considered for the scholarship are from this
A B C D
university.
Question 8: It is essential that he ________ an extra job to increase his income.
A. does B. will do C. do D. must do
Question 9: They though the man was drunk because he behaved ________.
A. affluently B. abnormally
C. phenomenally D. All are correct
Question 10: He is not very ________ of his son’s passion for loud music.
A. tolerated B. tolerable C. tolerant D. tolerantly
Question 11: Sometimes _________ wears people out and is worse than the lack of sleep itself.
A. to sleep the desire B. to desire to sleep is
C. the desire to sleep D. the desire to sleep who
Question 12: Carrie doesn’t do her own washing , she ________ her little sister to do it for her.
A. gets B. makes C. lets D. has
Question 13: Marine reptiles are among the few creatures that are known to have a possible life
span greater than __________ .
A. man B. the man
C. the one of the man’s D. that of man
30
Question 14: Richard Wright enjoyed the success and influence _________ among Black
American writers of his era.
A. were unparalleled B. unparalleled
C. are unparalleled D. whose unparalleled
Question 15: ________ disappear from the public eye shortly after the games are over.
A. Many Olympic athletes B. Many Olympic athletes who
C. That many Olympic athletes D. Many Olympic athletes to
Question 16: Under no circumstances _________ in areas where poisonous snakes are known to
live.
A. one should not climb rocks B. one should be climbing rocks
C. should one climb rocks D. should be climbing rocks
Question 17: I am angry because you didn’t tell me the truth. I don’t like _________.
A. to have deceived B. to deceive
C. being deceived D. deceiving
Question 18: The harder you try, __________.
A. the more you achieve B. you achieve the more
C. the most you achieve D. the better achieve you have
Question 19: She had never been in good health, but she ________ her husband by twenty years.
A. overlived B. outlived C. lived longer D. underlived
Question 20: -“Your kids are very cute.”
-“__________.”
A. I don’t think so, either. B. Aren’t they?
C. No problems. D. Do you think so? Thanks.
Question 21: - “Could I borrow your calculator?”
- “_________.”
A. Yes, you could B. Yes, you can
C. Yes, you do D. Yes, you will
Question 22: Tourists today flock to see the two falls that actually constitute Niagara falls.
A. come without knowing what they will see
B. come in large numbers
C. come out of boredom
D. come by plane
Question 23: Around 150 B.C, the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify
starts according to brightness.
A. record B. shine C. categorize D. diversity
31
Question 24: She had a cozy little apartment in Boston.
A. uncomfortable B. warm
C. lazy D. dirty
Question 25: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding
Question 26: Impressed as we were by the new cinema, we found it rather expensive.
A. The new cinema was more expensive than we expected.
B. We were very impressed by the new cinema, but we found it rather expensive.
C. We were not impressed by the new cinema at all because it looked rather expensive .
D. The new cinema impressed us because it was rather expensive.
Question 27: “ When I met my long-lost brother, I was at a loss for words.”
A. When the speaker met his brother, he refused to say anything.
B. When the speaker met his brother, he had nothing pleasant to say.
C. When the speaker met his brother, he was puzzled about what to say.
D. When the speaker met his brother, he had much to say.
Question 28: Twenty years ago, this region produced twice as much coal as it does now.
A. Coal production in this region has doubled in the last twenty years.
B. Coal production in this region has been halved in the last twenty years.
C. More coal is produced now in this region than twenty years ago.
D. This region has produced more coal than twenty years ago.
Question 29: We cut down many forests. The earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
Question 30: You don’t try to work hard. You will fail in the exam.
A. Unless you don’t try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
B. Unless you try to work hard, you won’t fail in the exam.
C. Unless you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
D. Unless do you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
35.
32
Packet sugar from the supermarket is extracted from either sugar cane or sugar beet. These
(31) ________ are mixed with hot water, which dissolves their natural sugar. Sugar is also found
in fruit some of which such as dates and grapes, (32) ________ very high amounts of sugar. To
be a little more scientific, sugar should be called sucrose. Sucrose is made up of two substances,
glucose, which (33) ________ for instant energy, and fructose, which lasts longer as a source of
energy. The sugar in fruit is mainly fructose. So when we eat fruit, we also eat quite large
amounts of natural sugar. Some scientists believe that too much sugar (34) _________ in sweets,
cakes, and biscuits. It is said to be generally bad for the health, although nothing has been proved
so far. However, it is known that sugar causes tooth decay. As one expert said that “If other
foods damaged our body as much as sugar (35) ________ our teeth, they would be banned
immediately.”
Question 31: A. productions B. products
C. producers D. producing
Question 32: A. contain B. are containing
C. are contained D. contains
Question 33: A. used B. are using C. use D. is used
Question 34: A. is eaten B. eats C. has eaten D. will eat
Question 35: A. damages B. did C. decayed D. effect
Telecommunicating is a form of computer communication between employees’ homes and
offices. For employees whose jobs involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data
or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can
communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office
computer from a distant site and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA
Today estimates that there are approximately 8.7 million telecommuters. But although the
numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when
Business Week published "The Portable Executive" as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn't
telecommuting become more popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the
part of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large
work force scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing
them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager's responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are often reluctant
to accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and
many are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are
not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is
set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office.
33
Question 36: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuters
EXCEPT____.
A. the different system of supervision
B. the lack of interaction with a group
C. the fact that the work space is in the home
D. the opportunities for advancement
Question 37: How many American workers are involved in telecommuting?
A. Fewer than estimated in USA Today
B. More than 8 million
C. Fewer than last year
D. More than predicted in Business Week
Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that the author is __________.
A. the manager of a group of telecommuters
B. a reporter
C. a statistician
D. a telecommuter
Question 39: The word "resistance" in the second paragraph could best be replaced by_______.
A. participation B. alteration C. opposition D. consideration
Question 40: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. A definition of telecommuting
B. The advantages of telecommuting
C. An overview of telecommuting
D. The failure of telecommuting
Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality protein,
eggs also contain a high level of blood cholesterol, one of the major causes of heart diseases.
One egg yolk, in fact, contains a little more than two-thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol
limit. This knowledge has caused egg sales to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought
about the development of several alternatives to eating regular eggs. One alternative is to eat
substitute eggs. These egg substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when
they are cooked. They have the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and they can be
scrambled or used in baking. One disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for frying,
poaching, or boiling. A second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called
'designer' eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-fat diets consisting of
ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diets, however, these hens
34
produce eggs that contain the same amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of
these eggs claim that eating their eggs will not raise the blood cholesterol in humans.
Egg producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific
studies to back up their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human
cholesterol levels have brought mixed results. It may be that it is not the type of egg that is the
main determinant of cholesterol but the person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more
sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than other people. In fact, there is evidence that certain
dietary fats stimulate the body's production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still
makes sense to limit one's intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing this without
regulating dietary fat will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol level.
A. To convince people to eat "designer" eggs and egg substitutes
B. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten
C. To inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol
D. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart diseases?
A. minerals B. cholesterol C. canola oil D. vitamins
Question 43: Which of the following could best replace the word “somewhat” ?
A. in fact B. a little C. a lot D. indefinitely
Question 44 : What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs?
A. increasing price
B. dietary changes in hens
C. decreased production
D. concerns about cholesterol
Question 45: According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the
suggested daily limit for human consumption of cholesterol?
A. 2/3 B. 3/4 C. 1/2 D. 1/3
Question 46: The word "portrayed" could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described
Question 47: What is the meaning of “back up”?
A. reverse B. support C. advance D. block
Question 48: What is meant by the phrase “mixed results”?
A. The results are a composite of things
B. The results are inconclusive
C. The results are mingled together
D. The results are blended
Question 49: According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of following
types of eggs EXCEPT _________.
A. poached
35
B. fried
C. boiled
D. scrambled
Question 50: According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood cholesterol?
A. increasing egg intake but not fat intake
B. reducing egg intake but not fat intake
C. increasing egg intake and fat intake
D. decreasing egg intake and fat intake
36
Question 1: A. postcard B. postpone C. post office D. post-graduate
Question 2: A. massage B. garage C. collage D. message
Question 3: A. conference B. lecturer
C. researcher D. reference
Question 4: A. intentional B. optimistic
C. environment D. participant
Question 5: Workers training for a specific job have a strong possibility of being replace by a
A B C D
machine.
Question 6: I think you will find that the Microcar is really very economic to drive.
A B C D
Question 7: Not until I was on my way to the airport that I realized I had left my passport
A B C
at home.
D
Question 8: This time tomorrow ________ on the beach sunbathing and drinking freshly
squeezed fruit juice!
A. I’ll have been lying B. I will lie
C. I will be lying D. I will have lain
Question 9: It was proposed that the president _________ for a period of five years.
A. could be selected B. should elect
C. be elected D. were elected
Question 10: ________, she would have been able to pass the exam.
A. If she were studying more B. If she had studied more
C. If she studied more D. Studying more
Question 11: Their efforts were much ________ when they won 2 gold, medals in bodybuilding
and billiards.
A. considered B. required
C. expended D. appreciated
Question 12: The decimal numeral system is one of the ________ ways of expressing numbers.
37
A. world’s most useful B. useful most word’s
C. useful world’s most D. most world’s useful
Question 13: Tony would have forgotten the appointment if I hadn’t ________ him.
A. remembered B. regarded C. reminded D. recommended
Question 14: Unexpectedly the lights ________ and we were left in darkness.
A. turned down B. went out
C. put off D. gave away
Question 15: The closest friend ________ his little boy visits us every Sunday.
A. on account of B. in regard to
C. in connection with D. in company with
Question 16: “ I’m going out now.” - “ _________ you happen to pass a chemist’s, would you
get me some aspirins?”
A. Had B. Should C. Did D. Were
Question 17: Their discussion quickly developed into a ________ argument over who should
receive the money.
A. burning B. heated C. hot D. scorching
Question 18: Such relaxing days were few and far ________ in her hectic life.
A. between B. off C. beyond D. out
Question 19: Scientists believe that beaver’s instinct to build dams is more complex than
_______ other animal instinct.
A. most B. all C. any D. these
Question 20: Alice and Pete are talking about how to protect the environment.
_ Alice: “ I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment.”
_ Pete: “_________.”
A. You can say that again B. I can’t agree with you more
C. It’s rubbish. We shouldn’t use it D. Never mind
Question 21: Alfonso and Maria are discussing about the Jeffersons.
_Alfonso: “What do you think of the Jeffersons?”
_Maria: ”________.”
A. Oh, I don’t think of him
B. Oh, they are not having the choice
C. Although they appeared reserved at first, they are very sociable
D. No, it’s very kind of them to have an outgoing personality
38
Question 22: The prime minister denied that the new visa requirements were part of a hidden
agenda to reduce immigration.
A. exposes B. unrelated C. invisible D. phenomenal
Question 23: Before submitting the document, I had to check whether all the sources of
information are valid.
A. available B. clear C. legitimate D. understandable
Question 24: This work is woefully inadequate – you will have to do it again.
A. nonexistent B. sufficient
C. rich D. useful
Question 25: She advocated taking a more long-term view.
A. publicly said B. openly criticized
C. publicly supported D. strongly condemned
Question 26: Everyone in our class is doing a research on the environment, but Mary alone is
staying away.
A. Mary is the only one in our class who isn’t taking part in a research on the
environment.
B. No one in our class but Mary is taking part in a research on the environment .
C. Everyone in Mary’s class hopes to do something in a research on the environment.
D. The class wants Mary to do a research on the environment, but she won’t.
Question 27: I just can’t understand why so few people attended the meeting today.
A. I find it surprising that there are not fewer people attending the meeting today.
B. Hardly anyone wants to attend the meeting today, which I find strange.
C. It’s hardly surprising that so few people attend the meeting today.
D. To my surprise almost no one attended the meeting today.
Question 28: We were going to take a holiday in Hawaii ,and had already booked our flight.
A. Our flight to Hawaii was cancelled, so the holiday we had booked went to waste.
B. We had planned a vacation in Hawaii and had even made our flight arrangements.
C. We couldn’t go to Hawaii in the end because we forgot to make arrangements for the
flight in advance.
D. We decided against a holiday in Hawaii in spite of having paid for our plane tickets.
Question 29: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the
mountain.
A. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
39
B. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. As the result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
D. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Question 30: I listened to Joe patiently until he started insulting me. At this point, I told him a
few home truths.
A. I told Joe a few home truths, by which time he started insulting me patiently.
B. I listened to Joe patiently until he started insulting me, in this case I told him a few
home truths.
C. I told Joe a few home truths after listening to him insulting me patiently.
D. I listened to Joe patiently until he started insulting me, at which point I told him a few
home truths.
35.
The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather patterns that strongly affect the
world. When the water is warm, the (31) ________ of rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding
regions decreases. Australia could (32) ________ experience a drought in many parts. On (33)
________ hand, Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for (34) ________
rainstorms. In Pakistan and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season
weaker and makes the area much drier. This happening is called El Nino and is used by weather
forecasters to make long-range weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will (35)
________ unusually heavy rains to the southwestern part of the United States and make the
central part of the country drier at the same time.
Question 31: A. deal B. figure
C. number D. amount
Question 32: A. however B. even
C. ever D. nevertheless
Question 33: A. the other B. another C. other D. others
Question 34: A. angry B. strict C. severe D. cruel
Question 35: A. bring B. fetch C. carry D. take
Archaeological records ― paintings, drawings, and carvings of humans engaged in
activities involving the use of hands ― indicate that humans have been predominantly right-
handed for more than 5,000 years. In ancient Egyptian artwork, for example, the right-hand is
depicted as the dominant one in about 90 percent of the examples. Fracture or wear patterns on
tools also indicate that a majority of ancient people were right-handed.
Cro-Magnon cave paintings some 27,000 years old commonly show outlines of human
hands made by placing one hand against the cave wall and applying paint with the other.
40
Children today make similar outlines of their hands with crayons on paper. With few exceptions,
left hands of Cro-Magnons are displayed on cave walls, indicating that the paintings were
usually done by right-handers.
Anthropological evidence pushes the record of handedness in early human ancestors back to
at least 1.4 million years ago. One important line of evidence comes from flaking patterns of
stone cores used in tool making: implements flaked with a clockwise motion (indicating a right-
handed toolmaker) can be distinguished from those flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation
(indicating a left-handed toolmaker).
Even scratches found on fossil human teeth offer clues. Ancient humans are thought to have
cut meat into strips by holding it between their teeth and slicing it with stone knives, as do the
present-day Inuit. Occasionally the knives slip and leave scratches on the users' teeth. Scratches
made with a left-to-right stroke direction (by right-handers) are more common than scratches in
the opposite direction (made by left-handers).
Still other evidence comes from cranial morphology: scientists think that physical
differences between the right and left sides of the interior of the skull indicate subtle physical
differences between the two sides of the brain. The variation between the hemispheres
corresponds to which side of the body is used to perform specific activities. Such studies, as well
as studies of tool use, indicate that right- or left-sided dominance is not exclusive to modern
Homo sapiens. Populations of Neanderthals, such as Homo erectus and Homo habilis, seem to
have been predominantly right-handed, as we are.
Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Human ancestors became predominantly right-handed when they began to use tools.
B. It is difficult to interpret the significance of anthropological evidence concerning tool use.
C. Humans and their ancestors have been predominantly right-handed for over a million
years.
D. Human ancestors were more skilled at using both hands than modern humans.
Question 37: What does the author say about Cro-Magnon paintings of hands?
A. Some are not very old.
B. It is unusual to see such paintings.
C. Many were made by children.
D. The artists were mostly right-handed.
Question 38: The word “depicted” in the first paragraph refers to _________.
A. written
B. portrayed
C. referred
D. mentioned
Question 39: The word "cranial morphology" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning
to________.
A. the form of crane B. the form of the body
41
C. the study of physical body D. the study of the skull
Question 40: The fact that the Inuit cut meat by holding it between their teeth is significant
because ________.
A. the relationship between handedness and scratches on fossil human teeth can be verified
B. it emphasizes the differences between contemporary humans and their ancestors
C. the scratch patterns produced by stone knives vary significantly from patterns produced
by modern knives
D. it demonstrates that ancient humans were not skilled at using tools
Question 41: The word "hemispheres" in the last paragraph is closet in meaning to ________.
A. differences B. sides C. activities D. studies
Question 42: All of the following are mentioned as types of evidence concerning handedness
EXCEPT _________.
A. ancient artwork
B. asymmetrical skulls
C. studies of tool use
D. fossilized hand bones
Canada is a democracy organized as a constitutional monarchy with a parliamentary
system of government modeled after that of Great Britain. The official head of state in Canada is
Queen Elizabeth II of Britain, who is also Queen of Canada. The governor-general is the queen’s
personal representative in Canada and the official head of the Canadian parliament, although
with very limited powers.
The federal parliament in Canada consists of the House of Commons and the Senate. The
actual head of government is the prime minister, who is responsible for choosing a cabinet. The
cabinet consists of a group of ministers of varied expertise who serve with the support of the
House of Commons. They are responsible for most legislation, and have the expenditure of
public funds or taxation. The system is referred to as responsible government, which means that
cabinet members sit in the parliament and directly responsible to it, holding power only as long
as a majority of the House of Commons shows confidence by voting with them. If a cabinet is
defeated in the House of Commons on a motion of censure or a vote of no confidence, the
cabinet must either resign, in which case the governor-general will ask the leader of the
opposition to form a new cabinet, or a new election may be called.
The Canadian Senate has 105 members, appointed by the governor-general on the advice of
the prime minister. Their actual function is advisory, although they may make minor changes in
bills and no bill may become a law without being passed by the Senate. Senators hold office until
age seventy-five unless they are absent from two consecutive sessions of parliament, The real
power, however, resides in the House of Commons, the members of which are elected directly by
the voters. The seats are allocated on the basis of population, and there are about 300
42
constituencies. By custom, almost all members of the cabinet must be members of the House of
Commons or, if not already members, must win seats within a reasonable time.
General elections must be held at the end of every five years, but they may be conducted
whenever issues require it, and most parliaments are dissolved before the end of the five-year
term. When a government loses its majority support in a general election, a change of
government occurs.
Although major and minor political parties were not created by law, they are recognized by
law in Canada. The party that wins the largest number of seats in a general election forms the
government, and its leader becomes the prime minister. The second largest party becomes the
official opposition, and its leader is recognized as the leader of the opposition. In this way, the
people are assured of an effective alternative government should they become displeased with
the one in power.
Question 43: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Political parties in Canada
B. The Canadian election process
C. The Canadian system of government
D. The powers of parliament in Canada
Question 44: When does a change of government occur in Canada?
A. When the governor-general decides to appoint a new government.
B. When the voters do not return majority support for the government in a general election.
C. When the prime minister advises the governor-general to appoint a new government.
D. When the House of Commons votes for a new government.
Question 45: The word “dissolved” could best be replaced by ________.
A. approved B. evaluated C. recognized D. dismissed
Question 46: The word “varied” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. little
B. different
C. good
D. steady
Question 47: What does the author mean by the statement in Italic letters?
A. Whereas Canada has a constitutional form of government; Great Britain has a parliament
system.
B. Canada and Great Britain both have model systems of government.
C. Great Britain and Canada have very similar systems of government.
D. Canada’s parliament has adopted Great Britain’s constitution.
Question 48: What is the role of political parties in Canada?
A. Until they become powerful, they are not legally recognized.
B. Although they serve unofficial functions, they are not very important.
C. If they win a majority of seats, their leader becomes prime minister.
43
D. Because they are not elected, they offer the government opposing views.
Question 49: The governor-general is described as all of the following EXPECT _________.
A. the official head of parliament
B. the head of government
C. the queen’s representative in Canada
D. the official who appoints the Senate
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that the voters in Canada _________.
A. choose the prime minister and the cabinet
B. do not usually vote in general elections
C. allow their representative to vote on their behalf
D. determine when a charge of government should occur
44
Question 1: A. loved B. appeared C. agreed D. coughed
Question 2: A. thereupon B. thrill C. threesome D. throne
Question 3: A. interview B. inheritance
C. comfortable D. dynamism
Question 4: A. influential B. punctuality
C. representative D. character
Question 5: Televisions are now an everyday feature of most households in the United States,
A B
and television viewing is the number one activity leisure.
C D
Question 6: Bacteria are one of the most abundant life forms on earth, growing on and inside
A B
another livings things, in every type of environment.
C D
Question 7: Mrs. Barnes, who was so proud of her new car, drove to work when the accident
A B
happened and damaged her car.
C D
Question 8: The higher the demand, ________.
A. the more efforts we have to make
B. the more we have to make efforts
C. the more efforts do we have to make
D. the most efforts we have to make
Question 9: ________ many times I tell him, he always never passes on phone message.
A. However B. No matter C. Whenever D. Whatever
Question 10: Hardly _______ the captain of the team when he had to face the problems.
A. had he been appointed B. did he appoint
C. was he being appointed D. was he appointing
Question 11: My new glasses cost me ________ the pair that I bought last month.
A. more than three times B. three times as much as
45
C. as much three times as D. more three times than
Question 12: “What would you do in my position?” – “Were ________ like that, I would
complain to the manager.”
A. I be treated B. I treated C. I to be treated D. to treat
Question 13: If you want a good flat in London, you have to pay through the _______ for it.
A. mouth B. ear C. nose D. teeth
Question 14: She went _______ a bad cold just before Christmas.
A. through B. over C. in for D. down with
Question 15: We ________ for three hours and are very tired .
A. waited B. have been waiting
C. wait D. had waited
Question 16: We couldn’t help laughing when he took ________ his teacher so well.
A. up B. over C. off D. out
Question 17: Nobody could have predicted that the show would arouse so much interest and that
over two hundred people ______ away.
A. would have turned B. would turn
C. had been turned D. would have to be turned
Question 18: Mrs. Granny is completely deaf. You’ll have to ________ allowance for her.
A. bring B. take C. make D. find
Question 19: I am not able to go anywhere this weekend because I am up to my _______ in
work.
A. neck B. nose C. head D. eyes
Question 20: Mary is tired and she is talking about her health problem with John.
_ Mary: “I’m feeling a bit under the weather.”
_ John: “_________”
A. Maybe I’m not going to the doctor’s.
B. Not bad. I’m going to the doctor’s.
C. Maybe you should take a rest.
D. Not very well. Thanks.
Question 21: Tony and Jane are talking about where to have dinner.
_Tony: “What’s the best place to have dinner?”
_Jane: ”________”
A. I’ll have chicken, please.
B. There’s a great restaurant opposite the hotel.
C. I usually eat dinner at 7 p.m.
D. 7 p.m would be convenient.
46
Question 22: You will need a sound understanding of basic teaching skills if you want to enter
the classroom with great confidence.
A. sufficient B. defective C. inadequate D. thorough
Question 23: He was one of the most outstanding performers at the live show last night.
A. easy- looking B. important C. well- known D. impressive
Question 24: If you are at a loose end this weekend i will show you round the city.
A. free B. confident C. occupied D. reluctant
Question 25: Susan lost her head when she suddenly woke up and saw the house on fire.
A. kicked herself B. changed her tune
C. kept her head D. took her breath away
Question 26: After the operation, she recovered far quicker than any of us had expected her to.
A. She recovered from the operation just as quickly as anybody could have hoped.
B. Once the operation was over, her recovery was as fast as could be expected.
C. To our great surprise, she was back to normal again as soon as the operation was over.
D. We were all surprised at how fast her health returned after the operation.
Question 27: It was very impolite of him to leave without saying a word.
A. He was very impolite to leave without saying a word.
B. He didn’t say nothing when he left.
C. He didn’t say nothing as he left, which was impolite.
D. Both A and C are correct.
Question 28: Many countries share the view that drastic measures must be taken to stop the
pollution of the seas.
A. The pollution of the seas can only be prevented providing that many countries follow
the same policy.
B. A lot of countries agree that it is essential to take strong action to put an end to the
C. By putting into practice a series of precautions, it is generally believed that the
pollution of the seas will be prevented.
D. The seas will, it seems, continue to be polluted unless this agreement is accepted by a
majority of the countries.
Question 29: Some wooden beams hold up the roof. They have been damaged.
47
A. Some wooden beams holding up the roof have been damaged.
B. The roof damaged holds up some wooden beams.
C. Some wooden beams damaging hold up the roof.
D. The roof held up damaged some wooden beams.
Question 30: He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for
days.
A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.
B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
D. Suspected to have stolen the credit cards, he has been investigated for days
35.
At NatWest we know how hard it is to get your business up and running. Understanding
your difficulties-and then helping you through them-has made us the number one bank for small
business for each of the last 10 years, with more people turning to us for ________ (31) than any
other bank.
Our Start-Up service gives you the support you need to ________ (32) up on your own.
There are over 4000 Small Business Advisers (at least one in every high street branch) who
provide help, information and a wide ________ (33) of services specifically designed to help
things go that bit more smoothly.
Since last years, we've offered 12 months' free banking ________ (34) you go overdrawn
or stay in credit. We have also introduced another special scheme to help you keep your costs
down for even longer. Provide us with a certificate from a NatWest recognized start-up training
________ (35) that you have completed and there will be no account charges for the first 18
months.
Question 31: A. employment B. performance
C. improvement D. guidance
Question 32: A. make B. turn C. set D. bring
Question 33: A. range B. stock C. forecast D. rate
Question 34: A. whether B. whatever C. however D. although
Question 35: A. course B. lesson C. subject D. chapter
Since the world has become industrialized, there has been an increase in the number of
animal species that have either become extinct or have neared extinction. Bengal tiger, for
instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast number, now only about 2,300, and by the year
2025 their population is estimated to be down to zero. What is alarming about the case of the
Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who
48
according to some sources, are not interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This
is an example of the callousness that is part of what is causing the problem of extinction.
Animals like Bengal tigers as well as other endangered species are a valuable part of the world's
ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival,
and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some
countries, in order to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal
reserves. They then charge admission to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks and they
often must also depend on world organizations for support. With the money they get, they can
invest in equipment, and patrols to protect the animals. Another solution that is an attempt to
stem the tide of animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered
species. This seems fairly effective but it will not, by itself, prevent animals from being hunted
and killed.
Question 36: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. the Bengal tiger
B. international boycotts
C. endangered species
D. problems with industrialization
Question 37: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "alarming" in line 4?
A. dangerous
B. serious
C. gripping
D. distressing
Question 38: The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast _________.
A. a problem and a solution
B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and a contrast
D. specific and general information
Question 39: What does the word “this” refer to?
A. Bengal Tiger
B. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction
D. Interest in material gain
Question 40: Where in the passage does the author discuss a cause of extinction ?
A. Since the word … down to zero.
B. What is alarming … personal gratification.
C. Country around … for support.
D. With the money … dangered species
Question 41: The word "defray" is closet in meaning to ________?
A. lower B. raise
49
C. make a payment on D. make an investment toward
Question 42: Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. forgiving
B. concerned
C. vindictive
D. surprised
Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and-stick games (paddle ball, trap ball,
one-old-cat, rounders, and town ball) originating in England. As early as the American
Revolution, it was noted that troops played “baseball” in their free time. In 1845 Alexander
Cartwright formalized the New York Knickerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond shaped
infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikers –you’re – out , batter out on a caught ball,
three outs per inning, a nine man team. The "New York Game” spread rapidly, replacing earlier
localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was seen as a way of satisfying the recreational
needs of an increasingly urban – industrial society. At its inception it was it was played by and
for gentlemen. A club might consists of 40 members. The president would appoint two captains
who would choose teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and
Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainments for the
winners
During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing
commercialism (charging admission), under – the – table payments to exceptional to players, and
gambling on the outcome of games. By 1868 it was said that a club would have their regular
professional ten , an amateur first-nine , and their "muffins" (the gentlemanly duffers who once
ran the game) . Beginning with the first openly all-salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking
Club) in 1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the complete professionalization of baseball, including
formation of the National Association of Professional Baseball Players in 1871. The National
League of Professional Baseball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business-minded invertors in
joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s "Golden Age”.
Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132, a
weekly periodical “ The sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck
stands replaced open fields, and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and
peanuts. In 1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of the
Midwest proclaimed itself the American League.
Question 43: What is the passage mainly about?
A. the origins of baseball
B. the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball
C. the commercialization of baseball
D. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century
Question 44: The word “inception” in line 8 is closest in meaning to ________.
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A. requirements
B. beginning
C. insistence
D. rules
Question 45: Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy
gentlemen at its inception ?
A. A team might consist of 40 members.
B. The president would choose teams from among the members.
C. They didn’t play on weekends.
D. They might be called “duffers” if they didn’t make the first nine.
Question 46: According to the second paragraph , all of the following are true EXPECT ______.
A. commercialism became more prosperous
B. the clubs are smaller
C. outstanding players got extra income
D. people gamed on the outcome of games
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “Golden Age”?
A. wooden stadiums replaced open fields
B. a weekly periodical commenced
C. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed
D. profits soared
Question 48: The word ”somewhat” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. to a significant extent
B. to a minor extent
C. to not the same extent
D. to some extent
Question 49: The word “itself” in the last paragraph refers to ________.
A. the Western League
B. growing cities
C. the Midwest
D. the American League
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage ?
A. The wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another
recreational opportunity if they did not want to mix with other or become a “muffin”.
B. Hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and
commercialism that develop in baseball.
C. The “New York Game“ spread rapidly because it was better formalized.
D. Business–minded investors were only interested in profits
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Question 1: A. exactly B. example C. exhibition D. exhibit
Question 2: A. chaotic B. chemist C. brochure D. anchor
Question 3: A. environment B. publication
C. equality D. pneumonia
Question 4: A. apply B. happen
C. decide D. combine
Question 5: In the 1920’s cinema became an important art form and one of the ten largest
A B C
industry in the United States.
D
Question 6: Because not food is as nutritious for a baby as its mother’s milk, many women are
A B C
returning to the practice of breast feeding.
D
Question 7: Do you ever feel that life is not being fair to you because you cannot seem to get the
A B C
job where you want or that really suits you?
D
Question 8: The train to the center of the city was ________ by a heavy snowfall.
A. held up B. took back
C. put off D. given out
Question 9: She ________ for hours. That’s why her eyes are red now.
A. cried B. has been crying C. was crying D. has cried
Question 10: “Eric is really upset about losing his job”.- “Well, ________ fired once myself, I
can understand”.
A. having B. have been
C. to have been D. having been
Question 11: He always did well at school ________ having his early education disrupted by
illness.
A. apart from B. in spite of
C. in addition to D. because of
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Question 12: I’m sorry, teacher. I’ve _______ my homework on the bus.
A. left B. let C. forgotten D. missed
Question 13: ________ at the site of a fort established by the Northwest Mounted Police,
Calgary is now one of Canada’s faster growing cities.
A. Having built B. It is built C. To build D. Built
Question 14: She kindly offered to _______ me the way to the post office.
A. show B. describe C. direct D. explain
Question 15: ________ general, our students are very intelligent and really active.
A. In B. With
C. By D. On
Question 16: ________ of all of us who are here tonight, I would like to thank Mr. Jones for his
talk.
A. In person B. Instead C. On account D. On behalf
Question 17: John swims very well and ________ does his brother.
A. also B. even C. so D. too
Question 18: I asked him to drive more slowly, but he didn’t take any _________.
A. attention B. regard C. notice D. recognition
Question 19: My hat has just ________ behind the sofa although I thought I had lost it.
A. turned up B. gone away C. run into D. come across
Question 20: Nancy met Sue in a party after a long time they were far away from each other.
_ Nancy: “_________.”
_ Sue: “Great. Thanks.”
A. Excuse me!
B. What are you doing?
C. How are you doing?
D. Be careful!
Question 21: Maria is in a shoes shop, looking for new shoes.
_Shop assistant: “Can I help you, madam?”
_Maria: ”________”
A. It’s very cheap.
B. No, thanks. I’m just looking.
C. Right. It looks a bit small.
D. Yes, it is in our summer sale.
Question 22: He resembles his brother in appearance very much, which makes his friends unable
to recognize.
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A. looks after B. takes after C. names after D. calls after
Question 23: Life expectancy in Europe has increased greatly in the 20th century.
A. expectation B. span C. prospect D. anticipation
Question 24: One of the good things about teaching young children is their enthusiasm.
A. eagerness B. weakness C. indifference D. softness
Question 25: That international organization is going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. permanent B. guess
C. complicated D. soak
Question 26: Mrs. Maria may not have a good health but she still manages to enjoy her life.
A. Mrs. Maria’s poor health is a big problem which prevents her from enjoying her life.
B. Although Mrs. Maria may not have a good health but she still manages to enjoy her
life.
C. Mrs. Maria’s poor health does not prevent her from enjoying her life.
D. What prevented Mrs. Maria from enjoying her life is her bad health condition.
Question 27: The boy who was waiting in the hall expected a phone call.
A. The boy someone was waiting in the hall expected a phone call.
B. The boy waiting in the hall expected a phone call.
C. The boy waited in the hall and expecting a phone call.
D. The boy was waiting in the hall and expected a phone call.
Question 28: She had to buy a new battery for her mobile phone because the charge was unable
to last for more than two hours.
A. She had to charge a new battery for her mobile phone because the old one lasted for a
little over two hours.
B. Her mobile phone couldn’t hold a charge for more than two hours, so she had to buy a
new battery.
C. Because she charged her new mobile phone battery for only two hours, the charge did
not last very long.
D. The new battery she bought for her mobile phone would not hold a charge for longer
than two hours.
Question 29: I did not read his book. I did not understand what the lecturer was saying.
A. I would have understood what the lecturer was saying if I had read his book.
B. The lecturer's book which I had not read was difficult to understand.
C. I found it very difficult to understand what the lecturer said in his book.
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D. What the lecturer wrote and said was too difficult for me to understand.
Question 30: He wanted to give the ball a powerful kick. He used the top of his foot.
A. He gave the ball a powerful kick to use the top of his foot.
B. Using the top of his foot, he kicked a powerful ball.
C. What he wants to do is give the ball a powerful kick and use the top of his foot.
D. He used the top of his foot to give the ball a powerful kick.
35.
There is considerably less research on comprehension processes in beginning readers,
compared to studies on word processing. One of the consistent (31) _________ in
comprehension research is that compared to more skilled comprehenders, unskilled
comprehenders are also less skilled in decoding. In fact, during the early stages of beginning
reading, text comprehension is limited to children's skill in decoding. Until decoding processes
are (32) ________ and efficient, high-level comprehension processes are severely limited. There
is now converging evidence that for both children and adults, difficulties in comprehension are
related to difficulties in decoding (33) ________ to problems with working memory.
(34) _________ being better at decoding, skilled comprehenders also have better global
language skilled comprehenders. Studies have shown a causal relationship between vocabulary
and comprehension. There is evidence showing that vocabulary instruction (35) ________ to
gains in comprehension and improvement on semantic tasks. It is also clear that both direct and
indirect instruction in vocabulary lead to comprehension gains.
Question 31: A. findings B. studies
C. programs D. conclusions
Question 32: A. early B. rapid C. urgent D. right
Question 33: A. as well as B. as long as C. as far as D. as much as
Question 34: A. Furthermore B. However C. Therefore D. Besides
Question 35: A. jumps B. faces C. leads D. comes
The World Trade Organization (WTO) has 162 member countries. They are looking to
improve trade. Trade means the buying and selling of goods. The WTO provides a place where
these countries can talk about what they need. The goal of the WTO is to make trade grow by
removing legal barriers between countries.
The WTO helps trade in several ways. First, it asks countries to treat each other equally.
They should not give special trade deals to one country and not to another. Also, these countries
should not try to stop foreign products from any one country. The idea is that goods and services
should be able to cross borders easily. A second way to improve trade is to lower tariffs. These
are special taxes for things bought and sold. A third way to strengthen trade is to make sure that
55
the rulers will stay the same. In order for people to invest their money, they need to feel secure
for the future. A fourth way is to allow greater competition between countries. The central belief
is that competition makes for a stronger economy. The last way to improve trade is to help
countries that are poor. They need help coming up to the level of modern countries. They can be
helped by allowing them extra time to get their systems in order. They can be given priority in
making deals with other countries.
Free and easy trade is the WTO’s goal. It supports rich countries and helps poor countries
get ahead. It is one way of improving the lives of more people in the world. It asks countries to
make laws that help this process. Every year, more countries apply to be in the WTO. They see
membership as a good thing.
Question 36: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT ________.
A. the WTO wants to improve trade by lowering taxes
B. poor countries are not given priority
C. the WTO wants to make trade better
D. trade means the buying and selling of goods
Question 37: It can be inferred from the passage that ________.
A. the WTO helps remove political barriers between countries
B. the WTO’s goal is to trade with other organizations
C. the WTO is a multi-national organization
D. few countries want to become a member of the WTO
Question 38: The word “barriers” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. borders
B. documents
C. bans
D. obstacles
Question 39: Why does the author give details about how the WTO helps trade?
A. To illustrate how the WTO improves international trade.
B. To distinguish between the WTO and banks.
C. To promote discussion about the WTO.
D. To complain about the actions of the WTO.
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT correct?
A. The goal of the WTO is to improve trade.
B. The WTO supports poor countries.
C. Many countries apply to be in the WTO every year.
D. Rich countries are given priority.
Question 41: According to the third paragraph, the WTO _________.
A. asks rich countries to help poor countries
B. helps improve the lives of more people in the world
C. helps rich countries get ahead
D. gives poor countries lots of food
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Question 42: Which of the following does NOT support the idea that the WTO provides a way
for countries to improve trade?
A. Countries should allow goods and services to cross border easily.
B. Countries should be fair to one another and help poor members.
C. Countries should lower tariffs and make investors feel secure.
D. Countries should allow time to raise taxes.
William Sydney Porter (1862-1910), who wrote under the pseudonym of O. Henry, was
born in North Carolina. His only formal education was to attend his Aunt Lina’s school until the
age of fifteen, where he developed his lifelong love of books. By 1881 he was a licensed
pharmacist. However, within a year, on the recommendation of a medical colleague of his
Father’s, Porter moved to La Salle County in Texas for two years herding sheep. During this
time, Webster’s Unabridged Dictionary was his constant companion, and Porter gained a
knowledge of ranch life that he later incorporated into many of his short stories. He then moved
to Austin for three years, and during this time the first recorded use of his pseudonym appeared,
allegedly derived from his habit of calling “Oh, Henry” to a family cat. In 1887, Porter married
Athol Estes. He worked as a draftsman, then as a bank teller for the First National Bank.
In 1894 Porter founded his own humor weekly, the “Rolling Stone”, a venture that failed
within a year, and later wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post. In the meantime, the First
National Bank was examined, and the subsequent indictment of 1886 stated that Porter had
embezzled funds. Porter then fled to New Orleans, and later to Honduras, leaving his wife and
child in Austin. He returned in 1897 because of his wife’s continued ill-health, however she died
six months later. Then, in 1898 Porter was found guilty and sentenced to five years
imprisonment in Ohio. At the age of thirty five, he entered prison as a defeated man; he had lost
his job, his home, his wife, and finally his freedom. He emerged from prison three years later,
reborn as O. Henry, the pseudonym he now used to hide his true identity. He wrote at least
twelve stories in jail, and after re-gaining his freedom, went to New York City, where he
published more than 300 stories and gained fame as America’s favorite short Story writer. Porter
married again in 1907, but after months of poor health, he died in New York City at the age of
forty-eight in 1910. O. Henry’s stories have been translated all over the world.
Question 43: Why did the author write the passage?
A. Because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer.
B. To outline the career of a famous American.
C. Because of his fame as America’s favorite short story writer.
D. To outline the influences on O. Henry’s writing.
Question 44: According to the passage, Porter’s Father was ________.
A. responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas
B. the person who gave him a life-long love of books
C. a medical doctor
57
D. a licensed pharmacist
Question 45: The word “allegedly” in line 9 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. supposedly
B. reportedly
C. wrongly
D. mistakenly
Question 46: Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. Both of Porter’s wives died before he died.
B. Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist.
C. Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called “Rolling Stone”.
D. The first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin.
Question 47: The word “subsequent” in line 17 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. resulting
B. police
C. alleged
D. official
Question 48: Porter lost all of the following when he went to prison EXCEPT his _______.
A. home
B. wife
C. job
D. books
Question 49: According to the author, how many stories did Porter write while in prison for three
years?
A. more than 300
B. 35
C. at least 12
D. over 20
Question 50: The author implies which of the following is true?
A. Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in prison for three
years.
B. Porter was in poor health throughout his life.
C. O. Henry is as popular in many other countries as he is in America.
D. Porter’s wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin when he fled.
Question 1: A. pagoda B. integral C. against D. aquatic
Question 2: A. synchronized B. psychology
C. chemistry D. activity
58
Question 3: A. represent B. intensive
C. domestic D. employment
Question 4: A. minister B. dependent
C. encourage D. agreement
Question 5: Although men may know more about diapering babies and vacuuming floors than
A B
his father did, but women are still doing most of housework and child reading.
C D
Question 6: When men and women are asked who is spending long hours cleaning and tidy up,
A B C
women are still far ahead of men.
D
Question 7: In 2006, 87.9 per cent of men said they shared housework from their wives, up from
A B C D
84.4 per cent in 1996.
Question 8: Swimming produces both ________ and physical benefits.
A. psychology B. psychological
C. psychologist D. psychologically
Question 9: Thousands of cranes ________.
A. will be returned the spring B. will return the spring
C. will be returned in the spring D. will return in the spring
Question 10: Two thousand people are ________ as having cancer of the mouth every year; and
60 per cent of them will die within five years.
A. regarded B. diagnosed
C. checked D. killed
Question 11: He finds physics ________ other science subjects.
A. far more difficult than B. many more difficult than
C. too much more difficult than D. more much difficult than
Question 12: We were expecting beautiful weather at the beach, but it was so cold and rainy that,
_______ getting a suntan, I caught a cold.
A. compared to B. just as C. in case of D. instead of
Question 13: Next month, I ________ Dereck for 20 years.
A. have known B. will have been knowing
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C. will know D. will have known
Question 14: A _______ of dancers from Beijing is one of the leading attractions in the festival.
A. packet B. troop C. herd D. troupe
Question 15: Don’t let time go ________ without doing anything about the situation.
A. out B. by
C. off D. over
Question 16: Police are warning the public to be on the ________ for suspicious packages.
A. care B. alert C. guard D. alarm
Question 17: Before you sign the contract, ________ in mind that you won’t be able to change
anything later.
A. hold B. bear C. retain D. reserve
Question 18: Jim’s ________ flu again. That’s the third time this year.
A. gone down with B. put up with C. led up to D. come up with
Question 19: Half of the children were away from school last week because of ________ of
influenza.
A. a breakthrough B. an outbreak C. a break-out D. an outburst
Question 20: Alice and Pete are talking about the weather in the place they are in.
_ Alice: “It seems to me that the summer is nice here.”
_ Pete: “________. It’s really lovely.”
A. You’re exactly right
B. You’re dead wrong
C. I couldn’t agree less
D. You could be right
Question 21: Alfonso is talking with Maria about using public transportation.
_ Alfonso: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our
environment?”
_Maria: ”________.”
A. There’s no doubt about it
B. Yes, it is an absurd idea
C. Well, that is very surprising
D. Of course not .You bet
Question 22: Books are a primary means for dissemination of knowledge and information.
A. attempt B. distribution C. invention D. variety
Question 23: In 1952, Akihito was officially proclaimed heir to the Japanese throne.
A. installed B. declared C. denounced D. advised
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Question 24: There are several different kinds of faults in reading which are usually more
exaggerated with foreign learners.
A. overestimated B. overemphasized
C. understated D. undertaken
Question 25: You need to dress neatly and elegantly for the interview. The first impression is
very important.
A. shabbily B. formally
C. untidy D. comfortably
Question 26: “Tom, please don’t tell anyone my new telephone number.” said Jane.
A. Jane told Tom please don’t tell anyone my new telephone number.
B. Jane asked Tom not to tell anyone her new telephone number.
C. Jane said to Tom not to tell anyone her new telephone number, please.
D. Jane wanted Tom didn’t tell anyone my new telephone number.
Question 27: Few people realized the importance of his role in the company.
A. He was realized as an important role in the company by a few people.
B. Not many people realized that he played an important part in the company.
C. Quite a few people realized the importance of his role in the company.
D. Many people realized his important role in the company.
Question 28: You are in this mess right now because you didn’t listen to me in the first place.
A. If you listen to my advice in the first place, you will not be in this mess right now.
B. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right
now.
C. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now.
D. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t have been in this mess
right now.
Question 29: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window.
A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window.
B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.
C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.
D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.
Question 30: She gave in her notice. She planned to start her new job in January.
A. She gave in her notice, plan to start her new job in January.
B. Her notice was given in with an aim to start her new job in January.
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C. Her notice was given in in order to for her to start her new job in January.
D. She gave in her notice with a view to starting her new job in January.
35.
The ideal breakfast, say scientists, is a glass of orange juice, a cup of coffee and a bowl of
cereal. People who (31) _______ the day with a drink of vitamin C, a dose of caffeine and a
helping of their favorite cereal are happier and perform better throughout the morning, Andy
Smith, of the University of Bristol, said. A study of 600 people who were _______ (32 to record
their breakfast habits found that ________ (33) who regularly ate cereal first thing in the
morning had a more positive mood compared with those who ate other foods or had no breakfast.
Earlier research had _______ (34) that people whose mental performance was measured
immediately after eating breakfast of any kind performed 10 percent better on tests of
remembering, speed of response and ability to concentrate, compared with those given only a
cup of decaffeinated coffee. In further research, Professor Smith said that people who drank four
cups of coffee a day performed more (35)_______ all day than those who drank less. He
suggested that sensible employers should give out free coffee or tea.
Question 31: A. open B. initiate
C. start D. begins
Question 32: A. said B. told C. ordered D. asked
Question 33: A. whole B. all C. these D. those
Question 34: A. reveal B. exposed C. shown D. indicated
Question 35: A. profitable B. deficiently C. beneficially D. efficiently
The handling and delivery of mail has always been a serious business, underpinned by the
trust of the public in requiring timeliness, safety, and confidentiality. After early beginnings
using horseback and stagecoach, and although cars and trucks later replaced stagecoaches and
wagons, the Railway Mail Service still stands as one of America’s most resourceful and exciting
postal innovations. This service began in 1832, but grew slowly until the Civil War. Then from
1862, by sorting the mail on board moving trains, the Post Office Department was able to
decentralize its operations as railroads began to crisscross the nation on a regular basis, and
speed up mail delivery. This service lasted until 1974. During peak decades of service, railway
mail clerks handled 93% of all non-local mail and by 1905 the service had over 12,000
employees.
Railway Post Office trains used a system of mail cranes to exchange mail at stations
without stopping. As a train approached the crane, a clerk prepared the catcher arm which would
then snatch the incoming mailbag in the blink of an eye. The clerk then booted out the outgoing
mailbag. Experienced clerks were considered the elite of the Postal Service’s employees, and
62
spoke with pride of making the switch at night with nothing but the curves and feel of the track
to warn them of an upcoming catch. They also worked under the greatest pressure and their jobs
were considered to be exhausting and dangerous. In addition to regular demands of their jobs
they could find themselves the victims of train wrecks and robberies.
As successful as it was, “mail-on-the-fly” still had its share of glitches. If they hoisted the
train’s catcher arm too soon, they risked hitting switch targets, telegraph poles or semaphores,
which would rip the catcher arm off the train. Too late, and they would miss an exchange.
A. How Post Office Trains handled the mail without stopping
B. The skills of experienced clerks
C. How the mail cranes exchanged the mail
D. Improvements in mail handling and delivery
Question 37: The public expects the following three services in handling and delivery of mail
except ________.
A. confidentiality
B. timeliness
C. safety
D. accuracy
Question 38: According to the passage, the Railway Mail Service commenced in _________.
A. 1832
B. 1842
C. 1874
D. 1905
Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. Mail was often lost or damaged as it was exchanged on the mail crane.
B. There was a high turnover of railway mail clerks.
C. The development of the mailroads during the second half of the 19th century enabled
Post Office Department to focus on timeliness.
D. The Post Office Department was more concerned about speeding up mail delivery than
the safety of its clerks.
Question 40: The word “elite” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. superior
B. majority
C. more capable
D. leader
Question 41: The word “glitches” in the third paragraph can be replaced by ________.
A. accidents
B. blames
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C. advantages
D. problems
Question 42: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The clerk booted out the outgoing mailbag before snatching the incoming bag.
B. Clerks couldn’t often see what they were doing.
C. The Railway Mail clerk’s job was considered elite because it was safe and exciting.
D. Despite their success railway mail clerks only handled a small proportion of all non-local
mail.
Diseases are a natural part of life on Earth. If there were no diseases, the population would
grow too quickly, and there would not be enough food or other resources. So in a way, diseases
are nature's way of keeping the Earth in balance. But sometimes they spread very quickly and
kill large numbers of people. For example, in 1918, an outbreak of the flu spread across the
world, killing over 25 million people in only six months. Such terrible outbreaks of a disease are
called pandemics.
Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are not prepared to
fight. In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu
virus, and so it spread very quickly and killed large numbers of people. While there have been
many different pandemic diseases throughout history, all of them have a few things in common.
First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily.
Second, while they may kill many people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A
good example of this would be the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is an extremely infectious
disease. In addition, it is deadly. About 70-80% of all the people who get the Marburg virus die
from the disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because most people
die within three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not have enough time
to spread to a large number of people. The flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generally took
about a week to ten days to kill its victims, so it had more time to spread.
While we may never be able to completely stop pandemics, we can make them less
common. Doctors carefully monitor new diseases that they fear could become pandemics. For
example, in 2002 and 2003, doctors carefully watched SARS. Their health warnings may have
prevented SARS from becoming a pandemic.
Question 43: This passage is mainly about ________.
A. how to prevent pandemic diseases
B. pandemic diseases
C. pandemic diseases throughout history
D. why pandemics happen
Question 44: According to the first paragraph, how are diseases a natural part of life on Earth?
A. They prevent pandemics.
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B. They help control the population.
C. They led the world grow quickly.
D. They kill too many people.
Question 45: According to the passage, what causes pandemics?
A. Changes in a disease that the body cannot fight .
B. Careless doctors who do not watch the spread of diseases.
C. Population growth that the world cannot support.
D. The failure to make new medicines.
Question 46: According to the passage, all of the following are true of the 1918 flu pandemic
EXCEPT that ________.
A. it involved a new kind of flu virus
B. it killed over 25 million people
C. it was the last pandemic in history
D. it took a little over a week to kill its victims
Question 47: The word "it" in the passage refers to _________.
A. disease
B. flu virus
C. pandemics
D. bodies
Question 48: Which of the following is mentioned as a common feature of all pandemic
diseases?
A. They spread from people to people very quickly.
B. It kills many people very quickly
C. They do not kill people very quickly
D. They kill all the victims
Question 49: The word "monitor" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. prevent
B. fight
C. watch
D. avoid
Question 50: The author mentions SARS in order to ________ .
A. give an example of a highly dangerous disease
B. suggest that SARS will never become a pandemic
C. give an example of the successful prevention of a pandemic
D. suggest that there may be a new pandemic soon
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Question 1: A. imagines B. motorbikes C. cultures D. involves
Question 2: A. office B. practice
C. service D. device
Question 3: A. equip B. spacious
C. office D. service
Question 4: A. involvement B. applicant
C. installing D. disaster
Question 5: In the end of the day, the job becomes so tiring that the cleaner sometimes leaves it
A B C
unfinished.
D
Question 6: All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and
A B
the technological institutions if they are to preserve environment.
C D
Question 7: Among many other program, UNICEF also supports the international Child Rights
A B C D
Information Network.
Question 8: When I last saw him, he ________ in London.
A. is living B. has lived
C. was living D. has been living
Question 9: The film “Descendant of the Sun” attracts ________ viewers worldwide.
A. a large number of B. considerable number of
C. amount of D. a great deal of
Question 10: There are ten pieces of fruit in my basket. One is an orange, one is a grape and
________ is an apple.
A. others B. the other
C. the others D. another
Question 11: The firemen did well _______ their preparation for catastrophic gas explosions.
A. although B. because
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C. despite D. because of
Question 12: Considering how little they have got in common, it’s surprising how well they
_______ together.
A. get through B. get on C. get down D. get up
B.
Question 13: Muhammad Ali, the World great boxer, passed ________ on June 4th 2016.
A. through B. on
C. down D. away
Question 14: If you say you are using a world _______, you mean you are choosing it after
thinking about it very carefully.
A. advisor B. advisedly C. advisory D. advice
Question 15: He was _______ when I had those problems and said whatever I did he would
stand by me.
A. exciting B. supportive
C. busy D. dull
Question 16: Under the _______ of the press, bloggers, and Vietnam’s technology community,
Dong decided to take the game “Flappy Bird” down.
A. order B. force C. pressure D. command
Question 17: U.S President Obama has become the first ________ president to visit Hiroshima
since 1945.
A. standing B. sitting C. working D. retiring
Question 18: Where’s that _______ dress that your grandma gave you?
A. long pink silk lovely B. pink long lovely silk
C. lovely long pink silk D. lovely pink long silk
Question 19: We can’t even walk in the storm. Let’s wait in the hallway where we’ll be
________ the strong winds until things quiet down.
A. protecting from B. protected from C. protected by D. protecting by
Question 20: Mary gave Peter a gift for his birthday.
_ Peter: “Thanks a lot for your wonder gift.”
_ Mary: “________.”
A. Have a good day
B. Thank you
C. Cheers
D. You are welcome
Question 21: Nga has just taken her exam.
_ Nga: “ This exam is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester!”
_Minh: ”________. But I think it’s quite easy”
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A. You’re right
B. I understand what you are saying
C. I couldn’t agree more
D. I don’t see in that way
Question 22: We can use either verbal or non-verbal forms of communication.
A. using facial expressions B. using speech
C. using gesture D. using verbs
Question 23: Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly.
A. arrive B. clean C. encounter D. happen
Question 24: In most countries, compulsory military service doesn’t apply to women.
A. mandatory B. essential
C. optional D. required
Question 25: During the five-decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all
aspects.
A. holding to B. holding back
C. holding at D. holding by
Question 26: She usually spends one hour driving to work every day.
A. She usually works one hour every day.
B. It usually takes her one hour to drive to work every day.
C. She does not usually drive to work.
D. It usually takes her one hour to work on her car every day.
Question 27: She strikes me as a very effective teacher.
A. My impression of her is that she is a very effective teacher.
B. As a teacher, she always strikes me.
C. She is such an effective teacher that she always strikes her students.
D. I make an effective in impression on the teacher.
Question 28: His mother is the most warm-hearted person I’ve known.
A. I know a more warm-hearted person than his mother.
B. I don’t know his warm-hearted mother.
C. I’ve never known a more warm-hearted person than his mother.
D. I didn’t know a more warm-hearted person than his mother.
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Question 29: The coffee was not strong. It didn’t keep us awake.
A. The coffee was very strong, but it couldn’t keep us awake.
B. The coffee was so strong that we couldn’t sleep .
C. The coffee was not strong enough to keep us awake.
D. We were kept awake because the coffee was strong.
Question 30: David broke his leg. He couldn’t play in the final.
A. If David didn’t break his leg, he could play in the final.
B. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could play in the final now.
C. Although David broke his leg, he could play in the final.
D. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could have played in the final.
35.
Education is more important today than ever before. It helps people acquire the skills they
need for such everyday (31) ________ as reading a newspaper or managing their money. It also
gives them the specialized training they may need to prepare for a job or career. For example, a
person must meet certain educational requirements and obtain a (32) ________ or certificate
before he can practice law or medicine. Many fields, like computer operation or police work,
require satisfactory completion of special training courses.
Education is also important (33) ________ it helps people get more out of life. It increases
their knowledge and understanding of the world. It helps them acquire the skills that make life
more interesting and enjoyable, such as the skills (34) ________ to participate in a sport, paint a
picture, or play a musical instrument. Such education becomes increasingly important as people
gain more and more leisure time.
Education also helps people adjust to change. This habit has become necessary because
social changes today take place with increasing speed and affect the lives of more and more
people. Education can help a person understand these changes and provide him (35) ________
the skills for adjusting to them.
Question 31: A. actions B. jobs C. works D. activities
Question 32: A. license B. paper C. diploma D. card
Question 33: A. therefore B. despite C. although D. because
Question 34: A. able B. capable C. needed D. ordered
Question 35: A. with B. for C. on D. in
Although speech is generally accepted as the most advanced form of communication, there
are many ways of communicating without using words. In every known culture, signals, signs,
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symbols, and gestures are commonly utilized as instruments of communication. There is a great
deal of agreement among communication scientists as to what each of these methods is and how
each differs from the others. For instance, the basic function of any signal is to impinge upon the
environment in such a way that it attracts attention, as, for example, the dots and dashes that can
be applied in a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication
through these dots and dashes-short and long intervals as the circuit is broken-is very great. Less
adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain agreed upon meaning; that is, they
convey information in and of themselves. Two examples are the hexagonal red sign that conveys
the meaning of stop, and the red and white swirled pole outside a shop that communicates the
meaning of barber.
Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate
relationship with the receiver’s culture perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in a theater
provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. In other cultures, if done in unison,
applauding can be a symbol of the audience’s discontent with the performance. Gestures such as
weaving and handshaking also communicate certain culture messages.
Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they also have a major
disadvantage in communication. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender
being directly adjacent to the receiver. Without an exchange of ideas, interaction comes to a halt.
As a result, means of communication intended to be used across long distances and extended
periods must be based upon speech. To radio, television, and the telephone, one must add fax,
paging systems, electronic mail, and the internet, and no one doubts but that there are more
means of communication on the horizon.
Question 36: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Communication
B. Signs and signals
C. Speech
D. Gestures
Question 37: What does the author say about speech?
A. It is the only true form of communication.
B. It is necessary for communication to occur.
C. It is the most advanced form of communication.
D. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.
Question 38: The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to _________.
A. signal
B. function
C. environment
D. way
Question 39: The word "potential" in the first paragraph could be replaced by ________.
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A. organization
B. possibility
C. range
D. advantage
Question 40: The word “themselves” in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. information
B. intervals
C. words
D. signs
Question 41: Applauding was cited as an example of ________.
A. a gesture
B. a signal
C. a symbol
D. a sign
Question 42: Why were the telephone, radio, and television invented?
A. People wanted new forms of entertainment.
B. People were unable to understand signs, symbols, and signals.
C. People wanted to communicate across long distances.
D. People believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete.
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker. The first is
the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language,
communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through
performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice
that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language
itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by
the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may
indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect
ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may believe them. Here the participant’s
tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or
interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are .usually discernible by the
acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with
its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from
the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills,
personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or
pedagogic communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others,
and emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident,
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pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also
the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding
behind an overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or
sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging
or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic
sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic
qualities of the depressed.
A. The connection between voice and personality.
B. Communication styles.
C. The function of the voice in performance.
D. The production of speech.
Question 44: What does the author mean by staring that "At interpersonal levels, tone may
reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen"?
A. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
B. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.
C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.
D. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
Question 45: The word "Here" in the first paragraph refers to _________.
A. words chosen
B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings
D. interpersonal interactions
Question 46: The word "derived" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. obtained
B. prepared
C. registered
D. discussed
Question 47: According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a
person's _________.
A. general physical health
B. personality
C. ability to communicate
D. vocal quality
Question 48: According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide ________.
A. shyness
B. hostility
C. friendliness
D. strength
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Question 49: The word " drastically " in the second passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. frequently
B. exactly
C. severely
D. easily
Question 50: According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
A. Depression
B. Anger
C. Boredom
D. Lethargy
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Question 1: A. finished B. cooked C. attended D. laughed
Question 2: A. number B. future C. furious D. amuse
Question 3: A. defend B. swallow C. social D. wildlife
Question 4: A. eradicate B. alternative C. minority D. secondary
Question 5: We educate our children as well as we can, because of an educated population is the
A B C
key to future.
D
Question 6: Under no circumstances you could betray your fatherland.
A B C D
Question 7: At least three-quarters of that book on famous Americans are about people who lived
A B C D
in the nineteenth century.
Question 8: Eating, together with chatting, listening to music ________ among the most popular
activities at recess at schools in Vietnam.
A. are B. have been
C. were D. is
Question 9: ________ Columbus was one of ________ first people to cross _______ Atlantic.
A. _/the/the B. The/the/the
C. _/the/an D. _/the/_
Question 10: Jack went to the party, wearing a ________ tie.
A. lovely red woolen B. red lovely woolen
C. woolen lovely red D. red woolen lovely
Question 11: Jack Ma or Ma Yun, ________ parents are traditional musician-storytellers, is the
founder and executive chairman of Alibaba Group, a family or highly successful Internet-based
businesses.
A. that B. whom
C. who D. whose
Question 12: Facebook’s terms of use state that members must be ________ least 13 years old
with valid email ID’s.
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A. without B. of C. at D. on
Question 13: ________ there have been many changes in his life, he remains a nice man to
everyone.
A. However B. Although
C. Because D. Despite
Question 14: Her brother was offered the manager’s job, but he ________. He said he didn’t
want the responsibilities.
A. turned it off B. turned it down
C. threw it away D. put it off
Question 15: Nguyen Thi Anh Vien is a Vietnamese Olympian and ________ record-holder for
swimming.
A. nation B. international
C. nationality D. national
Question 16: It doesn’t matter to me one way or another, but I wish you would at least _______
an effort at seeing his side of it.
A. make B. do C. doing D. making
Question 17: In some countries, on moral _______ that education should not be taxed, there is no
tax on books.
A. idea B. principle C. reason D. concept
Question 18: Farmers collect household and garden waste to make ________.
A. floor coverings B. glassware
C. compost D. pipes
Question 19: Claire wanted to know what time ________.
A. do the banks close B. the banks closed
C. did the banks close D. the banks will close
Question 20: Tom is moving the table. He wants Mary to help him.
_ Tom: “________.”
_ Mary: “Yes, of course.”
A. You won’t help me this time.
B. You’d better give me one hand.
C. Could you give me a hand?
D. I don’t think I’ll need your help.
Question 21: A group of students are discussing their plan for the weekend.
_ Chung: “Can you recommend any places for this weekend?”
_Tue: ”________.”
A. I don’t think you could afford a tour to Ha Long Bay
B. A picnic to Khe Ro forest in Son Dong would be perfect
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C. Yes, please go to other agencies
D. No, you cannot recommend any places
Question 22: They tried to find a way of bettering their lives.
A. moving B. changing
C. achieving D. improving
Question 23: Adverse reviews in the New York press may greatly change the prospects of a new
Broad way production .
A. Subversive B. Unfavorable C. Encouraging D. Additional
Question 24: I have a modest little glass fish tank where I keep a variety of small fish.
A. moderate B. limited
C. conceited D. excessive
Question 25: The President expressed his deep sorrow over the bombing deaths.
A. sadness B. passion
C. happiness D. regret
Question 26: “You broke my glasses.” said the woman to me.
A. The woman insisted on breaking her glasses.
B. The woman advised me to break her glasses.
C. The woman told me to break her glasses.
D. The woman blamed me for breaking her glasses .
Question 27: We’d better leave right away as the traffic will be heavy at this hour.
A. We mustn’t leave it too late as the roads are likely to be busy for the next hour.
B. The roads are busy at this time of day, so we ought to set off at once.
C. Let’s wait an hour so as to avoid some of the heavy traffic.
D. If we set off now, we won’t avoid most of the heavy traffic.
Question 28: Most students are aware of the importance of English.
A. Every student is aware of the importance of English.
B. All student are aware of the importance of English .
C. Not a single student is aware of the importance of English .
D. Almost all student are aware of the importance of English.
Question 29: He arrived at the airport. Then he called home.
A. Calling home, he said that he had arrived at the airport.
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B. No sooner had he arrived at the airport than he called home.
C. He arrived at the airport sooner than he had expected.
D. He arrived at the airport and called me to take him home.
Question 30: John Smith is a farmer. I bought his land.
A. John Smith, whose land I bought, is a farmer.
B. John Smith, who is a farmer, whose land I bought.
C. John Smith, whom I bought his land, is a farmer.
D. John Smith, a farmer, bought his land.
35.
EXAM ADVICE
In Part Three of the Speaking Section you work together with a partner. You have to do a
single task which usually lasts about 3 minutes. One possible task is "problem (31) ________ ",
which means you have to look at some visual information and then discuss the problem with
your partner. You may be shown photos, drawings, diagrams, maps, plans, advertisements or
computer graphics and it is (32) ________ that you study them carefully. If necessary, check you
know exactly what to do by politely asking the examiner to (33) ________ the instructions or
make them clearer.
While you are doing the task, the examiner will probably say very little and you should ask
your partner questions and make (34) _______ if he or she is not saying much. If either of you
have any real difficulties the examiner may decide to step in and help .Normally, however, you
will find plenty to say, which helps the assessor to give you a fair mark. This mark depends on
your success in doing the task by co-operating with your partner, which includes taking (35)
________ in giving opinions and replying appropriately, although in the end it may be possible
to "agree to disagree".
Question 31: A. solving B. working C. making D. finding
Question 32: A. helpful B. needed C. essential D. successful
Question 33: A. insist B. repeat C. tell D. copy
Question 34: A. ideas B. statements C. speeches D. suggestions
Question 35: A. changes B. sides C. turns D. sentences
Ever since humans have inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of
communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral
speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language
in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to
resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque
and exact and can be used internationally, spelling, however, cannot.
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Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or
unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod
signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction.
Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read
with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs
also guide, warm, and instruct people. While verbalization is most common form of language,
other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.
Question 36: Which of the following best summarizes this passage?
A. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication.
B. Everybody uses only one form of communication.
C. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners.
D. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest.
Question 37: The word “these” in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. tourists
B. the deaf and the mute
C. thoughts and feelings
D. sign language motions
Question 38: Which form other than oral speech would be the most commonly used among blind
people?
A. Picture signs
B. Braille
C. Body language
D. Signal flags
Question 39: How many different forms of communication are mentioned here?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11
Question 40: The word “wink” in the second paragraph means most nearly the same
as________.
A. close one eye briefly
B. close two eyes briefly
C. bob the head up and down
D. shake the head from side to side
Question 41: What is the best title for the passage?
A. The importance of Sign Language
B. The Many Forms of Communication
C. Ways of Expressing Feelings
D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication
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Question 42: Who would be MOST likely to use Morse code?
A. A scientist
B. A spy
C. An airline pilot
D. A telegrapher
Simply being bilingual does not qualify someone to interpret. Interpreting is not only a
mechanical process of converting one sentence in language A into the same sentence in language
B. Rather, it is a complex art in which thoughts and idioms that have no obvious counterparts
from tongue to tongue _ or words that have several meanings must be quickly transformed in
such a way that the message is clearly and accurately expressed to the listener.
At one international conference, an American speaker said, “You can't make a silk purse
out of a sow’s ear”, which meant nothing to the Spanish audience. The interpretation was, “A
monkey in a silk dress is still a monkey” _ an idiom the Spanish understood and that expressed
the same idea.
There are two kinds of interpreters, simultaneous and consecutive. The former, sitting in a
separated booth, usually at a large multilingual conference, speaks to listeners wearing
headphones, interpreting what a foreign language speaker says _ actually a sentence behind.
Consecutive interpreters are the ones most international negotiations use. They are employed for
smaller meetings without sound booths and headphones. Consecutive interpretation also requires
two-person teams. A foreign speaker says his piece while the interpreter, using a special
shorthand, takes notes and during a pause, tells the client what was said.
Question 43: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To differentiate between simultaneous and consecutive interpreters.
B. To state the qualifications of an interpreter.
C. To point out the importance of an interpreter.
D. To explain the scope of interpreting.
Question 44: What is a difference mentioned between a simultaneous interpreter and a
consecutive interpreter?
A. The size of group with whom they work.
B. Their proficiency in the language.
C. The type of dictionary they use.
D. The money they are paid.
Question 45: A precondition of being a translator is ________.
A. being able to use high-tech equipment.
B. being a linguist .
C. being bilingual.
D. working well with people.
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Question 46: The word “converting” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. changing
B. concluding
C. understanding
D. reading
Question 47: The author implies that most people have the opinion that the skill of interpreting is
________.
A. very complex and demanding
B. based on principles of business
C. simpler than it really is
D. highly valued and admired
Question 48: The word “rather” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. in brief
B. on the contrary
C. in general
D. as a result
Question 49: Which of the following would a consecutive interpreter be used for?
A. An interpretation of a major literary work.
B. A business transaction between two foreign speakers.
C. A large meeting of many nations.
D. A translation of a foreign book.
Question 50: The phrase “the former“ refers to _______.
A. simultaneous interpreters
B. the conference
C. consecutive interpreters
D. the both
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Question 1: A. concerned B. candied C. travelled D. dried
Question 2: A. combine B. determine C. discipline D. examine
Question 3: A. hospital B. inflation C. policy D. constantly
Question 4: A. garment B. comment C. cement D. even
Question 5: The sink of the South Korean ferry - the Sewol on 16 April 2014 has resulted in
A B
widespread social and political reaction within South Korean.
C D
Question 6: Some people disapprove of keep animals in zoos as they think it is cruel.
A B C D
Question 7: My favorite place in the world is a small city is located on the southern coast of
A B C D
Vietnam.
Question 8: Cong Phuong, ________ 2 goals for Vietnam in the match against Malaysia, is the
star of the 28th SEA Games.
A. score B. who scored C. scores D. scored
Question 9: At first he didn’t agree, but in the end we managed to bring him _______ to our
point of view.
A. over B. up C. back D. round
Question 10: We are ______ no obligation to change goods which were not purchased here.
A. to B. at C. with D. under
Question 11: Although we have a large number of students, each one receives ________
attention.
A. alone B. only C. single D. individual
Question 12: In many countries, education is ________ until the age of sixteen.
A. necessary B. compulsory C. essential D. legal
Question 13: In order to avoid boredom, the most important thing is to keep oneself _______.
A. occupied B. occupation C. occupant D. occupational
Question 14: A giraffe is a _______ animal. It has quite a long neck.
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A. long-neck B. neck long
C. long-necked D. lengthened-neck
Question 15: Ebola virus disease which is ongoing in West Africa is a serve, often fatal illness,
with a case _______ rate of up to 90%.
A. fatality B. dead C. mortal D. dying
Question 16: At the universities of Oxford and Cambridge the _______ of teachers to students is
very high.
A. proportion B. ratio C. percentage D. number
Question 17: According to present law, the authorities can give poachers a serve ________.
A. punishing B. punish C. punishable D. punishment
Question 18: The children had been _______ of the danger, but had taken no notice.
A. prevented B. warned C. explained D. shown
Question 19: We need ________ actions and interventions of the local authorities to prevent
national parks from being destroyed by pollution.
A. excitedly B. threateningly C. approximately D. timely
Question 20: Maria wants to borrow Stephen’s phone.
_ Maria: “Can I use your phone?”
_ Stephen: “________.”
A. I’m afraid so
B. Might as well
C. Be my guest
D. Serves you right
Question 21: Giang has just had his hair cut.
_ Lan: “Your hair style is terrific!”
_Giang: ”________”
A. Yes, that’s alright.
B. Thanks, I had it done this morning.
C. Thanks for the curl.
D. Never mention it.
Question 22: These are all-star, professional teams composed of 22 players each.
A. qualified B. handy C. practiced D. special
Question 23: She is always diplomatic when she deals with angry students.
A. strict B. outspoken C. tactful D. firm
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Question 24: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went
abroad to study.
A. made room for B. put in charge of
C. got in touch with D. lost control of
Question 25: We’d better speed up if we want to get there in time.
A. slow down B. turn down
C. put down D. lie down
Question 26: The doctor said, “You really ought to rest for a few days, Jasmine.”
A. Jasmine’s doctor insisted that she should rest for a few days.
B. The doctor suggested that Jasmine should take a short rest.
C. The doctor strongly advised Jasmine to take a few days’ rest.
D. It is the doctor’s recommendation that Jasmine rested shortly.
Question 27: To be quite honest, I can’t stand the taste of cigarettes.
A. In fact, I strongly dislike the taste of cigarettes.
B. Honestly, cigarettes make me ill.
C. Frankly, the taste of cigarettes doesn’t bother me.
D. As a matter of fact, I prefer to be seated while smoking.
Question 28: “What you have cooked is the best in the world!” John said to his girlfriend.
A. John asked his girlfriend what she had cooked.
B. John told his girlfriend what she had cooked is the best in the world.
C. John congratulated his girlfriend on her cooking.
D. John said to his girlfriend about her cooking.
Question 29: John is studying hard. He doesn’t want to fail the next exam.
A. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam.
B. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam.
C. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.
D. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam.
Question 30: His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious
institution.
A. Being poor academic record at high school, he failed to apply to that prestigious
institution.
B. Since his academic record at high school was poor, he failed to apply to that
prestigious institution.
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C. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that
D. His academic record at high school was poor so he didn’t apply to that prestigious
institution.
35.
Primary and secondary education in Australia are delivered through both government and
non-government providers. State and Territory governments have major responsibility (31)
_________ government schools education and contribute to funds for non-government schools.
(32) ________ students enroll in government schools which operate under the direct
responsibility for the State or Territory Education Minister, while the rest choose non-
government schooling. The Australian Government's role includes the provision of significant
supplementary financial (33) ________ to government and non-government school authorities to
support agreed priorities and strategies. Schooling is (34) _________ from age 6 to 15 in all
States and Territories except Tasmania, where it extends to 16. However, in most States and
Territories, children start primary school at the age of 5 when they enroll in preparatory or
kindergarten year, after which primary education continues for either 6 or 7 years depending on
the State or Territory. Secondary education is available for either 5 or 6 years depending on the
State and the length of primary education. Students usually commence their secondary schooling
when (35) ________ 12 or 13, reaching year 12 at 17 or 18.
Question 31: A. of B. about C. in D. for
Question 32: A. Most B. Mostly C. Almost D. The most
Question 33: A. sponsor B. supply C. support D. problem
Question 34: A. compulsory B. obliged C. must D. necessary
Question 35: A. age B. year C. aged D. at
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needs.
A. Students don’t have to go to school any more.
B. The effect of information technology on education.
C. Students can know about their weak aspects to focus.
D. Computer software will make sure students learn at home.
Question 37: The word “lifelike” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. realistic
B. special
C. suitable
D. likely
weekly?
A. Three
B. No time
C. Once or twice
D. Four
Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Pupils can to work online from home to complete a minimum number of study hour.
B. It is compulsory for students to attend the class at school.
C. Pupils have to sit in a lecture or a library to learn about their field.
D. Pupils must log on time to join live classes in other countries.
A. Find out the best activities for the students.
B. Design materials for the students.
C. Identify weaknesses of the students.
D. Monitor the time the students learn.
Question 41: The word "It" in the second paragraph refers to _________.
A. activity
B. report
C. achievement
D. software
Question 42: What is NOT MENTIONED as a benefit of information technology to the students?
A. Students can learn at times that suit their schedule.
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B. Students can stay at home to learn.
C. Students’ learning time won’t be monitored.
D. Students’ weak achievement can be identified.
THE RUINED TEMPLES OF ANGKOR
The ruined temples of Angkor are perhaps one of the most impressive Seven Wonders of
the World. Located in modern day Cambodia near Lake Tonle Sap, the largest freshwater lake in
Asia, Angkor was the seat of power for the Khmer Empire from the ninth to the most impressive
ones in the world, rivaling the pyramids of Giza in Egypt. Why this mighty civilization died out
is a question that archeologists are now only beginning to ponder. The answer, it turns out, may
be linked with the availability of fresh water.
One possible explanation for the downfall of the Khmer Empire has to do with the
inhabitants’ irrigation system. The temple and palaces of Angkor were constructed around a
series of artificial reservoirs and canals which were annually flooded to capacity by the Mekong
River. Once filled, they were used to irrigate the surrounding rice patties and farmland during the
course of the year. Farmers were completely dependent upon the water for their crucial rice crop.
Without consistent irrigation, the farmers would have been unable to maintain functional crop
production.
Scientists speculate that toward the end of the Khmer Empire the hydraulic systems of the
reservoirs and canals broke down. The construction of hundreds of sandstone temples and
palaces required an enormous amount of physical labor. In addition, as the capital of the Khmer
Empire, Angkor contained upwards of one hundred thousand people who resided in and around
Angkor. In order to feed so many people, the local farmers were driven to grow food quicker and
more efficiently. After centuries of continual use, the irrigation system was pushed beyond its
capacity. Soil erosion, nutrient depletion, and the loss of water led to decrease in the food supply.
With less food available, the people of Angkor slowly began to migrate to other parts of
Cambodia thus leaving the marvellous city of Angkor to be swallowed by the jungle. Therefore,
it is speculated that the Khmer Empire may have fallen victim to its own decrepit infrastructures.
Question 43: According to the passage, Lake Tonle Sap in Cambodia ________.
A. is one of the Seven Wonders of the World
B. is an enormous fresh body of water in Asia
C. was unable to supply enough fish for the people of Angkor
D. became polluted due to a population explosion
Question 44: The word “seat” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. battle
B. chief
C. summit
D. location
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A. Modern day agricultural procedures in Cambodia.
B. A possible explanation for the, decline of a civilization.
C. The essential role water plays in farming.
D. Religious temples of the ancient Khmer Empire.
Question 46: What does the passage preceding most likely discuss?
A. Architecture of ancient Asian civilization.
B. The form of government practiced by the Khmer Empire.
C. The other six wonders of the world.
D. Religious practices of the people of Angkor.
Question 47: The word “reservoirs” in the second paragraph could best be replaced by
________.
A. dams
B. rivers
C. lakes
D. wells
Question 48: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. temples and palaces
B. farmland
C. rice patties
D. reservoirs and canals
Question 49: All the following are mentioned as events that can affect food supply EXCEPT
_________.
A. reduction of nutrients
B. loss of water supply
C. erosion of soil
D. contamination of soil.
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that the inhabitants of the Khmer Empire
_________.
A. lost their food source due to excess rainfall
B. were intentionally starved by the farmers
C. depended upon rice as their main source of food
D. supplemented their diets with 'meat hunted in the nearby jungles
Question 1: A. speaks B. speeds C. photographs D. beliefs
Question 2: A. dune B. hummock C. shrub D. buffalo
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Question 3: A. achievement B. different C. educate D. primary
Question 4: A. sorrow B. schooling C. passion D. subtract
Question 5: Several people have apparent tried to change the man’s mid, but he refuses to listen.
A B C D
Question 6: People are surprising that Saudi Arabia has such a small population in comparison to
A B C
its land and size.
D
Question 7: In can’t stand him. He always disagrees with me of everything I suggest.
A B C D
Question 8: The Red List – a global list of endangered and vulnerable animal species – has been
introduced to _______ people’s awareness of conservation.
A. rise B. raise C. draw D. arise
Question 9: The United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is
a specialized _________ of the United Nations established on November 16, 1945.
A. office B. agency C. company D. enterprise
Question 10: Roger Federer couldn’t _________ the possibility of withdrawing from the
championship because of injury.
A. rule out B. pass over C. come off D. do without
Question 11: The ASEAN Vision 2020 is aimed ________ forging closer economic integration
within the region.
A. to B. for C. of D. at
Question 12: Euro 2016, which is the men’s football _________ of Europe, is scheduled to be
held in France from 10 June to 10 July 2016.
A. championship B. champions C. tournament D. final
Question 13: Anthony Burgess, _________ as a novelist, was originally a student of music.
A. because of being famous B. who has achieved fame
C. who because he was famous D. he achieved fame
Question 14: A lot of children participated in _________ performances.
A. fundraising B. raising-fund
C. fundraise D. funding-raise
Question 15: This company _________ in this town a long time ago. Now it is one of the
biggest.
A. was founded B. has been founded
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C. will be founded D. is founded
Question 16: Mai is a ________. She seldom feels sad or disappointed with her life.
A. pessimist B. pessimistic C. optimistic D. optimist
Question 17: No matter _________, Mozart was an accomplished composer while still a child.
A. how it seems remarkable B. how remarkable it seems
C. it seems remarkable how D. how seems it remarkable
Question 18: It is generally ________ that “Men build the house and women make it home”.
A. believed B. believe C. believing D. believes
Question 19: The population of ASEAN accounts _______ about 8.6% of the world’s
population.
A. of B. for C. in D. from
Question 20: James is asking for the way.
_ James: “_______?”
_ Stranger: “Yeah, down this street, on the left.”
A. Would you like to go by train?
B. Is this a train station?
C. Is there a station near here?
D. How often does the train come?
Question 21: Brian was late for school.
_ Brian: “Sorry, I was late again this morning”
_Peter: ”________”.
A. Yes, I know
B. Well, don’t let it happen again
C. It’s OK
D. No problem
Question 22: As children we were very close, but as we grew up we just drifted apart.
A. not as serious as before B. not as friendly as before
C. not as childlike as before D. not as sympathetic as before
Question 23: His physical conditions was no impediment to his career as a violinist.
A. help B. impatience C. impossibility D. hindrance
Question 24: I’ll be taking an English exam next Monday.
A. sitting for B. writing
C. failing D. giving
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Question 25: Primary education in the United States is compulsory.
A. free of charge B. required
C. excellent D. easy
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Question 26: Jane refused to attend his birthday party, which made him feel sad.
A. Jane made him sad despite her refusal to attend his birthday party.
B. He felt sad not to be able to attend her birthday party.
C. Jane’s refusal to attend his birthday party made him feel sad.
D. Jane to attend his birthday party because it made him sad.
Question 27: Calling Jim is pointless because his phone is out of order.
A. It’s useless calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
B. It’s no use to call Jim because his phone is out of order.
C. There’s no point in calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
D. It’s worth not calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
Question 28: It was only because I owed Bill a favor that I agree to help him.
A. I agree to help Bill only as a favor.
B. I agree to do Bill a favor, by helping him.
C. I only agreed to help Bill because I owed him some money.
D. If I hadn’t owed Bill a favor, I wouldn’t have agreed to help him.
Question 29: Her living conditions were difficult. However, she studied very well.
A. Difficult as her living conditions, she studied very well.
B. She studied very well thanks to the fact that she lived in difficult conditions.
C. She studied very well in spite of her difficult living conditions.
D. Although she lived in difficult conditions, but she studied very well.
Question 30: Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising. They want to increase their
sales.
A. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising, but they want to increase their
sales.
B. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising so that they want to increase their
sales.
C. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising with the aim of increasing their
sales.
D. In order that they want to increase their sales, companies spend millions of dollars on
advertising.
35.
The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in
being an employee? The schools teach a (31) ________ many things of value to the future
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accountant, doctor or electrician. Do they also teach anything of value to the future employee?
Yes, they teach the one thing that it is perhaps most valuable for the future employee to know.
But very few students bother to learn it. This basic is the skill ability to organize and express
ideas in writing and in speaking. This means that your success as an employee will depend on
your ability to communicate with people and to (32) ________ your own thoughts and ideas to
them so they will both understand what you are driving at and be persuaded.
Of course, skill in expression is not enough (33) ________ itself. You must have something
to say in the first place. The effectiveness of your job depends much on your ability to make
other people understand your work as they do on the quality of the work itself.
Expressing one's thoughts is one skill that the school can (34) ________ teach. The
foundations for skill in expression have to be laid early: an interest in and an ear for language;
experience in organizing ideas and data, in brushing aside the irrelevant, and above all the habit
of (35) _______. If you do not lay these foundations during your school years, you may never
have an opportunity again.
Question 31: A. large B. great C. far D. lots
Question 32: A. interpret B. give out C. transfer D. present
Question 33: A. on B. for C. by D. in
Question 34: A. quite B. hardly C. truly D. really
Question 35: A. nonverbal B. nonverbal cues
C. verbal expression D. verbal
Galaxies are the major building blocks of the universe. A galaxy is a giant family of many
millions of stars, and it is held together by its own gravitational field. Most of the material
universe is organized into galaxies of stars, together with gas and dust.
There are three main types of galaxy: spiral, elliptical, and irregular. The Milky Way is a
spiral galaxy: a flattish disc of stars with two spiral arms emerging from its central nucleus.
About one-quarter of all galaxies have this shape. Spiral galaxies are well supplied with the
interstellar gas in which new stars form: as the rotating spiral pattern sweeps around the galaxy it
compresses gas and dust, triggering the formation of bright young stars in its arms. The elliptical
galaxies have a symmetrical elliptical or spheroidal shape with no obvious structure. Most of
their member stars are very old and since ellipticals are devoid of interstellar gas, no new stars
are forming in them. The biggest and brightest galaxies in the universe are ellipticals with masses
of about 1013 times that of the Sun; these giants may frequently be sources of strong radio
emission, in which case they are called radio galaxies. About two-thirds of all galaxies are
elliptical. Irregular galaxies comprise about one-tenth of all galaxies and they come in many
subclasses.
Measurement in space is quite different from measurement on Earth. Some terrestrial
distances can be expressed as intervals of time: the time to fly from one continent to another or
the time it takes to drive to work, for example. By comparison with these familiar yardsticks, the
distances to the galaxies are incomprehensibly large, but they are made more manageable by
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using a time calibration, in this case the distance that light travels in one year. On such a scale
the nearest giant spiral galaxy, the Andromeda galaxy, is two million light years away. The most
distant luminous objects seen by telescopes are probably ten thousand million light years away.
Their light was already halfway here before the Earth even formed. The light from the nearby
Virgo galaxy set out when reptiles still dominated the animal world.
Question 36: The world "major" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. intense
B. principal
C. huge
D. unique
Question 37: What does the second paragraph mainly discuss?
A. The Milky Way.
B. How elliptical galaxies are formed.
C. Major categories of galaxies.
D. Difference between irregular and spiral galaxies.
Question 38: According to the passage, new stars are formed in spiral galaxies in _______.
A. an explosion of gas
B. the combining of old stars
C. the compression of gas and dust
D. strong radio emissions
Question 39: The word "obvious" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. discovered
B. apparent
C. understood
D. simplistic
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true of elliptical galaxies?
A. They are largest galaxies.
B. They contain a high amount of interstellar gas.
C. They mostly contain old stars.
D. They have a spherical shape.
Question 41: What percentage of galaxies are irregular?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
Question 42: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ________.
A. intervals
B. yardsticks
C. distances
D. galaxies
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Tulips are Old World, rather than New World, plants, with the origins of the species lying
in Central Asia. They became an integral part of the gardens of the Ottoman Empire from the
sixteenth century onward, and, soon after, part of European life as well. Holland, in particular,
became famous for its cultivation of the flower.
A tenuous line marked the advance of the tulip to the New World, where it was unknown
in the wild. The first Dutch colonies in North America had been established in New Netherlands
by the Dutch West India Company in 1624, and one individual who settled in New Amsterdam
(today's Manhattan section of New York City) in 1642 described the flowers that bravely
colonized the settlers' gardens. They were the same flowers seen in Dutch still-life paintings of
the time: crown imperials, roses, carnations, and of course tulips. They flourished in
Pennsylvania too, where in 1698 William Penn received a report of John Tateham's "Great and
Stately Palace”, its garden full of tulips.
By 1760, Boston newspapers were advertising 50 different kinds of mixed tulip "roots”.
But the length of the journey between Europe and North America created many difficulties.
Thomas Hancock, an English settler, wrote thanking his plant supplier for a gift of some tulip
bulbs from England, but his letter the following year grumbled that they were all dead.
Tulips arrived in Holland, Michigan, with a later wave of early nineteenth-century Dutch
immigrants who quickly colonized the plains of Michigan. Together with many other Dutch
settlements, such as the one at Pella. Iowa, they established a regular demand for European
plants. The demand was bravely met by a new kind of tulip entrepreneur, the traveling
salesperson. One Dutchman, Hendrick Van Der Schoot, spent six months in 1849 traveling
through the United States taking orders for tulip bulbs. While tulip bulbs were traveling from
Europe to the United States to satisfy the nostalgic longings of homesick English and Dutch
settlers, North American plants were traveling in the opposite direction. In England, the
enthusiasm for American plants was one reason why tulips dropped out of fashion in the gardens
of the rich and famous.
Question 43: Which of the following questions does the passage mainly answer?
A. What is the difference between an Old World and a New World plant?
B. Why are tulips grown in many different parts of the world?
C. How did tulips become popular in North America?
D. Where were the first Dutch colonies in North America located?
Question 44: The word "integral" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. interesting
B. fundamental
C. ornamental
D. overlooked
Question 45: The passage mentions that tulips were first found in which of the following
regions?
A. Central Asia
B. Western Europe
C. India
D. North America
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Question 46: The word "flourished" in this passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. were discovered
B. were marketed
C. combined
D. thrived
Question 47: The author mentions tulip growing in New Netherland, Pennsylvania and Michigan
in order to illustrate how ________.
A. imported tulips were considered more valuable than locally grown tulips
B. tulips were commonly passed as gifts from one family to another
C. tulips grew progressively more popular in North America
D. attitudes toward tulips varied from one location to another
Question 48: The word "grumbled" in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. denied
B. warned
C. complained
D. explained
Question 49: The word "they" in the passage refers to ________.
A. tulips
B. plains
C. immigrants
D. plants
Question 50: According to the passage, which of the following changes occurred in English
gardens during the European settlement of North America?
A. They grew in size in order to provide enough plants to export to the New World.
B. They contained a wider variety of tulips than ever before.
C. They contained many new types of North American plants.
D. They decreased in size on the estates of wealthy people.
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Question 1: A. increased B. pleased C. replaced D. fixed
Question 2: A. doubt B. club C. lamb D. bomber
Question 3: A. uncertainty B. activity C. organize D. gigantic
Question 4: A. selfish B. replace C. involve D. escape
Question 5: A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered
A B C
basic part of the education of every child.
D
Question 6: Computers have made access to information instantly available just by push a few
A B C D
buttons.
Question 7: Any passengers travel to Cambridge should sit in the first two carriages of the train.
A B C D
Question 8: The new song has _______ been selected for Euro 2016.
A. officially B. official C. office D. officer
Question 9: Do you think he is ________ of doing the job?
A. suitable B. able C. competent D. capable
Question 10: A _______ knit community is the one in which relationships are very close.
A. actively B. quickly C. hardly D. close
Question 11: Vietnam sent out eight planes ________ Malaysia missing jet on the East Sea on
March 8,2014.
A. in search of B. in search for C. search for D. in search
Question 12: The manager did not offer her the job because of her untidy ________.
A. sight B. view C. presence D. appearance
Question 13: He is disappointed at not being offered the job, but I think he will _______ it.
A. turn off B. fill in C. get over D. take after
Question 14: The influence of a mother’s love is ________ that of the father’s.
A. of the same important B. of the same important as
C. the same important D. as the same important as
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Question 15: All the cereal grains ________ grow on the prairies and plains of the United States.
A. but for rice B. expecting rice
C. but rice D. except the rice
Question 16: Many young people have objected to ________ marriage, which is decided by the
parents of the bride and groom.
A. agreed B. compulsory C. contractual D. sacrificed
Question 17: Lucy was late for school this morning because the alarm didn’t _______ as usual.
A. ring off B. go off C. get off D. take off
Question 18: Joe is an orphan. He was brought _______ by his aunt.
A. about B. up C. around D. on
Question 19: Cotton shirts feel ________ than polyester ones.
A. much softer B. more softly C. far more softly D. far more softer
Question 20: Jane has just finished up a cup of coffee and some sweets John offered.
_ John: “_______.”
_ Jane: “No, thank you. That’ll be all.”
B. It’s very kind of you to help me.
C. What kind of food do you like?
D. Would you like anything else?
Question 21: Ann thanked Bill for helping her with the presentation.
_ Ann: “Thank you. I couldn’t have finished my presentation without your help.”
_Bill : ”________”.
A. Forget about it. I didn’t mean so.
B. I highly appreciate what you did.
C. Yes, that’s that.
D. Never mind.
Question 22: Childbearing is the women’s most wonderful role.
A. Bring up a child B. Giving birth to a baby
C. Having no child D. Educating a child
Question 23: An interesting feature of this park is the Orphanage where lots of orphaned or
abandoned animals are taken care of.
A. immoral B. wicked C. shameless D. deserted
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Question 24: We all looked up to these fire fighters who put out the terrible fire in our town last
night.
A. respected B. looked forward
C. admired D. looked down on
Question 25: I’d like to pay some money into my bank account.
A. withdraw some money from
B. put some money into
C. give some money out
D. leave some money aside
Question 26: Although he was very tired, he agreed to help his child with his homework.
A. Despite of his tiredness, he was eager to help his child with his homework.
B. Tired as he was, he agreed to help his child with his homework.
C. Even if feeling very tired, he agreed to help his child with his homework.
D. He would have helped his child with his homework if he hadn’t been tired.
Question 27: Much as I respect your point of view, I can’t agree.
A. I can’t agree because I respect your point of view.
B. I respect your point of view, so I agree.
C. Even though I respect your point of view, I can’t agree.
D. I can’t agree with your point of view even if I respect you.
Question 28: “Don’t forget to go to the supermarket after work!” he said.
A. He told me that I shouldn’t forget to go to the supermarket after work.
B. He requested me not to forget to go to the supermarket after work.
C. He reminded me to go to the supermarket after work.
D. He asked me no to forget to go to the supermarket after work.
Question 29: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.
A. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot.
B. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot.
C. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.
D. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.
Question 30: The news was wonderful. As a consequence, we decided to have a celebration.
A. It was such a wonderful news that we decided to have a celebration.
B. We decided to have a celebration so that we heard the news
C. We decided to have a celebration so as to hear wonderful news.
D. It was such wonderful news that we decided to have a celebration.
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35.
Scientists say we clean our teeth the wrong way. Researchers from University College,
London found that most of the advice that dentists give us (31) ________ very different. They
add that we have been cleaning our teeth the wrong way. The researchers looked at tooth-
brushing advice in dental textbooks, toothpaste instructions and dental clinics. They found five
different basic ways of tooth-brushing and decided all of them were incorrect. (32) ________ the
methods involve moving the toothbrush along the teeth, with the brush moving round and round
in small circular movements. The researchers said we should stop doing this and use a back-and-
(33) _________ movement instead.
The research suggests not brushing teeth too much. More than twice a day damages the
enamel on the teeth. The recommended time for brushing is (34) ________ than three minutes
each time. The research also says using too much pressure and brushing your teeth too hard will
also damage teeth. Researchers also advised not cleaning your teeth immediately after eating.
This is (35) _______ acid is strongest in your mouth and this acid will damage teeth. A final
recommendation was to clean the tongue too because it also has a lot of bacteria.
Question 31: A. is B. are C. was D. were
Question 32: A. Every of B. Most of C. Each of D. Any of
Question 33: A. for B. fourth C. forwards D. forth
Question 34: A. not longer B. no more longer
C. no longer D. longer not
Question 35: A. when B. what C. why D. how
England was a powerful country in the world. It had a lot of colonies. In the American
colonies there was little money. England did not supply the colonies with coins and did not allow
the colonies to make their own coins, except for the Massachusetts Bay Colony, which received
permission for a short period in 1652 to make several kinds of silver coins. England wanted to
keep money out of America as a means of controlling trade: America was forced to trade only
with England if it did not have the money to buy products from other countries. The result during
this pre-Revolutionary period was that the colonists used various goods in place of money:
beaver pelts, Indian wampum, and tobacco leaves were all commonly used substitutes for
money. The colonists also made use of any foreign coins they could obtain. Dutch, Spanish,
French, and English coins were all in use in the American colonies.
During the Revolutionary War, funds were needed to finance the war, so each of the
individual states and the Continental Congress issued paper money. So much of this paper
money was printed that, by the end of the war, almost no one would accept it. As a result, trade
in goods and the use of foreign coins still flourished during this period.
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By the time the Revolutionary War had been won by the American colonists, the monetary
system was in a state of total disarray. To remedy this situation, the new Constitution of the
United States, approved in 1789, allowed Congress to issue money. The individual states could
no longer have their own money supply. A few years later, the Coinage Act of 1792 made the
dollar the official currency of the United States and put the country on a bimetallic standard. In
this bimetallic system, both gold and silver were legal money, and the rate of exchange of silver
to gold was fixed by the government at sixteen to one.
Question 36: The passage mainly discusses _______.
A. the effect of the Revolution on American money
B. American money from past to present
C. the English monetary policies in colonial America
D. the American monetary system of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries
Question 37: The passage indicates that during the colonial period, money was ________.
A. used extensively for trade
B. scarce
C. supplied by England
D. coined by colonists
Question 38: The expression “a means of” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by
________.
A. a result of
B. a method of
C. a punishment for
D. an example of
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a substitute for money
during the colonial period?
A. Wampum
B. Cotton
C. Beaver furs
D. Tobacco
Question 40: The pronoun “it” in the second paragraph refers to which of the following?
A. The Continental Congress.
B. Trade in goods.
C. The war.
D. Paper money.
Question 41: The word “remedy” ” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. resolve
B. medicate
C. renew
D. understand
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Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE about the
bimetallic monetary system?
A. Either gold or silver could be used as official money.
B. It was established in 1792.
C. Gold could be exchanged for silver at the rate of sixteen to one.
D. The monetary system was based on two metals.
Fifty-five delegates representing all thirteen states except Rhode Island attended the
Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia from May to September 1787. The delegates had been
instructed by the Continental Congress to revise the old Articles of Confederation, but most
believed that a stronger central government was needed. There were differences, however, about
what structure the government should take and how much influence large states should have.
Virginia was by far the most populous state, with twice as many as people as New York,
four times as many as New Jersey, and ten times as many as Delaware. The leader of the
Virginia delegation, James Madison, had already drawn up a plan for government, which became
known as the Large State Plan. Its essence was that congressional representation would be based
on population. It provided for two or more national executives. The smaller states feared that
under this plan, a few large states would lord over the rest. New Jersey countered with the Small
State Plan. It provided for equal representation for all states in a national legislature and for a
single national executive. Angry debate, heightened by a stifling heat wave, led to deadlock.
A cooling of tempers seemed to come with lower temperatures. The delegates hammered
out an agreement known as the Great Compromise – actually a bundle of shrewd compromises.
They decided that Congress would consist of two houses. The larger states were granted
representation based on population in the lower house, the House of Representatives. The
smaller states were given equal representation in the upper house, the Senate, in which each state
would have two senators regardless of population. It was also agreed that there would be a single
executive, the president. This critical compromise broke the logjam, and from then on, success
seemed within reach.
A. James Madison’s plan to create a stable structure for the government of the United States.
B. The differences in population and relative power between the original states.
C. A disagreement at the Constitutional Convention and a subsequent compromise.
D. The most important points of the Small State Plan.
Question 44: According to the passage, how many states were represented at the Constitutional
Convention?
A. Fourteen
B. Twelve
C. Thirteen
D. Fifty-five
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Question 45: It can be inferred from the passage that the Articles of Confederation ___________.
A. allowed small states to dominate large ones
B. provided for only a weak central government
C. were revised and presented as the Large State Plan
D. were supported by a majority of the delegates at the Convention
Question 46: According to the passage, in 1787 which of the following states had the FEWEST
people?
A. New York
B. Delaware
C. New Jersey
D. Virginia
Question 47: According to the passage, the weather had what effect on the Constitutional
Convention?
A. Cold temperatures made Independence Hall an uncomfortable place to work.
B. Hot weather intensified the debate while cooler weather brought compromise.
C. Bad weather prevented some of the delegates from reaching Philadelphia.
D. Delegates hurried to achieve an agreement before winter arrived.
Question 48: The word “shrewd” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. clever
B. unfair
C. important
D. practical
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as one of the provisions of the
Great Compromise?
A. Each state would have two senators
B. Congress would be divided into two bodies
C. There would be only one national executive
D. The president would be elected by popular vote
Question 50: The author uses the phrase "broke the logjam" to indicate that ___________.
A. the Convention came to a sudden end.
B. the situation had become desperate.
C. the government was nearly bankrupt.
D. some major problems had been solved.
Question 1: A. looks B. knows C. helps D. sits
Question 2: A. machine B. chemistry C. chemical D. chemist
Question 3: A. police B. system C. woman D. novel
Question 4: A. attract B. amaze C. offer D. require
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Question 5: Lan together with her boyfriends are working in groups to find out the solution to
A B C D
that problem.
Question 6: We are talking about our librarian from who we borrowed that book yesterday.
A B C D
Question 7: Today’s temperature is much hotter than yesterday.
A B C D
Question 8: By the time he arrives here tomorrow, they _______ for London.
A. would have left B. will have left C. will left D. are leaving
Question 9: Nowadays, students like playing ________ soccer or volleyball after their school.
A. a B. some C. the D. 0
Question 10: Of the three girls, Hoa is ________.
A. beautiful B. more beautiful
C. the more beautiful D. the most beautiful
Question 11: He asked me and his friends ________ his pens.
A. when did he put B. where he puts
C. where he had put D. where had he put
Question 12: Look! Your book next to the window is wet. You _______ the window last night.
A. must open B. might open
C. should open D. must have opened
Question 13: In most football matches, referees often wear _______ black.
A. in B. for C. with D. on
th
Question 14: On the occasion of 8 March last year, we offered my old form teacher a ________
scarf.
A. red new Japanese silk B. new red silk Japanese
C. new red Japanese silk D. silk red new Japanese
Question 15: They spend a large _______ of time doing their house chore every day.
A. amount B. number C. much D. many
Question 16: His son _______ him so much that we can’t see any differences between them.
A. takes after B. looks up
C. takes in D. looks over
Question 17: My sister in-law is beloved by all my relatives for she can ________ all right after
getting married.
A. get on well with B. get up C. get over D. get out of
Question 18: I was going to leave when something happened, which attracted my ________.
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A. attention B. sympathy C. thought D. surprise
Question 19: My teacher said that I could speak English ________ in six months if I tried my
best.
A. fluent B. fluently C. unfluent D. unfluently
Question 20: Two friends Peter and Lida are talking about pet.
_ Peter: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house.”
_ Lida: “_______.”
A. Nothing more to say
B. You can say that again
C. Yes, I hope so
D. No, dogs are very good, too
Question 21: Tuan and Peter are talking at Tuan’s birthday party.
_ Tuan: “Thank you so much for your lovely present.”
_ Peter: ”________”.
A. Well done.
B. It’s nothing. It’s cheap.
C. You are welcome.
D. You are very kind to me.
Question 22: The World Health Organization was established on April 7th 1948.
A. made up B. built up C. set up D. put up
Question 23: Many young children are spending a large amount of time playing video games
without being aware of their detriment to their school work.
A. harm B. advantage C. support D. benefit
Question 24: The job, which seems arduous to most of the applicants, offers a competitive salary.
A. austere B. effortless C. beneficial D. difficult
Question 25: Many endangered species may die out in few decades if we don’t find out effective
solutions.
A. disappear B. exist C. vanish D. pass away
Question 26: It took me 3 hours to repair the roof.
A. I lasted 3 hours to repair the roof.
B. I have spent 3 hours repaired the roof.
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C. I spent 3 hours repairing the roof.
D. I spent 3 hours to repair the roof.
Question 27: “You should have finished the report by now” the boss said to his secretary.
A. The boss suggested his secretary should have finished the report on time.
B. The boss scolded his secretary for not finishing the report on time.
C. The boss reminded his secretary of finishing the report on time.
D. The boss advised his secretary to finish the report on time.
Question 28: John didn’t install an alarm, so the thieves broke into his house last night.
A. If John installed an alarm, the thieves didn’t break into his house last night.
B. Because John hadn’t installed an alarm, the thieves would break into his house last
night.
C. If John had installed an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t break into his house last night.
D. Had John installed an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t have broken into his house last
night.
Question 29: My father is living with me. My younger sister is living with me, too.
A. Either my father or my younger sister is living with me.
B. Neither my father nor my younger sister is living with me.
C. I live with my father and my younger sister, too.
D. Not only my father but also my younger sister is living with me.
Question 30: He has tried hard. He can’t still earn enough money.
A. Although he has tried hard, but he can’t still earn enough money.
B. No matter how hard he has tried, he can’t still earn enough money.
C. In spite of he has tried hard, he can’t still earn enough money.
D. Despite the fact that trying hard, he can’t still earn enough money.
Read the following passage on climate change, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 38.
Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extremely concerned about the
changes to our climate which are taking place. Admittedly, climate changes have occurred on our
planet before. For example, there have been several ice ages or glacial periods.
These climatic changes, however, were different from the modern ones in that they
occurred gradually and, as far as we know, naturally. The changes currently being monitored are
said to be the result not of natural causes, but of human activity. Furthermore, the rate of change
is becoming alarmingly rapid.
The major problem is that the planet appears to be warming up. According to some experts,
this warming process, known as global warming, is occurring at a rate unprecedented in the last
10,000 years. The implications for the planet are very serious. Rising global temperatures could
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give rise to such ecological disasters as extremely high increases in the incidence of flooding and
of droughts. These in turn could have a harmful effect on agriculture.
It is thought that this unusual warming of the Earth has been caused by so-called
greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, being emitted into the atmosphere by car engines and
modern industrial processes, for example. Such gases not only add to the pollution of the
atmosphere, but also create a greenhouse effect, by which the heat of the sun is trapped. This
leads to the warming up of the planet.
Politicians are also concerned about climate change and there are now regular summits on
the subject, attended by representatives from around 180 of the world’s industrialized countries.
Of these summits, the most important took place in Kyoto in Japan in 1997. There it was agreed
that the most industrialized countries would try to reduce the volume of greenhouse gas
emissions and were given targets for this reduction of emissions.
It was also suggested that more forests should be planted to create so-called sinks to
absorb greenhouse gases. At least part of the problem of rapid climate change has been caused
by too drastic deforestation.
Sadly, the targets are not being met. Even more sadly, global warnings about climate
changes are often still being regarded as scaremongering.
Question 31: According to the passage, in what way did the climate changes in the ice ages differ
from the modern ones?
A. They occurred naturally over a long period of time.
B. They were partly intended.
C. They were wholly the result of human activity.
D. They were fully monitored by humans.
Question 32: The word “alarmingly” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
_________.
A. disapprovingly
B. disappointingly
C. surprisingly
D. worryingly
Question 33: According to the passage, agriculture could _________.
A. make the global warming more serious
B. be indirectly affected by the global temperature rises
C. give rise to many ecological disasters
D. be directly damaged by the rises in global temperature
Question 34: According to the passage, 1997 witnessed _________.
A. the largest number of summits on the subject of climate change
B. the most important summit on climate change taking place in Kyoto, Japan
C. the highest attendance by representatives from 180 industrialized countries
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D. widespread concern about climate change
Question 35: It can be inferred from the passage that the countries which are mainly responsible
for global warming are ________.
A. countries with the warmest climate
B. developing countries
C. developed countries
D. the most industrialized countries
Question 36: The word “There” in the fifth paragraph refers to ________.
A. the world’s industrialized countries
B. regular summits on climate change
C. the most industrialized countries
D. the 1997 summit in Kyoto, Japan
Question 37: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Carbon dioxide is one of the gases that may cause the so-called greenhouse effect.
B. The so-called sinks created by forests can absorb greenhouse gases.
C. The problem of rapid climate change has been caused mainly by deforestation.
D. Politicians are among those who are concerned about climate change.
Question 38: What is probably the writer’s attitude toward global warning?
A. Optimistic
B. Pessimistic
C. Neutral
D. Positive
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 39 to 43.
Women nowadays have more advantages than those in the past. For example, our great
grandmothers were not allowed to go to school or to work (39) _______ their own living. (40)
_______, they had to depend on their husbands financially. Modern women, on the contrary, can
get good education, have their own careers, and pursue their interests. They can even take good
positions in politics if they are competent at it. However, women living in our modern society
have their problems too. Today women work harder than their great grandmothers so that they
can gain the balance between working life (41) _______ family life. Many people predict that by
2032, most senior positions at work will be taken by women. Then, it is possible that women will
have more strenuous life because, (42) ________ in a very modern society, the women can’t (43)
________ their role in the family.
Question 39: A. to do B. to earn C. to make D. to produce
Question 40: A. Therefore B. However C. As a result D. Although
Question 41: A. so B. and C. for D. but
Question 42: A. though B. even C. ever D. never
Question 43: A. perform B. adopt C. fulfill D. neglect
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Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered
unusual not to use one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They
find that the phones are means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are
cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals
worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems
from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue.
Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that
there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people
who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with
modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because
of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the
name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every
day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use,
but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-
tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone
companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry
about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones
less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone
only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in
emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for
your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.
Question 44: According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with young people
because ________.
A. they are indispensable in everyday communications.
B. they make them look more stylish.
C. they keep the users alert all the time.
D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones.
Question 45: The changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with
_________.
A. the mobility of the mind and the body
B. the smallest units of the brain
C. the arteries of the brain
D. the resident memory
Question 46: The word "means" in the passage most closely means ________.
A. meanings
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B. expression
C. methods
D. transmission
Question 47: "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means ________.
A. information on the lethal effects of cellphones
B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cellphones
C. the negative public use of cellphones
D. poor ideas about the effects of cellphones
Question 48: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cellphone too often ________.
A. suffered serious loss of mental ability.
B. could no longer think lucidly
C. abandoned his family
D. had a problem with memory
Question 49: According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is
________.
A. their radiant light
B. their power of attraction
C. their raiding power
D. their power of attraction
Question 50: The most suitable title for the passage could be _________.
A. “The reasons why mobile phones are popular”
B. “Technological innovations and their price”
C. “The way mobile phones work”
D. “Mobile phones - a must of our time”
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Question 1: A. linked B. declared C. finished D. developed
Question 2: A. heavy B. head C. weather D. easy
Question 3: A. delicate B. promotion C. volcanic D. resources
Question 4: A. figure B. ever C. apply D. happy
Question 5: My father asked me where had I gone the night before.
A B C D
Question 6: The harder he tried, the worst he danced before the large audience.
A B C D
Question 7: Each of the members of the group were made to write a report every week.
A B C D
Question 8: I don’t think that this fashion will catch ________.
A. on B. up C. out D. over
Question 9: Next week when there ______ a full moon, the ocean tide will be higher.
A. is B. will be C. is being D. will have been
Question 10: ______ is the natural environment in which plants or animals live.
A. Ecology B. Habitat C. Extinction D. Biodiversity
Question 11: They would _______ go by air than travel by train.
A. always B. better C. prefer D. rather
Question 12: Staying in a hotel costs _______ renting a room in a dormitory for a week.
A. as much as twice B. twice as much as
C. twice more than D. twice as
Question 13: Jim painted the gate ______ than his father did 2 years ago.
A. badly B. bad C. worst D. worse
Question 14: She waited for twenty minutes and _______ arrived at the head of the queue.
A. lastly B. finally C. at the end D. eventual
Question 15: ________ could only have been made by someone totally incompetent.
A. So serious in this mistake B. How serious a mistake
C. So serious a mistake D. Such serious mistake
Question 16: A few animals sometimes fool their enemies ________ to be dead.
A. have been appearing B. to be appearing
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C. to appear D. by appearing
Question 17: I have no idea how to _______ this kind of business.
A. make B. turn C. take D. run
Question 18: “ My secretary will book you an afternoon flight and have you ______ at the
airport”.
A. to pick up B. picked up C. pick up D. picking up
Question 19: Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by _______ rocking chair.
A. a wooden old beautiful European B. a beautiful old European wooden
C. an old beautiful wooden European D. an old wooden European beautiful
Question 20: _ Tony: “I’d like to place an order for delivery, please.”
_ Diana: “_______.”
A. Sure, what would you like?
B. Sure, what time is it?
C. We actually take orders at five
D. Sure, how much is it?
Question 21: _ Albert: “This dish is really nice!”
_Bill : ”________. It’s called yakitori, and it’s made with chicken livers”.
A. It’s my pleasure.
B. Sure, I’ll be glad to.
C. I’m glad you like it.
D. I guess you are right.
A. happen B. encounter C. arrive D. clean
Question 23: Billy, come and give me a hand with cooking.
A. help B. prepared C. be busy D. attempt
Question 24: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at
the annual meeting in May.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. measurement D. encouragement
Question 25: We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.
A. uninterested B. unsure C. open D. slow
Question 26: Their dog was so fierce that nobody would visit them.
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A. Their dog was too fierce to visit.
B. They had so fierce a dog that nobody would visit them.
C. They had a such fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
D. They had a so fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
Question 27: My mother had the house decorated.
A. The house was decorated by my mother.
B. My mother had someone decorated the house.
C. My mother had to decorate the house.
D. My mother has just decorated the house.
Question 28: The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
A. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
B. It was midnight that the noise next door stopped.
C. Not until after midnight did the noise next door stopped.
D. The noise next door stopped at midnight.
Question 29: I’d prefer him not to have said all those embarrassing things about me.
A. I’d prefer him not saying all those embarrassing things about me.
B. I’d sooner he hadn’t said all those embarrassing things about me.
C. I’d rather he didn’t say all those embarrassing things about me.
D. I’d not prefer his saying all those embarrassing things about me.
Question 30: Nobody at all came to the meeting.
A. Not many people came to the meeting.
B. Not a single person came to the meeting.
C. There was almost nobody at the meeting.
D. Only a few people came to the meeting.
35.
At the beginning of the nineteenth century, the American educational system was
desperately in need of reform. Private schools existed, but only for the very rich. There were
very few public schools because of the strong sentiment that children who would grow up to be
laborers should not "waste" their time on education but should instead prepare themselves for
their life's work. It was in the face of this public sentiment that educational reformers set about
their task. Horace Mann, probably the most famous of the reformers, felt that there was no
excuse in a republic for any citizen to be uneducated. Education is important (31) ________ it
helps people get more out of life. It increases their knowledge and understanding of the world. It
helps them acquire the skills that make life more interesting and enjoyable, (32) ________ the
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skills needed to participate in a sport, paint a picture, or play a musical instrument. Such
education becomes (33) _________ important as people gain more and leisure time.
social changes today take place with increasing speed and (34) ________ the lives of more and
more people. Education can help a person understand these changes and provide him (35)
________ the skills for adjusting to them.
Question 32: A. such as B. for instance C. such that D. for example
Question 33: A. increased B. increasing C. increase D. increasingly
Question 34: A. effect B. affect C. affective D. effective
Question 35: A. with B. for C. in D. to
The goal of Internet-based encyclopedia Wikipedia (www.wikipedia.org) is to give
everyone on the planet access to information. Like other encyclopedias, Wikipedia contains lots
of information: more than 2.5 million articles in 200 different languages covering just about
every subject. Unlike other encyclopedias, however, Wikipedia is not written by experts, but by
ordinary people. These writers are not paid and their names are not published. They contribute to
Wikipedia simply because they want to share their knowledge.
Encyclopedias began in ancient times as collections of writings about all aspects of human
knowledge. The word itself comes from ancient Greek, and means “a complete general
education”. Real popularity for encyclopedias came in the nineteenth century in Europe and the
United States, with the publication of encyclopedias written for ordinary readers. With the
invention of the CD-ROM, the same amount of information could be put on a few computer
discs. Then with the Internet, it became possible to create an online encyclopedia that could be
constantly updated, like Microsoft’s Encarta. However, even Internet-based encyclopedias like
Encarta were written by paid experts. At first, Wikipedia, the brainchild of Jimmy Wales, a
businessman in Chicago, was not so different from these. In 2001, he had the idea for an
Internet-based encyclopedia that would provide information quickly and easily to everyone.
Furthermore, that information would be available free, unlike other Internet encyclopedias at that
time.
But Wales, like everyone else, believed that people with special knowledge were needed to
write the articles, and so he began by hiring experts. He soon changed his approach, however, as
it took them a long time to finish their work. He decided to open up the encyclopedia in a radical
new way, so that everyone would have access not only to the information, but also to the process
of putting this information online. To do this, he used what is known as “Wiki” software (from
the Hawaiian word for “fast”), which allows users to create or alter content on web page. The
system is very simple: When you open the web site, you can simply search for information or
you can log on to become a writer or editor of articles. If you find an article that interests you –
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about your hometown, for example – you can correct it or expand it. This process goes on until
no one is interested in making any more changes.
Question 36: Wikipedia is written by________.
A. paid written
B. millionaires
C. normal people
D. world experts
Question 37: The phrase “the word” in the second paragraph refers to_______.
A. knowledge
B. encyclopedia
C. writing
D. collection
Question 38: Microsoft’s Encarta is cited in the passage as an example of _______.
A. CD-ROM dictionary
B. printed encyclopedia
C. online encyclopedia
D. updateable online encyclopedia
Question 39: The word “brainchild” in the second paragraph of the passage can be best replaced
by_______.
A. born
B. child
C. product
D. father
Question 40: The user of Wikipedia can do all of the following EXCEPT_______.
A. have access to information.
B. determinate the website
C. modify information
D. edit information
Question 41: We can say that Jimmy Wales________.
A. became very famous after the formation of Wikipedia
B. is the father of Wikipedia
C. made a great profit from Wikipedia
D. decides who can use Wikipedia
Question 42: Wikipedia is a(n) _______.
A. book
B. journal
C. article
D. dictionary
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In addition to providing energy, fats have other functions in the body. The fat-soluble
vitamins, A, D, E, and K, are dissolved in fats, as their name implies. Good source of these
vitamins have high oil or fat content, and the vitamins are stored in the body's fatty tissues. In the
diet, fats cause food to remain longer in the stomach, thus increasing the feeling of fullness for
some time after a meal is eaten.
Fats add variety, taste and texture to foods, which accounts for the popularity of fried
foods. Fatty deposits in body have an insulating and protective value. The curves of the human
female body are due mostly to strategically located fat deposits. Whether a certain amount of fat
in the diet is essential to human health is not definitely known. When rats are fed a fat-free diet,
their growth eventually ceases, their skin becomes inflamed and scaly and their reproductive
systems are damaged. Two fatty acids, linoleic and arachidonic acids, prevent these
abnormalities and hence are called essential fatty acids. They are also required by a number of
other animals, but their roles in human beings are debatable. Most nutritionists consider linoleic
fatty acid an essential nutrient for humans.
Question 43: The word “functions” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. forms
B. needs
C. jobs
D. sources
Question 44: All of the following vitamins are stored in the body's fatty tissues except
_________.
A. vitamin A
B. vitamin D
C. vitamin B
D. vitamin E
Question 45: The phrase “stored in” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. manufactured
B. attached
C. measured by
D. accumulated in
Question 46: The author states that fats serve all of the following body functions except to
_______.
A. promote the feeling of fullness
B. insulate and protect the body
C. provide energy
D. control weight gain
Question 47: Which of the following is true for rats when they are fed a fat-free diet?
A. They stop growing
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B. They have more babies
C. They lose body hair
D. They require less care
Question 48: Linoleic fatty acid is mentioned as _______.
A. an essential nutrient for humans
B. more useful than arachidonic acid
C. prevent weight gain in rats
D. a nutrient found in most foods
Question 49: The phrases “abnormalities” refers to ________.
A. a condition caused by fried foods
B. strategically located fat deposits
C. curves of the human female body
D. end of growth, bad skin, and damaged reproductive systems
Question 50: That humans should all have some fat in our diets is ________.
A. a commonly held view
B. not yet a proven fact
C. only true for women
D. proven to be true by experiments on rats
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Question 1: A. study B. apply C. rely D. supply
Question 2: A. sports B. enthusiasts C. games D. thanks
Question 3: A. engage B. ceremony C. majority D. maintain
Question 4: A. original B. responsible C. reasonable D. comparison
Question 5: The longest mountain range, the Mid-Atlantic Range, is not hardly visible because
A B
most of it lies under the ocean.
C D
Question 6: A galaxy, where may include billions of stars, is help together by gravitation
A B C D
attraction.
Question 7: Because of the expense of traditional fuels and the concern that they run out, many
A B C
countries have been investigating alternative sources of power.
D
Question 8: Harry Potter books, which ________ by J.K. Rowling, are very popular with
children around the world.
A. were written B. will write
C. will be written D. wrote
Question 9: ASEAN helps to ________ regional cooperation in Southeast Asia in the spirit of
equality and partnership.
A. invest B. promote C. advocate D. invest
Question 10: When Lava reaches the surface, its temperature can be ten times ________ boiling
water.
A. the temperature B. that of C. it is D. more
Question 11: Louis Pasteur invented the process of pasteurization and developed vaccines for
several disease _________ rabies.
A. include B. included C. including D. inclusive
Question 12: We benefit greatly ________ the medicines and other products that biodiversity
provides.
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A. from B. without C. for D. at
Question 13: ________ animals have a blood temperature which varies with the temperature of
the surroundings.
A. Cold-blooding B. Cold-blooded
C. Blooded-cold D. Blooding cold
Question 14: _______ wants to take the GCSE ‘A’ Level has to achieve high grades at the
GCSE examination.
A. One B. Who C. Whoever D. Those who
Question 15: ________ squeeze, the orange juice in a serving provides twice the minimum daily
requirement for Vitamin C.
A. It is freshly B. If freshly
C. You freshly D. If it freshly
Question 16: In American history, never before Richard Nixon ________ from the office.
A. any president resigned B. any president had resigned
C. had any president resigned D. was any president resigned
Question 17: Scientists are now beginning to carry out experiment on ________ trigger different
sorts of health risk.
A. noise pollution can B. that noise pollution
C. how noise pollution D. how noise pollution can
Question 18: Rowing is the act of propelling a boat with ________.
A. sticks B. clubs C. oars D. bats
Question 19: Bioluminescent animals _______ the water or on land.
A. live B. are living either
C. they are found in D. can be found in
Question 20: _ Jane: “Are you interested in scuba diving?”
_ Janet: “_______.”
A. Very. Undersea life is being strongly contaminated.
B. Very. Undersea life is fascinating
C. Not any. Undersea life is too expensive
D. Well, things are much different, now
Question 21: _ Tom: “I think married women should not go to work”
_Cindy: ”________. It’s too boring to be housewives all their lives”
A. Perhaps, I’m not sure.
B. I can’t agree with you more.
C. That’s right.
D. I don’t agree.
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Question 22: It is believed that the plane crash was caused by electrical malfunction of its
navigation system.
A. breaking down B. breaking up
C. breaking through D. breaking in
Question 23: The emergence of supersonic travel opened new horizons for the military, tourism,
and commerce.
A. profitability B. urgency C. appearance D. explosion
Question 24: In those days, the Standard Oil Company did not deliver oil to the consumer in big
wagons and motor trucks as it does, but delivered instead to retail process, hardware stores, and
the like.
A. in big quantities B. in small quantities
C. by the gross D. at bargaining price
Question 25: The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary
measures
A. damaging B. beneficial C. severe D. physical
Question 26: “ If I were you, I would do morning exercise regularly.” said John.
A. John asked me to do morning exercise regularly.
B. John prevented me from doing morning exercise regularly.
C. John advised me to do morning exercise regularly.
D. John congratulated me on doing morning exercise regularly.
Question 27: Without transportation, our modern society would not exist.
A. If there were no transportation, our modern society would not exist.
B. If transportation no longer exists, our modern society will not either.
C. Our modern society will not exist without having traffic.
D. Our modern society does not exist if there is no transportation.
Question 28: John used to write home once a week when he was abroad.
A. John doesn’t now write home once a week any longer.
B. John enjoyed writing home every week when he was abroad.
C. John never forgot to write a weekly letter home when he was abroad.
D. When he was abroad he remembered to write home every week.
Question 29: My father doesn’t smoke. He doesn’t drink, either.
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A. My father not only smokes but also drinks.
B. My father doesn’t smoke but he drinks.
C. My father enjoys smoking and drinking.
D. My father neither smokes nor drinks.
Question 30: It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.
B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
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35.
EARLY WRITING AND ALPHABETS
When people first began to write, they did not use an alphabet. Instead, they drew small
pictures to (31) ________ the objects they were writing about. This was very slow because there
was a different picture for every word.
The Ancient Egyptians had a system of picture writing that was called hieroglyphics. The
meaning of this writing was forgotten for a very long time but in 1799 some scientists (32)
________ a stone near Alexandria, in Egypt. The stone had been there for (33) ________ a
thousand years. It had both Greek and hieroglyphics on it and researchers were finally able to
understand what the hieroglyphics meant.
An alphabet is quite different from picture writing. It (34) ________ of letters or symbols
that represent a sound and each sound is just part of one word. The Phoenicians, who lived about
3,000 years ago, developed the modern alphabets. It was later improved by the Roman’s and this
alphabet is now used (35) ________ throughout the world.
Question 31: A. notice B. convey C. appear D. mark
Question 32: A. discovered B. realized
C. delivered D. invented
Question 33: A. quite B. more C. over D. already
Question 34: A. consists B. includes C. contains D. involves
Question 35: A. broadly B. widely C. deeply D. hugely
Smallpox was the first widespread disease to be eliminated by human intervention. In May,
1966, the World Health Organization (WHO), an agency of the United Nations was authorized to
initiate a global campaign to eradicate smallpox. The goal was to eliminate the disease in one
decade. At the time, the disease posed a serious threat to people in more than thirty nations.
Because similar projects for malaria and yellow fever had failed, few believed that smallpox
could actually be eradicated but eleven years after the initial organization of the campaign, no
cases were reported in the field.
The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations but also to isolate patients with
active smallpox in order to contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of human
transmission. Rewards for reporting smallpox assisted in motivating removed from contact with
others and treated. At the same time, the entire village where the victim had lived was
vaccinated.
By April of 1978 WHO officials announced that they had isolated the last known case of
the disease but health workers continued to search for new cases for additional years to be
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completely sure. In May, 1980, a formal statement was made to the global community. Today
smallpox is no longer a threat to humanity. Routine vaccinations have been stopped worldwide
Question 36: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The World Health Organization
B. The Eradication of Smallpox
C. Smallpox Vaccinations
D. Infectious Disease
Question 37: The word “isolated” in bold in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
________.
A. restored
B. separated
C. attended
D. located
Question 38: What was the goal of the campaign against smallpox?
A. to decrease the spread of smallpox worldwide.
B. to eliminate smallpox worldwide in ten years.
C. to provide mass vaccinations against smallpox worldwide.
D. to initiate worldwide projects for smallpox, malaria and yellow fever at the same time.
Question 39: According to the passage, what was the strategy used to eliminate the spread of
smallpox?
A. Vaccinations of entire villages.
B. Treatments of individual victims.
C. Isolation of victims and mass vaccinations.
D. Extensive reporting of outbreak.
Question 40: How was the public motivated to help health workers?
A. By educating them.
B. By rewarding them for reporting cases.
C. By isolating them from others.
D. By giving them vaccination.
Question 41: The word “they” in bold in the last paragraph refers to ________.
A. health workers
B. officials
C. victims
D. cases
Question 42: Which statement does not refer to Smallpox?
A. Previous projects had failed.
B. People are no longer vaccinated for it.
C. The WHO mounted a worldwide campaign to eradicate the disease.
D. It was a serious threat.
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We live in a world of tired, sleep deprived people. In his book Counting Sheep, Paul Martin
– a behavioral biologist – describes a society which is just too busy to sleep and which does not
give sleeping the importance it deserves.
Modern society has invented reasons not to sleep. We are now a 24/7 society where shops
and services must be available all hours. We spend longer hours at work than we used to, and
more time getting to work. Mobile phones and email allow us to stay in touch round the clock
and late-night TV and the Internet tempt us away from our beds. When we need more time for
work or pleasure, the easy solution is to sleep less. The average adult sleeps only 6.2 hours a
night during the week, whereas research shows that most people need eight or even eight and a
half hours’ sleep to feel at their best. Nowadays, many people have got used to sleeping less than
they need and they live in an almost permanent state of ‘sleep debt’.
Until the invention of the electric light in 1879 our daily cycle of sleep used to depend on
the hours of daylight. People would get up with the sun and go to bed at nightfall. But nowadays
our hours of sleep are mainly determined by our working hours (or our social life) and most
people are woken up artificially by an alarm clock. During the day caffeine, the world’s most
popular drug, helps to keep us awake. 75% of the world’s population habitually consume
caffeine, which up to a point masks the symptoms of sleep deprivation.
What does a chronic lack of sleep do to us? As well as making us irritable and unhappy as
humans, it also reduces our motivation and ability to work. This has serious implications for
society in general. Doctors, for example, are often chronically sleep deprived, especially when
they are on ‘night call’, and may get less than three hours’ sleep. Lack of sleep can seriously
impair their mood, judgment, and ability to take decisions. Tired engineers, in the early hours of
the morning, made a series of mistakes with catastrophic results. On our roads and motorways
lack of sleep kills thousands of people every year. Tests show that a tired driver can be just as
dangerous as a drunken driver. However, driving when drunk is against the law but driving when
exhausted isn’t. As Paul Martin says, it is very ironic that we admire people who function on
very little sleep instead of criticizing them for being irresponsible. Our world would be a much
safer, happier place if everyone, whatever their job, slept eight hours a night.
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE about Paul
Martin?
A. He shows his concern for sleep deprivation in modern society.
B. He gives an interesting account of a sleepless society.
C. He is a scientist who is chronically deprived of sleep.
D. He describes the modern world as a place without insomnia.
Question 44: The phrase “round the clock” in the second paragraph is similar in meaning
to________.
A. all day and night
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B. surrounded with clocks
C. during the daytime
D. having a round clock
Question 45: The writer mentions the Internet in the passage as ________.
A. a temptation that prevents us from sleeping
B. an easy solution to sleep deprivation
C. an ineffective means of communication
D. a factor that is not related to sleep deprivation
Question 46: According to the third paragraph, which of the following statements is NOT
TRUE?
A. Our social life has no influence on our hours of sleep.
B. The sun obviously determined our daily routines.
C. The electric light was invented in the 19th century.
D. The electric light has changed our daily cycle of sleep
Question 47: The word “which” in the third paragraph refers to ________.
A. reaching a point
B. masking the symptoms
C. the world’s population
D. caffeine consumption
Question 48: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the last paragraph?
A. Doctors ‘on night call’ do not need more than three hours of sleep a day.
B. Our motivation decreases with the bigger number of hours we sleep.
C. Sleep deprivation has negative effects on both individuals and society.
D. Thousands of people are killed every day by drunken drivers.
Question 49: The word “catastrophic” in the last paragraph probably means ________.
A. bound to bring satisfaction
B. becoming more noticeable
C. causing serious damage or loss
D. likely to become worthless
Question 50: Which of the following would the writer of the passage approve of?
A. Our world would be a much safer place without drinkers.
B. Both drunken drivers and sleep-deprived people should be criticized.
C. There is no point in criticizing irresponsible people in our society.
D. We certainly can function well even when we hardly sleep.
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Question 1: A. sacrificed B. trusted C. recorded D. acted
Question 2: A. cooks B. loves C. joins D. spends
Question 3: A. person B. attract C. signal D. instance
Question 4: A. situation B. appropriate C. informality D. entertainment
Question 5: In some countries in Europe, teachers are allowed giving children some
A B C
homework only at weekends.
D
Question 6: Elizabeth Blackwell was born on England in 1821 and emigrated to New York City
A B C D
when she was ten years old.
Question 7: 1.6 billion gallons were sold every year, in over one hundred and sixty countries.
A B C D
Question 8: _________ he is old, he wants to travel around the world.
A. In spite of B. Although C. Despite D. Because
Question 9: Had I studied harder, I _________ better in the last exam.
A. would do B. would have done
C. had done D. wouldn’t have done
Question 10: The larger the apartment is, the ________ the rent is.
A. expensive B. more expensive
C. expensively D. most expensive
Question 11: Nam wanted to know what time ________.
A. the movie began B. the movie begins
C. does the movie begin D. did the movie begin
Question 12: Last week, our class went to Ha Long Bay for a picnic, _________ made us very
happy then.
A. which B. that C. it D. of which
Question 13: Lenses, ________, are used to correct imperfections in eyesight.

A. are the forms of glasses and contact lenses
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B. in the forms of glasses and contact lenses
C. glasses and contact lenses which form
D. glasses and contact lenses may be formed
Question 14: That beautiful girl died of an ________ morphine.
A. overweight B. overhear
C. overdo D. overdose
Question 15: I suggest the room ________ before Christmas.
A. be decorated B. is decorated
C. were decorated D. should decorated
Question 16: Many species of plants and animals are in ________ of extinction.
A. dangerous B. endangered C. danger D. dangerously
Question 17: The last person _______ the room must turn off the lights.
A. to leave B. who leave
C. that leave D. leaves
Question 18: Nowadays women ________ the same wages as men.
A. should pay B. will be paid
C. will pay D. should be paid
Question 19: I know we had an argument, but now I’d quite like to ________.
A. look down B. make up C. fall out D. bring up
Question 20: Two friends Jane and Tony are working when Jane’s laptop collapse.
_ Jane: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?”
_ Tony: “_______.”
A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job
B. Yes, you can use it
C. Of course OK. I still need it now
D. Yes, it’s all right
Question 21: Two friends Lan and Binh meet at the school yard.
_ Lan: “What’s the matter? You don’t look very well.”
_Binh: ” I feel a little ________.”
A. out of the blue
B. under the weather
C. out of order
D. under the impression
Question 22: As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and
fauna of the island.
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A. fruits and vegetables B. flowers and trees
C. plants and animals D. mountains and forests
Question 23: “It is a really difficult matter to decide how to solve now. I will need time to think
it over”
A. to sleep on it B. to make it better
C. to make up for it D. to think out of time
Question 24: When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on the air.
A. feeling extremely unhappy B. extremely light
C. feeling extremely airy D. extremely happy
Question 25: John was so insubordinate that he lost his job in one week.
A. understanding B. fresh C. obedient D. disobedient
Question 26: Exhaustion prevented any of the runners from finishing the race.
A. The runners can’t finish the race as a result of their exhaustion.
B. The runners are so exhausted that they can’t finish the race.
C. The runners were not exhausted enough to finish the race.
D. So exhausted were the runners that none of them finished the race.
Question 27: Derek is quite a bit more adventurous than his sister, Annabelle.
A. Annabelle is considerable more adventurous than her brother, Derek.
B. Annabelle isn’t as nearly adventurous as her brother, Derek.
C. Derek isn’t so nearly adventurous as his sister, Annabelle.
D. Annabelle isn’t nearly as adventurous as her brother, Derek.
Question 28: No one except for Jake has ever beaten me at the game of chess.
A. I am the only person who has ever beaten Jake in the game of chess.
B. I have ever beaten everyone except for Jake at the game of chess.
C. Jake is the only one ever to beat me at the game of chess.
D. No one but Jake has ever been beaten at the game of chess.
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Question 30: We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.
C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.
D. Because the climate was so serve, we were worried about what we’d do at night.
35.
The current global extinction rate is (31) ________ at about 20,000 species per year,
exponentially greater than the background extinction rate. Many biologists believe that we are in
the middle of the greatest mass extinction episode since the (32) ________ of the dinosaurs 65
million years ago.
From what is known about present-day populations and from evolutionary theory, the
change in either the physical (33) _________ the biological environment is the key to extinction.
However, the vulnerability of a species depends on a wide variety of factors, such as its total
population size, geographical (34) ________, reproductive ability, ecological relations with other
species, and genetic characteristics. For example, more emphasis is put on the greater
vulnerability of species that reproduce slowly as contrasted with those that reproduce (35)
________. Other factors, such as food-plant specialization, may make many fast reproducers
more vulnerable than species that reproduce more slowly. No matter how fast an insect species
that depends on a certain plan can reproduce; it will still go extinct if that plant's habitat is
destroyed.
Question 31: A. increased B. distributed C. estimated D. added
Question 32: A. disappearance B. remain
C. disposal D. limitation
Question 33: A. so B. and C. nor D. or
Question 34: A. opportunity B. follow
C. spread D. distribution
Question 35: A. rapidly B. cheaply C. cheerfully D. lastly
The Winterthur Museum is a collection and a house. There are many museums devoted to
the decorative arts and many house museums, but rarely in the United States is a great collection
displayed in a great country house. Passing through successive generations of a single family,
Winterthur has been a private estate for more than a century. Even after the extensive
renovations made to it between 1929 and 1931, the importance to the atmosphere and effect of
the museum. The impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the visitor; the rooms look as if
they were vacated only a short while ago whether by the original owners of the furniture of the
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most recent residents of the house can be a matter of personal interpretation. Winterthur remains,
then, a house in which a collection of furniture and architectural elements has been assembled.
Like an English country house, it is an organic structure; the house, as well as the collection and
manner of displaying it to the visitor, has changed over the years. The changes have coincided
with developing concepts of the American arts, increased knowledge on the part of collectors
and students, and a progression toward the achievement of a historical effect in period-room
displays. The rooms at Winterthur have followed this current, yet still retained the character of a
private house.
The concept of a period room as a display technique has developed gradually over the
years in an effort to present works of art in a context that would show them to grater effect and
would give them more meaning for the viewer. Comparable to the habitat group in a natural
history museum, the period room represents the decorative arts in a lively and interesting manner
and provides an opportunity to assemble objects related by style, date, or place of manufacture.
A. Historical furniture contained in Winterthur.
B. How Winterthur compares to English country houses.
C. Elements that make Winterthur an unusual museum.
D. The reason that Winterthur was redesigned.
Question 37: What happened at Winterthur between 1929 and 1931?
A. The old furniture was replaced.
B. The estate became a museum.
C. The owners moved out.
D. The house was repaired.
Question 38: The word “assembled” in line 9 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. summoned
B. appreciated
C. fundamentally changed
D. brought together
Question 39: The word “it” in line 11 refers to ________.
A. collection
B. English country house
C. visitor
D. Winterthur
Question 40: According to the passage, objects in a period room are related by all of the
following EXCEPT _________.
A. place of manufacture
B. date
C. past ownership
D. style
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Question 41: What is the relationship between the two paragraphs in the passage?
A. The second paragraph of explains a philosophy art appreciation that contrasts with the
philosophy explained in the first paragraph.
B. The second paragraph explains a term that was mentioned in the first paragraph.
C. Each paragraph describes a different historical period.
D. Each paragraph describes a different approach to the display of objects in a museum.
Question 42: Where is the passage does the author explain why displays at Winterthur have
changed?
A. lines 6-8
B. lines 4-5
C. lines 1-2
D. lines 10-12
Universally acclaimed as America's greatest playwright, Eugene O'Neill was born in 1888
in the heart of the theater district in New York City. As the son of an actor he had early exposure
to the world of the theater. He attended Princeton University briefly in 1906, but returned to New
York to work in a variety of jobs before joining the crew of a freighter as a seaman. Upon
returning from voyages to South Africa and South America, he was hospitalized for six months
to recuperate from tuberculosis. While he was recovering, he determined to write a play about
his adventures on the sea. He went to Harvard, where he wrote the one-act Bound East for
Cardiff. It was produced on Cape Cod by the Provincetown Players, an experimental theater
group that was later to settle in the famous Greenwich Village theater district in New York City.
The Players produced several more of his one-acts in the years between 1916-1920. With the
full-length play Beyond the Horizon, produced on Broadway in 1920, O'Neill's success was
assured. The play won the Pulitzer prize for the best play of the year. O'Neill was to be awarded
the prize again in 1922, 1928, and 1957 for Anna Christie, Strange Interlude, and Long Day's
Journey Into Night. Although he didn't receive the Pulitzer prize for it, Mourning becomes
Electra, produced in 1931,is arguably his most lasting contribution to the American theatre. In
1936, he was awarded the Nobel Prize.
O'Neill's plays, forty-five in all, cover a wide range of dramatic subjects, but several
themes emerge, including the ambivalence of family relationships, the struggle between the
sexes, the conflict between spiritual and material desires, and the vision of modern man as a
victim of uncontrollable circumstances. Most of O'Neill's characters are seeking for meaning in
their lives. According to his biographers, most of the characters were portraits of himself and his
family. In a sense, his work chronicled his life.
Question 43: This passage is a summary of O'Neill's ________.
A. work and life
B. life
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C. family
D. work
Question 44: How many times was O'Neill awarded the Pulitzer Prize?
A. Five
B. Three
C. Four
D. One
Question 45: The word "briefly" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to________.
A. without enthusiasm
B. on scholarship
C. seriously
D. for a short time
Question 46: The word "It" in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. theater district
B. one-act play
C. theater group
D. Harvard
Question 47: The word "struggle" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. conflict
B. denial
C. appreciation
D. influence
Question 48: According to the passage, which of O'Neill's plays was most important to the
American theatre?
A. Beyond the Horizon
B. Mourning becomes Electra
C. Long Day's Journey Into Night
D. Anna Christie
Question 49: The author mentions all of the following as themes for O'Neill's plays
EXCEPT________.
A. adventures at sea
B. life in college
C. relationships between men and women
D. family life
Question 50: We can infer from information in the passage that O'Neill's plays were not
________.
A. autobiographical
B. controversial
C. popular
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D. optimistic
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Question 1: A. interviewed B. performed C. finished D. delivered
Question 2: A. misses B. goes C. leaves D. potatoes
Question 3: A. different B. bamboo C. rainfall D. wildlife
Question 4: A. personality B. rhinoceros C. gorilla D. opponent
Question 5: The collecting of postage stamps is a hobby that interest people of all ages and all
A B C
walks of life.
D
Question 6: Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extreme concerned about
A B C
the changes to our climate which are taking place.
D
Question 7: In some states, it against the law to ride a motorcycle without a helmet.
A B C D
Question 8: If only the Prime Minister ________ his arts policy would lose him the election.
A. had known B. knows
C. was knowing D. could have knowing
Question 9: While studying, he was financially dependent _______ his parents.
A. of B. to C. from D. on
Question 10: Mr. Pike ________ English at our school for 20 years before he retired last year.
A. had been teaching B. has been teaching
C. was teaching D. is teaching
Question 11: Don’t worry about trying to catch last train home, as we can easily ______ you up
for the night.
A. keep B. put C. take D. set
Question 12: This is valuable _______ chair which dates back to the eighteenth century.
A. traditional B. old-fashioned C. antique D. ancient
Question 13: Come with me. I’m seeing “The killer” tomorrow, ______.
A. Do you? B. Shall you? C. Are you? D. Will you?
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Question 14: It is a _________.
A. polyester sleeping blue bag B. blue sleeping polyester bag
C. blue polyester sleeping bag D. sleeping blue polyester bag
Question 15: _______ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Hardly had B. No sooner had
C. No longer has D. Not until had
Question 16: _______, the young mother appeared visibly very happy after the birth of her child.
A. Tired as she was B. She was tired
C. As tired D. Despite tired
Question 17: We have a party tonight and Daisy is worried about ________.
A. what to wear B. which wearing
C. these wearing D. that she wearing
Question 18: Paul was ________ of himself for having stolen money from his mother.
A. shy B. ashamed C. timid D. embarrassed
Question 19: ________ flowers are usually made of plastic or silk.
A. Unreal B. False C. Artificial D. Untrue
Question 20: _ Daisy: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?”
_ Tony: “_______.”
A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job
B. Yes, you can use it
C. Of course not. I still need it now
D. Yes, it’s all right
Question 21: _ Tim: “________.”
_Jeycy : ”Certainly.”
A. Welcome back!
B. What are you doing there?
C. I’m sorry I am late
D. May I borrow a pencil, please?
Question 22: You may find that jogging is detrimental to your health rather than beneficial.
A. useful B. facile C. depressing D. harmful
it over”.
A. to sleep on it B. to make it better
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Question 24: “That is a well-behaved boy whose behavior has nothing to complain about.
A. good behavior B. behaving improperly
C. behaving nice D. behaving cleverly
Question 25: After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was
released.
A. benevolent B. innovative C. naive D. guilty
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Question 26: We couldn’t go out because the weather was so bad.
A. It was so bad a weather that we couldn’t go out.
B. It was such a bad weather that we couldn’t go out.
C. It was so bad weather that we couldn’t go out.
D. It was such bad weather that we couldn’t go out.
Question 27: The little boy insisted on my helping to take the picture away.
A. “Please, please help me take the picture away!” the little boy said.
B. “How about helping me to take the picture away?” the little boy said.
C. “What do you think about helping me to take the picture away?” the little boy wanted
to know.
D. “Why don’t you help me to take the picture away?” the little boy asked.
Question 28: “Don’t leave the house until I get back, John” his sister said.
A. John’s sister told him to leave the house when she got back.
B. John’s sister told him not to go out until she gets back.
C. John’s sister told him not to leave the house when she got back.
D. John’s sister told him to stay at home till she got back.
Question 29: The driver I front stopped so suddenly. Therefore, the accident happened.
A. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t have
happened.
B. If the driver in front didn’t stop so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t happened.
C. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened.
D. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happen.
Question 30: Lan is reading an interesting storybook . You lent it to her last week.
A. Lan is reading an interesting storybook which you lent it to her last week.
B. Lan is reading an interesting storybook which you lent to her last week.
C. Lan is reading an interesting storybook who you lent it to her last week.
D. Lan is reading an interesting storybook whom you lent it to her last week.
35.
We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use (31) _______ in our cars and to heat our
building in winter. Farmers use petrochemicals to make the soil rich. They use them to kill
insects which eat plants. These chemicals go into rivers and lakes and kill the fish there.
Thousands of pollutants also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this (32) ________ air to
other countries and other continents.
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Poor farmers use the same land over and (33) ________. The land needs a rest so it will
be better next year. However, the farmers must have food this year. Poor people cut down forests
for firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land (34) ________ desert. Poor people
can’t save the environment for the future.
This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. It is a problem for all-
humans. The people and the nations of the world must work together to (35) ________ the
world’s resources.
Question 31: A. it B. them C. that D. those
Question 32: A. pollute B. polluting C. polluted D. pollution
Question 33: A. over B. again C. repeatedly D. repeating
Question 34: A. gets B. changes C. turns D. becomes
Question 35: A. recycle B. preserve C. keep D. reuse
MOBILE PHONES: ARE THEY ABOUT TO TRANSFORM OUR LIVES?
We love them so much that some of us sleep with them under the pillow, yet we are
increasingly concerned that we cannot escape their electronic reach. We use them to convey our
most intimate secrets, yet we worry that they are a threat to our privacy. We rely on them more
than the Internet to cope with modern life, yet many of us don’t believe advertisements saying
we need more advanced services.
Sweeping aside the doubts that many people feel about the benefits of new third generation
phones and fears over the health effects of phone masts, a recent report claims that the long-term
effects of new mobile technologies will be entirely positive so long as the public can be
convinced to make use of them. Research about users of mobile phones reveals that the mobile
has already moved beyond being a mere practical communications tool to become the backbone
of modern social life, from love affairs to friendship to work.
The close relationship between user and phone is most pronounced among teenagers, the
report says, who regard their mobiles as an expression of their identity. This is partly because
mobiles are seen as being beyond the control of parents. But the researchers suggest that another
reason may be that mobiles, especially text messaging, were seen as a way of overcoming
shyness. The impact of phones, however, has been local rather than global, supporting existing
friendship and networks, rather than opening users to a new broader community. Even the
language of texting in one area can be incomprehensible to anybody from another area.
Among the most important benefits of using mobile phones, the report claims, will be a
vastly improved mobile infrastructure, providing gains throughout the economy, and the
provision of a more sophisticated location-based services for users. The report calls on
government to put more effort into the delivery of services by mobile phone, with suggestion
including public transport and traffic information and doctors’ text messages to remind patients
of appointments. There are many possibilities. At a recent trade fair in Sweden, a mobile
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navigation product was launched. When the user enters a destination, a route is automatically
downloaded to their mobile and presented by voices, pictures and maps as they drive. In future,
these devices will also be able to plan around congestion and road works in real time. Third
generation phones will also allow for remote monitoring of patients by doctors. In Britain,
scientists are developing an asthma management solution using mobiles to detect early signs of
an attack.
Mobile phones can be used in education. A group of teachers in Britain use third
generation phones to provide fast internet service to children who live beyond the reach of
terrestrial broadband services and can have no access to online information. ‘As the new
generation of mobile technologies takes off, the social potential will vastly increase,’ the report
argues.
Question 36: What does “them” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. long-term effects
B. new mobile technologies
C. doubts
D. benefits
Question 37: What is the connection between social life and mobile phones?
A. Modern social life relies significantly on the use of mobile phones.
B. Mobile phones make romantic communication easier.
C. Mobile phones encourage people to make friends.
D. Mobile phones enable people to communicate while moving around.
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Mobile phone is considered as a means for the youth to show their characters.
B. Mobile phones are playing a wide range of roles in people’s life.
C. People can overcome shyness by using texting to communicate things that make them
uncomfortable.
D. There is no need to suspect the harmfulness of mobile phones.
Question 39: In what sense has the impact of phones been “local” in the third paragraph?
A. People tend to communicate with people they already know.
B. Users generally phone people who live in the same neighborhood.
C. It depends on local dialects.
D. The phone networks use different systems.
Question 40: The navigation product launched in Sweden is helpful for drivers because
________.
A. it can suggest the best way to get to a place
B. it provides directions orally
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C. it tells them which roads are congested
D. it shows them how to avoid road works
Question 41: What is the general attitude of the report described here?
A. Manufacturers need to produce better equipment.
B. The government should take over the mobile phone networks.
C. There are problems with mobile phones that cannot be overcome.
D. Mobile phones can have a variety of very useful applications.
Question 42: The word “pronounced” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. obvious
B. serious
C. voiced
D. overwhelmed
Animation traditionally is done by hand-drawing or painting successive frame of an object,
each slightly different than the proceeding frame. In computer animation, although the computer
may be the one to draw the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and
ending frames and the computer will produce the drawings between the first and the last
drawing. This is generally referred to as computer-assisted animation, because the computer is
more of a helper than an originator.
In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the final
sequences of pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that defines the
objects in the pictures as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints,
and color and intensity information. Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such
effects because animation that obtains high degrees of realism involves computer techniques
from three-dimensional transformation, shading, and curvatures.
High-tech computer animation for film involves very expensive computer systems along with
special color terminals or frame buffer. The frame buffer is nothing more than a giant image
memory for viewing a single frame. It temporarily holds the image for display on the screen.
A camera can be used to film directly from the computer’s display screen, but for the
highest quality images possible, expensive film recorders are used. The computer computers the
positions and colors for the figures in the picture, and sends this information to the recorder,
which captures it on film. Sometimes, however, the images are stored on a large magnetic disk
before being sent to the recorder. Once this process is completed, it is replaced for the next
frame. When the entire sequence has been recorded on the film, the film must be developed
before the animation can be viewed. If the entire sequence does not seem right, the motions must
be corrected, recomputed, redisplayed, and rerecorded. This approach can be very expensive and
time- consuming. Often, computer-animation companies first do motion tests with simple
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computer-generated line drawings before selling their computers to the task of calculating the
high-resolution, realistic-looking images.
Question 43: According to the passage, in computer-assisted animation the role of the computer
is to draw the ________.
A. first frame
B. middle frames
C. last frame
D. entire sequences of frames
Question 44: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to _________.
A. formulas
B. databases
C. numbers
D. objects
Question 45: According to the passage, the "frame buffers" mentioned in the third paragraph are
used to ________.
A. add color to the images
B. expose several frames at the same time
C. store individual images
D. create new frames
Question 46: According to the passage, the positions and colors of the figures in high-tech
animation are determined by ________.
A. drawing several versions
B. enlarging one frame at a lime
C. analyzing the sequence from different angles
D. using computer calculations
Question 47: The word “captures” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. separates
B. registers
C. describes
D. numbers
Question 48: The word “Once” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. before
B. since
C. after
D. while
Question 49: The word “task” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. possibility
B. position
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C. time
D. job
Question 50: Which of the following statement is supported by the passage?
A. Computers have reduced the costs of animation.
B. In the future, traditional artists will no longer be needed.
C. Artists are unable to produce drawings as high in quality as computer drawings.
D. Animation involves a wide range of technical and artistic skills.
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Question 1: A. naked B. sacred C. learned D. studied
Question 2: A. check B. challenge C. chocolate D. machine
Question 3: A. promote B. precede C. picture D. pollute
Question 4: A. exciting B. impolite C. attention D. attracting
Question 5: In my opinion, I think that this book is more interested than the other one.
A B C D
Question 6: Members of High School clubs learn to participation in teams through their
A B C
involvement in community projects.
D
Question 7: Today the most popular method of pasteurization, called “flash pasteurization”,
A
involves several step, which include heating milk for 15 seconds and then immediately cooling it
B C D
Question 8: _________ at someone is considered as rude.
A. Looking B. Waving C. Greeting D. Pointing
Question 9: They _______ for Japan at 10.30 tomorrow.
A. will be leaving B. have left C. will have left D. will leave
Question 10: The thieves ran away when the burglar alarm ________.
A. went out B. went on C. went off D. went by
Question 11: The wedding day was ________ chosen by the parents of the groom.
A. careless B. careful C. carefully D. carelessly
Question 12: The doctor decided to give her a thorough examination ________ he could identify
the causes of her illness.
A. unless B. after C. so as D. so that
Question 13: To Americans, it is impolite to ask someone about age, ________ and salary.
A. marry B. married C. marrying D. marriage
Question 14: Tom is thought _______ the runaway murdered last week.
A. to have met B. to be met C. to meet D. that he met
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Question 15: Students have to pay _______ fees when they attend public schools.
A. tuition B. teaching C. education D. learning
Question 16: Anna seems to be a bright student. She’s always the first _______ her work.
A. finishing B. to finish C. being finished D. to be finish
Question 17: Boys! Put your toys _______. It is time to go to bed. Don’t stay ______ late.
A. around/for B. away/up C. down/off D. off/to
Question 18: At present, we are _______ an anti-drug campaign.
A. setting up for B. taking part C. joining with D. carrying out
Question 19: _______ the weather is, ________ I feel.
A. The warm / the good B. The warmer / the better
C. Warmer / better D. The warmest / the best
Question 20: _ Mai: “Wow, I’ve never seen such a nice cell phone, Nam”
_ Nam: “_______.”
A. Oh, I don’t know
B. Thank you. I am glad you like it
C. You’re welcome
D. I agree with you
Question 21: “Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?”
-“_________.”
A. Do you think I would?
B. Yes, you are a good friend
C. Yes, I’d love to. Thanks
D. I wouldn’t like. Thank you
Question 22: Literature is a compulsory subject in our education, which means every student has
to study the subject.
A. difficult B. easy C. unnecessary D. required
Question 23: When Americans are invited to formal or informal get-togethers they usually to
make others feel comfortable and relaxed.
A. social reunions B. meetings C. conferences D. conservations
Question 24: The funny story told by the man amused all the children.
A. pleased B. entertained C. saddened D. frightened
Question 25: Training for the Olympics requires an enormous amount of work: athletes who
want to compete must work extremely hard.
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A. very large B. small C. unusual D. very common
Question 26: I’ll let you borrow the book but you must promise to return it next week.
A. If you promise to return the book, I let you borrow it.
B. If you promised to return the book, I’ll let you borrow it.
C. If you promises to return the book next week, I won’t let you borrow it.
D. If you promise to return the book next week, I’ll let you borrow it.
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Question 27: I haven’t gone to the cinema for ten years.
A. It’s ten years I haven’t gone to the cinema.
B. I last went to the cinema ten years ago.
C. The last time I went to the cinema was ten years.
D. It was ten years ago I went to the cinema.
Question 28: Mary said “I am sure that you broke my vase, Jim”.
A. Mary accused Jim of having broken her vase.
B. Mary said she knew that Jim broke her vase.
C. Mary asked Jim of having broken her vase.
D. Mary told Jim to break the vase.
Question 29: Although she is intelligent, she doesn’t do well at school.
A. Even though her intelligent, but she doesn’t do well at school.
B. Despite being intelligent, but she doesn’t do well at school.
C. In spite of her intelligence, she doesn’t do well at school.
D. In spite the fact that she intelligent, but she doesn’t do well at school.
Question 30: Jim is my best friend. I borrowed his car yesterday.
A. Jim, whose car I lent yesterday, is my best friend.
B. Jim, who is my best friend, borrowed my car yesterday.
C. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend.
D. Jim, his car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend.
35.
TEENAGERS AND SPORT
It’s quite rare to meet teenagers who don’t like sports. When you are young, you know how
important (31) ________ to do physical exercise if you want to be healthy and strong, and for
that reason you often concentrate on just one sport with so (32) ________ enthusiasm that in the
end you can’t live without it. The problem is, though, that as you grow up you have less and less
spare time. At your age you have to study harder if you want to get good marks to go to
university, with perhaps only one afternoon a week to do any sport. This happens just when you
are at the best (33) _______ for many sports, such as gymnastics and swimming. By the time you
finish all your studies you will probably be too old to be really good at sports like those, but if
you spend enough time on (34) ________ while you are young, then one day you will find that
you are very good at your sport but too old to study, and you will find it (35) ________ to get a
good job. Somehow, it doesn’t seem fair.
Question 31: A. this is B. you are C. it is D. things are
Question 32: A. keen B. many C. great D. much
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Question 33: A. stage B. age C. period D. time
Question 34: A. training B. practice C. exercise D. sporting
Question 35: A. impractical B. unlikely
C. improbable D. impossible
The countryside of Britain is well known for its beauty and many contrasts: its bare
mountains and moorland, its lakes, rivers and woods, and its long, often wild coastline. Many of
the most beautiful areas are national parks and are protected from development. When British
people think of the countryside they think of farmland, as well as open spaces. They imagine
cows or sheep in green fields enclosed by hedges or stone walls, and fields of wheat and barley.
Most farmland is privately owned but is crossed by a network of public footpaths.
Many people associate the countryside with peace and relaxation. They spend their free
time walking or cycling there, or go to the country for a picnic or a pub lunch. In summer people
go to fruit farms and pick strawberries and other fruit. Only a few people who live in the country
work on farms. Many commute to work in towns. Many others dream of living in the country,
where they believe they would have a better and healthier lifestyle.
The countryside faces many threats. Some are associated with modern farming practices,
and the use of chemicals harmful to plants and wildlife. Land is also needed for new houses. The
green belt, an area of land around many cities, is under increasing pressure. Plans to build new
roads are strongly opposed by organizations trying to protect the countryside. Protesters set up
camps to prevent, or at least delay, the building work.
America has many areas of wild and beautiful scenery, and there are many areas,
especially in the West in states like Montana and Wyoming, where few people live. In the New
England states, such as Vermont and New Hampshire, it is common to see small farms
surrounded by hills and green areas. In Ohio, Indiana, Illinois and other Midwestern states, fields
of corn or wheat reach to the horizon and there are many miles between towns.
Only about 20% of Americans live outside cities and towns. Life may be difficult for
people who live in the country. Services like hospitals and schools may be further away and
going shopping can mean driving long distances. Some people even have to drive from their
homes to the main road where their mail is left in a box. In spite of the disadvantages, many
people who live in the country say that they like the safe, clean, attractive environment. But their
children often move to a town or city as soon as they can.
As in Britain, Americans like to go out to the country at weekends. Some people go on
camping or fishing trips, others go hiking in national parks.
Question 36: We can see from the passage that in the countryside of Britain _________.
A. only a few farms are publicly owned
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B. none of the areas faces the sea
C. most beautiful areas are not well preserved
D. it is difficult to travel from one farm to another
Question 37: The word “enclosed” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. rotated
B. surrounded
C. embraced
D. blocked
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an activity of relaxation in the
countryside of Britain?
A. Going for a walk
B. Picking fruit
C. Going swimming
D. Riding a bicycle
Question 39: What does the word “they” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. Those who go to the country for a picnic
B. Those who go to fruit farms in summer
C. Those who commute to work in towns
D. Those who dream of living in the country
Question 40: Which of the following threatens the countryside in Britain?
A. Protests against the building work
B. The green belt around cities
C. Plants and wildlife
D. Modern farming practices
Question 41: The phrase “associated with” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
________.
A. referred to
B. related to
C. supported by
D. separated from
Question 42: According to the passage, some Americans choose to live in the country because
________.
A. they enjoy the safe, clean, attractive environment there
B. their children enjoy country life
C. life there may be easier for them
D. hospitals, schools and shops are conveniently located there
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The principle of use and disuse states that those parts of organisms’ bodies that are used
grow larger. Those parts that are not tend to wither away. It is an observed fact that when you
exercise particular muscles, they grow. Those that are never used diminish. By examining a
man’s body, we can tell which muscles he uses and which he does not. We may even be able to
guess his profession or his recreation. Enthusiasts of “body-building” cult make use of the
principle of use and disuse to build their bodies, almost like a piece of sculpture, into whatever
unnatural shape is demanded by fashion in this peculiar minority culture. Muscles are not the
only parts of the body that respond to use in this kind of way. Walk barefoot and you acquire
harder skin on your soles. It is easy to tell a farmer from a bank teller by looking at their hands
alone. The farmer’s hands are horny, hardened by long exposure to rough work. The teller’s
hands are often soft.
The principle of use and disuse enable animals to become better at the job of surviving in
their world, progressively better during their lifetime as a result of living in that world. Humans,
through direct exposure to sun light, or lack of it, develop a skin color which equips them better
to survive in the particular local conditions.
Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers with very fair skins are
susceptible to skin cancer. Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to vitamin-D deficiency
and rickets. The brown pigment melanin which is synthesized under the influence of sunlight
make a screen to protect the underlying tissues from the harmful effects of further sunlight. If a
suntanned person moves to a less sunny climate, the melanin disappears, and the body is able to
benefit from what little sun there is. This can be represented as an instance of the principle use
and disuse: skin goes brown when it is used, and fades to white when it is not.
A. How the principle of use and disuse change people’s concepts of themselves.
B. The way in which people change themselves to conform to fashion.
C. The changes that occur according to the principle of use and disuse.
D. The effects of the sun on the principle of use and disuse.
Question 44: The word “wither away” could be best replaced by ________.
A. split
B. rot
C. perish
D. shrink
Question 45: The word “those” refers to _________.
A. muscles
B. bodies
C. parts
D. organisms
Question 46: It can be inferred that the author views body building _________.
A. with enthusiasm
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B. as an artistic form
C. with scientific interest
D. of doubtful benefit
Question 47: The word “horny” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. firm
B. strong
C. tough
D. dense
Question 48: It can be inferred that the principle of use and disuse enable organisms to
________.
A. change their existence
B. survive in any condition
C. automatically benefit
D. improve their lifetime
Question 49: The author suggests that melanin _________.
A. helps protect fair-skinned people
B. is beneficial in sunless climate
C. is necessary for the production of vitamin D
D. is a synthetic product
Question 50: In the 2nd paragraph the author mentioned sun tanning as an example of ________.
A. humans improving their local conditions
B. humans surviving in adverse conditions
C. humans using the principle of use and disuse
D. humans running the risk of skin cancer
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. removed B. approved C. reminded D. relieved
2. A. fragile B. bargain C. general D. luggage
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. marvelous B. notorious C. credulous D. numerous
4. A. majority B. obstinacy C. apology D. equality
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Giaoandethitienganh.info
5. All at once Millie got up and left the house without any explanation.
A. as usual B. as first C. suddenly D. not frequent
6. Considering they are over 70 years old, you must admit they are in good shape.
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A. fit B. wealthy C. clever D. slow
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
7. “Don’t be such a pessimist I’m sure you’ll soon get over it. Cheer up!”
A. activist B. feminist C. optimist D. hobbyist
8. It is obligatory for all students to take the entrance examination in order to attend the
university.
A. forced B. impelling C. required D. optional
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
9. Ancient people made a clay pottery because they needed it for their survival.
A. a clay B. because C. it D. their survival
10. If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate with the
locals now.
A. took B. seriously C. would be D. with the locals
11. Grover Cleveland was the only American present served two nonconsecutive terms.
A. the only B. served C. nonconsecutive D. terms
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
12. My husband and I both go out to work so we share the _______.
A. happiness B. household chores
C. responsibility D. employment
13. When our teacher saw what we had done he was absolutely _______.
A. angry B. upset C. furious D. annoyed
14. I enjoy walking to school, but on rainy days I _______ to going by bus.
A. would rather B. commit C. prefer D. resort
15. The traffic lights _______ green and I pulled away.
A. became B. turned C. got D. changed
16. You should have _______ those shares when they were cheap.
A. taken out B. sold off C. bought up D. taken over
17. I’ll _______ you _______ to our research department. Please hold on.
A. put – away B. put – out C. put – through D. put – up
18. The telescope will photograph distant galaxies, _______ attempt to understand their past.
A. in B. for C. on D. with
19. He _______ the umbrella in his right hand, trying to keep his balance.
A. hold B. held
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C. has been holding D. has held
20. They want to get young people to open a bank _______.
A. count B. counter C. account D. deposit
21. Despite the plan’s emphasis on agricultural _______, the industrial sector received a
larger share of state investment.
A. developing B. developer C. development D. developed
22. They still remain the need for an integrated system of subsidies which will _______
farmers to look after their upland environment and producing food.
A. enable B. adopt C. consume D. discourage
23. Although she loves movies, she doesn’t _______ enjoy live theatre.
A. partially B. regularly C. finally D. particularly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
POST IN HISTORY
Although it may come as a surprise to many people, postal services have existed in some
parts of the world for thousands of years. There is ample evidence that a postal services existed
among the Assyrians and Babylonians. In China a regular postal service was established in the
seventh century BC, and over the centuries attained such a high level of efficiency that some
2000 years after its (24) _______ it won the admiration of travelers like Marco Polo. Efficient
and highly developed postal services were also established in the Persia and Roman Empires. In
ancient times, these services were mainly confined to the use of representative of the state;
private citizens made use of slaves, merchants and the (25) _______ to send their messages and
documents. In Medieval Europe, postal services were organized by emperors and by the papacy,
(26) _______ private citizens continued to entrust their correspondence to various travelers.
Later around the 13th century, universities and towns came to have the own messengers.
However, it was not until the 14th century when merchants, the private citizens who had the
greatest need for a speedy and regular exchange of correspondence, began to set (27) _______
regular courier services. The needs of business (28) _______ to the development of the postal
services as we know it today.
24. A. introduction B. institution C. application D. occurrence
25. A. such B. likely C. like D. same
26. A. when B. and C. until D. while
27. A. up B. out C. off D. in
28. A. resulted B. came C. brought D. led
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
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In addition to their military role, the forts of the nineteenth century provided numerous
other benefits for the American West. The establishment of these posts opened new roads and
provided for the protection of daring adventures and expeditions as well as established settlers.
Forts also served as bases where enterprising entrepreneurs could bring commerce to the West,
providing supplies and refreshments to soldiers as well as to pioneers. Ports like Fort Laramie
provided supplies for wagon trains travelling the natural highways toward new frontiers. Some
posts became stations for the pony express; still others, such as Fort Davis, were stagecoach
stops for weary travelers. All of these functions, of course, suggest that the contributions of the
forts to the civilization and development of the West extended beyond patrol duty.
Through the establishment of military posts, yet other contributions were made to the
development of western culture. Many posts maintained libraries or reading rooms, and some –
for example, Fort Davis – had schools. Post chapels provided a setting for religious services and
weddings. Throughout the wilderness, post bands provided entertainment and boosted morale.
During the last part of the nineteenth century, to reduce expense, gardening was encouraged at
the forts, thus making experimental agriculture another activity of the military. The military
stationed at the various forts also played a role in civilian life by assisting in maintaining order,
and civilian officials often called on the army for the protection.
Certainly, among other significant contributions the army made to the improvement of the
conditions of life was the investigation of the relationships among health, climate, and
architecture. From the earliest colonial times throughout the nineteenth century, disease ranked
as the foremost problem in defense. It slowed construction of forts and inhibited their military
functions. Official documents from many regions contained innumerable reports of sickness that
virtually incapacitated entire garrisons. In response to the problems. Detailed observations of
architecture and climate and their relationships to the frequency of the occurrence of various
disease were recorded at various posts across the nation by military surgeons.
29. Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A. By the nineteenth century, forts were no longer used by the military.
B. Surgeons at forts could not prevent outbreaks of disease.
C. Forts were important to the development of the American West.
D. Life in nineteenth-century forts was very rough.
30. The word “daring” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. lost B. bold C. lively D. foolish
31. The word “others” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. posts B. wagon trains C. frontiers D. highways
32. Which of the following is the most likely inference about the decision to promote
gardening at forts?
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A. It was expensive to import produce from far away.
B. Food brought in from outside was often spoiled.
C. Gardening was a way to occupy otherwise idle soldiers.
D. The soil near the forts was very fertile.
33. According to the passage, which of the following posed the biggest obstacle to the
development of military forts?
A. Insufficient shelter B. Shortage of materials
C. Attacks by wild animals D. Illness
34. The word “inhibited” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. involved B. exploited C. united D. hindered
35. How did the military assist in the investigation of health problems?
A. By registering annual birth and death rates
B. By experiments with different building materials
C. By maintaining records of diseases and potential causes
D. By monitoring the soldiers’ diets
Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roots. The reasons for roosting
communally are not always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it is
important for birds to keep warm at night and converse precious food reserves. One way to do
this is to find a sheltered roost. Solitary roosters shelter in dense vegetation or enter a cavity –
horned larks dig holes in the ground and ptarmigan burrow into snow banks – but the effect of
sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling together in the roosts, as wrens, swifts, brown
creepers, bluebirds, and anis do. Body contact reduces the surface area exposed to the cold air, so
the bird keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together were found to reduce their heat
losses by a quarter, and three together saved a third of their heat.
The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as “information centers”.
During the day, parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area. When they
return in the evening some will have fed well, but others may have found little to eat. Some
investigators have observed that when the birds set out again next morning, those birds that did
not feed well on the previous day appear to allow those that did. The behavior of common and
lesser kestrels may illustrate different feeding behaviors of similar birds with different roosting
habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in a small, familiar hunting ground,
whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large area. The common kestrel
roots and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in flocks, possibly so one bird can
learn from others where to find insect swarms.
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Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few
birds awake at any given moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is partially
counteracted by the fact that mass roosts attract predators and are especially vulnerable if they
are on the ground. Even those in trees can be attacked by birds of prey. The birds on the edge are
at greatest risk since predators find it easier to catch small birds perching at the margins of the
roost.
36. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How birds find and store food B. How birds maintain body heat in the winter
C. Why birds need to establish territory D. Why some species of birds nest together
37. The word “converse” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______?
A. retain B. watch C. locate D. share
38. Ptarmigan keep warm in the winter by _______.
A. huddling together on the ground with other birds
B. building nests in trees
C. burrowing into dense patches of vegetation
D. digging tunnels into the snow
39. The word “magnified” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. caused B. modified C. intensified D. combined
40. The author mentions “kinglets” in paragraph 1 as an example of birds that _______.
A. protect themselves by nesting in holes
B. nest with other species of birds
C. nest together for warmth
D. usually feed and nest in pairs
41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by
birds that huddle together while sleeping?
A. Some members of the flock warn others of impending dangers.
B. Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock.
C. Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for
food.
D. Several members of the flock care for the young.
42. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the
passage?
A. Diseases easily spread among the birds.
B. Groups are more attractive to predators than individual birds are.
C. Food supplies are quickly depleted.
D. Some birds in the group will attack the others.
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43. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. a few birds B. mass roosts C. predators D. trees
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following
exchanges.
44. – Well, it was nice talking to you, but I have to go.
-_______.
A. Yes, I enjoyed talking to you too. B. OK, see you.
C. Pleased to meet you, too. D. Nice to meet you. I’m Hoa.
45. – Do you feel like going out for a drink this evening?
-_______.
A. That would be great. B. Thank you very much for your kind
invitation.
C. Yes, I like very much. D. No, I don’t. I am busy.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
46. She’s bound to see Jim at the meeting.
A. She’s obligated to see Harry at the meeting.
B. She’s on her way to see Harry at the meeting.
C. It’s certain that she will see Harry at the meeting.
D. She’s too busy to see Harry at the meeting.
47. The burglar was caught red-handed by the police when he broke into the flat.
A. The police caught the burglar breaking into the flat.
B. The police caught the burglar to break into the flat.
C. The police caught the burglar when breaking into the flat.
D. When the burglar had broken into the flat, the police caught him at once.
48. I won’t sell the painting, no matter how much you offer me.
A. Whenever you offer me to buy the painting, I won’t sell it.
B. How many money you offer me, I won’t sell the painting.
C. Whatever price you offer me, I won’t sell the painting.
D. In spite of your offering me how much money, but I won’t sell the painting.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
49. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about sleep.
A. We know relatively little about sleep; as a result, we spend about one-third of our lives
sleeping.
B. We shall know more about sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping.
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C. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about
sleep.
D. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about
sleep.
50. He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work.
A. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.
B. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
D. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.
1. A. young B. plough C. couple D. cousin
2. A. confine B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate
3. A. dependable B. cafeteria C. simplicity D. detoxify
4. A. westernize B. official C. division D. millennium
5. I was turning to the left lane when a car came out of nowhere and hit me.
A. stopped right in front of B. suddenly appeared
C. spun over D. fell off a truck
6. S. Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr. Mayo’s
outstanding humanitarianism.
A. exhaustive B. charitable C. remarkable D. widespread
7. As soon as I gave up smoking, I felt a lot better.
A. gave out B. took up C. got on D. took out
8. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the
surplus.
A. large quantity B. small quantity C. excess D. sufficiency
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9. The next host for the SEA Games is Laos. It is Laos’ the first time as the host for the
biannual-games.
A. the next B. it is C. the first time D. the host
10. Buying clothes is often a time-consuming practice because those clothes that a person
likes is seldom the ones that fit him or her.
A. time-consuming B. that C. is D. ones
11. The assassination Nathuran Vinayak Godse shot Mohandas K. Gandi in New Delhi, India
on September 17, 1948.
A. assassination B. shot C. in D. September 17, 1948
questions.
12. They attempted to _______ the painting to its original condition.
A. restore B. renovate C. repair D. refurbish
13. Flooding in April is an unusual _______ in this area.
A. occurrence B. occur C. occurring D. occurred
14. Frankly, I’d rather you _______ anything about it for the time being.
A. don’t do B. hadn’t done C. didn’t do D. haven’t done
15. The book would have been perfect _______ the ending.
A. had it not been for B. it had not been for
C. it hadn’t been for D. hadn’t it been for
16. Jane’s very modest, always _______ her success.
A. playing down B. turning around C. keeping down D. pushing back
17. Those companies were _______ due to some seriously financial problems.
A. taken off B. set up C. wiped out D. gone over
18. Instead of an increase, there has been a recent _______ in crime.
A. crash B. drop C. break D. issue
19. Students also have the opportunity to choose from a wide range of _______ courses in the
university.
A. compulsory B. optional C. required D. limited
20. The issue _______ question is more complex than we think.
A. in B. from C. on D. at
21. _______ have announced that a major breakthrough in medicine has been made.
A. Research B. Researchers C. Researches D. Researching
22. _______ many times I tell him, he always forgets to pass on phone messages.
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A. Wherever B. Whatever C. Whenever D. However
23. When we _______ to the airport, I realized that I _______ my passport at home.
A. got/ had left B. got/ was left C. got/ left D. had got/ had left
A child prodigy of four is receiving computer lessons at Brunei University, in London.
Nicholas MacMahon is studying at university because he is too clever for school. A senior
lecturer at the university, Valso Koshy, said that the boy was remarkably intelligent.
Nicholas spoke fluently before he was one and by the time he was 18 months old, he was
taking telephone (24) _______. This was soon followed by conversational French. These are the
trademarks of a highly gifted child, unusual but not unique. The strange thing about Nicholas is
his reading – he taught himself to read before he could speak. Ms. Koshy, an expert (25)
_______ gifted children, says Nicholas is quite exceptional. Yet ‘exceptional’ underrates his
amazing ability to read, almost from birth. ‘He was talking when he was one and we realized
from start that he could read,’ his father said. ‘Soon after, he was correcting my spelling, words
(26) _______ caterpillar. Now he (27) _______ insects by their Latin names.’
The list of achievements is impressive, but frightening. A four-year-old who can (28)
_______ a Boeing 747 from a DC 10, devours encyclopedias, read The Daily Telegraph and is
well on the way to becoming a violin virtuoso is hardly normal.
24. A. news B. information C. notes D. messages
25. A. about B. for C. with D. on
26. A. as B. such C. like D. for example
27. A. realizes B. determines C. recognizes D. identifies
28. A. tell B. differ C. vary D. say
Hummingbirds are small, often brightly colored birds of the family Trochilidae that live
exclusively in the Americas. About 12 species are found in North America, but only the ruby-
throated hummingbird breeds in eastern North America and is found from Nova Scotia to
Florida. The southeastern Alaska to northern California.
Many hummingbirds are minute. But even the giant hummingbird found in western South
America, which is the largest known hummingbird, is only about 8 inches long and weighs about
two-thirds of an ounce. The smallest species, the bee hummingbird of Cuba and the Isle of Pines,
measures slightly more than 5.5 centimeters and weighs about two grams.
Hummingbirds’ bodies are compact, with strong muscles. They have wings shaped like
blades. Unlike the wings of other birds, hummingbird wings connect to the body only at the
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shoulder joint, which allows them to fly not only forward but also straight up and down,
sideways, and backward. Because of their unusual wings, hummingbirds can also hover in front
of flowers so they can suck nectar and find insects. The humming-bird’s bill, adapted for
securing nectar from certain types of flowers, is usually rather long and always slender, and it is
curved slightly downward in many species.
The hummingbird’s body feathers are sparse and more like scales than feathers. The
unique character of the feathers produces brilliant and iridescent colors, resulting from the
refraction of light by the feathers. Pigmentation of other feathers also contributes to the unique
color and look. Male and female hummingbirds look alike in some species but different in most
species; males of most species are extremely colorful.
The rate at which a hummingbird beats its wings does not vary, regardless of whether it is
flying forward, flying in another direction, or merely hovering. But the rate does vary with the
size of the bird – the larger the bird, the lower the rate, ranging from 80 beats per second for the
smallest species to 10 times per second for larger species. Researchers have not yet been able to
record the speed of the wings of the bee humming-bird but imagine that they beat even faster.
Most hummingbirds, especially the smaller species, emit scratchy, twittering, or squeaky sounds.
The wings, and sometimes the tail feathers, often produce humming, hissing, or popping sounds,
which apparently function much as do the songs of other birds.
29. According to the passage, where are hummingbirds found?
A. Throughout the word B. In South America only
C. In North America only D. In North and South America
30. The author indicates that the ruby-throated hummingbird is found _______.
A. throughout North America B. in California
C. in South America D. in the eastern part of North America
31. The word minute in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. extremely tiny B. extremely fast C. unique D. organized
32. The word which in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. western South America B. the giant hummingbird
C. all hummingbirds D. Florida hummingbirds
33. What does the author imply about the rate hummingbirds’ wings beat?
A. Although the bee hummingbird is the smallest, its wings don’t beat the fastest.
B. The hummingbird’s wings beat faster when it is sucking nectar than when it is just
flying.
C. The rate is not much different than that of other birds of its size.
D. The speed at which a bee hummingbird’s wings beat is not actually known.
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34. The author indicates that a hummingbird’s wings are different from those of other birds
because
A. they attach to the body at one point only
B. they attach to the body at more points than other birds
C. they attach and detach from the body
D. they are controlled by a different section of the brain
35. According to the passage, what causes the unique color and look of hummingbirds?
A. The color of the feathers
B. The structure of the feathers as well as pigmentation
C. The rapidity of flight
D. The pigmentation of the body
If we believe that clothing has to do with covering the body, and costumes with the choice
of a particular form of garment for a particular use, then we can say that clothing depends
primarily on such physical conditions as climate, health, and textile manufacture, whereas
costumes reflect social factors such as religious beliefs, aesthetics, personal status, and the wish
to be distinguished from or to emulate our fellows.
The ancient Greeks and the Chinese believed that we first covered our bodies for some
physical reason such as protecting ourselves from the weather elements. Ethnologists and
psychologists have invoked psychological reasons: modesty in the case of ancients, and taboo,
magical influence and the desire to please for the moderns.
In early history, costumes must have fulfilled a function beyond that of simple utility,
perhaps through some magical significance, investing primitive man with the attributes of other
creatures. Ornaments identified the wearer with animals, gods, heroes or other men. This
identification remains symbolic in more sophisticated societies. We should bear in mind that the
theater has its distant origins in scared performances, and in all periods children at play have
worn disguises, so as to adapt gradually to adult life.
Costumes helped inspire fear or impose authority. For a chieftain, costumes embodied
attributes expressing his power, while a warrior’s costume enhanced his physical superiority and
suggested he was superhuman. In more recent times, professional or administrative costume has
been devised to distinguish the wearer and express personal or delegated authority; this purpose
is seen clearly in the judge’s robes and the police officer’s uniform. Costume denotes power,
and since power is usually equated with wealth, costume came to be an expression of social caste
and material prosperity. Military uniform denotes rank and is intended to intimidate, to protect
the body and to express membership in a group. At the bottom of the scale, there are such
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compulsory costumes as the convict’s uniform. Finally, costume can possess a religious
significance that combines various elements: an actual or symbolic identification with a god, the
desire to express this in earthy life, and the desire to enhance the wearer’s position or respect.
36. The passage mainly discusses costume in term of its _______.
A. physical protection B. religious significance
C. social function D. beauty and attractiveness
37. What is the purpose of the paragraph 1?
A. To describe the uses of costume B. To contrast costume with the clothing
C. To trade the origins of costume D. To point out that clothing developed before
costume
38. Psychological reasons for wearing garments include _______.
A. protection from cold B. availability of materials
C. prevention of illness D. wishing to give pleasure
39. The word “ornaments” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. garments B. representation C. details D. decorations
40. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that _______.
A. The function of costume has become very sophisticated
B. Children like to identify with other creature by wearing costumes
C. Primitive people wore cloths only for scared performances
D. Costume no longer fulfills a function beyond simple utility
41. Why does the author mention the police officer’s uniform?
A. To illustrate the aesthetic function of costume
B. To identify the wearer with a hero
C. To suggest that police are superhuman
D. To show how costume signifies authority
42. The word “denotes” in line paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. disguises B. describes C. indicates D. denigrates
43. Which of the following would most likely NOT be reflected in a person’s costume, as it
is defined in the passage?
A. Having a heart condition B. Playing in a baseball game
C. Working in a hospital D. Participating in a religious ceremony
exchanges.
44. A: _______.
B: Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.
A. When have you got this beautiful dress?
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B. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
C. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!
45. “What are they like?” – “_______”
A. They are very nice. B. They are from London.
C. They’re in London. D. They’re American.
46. “If I were you, I would try to finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the
experiment.” The professor said to his students.
A. The professor advised his students to finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the
experiment.
B. The professor wished he could finish the pre-lab report for his students.
C. The professor regretted that his students didn’t do things in the right way.
D. The professor advised his students to carry out the experiments and then write the pre-
lab report.
47. He started computer programming as soon as he left school.
A. No sooner had he started computer programming than he left school.
B. Hardly had he started computer programming when he left school.
C. No sooner had he left school than he started computer programming.
D. After he left school, he had started computer programming.
48. Twice as many men as women are insurance agents.
A. More men than women have insurance.
B. Male insurance agents outnumber female agents.
C. Women are twice as likely as men to have sold insurance.
D. Insurance is twice as difficult to sell to women as to men.
49. He wanted to give the ball a powerful kick. He used the top of his foot.
C. What he wants to do is to give the ball a powerful kick and use the top of his foot.
50. Marie graduated with a good degree. She joined the ranks of the unemployed.
A. Marie joined the ranks of the unemployed because she graduated with a good degree.
B. If Marie graduated with a good degree. She would join the ranks of the unemployed.
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C. Although Marie graduated with a good degree, she joined the ranks of the
unemployed.
D. That Marie graduated with a good degree helped him join the ranks of the
unemployed.
1. A. chore B. stretch C. synchronized D. punching
2. A. isolated B. climate C. automobile D. island
3. A. curious B. receive C. unique D. achieve
4. A. comprehend B. entertain C. develop D. introduce
5. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.
A. from time to time B. time after time
C. again and again D. very rapidly
6. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the
annual meeting in May.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement
7. I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.
8. The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
9. In the 1960s, urban renewal projects cleared land for commerce and offices buildings.
A. urban renewal B. cleared land C. commerce D. offices buildings
10. It was my father whom talked me into learning another foreign language.
A. was B. whom C. into D. another
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11. How seems to be the greatest injustice of all, however, is that the new lands that
Columbus discovered were never given his name.
A. how B. the greatest injustice
C. the new lands D. were never given
questions.
12. The judge _______ the murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.
A. accused B. convicted C. sentenced D. prosecuted
13. It’s surprising that ex-smokers are less _______ smokers than non-smokers.
A. tolerant of B. tolerable to C. intolerant D. tolerance towards
14. I was angry when you saw me because I _______ with my sister.
A. have been arguing B. had been arguing
C. argued D. would argue
15. _______ over long distances is a fact.
A. That electricity transmitting B. That electricity can be transmitted
C. That electricity D. That can be transmitted
16. Deborah is going to take extra lessons to _______ what she missed while she was away.
A. catch up on B. cut down on C. put up with D. take up with
17. The _______ for this position starts at thirty thousand euros per year.
A. wage B. payment C. fee D. salary
18. I want to take these jeans back because they are too small but I can’t find the _______
anywhere.
A. receipt B. receiver C. reception D. receptionist
19. I wonder _______ mind watching this bag for me for a moment.
A. would you B. you would C. if would you D. whether you would
20. I was only absent _______ the office for a few minutes!
A. for B. from C. in D. about
21. Everyone said that they had _______ themselves at the wedding.
A. enjoyed B. pleased C. impressed D. excited
22. I _______ sight of the robber just before he disappeared around the corner.
A. caught B. took C. got D. had
23. Laura is about _______ me.
A. younger than two years B. two years younger than
C. younger two years than D. two years then younger
Read the following passage and mark the latter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or
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A long and happy marriage is something that many people wish for, but finding the right
partner is (24) _______ more difficult than you might imagine. A friend of mine, Susan had not
been very successful in her attempt to find the perfect partner, and she was beginning to lose
heart and feel rather depressed. One day she happened to hear someone (25) _______ about a
computer dating agency which could help you to find the ideal partner. Susan immediately (26)
_______ an appointment to see someone at the agency, then waited to see what would happen.
The agency arranged a meeting with a “suitable” partner at the local railway station a week later,
although I (27) _______ her not to go. My friend arrived a few minutes early but could see no
one who matched the appearance of the man in the photograph she had been sent. She noticed a
man waiting under the station clock and (28) _______ a bunch of flowers. But there was no one
else around. Suddenly the man started chatting to her and, after a while, asked her if she would
like to go and have a coffee. Not until much later did they come to the conclusion that they had
both been waiting for each other! When they had both recovered from the shock, they decided
that the computer had been right after all!
24. A. so B. much C. too D. lot
25. A. mentioning B. telling C. talking D. relating
26. A. did B. had C. set D. made
27. A. advised B. urged C. suggested D. whispered
28. A. fetching B. wearing C. carrying D. holding
These days, photography is considered an art form. However, people did not always feel
this way. It took one of the greatest photographers of all time to change public opinion about
photography: Ansel Adams.
Ansel Adams claimed that he knew his destiny when he first visited Yosemite, a national
park, at the age of fourteen. Until then, the focus of his life had always been music; he had long
dreamed of being a concert pianist, a career that would have required him to live an urban
lifestyle. Instead, Adams found himself drawn to Yosemite and to other natural settings. Over
time his love of photography became more influential than that of music. Contrary to the popular
belief of the time, he believed photography to be an art form and often exhibited it as art.
Due to his love of nature, Adams become devoted to the conservation of and access to
wilderness. He believed that the American people needed to experience nature in all its glory.
Adams felt that the experience of nature was a spiritual one, a view evidenced by many of his
photographs.
29. What is this passage primarily about?
A. conversation of the environment
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B. Yosemite National Park
C. Adams’ feelings about photography and nature
D. his conflict between music and photography
30. What can we infer about photographers before Adams’ time?
A. They were often musicians as well.
B. They were not considered artists.
C. They did not worry about conservation.
D. They had never taken photos of nature.
31. According to the passage, which of the following made Adams want to become a
photographer?
A. Yosemite National Park B. the urban lifestyle
C. loss of interest in music D. a religious experience
32. The word “destiny” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. future B. chance C. hobby D. talent
33. According to the passage, photography has come to be recognized as an art form since
_______.
A. Americans started appreciating the beauty of nature
B. several famous books on photography were published
C. American colleges began offering courses on photography
D. one talented photographer emerged
34. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. belief B. music C. photography D. art form
35. According to the passage, all of the following are true of Adams EXCEPT that _______.
A. his early life goal was to be a pianist
B. he showed his photographs to the public frequently
C. he took many pictures of natural scenery
D. he had no idea what career he wanted until he was 14
Psychologists who work on motivation research a wide range of human traits and
physiological characteristics that include the effects of hunger, reward, and punishment, as well
as desires for power, tangible achievement, social acceptance, belongingness, self-esteem, and
self-actualization. A plethora of hypotheses developed in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries
have the goal of identifying causes of an organism’s behavior that can be both conscious and
unconscious. The hierarchical organization of human needs is a theoretical model, originally
established by an American psychologist, Abraham Maslow, in 1954. The needs located at the
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bottom of the pyramid are the essentials of physiological survival that encompass oxygen, water,
nutrition, rest, and avoidance of pain. Maslow’s theory, grounded in research, also stipulated that
these are variable and, at least to some extent, may explain, for example, food gratification. The
second tier is rooted in the human need for safety, stability, and protection.
In the human life cycle, the needs for belonging are manifested in the desires to marry,
have a family, belong in a community or among similarly minded people. In part, the need to
belong can also show up in a search for particular types of occupations or careers. The next level
of the hierarchy in effect deals with two substrata, where the first presumes the need for status,
prestige, recognition, appreciation, and dominance, and the higher division includes a
conglomeration of emotionally centered traits that pivot on competence, confidence, mastery,
achievement, independence, and freedom.
The top tier is different from all other, and Maslow referred to it as growth motivation and
self-actualization. At the highest level, individuals seek to realize and put to use their creativity,
talent, leadership, curiosity, and understanding. At this level people can reach their full potentials
and accurately perceive and accept reality, seek privacy and depth in personal relationship, resist
enculturation, and develop social interests, compassion, and humanity. In many cases, self-
actualizers do not lead ordinary lives, choose growth over safety, and cultivate peak experiences
that leave their mark and change one for the better.
36. According to the passage, what does psychology of motivation attempt to uncover?
A. Reactions to hunger and desires for power
B. Developments of human physiology and mind
C. Reasons for human conduct and moving forces
D. Organization of human society and hierarchies
37. The word “plethora” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. oversimplification B. overlap
C. overreach D. overabundance
38. It can be inferred from the passage that in Maslow’s hierarchy _______.
A. the first layer of needs dominates other tiers
B. the highest level of the model supersedes the lower levels
C. the second layer of needs is more urgent than the first
D. the third level of the model is embedded in the fourth
39. The word “these” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. theory and research B. rest and avoidance of pain
C. oxygen, water, nutrition, and rest D. the lowest set of factors
40. It can be inferred from the passage that in modern-day terms, the second layer of needs
can be reflected in people’s desire for _______.
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A. a house in an upscale neighborhood
B. a protected existence and dependence
C. a measure of job and financial security
D. a degree of friendship and family life
41. The word “conglomeration” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. complex B. congress C. conjunction D. connotation
42. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor in human motivation?
A. Esteem B. Participation
C. Accomplishment D. Conformism
43. Which of the following conclusions is supported by the passage?
A. Genuine self-actualizers may attain self-satisfaction
B. Sincere self-promoters can achieve full contentment
C. Real self-starters can achieve their lives’ desires
D. True self-actualizers may lead complicated lives
exchanges.
44. “Should I give you a little more coffee?” – “_______.”
A. No, you’re welcome B. No, thank you
C. Yes, you’re right D. Yes, I’m OK
45. “Could you hand me that hammer?” – “_______.”
A. It’s not very expensive B. Yes, please
C. I’m about to use it myself D. Yes, I’d like to
46. Mr. Baker is determined to continue working when he is 65.
A. There is a determination of him to continue working when Mr. Baker is 65.
B. Not until Mr. Baker is 65, he is determined to continue working.
C. Mr. Baker has no intention of stopping working when he is 65.
D. Mr. Baker’s determination to continue working only when he is 65.
47. He was such a bright student that he could solve all the math problems.
A. He was not bright enough to solve all the math problems.
B. He was so intelligent that he could solve all the math problems.
C. The math problems were too difficult for him to solve.
D. All the math problems were so bright that he could solve them.
48. His daydreaming prevented him from becoming a good employee.
A. If he daydreamed, he would become a better employee.
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B. He could become a better employee without his daydreaming.
C. He daydreams, which makes him a good employee.
D. As a daydreamer, he is a good employee.
49. He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent is he can solve all the problems in no time.
50. We haven’t seen each other for a long time. I’m wondering whether I shall even
recognize him.
A. Although we haven’t seen each other for a long time, I’m wondering whether I shall
even recognize him.
B. We haven’t seen each other for a long time because I’m wondering whether I shall
even recognize him.
C. We haven’t seen each other for a long time, so I’m wondering whether I shall even
recognize him.
D. The reason why we haven’t seen each other for a long time is that I’m wondering
whether I shall even recognize him.
1. A. river B. rival C. native D. driven
2. A. measure B. pleasure C. ensure D. leisure
3. A. familiar B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant
4. A. disappear B. arrangement D. opponent D. contractual
5. There’s something about him I just can’t stand, he really gets under my skin.
A. pushes me B. presses me C. treats me D. annoys me
6. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
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A. absolutely B. relevantly C. almost D. comparatively
7. He decided not to buy the fake watch and wait until he had more money.
A. authentic B. forger C. faulty D. original
8. Match the world in A with its appropriate definition in B.
A. indirect B. illegal C. improper D. unreal
9. Each of the students in the accountant class has to type their own research paper this
semester.
A. students B. accountant C. their own D. research paper
10. Most bacteria has strong cell walls much like those of the plants.
A. most B. has C. much D. those
11. It’s thirty years since this thirty-storeys building was built.
A. it’s thirty years B. since C. thirty-storeys D. was built
questions.
12. Granny is completely deaf. You’ll have to _______ allowance for her.
13. The house is found _______ down.
A. to burn B. burning C. having burned D. to have been burned
14. Nearly all of the reporters _______ the press conference had questions _______.
A. attend – asked B. attended – to ask
C. attending – to ask D. would attend – to be asked
15. _______, sheep were then used for wood.
A. Having first domesticated for milk production
B. Having been first domesticated for milk production
C. Because they have been first domesticated for milk production
D. Although they had first domesticated for milk production
16. The car burst into _______ but the driver managed to escape.
A. fire B. flames C. heat D. burning
17. When they thought they has enough evidence, the police _______ the man with murder.
A. charged B. arrested C. suspected D. investigated
18. Mrs. Moore waited for the class to _______ before she continued.
A. bring up B. pass away C. settle down D. bring on
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19. It seems that the thief took _______ of the open windows an got inside that way.
A. occasion B. chance C. opportunity D. advantage
20. _______ I do okay in the interview, I’ve got a good chance of getting the job.
A. unless B. in case C. only D. provided
21. Call me as soon as you _______ your test results.
A. get B. will get C. will have got D. got
22. How much is the bus _______ to the city centre?
A. fee B. fare C. price D. cost
23. The country’s economy relies heavily on the tourist _______.
A. industry B. industrial C. industrialize D. industrious
GLOBAL WARMING
Few people now realize the reality of global warming and its effects on the world’s
climate. Many scientists (24) _______ the blame for recent natural disasters on the increase in
the world’s temperatures and are convinced that, more than ever before, the Earth is at (25)
_______ from the forces of the wind, rain and sun. according to them, global warming is making
extreme weather events, such as hurricanes and droughts, even more severe and causing sea
levels all around the word to rise.
Environmental groups are putting pressure on governments to take action to reduce the
amount of carbon dioxide which is given (26) _______ by factories and power plants, thus
attacking the problem at its source. They are in (27) _______ of more money being spent on
research into solar wind, and wave energy devices, which could then replace existing power (28)
_______. Some scientists, however, believe that even if we stopped releasing carbon dioxide and
other gases into the atmosphere tomorrow, we would have to wait several hundred years to
notice the results. Global warming, it seems, is to stay.
24. A. give B. put C. take D. has
25. A. danger B. harm C. risk D. threat
26. A. off B. up C. over D. away
27. A. request B. suggestion C. belief D. favor
28. A. houses B. dumps C. stations D. generation
The changing profile of a city in the United States is apparent in the shifting definitions
used by the United States Bureau of the Census. In 1870 the census officially distinguished the
nation’s “urban” from its “rural” population for the first time. “Urban population” was defined as
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persons living in towns of 8,000 inhabitants or more. But after 1900 it meant persons living in
incorporated places having 2,500 or more inhabitants.
Then, in 1950 the Census Bureau radically changed its definition of urban to take account
of the new vagueness of city boundaries. In addition to persons living in incorporated units of
2,5000 or more, the census now included those who lived in unincorporated units of that size,
and also all persons living in the densely settled urban fringe, including both incorporated and
unincorporated areas located around cities of 50,000 inhabitants or more. Each such unit,
conceived as an integrated economic and social unit with a large population nucleus, was named
a Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area (SMSA).
Each SMSA would contain at least (a) one central city with 50,000 inhabitants or more or
(b) two cities having shared boundaries and constituting for general economic and social
purposes, a single community with a combined population of at least 50,000, the smaller of
which must have a population of at least 15,000. Such an area would include the county in which
the central city was located, and adjacent countries that were found to be metropolitan in
character and economically and socially integrated with the county of the central city. By 1970,
about two-thirds of the population of the United States was living in these urbanized areas, and
of that figure more than half were living outside the central cities.
While the Census Bureau and the United States government used the term SMSA (by 1969
there were 233 of them), social scientists were also using new terms to describe the elusive,
vaguely defined areas reaching out from what used to be simple “towns” and “cities”. A host of
terms came into use: “metropolitan regions,” “poly-nucleated population groups,”
“conurbations,” “metropolitan clusters,” “megalopolises” and so on.
A. How cities in the United States began and developed
B. Solutions to overcrowding in cities
C. The changing definition of an urban area
D. How the United States Census Bureau conducts a census
30. According to the passage, the population of the United States was first classified as rural
or urban in _______.
A. 1870 B. 1900 C. 1950 D. 1970
31. The word “distinguished” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. differentiated B. removed C. honored D. protected
32. Prior to 1900, how many inhabitants would a town have to have before being defined as
urban?
A. 2,500 B. 8,000 C. 15,000 D. 50,000
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33. According to the passage, why did the Census Bureau revise the definition of urban in
1950?
A. City borders had become less distinct
B. Cities had undergone radical social change.
C. Elected officials could not agree on an acceptable definition
D. New businesses had relocated to larger cities.
34. The word “those” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. boundaries B. persons C. units D. areas
35. The word “constituting” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. located near B. determined by C. calling for D. making up
The penny press, which emerged in the United States during the 1830’s, was a powerful
agent of mass communication. These newspapers were little dailies, generally four pages in
length, written for the mass taste. They differed from the staid, formal presentation of the
conservative press, with its emphasis on political and literary topics. The new papers were brief
and cheap, emphasizing sensational reports of police courts and juicy scandals as well as human
interest stories. Twentieth-century journalism was already foreshadowed in the penny press
of the 1830’s.
The New York Sun, founded in 1833, was the first successful penny paper, and it was
followed two years later by the New York Herald, published by James Gordon Bennett. Not long
after, Horace Greeley issued the New York Tribune, which was destined to become the most
influential paper in America. Greeley gave space to the issues that deeply touched the American
people before the Civil War – abolitionism, temperance, free homesteads, Utopian cooperative
settlements, and the problems of labor. The weekly edition of the Tribune, with 100,000
subscribers, has a remarkable influence in rural areas, especially in Western communities.
Americans were reputed to be the most avid readers of periodicals in the world. An
English observer enviously calculated that, in 1829, the number of newspapers circulated in
Great Britain was enough to reach only one out of every thirty-six inhabitants weekly;
Pennsylvania in that same year had a newspaper circulation which reached one out of every four
inhabitants weekly. Statistics seemed to justify the common belief that Americans were devoted
to periodicals. Newspapers in the United States increased from 1,200 in 1833 to 3,000 by the
early 1860’s, on the eve of the Civil War. This far exceeded the number and circulation of
newspapers in England and France.
36. What does the author mean by the statement “Twentieth-century journalism was
foreshadowed by the penny press of the 1930’s” in paragraph 1?
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A. The penny press darkened the reputation of news writing.
B. Twentieth-century journalism is more important than nineteenth-century journalism.
C. Penny-press news reporting was more accurate than that in twentieth-century
newspapers.
D. Modern news coverage is similar to that done by the penny press.
37. Which of the following would LEAST likely be in a penny-press paper?
A. A report of theft of union funds by company officials
B. An article about a little girl returning a large amount of money she found in the street
C. A scholarly analysis of an economic issue of national importance
D. A story about land being given away in the West
A. the New York Sun B. the New York Herald
C. America D. the Civil War
39. Who was Horace Greeley?
A. The publisher of the first penny-press paper to make a profit.
B. The founder of the penny-press paper that did the most to influence the thinking of the
public.
C. The most successful writer for the penny press.
D. The man who took over James Gordon Bennett’s penny-press paper and made it
successful.
40. The word “remarkable” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. significant B. discussable C. remote D. uneven
41. The word “avid” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. intelligent B. eager C. critical D. thrifty
42. The figures concerning newspaper circulation in Pennsylvania in 1829 are relevant
because they
A. explain why so many different periodicals were published
B. prove that weekly periodicals were more successful than daily papers
C. show the difference between reading habits before and after the Civil War
D. support the belief that Americans were enthusiastic readers of periodicals
43. The word “justify” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. generate B. calculate C. modify D. prove
exchanges.
44. “Make yourself at home!” – “_______”
A. Yes. Can I help you? B. Not at all. Don’t mention it.
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C. Thanks. The same to you. D. That is very kind. Thank you.
45. “Do you mind if I borrow a chair?” – “_______”
A. I’m sorry. B. Not at all. C. Yes, I do. D. Yes, I would
46. My sister worries so much about fitness that she wastes a lot of time and money.
A. My sister wastes a lot of time and money though she worries so much about fitness.
B. My sister worries about fitness so that she wastes a lot of time and money.
C. Worrying too much about fitness, my sister wastes a lot of time and money.
D. Fitness worried, my sister wasted a lot of time and money.
47. The heavy downpour brought their picnic to an abrupt end.
A. their picnic didn’t end in the heavy downpour.
B. The heavy downpour ended when they brought me to their picnic.
C. Their picnic ends abruptly because of the heavy downpour.
D. They had to cut short their picnic because of the heavy downpour.
48. You can now buy these products at all large supermarkets.
A. These products are now available at all large supermarkets.
B. All large supermarkets are now on sale these products.
C. These products are for sales to all large supermarkets.
D. All large markets are available with these products.
49. His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious
institution.
A. His academic record at high school was poor because he didn’t apply to that
B. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that
C. Failing to apply to that prestigious institution, his academic record at high school was
poor.
D. His academic record at high school was poor; as a result, he failed to apply to that
50. Overeating is a cause of several deadly diseases. Physical inactivity is another cause of
several deadly diseases.
A. Not only overeating but also physical inactivity may lead to several deadly diseases.
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B. Apart from physical activities, eating too much also contributes to several deadly
diseases.
C. Both overeating and physical inactivity result from several deadly diseases.
D. Overeating and physical inactivity are caused by several deadly diseases.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
1. A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases
2. A. Valentine B. imagine C. discipline D. determine
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. consider B. apply C. provide D. offer
4. A. pollution B. attractive C. separate D. activity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.
5. Most of the female football players will be jobless when the Game are over.
A. employed B. busy C. unemployed D. highly-paid
6. Parents interpret facial and vocal expressions as indicators of how a baby is feeling.
A. translate B. understand C. read D. comprehend
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.
7. A lot of people think that Kim Kardashian is really hot.
A. beautiful B. cool C. unattractive D. kind
8. A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work.
A. uncomfortable B. responsive C. calm D. miserable
9. Please remain in your assign seats until the instructor dismisses the class.
A. in B. assign seats C. until D. dismisses
10. Even you are unsure of the standard procedures in any situation, please don’t hesitate to
consult with your supervising manager.
A. Even B. unsure of C. in any situation D. consult with
11. We have always believed that honesty is best policy in personal as well as professional
matters.
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A. have always believed B. best policy
C. personal D. professional
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
12. I haven’t _______ my mind where to go for our holiday this year. I am quite busy at
work.
A. turn up B. made up C. break up D. changed
13. I wish you _______ making so much noise! I just need to relax for a while.
A. will stop B. stop C. had stopped D. would stop
14. Gold, as well as silver, _______ in price, he said.
A. have fallen B. has fallen C. fall D. are falling
15. I wonder if you could _______ me a small favour, Tom?
A. bring B. make C. give D. do
16. Many traffic accidents are _______ by carelessness and impatience.
A. caused B. resulted C. occurred D. happened
17. Sam confessed _______ all the cookies.
A. eat B. eating C. to eating D. to eat
18. The bus conductor told him to get off because he couldn’t pay the _______.
A. fare B. journey C. bill D. travel
19. Some people believe that books are _______ species, fighting for survival in competition
with TV, film, the Internet and CD.
A. danger B. dangerous C. endangered D. dangerously
20. _______ quickly they ran, they just couldn’t catch up with the van.
A. However B. So C. Even D. Much
21. Our team was losing but we managed to _______ the score.
A. get B. noticed C. even D. have
22. Since Carl was unable to pay his bill, after a couple of months, his telephone was
_______.
A. cut off B. broken up C. dropped off D. rung up
23. He always did it well at school _______ having his early education disrupted by illness.
A. in spite of B. on account of C. in addition to D. even though
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the
following exchanges.
24. “Didn’t you go to the conference?” – “_______”
A. No, I went there with my friends. B. That sounds nice, but I can’t.
C. Don’t worry. I’ll go there. D. I did, but I didn’t stay long.
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25. “May I leave a message for Ms. Davis?” – “_______”
A. I’m afraid she’s not here at the moment.
B. No, she’s not here now.
C. She’s leaving a message to you now.
D. Yes, I’ll make sure she gets it.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following sentences.
26. Most people get fewer colds in the summer than in the winter.
A. A person is more likely to get a cold in the winter than in the summer.
B. More people have summer colds than winter colds.
C. People get colder in the summer than in the winter.
D. The winter is much colder than the summer.
27. If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work.
A. He was careless because he hadn’t finished the work.
B. If her were careful, we would finish the work.
C. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work.
D. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work.
28. The captain to his men: “Abandon the ship immediately!”
A. The captain invited his men to abandon the ship immediately.
B. The captain suggested his men abandon the ship immediately.
C. The captain ordered his men to abandon the ship immediately.
D. The captain requested his men to abandon the ship immediately.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
29. The girl is talking to a man with a ponytail. She is my friend.
A. The girl who is talking to a man with a ponytail is my friend.
B. The girl, whom a man with a ponytail is talking to, is my friend.
C. My friend is the girl, who is talking to a man with a ponytail.
D. The girl, who is talking to a man with a ponytail, is my friend.
30. She doesn’t want to go to their party. We don’t want to go either.
A. Neither she nor we don’t want to go to their party.
B. Neither we nor she wants to go to their party.
C. Either we or she doesn’t want to go to their party.
D. Neither we nor she want to go to their party.
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Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
35.
THE OLD GATE
In the Middle Ages the vast majority of European cities had walls around them. They (31)
_______ to defend the city, but they also kept out undesirable people, like those with contagious
diseases.
Most of London’s gates had been (32) _______ by the end of the eighteenth century.
However, by a stroke of luck, the last of them was preserved. This gate is, in actual fact, not
called a gate at all; its name is Temple Bar, and it marked the (33) _______ between the old City
of London and Westminster. However, as the (34) _______ of traffic through London increased,
Temple Bar became an obstacle to its free flow. In 1878 it was decided to take it down, so its
stone were numbered, dismantled and put in storage. A couple of years later a wealthy
businessman bought the stones and re-erected them at his house in Hertfordshire.
In the 1970s the Temple Bar Trust was (35) _______ with the intention of returning the
gate to the City of London. Much of the money for this project was donations from the Temple
Bar Trust. The stonework needed a lot of restoration, which was carried out by the Cathedral
Works Organization. Today, Temple Bar stands next to St Paul’s Cathedral.
31. A. supposed B. served C. expected D. meant
32. A. devoted B. demolished C. declared D. decreased
33. A. division B. part C. line D. boundary
34. A. amount B. quantity C. bulk D. number
35. A. set out B. set up C. set off D. set back
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
In developing countries, where three fourths of the world’s population live, sixty percent of
the people who can’t read and write are women. Being illiterate doesn’t mean they are not
intelligent. It does mean it is difficult for them to change their lives. They produce more than half
of the food. In Africa eighty percent of all agricultural work is done by women. There are many
programs to help poor countries develop their agriculture. However, for years, these programs
provided money and training for men.
In parts of Africa, this is a typical day for a village woman. At 4:45 am, she gets up,
washes and eats. It takes her a half hour to walk to the fields, and she works there until 3:30 pm.
She collects firewood and gets home at 4:00. She spends the next hour and a half preparing food
to cook. Then she collect water for another hour. From 6:30 to 8:30 she cooks. After dinner, she
spends an hour washing the dishes and her children. She goes to bed at 9:30 pm.
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International organizations and programs run by developed nations are starting to help
women, as well as men, improve their agricultural production. Government have already passed
some laws affecting women because of the UN Decade for Women. The UN report will affect
the changes now happening in the family and society.
36. What does the word “run” in the last paragraph mean?
A. move quickly B. push C. managed D. organized
37. Why do people say women produce more than half of the food in Africa?
A. because 60 percent of women are illiterate.
B. because 80 percent of all agricultural work is done by women.
C. most women are not intelligent.
D. all are correct.
38. Why do people say that Africa women’s lives are hard?
A. Because these women are busy with housework.
B. Because they work all day in the fields.
C. both A and B are correct.
D. Because they are illiterate.
39. A typical Africa woman spends _______ collecting firewood every day.
A. 3 hours B. 2 hours C. 1 hour D. 4 hours
40. Which of these statements is NOT TRUE?
A. Women’s roles in the family and society are changing nowadays.
B. It is difficult for women to change their lives because of their illiteracy.
C. In the past only men in poor countries got benefit from many international programs.
D. Because they are illiterate, women are not intelligent.
41. By whom (what) was the Decade for Women organized?
A. by the United Nations Organization. B. by developing countries.
C. by the World Health Organization. D. by many African countries.
42. The passage would most likely be followed by details about _______.
A. changes in life between men and women in the family and in the society.
B. negative effects of the UNO law
C. positive effects of the roles of women
D. women and men’s roles in their family
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
In Science, a theory is a reasonable explanation of observed events that are related. A
theory often involves an imaginary model that helps scientists picture the way an observed event
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could be produced. A good example of this is found in the kinetic molecular theory, in which
gases are pictured as being made up of many small particles that are in constant motion.
After a theory has been publicized, scientists design experiments to test the theory. If
observations confirm the scientists’ predictions, the theory is supported. If observations do not
confirm the predictions, the scientists must search further. There may be a fault in the
experiment, or the theory may have to be revised or rejected.
Science involves imagination and creative thinking as well as collecting information and
performing experiments. Facts by themselves are not science. As the mathematician Jules Henri
Poincare said: “Science is built with facts just as a house is built bricks, but a collection of facts
cannot be called science any more than a pile of bricks can be called a house”
Most scientists start an investigation by finding out what other scientists have learned
about a particular problem. After known facts have been gathered, the scientists comes to the
part of the investigation that requires considerable imagination. Possible solutions to the problem
are formulated. These possible solutions are called hypotheses. In a way, any hypothesis is a leap
into the unknown. It extends the scientist’s thinking beyond the known facts. The scientist plans
experiments, performs calculations, and make observations to test hypotheses. For without
hypotheses, further investigation lacks purpose and direction. When hypotheses are confirmed,
they are incorporated into theories.
43. Which of the following is the main subject of the passage?
A. The importance of models in scientific theories.
B. The sorts of facts that scientists find most interesting.
C. The ways that scientists perform different types of experiments.
D. The place of theory and hypothesis in scientific investigation.
44. The word “related” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. described B. identified C. connected D. completed
45. According to the second paragraph, a useful theory is one that helps scientists to
_______.
A. observe events B. publicize new findings
C. make predictions D. find errors in past experiments
46. The word “supported” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. upheld B. finished C. adjusted D. investigated
47. “Bricks” are mentioned in paragraph 3 to indicate how _______.
A. science is more than a collection of facts
B. scientific experiments have led to improved technology
C. mathematicians approach science
D. building a house is like performing experiments
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48. In the fourth paragraph, the author implies that imagination is most important to scientists
when they _______.
A. formulate possible solutions to a problem
B. evaluate previous work on a problem
C. close an investigation
D. gather known facts
49. In the last paragraph, what does the author imply is a major function of hypotheses?
A. Linking together different theories.
B. Communicating a scientist’s thoughts to others.
C. Providing direction for scientific research.
D. Sifting through known facts.
50. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Theories are simply imaginary models of past events.
B. A scientist’s most difficult task is testing hypotheses.
C. A good scientist needs to be creative.
D. It is better to revise a hypothesis than to reject it.
1. A. crop B. common C. household D. bodily
2. A. charity B. chaos C. champion D. chin
3. A. accelerate B. impossible C. assimilate D. opposition
4. A. intervention B. eventually C. renovation D. confirmation
5. As a government official, Benjamin Franklin often traveled abroad.
A. widely B. secretly C. alone D. overseas
6. The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water.
A. connived B. survived C. surprised D. revived
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
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surplus.
8. Her father likes the head cabbage rare.
A. over-boiled B. precious C. scarce D. scare
9. People respected him because he was a honest man.
A. People B. respected C. because D. a honest man
10. My uncle has just bought some expensive furnitures fir his new house.
A. has just bought B. expensive C. furnitures D. for his new house
11. The flag over the White House is risen at dawn everyday by a color guard from the
United States armed forces.
A. over the White House B. is risen
C. at dawn D. armed
12. When I last saw him, he _______ in London.
A. lived B. is living C. was living D. had been living
13. They studied hard and _______ they passed the entrance exam.
A. eventually B. finally C. at the end D. finish
14. I shivered and sweated _______.
A. continue B. continual C. continuously D. continually
15. I _______ to Greece until Sally and I went there last summer.
A. have never been B. had never been
C. was never being D. were never
16. As the drug took _______, the patient became quieter.
A. effect B. force C. influence D. action
17. He said if he had not answered the phone at the petroleum station then, he _______ a
fine.
A. would pay B. hadn’t paid C. had been paid D. wouldn’t have had to
pay
18. Jim’s _______ flu again. That’s the third time this year.
A. led up to B. come up with C. gone down with D. put up with
19. I am driving instructor so I have to be very _______ as people get upset when you critize
them.
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A. powerful B. skillful C. tactful D. helpful
20. The number of learners of English _______ in recent years.
A. have increased rapidly B. has been increased rapidly
C. have been increased rapidly D. has increased rapidly
21. The old manager has just retired, so Tom takes _______ his position.
A. in B. on C. up D. out
22. Every step _______ to improve the living conditions in these slums only attracts more
migrants.
A. held B. hold C. taken D. took
23. When you have a small child in the house, you _______ leave small objects lying
around. Such objects _______ be swallowed, causing serious injury or even death.
A. needn’t/ may B. should not/ might
C. should/ must D. mustn’t/ can’t
24. “How can this dress be so expensive?” – “_______”
A. Yes, it’s the most expensive. B. What an expensive dress!
C. You’re paying for the brand. D. That’s a good idea.
25. “May I speak to the manager?” – “_______”
A. He always comes late. He is not very well.
B. Thank you. Good bye.
C. I’m afraid he’s not in. Can I take a message?
D. I’m afraid not. He works very hard.
26. Amanda has improved a lot this term.
A. Amanda has made a lot of impression this term.
B. Amanda has made great progress this term.
C. A lot of progress were made by Amanda this term.
D. Amanda has made a lot of advances this term.
27. They have collected the test and checked the answers.
A. The tests have been collected and the answers have been checked.
B. They have checked the answers when they have collected the tests.
C. The tests have been collected for checking.
D. The answers would be given after they collected the tests.
28. Machines have taken the place of the people who used to do this kind of work.
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A. It is machines that do this kind of work, not people.
B. Thanks to machines, people no longer do this kind of work.
C. Machines are better than people at doing this kind of work.
D. The people who used to do this kind of work have been replaced by machines.
29. I think my hair looks fine. My brother believes it needs a little more brushing.
A. Not only do I think my hair looks fine, but my mother also believes it needs a little
more brushing.
B. Either my mother believes it needs a little more brushing or I think my hair looks fine.
C. I think my hair looks so fine that my mother believes it needs a little more brushing.
D. I think my hair looks fine, but my mother believes it needs a little more brushing.
30. We can protect the world in which we live. We, for example, can grow more trees and
recycle rubbish.
A. We can protect the world in which we lives as well as we can grow more trees and
recycle rubbish.
B. We can protect the world in which we live, growing more trees and recycle rubbish.
C. We can protect the world in which we live by growing more trees and recycling
rubbish.
D. We can protect the world in which we live such as growing more trees and recycling
rubbish.
35.
PAPER
‘Just imagine a day without paper,’ reads one advertisement for a Finnish paper company.
It adds, ‘You almost certainly see our products every day.’ And they’re right. But in most
industrial countries., people are so (31) _______ to paper – whether it’s for holding their
groceries, for drying their hands or for providing them with the daily news – that its (32)
_______ in their daily lives passes largely unnoticed.
At one (33) _______ paper was in short supply and was used mainly for important
documents, but more recently, growing economies and new technologies have (34) _______ a
dramatic increase in the amount of paper used. Today, there are more than 450 different grades
of paper, all designed for a different purpose.
Decades ago, some people predicted a ‘paperless office’. Instead, the widespread use of
new technologies has gone hand-in-hand with an increased use of paper. Research into the
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relationship between paper use and the use of computers has shown that the general (35)
_______ is likely to be one of growth and interdependence.
However, the costs involved in paper production, in terms of the world’s land, water and
air resources, are high. This raises some important questions. How much paper do we really need
and how much is wasted?
31. A. conscious B. acquainted C. familiar D. accustomed
32. A. task B. operation C. service D. role
33. A. time B. instance C. date D. occasion
34. A. called on B. come around C. brought about D. drawn up
35. A. method B. order C. trend D. system
ACADEMICS AREN’T THE PROBLEM
Studies about how students use their time might shed light on whether they face increased
academic and financial pressures compared with earlier eras.
Based on data about how students are spending time, academic or financial pressures don’t
seem to be greater now than a generation ago. The data show that full-time students in all types
of colleges study much less now than they did a generation ago – a full 10 hours a week lees.
Students are also receiving significantly higher grades. So it appears that academic pressure are,
in fact, considerably lower than they used to be.
The time-use data don’t suggest that students feel greater financial pressures, either. When
the time savings and lower opportunity costs are factored in, college appears less expensive for
most students than it was in the 1960s. And though there are now full-time students working to
pay while in college, they study less even when paid work choices are held constantly.
In other words, full-time students do not appear to be studying less in order to work more.
They appears to be studying less and spending the extra time on leisure activities or fun. It seems
hard to imagine that students feeling increased financial pressure would respond by taking more
leisure.
Based on how students are spending their time then, it doesn’t look as though academic or
financial pressures are greater now than a generation ago. The time-use data don’t speak directly
to social pressures, and it may well be that these have become more intense lately.
In one recent set of data, students reported spending more than 23 hours per week either
socializing with friends or playing on the computer for fun. Social activities, in person or on
computer, would seem to have become the major focus of campus life. It is hard to tell what
kinds of pressures would be associated with this change.
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36. The study’s condition that students’ workload now is not greater than before is based on
_______.
A. what students achieve with greater load
B. how students spend their time
C. how students work through college
D. what college demands from students
37. Students get higher grades as _______.
A. students study much harder
B. academic workload appears more attractive
C. academic workload appears less demanding
D. college’s facilities are much better
38. According to the author, the fact that students have more time for leisure is a proof that
_______.
A. financial pressure on students is not a problem
B. academic work disinterests them
C. they are active with extra-curricular activities
D. they cannot find extra jobs
39. All factors considered, college now seems _______.
A. more costly B. ever more expensive
C. much more expensive D. less expensive
40. Students nowadays seem to be studying less and _______.
A. spending more time on leisure B. spending more time doing odd jobs
C. giving more time to sports D. taking more extracurricular activities
41. The word “focus” in the last paragraph can be replace with _______.
A. central activity B. primary theme C. headline D. biggest importance
42. The author finds it hard to point out _______.
A. how students’ campus life becomes subject to academic pressure
B. what is associated with the change in students’ campus life
C. the cause to students’ financial pressure
D. how the background of students’ campus life is built
The biologist’s role in society as well as his moral and ethical responsibility in the
discovery and development of new ideas has led to a reassessment of his social and scientific
value systems. A scientist can no longer ignore the consequences of his discoveries; he is as
concerned with the possible misuses of his findings as he is with the basic research in which he is
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involved. This emerging social and political role of the biologist and all other scientists requires
a weighing of values that cannot be done with the accuracy or the objectivity of a laboratory
balance. As a member of society, it is necessary for a biologist now to redefine his social
obligations and his functions, particularly in the realm of making judgments about such ethical
problems as man’s control of his environment or his manipulation of genes to direct further
evolutionary development. As a result of recent discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms,
genetic engineering, by which human traits are made to order, may soon be a reality.
As desirable as it may seem to be, such an accomplishment would entail many value
judgments. Who would decide, for example, which traits should be selected for change? In case
of genetic deficiencies and disease, the desirability of the change is obvious, but the possibilities
for social misuse are so numerous that they may far outweigh the benefits.
Probably the greatest biological problem of the future, as it is of the present, will be to find
ways to curb environmental pollution without interfering with man’s constant effort to improve
the quality of his life. Many scientists believe that underlying the spectre of pollution is the
problem of surplus human population. A rise in population necessitates an increase in the
operations of modern industry, the waste products of which increase the pollution of air, water,
and soil. The question of how many people the resources of the Earth can support is one of
critical importance.
Although the solutions to these and many other problems are yet to be found, they do
indicate the need for biologists to work with social scientists and other members of society in
order to determine the requirements necessary for maintaining a healthy and productive planet.
For although many of man’s present and future problems may seem to be essentially social,
political, or economic in nature, they have biological ramifications that could affect the very
existence of life itself.
43. According to the passage, a modern scientist should be more concerned about _______.
A. the consequences of his discoveries B. his basic research
C. his manipulation of genes D. the development of new ideas
44. The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. genetic engineering B. an accomplishment
C. hereditary mechanism D. a reality
45. It is implied in the passage that genetic engineering _______.
A. will change all human traits B. is no longer desirable
C. is the most desirable for life D. may do us more harm than good
46. The pronoun “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. possibilities for genetic deficiencies
B. cases of genetic deficiencies
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C. discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms
D. effects of genetic engineering misuse
47. What is probably the most important biological problem mentioned in the passage?
A. environmental pollution
B. manipulation of genes
C. genetic engineering misuse
D. social and economic deficiencies
48. According to the passage, to save our planet, biologists should work _______.
A. with other social scientists
B. accurately and objectively
C. on social and political purposes
D. harder and harder
49. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “ramifications” in paragraph 4?
A. effective techniques
B. latest developments
C. harmful consequences
D. useful experiments
50. What is the author’s purpose in this passage?
A. To urge biologists to solve the problem of surplus human population
B. To conduct a survey of the biologist’s role in society
C. To advise biologists to carry out extensive research into genetic engineering
D. To emphasize the biologist’s role in solving the world’s problems
1. A. merchant B. sergeant C. commercial D. mermaid
2. A. obstacle B. obscure C. obsession D. oblivious
3. A. generous B. electricity C. horrible D. famous
4. A. economy B. village C. interest D. industry
5. The boy was brought up with a family in the countryside.
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A. reared B. bred C. raised D. grown
6. There was nothing they could do but leave the car at the roadside where it had broken
down.
A. except B. instead of C. than D. unless
7. We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.
A. uninterested B. unsure C. slow D. open
8. We tried to emphasize a system where you put things in place and hire smart, industrious
people.
A. slothful B. hardworking C. busy D. fruitful
9. The windows at the front of the house need to repair.
A. The windows B. of the house C. need D. to repair
10. Last week Mark told me that he got very bored with his present job and were looking for
a new one.
A. told B. got C. were looking D. new one
11. New laws should be introduced to reduce the number of traffic in the city center.
A. laws B. be introduced C. number D. city center
12. I _______ along the street when I suddenly heard footsteps behind me.
A. was walking B. am walking C. walk D. walked
13. “You should stop working too hard _______ you’ll get sick”.
A. or else B. if C. in case D. whereas
14. He occasionally _______ a headache in the morning.
A. has had B. has C. have D. is having
15. Nowadays children would prefer history lessons _______ in more practical ways.
A. to be delivered B. delivered C. be delivered D. to be delivering
16. They would _______ go by air than travel by train.
17. Henry _______ into the restaurant when the writer was having dinner.
A. was going B. went C. has gone D. did go
18. She _______ the baby on the bed in order to change its nappy.
A. lay B. laid C. lied D. lain
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19. These quick and easy _______ can be effective in the short term, but they have a cost.
A. solve B. solvable C. solutions D. solvability
20. The headmaster said the students had well performed in the test _______.
A. yesterday B. last day C. the day before D. the previous
21. I’ve just spent two weeks looking _______ an aunt of mine who’s been ill.
A. at B. for C. out for D. after
22. Were you aware _______ the regulations against smoking in the area?
A. in B. with C. of D. about
23. My uncle took _______ golf when he retired from work.
A. on B. after C. up D. over
24. “Why did you turn the air conditioner on? – “_______”
A. I think it’s a bad air conditioner. B. I can’t see anything.
C. It’s a little hot in here. D. It’s a good idea.
25. “Where’s the view? The advertisement said this place has a great view of the sea.” –
“_______”
A. It has good facilities. B. It’s convenient to see it.
C. You can find it very convenient. D. You can see it from the back.
26. “How fashionable your dress is!” they said to the lady.
A. They exclaimed in admiration for how fashionable the lady’s dress was.
B. They exclaimed with admiration at how fashionable was the lady’s dress.
C. They exclaimed with admiration at how fashionable the lady’s dress was.
D. They exclaimed in admiration that it was fashionable dress the lady had.
27. Of the members, half were for the proposal and half were against.
A. The member of members who favoured the proposal was equal to the number who
opposed it.
B. None of the members could agree whether to accept or reject the proposal.
C. Half of the members were chosen for the project, but those who weren’t objected to it.
D. Many members didn’t agree with the proposal, but some did.
28. You can never be sure about the accuracy of TV weather reports.
A. If you want to know how the weather is going to be, you should watch TV.
B. There are more accurate ways of learning how the weather will be than watching TV.
C. If I were you, I would rely on the TV weather report.
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D. Weather forecasts on television are notoriously unreliable.
29. This computer is badly damaged. It cannot be required.
A. This computer is too badly damaged to be repaired.
B. This computer is so badly damaged that it cannot be repaired.
C. This computer is so badly damaged that nobody can repair it.
D. All are correct.
30. The blouse is a little too loose. You’d better ask your tailor to take it in.
A. Your tailor is asked to take your blouse in a little.
B. You’d better have the blouse taken in as it is too loose.
C. The blouse is lost as you didn’t ask your tailor to take it in.
D. The blouse is little as you asked your tailor to take it in.
35.
THE PERFORMING ARTS
In the past, British children were frequently encouraged to try out their performing skills
for the benefits of adults. They did this by reading aloud, acting or (31) _______ a musical
instrument. As they grew up they were taken to public places of entertainment – the theatre,
opera, circus or ballet. They looked forward to these (32) _______ with great excitement and
would remember and discuss what they had seen for many weeks afterwards. But nowadays
television and computers supply an endless stream of easily (33) _______ entertainment, and
children quickly accept these marvelous inventions as a very ordinary part of their everyday
lives. For many children, the sense of witnessing a very (34) _______ live performance is gone
forever.
But all is not lost. The presence of a TV set may have encouraged a lazy response from
(35) _______ in their own homes, but the desire of those with ambitions to become performing
artists themselves does not seem to have been at all diminished. And live performances in public
are still relatively popular, albeit with an older, more specialist audience.
31. A. controlling B. handling C. doing D. playing
32. A. circumstances B. occasions C. incidents D. situations
33. A. applicable B. convenient C. available D. free
34. A. special B. peculiar C. specific D. particular
35. A. spectators B. onlookers C. viewers D. listeners
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The invention of the electric telegraph gave birth to the communications industry.
Although Samuel B. Morse succeeded in making the invention useful in 1837, it was not until
1843 that the first telegraph line of consequence was constructed. By 1860 more than 50,000
miles of lines connected people east of the Rockies. The following year, San Francisco was
added to the network.
The national telegraph network fortified the ties between East and West and contributed to
the rapid expansion of the railroads by providing an efficient means to monitor schedules and
routes. Furthermore, the extension of the telegraph, combined with the invention of the steam-
driven rotary printing press by Richard M. Hoe in 1846, revolutionized the world of journalism.
Where the business of news gathering had been dependent upon the mail and on hand-operated
presses, the telegraph expanded the amount of information a newspaper could supply and
allowed for more timely reporting. The establishment of the Associated Press as a central wire
service in 1846 marked the advent of a new era in journalism.
36. The main topic of the passage is _______.
A. the history of journalism
B. the origin of the national telegraph
C. how the telegraph network contributed to the expansion of railroads
D. the contributions and development of the telegraph network
37. The word “gathering” in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. people B. information C. objects D. substances
38. The author’s main purpose in this passage is to _______.
A. compare the invention of the telegraph with the invention of the steam-driven rotary
press
B. propose new ways to develop the communications industry
C. show how the electric telegraph affected the communications industry
D. criticize Samuel B. Morse
39. It can be inferred from the passage that _______.
A. Samuel Morse did not make a significant contribution to the communications industry
B. Morse’s invention did not immediately achieve its full potential
C. The extension of the telegraph was more important than its invention
D. Journalists have the Associated Press to thank for the birth of communications
industry
40. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the growth of the
communications industry?
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A. Morse invented the telegraph in 1837
B. People could use the telegraph in San Francisco in 1861
C. The telegraph led to the invention of the rotary printing press
D. The telegraph helped connect the entire nation
41. The word “Rockies” refers to _______.
A. a telegraph company B. the West Coast
C. a mountain range D. a railroad company
42. This passage would most likely be found in a _______.
A. U.S. history book B. book on trains
C. science textbook D. computer magazine
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
All mammals feed their young. Beluga whale mothers, for example, nurse their calves for
some twenty months, until they are about to give birth again and their young are able to find their
own food. The behavior of feeding of young is built into the reproductive system. It is a
nonselective part of parental care and the defining feature of a mammal, the most important thing
that mammals – whether marsupials, platypuses, spiny anteaters, or placental mammals – have in
common.
But not all animal parents, even those that tend their offspring to the point of hatching or
birth, feed their young. Most egg-guarding fish do not, for the simple reason that their young are
so much smaller than the parents and eat food that is also much smaller than the food eaten by
adults. In reptiles, the crocodile mother protects her young after they have hatched and takes
them down to the water, where they will find food, but she does not actually feed them. Few
insects feed their young after hatching, but some make other arrangement, provisioning their
cells and nests with caterpillars and spiders that they have paralyzed with their venom and stored
in a state of suspended animation so that their larvae might have a supply of fresh food when
they hatch.
For animals other than mammals, then, feeding is not intrinsic to parental care. Animals
add it to their reproductive strategies to give them an edge in their lifelong quest for descendants.
The most vulnerable moment in any animal’s life is when it first finds itself completely on its
own, when it must forage and fend for itself. Feeding postpones that moment until a young
animal has grown to such a size that it is better able to cope.
Young that are fed by their parents become nutritionally independent at a much greater
fraction of their full adult size. And in the meantime those young are shielded against the
vagaries of fluctuating of difficult-to-find supplies. Once a species does take the step of feeding
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its young, the young become totally dependent on the extra effort. If both parents are removed,
the young generally do not survive.
A. The care that various animals give to their offspring
B. The difficulties young animals face in obtaining food
C. the methods that mammals use to nurse their young
D. The importance among young mammals of becoming independent
44. The author lists various animals in the first paragraph to _______.
A. contrast the feeling habits of different types of mammals
B. describe the process by which mammals came to be defined
C. emphasize the point that every type of mammals feeds its own young
D. explain why a particular feature of mammals is nonselective
45. The word “tend” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. sit on B. move C. notice D. care for
46. The word “provisioning” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. supplying B. preparing C. building D. expanding
47. According to the passage, how do some insects make sure their young have food?
A. By storing food near their young
B. By locating their nests or cells near spiders and caterpillars
C. By searching for food some distance from their nest
D. By gathering food from a nearby water source
48. The word “edge” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. opportunity B. advantage C. purpose D. rest
49. The word “it” in the third paragraph refers to _______.
A. feeding B. moment C. young animal D. size
50. The word “shielded” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. raised B. protected C. hatched D. valued
1. A. failed B. reached C. absorbed D. solved
2. A. develops B. takes C. laughs D. volumes
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3. A. deafness B. arrange C. absorb D. exhaust
4. A. dedicate B. sensible C. treatment D. employment
5. Smoking has been banned in public places in some countries.
A. made illegal B. limited C. restricted D. given way
6. During the earthquake, a lot of buildings collapsed, which killed thousands of people.
A. went off accidentally B. fell down unexpectedly
C. explored suddenly D. erupted violently
7. Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honor the check.
A. different B. genuine C. fake D. similar
8. Constant correction by a teacher is often counterproductive, as the student may become
afraid to speak at all.
A. desolate B. productive C. barren D. effective
9. Woman were denied the right to own property and participate in public life.
A. Woman B. the right C. and D. in public life
10. Bill is often late for class, which makes his teachers angrily.
A. is B. for C. which D. angrily
11. Books with good stories are often described like food for thought.
A. with B. are C. described D. like
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correction answer to each
of the following questions.
12. Although he tried to hide it, it was _______ that Peter didn’t like his birthday present.
A. foolish B. basic C. obvious D. vigorous
13. Environmental groups try to stop farmers from using harmful _______ on their crops.
A. economy B. articulate C. investments D. chemicals
14. If you _______ too much on study, you will get tired and stressed.
A. concentrate B. develop C. organize D. complain
15. The bus only stops here to _______ passengers.
A. alight B. get on C. get off D. pick up
16. Everyone has their _______ which are hardly recognized by themselves.
A. limit B. limited C. limitation D. limitations
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17. In order to _______ their goals in college, students need to invest the maximum amount
of time, money, and energy in their studies.
A. achieve B. catch C. establish D. manage
18. _______ the students in my class enjoy taking part in social activities.
A. Most B. Most of C. Many D. The number of
19. Vehicles also account _______ air pollution in the cities.
A. on B. at C. for D. in
20. The people _______ for the bus in the rain are getting wet.
A. waiting B. to wait C. waited D. wait
21. I take _______ everything I said about Tom. I realize now that it wasn’t true.
A. on B. over C. in D. back
22. Hey, you _______ at the computer all day. You should really take a break now.
A. were sitting B. have been sitting
C. have sit D. have sat
23. A lot of money _______ on advertising every year.
A. spend B. is spent C. are spent D. spends
24. “I think the pants are a little big.” – “_______”
A. Are they big enough? B. You should get a bigger pair.
C. Yes, maybe a little. D. Yes, they are not big at all.
25. “What does this thing do?” – “_______”
A. I think it’s a waste of money. B. It peels potatoes.
C. It sure does. D. I can use it well.
26. Who made you work so hard yesterday?
A. Who forced you to work so hard yesterday?
B. Why did you work so hard yesterday?
C. What made you work so hard yesterday?
D. How could you work so hard yesterday?
27. We stayed in that hotel despite the noise.
A. Despite the hotel is noisy, we stayed here.
B. We stayed in the noisy hotel and we liked it.
C. No matter how noisy the hotel was, we stayed there.
D. Because of the noise, we stayed in the hotel.
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28. She is studying not only English but also French.
A. She is studying both English and French.
B. English and French are favorite subjects.
C. She likes both English and French.
D. She isn’t studying English, but she is studying French.
29. Mary was sick. She didn’t leave the meeting until it ended.
A. In spite of the fact that Mary’s sickness, she didn’t leave the meeting until it ended.
B. Mary didn’t leave the meeting until it ended despite she was sick.
C. When the meeting ended, Mary left because she was sick.
D. Though sick, Mary didn’t leave the meeting until it ended.
C. He used the top of his foot to give the ball a powerful kick.
D. What he wants to do is give the ball a powerful kick and use the top of his foot.
indicate the correct word or phrase that bests fit each of the numbered blanks from 31 to
35.
SHOPPING MALLS
Victor Gruen, an American architect, revolutionized shopping in the 1950s by creating the
type of shopping centre that we now call a shopping mall.
Gruen’s (31) _______ was to provide a pleasant, quiet and spacious shopping environment
with large car parks, which usually meant building in the suburbs. He also wanted people to be
able to shop in all kinds of weather. He (32) _______ on using building designs that he knew
people would feel comfortable with, but placed them in landscaped ‘streets’ that were entirely
enclosed and often covered with a curved glass roof. This was done to (33) _______ some of the
older shopping arcades of city centres, but while these housed only small speciality shops,
Gruen’s shopping malls were on a much grander scale.
Access to the whole shopping mall was gained by using the main doors, which (34)
_______ the shopping ‘streets’ from the parking areas outside. As there was no need to keep out
bad weather, shops no longer needed windows and doors, and people could wander (35) _______
from shop to shop. In many cities, shopping malls now contain much more than just shops;
cinemas, restaurants and other forms of entertainment are also growing in popularity.
31. A. direction B. aim C. search D. view
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32. A. insisted B. demanded C. requested D. emphasized
33. A. model B. imitate C. repeat D. shadow
34. A. disconnected B. withdrew C. separated D. parted
35. A. freely B. loosely C. simply D. entirely
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions 36 to 42.
As heart disease continues to be the number-one killer in the United States, researches have
become increasingly interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks.
High-fat diets and “life in the fast lane” have long been known to contribute to the high
incidence of heart failure. Bur according to new studies, the list of risk factors may be
significantly longer and quite surprising.
Heart failure, for example, appears to have seasonal and temporal patterns. A higher
percentage of heart attacks occur in cold weather, and more people experience heart failure on
Monday than on any other day of the week. In addition, people are more susceptible to heart
attacks in the first few hours after walking. Cardiologists first observed this morning
phenomenon in the mid-1980, and have since discovered a number of possible causes. An early-
morning rise in blood pressure, heart rate, and concentration of heart stimulating hormones, plus
a reduction of blood flow to the heart, may all contribute to the higher incidence of heart attacks
between the hours of 8:00 A.M. and 10:00 A.M.
In other studies, both birthdays and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors.
Statistics reveal that heart attack rates increase significantly for both females and males in the
few days immediately preceding and following their birthdays. And unmarried men are more at
risk for heart attacks than their married counterparts. Though stress is thought to be linked in
some way of the aforementioned risk factors, intense research continues in the hope of further
comprehending why and how heart failure is triggered.
A. seasonal and temporal patterns of heart attacks
B. cardiology in the 1980s
C. risk factors in heart attacks
D. diet and stress as factors in heart attacks
37. The word “trigger” as used in line 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. affect B. cause C. encounter D. involve
38. Which of the following could best replace the world “incidence” as used in line 3?
A. factor B. rate C. chance D. increase
39. The phrase “susceptible to” in line 8 could best be replaced by
A. affected by B. prone to C. aware of D. accustomed
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40. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a possible cause of many heart
attacks?
A. decreased blood flow to the heart B. increased blood pressure
C. increase in hormones D. lower heart rate
41. Which of the following is NOT cited as a possible risk factor?
A. having a birthday B. being under stress
C. getting married D. eating fatty foods
42. Which of the following does the passage infer?
A. We have not identified many risk factors associated with heart attacks.
B. We now fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
C. We do not fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
D. We recently began to study how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
Since the dawn of time, people have found ways to communicate with one another. Smoke
signals and tribal drums were some of the earliest forms of communication. Letters, carried by
birds or by humans on foot or on horseback, made it possible for people to communicate larger
amounts of information between two places. The telegram and telephone set the stage for more
modern means of communication. With the invention of the cellular phone, communication itself
has become mobile.
For you, a cell phone is probably just a device that you and your friends use to keep in
touch with family and friends, take pictures, play games, or send text message. The definition of
a cell phone is more specific: it is a hand-held wireless communication device that sends and
receives signals by way of small special areas called cells.
Walkie-talkies, telephones and cell phones are duplex communication devices: They make
it possible for two people to talk to each other. Cell phones and walkie-talkies are different from
regular phones because they can be used in many different locations. A walkie-talkie is
sometimes called a half-duplex communication device because only one person can talk at a
time. A cell phone is a full-duplex device because it uses both frequencies at the same time. A
walkie-talkie has only one channel. A cell phone has more than a thousand channels. A walkie-
talkie can transmit and receive signals across a distance of about a mile. A cell phone can
transmit and receive signals over hundreds of miles. In 1973, an electronic company called
Motorola hired Martin Cooper to work on wireless communication. Motorola and Bell
Laboratories (now AT&T) were in a race to invent the first portable communication device.
Martin Cooper won the race and became the inventor of the cell phone. On April 3, 1973,
Cooper made the first cell phone call his opponent at AT&T while walking down the streets of
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New York city. People on the sidewalks gazed at Cooper in amazement. Cooper’s phone was
called a Motorola Dyna-Tac. It weighed a whopping 2.5 pounds (as compared to today’s cell
phones that weigh as little as 3 or 4 ounces)
After the invention of his cell phone, Cooper began thinking of ways to make the cell
phone available to the general public. After a decade, Motorola introduced the first cell phone for
commercial use. The early cell phone and its service were both expensive. The cell phone itself
cost about $3,500. In 1977, AT&T constructed a cell phone system and tried it out in Chicago
with over 2,000 customers. In 1981, a second cellular phone system was started in the
Washington, D.C and Baltimore area. It took nearly 37 years for cell phones to become available
for general public use. Today, there are more than sixty million cell phone customers with cell
phones producing over thirty billion dollars per years.
43. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. the increasing number of people using cell phone
B. the different between cell phones and telephones
C. the history of a cell phone
D. hoe Cooper compete with AT&T
44. What definition is true of a cell phone?
A. The first product of two famous corporation
B. A hand-held wireless communication device
C. Something we use just for playing games
D. A version of walkie-talkie
45. The word “duplex” is closest meaning to _______.
A. having two parts B. quick
C. modern D. having defects
46. To whom did Cooper make his first cell phone call?
A. his assistant at Motorola B. a person on New York street
C. a member of Bell Laboratories D. the director of his company
47. How heavy is the first cell phone compared to today’s cell phones?
A. ten times as heavy as B. as heavy as
C. much lighter D. 2 pounds heavier
48. When did AT&T widely start their cellular phone system?
A. in 2001 B. in 1977 C. in 1981 D. 37 years after their first
design
49. What does the word “gazed” mean?
A. looked with admiration B. angrily looked
C. glanced D. started conversation
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50. The phrase “tried it out” refers to _______.
A. made effort to sell the cell-phone B. reported on AT&T
C. tested the cell-phone system D. introduced the cell-phone system
1. A. species B. invent C. medicine D. tennis
2. A. advanced B. established C. preferred D. stopped
3. A. budget B. inquire C. tepid D. transcript
4. A. accomplish B. predictable C. prohibit D. duplicate
5. The doctor was sued for bad treatment.
A. mistreatment B. malpractice C. misdemeanour D. maltreatment
6. In astronomy, a scale of magnitude from one to six denotes the brightness of a star.
A. signifies B. predicts C. contrasts D. examines
7. We’d better speed up if we want to get there in time.
A. slow down B. turn down C. put down D. lie down
8. We are now a 24/7 society where shops and services must be available all hours.
A. an active society B. an inactive society
C. a physical society D. a working society
9. When I want to have my hair cuts I often go to the hairdresser’s.
A. When B. have C. cuts D. hairdresser’s
10. They asked me what did happen last night, but I was unable to tell them.
A. asked B. what did happen C. but D. to tell
11. Nonla, that is one of the typical symbols of the Vietnamese culture, has a conical form.
A. that B. typical C. of D. a
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12. Parents have great hopes of great _______ when they send their children to school.
A. wishes B. obligations C. expectations D. plans
13. Many people claimed _______ unidentified flying objects.
A. to see B. to have seen C. to had seen D. see
14. They have plenty of time, so they need not _______.
A. be hurry B. to hurry C. hurry D. to be hurry
15. She has changed so much that I didn’t _______ her right away.
A. admit B. recognize C. know D. believe
16. Don’t take any _______ of Mike – he’s always rude to everyone.
A. sight B. view C. notice D. attention
17. The tragic sinking of the Titanic _______ for she went down on her first voyage with
heavy loss of life.
A. will always remember B. will always be remembered
C. always remember D. no answer is correct
18. The problem of _______ among young people is hard to solve.
A. employment B. employers C. employees D. unemployment
19. The boy fell while he _______ down the stairs.
A. run B. running C. was running D. runs
20. Belinda Harrell _______ taking her driving test until she finally passed it on her twenty-
first attempt.
A. kept on B. cleared off C. used up D. wore out
21. You may get malaria _______ you are bitten by a mosquito.
A. if B. so that C. though D. unless
22. If only _______ taller, I might be better at basketball.
A. I am B. I were C. I be D. I have been
23. James is now too old to live on his own, so he is being _______ by his daughter.
A. found out B. brought up C. moved on D. looked after
24. “Where will you go on vacation?” – “_______”
A. Probably to the beach. B. The beach is nice, isn’t it?
C. Probably I won’t think of. D. I have a four-day vacation.
25. “I wonder if you could do something for me.” – “_______”
A. It depends on what it is. B. What’s it like.
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C. No, thanks. D. I’m afraid I won’t come.
26. The coffee was not strong. It didn’t keep us awake.
B. The coffee was not strong enough to keep us awake.
C. The coffee was not good enough for us to keep awake.
D. We were kept awake although the coffee was not strong.
27. Alison bought the big house because she wanted to open a hotel.
A. Alison bought the big house with a view to opening a hotel.
B. Alison bought the big house so that she can open a hotel.
C. Alison bought so big a house that she could use it as a hotel.
D. Alison bought the big house in a view of opening a hotel.
28. “Shall I carry the suitcase for you, Mary?” said John.
A. John offered Mary to carry the suitcase for Mary.
B. John offered to carry the suitcase for Mary.
C. John offered carrying the suitcase for Mary.
D. John offered Mary if he should carry the suitcase for her.
recycle rubbish.
A. We can protect the world in which we live as well as we can grow more trees and
recycle rubbish.
B. We can protect the world in which we live, growing more trees and recycling rubbish.
rubbish.
rubbish.
30. He enjoyed the army in 1998. He was soon after promoted to the rank of caption.
A. He was promoted to the rank of captain in 1998 and enjoyed the army.
B. Promoted to the rank of captain in 1998, he joined the army soon later.
C. He worked as a captain in the army and had a promotion in 1998.
D. Joining the army in 1998, he was soon promoted to the rank of captain.
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35.
THOMAS EDISON
On the night of 21 October 1931, millions of Americans took part in a coast-to-coast
ceremony to commemorate the passing of a great man. Lights (31) _______ in homes and offices
from New York to California. The ceremony marked the death of arguably the most important
inventor of all time: Thomas Edison.
Few inventors have (32) _______ such an impact on everyday life, and many of his
inventions played a crucial in the development of modern technology. One should never (33)
_______ how revolutionary some of Edison’s inventions were.
In many ways, Edison is the perfect example of an inventor – that is, not just someone who
dreams up clever gadgets, but someone whose products transform the lives of millions. He
possessed the key characteristics that an inventor needs to (34) _______ a success of inventions,
notably sheer determination. Edison famously tried thousands of materials while working on a
new type of battery, reacting to failure by cheerfully announcing to his colleagues: ‘Well, (35)
_______ we know 8,000 things that don’t work.’ Knowing when to take no notice of experts is
also important. Edison’s proposal for electric lighting circuitry was received with total disbelief
by eminent scientists, until he lit up whole streets with his lights.
31. A. turned out B. came off C. went out D. put off
32. A. put B. had C. served D. set
33. A. underestimate B. lower C. decrease D. mislead
34. A. gain B. make C. achieve D. get
35. A. by far B. at least C. even though D. for all
Walt Disney was born in 1990 in Chicago, but soon moved to a small farm near Marceline,
Missouri. From this rural and rather humble beginning he later became one of the most famous
and beloved motion-picture producers in history. Although he died in 1966, his name and artistic
legacy continue to influence the lives of millions of people though out the world.
After several years of barely making ends meet as a cartoon artist operating from his Los
Angeles garage, Disney had his first success in 1928, with his release of a Mickey Mouse
cartoon. Throughout the next decade, he continued to produce a number of cartoons, and develop
more of his highly profitable and enduring creations, such as Donald Duck and Pluto. In the late
1930s, he issued full-length cartoon film. Snow White became an instant commercial and critical
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success. This was only the first of many films, both animated and not, produced by Disney and
his studio.
But as renowned as Disney name is for cartoon and monies, it is probably best known for a
string of spectacular amusement and theme parks. Starting with California’s Disneyland in 1955
and culminating with the fantastically successful Disney World and EPCOT Center in Florida,
Disney became a household name. in recent years, the theme park concept became international,
with openings in Tokyo and Paris. With the continuing success of Disney, the creation of future
theme park are under discussion.
36. Which of the following is the title for the passage?
A. The history of Disney World and Disneyland. B. Walt Disney and his
legacy
C. Walt Disney and Animated Cartoon D. Walt Disney’s Boyhood
Years
37. What is the author’s attitude toward the accomplishments of Walt Disney?
A. respectful B. critical C. ambivalent D. approving
38. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. Snow White was the first full-length cartoon film.
B. Disney’s first concern was always profitability.
C. Mickey Mouse was Disney’s only cartoons creation.
D. Disney’s first achieved success after his death.
39. The word “enduring” in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. lasting B. suffering C. difficult D. famous
40. The word “renowned” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. talked about B. well-known C. possessed D. useful
A. the Tokyo theme park is in financial difficulty
B. Snow White was Disney’s most successful film
C. the California theme park is now closed
D. Disney created cartoon movies and “non-cartoon” movies
42. In future years it is most likely that _______.
A. the remaining theme parks will also close
B. the Paris theme park will become successful
C. the Disney name will stay well known
D. Disney will produce only cartoon
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American humor and American popular heroes were born together. The first popular
heroes of the new nation were comic heroes, and the first popular humor of the new nation was
the antics of its hero-clowns.
The heroic themes are obvious enough and not much different from those in the legends of
other time and places: Achilles, Beowulf, Siegfried, Roland, and King Arthur. The American
Davy Crockett legends repeat the familiar pattern of the old world heroic story: the pre-eminence
of a mighty hero whose fame in myth has a tenuous basis in fact; the remarkable birth and
precocious strength of the hero; single combats in which he distinguished himself against
antagonists, both man and beast; vows and boasts; pride of the hero in his weapons, his dog, and
his woman.
Davy Crockett conquered and beast with a swaggering nonchalance. He overcame animals
by force of body and will. He killed four wolves at the age of six. He hugged a bear to death; he
killed a rattlesnake with his teeth. He mastered the forces of nature. Crockett’s most famous
natural exploit was saving the earth on the coldest day in history. First, he climbed a mountain to
determine the trouble. Then he rescued all creation by squeezing bear-grease on the earth’s
frozen axis and over the sun’s icy face. He whistled, “Push along, keep moving!” The earth gave
a grunt and began moving.
Neither the fearlessness nor the bold huntsman’s prowess was peculiarly American. Far
more distinctive was the comic quality, all heroes are heroic; few are also clowns. What made
the American popular hero heroic also made him comic. “May be”, said Crockett, “you’ll laugh
at me and not at my book”. The ambiguity of American life and the vagueness which laid the
continent open to adventure, which made the land a rich storehouse of the unexpected, which
kept vocabulary ungoverned and the language fluid – this same ambiguity suffused both the
Crockett legends were never quite certain whether to laugh or to applaud, or whether what they
saw and heard was wonderful, awful or ridiculous.
43. What is the main point the author makes in the passage?
A. Davy Crockett wrote humorous stories about mastering the nature.
B. American popular heroes were characteristically comic.
C. The Davy Crockett stories reflected the adventurous spirit of early America.
D. American popular literature was based on the legends of other times and places
44. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a heroic theme?
A. Superior physical strength B. Pride in the hero woman
C. Fluid use of language D. Boasting by the hero
45. The word “antagonists” could be best replaced by _______.
A. wild animals B. heroes C. forces D. opponents
46. Davy Crockett is an example of _______.
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A. a popular writer B. a heroic theme
C. an old world hero D. a hero-clown
47. In paragraph 3, the author mentions a story in which Davy Crockett _______.
A. killed a wild boar B. saved a bear
C. saved the earth D. ate a rattlesnake
48. The word “exploit” in paragraph 3 is closest meaning to _______.
A. resource B. heroic act C. skill D. character trait
49. In paragraph 4, the author makes the point that _______.
A. American enjoyed laughing at other people
B. American writers strove to create a distinctively American literature
C. American life was open to adventure and full of the unexpected
D. Americans valued comic qualities more than heroic qualities
50. The word “ambiguity” in the last paragraph is closest meaning to _______.
A. ridiculous B. richness C. uncertainty D. quality
Mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
1. A. exact B. examine C. eleven D. elephant
2. A. pressure B. assure C. assist D. possession
Mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
3. A. alcohol B. comment C. chemical D. proceed
4. A. historian B. architecture C. biography D. thermometer
Mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase
5. The newscaster gave a concise account of the strategy.
A. complicated and intricate B. short and clear
C. sad and depressing D. long and detailed
6. Fruit is customarily treated with sulfur prior to drying to reduce any color change.
A. previous to B. at the time of C. in front of D. subsequent to
7. Affluent families find it easier to support their children financially.
A. Wealthy B. Well-off C. Privileged D. Impoverished
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8. Synthetic products are made from chemicals or artificial substances.
A. natural B. made by machine
C. man-made D. unusual
Mark the latter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
9. The science and technology industries have grown up steadily over the last decade.
A. science B. have grown up C. have grown up steadily D. last decade
10. Originated in Ethiopia, coffee was drunk in the Arab world before it came to Europe in
the 17th century.
A. Originated B. was drunk C. came D. in
11. The swirling winds of a tornado can reach quickly speeds close to 300 miles per hour.
A. swirling winds B. reach quickly C. close to D. per hour
Mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
12. I will come and see you before I _______ for America.
A. leave B. will leave C. have left D. left
13. Politicians _______ blame the media if they don’t win the election. They’re so
predictable.
A. variable B. variety C. various D. invariably
14. The investment has had _______ on the development of our project.
A. results B. progress C. effects D. interruptions
15. We’ve _______ out of milk. You’ll have to drink your tea without it.
A. come B. taken C. gone D. run
16. She got the job _______ the fact that she had very little experience.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
17. When the first child was born, they _______ for three years.
A. have been married B. had been married
C. will been married D. will have been married
18. He would win the race if he _______ his brother’s example and trained harder.
A. repeated B. set C. answered D. followed
19. She’s finished the course, _______?
A. isn’t she B. doesn’t she C. didn’t she D. hasn’t she
20. “Excuse me. Where is the _______ office of OXFAM located?”
A. leading B. head C. central D. summit
21. The boy was always getting _______ trouble as a youth. Then, to everyone’s surprise, he
became a policeman.
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A. into B. onto C. on D. with
22. _______ for farming purposes, soil must contain the minerals plants require.
A. To be good B. Being good C. Be good D. That’s good
23. My grandfather passed _______ when I was only six years old. He had lung cancer.
A. out B. over C. away D. off
24. “How about an evening riverboat tour?” – “_______”
A. No, it’s good to do so.
B. Actually I’ve never gone on an evening riverboat tour.
C. No, I’ve never gone an evening riverboat tour.
D. Actually I’ve gone twice this week.
25. “Can you come over after the show?” – “_______”
A. That would be nice. B. No, I didn’t.
C. Please, go ahead. D. Why don’t we go to the show?
26. “I was not there at the time,” he said.
A. He denied to have been there at the time.
B. He denied that he had not been there at the time.
C. He denied to be there at the time.
D. He denied having been there at the time.
27. “Let’s go out for a walk now,” he suggested.
A. He suggested going out for a walk then.
B. He suggested to go out for a walk then.
C. He suggested them to go out for a walk then.
D. He suggested them going out for a walk then.
28. “You broke my glasses,” said the woman to me.
A. The woman blames me of breaking her glasses.
B. The woman blamed me of breaking her glasses.
C. The woman blames me for having broken her glasses.
D. The woman blamed me for having broken her glasses.
29. We started out for California. It started to rain right after that.
A. No sooner did we start out for California than it started to rain.
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B. No sooner had we started out for California when it started to rain.
C. No sooner had it started to rain than we started out for California.
D. No sooner had we started out for California than it started to rain.
30. We have been friends for years. It is quite easy to share secrets between us.
A. Having been friends for years, we find quite easy to share secrets between us.
B. we have been friends for years so that it is quite easy to share secrets between us.
C. Being friends for years, we find it quite easy to share secrets between us.
D. We find it quite easy to share secrets, being friends.
35.
A GOOD START TO A HOLIDAY
I had never been to Denmark before, and when I set out to catch the ferry in early May, I
little (31) _______ that by the end of the trip I’d have made such lasting friendships.
I wanted to use my time well, so I had planned a route which would (32) _______ several
small islands and various parts of the countryside. I arrived at Esbjerg, a convenient port for a
cyclist’s arrival, where tourist information can be obtained and money changed. A cycle track
(33) _______ out of town and down to Ribe, where I spent my first night.
In my experience, a person travelling alone sometimes meets with unexpected hospitality,
and trip was no exception. In Ribe, I got into conversation with a cheerful man who turned (34)
_______ to be the local baker. He insisted that I should join his family for lunch, and, while we
were eating, he contacted his daughter in Odense. Within minutes, he had (35) _______ for me
to visit her and her family. Then I was sent on my way with a fresh loaf of bread to keep me
going, and the feeling that this would turn out to be a wonderful holiday.
31. A. wondered B. suspected C. doubted D. judged
32. A. include B. contain C. enclose D. consist
33. A. leads B. rides C. moves D. connects
34. A. up B. out C. in D. over
35. A. arrange B. fixed C. settled D. ordered
My family consists of four people. There’s my father whose name is Jan, my mother whose
name is Marie, my brother, Peter and of course, me. I have quite a large extended family as well
but, only the four of us live together in our apartment in a block of flats. My father is fifty-two
years old. He works as an accountant in an insurance company. He is tall and slim, has got short
brown and gray hair and blue eyes. My father likes gardening very much as well as listening to
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music and reading books about political science. His special hobbies are bird watching and
travelling.
Now I’ll describe my mother and my brother. My mother is forty-seven and she works as a
nurse in a hospital. She is small, and slim, has short brown hair and green eyes. She likes bird
watching and travelling too, so whenever my parents are able to they go someplace interesting
for nature watching. Since we have a cottage with a garden they both spend a lot of time there.
My brother is sixteen. He is slim and has short brown hair and blue eyes. He also attends high
school. He is interested in computers and sports like football and hockey. He also spends a lot of
time with his friends.
I have only one grandmother left still living. She is in pretty good health even at the age of
seventy-eight so she still lives in her own flat. I enjoy spending time with her when I can. Both
my grandfathers died from cancer because they were smokers, which was really a great tragedy
because I didn’t get chance to know them. My other grandmother died just a few years ago. I
also have a lot of aunts, uncles, and cousins. The cousin I’m closest to is my uncle’s daughter
Pauline. We have a lot in common because we are both eighteen and so we are good friends.
My parents have assigned me certain duties around the house. I don’t mind helping out
because everyone in a family should contribute in some way. I help with the washing up, the
vacuuming and the shopping. Of course I also have to help keep my room tidy as well. My
brother is responsible for the dusting and mopping. He also has to clean his own room. Even
though my brother and I sometimes fight about who has to do what job, we are still very close. I
am also very close to my parents and I can rely on them to help me. My parents work together to
keep our home well maintained and it seem they always have a project or another that they are
working on. They respect each other’s opinions and even if they disagree they can always come
to a compromise. I hope in the future that I have a family like ours.
36. What does the writer’s father do?
A, a cashier B. an accountant C. a receptionist D. a writer
37. What does the writer’s mother look like?
A. She is slim and small B. She is small and has grey hair
C. She has blue eyes D. She has long brown hair
38. What does the writer’s brother do?
A. a computer programmer B. a high school student
C. a college student D. a football player
39. What happened to the writer’s grandfathers?
A. They died because the smoked too much.
B. They got lung cancer a few years ago.
C. They had to leave their own flat.
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D. They had an accident and died.
40. The word “tragedy” in the third paragraph mostly means
A. bad luck B. sudden accident C. sad event D. boring result
41. The word “assigned” in the fourth paragraph mostly means _______
A. allowed B. appointed C. forced D. encouraged
42. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The writer’s mother likes travelling.
B. One of the writer’s grandmothers is living with her.
C. The writer’s brother has to clean his own room.
D. The writer has a cousin whose age is the same as hers.
In early civilizations, citizens were educated informally, usually within the family unit.
Education meant simply learning to leave. As civilizations became more complex, however,
education became more formal, structured, and comprehensive. Initial efforts of the ancient
Chinese and Greek societies concentrated solely on the education of males. The post-Babylonian
Jews and Pluto were exceptions to this pattern. Pluto was apparently the first significant advocate
of the equality of the sexes. Women, in his ideal state, would have the same rights and duties and
the same educational opportunities as men. This aspect of Platonic philosophy, however, had
little or no effect on education for many centuries, and the concept of a liberal education for men
only, which had been espoused by Aristotle, prevailed.
In ancient Rome, the availability of an education was gradually extended to women, but
they were taught separately from men. The early Christians and medieval Europeans continued
this trend, and single-sex schools for the privileged classes prevailed through the Reformation
period. Gradually, however, education for women on a separate but equal basis to that provided
for men was becoming a clear responsibility of society. Martin Luther appealed for civil support
of schools for all children. At the Council of Trent in the 16th century, the Roman Catholic
Church encouraged the establishment of free primary schools for children of all classes. The
concept of universal primary education, regardless of sex, had been born, but it was still in the
realm of the single-sex school.
In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, co-education became a more widely applied
principle of educational philosophy. In Britain, Germany, and the Soviet Union the education of
boys and girls in the same classes became an accepted practice. Since World War II, Japan and
the Scandinavian countries have also adopted relatively universal co-educational systems. The
greatest negative reaction to coeducation has been left in the teaching systems of the Latin
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countries, where the sexes have usually been separated at both primary and secondary levels,
according to local conditions.
A number of studies have indicated that girls seem to perform better overall and in science
in particular in single-sex classes: during the adolescent years, pressure to conform to
stereotypical female gender roles may disadvantage girls in traditionally male subjects, making
them reluctant to volunteer for experimental work while taking part in lessons. In Britain,
academic league tables point to high standards achieved in girls’ schools. Some educationalists
therefore suggest segregation of the sexes as a good thing, particularly in certain areas, and a
number of schools are experimenting with the idea.
43. Ancient education generally focused its efforts on _______.
A. male learners B. both sexes
C. female learners D. young people only
44. Education in early times was mostly aimed at _______.
A. teaching skills B. learning to live
C. learning new lifestyles D. imparting survival skills
45. The first to support the equality of the sexes was _______.
A. the Chinese B. the Greek C. Pluto D. the Jews
46. The word “informally” in this context mostly refers to an education occurring _______.
A. in classrooms B. outside the school
C. in a department D. ability
47. When education first reached women, they were _______.
A. locked up in a place with men B. isolated from normal life
C. deprived of opportunities D. separated from men
48. When the concept of universal primary education was introduced, education _______.
A. was given free to all B. was intended for all the sexes
C. focused on imparting skills D. was intended to leave out female learners
49. The word “espouse” is contextually closest in meaning to “_______”.
A. to support B. to put off C. to give D. to induce
50. Co-education was negatively responded to in _______.
A. Japan B. the Scandinavian countries
C. South American countries D. conservative countries
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1. A. heavy B. head C. weather D. easy

2. A. processed B. infested C. balanced D. reached
3. A. applicant B. preference C. courteous D. appointment
4. A. interviewer B. concentrate C. comfortable D. technology
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSET
in meaning the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.
5. Who will replace you to monitor the class on the days you are on duty next week?
A. support B. undermine C. vandalize D. manage
6. We, the young, should take the actions to raise people’s awareness of being concerned
with sewage processing measures from now on.
A. indifferent to B. carefree with C. interested in D. nervous about
OPPOSITE in meaning the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.
7. That is a well-behaved boy whose behavior has nothing to complain about.
A. behaving cleverly B. behaving nice
C. behaving improperly D. good behavior
8. I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. being courteous B. being cheerful
C. being efficient D. being late
9. The longest mountain range, the Mid-Atlantic Range, is not hardly visible because most
of it lies under the ocean.
A. mountain range B. not hardly C. most of D. under
10. The abilities to work hard, follow directions, and thinking independently are some of
the criteria for success in the workplace.
A. to work B. thinking C. are D. for success
11. Establishing in 1984 for students who wanted to study art and music subjects,
LaGuardia was the first school of its kind.
A. Establishing B. for students C. was D. of its kind
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12. We all believe that a happy marriage should be _______ mutual love.
A. based on B. concerned with C. confided in D. obliged to
13. The teachers are, at the moment, trying their best _______ all the necessary that their
students may need for their critical examination while, sadly, some do not seen to
appreciate that.
A. to prepare B. prepared C. preparing D. prepare
14. A lot of skills and knowledge fields _______.
A. be prepared and practiced B. have to be prepared and practiced
C. prepared and practiced D. have to be being prepared and practiced
15. We arranged to meet at the station, but she didn’t _______.
A. get through B. turn up C. walk out D. wait on
16. Our professor _______ said we should turn in the assignment on Friday.
A. specific B. specifically C. specifying D. specifyingly
17. They were 30 minutes later because their car _______ down.
A. got B. put C. cut D. broke
18. Scientists warn that many of the world’s great cities are _______ flooding.
A. being B. at risk C. in danger of D. endangered
19. The replacement of shops such as the groceries’ and chemist’s by cafes _______ the
housewives with insufficient facilities for shopping.
A. leave B. have left C. has left D. to have left
20. I studied English for four years in high school. _______ had trouble talking with people
when I was traveling in the US.
A. Therefore, I B. Otherwise, I C. Although I D. However, I
21. My uncle was _______ ill last summer; however, fortunately, he is now making a slow
but steady recovery.
A. seriously B. deeply C. fatally D. critically
22. If you want your son to do better on his exams, I suggest he _______ harder.
A. will study B. studies C. would study D. study
23. _______ the book, please turn it to me.
A. Should you find B. Will you be finding
C. Will you find D. Will you have found
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24. Mary invited her friend, Sarah, to have dinner out that night and Sarah accepted.
Mary: “Shall we eat out tonight?” – Sarah: “_______.”
A. That’s a great idea B. That’s acceptable
C. You are very welcome D. It’s kind of you to invite
25. “Thank you for taking the time to come here in person.” – “_______”
A. It’s my pleasure. B. I don’t know what time that person comes.
C. I’d love to come. What time? D. Do you have time for some gossip?
26. You could not have made a very good impression on them.
A. You seem to have impressed them very unfavourably.
B. It’s impossible that the effect you made on them was particularly positive.
C. Something appears to have made them think you are unsuitable.
D. You should have tried harder to make them think well of you.
27. Due to the heavy snow, all buses have been cancelled until further notice.
A. If it weren’t for the heavy snow, you would notice how much further the bus had to
go.
B. The buses would not have been cancelled if only it had not snowed so much.
C. Heavy snow has caused the buses to stop running, though there will be an
announcement of when they will start up again.
D. If this snow keeps up, there will be an announcement to declare that the buses will no
longer run.
28. It’s more than a couple of years since I last went there.
A. I have never stayed there for longer than two years.
B. It was only after two years that I went there again.
C. I haven’t been there since my visit over two years ago.
D. I had never been there until the year before last.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
29. The referee brought the football game to a halt. He blew his whistle.
A. The referee stopped playing football and blowing his whistle.
B. the referee stopped the football game before he blew his whistle.
C. Having stopped the football match, the referee blew his whistle.
D. The referee brought the football game to a halt by blowing his whistle.
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30. We planned to visit Eiffel Tower in the afternoon. We could not afford the fee,
however.
A. As planned, we could not afford the visit to Eiffel Tower in the afternoon because of
the fee.
B. We visited Eiffel Tower in the afternoon though the fee was too high for us.
C. We were going to visit Eiffel Tower in the afternoon but the fee was too high for us.
D. The fee was, however, high enough for us to plan a visit to Eiffel Tower in the
afternoon.
35.
Speech is one of the most important (31) _______ of communicating. It consists of far
more than just making noises. To talk and also to (32) _______ by other people, we have to
speak a language, that is, we have to use combinations of sounds that everyone agrees to stand
for particular object or idea. Communication would be impossible if everyone made up their own
language.
Learning a language properly is very (33) _______. The basic vocabulary of English is not
very large, and only about 2,000 words are needed to speak it quite (34) _______. But the more
idea you can express, the more precise you can be about their exact meaning.
Words are the main thing we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we say
the words is also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and (35)
_______ whether we are pleased or angry, for instance.
31. A. rules B. reasons C. ways D. tests

32. A. be understood B. be spoken C. be examined D. be talked
33. A. easy B. expensive C. simple D. important
34. A. perfect B. good C. well D. fluent
35. A. know B. show C. ask D. understand
42.
COLORS AND EMOTIONS
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Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as
important to me as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately
related?
Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions,
and is something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you
choose to wear either reflects your current state of being, or reflects the color or emotion that you
need.
The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of
course they also affect anyone who comes in contact with you, but you are the one saturated
with the color all day! I even choose items around me based on their color. In the morning, I
choose my clothes based on the color or emotion that I need for the day. So you can consciously
use color to control the emotions that you are exposed to, which can help you to feel better.
Color, sound, and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they
are meant to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your
energy in motion. Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the
fastest way to be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to
inhibit your emotions.

A. Colorful clothes can change your mood.
B. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other.
C. Colors can help you become healthy.
D. Colors are one of the most exciting.
37. Which of the following can be affected by color?
A. Your need for thrills B. your friend’s feelings
C. your appetite D. your mood
38. Who is more influenced by colors you wear?
A. The people around you are more influenced.
B. No one is influenced.
C. You are more influenced.
D. The people who wear those colors, not you.
39. According to this passage, what creates disease?
A. wearing the color black B. exposing yourself to bright colors
C. being open to your emotions D. ignoring your emotions
40. The term “intimately” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
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A. clearly B. closely C. obviously D. simply
41. The term “they” in paragraph 3 refers to
A. emotions B. people C. colors D. none of the above
42. Why does the author mention that color and emotions are both vibrations?
A. to show how color can affect energy levels in the body.
B. Because they both affect how we feel.
C. to prove the relationship between emotions and color.
D. Because vibrations make your healthy.
50.
limit. This knowledge has driven egg sales to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought
substitute eggs. These eggs substitute are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when
“designer” eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-flat diets consisting of
ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diet, however, these hens
Eggs producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific
cholesterol but the person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to
cholesterol derived from food than other people. In fact, there is evidence that certainly dietary
fats stimulate the body’s production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes
sense to limit one’s intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing this without
43. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level.
B. To make people how about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.
C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten.
D. To convince people to eat “designer” eggs and egg substitutes.
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44. What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs?
A. Increasing price B. Decreased production
C. Dietary changes in hens D. Concerns about cholesterol
45. What is meant by the phrase “mixed results”?
A. The results are blended B. The results are a composite of things.
C. The results are inconclusive. D. The results are mingled together.
46. Which of the following could best replace the word “somewhat”?
A. in fact B. a little C. indefinitely D. a lot
47. According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the
A. 3/4 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3
48. The word “portrayed” could best be replaced by which of the following?
49. What is the meaning of “back up”?
A. reverse B. advance C. block D. support
50. According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of the following
types of eggs EXCEPT _______.
A. boiled B. poached C. scrambled D. fried
1. A. honorable B. honesty C. historic D. heir
2. A. chore B. change C. choice D. chorus
3. A. terrific B. Pacific C. Arabic D. mechanic
4. A. evaporate B. consulate C. communicate D. coordinate
5. I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
6. He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
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7. His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
8. Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. amicable B. inapplicable C. hostile D. futile
9. Japanese initially used jeweled objects to decorate swords and ceremonial items.
A. Japanese B. used C. jeweled D. decorate
10. Because of attitudes shape behavior, psychologists want to find how opinions are formed.
A. Because of B. shape C. psychologists D. are formed
11. As the roles of people in society change, so does the rules of conduct in certain situations.
A. As the rules B. so does C. rules of D. situations
12. “How was your exam?” “A couple of questions were tricky, but on the _______ it was
pretty easy.”
A. spot B. general C. hand D. whole
13. If you practice regularly, you can learn this language skill in short _______ of a time.
A. period B. aspect C. arrangement D. activity
14. Students can _______ a lot of information just by taking an active part in class.
A. concern B. install C. appear D. memorize
15. It _______ a long time since we were apart, I did not recognize her.
A. is B. has been C. was D. had been
16. I have learned a lot about the value of labour from my _______ at home.
A. credit B. energy C. chores D. pot plants
17. In the past people believed that women’s _______ roles were as mothers and wives.
A. nature B. natural C. naturism D. naturalist
18. Not until the manager got the right solution to the problem _______.
A. we must try by ourselves B. must we try by ourselves
C. have we to try by ourselves D. we must try for ourselves
19. A few years ago, a fire _______ much of an overcrowded part of the city.
A. battled B. devastated C. mopped D. developed
20. Juliet, remember shammed death when Romeo appears, _______?
A. didn’t she B. doesn’t he C. do you D. will you
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21. Charles Lindbergh’s feat put him in a position from which _______ the development of
commercial aviation.
A. he could encourage B. he encourage
C. encouraged D. encouragement
22. She started the course two months ago but dropped _______ after only a month.
A. in B. back C. out D. off
23. Mary eats _______ she used to.
A. fewer meat and bananas than B. less and less meat and bananas than
C. less meat and fewer bananas than D. the least meat and fewest bananas than
24. “I have a terrible headache.” – “_______”
A. Maybe I’m not going to the doctor’s. B. Not very well. Thanks.
C. Maybe you should take a rest. D. Not bad. I’m going to the doctor’s.
25. “Do you want me to help you with those suitcases?” – “_______”
A. Of course, not for me. B. No, I can’t help you now.
C. No, those aren’t mine. D. No, I can manage them myself.
26. I don’t agree with prohibiting smoking in bars.
A. I’m not in favor of prohibiting smoking in bars.
B. I’m not in favor to prohibiting smoking in bars.
C. I’m not favor with prohibiting smoking in bars.
D. I’m not doing a favor to prohibiting smoking in bars.
27. She has always had a good relationship with the children.
A. She has got a lot of children and relatives who she always gets along with.
B. She always gets along well with the children.
C. The children have had her as their friends and relatives.
D. She has always got on well with the children.
28. But for his father’s early retirement, Peter would not have taken over the family business.
A. His father retired early, but Peter still ran the family business.
B. Peter’s father didn’t want him to take over the family business despite his retirement.
C. Peter only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early.
D. Peter didn’t take over the family business because his father didn’t retire.
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29. He is very intelligent. He is solve all problems in no time.
A. SO intelligent is he that he can solve all problems in no time.
B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all e problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all e problems in no time.
D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all problems in no time.
30. We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
35.
WORKING MOTHERS
Reliable studies have shown that the children of working mothers have no more problems
than children whose mothers stay at home. My personal view is that mothers should work if they
wish.
Some women have invested so much in a career that they cannot (31) _______ to give it
up. Others have to work because of economic necessity, and there are also those who are simply
not (32) _______ out to be fill-time parents.
There appear to be several options when it comes to choosing childcare. These range from
child minders through to granny or the kind lady across the street. (33) _______, however, many
parents don’t have any choice; they have to accept anything they can get.
No (34) _______ how good the available childcare may be, some children protest if their
parents are not around. This is a perfectly normal stage in a child’s development. Babies over the
age of six months become dependent on mum and close family members, so make sure that you
allow (35) _______ time to help your child settle in.
And don’t forget: if you want to do the best for your children, it’s not the quantity of time
you spend with them, it’s the quality that matters.
31. A. bear B. decide C. hope D. expect
32. A. made B. cut C. brought D. born
33. A. In addition B. In practice C. In order D. In contrast
34. A. way B. matter C. surprise D. exception
35. A. little B. no C. lots D. plenty of
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Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was
actually more popular during lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and
used the knowledge gained during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age
of eighteen, Melville slimed as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his
Massachusetts home to Liverpool, England. His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the
novel Redburn (1849). In 1841 Melville set out on a whaling ship headed for the South Sea.
After jumping ship in Tahiti, he wandered around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This South
Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the novel Omoo (1847). After three years away from
home., Melville joined up with a U.S. naval frigate that was returning to eastern United States
around Cape Horn. The novel White-Jacket (1850) describes this lengthy voyage as a navy
seaman. With the publication of this early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and
loyal following among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in
1851, with the publication of Moby Dick, Melville’s popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick,
on one level the saga of the hunt for the great white whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory
of the heroic struggle of humanity against the universe. The public was not ready for Melville’s
literary metamorphosis from romantic adventure to philosophical symbolism. It is ironic that the
novel that served to diminish Melville’s popularity during his lifetime is the one for which he is
best known today.
36. The main subject of the passage is _______.
A. Melville’s travels B. Melville’s personal background
C. the popularity of Melville’s novels D. Moby Dick
37. In what year did Melville’s book about his experiences as a cabin boy appear?
A. 1837 B, 1841 C. 1849 D. 1847
38. The word “basis” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. foundation B. message C. bottom D. theme
39. The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti because_______.
A. he had unofficially left his ship. B. he was on leave while his ship was in port.
C. he had finished his term of duty. D. he had received permission to take a vacation in
Tahiti.
40. How did the publication of Moby Dick stayed in Tahiti because _______.
A. His popularity increased immediately.
B. It has no effect on his popularity.
C. It caused his popularity to decrease.
D. His popularity remained as strong as ever.
41. According to the passage, Moby Dick is _______.
A. a romantic adventure B. a single-faceted work
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C. a short story about a whale D. symbolic of humanity fighting the
environment
42. The word “metamorphosis” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. change B. circle C. mysticism D. descent
Before the 1500’s, the western plains of North America were dominated by farmers. On
group, the Mandans, lived in the upper Missouri River country, primarily in present-day North
Dakota. They had large villages of houses built close together. The tight arrangement enable the
Mandans to protect themselves more easily from the attacks of others who might seek to obtain
some of the food these highly capable farmers stored from one year to the next.
The women had primary responsibility for the fields. They had to exercise considerable
skill to produce the desired results, for their northern location meant fleeting growing seasons.
Winter often lingered; autumn could be ushered in by severe frost. For good measure, during the
spring and summer, drought, heat, hail, grasshoppers, and other frustrations might await the wary
grower.
Under such conditions, Mandan women had to grow maize capable of weathering
adversity. They began as early as it appeared feasible to do so in the spring, clearing the land,
using fire to clear stubble from the fields and then planting. From this point until the first green
corn could be harvested, the crop required labor and vigilance.
In August the Mandans picked a smaller amount of the crop before it had matured fully.
This green corn was boiled, dried and shelled, with some of the maize slated for immediate
consumption and the rest stored in animal-skin bags. Later in the fall, the people picked the rest
of the corn. They saved the best of the harvest for seeds or for trade, with the remainder eaten
right away or stored for later use in underground reserves. With appropriate banking of the extra
food, the Mandans protected themselves against the disaster of crop failure and accompany
hunger.
The woman planted another staple, squash, about the first of June, and harvested it near the
time of the green corn harvest. After they picked it, they sliced it, dried it, and strung the slices
before they stored them. Once again, they saved the seeds from the best of the year’s crop. The
Mandans also grew sunflowers and tobacco; the latter was the particular task of the older men.
43. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The agricultural activities of a North America Society.
B. Various ways corn can be used.
C. The problems encountered by farmers specializing in growing once crop.
D. Weather conditions on the western plains.
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44. The Mandans built their houses close together in order to _______.
A. guard their supplies of food B. protect themselves against the weather
C. allow more room for growing corn D. share farming implements
45. Why does the author believe that the Mandans were skilled farmers?
A. They developed effective fertilizers.
B. They developed new varieties of corn.
C. They could grow crops despite adverse weather.
D. they could grow crops in most types of soil.
46. The word “consumption” in the 4th paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. decay B. planting C. eating D. conversation
47. Which of the following processes does the author imply was done by both men and
women?
A. Clearing fields B. Planting corn C. Harvesting corn D. Harvesting squash
48. The word “them” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. women B. seeds C. slices D. the Mandans
49. Which of the following crops was cultivated primarily by men?
A. Squash B. Sunflower C. Corn D. Tobacco
50. Throughout the passage, the author implies that the Mandans _______.
A. planned for the future B. valued individuality
C. were open to strangers D. were very adventurous
1. A. habitat B. protection C. essential D. priority
2. A. question B. presentation C. industrialization D. modernization
3. A. production B. deficient C. ancient D. sufficient
4. A. biology B. accordance C. incomplete D. pudicity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word of phrase
5. There is no thing to make it likely or certain that he will be at the party.
A. proof B. promise C. guarantee D. fact
6. I think the medicine is beginning to wear off.
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A. stop being effective B. take effect
C. be put in a bottle D. be swallowed
7. The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. soak B. permanent C. complicated D. guess
8. There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were banned.
A. insignificant B. clear C. obvious D. thin
Mark the letter A, B C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
9. Have you learnt the reason why does the water of the ocean becomes blue?
A. reason B. does C. of D. blue
10. It is the high time John understands how to behave properly towards the old men.
A. high B. understands C. how to D. towards
11. Every child in Great Britain between the old year of five and fifteen must attend school.
A. Every B. between C. old year D. must
12. I just took it _______ that he’d always be available.
A. into consideration B. easy
C. into account D. for granted
13. It was not _______ Michael Jackson’s death that people around the world understood his
contribution in music.
A. since B. when C. until D. result
14. Although David was _______ after a day’s work in the office, he tried to help his wife
the household chores.
A. exhaustion B. exhausted C. exhausting D. exhaustive
15. _______ your precious help, I wouldn’t have certainly overcome most of the practical
difficulties.
A. If not B. Provided C. Unless D. Without
16. Will you ever forget _______ in such an expensive restaurant?
A. eating B. eat C. to eat D. being eaten
17. I accidentally _______ Mike when I was crossing a street downtown yesterday.
A. kept an eye on B. lost touch with
C. paid attention to D. caught sight of
18. If she _______ sick, she would have gone out with me to the party.
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A. wasn’t B. hadn’t been C. hasn’t been D. weren’t
19. I was glad when he said that his car was _______.
A. for my use B. for me use C. at my use D. at my disposal
20. _______ the French army was defeated at the battle of Dien Bien Phu came a complete
surprise to all over the world.
A. Why B. Which C. What D. That
21. I’d rather you _______ to the English-speaking club with me this Friday.
A. will come B. came C. come D. to come
22. Stop _______ about the bush, John! Just tell me exactly what the problem is.
A. rushing B. hiding C. beating D. moving
23. Don’t worry we’ll have to wait a little longer because I’m sure he will _______.
A. turn down B. turn in C. turn into D. turn up
24. “What do you think of your new DVD player?” – “_______”
A. I love it B. My brother gave it to me.
C. It was a gift from my brother. D. I always put it there.
25. “How long have you been recently?” – “_______”
A. It’s too late now. B. Pretty busy, I think.
C. By bus, I think. D. No, I’ll not be busy.
26. I have seen all of her films but one.
A. I have seen only one film of hers.
B. I have seen one of her films.
C. There is only one film of hers that I have not seen.
D. I have finished seeing even one film of hers.
27. Many people are afraid of sharks, but they rarely attack people.
A. Although sharks rarely attack people, many people are afraid of them.
B. Many people are afraid of sharks because they are dangerous.
C. Rarely attacked by sharks, many people are, therefore, afraid of them.
D. Sharks rarely attack people because many people are afraid of them.
28. No matter how hard he tried, Mike could not make sense of his economics textbook.
A. Mike could not understand his economics textbook because he hardly tried to at all.
B. In spite of his efforts, Mike was unable to understand the contents of his economics
textbook.
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C. If Mike had studied harder, he would have been able to comprehend what was in his
economics textbook.
D. It was impossible for Mike to understand his economics textbook without making a
great effort.
29. You don’t try to work hard. You will fail in the exam.
30. The Prime Minister set up a committee of financial experts. They were to help him
discuss and formulate new policies.
A. The Prime Minister, who is a financial expert, set up a committee to discuss and
formulate new polices.
B. A committee consisting of financial experts was set up by the Prime Minister to help
him discuss and formulate new policies.
C. The Prime Minister, who was helped by financial experts, set up a committee to
D. A committee consisting of financial experts who were helped by the Prime Minister
discussed and formulated new policies.
Mark the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
35.
GOING ON A DIET
A calorie is a unit for measuring the amount of energy food will produce. The average
person needs about 1,800 calories per day to (31) _______ healthy. Without energy, the heart
cannot pump blood through blood vessels and organs cannot function.
You (32) _______ weight because you consume more calories a day than your body
requires. The only way to lose weight is to reduce the number of calories you consume. This is
the basic principle behind most diets.
(33) _______, diets don’t work for most people. It’s not that they don’t lose weight: they
do, but when they (34) _______ the diet, the kilos creep back. The key to losing weight and
maintaining weight loss is a sensible diet and exercise plan. You need to work out how to eat
fewer calories than you actually consume. You should also exercise daily so you can use up
calories. Burning 250 to 500 calories per day can (35) _______ a big difference. Try riding an
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exercise bike while you are watching TV or climbing the stairs rather than taking the lift.
Persuade someone to exercise with you; exercise is a lot easier if done in company.
31. A. keep on B. stay C. continue D. carry
32. A. make B. increase C. gain D. put
33. A. Similarly B. Though C. Unfortunately D. Although
34. A. go off B. go on C. go back D. go away
35. A. have B. do C. make D. give
The three phases of human memory are the sensory memory, the short-term memory, and
the long-term memory. This division of the memory into phases is based on the length of the
time of the memory.
Sensory memory is instantaneous memory. It is an image or memory that enters your mind
only for a period of time; it comes and goes in under a second. The memory will not last longer
than that unless the information enters the short-term memory.
Information can be held in the short-term memory for about twenty seconds or as long as
you are actively using it. If repeat a fact to yourself, that fact will stay in your short-term memory
as long as you keep repeating it. Once you stop repeating it, either it is forgotten or it moves into
long term memory.
Long-term memory is the huge memory tank that can hold ideas and images for years and
years. Information can be added to your long-term memory when you actively try to put it there
through memorization or when an idea or image enters your mind on its own.
36. The best title for this passage would be _______.
A. The difference between sensory and short-term memory.
B. How long it takes to memorize.
C. The stages of human memory.
D. Human phases.
37. The three phases of memory discussed in the passage are differentiated according to
_______.
A. The location in the brain.
B. The period of time it takes to remember something.
C. How the senses are involved in the memory.
D. How long the memory lasts.
38. The expression “is based on” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by _______.
A. is on the top of
B. is at the foot of
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C. depends on
D. is below
39. According to the passage, which type of memory is the shortest?
A. Sensory memory
B. Active memory
C. Short-term memory
D. Long-term memory
40. According to the passage, when will information stay in your short-term memory?
A. For as long as twenty minutes.
B. A long as it is being used.
C. After you have repeated it many times.
D. When it has moved into long-term memory.
41. All of the following are TRUE about long-term memory EXCEPT that _______.
A. it has a very large capacity.
B. it can hold information.
C. it is possible to put information into it through memorization.
D. memorization is the only way that information can get there.
42. It can be inferred from the passage that if a person remembers a piece of information for
two days.
A. there phases of memory B. the sensory memory
C. the short-term memory D. the long-term memory
Today’s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors, but
the car of the future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new
types of automobile engines have already been developed that run on alternative sources of
power, such as electricity, compressed natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propane.
Electricity, however, is the only zero-emission option presently available.
Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or
other dependable source of current is available, transport experts foresee a new assortment of
electric vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled
neighborhood cars, electric delivery vans, bikes and trolleys.
As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility
engineers are focusing on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new
cars. Public charging facilities will need to be as common as today’s gas stations. Public parking
spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be required with devices that allow drivers
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to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the use of
electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centers might be reserved for
electric cars.
Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses and neighborhood vehicles all meeting
at transit centers that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to
rent a variety of electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small
cars, or electric/ gasoline hybrid cars for longer trips, which will no doubt take place on
automated freeways capable of handing five times the number of vehicles that can be carried by
freeway today.
43. The following electrical vehicles are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT _______.
A. vans B. trains C. trolleys D. planes
44. The author’s purpose in the passage is to _______.
A. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future
B. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles
C. support the invention of electric cars
D. criticize conventional vehicles
A. electric shuttle buses B. pollution restrictions in the future
C. automated freeways D. the neighborhood of the future
46. The word “compact” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. squared B. long-range C. concentrated D. inexpensive
47. In the second paragraph, the author implies that _______.
A. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation.
B. everyday life will stay much the same in the future.
C. electric vehicles are not practical for the future.
D. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed.
48. According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be _______.
A. as common as today’s gas stations
B. equipped with charging devices
C. much larger than they are today
D. more convenient than they are today
49. The word “charging” in this paragraph refers to _______.
A. credit cards B. lightning C. aggression D. electricity
50. The word “foresee” in paragraph 4 could be replaced by _______.
A. count on B. invent C. image D. rely on
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1. A. food B. shoot C. book D. boot
2. A. choice B. chaos C. charge D. chase
3. A. medicine B. endanger C. addition D. survival
4. A. experience B. cosmetics C. economics D. photography
5. This tapestry has a very complicated pattern.
A. obsolete B. intricate C. ultimate D. appropriate
6. We decided to pay for the furniture on the installment plan.
A. monthly payment B. cash and carry
C. credit card D. piece by piece
7. She had a cozy little apartment in Boston.
A. uncomfortable B. warm C. lazy D. dirty
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part needs correction in each of the
following questions
9. In just three months H.G. Wells wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for what he
won a Newberry Caldecott award.
A. just B. wrote C. what D. a
10. It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to
pass the exam.
A. studies B. more C. attempting D. to pass
11. Chicago’s Sears Tower, now the tallest building in the world, rises 1,522 feet from the
ground to the top of it antenna.
A. now B. rises C. feet D. it
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12. This is very _______! Can’t you practise your violin somewhere else?
A. convenient B. conveniently C. inconvenient D. convenience
13. We are here to provide you _______ the best service possible.
A. of B. with C. to D. for
14. No sooner had we left the house _______ it started snowing.
A. and B. than C. when D. that
15. Several cars, _______ owners had parked them under the trees, were damaged.
A. their B. of which C. whom D. whose
16. The young should _______ themselves in social activities.
A. determine B. serve C. involve D. promote
17. Please cut my hair _______ the style in this magazine.
A. the same length as B. the same length like
18. I prefer _______ jobs because I don’t like keep on moving and changing all the time.
A. demanding B. challenging C. steady D. secure
19. _______ anyone object, the plan will be reconsidered.
A. If B. Should C. Do D. Might
20. When they _______ for the beach the sun was shining, but by the time they arrived it had
clouded over.
A. went out B. went off C. set off D. left out
21. I’m really sleepy today. I wish I _______ Bob to the airport late last night.
A. weren’t taking B. didn’t have to take
C. didn’t take D. hadn’t had to take
22. He left the country _______ arrest if he returned.
A. in fear that B. with fear that C. with threat of D. under threat of
24. “Can I try your new camera?” – “_______”
A. I’m sorry I can’t. Let’s go now. B. Sure. I’d love to.
C. Sure. But please be careful with it. D. I’m sorry. I’m home late.
25. “How well do you play?” – “_______”
A. Yes, I used to play tennis. B. I don’t play very often.
C. No, I don’t play very well. D. Pretty well, I think.
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26. David drove so fast; it was very dangerous.
A. David drove so fast, which was very dangerous.
B. David drove so fast and was very dangerous.
C. David drove so fast, then was very dangerous.
D. David drove so fast that was very dangerous.
27. The children couldn’t go swimming because the sea was too rough.
A. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea.
B. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in.
C. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming.
D. The sea was too rough to the children’s swimming.
28. “Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!” shouted the lady to the man.
A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
B. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.
D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.
29. The girl didn’t have any friends. Therefore, she left lonely.
A. Having many friends, the girl felt lonely.
B. Deprived of friends, the girl felt lonely.
C. Not having friends, they made the girl feel lonely.
D. Having no friends, the girl felt lonely.
30. It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. The novel was so interesting that I stayed up all night to finish it.
B. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
C. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.
D. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
35.
SCHOOL LUNCH
Research has shown that over half the children in Britain who take their own lunches to
school do not eat (31) _______ in the middle of the day. In Britain, schools have to provide
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meals at lunchtime. Children can choose to bring their own food or have lunch at the school
canteen.
One shocking (32) _______ of this research is that school meals are much healthier than
lunches prepared by parents. There are strict standards for the preparation of school meals, which
have to include one portion of fruit and one of vegetables, as well as meat, a dairy item and
starchy food like bread or pasta. Lunchboxes (33) _______ by researchers contained sweet
drinks, crisps and chocolate bars. Children (34) _______ twice as much sugar as they should at
lunchtime.
The research will provide a better understanding of why the percentage of overweight
students in Britain has increased in the last decade. Unfortunately, the government cannot
instruct parents, but can remind them of the (35) _______ value of milk, fruit and vegetables.
Children can easily develop bad eating habits at this age, and parents are the only ones who can
prevent it.
31. A. approximately B. properly C. probably D. possibly
32. A. finding B. number C. figure D. factor
33. A. examined B. found C. taken D. looked
34. A. take B. contain C. consume D. consist
35. A. nutritional B. healthy C. positive D. good
Most, languages have several levels of vocabulary that may be used by the same speakers.
In English, at least three have been identified and described.
Standard usage includes those words and expressions understood, used, and accepted by a
majority of the speakers of a language in any situation regardless of the level formality. As such,
these words and expressions are well defined and listed in standard dictionaries. Colloquialisms,
on the other hand, are familiar words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a
language and used in informal speech or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal
situations. Almost all idiomatic expressions are colloquial language. Slang, however, refers to
words and expressions understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as
appropriate formal usage by the majority. Colloquial expressions and even slang may be found
in standard dictionaries but will be so identified. Both colloquial usage and slang are more
common in speech than in writing.
Colloquial speech often passes into standard speech. Some slang also passes into standard
speech, but other slang expressions enjoy momentary popularity followed by obscurity. In some
cases, the majority never accepts certain slang phrases but nevertheless retains them in their
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collective memories. Every generation seems to require its own set of words to describe familiar
objects and events.
It has been pointed out by a number of linguists that three cultural conditions are necessary
for the creation of a large body of slang expressions. First, the introduction and acceptance of
new objects and situations in the society; second, a diverse population with a large number of
subgroups; third, association among the subgroups and the majority population.
Finally, it is worth noting that the terms “standard”, “colloquial”, and “slang” exist only as
abstract levels for scholars who study language. Only a tiny number of the speakers of any
language will be aware that they are using colloquial or slang expressions. Most speakers of
English will, during appropriate situations, select and use all three types of expressions.
36. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. Standard speech B. Idiomatic phrases
C. Dictionary usage D. Different types of vocabulary
37. The word “appropriate” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. old B. correct C. important D. large
38. The word “obscurity” could best be replaced by _______.
A. qualification B. disappearance C. influence D. tolerance
39. The word “them” refers to _______.
A. slang phrases B. words C. the majority D. memories
40. Where in the passage does the author explain where colloquial language and slang are
most commonly used?
A. The last sentences of paragraph 2.
B. The last sentences of paragraph 3.
C. The first two sentences of paragraph 2.
D. The last two sentences of paragraph 5.
41. The author mentions all of the following as requirements for slang expressions to be
created EXCEPT _______.
A. a number of linguists B. a new generation
C. interaction among diverse groups D. new situations
42. It can be inferred from the passage that the author _______.
A. does not approve of colloquial usage in writing
B. approve of slang and colloquial speech in appropriate situations
C. does not approve of either slang or colloquial speech in any situation
D. approves of colloquial speech in some situations, but not slang
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At 7 pm on a dark, cold November evening, thousands of people are making their way
across a vast car park. They’re not here to see a film, or the ballet, or even the circus. They are
all here for what is, bizarrely, a global phenomenon: they are here to see Holiday on Ice. Given
that most people don’t seem to be acquainted with anyone who’s ever been, the show’s statistics
are extraordinary: nearly 300 million people have seen Holiday on Ice since it began in 1943; it
is the most popular live entertainment in the world.
But what does the production involve? And why are so many people prepared to spend
their lives travelling round Europe in caravans in order to appear in it? It can’t be glamorous, and
it’s undoubtedly hard work. The backstage atmosphere is an odd mix of gym class and
workplace. A curtained-off section at the back of the arena is laughably referred to as the girls’
dressing room, but is more accurately described as a corridor, with beige, cracked walls and
cheap temporary tables set up along the length of it. Each girl has a small area littered with pots
of orange make-up, tubes of mascara and long false eyelashes.
As a place to work, it must rank pretty low down the scale: the area round the ice-rink is
gray and mucky with rows of dirty blue and brown plastic seating and red carpet tiles. It’s an
unimpressive picture, but the show itself is an unquestionably vast, polished global enterprise:
the lights come from a firm in Texas, the people who make the audio system are in California,
but Montreal supplies the smoke effects; former British Olympic skater Robin Cousins is now
creative director for the company and conducts a vast master class to make sure they’re ready for
the show’s next performance.
The next day, as the music blares out from the sound system, the case start to go through
their routines under Cousins’ direction. Cousins says, ‘The aim is to make sure they’re all still
getting to exactly the right place on the ice at the right time-largely because the banks of lights in
the ceiling are set to those places, and if the skaters are all half a metre out they’ll be illuminating
empty ice. Our challenge,’ he continues, ‘is to produce something they can sell in a number of
countries at the same time. My theory is that you take those things that people want to see and
you give it to them, but not in the way they except to see it. You try to twist it. And you have to
find music that is challenging to the skaters, because they have to do it every night.’
‘The only place you’ll see certain skating moves is an ice show,’ he says, ‘because you’re
not allowed to do them in competition. It’s not in the rules. So the ice show world has things to
offer which the competitive world just doesn’t. cousins knows what he’s talking about because
he skated for the show himself when he stopped competing-he was financially unable to retire.
He learnt the hard way that you can’t put on an Olympic performance every night. I’d be
thinking, these people have paid their money, now do your stuff, and I suddenly thought, “I
really can’t cope. I’m not enjoying it”.’ The solution, he realized, was to give 75 per cent every
night, rather than striving for the sort of twice-a-year excellence which won him medals.
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To be honest, for those of us whose only experience of ice-skating is watching top-class
Olympic skaters, some of the movements can look a bit amateurish, but then, who are we to
judge? Equally, it’s impossible not to be swept up in the whole thing; well, you’d have to try
pretty hard not to enjoy it.
(Source TOEFL reading)
43. What surprises the writer about the popularity of Holiday on Ice?
A. Few people know someone who has been it.
B. The show has not changed since it started.
C. Ice-skating is not generally a popular hobby.
D. People often say they prefer other types of show.
44. The word blares out in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. seeps out B. sounds beautifully
C. resounds loudly D. rings
45. What does the writer highlight about the show in the third paragraph?
A. the variety of places in which the show has been staged
B. the range of companies involved in the production
C. the need for a higher level of professional support
D. the difficulty of finding suitable equipment
46. The word them in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. things that people want to see
B. skating moves
C. the skaters
D. skating competitions
47. For Robin Cousins, the key point when rehearsing skating routines is
A. filling all available space on the ice
B. the movement of the lights
C. keeping in time with the music
D. the skaters’ positions on the ice
48. Cousins believes that he can meet the challenge of producing shows for different
audiences
A. by varying the routines each night
B. by selecting music that local audiences will respond to
C. by adapting movements to suit local tastes
D. by presenting familiar material in an unexpected way
49. What does Cousins suggest in paragraph 5 about skating in shows?
A. It can be as competitive as other forms of skating
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B. It enables skaters to visit a variety of places
C. It is particularly well paid
D. It allows skaters to try out a range of ideas
50. What conclusion does the writer draw about Holiday on Ice?
A. It is hard to know who really enjoys it.
B. It is more enjoyable to watch than formal ice-skating.
C. It requires as much skill as Olympic ice-skating.
D. It is difficult to dislike it.
1. A. amount B. country C. counter D. around
2. A. education B. document C. endangered D. secondary
3. A. interviewer B. inhabitant C. solidify D. relationship
4. A. enter B. comment C. chemist D. proceed
5. With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions on Earth may
be unique in the solar system was strengthened.
A. expansion B. beginning C. continuation D. outcome
6. Roget’s Thesaurus, a collection of English words and phrases, was originally arranged by
the ideas they express rather than by alphabetical order.
A. regardless of B. as well as C. unless D. instead of
7. She was disgusted at the way they treat their children.
A. allergic to B. delighted at C. displeased with D. angry at
8. All of the students are obliged to pass the entrance examination in order to attend the
university.
A. forced B. impelled C. required D. optional
9. Measles have not yet been eradicated because of the controversy concerning
immunization.
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A. have not B. yet C. because of D. concerning
10. With the discovery of Pluto’s moon, Charon, astronomy now think that Pluto is the
smallest planet in the solar system.
A. with B. astronomy C. the smallest D. solar system
11. For more than 450 years, Mexico City has been the economic, culture and political centre
of Mexican people.
A. more than B. has been C. culture D. Mexican people
questions.
12. When Mr. Spendthrift ran out of money, he _______ his mother for help.
A. fell back on B. fell upon C. fell behind D. fell in with
13. It’s funny you should say that. I’ve just had the _______ thought.
A. like B. identical C. alike D. likely
14. _______, I decided to stop trading with them.
A. Despite of the fact that they were the biggest dealer
B. Though being the biggest dealer
C. Being the biggest dealer
D. Even though they were the biggest dealer
15. He used to do well at school _______ having his early education disrupted by illness.
A. apart from B. in spite of C. in addition to D. because of
16. I refuse to believe a word of it; it’s a cock-and-_______ story.
A. hen B. goose C. bull D. duck
17. Why don’t you _______ a go? It’s not difficult!
A. make B. have C. do D. set
18. How many means of _______ do you use on a regular basis?
A. communication B. communicating
C. communicator D. communicative
19. Students use the library’s computers to get access _______ the Internet.
A. for B. to C. with D. by
20. If you can’t remember his phone number, you can always _______ it _______ in the
phone book.
A. take/ down B. look/ up C. find/ out D. bring/ about
21. Researchers have _______ to the conclusion that your personality is affected by your
genes.
A. come B. got C. reached D. arrived
22. You should _______ a professional to check your house for earthquake damage.
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A. have B. get C. make D. take
23. Many of the people who attended Mr. David’s funeral _______ him for many years.
A. didn’t see B. wouldn’t see C. haven’t seen D. hadn’t seen
MICHAEL FARADAY
During the last 400 years, most scientists have based on mathematics in their development
of their inventions or discoveries. However, one great British scientist, Michael Faraday, did not
make (24) _______ of mathematics. Faraday, the son of a poor blacksmith, was born in London
in 1791 and had no (25) _______ beyond reading and writing.
In 1812 Faraday was hired as a bottle washer by the great chemist Humphry Davy. Later,
Faraday became a greater scientist than Davy, making the last years of Davy’s life embittered
with jealousy. Faraday made the first (26) _______ motor in 1821, a device that used electricity
to produce movement. Then Faraday became interested in the relationship between electricity
and magnetism. In 1831 he discovered that when a magnet is moved near a wire, electricity
flows in the wire. With this discovery he produced a machine for making electricity called a
dynamo. Faraday then went on to show how electricity affects chemical (27) _______.
Because Faraday believed that money should be given to the poor, when he grew old, he
was destitute. (28) _______, Queen Victoria rewarded him for his discoveries by giving him a
stipend and a house. He died in 1867.
24. A. usage B. advantage C. use D. utilization
25. A. instruction B. knowledge C. training D. schooling
26. A. electric B. electronics C. electricity D. electrician
27. A. matters B. substances C. materials D. equations
28. A. Still B. So C. However D. Yet
Read the following the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
communicating with a group or an individual, and specialized communication through
the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person’s tone may
indicate unsureness or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect
ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the speaker’s tone
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can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or
interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are usually discernible by the
its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and/ or gesture. The motivation derived from
the text, and it the case of signing, the music, in combination with the performer’s skills,
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person’s self-image, perception of others,
behind an overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the listener’s receptiveness, interest, or
sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by
encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and
melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and
lethargic qualities of the depressed.
A. The function of the voice in performance
B. The connection between voice and personality
C. Communication styles
D. The production of speech
30. What does the author mean by stating that “At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect
ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen”?
A. Feeling is expressed with different words than ideas are.
B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
31. The word “Here” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. interpersonal interactions B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen
32. The word “derived” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. discussed B. prepared C. registered D. obtained
33. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice, may be an indication of a person’s
_______.
A. general physical health B. personality
C. ability to communicate D. vocal quality
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34. According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide _______.
A. hostility B. shyness C. friendliness D. strength
35. The word “drastically” in line paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. frequently B. exactly C. severely D. easily
As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States
increased. The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and
cities. Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new
emphasis upon credentials and expertise to make schooling increasingly important for economic
and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were viewed as the most important means of
integrating immigrants into American society.
The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the
century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920
schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was
greatly lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational
education and counseling extended the influence of public school over the lives of students,
many of whom in the larger industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult
immigrants were sponsored by public schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses,
and other agencies.
Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the
needs of specific populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried to
educate young women so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy,
and one place many educators considered appropriate for women was the home.
Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American
education gave homemaking a new definition. In pre-industrial economies, homemaking had
meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly included income-
producing activities both inside and outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-
twentieth-century United States, however, overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a
problem. Thus, the ideal American homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a
producer. Schools trained women to be consumer homemakers: cooking, shopping, decorating,
and caring for children “efficiently” in their own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as
employees in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions soom quite out-
of-date.
36. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance
of education in the United States was _______.
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A. the growing number of schools in frontier communities
B. an increase in the number of trained teachers
C. the expanding economic problems of schools
D. the increased urbanization of the entire country
37. The word “means” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. advantages B. probability C. method D. qualifications
38. The phrase “coincided with” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. was influenced by B. happened at the same time as
C. began to grow rapidly D. ensured the success of
39. According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the 1920’s
was that _______.
A. most places required children to attend school
B. the amount of time spent on formal education was limited
C. new regulations were imposed on nontraditional education
D. adults and children studied in the same classes
40. Vacation schools and extracurricular activities are mentioned to illustrate _______.
A. alternatives to formal education provided by public schools
B. the importance of educational changes
C. activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs
D. the increased impact of public schools on students
41. According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers believed that
_______.
A. different groups needed different kinds of education
B. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them
C. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress
D. more women should be involved in education and industry
A. consumption B. production C. homemaking D. education
43. Women were trained to be consumer homemakers as a result of _______.
A. overproduction in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
B. scarcity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
C. economic necessity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
D. income-producing activities in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century
United States
Mark the letter A, B or C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following
exchanges.
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44. “_______” – “No, I can manage. Thank you.”
A. Can you give me a hand with this please?
B. Do you need their support?
C. Can you manage the job?
D. Let me carry the bag for you.
45. Tom. “I don’t have my glasses. I can’t read the menu.” – Jane. “_______”
A. I am going to read it to you B. I will read it to you
C. I have read it to you D. I will be reading it to you
46. Although Christopher was the stronger of the two, his attacker soon overpowered him.
A. Despite his superior strength, Christopher was soon overpowered by his attacker.
B. Christopher was stronger, but he overpowered his attacker after a while.
C. Christopher lost because he was stronger than his attacker.
D. Christopher was too strong to be overpowered by his attacker.
47. He could have gone by bus and so saved a lot of money.
A. He wouldn’t have saved much money if he had taken the bus.
B. He would have gone by bus if he had saved money for the fare.
C. He traveled by bus, and it didn’t cost him much.
D. He would have spent less money if he had traveled by bus.
48. I have every intention of finding out who is responsible for the graffiti.
A. I fully intend to find out who is responsible for the graffiti.
B. I have all the intention to find out who is responsible for the graffiti.
C. Who is responsible for the graffiti is one of my concerns.
D. I am intentional to find out who is responsible for the graffiti.
49. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. Therefore, he opened the window.
50. No one but the excepts were able to realize that the painting was an imitation. It greatly
resembled the original.
successfully.
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B. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one,
but no for the experts.
C. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic,
D. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it
wasn’t genuine.
1. A. apologize B. agree C. algebra D. aggressive
2. A. likes B. tightens C. heaps D. coughs
3. A. celebrate B. occupy C. determine D. atmosphere
4. A. sensitive B. allowance C. consultant D. location
5. I had to pay through the nose to get my car repaired at a service station in the middle of
the desert.
A. spend less money than usual B. cost a lot of money
C. pay too much for something D. make a lot of money
6. In the United States there are only a few deaths annually from rattlesnakes, with a
mortality rate of less than 2 percent of those attacked.
A. percentage B. illness C. death D. deliberate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
8. These techniques to stop desert expansion are just temporary.
A. parallel B. constant C. permanent D. deliberate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
9. Proteins are made up of folded irregularly chains, the links of which are amino acids.
A. made up of B. folded irregularly
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C. the links D. which
10. Little he knows about the surprise that awaited him.
A. he knows B. about C. that D. awaited
11. The astronomy is the oldest science, but it continues to be at the forefront of scientific
thought.
A. the astronomy B. science C. continues D. at
questions.
12. It was so quiet; you could have heard a _______ drop.
A. pin B. feather C. leaf D. sigh
13. _______ is not clear to researchers.
A. Why did dinosaurs become extinct B. Why dinosaurs became extinct
C. Did dinosaurs become extinct D. Dinosaurs became extinct
14. If a machine stops moving or working normally, you can say that it has _______.
A. cut off B. wiped out C. seized up D. go off
15. Drinking water _______ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled
effect on the enamel of teeth.
A. containing B. including C. made up of D. composed of
16. Newspaper publishers in the States have estimated _______ reads a newspaper every day.
A. nearly 80 percentage of the adult population who
B. it is nearly 80 percent of the adult population
C. that it is nearly 80 percentage of the adult population
D. that nearly 80 percent of the adult population
17. The Artificial Intelligence expert wanted to have his assistant _______ the newly made
robot.
A. activate B. activated C. activating D. to activate
18. Many materials have been used for _______ teeth, including wood.
A. artificial B. false C. hand-made D. natural
19. A lot of residents had to _______ from the unexpected hurricane last month.
A. protect B. recover C. suffer D. save
20. Each form of mass media has an important _______ on society.
A. impact B. pressure C. affection D. role
21. Many people _______ television as their main source of information and entertainment.
A. rely on B. try on C. put on D. hold on
22. A flat in the centre of the city might _______ you an arm and a leg.
A. spend B. lose C. cost D. require
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23. The promoters called the concert _______ because the singer had a sore throat.
A. away B. up C. off D. with
Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night
but can’t find the energy to get out of bed (24) _______ for school? According to a new report,
today’s generations of children are in danger of getting so little sleep that they are putting their
mental and physical health at (25) _______. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours’
sleep a night, (26) _______ teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts,
one in five youngsters gets anything between two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their
parents did at their age.
This (27) _______ serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children’s
ability to concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory,
impaired reaction time and poor concentration is well established. Research has shown that
losing as little as half an hour’s sleep a night can have profound effects on how children perform
the next day. A good night’s sleep is also crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep
that they release a hormone that is essential for their ‘growth spurt’ (the period during teenage
years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It’s true that they can, to some (28) _______, catch
up on sleep at weekends, but that won’t help them when they are dropping off to sleep in class on
a Friday afternoon.
24. A. behind time B. about time C. in time D. at times
25. A. jeopardy B. threat C. risk D. danger
26. A. or B. because C. whereas D. so
27. A. raises B. rises C. results D. comes
28. A. rate B. extent C. level D. point
Psychologists have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it the
ability to do outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say that it
is simply something a person is born with. Others, however, argue that the potential for great
achievement can be developed. The truth lies somewhere between these two extremes.
It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will
increase a child’s ability to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the
right upbringing and opportunities. As one psychologist says, “To have a fast car, you need
both a good engine and fuel.”
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Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of
identical twins that were separated shortly after birth and brought up by different parents. They
found that achievement was based on intelligence, and later influenced by the child’s
environment.
One case involving very intelligent twins was quoted. One of the twins received a normal
upbringing, and performed well. The other twin, however, was brought up by extremely
supportive parents and given every possible opportunity to develop its abilities. That twin,
though starting out with the same degree of intelligence as the other, performed even better.
This case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the
environment, the more a child’s intelligence and ability are developed. However, there is no link
between intelligence and the socioeconomic level of a child’s family. In other words, it does not
matter how poor or how rich a family is, as this does not affect intelligence.
Gifted people cannot be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them.
One professor of music said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years earlier
than ordinary performers, often because their parents had recognized their ability. These
musicians then needed at least ten years’ hard work and training in order to reach the level they
were capable of attaining.
People who want to have very gifted children are given the following advice.
 Marry an intelligent person.
 Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.
 Start a child’s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.
 Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instruments is essential for
a child who wants to become an outstanding musician.
29. The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires _______.
A. an expensive education B. good musical instruments
C. parental support and encouragement D. wealthy and loving parents
30. The word “others” used in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. other people B. other scientists C. other children D. other geniuses
31. How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their development?
A. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nurtured.
B. They practiced playing their instruments for many years.
C. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of other areas.
D. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic.
32. When encouraging their gifted children, parents should avoid _______.
A. pushing their children too hard
B. letting them play their own way
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C. permitting them to follow their own interests
D. starting their education at an early age
33. The remark. “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.” In the passage
means that in order to become a genius.
A. you need to have good health and good nourishment
B. you need intelligence and you need to develop it
C. you should try to move quickly and efficiently
D. you must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard
34. The word “favorable” in the paragraph 5 mostly means _______.
A. “good for someone and making him/ her likely to be successful”
B. “helping somebody to be more intelligent compared to other people”
C. “of high quality or an acceptable standard”
D. “under the control or in the power of somebody else”
35. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT _______.
A. educational development depends completely on economic well-being
B. a child’s intelligence is influenced by that of his/ her parents
C. to become successful, a child needs both native intelligence and development
D. studying different twins is a useful scientific procedure
In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and
Europe, recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new
ways to be sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding ways to use products a second
time. The motto of the recycling movement is “Reduce. Reuse, Recycle”.
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs,
boxes and expensive wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of
packaging: usually paper, a box, and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People
should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to
reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low quality appliances break, many
customers throw them away and buy new ones – a loss of more resources and more energy. For
example, if a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the
manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a product
with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufactures. To reduce
garbage, the throwaway must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles.
After customers empty the bottles, they return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks
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collect the bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make
new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common
practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from
throwaway bottles.
The third step is being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be
cleaned and used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of
energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people
collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world’s precious
resources.
A. how to reduce garbage disposal
B. what people often understand about the term ‘recycle’
C. what is involved in the recycling movement
D. how to live sensitively to the environment
37. Which is described as one of the most industrialized areas?
A. Europe B. Asia C. Middle East D. South America
38. What does the world ‘sensitive’ in the phrase ‘sensitive to the environment’ in paragraph
1 mean?
A. cautious B. logical C. friendly D. responding
39. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT _______.
A. buy high-quality product B. buy simply-wrapped things
C. reuse cups D. buy fewer hamburgers
40. The word “motto” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. meaning B. value C. belief D. reference
41. What best describes the process of the reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
C. The bottles are washed, returned, filled again and collected.
D. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed.
42. The garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because
_______.
A. people are ordered to return bottles
B. returned bottles are few
C. not many bottle are made of glass or plastic
D. each returned bottle is paid
43. The word ‘practice’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
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A. drill B. exercise C. deed D. belief
exchanges
44. Brown. ‘_______’ – Smith. ‘Thanks, I’ll write to you as soon as I arrive in Paris.’
A. God bless you! B. Have a go!
C. Better luck next time! D. Have a nice trip!
45. James. ‘Do you mind if I open the window?’ – Carol. ‘_______’
A. I’d rather you didn’t B. Yeah, of course
C. Please, don’t worry D. Yes, it is, isn’t it?
46. I remember telling you about the due day of the exam paper.
A. I remember to tell you when the exam paper was due.
B. I think I have told you about the exam paper’s due.
C. I think I have told you when you sit for the exam.
D. I remember I have told you when the exam paper is due.
47. Friendly though he may seem, he’s not very trusted.
A. However he seems friendly, he’s not to be trusted.
B. However friendly he seems, he’s not to be trusted.
C. He may have friends, but he’s not to be trusted.
D. He’s too friendly to be trusted.
48. Alfred said to John. “I didn’t use your computer! Someone else did, not me.”
A. Alfred told John that he hadn’t used his computer, saying that someone else had.
B. Alfred denied having used John’s computer, saying that someone else had.
C. Alfred refused to use John’s computer, saying that someone else had.
D. Alfred said to John that he hadn’t used his computer, saying that someone else had.
49. We know that animals need vitamins for growth and development. Plants need them, too.
A. Plants are known to need the same vitamins for growth and development as do
animals.
B. In order to grow and develop, plants are known to need the vitamins that are produced
by animals.
C. Animals need vitamins to grow and develop whereas plants need its growth and
development.
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D. What we are that both animals and plants can produce vitamins for growth and
development.
50. We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.
night.
1. A. merchant B. sergeant C. commercial D. term
3. A. imagine B. inhabit C. continue D. disappear
4. A. popularity B. politician C. documentary D. laboratory
5. “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the
back”, the teacher said.
A. visible B. audible C. edible D. eligible
6. On the second thought, I believe I will go with you to the theater.
A. Upon reflection B. After discussing with my life
C. For this time only D. For the second time
7. He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
8. Children must sit on a parent’s lap unless an empty seat is available.
A. occupied B. booked C. disused D. abandoned
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9. A paragraph is a portion of a text consist of one or more sentences related to the same
idea.
A. a paragraph B. consist C. sentences D. related to
10. The train to Ho Chi Minh City left at precisely 7 o’clock as usually, but the train to Ha
Noi capital left at half past six o’clock, which was exactly 20 minutes late.
A. precisely B. as usually C. which D. exactly
11. Whether life in the countryside is better than that in the city depend on each individual’s
point of view.
A. whether B. that C. depend on D. point of view
questions.
12. British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as
different as _______.
A. cats and dogs B. salt and pepper
C. chalk and cheese D. here and there
13. A washing machine of this type will certainly _______ normal domestic use.
A. stand up for B. come up with C. get on to D. take down with
14. Half of the children were away from school last week because of _______ of influenza.
A. a break-out B. a breakthrough C. an outburst D. an outbreak
15. It’s a formal occasion so we’ll have to _______ to the nines- no jeans and pullovers this
time!
A. hitch up B. put on C. wear in D. get dressed up
16. There seems to be a large _______ between the number of people employed in service
industries, and those employed in the primary sectors.
A. discrimination B. discretion C. discrepancy D. extinction
17. All students must hand _______ their homework the day after it is assigned.
A. out B. on C. to D. in
18. I’m not surprised that Tom is ill. He’s been _______ for a long time. It was bound to
affect his health sooner or later.
A. having his cake and eating it B. burning the candles at both hands
C. playing with fire D. going to town
19. The climber _______ into difficulties when there was a sudden storm.
A. came B. met C. had D. got
20. I picked up the wrong bag by _______.
A. mistake B. purpose C. luck D. fault
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21. Most scientists believe that the day robots will become a part of our lives will come
_______.
A. from time to time B. more and less C. sooner and later D. later than never
22. The mass media are _______ of communication, such as books, newspapers, recordings,
radio, movies, television, mobile phones and the Internet.
A. models B. modes C. parts D. types
23. If there are aliens out there, do you think they are much more _______ advanced than we
are?
A. technological B. technologically C. technology D. technologies
Imagine you are studying English at a small college in the Midwestern United States. The
local newspaper rarely has news about your native country. (24) _______, it prints very little
foreign news, but this does not bother you at all. You sit comfortably in your apartment, turn on
your (25) _______ computer, and ask for the foreign news. The screen is immediately (26)
_______ with news from (27) _______ the world.
Computers have (28) _______ an information “superhighway”. Today, computers can
work together – they can network with each other. The worldwide computer network is called
the Internet. Using the Internet, you can find all kinds of information and news from people and
countries around the world.
24. A. Despite B. In fact C. Because D. Although
25. A. person B. personified C. personally D. personal
26. A. filled B. full C. made D. taken
27. A. in B. on C. all above D. all over
28. A. written B. created C. composed D. invented
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with
care. View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a
living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference
between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an
attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your
choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want
to begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes,
hobbies, and surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would
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you like to travel? Do you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or
cooperative work?” There are no right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to
you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones
you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you.
The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk
all day. If not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent –
that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern,
and employment in some fields is concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally
be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law
education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country. If a high salary is important to
you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers
relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience,
additional training, promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke
positive or negative associations. The travelling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous,
while that of a plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be a
first, and may have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long,
grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors.
Another point to consider is that as you get mature, you will likely to develop new interests and
skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your
final one.
29. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs
30. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by _______.
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
31. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who
does not want to live in a bog city?
A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
32. It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that _______.
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid
B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion
D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career
33. In paragraph 4, the author suggest that _______.
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling
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C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future
34. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber
B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception
C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen
D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant
35. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. To make a lot of number, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight
attendant.
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikes-you’re-out, batter out on a caught ball. Three
outs per inning, a nine-man team. The “New York Game” spread rapidly, replacing earlier
needs of an increasingly urban-industrial society. At its inception it was played by and for
wealthy gentlemen. A club might consist of 40 members. The president would appoint two
captains who would choose teams from among the numbers. Games were played on Monday and
Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainment for the
winners.
During the 1850-70 period the game was changing; however, with increasing
commercialism (charging admission), under-the-table payments to exceptional players, and
professional ten, an amateur first-nine, and their “muffins” (the gentlemanly duffers who once
ran the game). Beginning with the first openly all-salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking
Club) in 1869, the 1870-1890 period saw the complete professionalization of baseball, including
League of Professional Base Ball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business-minded investors
in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s “Golden
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Age”. Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132,
a weekly periodical “The Sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck
peanuts. In 1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of the Midwest proclaimed
itself the American League.
36. What is the passage mainly about?
B. the commercialization of baseball
C. the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball
D. The development of baseball in the nineteenth century
37. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, alter needed to find another
recreational opportunity if they did not want to mix others or become a “muffin”
B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism
and commercialism that developed in baseball
C. the “New York Game” spread rapidly because it was better formalized
D. business-minded investors were only interested in profits
38. The word “inception” in paragraph 1 is closest meaning to _______.
A. requirements B. beginning C. insistence D. rules
39. The word “lavish” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. prolonged B. very generous C. grand D. extensive
40. According to the second paragraph, all of the following are true EXCEPT _______.
41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “Golden Age”?
D. profits soared
42. The word “somewhat” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. to a significant extant B. to a minor extent
C. to not the same extent D. to some extent
43. The word “itself” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. the Western League B. growing cities
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C. the Midwest D. the American League
44. Ben. “_______”. Jane. “Never mind.”
A. Congratulations! How wonderful! B. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have
it cleaned.
C. Thank you for being honest with me. D. Would you mind going to dinner next
Sunday?
45. Peter. – “All right. Keep your receipt. If something comes up, you can show it to us, and
we’ll give you a refund.”
Tom. “_______.”
A. OK. I won’t use it. B. Thanks. I’ll put it in a safe place.
C. You’re welcome. See you later. D. Thanks you. I’ll keep it for you.
46. The staff couldn’t have worked any harder, and they could not even finish half of the
order all the week.
A. Had the staff worked a little harder, they might finished all the order by the end of the
week.
B. Throughout the week, the staff could only complete half of the order, which how they
did not work as hard as they should have.
C. The staff, who only completed half of the order all week, could not have worked as
hard as they claimed they did.
D. Throughout the week, less than half of the order could be produced, although the staff
worked as hard as they could.
47. You needn’t have taken so many warm clothes there.
A. It’s not necessary for you to take so many warm clothes there.
B. You have taken so many warm clothes there that I don’t need.
C. There’s no need for you to take so many warm clothes there.
D. You took lots of warm clothes there but it turned out not necessary.
48. My sister would love to be involved in the organization of the event, so would I.
A. My sister is so much like me, since she too takes part in organizing events voluntarily.
B. My sister was so keen to take part in the organization of the event, that I encouraged
her.
C. Both my sister and I would be very happy to take part in organizing the event.
D. I would like my sister to volunteer to take part in organizing the event.
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49. Companies spend millions of dollars of advertising. They want to increase their sales.
A. Companies spend millions of dollars of advertising so that they want to increase their
sales.
B. Companies spend millions of dollars of advertising, but they want to increase their
sales.
C. Companies spend millions of dollars of advertising with the aim of increasing their
sales.
D. In order that they want to increase their sales, companies spend millions of dollars of
advertising.
50. I had two job offers upon graduation. Neither of them was appropriate for my
qualifications.
A. Both of the job offers I had prior to my graduation were appropriate for my
qualifications.
B. Though I wasn’t qualified enough, two jobs were offered to me upon graduation.
C. The two jobs offered to me after I graduated were inappropriate for my qualifications.
D. I was offered two jobs soon after my graduation, both of which were suitable for my
qualifications.
1. A. building B. suitable C. suit D. recruitment
2. A. courtship B. courgette C. sour D. courtyard
3. A. license B. concert C. conserve D. lantern
4. A. intelligent B. architecture C. biography D. thermometer
5. Those who were engaged in the scandal will have to resign.
A. connected B. joined C. involved D. related
6. He annoys me by asking me stupid questions while I am working.
A. quarrels B. disturbs C. interferes D. damages
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underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
7. The number of wild animals has been dwindling in many parts of the world.
A. developing B. insignificant C. increasing D. declining
8. There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.
A. disregard B. attraction C, consideration D. speculation
9. Never before has so many people in the United States been interested in soccer.
A. has B. so many C. in D. interested
10. None two butterflies have exactly the same design on their wings.
A. none B. exactly C. design on D. wings
11. Dr. Fields received so large bill when he checked out of the hotel that he did not have
enough money to pay for a taxi to the airport.
A. so large bill B. checked out C. that D. enough money
questions.
12. There was no _______ in waiting longer than half an hour so we left.
A. use B. good C. worth D. point
13. It was so foggy that the driver couldn’t _______ the traffic signs.
A. make out B. break out C. keep out D. take out
14. It was a joke! I was pulling your _______.
A. thumb B. hair C. toe D. leg
15. The teacher hoped to _______ a positive, not a negative reply from his student.
A. respond B. donate C. elicit D. preface
16. She made the _______ mistake of forgetting to put the s” on the verb in the third person
singular.
A. classic B. important C. classical D. famous
17. I had a long _______ with my neighbor yesterday. We talked for hours.
A. explanation B. protest C. conversation D. accusation
18. Mrs. Marie told her little boy to put all his toys _______ before coming to dinner.
A. out B. off C. away D. in
19. The old astronomer patiently made his _______ and wrote down what he saw.
A. observation B. observatory C. observe D. observer
20. We were both very excited about the visit, as we _______ each other for ages.
A. never saw B. didn’t see C. hadn’t seen D. haven’t seen
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21. Why don’t you _______ you when you install this new electric gadget?
A. get Aaron help B. have Aaron help
C. have Aaron helped D. have got Aaron help
22. Only in the last few years _______ to use home computers.
A. have begun people B. when people begun
C. have people begun D. people have begun
23. “I’m really sleepy today” I wish I _______ Bob to the airport late last night.
A. didn’t have to take B. weren’t taking
C. hadn’t had to take D. didn’t take
LEARNING TO MAKE A PERFECT PIZZA
According to the European Pizza-Makers’ Association, making a good pizza is not a
straightforward skill to learn. The ingredients seem very (24) _______: flour, yeast, water and a
bit of salt. But water and flour can easily make glue and anyone who has eaten a (25) _______
quality will know how bad it can make your stomach feel.
‘In Italy, 70% of pizza makers could improve on their product, not to (26) _______ all the
pizza makers around the world who serve uneatable meals,’ says Antonio Primiceri, the
Association’s founder. He has now started a pizza school in an attempt to save the reputation of
this traditional dish. As part of a/ an (27) _______ course, the students at Mr. Primiceri’s school
are taught to avoid common mistakes, produce a good basic mixture, add a tasty topping and
cook the pizza properly. ‘Test the finished pizza by breaking the crust, advises Mr. Primiceri: ‘If
the soft part inside the pizza is white, clean and dry, it’s a good pizza. If it not like this, the pizza
will upset your stomach. You will feel (28) _______ full and also thirsty’.
In Italy alone, the pizza industry has an annual turnover of more than $12 billion. Mr.
Primiceri estimated that there are 10,000 jobs in pizza restaurants waiting to be filled by those
with real skills. ‘If you are a good pizza cook, you will never be without a job,’ he says.
24. A. simple B. primary C. pure D. regular
25. A. sad B. poor C. short D. weak
26. A. state B. mention C. remark D. fell
27. A. defensive B. extreme C. intensive D. intentional
28. A. hardly B. tightly C. uncomfortably D. heavily
Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short
amount of time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the
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information get there in the first place? Information that makes its way to the short term memory
(STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain has a filter which only allows stimuli that
is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the working memory.
There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most
accepted theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that
humans can remember approximately seven chunks of information. A chunk is defined as a
meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather than just a letter or number.
Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the short term memory by
chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing information, one can
optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being passed on to long term storage.
When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam,
many people engage in “rote rehearsal”. By repeating something over and over again, one is able
to keep a memory alive. Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there
are no interruptions. As soon as a person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to
disappear. When a pen and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone
number by repeating it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person
has the opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly. Therefore,
rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from the short term to long term
memory. A better way is to practice “elaborate rehearsal”. This involves assigning semantic
meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along with other pre-existing long term
memories. For example, a reader engages in elaborate rehearsal when he brings prior knowledge
of a subject to a text.
Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information
can be done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the
long term memory and used often; however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it may
eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more cues a person is given (such as pictures), the
more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is why multiple choice tests are often used for
subjects that require a lot of memorization.
29. According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?
A. They revert from the long term memory.
B. They are filtered from the sensory storage area.
C. They get chunked when they enter the brain.
D. They enter via the nervous system.
30. The word “elapses” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. passes B. adds up C. appears D. continues
31. The word “cues” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
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A. questions B. clues C. images D. tests
32. How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?
A. By organizing it B. By repeating it
C. By giving it a name D. By drawing it
33. The author believes that rote rotation is _______.
A. the best way to remember something
B. more efficient than chunking
C. ineffective in the long run
D. an unnecessary interruption
34. The word ‘it’ in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. encoding B. STM C. semantics D. information
35. Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?
A. The working memory is the same as the short term memory.
B. A memory is kept alive through constant repetition.
C. Cues help people to recognize information.
D. Multiple choice exams are the most difficult.
Perhaps it was his own lack of adequate schooling that inspired Horace Mann to work so
hard for the important reforms in education that he accomplished. While he was still a boy, his
father and older brother died, and he became responsible for supporting his family. Like most of
the children in his town, he attended school only two or three months a year. Later, with the help
of several teachers, he was able to study law and became a member of the Massachusetts bar, but
he never forgot those early struggles.
While serving in Massachusetts legislature, he signed a historic education bill that set up a
state board of education. Without regret, he gave up his successful legal practice and political
career to become the first secretary of the board. There he exercised an enormous influence
during the critical period of reconstruction that brought into existence the American graded
elementary school as substitute for the older distinct school system. Under his leadership, the
curriculum was restructured, the school year was increased to a minimum of six months, and
mandatory schooling was extended to age sixteen. Other important reforms included the
establishment of state normal schools for teacher training, institutes for in-service teacher
education, and lyceums for adult education. He was also instrument in improving salaries for
teachers and creating school libraries.
Mann’s ideas about school reform were developed and distributed in twelve annual reports
to the state of Massachusetts that he wrote during his tenure as secretary of education.
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Considered quite radical at the time, the Massachusetts reforms later served as a model for the
nation. Mann was recognized as the father of public education.
36. Which of the following titles would best express the main topic of the passage?
A. The Father of American Public Education
B. Philosophy of Education
C. The Massachusetts State Board of Education
D. Politics of Education Institutions
37. Which of the following describes Horace Mann’s early life?
A. He attended school six months a year
B. He had to study alone, without help
C. He supported his family after his father died
D. He was an only child
38. The word “struggles” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by _______.
A. valuable experience B. happy situations
C. influential people D. difficult times
39. What did Horace Mann advocate?
A. The state board school system B. The district school system
C. The substitute school system D. The graded school system
40. The word “mandatory” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. required B. equal C. excellent D. basic
41. How were Mann’s educational reforms distributed?
A. In twelve annual reports to the state of Massachusetts
B. In reports that he wrote for national distribution
C. In speeches that he made throughout the country
D. In books that could be found in school libraries
42. Among Mann’s school reforms, which of the following is NOT mentioned?
A. Restructuring curriculum B. Schools for teacher training
C. Lyceums for adult education D. Creating museums
43. Which of the following statements best represents Mann’s philosophy?
A. Think in a new way B. Help others
C. Study very hard D. Work hard
exchanges.
44. – ‘Let me do that for you’ – ‘_______.’
A. Don’t worry yourself B. Please, don’t bother
C. It’s not for you D. Make yourself at home
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45. – ‘Do you have a minute, Dr. Keith?’ – ‘_______’
A. Well, I’m not sure when B. Good, I hope so
C. Sure, what’s the problem? D. Sorry, I haven’t got it here
46. Without skillful surgery, he would not have survived the operation.
A. He survived the operation thanks to skillful surgery.
B. It wasn’t thanks to skillful surgery that he survived the operation.
C. If there weren’t skillful surgery, he would not have survived the operation.
D. But for skillful surgery, he would have survived the operation.
47. There’s no point in phoning Caroline – she’s away.
A. Don’t waste your time if you phone Caroline.
B. It would be a waste of time phoning Caroline.
C. Don’t save your time to phone Caroline because she’s away.
D. It isn’t a waste of time to phone Caroline.
48. Only final-year students are allowed to use the main college car park.
A. The main college car park is restricted to final-year students.
B. The use of the main college car park was not used by final-year students.
C. Final-year students weren’t restricted to use the main college car park.
D. The use of the main college car park isn’t restricted to final-year students
49. Mr. Baker is very interested in our plan. I spoke to him on the phone last night.
A. Mr. Baker, to whom I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan.
B. Mr. Baker who I spoke on the phone last night is very interested in our plan.
C. Mr. Baker, who is very interested in our plan, I spoke to on the phone last night.
D. Mr. Baker is very interested in our plan to whom I spoke to on the phone last night.
50. I did not dare to turn on the television. I was afraid of walking the baby up.
A. I did not dare to turn on the television for fear of walking the baby up.
B. Walking up the baby, I could not continue watching the television.
C. I decided not to turn on the television in order to wake the baby up.
D. I decided to turn the television down to avoid walking the baby up.
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. create B. creature C. easy D. increase

2. A. needed B. played C. rained D. followed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. considerate B. continental C. territorial D. economic

4. A. satisfaction B. presentation C. probability D. continuous
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.
5. The student apologized to his teacher for submitting the essay late.
A. handing in B. dropping out of
C. carrying out D. bringing in
6. I wonder when I’m finally going to receive news Joe.
A. to hear of B. to hear from
C. to get in touch with D. turn away from
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in
7. We run a very tight ship here, and we expect all our employees to be at their by eight o’clock
and take good care of their own business.
A. manage an inflexible B. have a good voyage
C. run faster than others D. organize things inefficiently
8. He usually stays in peace in stressful situations but this time he really lost his head.
A. kept calm B. excited
C. took leave of his sense D. lost touch
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
9. It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to pass the
exam.
10. The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power and it is very cruel.
A. the B. long C. a D. it is very cruel
11. Everyone ought to know the basic steps that following in case of an emergency.
A. everyone B. that following
C. in case of D. an
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
12. The doctor who is _______ tonight in the general hospital is Mr. Brown.
A. in turn B. on tour C. on call D. at work
13. You _______ wonderful! Is that a new perfume you’re wearing?
A. are smelling B. smell C. will smell D. have been smelling
14. She has been very interested in doing research on _______.
A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically
15. _______ of the United States grown during a Republican administration.
A. Rarely the federal government has
B. Rarely has the federal government
C. has the federal government rarely
D. The federal government has rarely
16. It took me 10 years to _______ enough money to travel around the country.
A. set out B. put away C. put by D. save aside
17. Had I known that you were ill last week, _______.
A. I would have gone to see you B. I would go to see you
C. I will go to see you D. I shall have gone to see you
18. It is widely believed that _______ human being are descended from common ancestor.
A. every B. all C. every of D. all of
19. Travel can _______ the mind, and exchange visits give young people experience of a _______
way of life as well as a different language.
A. broadly/ different B. broaden/ different
C. broad/ differently D. broaden/ differ
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20. I think I should have _______ your mother while I was passing.
A. dropped in on . come up with C. got on with D. run into
21. Mr. Dawson was given the award in _______ of his services to the hospital.
A. spite B. charge C. recognition D. sight
22. They thought they could deceive me but they were wrong. I could _______.
A. see them off B. see off them
C. see through D. see them through
23. The rumors go that Jack will be arrested. He is said _______ a bloody robbery.
A. to have taken B. to have joined in
C. to join in D. to take part in
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response the following exchanges.
24. – Joan: “ Our friends are coming. _______, Mike?”

- Mike: “I’m sorry. I can’t do it now.”
A. Why don’t we cook some coffee
B. Shall I make you lie some coffee
C. Shall you make some coffee, please
D. Would you mind making some coffee
25. “Would you like to have dinner with me?” “_______”
A. Yes, it is B. Yes, so do I
C. I’m very happy D. Yes, I’d love to
26. The scene is set in Normandy, but most of the characters in this novel are Londoners.
A. In the novel, the action moves backwards and forwards between Normandy and London.
B. The main characters in the novel are Londoners on a sightseeing holiday in Normandy.
C. In this novel, the story takes place in Normandy but the majority of the characters are from
London.
D. The story is about Normandy, but the leading characters are all Londoners.
27. The airline requested a confirmation call to ensure a seat on my flight back home.
A. The airline made sure I got a seat on m flight home.
B. I secured a seat on my flight home.
C. The airline confirm a seat on my flight home.
D. It was necessary to confirm swat on my flight back home.
28. Mary should never have been allowed to try to swim in the sea alone.
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A. When Mary let to swim in the sea alone, she said new what she was doing.
B. It would probably be wrong to let Mary swims in the sea on her own.
C. No one could have stopped Mary from trying to swim in the sea by herself.
D. Someone ought to have stopped Mary from attempting to swim in the sea on her own.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
29. He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.
A. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me.
B. He cannot lend me the boo until he has finished reading it.
C. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.
D. As long as he cannot finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.
30. I did not arrive in time. I was not able to see her off.
A. She had left because I was not on time.
B. I did not go there, so I could not see her off.
C. I was not early enough to see her off.
D. I arrive very late so say goodbye to her.
Read the following passage ad mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Postsecondary institutions and private schools are corporations under U.S law. They are approved
to operate as non-profit, for-profit, or public corporations (31)_____ education and training.
Increasingly, state authorities are requiring approved educational providers to apply for and receive
accreditation as a condition of final and continued approval.
As corporate entities, U.S institutions are internally self-governing and are (32)_____ to make
property, facilities, equipment, and utilities transactions; make their own personnel decisions; decide
whom to admit to study and to graduate; (33)_____ their own funds from outside sources, enter into
contracts and compete for grants; and do most of the other things that corporations do. Institutions
compete (34)_____ one another for students, research funding, faculty, and other benefits. Public
institutions may compete within the same state or territory for budget appropriations. It is the corporate
nature of institutions and the competition within the system tat (35)_____ Americans to refer to the
concept of the educational or academic marketplace – an important distinctive element of the way U.S
education is organized.
31. A. provide B. provision C. provide D. providing

32. A. capable B. able C. probable D. possible
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33. A. rise B. raise C. call D. lend
34. A. with B. to C. for D. at
35. A. lets B. cause C. prevents D. makes
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
I read with interest the article on American families. In general, I agree with it, but there are some
important things it left out. It didn’t tell me the reader much about the life of a househusband. It’s not
any easy life. I know, because I’m now a househusband myself. A househusband has to change many
of his ideas and his ways.
First of all, he has to change to way h thinks about time. Before I was a househusband, I worked
full-time for the New York Time. I was a reporter, and time was always important. We had to finish our
articles quickly and give them to the editor. Everyone was always in a hurry. This is the way, many
other men work too. Businessmen lawyers, bankers, and doctors all have to work quickly.
At home it’s different. The househusband cannot be in a hurry all the time. If you rush around,
you will make everyone unhappy! The children will be unhappy because they don’t understand. For
them, time is not important. Your wife will be unhappy because the children are unhappy. You will be
unhappy, too, because they are all unhappy. So you have to learn to slow down. That is the first and
most important rule for a househusband.
There is something else the househusband must learn. You must learn to show how you feel
about things. At work, men usually do not talk about feelings. If they do, people think they are strange.
So, many men are not used to telling anyone about their feelings. They do not know how to talk about
their anger, worries, or love. But children need to know how you feel. They need to know how much
you love them. If you are angry, they need to know why. Your wife also needs o now about your
feelings. If you do not say anything, your family may get the wrong idea. Then there may be serious
problem.
People talk a lot about househusbands these days. Usually they talk about men doing the
housework, the cooking, cleaning, and shopping. But in my opinion, these are the easiest things to
learn. It was much harder for me to change the way I think and the way I act with my family. I think,
other men will also find this harder, but, like me, will find it necessary if they want to have a happy
family.
36. What is this article is mainly about?

A. fathers and children B. life as a househusband
C. ideas about time D. American families
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37. At work, most people _____.
A. have to hurry B. take their time
C. have lots of time D. have to slow down
38. The word rush in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____
A. to do things more slowly B. move about hurriedly
C. shout loudly and angrily D. spend time idly
39. What does the househusband have to learn?
A. to do things more slowly. B. to do things more quickly.
C. the important of time. D. how to understand his work.
40. According to the passage, children _____
A. are usually unhappy. B. are always in a hurry.
C. usually don’t think time is important. D. don’t know how to show their feelings.
41. What does the word they in paragraph 4 refers to?
A. strange people at work B. men who talk about feelings
C. men as househusband D. men who do not talk about feelings
42. It can be inferred from the passage that Ted think _____
A. learning about housework is easy.
B. learning about housework is problem.
C. cooking is the easiest thing to learn.
D. being a househusband is easy.
According to some accounts, the first optical telescope was accidentally invented in the 1600s by
children who put two lenses together while playing with them in a Dutch optical shop. The owner of
the hop, Hans Lippershey, looked through the lenses and was amazed by the way they made the nearby
church look so much larger. Soon after that, he invented a device that he called a “looker”, a long thin
tube where light passed in straight from the front lens to the viewing at the other and of the tube. In
1608 he tried to sell his invention unsuccessfully. In the same year, someone described the “looker” to
the Italian scientist Galileo, who made his own version of the device. In 1610 Galileo used his verso to
make observation of the Moon, the planet Jupiter, and the Milky Way. In April of 1611, Galileo shoed
his device to guests at a banquet in his honor. One of the guests suggested a name for the device:
telescope.
When Isaac Newton began using Galileo’s telescope more than a century later, he noticed a
problem. The type of telescope that Galileo designed is call a refractor because the front lens bends, or
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refracts the light. However, the curved front lens also caused the light to be separated into colors. This
meant that when Newton looked through the refracting telescope, the images of bright objects appeared
with a ring of colors around them. This sometimes interfered with viewing. He solved this problem by
designing a new type of telescope that used a curved mirror. This mirror concentrated the light and
reflected of light to the eyepiece at the other end of the telescope. Because Newton used a mirror, has
telescope was called a reflector.
Very much larger optical telescopes can now be found in many parts of the world, built on hills
and mountains far from city lights. the world’s largest refracting telescope is located at the Yerkes
Observatory in Williams Bay, Wisconsin. Another telescope stand on Mount Palomar in California.
This huge reflecting telescope was for many years the largest reflecting telescope in the world until an
even larger reflecting telescope was built in the Caucasus Mountains. A fourth famous reflector
telescope, the Keck Telescope situated on a mountain in Hawaii, does not use a single large mirror to
collect the light. Instead, the Keck uses the combined light that falls in thirty-six mirrors.
Radio telescopes, like optical telescopes, allow astronomers to collect data from outer space, but
they are different in important ways. First of all, they look very different because instead of light
waves, they collect radio waves. Thus, I the place of lenses or mirrors, radio telescopes employ bowl-
shaped disks that resemble huge TV satellite dishes. Also, apart from their distinctive appearance, radio
telescopes and optical telescopes use different methods to record the information they collect. Optical
telescopes use cameras to take photographs of visible object, while radio telescopes use receivers to
record radio waves from distant objects in space.
43. What can be inferred about the first optical telescope?

A. It was bought by children. B. It was invented in America.
C. It was sold by a shop owner. D. It was invented by accident.
44. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Hans Lippershey?
A. He owned a shop. B. He was Dutch.
C. He sold his invention in 1608. D. He got his idea of the telescope from the kids in his
shop.
45. When was Galileo’s invention called “telescope”?
A. in 1611 B. in 1610 C. in 1608 D. in 1600
46. What did Newton notice about Galileo’s telescope when he used it?
A. It had many problems B. It refracted the light
C. It was called a refractor D. It had a curved mirror
47. What did Newton do with Galileo’s telescope?
A. He called it reflector. B. He sent it back to Galileo.
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C. He improved it. D. He stopped using it after his notice.
48. When did Newton start to use Galileo’s telescope?
A. in the 17th century B. in the 18th century
C. in the 16th century D. in the 15th century
49. Where does the largest reflecting telescope stand?
A. in Wisconsin B. in California
C. in Hawaii D. in Caucasus Mountains
50. Which of the following can both optical and radio telescope do?
A. Taking photographs of visible objects. B. Allowing a collection of data from outer space.
C. Collecting radio waves. D. Collecting light waves.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in each of the following questions.
1. A. reside B. conserve C. resume D. preserve

2. A. ploughs B. photographs C. gas D. laughs
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following question.
3. A. phenomenon B. military C. exhibit D. curriculum
4. A. powerful B. substance C. basement D. celestial
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the two questions.
5. The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer’s behavior.
6. The newspaper reporters bear out what the Minister told yesterday.
A. define B. confirm C. support D. complain
meaning to underlined word(s) in each of the two questions.
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7. Unless you have been very lucky, you have undoubtedly experienced events in your life that
made you cry.
A. certainly B. questionably C. absolutely D. definitely
8. His boss has enough of his impudence and doesn’t want to hire him anymore.
A. respect B. rudeness C. obedience D. agreement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
9. Exploration of the Solar System is continuing, and at the present rate of progress all the planets
will have been contacted within the near 50 years.
A. continuing B. progress C. within D. near
10. Thanks to new techniques, canning goods now have a much longer shelf life.
A. Thanks to B. techniques C. canning goods D. a much longer
11. Florence Sabin is recognized not only for her theoretical research in anatomy and physiology
and for her work in public health.
A. recognized B. for C. anatomy D. and
12. It never ______ his mind that his dishonesty would be discovered.
A. crossed B. came C. spunk D. passed
13. The more ______ you look, the better impression you will make on your interviewer.
A. confine B. confident C. confidently D. confidence
14. I can’t decide if I ______ you till I ______ when they ______.
A. will join – will know – will leave B. will join – know – leave
C. join – will know – leave C. join – will know – will leave
15. ______ broken into when we were away on holiday.
A. It was our house B. We had our house
C. Thieves had our house D. Our house had
16. Could not ______ the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.
A. hold on B. make off C. get along D. take in
17. There is now much ______ water in the lake than there was last year.
A. less B. lesser C. fewer D. smaller
18. Hurry up if you want to buy something because there is ______ left.
A. hardly anything B. a great deal C. hardly little D. hardly something
19. Elderly people, ______, require constant attention.
A. a large number’s depending on government aid.
B. and many of them depend on the government to finance them
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C. who are dependent many of them on the financing from the government
D. many of them who are financially dependent on the government
20. Coming unexpectedly in to the room, ______.
A. so she made the intruder get surprise
B. he appearance took the intruder by surprise
C. it surprise the intruder with her appearance
D. she took the intruder by surprise
21. I’m sorry I offended you. I ______ what I said.
A. take back B. get back C. come back D. get away
22. The following day she left ______ well to go to work.
A. suffice B. sufficient C. sufficiently D. sufficiency
23. In one year’s time, she ______ in this company for 15 years.
A. will be working B. will have been working
C. will work D. has worked
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following
exchanges.
24. – Dad: “I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!” – Son: “______”
A. Have a nice day! B. The same to you!
C. What a lovely toy! Thanks. D. What a pity!
25. “When can you get it at all done? – “______”
A. How does next Monday sound? B. Two hours ago.
C. I used to do it on Monday. D. How much time to I need
26. Both English and Vietnamese use Roman scripts, but the latter is a tonal language.
A. Later both Vietnamese and English use Roman scripts.
B. English has tones nut Vietnamese does not, although they both use Roman scripts.
C. Although English and Vietnamese are both Roman scripts, the former is not a tonal
language while the latter is.
D. Vietnamese and English which use Roman scripts later become tonal languages.
27. If I had known about their wedding plan earlier I would have been able to make time to attend
the reception party.
A. I knew their wedding would be planned earlier so I made some time to attend the
morning reception.
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B. I wish I had known their wedding plan sooner so that I could arrange time to attend the
morning reception.
C. I don’t know their wedding plan earlier so I can’t make time to attend their morning
reception.
D. When I knew their wedding party, it was too late to attend the morning reception.
28. “You did a great job! I’m proud of your achievement” said the woman to her grandchild.
A. The woman said that her grandchild’s job was great and she was so proud of his work
achievement.
B. The woman told her grandchild that she was proud of his achievement at work.
C. The woman told her grandchild to do a great job so that she could be proud of his
achievement.
D. The woman complimented her grandchild on his achievement.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combine each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
29. I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books. I don’t get muddled up.
A. Having two separate books at home and at work helps me avoid getting muddled up.
B. I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books so that I don’t get muddled up.
C. I do not get muddled up sue to the separate between homework and schoolwork.
D. I would get muddled up if I did not separate homework from schoolwork.
30. Some economists argue that new technology cause unemployment. Others feel that it allows
more jobs to be create.
A. Some economists argue that new technology cause unemployment, so others fell that it
allows more jobs to be created.
B. Arguing that new technology cause unemployment, other economists feel that it allows
C. Beside the argument that new technology cause unemployment, some economists feel
that it allows more jobs to be create.
D. Some economists argue that new technology cause unemployment, whereas others feel
Read the following passage and make the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blank from 31 to 35.
In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816
million pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If
(31)______ end to end, the empty cereal boxes from one year’s consumption would (32)______ to the
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moon and back. One point three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American
television every year at a(n) (33)______ of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile manufacturers
spend more money on television advertising than makers of breakfast cereal.
(34)______ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and some
contain more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many
cereals appear much healthier than they really are by “fortifying” them with vitamins and minerals. Oh,
(35)______- you now have vitamin-fortifies sugar!
Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how high sugar appears on the
ingredient list. Then check the “Nutrition facts” panel.
31. A. laying B. lay C. laid D. to lay

32. A. prolong B. stretch C. contact D. reach
33. A. cot B. charge C. average D. expense
34. A. Mostly B. Furthermost C. Most D. Almost
35. A. beautiful B. gorgeous C. lovely D. charming
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate to
Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an astronomer, he was
a scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also deeply
interested in exploring the unknown depths of the ocean. One of his lesser-known accomplishments
that were quite remarkable was his design for a diving the bell that facilitated exploration of the watery
depths.
The diving bell that Halley design had a major advantage over the diving bells were in use prior
to his Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so divers had
to surface when the air inside the bell ran low. Halley’s bell was an improvement in that its design
allowed for an additional supply of fresh air that enable a crew of divers to remain underwater for
several hours.
The diving contraption that Halley designed was the shape of a bell that measured three feet cross
the top and five feet across the bottom and could hold several divers comfortable: it was open at the
bottom so that divers could swim in and out at will. The bell was built of wood, which was first heavily
tarred to make it water repellent an was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make the bell
heavy enough to sink in water. The bell shape held air inside for the divers to breathe as the bell sank to
the bottom.
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The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this
improvement that made Halley’s bells superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in the
bell, air was also supplied to the divers from a lea barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor close to the
bell itself. Air flowed through a leather pipe from the lead barrel on the ocean floor to the bell. The
diver could breathe the air from a position inside the bell, or he could move around outside the bell
wearing a diving suit that consisted of a lead bell-shape helmet with a glass viewing window and a
leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying fresh air from the diving bell to the helmet.
36. Which of the following best expresses the subject of this passage?
A. Halley’s work as an astronomer
B. Halley’s many different interests
C. Halley’ invention of a contraption for diving
D. Halley’s experiences as a diver
37. Halley’s bell was better than its predecessors because it ______.
A. was bigger B. provided more air
C. weighed less D. could rise more quickly
38. The expression ‘ran low’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. move slowly B. had been replenished
C. sank to the bottom D. was almost exhausted
39. How long could divers stay underwater in Halley’s bell?
A. Just a few seconds B. Only a few minutes
C. For hours at a time D. For days on end
40. It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley’s bell _______.
A. was wider at the top than at the bottom
B. was made of tarred wood
C. was completely enclosed
D. could hold one than one diver
41. The expression “at will” in paragraph 3 could best replaces by _______.
A. in the future B. as they wanted
C. with great speed D. upside down
42. It can be inferred from the passage that, were Halley’s bell not covered with lead, it would
_______.
A. float B. get wet
C. trap the divers D. suffocate the divers
Read the following passage an mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each question from 43 to 50.
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The Timber rattlesnakes, one widespread throughout the eastern United States, is now on the
endangered species list and is extinct in two eastern state in which it once thrived. Compared to its
Western cousins, the Timber rattlesnakes may be especially vulnerable because of certain behaviors
adapted for coping with the cold climate in which it live.
Rattlesnakes are generally found in warm climates because, like all reptiles, they cannot generate
or regulate their own body temperature internally and must rely on the sun’s warmth for heat. But
Timber rattlesnakes migrated into colder northern areas about 8,000 years ago when glaciers retreated.
In these northern regions, the snakes developed a number of adaptive strategies to survive, but
ultimately these behaviors make them more vulnerable to human predation, their main threat.
One survival strategy the snakes have developed is hibernation. For approximately eight months
of the year, the rattlers remain motionless in deep frost-free crevices, with their body temperature
dropping as low as 40 degrees. In the spring, when they emerge, they must warm their chilled bodies
by sunning for three or four days on rocks in the open. this behavior coupled with the fact that Timber
rattlesnakes tend to concentrate in large numbers at their wintering sites, make them easy prey.
Gestating females are particularly vulnerable because they spend much of their time basking in the sun
in order to producing live young only every three to five years. If a frost or cold spell comes late in the
year, the entire litter of 6 to 12 young may die.
Efforts are underway to protect the Timber rattlesnakes and its habitats from further human
depredation, but in many states it is already too late.

A. Why Timber rattlesnakes hibernate
B. How Timber rattlesnakes are surviving
C. How Timber rattlesnakes adapted to northern climates
D. Why Timber rattlesnakes are endangered
44. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the world “vulnerable” in the first paragraph?
A. Unprotected B. Impervious C. Insensitive . Deprived
45. Which of the following in the true about Timber rattlesnakes?
A. They migrated to eastern states
B. They migrated northern during a warming climate
C. They migrated to escape a cold climate
D. They migrated to the South to seek a warmer climate
46. Which of the following best replace the word “emerge” in the third paragraph?
A. Come out B. Set off C. Get up D. See through
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47. In which of the following places might a person be most likely to find Timber rattlesnakes the
spring?
A. In the woods B. I meadows C. In bushy areas D. In canyons
48. The phrase “easy prey” in the third paragraph could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. Relaxed B. Protecting C. Victims D. Sociable
49. Which of the following word can bet replace the word “basking” in the third paragraph?
A. Washing B. Eating C. Sleeping D. Lying
50. Which of the following does NOT contribute to the rattlesnakes being an endangered animal?
A. Hibernating for eight months B. Basking in the sun
C. Congregating together D. Having long intervals between births
other three in pronunciation in each of the following passage.
1. A. broad B. load C. road D. boat

2. A. exercise B. exempt C. execute D. exclamation
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position
of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. diverse B. current C. justice D. series

4. A. contrary B. interview C. document D. attendance
5. You never really know where you are with her as she just blows hot and cold.
A. keeps talking B. keeps talking things
C. keeps changing her mood D. keeps testing
6. Variations in the color of the seawater from blue to green seem to be caused by high or
low concentrations of salt.
A. changes B. descriptions C. measures D. clarity

7. The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the

sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war.
A. happiness B. worry and sadness
Giaoandethitienganh.info
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C. pain and sorrow D. loss
8. Nowadays, young children often appreciate picture stories.
A. devalue B. estimate C. value D. enjoy
9. Unlike other architects of the early modern movement, Alva Alto stressed informality,
personal expression, romantic, and regionality in his work.
A. unlike B. other architects C. informality D. romantic
10. It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high-rise
apartment block in Kuala Lumpur last week.
A. it announced B. would be held C. high-rise D. block
11. It is important that you turned off the heater every morning before you leave for class.
A. it B. turned off C. before D. leave for
questions.
12. I’m sorry! I didn’t break that vase on _______.

A. my mind B. time C. purpose D. intention
13. The success of the party was mainly due to the presence of several _______.
A. celebrations B. celebrities C. celebrates D. celebrated
14. Hieroglyphics _______ on the walls of caves provide scientists with important details on
prehistoric man.
A. painted B. were painted C. have been painted D. that they painted
15. _______ to school by bus as they are not old enough to ride motorbikes.
A. many the students go B. Many a student goes
C. Many of the students goes D. Much students go
16. He has been given work as a window cleaner even though he has no _______.
A. head B. skill C. ability D. balance
17. Her new novel is _______ out next month.
A. bringing B. going C. coming D. taking
18. Make sure you book a ticket in _______.
A. ahead B. advance C. forward D. before
19. I’m in two _______ about whether to go to the wedding or not.
A. brains B. minds C. thoughts D. heads
20. I can’t help _______ that Charlotte would look better if she lost some weight.
A. to thinking B. to think C. thinking D. think
21. I hope I can _______ you to be there if I need any help.
A. let know B. make out C. get through D. count on
22. The explanation _______ for the problems didn’t satisfy anybody.
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A. giving B. which gave C. given D. having given
23. It’s about time you _______ ourselves a job.
A. got B. get C. will get D. had got
phrase best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The expression on your face can usually dramatically alter your feelings and perceptions,
and it has been proved that deliberately smiling or frowning can create corresponding emotional
responses. The idea was first (24) _______ by a French physiologist, Israel Waynbaum, in 1906.
He believed that different facial (25) _______ affected the flow of blood to the brain, and that
this could create positive or negative feelings. A happy smile or irrepressible laughter increased
the blood flow and contributed to joyful feelings. But sad, angry expressions decreased the flow
of oxygen-carrying blood, and created a vicious (26) _______ of gloom and depression by
effectively starving the brain of essential fuel.
Psychologist Robert Zajone rediscovered this early subject, and suggests that the
temperature of the brain could affect the production and synthesis of neurotransmitters, which
definitely influence our moods and energy levels. He argues that an impaired blood flow could
not only deprive the brain of oxygen, but also create further chemical imbalance (27) _______
inhibiting these vital hormonal messages. Zajone goes on to propose that our brains remember
smiling associated with being happy, and that by deliberately smiling through your tears you can
(28) _______ your brain to release uplifting neurotransmitters replacing a depression condition
with a happier one. People suffering from psychosomatic ailment, depression and anxiety states
could benefit from simply exercising their zygomatic muscles, which pull the corners of the
mouth up and back to form a smile several times an hour.
24. A. put off B. put down C. put by D. put forward

25. A. aspects B. looks C. expressions D. appearances
26. A. cycle B. spiral C. circle D. ring
27. A. by B. without C. when D. from
28. A. make B. persuade C. allow D. decide
The concept of obtaining fresh water from iceberg that are towed to populated areas and
arid religions of the world was once treated as a joke more appropriate to cartoons than real life.
But now it is being considered quite seriously by many nations, especially since scientists have
warned that the human race will outgrow its fresh water supply faster than it runs out of food.
Glaciers are a possible source of fresh water that have been overlooked until recently.
Three-quarters of the Earth’s fresh water supply is still tied up in glacial ice, a reservoir of
untapped fresh water so immense that it could sustain all the rivers of the world for 1,000 years.
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Floating on the oceans every year are 7,659 trillion metric tons of ice encased in 10,000 icebergs
that break away from the polar ice caps, more than ninety percent of them from Antarctica.
Huge glaciers that stretch over the shallow continental shelf give birth to icebergs
throughout the year. Icebergs are not like sea ice, which is formed when the sea itself freezes;
rather, they are formed entirely on land, breaking off when glaciers spread over the sea. As they
drift away from the polar region, icebergs sometimes move mysteriously in a direction opposite
to the wind, pulled by subsurface currents. Because they melt more slowly than smaller pieces of
ice, icebergs have been known to drift as far north as 35 degrees south of the equator in the
Atlantic Ocean. To corral them and steer them to parts of the world where they are needed would
not be too difficult.
The difficulty arises in other technical matters, such as the prevention of rapid melting in
warmer climates and the funneling of fresh water to shore in great volume. But even if the
icebergs lots half of their volume in towing, the water they could provide would be far cheaper
than that produced by desalination, or removing salt from water.

A. The movement of glaciers B. Icebergs as a source of fresh water
C. Future water shortages D. The future of the world’s rivers
30. The word “appropriate” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. proper B. enjoyable C. suitable D. deccent
31. According to the author, most of the world’s fresh water is to be found in _______.
A. oceans B. rivers C. glaciers D. reservoirs
32. The word “currents” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. pulls B. waves C. weather D. flows of water
33. How are icebergs formed?
A. They break off from glaciers B. Seawater freezers
C. Rivers freeze D. Small pieces of floating ice converge
34. With which of the following ideas would the author be likely to agree?
A. Towing icebergs to dry areas is economically possible.
B. Desalination of water is the best way to obtain drinking water.
C. Using water from icebergs is a very short-term solution to water shortages.
D. Icebergs could not be towed very far before they would melt.
35. The word “that” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. the volume B. the water C. the iceberg D. the towing
In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew when I started as a
counselor and professor 25 years ago. College has always been demanding both academically
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and socially. But students now are less mature and often not ready for the responsibility of being
in college.
It is really too easy to point the finger at parents who protect their children from life’s
obstacles. Parents, who handle every difficulty and every other responsibility for their children
from writing admission essays to picking college courses, certainly may contribute to their
children’s lack of coping strategies. But we can look even more broadly to the social trends of
today.
How many people do you know who are on medication to prevent anxiety or depression?
The number of students who arrive at college already medicated for unwanted emotions has
increased dramatically in the past 10 years. We, as a society, don’t want to “feel” anything
unpleasant and we certainly don’t want our children to :suffer”.
The resulting problem is that by not experiencing negative emotions, one does not learn the
necessary skills to tolerate and negotiate adversity. As a psychologist, I am well aware of the fact
some individuals suffer from depression and anxiety and can benefit from treatment, but I
question the growing number of medicated adolescents today.
Our world is more stressful in general because of the current economic and political
realities, but I don’t believe that the college experience itself is more intense today than that of
the past 10 years. What I do think is that many students are often not prepared to be young
“adults” with all the responsibilities of life.
What does this mean for college faculty and staff? We are required to assist in the basic
parenting of these students – the student who complains that her professor didn’t remind her of
the due date for an assignment that was clearly listed on the syllabus and the student who cheats
on an assignment in spite of careful instructions about plagiarism.
As college professors, we have to explain what it means to be an independent college

student before we can even begin to teach. As parents and teachers we should expect young
people to meet challenges. To encourage them in this direction, we have to step back and let
them fail and pick themselves up and move forward. This approach needs to begin at an early
age so that college can actually be a passage to independent adulthood.
36. According to the writer, students today are different from those she knew in that they are
_______.
A. not so academic B. responsible for their work
C. too ready for college D. not as mature
37. The word “handle” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. point at B. deal with C. lend a hand to D. gain benefits from
38. According to the writer, students’ difficulties to cope with college life are partly due to
_______.
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A. the lack of financial support
B. the over-parenting from parents
C. the absence of parents’ protection
D. the lack of parental support
39. The phrase “on medication” in paragraph 3 is similar in meaning to _______.
A. receiving medical treatment
B. suffering anxiety or depression
C. doing medical research
D. studying medicine at college
40. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. The college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years.
B. Our world is more stressful because of the current economic and political situation.
C. College faculty and staff are required to help in the parenting of problematic students.
D. Our society certainly doesn’t want our children to experience unpleasant things.
A. college professors B. young people
C. teachers D. parents
42. According to the writer, failure in life and less support from parents will _______.
A. defeat students from the very beginning
B. help students to learn to stand on their own feet
C. discourage students and let them down forever
D. allow students to learn the first lesson in their lives
43. What is probably the writer’s attitude in the passage?
A. indifferent B. praising C. critical D. humorous
exchanges.
44. Thanks a lot for a lovely dinner. Bye! - _______

A. You will be welcome! B. Never mind!
C. Safe and sound! D. You must come again!
45. “Do you find it interesting to go to the cinema on your own?” – “_______”
A. No, not at all. B. What a pity!
C. Never mind. D. You’re welcome.
46. As long as you stay calm, you have nothing to fear from the interview.
A. You have remained calm for a long time in spite of your fear of the interview.
B. Interviews are only intimidating for people who are not extremely calm.
C. Provided you do not get nervous, the interview won’t go badly for you.
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D. Even if you are afraid of the interview, it is important not to let it show.
47. “I will let you know the answer by the end of this week,” Tim said to Jane.
A. Tim suggested giving Jane the answer by the end of the week.
B. Tim promised to give Jane the answer by the end of the week.
C. Tim insisted on letting Jane know the answer by the end of the week.
D. Tim offered to give Jane the answer by the end of the week.
48. The friends promised to stand by each other through thick and thin.
A. The friends promised to stand together all their life.
B. The friends promised to work together in spite of all difficulties.
C. The friends promised to stand by each other whatever happened.
D. The friends promised to hold on together if possible.
49. He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.
D. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
50. She buys a lot of new dresses every month. She always dresses shabbily.
A. However a lot of new dresses she buys every month, she always dresses shabbily.
B. Many as new dresses she buys every month, she always dresses shabbily.
C. She always dresses shabbily although she buys a lot of new dresses every month.
D. However many new dresses she buys every month, she always dresses shabbily.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. acronym B. agency C. became D. aviation
2. A. crescent B. event C. recent D. decent
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position
of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. environmental B. conservatively C. approximately D. considerably
4. A. bamboo B. cactus C. camel D. hummock
5. Early poverty has taught Sam to stand on his own feet.
A. be independent B. resort to burglary
C. be dependent on others D. be a good farmer
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6. The goalkeeper can also be ejected for twenty seconds if a major foul is committed.
A. advanced B. sprinted C. played D. excluded
7. Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection, but for
physicists it bordered on the miracle.
A. adjustment B. agility C. flexibility D. inflexibility
8. I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.
A. cleverly B. reasonably C. gently D. brutally
10. I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs.
A. object the idea B. the final year C. working D. jobs.
11. It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking.
A. it is believed B. in the near future
C. be used to doing D. such as
questions.
12. I’m sorry that I giggled so much. I was in rather a silly _______.
A. temper B. mood C. feeling D. outlook
13. The U.S. postal service policy for check approval includes a requirement that two pieces
of identification _______.
A. be presented B. presented C. must presented D. for presentation
14. Mr. Brown _______ in the army from 1960 to 1980.
A. had served B. has served C. had been serving D. served
15. Such _______ that we all felt num.
A. a cold weather was B. was a cold weather
C. cold the weather D. was cold weather
16. I know his name, but I can’t recall it at the moment. It’s on the tip of _______.
A. tongue B. brain C. mind D. memory
17. I don’t know what we are going to _______ if I lose this job.
A. get by B. live on C. give away D. grow up
18. That necklace is wonderful! It must have _______ you a fortune!
A. done B. spent C. charged D. cost
19. In Britain, most shops close at 6 pm, _______ in other countries they often open in the
evening, too.
A. despite B. moreover C. nevertheless D. whereas
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20. Rarely _______ designer labels at affordable prices.
A. you find B. do you find C. find you D. are you find
21. I’m afraid I’m a little short _______ money this month, so I can’t lend you any.
A. of B. from C. with D. for
22. Local residents _______ to the new power station in their area.
A. objection B. objective C. object D. objectivity
23. I know we had an argument, but now I’d quite like to _______.
Rural America is diverse in many ways. As we have seen, no one industry dominates the
rural economy, no single pattern of population decline or growth exists for all rural areas, and no
statement about improvements and gaps in well-being holds true for all rural people.
Many of these differences are regional in nature. That is, rural areas within a particular
geographic region of the country often tend to be similar (24) _______ each other and different
from areas in another region. Some industries, for example, are (25) _______ with different
regions – logging and sawmills in the Pacific Northwest and New England, manufacturing in the
Southeast and Midwest, and farming in the Great Plains. Persistent poverty also has a regional
pattern, concentrated primarily in the Southeast. Other differences follow no regional pattern.
Areas that rely heavily on the services industry are located throughout rural America, as are rural
areas that have little access to advanced telecommunications services. Many of these differences,
regional and non-regional, are the result of a (26) _______ of factors including the availability of
natural (27) _______; distance from and access to major metropolitan areas and the information
and services found there; transportation and shipping facilities; political history and structure;
and the racial, ethnic, and (28) _______ makeup of the population.
24. A. of B. with C. to D. from
25. A. added B. associated C. compared D. related
26. A. cooperation B. combination C. link D. connection
27. A. resources B. habitats C. sources D. materials
28. A. cultured B. culturally C. cultural D. culture
Most of us know a little about how babies learn to talk. From the time infants are born,
they hear language because their parents talk to them all the time. Between the agees of seven
and ten months, most infants begin to make sounds. They repeat the same sounds over and over
again. This is called babbling. When babies babble, they are practicing their language.
What happens, though, to children who cannot hear? How do deaf children learn to
communicate? Recently, doctors have learned that deaf babies with their hands. Laura Ann
Petitto, a psychologist, observed three hearing infants with English-speaking parents and two
deaf infants with deaf parents using American Sign Language (ASL) to communicate. Dr. Petitto
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studied the babies three times: at 10, 12, and 14 months. During this time, children really begin
to develop their language skills.
After watching and videotaping the children for several hundred hours, the psychologist
and her assistants made many important observations. For example, they saw that the hearing
children made varied motions with their hands. However, there appeared to be no pattern to these
motions. The deaf babies also made different movements with their hands, but these movements
were more consistent and deliberate. The deaf babies seemed to make the same hand movements
over and over again. During the four-month period, the deaf babies’ hand motions started to
resemble some basic hand-shapes used in ASL. The children also seemed to prefer certain hand-
shapes.
Hearing infants start first with simple syllable babbling, then put more syllables together to
sound like real sentences and questions. Apparently, deaf babies follow this same pattern, too.
first, they repeat simple hand-shapes. Next. They form some simple hand signs and use these
movements together to resemble ASL sentences.
Linguists believe that our ability for language is innate. In other words, humans are born
with the capacity for language: It does not matter if we are physically able to speak or not.
Language can be expressed in different ways – for instance, by speech or by sign. Dr. Petitto
believes this theory and wants to prove it. She plans to study hearing children who have one deaf
parent and one hearing parent. She wants to see what happens when babies have the opportunity
to learn both sign language and speech. Does the human brain prefer speech? Some of these
studies of hearing babies who have one deaf parent and one hearing parent show that the babies
babble equally with their hands and their voices. They also produce their first words, both
spoken and signed, at about the same time. More studies in the future may prove that the sign
system of the deaf is the physical equivalent of speech.
29. According to the paragraph 1, babies begin to babble _______.
A. at their first moment after birth B. at their first experience of language
C. when they are more than 6 months old D. when they first hear their parents talk to
them
30. The phrase “the babies” in paragraph 2 refers to _______ in the study.
A. the hearing infants B. the deaf infants
C. the hearing and deaf infants D. the disabled infants
31. It is stated in paragraph 3 that both the deaf and the hearing children made movements
with their hands, but _______.
A. only the hearing children made different movements
B. the deaf children made less consistent hand movements
C. the hearing children only repeated the same hand motions
D. only the deaf children repeated the same hand motions
32. According to paragraph 4, hearing infants learn to talk first by _______.
A. hand-shapes B. babbling C. hand motions D. original
33. The word “real” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
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A. meaningful B. formal C. general D. original
34. It is mentioned in the last paragraph that Dr. Petitto plans to study _______.
A. what happens when babies have the opportunity to learn both speech and sign
language
B. whether all children speak and make motions with their hands at the same time
C. the assumption that the human brain prefers sign language to speech
D. whether the sign system of the deal is the physical equivalent of speech
35. Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Education for Deaf Children B. How do Children Master Language?
C. Language: Is It Always Spoken? D. American Sign Language
Ranked as the number one beverage consumed worldwide, tea takes the lead over coffee in
both popularity and production with 5 million metric tons of tea produced annually. Although
much of this tea is consumed in Asian, European and African countries, the United States drinks
its fair share. According to estimates by the Tea Council of the United States, tea is enjoyed by
no less than half of the U.S. population on any given day. Black tea or green tea – iced, spiced,
or instant – tea drinking has spurred a billion-dollar business with major tea producer in Africa
and South America and thoughtout Asia.
Tea is made from the leaves of an evergreen plant, Camellia saneness, which grows tall
and lush in tropical region. On tea plantation, the plant is kept trimmed to approximately four
feet high and as new buds called flush appear, they are plucked off by hand. Event in today’s
world of modern agricultural machinery, hand harvesting continues to be the preferred method.
Ideally, only the top two leaves and a bud should be picked. This new growth produces the
highest quality tea.
After being harvested, tea leaves are laid out on long drying racks, called withering racks,
for 18 to 20 hours. During this process, the tea softens and become limp. Next, dependent on the
type of tea being product, the leaves may be crushed or chopped to release flavor, and then
fermented under controlled condition of heat and humidity. For green tea, the whole leaves are
often steamed to retain their green color, and the fermentation process is skipped. Producing
black teas requires fermentation during which the tea leaves begin darken. After fermentation,
black tea is dried in vast to produce its rich brown or black color.
No one knows when or how tea became popular, but legend has it that tea as a beverage
was discovered in 2737B.C. by Emperor Shen Nung of China when leaves from camellia
dropped into his drinking water as it was boiling over the fire. As the story goes, Emperor Shen
Nung drank the resulting liquid and proclaimed the drink to be most nourishing and refreshing.
Though this account cannot be documented, it is thought that tea drinking probably originated in
China and spread to other part is of Asia, then Europe, and ultimately to America colonies
around 1650.
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With about half the caffeine content of coffee, tea is often chosen by those who want to
reduce, but not necessarily eliminate their caffeine intake. Some people find that tea is less acidic
than coffee and therefore easier on the stomach. Others have become interested in tea drinking
since the National Cancer Institute publishes its finding on the antioxidant properties of tea. But
whether tea is enjoyed for it perceived health benefit, its flavor, or as a social drink, teacups
continue to be filled daily with the world’ most popular beverage.
36. Based on the passage, what is implied about tea harvesting?
A. It is totally done with the assistance of modern agricultural machinery.
B. It is longer done in China.
C. The method has remained nearly the same for a long time.
D. The method involves trimming the uppermost branches of the plant.
37. What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 of the passage refer to ?
A. tea pickers’ B. new buds C. evergreen plant D. tropical region
38. Which of the following is NOT true about the tea production process?
A. Black tea develops its dark color during fermentation and final drying.
B. Green tea requires a long fermentation process.
C. Green tea in often steamed to keep its color.
D. Black tea goes thought two drink phases during production.
39. The word “documented” in paragraph 4 could be best replace by which of following
word?
A. ignored B. proved C. stored D. kept
40. According to the passage, what is true about origin of tea drinking?
A. It began during the Shen Nung dynasty.
B. It may begun some time around 1950.
C. It is unknown when tea first become popular.
D. It was originally produced from Camilla plants in Europe.
41. The word “eliminate” in paragraph 5 could be best replace by which of following word?
A. decrease B. increase C. reduce D. remove
42. According to the passage, which may be the reason why someone would choose to drink
tea instead of coffee?
A. Because it’s easier to digest than coffee.
B. Because it has higher nutritional content than coffee.
C. Because it helps prevent cancer.
D. Because it has more caffeine coffee.
43. What best describes the topic of this passage?
A. Tea consumption and production.
B. The two most popular types of tea.
C. The benefits of tea consumption worldwide.
D. How tea is produced and brewed.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
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44. ‘I think the teacher should give us more exercise.’ – ‘_______’
A. Yes, let’s. B. OK.
C. That’s rubbish. D. That’s just what I was thinking.
45. ‘What’s up with you?’ – ‘_______’
A. Nothing to say. B. I have a sore throat.
C. Yes, I want to see you. D. No trouble.
46. Tom has the ability to be a professional musician, but he’s too lazy to practice.
A. Tom is able to practice music lessons professionally though he is lazy.
B. As a professional musician, Tom is not lazy to practice music lessons.
C. Tom is talented but he’ll never be a professional musician as he doesn’t practice.
D. Though practicing lazily, Tom is a professional musician.
47. Being just on the point of closing the shop, the shop assistant was not happy with the
arrival of a late customer.
A. The assistant closed the shop very late because a customer turned up at the last
moment and he had to deal with her.
B. Although the shop assistant wasn’t pleased to have a customer as he was closing the
shop, he gave his service away.
C. The shop assistant was hurrying to close the shop, but just then, a customer arrived.
D. The shop assistant didn’t like it when a customer arrived just as he was closing the
shop.
48. Sue is such a good pianist that I’m surprised she didn’t go into music professionally.
A. Sue is so a good pianist that I’m surprised she didn’t go into music professionally.
B. So good is Sue that I’m surprised she didn’t go into music professionally.
C. Sue plays piano so good that I’m surprised she didn’t go into music professionally.
D. Sue plays the piano so well that I’m surprised she didn’t go into music professionally.
49. The man wore the gloves. He didn’t want to leave any fingerprints.
A. The man wore the gloves in order that his fingerprints would be taken.
B. His fingerprints would not be left unless the man wore the gloves.
C. The man wore the gloves so as not to leave any fingerprints.
D. In order to leave some fingerprints, the man wore the gloves.
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1. A. account B. amount C. mourning D. trout
2. A. resource B. resist C. resistance D. recycle
3. A. application B. advisable C. denial D. adventure
4. A. volunteer B. competition C. advantage D. capability
5. Aren’t you glad that we decided to eat at a restaurant tonight? This food is great!
A. to eat in B. to take out C. to eat out D. to go out
6. The potatoes have burned and stuck to the bottom of the pan.
A. the lowest inside surface B. the shortest below surface
C. the lowest beneath surface D. the shortest under surface
7. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
A. explicit B. implicit C. obscure D. odd
8. The council demolished the old town hall to make room for a new one.
A. made B. did C. started D. constructed
9. Many people found it is moving to see a nine-year-old Japanese boy desperately
searching for his family lost in the quake and tsunami of March 11, 2011.
A. it is moving B. a nine-year-old
C. desperately searching D. lost
10. She is among the few who wants to quit smoking instead of cutting down.
A. among B. wants C. smoking D. cutting down
11. Digital clocks, however precise, they cannot be perfectly accurate because the earth’s
rotation changes slightly over years.
A. they B. perfectly C. the D. slightly
12. The football match tomorrow evening will be broadcast _______ on TV and radio.
A. simultaneously B. communally
C. uniformly D. jointly
13. The choir stood in four rows according to their _______ heights.
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A. respected B. respective C. respectable D. respectful
14. Mr. Pike _______ English at our school for 20 years before he retired last year.
A. is teaching B. was teaching
C. has been teaching D. had been teaching
15. All work and no play _______.
A. makes Jack a dull boy B. makes a dull boy Jack
C. make Jack a dull boy D. make a dull boy Jack
16. Having been asked to speak at the conference, _______.
A. some notes were prepared for Dr. Clark
B. some notes were prepared by Dr. Clark
C. Dr. Clark prepared some notes
D. audiences were pleased to hear Dr. Clark
17. In front of the gate _______ the guard.
A. did B. does C. did stand D. stood
18. _______ an emergency arise, call 911.
A. Can B. Should C. Does D. Will
19. I can’t bear thinking back of that time. I’d rather _______ equally.
A. treat B. be treated C. have treated D. have been treated
20. Boys! Put your toys _______. It is time to go to bed. Don’t stay _______ late.
A. off/ an B. away/ up C. down/ off D. around/ for
21. We had a long way to go so we _______ off very early.
A. made B. set C. put D had
22. A relief _______ has been set up to help earthquake victims.
A. fund B. donation C. treasury D. collection
23. Make exercise part of your daily _______.
A. regularity B. chore C. routine D. frequency
24. Peter: “I’ve been awarded a scholarship to study in America.”
Kate: “Uh, really? _______!”
A. Take care of yourself B. Congratulations
C. You are always lucky D. Lucky as you are
25. A: “_______” – B: “Oh, that’s a good idea.”
A. How much time does it take? B. How many I help you?
C. How about going for a walk? D. How long will it last?
26. The writer Kate Millett was forced to stay in a psychiatric hospital by her family.
A. Problems with her family made the writer Kate Millett go to a psychiatric hospital.
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B. Together with her family, the writer Kate Millett was made to go into a psychiatric
hospital.
C. The writer Kate Millett’s family made her stay in a psychiatric hospital.
D. The family of the writer Kate Millett convinced her to remain in a psychiatric hospital.
27. Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test.
A. If she had read the reference books. She could finish the test.
B. Not having read the reference books, she couldn’t finish the test.
C. Although she didn’t read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.
D. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.
28. After Einstein’s theory of relativity, people began to perceive the universe in a different
way.
A. Einstein’s theory of relativity confirmed many ideas about how the universe began.
B. Until Einstein’s theory of relativity, people knew hardly anything about the universe.
C. Following Einstein’s theory of relativity, people realized that the universe was
changing constantly.
D. Einstein’s theory of relativity introduced people to a new manner of seeing the
universe.
29. We arrived at the airport. We realized all our passports were still at home.
A. It was until we arrived at the airport that we realized our passports were still at home.
B. We arrived at the airport and realized that our passports are still at home.
C. Not until had we arrived at the airport, we realized at our passports were still at home.
D. Not until we arrived at the airport did we realize that our passports were still at home.
30. The fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames, the building burned down
completely.
A. Since the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames, the building burned
down completely.
B. Had it not been for the fire-fighters’ every effort, the building would have burned
down completely.
C. Making every effort to put off the flames, the fire-fighters completely burned down the
building.
D. The building burned down completely though the fire-fighters made every effort to put
off the flames.
35.
There are several changes in the procedure for employees who wish to apply for vacant
positions within the company. These changes make it much easier for in-house employees to fill
vacancies that occur.
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First, the most important difference is that employees will now be notified of all available
positions are (31) _______ for the general public. Accordingly, all in-house candidates will be
interviewed (32) _______ we see any outside candidates. We will offer the job to outside
candidates only if no current employees are able to fill the position. (33) _______, under the new
procedure, in-house employees can be hired even if they don’t (34) _______ all job
requirements. Under our old policy, in-house employees had to meet all job qualifications in
order to obtain the vacant position. Now, however, employees who have proven (35) _______
dedicated to the company will be hired for a vacant position even if they are lacking some minor
qualifications; training will be provided. A third change involves recommendations. From now
on, employees do not need to be recommended for an in-house position before they apply.
31. A. taken B. given C. made D. advertised
32. A. before B. after C. then D. the same
33. A. When B. Second C. Finally D. Firstly
34. A. request B. hold C. meet D. fail
35. A. itself B. themselves C. their own D. employers
Hydrogen is the most common element in the universe and was perhaps the first to form. It
is among the ten most common elements on Earth as well and one of the most useful for
industrial purposes. Under normal conditions of temperature, hydrogen is a gas. Designated as H,
hydrogen is the first element in the periodic table because it contains only one proton. Hydrogen
can combine with a large number of other elements, forming more compounds than any of the
others. Pure hydrogen seldom occurs naturally, but it exists in most organic compounds, that is,
compounds that contain carbon, which account for a very large number of compounds.
Moreover, hydrogen is found in inorganic compounds. For example, when hydrogen burns in the
presence of oxygen, it forms water.
The lightest and simplest of the elements, hydrogen has several properties that make it
valuable for any industries. It releases more heat per unit of weight than any other fuel. In rocket
engines, tons of hydrogen and oxygen are burned, and hydrogen is used with oxygen for welding
torches that produce temperatures as high as 4,000 degrees F and can be used in cutting steel.
Fuel cells to generate electricity operate on hydrogen and oxygen.
Hydrogen also serves to prevent metals from tarnishing during heat treatments by
removing the oxygen from them. Although it would be difficult to remove the oxygen by itself,
hydrogen readily combines with oxygen to form water, which can be heated to steam and easily
removed. Furthermore, hydrogen is one of the coolest refrigerants. It does not become a liquid
until it reaches temperatures of -425 degrees F. Pure hydrogen gas is used in large electric
generators to cool the coils.
Future uses of hydrogen include fuel for cars, boats, planes, and other forms of
transportation that currently require petroleum products. These fuels would be lighter, a distinct
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advantage in the aerospace industry, and they would also cleaner, thereby reducing pollution in
the atmosphere.
Hydrogen is also useful in the food industry for a process known as hydrogenation.
Products such as margarine and cooking oils are changed from liquids to semisolids by adding
hydrogen to their molecules. Soap manufactures also use hydrogen for this purpose. In
hydrogenation, hydrogen is added to a product. In addition, in the chemical industry, hydrogen is
used to produce ammonia, gasoline, methyl alcohol, and many other important products.
36. What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?
A. To explain the industrial uses of Hydrogen.
B. To describe the origin of hydrogen in the universe.
C. To discuss the process of hydrogenation.
D. To give examples of how hydrogen and oxygen combine.
37. How can hydrogen be used to cut steel?
A. By cooling the steel to a very low temperature
B. By cooling the hydrogen with oxygen to a very low temperature
C. By heating the steel to a very high temperature
D. By heating the hydrogen with oxygen to a very high temperature
38. The word readily in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by
A. completely B. slowly C. usually D. easily
39. What does the word them refers to?
A. hydrogen B. heat treatment C. metals D. fuel cells
40. Which paragraph explains why hydrogen is used as a refrigerant?
A. paragraph 1 B. paragraph 2 C. paragraph 3 D. paragraph 4
41. The author mentions all of the following as uses for hydrogen EXCEPT
A. to remove tarnish from metals
B. to produce fuels such as gasoline and methyl alcohol
C. to operate fuel cells that generate electricity
D. to change solid foods to liquids
42. It can be inferred from the passage that hydrogen
A. is too dangerous to be used for industrial purposes
B. has many purposes in a variety of industries
C. has limited industrial uses of its dangerous properties
D. is used in many industries for basically the same purpose
correct answer to each of the questions 43 to 50.
Mickey Mantle was one of the greatest baseball players of all time. He played for the New
York Yankees in their years of glory. From the time Mantle began to play professionally in 1951
to his last year in 1968, baseball was the most popular game in the United States. For many
people, Mantle symbolized the hope, prosperity, and confidence of America at the time.
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Mantle was a fast and powerful player, a “switch-hitter” who could bat both right-handed
and left-handed. He won game after game, one World Series championship after another, for his
team. He was a wonderful athlete, but this alone cannot explain American’s fascination with
him.
Perhaps it was because he was a handsome, red-haired country boy, the son of a poor
miner from Oklahoma. His career, from the led mines of the West to the heights of success and
fame, was a fairy-tale version of the American dream. Of perhaps it was because America
always lives a “natural” : a person who wins without seeming to try, whose talent appears to
come from an inner grace. That was Mickey Mantle.
But like many celebrities, Mickey Mantle had a private life that was full of problems. He
played without complaint despite constant pain from injures. He lived to fulfill his father’s
dreams and drank to forget his father’s early death.
It was a terrible addiction that finally destroyed his body. It gave him cirrhosis of the liver
and accelerated the advance of liver cancer. Even when Mickey Mantle had turned away from
his old life and warned young people not to follow his example, the destructive process could not
be stopped. Despite a liver transplant operation that had all those who loved and admired him
hoping for a recovery, Mickey Mantle died of cancer at the age of 63.
A. Mickey Mantle as the greatest baseball player of all time.
B. Mickey Mantle’s success and private life full of problems.
C. Mickey Mantle and his career as a baseball player.
D. Mickey Mantle and the history of baseball.
44. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that Mantle _______.
A. played for New York Yankees all his life
B. had to try hard to be a professional player
C. earned a lot of money from baseball
D. introduced baseball into the US
45. According to the passage, Mantle could _______.
A. hit with the bat on either side of his body
B. bat better with his left hand than with his right hand
C. hit the ball to score from a long distance
D. give the most powerful hit in his team
46. The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Mantle’s being a fast and powerful player
B. Mantle’s being a wonderful athlete
C. Mantle’s being fascinated by many people
D. Mantle’s being a “switch-hitter”
47. It can be inferred from the passage that for most Americans _______.
A. success in Mantle’s career was difficult to believe
B. success in Mantle’s career was unnatural
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C. Mantle had to be trained hard to become a good player
D. Mantle had a lot of difficult achieving fame and success
48. The word “fulfill” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
A. do something in the way that you have been told
B. achieve what is hoped for, wished for, or expected
C. do what you have promised or agreed to do
D. get closer to something that you are chasing
49. We can see from paragraph 5 that after his father’s death, Mantle _______.
A. played even better B. forgot his father’s dream
C. led a happier life D. suffered a lot of pain
50. Which of the following is mentioned as the main cause of the destruction of Mantle’s
body?
A. His loneliness B. His way of life
C. His liver transplant operation D. His own dream
1. A. delete B. demonstrate C. devalue D. degrade
2. A. sound B. touchy C. outdated D. account
3. A. repetitious B. curriculum C. historical D. grammatical
4. A. architectural B. engineering C. maturity D. comprehension
5. I see John boasting again. I’ve heard him telling everyone he’s the best tennis player in
the County.
A. holding his tongue B. speaking too much
C. blowing his own trumpet D. pulling my leg
6. The venom of coral snakes is especially potent and the mortality rate among humans who
have been bitten is high.
A. contagious B. impure C. powerful D. abundant
7. It is quite incredible that he is unaware of such basic facts.
A. unbelievable B. difficult C. disappointed D. imaginable
8. Designers could move away from conservative styles and promote the swimsuits that
revealed a body’s physical attributes.
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A. hid B. distorted C. blocked D. disrupted
9. The first special park creating was at Ranthambhore where the government had to move
nearly 1000 people so the land could be handed back to the nature.
A. creating B. at C. where D. handed
10. With the development of information technology, we can now hold long-distance
meetings which the participants can see each other on a screen.
A. information technology B. long-distance
C. which D. can see
11. Why are you standing in the doors? Come in and make oneself at home.
A. are you standing B. in
C. make D. oneself
12. Bill Gates is probably the best known and most successful _______ in computer
software.
A. pioneer B. navigator C. generator D. volunteer
13. We need _______ information before we can decide.
A. further B. farther C. far D. furthest
14. It is the imperativeness that anyone of us _______ how to behave properly in different
cultures. – “When in Rome do as Roman do”, goes an English saying.
A. will learn B. learns C. learn D. must learn
15. The students were not satisfied _______.
A. because of the teacher’s not informing them of the coming test
B. because the teacher not inform them of the coming test
C. as the teacher’s not informing them about the coming test
D. since the teacher’s no information about the coming test
16. “Is it far to Stamford?” “Not at all. It’s only a _______ from here.”
A. step in the right direction B. bird’s eye view
C. short cut D. stone’s throw
17. Economic reforms began in the Soviet Union in June 985 by the Soviet leader Mikhail
Gorbachev to _______ the Soviet economy.
A. repair B. reproduce C. reply D. restructure
18. Can you see anybody in that classroom? – Yes. There _______ a teacher and fifty
students there?
A. is B. are C. has been D. have been
19. Not only _______ among the largest animal that ever lived, but they are also among the
more intelligent.
A. are whales B. they are whales C. some whales D. whales
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20. Many people like the _______ of life in the countryside.
A. step B. pace C. speed D. space
21. She is attending the seminar with a view to _______ more qualifications.
A. acquire B. having acquired
C. have acquired D. acquiring
22. I don’t know how you _______ up with Carl’s complaining all the time.
A. put B. do C. get D. make
23. The strike was _______ owing to a last-minute agreement with the management.
A. called off B. broken up C. set back D. put down
24. “Could you tell me how to get to the post office?” – “_______”
A. Yes, I could
B. Excuse me. Is it easy to get there?
C. It’s at the end of this street, opposite the church
D. Sorry, it’s not very far
25. Bill: “Let’s stop for a drink.” – Bruce: “_______”
A. Nice to meet you. B. You’re welcome.
C. Long time no see. D. Sorry, we’ve got little time.
26. We want him to represent us in talks with our Japanese clients.
A. He talks to us on the behalf of our Japanese customers.
B. Our Japanese clients send him to talk to us.
C. We represent him to deal with our Japanese clients.
D. We want him to talk to our Japanese clients on our behalf.
27. My impression of him was that he was a very capable person.
A. I struck him with the impression that he was very capable.
B. It struck me as an impression that he was a very capable person.
C. He struck me when I was impressed by his capability.
D. He struck me as being a very capable person.
28. “John, why don’t you go on a picnic with me next weekend?” said Janet.
A. Janet suggested John went on a picnic with her the nest weekend.
B. Janet suggested John go on a picnic with her the next weekend.
C. Janet suggested John should go on a picnic with her next weekend.
D. Janet suggested John to go on a picnic with her next weekend.
29. The police issued a warning on the radio. A dangerous man had escaped from the prison.
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A. The police issued a warning on the radio so that a dangerous man escaped from the
prison.
B. The police issued a warning on the radio, namely a dangerous man had escaped from
the prison.
C. A dangerous man had escaped from the prison so the police issued a warning on the
radio.
D. Escaping from the prison, the dangerous man made the police issue a warning on the
radio.
30. I think I should have cooked more food. There’s nothing left now.
A. I should not have cooked so much food.
B. I regret cooking too much food now.
C. I did not cook much food and I think it is ok now.
D. I did not cook much food and I think it was a mistake.
35.
If your reservations are booked far enough (31) _______ of time, the airline may offer to
mail your tickets to you. However, if you don’t receive the tickets and the airline’s records show
that they mailed them, you may have to go through lost-ticket procedures. It is safer to check the
telephone (32) _______ for a conveniently located travel agency. You can also call an airline
ticket office and buy your tickets there. As soon as you receive your ticket, make sure all the
information on it is correct, especially the airports (if any of the cities have more than one) and
the flight dates. You should have any necessary corrections (33) _______ immediately.
It’s a good idea to reconfirm your reservations before you start your trip; flight schedules
sometimes change. On international trips, most airlines require that you reconfirm your onward
or return reservations at (34) _______ 72 hours before each flight. If you don’t, your reservations
may be canceled. Check your tickets as you board each flight to ensure that only the correct
coupon has been removed (35) _______ the airline agent.
31. A. ahead B. in front C. in advance D. because
32. A. box B. company C. shop D. directory
33. A. writing B. save C. made D. booked
34. A. last B. no C. least D. booking
35. A. to B. for C. from D. by
Commuting is the practice of travelling a long distance to a town or city to work each day,
and then travelling home again in the evening. The word commuting comes from communication
ticket, a US rail ticket for repeated journeys, called a season ticket in Britain. Regular travelers
are called commuters.
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The US has many commuters. A few, mostly on the East Coast, commute by train or
subway, but most depend on the car. Some leave home very early to avoid the traffic jams, and
sleep in their cars until their office opens. Many people accept a long trip to work so that they
can live in quiet bedroom communicates away from the city, but another reason is ‘white flight’.
In the 1960s most cities began to desegregate their schools, so that there were no longer separate
schools for white and black children. Many white families did not want to send their children to
desegregated schools, so they moved to the suburbs, which have their own schools, and where,
for various reasons, few black people live.
Millions of people in Britain commute by car or train. Some spend two or three hours a day
travelling, so that they and their families can live in suburbia or in the countryside. Cities are
surrounded by commuter belts. Part of the commuter belt around London is called the
stockbroker belt because it contains houses where rich business people live. Some places are
becoming dormitory towns, because people sleep there but take little part in local activities.
Most commutes travel to and from work at the same time, causing the morning and
evening rush hours, when buses and trains are crowed and there are traffic jams on the roads.
Commuters on trains rarely talk to each other and spend their journey reading, sleeping or using
their mobile phones, though this is not popular with other passengers. Increasing numbers of
people now work at home some days of the week, linked to their offices by computer, a practice
called telecommuting.
Cities in both Britain and the US are trying to reduce the number of cars coming into town
each day. Some companies encourage car-pooling (called car sharing in Britain), an arrangement
for people who live and work near each other to travel together. Some US cities have a public
service that helps such people to contact each other, and traffic lanes are reserved for car-pool
vehicles. But cars and petrol/ gas are cheap in the US, and many people prefer to drive alone
because it gives them more freedom. In Britain many cities have park-and-ride schemes, car
parks on the edge of the city from which buses take drivers into the centre.
36. Which of the following definitions of commuting would the author of this passage most
probably agree with?
A. Travelling to work and then home again in a day within a rural district.
B. Travelling for hours from a town or city to work in the countryside every day.
C. Regularly travelling a long distance between one’s place of work and one’s home.
D. Using a commutation ticket for special journeys in all seasons of the year.
37. The word “repeated” in paragraph 1 most probably means _______.
A. buying a season ticket again B. happening again and again
C. saying something again D. doing something once again
38. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. The US has considerably more commuters than Britain.
B. Commuting helps people in the US and Britain save a lot of time.
C. Britain has considerably more commuters than the US.
D. Both the US and Britain have a great number of commuters.
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39. It can be inferred from the passage that dormitory towns in Britain are places where
people _______.
A. stay for the night B. contribute to the local community
C. are employed locally D. take part in local activities
40. The phrase “linked to” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. shared with B. satisfied with C. connected to D. related to
41. All of the following are measures to reduce the number of cars coming into town each
day in the US and/ or Britain EXCEPT _______.
A. traffic lanes for car pooling B. free car parks in the city centre
C. park-and-ride schemes D. car pooling/ sharing
42. The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. Travelling together B. car pool
C. driving alone D. petrol/ gas
Real estate sales agents work on behalf of property owners and earn a commission, or
percentage of the sale or rental of property. Agents are employed by real estate agencies that sell
or rent property as well as manage, appraise, or develop real estate. Some agencies combine their
real estate business with an insurance agency or law practice. Most real estate agents sell private
homes. Some specialize in commercial property such as factories, apartment buildings, stores
and office buildings. Others specialize in undeveloped land sites for commercial or residential
use or go into agricultural real estate.
Real estate agents work from a file of listings of property that is for sale or rent. A listing is
an agreement, using in the form of a contract, between the owners of the property and the agent.
The owners agree to pay the agent a percentage of the selling price. Real estate agents obtain
new listings for their agency by locating property owners interested in selling. For example, they
may call home owners who are trying to sell their houses privately through newspaper want ads.
Real estate agents visit newly listed properties so that they can familiarize themselves with the
features of the property before bringing prospective buyers to see it.
In any sale, the agents have to negotiate with both the seller and the buyer. Many sellers
begin by asking more for their property but buyers are not willing to pay for it. Agents must be
able to convince sellers to set a realistic price. Most of the agents’ efforts focus on the buyer,
however. Agents try to learn what will motivate the buyers to make a purchase. Agents must be
able to convince them that the property suits their needs and is a good buy. Buyers generally
offer less for a property than the seller asks. Agents help to negotiate the final price. They
usually help buyers arrange bank loans and are generally present at closing, when final contracts
of sale are signed.
43. The phrase “specialize in” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. write about B. approve of C. concentrate on D. refer to
44. A listing is a contract between property owner, and real estate agents in which the owners
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A. try to sell their houses privately
B. agree to pay the agent a percentage of the selling price
C. obtain new listings for their property
D. arrange to meet with the agent at a convenient time
45. The word “prospective” is paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. potential B. progressive C. former D. wealthy
A. sellers B. agents C. buyers D. owners
47. It can be inferred that negotiating the final price of a property involves
A. calling an insurance agency
B. having the seller and the buyer agree on what is realistic
C. finding a similar property that has a realistic price
D. motivating the buyer visit the property
48. In paragraph 3, the author implies that _______.
A. agents must understand the desires and needs of the buyer
B. agents are sometimes immoral in their practices
C. buyers usually pay the price asked by the seller
D. agents spend more tunes with sellers than with buyers
49. According to the passage, real estate agents
A. begin by asking more for a property than buyers are willing to pay
B. have a college education
C. own a lot commercial property
D. are usually present when final sales contracts are signed
50. Where in the passage does the author discuss different types of real estate?
1. A. fungus B. rubbish C. function D. furious
2. A. contain B. entertain C. certain D. campaign
3. A. preciseness B. passenger C. chaotic D. withdrawal
4. A. sympathetic B. unbelievable C. advantageous D. circumstance
5. Alberto has faith in his own ability to succeed in his new business enterprise.
A. is in charge of B. carries out C. believes in D. in favour of
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6. When smog does not disperse, inhabitants in the area, particularly the young, the elderly,
and chronically ill, are warned to stay indoors and avoid physical stress.
A. patients B. residents C. pedestrians D. customers
7. This kind of dress is becoming outmoded so you shouldn’t dress it up at the party.
A. realistic B. incompetent C. fashionable D. unattractive
8. It was inevitable that there would be job losses.
A. evident B. avoidable C. reliable D. sure
9. William Randolph Hearst built a chain of newspapers that included 25 dailies and 11
Sunday editions at their peak in 1937.
A. built B. that C. dailies D. their
10. Admiral Grace Hopper created the computer language COBOL, which is used primary
for scientific purposes.
A. created B. computer C. primary D. purposes
11. In some states, the law allows drivers to turn right at a red light, but in other states, the
law does not leave them do it.
A. some B. to turn C. other D. leave
12. In my opinion, it’s only common _______ to wear a seat belt in a car.
A. judgment B. sense C. intelligence D. wit
13. You can leave your money with him. He’s totally _______.
A. trusting B. trusty C. trustful D. trustworthy
14. He _______ in trouble with the police now if he had listened to me in the first place.
A. isn’t B. won’t be C. wouldn’t be D. wouldn’t have been
15. _______ with her boyfriend yesterday, she doesn’t want to answer his phone call.
A. Having quarreled B. Because having quarreled
C. Because of she quarreled D. Had quarreled
16. I feel terrible; I didn’t sleep _______ last night.
A. a jot B. a wink C. an inch D. an eye
17. I can’t understand this song. It doesn’t make any _______.
A. meaning B. effort C. sense D. realization
18. What if I _______ you that there’s a good chance I can get tickets for the concert?
A. were to tell B. were telling C. have told D. would to tell
19. The manager requested that all staff _______ present at the meeting.
A. have been B. be C. are being D. being
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20. “Are you still taking your exams?” – “Yes, but by this time next week _______ my last
one!”
A. I’m finishing B. I’ll finish
C. I’ll have finished D. I’ll have been finishing
21. It seems that the thief took _______ of the open window and got inside that way.
A. occasion B. opportunity C. chance D. advantage
22. The program _______ a lot of disc space so there wasn’t much room for anything else.
A. took up B. backed up C. set up D. put up
23. Come _______, children! Get your coats on or you’ll be late for school.
A. along B. to C. across D. over
24. “I really like your hair.” – “_______”
A. Do you think so? B. I’m glad you like it.
C. Thank you. I had it cut yesterday. D. All are correct.
25. “Hi! Brain. How have you been?” – “_______”
A. Badly. And how are you? B. Oh, I’ve done a lot of things.
C. Oh, pretty good. And you? D. I’ve been to Beijing recently.
26. The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked.
A. It was not until the mistake in the accounts was noticed that the figures were re-
checked.
B. Once re-checking the figures, the mistake in the accounts was noticed.
C. The mistake in the accounts only came to light when the figures were re-checked.
D. When the figures were re-checked they came to light the mistake in the accounts.
27. But for his father’s early retirement, Richard would not have taken over the family’s
business.
A. Richard only took over the family’s business because his father decided to retire early.
B. Richard didn’t take over the family’s business because his father decided to retire.
C. His father retired early, but he ran the family’s business.
D. Richard’s father didn’t want him to take over the family’s business despite his
retirement.
28. This conference wouldn’t have been possible without your organization.
A. If you didn’t organize, this conference wouldn’t have been possible.
B. Your organization made it possible for this conference to take place.
C. If it hadn’t been for your organization, this conference wouldn’t have been possible.
D. It’s possible that your organization made this conference impossible.
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29. Most scientists know him well. Very few ordinary people have heard of him.
A. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public.
B. Not only the scientists but also the general public know him as a big name.
C. Although he is well-known to scientists, he is little known to the general public.
D. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.
30. The man is very old. He can’t take such a long trip.
A. The old man has refused to take such a long trip.
B. The trip is not too long for the old man to take.
C. The man in young enough to take such a long trip.
D. The man is too old to take such a long trip.
35.
When it is finally here; the day of the big test, you should set your alarm early enough to
allow plenty of time to get to the testing center. You should also eat a good breakfast and (31)
_______ eating anything that’s really high in sugar, such as donuts. A sugar high turns into a
sugar low after an hour or so. Cereal and toast, or anything with complex carbohydrates is a good
choice. You should eat only moderate amounts if you don’t want to take a test feeling stuffed!
Your body will channel its energy to your digestive system (32) _______ your brain! Remember
to pack a high-energy snack to take with you.
You may have a break sometime during the test when you can grab a quick snack. Bananas
are great. They have a moderate amount of sugar and plenty of brain nutrients. Most proctors
won’t (33) _______ you to eat s snack while you’re testing, but a peppermint shouldn’t pose a
problem. Peppermints are like smelling salts for your brain. If you lose your concentration or
suffer from a momentary mental block, a peppermint can get you back on track.
You should leave early enough so you have plenty of time to get to the test center. Allow a
few minutes for (34) _______ traffic. When you arrive, locate the restroom and use it. Then find
your seat and make sure it is comfortable. If it isn’t, tell the proctor and ask to move to
something more suitable. Now relax and think positively! Before you know it, the test will be
over, and you’ll walk away knowing you’ve done as (35) _______ as you can.
31. A. finish B. keep C. avoid D. try
32. A. instead of B. for C. to D. and
33. A. ask B. let C. allow D. make
34. A. light B. late C. unexpected D. taking
35. A. well B. good C. quickly D. long
Few men have influenced the development of American English to the extent that Noah
Webster did. Born in West Hartford, Connecticut, in 1758, his name has become synonymous
with American dictionaries. Graduated from Yale in 1778, he was admitted to the bar in 1781
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and thereafter began to practice law in Hartford. Later, when he turned to teaching, he discovered
how inadequate the available schoolbooks were for the children of a new and independent
nation.
In response to the need for truly American textbooks, Webster published A Grammatical
Institute of the English Language, a three-volume work that consisted of a speller, a grammar,
and a reader. The first volume, which was generally known as The American Spelling Book, was
so popular that eventually it sold more than 80 million copies and provided him with a
considerable income for the rest of his life. While teaching, Webster began work on the
Compendious Dictionary of the English Language, which was published in 1806.
In 1807, Noah Webster began his greatest work, An American Dictionary of the English
Language. In preparing the manuscript, he devoted ten years to the study of English and its
relationship to other languages, and seven more years to the writing itself. Published in two
volumes in 1828, An American Dictionary of the English Language has become the recognized
authority for usage in the United States. Webster’s purpose in writing it was to demonstrate that
the American language was developing distinct meanings, pronunciations and spellings from
those of British English. He is responsible for advancing simplified spelling forms, develop
instead of the British form develope; theater and center instead of theatre and centre; color and
honor instead of colour and honour.
36. Which of the following would be the best for the passage?
A. Webster’s Work B. Webster’s Dictionaries
C. Webster’s School D. Webster’s Life
37. The word “inadequate” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by _______.
A. unavailable B. expensive C. difficult D. unsatisfactory
38. From which publication did Webster earn a lifetime income?
A. Compendious Dictionary of the English Language
B. An American Dictionary of the English Language
C. An American Dictionary of the English Language: Second Edition
D. The American Spelling Book
39. When was An American Dictionary of the English Language published?
A. 1817 B. 1807 C. 1828 D. 1824
40. According to the author, what was Webster’s purpose in writing An American Dictionary
of the English Language?
A. To respond to the need for new schoolbooks
B. To demonstrate the distinct development of the English language in American
C. To promote spelling forms based upon British models
D. To influence the pronunciation of the English language
A. language B. usage C. authority D. dictionary
42. The word “distinct” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. new B. simple C. different D. exact
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indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
Fertilizer is any substance that can be added to the soil to provide chemical elements
essential for plant nutrition so that the yield can be increased. Natural substances such as animal
droppings, ashes from wood fires, and straw have been used as fertilizers in fields for thousands
of years, and lime has been used since the Romans introduced it during the Empire. It was not
until the nineteenth century, however, that chemical fertilizers became widely accepted as
normal agricultural practice. Today, both natural and synthetic fertilizers are available in a
variety of forms.
A complete fertilizer is usually marked with a formula consisting of three numbers, such as
4-8-2 or 6-6-4, which designate the percentage of content of nitrogen, phosphoric acid, and
potash in the order stated. Synthetic fertilizers, produced by factories, are available in either solid
or liquid form. Solids, in the shape of chemical granules, are in demand because they are not
only easy to store but also easy to apply. Recently, liquids have shown an increase in popularity,
accounting for about 20 percent of the nitrogen fertilizers used throughout the world. 10B.
Formerly, powers were also used, but they were found to be less convenient than either solids or
liquids.
Fertilizers have no harmful effects on the soil, the crop, or the consumers as long as they
are used according to recommendations based on the results of local research. Occasionally,
however, farmers may use more fertilizer than necessary, in which case the plants do not need,
and therefore do not absorb, the total amount of fertilizer applied to the soil. Furthermore,
fertilizer that is not used in the production of a healthy plants is leached into the water table. Too
much fertilizer on grass can cause digestive disorders in cattle and in infants who drink cow’s
milk. Fertilizer must be used with great attention to responsible use or it can harm the
environment.
43. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. Local research and harmful effects of fertilizer.
B. Content, form, and effects of fertilizers.
C. A formula for the production of fertilizer.
D. Advantages and disadvantages of liquid fertilizer.
44. The word “essential” in line 1 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. required B. preferred C. limited D. anticipated
45. Which of the following has the smallest percentage content in the formula 4-8-2?
A. Acid B. Phosphorus C. Potash D. Nitrogen
46. The word “designate” in paragraph 2 could be replaced by _______.
A. specify B. modify C. limit D. increase
47. Which of the following statements about fertilizers is TRUE?
A. Powers are more popular than ever.
B. Solids are difficult to store.
C. Liquids are increasing in popularity.
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D. Chemical granules are difficult to apply.
A. solids B. powders C. liquids D. fertilizer
49. The word “convenient” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. effective B. plentiful
C. cheap to produce D. easy to use
50. The word “harm” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by _______.
A. damage B. accelerate C. leach D. disturb
1. A. measure B. pleasure C. threat D. treat
2. A. theatre B. therefore C. throughout D. thunder
3. A. establish B. intimidate C. inheritance D. illustrate
4. A. educator B. humorous C. organism D. documentary
5. A clever politician will take advantage of every speaking engagement to campaign for the
next election.
A. rash B. intrepid C. crude D. shrewd
6. I will think over your plan and give you an answer next week.
A. anticipate B. consider C. promenade D. review
7. I was surprised that he should consent to his daughter travelling aboard alone.
A. endorse B. disapprove of C. accept D. agree with
8. He resembles his father in appearance very much.
A. differ from B. distinguish C. takes after D. calls away
9. Unless one subscribes to a large metropolitan newspaper such as the “Wall Street
Journal”, or the “Washington Post”, one will find very few news from abroad.
A. one B. such as C, one D. few news
10. All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and the
technological institutions if they are to preserve the environment.
A. have to make B. changes in
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C. the technological institutions D. to preserve
11. It’s not that I don’t like her, but I object to be called that by her. I am not her “buddy”, am
I?
A. not that B. to be called C. that by D. am I
12. The company has just got a big order and the workers are working around the _______.
A. night B. day C. hour D. clock
13. Designers are experimenting with a new material _______ flexibly with lightness.
A. is combining B. combining C. combines D. combination of
14. Everyone in both cars _______ injured in the accident last night, _______?
A. were/ weren’t they B. was/ weren’t they
C. was/ wasn’t he D. were/ were they
15. I will recommend _______ to the director.
A. the student to speak B. that the student speaks
C. that the student speak D. that the student speaking
16. Quite soon, the world is going to _______ energy resources.
A. get into B. run out of C. keep up with D. come up against
17. Calculations which used to take ages can now be _______ in a few seconds.
A. worked out B. turned out C. taken out D. run out
18. Every man and woman _______ the right to vote?
A. have B. has C. are D. is
19. Have you heard about all the complaints? It _______ have been a pleasant holiday for
them.
A. can’t B. mustn’t C. shouldn’t D. mayn’t
20. Today, household chores have been made much easier by electrical _______.
A. instruments B. applications C. appliances D. utilities
21. We decided to take a late flight _______ we could spend more time with our family.
A. in order B. so that C. so as to D. in order to
22. _______ one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of
dance and mime performed to music.
A. Being considering B. Considering
C. Considered D. To consider
23. Little _______ that I knew his secret.
A. did John know B. John did know C. was John know D. John knew
24. “How often do the buses run?” – “_______”
A. From that bus stop over there. B. Much often.
C. Twice or three times. D. Every hour.
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25. “Thanks for the nice gift you brought to us!” – “_______”
A. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it.
B. Welcome! It’s very nice of you.
C. All right. Do you know how much it cost?
D. Not at all. Don’t mention it.
26. Despite his early retirement, he found no peace in life.
A. Although he retired early, but he found no peace in life.
B. His early retirement has brought him peace in life.
C. He found no peace in life because he retired early.
D. Early as he retired, he found no peace in life.
27. It is her father who is Italian.
A. She has half blood of Italian by her father.
B. She is half-Italian thanks to her father.
C. She is half-Italian on her father’s side.
D. Her father has half of an Italian to her.
28. He is such a slow speaker that his students get bored.
A. He speaks so slowly that his students get bored.
B. His students got bored because he spoke so slowly.
C. If he hadn’t spoken so slowly, his students wouldn’t got bored.
D. When the speaker is slow, his students get bored.
29. I’d suggest that we avoid telling any scary stories with Janet around. She’s a bit unstable
and could get hysterical.
C. It is no fun to tell frightening stories to Janet, who is not very stable mentally, because
she only laughs instead of getting scared.
30. She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.
A. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
B. If she had wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.
C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.
D. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.
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35.
Traffic congestion is now a problem in practically every major city in the world but
nobody has yet found a workable (31) _______ to the practically inevitable chaos. A metro
system is sadly impractical in most cities (32) _______ geographical reasons. Tram systems are
unworkable in old cities where narrow, (33) _______ streets make the installation of overhead
cables a practical impossibility. Many local governments find the business of coaxing people into
buses and (34) _______ them from using their cars easier said than done. And yet it is
misconception that the situation should be allowed to exist as it is. The arguments in favor of
direct action will now be irrefutable if we are ever to prevent unprecedented (35) _______ of
pollution and economic chaos.
31. A. solution B. answer C. appeal D. contribution
32. A. with B. by C. in D. for
33. A. curling B. winding C. twisting D. curving
34. A. banning B. distracting C. refraining D. discouraging
35. A. levels B. scales C. degrees D. ranks
are nature’s way of keeping the Earth in balance. But sometimes they spread very quickly and
called pandemics.
flight. In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu
First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily. Second, while
they may kill many people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A good example of
this would be the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is an extremely infectious disease. In
addition, it is deadly. About 70-80% of all the people who get the Marburg virus die from the
disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because most people die within
three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not have enough time to spread
to a large number of people. The flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generally took about a
week to ten days to kill its victims, so it had more time to spread.
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36. This passage is mainly about _______.
37. According to paragraph 1, how are disease a natural part of life on Earth?
C. They help the world grow quickly.
38. Based on the information in the passage the term pandemics can best be explained as
_______.
A. diseases with no cure
B. a deadly kind of flu
C. diseases that spread quickly and kill large numbers of people
D. new diseases like SARS or the Marburg virus
39. According to the passage, all of the following are true of the 1918 flu pandemic EXCEPT
that _______.
40. The word it in the passage refers to _______.
A. disease B. flu virus C. pandemics D. bodies
41. Which of the following is mentioned as a common feature of all pandemic disease?
A. They spread from people to people very slowly.
B. They may kill many people very quickly.
C. They do not kill people quickly.
D. They kill all the victims.
42. The word monitor in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. fight B. prevent C. watch D. avoid
In the decade of the 1970s, the United Nations organised several important meetings on the
human environment to study a very serious problem. We humans are destroying the world
around us. We are using up all of our natural resources. We must learn to converse them, or life
will be very bad for our children and our grandchildren.
There are several major parts to this problem.
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Population. Most problems of the environment come from population growth. In 1700,
there were 625 million people in the world. In 1900, there were 1.6 billion; in 1950, 2.5 billion
and in 1980, 4.4 billion. In the year 2010, there will be well over 6 billion. More people need
more water, more food, more wood, and more petroleum.
Distribution. Scientists say there is enough water in the world for everyone, but some
countries have a lot of water and some have only a little. Some areas get all their rain during one
season. The rest of the year is dry. There are huge forests in the Amazon area of Brazil. In other
parts of the world there is only desert.
Petroleum. We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use it in our cars and to heat our
buildings in winter.
Farmers use petrochemicals to make the soil rich. They also use petrochemicals to kill
insects that eat plants. These chemicals go into rivers and lakes and kill the fish there. Thousands
of people also die from these chemicals every year. Chemicals also go into the air and pollute it.
Winds carry this polluted air from countries to other countries and even other continents.
Poverty. Poor farmers use the same land over and over. The land needs a rest so it will be
better next year. However, the farmer must have food this year. Poor people cut down trees for
firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land becomes desert. However, people need
wood to cook their food now. Poor people cannot save the environment for the future. We now
have the information and the ability to solve these huge problems. However, this is not a problem
for one country or one area of the world. It is problem for all humans. The people and the nations
of the world must work together to conserve the world’s resources. No one controls the future,
but we all help make it.
43. Our natural resources are _______.
A. running out B. being disused
C. being destroyed D. being wasted
44. The phrase ‘using up’ is closest in meaning to _______.
A. using it to increase the amount of B. using all of it
C. using it for a short time D. trying to preserve
45. Most environmental problems come from _______.
A. forests B. too much rain
C. population growth D. poor distribution
46. The world them in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. our children and grandchildren B. the United Nations
C. our natural resources D. human beings
47. Good distribution means _______.
A. having things in the right place at the right time
B. cutting down forests and selling them to other countries
C. building water systems to carry water to farms
D. conserving our natural resources
48. According to the passage, petrochemicals help farmers to _______.
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A. enrich the soil B. kill insects and plants
C. kill fish in rivers and lakes D. pollute the air in many countries
49. Which of the following is not mentioned as a major cause of the problem?
A. population growth B. distribution of natural resources
C. use of petroleum D. lack of rain in certain areas
50. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. People must work together to save the environment.
B. We have the ability to solve environmental problems.
C. We control the future.
D. We help make the future.
1. A. merchant B. term C. commercial D. sergeant
2. A. honesty B. hydrogen C. horrible D. harmful
3. A. specific B. coincide C. inventive D. regardless
4. A. gallery B. satellite C. different D. cathedral
5. Just drop me a line in order to know when you are coming.
A. give me a ring B. write to me C. call me D. drop in me
A. outcome B. beginning C. expansion D. continuation
7. The design of wildlife refugees is still a meter of considerable controversy.
A. significance B. debate C. agreement D. concern
8. New members will be issued with a temporary identity card.
A. of a short time B. of a long time
C. of a prime importance D. of great attempt
9. Nobody had known before the presentation that Sue and her sister will receive the awards
for outstanding scholarships.
A. had known B. the C. will receive D. the
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10. Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group.
A. neither B. arresting C. would reveal D. his group
11. Students suppose to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to them.
A. suppose to B. all the questions C. out D. them
12. Helen is _______ seafood, so she never tries these delicious dishes.
A. allergic to B. tired of C. keen on D. preferable to
13. By raising their weapons the men showed their _______ to continue the fight.
A. ready B. readiness C. were ready D. readily
14. Several of my friends are _______ reporters.
A. newspaper B. newspapers C. newspaper’s D. newspapers’
15. _______ have made communication faster and easier through the use of email and the
Internet is widely recognized.
A. It is that computers B. That computers
C. Computers that D. That it’s computers
16. Remember to appreciate what your friends do for you. You shouldn’t take them _______.
A. as a rule B. as usual C. out of habit D. for granted
17. Under no circumstances _______ in areas where poisonous snakes are known to live.
C. should one climbs rocks D. should be climbing rocks
18. Hardly _______ the captain of the team when he had to face the problems.
A. did he appoint B. was he appointing
C. had he been appointed D. was he being appointed
19. We are considering having _______ for the coming New Year.
A. redecorated our flat B. to redecorate our flat
C. our flat to be redecorated D. our flat redecorated
20. Laser disc provide images of _______ either television signals or video tapes.
A. better than B. better quality than
C. better quality than those of D. better quality than that
21. My sister told me to pack some trousers and shirts for the trip, but _______, not to forget
my toothbrush.
A. after all B. more or less C. before long D. above all
22. The bank won’t lend you the money without some _______ that you will pay it back.
A. profit B. interest C. charge D. guarantee
23. Tony is so _______ that his friends tend to tell him all their problems.
A. confidential B. sympathetic C. critical D. optimistic
24. ‘Would you like beer or wine?’ – ‘_______’
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A. Yes, I’d love to. B. I couldn’t agree more.
C. No, I have no choice. D. I’d prefer beer, please.
25. ‘It’s time for lunch.’ – ‘_______’
A. Oh good! B. One hour.
C. Half past twelve. D. What is it?
26. “You should have returned the book to me before I asked you to”, the girl said to her
younger brother.
A. The girl blamed her younger brother for returning the book late.
B. The girl advised her younger brother to return the book early.
C. The girl told her younger brother to return the book early.
D. The girl wanted to have to book returned to her younger brother soon.
27. The likelihood of suffering a heart attack rises as one becomes increasingly obese.
A. Anyone who is obese is likely to experience a heart attack at any time.
B. Obesity results in only a slight increase in the probability of having a heart attack.
C. The more obese one is, the higher the chances for a heart attack become.
D. Heart attacks are happening more and more often, and most of the sufferers are obese.
28. I have learnt never to take sides in any arguments between my close friends.
A. If I support one side in arguments, the other will be upset.
B. I support neither side in my close friends’ arguments.
C. I don’t encourage my close friends to argue.
D. I don’t support any of my close friends.
29. My uncle was elected as the mayor of the city in 2004. He remained in office until 2014.
A. My uncle was elected as the mayor of the city twice: 2004 and 2014.
B. Elected as the mayor of the city in 2010, my uncle held the post for 10 years.
C. Although elected as the mayor of the city, my uncle took office in 2014.
D. Ten years after serving as he mayor of the city, my uncle resigned in 2004.
30. He tried many times. He never succeeded in kicking the ball into the goal.
A. Although he tried many times, he ever succeeded in kicking the ball into the goal.
B. However hard he tried, he didn’t succeed in scoring a goal for his team.
C. No matter how many times he tried, he didn’t ever succeed in kicking the ball into the
goal.
D. Hard as he tried, he has never been successful in football career.
35.
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world. When the water is warm, the (31) _______ of rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding
regions decreases. Australia could even experience a drought in many parts. On the other hand,
Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for (32) _______ rainstorms. In Pakistan
and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker and makes the area
much drier.
This happening is called El Nino and is used by weather forecasters to make long-range
weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will (33) _______ unusually heavy rains to the
southwestern part of the United States and make the central part of the country drier at the same
time.
El Nino itself used to be (34) _______. It would occur every two or seven years. But now,
this weather pattern is becoming more frequent. We cannot say when and how often tornadoes or
cyclones occur. Scientists are unsure of the reason for this (35) _______ on a global scale either.
31. A. deal B. figure C. number D. amount
32. A. angry B. strict C. severe D. cruel
33. A. bring B. fetch C. carry D. take
34. A. incredible B. predictable C. remarkable D. notable
35. A. shift B. transfer C. change D. transformation
nearby planes are moving. The basic principle of radar is exemplified by what happens when one
shouts in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person determine the size of
the cave. With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio waves
travel at the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. Radar sends out a short burst
of radio waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off the objects. By
determining the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can
determine the distance between the radar set and the objects. The word ‘radar’, in fact, gets its
name from the term ‘radio detection and ranging’. ‘Ranging’ is the term for detection of the
distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being of critical importance to pilots, radar
is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and
storms.
37. The word ‘dense’ could be replaced by _______.
A. cold B. thick C. wet D. dark
38. The word ‘it’ refers to _______.
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A. a radar set B. a short burst C. a radio wave D. light
39. Which types of waves does radar use?
40. The word ‘critical’ is closest meaning to _______.
A. serious B. severe C. heavy D. crucial
41. The way radar works is compared to _______.
A. a burst of the river banks B. the depth of a cave
C. the echo of sound against the walls D. the eyesight in dense fog
42. What mind be inferred about radar?
A. It makes the place of a radio.
B. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane.
C. It developed from a study of sound waves.
D. It has improved navigational safety.
In the West, cartoons are used chiefly to make people laugh. The important feature of all
these cartoons is the joke and the element of surprise which is contained. Even though it is very
funny, a good cartoon is always based on close observation of a particular feather of life and
usually has a serious purpose.
Cartoons in the West have been associated with political and social matters for many years.
In wartime, for example, the proved to be an excellent way of spreading propaganda. Nowadays
cartoons are often used to make short, sharp comments on politics and governments as well as on
a variety of social matters. In this way, the modern cartoon has become a very powerful force in
influencing people in Europe and the United States.
Unlike most American and European cartoons, however, many Chinese cartoon drawings
in the past have also attempted to educate people, especially those who could not read and write.
Such cartoons about the lives and saying of great men in China have proved extremely useful in
bringing education to illiterate and semi-literate people throughout China. Confucius, Mencius
and Laozi have all appeared in very interesting stories presented in the form of cartoons. The
cartoons themselves have thus served to illustrate the teachings of the Chinese sages in a very
attractive way.
In this sense, many Chinese cartoons are different from Western cartoons in so far as they
do not depend chiefly on telling jokes. Often, there is nothing to laugh at when you see Chinese
cartoons. This is not their primary aim. In addition to commenting on serious political and social
matters, Chinese cartoons have aimed at spreading the traditional Chinese thoughts and culture
as widely as possible among the people.
Today, however, Chinese cartoons have an added part to play in spreading knowledge.
They offer a very attractive and useful way of reaching people throughout the world, regardless
of the particular country in which they live. Thus, through cartoons, the thoughts and teachings
of the old Chinese philosophers and sages can now reach people who live in such countries as
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Britain, France, America, Japan, Malaysia or Australia and who are unfamiliar with the Chinese
culture.
43. Which of the following clearly characterizes Western cartoons?
A. Enjoyment, liveliness, and carefulness.
B. Originality, freshness, and astonishment.
C. Seriousness, propaganda, and attractiveness.
D. Humour, unexpectedness, and criticism.
44. Chinese cartoons have been useful as an important means of _______.
A. educating ordinary people B. spreading Western ideas
C. political propaganda in wartime D. amusing people all the time
45. The major differences between Chinese cartoons and Western cartoons come from their
_______.
A. purposes B. styles C. nationalities D. values
46. The pronoun ‘this’ in paragraph 4 mostly refers to _______.
A. a propaganda campaign B. a funny element
C. an educational purpose D. a piece of art
47. The passage is intended to present _______.
A. a description of cartoons of all kinds the world over
B. an outline of Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons
C. a contrast between Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons
D. an opinion about how cartoons entertain people
48. Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. A Very Powerful Force in Influencing People.
B. Chinese Cartoons and Western Cartoons.
C. Cartoons as a Way of Educating People.
D. An Excellent Way of Spreading Propaganda.
49. In general, Chinese cartoons are now aiming at _______.
A. disseminating traditional practices in China and throughout the world
B. spreading the Chinese ideas and cultural values throughout the world
C. bringing education to illiterate and semi-literate people in the world
D. illustrating the truth of Chinese great men’s famous sayings
50. Which of the following is most likely the traditional subject of Chinese cartoons?
A. Jokes and other kinds of humour in political and social matters.
B. The stories and features of the lives of great men the world over.
C. The illiterate and semi-illiterate people throughout China.
D. The philosophies and sayings of ancient Chinese thinkers.
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1. A. south B. southern C. scout D. drought
2. A. dome B. comb C. home D. tomb
3. A. spontaneous B. secondary C. honesty D. monarchy
4. A. pollution B. contaminant C. atmosphere D. researcher
5. The twins look so much alike that no one can tell them apart.
A. distinguish between them B. point out with them
C. spoil them D. pick them out
6. Pitchforks were once carved entirely from wood, but today the have steel tines and
wooden handle.
A. sometimes B. formerly C. in one area D. in the meantime
7. James could not tell his parents about his many animal friends in the forest and the
exciting things that he saw, but he found another way to express himself.
A. speak with voice B. communicate
C. keep silent D. write his thoughts
8. This new magazine is known for its comprehensive coverage of news.
A. casual B. indifferent C. inadequate D. superficial
Mark the letter A, B, C or D sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
9. After driving for twenty miles, he suddenly realized that he has been driving in the wrong
direction.
A. after driving B. suddenly realized
C. has been driving D. in the wrong direction
10. I think she will be suitable for the work because she has been working like a teacher for a
long time.
A. will be B. for
C. has been working D. like
11. Passengers are required to arrive to the gate fifteen minutes before departure time.
A. are required B. to arrive to C. before D. departure time
12. Larry never spoke to anyone, and kept himself _______.
A. outside B. withdrawn C. superior D. aloof
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13. _______ of transportation has given someone the idea for a new type of toy.
A. Mostly forms B. Most every form
C. Almost forms D. Almost every form
14. It gets on my nerves that way that Carol _______ about her job.
A. forever boasts B. is forever boasting
C. never boasts D. is never boasting
15. _______, Mozart was an accomplished composer while still a child.
A. Whatever it seems remarkable how
B. No matter how seems it remarkable
C. No matter how it seems remarkable
D. No matter how remarkable it seems
16. Many young people travel all over the world, and then do all kinds of jobs before they
_______.
A. touch down B. settle down C. put down D. go down
17. The question of late payment of the bill was _______ again at the meeting.
A. raised B. risen C. brought D. taken
18. The manual coming with the appliance says “_______ any problem with merchandise,
contact your local dealer.”
A. You should have B. Had you have
C. Do you have D. Should you have
19. “Let me stay up late any longer, _______?”
A. do you B. won’t you C. will you D. should you
20. For me, _______ is not important.
A. what a person wearing B. what does a person wear
C. what a person wears D. what will a person wear
21. Hope you won’t take _______ if I tell you the truth.
A. annoyance B. resentment C. irritation D. offence
22. _______, copper is one of the earliest known metals.
A. Over 2,000 years ago mined B. Mined 2,000 years over ago
C. Mining over 2,000 years ago D. Mined over 2,000 years ago
23. I walked away as calmly as I could _______ they thought I was the thief.
A. to avoid B. or else C. owing to D. in case
24. “Thank you for the lift” – “_______.”
A. Nonsense B. All right C. No problems D. you are welcome
25. “Will you be able to come to the meeting?” – “_______.”
A. I’m afraid not B. Of course you will
C. You must be kidding D. I’m sorry not
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26. Had I known more about computer programming, I would have worked for a computer
company.
A. I didn’t know much about computer programming so I didn’t work for a computer
company.
B. A better knowledge of computer programming will help me find a job in a computer
company.
C. I wish I knew more about computer programming and could work for a computer
company.
D. Knowing more about computer programming, I would find a job in a computer
company.
27. The newspaper reports that James was awarded the first prize.
A. It’s reported that James wins the first prize.
B. It’s reported that James to be awarded the first prize.
C. James is reported to have been awarded the first prize.
D. The first prize is reported to award to James.
29. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment. Others feel that it
A. Arguing that new technology causes unemployment, other economists feel that it
B. Besides the argument that new technology causes unemployment, some economists
feel that it allows more jobs to be created.
C. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment, whereas others
D. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment, so others feel that
it allows more jobs to be created.
30. Travelers are advised to take out insurance. Their luggage may go astray.
A. Travelers are advised to take out insurance if their luggage may go astray.
B. Travelers are advised to take out insurance, so their luggage may go astray.
C. Travelers had better buy insurance as a precaution against their luggage may go astray.
D. Travelers are advised to take out insurance in case their luggage goes astray.
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word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
One of the most important (31) _______ of a standardized test is time. You’ll be allowed a
certain number of minutes for each section, so it is very important that you use your time (32)
_______. The most important time strategy is pacing yourself. Before you begin, take just a few
seconds to survey the test, noting the number of questions and the sections that looks easier than
the rest. Then, make a rough time schedule based on the amount of time (33) _______ to you.
Mark the halfway point on your test and make a note beside that mark of the time when the
testing period is half over.
Once you begin the test, keep moving. If you work slowly in an attempt to make fewer
mistakes, your mind will become bored and begin to wander. You’ll end up making far more
mistakes if you’re not concentrating. If you take too long to answer questions that stump you,
you may end up (34) _______ out of time before you finish. So don’t stop for difficult questions.
Skip them and move on. You can come back to them later if you have time. A question that takes
you live seconds to answer counts as much as one that takes you several-minutes, so pick up the
easy points first. (35) _______, answering the easier questions first helps build your confidence
and gets you in the testing groove.
31. A. factors B. issue C. concern D. information
32. A. quickly B. fast C. wisely D. hardly
33. A. close B. similar C. available D. suitable
34. A. short B. running C. moving D. cutting
35. A. Therefore B. However C. So D. Besides
Carbohydrates, which are sugars, are an essential part of a healthy diet. They provide the
main source of energy for the body, and they also function to flavor and sweeten foods.
Carbohydrates range from simple sugars like glucose to complex sugar such as amylase and
amylopectin. Nutritionists estimate that carbohydrates should make up about one-firth to one-
fifth of a person’s diet. This translates to about 75-100 grams of carbohydrates per day.
A diet that is deficient in carbohydrates can have an adverse effect on a person’s health.
When the body lacks a sufficient amount of carbohydrates, it must then use its protein supplies
for energy, a process called gluconeogenesis. However, this result in a lack of necessary protein,
and further health difficulties may occur. A lack of carbohydrates can also lead to ketosis, a
build-up of ketones in the body that causes fatigue, lethargy, and bad breath.
36. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Carbohydrates are needed for good health.
B. Carbohydrates prevent a build-up of proteins.
C. Carbohydrates can lead to ketosis.
D. Carbohydrates are an expendable part of a good diet.
37. The word “function” as used in the first paragraph refers to which of the following?
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A. neglect B. serve C. dissolve D. digest
38. According to the passage, what do most nutritionists suggest?
A. Sufficient carbohydrates will prevent gluconeogenesis.
B. Carbohydrates are simple sugars called glucose.
C. Carbohydrates should make up about a quarter of a person’s daily diet.
D. Carbohydrates should be eaten in very small quantities.
39. Which of the following do carbohydrates NOT do?
A. Prevent ketosis B. Cause gluconegenesis
C. Provide energy for the body D. Flavor and sweeten food
40. Which of the following words could best replace “deficient” as used in the second
paragraph?
A. outstanding B. abundant C. insufficient D. unequal
41. What does the word “this” refers to in the second paragraph?
A. Using protein supplies for energy.
B. Converting carbohydrates to energy.
C. Having a deficiency in carbohydrates.
D. Having an insufficient amount of protein.
42. According to the paragraph, which of the following does NOT describe carbohydrates?
A. A protein supply B. A necessity
C. A range of sugars D. An energy source
Many people are unaware of how many of the products we use every day comes from
petroleum and natural gas. In the United States each family of four uses more than two tons of
petroleum products annually. That’s almost 1200 lb of chemicals each year for every man,
woman, and child in the United States – a staggering total of 225 billion pounds of chemicals
from petroleum, and to a lesser extent, natural gas.
Of the vast amount of petroleum and natural gas we consume, more than 90 percent is
burned as fuels. Only about 5.5 percent is used for the manufacture of petrochemicals by the
chemical industry. These petrochemicals vary widely in their functions and include such
products as drugs, detergents, rubber, paints, fertilizers, dyes, perfumes, explosives, food
preservatives, artificial sweeteners, and agricultural chemicals. Finally, about 1.5 percent of the
oil and natural gas is used as raw material for plastics. This small percentage translates into the
production of billions of pounds of polymers that yield many different and useful products.
In Post-world War II years, the United States was flooded with domestic and imported
items of extremely low cost, low quality, and limited lifetime. This led to the image of “cheap
plastics” with low durability. Today, however, the image of plastics has changed. Plastics
perform an extremely broad range of functions, from heart valves and artificial kidneys to ski
boots, non-stick surfaces, superglues, and spacecraft parts, and they compete with natural
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products in durability. No other materials except plastics could perform all these different
functions.
Plastics are replacing more and more parts of your car. The use of 1 lb of plastic can
replace an average of 3.5 lb of metal in an automobile. An automobile with 400 lb of plastic
substance for metal will weigh about 1000 lb less, which increases its gas mileage by about 3
mi/gal. the fuel savings are estimated to be about 160 million barrels of oil annually. That’s more
than the total amount used by the chemical industry as raw materials to make the polymers. As
another example, synthetic polymer fibers are commonly used in fabrics, for both economical
and practical reasons. If the world’s synthetic fibers were replaced by cotton, this would require
an additional 40 million acres of farmland.
A. Production of petroleum and natural gas.
B. The versatility of petrochemicals.
C. New uses of plastic in automobile.
D. Plastics and plastic products
44. According to the passage, the percentage of petroleum and natural gas that is used in the
production of plastics is _______.
A. large B. tiny C. extravagant D. efficient
45. The word “yield” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. gain B. surrender C. produce D. require
46. The word “flooded” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. inundated B. damaged C. promoted D. in need of
47. It can be inferred from the passage that after World War II plastic products in the U.S.
were all of the following EXCEPT _______.
A. inexpensive B. plentiful C. mediocre D. long-lasting
48. The word “This” refers to _______.
A. the end of World War II B. the appearance of large quantities of inferior
goods
C. the limited lifetime of the goods D. the use of imported rather than domestic goods
49. In paragraph 4, the author supports the use of plastics in cars and polymer fibers in
fabrics because they are _______.
A. economical B. fashionable
C. easily manufactured D. costly
50. Where in the passage does the author mention the products made of petro-chemicals?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
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1. A. accountant B. country C. count D. fountain
2. A. clubs B. books C. hats D. stamps
3. A. paragraph B. aviation C. confidential D. supersonic
4. A. preference B. concept C. furious D. romance
5. Some land is best used if two or more different kinds of crops are grown on it alternately;
on the other hand, it is better to grow the same crop continuously.
A. time after time B. slowly but surely
C. one after another D. for many years
6. I have a thorough knowledge of the history of arts.
A. practical B. scientific C. complete D. wonderful
7. His policies were beneficial to the economy as a whole.
A. harmless B. crude C. detrimental D. innocent
8. We all locked up to these fire fighters who put out the terrible fire in our town last night.
A. respected B. looked down on
C. looked forward D. admired
9. In summer, warm southern air carries moist north to the eastern and central United States.
A. in B. air carries C. moist D. central
10. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of
another.
A. there are B. of comparing C. those D. another
11. The people in Europe are now using the common unit of money called Euro, although the
economies in those countries are not exact the same.
A. are now using B. called C. although D. exact
12. After Jill had realized that the new computer was not what she really wanted, she
_______ it in for an other one.
A. dropped B. traded C. turned down D. bought
13. In fact the criminals _______ into because the front door was wide open and so they just
walked in.
A. needn’t have broken B. didn’t need break
C. didn’t need to break D. needn’t to have broken
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14. We need to think of _______ our products to meet the need of potential customers.
A. diversify B. diversification
C. diversifying D. diverse
15. _______ that he had no choice but no leave early.
A. In such a situation he did find himself
B. In such a situation he found himself
C. He found himself in a situation where
D. He found himself in so embarrassing a situation
16. When Helen agreed to run the school play, she got more than she _______.
A. came down to B. bargained for
C. faced up to D. got round to
17. I am angry because you didn’t tell me the truth. I don’t like _______.
18. Sound comes in waves and the higher the frequency, _______.
A. higher is the pitch B. the pitch is higher
C. the higher the pitch D. pitch is higher
19. The newspaper is owned by the Mearson Group, _______ chairman is Sir James Bex.
A. which B. that C. whom D. whose
20. In order to avoid boredom, the most important thing is to keep oneself _______.
A. occupation B. occupied C. occupant D. occupational
21. One condition of this job is that you must be _______ to work at weekends.
A. acceptable B. available C. accessible D. capable
22. It is vital that we _______ a change in people’s attitude.
A. bring down B. bring back C. bring about D. bring away
23. You _______ the washing up, I could have done it to you.
A. hadn’t to do B. needn’t have done
C. couldn’t have done D. mustn’t have done
24. ‘I hate shopping.’ – ‘_______’
A. So do I. B. Certainly.
C. That’s alright. D. I didn’t, too.
25. ‘It’s very hot here.’ – ‘_______’
A. Do you feel cold? B. I’ll turn on the heating.
C. Let’s go outside then. D. Put on your sweater then.
26. His plan was that the company would be making a profit in two years.
A. He was determined to make profit for the company in two years.
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B. His plan was made to gain profit for the company in two years.
C. He set a target of two years for the company to make a profit.
D. His plan was set up in two years to make a profit for the company.
27. His behaviour is beginning to annoy me more and more.
A. He is beginning to behave more and more annoying.
B. He is annoying me more and more with his behavious.
C. He is always behaving in an annoying way to me.
D. I am beginning to get more and more annoyed by his behavious.
28. It is believed that the murderer escaped in a stolen car.
A. The murderer is believed to escape in a stolen car.
B. They believed the man to escape in a stolen car.
C. The murderer is believed to have escaped in a stolen car.
D. They believed that the murderer stole the car.
29. Alan gave me some advice. I was saved from bankcruptcy.
A. I was saved from bankcruptcy although Alan gave me some advice.
B. It was Alan’s advice that saved me from bankcruptcy.
C. If it weren’t for Alan’s advice, I would go bankcruptcy.
D. Had it not been for Alan’s advice, I would have been bankcruptcy.
30. They drove fifteen miles off the main road. They had nothing to eat for the day.
A. Not only did they drive fifteen miles off the main road, they also had nothing to eat for
the day.
B. Driving fifteen miles off the main road, they eventually had something to eat for the
day.
C. They neither drove fifteen miles off the main road nor had anything to eat for the day.
D. They drove fifteen miles off the main road until they had something to eat for the day.
35.
We know what happens when we don’t have water – we die. We use water, other animals
use it, plants use it ... but the world never loses it. Basically, the (31) _______ of water on, above
and within the planet never changes.
Our use of it is part of an immense (32) _______, known simply enough as the water cycle.
The cycle can happen because water is one of the few substances that exists naturally, and at
temperatures which people can tolerate, as a liquid, a gas and a solid.
We all know something about the water cycle; it is part of our daily scene. Water (33)
_______ from lakes and oceans and from the leaves of plants. From there it forms clouds which
come back to earth (34) _______ rain, ice or snow. That water soaks into the ground or runs off.
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And the cycle continues with rivers running into the sea, plants transpiring and so on. Animals
like us use it on the way through the cycle.
For millions of years, changes in the water cycle were slow, but now, with the (35)
_______ increase in the number of people on earth and the development of technology, we are
having a dramatic impact on the way the water cycle behaves and on the quality of the water
itself.
31. A. amount B. number C. sum D. figure
32. A. method B. process C. procedure D. route
33. A. steams B. evaporates C. dissolves D. disperses
34. A. like B. similar C. for D. as
35. A. quick B. abrupt C. rapid D. hasty
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will
cause a disaster. According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the
biggest mistakes which ambitious parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of
what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic parental expectations can cause great damage
to children.
However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but
are ambitious in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the
parents are very supportive of their child.
Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by
taking him to concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive
him 50 kilometers twice a week for violin lessons. Michael’s mother knows very little about
music, but his father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael
enter music competitions if he is unwilling.
Winston Smith, Michael’s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents successful
musicians, and they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful
as they are and so they enter him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when
he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always
seems quiet and unhappy.
36. One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to _______.
A. push their child into trying too much
B. make their child become a musician
C. neglect their child’s education
D. help their child to become a genius
37. Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?
A. Educational psychologists. B. Unrealistic parents.
C. Their children. D. Successful musicians.
38. The phrase “crazy about” in the passage mostly means _______.
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A. surprised at B. completely unaware of
C. confused about D. extremely interested in
39. Winston’s parents push their son so much and he _______.
A. cannot learn much music from them
B. is afraid to disappoint them
C. has won a lot of piano competitions
D. has become a good musician
40. The word “they” in the passage refers to _______.
A. violin lessons B. parents in general
C. Michael’s parents D. concerts
41. All of the following people are musical EXCEPT _______.
A. Michael’s father B. Winston’s father
C. Winston’s mother D. Michael’s mother
42. The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that _______.
A. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants
B. successful parents always have intelligent children
C. successful parents often have unsuccessful children
D. parents should spend more money on the child’s education
THE GOLDEN GATE BRIDGE
The Golden Gate Bridge is one of the symbols of the United States of America. it is
located in San Francisco, California, and spans the Golden Gate Strait- a mile-wide strait that
connects the Pacific Ocean to the San Francisco Bay.
It is surely one of the most beautiful bridges in the world, and also one of the tallest (the
height of a bridge is the height of the towers). The bridge, as it is today, was designed by
architects Irving and Gertrude Morrow. However, their art deco project was not the first Golden
Gate Bridge. The original plans for the bridge were drawn in 1916, but they were of a very
complicated and ugly structure, certainly not something America could ever be proud of.
The bridge was a true experiment in its time; such a long suspension bridge had never been
tried before. It had the highest towers, the thickest cables and the largest underwater foundations
ever built. The foundations were a real problem, because they had to be cast in a depth of more
than 100 feet. Extreme depth wasn’t the sole problem. The real challenge lay in the sinking of
the piers in the violent waves of the open sea, which was thought to be almost impossible. The
construction began in 1933, and was finished in 1937, when the bridge opened to pedestrians. (It
was opened to cars one year later). The bridge was finished ahead of schedule and cost much less
than was estimated. Today, the Golden Gate Bridge has a main span of 4,2000 feet (almost a
mile) and a total length of 8,981 feet. The towers supporting the huge cables rise 746 feet above
the water. Each steel cable is 7,650 feet long and has a diameter of 36 inches.
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‘International orange’ is the color the bridge has always been painted. The architects chose
it because it blends well with the span’s natural setting’. However, if the Navy had had its way,
the bridge would have been painted black with yellow stripes – in favor of greater visibility for
passing ships. There are fog horns to let passing ships know where the bridge is, and aircraft
beacons on the tops of the towers to prevent planes from crashing into them.
43. The Golden Gate Bridge _______.
A. spans the San Francisco Bay B. is the best-known symbol of the United States
C. spans the Golden Gate Strait D. is painted gold and has a gold-plated gate at each
end
44. The first plans of the bridge _______.
A. were designed by Irving and Gertrude Morrow in 1916
B. were something America could be proud of
C. were designed by Irving Morrow but were too complicated
D. were not designed in art deco style
45. The construction of the foundations was very complicated because _______.
A. it was thought to be almost impossible
B. the piers had to be sunk in the open sea through violent waves
C. they had to be the largest ones ever built
D. they had to be cast by teams of drivers, which was very expensive
46. Which one is true?
A. The construction of the Golden Gate Bridge took four years.
B. The bridge was opened to car traffic in 1939.
C. People were allowed to cross the bridge in 1939.
D. The construction of the bridge began exactly seventeen years after the first plans were
made.
47. The word ‘cast’ is closest in meaning to _______.
A. measured B. exposed C. expanded D. thrown
48. The word ‘blends’ is closest in meaning to _______.
A. approves B. fixes C. is suitable D. is outstanding
49. What is NOT TRUE about the Golden Gate Bridge?
A. The towers supporting the huge cables rise 746 feet.
B. The bridge was first painted black with yellow stripes.
C. If you travel by boat, it may be the first sight you see.
D. The bridge had been expected to cost more than it really was.
50. How can passing ships know where the bridge is?
A. due to the color decided by the Navy
B. because there are beacons on the top of the towers
C. because the bridge is international orange
D. thanks to the fog horns
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1. A. advance B. ancient C. cancer D. annual
2. A. devotion B. congestion C. suggestion D. question
three the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. abundance B. acceptance C. accountant D. applicant
4. A. reference B. volunteer C. refugee D. referee
5. A. we decided to pay for the furniture on the installment plan.
6. Teletext is continuously sent out at all times when regular television programs are
broadcast.
A. transmitted B. electrified C. automated D. aired
7. Any student who neglects his or her homework is unlikely to do well at school.
A. puts off B. looks for C. attends to D. approves of
8. Many political radicals advocated that women should not be discriminated on the basic of
their sex.
A. openly criticized B. rightly claimed
C. publicly said D. protested
9. He made it clear once more that the missed books were to be received and brought to
him.
A. made B. clear C. the missed D. to be received
10. Every day in summer, but especially at the weekends, all kinds of vehicles bring crowds
of people to enjoy the various attraction.
A. at B. bring
C. crowds of people D. attraction
11. The federal government recommends that all expectant women will not only refrain from
smoking but also avoid places where other people smoke.
A. recommends that B. expectant
C. will not only refrain D. smoke
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12. Instead of being excited about the good news, Ted seemed to be _______.
A. ignorant B. indifferent C. unlikely D. unexpected
13. I don’t like John. His _______ complaints make me angry.
A. continual B. continuous C. continuation D. continuously
14. My old friend and college, John, _______ married.
A. have just got B. has just got C. just have got D. just has got
15. Having opened the bottle, _______ for everyone.
A. The drink was poured B. Mike poured the drink
C. Mike pouring the drink D. The drink was being poured
16. Poor management brought the company to _______ of collapse.
A. the edge B. the foot C. the ring D. the brink
17. The chairman requested that _______.
A. the member study the problem carefully
B. with more carefulness the problem could be studied
C. the problem was more carefully studied
D. the members studied more careful the problem
18. _______ seemed a miracle to us.
A. His recover after so soon B. That he recovered so soon
C. His being recovered so soon D. When he had recovered so soon
19. Learners of English as a foreign language often fail to _______ between unfamiliar
sounds in that language.
A. separate B. differ C. distinguish D. solve
20. I haven’t received the letter. It _______ to the wrong address.
A. must send B. might have been sent
C. is sent D. have been sent
21. My sister bought a red jacket, but she would rather _______ a blue one.
A. bought B. had bought C. have bought D. buy
22. My first job was to arrange the files into _______ order from the oldest to the most
recent.
A. alphabetical B. chronological C. numerical D. historical
23. As a result of his father’s death; he _______ a lot of money.
A. came into B. came over C. came to D. came through
24. “Let’s walk to the park!” – “_______.”
A. All right B. I think so C. I’m sorry D. OK. How can we go
there?
25. “Do you like visiting museums?” – “_______.”
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A. No, I’d love to B. No, I haven’t C. Not really D. Many times
26. ‘John shouldn’t have behaved so badly’, said Janet.
A. Janet doesn’t like John’s behaviour.
B. Janet objected to John’s bad behaviour.
C. Janet dislikes John.
D. Janet was angry with John.
27. It wasn’t clear to us at the time how serious the problem was.
A. We were not sure about how serious the problem was at the time.
B. That the problem was serious was not made clear to us.
C. Little did we know anything about the seriousness of the problem.
D. Little did we realise at the time how serious the problem was.
28. He’ll know if he’s got the position or not sometime before 5 o’clock today.
A. If they decide to accept him for the position, they’ll contact him around 5 o’clock.
B. Although it seems certain that he will be accepted, the decision won’t be made known
to him until 5 o’clock.
C. If he has been accepted for the position, he will receive the confirmation at around 5
pm today.
D. by 5 pm today he’ll be informed about whether he’s been accepted for the position.
29. He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
A. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
B. I was almost not surprised by his strange behavior.
C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.
D. His behavior was a very strange thing, that surprised me a lot.
30. The man jumped out of the boat. He was bitten by a shark.
A. Bitten by a shark, the man jumped out of the boat.
B. After jumping out of the boat, the man was bitten by a shark.
C. After bitten, the shark jumped out of the boat.
D. After jumping out of the boat, the shark bit the man.
35.
The pig was the last animal to be fully domesticated by the farmer. Unlike the cow and the
sheep, it is not a grass-eater. Its ancient home was the forest, where it searched for different kinds
of food, such as nuts, roots and dead animals, and found in the bushes (31) _______ for its
almost hairless body from extremes of sun and cold. For many centuries the farmer allowed it to
continue there, leaving his pigs to look after themselves most of the time. As the woodlands
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began to shrink, the pig slowly began to be kept on the farm itself. But it did not finally come
into a shed, where it was (32) _______ on waste food from the farm and the house, until the
eighteenth century.
The pig, then, became a farm animal in the (33) _______ of agricultural improvement in
Britain in the eighteenth century, but it was given little attention by special animal breeders, for
the major farmers of the time preferred to develop the larger kinds of animal. There were,
however, various less well-known farmers interested in pigs and they (34) _______ their
improvements on new types of pigs from overseas. These were the Chinese pig, and its various
relatives, including the Neapolitan pig, which were descended from Chinese pigs that had found
their (35) _______ to the Mediterranean in ancient times.
31. A. protection B. guard C. intention D. defence
32. A. sustained B. supported C. grown D. fed
33. A. age B. mark C. point D. pass
34. A. put B. based C. launched D. fitted
35. A. course B. direction C. tendency D. way
correct answer to each of the questions 36 to 42.
The Singapore Science Center is located on a six-hectare site in Jurong. At the center we
can discover the wonder of science and technology in a fun way. Clap your hands and colorful
bulbs will light up. Starts a wheel spinning and it will set off a fan churning. It is a place to
answer our curiosity and capture our imagination.
The center features over four hundred exhibits covering topics like solar radiation,
communications, electronics, mathematics, nuclear energy and evolution. It aims to arose interest
in science and technology among us and the general public. The center is the first science center
to be established in South East Asia. It was opened in 1977 and it now receives an average of one
thousand, two hundred visitors a day. The exhibits can be found in four exhibition galleries.
They are the Lobby, Physical Sciences, Life Science, and Aviation. These exhibits are renewed
annually so as to encourage visitors to make return visits to the center.
Instead of the usual “Hand off” notices found in exhibition halls, visitors are invited to
touch and feel the exhibits, push the buttons, turn the cranks or pedals. This is an interesting way
to learn science even if you hate the subject. A Discovery Center was built for children between
the ages of three and twelve. This new exhibition gallery was completed in 1985. Lately this year
a stone-age exhibit was built. It shows us about the animals and people which are extinct.
36. What can be the best title of the passage?
A. Singapore Science Center B. Discovery Center
C. Physical Sciences D. Science Center
37. What does “Hand off” in paragraph 3 mean?
A. touch B. don’t stand on C. don’t touch D. keep away
A. the center B. the general public
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C. solar radiation D. evolution
39. It is stated in paragraph 2 that _______.
A. the Singapore Science Center makes people interested in science and technology
B. only students can visit the center
C. there are only several exhibits in the science center
D. visitors don’t want to come back to the center
40. It is indicated in paragraph 3 that _______.
A. it is impossible for visitors to touch and feel the objects in the center
B. if you hate science you will never learn the subject even you visit the center
C. children under 3 are not allowed to visit the center
D. the “Hand off” notices is not found in the center
41. It is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 that _______.
A. the exhibits in the center cover a wide range of topics
B. The Singapore Science Center is the first center established in the world
C. the center was not opened until 1977
D. visitors are encouraged to return to the center
42. What is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The center is located in Jurong.
B. There are four exhibition galleries in the center.
C. The exhibits are renewed every year.
D. The Singapore Science Center is the biggest in Asia.
Traditionally in America, helping the poor was a matter for private charities or local
governments. Arriving immigrants depended mainly on predecessors from their homeland to
help them start a new life. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, several European nations
instituted public-welfare programs. But such a movement was slow to take hold in the United
States because the rapid pace of industrialization and the real availability of farmland seemed to
confirm the belief that anyone who was willing to work could find a job.
Most of the programs started during the Depression era were temporary relief measures,
but one of the programs – Social Security – has become an American institution. Paid for by
deductions from the paychecks of working people, Social Security ensures that retired persons
receive a modest monthly income and also provides unemployment insurance, disability
insurance, and other assistance to those who need it. Social Security payments to retired persons
can start at age 62, but many wait until age 65, when the payments are slightly higher. Recently,
there has been concern that the Social Security fund may not have enough money to fulfill its
obligations in the 21st century, when the population of elderly Americans is expected to increase
dramatically. Policy makers have proposed various ways to make up the anticipated deficit, but a
long-term solution is still being debated.
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In the years since Roosevelt, other American presidents have established assistance
programs. These include Medicaid and Medicare, food stamps, certificates that people can use to
purchase food; and public housing which is built at federal expense and made available to
persons on low incomes.
43. New immigrants to the U.S. could seek help from _______.
A. the people who came earlier B. the US government agencies
C. only charity organizations D. volunteer organizations
44. It took welfare programs a long time to gain a foothold in the U.S. due to the fast growth
of _______.
A. industrialization B. modernization
C. urbanization D. population
45. The word “instituted” in the first paragraph mostly means _______.
A. executed B. studied C. introduced D. enforced
46. The Social Security program has become possible thanks to _______.
A. deduction from wages B. people’s willingness to work
C. donations from companies D. enforcement laws
47. That Social Security payments will be a burden comes from the concern that _______.
A. elderly people ask for more money
B. the program discourages working people
C. the number of elderly people is growing
D. younger people do not want to work
48. Persons on low incomes can access public housing through _______.
A. low rents B. state spending
C. donations D. federal expenditure
49. Americans on low incomes can seek help from _______.
A. federal government B. government agencies
C. state governments D. non-government agencies
50. The passage mainly discusses _______.
A. public assistance in America B. immigration into America
C. funding agencies in America D. ways of fund-raising in America
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A B
about twenty-three times that of the sun.
C D
A B C D
A B C D
B. afforestation B. deforestation C. forestry D. reforestation

B. going B. go C. gone D. went

B. No longer has B. No sooner had C. Not until had D. Hardly had

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B. that she is resting B. her resting C. that she rest D. her to rest
B. economical B. economy C. economic D. economics

B. overtone B. overcharge C. overtime D. oversight

B. send B. write C. rent D. turn

B. whether B. no matter C. because D. although

-“________”
environment?”
- Laura: “_______”.
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B. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange

B. effects B. symptoms C. hints D. demonstration

B. failed to pay B. paid in full

B. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to each of the following questions.
346
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
country.
However objective we believe ourselves to be, most of us do not judge a product solely on its
merits, considering quality, value and style before making a decision. (31) ________, we are
There is nothing (32) _______ with this. It is probably a smarter way to make decisions than
relying on only our own opinions. But it does make life hard for companies. They have long
347
Research in Finland recently found overwhelming evidence that neighbours have a big influence
on buying decisions. When one of a person’s ten nearest neighbours bought a car, the chances
that person would buy a car of the same brand during the next week. The researchers argued that
it was not just a (35) ________ of envy. Used cars seemed to attract neighbours even more than
new cars.
storms.
B. the nature of radar B. types of ranging

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B. size B. weight C. speed D. shape

B. argumentative B. imaginative C. explanatory D. humorous

following?
B. an attachment B. a discharge C. a stream D. a ray

B. a radar set B. a short burst

B. sound B. heat C. radio D. light

B. other uses of radar B. uses of sonar technology

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E. effects of interviewing on job applicants

F. adequacy of interviewing job applicants
G. judgments of interviewers concerning job applicants
H. techniques that interviewers use for judging job applicants
B. encouragement B. assistance C. obstacle D. light

B. judgments B. applicants C. interviewers D. characteristics

E. stands out as the worst judgmental error

F. takes effect only when a candidate is well dressed
G. exemplifies how one good characteristic colors perceptions
H. helps the interviewer’s capability to judge real ability
B. verify B. conclude C. recollect D. misrepresent

E. can easily be altered

F. is the one that stays with the interviewer
G. is unrelated to the interviewer’s prejudices
H. has been repeatedly demonstrated unrelated to the applicant’s ability
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B. biases B. opposes C. improves D. distinguishes

B. devise personnel selection B. measure cognitive ability

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
A B C
musician.
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A B
C D
A B C D
E. having B. making C. doing D. taking

B. on B. to C. from D. in
B. each of which B. hence each C. they each D. each of that

Question 11: It is very important for a firm or a company to keep _______ the changes in the
market.
B. pace of B. track about C. touch with D. up with

B. not as much B. not so much as C. less as D. not so many as

Question 13: The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil fuel will have _______
by 2015.
B. taken over B. caught up C. used off D. run out

B. you will know B. you know C. do you know D. will you know
B. with B. from C. in D. to
B. it easy to live B. it easy live


352
broken down.
B. but B. instead of C. than D. unless

B. on B. off
C. over D. up
-“________.”
- Helen: “_______”.
B. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s B. It’s up to you

B. reasonable B. acceptable C. pretty high D. wonderful

B. hopeless B. hopeful C. successful D. unsuccessful

B. look down on B. put up with

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B. unplanned B. deliberate C. accidental D. unintentional

A. Janet has trouble keeping her emotions under control, especially when she is told frightening
stories.
B. Since Janet is somewhat unbalanced, the only way to make her laugh is by telling stories, but
we should avoid scary ones as they might cause her to panic.
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C. It is no fun to tell frightening stories to Janet, who is not very stable mentally , because she
only laughs instead of getting scared .
D. Janet is somewhat mentally unbalanced and might easily become uncontrollably emotional, so
let’s not tell frightening stories in her presence.
inconvenient.
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was passed.
B. explicated B. exposed C. guaranteed D. granted

_______.

356
B. music and plays B. paintings and maps

E. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody
F. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
G. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images
H. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and characters
E. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their students.
F. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters without permission.
G. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which they wrote the music and the lyrics.
H. It is illegal to make photographs when sightseeing or traveling.
following?
B. A law against theft B. A law against smoking


357
E. To urge readers to cooperate more often

F. To offer a brief definition of cooperation
G. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict
H. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes
B. defined B. agreed on C. prized D. set up

B. explore B. unite C. evolve D. react

E. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to

cooperate.
F. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and writing
skills.
G. It is an ideal that can never be achieved.
H. It was confined to prehistoric times.
cooperation?
E. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation

F. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds
G. To get rewards for themselves
H. To defeat a common enemy
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E. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades.
F. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow.
G. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party.
H. A new business attempts to take customers away from an established company.
B. Tertiary cooperation B. Antagonistic cooperation

F. The author presents the points of view of three experts on the same topic.
G. The author compares and contrasts two types of human relations.
H. The author describes a concept by analyzing its three forms.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
359
A B
of fatty acids.
C D
A B C D
small planet.
A B
C D
B. were checked our homework B. had our homework checked

B. as long as B. as far as C. as soon as D. as well as

bell.
B. have been working B. be working

B. too B. such C. enough D. so

B. passes B. would pass C. passed D. pass

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B. would finish what I did B. finished what I did
B. because B. whereas
B. the same length like B. the same length as

ten years.
B. For a number of tigers B. The number of tigers

B. how B. when C. why D. where

one.
E. do up B. do in
-“________.”
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Question 21: -“______.”
B. I’ve broken your precious vase. B. I have a lot on my mind.

Question 22: Carpets from countries such as Persia and Afghanistan often fetch high prices in the
United States.
B. Artifacts B. Pottery C. Rugs D. Textiles

B. accidents B. misunderstandings
B. soak B. permanent
B. expensive B. complicated
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B. They failed to go on the holiday like they had planned because a strike took place at the
airport.
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them to read.
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needs.
weekly?
B. No time B. Once or twice C. Three D. Four

E. Virtual reality B. Teacher

E. Monitor the time the students learn.

F. Design materials for the students.
G. Find out the best activities for the students.
H. Identify weaknesses of the students.
E. Students can stay at home to learn.

F. Students can learn at times that suit their schedule.
G. Students’ learning time won’t be monitored.
H. Students’ weak achievement can be identified.
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F. Because they had high arousal levels.

G. It is a natural reaction which guards them against the effects of accidents.
H. Because they had taken drugs which led to the production of these two hormones.
dangerous sports?
E. A lack of common sense, and a high level of arousal.

F. A low level of arousal, and an inborn desire for adventure.
G. The pleasure that results from the production of nor adrenaline, and a low level of
arousal.
H. A desire to show off, and a lack of common sense.
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E. A high temperature. B. A low temperature.

danger?
F. Because they are more aware of the dangers involved.

G. Because they already have enough of the two hormones, adrenaline and nor adrenaline.
H. Because they would not be able to cope with accidents.
E. It shows that you have a high level of arousal if no saliva is produced.

F. It indicates your level of arousal by amount of saliva that is produced.
G. It can indicate whether your saliva is more acidic or more alkaline.
H. It is a good test of your sense of taste.
E. Subatomic particles.
F. Minerals.
G. Vitamins.
H. Hormones.
E. Adrenaline.
F. Nor adrenaline.
G. Lemon juice.
H. Manganese dioxide.
E. It weakens the muscles.

F. It makes people afraid.
G. It makes the heart beat more quickly.
H. It makes the heart beat more slowly.
B. On an airplane B. In the air

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situations?
F. People who have a low hormone content.

G. People who normally have a low level of arousal.
H. People who normally have a high level of arousal.
A B C D
A B
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C D
A B C
B. overestimated B. underestimated C. understated D. undercharged

B. get B. turn C. fall D. bend

B. clothing B. clothes C. garment D. clothe

B. higher B. high C. the higher D. The high

B. is there a mistake B. there a mistake is

B. came up with B. came up to

B. many-floored B. many story

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B. had conquered B. would conquer
B. ring a bell B. break the ice C. foot the bill D. fall into place
tragedy.
B. some other B. some others C. another D. the other

B. unpleasant B. unnecessary C. unusual D. unsatisfactory

Question 20: -“_________.”
- “_________.”
B. Yes, it’s really good B. No ,it’s very kind of you

B. disgusted B. puzzled C. angry D. upset
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B. wasn’t happy B. didn’t want to see

B. remake B. empty
C. refill D. repeat
banned.
B. clear B. obvious
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A. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully.
B. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic, though
the experts could judge it quite easily.
C. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it was not
genuine .
D. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one, but not
for the experts.
From the seeds themselves to the machinery, fertilizers and pesticides - The Green Revolution
regimen depend heavily on technology. One (31) ________ , however, depends much less on
technology - organic farming. Many organic farmers use machinery, but (32) _______ chemical
fertilizers or pesticides. Instead of chemical soil enrichers, they use animal manure and plant
parts not used as food -natural, organic fertilizers that are clearly a renewable (33) ________.
Organic farmers also use alternatives to pesticides; for example they may rely on natural
predators of certain insect pests. (34) ________ the need arises, they can buy the eggs and larvae
of these natural predators and introduce them into their crop fields. They use other techniques to
control pests as well, like planting certain crops together because one crop repels the other's
pests. Organic farmers do not need a lot of land; in fact of organic farming is perfectly (35)
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________ to small farms and is relatively inexpensive. Finally, many organic farmers' average
yields compare favorably with other farmers' yields.
giant.
B. A computer company B. A software company

B. American Online B. Cyber-cockroach
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B. AOL B. Pizza Hut

E. They think it is a Cyber-Cockroach

F. They think it is for experts
G. They think it is a movie and magazine company
H. They feel superior to its users
E. It used to make video games

F. It is innovative
G. It makes money
H. It has joined with another company
B. Advertisements on the Internet B. Advertisements on TV

B. It will do well B. It will do badly

the fashion of their fans who wish to imitate them. Another undeniable influence on what fashion
is "cool" is technology. Technology that can be worn is now and will become an ever more
important part of the "look" of fashionable young people. There are many other trends, among
them retro or vintage fashion, and so-called disposable fashion.
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jeans.
the future.
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E. to explain why certain fashions are popular internationally

F. to show the best fashions to wear in order to look "cool"
G. to inform us about current and future fashion trends
H. to explain the history of certain fashion trends
B. fans B. choices C. genres D. stars

B. grunge B. hip-hop C. retro D. business casual

E. Hip-hop clothes are now sold by big-name designers and are less baggy.
F. Boots used to be popular, but now kicks are worn.
G. Hip-hop moved from other countries to the United States.
H. The baggy hip-hop look has replaced tighter jeans and polo shirts.
B. hip-hop B. wearable technology

B. hip-hop B. wearable technology

E. Because disposable fashion is cheap.

F. Because grunge is from Seattle.
G. Because disposable fashion is often brightly colored.
H. Because the grunge music craze ended in the '90s.
E. Wearable technology will involve smaller devices.

F. Hip-hop will become exclusive to the United States.
G. Retro fashions will go out of style.
H. Disposable fashions will increase in price.
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A B C
D
A B C D
A B C D
university.
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B. does B. will do C. do D. must do

B. affluently B. abnormally
B. tolerated B. tolerable C. tolerant D. tolerantly

B. to sleep the desire B. to desire to sleep is

B. gets B. makes C. lets D. has

B. man B. the man

B. were unparalleled B. unparalleled

B. Many Olympic athletes B. Many Olympic athletes who

live.
B. one should not climb rocks B. one should be climbing rocks

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B. the more you achieve B. you achieve the more

B. overlived B. outlived C. lived longer D. underlived

-“__________.”
- “_________.”
B. Yes, you could B. Yes, you can

E. come without knowing what they will see

F. come in large numbers
G. come out of boredom
H. come by plane
B. record B. shine C. categorize D. diversity


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B. uncomfortable B. warm
C. lazy D. dirty
B. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding

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Packet sugar from the supermarket is extracted from either sugar cane or sugar beet. These (31)
________ are mixed with hot water, which dissolves their natural sugar. Sugar is also found in
fruit some of which such as dates and grapes, (32) ________ very high amounts of sugar. To be a
little more scientific, sugar should be called sucrose. Sucrose is made up of two substances,
immediately.”
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EXCEPT________.
E. the different system of supervision

F. the lack of interaction with a group
G. the fact that the work space is in the home
H. the opportunities for advancement
E. Fewer than estimated in USA Today

F. More than 8 million
G. Fewer than last year
H. More than predicted in Business Week
E. the manager of a group of telecommuters

F. a reporter
G. a statistician
H. a telecommuter
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B. participation B. alteration C. opposition D. consideration

E. A definition of telecommuting
F. The advantages of telecommuting
G. An overview of telecommuting
H. The failure of telecommuting
substitute eggs. These egg substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when
E. To convince people to eat "designer" eggs and egg substitutes

F. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten
G. To inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol
H. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level
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B. minerals B. cholesterol C. canola oil D. vitamins

B. in fact B. a little C. a lot D. indefinitely

E. increasing price
F. dietary changes in hens
G. decreased production
H. concerns about cholesterol
B. 2/3 B. 3/4 C. 1/2 D. 1/3

B. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described

B. reverse B. support C. advance D. block

E. The results are a composite of things

F. The results are inconclusive
G. The results are mingled together
H. The results are blended
E. poached
F. fried
G. boiled
H. scrambled
E. increasing egg intake but not fat intake

F. reducing egg intake but not fat intake
G. increasing egg intake and fat intake
H. decreasing egg intake and fat intake
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A B C D
machine.
A B C D
A B C
at home.
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B. I’ll have been lying B. I will lie

B. could be selected B. should elect

B. If she were studying more B. If she had studied more

and billiards.
B. considered B. required
B. world’s most useful B. useful most word’s

B. remembered B. regarded C. reminded D. recommended

B. turned down B. went out

B. on account of B. in regard to
B. Had B. Should C. Did D. Were
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receive the money.
B. between B. off C. beyond D. out

B. most B. all C. any D. these

_ Pete: “_________.”
_Maria: ”________.”
E. Oh, I don’t think of him

F. Oh, they are not having the choice
G. Although they appeared reserved at first, they are very sociable
H. No, it’s very kind of them to have an outgoing personality
B. exposes B. unrelated C. invisible D. phenomenal

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B. available B. clear C. legitimate D. understandable
B. nonexistent B. sufficient
C. rich D. useful
B. publicly said B. openly criticized

staying away.
A. Mary is the only one in our class who isn’t taking part in a research on the environment.
C. We couldn’t go to Hawaii in the end because we forgot to make arrangements for the flight in
advance.
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mountain.
few home truths.
B. I listened to Joe patiently until he started insulting me, in this case I told him a few home
truths.
D. I listened to Joe patiently until he started insulting me, at which point I told him a few home
truths.
The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather patterns that strongly affect the world.
When the water is warm, the (31) ________ of rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding regions
decreases. Australia could (32) ________ experience a drought in many parts. On (33) ________
hand, Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for (34) ________ rainstorms. In
Pakistan and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker and makes
the area much drier. This happening is called El Nino and is used by weather forecasters to make
long-range weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will (35) ________ unusually
heavy rains to the southwestern part of the United States and make the central part of the country
drier at the same time.
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C. number D. amount

390
E. Human ancestors became predominantly right-handed when they began to use tools.
F. It is difficult to interpret the significance of anthropological evidence concerning tool use.
G. Humans and their ancestors have been predominantly right-handed for over a million
years.
H. Human ancestors were more skilled at using both hands than modern humans.
E. Some are not very old.

F. It is unusual to see such paintings.
G. Many were made by children.
H. The artists were mostly right-handed.
E. written
F. portrayed
G. referred
H. mentioned
to________.
B. the form of crane B. the form of the body

because ________.
E. the relationship between handedness and scratches on fossil human teeth can be verified
F. it emphasizes the differences between contemporary humans and their ancestors
G. the scratch patterns produced by stone knives vary significantly from patterns produced
by modern knives
H. it demonstrates that ancient humans were not skilled at using tools
B. differences B. sides C. activities D. studies

EXCEPT _________.
391
E. ancient artwork
F. asymmetrical skulls
G. studies of tool use
H. fossilized hand bones

government occurs.
392
the one in power.
E. Political parties in Canada

F. The Canadian election process
G. The Canadian system of government
H. The powers of parliament in Canada
E. When the governor-general decides to appoint a new government.

F. When the voters do not return majority support for the government in a general election.
G. When the prime minister advises the governor-general to appoint a new government.
H. When the House of Commons votes for a new government.
B. approved B. evaluated C. recognized D. dismissed

E. little
F. different
G. good
H. steady
E. Whereas Canada has a constitutional form of government; Great Britain has a parliament
system.
F. Canada and Great Britain both have model systems of government.
G. Great Britain and Canada have very similar systems of government.
H. Canada’s parliament has adopted Great Britain’s constitution.
B. Until they become powerful, they are not legally recognized.

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E. the official head of parliament
F. the head of government
G. the queen’s representative in Canada
H. the official who appoints the Senate
E. choose the prime minister and the cabinet

F. do not usually vote in general elections
G. allow their representative to vote on their behalf
H. determine when a charge of government should occur
Question 2: A. child B. chicken C. machine D. church
Question 3: A. open B. happen C. offer D. begin
Question 4: A. maximum B. determine C. marvelous D. compliment
Question 5: My father used to give me a good advice whenever I had a problem.
A B C D
A B C
at home.
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D
Question 7: Each of the nurses report to the operating room when his or her name is called.
A B C D
Question 9: They are having their house ________ by a construction company.
A. to paint B. painted C. being painted D. painting

Question 10: The police have begun an ________ into the accident which happened this
afternoon.
A. investigation B. investigating C. investigatory D. investigate

Question 11: Parts of the country are suffering water ________ after the unusually dry summer.
A. thirst B. shortage C. supply D. hunger

Question 12: Her main ________ in the family is to wash the dishes.
A. responsible B. response C. responsibly D. responsibility

Question 13: I am very _______ in the information you have given me.
A. concerned B. surprised C. interesting D. interested

Question 14: Thanks for bringing us a present. It was very ________ of you.
A. adorable B. grateful C. thoughtful D. careful
Question 15: Jason told me that he ________his best in the exam the ______ day.
A. had done / following B. will do / previous

C. would do / following D. was going / previous
Question 16: Education ________ to be the most important element to develop a country.
A. often be considered B. can often consider

C. can often considered D. can often be considered
Question 17: He went to a seaside resort because he was ________ of windsurfing.
395
A. fond B. interested C. keen D. enjoyed
Question 18: I’ve learned to put ______ all the noise.
A. up with B. out C. on D. off

Question 19: I’ve known him ________ I left college.
A. when B. during C. until D. since

Question 20: _ Peter: “Thanks a lot for your wonderful gift.”
_ Mary: “_______.”
A. You are welcome

B. Thank you
C. Cheers
D. Have a good day
Question 21: -Tim: “________.”
-Jeycy: “Certainly.”
A. Welcome back!
B. What are you doing there?
C. I’m sorry I am late
D. May I borrow a pencil, please?
A. withdraw some money fran B. put some money into

C. give some money out D. leave some money aside
Question 23: “He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of the crime”.

Question 24: Jenny was afraid because the dog sounded fierce.
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A. cruel B. gentle C. untamed D. malevolent
Question 25: This kind of dress is becoming outmoded. If I were you, I wouldn’t dress it up at
the party.
A. fashionable B. realistic C. unfashionable D. attractive
Question 26: John has not had his hair cut for over six months.
A. It is over six months since John has not had his hair cut.
B. It is over six months since John last had his hair cut.
C. John has not had his hair cut since over six months.
D. The last six months was John has not had his hair cut.
Question 27: “Don’t come home late, Jenny, it’s dangerous!” her father said.
A. Jenny’s father told her not go home late and it was dangerous.
B. Jenny’s father told her not to go home late because it was dangerous.
C. Jenny’s father advised her go home early.
D. Jenny’s father asked her against being home late because it may be dangerous.
Question 28: Even if Richard had arrived on time, it’s doubtful if he could have found
somewhere to park his car.
A. If Richard had arrived on time, he could have found a place to park his car.
B. Richard didn’t arrive on time; otherwise he would definitely have found somewhere to
park his car.
C. I think Richard could hardly have found any place to park his car even if he arrived on
time.
D. Because Richard had arrived on time, he could have found a place to park his car.
Question 29: The President is not to attend the meeting. Nor are secretaries.
397
A. Either the President nor his secretaries are to attend the meeting.
B. Both the President and his secretaries didn’t attend the meeting.
C. Neither the President nor his secretaries are to attend the meeting.
D. The President and his secretaries are able to attend the meeting.
Question 30: She was careless. A fire broke out in the kitchen.
A. If she were careless, a fire broke out in the kitchen.
B. If she had been careful, a fire broke out in the kitchen.
C. If she had been careless, a fire would not have broken out in the kitchen.
D. If she had been careful, a fire would not have broken out in the kitchen.
It is relatively easy for computers to speak. A computer that says “please” and “thank
you” in the right places is (31) ________ miracle of science, but recognizing the words that
make up normal, continuous human speech is another (32) _______.
Not until now have computers been programmed to (33) _______ to a range of spoken
commands. Until recently it was thought that computers would have to be programmed to the
accent and speech habits of each user, and only then would be able to respond (34) ________ to
their master’s or mistress’s voice. Now rapid progress is being made (35) _______ systems
programmed to adapt easily to each new speaker.
Question 31: A. no B. not C. nothing D. none
Question 32: A. problem B. topic C. matter D. theme
Question 33: A. talk B. answer C. communicate D. react
Question 34: A. truly B. completely C. accurately D. right
Question 35: A. with B. for C. within D. as
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During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the
contribution of women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed
United States. Lacking the right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not
considered an important force in history. Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the
seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren produced the best contemporary history of the
American Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters showing she exercised great
political influence over her husband, John, the second President of the United States. But little or
no notice was taken of these contributions. During these centuries, women remained invisible in
history books.
Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of female
authors writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were amateur
historians. Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their selection
and use of sources.
During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history
by keeping records of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local
women’s organizations compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper
clippings, and souvenirs were saved and stored. These sources form the core of the two greatest
collections of women’s history in the United States – one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger
Library at Radcliffe College, and the other the Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College. Such
sources have provided valuable materials for later generations of historians.
Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth
century, most of the writing about women conformed to the “great women” theory of history,
just as much of mainstream American history concentrated on “great men”. To demonstrate that
women were making significant contributions to American life, female authors singled out
women leaders and wrote biographies, or else important women produced their autobiographies.
Most of these leaders were involved in public life as reformers, activists working for women’s
right to vote, or authors, and were not representative at all of the great mass of ordinary women.
The lives of ordinary people continued, generally, to be untold in the American histories being
published.
A. The role of literature in early American histories.

B. The place of American women in written histories.
C. The keen sense of history shown by American women.
D. The “great women” approach to history used by American historians.
Question 37: The word “contemporary” in the first paragraph means that the history was _____.
399
A. informative
B. thoughtful
C. written at that time
D. faultfinding
Question 38: The word “celebratory” in the second passage means that the writings referred to
______.
A. related to parties
B. religious
C. serious
D. full of praise
Question 39: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to ________.
A. efforts
B. authors
C. counterparts
D. sources
Question 40: In the second paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the
author point out?
A. They put too much emphasis on daily activities.

B. They left out discussion of the influence on money on politics
C. The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate.
D. They were printed on poor quality paper.
Question 41: What use was made of the nineteenth-century women’s history materials in the
Schlesinger Library and the Sophia Smith Collection?
A. They were combined and published in a multivolume encyclopedia

B. They formed the basis of college courses in the nineteenth-century
C. They provided valuable information for twentieth century historical researchers
D. They were shared among women’s colleges throughout the United States
Question 42: In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of
nineteenth-century “great women” EXCEPT ________.
A. authors
B. reformers
C. activists for women’s rights
D. politicians
400
The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid
material such as silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures. Also,
some substances such as salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when molten or when dissolved in
water. The ability of metals to conduct electricity is due to how their atoms bond together. In
order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least one of their outermost electrons. This leaves
the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now strictly ions. The lost electrons are free
to move in what are known as a sea of electrons. Since the electrons are negatively charged they
attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure together.
An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are
free to move they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy such
as a battery is connected to the metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing through the
wire, and this is what makes metals such good conductors of electricity. The only other common
solid conducting material that pencil users are likely to encounter is graphite (what the ‘lead’ of a
pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and again the carbon atoms bond in such a
way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an electric current. Likewise, if
we have an ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions flow to create a
current but only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or
dissolved in water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its
charged ions cannot flow.
Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because they
contain no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily.
Water itself is a poor conductor or electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully
charged particles (the ends of a water molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is
neutral). However, most water we encounter does contain dissolved charged particles, so it will
be more conductive than pure water. Many of the problems that occur when touching electrical
devices with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that is left on our skin through
perspiration and it dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.
Question 43: Electrical conductivity is ________.
A. one of the most important properties of metals

B. one of the key properties of most solid materials
C. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water
D. completely impossible for silicon
Question 44: According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to ________.
A. the absence of free electrons

B. its atoms with a positive charge
C. the way its atoms bond together
401
D. the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms
Question 45: The word “outermost” in the first paragraph mostly means _______.
A. the lightest
B. nearest to the inside
C. furthest from the inside
D. the heaviest
Question 46: The atoms of a metal can bond together because ________.
A. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons

B. electrons can flow in a single direction
C. they lose all of electrons
D. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions
Question 47: Slat in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because ________.
A. it has free electrons

B. its charged ions can flow easily
C. it cannot create any charge ions
D. it charged ions are not free to move
Question 48: The word “they” in the third paragraph refers to ________.
A. charged ions
B. electric currents
C. charged particles
D. electrical insulator
Question 49: Water is a poor conductor because it contains ________.
A. no positive or negative electric charge

B. only a small amount of fully charged particles
C. only a positive electric charge
D. only a negative electric charge
Question 50: We can have problems when touching electrical devices with wet hands because
_________.
A. the eater itself is a good conductor of electricity

B. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive
C. the water contains too many neutral molecules
D. the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive
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(Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút)
402
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part
Question 1: He was not a good father. He neglected his children
A. blamed B. took care of C. disregarded D. punished
Question 2: Mr. Armstrong is said to be a fairly well-to-do man
A. big B. important C. wealthy D. poor
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSET in
Question 3: This is a difficult topic. Please explain it in plain language
A. easy B. new C. different D. detailed
Question 4: He claimed that the car belonged to him
A. knew B. thought C. suspected D. declared
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to
Because geologists have long indicated that fossil fuels will not last indefinitely, the U.S
government finally acknowledged that sooner or later other energy sources would be needed and,
as a result, turned its attention to nuclear power. It was anticipated that nuclear power plants
could supply electricity in such large amounts and so inexpensively that they would be integrated
into an economy in which electricity would take over virtually all fuel-generating functions at
nominal cost. Thus, the government subsidized the promotion of commercial nuclear power
plants and authorized their construction by utility companies. In the 1960s and early 1970s, the
public accepted the notion of electricity being generated by nuclear power plants in or near
residential areas. By 1975, 54 plants were fully operational, supplying 11 percent of the nation’s
electricity, and another 167 plants were at various stages of planning and construction. Officials
estimated that by 1990 hundreds of plants would be on line, and by the turn of the century as
many as 1000 plants would be in working order.
Since 1975, this outlook and this estimation have changed drastically, and many utilizes
have cancelled existing orders. In some cases, construction was terminated even after billions of
dollars had already been invested. After being completed and licensed at a cost of almost $6
billion, the Shoreham Power Plant on Long Island was turned over to the state of New York to
be dismantled without ever having generated electric power. The reason was that residents and
state authorities deemed that there was no possibility of evacuating residents from the area
should an accident occur.
Just 68 of those plants under way in 1975 have been completed, and another 3 are still under
construction. Therefore, it appears that in the mid 1990s 124 nuclear power plants in the nation
will be in operation, generating about 18 percent of the nation’s electricity, a figure that will
undoubtedly decline as relatively outdated plants are shut down
Question 5: What was initially planned for the nation’s fuel supply in the 1950s and in the
early 1960s?
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A. Expansion and renovation of existing fuel-generating plants
B. Creation of additional storage capacities for fossil fuels
C. Conversion of the industry and the economy to nuclear power
D. Development of an array of alternative fuel and power sources
Question 6: How does the author describe the attitude of the population in regard to nuclear
power as fuel in the early to mid 1970s?
A. Apprehensive
B. Ambivalent
C. Receptive
D. Resentful
Question 7: In line 5, the word “nominal” is closet in meaning to _____
A. so-called B. minimal C. exorbitant D. inflated
Question 8: In line 7, the word “notion” is closet in meaning to _____
A. nonsense B. notice C. idea D. consequence
Question 9: In line 13, the phrase “this outlook” refers to _____
A. the number of operating nuclear plants
B. the expectation for increase in the number of nuclear plants
C. the possibility of generating electricity at nuclear installations
D. the forecast for the capacity of the nuclear plants
Question 10: It can be inferred from the passage that government officials made a critical
error in judgment by ____
A. disregarding the low utility of nuclear power plants
B. relying on inferior materials and faulty plant design
C. overlooking the possibility of a meltdown, however remote
D. locating installation in densely wooded areas
Question 11: In line 14, the word “terminated” is closet in meaning to ______
A. delayed B. stopped C. kept going D. conserved
Question 12: The author of the passage implies that the construction of new nuclear power
plants____
A. is continuing on a smaller scale
B. is being geared for greater safety
C. has been completely halted for fear of disaster
D. has been decelerated but not terminated
Question 13: Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. The exposition of the public opinion polls on nuclear power
B. A narration of power source deliberation in nuclear power plants
C. Causal connections in the government’s position on nuclear power
D. Point and counterpoint in the nuclear power debate
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Question 14: The author of the passage implies that the issue of finding adequate sources of
fuel and power for the future ______
A. has long been ignored by shortsighted government authorities
B. may be condoned by vacillating officials
C. has lost its pertinence in light of new discoveries
D. has not yet been satisfactorily resolved
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions
Question 15: An eccentric is by definition someone whose behavior is ____, someone who
refuses to conform to the accepted norms of his society
A. abnormally B. abnormality
C. abnormalities D. abnormal
Question 16: The cook made ____ that some people were not served
A. too little B. so little
C. so few food D. so much food
Question 17: Can I ___ our brain for a moment? I can’t do this crossword by myself
A. use B. have C. mind D. pick
Question 18: It’s recommended that he _____ this course
A. take B. taking C. took D. takes
Question 19: The sign said that unauthorized persons were prohibited _____
A. entering B. to enter C. from entering D. not to enter
Question 20: I have been saving money because I _____ buy a computer
A. shall B. will C. am going to D. would
Question 21: We are in good time; there’s _____ to hurry
A. no purpose B. no need C. unnecessary D. impossible
Question 22: Customer :”Can I have a look at the pullover, please?” Salesgirl:”
______”
A. It’s much cheaper B. Which one? This one?
C. Sorry, it’s out of stock D. Can I help you?
Question 23: Mr. Smith is a ___ person. If he says he will do something, you know that he
will do
A. dependent B. independent
C. depending D. dependable
Question 24: All his plans for starting his own business fell ___
A. in B. through C. down D. away
Question 25: The ___ of the family home following the divorce was a great shock to the
children
A. break-down B. break-in C. break-up D. break-out
Question 26: I can’t quite _____ out what the sign says
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A. make B. get C. read D. carry
Question 27: Because of the Aleuts’ constant exposure to cold weather, they have long
recognized ______
A. and body needs to be fat B. body needs the fat
C. how fat the body needs D. the body’s needs for fat
Question 28: Essentially, a theory is an abstract, symbolic representation of ____ reality
A. what it is conceived B. that is conceived
C. what is conceived D. that is being conceived of
Question 29: “Congratulations! You performed so well in the contest” “_____”
A. Thanks. But it’s just a matter of luck
B. Oh, it was nothing great
C. It’s my pleasure
D. Thanks. I’m glad you could make of it
Question 30: Children are now coming under the influence of emotions ___ than their
parents did
A. far earlier B. farther early
C. more far early D. further early
Question 31: He went with a group of people, ___ were correctly equipped for such a
climb
A. few of which B. few of whom
C. few of them D. which few of them
Question 32: It was not until recently _____ how truthful he was
A. did we realize B. that we realized
C. which we realized D. when we realized
Question 33: “Good morning, could I speak to Mr. Brown, please?” “_____”
A. He’s in a meeting. Can I take a message?
B. Probably by Monday next week
C. I’ll have to ask the person you want to ring first
D. Certainly. Would two o’clock be OK?
Question 34: Next summer, we’d like to ____ in Perugia
A. do an Italian course B. enter an Italian course
C. make an Italian course D. perform an Italian course
Question 35: It is gravity ____ objects towards the earth
A. pulling B. to pull C. what pulls D. that pulls
We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the
contrary, both their knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many
disadvantages in streaming pupils. It does not take into account the fact that children
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develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on both the bright and the not-so-bright
child. After all, it can be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of the top grade!
Besides, it is rather unread to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This
is only one aspect of their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all
our pupils to the full, not just their academic ability. We also value personal qualities and
social skills, and we fine that mixed-ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of
learning
In our classrooms, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups: this gives
them the opportunity to learn to co-operate to share, and to develop leadership skills. They
also learn how to cope with personal problems as well as learning how to think, to make
decisions, to analyze and evaluate, and to communicate effectively. The pupils learn from
each other as well as from the teachers.
Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes they work on individual tasks and
assignments, and they can do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class
teaching when this is appropriate. We encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach
them the skills they need in order to do this effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced
work; it does not matter what age the child is. We expect our pupils to do their best, not their
least, and give them every encouragement to attain this goal.
Question 36: In the passage, the author’s attitude towards “mixed ability teaching” is
A. objective B. questioning C. approving D critical
Question 37: The words “held back” means ______
A. forced to study in lower classes
B. prevented from advancing
C. made to lag behind in study
D. made to remain in the same classes
Question 38: The author argues that a teacher’s chief concern should be the development
of the pupils’ ______
A. learning ability and communicative skills
B. intellectual abilities
C. personal and social skills
D. total personality
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Group work provides the pupils with the opportunity to learn to be capable organizers
B. Pupils also learn to develop their reasoning ability
C. Group work gives pupils the opportunity to learn to work together with others
D. Pupils also learn how to participate in teaching activities
Question 40: The author’s purpose of writing this passage is to ____
A. recommend pair work and group work classroom activities
B. argue for teaching bright and not-so-bright pupils in the same class
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C. offer advice on the proper use of the school library
D. emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching
Question 41: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Pupils can not develop in the best way if they are streamed into classes of different
intellectual abilities
B. There is no fixed method in teaching pupils to develop themselves to the full
C. It’s not good for a bright child to find out that he performs worst in a mixed-ability
class
D. Development of pupils as individuals is not the aim of group work
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is an advantage of mixed-
ability teaching?
A. Formal class teaching is the important way to give the pupils essential skills such as
those to be used in the library
B. A pupil can be at the bottom of a class
C. Pupils can be hindered from an all-round development
D. Pupils as individuals always have the opportunities to work on their way
Question 43: Which of the following statements can be best summaries the main idea of
the passage?
A. Children, in general, develop at different rates
B. Bright children do benefit from mixed-class teaching
C. Various ways of teaching should be encouraged in class
D. The aim of education is to find out how to teach the bright and not-so-bright pupils
Question 44: According to the passage, “streaming pupils” _____
A. is quite discouraging
B. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience
C. is the act of putting pupils into classes according to their academic abilities
D. will help the pupils learn best
Question 45: According to the author, mixed-ability teaching is more preferable because
A. it doesn’t have disadvantages as in streaming pupils
B. it aims at developing the children’s total personality
C. children can learn to work with each other to solve personal problems
D. formal class teaching is appropriate
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to show the underlined part that
needs correction
Question 46: The most substances expand in volume when they are heated
A. The most B. expand in volume C. when D. are heated
Question 47: As inevitably as human culture has changed with the passing of time, so
does the environment
A. human culture B. changed C. the passing D. does
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Question 48: A significant proportions of the plants and animals of Hawaii exists
nowhere else in the World
A. proportions B. of C. nowhere else D. World
Question 49: Mass advertising is employed when person-to-person selling in impractical,
impossible, or simply inefficiency
A. employed B. selling C. simply D. inefficiency
Question 50: The first United States citizen to become a professional sculptor was
Patience Lovell Wright, which works were executed in wax
A. to become B. professional C. which D. in wax
indicate the correct word (s) for each of the blanks from 51 to 60
GREENPEACE
Greenpeace is an independent organization that campaigns to protect the environment. It
has approximately 4.5 million members worldwide in 158 countries, 300,000 of these in the
United Kingdom. (51)____ in North America in 1971, it has since opened offices round the
world. As (52)_____ as its campaigning (53)_____, it also has a charitable trust which
(54)____ scientific research and (55)_____ educational projects on environmental issues.
Greenpeace (56)____ in non-violent direct action. Activists (57)____ public attention to
serious threats to the environment. (58)____ issues on which the organization is campaigning
include the atmosphere (global warming), the (59)_____ of the rainforests and toxic
(60)_____ being emitted from factories
Question 51: A. Built B. Produced C. Invented D. Formed
Question 52: A. long B. well C. good D. far
Question 53: A. work B. job C. occupation D. position
Question 54: A. pays B. funds C. rewards D. earns
Question 55: A. undertakes B. engages C. commits D. enters
Question 56: A. accepts B. believes C. holds D. depends
Question 57: A. get B. pay C. draw D. take
Question 58: A. Current B. Recent C. Immediate D. Next
Question 59: A. ruin B. extinction C. destruction D. downfall
Question 60: A. leftover B. litter C. rubbish D. waste
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions
Question 61:
A. mutual B. responsible C. accelerate D. accessible
Question 62:
A. accumulate B. accurate C. accuracy D. adequate
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs in
the pronunciation in each of the following questions
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Question 63: A. seizure B. measure C. confusion D. tension
Question 64: A. whole B. whoop C. whose D. white
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Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part
Question 1: The sailor is suffering from a deficiency of Vitamin C
A. lack B. short C. shortage D. lacking
Question 2: The nurse told her that she would have to wait for a few days for the
outcome of the medical check-up
A. putting B. payment C. result D. coming
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part
Question 3: The policemen broke up the fight between the two teenagers
A. started B. stopped off C. called off D. canceled
Question 4: He has a good memory to retain facts easily
A. remember B. forget C. understand D. know
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions from 5-35
Question 5: Coffee is the second most valuable _____ after oil
A. ware B. production C. producing D. commodity
Question 6: We _____ on the beach now if we hadn’t missed the plane
A. might have lain B. would lie
C. could be lying D. would have lain
Question 7: “Your dress is lovely. I like it” “______”
A. Oh, it’s just an old dress
B. Thanks anyway. I think it makes me look older
C. You must be kidding. I think it’s terrible
D. Thank you. That’s a nice compliment
Question 8: The noise from the nearby factory kept me _____
A. awake B. awakened C. waking D. woken
Question 9: Make sure you ____ us a visit when you are in town again
A. pay B. have C. give D. do
Question 10: I used to run a mile before breakfast but now I am ____
A. not used to it B. no longer practice it
C. out of practice D. out of the habit
Question 11: The government is determined to ____ terrorism
A. put the stop to B. put stop to
C. put stops to D. put a stop to
Question 12: Americans rarely shake hands to say goodbye except ___ business
occasions
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A. on B. during C. at D. for
Question 13: We will talk about those ___ problems are related to psychology
A. of which B. of that C. whose D. who
Question 14: Out ___ for a walk after she finished doing her homework
A. did Mary go B. Mary went C. Mary did go D. went Mary
Question 15: The room ___ cool in summer and warm in winter
A. feels B. is felt C. finds D. is found
Question 16: By 8 o’clock yesterday, the spaceship ____ 20 hours around the earth
A. will travel B. has been traveling
C. had been traveling D. will have been traveling
Question 17: The manager, as well as his assistants, ______ yet
A. haven’t arrive B. hadn’t arrived
C hasn’t arrived D. isn’t arriving
Question 18: “Happy Christmas” “______”
A. The same to you! B. Happy Christmas!
C. You are the same! D. Same for you!
Question 19: Lucia was surprised when her guests ____ late for the party
A. came up B. turned up C. looked up D. put up
Question 20: Show me how to ___ the phone line to my computer so I can use the
Internet
A. connect B. fasten C. apply D. join
Question 21: You ____ so fast or you might have an accident
A. don’t have to drive B. shouldn’t have driven
C. had better not drive D. mustn’t have driven
Question 22: Liquid milk is usually pasteurized in order to kill bacteria for a longer ____
A. expectancy B. production C. living D. shelf life
Question 23: The majority of people accept that modern drugs are the most effective way
to cure a(n) ______
A. sicken B. illness C. symptom D. treatment
Question 24: ____ the price is high, we can’t afford to buy a new car
A. Now that B. Although C. Whereas D. As long as
Question 25: You have gone to the doctor’s to have a check-u. You ____. You just had
your check-up last week
A. didn’t need to go B. needn’t have gone
C. needn’t go D. don’t need to go
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to
In the explosion of the linguistic life cycle, it is apparent that it is much more difficult to
learn a second language in adulthood than a first language in childhood. Most adults never
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completely master a foreign language, especially in Phonology – hence the ubiquitous foreign
accent. Their development often “fossilizes” into permanent error patterns that no teaching or
correction can undo. Of course, there are great individual differences, which depend on effort,
attitudes, amount of exposure, quality of teaching and plain talent, but there seems to be a cap
for the best adults in the best circumstances
Many explanations have been advanced for children’s superiority; they exploit Motherese
(the simplified, repetitive conversation between parents and children), make errors unself-
consciously, are more motivated to communicate, like to conform, are not set in their ways, and
have not first language to interfere. But some of these accounts are unlikely, based on what is
known about how language acquisition works. Recent evidence is calling these social and
motivation explanations into doubt. Holding every other factor constant, a key factor stands out:
sheer age
Systematic evidence comes from the psychologist Elissa Newport and her colleagues.
They tested Korean and Chinese – born students at the University of Illinois who had spent a
least ten years in the United States. The immigrants were give a list of 276 simple English
sentences, half of them containing some grammatical error. The immigrants who came to the
United States between the age of 3 and 7 performed identically to American – born students.
Those who arrived between ages 8 and 15 did worse the latter they arrived, and those who
arrived between 17 and 39 did the worst of all, and showed huge variability unrelated to their
age of arrival
Question 26: The passage mainly discussed
A. adult differences in learning a foreign language
B. children’s ability to learn a language
C. the age factor in learning languages fast
D. research into language acquisition
Question 27: From the passage, it can be inferred that “Phonology” is the study of ____
A. he grammar of language
B. the rules of a language
C the vocabulary of a language
D. the sound system of a language
Question 28: The word “cap” in paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to _____
A. prize B. limit C. covering D. level
Question 29: According to the passage, young children learn languages quickly for all of
the following reasons EXCEPT
A. they make many mistakes B. they want to talk
C. their approach is flexible D. they frequently repeat words
Question 30: The word “set” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ____
A. fixed B. changed C. stable D. formed
Question 31: The word “unrelated” in paragraph 3 is closet in meaning to ___
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A. unconnected B. unfamiliar
C. unclassified D. unidentified
Question 32: In the experiment in the passage, the Psychologists discovered _____
A. most students had lived in the U.S for more that 10 years
B. older students were unable to learn English
C. young students learned English best
D. students who arrived late were worst of all
Question 33: The word “who” in paragraph 3 refers to _____
A. Elissa Newport B. Koreans C. students D. colleagues
Question 34: According to the passage, what was the purpose of examining a sample
number of immigrants?
A. To compare different age groups
B. To detect differences in nationalities
C. To confirm different language characteristics
D. To measure the use of grammar
Question 35: Where in the passage does the author mention that children acquire their
own languages easily?
A. Line 1-2 B. Lines 10-14
C. Lines 14-16 D. Lines 17-18
The time when human crossed the Arctic land bridge from Siberia to Alaska seems
remote to us today, but actually represents a late stage in the prehistory of humans, an era when
polished stone implements and bows and arrows were already being used and dogs had already
been domesticated
When these early migrants arrived in North America, they found the woods and plains
dominated by three types of American mammoths. These elephants were distinguished from
today’s elephants mainly by their thick, shaggy coats and their huge, upward-curving tusks. They
had arrived on the continent hundreds of thousands of years before their followers. The woody
mammoth in the North, the Columbian mammoth in middle North America, and the imperial
mammoth of the South, together with their distant cousins the mastodons, dominated the land.
Here, as in the Old World, there is evidence that humans hunted these elephants, as shown by
numerous spear points found with mammoth remains
Then, at the end of the Ice Age, when the last glaciers had retreated, there was a relatively
sudden and widespread extinction of elephants. In the New World, both mammoths and
mastodons disappeared. In the Old World, only Indian and African elephants survived.
Why did the huge, seemingly successful mammoths disappear? Were humans connected
with their extinction? Perhaps, but at that time, although they were cunning hunters, humans
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were still widely settled and not very numerous. It is difficult to see how they could have
prevailed over the mammoth to such an extent
Question 36: With which of the following is the passage primarily concerned?
A. Migration from Siberia to Alaska
B. Techniques used to hunt mammoths
C. The prehistory of humans
D. The relationship between man and mammoth in the New World
Question 37: The word “implements” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____
A. tools B. ornaments C. houses D. carvings
Question 38: The phrase “these early migrants” in paragraph 2 refers to ____
A. mammoths B. humans C. dogs D. mastodons
Question 39: Where were the imperial mammoths the dominant type of mammoth?
A. Alaska
B. the central portion of North America
C. the southern part of North America
D. South America
Question 40: It can be inferred that when humans crossed into the New World, they ____
A. had previously hunted mammoths in Siberia
B. had never seen mammoth before
C. brought mammoths with them from the Old World
D. soon learned to use dogs to hunt mammoths
Question 41: Which of the following could be best substitute for the word “remains” in
paragraph 2?
A. bones B. drawings C. footprints D. spear points
Question 42: The passage supports which of the following conclusions about mammoth
A. Humans hunted them to extinction
B. The freezing temperatures of the Ice Age destroyed their food supply
C. The cause of their extinction is not definitely known
D. Competition with mastodons caused them to become extinct
Question 43: The word “cunning” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____
A. clever B. determined C. efficient D. cautious
Question 44: Which of the following is NOT true about prehistoric humans at the time
of the mammoths’ extinction?
A. They were relatively few in numbers
B. They know how to use bows and arrows
C. They were concentrated in a small area
D. They were skilled hunters
Question 45: Which of the following types of elephants does the author discuss in the
most detail in the passage?
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A. the mastodon B. the mammoth
C. the Indian elephant D. the African elephant
Question 46:
A. documentary B. occurrence C. competition D. individual
Question 47:
A. relationship B. arrangement C. challenging D. eliminate
from the rest in the pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 48:
A. machine B. suggestion C. shouting D. emotion
Question 49:
A. broadened B. used to C. cried D. smiled
needs correction
Question 50: It would be both noticed and appreciating if you could finish the work
before you leave
A. both B. the work C. leave D. appreciating
Question 51: A calorie is the quantity of heat required to rise on gallon of water on
degree centigrade at one atmospheric pressure
A. to rise B. A calorie C. quantity D. required
Question 52: Harry, alike his colleagues, is trying hard to finish hart work early
A. alike B. hard C. is trying D. early
Question 53: The sun supplies the light and the warmth that permit life on Earth existing
A. life B. the sun C. existing D. the warmth
Question 54: Ann finds her present job really boring. She wants to look for something
more challenge
A. look for B. finds C. challenge D. boring
INTELLIGENCE TEST
Schools exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of tests we take. They find out how
much knowledge we have (55) ____. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all,
isn’t it a (56)____ that some people who are very successful academically don’t have any
(57)____ sense? Intelligence is the speed at which we can understand and (58)____ to new
situations and it is usually tested by logic puzzles. Although scientists are now preparing
advanced computer technology that will be able to “read” our brains, (59)____ tests are still the
most popular ways of measuring intelligence. A person’s IQ is their intelligence (60)____ it is
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measured by a special test. The most common IQ tests are run by Mensa, an organization that
was founded in England in 1946. By 1976 it had 1300 members in Britain. Today there are
44000 in Britain and 100000 worldwide, (61)____ in the US. People taking the tests are judged
in relation to an average score of 100, and those score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This
(62)___ at 2% of the population. Anyone from the age of six can take the tests. All the questions
are straightforward and most people can answer them if (63)____ enough time. But that’s the
problems – the whole (64)____ of the tests is that they’re against the clock
Question 55:
A. fetched B. gained C. attached D. caught
Question 56:
A. case B. fact C. circumstance D. truth
Question 57:
A. natural B. bright C. sharp D. common
Question 58:
A. accord B. react C. answer D. alter
Question 59:
A. at this age B. for the present C. at the same time D. now and then
Question 60:
A. how B. that C. as D. so
Question 61:
A. largely B. enormously C. highly D. considerably
Question 62:
A. adds up B. turns to C. comes up D. works out
Question 63:
A. allowed B. spared C. let D. provided
Question 64:
A. reason B. point C. matter D. question

Question 1: He was sacked from his job after the manager discovered that he had stolen
some money from his colleagues
A. dismissed B. dropped C. ejected D. evicted
Question 2: Your failure is the consequence of not studying hard enough for the test
A. cause B. motive C. result D. status
Question 3: The detective was asked to probe into the mysterious disappearance of the
painting
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A. investigate B. procure C. recover D. relinquish
each of the following questions
Question 4: Anne was not ___ to think that the test was too difficult
A. who B. the one who C. the only one D. among the people
Question 5: Over 20 years ___ but I never forgot the time we first met each other
A. have gone down B. have gone up
C. has gone by D. has gone out
Question 6: “Would you like a Coke?” “_____”
A. Yes, I’d like B. Yes, please C. Yes, I do D. Yes, I like
Question 7: The surgeon tried to save the man but unluckily the ___ was not successful
A. salvation B. operation C. generation D. solution
Question 8: The teacher at this school ____ with flu one after the other
A. went down B. went off C. went out D. went under
Question 9: ___ are unpleasant, but it will be nice when we get in to the new house
A. Movements B. Removals C. Removements D. Moves
Question 10: “Would you like to meet Mrs. Bruce?” “Yes, ____”
A. I can make an appointment with her
B. I’d love to
C. I find it very interesting
D. I don’t know where she living
Question 11: Please accept this cheque as a ____ of the service
A. recognisement B. recognizing
C. recognition D. reorganization
Question 12: A: ”Do you mind if I schedule the meeting for 11 o’clock”?
B: “Well, actually, I ____ earlier”
A. will prefer it B. would prefer it to be
C. am preferring it to be D. should prefer it will be
Question 13: I have English classes ___ day --- Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays
A. each other B. this and the other C. all other D. every other
Question 14: Please cut my hair ____ the style in this magazine
A. the same long as B. the same long like
C. the same length like D. the same length as
Question 15: The child kept the present that she ___
A. has been given B. had been given C. had given D. has given
Question 16: The house is too dark. You’d better need ___ a bright color
A. to be painted B. painting it
C. to have it painted D. to have it paint
Question 17: The boss would rather Ann ____ listen to music at work
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A. doesn’t B. didn’t C. hadn’t D. mustn’t
Question 18: It’s time the authorities ___ people ____ safety helmets
A. have/ wear B. had/ wear C. had/ to wear D. have/ worn
Question 19: When I enquired about the time of trains, I was given a _____
A. schedule B. timetable C. itinerary D. programme
Question 20: My music teacher suggested ___ for an hour before breakfast
A. practising B. to practise C. having practised D. to practising
Question 21: The new manager explained to the staff that she hoped to ___ new
procedures to save time and money
A. manufacture B. establish C. control D. restore
Question 22: It’s an awful ___ your wife couldn’t come. I was looking forward to
meeting her
A. harm B. sorrow C. shame D. shock
Question 23: Nobody says a word about the incident, ___?
A. does he B. doesn’t he C. do they D. don’t they
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24-33
Not so long ago almost any students who successfully completed a university degree or
diploma course could find a good career quite easily. Companies toured the academic
institutions, competing with each other to recruit graduates. However, those days are gone, even
in Hong Kong, and nowadays graduates often face strong competition in the search for jobs.
Most careers organization highlight three stages for graduates to follow in the process of
securing a suitable career: recognizing abilities, matching these to available vacancies and
presenting them well to prospective employers
Job seekers have to make a careful assessment of their own abilities. One area of
assessment should be of their academic qualifications, which would include special skills within
their subject area. Graduates should also consider their own personal values and attitudes, or the
relative importance to themselves of such matters as money, security, leadership and caring or
others. An honest assessment of personal interests and abilities such as creative or scientific
skills acquired from work experience should also be give careful thought
The second stage is to study the opportunities available for employment and to think
about how the general employment situation is likely to develop in the future. To do this,
graduates can study job vacancies and information in newspapers or the can visit a career office,
write to possible employers for information or contact friends or relatives who may already be
involved in a particular profession. After studying all various options, they should be in a
position to make informed comparisons between various careers
Good personal presentation is essential in the search for a good career. Job application
forms and letters should, of course, be filled in carefully and correctly, without grammar or
spelling errors. Where additional information is asked for, job seekers should describe their
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abilities and work experience in more depth, with example if possible. They should try to
balance their own abilities with the employer’s needs, explain why they are interested in a career
with the particular company and try to show that they already know something about the
company and its activities
When graduates are asked to attend for the interview, they should prepare properly by
finding out all they can about the prospective employer. Dressing suitably and arriving for the
interview on time are also obviously important. Interviewees should try to give positive and
helpful answers and should not be afraid to ask questions about anything they are unsure about.
This is much better than pretending to understand a question and giving an unsuitable answer
There will always be good career opportunities for people with ability, skills, and
determination; the secret to securing a good job is to be one of them
Question 24: In paragraph 1, “those days are gone, even in Hong Kong”. Suggests that
____
A. in the past, finding a good career was easier in Hong Kong than elsewhere
B. nowadays, everyone in Hong Kong has an equal chance of finding a good job
C. it used to be harder to find a good job in Hong Kong than in other countries
D. even in Hong Kong companies tour the universities trying to recruit graduates
Question 25: The word “prospective” in paragraph 2 is closed in meaning to ____
A. generous B. reasonable C. future D. ambitious
Question 26: According to paragraph 3, job seekers should:
A. aim to give a balanced account of what the employer needs
B. divide the time equally between listening to the interviewer and speaking
C. discuss their own abilities in relation to what the employer is looking for
D. attempt to show the employer is looking for
Question 27: According to paragraph 3, graduates should ____
A. only consider careers which are suited to them as people
B. include information about personal attitudes and values in their job application
C. consider how lucky they are to be able to find careers that provide such things
D. consider the values of their parents and families as well their own wishes
Question 28: The advice given in the first sentences of paragraph 4 is to___
A. find out what jobs are available and the opportunities for future promotion
B. examine the careers available and how these will be affected in the future
C. look at the information on, and probably future location of, various careers
D. study the opportunities and the kinds of training that will be available
A. find a good position and then compare it with other careers
B. ask friends or relatives to secure them a good job
C. get information about a number of careers before making comparisons
D. find out as much as possible and inform employers of the complaints they want
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Question 30: Which of the following does “this” in paragraph 6 refers to?
A. Not being afraid to be unsure
B. Giving positive and helpful answers to the questions
C. Being prepared to ask questions about things they don’t understand
D. Being unsure about the questions
Question 31: In paragraph 6, the writer seems to suggest that ____
A. interviewees should ask question if they can’t think of an answer
B. pretending to understand a question is better than giving a suitable answer
C. it is better for interviewees to be honest than to pretend to understand
D. it is not a good idea for interviewees to be completely honest in their answers
Question 32: Which of the following sentences is closest in meaning to the final
paragraph?
A. Graduates should develop at least one of these areas to find a suitable career
B. Determined, skilled and able people can easily find a good career
C. The secret to a good career is to possess skills, determination or ability
D. People with the right qualities should always be able to find a good career
A. Until recently it was quite ways for graduates to get a good job in Hong Kong
B. Job seekers should consider as many possible of the factors involved
C. Businesses used to visit the universities in Hong Kong to recruit graduates
D. Graduates sometimes have to take part in competitions to secure a good career
Social parasitism involves one species relying on another to raise its young. Among
vertebrates, the best known social parasites are such birds as cuckoos and cowbirds; the female
lays egg in a nest belonging to another species and leaves it for the host to rear
The dulotic species of ants, however, are the supreme social parasites. Consider, for
example, the unusual behavior of ants belonging to the genus Polyergus. All species of this ant
have lost the ability to care for themselves. The workers do not forage for food, feed their brood
or queen, or even clean their own nest. To compensate for these deficits, Polyergus has become
specialized at obtaining workers from the related genus Formica to do these chores
In a raid, several thousand Polyergus workers will travel up to 500 feet in search of a
Formica nest, penetrate it, drive off the queen and her workers, capture the pupal brood, and
transport it back to their nest. The captured brood is then reared by the resident Formica workers
until the developing pupae emerge to add to the Formica population, which maintains the
mixed-species nest. The Formica workers forage for food and give it to colony members of both
species. They also remove wastes and excavate new chambers as the population increases
The true extent of the Polyergus and dependence on the Formica becomes apparent when
the worker population grows too large for existing nest. Formica scouts locate a new nesting
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site, return to the mixed-species colony, and recruit additional Formica nest mates. During a
period that may last seven days, the Formica workers carry to the new nest all the Polyergus
eggs, larvae, and pupae, every Polyergus adult, and even the Polyergus queen
Of the approximately 8000 species of ants in the world, all 5 species of Polyergus and
some 200 species in other genera have evolved some degree of parasitic relationship with other
ants
Question 34: Which of the following statements best represents the main idea of the
passage?
A. Ants belonging to the genus Formica are incapable of performing certain tasks
B. The genus Polyergus is quite similar to the genus Formica
C. Ants belonging to the genus Polyergus have an unusual relationship with ants
belonging to the genus Formica
D. Polyergus ants frequently leave their nests to build new colonies
Question 35: The word “raise” is closest in meaning to _____
A. rear B. lift C. collect D. increase
Question 36: The author mentions cuckoos and cowbirds because they _____
A. share their nests with each other B. are closely related species
C. raise the young of their birds D. are social parasites
Question 37: The word “it” refers to ______
A. species B. nest C. egg D. female
Question 38: What does the author mean by stating that “The dulotic species of ants,
however, are the supreme social parasites”
A. The Polyergus are more highly developed than the Formica
B. The Formica have developed specialized roles
C. The Polyergus are heavily dependent on the Formica
D. The Formica do not reproduce rapidly enough to care for themselves
Question 39: Which of the following is a task that an ant of the genus Polyergus might
do?
A. Look for food B. Raid another nest
C. Care for the young D. Clean its own nest
Question 40: The word “excavate” is closest in meaning to _____
A. find B. clean C. repair D. dig
Question 41: The word “recruit” is closest in meaning to _____
A. create B. enlist C. endure D. capture
Question 42: What happened when a mixed colony of Polyergus and Formica ants
becomes too large?
A. The Polyergus workers enlarge the existing nest
B. The captured Formica workers return to their original test
C. The Polyergus and the Formica build separate nests
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D. The Polyergus and the Formica move to a new nest
Question 43: According to the information in the passage, all of the following terms refer
to ants beginning to the genus Formica EXCEPT ______
A. dulotic B. captured brood
C. developing pupae D. worker population
Question 44:
A. deception B. recipient C. receding D. recipe
Question 45:
A. arrival B. technical C. proposal D. approval
Question 46:
A. failure B. pleasure C. leisure D. measure
Question 47:
A. increase B. meant C. flea D. lease
need correction
Question 48: Psychological experiment indicate that people remember more math
problems that they can’t solve than those they are able to solve
A. those B. solve C. to solve D. experiment
Question 49: Salmon lay their eggs, and die in freshwater although they live in salt water
when most of their adults lives
A. although B. lay C. adult lives D. when
Question 50: Neither the mathematics department nor the biology department at State
University requires that the students must write a thesis in order to graduate with a master’s
degree
A. requires B. must write C. to graduate D. master’s degree
Question 51: In order to survive, trees rely to the amount of annual rainfall they receive
as well as the seasonal distribution of the rain
A. of B. rely to C. as well D. seasonal
Question 52: The oldest and most widespread celebrations are that connected with he
harvesting of the first fruit
A. that B. most widespread C. first fruit D. harvesting
indicate the correct word (s) for each of the blanks from 53-62
One of the most beautiful parts of Britain is the Lake District. The Lake District is
situated in the north-west of England and consists of high hills, mountains and, of course, lakes.
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(53)_____ there are 16 lakes, of (54)_____ the largest is Lake Windermere. Over the years many
writers have been (55)_____ with this region but there can be no (56)_____ that the most famous
of all was William Wordsworth (1770-1850), who was born and lived almost the whole of his
life there. He had (57)______ connections with the village of Grasmere, where he lived for
(58)_____ thirteen years. He loved this particular part of England and many of his poems of the
joy he felt when surrounded by beautiful countryside
Every year more than 14 million people from Britain and abroad visit the Lake District to
enjoy the fresh air and the (59)____. Some go to walk in the mountains (60)_____ others sail
boats on the lakes or simply sit admiring the (61)_____ views. Unfortunately, the region is
becoming a victim of its own success in attracting visitors. (62)____ come to the Lake District
that they threaten to destroy the peace and quite which many are searching for there
Question 53:
A. Of all B. In all C. At all D. With all
Question 54:
A. all B. them C. which D. those
Question 55:
A. associated B. connected C. bound D. linked
Question 56:
A. thought B. evidence C. supposition D. doubt
Question 57:
A. tight B. firm C. steady D. close
Question 58:
A. so B. more C. some D. such
Question 59:
A. scene B. scenery C. sight D. sighting
Question 60:
A. but B. and C. when D. while
Question 61:
A. principal B. magnificent C. effective D. significant
Question 62:
A. Such many people B. So few people C. So many people D. Such people
Question 63: The piece of work is urgent and must be done without delay
A. gradually B. immediately C. efficiency D. previously
Question 64: These machines are older models and have to be operated by hand
A. mechanically B. manually
C. automatically D. spiritually
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2021 - ĐỀ SỐ 61
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Question 1: The soil must be kept damp at all times or the plant will die
A. bright B. arid C. sober D. moist
Question 2: It is obvious that Shawn is in love with her
A. cynical B. doubtful C. evident D. obscure
Question 3: It doesn’t matter ____ Sue tried , she still can’t pass the driving test
A. how far B. how hard C. _____ D. how good
Question 4: It’s sometimes tiring to live ___ the expectations of your loved ones
A. up to B. far away C. according to D. above
Question 5: They had hardly arrived at the airport ____ Glenda realized that she left her
passport at home
A. soon B. but C. when D. then
Question 6: George won 5 gold medals at the competition. His parents ____ very proud
of him
A. can’t be B. can’t have
C. must have been D. could have been
Question 7: Being too tired after a long hard working day, the secretarial staff ____ to
work after hours
A. refused B. admitted C. agreed D. denied
Question 8: ____ of patience, no one can beat Allison
A. Regardless B. In terms C. In spite D. In front
Question 9: “It’s high time the children ____ to bed”
A. should go B. go C. went D. would rather go
Question 10: Bob has left home and is independent ___ his parents
A. on B. of C. with D. in
Question 11: The last man _____ the office is always Mr. Smith
A. left B. to be leaving C. to leave D. leaves
Question 12: If you don’t know when that important football match takes place, look it
___ in the World Cup timetable
A. into B. out C. up D. after
Question 13: “Can you ____ me a favor, Bill?” Peter said
A. put B. do C. make D. get
Question 14: “Didn’t you go to the cinema last night?” “____”
A. Yes, I lost the ticket B. No. It was too cold to go out
C. Ok. That was a good idea D. Yes, I stayed at home
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Question 15: He managed to keep his job ____ the manager had threatened to sack him
A. despite B. although C. therefore D. unless
Question 16: You should make a(n) ____ to overcome this problem
A. impression B. effort C. trial D. apology
Question 17: All of us won’t go camping ____ the weather stays fine
A. unless B. so C. but D. however
Question 18: Don’t touch that wire or you ill get an electric _____
A. fire B. shock C. current D. charge
Question 19: That pipe ____ for ages-we must get it mended
A. has been leaking B. is leaking
C. leaks D. had been leaking
th
Question 20: “Today is my 18 birthday” “______”
A. Many happy returns! B. I don’t understand
C. Take care D. Have a good time
Question 21: Julie bought herself a complete new ____ for winter
A. wear B. cloth C. clothing D. outfit
Question 22: I was so tired that I ____ had to take a nap
A. quite B. utterly C. simply D. by no means
Question 23: Don’t you think it was rather ____ of you not to let us know that you
weren’t coming?
A. mean B. unkind C. unsympathetic D. thoughtless
Question 24: “You have a good voice” “_____”
A. I appreciate it B. You’ve done a good job
C. Well done D. Yes, of course
Question 25: His business tactics outraged the ___ of the UK establishment
A. stiffs B. hardness C. solidity D. stability
Question 26: Many wheat farmers have begun to ____ into other forms of agriculture
A. vary B. diverge C. diversify D. move away
Question 27: Alcohol abuse is a problem that can lead to ill health, loss of employment
and ____
A. breaking up one’s family B. one’s family can break up
C. the family is broken up D. the break-up of one’s family
According to airline industry statistics, almost 90% of airline accidents are survivable or
partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and
following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen to safety instructions before
take-off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on
your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how the release mechanism
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of your belt operates. During take-offs and landings, you are advised to keep your feed flat on
the floor. Before take-off you should locate the nearest exit and an alternative exit and count the
rows of seats between you and the exits so that you can find them in the dark if necessary
In the event that you are forewarned of a possible accident, you should put your hands on
your ankles and keep your head down until the plane comes to a complete stop. If smoke is
present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkin, towels or
clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as
quickly as possible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings with you. Do
not jump on escape slides before they’re fully inflated, and when you jump, do so with your
arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away
from the plane as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage
A. Airline industry accident statistics
B. Procedures for evacuating aircraft
C. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival
D. Safety instruction in air travel
Question 29: Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions
_____
A. in an emergency B. before locating the exits
C. if smoke is in the cabin D. before take-off
Question 30: According to the passage, when should you keep your feet flat on the floor?
A. throughout the flight B. during take-offs and landings
C. especially during landings D. only if an accident is possible
Question 31: According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate
before take-off”
A. The ones that can be found in the dark
B. The two closest to the passenger’s seat
C. The nearest one
D. The ones with counted rows of seats between them
Question 32: The word “them” in the last line of the first paragraph refers to ___
A. rows B. feet C. seats D. exits
Question 33: It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely to survive
fires in aircraft if they ____
A. keep their heads low
B. war a safety belt
C. don’t smoke in or near a plane
D. read airline safety statistics
Question 34: Airline passengers are advised to do all of the following EXCEPT ____
A. locate the nearest exits
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B. ask questions about safety
C. fasten their seat belts before take-off
D. carry personal belongings in an emergency
Question 35: The word “evacuate” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
____
A. evade B. vacate C. escape D. maintain
Question 36: The word “inflated” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ___
A. lifted B. expanded C. increased D. assembled
Question 37: Where does the author mention what to do if you don’t understand the
instructions?
A. Experts say ………… uncertainties
B. According to airline industry ………… on the floor
C. In the event that ………….. a complete stop
D. To evacuate ………….. with you
Franklin D. Roosevelt, the 32nd President of the United States, was from a wealthy well-
known family. As a child, he attended private school, had private tutors, and traveled with his
parents to Europe. He attended Harvard University, and afterward studied law. At age 39,
Roosevelt suddenly developed polio, a disease that left him without the full use of his legs for the
rest of his life. Even though the worst of his illness, however, he continued his life in politics. In
1942 he appeared at the Democratic National Convention to nominate Al Smith for president,
and eight years after that he himself was nominated for the same office. Roosevelt was elected to
the presidency during the Great Depression of the 1930s, at a time when more than 5,000 banks
had failed and thousands of people were out of work. Roosevelt took action. First he declared a
bank holiday that closed all the banks so no more could fail; then he reopened the banks little by
little with government support. Roosevelt believed in using the full power of government to help
what he called the “forgotten people”. And it was these workers, the wage earners, who felt the
strongest affection toward Roosevelt. There were others, however, who felt that Roosevelt’s
policies were destroying the American system of government, and they opposed him in the same
intense way that others admired him
In 1940 the Democrats nominated Roosevelt for an unprecedented third term. No
president in American history had ever served three terms, but Roosevelt felt an obligation not to
quit while the United States’ entry into World War II was looming in the future. He accepted the
nomination and went on to an easy victory
A. political aspects of Roosevelt’s life
B. problems during the Great Depression
C. Roosevelt’s upbringing
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D. criticisms of Roosevelt’s action
Question 39: Which on of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Roosevelt was elected during the Great Depression
B. Roosevelt voted for Al Smith
C. Roosevelt had difficulty walking during his presidency
D. Roosevelt supported strong government powers
Question 40: The phrase “took action” in the first paragraph is used to illustrate the idea
that Roosevelt _______
A. performed admirably B. exerted himself physically
C. responded immediately D. got assistance
Question 41: As used in the passage, the phrase “little by little” means that Roosevelt
____
A. opened the smaller banks first
B. opened the banks for minimal services
C. opened the banks a few at a time
D. opened the bank for a short time
Question 42: The word “full” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of
the following?
A. packed B. loaded C. overflowing D. complete
Question 43: Where in the passage does the author discuss Roosevelt’s response to the
Great Depression?
A. Franklin D. Roosevelt … for the rest of his life
B. Even though the worst ….. for the same office
C. Roosevelt was elected ……. The “forgotten people”
D. And it was these ……. Others admired him
Question 44: The word “affection” could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. fascination B. fondness C. lure D. appeal
Question 45: The word “unprecedented” in the second paragraph could be best
replaced by which of the following?
A. unimportant B. unheard of C. unjustified D. unhampered
Question 46: It can be inferred from the passage that the people who liked Roosevelt
best were ________
A. poor people B. bankers C. rich people D. average workers
Question 47: In the second paragraph, the author uses the word “looming” to indicate a
feeling of _____
A. reservation B. determination C. regret D. threat
Question 48:
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A. important B. informal C. intention D. impolite
Question 49:
A. demand B. desert C. decide D. defend
Mark the letter A, B, C, D to show the underlined part that needs correction
Question 50: The student realized with disappointment that he had learned new nothing
in the lecture
A. with B. that C. new nothing D. in
Question 51: Mrs. Steven, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to
attend the festivities
A. with B. her cousins from C. are D. to attend
Question 52: The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power, and it is very cruel
A. The B. long C. a D. it is very cruel
Question 53: Although business practices have been applied successfully to agriculture,
farming is different other industries
A. applied B. successfully C. farming D. different
Question 54: The function of pain is to warn the individual of danger so he can take
action to avoid more serious damage
A. to warn B. so C. he D. serious
All men should study, we have to study to (55) _____ our knowledge and develop our
intelligence. An uneducated man can only utilize his (56)____ strength to work and live. An
educated man, (57)____ this strength, still has the faculty of his intelligent brain and good
inflection. This intelligence and thought enable him to help his physical strength to act more
quickly (58)_____ cleverly
In a same profession or work, the educated man differs (59)_____ the uneducated
considerably. Therefore, intellectual workers have to study, this is a matter of course but
(60)____ workers must also (61)_____ an education
In civilized countries compulsory education has been applied. (62)_____ must spend
seven or eight years studying. From ploughmen to laborers in these (63)_____, no one is
(64)____ to read a book or a paper fluently
Question 55:
A. wide B. widely C. widen D. broad
Question 56:
A. body B. bodily C. power D. brain
Question 57:
A. with B. without C. no D. none
Question 58:
A. and B. but C. yet D. or
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Question 59:
A. than B. with C. from D. apart
Question 60:
A. simple B. easy C. hard D. manual
Question 61:
A. learn B. study C. acquire D. know
Question 62:
A. Man B. One C. Human D. Mankind
Question 63:
A. parts B. regions C. fields D. nations
Question 64:
A. able B. unable C. not D. never
Question 1: Although the prank was meant in fun, the man became very angry
A. remark B. praise C. trick D. game
Question 2: It was impossible to know how precarious the situation was
A. hazardous B. ludicrous C. facetious D. marvelous
Question 3: I used my calculator; otherwise it _____ longer
A. will take B. would take C. took D. would have taken
Question 4: The capacity for growth is inherent ____ all people
A. from B. in C. at D. on
Question 5: Not only ____ in the field of psychology but animal behavior is examined as
well
A. is studied human behavior B. human behavior
C. is human behavior studied D. human behavior studied
Question 6: I had to look up the number in the telephone ____
A. directors B. directly C. direction D. directory
Question 7: There are a few things I didn’t like about Professor Chung’s math class, but
____ I enjoyed it
A. large and by B. by and large C. big and large D. far and large
Question 8: These days almost everybody _____ the dangers of smoking
A. is aware about B. know of C. is aware of D. are aware of
Question 9: A: “____?” – B: “Yes. I want to send some flowers to my wife in Italy”
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A. Can you help me B. Do you like flowers
C. Can I help you D. What do you like
Question 10: Only if I had known the difference ____ the more expensive car
A. would I bought B. would I have bought
C. would I buy D. I would have bought
Question 11: How many musical notes of the 11,000 tones that the human ear can
distinguish ____ in the musical scale?
A. is it B. it is C. are there D. there are
Question 12: You ____ to our conversation. It was private
A. haven’t been listening
B. shouldn’t have been listening
C. couldn’t have been listening
D. hadn’t been listening
Question 13: The bank is on ____ side of the street
A. another B. other C. the other D. the next
Question 14: The smaller the room is, ____ furniture it needs
A. less B. little C. the less D. the fewer
Question 15: What he says makes no _______ to me
A. reason B. truth C. sense D. matter
Question 16: In the 1960s ____ was concerned about pollution
A. hardly everyone B. hardly anyone
C. rarely anyone D. rarely everyone
Question 17: I hope I haven’t go ____ luggage
A. so many B. so much C. too much D. too many
Question 18: ____ ghost exists in the world. That’s your illusion
A. No such a thing B. No such a thing as a
C. No such thing as a D. No such thing as
Question 19: Clothing made of plastic fibers has certain advantage over made of natural
A. one B. the one C. that D. what
Question 20: I am _____ of the two children in our family
A. the tallest B. the taller C. tall D. taller
Question 21: He impressed ____ his mind the words his father said to him that day
A. in B. on C. at D. of
Question 22: “I think golf really great” “______”
A. Do you? I think it’s boring B. Neither do I
C. Almost everyday D. Don’t you believe so
Question 23: “_______” “Oh, but it’s boring”
A. Would you prefer news to films?
B. I often watch the news at night
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C. Don’t you like the news
D. I think you should watch the news
Question 24: Bit by bit, a child makes the necessary changes to make his language _____
A. as other people B. as other people’s
C. like other people D. like other people’s
Question 25: GDP is the abbreviation for “_______”
A. Growth Domestic Products
B. Global Domestic Products
C. General Domestic Productivity
D. Gross Domestic Product
According to some accounts, the first optical telescope was accidentally invented in the
1600s by children who put two glass lenses together while playing with them in a Dutch optical
shop. The owner of the shop, Hans Lippershey, looked through the lenses and was amazed by the
way they made the nearby church look so much larger. Soon after that, he invented a device that
he called a “looker”, a long thin tube where light passed in a straight line from the front lens to
the viewing lens at the other end of the tube. In 1608 he tried to sell his invention unsuccessfully.
In the same year, someone described the “looker” to the Italian scientists Galileo, who made his
own version of the device. In 1610 Galileo used his version to make observations of the Moon,
the planet Jupiter, and the Milky Way. In April of 1611, Galileo showed his device to guests at a
banquet in his honor. One of guests suggested a name for the device: telescope
When Isaac Newton began using Galileo’s telescope more than a century later, he noticed
a problem. The type of telescope that Galileo designed is called a refractor because the front lens
bends, or refracts, the light. However, the curved front lens also caused the light to the separated
into colors. This meant that when Newton looked through the refracting telescope, the images of
bright objects appeared with a ring of colors around them. This sometimes interfered with
viewing. He solved this problem by designing a new type of telescope that used a curved mirror.
This mirror concentrated the light and reflected a beam of light to the eyepiece at the other end of
the telescope. Because Newton used a mirror, his telescope was called a reflector
Very much larger optical telescopes can now be found in many parts of the world, built
on hills and mountains far from city lights. The world’s largest refracting telescope is located at
the Yerkes Observatory in Williams Bay, Wisconsin. Another telescope stands on Mount
Palomar in California. This huge reflecting telescope was for many years the largest reflecting
telescope in the world until an even larger reflecting telescope was built in the Caucasus
Mountains. A fourth famous reflector telescope, the Keck Telescope situated on a mountain in
Hawaii, does not use a single large mirror to collect the light. Instead, the Keck uses the
combined light that falls on thirty-six mirrors
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Radio telescopes, like optical telescopes allow astronomers to collect data from outer
space, but they are different in important ways. First of all, they look very different because
instead of light waves, they collect radio waves. Thus, in the place of lenses or mirror, radio
telescopes employ bowl-shaped disks that resemble huge TV satellite dished. Also, apart from
their distinctive appearance, radio telescope and optical telescopes use different methods to
record the information they collect. Optical telescopes use cameras to take photographs of visible
objects, while radio telescopes use radio receivers to record radio waves from distant object in
space
Question 26: What can be inferred about the first optical telescope?
A. It was bought by children B. It was invented in America
C. It was sold by a shop owner D. It was invented by accident
Question 27: Which of the following is NOT true about Hans Lippershey?
A. He owned a shop
B. He was a Dutch
C. He sold his invention in 1608
D. He got his idea of a telescope from the kids in his shop
Question 28: When was Galileo’s invention called “telescope”?
A. in 1611 B. in 1610 C. in 1608 D. in 1600
Question 29: What did Newton notice about Galileo’s telescope when he used it?
Question 30: What did Newton do with Galileo’s telescope?
A. He called it reflector B. He sent it back to Galileo
C. He improved it D. He stopped using it after his notice
Question 31: When did Newton start to use Galileo’s telescope?
Question 32: Where does the largest reflecting telescope stand?
Question 33: Which of the following can both optical and radio telescope do?
A. Taking photographs of visible objects
B. Allowing a collection of data from outer space
C. Collecting radio waves
D. Collecting light waves
Question 34: Which of the following True about optical and radio telescope?
A. They use similar ways to collect data
B. They contain at least a mirror
C. They look different
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D. They have similar appearance
Question 35: How many types of telescope are mentioned in the passage?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
The miracle therapy of blood transfusion was invented by and English doctor, James
Blundell. In 1818, he performed the first transfusion, on a patient said to be incurable. Using a
syringe, he successfully injected blood taken from one of his students. In 1829, he saved a
woman suffering from a severe hemorrhage. About 1900 Dr. Karl Landsteiner of Vienna found
that some people’s blood was not compatible with others’ and that these blood variations could
be classified into groups. When portable transfusion apparatus was invented, direct transfusion
between persons of the same blood type could be performed on the battlefield. In 1914 the
discovery of anticoagulants made possible the storage of the blood future use
But to save lives, the right blood had to be in the right place at the right time. The first
blood service was established by the British Red Cross in 1921. During the War World II, Red
Cross blood banks saved countless lives. Now the Red Cross engages in transfusion work in
sixty-eight countries. It recruits donors, collects, stores, and distributes blood, determines blood
groups and prepares blood derivatives
Question 36: In his first blood transfusion the donor was _____
A. Dr. James Blundell B. a laboratory animal
C. a student D. a Red Cross volunteer
Question 37: The substance used in this transfusion was _____
A. an anticoagulant B. whole blood
C. blood serum D. blood plasma
Question 38: Blood could not be stored for emergency use until _____
A. 1818 B. 1914 C. 1921 D. 1900
Question 39: The word “compatible” as used in the first paragraph is closest in meaning
to ______
A. comparable B. possible
C. well-matched D. well-prepared
Question 40: Portable transfusion apparatus was invented by _____
A. Dr. James Blundell B. Dr. Karl Landsteiner
C. the Red Cross D. a person not identified in the article
Question 41: The invention made it possible to ______
A. give any type of blood to any person
B. save lives right on the battlefield
C. prepare blood derivations
D. store blood for emergencies
Question 42: Blood must be classified into groups because ______
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A. some types will not mix
B. some people have blue blood
C. disease attacks certain groups
D. the donor’s age makes a difference
Question 43: The first Red Cross blood bank was established in _____
A. 1829 B. 1900 C. 1914 D. 1921
Question 44: The Red Cross’s role in transfusion service is _____
A. storage and distribution B. laboratory testing
C. recruiting of volunteers D. all of the above
Question 45: The word “it” in the last sentence refers to _____
A. The Red Cross B. The British Red Cross
C. a blood bank D. blood service
Question 46:
A. superman B. synthetic C. conversion D. professor
Question 47:
A. forests B. singing C. concerning D. burning
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined word
that differs from the rest in the pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 48:
A. goalie B. archive C. signal D. advertisement
Question 49:
A. trustworthy B. theory C. theses D. width
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that
needs correction
Question 50: Is it important that the secretary finishes the typing today
A. Is it B. that C. finishes D. typing
Question 51: Most country music songs are deeply personal and deal with themes of
love, lonely, and separation
A. country music B. deeply personal C. deal with D. lonely
Question 52: All almost the electricity for industrial use comes from large generators
driven by steam turbines
A. All almost B. industrial use C. from D. driven by
Question 53: If a glass lizard loses its tails, a new one grows to replace it
A. If B. tails C. new one D. to replace it
Question 54: Viet Nam Airlines regrets informing passengers that flight VN 251 to
Hanoi is postponed due to bad weather
A. informing B. to C. postponed D. due to
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indicate the correct word (s) for each of the blanks from 55 – 64
We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use (55)_____ in our cars and to heat our
building in winter
Farmers use petrochemicals to (56)_____ the soil rich. They use them to kill insects
(57)_____ plants. These chemicals go (58)_____ rivers and lakes and kill the fish there.
Thousands of pollutants also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this (59)_____ air to other
countries and other continents.
Poor farmers use the same land over and (60)____. The land needs a rest so it will be
better next year. However the farmers must have food this year. Poor people cut down forests
(61)_______ firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land (62) ______ desert. Poor
people can’t save the environment for the (63)_____
This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. It is a problem for all
humans. The people and the nations of the world must work together to (64)_____ the world’s
resources
Question 55:
A. it B. them C. that D. those
Question 56:
A. enrich B. change C. make D. let
Question 57:
A. eat B. eaten C. eating D. ate
Question 58:
A. to B. toward C. at D. into
Question 59:
A. pollute B. polluting C. polluted D. pollution
Question 60:
A. over B. again C. repeated D. repeating
Question 61:
A. of B. for C. with D. at
Question 62:
A. gets B. changes C. turns D. comes
Question 63:
A. future B. time C. times D. period
Question 64:
A. recycle B. preserve C. keep D. use
(Thời gian làm bài: 90’)
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Question 1: The predominant art forms created by Africans inhabiting areas south of
the Sahara are masks and figures
A. phenomenal B. sporadic C. principal D. exquisite
Question 2: Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and
animals
A. irrefutable B. imminent C. formidable D. absolute
Question 3: Can you tell me where ___ all morning?
A. you have been B. you were C. have you been D. were you
Question 4: We regret to tell you that materials you order are out of _____
A. work B. stock C. reach D. practice
Question 5: They intended to ____ with the old computers as soon as they could afford
some new ones
A. do away B. do up C. do over D. do down
Question 6: Sales ___ are paid a salary but they may also get commissions on sales
A. representations B. presenters
C. presentations D. representatives
Question 7: A report by the police four months ago indicated that alcohol was a
connection between young people ___ in offence of violence
A. involved B. to be involved C. involving D. involve
Question 8: I have bad toothache today. I ____ to the dentist yesterday when it started
hurting
A. should go B. should be
C. should have gone D. should have been
Question 9: I want to ____ this old car for a Ferrari but I don’t have enough money now
A. change B. exchange C. sell D. replace
Question 10: Those students do not like to read novels ____ text books
A. in any case B. leaving out of the question
C. forgetting about D. much less
Question 11: It’s hard to _____ on less than a million a month
A. make ends meet B. make a fuss
C. make up your mind D. make a mess
Question 12: I’m sure the answer to my letter ____ before next Friday evening
A. will arrive B. will have arrived C. arrives D. is arriving
Question 13: It’s English phrasal verbs ___ puzzle learners most
A. which B. that C. who D. O
Question 14: “It’s kind of you to help me tidy the room” “____”
A. Really B. You’re welcome
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C. That’s alright D. It doesn’t matter
Question 15: ____ the double, she took the victim to the hospital
A. To B. For C. On D. With
Question 16: “Which of the two boys is a boy Scout?” “___ of them is”
A. All B. None C. Neither D. Either
Question 17: Thanks to modern irrigation, crops now grow abundantly in areas where
once ___ cacti and sagebrush could live
A. nor B. not the C. none other D. nothing but
Question 18: That flowers are ___ everywhere is a sign of spring
A. coming out B. breaking out C. taking over D. going over
Question 19: Art critics do not agrees on what ___ a painting great
A. qualities to make B. qualities make
C. are qualities to make D. do qualities make
Question 20: The house still remains in ___ after the hurricane
A. a good condition B. good condition
C. good conditions D. the good condition
Question 21: He read it quickly so as to get the ____ of it before settling down to a
thorough study
A. detail B. run C. core D. gist
Question 22: This is ___ the most challenging task I have ever done
A. by far B. by all means C. by the way D. by rights
Question 23: Peter was born and brought up in Cornwall and he knows the place like the
____
A. nose on his face B. back of his hand
C. hairs on his head D. tip of his tongue
Question 24: His aunt bought him some books on astronomy and football, ____ he had
interest in
A. neither of whom B. neither of which
C. neither of what D. neither of them
Question 25: Mercury differs from other industrial metals ____ it is a liquid
A. whereas B. in that C. because of D. consequently
A. Appreciate it B. Well-done
C. Yes, of course D. You’ve done a good job
Question 27: Many difficulties have ___ as a result of the changeover to a new type of
fuel
A. raised B. been raised C. risen D. arisen
indicate the correct answer from question 28-37
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Dissociative identity disorder is a psychological condition in which a person’s identity
dissociates, or fragments, thereby creating distinct independent identities within one individual.
Each separate personality can be distinct from the other personalities in a number of ways,
including posture, manner of moving, tone and pitch of voice, gestures, facial expressions, and
use of language. A person suffering from dissociative identity disorder may have a large number
of independent personalities or perhaps only two or three
Two stories of actual women suffering from dissociative identity disorder have been
extensively recounted in books and films that are familiar to the public. One of them is the story
of a woman with 22 separate personalities known as Eve. In the 1950s, a book by Corbert
Thigpen and a motion picture starring Joanne Woodward, each of which was titled The three
faces of Eve, presented her story; the title referred to 3 faces, when the woman known as Eve
actually experienced 22 different personalities, because only 3 of the personalities could exists at
one time. Two decades later, Carolyn Sizemore, Eve’s 22nd personality, wrote about her
experiences in a book entitled I’m Eve. The second well-known story of a woman suffering from
dissociative identity disorder is the story of Sybil, a woman whose 16 distinct personalities
emerged over a period of 40 years. A book describing Sybil’s experience was written by Flora
Rheta Schreiber and was published in 1973; a motion picture based on the book and starring
Sally Field followed
Question 28: It is NOT stated in paragraph 1 that someone suffering from dissociative
identity disorder has ____
A. a psychological condition
B. a fragmented identity
C. a number of independent identities
D. some violent and some nonviolent identities
Question 29: It is indicated in paragraph 1 that distinct personalities can differ in all of
the following ways EXCEPT ___
A. manner of dressing B. manner of moving
C. manner of speaking D. manner of gesturing
Question 30: The word “recounted” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____
A. told about B. counted again
C. explained clearly D. illustrated
Question 31: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to ____
A. the two women suffering from dissociative identity disorder
B. the two stories of actual women suffering from dissociative identity disorder
C. the book and film about the women
D. the personalities that the two women have
Question 32: It is indicated in paragraph 2 that it is NOT true that Eve
A. suffered from dissociative identity disorder
B. starred in the movie about her life
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C. had 22 distinct personalities
D. had only 3 distinct personalities at any one time
Question 33: It is NOT stated in paragraph 2 that the Three Faces of Eve
A. was based on the life of a real woman
B. was the title of a book
C. was the title of a movie
D. was made into a movie in 1950
Question 34: All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about Carolyn Sizemore
EXCEPT that she _____
A. wrote I’m Eve
B. was one of Eve’s personalities
C. wrote a book in the 1970s
D. was familiar with all 22 personalities
Question 35: According to paragraph 2, it is NOT true that Sybil
A. was a real person
B. suffered from dissociative identity disorder
C. developed all her personalities over 16 years
D. developed 16 distinctive personalities over a long period of time
Question 36: It is NOT indicated in paragraph 2 that the book describing Sybil’s
experiences
A. took 40 years to write
B. was written by Flora Rheta Schreiber
C. appeared in the 1970s
D. was made into a movie
Question 37: Which of the following is true about Eve and Sybil?
A. One of them wrote a book about their own experiences during one of their many
personalities
B. I’m Eve is a book written about Sybil’s story
C. All the books about Eve’s and Sybil’s stories were made into films
D. They were the only two women who suffered from dissociative identity disorder
Europe, recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practising it, and discovering new
time. The motto of recycling movement is “reduce, reuse and recycle”
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stories, a shopper has to buy products in blister
packs, boxes and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in
lots of packaging: usually paper, a box, and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People
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reduce waste is to buy high – quality products. When low – quality appliances break, many
example, if a customer buys a high – quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the
manufacturer receives and important message. IN the same way, if a customer chooses a product
with less packaging, that customer sends and important message to the manufacturers. To reduce
garbage, the throwaway must stop
collect the bottles, wash them and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new
bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In
those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throwaway bottles
The third step in being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be
energy to make on aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world’s precious
resources
B. what people often understand about the term “recycle”
Question 39: Which is described as one of the most industrialized areas?
Question 40: What does the word “sensitive” in the phrase “sensitive to the
environment” mean?
Question 41: People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT _______
A. buy high-quality product B. reuse cups
C. buy simply-wrapped things D. buy fewer hamburgers
Question 42: Why is it a waste when customers buy low-quality products?
A. Because people will soon throw them away
B. Because they have to be repaired many times
C. Because customers change their ideas all the time
D. Because they produce less energy
Question 43: What does it mean “Customers can vote with their wallets”?
A. they can choose the cheapest products
B. they can cast a lot to praise a producer
C. they can ask people to choose products with less packaging
D. they can tell the producers which products are good for environment by buying them
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Question 44: The word “motto” is closest in meaning to ______
Question 45: What best describes the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again
B. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed
C. The bottles are washed, returned, filled again and collected
D. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed
Question 46: The garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic
because
C. not many bottles are made of glass or plastic
D. each returned bottles is paid
Question 47: The word “practice” is closest in meaning to _____
Mark the letter to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the
main stress
Question 48:
A. information B. decoration C. considerate D. confidential
Question 49:
A. ensure B. result C. museum D. follow
needs correction
Question 50: A paragraph is a portion of text consists of some sentences related to the
same idea
A. A paragraph B. a portion C. consists of D. related to
Question 51: The measurement unit known as a “foot” has originally based on the size of
the human foot
A. measurement B. has C. size D. foot
Question 52: She achieved world famous through her studies of child-rearing,
personality and culture
A. famous B. studies C. child-rearing D. culture
Question 53: Some plants in this garden require very little sunlight but this one needs
much more sunlight than others
A. require B. little C. one D. others
Question 54: Many animals have become extinction due to the interference of human
beings
A. have B. extinction C. due to D. human beings
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Reading is Fun
More and more people are discovering that sharing and talking about their favorite books
with others can be as rewarding as the act of reading (55)____. For people who feel that they are
too busy to sit down with a book, a book club helps them schedule time to read, others have
gained self-confidence by (56)____ in or leading a discussion. And most people enjoy the chance
to (57)_____ new friends
A successful book club should have a group that is small enough so even the quiet people
can be heard but also big enough for many different (58)____. The best arrangement is a
(59)____ of ages, sexes, and backgrounds for more reading variety and livelier discussions
The book club could (60)_____ in one subject or type of book, like mysteries, science
fiction, or biographies. Or the members could read books of all types, as long as the book is
highly recommended by someone who thinks it would be (61)____ discussing
Some book clubs meet in places like bookstores, public libraries, or restaurants, but most
have their meetings in members’ homes. The approach simply (62)______ more privacy and
time for longer meetings
To make the meeting go smoothly, a leader should be (63)_____. The leader will usually
start the discussion by asking what the author’s main idea was. Book club members should never
be afraid to offer their opinions, even if they don’t like a book. They just need to be prepared to
explain (64)_____
Question 55:
A. oneself B. itself C. themselves D. it
Question 56:
A. sitting B. talking C. participating D. taking
Question 57:
A. do B. form C. gather D. make
Question 58:
A. attitudes B. opinions C. issues D. characters
Question 59:
A. mixture B. lot C. range D. number
Question 60:
A. talk B. focus C. concentrate D. specialize
Question 61:
A. worth B. useful C. valuable D. busy
Question 62:
A. takes B. offers C. supplies D. encourage
Question 63:
A. named B. appointed C. suggested D. called
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Question 64:
A. why B. where C. what D. how

Question 1: “Thanks a lot for you help” “______”
A. Don’t mention it B. Oh, that’s too bad
C. Oh, I’m sorry to hear that D. Of course
Question 2: Up ____ when it saw its master
A. jumped the dog B. did the dog jump
C. the dog jumped D. does the dog jump
Question 3: I’m sure it’s not my fault that Peter found out what we were planning. I
don’t remember ___ anyone about it
A. to tell B. being told C. having told D. to be told
Question 4: I think the most ___ idea is to go by car
A. sensible B. sensitive C. senseless D. sensational
Question 5: He couldn’t afford to ___ his car repaired
A. pay B. make C. do D. get
Question 6: “Do you think it’s going to rain?” “_____”
A. I hope not B. I don’t hope
C. I don’t hope that D. I don’t hope so
Question 7: “Can you give me some information?” “______”
A. No, thanks B. Yes, I can
C. Certainly, sir D. I’d love to
Question 8: Nobody answered the door, ____?
A. weren’t they B. were they C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 9: I have told her that I am not going to go ahead with my plans ___ she may
think
A. whether B. despite C. however D. whatever
Question 10: It’s about time we ____ something to stop road accidents
A. do B. did C. had done D. have done
Question 11: It is widely believed that ____ human beings are descended from one
common ancestor
Question 12: The more you talk about the matter, ______
A. the situation seems worse B. the worse seems the situation
C. the worse the situation seems D. the situation seems the worse
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Question 13: John can speak two languages. One is English, ____ is French
A. Other B. The other C. Another D. Others
Question 14: The blue curtain began to ___ after they had been hanging in the sun for
two months
A. melt B. die C. dissolve D. fade
Question 15: I couldn’t tell what time it was because workmen had removed the ____ of
the clock
A. hands B. pointers C. arms D. fingers
Question 16: ____ he would have been able to pass the exam
A. If he studied more B. If he were studying to a greater degree
C. Studying more D. Had the studied more
Question 17: Marine reptiles are among the few creatures that are known to have a
possible life span greater than _____
A. man B. the man’s C. the one of man’s D. that of man
Question 18: Suppose flights ___ on that day – which other day could we go?
A. are fully booked B. will be fully booked
C. would be fully booked D. have been fully booked
Question 19: I really regret making my mistake. It was the one I ____
A. had not to make B. ought not to have
C. should have not make D. mustn’t make
Question 20: He doesn’t _____ his fellow – workers and there are often disagreements
between them
A. get on with B. take to
C. put up with D. go on with
Question 21: Nobody can fool me. I am never ____ in
A. taken B. taking C. given D. giving
Question 22: Today’s newspaper has ___ interesting article on space travel
A. quite an B. nearly C. so D. such
Question 23: The spotted owl is in danger of soon becoming ____
A. extincted B. extinction C. extinct D. extinctive
Question 24: Everyone approved of the scheme but when we asked for volunteers they
all hung ____
A. back B. on C. about D. up
Question 25: The greatest number of Native America Indians is Navajos, one sixth ____
still live in traditional one-room houses called Hogans
A. for which B. in which C. with whom D. of whom
indicate the correct answer
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Until recently, growth hormone could only be obtained from the pituitary glands of dead
people. This substance is used to treat children who did not produce enough of their own growth
hormone and who could, therefore, grow up as dwarfs. The natural product was taken off the
market after it was linked to a brain disease which attacked some of the children undergoing
treatment with it. But now, a new synthetic growth hormone has been developed which, it is
claimed, has no dangerous side effects. The new drug is called “Somatrem” and can be produced
in unlimited quantities
For children who are deficient in their own growth hormone, Somatrem is an important
medical advance. The problem is that the drug may be abused by people who are not medically
in need of benefits. For example, athletes may take the drug in the belief that it will improve their
physique and physical performance. Parents may want to obtain the drug for their children who
are only marginally under average height. For such reasons , experts are recommending that
registers be kept of Somatrem recipients. The implication of the use of Somatrem must be
thoroughly understood before widespread distribution of the drug is undertaken
Question 26: What is this passage mainly about?
A. The side effects of growth drugs
B. A medical breakthrough in growth hormone
C. The abuse of growth hormone
D. The problems of growth hormone-deficient children
Question 27: The people who couldn’t benefit from this drug are short because of ____
A. lack of a hormone B. hereditary diseases
C. sever accidents D. birth defects
Question 28: The phrase “linked to” is closest in meaning to ____
A. subjected to B. caused by
C. inhibited by D. connected to
Question 29: According to the passage natural growth hormone is not marketed now
because _______
A. it may have caused a brain disease
B. people were killed by it
C. it failed to make people grow
D. not enough pituitary glands were available
Question 30: Why does the author claim that Somatrem is an advance on natural growth
hormone?
A. I can be used by athletes
B. It is not necessary to use pituitary glands from dead people
C. It cannot be abused by people
D. It doesn’t have an adverse side effects
Question 31: The direct benefits of Somatrem will be gained by ______
A. professional athletes B. undersized children
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C. medical experts D. concerned parents
Question 32: The word “people” refers to _______
A. children deficient in growth hormone
B. experts in the medical field
C. possible drug abuses
D. dead people
Question 33: The word “it” refers to _______
A. Somatrem B. natural growth hormone
C. drug abuse D. physical performance
Question 34: One might expect that Somatrem will be _____
A. in short supply B. forgotten soon
C. in demand D. taken off the market
Question 35: The word “recipients” is closest in meaning to ____
A. abuses B. receives C. salespersons D. test subjects
Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really more sophisticated
than that of a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a variety of points of view
have all concluded that there is a great deal more stored in your minds than has been generally
supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgeon, proved that by stimulating their brains
electrically, he could elicit the total recall of specific events in his subjects’ lives. Even drams
and other minor events supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in detail
The memory trace is the term for whatever is the internal representation of the specific
information about the event stored in the memory. Assumed to have been made by structural
changes in the brain, the memory trace is not subject to direct observation but is rather a
theoretical construct that we use to speculate about how information presented at a particular
time can cause performance at a later time. Most theories include the strength of the memory
trace as a variable in the degree of learning, retention, and retrieval possible for a memory. One
theory is that the fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is the result of an almost unlimited
combination of interconnections between brain cells, stimulated by patterns of activity. Repeated
references to the same information support recall. Or, to say that another way, improved
performance is the result of strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory
Question 36: With what topic is the passage mainly concerned?
A. Wilder Penfield B. Neurosurgery
C. Human memory D. Chemical reactions
Question 37: The word “Formerly” in line 1 could best be replaced by _____
A. in the past B. from time to time
C. in general D. by chance
Question 38: Compared with a computer, human memory is _____
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A. more complex B. more limited
C. less dependable D. less durable
Question 39: The word “that” in the line 2 refers to ____
A. the computer B. the efficiency
C. the sophistication D. the memory
Question 40: According to the passage, researchers have concluded that _____
A. the mind has a much greater capacity for memory than was previously believed
B. the physical basis for memory is clear
C. different points of views are valuable
D. human memory is inefficient
Question 41: How did Penfield stimulate drams and other minor events form the past?
A. By surgery B. By electric stimulation
C. By repetition D. By chemical stimulation
Question 42: The word “elicit” in line 4 is closest in meaning to ____
A. prove B. prevent C. cause D. reject
Question 43: According to the passage, the capacity for storage in the brain _____
A. can be understood by examining the physiology
B. is stimulated by patterns of activity
C. has a limited combination of relationships
D. is not influenced by repetition
Question 44: The word “bonds” in line 13 means _______
A. promises B. agreements
C. connections D. responsibilities
Question 45: All of the following are true of a memory trace except that ______
A. it is probably made by structural changes in the brains
B. it is able to be observed
C. it is a theoretical constructs
D. it is related to the degree of recall
Question 46:
A. economy B. accompany C. presentation D. successfully
Question 47:
A. romantic B. popular C. financial D. reduction
needs correction
Question 48: Up to World War II almost all important research in physics had been
made in universities, with only university funds for support
A. almost all B. research C. made D. for support
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Question 49: It is well-known fact that camels can go for extended periods without water
A. is well-known B. that C. go D. without
Question 50: It’s important that he need to operate. His illness seems worse
A. It’s B. that C. need D. operate
Question 51: Most of the production like fruits and vegetables that you find in this
supermarket has been imported
A. production B. fruits and vegetables
C. in this supermarket D. imported
Question 52: Not only the inflation rate was rising but unemployment, always a specter
since the 1930s, was on the increase as well
A. the inflation rate was B. but
C. the 1930s D. on the increase
Education
The basic features of the British educational system are the same (53)______ they are
anywhere else in Europe: (54)_______ education is compulsory up to the middle teenage years;
the academic year begins at the end of summer; compulsory education is free of (55)_______,
but parents may spend money (56)_________ educating their children privately if they want to.
There are three (57)_______ stages, with children moving from the first stage (primary) to the
second stage (secondary) (58)_______ around the age of eleven or twelve. The third (tertiary)
stage is “further” education at university or college. However, there is quite a lot which
(59)______ education in Britain from the way it works in other countries
The British government attached (60)_____ importance to education until the end of the
nineteenth century. It was one of the last governments in Europe to organize education for
everybody. Britain was leading the world (61)_______ industry and commerce, so, it was felt,
education must somehow be taking care of itself. Today, (62)__________, education is one of
the most frequent subjects for public debate in the country
Question 53:
A. like B. alike C. as D. with
Question 54:
A. full-time B. full-times C. fully-timed D. full-time’s
Question 55:
A. money B. charge C. cost D. expense
Question 56:
A. on B. in C. at D. to
Question 57:
A. recognize B. recognizing C. recognizes D. recognized
Question 58:
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A. on B. at C. in D. by
Question 59:
A. distinguishes B. divides C. identifies D. differs
Question 60:
A. little B. few C. any D. much
Question 61:
A. on B. in C. at D. with
Question 62:
A. therefore B. as a result C. however D. that’s why
Question 63: Despite its reputation, the concert hall suffered from several detrimental
renovations over the years
A. dangerous B. significant C. extreme D. harmful
Question 64: With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions
on Earth may be unique in the solar system was strengthened
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PHẦN II – ĐÁP ÁN 64 ĐỀ THI NĂM 2021
A B
about twenty-three times that of the sun. Giaoandethitienganh.info
C D
A B C D
A B C D
C. afforestation B. deforestation C. forestry D. reforestation
C. going B. go C. gone D. went
C. No longer has B. No sooner had C. Not until had D. Hardly had
C. that she is resting B. her resting C. that she rest D. her to rest
C. economical B. economy C. economic D. economics
C. overtone B. overcharge C. overtime D. oversight
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C. send B. write C. rent D. turn
C. whether B. no matter C. because D. although
-“________”
environment?”
- Laura: “_______”.
C. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
C. effects B. symptoms C. hints D. demonstration
C. failed to pay B. paid in full
C. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal
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country.
35.
However objective we believe ourselves to be, most of us do not judge a product solely on
its merits, considering quality, value and style before making a decision. (31) ________, we are
There is nothing (32) _______ with this. It is probably a smarter way to make decisions
than relying on only our own opinions. But it does make life hard for companies. They have long
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Research in Finland recently found overwhelming evidence that neighbours have a big
influence on buying decisions. When one of a person’s ten nearest neighbours bought a car, the
chances that person would buy a car of the same brand during the next week. The researchers
argued that it was not just a (35) ________ of envy. Used cars seemed to attract neighbours even
more than new cars.
storms.
C. the nature of radar B. types of ranging
C. size B. weight C. speed D. shape
C. argumentative B. imaginative C. explanatory D. humorous
following?
C. an attachment B. a discharge C. a stream D. a ray
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C. a radar set B. a short burst
C. sound B. heat C. radio D. light
C. other uses of radar B. uses of sonar technology
I. effects of interviewing on job applicants
J. adequacy of interviewing job applicants
K. judgments of interviewers concerning job applicants
L. techniques that interviewers use for judging job applicants
C. encouragement B. assistance C. obstacle D. light
C. judgments B. applicants C. interviewers D. characteristics
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I. stands out as the worst judgmental error
J. takes effect only when a candidate is well dressed
K. exemplifies how one good characteristic colors perceptions
L. helps the interviewer’s capability to judge real ability
C. verify B. conclude C. recollect D. misrepresent
I. can easily be altered
J. is the one that stays with the interviewer
K. is unrelated to the interviewer’s prejudices
L. has been repeatedly demonstrated unrelated to the applicant’s ability
C. biases B. opposes C. improves D. distinguishes
C. devise personnel selection B. measure cognitive ability
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A B C
musician.
D
A B
C D
A B C D
I. having B. making C. doing D. taking
C. on B. to C. from D. in
C. each of which B. hence each C. they each D. each of that
Question 11: It is very important for a firm or a company to keep ______ the changes in the
market.
C. pace of B. track about C. touch with D. up with
C. not as much B. not so much as C. less as D. not so many as
Question 13: The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil fuel will have _____ by 2015.
C. taken over B. caught up C. used off D. run out
C. you will know B. you know C. do you know D. will you know
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C. with B. from C. in D. to
C. it easy to live B. it easy live

broken down.
C. but B. instead of C. than D. unless
C. on B. off
C. over D. up
-“________.”
- Helen: “_______”.
C. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s B. It’s up to you
C. reasonable B. acceptable C. pretty high D. wonderful
C. hopeless B. hopeful C. successful D. unsuccessful
C. look down on B. put up with
C. unplanned B. deliberate C. accidental D. unintentional
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C. It is no fun to tell frightening stories to Janet, who is not very stable mentally , because
she only laughs instead of getting scared .
inconvenient.
C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend
the night.
35.
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was passed.
C. explicated B. exposed C. guaranteed D. granted
_______.
C. music and plays B. paintings and maps
I. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody
J. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
K. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images
L. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and characters
I. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their
students.
J. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters without permission.
K. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which they wrote the music and the lyrics.
L. It is illegal to make photographs when sightseeing or traveling.
following?
C. A law against theft B. A law against smoking
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I. To urge readers to cooperate more often
J. To offer a brief definition of cooperation
K. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict
L. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes
C. defined B. agreed on C. prized D. set up
C. explore B. unite C. evolve D. react
I. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to
cooperate.
J. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and
writing skills.
K. It is an ideal that can never be achieved.
L. It was confined to prehistoric times.
cooperation?
I. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation
J. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds
K. To get rewards for themselves
L. To defeat a common enemy
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I. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades.
J. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow.
K. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party.
L. A new business attempts to take customers away from an established company.
C. Tertiary cooperation B. Antagonistic cooperation
J. The author presents the points of view of three experts on the same topic.
K. The author compares and contrasts two types of human relations.
L. The author describes a concept by analyzing its three forms.
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A B
of fatty acids.
C D
A B C D
small planet.
A B
C D
C. were checked our homework B. had our homework checked
C. as long as B. as far as C. as soon as D. as well as
bell.
C. have been working B. be working
C. too B. such C. enough D. so
C. passes B. would pass C. passed D. pass
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C. would finish what I did B. finished what I did
C. because B. whereas
C. the same length like B. the same length as
ten years.
C. For a number of tigers B. The number of tigers
C. how B. when C. why D. where
one.
I. do up B. do in
-“________.”
Question 21: -“______.”
C. I’ve broken your precious vase. B. I have a lot on my mind.
Question 22: Carpets from countries such as Persia and Afghanistan often fetch high prices in
the United States.
C. Artifacts B. Pottery C. Rugs D. Textiles
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C. accidents B. misunderstandings
C. soak B. permanent
C. expensive B. complicated
B. They failed to go on the holiday like they had planned because a strike took place at
the airport.
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35.
them to read.
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needs.
weekly?
C. No time B. Once or twice C. Three D. Four
I. Virtual reality B. Teacher
I. Monitor the time the students learn.
J. Design materials for the students.
K. Find out the best activities for the students.
L. Identify weaknesses of the students.
I. Students can stay at home to learn.
J. Students can learn at times that suit their schedule.
K. Students’ learning time won’t be monitored.
L. Students’ weak achievement can be identified.
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J. Because they had high arousal levels.
K. It is a natural reaction which guards them against the effects of accidents.
L. Because they had taken drugs which led to the production of these two hormones.
dangerous sports?
I. A lack of common sense, and a high level of arousal.
J. A low level of arousal, and an inborn desire for adventure.
K. The pleasure that results from the production of nor adrenaline, and a low level of
arousal.
L. A desire to show off, and a lack of common sense.
I. A high temperature. B. A low temperature.
danger?
J. Because they are more aware of the dangers involved.
K. Because they already have enough of the two hormones, adrenaline and nor adrenaline.
L. Because they would not be able to cope with accidents.
I. It shows that you have a high level of arousal if no saliva is produced.
J. It indicates your level of arousal by amount of saliva that is produced.
K. It can indicate whether your saliva is more acidic or more alkaline.
L. It is a good test of your sense of taste.
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I. Subatomic particles.
J. Minerals.
K. Vitamins.
L. Hormones.
I. Adrenaline.
J. Nor adrenaline.
K. Lemon juice.
L. Manganese dioxide.
I. It weakens the muscles.
J. It makes people afraid.
K. It makes the heart beat more quickly.
L. It makes the heart beat more slowly.
C. On an airplane B. In the air
situations?
J. People who have a low hormone content.
K. People who normally have a low level of arousal.
L. People who normally have a high level of arousal.
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A B C D
A B
C D
A B C
D
C. overestimated B. underestimated C. understated D. undercharged
C. get B. turn C. fall D. bend
C. clothing B. clothes C. garment D. clothe
C. higher B. high C. the higher D. The high
C. is there a mistake B. there a mistake is
C. came up with B. came up to
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C. many-floored B. many story
C. had conquered B. would conquer
C. ring a bell B. break the ice C. foot the bill D. fall into place
tragedy.
C. some other B. some others C. another D. the other
C. unpleasant B. unnecessary C. unusual D. unsatisfactory
Question 20: -“_________.”
- “_________.”
C. Yes, it’s really good B. No ,it’s very kind of you
C. disgusted B. puzzled C. angry D. upset
C. wasn’t happy B. didn’t want to see
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C. remake B. empty
C. refill D. repeat
banned.
C. clear B. obvious
D. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much
business.
successfully.
B. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic,
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C. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could
tell it was not genuine .
D. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one,
but not for the experts.
35.
From the seeds themselves to the machinery, fertilizers and pesticides - The Green
Revolution regimen depend heavily on technology. One (31) ________ , however, depends
much less on technology - organic farming. Many organic farmers use machinery, but (32)
_______ chemical fertilizers or pesticides. Instead of chemical soil enrichers, they use animal
manure and plant parts not used as food -natural, organic fertilizers that are clearly a renewable
(33) ________. Organic farmers also use alternatives to pesticides; for example they may rely on
natural predators of certain insect pests. (34) ________ the need arises, they can buy the eggs
and larvae of these natural predators and introduce them into their crop fields. They use other
techniques to control pests as well, like planting certain crops together because one crop repels
the other's pests. Organic farmers do not need a lot of land; in fact of organic farming is perfectly
(35) ________ to small farms and is relatively inexpensive. Finally, many organic farmers'
average yields compare favorably with other farmers' yields.
giant.
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C. A computer company B. A software company
C. American Online B. Cyber-cockroach
C. AOL B. Pizza Hut
I. They think it is a Cyber-Cockroach
J. They think it is for experts
K. They think it is a movie and magazine company
L. They feel superior to its users
I. It used to make video games
J. It is innovative
K. It makes money
L. It has joined with another company
C. Advertisements on the Internet B. Advertisements on TV
C. It will do well B. It will do badly
the fashion of their fans who wish to imitate them. Another undeniable influence on what
fashion is "cool" is technology. Technology that can be worn is now and will become an ever
more important part of the "look" of fashionable young people. There are many other trends,
among them retro or vintage fashion, and so-called disposable fashion.
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jeans.
the future.
I. to explain why certain fashions are popular internationally
J. to show the best fashions to wear in order to look "cool"
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K. to inform us about current and future fashion trends
L. to explain the history of certain fashion trends
C. fans B. choices C. genres D. stars
C. grunge B. hip-hop C. retro D. business casual
I. Hip-hop clothes are now sold by big-name designers and are less baggy.
J. Boots used to be popular, but now kicks are worn.
K. Hip-hop moved from other countries to the United States.
L. The baggy hip-hop look has replaced tighter jeans and polo shirts.
C. hip-hop B. wearable technology
C. hip-hop B. wearable technology
I. Because disposable fashion is cheap.
J. Because grunge is from Seattle.
K. Because disposable fashion is often brightly colored.
L. Because the grunge music craze ended in the '90s.
I. Wearable technology will involve smaller devices.
J. Hip-hop will become exclusive to the United States.
K. Retro fashions will go out of style.
L. Disposable fashions will increase in price.
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A B C
D
A B C D
A B C D
university.
C. does B. will do C. do D. must do
C. affluently B. abnormally
C. tolerated B. tolerable C. tolerant D. tolerantly
C. to sleep the desire B. to desire to sleep is
C. gets B. makes C. lets D. has
C. man B. the man
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C. were unparalleled B. unparalleled
C. Many Olympic athletes B. Many Olympic athletes who
live.
C. one should not climb rocks B. one should be climbing rocks
C. the more you achieve B. you achieve the more
C. overlived B. outlived C. lived longer D. underlived
-“__________.”
- “_________.”
C. Yes, you could B. Yes, you can
I. come without knowing what they will see
J. come in large numbers
K. come out of boredom
L. come by plane
C. record B. shine C. categorize D. diversity
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C. uncomfortable B. warm
C. lazy D. dirty
C. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding
35.
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Packet sugar from the supermarket is extracted from either sugar cane or sugar beet. These
(31) ________ are mixed with hot water, which dissolves their natural sugar. Sugar is also found
in fruit some of which such as dates and grapes, (32) ________ very high amounts of sugar. To
be a little more scientific, sugar should be called sucrose. Sucrose is made up of two substances,
immediately.”
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EXCEPT____.
I. the different system of supervision
J. the lack of interaction with a group
K. the fact that the work space is in the home
L. the opportunities for advancement
I. Fewer than estimated in USA Today
J. More than 8 million
K. Fewer than last year
L. More than predicted in Business Week
I. the manager of a group of telecommuters
J. a reporter
K. a statistician
L. a telecommuter
C. participation B. alteration C. opposition D. consideration
I. A definition of telecommuting
J. The advantages of telecommuting
K. An overview of telecommuting
L. The failure of telecommuting
substitute eggs. These egg substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs
when they are cooked. They have the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and they can be
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I. To convince people to eat "designer" eggs and egg substitutes
J. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten
K. To inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol
L. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level
C. minerals B. cholesterol C. canola oil D. vitamins
C. in fact B. a little C. a lot D. indefinitely
I. increasing price
J. dietary changes in hens
K. decreased production
L. concerns about cholesterol
C. 2/3 B. 3/4 C. 1/2 D. 1/3
C. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described
C. reverse B. support C. advance D. block
I. The results are a composite of things
J. The results are inconclusive
K. The results are mingled together
L. The results are blended
I. poached
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J. fried
K. boiled
L. scrambled
I. increasing egg intake but not fat intake
J. reducing egg intake but not fat intake
K. increasing egg intake and fat intake
L. decreasing egg intake and fat intake
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A B C D
machine.
A B C D
A B C
at home.
D
C. I’ll have been lying B. I will lie
C. could be selected B. should elect
C. If she were studying more B. If she had studied more
and billiards.
C. considered B. required
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C. world’s most useful B. useful most word’s
C. remembered B. regarded C. reminded D. recommended
C. turned down B. went out
C. on account of B. in regard to
C. Had B. Should C. Did D. Were
receive the money.
C. between B. off C. beyond D. out
C. most B. all C. any D. these
_ Pete: “_________.”
_Maria: ”________.”
I. Oh, I don’t think of him
J. Oh, they are not having the choice
K. Although they appeared reserved at first, they are very sociable
L. No, it’s very kind of them to have an outgoing personality
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C. exposes B. unrelated C. invisible D. phenomenal
C. available B. clear C. legitimate D. understandable
C. nonexistent B. sufficient
C. rich D. useful
C. publicly said B. openly criticized
staying away.
A. Mary is the only one in our class who isn’t taking part in a research on the
environment.
B. We had planned a vacation in Hawaii and had even made our flight
arrangements.
C. We couldn’t go to Hawaii in the end because we forgot to make arrangements for the
flight in advance.
mountain.
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few home truths.
B. I listened to Joe patiently until he started insulting me, in this case I told him a few
home truths.
D. I listened to Joe patiently until he started insulting me, at which point I told him
a few home truths.
35.
world. When the water is warm, the (31) ________ of rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding
regions decreases. Australia could (32) ________ experience a drought in many parts. On (33)
________ hand, Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for (34) ________
rainstorms. In Pakistan and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season
weaker and makes the area much drier. This happening is called El Nino and is used by weather
forecasters to make long-range weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will (35)
________ unusually heavy rains to the southwestern part of the United States and make the
central part of the country drier at the same time.
C. number D. amount
489
I. Human ancestors became predominantly right-handed when they began to use tools.
J. It is difficult to interpret the significance of anthropological evidence concerning tool use.
K. Humans and their ancestors have been predominantly right-handed for over a
million years.
L. Human ancestors were more skilled at using both hands than modern humans.
I. Some are not very old.
J. It is unusual to see such paintings.
K. Many were made by children.
L. The artists were mostly right-handed.
I. written
J. portrayed
K. referred
L. mentioned
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to________.
C. the form of crane B. the form of the body
because ________.
I. the relationship between handedness and scratches on fossil human teeth can be
verified
J. it emphasizes the differences between contemporary humans and their ancestors
K. the scratch patterns produced by stone knives vary significantly from patterns produced
by modern knives
L. it demonstrates that ancient humans were not skilled at using tools
C. differences B. sides C. activities D. studies
EXCEPT _________.
I. ancient artwork
J. asymmetrical skulls
K. studies of tool use
L. fossilized hand bones
491
government occurs.
the one in power.
I. Political parties in Canada
J. The Canadian election process
K. The Canadian system of government
L. The powers of parliament in Canada
I. When the governor-general decides to appoint a new government.
J. When the voters do not return majority support for the government in a general
election.
K. When the prime minister advises the governor-general to appoint a new government.
L. When the House of Commons votes for a new government.
C. approved B. evaluated C. recognized D. dismissed
I. little
J. different
K. good
L. steady
I. Whereas Canada has a constitutional form of government; Great Britain has a parliament
system.
J. Canada and Great Britain both have model systems of government.
K. Great Britain and Canada have very similar systems of government.
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L. Canada’s parliament has adopted Great Britain’s constitution.
C. Until they become powerful, they are not legally recognized.
I. the official head of parliament
J. the head of government
K. the queen’s representative in Canada
L. the official who appoints the Senate
I. choose the prime minister and the cabinet
J. do not usually vote in general elections
K. allow their representative to vote on their behalf
L. determine when a charge of government should occur
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Question 1: A. loved B. appeared C. agreed D. coughed
Question 2: A. thereupon B. thrill C. threesome D. throne
Question 3: A. interview B. inheritance
C. comfortable D. dynamism
Question 4: A. influential B. punctuality
C. representative D. character
Question 5: Televisions are now an everyday feature of most households in the United States,
A B
and television viewing is the number one activity leisure.
C D
Question 6: Bacteria are one of the most abundant life forms on earth, growing on and inside
A B
another livings things, in every type of environment.
C D
Question 7: Mrs. Barnes, who was so proud of her new car, drove to work when the accident
A B
happened and damaged her car.
C D
Question 8: The higher the demand, ________.
A. the more efforts we have to make
B. the more we have to make efforts
C. the more efforts do we have to make
D. the most efforts we have to make
Question 9: ________ many times I tell him, he always never passes on phone message.
B. However B. No matter C. Whenever D. Whatever
Question 10: Hardly _______ the captain of the team when he had to face the problems.
B. had he been appointed B. did he appoint
C. was he being appointed D. was he appointing
Question 11: My new glasses cost me ________ the pair that I bought last month.
B. more than three times B. three times as much as
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C. as much three times as D. more three times than
Question 12: “What would you do in my position?” – “Were ________ like that, I would
complain to the manager.”
B. I be treated B. I treated C. I to be treated D. to treat
Question 13: If you want a good flat in London, you have to pay through the _______ for it.
B. mouth B. ear C. nose D. teeth
Question 14: She went _______ a bad cold just before Christmas.
B. through B. over C. in for D. down with
Question 15: We ________ for three hours and are very tired .
B. waited B. have been waiting
C. wait D. had waited
Question 16: We couldn’t help laughing when he took ________ his teacher so well.
B. up B. over C. off D. out
Question 17: Nobody could have predicted that the show would arouse so much interest and that
over two hundred people ______ away.
A. would have turned B. would turn
C. had been turned D. would have to be turned
Question 18: Mrs. Granny is completely deaf. You’ll have to ________ allowance for her.
B. bring B. take C. make D. find
Question 19: I am not able to go anywhere this weekend because I am up to my _______ in
work.
B. neck B. nose C. head D. eyes
Question 20: Mary is tired and she is talking about her health problem with John.
_ Mary: “I’m feeling a bit under the weather.”
_ John: “_________”
E. Maybe I’m not going to the doctor’s.
F. Not bad. I’m going to the doctor’s.
G. Maybe you should take a rest.
H. Not very well. Thanks.
Question 21: Tony and Jane are talking about where to have dinner.
_Tony: “What’s the best place to have dinner?”
_Jane: ”________”
E. I’ll have chicken, please.
F. There’s a great restaurant opposite the hotel.
G. I usually eat dinner at 7 p.m.
H. 7 p.m would be convenient.
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Question 22: You will need a sound understanding of basic teaching skills if you want to enter
the classroom with great confidence.
B. sufficient B. defective C. inadequate D. thorough
Question 23: He was one of the most outstanding performers at the live show last night.
B. easy- looking B. important C. well- known D. impressive
Question 24: If you are at a loose end this weekend i will show you round the city.
B. free B. confident C. occupied D. reluctant
Question 25: Susan lost her head when she suddenly woke up and saw the house on fire.
B. kicked herself B. changed her tune
C. kept her head D. took her breath away
Question 26: After the operation, she recovered far quicker than any of us had expected her to.
A. She recovered from the operation just as quickly as anybody could have hoped.
B. Once the operation was over, her recovery was as fast as could be expected.
C. To our great surprise, she was back to normal again as soon as the operation was over.
D. We were all surprised at how fast her health returned after the operation.
Question 27: It was very impolite of him to leave without saying a word.
A. He was very impolite to leave without saying a word.
B. He didn’t say nothing when he left.
C. He didn’t say nothing as he left, which was impolite.
D. Both A and C are correct.
Question 28: Many countries share the view that drastic measures must be taken to stop the
A. The pollution of the seas can only be prevented providing that many countries follow
the same policy.
B. A lot of countries agree that it is essential to take strong action to put an end to
the pollution of the seas.
C. By putting into practice a series of precautions, it is generally believed that the
pollution of the seas will be prevented.
D. The seas will, it seems, continue to be polluted unless this agreement is accepted by a
majority of the countries.
Question 29: Some wooden beams hold up the roof. They have been damaged.
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A. Some wooden beams holding up the roof have been damaged.
B. The roof damaged holds up some wooden beams.
C. Some wooden beams damaging hold up the roof.
D. The roof held up damaged some wooden beams.
Question 30: He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for
days.
D. Suspected to have stolen the credit cards, he has been investigated for days
35.
At NatWest we know how hard it is to get your business up and running. Understanding
your difficulties-and then helping you through them-has made us the number one bank for small
business for each of the last 10 years, with more people turning to us for ________ (31) than any
other bank.
Our Start-Up service gives you the support you need to ________ (32) up on your own.
There are over 4000 Small Business Advisers (at least one in every high street branch) who
provide help, information and a wide ________ (33) of services specifically designed to help
things go that bit more smoothly.
Since last years, we've offered 12 months' free banking ________ (34) you go overdrawn
or stay in credit. We have also introduced another special scheme to help you keep your costs
down for even longer. Provide us with a certificate from a NatWest recognized start-up training
________ (35) that you have completed and there will be no account charges for the first 18
months.
Question 31: A. employment B. performance
C. improvement D. guidance
Question 32: A. make B. turn C. set D. bring
Question 33: A. range B. stock C. forecast D. rate
Question 34: A. whether B. whatever C. however D. although
Question 35: A. course B. lesson C. subject D. chapter
Since the world has become industrialized, there has been an increase in the number of
animal species that have either become extinct or have neared extinction. Bengal tiger, for
instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast number, now only about 2,300, and by the year
2025 their population is estimated to be down to zero. What is alarming about the case of the
Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who
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according to some sources, are not interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This
is an example of the callousness that is part of what is causing the problem of extinction.
Animals like Bengal tigers as well as other endangered species are a valuable part of the world's
ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival,
and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some
countries, in order to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal
reserves. They then charge admission to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks and they
often must also depend on world organizations for support. With the money they get, they can
invest in equipment, and patrols to protect the animals. Another solution that is an attempt to
stem the tide of animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered
species. This seems fairly effective but it will not, by itself, prevent animals from being hunted
and killed.
E. the Bengal tiger
F. international boycotts
G. endangered species
H. problems with industrialization
Question 37: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "alarming" in line 4?
E. dangerous
F. serious
G. gripping
H. distressing
Question 38: The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast _________.
E. a problem and a solution
F. a statement and an illustration
G. a comparison and a contrast
H. specific and general information
Question 39: What does the word “this” refer to?
C. Bengal Tiger
D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction
D. Interest in material gain
Question 40: Where in the passage does the author discuss a cause of extinction ?
E. Since the word … down to zero.
F. What is alarming … personal gratification.
G. Country around … for support.
H. With the money … dangered species
Question 41: The word "defray" is closet in meaning to ________?
B. lower B. raise
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C. make a payment on D. make an investment toward
Question 42: Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
E. forgiving
F. concerned
G. vindictive
H. surprised
infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikers –you’re – out , batter out on a caught ball,
three outs per inning, a nine man team. The "New York Game” spread rapidly, replacing earlier
needs of an increasingly urban – industrial society. At its inception it was it was played by and
for gentlemen. A club might consists of 40 members. The president would appoint two captains
who would choose teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and
Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainments for the
winners
During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing
commercialism (charging admission), under – the – table payments to exceptional to players, and
professional ten , an amateur first-nine , and their "muffins" (the gentlemanly duffers who once
ran the game) . Beginning with the first openly all-salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking
Club) in 1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the complete professionalization of baseball, including
League of Professional Baseball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business-minded invertors in
joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s "Golden Age”.
Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132, a
weekly periodical “ The sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck
peanuts. In 1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of the
Midwest proclaimed itself the American League.
E. the origins of baseball
F. the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball
G. the commercialization of baseball
H. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century
Question 44: The word “inception” in line 8 is closest in meaning to ________.
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E. requirements
F. beginning
G. insistence
H. rules
Question 45: Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy
gentlemen at its inception ?
E. A team might consist of 40 members.
F. The president would choose teams from among the members.
G. They didn’t play on weekends.
H. They might be called “duffers” if they didn’t make the first nine.
Question 46: According to the second paragraph , all of the following are true EXPECT ______.
E. commercialism became more prosperous
F. the clubs are smaller
G. outstanding players got extra income
H. people gamed on the outcome of games
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “Golden Age”?
E. wooden stadiums replaced open fields
F. a weekly periodical commenced
G. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed
H. profits soared
Question 48: The word ”somewhat” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
E. to a significant extent
F. to a minor extent
G. to not the same extent
H. to some extent
Question 49: The word “itself” in the last paragraph refers to ________.
E. the Western League
F. growing cities
G. the Midwest
H. the American League
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage ?
E. The wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another
recreational opportunity if they did not want to mix with other or become a “muffin”.
F. Hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and
commercialism that develop in baseball.
G. The “New York Game“ spread rapidly because it was better formalized.
H. Business–minded investors were only interested in profits
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Question 1: A. exactly B. example C. exhibition D. exhibit
Question 2: A. chaotic B. chemist C. brochure D. anchor
Question 3: A. environment B. publication
C. equality D. pneumonia
Question 4: A. apply B. happen
C. decide D. combine
Question 5: In the 1920’s cinema became an important art form and one of the ten largest
A B C
industry in the United States.
D
Question 6: Because not food is as nutritious for a baby as its mother’s milk, many women are
A B C
returning to the practice of breast feeding.
D
Question 7: Do you ever feel that life is not being fair to you because you cannot seem to get the
A B C
job where you want or that really suits you?
D
Question 8: The train to the center of the city was ________ by a heavy snowfall.
A. held up B. took back
C. put off D. given out
Question 9: She ________ for hours. That’s why her eyes are red now.
B. cried B. has been crying C. was crying D. has cried
Question 10: “Eric is really upset about losing his job”.- “Well, ________ fired once myself, I
can understand”.
B. having B. have been
C. to have been D. having been
Question 11: He always did well at school ________ having his early education disrupted by
illness.
B. apart from B. in spite of
C. in addition to D. because of
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Question 12: I’m sorry, teacher. I’ve _______ my homework on the bus.
B. left B. let C. forgotten D. missed
Question 13: ________ at the site of a fort established by the Northwest Mounted Police,
Calgary is now one of Canada’s faster growing cities.
B. Having built B. It is built C. To build D. Built
Question 14: She kindly offered to _______ me the way to the post office.
B. show B. describe C. direct D. explain
Question 15: ________ general, our students are very intelligent and really active.
B. In B. With
C. By D. On
Question 16: ________ of all of us who are here tonight, I would like to thank Mr. Jones for his
talk.
B. In person B. Instead C. On account D. On behalf
Question 17: John swims very well and ________ does his brother.
A. also B. even C. so D. too
Question 18: I asked him to drive more slowly, but he didn’t take any _________.
B. attention B. regard C. notice D. recognition
Question 19: My hat has just ________ behind the sofa although I thought I had lost it.
B. turned up B. gone away C. run into D. come across
Question 20: Nancy met Sue in a party after a long time they were far away from each other.
_ Nancy: “_________.”
_ Sue: “Great. Thanks.”
E. Excuse me!
F. What are you doing?
G. How are you doing?
H. Be careful!
Question 21: Maria is in a shoes shop, looking for new shoes.
_Shop assistant: “Can I help you, madam?”
_Maria: ”________”
E. It’s very cheap.
F. No, thanks. I’m just looking.
G. Right. It looks a bit small.
H. Yes, it is in our summer sale.
Question 22: He resembles his brother in appearance very much, which makes his friends unable
to recognize.
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B. looks after B. takes after C. names after D. calls after
Question 23: Life expectancy in Europe has increased greatly in the 20th century.
B. expectation B. span C. prospect D. anticipation
Question 24: One of the good things about teaching young children is their enthusiasm.
B. eagerness B. weakness C. indifference D. softness
Question 25: That international organization is going to be in a temporary way in the country.
B. permanent B. guess
C. complicated D. soak
Question 26: Mrs. Maria may not have a good health but she still manages to enjoy her life.
A. Mrs. Maria’s poor health is a big problem which prevents her from enjoying her life.
B. Although Mrs. Maria may not have a good health but she still manages to enjoy her
life.
C. Mrs. Maria’s poor health does not prevent her from enjoying her life.
D. What prevented Mrs. Maria from enjoying her life is her bad health condition.
Question 27: The boy who was waiting in the hall expected a phone call.
A. The boy someone was waiting in the hall expected a phone call.
B. The boy waiting in the hall expected a phone call.
C. The boy waited in the hall and expecting a phone call.
D. The boy was waiting in the hall and expected a phone call.
Question 28: She had to buy a new battery for her mobile phone because the charge was unable
to last for more than two hours.
A. She had to charge a new battery for her mobile phone because the old one lasted for a
little over two hours.
B. Her mobile phone couldn’t hold a charge for more than two hours, so she had to
buy a new battery.
C. Because she charged her new mobile phone battery for only two hours, the charge did
not last very long.
D. The new battery she bought for her mobile phone would not hold a charge for longer
than two hours.
Question 29: I did not read his book. I did not understand what the lecturer was saying.
A. I would have understood what the lecturer was saying if I had read his book.
B. The lecturer's book which I had not read was difficult to understand.
C. I found it very difficult to understand what the lecturer said in his book.
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D. What the lecturer wrote and said was too difficult for me to understand.
Question 30: He wanted to give the ball a powerful kick. He used the top of his foot.
C. What he wants to do is give the ball a powerful kick and use the top of his foot.
35.
There is considerably less research on comprehension processes in beginning readers,
compared to studies on word processing. One of the consistent (31) _________ in
comprehension research is that compared to more skilled comprehenders, unskilled
comprehenders are also less skilled in decoding. In fact, during the early stages of beginning
reading, text comprehension is limited to children's skill in decoding. Until decoding processes
are (32) ________ and efficient, high-level comprehension processes are severely limited. There
is now converging evidence that for both children and adults, difficulties in comprehension are
related to difficulties in decoding (33) ________ to problems with working memory.
(34) _________ being better at decoding, skilled comprehenders also have better global
language skilled comprehenders. Studies have shown a causal relationship between vocabulary
and comprehension. There is evidence showing that vocabulary instruction (35) ________ to
gains in comprehension and improvement on semantic tasks. It is also clear that both direct and
indirect instruction in vocabulary lead to comprehension gains.
Question 31: A. findings B. studies
C. programs D. conclusions
Question 32: A. early B. rapid C. urgent D. right
Question 33: A. as well as B. as long as C. as far as D. as much as
Question 34: A. Furthermore B. However C. Therefore D. Besides
Question 35: A. jumps B. faces C. leads D. comes
The World Trade Organization (WTO) has 162 member countries. They are looking to
improve trade. Trade means the buying and selling of goods. The WTO provides a place where
these countries can talk about what they need. The goal of the WTO is to make trade grow by
removing legal barriers between countries.
The WTO helps trade in several ways. First, it asks countries to treat each other equally.
They should not give special trade deals to one country and not to another. Also, these countries
should not try to stop foreign products from any one country. The idea is that goods and services
should be able to cross borders easily. A second way to improve trade is to lower tariffs. These
are special taxes for things bought and sold. A third way to strengthen trade is to make sure that
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the rulers will stay the same. In order for people to invest their money, they need to feel secure
for the future. A fourth way is to allow greater competition between countries. The central belief
is that competition makes for a stronger economy. The last way to improve trade is to help
countries that are poor. They need help coming up to the level of modern countries. They can be
helped by allowing them extra time to get their systems in order. They can be given priority in
making deals with other countries.
Free and easy trade is the WTO’s goal. It supports rich countries and helps poor countries
get ahead. It is one way of improving the lives of more people in the world. It asks countries to
make laws that help this process. Every year, more countries apply to be in the WTO. They see
membership as a good thing.
Question 36: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT ________.
E. the WTO wants to improve trade by lowering taxes
F. poor countries are not given priority
G. the WTO wants to make trade better
H. trade means the buying and selling of goods
Question 37: It can be inferred from the passage that ________.
E. the WTO helps remove political barriers between countries
F. the WTO’s goal is to trade with other organizations
G. the WTO is a multi-national organization
H. few countries want to become a member of the WTO
Question 38: The word “barriers” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
E. borders
F. documents
G. bans
H. obstacles
Question 39: Why does the author give details about how the WTO helps trade?
B. To illustrate how the WTO improves international trade.
B. To distinguish between the WTO and banks.
C. To promote discussion about the WTO.
D. To complain about the actions of the WTO.
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT correct?
E. The goal of the WTO is to improve trade.
F. The WTO supports poor countries.
G. Many countries apply to be in the WTO every year.
H. Rich countries are given priority.
Question 41: According to the third paragraph, the WTO _________.
E. asks rich countries to help poor countries
F. helps improve the lives of more people in the world
G. helps rich countries get ahead
H. gives poor countries lots of food
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Question 42: Which of the following does NOT support the idea that the WTO provides a way
for countries to improve trade?
E. Countries should allow goods and services to cross border easily.
F. Countries should be fair to one another and help poor members.
G. Countries should lower tariffs and make investors feel secure.
H. Countries should allow time to raise taxes.
William Sydney Porter (1862-1910), who wrote under the pseudonym of O. Henry, was
born in North Carolina. His only formal education was to attend his Aunt Lina’s school until the
age of fifteen, where he developed his lifelong love of books. By 1881 he was a licensed
pharmacist. However, within a year, on the recommendation of a medical colleague of his
Father’s, Porter moved to La Salle County in Texas for two years herding sheep. During this
time, Webster’s Unabridged Dictionary was his constant companion, and Porter gained a
knowledge of ranch life that he later incorporated into many of his short stories. He then moved
to Austin for three years, and during this time the first recorded use of his pseudonym appeared,
allegedly derived from his habit of calling “Oh, Henry” to a family cat. In 1887, Porter married
Athol Estes. He worked as a draftsman, then as a bank teller for the First National Bank.
In 1894 Porter founded his own humor weekly, the “Rolling Stone”, a venture that failed
within a year, and later wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post. In the meantime, the First
National Bank was examined, and the subsequent indictment of 1886 stated that Porter had
embezzled funds. Porter then fled to New Orleans, and later to Honduras, leaving his wife and
child in Austin. He returned in 1897 because of his wife’s continued ill-health, however she died
six months later. Then, in 1898 Porter was found guilty and sentenced to five years
imprisonment in Ohio. At the age of thirty five, he entered prison as a defeated man; he had lost
his job, his home, his wife, and finally his freedom. He emerged from prison three years later,
reborn as O. Henry, the pseudonym he now used to hide his true identity. He wrote at least
twelve stories in jail, and after re-gaining his freedom, went to New York City, where he
published more than 300 stories and gained fame as America’s favorite short Story writer. Porter
married again in 1907, but after months of poor health, he died in New York City at the age of
forty-eight in 1910. O. Henry’s stories have been translated all over the world.
Question 43: Why did the author write the passage?
E. Because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer.
F. To outline the career of a famous American.
G. Because of his fame as America’s favorite short story writer.
H. To outline the influences on O. Henry’s writing.
Question 44: According to the passage, Porter’s Father was ________.
E. responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas
F. the person who gave him a life-long love of books
G. a medical doctor
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H. a licensed pharmacist
Question 45: The word “allegedly” in line 9 is closest in meaning to ________.
E. supposedly
F. reportedly
G. wrongly
H. mistakenly
Question 46: Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
E. Both of Porter’s wives died before he died.
F. Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist.
G. Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called “Rolling Stone”.
H. The first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin.
Question 47: The word “subsequent” in line 17 is closest in meaning to ________.
E. resulting
F. police
G. alleged
H. official
Question 48: Porter lost all of the following when he went to prison EXCEPT his _______.
E. home
F. wife
G. job
H. books
Question 49: According to the author, how many stories did Porter write while in prison for three
years?
E. more than 300
F. 35
G. at least 12
H. over 20
Question 50: The author implies which of the following is true?
E. Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in prison for three
years.
F. Porter was in poor health throughout his life.
G. O. Henry is as popular in many other countries as he is in America.
H. Porter’s wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin when he fled.
Question 1: A. pagoda B. integral C. against D. aquatic
Question 2: A. synchronized B. psychology
C. chemistry D. activity
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Question 3: A. represent B. intensive
C. domestic D. employment
Question 4: A. minister B. dependent
C. encourage D. agreement
Question 5: Although men may know more about diapering babies and vacuuming floors than
A B
his father did, but women are still doing most of housework and child reading.
C D
Question 6: When men and women are asked who is spending long hours cleaning and tidy up,
A B C
women are still far ahead of men.
D
Question 7: In 2006, 87.9 per cent of men said they shared housework from their wives, up from
A B C D
84.4 per cent in 1996.
Question 8: Swimming produces both ________ and physical benefits.
A. psychology B. psychological
C. psychologist D. psychologically
Question 9: Thousands of cranes ________.
B. will be returned the spring B. will return the spring
C. will be returned in the spring D. will return in the spring
Question 10: Two thousand people are ________ as having cancer of the mouth every year; and
60 per cent of them will die within five years.
B. regarded B. diagnosed
C. checked D. killed
Question 11: He finds physics ________ other science subjects.
B. far more difficult than B. many more difficult than
C. too much more difficult than D. more much difficult than
Question 12: We were expecting beautiful weather at the beach, but it was so cold and rainy that,
_______ getting a suntan, I caught a cold.
B. compared to B. just as C. in case of D. instead of
Question 13: Next month, I ________ Dereck for 20 years.
B. have known B. will have been knowing
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C. will know D. will have known
Question 14: A _______ of dancers from Beijing is one of the leading attractions in the
festival.
B. packet B. troop C. herd D. troupe
Question 15: Don’t let time go ________ without doing anything about the situation.
B. out B. by
C. off D. over
Question 16: Police are warning the public to be on the ________ for suspicious packages.
B. care B. alert C. guard D. alarm
Question 17: Before you sign the contract, ________ in mind that you won’t be able to change
anything later.
A. hold B. bear C. retain D. reserve
Question 18: Jim’s ________ flu again. That’s the third time this year.
B. gone down with B. put up with C. led up to D. come up with
Question 19: Half of the children were away from school last week because of ________ of
influenza.
B. a breakthrough B. an outbreak C. a break-out D. an outburst
Question 20: Alice and Pete are talking about the weather in the place they are in.
_ Alice: “It seems to me that the summer is nice here.”
_ Pete: “________. It’s really lovely.”
E. You’re exactly right
F. You’re dead wrong
G. I couldn’t agree less
H. You could be right
Question 21: Alfonso is talking with Maria about using public transportation.
_ Alfonso: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our
environment?”
_Maria: ”________.”
E. There’s no doubt about it
F. Yes, it is an absurd idea
G. Well, that is very surprising
H. Of course not .You bet
Question 22: Books are a primary means for dissemination of knowledge and information.
B. attempt B. distribution C. invention D. variety
Question 23: In 1952, Akihito was officially proclaimed heir to the Japanese throne.
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B. installed B. declared C. denounced D. advised
Question 24: There are several different kinds of faults in reading which are usually more
exaggerated with foreign learners.
B. overestimated B. overemphasized
C. understated D. undertaken
Question 25: You need to dress neatly and elegantly for the interview. The first impression is
very important.
B. shabbily B. formally
C. untidy D. comfortably
Question 26: “Tom, please don’t tell anyone my new telephone number.” said Jane.
A. Jane told Tom please don’t tell anyone my new telephone number.
B. Jane asked Tom not to tell anyone her new telephone number.
C. Jane said to Tom not to tell anyone her new telephone number, please.
D. Jane wanted Tom didn’t tell anyone my new telephone number.
Question 27: Few people realized the importance of his role in the company.
A. He was realized as an important role in the company by a few people.
B. Not many people realized that he played an important part in the company.
C. Quite a few people realized the importance of his role in the company.
D. Many people realized his important role in the company.
Question 28: You are in this mess right now because you didn’t listen to me in the first place.
A. If you listen to my advice in the first place, you will not be in this mess right now.
B. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess
right now.
C. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now.
D. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t have been in this mess
right now.
Question 29: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window.
Question 30: She gave in her notice. She planned to start her new job in January.
A. She gave in her notice, plan to start her new job in January.
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B. Her notice was given in with an aim to start her new job in January.
C. Her notice was given in in order to for her to start her new job in January.
D. She gave in her notice with a view to starting her new job in January.
35.
The ideal breakfast, say scientists, is a glass of orange juice, a cup of coffee and a bowl of
cereal. People who (31) _______ the day with a drink of vitamin C, a dose of caffeine and a
helping of their favorite cereal are happier and perform better throughout the morning, Andy
Smith, of the University of Bristol, said. A study of 600 people who were _______ (32 to record
their breakfast habits found that ________ (33) who regularly ate cereal first thing in the
morning had a more positive mood compared with those who ate other foods or had no breakfast.
Earlier research had _______ (34) that people whose mental performance was measured
immediately after eating breakfast of any kind performed 10 percent better on tests of
remembering, speed of response and ability to concentrate, compared with those given only a
cup of decaffeinated coffee. In further research, Professor Smith said that people who drank four
cups of coffee a day performed more (35)_______ all day than those who drank less. He
suggested that sensible employers should give out free coffee or tea.
Question 31: A. open B. initiate
C. start D. begins
Question 32: A. said B. told C. ordered D. asked
Question 33: A. whole B. all C. these D. those
Question 34: A. reveal B. exposed C. shown D. indicated
Question 35: A. profitable B. deficiently C. beneficially D. efficiently
The handling and delivery of mail has always been a serious business, underpinned by the
trust of the public in requiring timeliness, safety, and confidentiality. After early beginnings
using horseback and stagecoach, and although cars and trucks later replaced stagecoaches and
wagons, the Railway Mail Service still stands as one of America’s most resourceful and exciting
postal innovations. This service began in 1832, but grew slowly until the Civil War. Then from
1862, by sorting the mail on board moving trains, the Post Office Department was able to
decentralize its operations as railroads began to crisscross the nation on a regular basis, and
speed up mail delivery. This service lasted until 1974. During peak decades of service, railway
mail clerks handled 93% of all non-local mail and by 1905 the service had over 12,000
employees.
Railway Post Office trains used a system of mail cranes to exchange mail at stations
without stopping. As a train approached the crane, a clerk prepared the catcher arm which would
then snatch the incoming mailbag in the blink of an eye. The clerk then booted out the outgoing
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mailbag. Experienced clerks were considered the elite of the Postal Service’s employees, and
spoke with pride of making the switch at night with nothing but the curves and feel of the track
to warn them of an upcoming catch. They also worked under the greatest pressure and their jobs
were considered to be exhausting and dangerous. In addition to regular demands of their jobs
they could find themselves the victims of train wrecks and robberies.
As successful as it was, “mail-on-the-fly” still had its share of glitches. If they hoisted the
train’s catcher arm too soon, they risked hitting switch targets, telegraph poles or semaphores,
which would rip the catcher arm off the train. Too late, and they would miss an exchange.
E. How Post Office Trains handled the mail without stopping
F. The skills of experienced clerks
G. How the mail cranes exchanged the mail
H. Improvements in mail handling and delivery
Question 37: The public expects the following three services in handling and delivery of mail
except ________.
E. confidentiality
F. timeliness
G. safety
H. accuracy
Question 38: According to the passage, the Railway Mail Service commenced in _________.
E. 1832
F. 1842
G. 1874
H. 1905
Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred from the first paragraph?
B. Mail was often lost or damaged as it was exchanged on the mail crane.
B. There was a high turnover of railway mail clerks.
C. The development of the mailroads during the second half of the 19th century
enabled Post Office Department to focus on timeliness.
D. The Post Office Department was more concerned about speeding up mail delivery than
the safety of its clerks.
Question 40: The word “elite” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
E. superior
F. majority
G. more capable
H. leader
Question 41: The word “glitches” in the third paragraph can be replaced by ________.
E. accidents
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F. blames
G. advantages
H. problems
Question 42: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
E. The clerk booted out the outgoing mailbag before snatching the incoming bag.
F. Clerks couldn’t often see what they were doing.
G. The Railway Mail clerk’s job was considered elite because it was safe and exciting.
H. Despite their success railway mail clerks only handled a small proportion of all non-local
mail.
are nature's way of keeping the Earth in balance. But sometimes they spread very quickly and
called pandemics.
fight. In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu
First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily.
Second, while they may kill many people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A
good example of this would be the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is an extremely infectious
disease. In addition, it is deadly. About 70-80% of all the people who get the Marburg virus die
from the disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because most people
die within three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not have enough time
to spread to a large number of people. The flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generally took
about a week to ten days to kill its victims, so it had more time to spread.
Question 43: This passage is mainly about ________.
E. how to prevent pandemic diseases
F. pandemic diseases
G. pandemic diseases throughout history
H. why pandemics happen
Question 44: According to the first paragraph, how are diseases a natural part of life on Earth?
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E. They prevent pandemics.
F. They help control the population.
G. They led the world grow quickly.
H. They kill too many people.
Question 45: According to the passage, what causes pandemics?
E. Changes in a disease that the body cannot fight .
F. Careless doctors who do not watch the spread of diseases.
G. Population growth that the world cannot support.
H. The failure to make new medicines.
Question 46: According to the passage, all of the following are true of the 1918 flu pandemic
EXCEPT that ________.
E. it involved a new kind of flu virus
F. it killed over 25 million people
G. it was the last pandemic in history
H. it took a little over a week to kill its victims
Question 47: The word "it" in the passage refers to _________.
E. disease
F. flu virus
G. pandemics
H. bodies
Question 48: Which of the following is mentioned as a common feature of all pandemic
diseases?
E. They spread from people to people very quickly.
F. It kills many people very quickly
G. They do not kill people very quickly
H. They kill all the victims
Question 49: The word "monitor" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
E. prevent
F. fight
G. watch
H. avoid
Question 50: The author mentions SARS in order to ________ .
E. give an example of a highly dangerous disease
F. suggest that SARS will never become a pandemic
G. give an example of the successful prevention of a pandemic
H. suggest that there may be a new pandemic soon
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Question 1: A. imagines B. motorbikes C. cultures D. involves
Question 2: A. office B. practice
C. service D. device
Question 3: A. equip B. spacious
C. office D. service
Question 4: A. involvement B. applicant
C. installing D. disaster
Question 5: In the end of the day, the job becomes so tiring that the cleaner sometimes leaves it
A B C
unfinished.
D
Question 6: All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and
A B
the technological institutions if they are to preserve environment.
C D
Question 7: Among many other program, UNICEF also supports the international Child Rights
A B C D
Information Network.
Question 8: When I last saw him, he ________ in London.
A. is living B. has lived
C. was living D. has been living
Question 9: The film “Descendant of the Sun” attracts ________ viewers worldwide.
B. a large number of B. considerable number of
C. amount of D. a great deal of
Question 10: There are ten pieces of fruit in my basket. One is an orange, one is a grape and
________ is an apple.
B. others B. the other
C. the others D. another
Question 11: The firemen did well _______ their preparation for catastrophic gas explosions.
B. although B. because
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C. despite D. because of
Question 12: Considering how little they have got in common, it’s surprising how well they
_______ together.
C. get through B. get on C. get down D. get up
D.
Question 13: Muhammad Ali, the World great boxer, passed ________ on June 4th 2016.
B. through B. on
C. down D. away
Question 14: If you say you are using a world _______, you mean you are choosing it after
thinking about it very carefully.
B. advisor B. advisedly C. advisory D. advice
Question 15: He was _______ when I had those problems and said whatever I did he would
stand by me.
B. exciting B. supportive
C. busy D. dull
Question 16: Under the _______ of the press, bloggers, and Vietnam’s technology community,
Dong decided to take the game “Flappy Bird” down.
B. order B. force C. pressure D. command
Question 17: U.S President Obama has become the first ________ president to visit Hiroshima
since 1945.
A. standing B. sitting C. working D. retiring
Question 18: Where’s that _______ dress that your grandma gave you?
B. long pink silk lovely B. pink long lovely silk
C. lovely long pink silk D. lovely pink long silk
Question 19: We can’t even walk in the storm. Let’s wait in the hallway where we’ll be
________ the strong winds until things quiet down.
B. protecting from B. protected from C. protected by D. protecting by
Question 20: Mary gave Peter a gift for his birthday.
_ Peter: “Thanks a lot for your wonder gift.”
_ Mary: “________.”
E. Have a good day
F. Thank you
G. Cheers
H. You are welcome
Question 21: Nga has just taken her exam.
_ Nga: “ This exam is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester!”
_Minh: ”________. But I think it’s quite easy”
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E. You’re right
F. I understand what you are saying
G. I couldn’t agree more
H. I don’t see in that way
Question 22: We can use either verbal or non-verbal forms of communication.
B. using facial expressions B. using speech
C. using gesture D. using verbs
B. arrive B. clean C. encounter D. happen
Question 24: In most countries, compulsory military service doesn’t apply to women.
B. mandatory B. essential
C. optional D. required
Question 25: During the five-decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all
aspects.
B. holding to B. holding back
C. holding at D. holding by
Question 26: She usually spends one hour driving to work every day.
A. She usually works one hour every day.
B. It usually takes her one hour to drive to work every day.
C. She does not usually drive to work.
D. It usually takes her one hour to work on her car every day.
Question 27: She strikes me as a very effective teacher.
A. My impression of her is that she is a very effective teacher.
B. As a teacher, she always strikes me.
C. She is such an effective teacher that she always strikes her students.
D. I make an effective in impression on the teacher.
Question 28: His mother is the most warm-hearted person I’ve known.
A. I know a more warm-hearted person than his mother.
B. I don’t know his warm-hearted mother.
C. I’ve never known a more warm-hearted person than his mother.
D. I didn’t know a more warm-hearted person than his mother.
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Question 29: The coffee was not strong. It didn’t keep us awake.
B. The coffee was so strong that we couldn’t sleep .
C. The coffee was not strong enough to keep us awake.
D. We were kept awake because the coffee was strong.
Question 30: David broke his leg. He couldn’t play in the final.
A. If David didn’t break his leg, he could play in the final.
B. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could play in the final now.
C. Although David broke his leg, he could play in the final.
D. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could have played in the final.
35.
Education is more important today than ever before. It helps people acquire the skills they
need for such everyday (31) ________ as reading a newspaper or managing their money. It also
gives them the specialized training they may need to prepare for a job or career. For example, a
person must meet certain educational requirements and obtain a (32) ________ or certificate
before he can practice law or medicine. Many fields, like computer operation or police work,
require satisfactory completion of special training courses.
Education is also important (33) ________ it helps people get more out of life. It increases
their knowledge and understanding of the world. It helps them acquire the skills that make life
more interesting and enjoyable, such as the skills (34) ________ to participate in a sport, paint a
picture, or play a musical instrument. Such education becomes increasingly important as people
gain more and more leisure time.
social changes today take place with increasing speed and affect the lives of more and more
people. Education can help a person understand these changes and provide him (35) ________
the skills for adjusting to them.
Question 31: A. actions B. jobs C. works D. activities
Question 32: A. license B. paper C. diploma D. card
Question 34: A. able B. capable C. needed D. ordered
Question 35: A. with B. for C. on D. in
Although speech is generally accepted as the most advanced form of communication, there
are many ways of communicating without using words. In every known culture, signals, signs,
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symbols, and gestures are commonly utilized as instruments of communication. There is a great
deal of agreement among communication scientists as to what each of these methods is and how
each differs from the others. For instance, the basic function of any signal is to impinge upon the
environment in such a way that it attracts attention, as, for example, the dots and dashes that can
be applied in a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication
through these dots and dashes-short and long intervals as the circuit is broken-is very great. Less
adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain agreed upon meaning; that is, they
convey information in and of themselves. Two examples are the hexagonal red sign that conveys
the meaning of stop, and the red and white swirled pole outside a shop that communicates the
meaning of barber.
Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate
relationship with the receiver’s culture perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in a theater
provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. In other cultures, if done in unison,
applauding can be a symbol of the audience’s discontent with the performance. Gestures such as
weaving and handshaking also communicate certain culture messages.
Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they also have a major
disadvantage in communication. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender
being directly adjacent to the receiver. Without an exchange of ideas, interaction comes to a halt.
As a result, means of communication intended to be used across long distances and extended
periods must be based upon speech. To radio, television, and the telephone, one must add fax,
paging systems, electronic mail, and the internet, and no one doubts but that there are more
means of communication on the horizon.
Question 36: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
E. Communication
F. Signs and signals
G. Speech
H. Gestures
Question 37: What does the author say about speech?
E. It is the only true form of communication.
F. It is necessary for communication to occur.
G. It is the most advanced form of communication.
H. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.
Question 38: The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to _________.
E. signal
F. function
G. environment
H. way
Question 39: The word "potential" in the first paragraph could be replaced by ________.
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A. organization
B. possibility
C. range
D. advantage
Question 40: The word “themselves” in the first paragraph refers to ________.
E. information
F. intervals
G. words
H. signs
Question 41: Applauding was cited as an example of ________.
E. a gesture
F. a signal
G. a symbol
H. a sign
Question 42: Why were the telephone, radio, and television invented?
E. People wanted new forms of entertainment.
F. People were unable to understand signs, symbols, and signals.
G. People wanted to communicate across long distances.
H. People believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete.
communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through
the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may
indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect
ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may believe them. Here the participant’s
tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or
interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are .usually discernible by the
its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from
the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills,
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others,
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behind an overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or
E. The connection between voice and personality.
F. Communication styles.
G. The function of the voice in performance.
H. The production of speech.
Question 44: What does the author mean by staring that "At interpersonal levels, tone may
reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen"?
E. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
F. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.
G. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.
H. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
Question 45: The word "Here" in the first paragraph refers to _________.
E. words chosen
F. the tone
G. ideas and feelings
H. interpersonal interactions
Question 46: The word "derived" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
E. obtained
F. prepared
G. registered
H. discussed
Question 47: According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a
person's _________.
E. general physical health
F. personality
G. ability to communicate
H. vocal quality
Question 48: According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide ________.
E. shyness
F. hostility
G. friendliness
H. strength
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Question 49: The word " drastically " in the second passage is closest in meaning to ________.
E. frequently
F. exactly
G. severely
H. easily
Question 50: According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
E. Depression
F. Anger
G. Boredom
H. Lethargy
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Question 1: A. finished B. cooked C. attended D. laughed
Question 2: A. number B. future C. furious D. amuse
Question 3: A. defend B. swallow C. social D. wildlife
Question 4: A. eradicate B. alternative C. minority D. secondary
Question 5: We educate our children as well as we can, because of an educated population is the
A B C
key to future.
D
Question 6: Under no circumstances you could betray your fatherland.
A B C D
Question 7: At least three-quarters of that book on famous Americans are about people who lived
A B C D
in the nineteenth century.
Question 8: Eating, together with chatting, listening to music ________ among the most popular
activities at recess at schools in Vietnam.
A. are B. have been
C. were D. is
Question 9: ________ Columbus was one of ________ first people to cross _______ Atlantic.
B. _/the/the B. The/the/the
C. _/the/an D. _/the/_
Question 10: Jack went to the party, wearing a ________ tie.
B. lovely red woolen B. red lovely woolen
C. woolen lovely red D. red woolen lovely
Question 11: Jack Ma or Ma Yun, ________ parents are traditional musician-storytellers, is the
founder and executive chairman of Alibaba Group, a family or highly successful Internet-based
businesses.
B. that B. whom
C. who D. whose
Question 12: Facebook’s terms of use state that members must be ________ least 13 years old
with valid email ID’s.
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B. without B. of C. at D. on
Question 13: ________ there have been many changes in his life, he remains a nice man to
everyone.
B. However B. Although
C. Because D. Despite
Question 14: Her brother was offered the manager’s job, but he ________. He said he didn’t
want the responsibilities.
B. turned it off B. turned it down
C. threw it away D. put it off
Question 15: Nguyen Thi Anh Vien is a Vietnamese Olympian and ________ record-holder for
swimming.
B. nation B. international
C. nationality D. national
Question 16: It doesn’t matter to me one way or another, but I wish you would at least _______
an effort at seeing his side of it.
B. make B. do C. doing D. making
Question 17: In some countries, on moral _______ that education should not be taxed, there is no
tax on books.
A. idea B. principle C. reason D. concept
Question 18: Farmers collect household and garden waste to make ________.
B. floor coverings B. glassware
C. compost D. pipes
Question 19: Claire wanted to know what time ________.
B. do the banks close B. the banks closed
C. did the banks close D. the banks will close
Question 20: Tom is moving the table. He wants Mary to help him.
_ Tom: “________.”
_ Mary: “Yes, of course.”
E. You won’t help me this time.
F. You’d better give me one hand.
G. Could you give me a hand?
H. I don’t think I’ll need your help.
Question 21: A group of students are discussing their plan for the weekend.
_ Chung: “Can you recommend any places for this weekend?”
_Tue: ”________.”
E. I don’t think you could afford a tour to Ha Long Bay
F. A picnic to Khe Ro forest in Son Dong would be perfect
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G. Yes, please go to other agencies
H. No, you cannot recommend any places
Question 22: They tried to find a way of bettering their lives.
B. moving B. changing
C. achieving D. improving
Question 23: Adverse reviews in the New York press may greatly change the prospects of a new
Broad way production .
B. Subversive B. Unfavorable C. Encouraging D. Additional
Question 24: I have a modest little glass fish tank where I keep a variety of small fish.
B. moderate B. limited
C. conceited D. excessive
Question 25: The President expressed his deep sorrow over the bombing deaths.
B. sadness B. passion
C. happiness D. regret
Question 26: “You broke my glasses.” said the woman to me.
A. The woman insisted on breaking her glasses.
B. The woman advised me to break her glasses.
C. The woman told me to break her glasses.
D. The woman blamed me for breaking her glasses .
Question 27: We’d better leave right away as the traffic will be heavy at this hour.
A. We mustn’t leave it too late as the roads are likely to be busy for the next hour.
B. The roads are busy at this time of day, so we ought to set off at once.
C. Let’s wait an hour so as to avoid some of the heavy traffic.
D. If we set off now, we won’t avoid most of the heavy traffic.
Question 28: Most students are aware of the importance of English.
A. Every student is aware of the importance of English.
B. All student are aware of the importance of English .
C. Not a single student is aware of the importance of English .
D. Almost all student are aware of the importance of English.
Question 29: He arrived at the airport. Then he called home.
A. Calling home, he said that he had arrived at the airport.
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B. No sooner had he arrived at the airport than he called home.
C. He arrived at the airport sooner than he had expected.
D. He arrived at the airport and called me to take him home.
Question 30: John Smith is a farmer. I bought his land.
A. John Smith, whose land I bought, is a farmer.
B. John Smith, who is a farmer, whose land I bought.
C. John Smith, whom I bought his land, is a farmer.
D. John Smith, a farmer, bought his land.
35.
EXAM ADVICE
In Part Three of the Speaking Section you work together with a partner. You have to do a
single task which usually lasts about 3 minutes. One possible task is "problem (31) ________ ",
which means you have to look at some visual information and then discuss the problem with
your partner. You may be shown photos, drawings, diagrams, maps, plans, advertisements or
computer graphics and it is (32) ________ that you study them carefully. If necessary, check you
know exactly what to do by politely asking the examiner to (33) ________ the instructions or
make them clearer.
While you are doing the task, the examiner will probably say very little and you should ask
your partner questions and make (34) _______ if he or she is not saying much. If either of you
have any real difficulties the examiner may decide to step in and help .Normally, however, you
will find plenty to say, which helps the assessor to give you a fair mark. This mark depends on
your success in doing the task by co-operating with your partner, which includes taking (35)
________ in giving opinions and replying appropriately, although in the end it may be possible
to "agree to disagree".
Question 31: A. solving B. working C. making D. finding
Question 32: A. helpful B. needed C. essential D. successful
Question 33: A. insist B. repeat C. tell D. copy
Question 34: A. ideas B. statements C. speeches D. suggestions
Question 35: A. changes B. sides C. turns D. sentences
Ever since humans have inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of
communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral
speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language
in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to
resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque
and exact and can be used internationally, spelling, however, cannot.
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Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or
unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod
signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction.
Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read
with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs
also guide, warm, and instruct people. While verbalization is most common form of language,
other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.
Question 36: Which of the following best summarizes this passage?
E. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication.
F. Everybody uses only one form of communication.
G. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners.
H. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest.
Question 37: The word “these” in the first paragraph refers to ________.
E. tourists
F. the deaf and the mute
G. thoughts and feelings
H. sign language motions
Question 38: Which form other than oral speech would be the most commonly used among blind
people?
E. Picture signs
F. Braille
G. Body language
H. Signal flags
Question 39: How many different forms of communication are mentioned here?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11
Question 40: The word “wink” in the second paragraph means most nearly the same
as________.
E. close one eye briefly
F. close two eyes briefly
G. bob the head up and down
H. shake the head from side to side
Question 41: What is the best title for the passage?
E. The importance of Sign Language
F. The Many Forms of Communication
G. Ways of Expressing Feelings
H. Picturesque Symbols of Communication
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Question 42: Who would be MOST likely to use Morse code?
E. A scientist
F. A spy
G. An airline pilot
H. A telegrapher
Simply being bilingual does not qualify someone to interpret. Interpreting is not only a
mechanical process of converting one sentence in language A into the same sentence in
language B. Rather, it is a complex art in which thoughts and idioms that have no obvious
counterparts from tongue to tongue _ or words that have several meanings must be quickly
transformed in such a way that the message is clearly and accurately expressed to the listener.
At one international conference, an American speaker said, “You can't make a silk purse
out of a sow’s ear”, which meant nothing to the Spanish audience. The interpretation was, “A
monkey in a silk dress is still a monkey” _ an idiom the Spanish understood and that expressed
the same idea.
There are two kinds of interpreters, simultaneous and consecutive. The former, sitting in a
separated booth, usually at a large multilingual conference, speaks to listeners wearing
headphones, interpreting what a foreign language speaker says _ actually a sentence behind.
Consecutive interpreters are the ones most international negotiations use. They are employed for
smaller meetings without sound booths and headphones. Consecutive interpretation also requires
two-person teams. A foreign speaker says his piece while the interpreter, using a special
shorthand, takes notes and during a pause, tells the client what was said.
Question 43: What is the purpose of the passage?
E. To differentiate between simultaneous and consecutive interpreters.
F. To state the qualifications of an interpreter.
G. To point out the importance of an interpreter.
H. To explain the scope of interpreting.
Question 44: What is a difference mentioned between a simultaneous interpreter and a
consecutive interpreter?
E. The size of group with whom they work.
F. Their proficiency in the language.
G. The type of dictionary they use.
H. The money they are paid.
Question 45: A precondition of being a translator is ________.
E. being able to use high-tech equipment.
F. being a linguist .
G. being bilingual.
H. working well with people.
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Question 46: The word “converting” is closest in meaning to ________.
E. changing
F. concluding
G. understanding
H. reading
Question 47: The author implies that most people have the opinion that the skill of interpreting is
________.
E. very complex and demanding
F. based on principles of business
G. simpler than it really is
H. highly valued and admired
Question 48: The word “rather” is closest in meaning to _______.
E. in brief
F. on the contrary
G. in general
H. as a result
Question 49: Which of the following would a consecutive interpreter be used for?
A. An interpretation of a major literary work.
B. A business transaction between two foreign speakers.
C. A large meeting of many nations.
D. A translation of a foreign book.
Question 50: The phrase “the former“ refers to _______.
E. simultaneous interpreters
F. the conference
G. consecutive interpreters
H. the both
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Question 1: A. concerned B. candied C. travelled D. dried
Question 2: A. combine B. determine C. discipline D. examine
Question 3: A. hospital B. inflation C. policy D. constantly
Question 4: A. garment B. comment C. cement D. even
Question 5: The sink of the South Korean ferry - the Sewol on 16 April 2014 has resulted in
A B
widespread social and political reaction within South Korean.
C D
Question 6: Some people disapprove of keep animals in zoos as they think it is cruel.
A B C D
Question 7: My favorite place in the world is a small city is located on the southern coast of
A B C D
Vietnam.
Question 8: Cong Phuong, ________ 2 goals for Vietnam in the match against Malaysia, is the
star of the 28th SEA Games.
A. score B. who scored C. scores D. scored
Question 9: At first he didn’t agree, but in the end we managed to bring him _______ to our
point of view.
B. over B. up C. back D. round
Question 10: We are ______ no obligation to change goods which were not purchased here.
B. to B. at C. with D. under
Question 11: Although we have a large number of students, each one receives ________
attention.
B. alone B. only C. single D. individual
Question 12: In many countries, education is ________ until the age of sixteen.
B. necessary B. compulsory C. essential D. legal
Question 13: In order to avoid boredom, the most important thing is to keep oneself _______.
B. occupied B. occupation C. occupant D. occupational
Question 14: A giraffe is a _______ animal. It has quite a long neck.
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B. long-neck B. neck long
C. long-necked D. lengthened-neck
Question 15: Ebola virus disease which is ongoing in West Africa is a serve, often fatal illness,
with a case _______ rate of up to 90%.
B. fatality B. dead C. mortal D. dying
Question 16: At the universities of Oxford and Cambridge the _______ of teachers to students is
very high.
B. proportion B. ratio C. percentage D. number
Question 17: According to present law, the authorities can give poachers a serve ________.
A. punishing B. punish C. punishable D. punishment
Question 18: The children had been _______ of the danger, but had taken no notice.
B. prevented B. warned C. explained D. shown
Question 19: We need ________ actions and interventions of the local authorities to prevent
national parks from being destroyed by pollution.
B. excitedly B. threateningly C. approximately D. timely
Question 20: Maria wants to borrow Stephen’s phone.
_ Maria: “Can I use your phone?”
_ Stephen: “________.”
E. I’m afraid so
F. Might as well
G. Be my guest
H. Serves you right
Question 21: Giang has just had his hair cut.
_ Lan: “Your hair style is terrific!”
_Giang: ”________”
E. Yes, that’s alright.
F. Thanks, I had it done this morning.
G. Thanks for the curl.
H. Never mention it.
Question 22: These are all-star, professional teams composed of 22 players each.
B. qualified B. handy C. practiced D. special
Question 23: She is always diplomatic when she deals with angry students.
B. strict B. outspoken C. tactful D. firm
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Question 24: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went
abroad to study.
B. made room for B. put in charge of
C. got in touch with D. lost control of
Question 25: We’d better speed up if we want to get there in time.
B. slow down B. turn down
C. put down D. lie down
Question 26: The doctor said, “You really ought to rest for a few days, Jasmine.”
A. Jasmine’s doctor insisted that she should rest for a few days.
B. The doctor suggested that Jasmine should take a short rest.
C. The doctor strongly advised Jasmine to take a few days’ rest.
D. It is the doctor’s recommendation that Jasmine rested shortly.
Question 27: To be quite honest, I can’t stand the taste of cigarettes.
A. In fact, I strongly dislike the taste of cigarettes.
B. Honestly, cigarettes make me ill.
C. Frankly, the taste of cigarettes doesn’t bother me.
D. As a matter of fact, I prefer to be seated while smoking.
Question 28: “What you have cooked is the best in the world!” John said to his girlfriend.
A. John asked his girlfriend what she had cooked.
B. John told his girlfriend what she had cooked is the best in the world.
C. John congratulated his girlfriend on her cooking.
D. John said to his girlfriend about her cooking.
Question 29: John is studying hard. He doesn’t want to fail the next exam.
A. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam.
B. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam.
C. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.
D. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam.
Question 30: His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious
institution.
A. Being poor academic record at high school, he failed to apply to that prestigious
institution.
B. Since his academic record at high school was poor, he failed to apply to that
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C. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that
D. His academic record at high school was poor so he didn’t apply to that prestigious
institution.
35.
Primary and secondary education in Australia are delivered through both government and
non-government providers. State and Territory governments have major responsibility (31)
_________ government schools education and contribute to funds for non-government schools.
(32) ________ students enroll in government schools which operate under the direct
responsibility for the State or Territory Education Minister, while the rest choose non-
government schooling. The Australian Government's role includes the provision of significant
supplementary financial (33) ________ to government and non-government school authorities to
support agreed priorities and strategies. Schooling is (34) _________ from age 6 to 15 in all
States and Territories except Tasmania, where it extends to 16. However, in most States and
Territories, children start primary school at the age of 5 when they enroll in preparatory or
kindergarten year, after which primary education continues for either 6 or 7 years depending on
the State or Territory. Secondary education is available for either 5 or 6 years depending on the
State and the length of primary education. Students usually commence their secondary schooling
when (35) ________ 12 or 13, reaching year 12 at 17 or 18.
Question 31: A. of B. about C. in D. for
Question 32: A. Most B. Mostly C. Almost D. The most
Question 33: A. sponsor B. supply C. support D. problem
Question 34: A. compulsory B. obliged C. must D. necessary
Question 35: A. age B. year C. aged D. at
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needs.
E. Students don’t have to go to school any more.
F. The effect of information technology on education.
G. Students can know about their weak aspects to focus.
H. Computer software will make sure students learn at home.
Question 37: The word “lifelike” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
E. realistic
F. special
G. suitable
H. likely
weekly?
E. Three
F. No time
G. Once or twice
H. Four
Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Pupils can to work online from home to complete a minimum number of study hour.
B. It is compulsory for students to attend the class at school.
C. Pupils have to sit in a lecture or a library to learn about their field.
D. Pupils must log on time to join live classes in other countries.
E. Find out the best activities for the students.
F. Design materials for the students.
G. Identify weaknesses of the students.
H. Monitor the time the students learn.
Question 41: The word "It" in the second paragraph refers to _________.
E. activity
F. report
G. achievement
H. software
Question 42: What is NOT MENTIONED as a benefit of information technology to the students?
E. Students can learn at times that suit their schedule.
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F. Students can stay at home to learn.
G. Students’ learning time won’t be monitored.
H. Students’ weak achievement can be identified.
THE RUINED TEMPLES OF ANGKOR
The ruined temples of Angkor are perhaps one of the most impressive Seven Wonders of
the World. Located in modern day Cambodia near Lake Tonle Sap, the largest freshwater lake in
Asia, Angkor was the seat of power for the Khmer Empire from the ninth to the most impressive
ones in the world, rivaling the pyramids of Giza in Egypt. Why this mighty civilization died out
is a question that archeologists are now only beginning to ponder. The answer, it turns out, may
be linked with the availability of fresh water.
One possible explanation for the downfall of the Khmer Empire has to do with the
inhabitants’ irrigation system. The temple and palaces of Angkor were constructed around a
series of artificial reservoirs and canals which were annually flooded to capacity by the Mekong
River. Once filled, they were used to irrigate the surrounding rice patties and farmland during
the course of the year. Farmers were completely dependent upon the water for their crucial rice
crop. Without consistent irrigation, the farmers would have been unable to maintain functional
crop production.
Scientists speculate that toward the end of the Khmer Empire the hydraulic systems of the
reservoirs and canals broke down. The construction of hundreds of sandstone temples and
palaces required an enormous amount of physical labor. In addition, as the capital of the Khmer
Empire, Angkor contained upwards of one hundred thousand people who resided in and around
Angkor. In order to feed so many people, the local farmers were driven to grow food quicker and
more efficiently. After centuries of continual use, the irrigation system was pushed beyond its
capacity. Soil erosion, nutrient depletion, and the loss of water led to decrease in the food supply.
With less food available, the people of Angkor slowly began to migrate to other parts of
Cambodia thus leaving the marvellous city of Angkor to be swallowed by the jungle. Therefore,
it is speculated that the Khmer Empire may have fallen victim to its own decrepit infrastructures.
Question 43: According to the passage, Lake Tonle Sap in Cambodia ________.
E. is one of the Seven Wonders of the World
F. is an enormous fresh body of water in Asia
G. was unable to supply enough fish for the people of Angkor
H. became polluted due to a population explosion
Question 44: The word “seat” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
E. battle
F. chief
G. summit
H. location
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E. Modern day agricultural procedures in Cambodia.
F. A possible explanation for the, decline of a civilization.
G. The essential role water plays in farming.
H. Religious temples of the ancient Khmer Empire.
Question 46: What does the passage preceding most likely discuss?
E. Architecture of ancient Asian civilization.
F. The form of government practiced by the Khmer Empire.
G. The other six wonders of the world.
H. Religious practices of the people of Angkor.
Question 47: The word “reservoirs” in the second paragraph could best be replaced by
________.
E. dams
F. rivers
G. lakes
H. wells
Question 48: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to _______.
E. temples and palaces
F. farmland
G. rice patties
H. reservoirs and canals
Question 49: All the following are mentioned as events that can affect food supply EXCEPT
_________.
E. reduction of nutrients
F. loss of water supply
G. erosion of soil
H. contamination of soil.
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that the inhabitants of the Khmer Empire
_________.
E. lost their food source due to excess rainfall
F. were intentionally starved by the farmers
G. depended upon rice as their main source of food
H. supplemented their diets with 'meat hunted in the nearby jungles
Question 1: A. speaks B. speeds C. photographs D. beliefs
Question 2: A. dune B. hummock C. shrub D. buffalo
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Question 3: A. achievement B. different C. educate D. primary
Question 4: A. sorrow B. schooling C. passion D. subtract
Question 5: Several people have apparent tried to change the man’s mid, but he refuses to listen.
A B C D
Question 6: People are surprising that Saudi Arabia has such a small population in comparison to
A B C
its land and size.
D
Question 7: In can’t stand him. He always disagrees with me of everything I suggest.
A B C D
Question 8: The Red List – a global list of endangered and vulnerable animal species – has been
introduced to _______ people’s awareness of conservation.
A. rise B. raise C. draw D. arise
Question 9: The United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is
a specialized _________ of the United Nations established on November 16, 1945.
B. office B. agency C. company D. enterprise
Question 10: Roger Federer couldn’t _________ the possibility of withdrawing from the
championship because of injury.
B. rule out B. pass over C. come off D. do without
Question 11: The ASEAN Vision 2020 is aimed ________ forging closer economic integration
within the region.
B. to B. for C. of D. at
Question 12: Euro 2016, which is the men’s football _________ of Europe, is scheduled to be
held in France from 10 June to 10 July 2016.
B. championship B. champions C. tournament D. final
Question 13: Anthony Burgess, _________ as a novelist, was originally a student of music.
B. because of being famous B. who has achieved fame
C. who because he was famous D. he achieved fame
Question 14: A lot of children participated in _________ performances.
A. fundraising B. raising-fund
C. fundraise D. funding-raise
Question 15: This company _________ in this town a long time ago. Now it is one of the
biggest.
B. was founded B. has been founded
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C. will be founded D. is founded
Question 16: Mai is a ________. She seldom feels sad or disappointed with her life.
B. pessimist B. pessimistic C. optimistic D. optimist
Question 17: No matter _________, Mozart was an accomplished composer while still a child.
A. how it seems remarkable B. how remarkable it seems
C. it seems remarkable how D. how seems it remarkable
Question 18: It is generally ________ that “Men build the house and women make it home”.
B. believed B. believe C. believing D. believes
Question 19: The population of ASEAN accounts _______ about 8.6% of the world’s
population.
B. of B. for C. in D. from
Question 20: James is asking for the way.
_ James: “_______?”
_ Stranger: “Yeah, down this street, on the left.”
E. Would you like to go by train?
F. Is this a train station?
G. Is there a station near here?
H. How often does the train come?
Question 21: Brian was late for school.
_ Brian: “Sorry, I was late again this morning”
_Peter: ”________”.
E. Yes, I know
F. Well, don’t let it happen again
G. It’s OK
H. No problem
Question 22: As children we were very close, but as we grew up we just drifted apart.
B. not as serious as before B. not as friendly as before
C. not as childlike as before D. not as sympathetic as before
Question 23: His physical conditions was no impediment to his career as a violinist.
B. help B. impatience C. impossibility D. hindrance
Question 24: I’ll be taking an English exam next Monday.
B. sitting for B. writing
C. failing D. giving
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Question 25: Primary education in the United States is compulsory.
B. free of charge B. required
C. excellent D. easy
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Question 26: Jane refused to attend his birthday party, which made him feel sad.
A. Jane made him sad despite her refusal to attend his birthday party.
B. He felt sad not to be able to attend her birthday party.
C. Jane’s refusal to attend his birthday party made him feel sad.
D. Jane to attend his birthday party because it made him sad.
Question 27: Calling Jim is pointless because his phone is out of order.
A. It’s useless calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
B. It’s no use to call Jim because his phone is out of order.
C. There’s no point in calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
D. It’s worth not calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
Question 28: It was only because I owed Bill a favor that I agree to help him.
A. I agree to help Bill only as a favor.
B. I agree to do Bill a favor, by helping him.
C. I only agreed to help Bill because I owed him some money.
D. If I hadn’t owed Bill a favor, I wouldn’t have agreed to help him.
Question 29: Her living conditions were difficult. However, she studied very well.
A. Difficult as her living conditions, she studied very well.
B. She studied very well thanks to the fact that she lived in difficult conditions.
C. She studied very well in spite of her difficult living conditions.
D. Although she lived in difficult conditions, but she studied very well.
Question 30: Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising. They want to increase their
sales.
A. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising, but they want to increase their
sales.
B. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising so that they want to increase their
sales.
C. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising with the aim of increasing their
sales.
D. In order that they want to increase their sales, companies spend millions of
dollars on advertising.
35.
The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in
being an employee? The schools teach a (31) ________ many things of value to the future
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accountant, doctor or electrician. Do they also teach anything of value to the future employee?
Yes, they teach the one thing that it is perhaps most valuable for the future employee to know.
But very few students bother to learn it. This basic is the skill ability to organize and express
ideas in writing and in speaking. This means that your success as an employee will depend on
your ability to communicate with people and to (32) ________ your own thoughts and ideas to
them so they will both understand what you are driving at and be persuaded.
Of course, skill in expression is not enough (33) ________ itself. You must have something
to say in the first place. The effectiveness of your job depends much on your ability to make
other people understand your work as they do on the quality of the work itself.
Expressing one's thoughts is one skill that the school can (34) ________ teach. The
foundations for skill in expression have to be laid early: an interest in and an ear for language;
experience in organizing ideas and data, in brushing aside the irrelevant, and above all the habit
of (35) _______. If you do not lay these foundations during your school years, you may never
have an opportunity again.
Question 31: A. large B. great C. far D. lots
Question 32: A. interpret B. give out C. transfer D. present
Question 33: A. on B. for C. by D. in
Question 34: A. quite B. hardly C. truly D. really
Question 35: A. nonverbal B. nonverbal cues
C. verbal expression D. verbal
Galaxies are the major building blocks of the universe. A galaxy is a giant family of many
millions of stars, and it is held together by its own gravitational field. Most of the material
universe is organized into galaxies of stars, together with gas and dust.
There are three main types of galaxy: spiral, elliptical, and irregular. The Milky Way is a
spiral galaxy: a flattish disc of stars with two spiral arms emerging from its central nucleus.
About one-quarter of all galaxies have this shape. Spiral galaxies are well supplied with the
interstellar gas in which new stars form: as the rotating spiral pattern sweeps around the galaxy it
compresses gas and dust, triggering the formation of bright young stars in its arms. The elliptical
galaxies have a symmetrical elliptical or spheroidal shape with no obvious structure. Most of
their member stars are very old and since ellipticals are devoid of interstellar gas, no new stars
are forming in them. The biggest and brightest galaxies in the universe are ellipticals with masses
of about 1013 times that of the Sun; these giants may frequently be sources of strong radio
emission, in which case they are called radio galaxies. About two-thirds of all galaxies are
elliptical. Irregular galaxies comprise about one-tenth of all galaxies and they come in many
subclasses.
Measurement in space is quite different from measurement on Earth. Some terrestrial
distances can be expressed as intervals of time: the time to fly from one continent to another or
the time it takes to drive to work, for example. By comparison with these familiar yardsticks, the
distances to the galaxies are incomprehensibly large, but they are made more manageable by
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using a time calibration, in this case the distance that light travels in one year. On such a scale
the nearest giant spiral galaxy, the Andromeda galaxy, is two million light years away. The most
distant luminous objects seen by telescopes are probably ten thousand million light years away.
Their light was already halfway here before the Earth even formed. The light from the nearby
Virgo galaxy set out when reptiles still dominated the animal world.
Question 36: The world "major" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
E. intense
F. principal
G. huge
H. unique
Question 37: What does the second paragraph mainly discuss?
E. The Milky Way.
F. How elliptical galaxies are formed.
G. Major categories of galaxies.
H. Difference between irregular and spiral galaxies.
Question 38: According to the passage, new stars are formed in spiral galaxies in _______.
E. an explosion of gas
F. the combining of old stars
G. the compression of gas and dust
H. strong radio emissions
Question 39: The word "obvious" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. discovered
B. apparent
C. understood
D. simplistic
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true of elliptical galaxies?
E. They are largest galaxies.
F. They contain a high amount of interstellar gas.
G. They mostly contain old stars.
H. They have a spherical shape.
Question 41: What percentage of galaxies are irregular?
E. 10%
F. 25%
G. 50%
H. 75%
Question 42: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ________.
E. intervals
F. yardsticks
G. distances
H. galaxies
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Tulips are Old World, rather than New World, plants, with the origins of the species lying
in Central Asia. They became an integral part of the gardens of the Ottoman Empire from the
sixteenth century onward, and, soon after, part of European life as well. Holland, in particular,
became famous for its cultivation of the flower.
A tenuous line marked the advance of the tulip to the New World, where it was unknown
in the wild. The first Dutch colonies in North America had been established in New Netherlands
by the Dutch West India Company in 1624, and one individual who settled in New Amsterdam
(today's Manhattan section of New York City) in 1642 described the flowers that bravely
colonized the settlers' gardens. They were the same flowers seen in Dutch still-life paintings of
the time: crown imperials, roses, carnations, and of course tulips. They flourished in
Pennsylvania too, where in 1698 William Penn received a report of John Tateham's "Great and
Stately Palace”, its garden full of tulips.
By 1760, Boston newspapers were advertising 50 different kinds of mixed tulip "roots”.
But the length of the journey between Europe and North America created many difficulties.
Thomas Hancock, an English settler, wrote thanking his plant supplier for a gift of some tulip
bulbs from England, but his letter the following year grumbled that they were all dead.
Tulips arrived in Holland, Michigan, with a later wave of early nineteenth-century Dutch
immigrants who quickly colonized the plains of Michigan. Together with many other Dutch
settlements, such as the one at Pella. Iowa, they established a regular demand for European
plants. The demand was bravely met by a new kind of tulip entrepreneur, the traveling
salesperson. One Dutchman, Hendrick Van Der Schoot, spent six months in 1849 traveling
through the United States taking orders for tulip bulbs. While tulip bulbs were traveling from
Europe to the United States to satisfy the nostalgic longings of homesick English and Dutch
settlers, North American plants were traveling in the opposite direction. In England, the
enthusiasm for American plants was one reason why tulips dropped out of fashion in the gardens
of the rich and famous.
Question 43: Which of the following questions does the passage mainly answer?
E. What is the difference between an Old World and a New World plant?
F. Why are tulips grown in many different parts of the world?
G. How did tulips become popular in North America?
H. Where were the first Dutch colonies in North America located?
Question 44: The word "integral" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
E. interesting
F. fundamental
G. ornamental
H. overlooked
Question 45: The passage mentions that tulips were first found in which of the following
regions?
E. Central Asia
F. Western Europe
G. India
H. North America
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Question 46: The word "flourished" in this passage is closest in meaning to ________.
E. were discovered
F. were marketed
G. combined
H. thrived
Question 47: The author mentions tulip growing in New Netherland, Pennsylvania and Michigan
in order to illustrate how ________.
E. imported tulips were considered more valuable than locally grown tulips
F. tulips were commonly passed as gifts from one family to another
G. tulips grew progressively more popular in North America
H. attitudes toward tulips varied from one location to another
Question 48: The word "grumbled" in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
E. denied
F. warned
G. complained
H. explained
Question 49: The word "they" in the passage refers to ________.
E. tulips
F. plains
G. immigrants
H. plants
Question 50: According to the passage, which of the following changes occurred in English
gardens during the European settlement of North America?
E. They grew in size in order to provide enough plants to export to the New World.
F. They contained a wider variety of tulips than ever before.
G. They contained many new types of North American plants.
H. They decreased in size on the estates of wealthy people.
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Question 1: A. increased B. pleased C. replaced D. fixed
Question 2: A. doubt B. club C. lamb D. bomber
Question 3: A. uncertainty B. activity C. organize D. gigantic
Question 4: A. selfish B. replace C. involve D. escape
Question 5: A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered
A B C
basic part of the education of every child.
D
Question 6: Computers have made access to information instantly available just by push a few
A B C D
buttons.
Question 7: Any passengers travel to Cambridge should sit in the first two carriages of the train.
A B C D
Question 8: The new song has _______ been selected for Euro 2016.
A. officially B. official C. office D. officer
Question 9: Do you think he is ________ of doing the job?
B. suitable B. able C. competent D. capable
Question 10: A _______ knit community is the one in which relationships are very close.
B. actively B. quickly C. hardly D. close
Question 11: Vietnam sent out eight planes ________ Malaysia missing jet on the East Sea on
March 8,2014.
B. in search of B. in search for C. search for D. in search
Question 12: The manager did not offer her the job because of her untidy ________.
B. sight B. view C. presence D. appearance
Question 13: He is disappointed at not being offered the job, but I think he will _______ it.
B. turn off B. fill in C. get over D. take after
Question 14: The influence of a mother’s love is ________ that of the father’s.
A. of the same important B. of the same important as
C. the same important D. as the same important as
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Question 15: All the cereal grains ________ grow on the prairies and plains of the United States.
B. but for rice B. expecting rice
C. but rice D. except the rice
Question 16: Many young people have objected to ________ marriage, which is decided by the
parents of the bride and groom.
B. agreed B. compulsory C. contractual D. sacrificed
Question 17: Lucy was late for school this morning because the alarm didn’t _______ as usual.
A. ring off B. go off C. get off D. take off
Question 18: Joe is an orphan. He was brought _______ by his aunt.
B. about B. up C. around D. on
Question 19: Cotton shirts feel ________ than polyester ones.
B. much softer B. more softly C. far more softly D. far more softer
Question 20: Jane has just finished up a cup of coffee and some sweets John offered.
_ John: “_______.”
_ Jane: “No, thank you. That’ll be all.”
E. What would you like?
F. It’s very kind of you to help me.
G. What kind of food do you like?
H. Would you like anything else?
Question 21: Ann thanked Bill for helping her with the presentation.
_ Ann: “Thank you. I couldn’t have finished my presentation without your help.”
_Bill : ”________”.
E. Forget about it. I didn’t mean so.
F. I highly appreciate what you did.
G. Yes, that’s that.
H. Never mind.
Question 22: Childbearing is the women’s most wonderful role.
B. Bring up a child B. Giving birth to a baby
C. Having no child D. Educating a child
Question 23: An interesting feature of this park is the Orphanage where lots of orphaned or
abandoned animals are taken care of.
B. immoral B. wicked C. shameless D. deserted
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Question 24: We all looked up to these fire fighters who put out the terrible fire in our town last
night.
B. respected B. looked forward
C. admired D. looked down on
A. withdraw some money from
B. put some money into
C. give some money out
D. leave some money aside
Question 26: Although he was very tired, he agreed to help his child with his homework.
A. Despite of his tiredness, he was eager to help his child with his homework.
B. Tired as he was, he agreed to help his child with his homework.
C. Even if feeling very tired, he agreed to help his child with his homework.
D. He would have helped his child with his homework if he hadn’t been tired.
Question 27: Much as I respect your point of view, I can’t agree.
A. I can’t agree because I respect your point of view.
B. I respect your point of view, so I agree.
C. Even though I respect your point of view, I can’t agree.
D. I can’t agree with your point of view even if I respect you.
Question 28: “Don’t forget to go to the supermarket after work!” he said.
A. He told me that I shouldn’t forget to go to the supermarket after work.
B. He requested me not to forget to go to the supermarket after work.
C. He reminded me to go to the supermarket after work.
D. He asked me no to forget to go to the supermarket after work.
Question 29: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.
A. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot.
B. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot.
C. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.
D. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.
Question 30: The news was wonderful. As a consequence, we decided to have a celebration.
A. It was such a wonderful news that we decided to have a celebration.
B. We decided to have a celebration so that we heard the news
C. We decided to have a celebration so as to hear wonderful news.
D. It was such wonderful news that we decided to have a celebration.
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35.
Scientists say we clean our teeth the wrong way. Researchers from University College,
London found that most of the advice that dentists give us (31) ________ very different. They
add that we have been cleaning our teeth the wrong way. The researchers looked at tooth-
brushing advice in dental textbooks, toothpaste instructions and dental clinics. They found five
different basic ways of tooth-brushing and decided all of them were incorrect. (32) ________ the
methods involve moving the toothbrush along the teeth, with the brush moving round and round
in small circular movements. The researchers said we should stop doing this and use a back-and-
(33) _________ movement instead.
The research suggests not brushing teeth too much. More than twice a day damages the
enamel on the teeth. The recommended time for brushing is (34) ________ than three minutes
each time. The research also says using too much pressure and brushing your teeth too hard will
also damage teeth. Researchers also advised not cleaning your teeth immediately after eating.
This is (35) _______ acid is strongest in your mouth and this acid will damage teeth. A final
recommendation was to clean the tongue too because it also has a lot of bacteria.
Question 31: A. is B. are C. was D. were
Question 32: A. Every of B. Most of C. Each of D. Any of
Question 33: A. for B. fourth C. forwards D. forth
Question 34: A. not longer B. no more longer
C. no longer D. longer not
Question 35: A. when B. what C. why D. how
England was a powerful country in the world. It had a lot of colonies. In the American
colonies there was little money. England did not supply the colonies with coins and did not allow
the colonies to make their own coins, except for the Massachusetts Bay Colony, which received
permission for a short period in 1652 to make several kinds of silver coins. England wanted to
keep money out of America as a means of controlling trade: America was forced to trade only
with England if it did not have the money to buy products from other countries. The result during
this pre-Revolutionary period was that the colonists used various goods in place of money:
beaver pelts, Indian wampum, and tobacco leaves were all commonly used substitutes for
money. The colonists also made use of any foreign coins they could obtain. Dutch, Spanish,
French, and English coins were all in use in the American colonies.
During the Revolutionary War, funds were needed to finance the war, so each of the
individual states and the Continental Congress issued paper money. So much of this paper
money was printed that, by the end of the war, almost no one would accept it. As a result, trade
in goods and the use of foreign coins still flourished during this period.
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By the time the Revolutionary War had been won by the American colonists, the monetary
system was in a state of total disarray. To remedy this situation, the new Constitution of the
United States, approved in 1789, allowed Congress to issue money. The individual states could
no longer have their own money supply. A few years later, the Coinage Act of 1792 made the
dollar the official currency of the United States and put the country on a bimetallic standard. In
this bimetallic system, both gold and silver were legal money, and the rate of exchange of silver
to gold was fixed by the government at sixteen to one.
Question 36: The passage mainly discusses _______.
E. the effect of the Revolution on American money
F. American money from past to present
G. the English monetary policies in colonial America
H. the American monetary system of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries
Question 37: The passage indicates that during the colonial period, money was ________.
E. used extensively for trade
F. scarce
G. supplied by England
H. coined by colonists
Question 38: The expression “a means of” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by
________.
E. a result of
F. a method of
G. a punishment for
H. an example of
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a substitute for money
during the colonial period?
A. Wampum
B. Cotton
C. Beaver furs
D. Tobacco
Question 40: The pronoun “it” in the second paragraph refers to which of the following?
E. The Continental Congress.
F. Trade in goods.
G. The war.
H. Paper money.
Question 41: The word “remedy” ” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
E. resolve
F. medicate
G. renew
H. understand
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Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE about the
bimetallic monetary system?
E. Either gold or silver could be used as official money.
F. It was established in 1792.
G. Gold could be exchanged for silver at the rate of sixteen to one.
H. The monetary system was based on two metals.
Fifty-five delegates representing all thirteen states except Rhode Island attended the
Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia from May to September 1787. The delegates had been
instructed by the Continental Congress to revise the old Articles of Confederation, but most
believed that a stronger central government was needed. There were differences, however, about
what structure the government should take and how much influence large states should have.
Virginia was by far the most populous state, with twice as many as people as New York,
four times as many as New Jersey, and ten times as many as Delaware. The leader of the
Virginia delegation, James Madison, had already drawn up a plan for government, which became
known as the Large State Plan. Its essence was that congressional representation would be based
on population. It provided for two or more national executives. The smaller states feared that
under this plan, a few large states would lord over the rest. New Jersey countered with the Small
State Plan. It provided for equal representation for all states in a national legislature and for a
single national executive. Angry debate, heightened by a stifling heat wave, led to deadlock.
A cooling of tempers seemed to come with lower temperatures. The delegates hammered
out an agreement known as the Great Compromise – actually a bundle of shrewd compromises.
They decided that Congress would consist of two houses. The larger states were granted
representation based on population in the lower house, the House of Representatives. The
smaller states were given equal representation in the upper house, the Senate, in which each state
would have two senators regardless of population. It was also agreed that there would be a single
executive, the president. This critical compromise broke the logjam, and from then on, success
seemed within reach.
E. James Madison’s plan to create a stable structure for the government of the United States.
F. The differences in population and relative power between the original states.
G. A disagreement at the Constitutional Convention and a subsequent compromise.
H. The most important points of the Small State Plan.
Question 44: According to the passage, how many states were represented at the Constitutional
Convention?
E. Fourteen
F. Twelve
G. Thirteen
H. Fifty-five
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Question 45: It can be inferred from the passage that the Articles of Confederation ___________.
E. allowed small states to dominate large ones
F. provided for only a weak central government
G. were revised and presented as the Large State Plan
H. were supported by a majority of the delegates at the Convention
Question 46: According to the passage, in 1787 which of the following states had the FEWEST
people?
E. New York
F. Delaware
G. New Jersey
H. Virginia
Question 47: According to the passage, the weather had what effect on the Constitutional
Convention?
E. Cold temperatures made Independence Hall an uncomfortable place to work.
F. Hot weather intensified the debate while cooler weather brought compromise.
G. Bad weather prevented some of the delegates from reaching Philadelphia.
H. Delegates hurried to achieve an agreement before winter arrived.
Question 48: The word “shrewd” is closest in meaning to _________.
E. clever
F. unfair
G. important
H. practical
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as one of the provisions of the
Great Compromise?
E. Each state would have two senators
F. Congress would be divided into two bodies
G. There would be only one national executive
H. The president would be elected by popular vote
Question 50: The author uses the phrase "broke the logjam" to indicate that ___________.
E. the Convention came to a sudden end.
F. the situation had become desperate.
G. the government was nearly bankrupt.
H. some major problems had been solved.
Question 1: A. looks B. knows C. helps D. sits
Question 2: A. machine B. chemistry C. chemical D. chemist
Question 3: A. police B. system C. woman D. novel
Question 4: A. attract B. amaze C. offer D. require
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Question 5: Lan together with her boyfriends are working in groups to find out the solution to
A B C D
that problem.
Question 6: We are talking about our librarian from who we borrowed that book yesterday.
A B C D
Question 7: Today’s temperature is much hotter than yesterday.
A B C D
Question 8: By the time he arrives here tomorrow, they _______ for London.
A. would have left B. will have left C. will left D. are leaving
Question 9: Nowadays, students like playing ________ soccer or volleyball after their school.
B. a B. some C. the D. 0
Question 10: Of the three girls, Hoa is ________.
B. beautiful B. more beautiful
C. the more beautiful D. the most beautiful
Question 11: He asked me and his friends ________ his pens.
B. when did he put B. where he puts
C. where he had put D. where had he put
Question 12: Look! Your book next to the window is wet. You _______ the window last night.
B. must open B. might open
C. should open D. must have opened
Question 13: In most football matches, referees often wear _______ black.
B. in B. for C. with D. on
th
Question 14: On the occasion of 8 March last year, we offered my old form teacher a ________
scarf.
A. red new Japanese silk B. new red silk Japanese
C. new red Japanese silk D. silk red new Japanese
Question 15: They spend a large _______ of time doing their house chore every day.
B. amount B. number C. much D. many
Question 16: His son _______ him so much that we can’t see any differences between them.
B. takes after B. looks up
C. takes in D. looks over
Question 17: My sister in-law is beloved by all my relatives for she can ________ all right after
getting married.
A. get on well with B. get up C. get over D. get out of
Question 18: I was going to leave when something happened, which attracted my ________.
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B. attention B. sympathy C. thought D. surprise
Question 19: My teacher said that I could speak English ________ in six months if I tried my
best.
B. fluent B. fluently C. unfluent D. unfluently
Question 20: Two friends Peter and Lida are talking about pet.
_ Peter: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house.”
_ Lida: “_______.”
E. Nothing more to say
F. You can say that again
G. Yes, I hope so
H. No, dogs are very good, too
Question 21: Tuan and Peter are talking at Tuan’s birthday party.
_ Tuan: “Thank you so much for your lovely present.”
_ Peter: ”________”.
E. Well done.
F. It’s nothing. It’s cheap.
G. You are welcome.
H. You are very kind to me.
Question 22: The World Health Organization was established on April 7th 1948.
B. made up B. built up C. set up D. put up
Question 23: Many young children are spending a large amount of time playing video games
without being aware of their detriment to their school work.
B. harm B. advantage C. support D. benefit
Question 24: The job, which seems arduous to most of the applicants, offers a competitive
salary.
B. austere B. effortless C. beneficial D. difficult
Question 25: Many endangered species may die out in few decades if we don’t find out effective
solutions.
A. disappear B. exist C. vanish D. pass away
Question 26: It took me 3 hours to repair the roof.
A. I lasted 3 hours to repair the roof.
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B. I have spent 3 hours repaired the roof.
C. I spent 3 hours repairing the roof.
D. I spent 3 hours to repair the roof.
Question 27: “You should have finished the report by now” the boss said to his secretary.
A. The boss suggested his secretary should have finished the report on time.
B. The boss scolded his secretary for not finishing the report on time.
C. The boss reminded his secretary of finishing the report on time.
D. The boss advised his secretary to finish the report on time.
Question 28: John didn’t install an alarm, so the thieves broke into his house last night.
A. If John installed an alarm, the thieves didn’t break into his house last night.
B. Because John hadn’t installed an alarm, the thieves would break into his house last
night.
C. If John had installed an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t break into his house last night.
D. Had John installed an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t have broken into his house last
night.
Question 29: My father is living with me. My younger sister is living with me, too.
A. Either my father or my younger sister is living with me.
B. Neither my father nor my younger sister is living with me.
C. I live with my father and my younger sister, too.
D. Not only my father but also my younger sister is living with me.
Question 30: He has tried hard. He can’t still earn enough money.
A. Although he has tried hard, but he can’t still earn enough money.
B. No matter how hard he has tried, he can’t still earn enough money.
C. In spite of he has tried hard, he can’t still earn enough money.
D. Despite the fact that trying hard, he can’t still earn enough money.
Read the following passage on climate change, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 38.
Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extremely concerned about the
changes to our climate which are taking place. Admittedly, climate changes have occurred on our
planet before. For example, there have been several ice ages or glacial periods.
These climatic changes, however, were different from the modern ones in that they
occurred gradually and, as far as we know, naturally. The changes currently being monitored are
said to be the result not of natural causes, but of human activity. Furthermore, the rate of change
is becoming alarmingly rapid.
The major problem is that the planet appears to be warming up. According to some experts,
this warming process, known as global warming, is occurring at a rate unprecedented in the last
10,000 years. The implications for the planet are very serious. Rising global temperatures could
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give rise to such ecological disasters as extremely high increases in the incidence of flooding and
of droughts. These in turn could have a harmful effect on agriculture.
It is thought that this unusual warming of the Earth has been caused by so-called
greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, being emitted into the atmosphere by car engines and
modern industrial processes, for example. Such gases not only add to the pollution of the
atmosphere, but also create a greenhouse effect, by which the heat of the sun is trapped. This
leads to the warming up of the planet.
Politicians are also concerned about climate change and there are now regular summits on
the subject, attended by representatives from around 180 of the world’s industrialized countries.
Of these summits, the most important took place in Kyoto in Japan in 1997. There it was agreed
that the most industrialized countries would try to reduce the volume of greenhouse gas
emissions and were given targets for this reduction of emissions.
It was also suggested that more forests should be planted to create so-called sinks to
absorb greenhouse gases. At least part of the problem of rapid climate change has been caused
by too drastic deforestation.
Sadly, the targets are not being met. Even more sadly, global warnings about climate
changes are often still being regarded as scaremongering.
Question 31: According to the passage, in what way did the climate changes in the ice ages differ
from the modern ones?
E. They occurred naturally over a long period of time.
F. They were partly intended.
G. They were wholly the result of human activity.
H. They were fully monitored by humans.
Question 32: The word “alarmingly” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
_________.
E. disapprovingly
F. disappointingly
G. surprisingly
H. worryingly
Question 33: According to the passage, agriculture could _________.
E. make the global warming more serious
F. be indirectly affected by the global temperature rises
G. give rise to many ecological disasters
H. be directly damaged by the rises in global temperature
Question 34: According to the passage, 1997 witnessed _________.
E. the largest number of summits on the subject of climate change
F. the most important summit on climate change taking place in Kyoto, Japan
G. the highest attendance by representatives from 180 industrialized countries
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H. widespread concern about climate change
Question 35: It can be inferred from the passage that the countries which are mainly responsible
for global warming are ________.
E. countries with the warmest climate
F. developing countries
G. developed countries
H. the most industrialized countries
Question 36: The word “There” in the fifth paragraph refers to ________.
E. the world’s industrialized countries
F. regular summits on climate change
G. the most industrialized countries
H. the 1997 summit in Kyoto, Japan
Question 37: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
E. Carbon dioxide is one of the gases that may cause the so-called greenhouse effect.
F. The so-called sinks created by forests can absorb greenhouse gases.
G. The problem of rapid climate change has been caused mainly by deforestation.
H. Politicians are among those who are concerned about climate change.
Question 38: What is probably the writer’s attitude toward global warning?
E. Optimistic
F. Pessimistic
G. Neutral
H. Positive
43.
Women nowadays have more advantages than those in the past. For example, our great
grandmothers were not allowed to go to school or to work (39) _______ their own living. (40)
_______, they had to depend on their husbands financially. Modern women, on the contrary, can
get good education, have their own careers, and pursue their interests. They can even take good
positions in politics if they are competent at it. However, women living in our modern society
have their problems too. Today women work harder than their great grandmothers so that they
can gain the balance between working life (41) _______ family life. Many people predict that by
2032, most senior positions at work will be taken by women. Then, it is possible that women will
have more strenuous life because, (42) ________ in a very modern society, the women can’t (43)
________ their role in the family.
Question 39: A. to do B. to earn C. to make D. to produce
Question 40: A. Therefore B. However C. As a result D. Although
Question 41: A. so B. and C. for D. but
Question 42: A. though B. even C. ever D. never
Question 43: A. perform B. adopt C. fulfill D. neglect
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Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered
unusual not to use one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They
find that the phones are means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are
cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals
worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems
from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue.
Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that
there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people
who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with
modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because
of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the
name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every
day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use,
but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-
tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone
companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry
about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones
less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone
only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in
emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for
your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.
Question 44: According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with young people
because ________.
E. they are indispensable in everyday communications.
F. they make them look more stylish.
G. they keep the users alert all the time.
H. they cannot be replaced by regular phones.
Question 45: The changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with
_________.
E. the mobility of the mind and the body
F. the smallest units of the brain
G. the arteries of the brain
H. the resident memory
Question 46: The word "means" in the passage most closely means ________.
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E. meanings
F. expression
G. methods
H. transmission
Question 47: "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means ________.
E. information on the lethal effects of cellphones
F. widespread opinion about bad effects of cellphones
G. the negative public use of cellphones
H. poor ideas about the effects of cellphones
Question 48: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cellphone too often ________.
E. suffered serious loss of mental ability.
F. could no longer think lucidly
G. abandoned his family
H. had a problem with memory
Question 49: According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is
________.
E. their radiant light
F. their power of attraction
G. their raiding power
H. their power of attraction
Question 50: The most suitable title for the passage could be _________.
E. “The reasons why mobile phones are popular”
F. “Technological innovations and their price”
G. “The way mobile phones work”
H. “Mobile phones - a must of our time”
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Question 1: A. linked B. declared C. finished D. developed
Question 2: A. heavy B. head C. weather D. easy
Question 3: A. delicate B. promotion C. volcanic D. resources
Question 4: A. figure B. ever C. apply D. happy
Question 5: My father asked me where had I gone the night before.
A B C D
Question 6: The harder he tried, the worst he danced before the large audience.
A B C D
Question 7: Each of the members of the group were made to write a report every week.
A B C D
Question 8: I don’t think that this fashion will catch ________.
A. on B. up C. out D. over
Question 9: Next week when there ______ a full moon, the ocean tide will be higher.
B. is B. will be C. is being D. will have been
Question 10: ______ is the natural environment in which plants or animals live.
B. Ecology B. Habitat C. Extinction D. Biodiversity
Question 11: They would _______ go by air than travel by train.
B. always B. better C. prefer D. rather
Question 12: Staying in a hotel costs _______ renting a room in a dormitory for a week.
B. as much as twice B. twice as much as
C. twice more than D. twice as
Question 13: Jim painted the gate ______ than his father did 2 years ago.
B. badly B. bad C. worst D. worse
Question 14: She waited for twenty minutes and _______ arrived at the head of the queue.
A. lastly B. finally C. at the end D. eventual
Question 15: ________ could only have been made by someone totally incompetent.
B. So serious in this mistake B. How serious a mistake
C. So serious a mistake D. Such serious mistake
Question 16: A few animals sometimes fool their enemies ________ to be dead.
B. have been appearing B. to be appearing
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C. to appear D. by appearing
Question 17: I have no idea how to _______ this kind of business.
A. make B. turn C. take D. run
Question 18: “ My secretary will book you an afternoon flight and have you ______ at the
airport”.
B. to pick up B. picked up C. pick up D. picking up
Question 19: Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by _______ rocking chair.
B. a wooden old beautiful European B. a beautiful old European wooden
C. an old beautiful wooden European D. an old wooden European beautiful
Question 20: _ Tony: “I’d like to place an order for delivery, please.”
_ Diana: “_______.”
E. Sure, what would you like?
F. Sure, what time is it?
G. We actually take orders at five
H. Sure, how much is it?
Question 21: _ Albert: “This dish is really nice!”
_Bill : ”________. It’s called yakitori, and it’s made with chicken livers”.
E. It’s my pleasure.
F. Sure, I’ll be glad to.
G. I’m glad you like it.
H. I guess you are right.
B. happen B. encounter C. arrive D. clean
Question 23: Billy, come and give me a hand with cooking.
B. help B. prepared C. be busy D. attempt
Question 24: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at
the annual meeting in May.
B. politeness B. rudeness C. measurement D. encouragement
Question 25: We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.
A. uninterested B. unsure C. open D. slow
Question 26: Their dog was so fierce that nobody would visit them.
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A. Their dog was too fierce to visit.
B. They had so fierce a dog that nobody would visit them.
C. They had a such fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
D. They had a so fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
Question 27: My mother had the house decorated.
A. The house was decorated by my mother.
B. My mother had someone decorated the house.
C. My mother had to decorate the house.
D. My mother has just decorated the house.
Question 28: The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
A. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
B. It was midnight that the noise next door stopped.
C. Not until after midnight did the noise next door stopped.
D. The noise next door stopped at midnight.
Question 29: I’d prefer him not to have said all those embarrassing things about me.
A. I’d prefer him not saying all those embarrassing things about me.
B. I’d sooner he hadn’t said all those embarrassing things about me.
C. I’d rather he didn’t say all those embarrassing things about me.
D. I’d not prefer his saying all those embarrassing things about me.
Question 30: Nobody at all came to the meeting.
A. Not many people came to the meeting.
B. Not a single person came to the meeting.
C. There was almost nobody at the meeting.
D. Only a few people came to the meeting.
35.
At the beginning of the nineteenth century, the American educational system was
desperately in need of reform. Private schools existed, but only for the very rich. There were
very few public schools because of the strong sentiment that children who would grow up to be
laborers should not "waste" their time on education but should instead prepare themselves for
their life's work. It was in the face of this public sentiment that educational reformers set about
their task. Horace Mann, probably the most famous of the reformers, felt that there was no
excuse in a republic for any citizen to be uneducated. Education is important (31) ________ it
helps people get more out of life. It increases their knowledge and understanding of the world. It
helps them acquire the skills that make life more interesting and enjoyable, (32) ________ the
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skills needed to participate in a sport, paint a picture, or play a musical instrument. Such
education becomes (33) _________ important as people gain more and leisure time.
social changes today take place with increasing speed and (34) ________ the lives of more and
more people. Education can help a person understand these changes and provide him (35)
________ the skills for adjusting to them.
Question 32: A. such as B. for instance C. such that D. for example
Question 33: A. increased B. increasing C. increase D. increasingly
Question 34: A. effect B. affect C. affective D. effective
Question 35: A. with B. for C. in D. to
The goal of Internet-based encyclopedia Wikipedia (www.wikipedia.org) is to give
everyone on the planet access to information. Like other encyclopedias, Wikipedia contains lots
of information: more than 2.5 million articles in 200 different languages covering just about
every subject. Unlike other encyclopedias, however, Wikipedia is not written by experts, but by
ordinary people. These writers are not paid and their names are not published. They contribute to
Wikipedia simply because they want to share their knowledge.
Encyclopedias began in ancient times as collections of writings about all aspects of human
knowledge. The word itself comes from ancient Greek, and means “a complete general
education”. Real popularity for encyclopedias came in the nineteenth century in Europe and the
United States, with the publication of encyclopedias written for ordinary readers. With the
invention of the CD-ROM, the same amount of information could be put on a few computer
discs. Then with the Internet, it became possible to create an online encyclopedia that could be
constantly updated, like Microsoft’s Encarta. However, even Internet-based encyclopedias like
Encarta were written by paid experts. At first, Wikipedia, the brainchild of Jimmy Wales, a
businessman in Chicago, was not so different from these. In 2001, he had the idea for an
Internet-based encyclopedia that would provide information quickly and easily to everyone.
Furthermore, that information would be available free, unlike other Internet encyclopedias at that
time.
But Wales, like everyone else, believed that people with special knowledge were needed to
write the articles, and so he began by hiring experts. He soon changed his approach, however, as
it took them a long time to finish their work. He decided to open up the encyclopedia in a radical
new way, so that everyone would have access not only to the information, but also to the process
of putting this information online. To do this, he used what is known as “Wiki” software (from
the Hawaiian word for “fast”), which allows users to create or alter content on web page. The
system is very simple: When you open the web site, you can simply search for information or
you can log on to become a writer or editor of articles. If you find an article that interests you –
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about your hometown, for example – you can correct it or expand it. This process goes on until
no one is interested in making any more changes.
Question 36: Wikipedia is written by________.
E. paid written
F. millionaires
G. normal people
H. world experts
Question 37: The phrase “the word” in the second paragraph refers to_______.
E. knowledge
F. encyclopedia
G. writing
H. collection
Question 38: Microsoft’s Encarta is cited in the passage as an example of _______.
E. CD-ROM dictionary
F. printed encyclopedia
G. online encyclopedia
H. updateable online encyclopedia
Question 39: The word “brainchild” in the second paragraph of the passage can be best replaced
by_______.
E. born
F. child
G. product
H. father
Question 40: The user of Wikipedia can do all of the following EXCEPT_______.
E. have access to information.
F. determinate the website
G. modify information
H. edit information
Question 41: We can say that Jimmy Wales________.
E. became very famous after the formation of Wikipedia
F. is the father of Wikipedia
G. made a great profit from Wikipedia
H. decides who can use Wikipedia
Question 42: Wikipedia is a(n) _______.
E. book
F. journal
G. article
H. dictionary
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In addition to providing energy, fats have other functions in the body. The fat-soluble
vitamins, A, D, E, and K, are dissolved in fats, as their name implies. Good source of these
vitamins have high oil or fat content, and the vitamins are stored in the body's fatty tissues. In
the diet, fats cause food to remain longer in the stomach, thus increasing the feeling of fullness
for some time after a meal is eaten.
Fats add variety, taste and texture to foods, which accounts for the popularity of fried
foods. Fatty deposits in body have an insulating and protective value. The curves of the human
female body are due mostly to strategically located fat deposits. Whether a certain amount of fat
in the diet is essential to human health is not definitely known. When rats are fed a fat-free diet,
their growth eventually ceases, their skin becomes inflamed and scaly and their reproductive
systems are damaged. Two fatty acids, linoleic and arachidonic acids, prevent these
abnormalities and hence are called essential fatty acids. They are also required by a number of
other animals, but their roles in human beings are debatable. Most nutritionists consider linoleic
fatty acid an essential nutrient for humans.
Question 43: The word “functions” is closest in meaning to ________.
E. forms
F. needs
G. jobs
H. sources
Question 44: All of the following vitamins are stored in the body's fatty tissues except
_________.
E. vitamin A
F. vitamin D
G. vitamin B
H. vitamin E
Question 45: The phrase “stored in” is closest in meaning to ________.
E. manufactured
F. attached
G. measured by
H. accumulated in
Question 46: The author states that fats serve all of the following body functions except to
_______.
E. promote the feeling of fullness
F. insulate and protect the body
G. provide energy
H. control weight gain
Question 47: Which of the following is true for rats when they are fed a fat-free diet?
E. They stop growing
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F. They have more babies
G. They lose body hair
H. They require less care
Question 48: Linoleic fatty acid is mentioned as _______.
E. an essential nutrient for humans
F. more useful than arachidonic acid
G. prevent weight gain in rats
H. a nutrient found in most foods
Question 49: The phrases “abnormalities” refers to ________.
E. a condition caused by fried foods
F. strategically located fat deposits
G. curves of the human female body
H. end of growth, bad skin, and damaged reproductive systems
Question 50: That humans should all have some fat in our diets is ________.
E. a commonly held view
F. not yet a proven fact
G. only true for women
H. proven to be true by experiments on rats
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Question 1: A. study B. apply C. rely D. supply
Question 2: A. sports B. enthusiasts C. games D. thanks
Question 3: A. engage B. ceremony C. majority D. maintain
Question 4: A. original B. responsible C. reasonable D. comparison
Question 5: The longest mountain range, the Mid-Atlantic Range, is not hardly visible because
A B
most of it lies under the ocean.
C D
Question 6: A galaxy, where may include billions of stars, is help together by gravitation
A B C D
attraction.
Question 7: Because of the expense of traditional fuels and the concern that they run out, many
A B C
countries have been investigating alternative sources of power.
D
Question 8: Harry Potter books, which ________ by J.K. Rowling, are very popular with
children around the world.
A. were written B. will write
C. will be written D. wrote
Question 9: ASEAN helps to ________ regional cooperation in Southeast Asia in the spirit of
equality and partnership.
B. invest B. promote C. advocate D. invest
Question 10: When Lava reaches the surface, its temperature can be ten times ________ boiling
water.
B. the temperature B. that of C. it is D. more
Question 11: Louis Pasteur invented the process of pasteurization and developed vaccines for
several disease _________ rabies.
B. include B. included C. including D. inclusive
Question 12: We benefit greatly ________ the medicines and other products that biodiversity
provides.
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B. from B. without C. for D. at
Question 13: ________ animals have a blood temperature which varies with the temperature of
the surroundings.
B. Cold-blooding B. Cold-blooded
C. Blooded-cold D. Blooding cold
Question 14: _______ wants to take the GCSE ‘A’ Level has to achieve high grades at the
GCSE examination.
A. One B. Who C. Whoever D. Those who
Question 15: ________ squeeze, the orange juice in a serving provides twice the minimum daily
requirement for Vitamin C.
B. It is freshly B. If freshly
C. You freshly D. If it freshly
Question 16: In American history, never before Richard Nixon ________ from the office.
B. any president resigned B. any president had resigned
C. had any president resigned D. was any president resigned
Question 17: Scientists are now beginning to carry out experiment on ________ trigger different
sorts of health risk.
A. noise pollution can B. that noise pollution
C. how noise pollution D. how noise pollution can
Question 18: Rowing is the act of propelling a boat with ________.
B. sticks B. clubs C. oars D. bats
Question 19: Bioluminescent animals _______ the water or on land.
B. live B. are living either
C. they are found in D. can be found in
Question 20: _ Jane: “Are you interested in scuba diving?”
_ Janet: “_______.”
E. Very. Undersea life is being strongly contaminated.
F. Very. Undersea life is fascinating
G. Not any. Undersea life is too expensive
H. Well, things are much different, now
Question 21: _ Tom: “I think married women should not go to work”
_Cindy: ”________. It’s too boring to be housewives all their lives”
E. Perhaps, I’m not sure.
F. I can’t agree with you more.
G. That’s right.
H. I don’t agree.
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Question 22: It is believed that the plane crash was caused by electrical malfunction of its
navigation system.
B. breaking down B. breaking up
C. breaking through D. breaking in
Question 23: The emergence of supersonic travel opened new horizons for the military, tourism,
and commerce.
B. profitability B. urgency C. appearance D. explosion
Question 24: In those days, the Standard Oil Company did not deliver oil to the consumer in big
wagons and motor trucks as it does, but delivered instead to retail process, hardware stores, and
the like.
B. in big quantities B. in small quantities
C. by the gross D. at bargaining price
Question 25: The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary
measures
A. damaging B. beneficial C. severe D. physical
Question 26: “ If I were you, I would do morning exercise regularly.” said John.
A. John asked me to do morning exercise regularly.
B. John prevented me from doing morning exercise regularly.
C. John advised me to do morning exercise regularly.
D. John congratulated me on doing morning exercise regularly.
Question 27: Without transportation, our modern society would not exist.
A. If there were no transportation, our modern society would not exist.
B. If transportation no longer exists, our modern society will not either.
C. Our modern society will not exist without having traffic.
D. Our modern society does not exist if there is no transportation.
Question 28: John used to write home once a week when he was abroad.
A. John doesn’t now write home once a week any longer.
B. John enjoyed writing home every week when he was abroad.
C. John never forgot to write a weekly letter home when he was abroad.
D. When he was abroad he remembered to write home every week.
Question 29: My father doesn’t smoke. He doesn’t drink, either.
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A. My father not only smokes but also drinks.
B. My father doesn’t smoke but he drinks.
C. My father enjoys smoking and drinking.
D. My father neither smokes nor drinks.
Question 30: It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
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35.
EARLY WRITING AND ALPHABETS
When people first began to write, they did not use an alphabet. Instead, they drew small
pictures to (31) ________ the objects they were writing about. This was very slow because there
was a different picture for every word.
The Ancient Egyptians had a system of picture writing that was called hieroglyphics. The
meaning of this writing was forgotten for a very long time but in 1799 some scientists (32)
________ a stone near Alexandria, in Egypt. The stone had been there for (33) ________ a
thousand years. It had both Greek and hieroglyphics on it and researchers were finally able to
understand what the hieroglyphics meant.
An alphabet is quite different from picture writing. It (34) ________ of letters or symbols
that represent a sound and each sound is just part of one word. The Phoenicians, who lived about
3,000 years ago, developed the modern alphabets. It was later improved by the Roman’s and this
alphabet is now used (35) ________ throughout the world.
Question 31: A. notice B. convey C. appear D. mark
Question 32: A. discovered B. realized
C. delivered D. invented
Question 33: A. quite B. more C. over D. already
Question 34: A. consists B. includes C. contains D. involves
Question 35: A. broadly B. widely C. deeply D. hugely
Smallpox was the first widespread disease to be eliminated by human intervention. In May,
1966, the World Health Organization (WHO), an agency of the United Nations was authorized to
initiate a global campaign to eradicate smallpox. The goal was to eliminate the disease in one
decade. At the time, the disease posed a serious threat to people in more than thirty nations.
Because similar projects for malaria and yellow fever had failed, few believed that smallpox
could actually be eradicated but eleven years after the initial organization of the campaign, no
cases were reported in the field.
The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations but also to isolate patients with
active smallpox in order to contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of human
transmission. Rewards for reporting smallpox assisted in motivating removed from contact with
others and treated. At the same time, the entire village where the victim had lived was
vaccinated.
By April of 1978 WHO officials announced that they had isolated the last known case of
the disease but health workers continued to search for new cases for additional years to be
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completely sure. In May, 1980, a formal statement was made to the global community. Today
smallpox is no longer a threat to humanity. Routine vaccinations have been stopped worldwide
Question 36: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
E. The World Health Organization
F. The Eradication of Smallpox
G. Smallpox Vaccinations
H. Infectious Disease
Question 37: The word “isolated” in bold in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
________.
E. restored
F. separated
G. attended
H. located
Question 38: What was the goal of the campaign against smallpox?
E. to decrease the spread of smallpox worldwide.
F. to eliminate smallpox worldwide in ten years.
G. to provide mass vaccinations against smallpox worldwide.
H. to initiate worldwide projects for smallpox, malaria and yellow fever at the same time.
Question 39: According to the passage, what was the strategy used to eliminate the spread of
smallpox?
E. Vaccinations of entire villages.
F. Treatments of individual victims.
G. Isolation of victims and mass vaccinations.
H. Extensive reporting of outbreak.
Question 40: How was the public motivated to help health workers?
E. By educating them.
F. By rewarding them for reporting cases.
G. By isolating them from others.
H. By giving them vaccination.
Question 41: The word “they” in bold in the last paragraph refers to ________.
E. health workers
F. officials
G. victims
H. cases
Question 42: Which statement does not refer to Smallpox?
E. Previous projects had failed.
F. People are no longer vaccinated for it.
G. The WHO mounted a worldwide campaign to eradicate the disease.
H. It was a serious threat.
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We live in a world of tired, sleep deprived people. In his book Counting Sheep, Paul Martin
– a behavioral biologist – describes a society which is just too busy to sleep and which does not
give sleeping the importance it deserves.
Modern society has invented reasons not to sleep. We are now a 24/7 society where shops
and services must be available all hours. We spend longer hours at work than we used to, and
more time getting to work. Mobile phones and email allow us to stay in touch round the clock
and late-night TV and the Internet tempt us away from our beds. When we need more time for
work or pleasure, the easy solution is to sleep less. The average adult sleeps only 6.2 hours a
night during the week, whereas research shows that most people need eight or even eight and a
half hours’ sleep to feel at their best. Nowadays, many people have got used to sleeping less than
they need and they live in an almost permanent state of ‘sleep debt’.
Until the invention of the electric light in 1879 our daily cycle of sleep used to depend on
the hours of daylight. People would get up with the sun and go to bed at nightfall. But nowadays
our hours of sleep are mainly determined by our working hours (or our social life) and most
people are woken up artificially by an alarm clock. During the day caffeine, the world’s most
popular drug, helps to keep us awake. 75% of the world’s population habitually consume
caffeine, which up to a point masks the symptoms of sleep deprivation.
What does a chronic lack of sleep do to us? As well as making us irritable and unhappy as
humans, it also reduces our motivation and ability to work. This has serious implications for
society in general. Doctors, for example, are often chronically sleep deprived, especially when
they are on ‘night call’, and may get less than three hours’ sleep. Lack of sleep can seriously
impair their mood, judgment, and ability to take decisions. Tired engineers, in the early hours of
the morning, made a series of mistakes with catastrophic results. On our roads and motorways
lack of sleep kills thousands of people every year. Tests show that a tired driver can be just as
dangerous as a drunken driver. However, driving when drunk is against the law but driving when
exhausted isn’t. As Paul Martin says, it is very ironic that we admire people who function on
very little sleep instead of criticizing them for being irresponsible. Our world would be a much
safer, happier place if everyone, whatever their job, slept eight hours a night.
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE about Paul
Martin?
E. He shows his concern for sleep deprivation in modern society.
F. He gives an interesting account of a sleepless society.
G. He is a scientist who is chronically deprived of sleep.
H. He describes the modern world as a place without insomnia.
Question 44: The phrase “round the clock” in the second paragraph is similar in meaning
to________.
E. all day and night
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F. surrounded with clocks
G. during the daytime
H. having a round clock
Question 45: The writer mentions the Internet in the passage as ________.
E. a temptation that prevents us from sleeping
F. an easy solution to sleep deprivation
G. an ineffective means of communication
H. a factor that is not related to sleep deprivation
Question 46: According to the third paragraph, which of the following statements is NOT
TRUE?
E. Our social life has no influence on our hours of sleep.
F. The sun obviously determined our daily routines.
G. The electric light was invented in the 19th century.
H. The electric light has changed our daily cycle of sleep
Question 47: The word “which” in the third paragraph refers to ________.
E. reaching a point
F. masking the symptoms
G. the world’s population
H. caffeine consumption
Question 48: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the last paragraph?
E. Doctors ‘on night call’ do not need more than three hours of sleep a day.
F. Our motivation decreases with the bigger number of hours we sleep.
G. Sleep deprivation has negative effects on both individuals and society.
H. Thousands of people are killed every day by drunken drivers.
Question 49: The word “catastrophic” in the last paragraph probably means ________.
E. bound to bring satisfaction
F. becoming more noticeable
G. causing serious damage or loss
H. likely to become worthless
Question 50: Which of the following would the writer of the passage approve of?
E. Our world would be a much safer place without drinkers.
F. Both drunken drivers and sleep-deprived people should be criticized.
G. There is no point in criticizing irresponsible people in our society.
H. We certainly can function well even when we hardly sleep.
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Question 1: A. sacrificed B. trusted C. recorded D. acted
Question 3: A. person B. attract C. signal D. instance
Question 4: A. situation B. appropriate C. informality D. entertainment
Question 5: In some countries in Europe, teachers are allowed giving children some
A B C
homework only at weekends.
D
Question 6: Elizabeth Blackwell was born on England in 1821 and emigrated to New York City
A B C D
when she was ten years old.
Question 7: 1.6 billion gallons were sold every year, in over one hundred and sixty countries.
A B C D
Question 9: Had I studied harder, I _________ better in the last exam.
B. would do B. would have done
C. had done D. wouldn’t have done
Question 10: The larger the apartment is, the ________ the rent is.
B. expensive B. more expensive
C. expensively D. most expensive
Question 11: Nam wanted to know what time ________.
B. the movie began B. the movie begins
C. does the movie begin D. did the movie begin
Question 12: Last week, our class went to Ha Long Bay for a picnic, _________ made us very
happy then.
B. which B. that C. it D. of which
Question 13: Lenses, ________, are used to correct imperfections in eyesight.

E. are the forms of glasses and contact lenses
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F. in the forms of glasses and contact lenses
G. glasses and contact lenses which form
H. glasses and contact lenses may be formed
Question 14: That beautiful girl died of an ________ morphine.
A. overweight B. overhear
C. overdo D. overdose
Question 15: I suggest the room ________ before Christmas.
B. be decorated B. is decorated
C. were decorated D. should decorated
Question 16: Many species of plants and animals are in ________ of extinction.
B. dangerous B. endangered C. danger D. dangerously
Question 17: The last person _______ the room must turn off the lights.
A. to leave B. who leave
C. that leave D. leaves
Question 18: Nowadays women ________ the same wages as men.
B. should pay B. will be paid
C. will pay D. should be paid
Question 19: I know we had an argument, but now I’d quite like to ________.
B. look down B. make up C. fall out D. bring up
Question 20: Two friends Jane and Tony are working when Jane’s laptop collapse.
_ Jane: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?”
_ Tony: “_______.”
E. Not at all. I’ve finished my job
F. Yes, you can use it
G. Of course OK. I still need it now
H. Yes, it’s all right
Question 21: Two friends Lan and Binh meet at the school yard.
_ Lan: “What’s the matter? You don’t look very well.”
_Binh: ” I feel a little ________.”
E. out of the blue
F. under the weather
G. out of order
H. under the impression
Question 22: As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and
fauna of the island.
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B. fruits and vegetables B. flowers and trees
C. plants and animals D. mountains and forests
it over”
B. to sleep on it B. to make it better
Question 24: When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on the air.
B. feeling extremely unhappy B. extremely light
C. feeling extremely airy D. extremely happy
Question 25: John was so insubordinate that he lost his job in one week.
A. understanding B. fresh C. obedient D. disobedient
Question 26: Exhaustion prevented any of the runners from finishing the race.
A. The runners can’t finish the race as a result of their exhaustion.
B. The runners are so exhausted that they can’t finish the race.
C. The runners were not exhausted enough to finish the race.
D. So exhausted were the runners that none of them finished the race.
Question 27: Derek is quite a bit more adventurous than his sister, Annabelle.
A. Annabelle is considerable more adventurous than her brother, Derek.
B. Annabelle isn’t as nearly adventurous as her brother, Derek.
C. Derek isn’t so nearly adventurous as his sister, Annabelle.
D. Annabelle isn’t nearly as adventurous as her brother, Derek.
Question 28: No one except for Jake has ever beaten me at the game of chess.
A. I am the only person who has ever beaten Jake in the game of chess.
B. I have ever beaten everyone except for Jake at the game of chess.
C. Jake is the only one ever to beat me at the game of chess.
D. No one but Jake has ever been beaten at the game of chess.
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Question 30: We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.
D. Because the climate was so serve, we were worried about what we’d do at night.
35.
The current global extinction rate is (31) ________ at about 20,000 species per year,
exponentially greater than the background extinction rate. Many biologists believe that we are in
the middle of the greatest mass extinction episode since the (32) ________ of the dinosaurs 65
million years ago.
From what is known about present-day populations and from evolutionary theory, the
change in either the physical (33) _________ the biological environment is the key to extinction.
However, the vulnerability of a species depends on a wide variety of factors, such as its total
population size, geographical (34) ________, reproductive ability, ecological relations with other
species, and genetic characteristics. For example, more emphasis is put on the greater
vulnerability of species that reproduce slowly as contrasted with those that reproduce (35)
________. Other factors, such as food-plant specialization, may make many fast reproducers
more vulnerable than species that reproduce more slowly. No matter how fast an insect species
that depends on a certain plan can reproduce; it will still go extinct if that plant's habitat is
destroyed.
Question 31: A. increased B. distributed C. estimated D. added
Question 32: A. disappearance B. remain
C. disposal D. limitation
Question 33: A. so B. and C. nor D. or
Question 34: A. opportunity B. follow
C. spread D. distribution
Question 35: A. rapidly B. cheaply C. cheerfully D. lastly
The Winterthur Museum is a collection and a house. There are many museums devoted to
the decorative arts and many house museums, but rarely in the United States is a great collection
displayed in a great country house. Passing through successive generations of a single family,
Winterthur has been a private estate for more than a century. Even after the extensive
renovations made to it between 1929 and 1931, the importance to the atmosphere and effect of
the museum. The impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the visitor; the rooms look as if
they were vacated only a short while ago whether by the original owners of the furniture of the
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most recent residents of the house can be a matter of personal interpretation. Winterthur remains,
then, a house in which a collection of furniture and architectural elements has been assembled.
Like an English country house, it is an organic structure; the house, as well as the collection and
manner of displaying it to the visitor, has changed over the years. The changes have coincided
with developing concepts of the American arts, increased knowledge on the part of collectors
and students, and a progression toward the achievement of a historical effect in period-room
displays. The rooms at Winterthur have followed this current, yet still retained the character of a
private house.
The concept of a period room as a display technique has developed gradually over the
years in an effort to present works of art in a context that would show them to grater effect and
would give them more meaning for the viewer. Comparable to the habitat group in a natural
history museum, the period room represents the decorative arts in a lively and interesting manner
and provides an opportunity to assemble objects related by style, date, or place of manufacture.
E. Historical furniture contained in Winterthur.
F. How Winterthur compares to English country houses.
G. Elements that make Winterthur an unusual museum.
H. The reason that Winterthur was redesigned.
Question 37: What happened at Winterthur between 1929 and 1931?
E. The old furniture was replaced.
F. The estate became a museum.
G. The owners moved out.
H. The house was repaired.
Question 38: The word “assembled” in line 9 is closest in meaning to ________.
E. summoned
F. appreciated
G. fundamentally changed
H. brought together
Question 39: The word “it” in line 11 refers to ________.
E. collection
F. English country house
G. visitor
H. Winterthur
Question 40: According to the passage, objects in a period room are related by all of the
following EXCEPT _________.
E. place of manufacture
F. date
G. past ownership
H. style
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Question 41: What is the relationship between the two paragraphs in the passage?
E. The second paragraph of explains a philosophy art appreciation that contrasts with the
philosophy explained in the first paragraph.
F. The second paragraph explains a term that was mentioned in the first paragraph.
G. Each paragraph describes a different historical period.
H. Each paragraph describes a different approach to the display of objects in a museum.
Question 42: Where is the passage does the author explain why displays at Winterthur have
changed?
E. lines 6-8
F. lines 4-5
G. lines 1-2
H. lines 10-12
Universally acclaimed as America's greatest playwright, Eugene O'Neill was born in 1888
in the heart of the theater district in New York City. As the son of an actor he had early exposure
to the world of the theater. He attended Princeton University briefly in 1906, but returned to
New York to work in a variety of jobs before joining the crew of a freighter as a seaman. Upon
returning from voyages to South Africa and South America, he was hospitalized for six months
to recuperate from tuberculosis. While he was recovering, he determined to write a play about
his adventures on the sea. He went to Harvard, where he wrote the one-act Bound East for
Cardiff. It was produced on Cape Cod by the Provincetown Players, an experimental theater
group that was later to settle in the famous Greenwich Village theater district in New York City.
The Players produced several more of his one-acts in the years between 1916-1920. With the
full-length play Beyond the Horizon, produced on Broadway in 1920, O'Neill's success was
assured. The play won the Pulitzer prize for the best play of the year. O'Neill was to be awarded
the prize again in 1922, 1928, and 1957 for Anna Christie, Strange Interlude, and Long Day's
Journey Into Night. Although he didn't receive the Pulitzer prize for it, Mourning becomes
Electra, produced in 1931,is arguably his most lasting contribution to the American theatre. In
1936, he was awarded the Nobel Prize.
O'Neill's plays, forty-five in all, cover a wide range of dramatic subjects, but several
themes emerge, including the ambivalence of family relationships, the struggle between the
sexes, the conflict between spiritual and material desires, and the vision of modern man as a
victim of uncontrollable circumstances. Most of O'Neill's characters are seeking for meaning in
their lives. According to his biographers, most of the characters were portraits of himself and his
family. In a sense, his work chronicled his life.
Question 43: This passage is a summary of O'Neill's ________.
E. work and life
F. life
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G. family
H. work
Question 44: How many times was O'Neill awarded the Pulitzer Prize?
E. Five
F. Three
G. Four
H. One
Question 45: The word "briefly" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to________.
E. without enthusiasm
F. on scholarship
G. seriously
H. for a short time
Question 46: The word "It" in the first paragraph refers to _______.
E. theater district
F. one-act play
G. theater group
H. Harvard
Question 47: The word "struggle" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
E. conflict
F. denial
G. appreciation
H. influence
Question 48: According to the passage, which of O'Neill's plays was most important to the
American theatre?
E. Beyond the Horizon
F. Mourning becomes Electra
G. Long Day's Journey Into Night
H. Anna Christie
Question 49: The author mentions all of the following as themes for O'Neill's plays
EXCEPT________.
E. adventures at sea
F. life in college
G. relationships between men and women
H. family life
Question 50: We can infer from information in the passage that O'Neill's plays were not
________.
E. autobiographical
F. controversial
G. popular
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H. optimistic
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Question 1: A. interviewed B. performed C. finished D. delivered
Question 2: A. misses B. goes C. leaves D. potatoes
Question 3: A. different B. bamboo C. rainfall D. wildlife
Question 4: A. personality B. rhinoceros C. gorilla D. opponent
Question 5: The collecting of postage stamps is a hobby that interest people of all ages and all
A B C
walks of life.
D
Question 6: Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extreme concerned about
A B C
the changes to our climate which are taking place.
D
Question 7: In some states, it against the law to ride a motorcycle without a helmet.
A B C D
Question 8: If only the Prime Minister ________ his arts policy would lose him the election.
A. had known B. knows
C. was knowing D. could have knowing
Question 9: While studying, he was financially dependent _______ his parents.
B. of B. to C. from D. on
Question 10: Mr. Pike ________ English at our school for 20 years before he retired last year.
B. had been teaching B. has been teaching
C. was teaching D. is teaching
Question 11: Don’t worry about trying to catch last train home, as we can easily ______ you up
for the night.
B. keep B. put C. take D. set
Question 12: This is valuable _______ chair which dates back to the eighteenth century.
B. traditional B. old-fashioned C. antique D. ancient
Question 13: Come with me. I’m seeing “The killer” tomorrow, ______.
B. Do you? B. Shall you? C. Are you? D. Will you?
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Question 14: It is a _________.
A. polyester sleeping blue bag B. blue sleeping polyester bag
C. blue polyester sleeping bag D. sleeping blue polyester bag
Question 15: _______ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
B. Hardly had B. No sooner had
C. No longer has D. Not until had
Question 16: _______, the young mother appeared visibly very happy after the birth of her child.
B. Tired as she was B. She was tired
C. As tired D. Despite tired
Question 17: We have a party tonight and Daisy is worried about ________.
A. what to wear B. which wearing
C. these wearing D. that she wearing
Question 18: Paul was ________ of himself for having stolen money from his mother.
B. shy B. ashamed C. timid D. embarrassed
Question 19: ________ flowers are usually made of plastic or silk.
B. Unreal B. False C. Artificial D. Untrue
Question 20: _ Daisy: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?”
_ Tony: “_______.”
E. Not at all. I’ve finished my job
F. Yes, you can use it
G. Of course not. I still need it now
H. Yes, it’s all right
Question 21: _ Tim: “________.”
_Jeycy : ”Certainly.”
E. Welcome back!
F. What are you doing there?
G. I’m sorry I am late
H. May I borrow a pencil, please?
Question 22: You may find that jogging is detrimental to your health rather than beneficial.
B. useful B. facile C. depressing D. harmful
it over”.
B. to sleep on it B. to make it better
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Question 24: “That is a well-behaved boy whose behavior has nothing to complain about.
B. good behavior B. behaving improperly
C. behaving nice D. behaving cleverly
Question 25: After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was
released.
A. benevolent B. innovative C. naive D. guilty
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Question 26: We couldn’t go out because the weather was so bad.
A. It was so bad a weather that we couldn’t go out.
B. It was such a bad weather that we couldn’t go out.
C. It was so bad weather that we couldn’t go out.
D. It was such bad weather that we couldn’t go out.
Question 27: The little boy insisted on my helping to take the picture away.
A. “Please, please help me take the picture away!” the little boy said.
B. “How about helping me to take the picture away?” the little boy said.
C. “What do you think about helping me to take the picture away?” the little boy wanted
to know.
D. “Why don’t you help me to take the picture away?” the little boy asked.
Question 28: “Don’t leave the house until I get back, John” his sister said.
A. John’s sister told him to leave the house when she got back.
B. John’s sister told him not to go out until she gets back.
C. John’s sister told him not to leave the house when she got back.
D. John’s sister told him to stay at home till she got back.
Question 29: The driver I front stopped so suddenly. Therefore, the accident happened.
A. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t have
happened.
B. If the driver in front didn’t stop so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t happened.
C. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened.
D. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happen.
Question 30: Lan is reading an interesting storybook . You lent it to her last week.
A. Lan is reading an interesting storybook which you lent it to her last week.
B. Lan is reading an interesting storybook which you lent to her last week.
C. Lan is reading an interesting storybook who you lent it to her last week.
D. Lan is reading an interesting storybook whom you lent it to her last week.
35.
We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use (31) _______ in our cars and to heat our
building in winter. Farmers use petrochemicals to make the soil rich. They use them to kill
insects which eat plants. These chemicals go into rivers and lakes and kill the fish there.
Thousands of pollutants also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this (32) ________ air to
other countries and other continents.
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Poor farmers use the same land over and (33) ________. The land needs a rest so it will
be better next year. However, the farmers must have food this year. Poor people cut down forests
for firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land (34) ________ desert. Poor people
can’t save the environment for the future.
This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. It is a problem for all-
humans. The people and the nations of the world must work together to (35) ________ the
world’s resources.
Question 31: A. it B. them C. that D. those
Question 32: A. pollute B. polluting C. polluted D. pollution
Question 33: A. over B. again C. repeatedly D. repeating
Question 34: A. gets B. changes C. turns D. becomes
Question 35: A. recycle B. preserve C. keep D. reuse
MOBILE PHONES: ARE THEY ABOUT TO TRANSFORM OUR LIVES?
We love them so much that some of us sleep with them under the pillow, yet we are
increasingly concerned that we cannot escape their electronic reach. We use them to convey our
most intimate secrets, yet we worry that they are a threat to our privacy. We rely on them more
than the Internet to cope with modern life, yet many of us don’t believe advertisements saying
we need more advanced services.
Sweeping aside the doubts that many people feel about the benefits of new third generation
phones and fears over the health effects of phone masts, a recent report claims that the long-term
effects of new mobile technologies will be entirely positive so long as the public can be
convinced to make use of them. Research about users of mobile phones reveals that the mobile
has already moved beyond being a mere practical communications tool to become the backbone
of modern social life, from love affairs to friendship to work.
The close relationship between user and phone is most pronounced among teenagers, the
report says, who regard their mobiles as an expression of their identity. This is partly because
mobiles are seen as being beyond the control of parents. But the researchers suggest that another
reason may be that mobiles, especially text messaging, were seen as a way of overcoming
shyness. The impact of phones, however, has been local rather than global, supporting existing
friendship and networks, rather than opening users to a new broader community. Even the
language of texting in one area can be incomprehensible to anybody from another area.
Among the most important benefits of using mobile phones, the report claims, will be a
vastly improved mobile infrastructure, providing gains throughout the economy, and the
provision of a more sophisticated location-based services for users. The report calls on
government to put more effort into the delivery of services by mobile phone, with suggestion
including public transport and traffic information and doctors’ text messages to remind patients
of appointments. There are many possibilities. At a recent trade fair in Sweden, a mobile
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navigation product was launched. When the user enters a destination, a route is automatically
downloaded to their mobile and presented by voices, pictures and maps as they drive. In future,
these devices will also be able to plan around congestion and road works in real time. Third
generation phones will also allow for remote monitoring of patients by doctors. In Britain,
scientists are developing an asthma management solution using mobiles to detect early signs of
an attack.
Mobile phones can be used in education. A group of teachers in Britain use third
generation phones to provide fast internet service to children who live beyond the reach of
terrestrial broadband services and can have no access to online information. ‘As the new
generation of mobile technologies takes off, the social potential will vastly increase,’ the report
argues.
Question 36: What does “them” in the second paragraph refer to?
E. long-term effects
F. new mobile technologies
G. doubts
H. benefits
Question 37: What is the connection between social life and mobile phones?
E. Modern social life relies significantly on the use of mobile phones.
F. Mobile phones make romantic communication easier.
G. Mobile phones encourage people to make friends.
H. Mobile phones enable people to communicate while moving around.
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true?
E. Mobile phone is considered as a means for the youth to show their characters.
F. Mobile phones are playing a wide range of roles in people’s life.
G. People can overcome shyness by using texting to communicate things that make them
uncomfortable.
H. There is no need to suspect the harmfulness of mobile phones.
Question 39: In what sense has the impact of phones been “local” in the third paragraph?
E. People tend to communicate with people they already know.
F. Users generally phone people who live in the same neighborhood.
G. It depends on local dialects.
H. The phone networks use different systems.
Question 40: The navigation product launched in Sweden is helpful for drivers because
________.
E. it can suggest the best way to get to a place
F. it provides directions orally
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G. it tells them which roads are congested
H. it shows them how to avoid road works
Question 41: What is the general attitude of the report described here?
E. Manufacturers need to produce better equipment.
F. The government should take over the mobile phone networks.
G. There are problems with mobile phones that cannot be overcome.
H. Mobile phones can have a variety of very useful applications.
Question 42: The word “pronounced” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
E. obvious
F. serious
G. voiced
H. overwhelmed
Animation traditionally is done by hand-drawing or painting successive frame of an object,
each slightly different than the proceeding frame. In computer animation, although the computer
may be the one to draw the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and
ending frames and the computer will produce the drawings between the first and the last
drawing. This is generally referred to as computer-assisted animation, because the computer is
more of a helper than an originator.
In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the final
sequences of pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that defines the
objects in the pictures as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints,
and color and intensity information. Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such
effects because animation that obtains high degrees of realism involves computer techniques
from three-dimensional transformation, shading, and curvatures.
High-tech computer animation for film involves very expensive computer systems along with
special color terminals or frame buffer. The frame buffer is nothing more than a giant image
memory for viewing a single frame. It temporarily holds the image for display on the screen.
A camera can be used to film directly from the computer’s display screen, but for the
highest quality images possible, expensive film recorders are used. The computer computers the
positions and colors for the figures in the picture, and sends this information to the recorder,
which captures it on film. Sometimes, however, the images are stored on a large magnetic disk
before being sent to the recorder. Once this process is completed, it is replaced for the next
frame. When the entire sequence has been recorded on the film, the film must be developed
before the animation can be viewed. If the entire sequence does not seem right, the motions must
be corrected, recomputed, redisplayed, and rerecorded. This approach can be very expensive and
time- consuming. Often, computer-animation companies first do motion tests with simple
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computer-generated line drawings before selling their computers to the task of calculating the
high-resolution, realistic-looking images.
Question 43: According to the passage, in computer-assisted animation the role of the computer
is to draw the ________.
E. first frame
F. middle frames
G. last frame
H. entire sequences of frames
Question 44: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to _________.
E. formulas
F. databases
G. numbers
H. objects
Question 45: According to the passage, the "frame buffers" mentioned in the third paragraph are
used to ________.
E. add color to the images
F. expose several frames at the same time
G. store individual images
H. create new frames
Question 46: According to the passage, the positions and colors of the figures in high-tech
animation are determined by ________.
E. drawing several versions
F. enlarging one frame at a lime
G. analyzing the sequence from different angles
H. using computer calculations
Question 47: The word “captures” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
E. separates
F. registers
G. describes
H. numbers
Question 48: The word “Once” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
E. before
F. since
G. after
H. while
Question 49: The word “task” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
E. possibility
F. position
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G. time
H. job
Question 50: Which of the following statement is supported by the passage?
E. Computers have reduced the costs of animation.
F. In the future, traditional artists will no longer be needed.
G. Artists are unable to produce drawings as high in quality as computer drawings.
H. Animation involves a wide range of technical and artistic skills.
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Question 1: A. naked B. sacred C. learned D. studied
Question 2: A. check B. challenge C. chocolate D. machine
Question 3: A. promote B. precede C. picture D. pollute
Question 4: A. exciting B. impolite C. attention D. attracting
Question 5: In my opinion, I think that this book is more interested than the other one.
A B C D
Question 6: Members of High School clubs learn to participation in teams through their
A B C
involvement in community projects.
D
Question 7: Today the most popular method of pasteurization, called “flash pasteurization”,
A
involves several step, which include heating milk for 15 seconds and then immediately cooling it
B C D
Question 8: _________ at someone is considered as rude.
A. Looking B. Waving C. Greeting D. Pointing
Question 9: They _______ for Japan at 10.30 tomorrow.
B. will be leaving B. have left C. will have left D. will leave
Question 10: The thieves ran away when the burglar alarm ________.
B. went out B. went on C. went off D. went by
Question 11: The wedding day was ________ chosen by the parents of the groom.
B. careless B. careful C. carefully D. carelessly
Question 12: The doctor decided to give her a thorough examination ________ he could identify
the causes of her illness.
B. unless B. after C. so as D. so that
Question 13: To Americans, it is impolite to ask someone about age, ________ and salary.
B. marry B. married C. marrying D. marriage
Question 14: Tom is thought _______ the runaway murdered last week.
A. to have met B. to be met C. to meet D. that he met
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Question 15: Students have to pay _______ fees when they attend public schools.
B. tuition B. teaching C. education D. learning
Question 16: Anna seems to be a bright student. She’s always the first _______ her work.
B. finishing B. to finish C. being finished D. to be finish
Question 17: Boys! Put your toys _______. It is time to go to bed. Don’t stay ______ late.
A. around/for B. away/up C. down/off D. off/to
Question 18: At present, we are _______ an anti-drug campaign.
B. setting up for B. taking part C. joining with D. carrying out
Question 19: _______ the weather is, ________ I feel.
B. The warm / the good B. The warmer / the better
C. Warmer / better D. The warmest / the best
Question 20: _ Mai: “Wow, I’ve never seen such a nice cell phone, Nam”
_ Nam: “_______.”
E. Oh, I don’t know
F. Thank you. I am glad you like it
G. You’re welcome
H. I agree with you
Question 21: “Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?”
-“_________.”
A. Do you think I would?
B. Yes, you are a good friend
C. Yes, I’d love to. Thanks
D. I wouldn’t like. Thank you
Question 22: Literature is a compulsory subject in our education, which means every student has
to study the subject.
B. difficult B. easy C. unnecessary D. required
Question 23: When Americans are invited to formal or informal get-togethers they usually to
make others feel comfortable and relaxed.
B. social reunions B. meetings C. conferences D. conservations
Question 24: The funny story told by the man amused all the children.
B. pleased B. entertained C. saddened D. frightened
Question 25: Training for the Olympics requires an enormous amount of work: athletes who
want to compete must work extremely hard.
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A. very large B. small C. unusual D. very common
Question 26: I’ll let you borrow the book but you must promise to return it next week.
A. If you promise to return the book, I let you borrow it.
B. If you promised to return the book, I’ll let you borrow it.
C. If you promises to return the book next week, I won’t let you borrow it.
D. If you promise to return the book next week, I’ll let you borrow it.
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Question 27: I haven’t gone to the cinema for ten years.
A. It’s ten years I haven’t gone to the cinema.
B. I last went to the cinema ten years ago.
C. The last time I went to the cinema was ten years.
D. It was ten years ago I went to the cinema.
Question 28: Mary said “I am sure that you broke my vase, Jim”.
A. Mary accused Jim of having broken her vase.
B. Mary said she knew that Jim broke her vase.
C. Mary asked Jim of having broken her vase.
D. Mary told Jim to break the vase.
Question 29: Although she is intelligent, she doesn’t do well at school.
A. Even though her intelligent, but she doesn’t do well at school.
B. Despite being intelligent, but she doesn’t do well at school.
C. In spite of her intelligence, she doesn’t do well at school.
D. In spite the fact that she intelligent, but she doesn’t do well at school.
Question 30: Jim is my best friend. I borrowed his car yesterday.
A. Jim, whose car I lent yesterday, is my best friend.
B. Jim, who is my best friend, borrowed my car yesterday.
C. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend.
D. Jim, his car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend.
35.
TEENAGERS AND SPORT
It’s quite rare to meet teenagers who don’t like sports. When you are young, you know how
important (31) ________ to do physical exercise if you want to be healthy and strong, and for
that reason you often concentrate on just one sport with so (32) ________ enthusiasm that in the
end you can’t live without it. The problem is, though, that as you grow up you have less and less
spare time. At your age you have to study harder if you want to get good marks to go to
university, with perhaps only one afternoon a week to do any sport. This happens just when you
are at the best (33) _______ for many sports, such as gymnastics and swimming. By the time you
finish all your studies you will probably be too old to be really good at sports like those, but if
you spend enough time on (34) ________ while you are young, then one day you will find that
you are very good at your sport but too old to study, and you will find it (35) ________ to get a
good job. Somehow, it doesn’t seem fair.
Question 31: A. this is B. you are C. it is D. things are
Question 32: A. keen B. many C. great D. much
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Question 33: A. stage B. age C. period D. time
Question 34: A. training B. practice C. exercise D. sporting
Question 35: A. impractical B. unlikely
C. improbable D. impossible
The countryside of Britain is well known for its beauty and many contrasts: its bare
mountains and moorland, its lakes, rivers and woods, and its long, often wild coastline. Many of
the most beautiful areas are national parks and are protected from development. When British
people think of the countryside they think of farmland, as well as open spaces. They imagine
cows or sheep in green fields enclosed by hedges or stone walls, and fields of wheat and barley.
Most farmland is privately owned but is crossed by a network of public footpaths.
Many people associate the countryside with peace and relaxation. They spend their free
time walking or cycling there, or go to the country for a picnic or a pub lunch. In summer people
go to fruit farms and pick strawberries and other fruit. Only a few people who live in the country
work on farms. Many commute to work in towns. Many others dream of living in the country,
where they believe they would have a better and healthier lifestyle.
The countryside faces many threats. Some are associated with modern farming practices,
and the use of chemicals harmful to plants and wildlife. Land is also needed for new houses. The
green belt, an area of land around many cities, is under increasing pressure. Plans to build new
roads are strongly opposed by organizations trying to protect the countryside. Protesters set up
camps to prevent, or at least delay, the building work.
America has many areas of wild and beautiful scenery, and there are many areas,
especially in the West in states like Montana and Wyoming, where few people live. In the New
England states, such as Vermont and New Hampshire, it is common to see small farms
surrounded by hills and green areas. In Ohio, Indiana, Illinois and other Midwestern states, fields
of corn or wheat reach to the horizon and there are many miles between towns.
Only about 20% of Americans live outside cities and towns. Life may be difficult for
people who live in the country. Services like hospitals and schools may be further away and
going shopping can mean driving long distances. Some people even have to drive from their
homes to the main road where their mail is left in a box. In spite of the disadvantages, many
people who live in the country say that they like the safe, clean, attractive environment. But their
children often move to a town or city as soon as they can.
As in Britain, Americans like to go out to the country at weekends. Some people go on
camping or fishing trips, others go hiking in national parks.
Question 36: We can see from the passage that in the countryside of Britain _________.
E. only a few farms are publicly owned
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F. none of the areas faces the sea
G. most beautiful areas are not well preserved
H. it is difficult to travel from one farm to another
Question 37: The word “enclosed” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
E. rotated
F. surrounded
G. embraced
H. blocked
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an activity of relaxation in the
countryside of Britain?
E. Going for a walk
F. Picking fruit
G. Going swimming
H. Riding a bicycle
Question 39: What does the word “they” in the second paragraph refer to?
E. Those who go to the country for a picnic
F. Those who go to fruit farms in summer
G. Those who commute to work in towns
H. Those who dream of living in the country
Question 40: Which of the following threatens the countryside in Britain?
E. Protests against the building work
F. The green belt around cities
G. Plants and wildlife
H. Modern farming practices
Question 41: The phrase “associated with” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
________.
E. referred to
F. related to
G. supported by
H. separated from
Question 42: According to the passage, some Americans choose to live in the country because
________.
E. they enjoy the safe, clean, attractive environment there
F. their children enjoy country life
G. life there may be easier for them
H. hospitals, schools and shops are conveniently located there
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The principle of use and disuse states that those parts of organisms’ bodies that are used
grow larger. Those parts that are not tend to wither away. It is an observed fact that when you
exercise particular muscles, they grow. Those that are never used diminish. By examining a
man’s body, we can tell which muscles he uses and which he does not. We may even be able to
guess his profession or his recreation. Enthusiasts of “body-building” cult make use of the
principle of use and disuse to build their bodies, almost like a piece of sculpture, into whatever
unnatural shape is demanded by fashion in this peculiar minority culture. Muscles are not the
only parts of the body that respond to use in this kind of way. Walk barefoot and you acquire
harder skin on your soles. It is easy to tell a farmer from a bank teller by looking at their hands
alone. The farmer’s hands are horny, hardened by long exposure to rough work. The teller’s
hands are often soft.
The principle of use and disuse enable animals to become better at the job of surviving in
their world, progressively better during their lifetime as a result of living in that world. Humans,
through direct exposure to sun light, or lack of it, develop a skin color which equips them better
to survive in the particular local conditions.
Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers with very fair skins are
susceptible to skin cancer. Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to vitamin-D deficiency
and rickets. The brown pigment melanin which is synthesized under the influence of sunlight
make a screen to protect the underlying tissues from the harmful effects of further sunlight. If a
suntanned person moves to a less sunny climate, the melanin disappears, and the body is able to
benefit from what little sun there is. This can be represented as an instance of the principle use
and disuse: skin goes brown when it is used, and fades to white when it is not.
E. How the principle of use and disuse change people’s concepts of themselves.
F. The way in which people change themselves to conform to fashion.
G. The changes that occur according to the principle of use and disuse.
H. The effects of the sun on the principle of use and disuse.
Question 44: The word “wither away” could be best replaced by ________.
E. split
F. rot
G. perish
H. shrink
Question 45: The word “those” refers to _________.
E. muscles
F. bodies
G. parts
H. organisms
Question 46: It can be inferred that the author views body building _________.
E. with enthusiasm
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F. as an artistic form
G. with scientific interest
H. of doubtful benefit
Question 47: The word “horny” is closest in meaning to ________.
E. firm
F. strong
G. tough
H. dense
Question 48: It can be inferred that the principle of use and disuse enable organisms to
________.
E. change their existence
F. survive in any condition
G. automatically benefit
H. improve their lifetime
Question 49: The author suggests that melanin _________.
E. helps protect fair-skinned people
F. is beneficial in sunless climate
G. is necessary for the production of vitamin D
H. is a synthetic product
Question 50: In the 2nd paragraph the author mentioned sun tanning as an example of ________.
E. humans improving their local conditions
F. humans surviving in adverse conditions
G. humans using the principle of use and disuse
H. humans running the risk of skin cancer
51. A. removed B. approved C. reminded D. relieved
52. A. fragile B. bargain C. general D. luggage
53. A. marvelous B. notorious C. credulous D. numerous
54. A. majority B. obstinacy C. apology D. equality
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Giaoandethitienganh.info
55. All at once Millie got up and left the house without any explanation.
A. as usual B. as first C. suddenly D. not frequent
56. Considering they are over 70 years old, you must admit they are in good shape.
A. fit B. wealthy C. clever D. slow
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57. “Don’t be such a pessimist I’m sure you’ll soon get over it. Cheer up!”
A. activist B. feminist C. optimist D. hobbyist
58. It is obligatory for all students to take the entrance examination in order to attend the
university.
A. forced B. impelling C. required D. optional
59. Ancient people made a clay pottery because they needed it for their survival.
A. a clay B. because C. it D. their survival
60. If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate with the
locals now.
A. took B. seriously C. would be D. with the locals
61. Grover Cleveland was the only American present served two nonconsecutive terms.
A. the only B. served C. nonconsecutive D. terms
questions.
62. My husband and I both go out to work so we share the _______.
A. happiness B. household chores
C. responsibility D. employment
63. When our teacher saw what we had done he was absolutely _______.
A. angry B. upset C. furious D. annoyed
64. I enjoy walking to school, but on rainy days I _______ to going by bus.
A. would rather B. commit C. prefer D. resort
65. The traffic lights _______ green and I pulled away.
A. became B. turned C. got D. changed
66. You should have _______ those shares when they were cheap.
A. taken out B. sold off C. bought up D. taken over
67. I’ll _______ you _______ to our research department. Please hold on.
A. put – away B. put – out C. put – through D. put – up
68. The telescope will photograph distant galaxies, _______ attempt to understand their past.
A. in B. for C. on D. with
69. He _______ the umbrella in his right hand, trying to keep his balance.
A. hold B. held
C. has been holding D. has held
70. They want to get young people to open a bank _______.
A. count B. counter C. account D. deposit
71. Despite the plan’s emphasis on agricultural _______, the industrial sector received a
larger share of state investment.
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A. developing B. developer C. development D. developed
72. They still remain the need for an integrated system of subsidies which will _______
farmers to look after their upland environment and producing food.
A. enable B. adopt C. consume D. discourage
73. Although she loves movies, she doesn’t _______ enjoy live theatre.
A. partially B. regularly C. finally D. particularly
POST IN HISTORY
Although it may come as a surprise to many people, postal services have existed in some
parts of the world for thousands of years. There is ample evidence that a postal services existed
among the Assyrians and Babylonians. In China a regular postal service was established in the
seventh century BC, and over the centuries attained such a high level of efficiency that some
2000 years after its (24) _______ it won the admiration of travelers like Marco Polo. Efficient
and highly developed postal services were also established in the Persia and Roman Empires. In
ancient times, these services were mainly confined to the use of representative of the state;
private citizens made use of slaves, merchants and the (25) _______ to send their messages and
documents. In Medieval Europe, postal services were organized by emperors and by the papacy,
(26) _______ private citizens continued to entrust their correspondence to various travelers.
Later around the 13th century, universities and towns came to have the own messengers.
However, it was not until the 14th century when merchants, the private citizens who had the
greatest need for a speedy and regular exchange of correspondence, began to set (27) _______
regular courier services. The needs of business (28) _______ to the development of the postal
services as we know it today.
74. A. introduction B. institution C. application D. occurrence
75. A. such B. likely C. like D. same
76. A. when B. and C. until D. while
77. A. up B. out C. off D. in
78. A. resulted B. came C. brought D. led
In addition to their military role, the forts of the nineteenth century provided numerous
other benefits for the American West. The establishment of these posts opened new roads and
provided for the protection of daring adventures and expeditions as well as established settlers.
Forts also served as bases where enterprising entrepreneurs could bring commerce to the West,
providing supplies and refreshments to soldiers as well as to pioneers. Ports like Fort Laramie
provided supplies for wagon trains travelling the natural highways toward new frontiers. Some
posts became stations for the pony express; still others, such as Fort Davis, were stagecoach
stops for weary travelers. All of these functions, of course, suggest that the contributions of the
forts to the civilization and development of the West extended beyond patrol duty.
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Through the establishment of military posts, yet other contributions were made to the
development of western culture. Many posts maintained libraries or reading rooms, and some –
for example, Fort Davis – had schools. Post chapels provided a setting for religious services and
weddings. Throughout the wilderness, post bands provided entertainment and boosted morale.
During the last part of the nineteenth century, to reduce expense, gardening was encouraged at
the forts, thus making experimental agriculture another activity of the military. The military
stationed at the various forts also played a role in civilian life by assisting in maintaining order,
and civilian officials often called on the army for the protection.
Certainly, among other significant contributions the army made to the improvement of the
conditions of life was the investigation of the relationships among health, climate, and
architecture. From the earliest colonial times throughout the nineteenth century, disease ranked
as the foremost problem in defense. It slowed construction of forts and inhibited their military
functions. Official documents from many regions contained innumerable reports of sickness that
virtually incapacitated entire garrisons. In response to the problems. Detailed observations of
architecture and climate and their relationships to the frequency of the occurrence of various
disease were recorded at various posts across the nation by military surgeons.
79. Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A. By the nineteenth century, forts were no longer used by the military.
B. Surgeons at forts could not prevent outbreaks of disease.
C. Forts were important to the development of the American West.
D. Life in nineteenth-century forts was very rough.
80. The word “daring” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. lost B. bold C. lively D. foolish
81. The word “others” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. posts B. wagon trains C. frontiers D. highways
82. Which of the following is the most likely inference about the decision to promote
gardening at forts?
A. It was expensive to import produce from far away.
B. Food brought in from outside was often spoiled.
C. Gardening was a way to occupy otherwise idle soldiers.
D. The soil near the forts was very fertile.
83. According to the passage, which of the following posed the biggest obstacle to the
development of military forts?
A. Insufficient shelter B. Shortage of materials
C. Attacks by wild animals D. Illness
84. The word “inhibited” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. involved B. exploited C. united D. hindered
85. How did the military assist in the investigation of health problems?
A. By registering annual birth and death rates
B. By experiments with different building materials
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C. By maintaining records of diseases and potential causes
D. By monitoring the soldiers’ diets
Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roots. The reasons for roosting
communally are not always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it is
important for birds to keep warm at night and converse precious food reserves. One way to do
this is to find a sheltered roost. Solitary roosters shelter in dense vegetation or enter a cavity –
horned larks dig holes in the ground and ptarmigan burrow into snow banks – but the effect of
sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling together in the roosts, as wrens, swifts, brown
creepers, bluebirds, and anis do. Body contact reduces the surface area exposed to the cold air, so
the bird keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together were found to reduce their heat
losses by a quarter, and three together saved a third of their heat.
The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as “information centers”.
During the day, parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area. When they
return in the evening some will have fed well, but others may have found little to eat. Some
investigators have observed that when the birds set out again next morning, those birds that did
not feed well on the previous day appear to allow those that did. The behavior of common and
lesser kestrels may illustrate different feeding behaviors of similar birds with different roosting
habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in a small, familiar hunting ground,
whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large area. The common kestrel
roots and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in flocks, possibly so one bird can
learn from others where to find insect swarms.
Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few
birds awake at any given moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is partially
counteracted by the fact that mass roosts attract predators and are especially vulnerable if they
are on the ground. Even those in trees can be attacked by birds of prey. The birds on the edge are
at greatest risk since predators find it easier to catch small birds perching at the margins of the
roost.
A. How birds find and store food B. How birds maintain body heat in the winter
C. Why birds need to establish territory D. Why some species of birds nest together
87. The word “converse” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______?
A. retain B. watch C. locate D. share
88. Ptarmigan keep warm in the winter by _______.
A. huddling together on the ground with other birds
B. building nests in trees
C. burrowing into dense patches of vegetation
D. digging tunnels into the snow
89. The word “magnified” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
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A. caused B. modified C. intensified D. combined
90. The author mentions “kinglets” in paragraph 1 as an example of birds that _______.
A. protect themselves by nesting in holes
B. nest with other species of birds
C. nest together for warmth
D. usually feed and nest in pairs
91. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by
birds that huddle together while sleeping?
A. Some members of the flock warn others of impending dangers.
B. Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock.
C. Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for
food.
D. Several members of the flock care for the young.
92. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the
passage?
A. Diseases easily spread among the birds.
B. Groups are more attractive to predators than individual birds are.
C. Food supplies are quickly depleted.
D. Some birds in the group will attack the others.
A. a few birds B. mass roosts C. predators D. trees
exchanges.
94. – Well, it was nice talking to you, but I have to go.
-_______.
A. Yes, I enjoyed talking to you too. B. OK, see you.
C. Pleased to meet you, too. D. Nice to meet you. I’m Hoa.
95. – Do you feel like going out for a drink this evening?
-_______.
A. That would be great. B. Thank you very much for your kind
invitation.
C. Yes, I like very much. D. No, I don’t. I am busy.
96. She’s bound to see Jim at the meeting.
A. She’s obligated to see Harry at the meeting.
B. She’s on her way to see Harry at the meeting.
C. It’s certain that she will see Harry at the meeting.
D. She’s too busy to see Harry at the meeting.
97. The burglar was caught red-handed by the police when he broke into the flat.
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A. The police caught the burglar breaking into the flat.
B. The police caught the burglar to break into the flat.
C. The police caught the burglar when breaking into the flat.
D. When the burglar had broken into the flat, the police caught him at once.
98. I won’t sell the painting, no matter how much you offer me.
A. Whenever you offer me to buy the painting, I won’t sell it.
B. How many money you offer me, I won’t sell the painting.
C. Whatever price you offer me, I won’t sell the painting.
D. In spite of your offering me how much money, but I won’t sell the painting.
99. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about sleep.
A. We know relatively little about sleep; as a result, we spend about one-third of our lives
sleeping.
B. We shall know more about sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping.
C. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about
sleep.
D. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about
sleep.
100. He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work.
A. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.
B. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
D. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.
51. A. young B. plough C. couple D. cousin
52. A. confine B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate
53. A. dependable B. cafeteria C. simplicity D. detoxify
54. A. westernize B. official C. division D. millennium
55. I was turning to the left lane when a car came out of nowhere and hit me.
A. stopped right in front of B. suddenly appeared
C. spun over D. fell off a truck
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56. S. Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr. Mayo’s
outstanding humanitarianism.
A. exhaustive B. charitable C. remarkable D. widespread
57. As soon as I gave up smoking, I felt a lot better.
A. gave out B. took up C. got on D. took out
surplus.
59. The next host for the SEA Games is Laos. It is Laos’ the first time as the host for the
biannual-games.
A. the next B. it is C. the first time D. the host
60. Buying clothes is often a time-consuming practice because those clothes that a person
likes is seldom the ones that fit him or her.
A. time-consuming B. that C. is D. ones
61. The assassination Nathuran Vinayak Godse shot Mohandas K. Gandi in New Delhi, India
on September 17, 1948.
A. assassination B. shot C. in D. September 17, 1948
questions.
62. They attempted to _______ the painting to its original condition.
A. restore B. renovate C. repair D. refurbish
63. Flooding in April is an unusual _______ in this area.
A. occurrence B. occur C. occurring D. occurred
64. Frankly, I’d rather you _______ anything about it for the time being.
A. don’t do B. hadn’t done C. didn’t do D. haven’t done
65. The book would have been perfect _______ the ending.
A. had it not been for B. it had not been for
C. it hadn’t been for D. hadn’t it been for
66. Jane’s very modest, always _______ her success.
A. playing down B. turning around C. keeping down D. pushing back
67. Those companies were _______ due to some seriously financial problems.
A. taken off B. set up C. wiped out D. gone over
68. Instead of an increase, there has been a recent _______ in crime.
A. crash B. drop C. break D. issue
69. Students also have the opportunity to choose from a wide range of _______ courses in the
university.
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A. compulsory B. optional C. required D. limited
70. The issue _______ question is more complex than we think.
A. in B. from C. on D. at
71. _______ have announced that a major breakthrough in medicine has been made.
A. Research B. Researchers C. Researches D. Researching
72. _______ many times I tell him, he always forgets to pass on phone messages.
A. Wherever B. Whatever C. Whenever D. However
73. When we _______ to the airport, I realized that I _______ my passport at home.
A. got/ had left B. got/ was left C. got/ left D. had got/ had left
A child prodigy of four is receiving computer lessons at Brunei University, in London.
Nicholas MacMahon is studying at university because he is too clever for school. A senior
lecturer at the university, Valso Koshy, said that the boy was remarkably intelligent.
Nicholas spoke fluently before he was one and by the time he was 18 months old, he was
taking telephone (24) _______. This was soon followed by conversational French. These are the
trademarks of a highly gifted child, unusual but not unique. The strange thing about Nicholas is
his reading – he taught himself to read before he could speak. Ms. Koshy, an expert (25)
_______ gifted children, says Nicholas is quite exceptional. Yet ‘exceptional’ underrates his
amazing ability to read, almost from birth. ‘He was talking when he was one and we realized
from start that he could read,’ his father said. ‘Soon after, he was correcting my spelling, words
(26) _______ caterpillar. Now he (27) _______ insects by their Latin names.’
The list of achievements is impressive, but frightening. A four-year-old who can (28)
_______ a Boeing 747 from a DC 10, devours encyclopedias, read The Daily Telegraph and is
well on the way to becoming a violin virtuoso is hardly normal.
74. A. news B. information C. notes D. messages
75. A. about B. for C. with D. on
76. A. as B. such C. like D. for example
77. A. realizes B. determines C. recognizes D. identifies
78. A. tell B. differ C. vary D. say
Hummingbirds are small, often brightly colored birds of the family Trochilidae that live
exclusively in the Americas. About 12 species are found in North America, but only the ruby-
throated hummingbird breeds in eastern North America and is found from Nova Scotia to
Florida. The southeastern Alaska to northern California.
Many hummingbirds are minute. But even the giant hummingbird found in western South
America, which is the largest known hummingbird, is only about 8 inches long and weighs about
two-thirds of an ounce. The smallest species, the bee hummingbird of Cuba and the Isle of Pines,
measures slightly more than 5.5 centimeters and weighs about two grams.
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Hummingbirds’ bodies are compact, with strong muscles. They have wings shaped like
blades. Unlike the wings of other birds, hummingbird wings connect to the body only at the
shoulder joint, which allows them to fly not only forward but also straight up and down,
sideways, and backward. Because of their unusual wings, hummingbirds can also hover in front
of flowers so they can suck nectar and find insects. The humming-bird’s bill, adapted for
securing nectar from certain types of flowers, is usually rather long and always slender, and it is
curved slightly downward in many species.
The hummingbird’s body feathers are sparse and more like scales than feathers. The
unique character of the feathers produces brilliant and iridescent colors, resulting from the
refraction of light by the feathers. Pigmentation of other feathers also contributes to the unique
color and look. Male and female hummingbirds look alike in some species but different in most
species; males of most species are extremely colorful.
The rate at which a hummingbird beats its wings does not vary, regardless of whether it is
flying forward, flying in another direction, or merely hovering. But the rate does vary with the
size of the bird – the larger the bird, the lower the rate, ranging from 80 beats per second for the
smallest species to 10 times per second for larger species. Researchers have not yet been able to
record the speed of the wings of the bee humming-bird but imagine that they beat even faster.
Most hummingbirds, especially the smaller species, emit scratchy, twittering, or squeaky sounds.
The wings, and sometimes the tail feathers, often produce humming, hissing, or popping sounds,
which apparently function much as do the songs of other birds.
79. According to the passage, where are hummingbirds found?
A. Throughout the word B. In South America only
C. In North America only D. In North and South America
80. The author indicates that the ruby-throated hummingbird is found _______.
A. throughout North America B. in California
C. in South America D. in the eastern part of North America
81. The word minute in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. extremely tiny B. extremely fast C. unique D. organized
82. The word which in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. western South America B. the giant hummingbird
C. all hummingbirds D. Florida hummingbirds
83. What does the author imply about the rate hummingbirds’ wings beat?
A. Although the bee hummingbird is the smallest, its wings don’t beat the fastest.
B. The hummingbird’s wings beat faster when it is sucking nectar than when it is just
flying.
C. The rate is not much different than that of other birds of its size.
D. The speed at which a bee hummingbird’s wings beat is not actually known.
84. The author indicates that a hummingbird’s wings are different from those of other birds
because
A. they attach to the body at one point only
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B. they attach to the body at more points than other birds
C. they attach and detach from the body
D. they are controlled by a different section of the brain
85. According to the passage, what causes the unique color and look of hummingbirds?
A. The color of the feathers
B. The structure of the feathers as well as pigmentation
C. The rapidity of flight
D. The pigmentation of the body
If we believe that clothing has to do with covering the body, and costumes with the choice
of a particular form of garment for a particular use, then we can say that clothing depends
primarily on such physical conditions as climate, health, and textile manufacture, whereas
costumes reflect social factors such as religious beliefs, aesthetics, personal status, and the wish
to be distinguished from or to emulate our fellows.
The ancient Greeks and the Chinese believed that we first covered our bodies for some
physical reason such as protecting ourselves from the weather elements. Ethnologists and
psychologists have invoked psychological reasons: modesty in the case of ancients, and taboo,
magical influence and the desire to please for the moderns.
In early history, costumes must have fulfilled a function beyond that of simple utility,
perhaps through some magical significance, investing primitive man with the attributes of other
creatures. Ornaments identified the wearer with animals, gods, heroes or other men. This
identification remains symbolic in more sophisticated societies. We should bear in mind that the
theater has its distant origins in scared performances, and in all periods children at play have
worn disguises, so as to adapt gradually to adult life.
Costumes helped inspire fear or impose authority. For a chieftain, costumes embodied
attributes expressing his power, while a warrior’s costume enhanced his physical superiority and
suggested he was superhuman. In more recent times, professional or administrative costume has
been devised to distinguish the wearer and express personal or delegated authority; this purpose
is seen clearly in the judge’s robes and the police officer’s uniform. Costume denotes power,
and since power is usually equated with wealth, costume came to be an expression of social caste
and material prosperity. Military uniform denotes rank and is intended to intimidate, to protect
the body and to express membership in a group. At the bottom of the scale, there are such
compulsory costumes as the convict’s uniform. Finally, costume can possess a religious
significance that combines various elements: an actual or symbolic identification with a god, the
desire to express this in earthy life, and the desire to enhance the wearer’s position or respect.
86. The passage mainly discusses costume in term of its _______.
A. physical protection B. religious significance
C. social function D. beauty and attractiveness
87. What is the purpose of the paragraph 1?
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A. To describe the uses of costume B. To contrast costume with the clothing
C. To trade the origins of costume D. To point out that clothing developed before
costume
88. Psychological reasons for wearing garments include _______.
A. protection from cold B. availability of materials
C. prevention of illness D. wishing to give pleasure
89. The word “ornaments” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. garments B. representation C. details D. decorations
90. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that _______.
A. The function of costume has become very sophisticated
B. Children like to identify with other creature by wearing costumes
C. Primitive people wore cloths only for scared performances
D. Costume no longer fulfills a function beyond simple utility
91. Why does the author mention the police officer’s uniform?
A. To illustrate the aesthetic function of costume
B. To identify the wearer with a hero
C. To suggest that police are superhuman
D. To show how costume signifies authority
92. The word “denotes” in line paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. disguises B. describes C. indicates D. denigrates
93. Which of the following would most likely NOT be reflected in a person’s costume, as it
is defined in the passage?
A. Having a heart condition B. Playing in a baseball game
C. Working in a hospital D. Participating in a religious ceremony
exchanges.
94. A: _______.
B: Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.
A. When have you got this beautiful dress?
B. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
C. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!
95. “What are they like?” – “_______”
A. They are very nice. B. They are from London.
C. They’re in London. D. They’re American.
96. “If I were you, I would try to finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the
experiment.” The professor said to his students.
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A. The professor advised his students to finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the
experiment.
B. The professor wished he could finish the pre-lab report for his students.
C. The professor regretted that his students didn’t do things in the right way.
D. The professor advised his students to carry out the experiments and then write the pre-
lab report.
97. He started computer programming as soon as he left school.
A. No sooner had he started computer programming than he left school.
B. Hardly had he started computer programming when he left school.
C. No sooner had he left school than he started computer programming.
D. After he left school, he had started computer programming.
98. Twice as many men as women are insurance agents.
A. More men than women have insurance.
B. Male insurance agents outnumber female agents.
C. Women are twice as likely as men to have sold insurance.
D. Insurance is twice as difficult to sell to women as to men.
C. What he wants to do is to give the ball a powerful kick and use the top of his foot.
100. Marie graduated with a good degree. She joined the ranks of the
unemployed.
A. Marie joined the ranks of the unemployed because she graduated with a good degree.
B. If Marie graduated with a good degree. She would join the ranks of the unemployed.
C. Although Marie graduated with a good degree, she joined the ranks of the
unemployed.
D. That Marie graduated with a good degree helped him join the ranks of the
unemployed.
51. A. chore B. stretch C. synchronized D. punching
52. A. isolated B. climate C. automobile D. island
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53. A. curious B. receive C. unique D. achieve
54. A. comprehend B. entertain C. develop D. introduce
55. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.
A. from time to time B. time after time
C. again and again D. very rapidly
56. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the
annual meeting in May.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement
57. I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.
58. The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
59. In the 1960s, urban renewal projects cleared land for commerce and offices buildings.
A. urban renewal B. cleared land C. commerce D. offices buildings
60. It was my father whom talked me into learning another foreign language.
A. was B. whom C. into D. another
61. How seems to be the greatest injustice of all, however, is that the new lands that
Columbus discovered were never given his name.
A. how B. the greatest injustice
C. the new lands D. were never given
questions.
62. The judge _______ the murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.
A. accused B. convicted C. sentenced D. prosecuted
63. It’s surprising that ex-smokers are less _______ smokers than non-smokers.
A. tolerant of B. tolerable to C. intolerant D. tolerance towards
64. I was angry when you saw me because I _______ with my sister.
A. have been arguing B. had been arguing
C. argued D. would argue
65. _______ over long distances is a fact.
A. That electricity transmitting B. That electricity can be transmitted
C. That electricity D. That can be transmitted
66. Deborah is going to take extra lessons to _______ what she missed while she was away.
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A. catch up on B. cut down on C. put up with D. take up with
67. The _______ for this position starts at thirty thousand euros per year.
A. wage B. payment C. fee D. salary
68. I want to take these jeans back because they are too small but I can’t find the _______
anywhere.
A. receipt B. receiver C. reception D. receptionist
69. I wonder _______ mind watching this bag for me for a moment.
A. would you B. you would C. if would you D. whether you would
70. I was only absent _______ the office for a few minutes!
A. for B. from C. in D. about
71. Everyone said that they had _______ themselves at the wedding.
A. enjoyed B. pleased C. impressed D. excited
72. I _______ sight of the robber just before he disappeared around the corner.
A. caught B. took C. got D. had
73. Laura is about _______ me.
A. younger than two years B. two years younger than
C. younger two years than D. two years then younger
Read the following passage and mark the latter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or
A long and happy marriage is something that many people wish for, but finding the right
partner is (24) _______ more difficult than you might imagine. A friend of mine, Susan had not
been very successful in her attempt to find the perfect partner, and she was beginning to lose
heart and feel rather depressed. One day she happened to hear someone (25) _______ about a
computer dating agency which could help you to find the ideal partner. Susan immediately (26)
_______ an appointment to see someone at the agency, then waited to see what would happen.
The agency arranged a meeting with a “suitable” partner at the local railway station a week later,
although I (27) _______ her not to go. My friend arrived a few minutes early but could see no
one who matched the appearance of the man in the photograph she had been sent. She noticed a
man waiting under the station clock and (28) _______ a bunch of flowers. But there was no one
else around. Suddenly the man started chatting to her and, after a while, asked her if she would
like to go and have a coffee. Not until much later did they come to the conclusion that they had
both been waiting for each other! When they had both recovered from the shock, they decided
that the computer had been right after all!
74. A. so B. much C. too D. lot
75. A. mentioning B. telling C. talking D. relating
76. A. did B. had C. set D. made
77. A. advised B. urged C. suggested D. whispered
78. A. fetching B. wearing C. carrying D. holding
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These days, photography is considered an art form. However, people did not always feel
this way. It took one of the greatest photographers of all time to change public opinion about
photography: Ansel Adams.
Ansel Adams claimed that he knew his destiny when he first visited Yosemite, a national
park, at the age of fourteen. Until then, the focus of his life had always been music; he had long
dreamed of being a concert pianist, a career that would have required him to live an urban
lifestyle. Instead, Adams found himself drawn to Yosemite and to other natural settings. Over
time his love of photography became more influential than that of music. Contrary to the popular
belief of the time, he believed photography to be an art form and often exhibited it as art.
Due to his love of nature, Adams become devoted to the conservation of and access to
wilderness. He believed that the American people needed to experience nature in all its glory.
Adams felt that the experience of nature was a spiritual one, a view evidenced by many of his
photographs.
79. What is this passage primarily about?
A. conversation of the environment
B. Yosemite National Park
C. Adams’ feelings about photography and nature
D. his conflict between music and photography
80. What can we infer about photographers before Adams’ time?
A. They were often musicians as well.
B. They were not considered artists.
C. They did not worry about conservation.
D. They had never taken photos of nature.
81. According to the passage, which of the following made Adams want to become a
photographer?
A. Yosemite National Park B. the urban lifestyle
C. loss of interest in music D. a religious experience
82. The word “destiny” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. future B. chance C. hobby D. talent
83. According to the passage, photography has come to be recognized as an art form since
_______.
A. Americans started appreciating the beauty of nature
B. several famous books on photography were published
C. American colleges began offering courses on photography
D. one talented photographer emerged
A. belief B. music C. photography D. art form
85. According to the passage, all of the following are true of Adams EXCEPT that _______.
A. his early life goal was to be a pianist
B. he showed his photographs to the public frequently
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C. he took many pictures of natural scenery
D. he had no idea what career he wanted until he was 14
Psychologists who work on motivation research a wide range of human traits and
physiological characteristics that include the effects of hunger, reward, and punishment, as well
as desires for power, tangible achievement, social acceptance, belongingness, self-esteem, and
self-actualization. A plethora of hypotheses developed in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries
have the goal of identifying causes of an organism’s behavior that can be both conscious and
unconscious. The hierarchical organization of human needs is a theoretical model, originally
established by an American psychologist, Abraham Maslow, in 1954. The needs located at the
bottom of the pyramid are the essentials of physiological survival that encompass oxygen, water,
nutrition, rest, and avoidance of pain. Maslow’s theory, grounded in research, also stipulated that
these are variable and, at least to some extent, may explain, for example, food gratification. The
second tier is rooted in the human need for safety, stability, and protection.
In the human life cycle, the needs for belonging are manifested in the desires to marry,
have a family, belong in a community or among similarly minded people. In part, the need to
belong can also show up in a search for particular types of occupations or careers. The next level
of the hierarchy in effect deals with two substrata, where the first presumes the need for status,
prestige, recognition, appreciation, and dominance, and the higher division includes a
conglomeration of emotionally centered traits that pivot on competence, confidence, mastery,
achievement, independence, and freedom.
The top tier is different from all other, and Maslow referred to it as growth motivation and
self-actualization. At the highest level, individuals seek to realize and put to use their creativity,
talent, leadership, curiosity, and understanding. At this level people can reach their full potentials
and accurately perceive and accept reality, seek privacy and depth in personal relationship, resist
enculturation, and develop social interests, compassion, and humanity. In many cases, self-
actualizers do not lead ordinary lives, choose growth over safety, and cultivate peak experiences
that leave their mark and change one for the better.
86. According to the passage, what does psychology of motivation attempt to uncover?
A. Reactions to hunger and desires for power
B. Developments of human physiology and mind
C. Reasons for human conduct and moving forces
D. Organization of human society and hierarchies
87. The word “plethora” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. oversimplification B. overlap
C. overreach D. overabundance
88. It can be inferred from the passage that in Maslow’s hierarchy _______.
A. the first layer of needs dominates other tiers
B. the highest level of the model supersedes the lower levels
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C. the second layer of needs is more urgent than the first
D. the third level of the model is embedded in the fourth
89. The word “these” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. theory and research B. rest and avoidance of pain
C. oxygen, water, nutrition, and rest D. the lowest set of factors
90. It can be inferred from the passage that in modern-day terms, the second layer of needs
can be reflected in people’s desire for _______.
A. a house in an upscale neighborhood
B. a protected existence and dependence
C. a measure of job and financial security
D. a degree of friendship and family life
91. The word “conglomeration” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. complex B. congress C. conjunction D. connotation
92. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor in human motivation?
A. Esteem B. Participation
C. Accomplishment D. Conformism
93. Which of the following conclusions is supported by the passage?
A. Genuine self-actualizers may attain self-satisfaction
B. Sincere self-promoters can achieve full contentment
C. Real self-starters can achieve their lives’ desires
D. True self-actualizers may lead complicated lives
exchanges.
94. “Should I give you a little more coffee?” – “_______.”
A. No, you’re welcome B. No, thank you
C. Yes, you’re right D. Yes, I’m OK
95. “Could you hand me that hammer?” – “_______.”
A. It’s not very expensive B. Yes, please
C. I’m about to use it myself D. Yes, I’d like to
96. Mr. Baker is determined to continue working when he is 65.
A. There is a determination of him to continue working when Mr. Baker is 65.
B. Not until Mr. Baker is 65, he is determined to continue working.
C. Mr. Baker has no intention of stopping working when he is 65.
D. Mr. Baker’s determination to continue working only when he is 65.
97. He was such a bright student that he could solve all the math problems.
A. He was not bright enough to solve all the math problems.
B. He was so intelligent that he could solve all the math problems.
C. The math problems were too difficult for him to solve.
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D. All the math problems were so bright that he could solve them.
98. His daydreaming prevented him from becoming a good employee.
A. If he daydreamed, he would become a better employee.
B. He could become a better employee without his daydreaming.
C. He daydreams, which makes him a good employee.
D. As a daydreamer, he is a good employee.
99. He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent is he can solve all the problems in no time.
100. We haven’t seen each other for a long time. I’m wondering whether
I shall even recognize him.
A. Although we haven’t seen each other for a long time, I’m wondering whether I shall
even recognize him.
B. We haven’t seen each other for a long time because I’m wondering whether I shall
even recognize him.
C. We haven’t seen each other for a long time, so I’m wondering whether I shall even
recognize him.
D. The reason why we haven’t seen each other for a long time is that I’m wondering
whether I shall even recognize him.
51. A. river B. rival C. native D. driven
52. A. measure B. pleasure C. ensure D. leisure
53. A. familiar B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant
54. A. disappear B. arrangement D. opponent D. contractual
55. There’s something about him I just can’t stand, he really gets under my skin.
A. pushes me B. presses me C. treats me D. annoys me
56. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. absolutely B. relevantly C. almost D. comparatively
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58. Match the world in A with its appropriate definition in B.
A. indirect B. illegal C. improper D. unreal
59. Each of the students in the accountant class has to type their own research paper this
semester.
A. students B. accountant C. their own D. research paper
60. Most bacteria has strong cell walls much like those of the plants.
A. most B. has C. much D. those
61. It’s thirty years since this thirty-storeys building was built.
A. it’s thirty years B. since C. thirty-storeys D. was built
questions.
62. Granny is completely deaf. You’ll have to _______ allowance for her.
63. The house is found _______ down.
A. to burn B. burning C. having burned D. to have been burned
64. Nearly all of the reporters _______ the press conference had questions _______.
A. attend – asked B. attended – to ask
C. attending – to ask D. would attend – to be asked
65. _______, sheep were then used for wood.
A. Having first domesticated for milk production
B. Having been first domesticated for milk production
C. Because they have been first domesticated for milk production
D. Although they had first domesticated for milk production
66. The car burst into _______ but the driver managed to escape.
A. fire B. flames C. heat D. burning
67. When they thought they has enough evidence, the police _______ the man with murder.
A. charged B. arrested C. suspected D. investigated
68. Mrs. Moore waited for the class to _______ before she continued.
A. bring up B. pass away C. settle down D. bring on
69. It seems that the thief took _______ of the open windows an got inside that way.
A. occasion B. chance C. opportunity D. advantage
70. _______ I do okay in the interview, I’ve got a good chance of getting the job.
A. unless B. in case C. only D. provided
71. Call me as soon as you _______ your test results.
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A. get B. will get C. will have got D. got
72. How much is the bus _______ to the city centre?
A. fee B. fare C. price D. cost
73. The country’s economy relies heavily on the tourist _______.
A. industry B. industrial C. industrialize D. industrious
GLOBAL WARMING
Few people now realize the reality of global warming and its effects on the world’s
climate. Many scientists (24) _______ the blame for recent natural disasters on the increase in
the world’s temperatures and are convinced that, more than ever before, the Earth is at (25)
_______ from the forces of the wind, rain and sun. according to them, global warming is making
extreme weather events, such as hurricanes and droughts, even more severe and causing sea
levels all around the word to rise.
Environmental groups are putting pressure on governments to take action to reduce the
amount of carbon dioxide which is given (26) _______ by factories and power plants, thus
attacking the problem at its source. They are in (27) _______ of more money being spent on
research into solar wind, and wave energy devices, which could then replace existing power (28)
_______. Some scientists, however, believe that even if we stopped releasing carbon dioxide and
other gases into the atmosphere tomorrow, we would have to wait several hundred years to
notice the results. Global warming, it seems, is to stay.
74. A. give B. put C. take D. has
75. A. danger B. harm C. risk D. threat
76. A. off B. up C. over D. away
77. A. request B. suggestion C. belief D. favor
78. A. houses B. dumps C. stations D. generation
The changing profile of a city in the United States is apparent in the shifting definitions
used by the United States Bureau of the Census. In 1870 the census officially distinguished the
nation’s “urban” from its “rural” population for the first time. “Urban population” was defined as
persons living in towns of 8,000 inhabitants or more. But after 1900 it meant persons living in
incorporated places having 2,500 or more inhabitants.
Then, in 1950 the Census Bureau radically changed its definition of urban to take account
of the new vagueness of city boundaries. In addition to persons living in incorporated units of
2,5000 or more, the census now included those who lived in unincorporated units of that size,
and also all persons living in the densely settled urban fringe, including both incorporated and
unincorporated areas located around cities of 50,000 inhabitants or more. Each such unit,
conceived as an integrated economic and social unit with a large population nucleus, was named
a Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area (SMSA).
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Each SMSA would contain at least (a) one central city with 50,000 inhabitants or more or
(b) two cities having shared boundaries and constituting for general economic and social
purposes, a single community with a combined population of at least 50,000, the smaller of
which must have a population of at least 15,000. Such an area would include the county in which
the central city was located, and adjacent countries that were found to be metropolitan in
character and economically and socially integrated with the county of the central city. By 1970,
about two-thirds of the population of the United States was living in these urbanized areas, and
of that figure more than half were living outside the central cities.
While the Census Bureau and the United States government used the term SMSA (by 1969
there were 233 of them), social scientists were also using new terms to describe the elusive,
vaguely defined areas reaching out from what used to be simple “towns” and “cities”. A host of
terms came into use: “metropolitan regions,” “poly-nucleated population groups,”
“conurbations,” “metropolitan clusters,” “megalopolises” and so on.
A. How cities in the United States began and developed
B. Solutions to overcrowding in cities
C. The changing definition of an urban area
D. How the United States Census Bureau conducts a census
80. According to the passage, the population of the United States was first classified as rural
or urban in _______.
A. 1870 B. 1900 C. 1950 D. 1970
81. The word “distinguished” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. differentiated B. removed C. honored D. protected
82. Prior to 1900, how many inhabitants would a town have to have before being defined as
urban?
A. 2,500 B. 8,000 C. 15,000 D. 50,000
83. According to the passage, why did the Census Bureau revise the definition of urban in
1950?
A. City borders had become less distinct
B. Cities had undergone radical social change.
C. Elected officials could not agree on an acceptable definition
D. New businesses had relocated to larger cities.
84. The word “those” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. boundaries B. persons C. units D. areas
85. The word “constituting” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. located near B. determined by C. calling for D. making up
The penny press, which emerged in the United States during the 1830’s, was a powerful
agent of mass communication. These newspapers were little dailies, generally four pages in
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length, written for the mass taste. They differed from the staid, formal presentation of the
conservative press, with its emphasis on political and literary topics. The new papers were brief
and cheap, emphasizing sensational reports of police courts and juicy scandals as well as human
interest stories. Twentieth-century journalism was already foreshadowed in the penny press
of the 1830’s.
The New York Sun, founded in 1833, was the first successful penny paper, and it was
followed two years later by the New York Herald, published by James Gordon Bennett. Not long
after, Horace Greeley issued the New York Tribune, which was destined to become the most
influential paper in America. Greeley gave space to the issues that deeply touched the American
people before the Civil War – abolitionism, temperance, free homesteads, Utopian cooperative
settlements, and the problems of labor. The weekly edition of the Tribune, with 100,000
subscribers, has a remarkable influence in rural areas, especially in Western communities.
Americans were reputed to be the most avid readers of periodicals in the world. An
English observer enviously calculated that, in 1829, the number of newspapers circulated in
Great Britain was enough to reach only one out of every thirty-six inhabitants weekly;
Pennsylvania in that same year had a newspaper circulation which reached one out of every four
inhabitants weekly. Statistics seemed to justify the common belief that Americans were devoted
to periodicals. Newspapers in the United States increased from 1,200 in 1833 to 3,000 by the
early 1860’s, on the eve of the Civil War. This far exceeded the number and circulation of
newspapers in England and France.
86. What does the author mean by the statement “Twentieth-century journalism was
foreshadowed by the penny press of the 1930’s” in paragraph 1?
A. The penny press darkened the reputation of news writing.
B. Twentieth-century journalism is more important than nineteenth-century journalism.
C. Penny-press news reporting was more accurate than that in twentieth-century
newspapers.
D. Modern news coverage is similar to that done by the penny press.
87. Which of the following would LEAST likely be in a penny-press paper?
A. A report of theft of union funds by company officials
B. An article about a little girl returning a large amount of money she found in the street
C. A scholarly analysis of an economic issue of national importance
D. A story about land being given away in the West
A. the New York Sun B. the New York Herald
C. America D. the Civil War
89. Who was Horace Greeley?
A. The publisher of the first penny-press paper to make a profit.
B. The founder of the penny-press paper that did the most to influence the thinking of the
public.
C. The most successful writer for the penny press.
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D. The man who took over James Gordon Bennett’s penny-press paper and made it
successful.
90. The word “remarkable” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. significant B. discussable C. remote D. uneven
91. The word “avid” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. intelligent B. eager C. critical D. thrifty
92. The figures concerning newspaper circulation in Pennsylvania in 1829 are relevant
because they
A. explain why so many different periodicals were published
B. prove that weekly periodicals were more successful than daily papers
C. show the difference between reading habits before and after the Civil War
D. support the belief that Americans were enthusiastic readers of periodicals
93. The word “justify” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. generate B. calculate C. modify D. prove
exchanges.
94. “Make yourself at home!” – “_______”
A. Yes. Can I help you? B. Not at all. Don’t mention it.
C. Thanks. The same to you. D. That is very kind. Thank you.
95. “Do you mind if I borrow a chair?” – “_______”
A. I’m sorry. B. Not at all. C. Yes, I do. D. Yes, I would
96. My sister worries so much about fitness that she wastes a lot of time and money.
A. My sister wastes a lot of time and money though she worries so much about fitness.
B. My sister worries about fitness so that she wastes a lot of time and money.
C. Worrying too much about fitness, my sister wastes a lot of time and money.
D. Fitness worried, my sister wasted a lot of time and money.
97. The heavy downpour brought their picnic to an abrupt end.
A. their picnic didn’t end in the heavy downpour.
B. The heavy downpour ended when they brought me to their picnic.
C. Their picnic ends abruptly because of the heavy downpour.
D. They had to cut short their picnic because of the heavy downpour.
98. You can now buy these products at all large supermarkets.
A. These products are now available at all large supermarkets.
B. All large supermarkets are now on sale these products.
C. These products are for sales to all large supermarkets.
D. All large markets are available with these products.
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99. His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious
institution.
A. His academic record at high school was poor because he didn’t apply to that
B. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that
C. Failing to apply to that prestigious institution, his academic record at high school was
poor.
D. His academic record at high school was poor; as a result, he failed to apply to that
100. Overeating is a cause of several deadly diseases. Physical inactivity
is another cause of several deadly diseases.
A. Not only overeating but also physical inactivity may lead to several deadly diseases.
B. Apart from physical activities, eating too much also contributes to several deadly
diseases.
C. Both overeating and physical inactivity result from several deadly diseases.
D. Overeating and physical inactivity are caused by several deadly diseases.
52. A. Valentine B. imagine C. discipline D. determine
53. A. consider B. apply C. provide D. offer
54. A. pollution B. attractive C. separate D. activity
55. Most of the female football players will be jobless when the Game are over.
A. employed B. busy C. unemployed D. highly-paid
56. Parents interpret facial and vocal expressions as indicators of how a baby is feeling.
A. translate B. understand C. read D. comprehend
57. A lot of people think that Kim Kardashian is really hot.
A. beautiful B. cool C. unattractive D. kind
58. A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work.
A. uncomfortable B. responsive C. calm D. miserable
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59. Please remain in your assign seats until the instructor dismisses the class.
A. in B. assign seats C. until D. dismisses
60. Even you are unsure of the standard procedures in any situation, please don’t hesitate to
consult with your supervising manager.
A. Even B. unsure of C. in any situation D. consult with
61. We have always believed that honesty is best policy in personal as well as professional
matters.
A. have always believed B. best policy
C. personal D. professional
62. I haven’t _______ my mind where to go for our holiday this year. I am quite busy at
work.
A. turn up B. made up C. break up D. changed
63. I wish you _______ making so much noise! I just need to relax for a while.
A. will stop B. stop C. had stopped D. would stop
64. Gold, as well as silver, _______ in price, he said.
A. have fallen B. has fallen C. fall D. are falling
65. I wonder if you could _______ me a small favour, Tom?
A. bring B. make C. give D. do
66. Many traffic accidents are _______ by carelessness and impatience.
A. caused B. resulted C. occurred D. happened
67. Sam confessed _______ all the cookies.
A. eat B. eating C. to eating D. to eat
68. The bus conductor told him to get off because he couldn’t pay the _______.
A. fare B. journey C. bill D. travel
69. Some people believe that books are _______ species, fighting for survival in competition
with TV, film, the Internet and CD.
A. danger B. dangerous C. endangered D. dangerously
70. _______ quickly they ran, they just couldn’t catch up with the van.
A. However B. So C. Even D. Much
71. Our team was losing but we managed to _______ the score.
A. get B. noticed C. even D. have
72. Since Carl was unable to pay his bill, after a couple of months, his telephone was
_______.
A. cut off B. broken up C. dropped off D. rung up
73. He always did it well at school _______ having his early education disrupted by illness.
A. in spite of B. on account of C. in addition to D. even though
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74. “Didn’t you go to the conference?” – “_______”
A. No, I went there with my friends. B. That sounds nice, but I can’t.
C. Don’t worry. I’ll go there. D. I did, but I didn’t stay long.
75. “May I leave a message for Ms. Davis?” – “_______”
A. I’m afraid she’s not here at the moment.
B. No, she’s not here now.
C. She’s leaving a message to you now.
D. Yes, I’ll make sure she gets it.
76. Most people get fewer colds in the summer than in the winter.
A. A person is more likely to get a cold in the winter than in the summer.
B. More people have summer colds than winter colds.
C. People get colder in the summer than in the winter.
D. The winter is much colder than the summer.
77. If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work.
A. He was careless because he hadn’t finished the work.
B. If her were careful, we would finish the work.
C. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work.
D. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work.
78. The captain to his men: “Abandon the ship immediately!”
A. The captain invited his men to abandon the ship immediately.
B. The captain suggested his men abandon the ship immediately.
C. The captain ordered his men to abandon the ship immediately.
D. The captain requested his men to abandon the ship immediately.
79. The girl is talking to a man with a ponytail. She is my friend.
A. The girl who is talking to a man with a ponytail is my friend.
B. The girl, whom a man with a ponytail is talking to, is my friend.
C. My friend is the girl, who is talking to a man with a ponytail.
D. The girl, who is talking to a man with a ponytail, is my friend.
80. She doesn’t want to go to their party. We don’t want to go either.
A. Neither she nor we don’t want to go to their party.
B. Neither we nor she wants to go to their party.
C. Either we or she doesn’t want to go to their party.
D. Neither we nor she want to go to their party.
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Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
35.
THE OLD GATE
In the Middle Ages the vast majority of European cities had walls around them. They (31)
_______ to defend the city, but they also kept out undesirable people, like those with contagious
diseases.
Most of London’s gates had been (32) _______ by the end of the eighteenth century.
However, by a stroke of luck, the last of them was preserved. This gate is, in actual fact, not
called a gate at all; its name is Temple Bar, and it marked the (33) _______ between the old City
of London and Westminster. However, as the (34) _______ of traffic through London increased,
Temple Bar became an obstacle to its free flow. In 1878 it was decided to take it down, so its
stone were numbered, dismantled and put in storage. A couple of years later a wealthy
businessman bought the stones and re-erected them at his house in Hertfordshire.
In the 1970s the Temple Bar Trust was (35) _______ with the intention of returning the
gate to the City of London. Much of the money for this project was donations from the Temple
Bar Trust. The stonework needed a lot of restoration, which was carried out by the Cathedral
Works Organization. Today, Temple Bar stands next to St Paul’s Cathedral.
81. A. supposed B. served C. expected D. meant
82. A. devoted B. demolished C. declared D. decreased
83. A. division B. part C. line D. boundary
84. A. amount B. quantity C. bulk D. number
85. A. set out B. set up C. set off D. set back
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
In developing countries, where three fourths of the world’s population live, sixty percent of
the people who can’t read and write are women. Being illiterate doesn’t mean they are not
intelligent. It does mean it is difficult for them to change their lives. They produce more than half
of the food. In Africa eighty percent of all agricultural work is done by women. There are many
programs to help poor countries develop their agriculture. However, for years, these programs
provided money and training for men.
In parts of Africa, this is a typical day for a village woman. At 4:45 am, she gets up,
washes and eats. It takes her a half hour to walk to the fields, and she works there until 3:30 pm.
She collects firewood and gets home at 4:00. She spends the next hour and a half preparing food
to cook. Then she collect water for another hour. From 6:30 to 8:30 she cooks. After dinner, she
spends an hour washing the dishes and her children. She goes to bed at 9:30 pm.
International organizations and programs run by developed nations are starting to help
women, as well as men, improve their agricultural production. Government have already passed
some laws affecting women because of the UN Decade for Women. The UN report will affect
the changes now happening in the family and society.
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86. What does the word “run” in the last paragraph mean?
A. move quickly B. push C. managed D. organized
87. Why do people say women produce more than half of the food in Africa?
A. because 60 percent of women are illiterate.
B. because 80 percent of all agricultural work is done by women.
C. most women are not intelligent.
D. all are correct.
88. Why do people say that Africa women’s lives are hard?
A. Because these women are busy with housework.
B. Because they work all day in the fields.
C. both A and B are correct.
D. Because they are illiterate.
89. A typical Africa woman spends _______ collecting firewood every day.
A. 3 hours B. 2 hours C. 1 hour D. 4 hours
90. Which of these statements is NOT TRUE?
A. Women’s roles in the family and society are changing nowadays.
B. It is difficult for women to change their lives because of their illiteracy.
C. In the past only men in poor countries got benefit from many international programs.
D. Because they are illiterate, women are not intelligent.
91. By whom (what) was the Decade for Women organized?
A. by the United Nations Organization. B. by developing countries.
C. by the World Health Organization. D. by many African countries.
A. changes in life between men and women in the family and in the society.
B. negative effects of the UNO law
C. positive effects of the roles of women
D. women and men’s roles in their family
In Science, a theory is a reasonable explanation of observed events that are related. A
theory often involves an imaginary model that helps scientists picture the way an observed event
could be produced. A good example of this is found in the kinetic molecular theory, in which
gases are pictured as being made up of many small particles that are in constant motion.
After a theory has been publicized, scientists design experiments to test the theory. If
observations confirm the scientists’ predictions, the theory is supported. If observations do not
confirm the predictions, the scientists must search further. There may be a fault in the
experiment, or the theory may have to be revised or rejected.
Science involves imagination and creative thinking as well as collecting information and
performing experiments. Facts by themselves are not science. As the mathematician Jules Henri
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Poincare said: “Science is built with facts just as a house is built bricks, but a collection of facts
cannot be called science any more than a pile of bricks can be called a house”
Most scientists start an investigation by finding out what other scientists have learned
about a particular problem. After known facts have been gathered, the scientists comes to the
part of the investigation that requires considerable imagination. Possible solutions to the problem
are formulated. These possible solutions are called hypotheses. In a way, any hypothesis is a leap
into the unknown. It extends the scientist’s thinking beyond the known facts. The scientist plans
experiments, performs calculations, and make observations to test hypotheses. For without
hypotheses, further investigation lacks purpose and direction. When hypotheses are confirmed,
they are incorporated into theories.
93. Which of the following is the main subject of the passage?
A. The importance of models in scientific theories.
B. The sorts of facts that scientists find most interesting.
C. The ways that scientists perform different types of experiments.
D. The place of theory and hypothesis in scientific investigation.
94. The word “related” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. described B. identified C. connected D. completed
95. According to the second paragraph, a useful theory is one that helps scientists to
_______.
A. observe events B. publicize new findings
C. make predictions D. find errors in past experiments
96. The word “supported” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. upheld B. finished C. adjusted D. investigated
97. “Bricks” are mentioned in paragraph 3 to indicate how _______.
A. science is more than a collection of facts
B. scientific experiments have led to improved technology
C. mathematicians approach science
D. building a house is like performing experiments
98. In the fourth paragraph, the author implies that imagination is most important to scientists
when they _______.
A. formulate possible solutions to a problem
B. evaluate previous work on a problem
C. close an investigation
D. gather known facts
99. In the last paragraph, what does the author imply is a major function of hypotheses?
A. Linking together different theories.
B. Communicating a scientist’s thoughts to others.
C. Providing direction for scientific research.
D. Sifting through known facts.
100. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
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A. Theories are simply imaginary models of past events.
B. A scientist’s most difficult task is testing hypotheses.
C. A good scientist needs to be creative.
D. It is better to revise a hypothesis than to reject it.
51. A. crop B. common C. household D. bodily
52. A. charity B. chaos C. champion D. chin
53. A. accelerate B. impossible C. assimilate D. opposition
54. A. intervention B. eventually C. renovation D. confirmation
55. As a government official, Benjamin Franklin often traveled abroad.
A. widely B. secretly C. alone D. overseas
56. The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water.
A. connived B. survived C. surprised D. revived
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
surplus.
58. Her father likes the head cabbage rare.
A. over-boiled B. precious C. scarce D. scare
59. People respected him because he was a honest man.
A. People B. respected C. because D. a honest man
60. My uncle has just bought some expensive furnitures fir his new house.
A. has just bought B. expensive C. furnitures D. for his new house
61. The flag over the White House is risen at dawn everyday by a color guard from the
United States armed forces.
A. over the White House B. is risen
C. at dawn D. armed
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62. When I last saw him, he _______ in London.
A. lived B. is living C. was living D. had been living
63. They studied hard and _______ they passed the entrance exam.
A. eventually B. finally C. at the end D. finish
64. I shivered and sweated _______.
A. continue B. continual C. continuously D. continually
65. I _______ to Greece until Sally and I went there last summer.
A. have never been B. had never been
C. was never being D. were never
66. As the drug took _______, the patient became quieter.
A. effect B. force C. influence D. action
67. He said if he had not answered the phone at the petroleum station then, he _______ a
fine.
A. would pay B. hadn’t paid C. had been paid D. wouldn’t have had to
pay
68. Jim’s _______ flu again. That’s the third time this year.
A. led up to B. come up with C. gone down with D. put up with
69. I am driving instructor so I have to be very _______ as people get upset when you critize
them.
A. powerful B. skillful C. tactful D. helpful
70. The number of learners of English _______ in recent years.
A. have increased rapidly B. has been increased rapidly
C. have been increased rapidly D. has increased rapidly
71. The old manager has just retired, so Tom takes _______ his position.
A. in B. on C. up D. out
72. Every step _______ to improve the living conditions in these slums only attracts more
migrants.
A. held B. hold C. taken D. took
73. When you have a small child in the house, you _______ leave small objects lying
around. Such objects _______ be swallowed, causing serious injury or even death.
A. needn’t/ may B. should not/ might
C. should/ must D. mustn’t/ can’t
74. “How can this dress be so expensive?” – “_______”
A. Yes, it’s the most expensive. B. What an expensive dress!
C. You’re paying for the brand. D. That’s a good idea.
75. “May I speak to the manager?” – “_______”
A. He always comes late. He is not very well.
B. Thank you. Good bye.
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C. I’m afraid he’s not in. Can I take a message?
D. I’m afraid not. He works very hard.
76. Amanda has improved a lot this term.
A. Amanda has made a lot of impression this term.
B. Amanda has made great progress this term.
C. A lot of progress were made by Amanda this term.
D. Amanda has made a lot of advances this term.
77. They have collected the test and checked the answers.
A. The tests have been collected and the answers have been checked.
B. They have checked the answers when they have collected the tests.
C. The tests have been collected for checking.
D. The answers would be given after they collected the tests.
78. Machines have taken the place of the people who used to do this kind of work.
A. It is machines that do this kind of work, not people.
B. Thanks to machines, people no longer do this kind of work.
C. Machines are better than people at doing this kind of work.
D. The people who used to do this kind of work have been replaced by machines.
79. I think my hair looks fine. My brother believes it needs a little more brushing.
A. Not only do I think my hair looks fine, but my mother also believes it needs a little
more brushing.
B. Either my mother believes it needs a little more brushing or I think my hair looks fine.
C. I think my hair looks so fine that my mother believes it needs a little more brushing.
D. I think my hair looks fine, but my mother believes it needs a little more brushing.
recycle rubbish.
A. We can protect the world in which we lives as well as we can grow more trees and
recycle rubbish.
B. We can protect the world in which we live, growing more trees and recycle rubbish.
rubbish.
rubbish.
35.
PAPER
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‘Just imagine a day without paper,’ reads one advertisement for a Finnish paper company.
It adds, ‘You almost certainly see our products every day.’ And they’re right. But in most
industrial countries., people are so (31) _______ to paper – whether it’s for holding their
groceries, for drying their hands or for providing them with the daily news – that its (32)
_______ in their daily lives passes largely unnoticed.
At one (33) _______ paper was in short supply and was used mainly for important
documents, but more recently, growing economies and new technologies have (34) _______ a
dramatic increase in the amount of paper used. Today, there are more than 450 different grades
of paper, all designed for a different purpose.
Decades ago, some people predicted a ‘paperless office’. Instead, the widespread use of
new technologies has gone hand-in-hand with an increased use of paper. Research into the
relationship between paper use and the use of computers has shown that the general (35)
_______ is likely to be one of growth and interdependence.
However, the costs involved in paper production, in terms of the world’s land, water and
air resources, are high. This raises some important questions. How much paper do we really need
and how much is wasted?
81. A. conscious B. acquainted C. familiar D. accustomed
82. A. task B. operation C. service D. role
83. A. time B. instance C. date D. occasion
84. A. called on B. come around C. brought about D. drawn up
85. A. method B. order C. trend D. system
ACADEMICS AREN’T THE PROBLEM
Studies about how students use their time might shed light on whether they face increased
academic and financial pressures compared with earlier eras.
Based on data about how students are spending time, academic or financial pressures don’t
seem to be greater now than a generation ago. The data show that full-time students in all types
of colleges study much less now than they did a generation ago – a full 10 hours a week lees.
Students are also receiving significantly higher grades. So it appears that academic pressure are,
in fact, considerably lower than they used to be.
The time-use data don’t suggest that students feel greater financial pressures, either. When
the time savings and lower opportunity costs are factored in, college appears less expensive for
most students than it was in the 1960s. And though there are now full-time students working to
pay while in college, they study less even when paid work choices are held constantly.
In other words, full-time students do not appear to be studying less in order to work more.
They appears to be studying less and spending the extra time on leisure activities or fun. It seems
hard to imagine that students feeling increased financial pressure would respond by taking more
leisure.
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Based on how students are spending their time then, it doesn’t look as though academic or
financial pressures are greater now than a generation ago. The time-use data don’t speak directly
to social pressures, and it may well be that these have become more intense lately.
In one recent set of data, students reported spending more than 23 hours per week either
socializing with friends or playing on the computer for fun. Social activities, in person or on
computer, would seem to have become the major focus of campus life. It is hard to tell what
kinds of pressures would be associated with this change.
86. The study’s condition that students’ workload now is not greater than before is based on
_______.
A. what students achieve with greater load
B. how students spend their time
C. how students work through college
D. what college demands from students
87. Students get higher grades as _______.
A. students study much harder
B. academic workload appears more attractive
C. academic workload appears less demanding
D. college’s facilities are much better
88. According to the author, the fact that students have more time for leisure is a proof that
_______.
A. financial pressure on students is not a problem
B. academic work disinterests them
C. they are active with extra-curricular activities
D. they cannot find extra jobs
89. All factors considered, college now seems _______.
A. more costly B. ever more expensive
C. much more expensive D. less expensive
90. Students nowadays seem to be studying less and _______.
A. spending more time on leisure B. spending more time doing odd jobs
C. giving more time to sports D. taking more extracurricular activities
91. The word “focus” in the last paragraph can be replace with _______.
A. central activity B. primary theme C. headline D. biggest importance
92. The author finds it hard to point out _______.
A. how students’ campus life becomes subject to academic pressure
B. what is associated with the change in students’ campus life
C. the cause to students’ financial pressure
D. how the background of students’ campus life is built
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The biologist’s role in society as well as his moral and ethical responsibility in the
discovery and development of new ideas has led to a reassessment of his social and scientific
value systems. A scientist can no longer ignore the consequences of his discoveries; he is as
concerned with the possible misuses of his findings as he is with the basic research in which he is
involved. This emerging social and political role of the biologist and all other scientists requires
a weighing of values that cannot be done with the accuracy or the objectivity of a laboratory
balance. As a member of society, it is necessary for a biologist now to redefine his social
obligations and his functions, particularly in the realm of making judgments about such ethical
problems as man’s control of his environment or his manipulation of genes to direct further
evolutionary development. As a result of recent discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms,
genetic engineering, by which human traits are made to order, may soon be a reality.
As desirable as it may seem to be, such an accomplishment would entail many value
judgments. Who would decide, for example, which traits should be selected for change? In case
of genetic deficiencies and disease, the desirability of the change is obvious, but the possibilities
for social misuse are so numerous that they may far outweigh the benefits.
Probably the greatest biological problem of the future, as it is of the present, will be to find
ways to curb environmental pollution without interfering with man’s constant effort to improve
the quality of his life. Many scientists believe that underlying the spectre of pollution is the
problem of surplus human population. A rise in population necessitates an increase in the
operations of modern industry, the waste products of which increase the pollution of air, water,
and soil. The question of how many people the resources of the Earth can support is one of
critical importance.
Although the solutions to these and many other problems are yet to be found, they do
indicate the need for biologists to work with social scientists and other members of society in
order to determine the requirements necessary for maintaining a healthy and productive planet.
For although many of man’s present and future problems may seem to be essentially social,
political, or economic in nature, they have biological ramifications that could affect the very
existence of life itself.
93. According to the passage, a modern scientist should be more concerned about _______.
A. the consequences of his discoveries B. his basic research
C. his manipulation of genes D. the development of new ideas
94. The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. genetic engineering B. an accomplishment
C. hereditary mechanism D. a reality
95. It is implied in the passage that genetic engineering _______.
A. will change all human traits B. is no longer desirable
C. is the most desirable for life D. may do us more harm than good
96. The pronoun “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. possibilities for genetic deficiencies
B. cases of genetic deficiencies
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C. discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms
D. effects of genetic engineering misuse
97. What is probably the most important biological problem mentioned in the passage?
A. environmental pollution
B. manipulation of genes
C. genetic engineering misuse
D. social and economic deficiencies
98. According to the passage, to save our planet, biologists should work _______.
A. with other social scientists
B. accurately and objectively
C. on social and political purposes
D. harder and harder
99. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “ramifications” in paragraph 4?
A. effective techniques
B. latest developments
C. harmful consequences
D. useful experiments
100. What is the author’s purpose in this passage?
A. To urge biologists to solve the problem of surplus human population
B. To conduct a survey of the biologist’s role in society
C. To advise biologists to carry out extensive research into genetic engineering
D. To emphasize the biologist’s role in solving the world’s problems
51. A. merchant B. sergeant C. commercial D. mermaid
52. A. obstacle B. obscure C. obsession D. oblivious
53. A. generous B. electricity C. horrible D. famous
54. A. economy B. village C. interest D. industry
55. The boy was brought up with a family in the countryside.
A. reared B. bred C. raised D. grown
56. There was nothing they could do but leave the car at the roadside where it had broken
down.
A. except B. instead of C. than D. unless
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57. We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.
A. uninterested B. unsure C. slow D. open
58. We tried to emphasize a system where you put things in place and hire smart, industrious
people.
A. slothful B. hardworking C. busy D. fruitful
59. The windows at the front of the house need to repair.
A. The windows B. of the house C. need D. to repair
60. Last week Mark told me that he got very bored with his present job and were looking for
a new one.
A. told B. got C. were looking D. new one
61. New laws should be introduced to reduce the number of traffic in the city center.
A. laws B. be introduced C. number D. city center
62. I _______ along the street when I suddenly heard footsteps behind me.
A. was walking B. am walking C. walk D. walked
63. “You should stop working too hard _______ you’ll get sick”.
A. or else B. if C. in case D. whereas
64. He occasionally _______ a headache in the morning.
A. has had B. has C. have D. is having
65. Nowadays children would prefer history lessons _______ in more practical ways.
A. to be delivered B. delivered C. be delivered D. to be delivering
66. They would _______ go by air than travel by train.
67. Henry _______ into the restaurant when the writer was having dinner.
A. was going B. went C. has gone D. did go
68. She _______ the baby on the bed in order to change its nappy.
A. lay B. laid C. lied D. lain
69. These quick and easy _______ can be effective in the short term, but they have a cost.
A. solve B. solvable C. solutions D. solvability
70. The headmaster said the students had well performed in the test _______.
A. yesterday B. last day C. the day before D. the previous
71. I’ve just spent two weeks looking _______ an aunt of mine who’s been ill.
A. at B. for C. out for D. after
72. Were you aware _______ the regulations against smoking in the area?
A. in B. with C. of D. about
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73. My uncle took _______ golf when he retired from work.
A. on B. after C. up D. over
74. “Why did you turn the air conditioner on? – “_______”
A. I think it’s a bad air conditioner. B. I can’t see anything.
C. It’s a little hot in here. D. It’s a good idea.
75. “Where’s the view? The advertisement said this place has a great view of the sea.” –
“_______”
A. It has good facilities. B. It’s convenient to see it.
C. You can find it very convenient. D. You can see it from the back.
76. “How fashionable your dress is!” they said to the lady.
A. They exclaimed in admiration for how fashionable the lady’s dress was.
B. They exclaimed with admiration at how fashionable was the lady’s dress.
C. They exclaimed with admiration at how fashionable the lady’s dress was.
D. They exclaimed in admiration that it was fashionable dress the lady had.
77. Of the members, half were for the proposal and half were against.
A. The member of members who favoured the proposal was equal to the number who
opposed it.
B. None of the members could agree whether to accept or reject the proposal.
C. Half of the members were chosen for the project, but those who weren’t objected to it.
D. Many members didn’t agree with the proposal, but some did.
78. You can never be sure about the accuracy of TV weather reports.
A. If you want to know how the weather is going to be, you should watch TV.
B. There are more accurate ways of learning how the weather will be than watching TV.
C. If I were you, I would rely on the TV weather report.
D. Weather forecasts on television are notoriously unreliable.
79. This computer is badly damaged. It cannot be required.
A. This computer is too badly damaged to be repaired.
B. This computer is so badly damaged that it cannot be repaired.
C. This computer is so badly damaged that nobody can repair it.
D. All are correct.
80. The blouse is a little too loose. You’d better ask your tailor to take it in.
A. Your tailor is asked to take your blouse in a little.
B. You’d better have the blouse taken in as it is too loose.
C. The blouse is lost as you didn’t ask your tailor to take it in.
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D. The blouse is little as you asked your tailor to take it in.
35.
THE PERFORMING ARTS
In the past, British children were frequently encouraged to try out their performing skills
for the benefits of adults. They did this by reading aloud, acting or (31) _______ a musical
instrument. As they grew up they were taken to public places of entertainment – the theatre,
opera, circus or ballet. They looked forward to these (32) _______ with great excitement and
would remember and discuss what they had seen for many weeks afterwards. But nowadays
television and computers supply an endless stream of easily (33) _______ entertainment, and
children quickly accept these marvelous inventions as a very ordinary part of their everyday
lives. For many children, the sense of witnessing a very (34) _______ live performance is gone
forever.
But all is not lost. The presence of a TV set may have encouraged a lazy response from
(35) _______ in their own homes, but the desire of those with ambitions to become performing
artists themselves does not seem to have been at all diminished. And live performances in public
are still relatively popular, albeit with an older, more specialist audience.
81. A. controlling B. handling C. doing D. playing
82. A. circumstances B. occasions C. incidents D. situations
83. A. applicable B. convenient C. available D. free
84. A. special B. peculiar C. specific D. particular
85. A. spectators B. onlookers C. viewers D. listeners
The invention of the electric telegraph gave birth to the communications industry.
Although Samuel B. Morse succeeded in making the invention useful in 1837, it was not until
1843 that the first telegraph line of consequence was constructed. By 1860 more than 50,000
miles of lines connected people east of the Rockies. The following year, San Francisco was
added to the network.
The national telegraph network fortified the ties between East and West and contributed to
the rapid expansion of the railroads by providing an efficient means to monitor schedules and
routes. Furthermore, the extension of the telegraph, combined with the invention of the steam-
driven rotary printing press by Richard M. Hoe in 1846, revolutionized the world of journalism.
Where the business of news gathering had been dependent upon the mail and on hand-operated
presses, the telegraph expanded the amount of information a newspaper could supply and
allowed for more timely reporting. The establishment of the Associated Press as a central wire
service in 1846 marked the advent of a new era in journalism.
86. The main topic of the passage is _______.
A. the history of journalism
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B. the origin of the national telegraph
C. how the telegraph network contributed to the expansion of railroads
D. the contributions and development of the telegraph network
87. The word “gathering” in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. people B. information C. objects D. substances
88. The author’s main purpose in this passage is to _______.
A. compare the invention of the telegraph with the invention of the steam-driven rotary
press
B. propose new ways to develop the communications industry
C. show how the electric telegraph affected the communications industry
D. criticize Samuel B. Morse
A. Samuel Morse did not make a significant contribution to the communications industry
B. Morse’s invention did not immediately achieve its full potential
C. The extension of the telegraph was more important than its invention
D. Journalists have the Associated Press to thank for the birth of communications
industry
90. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the growth of the
communications industry?
A. Morse invented the telegraph in 1837
B. People could use the telegraph in San Francisco in 1861
C. The telegraph led to the invention of the rotary printing press
D. The telegraph helped connect the entire nation
91. The word “Rockies” refers to _______.
A. a telegraph company B. the West Coast
C. a mountain range D. a railroad company
92. This passage would most likely be found in a _______.
A. U.S. history book B. book on trains
C. science textbook D. computer magazine
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
All mammals feed their young. Beluga whale mothers, for example, nurse their calves for
some twenty months, until they are about to give birth again and their young are able to find their
own food. The behavior of feeding of young is built into the reproductive system. It is a
nonselective part of parental care and the defining feature of a mammal, the most important thing
that mammals – whether marsupials, platypuses, spiny anteaters, or placental mammals – have in
common.
But not all animal parents, even those that tend their offspring to the point of hatching or
birth, feed their young. Most egg-guarding fish do not, for the simple reason that their young are
so much smaller than the parents and eat food that is also much smaller than the food eaten by
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adults. In reptiles, the crocodile mother protects her young after they have hatched and takes
them down to the water, where they will find food, but she does not actually feed them. Few
insects feed their young after hatching, but some make other arrangement, provisioning their
cells and nests with caterpillars and spiders that they have paralyzed with their venom and stored
in a state of suspended animation so that their larvae might have a supply of fresh food when
they hatch.
For animals other than mammals, then, feeding is not intrinsic to parental care. Animals
add it to their reproductive strategies to give them an edge in their lifelong quest for descendants.
The most vulnerable moment in any animal’s life is when it first finds itself completely on its
own, when it must forage and fend for itself. Feeding postpones that moment until a young
animal has grown to such a size that it is better able to cope.
Young that are fed by their parents become nutritionally independent at a much greater
fraction of their full adult size. And in the meantime those young are shielded against the
vagaries of fluctuating of difficult-to-find supplies. Once a species does take the step of feeding
its young, the young become totally dependent on the extra effort. If both parents are removed,
the young generally do not survive.
A. The care that various animals give to their offspring
B. The difficulties young animals face in obtaining food
C. the methods that mammals use to nurse their young
D. The importance among young mammals of becoming independent
94. The author lists various animals in the first paragraph to _______.
A. contrast the feeling habits of different types of mammals
B. describe the process by which mammals came to be defined
C. emphasize the point that every type of mammals feeds its own young
D. explain why a particular feature of mammals is nonselective
95. The word “tend” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. sit on B. move C. notice D. care for
96. The word “provisioning” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. supplying B. preparing C. building D. expanding
97. According to the passage, how do some insects make sure their young have food?
A. By storing food near their young
B. By locating their nests or cells near spiders and caterpillars
C. By searching for food some distance from their nest
D. By gathering food from a nearby water source
98. The word “edge” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. opportunity B. advantage C. purpose D. rest
A. feeding B. moment C. young animal D. size
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100. The word “shielded” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
_______.
A. raised B. protected C. hatched D. valued
51. A. failed B. reached C. absorbed D. solved
52. A. develops B. takes C. laughs D. volumes
53. A. deafness B. arrange C. absorb D. exhaust
54. A. dedicate B. sensible C. treatment D. employment
55. Smoking has been banned in public places in some countries.
A. made illegal B. limited C. restricted D. given way
56. During the earthquake, a lot of buildings collapsed, which killed thousands of people.
A. went off accidentally B. fell down unexpectedly
C. explored suddenly D. erupted violently
57. Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honor the check.
A. different B. genuine C. fake D. similar
58. Constant correction by a teacher is often counterproductive, as the student may become
afraid to speak at all.
A. desolate B. productive C. barren D. effective
59. Woman were denied the right to own property and participate in public life.
A. Woman B. the right C. and D. in public life
60. Bill is often late for class, which makes his teachers angrily.
A. is B. for C. which D. angrily
61. Books with good stories are often described like food for thought.
A. with B. are C. described D. like
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correction answer to each
62. Although he tried to hide it, it was _______ that Peter didn’t like his birthday present.
A. foolish B. basic C. obvious D. vigorous
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63. Environmental groups try to stop farmers from using harmful _______ on their crops.
A. economy B. articulate C. investments D. chemicals
64. If you _______ too much on study, you will get tired and stressed.
A. concentrate B. develop C. organize D. complain
65. The bus only stops here to _______ passengers.
A. alight B. get on C. get off D. pick up
66. Everyone has their _______ which are hardly recognized by themselves.
A. limit B. limited C. limitation D. limitations
68. _______ the students in my class enjoy taking part in social activities.
A. Most B. Most of C. Many D. The number of
69. Vehicles also account _______ air pollution in the cities.
A. on B. at C. for D. in
70. The people _______ for the bus in the rain are getting wet.
A. waiting B. to wait C. waited D. wait
71. I take _______ everything I said about Tom. I realize now that it wasn’t true.
A. on B. over C. in D. back
72. Hey, you _______ at the computer all day. You should really take a break now.
A. were sitting B. have been sitting
C. have sit D. have sat
73. A lot of money _______ on advertising every year.
A. spend B. is spent C. are spent D. spends
74. “I think the pants are a little big.” – “_______”
A. Are they big enough? B. You should get a bigger pair.
C. Yes, maybe a little. D. Yes, they are not big at all.
75. “What does this thing do?” – “_______”
A. I think it’s a waste of money. B. It peels potatoes.
C. It sure does. D. I can use it well.
76. Who made you work so hard yesterday?
A. Who forced you to work so hard yesterday?
B. Why did you work so hard yesterday?
C. What made you work so hard yesterday?
D. How could you work so hard yesterday?
77. We stayed in that hotel despite the noise.
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A. Despite the hotel is noisy, we stayed here.
B. We stayed in the noisy hotel and we liked it.
C. No matter how noisy the hotel was, we stayed there.
D. Because of the noise, we stayed in the hotel.
78. She is studying not only English but also French.
A. She is studying both English and French.
B. English and French are favorite subjects.
C. She likes both English and French.
D. She isn’t studying English, but she is studying French.
79. Mary was sick. She didn’t leave the meeting until it ended.
A. In spite of the fact that Mary’s sickness, she didn’t leave the meeting until it ended.
B. Mary didn’t leave the meeting until it ended despite she was sick.
C. When the meeting ended, Mary left because she was sick.
D. Though sick, Mary didn’t leave the meeting until it ended.
C. He used the top of his foot to give the ball a powerful kick.
D. What he wants to do is give the ball a powerful kick and use the top of his foot.
indicate the correct word or phrase that bests fit each of the numbered blanks from 31 to
35.
SHOPPING MALLS
Victor Gruen, an American architect, revolutionized shopping in the 1950s by creating the
type of shopping centre that we now call a shopping mall.
Gruen’s (31) _______ was to provide a pleasant, quiet and spacious shopping environment
with large car parks, which usually meant building in the suburbs. He also wanted people to be
able to shop in all kinds of weather. He (32) _______ on using building designs that he knew
people would feel comfortable with, but placed them in landscaped ‘streets’ that were entirely
enclosed and often covered with a curved glass roof. This was done to (33) _______ some of the
older shopping arcades of city centres, but while these housed only small speciality shops,
Gruen’s shopping malls were on a much grander scale.
Access to the whole shopping mall was gained by using the main doors, which (34)
_______ the shopping ‘streets’ from the parking areas outside. As there was no need to keep out
bad weather, shops no longer needed windows and doors, and people could wander (35) _______
from shop to shop. In many cities, shopping malls now contain much more than just shops;
cinemas, restaurants and other forms of entertainment are also growing in popularity.
81. A. direction B. aim C. search D. view
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82. A. insisted B. demanded C. requested D. emphasized
83. A. model B. imitate C. repeat D. shadow
84. A. disconnected B. withdrew C. separated D. parted
85. A. freely B. loosely C. simply D. entirely
As heart disease continues to be the number-one killer in the United States, researches have
become increasingly interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks.
High-fat diets and “life in the fast lane” have long been known to contribute to the high
incidence of heart failure. Bur according to new studies, the list of risk factors may be
significantly longer and quite surprising.
Heart failure, for example, appears to have seasonal and temporal patterns. A higher
percentage of heart attacks occur in cold weather, and more people experience heart failure on
Monday than on any other day of the week. In addition, people are more susceptible to heart
attacks in the first few hours after walking. Cardiologists first observed this morning
phenomenon in the mid-1980, and have since discovered a number of possible causes. An early-
morning rise in blood pressure, heart rate, and concentration of heart stimulating hormones, plus
a reduction of blood flow to the heart, may all contribute to the higher incidence of heart attacks
between the hours of 8:00 A.M. and 10:00 A.M.
In other studies, both birthdays and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors.
Statistics reveal that heart attack rates increase significantly for both females and males in the
few days immediately preceding and following their birthdays. And unmarried men are more at
risk for heart attacks than their married counterparts. Though stress is thought to be linked in
some way of the aforementioned risk factors, intense research continues in the hope of further
comprehending why and how heart failure is triggered.
A. seasonal and temporal patterns of heart attacks
B. cardiology in the 1980s
C. risk factors in heart attacks
D. diet and stress as factors in heart attacks
87. The word “trigger” as used in line 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. affect B. cause C. encounter D. involve
88. Which of the following could best replace the world “incidence” as used in line 3?
A. factor B. rate C. chance D. increase
89. The phrase “susceptible to” in line 8 could best be replaced by
A. affected by B. prone to C. aware of D. accustomed
90. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a possible cause of many heart
attacks?
A. decreased blood flow to the heart B. increased blood pressure
C. increase in hormones D. lower heart rate
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91. Which of the following is NOT cited as a possible risk factor?
A. having a birthday B. being under stress
C. getting married D. eating fatty foods
92. Which of the following does the passage infer?
A. We have not identified many risk factors associated with heart attacks.
B. We now fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
C. We do not fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
D. We recently began to study how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
Since the dawn of time, people have found ways to communicate with one another. Smoke
signals and tribal drums were some of the earliest forms of communication. Letters, carried by
birds or by humans on foot or on horseback, made it possible for people to communicate larger
amounts of information between two places. The telegram and telephone set the stage for more
modern means of communication. With the invention of the cellular phone, communication itself
has become mobile.
For you, a cell phone is probably just a device that you and your friends use to keep in
touch with family and friends, take pictures, play games, or send text message. The definition of
a cell phone is more specific: it is a hand-held wireless communication device that sends and
receives signals by way of small special areas called cells.
Walkie-talkies, telephones and cell phones are duplex communication devices: They make
it possible for two people to talk to each other. Cell phones and walkie-talkies are different from
regular phones because they can be used in many different locations. A walkie-talkie is
sometimes called a half-duplex communication device because only one person can talk at a
time. A cell phone is a full-duplex device because it uses both frequencies at the same time. A
walkie-talkie has only one channel. A cell phone has more than a thousand channels. A walkie-
talkie can transmit and receive signals across a distance of about a mile. A cell phone can
transmit and receive signals over hundreds of miles. In 1973, an electronic company called
Motorola hired Martin Cooper to work on wireless communication. Motorola and Bell
Laboratories (now AT&T) were in a race to invent the first portable communication device.
Martin Cooper won the race and became the inventor of the cell phone. On April 3, 1973,
Cooper made the first cell phone call his opponent at AT&T while walking down the streets of
New York city. People on the sidewalks gazed at Cooper in amazement. Cooper’s phone was
called a Motorola Dyna-Tac. It weighed a whopping 2.5 pounds (as compared to today’s cell
phones that weigh as little as 3 or 4 ounces)
After the invention of his cell phone, Cooper began thinking of ways to make the cell
phone available to the general public. After a decade, Motorola introduced the first cell phone for
commercial use. The early cell phone and its service were both expensive. The cell phone itself
cost about $3,500. In 1977, AT&T constructed a cell phone system and tried it out in Chicago
with over 2,000 customers. In 1981, a second cellular phone system was started in the
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Washington, D.C and Baltimore area. It took nearly 37 years for cell phones to become available
for general public use. Today, there are more than sixty million cell phone customers with cell
phones producing over thirty billion dollars per years.
A. the increasing number of people using cell phone
B. the different between cell phones and telephones
C. the history of a cell phone
D. hoe Cooper compete with AT&T
94. What definition is true of a cell phone?
A. The first product of two famous corporation
B. A hand-held wireless communication device
C. Something we use just for playing games
D. A version of walkie-talkie
95. The word “duplex” is closest meaning to _______.
A. having two parts B. quick
C. modern D. having defects
96. To whom did Cooper make his first cell phone call?
A. his assistant at Motorola B. a person on New York street
C. a member of Bell Laboratories D. the director of his company
97. How heavy is the first cell phone compared to today’s cell phones?
A. ten times as heavy as B. as heavy as
C. much lighter D. 2 pounds heavier
98. When did AT&T widely start their cellular phone system?
A. in 2001 B. in 1977 C. in 1981 D. 37 years after their first
design
99. What does the word “gazed” mean?
A. looked with admiration B. angrily looked
C. glanced D. started conversation
100. The phrase “tried it out” refers to _______.
A. made effort to sell the cell-phone B. reported on AT&T
C. tested the cell-phone system D. introduced the cell-phone system
51. A. species B. invent C. medicine D. tennis
52. A. advanced B. established C. preferred D. stopped
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53. A. budget B. inquire C. tepid D. transcript
54. A. accomplish B. predictable C. prohibit D. duplicate
55. The doctor was sued for bad treatment.
A. mistreatment B. malpractice C. misdemeanour D. maltreatment
56. In astronomy, a scale of magnitude from one to six denotes the brightness of a star.
A. signifies B. predicts C. contrasts D. examines
57. We’d better speed up if we want to get there in time.
A. slow down B. turn down C. put down D. lie down
58. We are now a 24/7 society where shops and services must be available all hours.
A. an active society B. an inactive society
C. a physical society D. a working society
59. When I want to have my hair cuts I often go to the hairdresser’s.
A. When B. have C. cuts D. hairdresser’s
60. They asked me what did happen last night, but I was unable to tell them.
A. asked B. what did happen C. but D. to tell
61. Nonla, that is one of the typical symbols of the Vietnamese culture, has a conical form.
A. that B. typical C. of D. a
62. Parents have great hopes of great _______ when they send their children to school.
A. wishes B. obligations C. expectations D. plans
63. Many people claimed _______ unidentified flying objects.
A. to see B. to have seen C. to had seen D. see
64. They have plenty of time, so they need not _______.
A. be hurry B. to hurry C. hurry D. to be hurry
65. She has changed so much that I didn’t _______ her right away.
A. admit B. recognize C. know D. believe
66. Don’t take any _______ of Mike – he’s always rude to everyone.
A. sight B. view C. notice D. attention
67. The tragic sinking of the Titanic _______ for she went down on her first voyage with
heavy loss of life.
A. will always remember B. will always be remembered
C. always remember D. no answer is correct
68. The problem of _______ among young people is hard to solve.
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A. employment B. employers C. employees D. unemployment
69. The boy fell while he _______ down the stairs.
A. run B. running C. was running D. runs
70. Belinda Harrell _______ taking her driving test until she finally passed it on her twenty-
first attempt.
A. kept on B. cleared off C. used up D. wore out
71. You may get malaria _______ you are bitten by a mosquito.
A. if B. so that C. though D. unless
72. If only _______ taller, I might be better at basketball.
A. I am B. I were C. I be D. I have been
73. James is now too old to live on his own, so he is being _______ by his daughter.
A. found out B. brought up C. moved on D. looked after
74. “Where will you go on vacation?” – “_______”
A. Probably to the beach. B. The beach is nice, isn’t it?
C. Probably I won’t think of. D. I have a four-day vacation.
75. “I wonder if you could do something for me.” – “_______”
A. It depends on what it is. B. What’s it like.
C. No, thanks. D. I’m afraid I won’t come.
76. The coffee was not strong. It didn’t keep us awake.
B. The coffee was not strong enough to keep us awake.
C. The coffee was not good enough for us to keep awake.
D. We were kept awake although the coffee was not strong.
77. Alison bought the big house because she wanted to open a hotel.
A. Alison bought the big house with a view to opening a hotel.
B. Alison bought the big house so that she can open a hotel.
C. Alison bought so big a house that she could use it as a hotel.
D. Alison bought the big house in a view of opening a hotel.
78. “Shall I carry the suitcase for you, Mary?” said John.
A. John offered Mary to carry the suitcase for Mary.
B. John offered to carry the suitcase for Mary.
C. John offered carrying the suitcase for Mary.
D. John offered Mary if he should carry the suitcase for her.
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recycle rubbish.
A. We can protect the world in which we live as well as we can grow more trees and
recycle rubbish.
B. We can protect the world in which we live, growing more trees and recycling rubbish.
rubbish.
rubbish.
80. He enjoyed the army in 1998. He was soon after promoted to the rank of caption.
A. He was promoted to the rank of captain in 1998 and enjoyed the army.
B. Promoted to the rank of captain in 1998, he joined the army soon later.
C. He worked as a captain in the army and had a promotion in 1998.
D. Joining the army in 1998, he was soon promoted to the rank of captain.
35.
THOMAS EDISON
On the night of 21 October 1931, millions of Americans took part in a coast-to-coast
ceremony to commemorate the passing of a great man. Lights (31) _______ in homes and offices
from New York to California. The ceremony marked the death of arguably the most important
inventor of all time: Thomas Edison.
Few inventors have (32) _______ such an impact on everyday life, and many of his
inventions played a crucial in the development of modern technology. One should never (33)
_______ how revolutionary some of Edison’s inventions were.
In many ways, Edison is the perfect example of an inventor – that is, not just someone who
dreams up clever gadgets, but someone whose products transform the lives of millions. He
possessed the key characteristics that an inventor needs to (34) _______ a success of inventions,
notably sheer determination. Edison famously tried thousands of materials while working on a
new type of battery, reacting to failure by cheerfully announcing to his colleagues: ‘Well, (35)
_______ we know 8,000 things that don’t work.’ Knowing when to take no notice of experts is
also important. Edison’s proposal for electric lighting circuitry was received with total disbelief
by eminent scientists, until he lit up whole streets with his lights.
81. A. turned out B. came off C. went out D. put off
82. A. put B. had C. served D. set
83. A. underestimate B. lower C. decrease D. mislead
84. A. gain B. make C. achieve D. get
85. A. by far B. at least C. even though D. for all
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Walt Disney was born in 1990 in Chicago, but soon moved to a small farm near Marceline,
Missouri. From this rural and rather humble beginning he later became one of the most famous
and beloved motion-picture producers in history. Although he died in 1966, his name and artistic
legacy continue to influence the lives of millions of people though out the world.
After several years of barely making ends meet as a cartoon artist operating from his Los
Angeles garage, Disney had his first success in 1928, with his release of a Mickey Mouse
cartoon. Throughout the next decade, he continued to produce a number of cartoons, and develop
more of his highly profitable and enduring creations, such as Donald Duck and Pluto. In the late
1930s, he issued full-length cartoon film. Snow White became an instant commercial and critical
success. This was only the first of many films, both animated and not, produced by Disney and
his studio.
But as renowned as Disney name is for cartoon and monies, it is probably best known for a
string of spectacular amusement and theme parks. Starting with California’s Disneyland in 1955
and culminating with the fantastically successful Disney World and EPCOT Center in Florida,
Disney became a household name. in recent years, the theme park concept became international,
with openings in Tokyo and Paris. With the continuing success of Disney, the creation of future
theme park are under discussion.
86. Which of the following is the title for the passage?
A. The history of Disney World and Disneyland. B. Walt Disney and his
legacy
C. Walt Disney and Animated Cartoon D. Walt Disney’s Boyhood
Years
87. What is the author’s attitude toward the accomplishments of Walt Disney?
A. respectful B. critical C. ambivalent D. approving
88. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. Snow White was the first full-length cartoon film.
B. Disney’s first concern was always profitability.
C. Mickey Mouse was Disney’s only cartoons creation.
D. Disney’s first achieved success after his death.
89. The word “enduring” in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. lasting B. suffering C. difficult D. famous
90. The word “renowned” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. talked about B. well-known C. possessed D. useful
A. the Tokyo theme park is in financial difficulty
B. Snow White was Disney’s most successful film
C. the California theme park is now closed
D. Disney created cartoon movies and “non-cartoon” movies
92. In future years it is most likely that _______.
A. the remaining theme parks will also close
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B. the Paris theme park will become successful
C. the Disney name will stay well known
D. Disney will produce only cartoon
American humor and American popular heroes were born together. The first popular
heroes of the new nation were comic heroes, and the first popular humor of the new nation was
the antics of its hero-clowns.
The heroic themes are obvious enough and not much different from those in the legends of
other time and places: Achilles, Beowulf, Siegfried, Roland, and King Arthur. The American
Davy Crockett legends repeat the familiar pattern of the old world heroic story: the pre-eminence
of a mighty hero whose fame in myth has a tenuous basis in fact; the remarkable birth and
precocious strength of the hero; single combats in which he distinguished himself against
antagonists, both man and beast; vows and boasts; pride of the hero in his weapons, his dog, and
his woman.
Davy Crockett conquered and beast with a swaggering nonchalance. He overcame animals
by force of body and will. He killed four wolves at the age of six. He hugged a bear to death; he
killed a rattlesnake with his teeth. He mastered the forces of nature. Crockett’s most famous
natural exploit was saving the earth on the coldest day in history. First, he climbed a mountain to
determine the trouble. Then he rescued all creation by squeezing bear-grease on the earth’s
frozen axis and over the sun’s icy face. He whistled, “Push along, keep moving!” The earth gave
a grunt and began moving.
Neither the fearlessness nor the bold huntsman’s prowess was peculiarly American. Far
more distinctive was the comic quality, all heroes are heroic; few are also clowns. What made
the American popular hero heroic also made him comic. “May be”, said Crockett, “you’ll laugh
at me and not at my book”. The ambiguity of American life and the vagueness which laid the
continent open to adventure, which made the land a rich storehouse of the unexpected, which
kept vocabulary ungoverned and the language fluid – this same ambiguity suffused both the
Crockett legends were never quite certain whether to laugh or to applaud, or whether what they
saw and heard was wonderful, awful or ridiculous.
93. What is the main point the author makes in the passage?
A. Davy Crockett wrote humorous stories about mastering the nature.
B. American popular heroes were characteristically comic.
C. The Davy Crockett stories reflected the adventurous spirit of early America.
D. American popular literature was based on the legends of other times and places
94. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a heroic theme?
A. Superior physical strength B. Pride in the hero woman
C. Fluid use of language D. Boasting by the hero
95. The word “antagonists” could be best replaced by _______.
A. wild animals B. heroes C. forces D. opponents
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96. Davy Crockett is an example of _______.
A. a popular writer B. a heroic theme
C. an old world hero D. a hero-clown
97. In paragraph 3, the author mentions a story in which Davy Crockett _______.
A. killed a wild boar B. saved a bear
C. saved the earth D. ate a rattlesnake
98. The word “exploit” in paragraph 3 is closest meaning to _______.
A. resource B. heroic act C. skill D. character trait
99. In paragraph 4, the author makes the point that _______.
A. American enjoyed laughing at other people
B. American writers strove to create a distinctively American literature
C. American life was open to adventure and full of the unexpected
D. Americans valued comic qualities more than heroic qualities
100. The word “ambiguity” in the last paragraph is closest meaning to
_______.
A. ridiculous B. richness C. uncertainty D. quality
Mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
51. A. exact B. examine C. eleven D. elephant
52. A. pressure B. assure C. assist D. possession
Mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
53. A. alcohol B. comment C. chemical D. proceed
54. A. historian B. architecture C. biography D. thermometer
55. The newscaster gave a concise account of the strategy.
A. complicated and intricate B. short and clear
C. sad and depressing D. long and detailed
56. Fruit is customarily treated with sulfur prior to drying to reduce any color change.
A. previous to B. at the time of C. in front of D. subsequent to
57. Affluent families find it easier to support their children financially.
A. Wealthy B. Well-off C. Privileged D. Impoverished
58. Synthetic products are made from chemicals or artificial substances.
A. natural B. made by machine
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C. man-made D. unusual
Mark the latter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
59. The science and technology industries have grown up steadily over the last decade.
A. science B. have grown up C. have grown up steadily D. last decade
60. Originated in Ethiopia, coffee was drunk in the Arab world before it came to Europe in
the 17th century.
A. Originated B. was drunk C. came D. in
61. The swirling winds of a tornado can reach quickly speeds close to 300 miles per hour.
A. swirling winds B. reach quickly C. close to D. per hour
Mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
62. I will come and see you before I _______ for America.
A. leave B. will leave C. have left D. left
63. Politicians _______ blame the media if they don’t win the election. They’re so
predictable.
A. variable B. variety C. various D. invariably
64. The investment has had _______ on the development of our project.
A. results B. progress C. effects D. interruptions
65. We’ve _______ out of milk. You’ll have to drink your tea without it.
A. come B. taken C. gone D. run
66. She got the job _______ the fact that she had very little experience.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
67. When the first child was born, they _______ for three years.
A. have been married B. had been married
C. will been married D. will have been married
68. He would win the race if he _______ his brother’s example and trained harder.
A. repeated B. set C. answered D. followed
69. She’s finished the course, _______?
A. isn’t she B. doesn’t she C. didn’t she D. hasn’t she
70. “Excuse me. Where is the _______ office of OXFAM located?”
A. leading B. head C. central D. summit
71. The boy was always getting _______ trouble as a youth. Then, to everyone’s surprise, he
became a policeman.
A. into B. onto C. on D. with
72. _______ for farming purposes, soil must contain the minerals plants require.
A. To be good B. Being good C. Be good D. That’s good
73. My grandfather passed _______ when I was only six years old. He had lung cancer.
A. out B. over C. away D. off
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74. “How about an evening riverboat tour?” – “_______”
A. No, it’s good to do so.
B. Actually I’ve never gone on an evening riverboat tour.
C. No, I’ve never gone an evening riverboat tour.
D. Actually I’ve gone twice this week.
75. “Can you come over after the show?” – “_______”
A. That would be nice. B. No, I didn’t.
C. Please, go ahead. D. Why don’t we go to the show?
76. “I was not there at the time,” he said.
A. He denied to have been there at the time.
B. He denied that he had not been there at the time.
C. He denied to be there at the time.
D. He denied having been there at the time.
77. “Let’s go out for a walk now,” he suggested.
A. He suggested going out for a walk then.
B. He suggested to go out for a walk then.
C. He suggested them to go out for a walk then.
D. He suggested them going out for a walk then.
78. “You broke my glasses,” said the woman to me.
A. The woman blames me of breaking her glasses.
B. The woman blamed me of breaking her glasses.
C. The woman blames me for having broken her glasses.
D. The woman blamed me for having broken her glasses.
79. We started out for California. It started to rain right after that.
A. No sooner did we start out for California than it started to rain.
B. No sooner had we started out for California when it started to rain.
C. No sooner had it started to rain than we started out for California.
D. No sooner had we started out for California than it started to rain.
80. We have been friends for years. It is quite easy to share secrets between us.
A. Having been friends for years, we find quite easy to share secrets between us.
B. we have been friends for years so that it is quite easy to share secrets between us.
C. Being friends for years, we find it quite easy to share secrets between us.
D. We find it quite easy to share secrets, being friends.
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35.
A GOOD START TO A HOLIDAY
I had never been to Denmark before, and when I set out to catch the ferry in early May, I
little (31) _______ that by the end of the trip I’d have made such lasting friendships.
I wanted to use my time well, so I had planned a route which would (32) _______ several
small islands and various parts of the countryside. I arrived at Esbjerg, a convenient port for a
cyclist’s arrival, where tourist information can be obtained and money changed. A cycle track
(33) _______ out of town and down to Ribe, where I spent my first night.
In my experience, a person travelling alone sometimes meets with unexpected hospitality,
and trip was no exception. In Ribe, I got into conversation with a cheerful man who turned (34)
_______ to be the local baker. He insisted that I should join his family for lunch, and, while we
were eating, he contacted his daughter in Odense. Within minutes, he had (35) _______ for me
to visit her and her family. Then I was sent on my way with a fresh loaf of bread to keep me
going, and the feeling that this would turn out to be a wonderful holiday.
81. A. wondered B. suspected C. doubted D. judged
82. A. include B. contain C. enclose D. consist
83. A. leads B. rides C. moves D. connects
84. A. up B. out C. in D. over
85. A. arrange B. fixed C. settled D. ordered
My family consists of four people. There’s my father whose name is Jan, my mother whose
name is Marie, my brother, Peter and of course, me. I have quite a large extended family as well
but, only the four of us live together in our apartment in a block of flats. My father is fifty-two
years old. He works as an accountant in an insurance company. He is tall and slim, has got short
brown and gray hair and blue eyes. My father likes gardening very much as well as listening to
music and reading books about political science. His special hobbies are bird watching and
travelling.
Now I’ll describe my mother and my brother. My mother is forty-seven and she works as a
nurse in a hospital. She is small, and slim, has short brown hair and green eyes. She likes bird
watching and travelling too, so whenever my parents are able to they go someplace interesting
for nature watching. Since we have a cottage with a garden they both spend a lot of time there.
My brother is sixteen. He is slim and has short brown hair and blue eyes. He also attends high
school. He is interested in computers and sports like football and hockey. He also spends a lot of
time with his friends.
I have only one grandmother left still living. She is in pretty good health even at the age of
seventy-eight so she still lives in her own flat. I enjoy spending time with her when I can. Both
my grandfathers died from cancer because they were smokers, which was really a great tragedy
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because I didn’t get chance to know them. My other grandmother died just a few years ago. I
also have a lot of aunts, uncles, and cousins. The cousin I’m closest to is my uncle’s daughter
Pauline. We have a lot in common because we are both eighteen and so we are good friends.
My parents have assigned me certain duties around the house. I don’t mind helping out
because everyone in a family should contribute in some way. I help with the washing up, the
vacuuming and the shopping. Of course I also have to help keep my room tidy as well. My
brother is responsible for the dusting and mopping. He also has to clean his own room. Even
though my brother and I sometimes fight about who has to do what job, we are still very close. I
am also very close to my parents and I can rely on them to help me. My parents work together to
keep our home well maintained and it seem they always have a project or another that they are
working on. They respect each other’s opinions and even if they disagree they can always come
to a compromise. I hope in the future that I have a family like ours.
86. What does the writer’s father do?
A, a cashier B. an accountant C. a receptionist D. a writer
87. What does the writer’s mother look like?
A. She is slim and small B. She is small and has grey hair
C. She has blue eyes D. She has long brown hair
88. What does the writer’s brother do?
A. a computer programmer B. a high school student
C. a college student D. a football player
89. What happened to the writer’s grandfathers?
A. They died because the smoked too much.
B. They got lung cancer a few years ago.
C. They had to leave their own flat.
D. They had an accident and died.
90. The word “tragedy” in the third paragraph mostly means
A. bad luck B. sudden accident C. sad event D. boring result
91. The word “assigned” in the fourth paragraph mostly means _______
A. allowed B. appointed C. forced D. encouraged
92. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The writer’s mother likes travelling.
B. One of the writer’s grandmothers is living with her.
C. The writer’s brother has to clean his own room.
D. The writer has a cousin whose age is the same as hers.
In early civilizations, citizens were educated informally, usually within the family unit.
Education meant simply learning to leave. As civilizations became more complex, however,
education became more formal, structured, and comprehensive. Initial efforts of the ancient
Chinese and Greek societies concentrated solely on the education of males. The post-Babylonian
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Jews and Pluto were exceptions to this pattern. Pluto was apparently the first significant advocate
of the equality of the sexes. Women, in his ideal state, would have the same rights and duties and
the same educational opportunities as men. This aspect of Platonic philosophy, however, had
little or no effect on education for many centuries, and the concept of a liberal education for men
only, which had been espoused by Aristotle, prevailed.
In ancient Rome, the availability of an education was gradually extended to women, but
they were taught separately from men. The early Christians and medieval Europeans continued
this trend, and single-sex schools for the privileged classes prevailed through the Reformation
period. Gradually, however, education for women on a separate but equal basis to that provided
for men was becoming a clear responsibility of society. Martin Luther appealed for civil support
of schools for all children. At the Council of Trent in the 16th century, the Roman Catholic
Church encouraged the establishment of free primary schools for children of all classes. The
concept of universal primary education, regardless of sex, had been born, but it was still in the
realm of the single-sex school.
In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, co-education became a more widely applied
principle of educational philosophy. In Britain, Germany, and the Soviet Union the education of
boys and girls in the same classes became an accepted practice. Since World War II, Japan and
the Scandinavian countries have also adopted relatively universal co-educational systems. The
greatest negative reaction to coeducation has been left in the teaching systems of the Latin
countries, where the sexes have usually been separated at both primary and secondary levels,
according to local conditions.
A number of studies have indicated that girls seem to perform better overall and in science
in particular in single-sex classes: during the adolescent years, pressure to conform to
stereotypical female gender roles may disadvantage girls in traditionally male subjects, making
them reluctant to volunteer for experimental work while taking part in lessons. In Britain,
academic league tables point to high standards achieved in girls’ schools. Some educationalists
therefore suggest segregation of the sexes as a good thing, particularly in certain areas, and a
number of schools are experimenting with the idea.
93. Ancient education generally focused its efforts on _______.
A. male learners B. both sexes
C. female learners D. young people only
94. Education in early times was mostly aimed at _______.
A. teaching skills B. learning to live
C. learning new lifestyles D. imparting survival skills
95. The first to support the equality of the sexes was _______.
A. the Chinese B. the Greek C. Pluto D. the Jews
96. The word “informally” in this context mostly refers to an education occurring _______.
A. in classrooms B. outside the school
C. in a department D. ability
97. When education first reached women, they were _______.
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A. locked up in a place with men B. isolated from normal life
C. deprived of opportunities D. separated from men
98. When the concept of universal primary education was introduced, education _______.
A. was given free to all B. was intended for all the sexes
C. focused on imparting skills D. was intended to leave out female learners
99. The word “espouse” is contextually closest in meaning to “_______”.
A. to support B. to put off C. to give D. to induce
100. Co-education was negatively responded to in _______.
A. Japan B. the Scandinavian countries
C. South American countries D. conservative countries
51. A. heavy B. head C. weather D. easy

52. A. processed B. infested C. balanced D. reached
53. A. applicant B. preference C. courteous D. appointment
54. A. interviewer B. concentrate C. comfortable D. technology
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSET
in meaning the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.
55. Who will replace you to monitor the class on the days you are on duty next week?
A. support B. undermine C. vandalize D. manage
56. We, the young, should take the actions to raise people’s awareness of being concerned
with sewage processing measures from now on.
A. indifferent to B. carefree with C. interested in D. nervous about
OPPOSITE in meaning the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.
57. That is a well-behaved boy whose behavior has nothing to complain about.
A. behaving cleverly B. behaving nice
C. behaving improperly D. good behavior
58. I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. being courteous B. being cheerful
C. being efficient D. being late
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59. The longest mountain range, the Mid-Atlantic Range, is not hardly visible because most
of it lies under the ocean.
A. mountain range B. not hardly C. most of D. under
60. The abilities to work hard, follow directions, and thinking independently are some of
the criteria for success in the workplace.
A. to work B. thinking C. are D. for success
61. Establishing in 1984 for students who wanted to study art and music subjects,
LaGuardia was the first school of its kind.
A. Establishing B. for students C. was D. of its kind
62. We all believe that a happy marriage should be _______ mutual love.
A. based on B. concerned with C. confided in D. obliged to
63. The teachers are, at the moment, trying their best _______ all the necessary that their
students may need for their critical examination while, sadly, some do not seen to
appreciate that.
A. to prepare B. prepared C. preparing D. prepare
64. A lot of skills and knowledge fields _______.
A. be prepared and practiced B. have to be prepared and practiced
C. prepared and practiced D. have to be being prepared and practiced
65. We arranged to meet at the station, but she didn’t _______.
A. get through B. turn up C. walk out D. wait on
66. Our professor _______ said we should turn in the assignment on Friday.
A. specific B. specifically C. specifying D. specifyingly
67. They were 30 minutes later because their car _______ down.
A. got B. put C. cut D. broke
68. Scientists warn that many of the world’s great cities are _______ flooding.
A. being B. at risk C. in danger of D. endangered
69. The replacement of shops such as the groceries’ and chemist’s by cafes _______ the
housewives with insufficient facilities for shopping.
A. leave B. have left C. has left D. to have left
70. I studied English for four years in high school. _______ had trouble talking with people
when I was traveling in the US.
A. Therefore, I B. Otherwise, I C. Although I D. However, I
71. My uncle was _______ ill last summer; however, fortunately, he is now making a slow
but steady recovery.
A. seriously B. deeply C. fatally D. critically
72. If you want your son to do better on his exams, I suggest he _______ harder.
A. will study B. studies C. would study D. study
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73. _______ the book, please turn it to me.
A. Should you find B. Will you be finding
C. Will you find D. Will you have found
74. Mary invited her friend, Sarah, to have dinner out that night and Sarah accepted.
Mary: “Shall we eat out tonight?” – Sarah: “_______.”
A. That’s a great idea B. That’s acceptable
C. You are very welcome D. It’s kind of you to invite
75. “Thank you for taking the time to come here in person.” – “_______”
A. It’s my pleasure. B. I don’t know what time that person comes.
C. I’d love to come. What time? D. Do you have time for some gossip?
76. You could not have made a very good impression on them.
A. You seem to have impressed them very unfavourably.
B. It’s impossible that the effect you made on them was particularly positive.
C. Something appears to have made them think you are unsuitable.
D. You should have tried harder to make them think well of you.
77. Due to the heavy snow, all buses have been cancelled until further notice.
A. If it weren’t for the heavy snow, you would notice how much further the bus had to
go.
B. The buses would not have been cancelled if only it had not snowed so much.
C. Heavy snow has caused the buses to stop running, though there will be an
announcement of when they will start up again.
D. If this snow keeps up, there will be an announcement to declare that the buses will no
longer run.
78. It’s more than a couple of years since I last went there.
A. I have never stayed there for longer than two years.
B. It was only after two years that I went there again.
C. I haven’t been there since my visit over two years ago.
D. I had never been there until the year before last.
79. The referee brought the football game to a halt. He blew his whistle.
A. The referee stopped playing football and blowing his whistle.
B. the referee stopped the football game before he blew his whistle.
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C. Having stopped the football match, the referee blew his whistle.
D. The referee brought the football game to a halt by blowing his whistle.
80. We planned to visit Eiffel Tower in the afternoon. We could not afford the fee,
however.
A. As planned, we could not afford the visit to Eiffel Tower in the afternoon because of
the fee.
B. We visited Eiffel Tower in the afternoon though the fee was too high for us.
C. We were going to visit Eiffel Tower in the afternoon but the fee was too high for us.
D. The fee was, however, high enough for us to plan a visit to Eiffel Tower in the
afternoon.
35.
Speech is one of the most important (31) _______ of communicating. It consists of far
more than just making noises. To talk and also to (32) _______ by other people, we have to
speak a language, that is, we have to use combinations of sounds that everyone agrees to stand
for particular object or idea. Communication would be impossible if everyone made up their own
language.
Learning a language properly is very (33) _______. The basic vocabulary of English is not
very large, and only about 2,000 words are needed to speak it quite (34) _______. But the more
idea you can express, the more precise you can be about their exact meaning.
Words are the main thing we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we say
the words is also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and (35)
_______ whether we are pleased or angry, for instance.
81. A. rules B. reasons C. ways D. tests

82. A. be understood B. be spoken C. be examined D. be talked
83. A. easy B. expensive C. simple D. important
84. A. perfect B. good C. well D. fluent
85. A. know B. show C. ask D. understand
42.
COLORS AND EMOTIONS
Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as
important to me as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately
related?
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Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions,
and is something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you
choose to wear either reflects your current state of being, or reflects the color or emotion that you
need.
The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of
course they also affect anyone who comes in contact with you, but you are the one saturated
with the color all day! I even choose items around me based on their color. In the morning, I
choose my clothes based on the color or emotion that I need for the day. So you can consciously
use color to control the emotions that you are exposed to, which can help you to feel better.
Color, sound, and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they
are meant to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your
energy in motion. Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the
fastest way to be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to
inhibit your emotions.

A. Colorful clothes can change your mood.
B. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other.
C. Colors can help you become healthy.
D. Colors are one of the most exciting.
87. Which of the following can be affected by color?
A. Your need for thrills B. your friend’s feelings
C. your appetite D. your mood
88. Who is more influenced by colors you wear?
A. The people around you are more influenced.
B. No one is influenced.
C. You are more influenced.
D. The people who wear those colors, not you.
89. According to this passage, what creates disease?
A. wearing the color black B. exposing yourself to bright colors
C. being open to your emotions D. ignoring your emotions
90. The term “intimately” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. clearly B. closely C. obviously D. simply
91. The term “they” in paragraph 3 refers to
A. emotions B. people C. colors D. none of the above
92. Why does the author mention that color and emotions are both vibrations?
A. to show how color can affect energy levels in the body.
B. Because they both affect how we feel.
C. to prove the relationship between emotions and color.
D. Because vibrations make your healthy.
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50.
limit. This knowledge has driven egg sales to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought
substitute eggs. These eggs substitute are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when
“designer” eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-flat diets consisting of
ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diet, however, these hens
Eggs producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific
cholesterol but the person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to
cholesterol derived from food than other people. In fact, there is evidence that certainly dietary
fats stimulate the body’s production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes
sense to limit one’s intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing this without
93. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level.
B. To make people how about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.
C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten.
D. To convince people to eat “designer” eggs and egg substitutes.
94. What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs?
A. Increasing price B. Decreased production
C. Dietary changes in hens D. Concerns about cholesterol
95. What is meant by the phrase “mixed results”?
A. The results are blended B. The results are a composite of things.
C. The results are inconclusive. D. The results are mingled together.
96. Which of the following could best replace the word “somewhat”?
A. in fact B. a little C. indefinitely D. a lot
97. According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the
A. 3/4 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3
98. The word “portrayed” could best be replaced by which of the following?
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99. What is the meaning of “back up”?
A. reverse B. advance C. block D. support
100. According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of the following
types of eggs EXCEPT _______.
A. boiled B. poached C. scrambled D. fried
51. A. honorable B. honesty C. historic D. heir
52. A. chore B. change C. choice D. chorus
53. A. terrific B. Pacific C. Arabic D. mechanic
54. A. evaporate B. consulate C. communicate D. coordinate
55. I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
56. He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
57. His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
58. Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. amicable B. inapplicable C. hostile D. futile
59. Japanese initially used jeweled objects to decorate swords and ceremonial items.
A. Japanese B. used C. jeweled D. decorate
60. Because of attitudes shape behavior, psychologists want to find how opinions are formed.
A. Because of B. shape C. psychologists D. are formed
61. As the roles of people in society change, so does the rules of conduct in certain situations.
A. As the rules B. so does C. rules of D. situations
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62. “How was your exam?” “A couple of questions were tricky, but on the _______ it was
pretty easy.”
A. spot B. general C. hand D. whole
63. If you practice regularly, you can learn this language skill in short _______ of a time.
A. period B. aspect C. arrangement D. activity
64. Students can _______ a lot of information just by taking an active part in class.
A. concern B. install C. appear D. memorize
65. It _______ a long time since we were apart, I did not recognize her.
A. is B. has been C. was D. had been
66. I have learned a lot about the value of labour from my _______ at home.
A. credit B. energy C. chores D. pot plants
67. In the past people believed that women’s _______ roles were as mothers and wives.
A. nature B. natural C. naturism D. naturalist
68. Not until the manager got the right solution to the problem _______.
A. we must try by ourselves B. must we try by ourselves
C. have we to try by ourselves D. we must try for ourselves
69. A few years ago, a fire _______ much of an overcrowded part of the city.
A. battled B. devastated C. mopped D. developed
70. Juliet, remember shammed death when Romeo appears, _______?
A. didn’t she B. doesn’t he C. do you D. will you
71. Charles Lindbergh’s feat put him in a position from which _______ the development of
commercial aviation.
A. he could encourage B. he encourage
C. encouraged D. encouragement
72. She started the course two months ago but dropped _______ after only a month.
A. in B. back C. out D. off
73. Mary eats _______ she used to.
A. fewer meat and bananas than B. less and less meat and bananas than
C. less meat and fewer bananas than D. the least meat and fewest bananas than
74. “I have a terrible headache.” – “_______”
A. Maybe I’m not going to the doctor’s. B. Not very well. Thanks.
C. Maybe you should take a rest. D. Not bad. I’m going to the doctor’s.
75. “Do you want me to help you with those suitcases?” – “_______”
A. Of course, not for me. B. No, I can’t help you now.
C. No, those aren’t mine. D. No, I can manage them myself.
76. I don’t agree with prohibiting smoking in bars.
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A. I’m not in favor of prohibiting smoking in bars.
B. I’m not in favor to prohibiting smoking in bars.
C. I’m not favor with prohibiting smoking in bars.
D. I’m not doing a favor to prohibiting smoking in bars.
77. She has always had a good relationship with the children.
A. She has got a lot of children and relatives who she always gets along with.
B. She always gets along well with the children.
C. The children have had her as their friends and relatives.
D. She has always got on well with the children.
78. But for his father’s early retirement, Peter would not have taken over the family business.
A. His father retired early, but Peter still ran the family business.
B. Peter’s father didn’t want him to take over the family business despite his retirement.
C. Peter only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early.
D. Peter didn’t take over the family business because his father didn’t retire.
79. He is very intelligent. He is solve all problems in no time.
A. SO intelligent is he that he can solve all problems in no time.
B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all e problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all e problems in no time.
D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all problems in no time.
80. We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
35.
WORKING MOTHERS
Reliable studies have shown that the children of working mothers have no more problems
than children whose mothers stay at home. My personal view is that mothers should work if they
wish.
Some women have invested so much in a career that they cannot (31) _______ to give it
up. Others have to work because of economic necessity, and there are also those who are simply
not (32) _______ out to be fill-time parents.
There appear to be several options when it comes to choosing childcare. These range from
child minders through to granny or the kind lady across the street. (33) _______, however, many
parents don’t have any choice; they have to accept anything they can get.
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No (34) _______ how good the available childcare may be, some children protest if their
parents are not around. This is a perfectly normal stage in a child’s development. Babies over the
age of six months become dependent on mum and close family members, so make sure that you
allow (35) _______ time to help your child settle in.
And don’t forget: if you want to do the best for your children, it’s not the quantity of time
you spend with them, it’s the quality that matters.
81. A. bear B. decide C. hope D. expect
82. A. made B. cut C. brought D. born
83. A. In addition B. In practice C. In order D. In contrast
84. A. way B. matter C. surprise D. exception
85. A. little B. no C. lots D. plenty of
Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was
actually more popular during lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and
used the knowledge gained during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age
of eighteen, Melville slimed as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his
Massachusetts home to Liverpool, England. His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the
novel Redburn (1849). In 1841 Melville set out on a whaling ship headed for the South Sea.
After jumping ship in Tahiti, he wandered around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This South
Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the novel Omoo (1847). After three years away from
home., Melville joined up with a U.S. naval frigate that was returning to eastern United States
around Cape Horn. The novel White-Jacket (1850) describes this lengthy voyage as a navy
seaman. With the publication of this early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and
loyal following among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in
1851, with the publication of Moby Dick, Melville’s popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick,
on one level the saga of the hunt for the great white whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory
of the heroic struggle of humanity against the universe. The public was not ready for Melville’s
literary metamorphosis from romantic adventure to philosophical symbolism. It is ironic that the
novel that served to diminish Melville’s popularity during his lifetime is the one for which he is
best known today.
86. The main subject of the passage is _______.
A. Melville’s travels B. Melville’s personal background
C. the popularity of Melville’s novels D. Moby Dick
87. In what year did Melville’s book about his experiences as a cabin boy appear?
A. 1837 B, 1841 C. 1849 D. 1847
88. The word “basis” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. foundation B. message C. bottom D. theme
89. The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti because_______.
A. he had unofficially left his ship. B. he was on leave while his ship was in port.
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C. he had finished his term of duty. D. he had received permission to take a vacation in
Tahiti.
90. How did the publication of Moby Dick stayed in Tahiti because _______.
A. His popularity increased immediately.
B. It has no effect on his popularity.
C. It caused his popularity to decrease.
D. His popularity remained as strong as ever.
91. According to the passage, Moby Dick is _______.
A. a romantic adventure B. a single-faceted work
C. a short story about a whale D. symbolic of humanity fighting the
environment
92. The word “metamorphosis” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. change B. circle C. mysticism D. descent
Before the 1500’s, the western plains of North America were dominated by farmers. On
group, the Mandans, lived in the upper Missouri River country, primarily in present-day North
Dakota. They had large villages of houses built close together. The tight arrangement enable the
Mandans to protect themselves more easily from the attacks of others who might seek to obtain
some of the food these highly capable farmers stored from one year to the next.
The women had primary responsibility for the fields. They had to exercise considerable
skill to produce the desired results, for their northern location meant fleeting growing seasons.
Winter often lingered; autumn could be ushered in by severe frost. For good measure, during the
spring and summer, drought, heat, hail, grasshoppers, and other frustrations might await the wary
grower.
Under such conditions, Mandan women had to grow maize capable of weathering
adversity. They began as early as it appeared feasible to do so in the spring, clearing the land,
using fire to clear stubble from the fields and then planting. From this point until the first green
corn could be harvested, the crop required labor and vigilance.
In August the Mandans picked a smaller amount of the crop before it had matured fully.
This green corn was boiled, dried and shelled, with some of the maize slated for immediate
consumption and the rest stored in animal-skin bags. Later in the fall, the people picked the rest
of the corn. They saved the best of the harvest for seeds or for trade, with the remainder eaten
right away or stored for later use in underground reserves. With appropriate banking of the extra
food, the Mandans protected themselves against the disaster of crop failure and accompany
hunger.
The woman planted another staple, squash, about the first of June, and harvested it near the
time of the green corn harvest. After they picked it, they sliced it, dried it, and strung the slices
before they stored them. Once again, they saved the seeds from the best of the year’s crop. The
Mandans also grew sunflowers and tobacco; the latter was the particular task of the older men.
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A. The agricultural activities of a North America Society.
B. Various ways corn can be used.
C. The problems encountered by farmers specializing in growing once crop.
D. Weather conditions on the western plains.
94. The Mandans built their houses close together in order to _______.
A. guard their supplies of food B. protect themselves against the weather
C. allow more room for growing corn D. share farming implements
95. Why does the author believe that the Mandans were skilled farmers?
A. They developed effective fertilizers.
B. They developed new varieties of corn.
C. They could grow crops despite adverse weather.
D. they could grow crops in most types of soil.
96. The word “consumption” in the 4th paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. decay B. planting C. eating D. conversation
97. Which of the following processes does the author imply was done by both men and
women?
A. Clearing fields B. Planting corn C. Harvesting corn D. Harvesting squash
A. women B. seeds C. slices D. the Mandans
99. Which of the following crops was cultivated primarily by men?
A. Squash B. Sunflower C. Corn D. Tobacco
100. Throughout the passage, the author implies that the Mandans _______.
A. planned for the future B. valued individuality
C. were open to strangers D. were very adventurous
51. A. habitat B. protection C. essential D. priority
52. A. question B. presentation C. industrialization D. modernization
53. A. production B. deficient C. ancient D. sufficient
54. A. biology B. accordance C. incomplete D. pudicity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word of phrase
55. There is no thing to make it likely or certain that he will be at the party.
A. proof B. promise C. guarantee D. fact
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56. I think the medicine is beginning to wear off.
A. stop being effective B. take effect
C. be put in a bottle D. be swallowed
57. The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. soak B. permanent C. complicated D. guess
Mark the letter A, B C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
59. Have you learnt the reason why does the water of the ocean becomes blue?
A. reason B. does C. of D. blue
60. It is the high time John understands how to behave properly towards the old men.
A. high B. understands C. how to D. towards
61. Every child in Great Britain between the old year of five and fifteen must attend school.
A. Every B. between C. old year D. must
62. I just took it _______ that he’d always be available.
A. into consideration B. easy
C. into account D. for granted
63. It was not _______ Michael Jackson’s death that people around the world understood his
contribution in music.
A. since B. when C. until D. result
64. Although David was _______ after a day’s work in the office, he tried to help his wife
the household chores.
A. exhaustion B. exhausted C. exhausting D. exhaustive
65. _______ your precious help, I wouldn’t have certainly overcome most of the practical
difficulties.
A. If not B. Provided C. Unless D. Without
66. Will you ever forget _______ in such an expensive restaurant?
A. eating B. eat C. to eat D. being eaten
67. I accidentally _______ Mike when I was crossing a street downtown yesterday.
A. kept an eye on B. lost touch with
C. paid attention to D. caught sight of
68. If she _______ sick, she would have gone out with me to the party.
A. wasn’t B. hadn’t been C. hasn’t been D. weren’t
69. I was glad when he said that his car was _______.
A. for my use B. for me use C. at my use D. at my disposal
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70. _______ the French army was defeated at the battle of Dien Bien Phu came a complete
surprise to all over the world.
A. Why B. Which C. What D. That
71. I’d rather you _______ to the English-speaking club with me this Friday.
A. will come B. came C. come D. to come
72. Stop _______ about the bush, John! Just tell me exactly what the problem is.
A. rushing B. hiding C. beating D. moving
73. Don’t worry we’ll have to wait a little longer because I’m sure he will _______.
A. turn down B. turn in C. turn into D. turn up
74. “What do you think of your new DVD player?” – “_______”
A. I love it B. My brother gave it to me.
C. It was a gift from my brother. D. I always put it there.
75. “How long have you been recently?” – “_______”
A. It’s too late now. B. Pretty busy, I think.
C. By bus, I think. D. No, I’ll not be busy.
76. I have seen all of her films but one.
A. I have seen only one film of hers.
B. I have seen one of her films.
C. There is only one film of hers that I have not seen.
D. I have finished seeing even one film of hers.
77. Many people are afraid of sharks, but they rarely attack people.
A. Although sharks rarely attack people, many people are afraid of them.
B. Many people are afraid of sharks because they are dangerous.
C. Rarely attacked by sharks, many people are, therefore, afraid of them.
D. Sharks rarely attack people because many people are afraid of them.
78. No matter how hard he tried, Mike could not make sense of his economics textbook.
A. Mike could not understand his economics textbook because he hardly tried to at all.
B. In spite of his efforts, Mike was unable to understand the contents of his economics
textbook.
C. If Mike had studied harder, he would have been able to comprehend what was in his
economics textbook.
D. It was impossible for Mike to understand his economics textbook without making a
great effort.
79. You don’t try to work hard. You will fail in the exam.
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80. The Prime Minister set up a committee of financial experts. They were to help him
A. The Prime Minister, who is a financial expert, set up a committee to discuss and
formulate new polices.
B. A committee consisting of financial experts was set up by the Prime Minister to help
him discuss and formulate new policies.
C. The Prime Minister, who was helped by financial experts, set up a committee to
D. A committee consisting of financial experts who were helped by the Prime Minister
discussed and formulated new policies.
35.
GOING ON A DIET
A calorie is a unit for measuring the amount of energy food will produce. The average
person needs about 1,800 calories per day to (31) _______ healthy. Without energy, the heart
cannot pump blood through blood vessels and organs cannot function.
You (32) _______ weight because you consume more calories a day than your body
requires. The only way to lose weight is to reduce the number of calories you consume. This is
the basic principle behind most diets.
(33) _______, diets don’t work for most people. It’s not that they don’t lose weight: they
do, but when they (34) _______ the diet, the kilos creep back. The key to losing weight and
maintaining weight loss is a sensible diet and exercise plan. You need to work out how to eat
fewer calories than you actually consume. You should also exercise daily so you can use up
calories. Burning 250 to 500 calories per day can (35) _______ a big difference. Try riding an
exercise bike while you are watching TV or climbing the stairs rather than taking the lift.
Persuade someone to exercise with you; exercise is a lot easier if done in company.
81. A. keep on B. stay C. continue D. carry
82. A. make B. increase C. gain D. put
83. A. Similarly B. Though C. Unfortunately D. Although
84. A. go off B. go on C. go back D. go away
85. A. have B. do C. make D. give
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The three phases of human memory are the sensory memory, the short-term memory, and
the long-term memory. This division of the memory into phases is based on the length of the
time of the memory.
Sensory memory is instantaneous memory. It is an image or memory that enters your mind
only for a period of time; it comes and goes in under a second. The memory will not last longer
than that unless the information enters the short-term memory.
Information can be held in the short-term memory for about twenty seconds or as long as
you are actively using it. If repeat a fact to yourself, that fact will stay in your short-term memory
as long as you keep repeating it. Once you stop repeating it, either it is forgotten or it moves into
long term memory.
Long-term memory is the huge memory tank that can hold ideas and images for years and
years. Information can be added to your long-term memory when you actively try to put it there
through memorization or when an idea or image enters your mind on its own.
86. The best title for this passage would be _______.
A. The difference between sensory and short-term memory.
B. How long it takes to memorize.
C. The stages of human memory.
D. Human phases.
87. The three phases of memory discussed in the passage are differentiated according to
_______.
A. The location in the brain.
B. The period of time it takes to remember something.
C. How the senses are involved in the memory.
D. How long the memory lasts.
88. The expression “is based on” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by _______.
A. is on the top of
B. is at the foot of
C. depends on
D. is below
89. According to the passage, which type of memory is the shortest?
A. Sensory memory
B. Active memory
C. Short-term memory
D. Long-term memory
90. According to the passage, when will information stay in your short-term memory?
A. For as long as twenty minutes.
B. A long as it is being used.
C. After you have repeated it many times.
D. When it has moved into long-term memory.
91. All of the following are TRUE about long-term memory EXCEPT that _______.
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A. it has a very large capacity.
B. it can hold information.
C. it is possible to put information into it through memorization.
D. memorization is the only way that information can get there.
92. It can be inferred from the passage that if a person remembers a piece of information for
two days.
A. there phases of memory B. the sensory memory
C. the short-term memory D. the long-term memory
Today’s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors, but
the car of the future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new
types of automobile engines have already been developed that run on alternative sources of
power, such as electricity, compressed natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propane.
Electricity, however, is the only zero-emission option presently available.
Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or
other dependable source of current is available, transport experts foresee a new assortment of
electric vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled
neighborhood cars, electric delivery vans, bikes and trolleys.
As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility
engineers are focusing on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new
cars. Public charging facilities will need to be as common as today’s gas stations. Public parking
spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be required with devices that allow drivers
to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the use of
electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centers might be reserved for
electric cars.
Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses and neighborhood vehicles all meeting
at transit centers that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to
rent a variety of electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small
cars, or electric/ gasoline hybrid cars for longer trips, which will no doubt take place on
automated freeways capable of handing five times the number of vehicles that can be carried by
freeway today.
93. The following electrical vehicles are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT _______.
A. vans B. trains C. trolleys D. planes
94. The author’s purpose in the passage is to _______.
A. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future
B. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles
C. support the invention of electric cars
D. criticize conventional vehicles
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A. electric shuttle buses B. pollution restrictions in the future
C. automated freeways D. the neighborhood of the future
96. The word “compact” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. squared B. long-range C. concentrated D. inexpensive
97. In the second paragraph, the author implies that _______.
A. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation.
B. everyday life will stay much the same in the future.
C. electric vehicles are not practical for the future.
D. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed.
98. According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be _______.
A. as common as today’s gas stations
B. equipped with charging devices
C. much larger than they are today
D. more convenient than they are today
99. The word “charging” in this paragraph refers to _______.
A. credit cards B. lightning C. aggression D. electricity
100. The word “foresee” in paragraph 4 could be replaced by _______.
A. count on B. invent C. image D. rely on
51. A. food B. shoot C. book D. boot
52. A. choice B. chaos C. charge D. chase
53. A. medicine B. endanger C. addition D. survival
54. A. experience B. cosmetics C. economics D. photography
55. This tapestry has a very complicated pattern.
A. obsolete B. intricate C. ultimate D. appropriate
56. We decided to pay for the furniture on the installment plan.
57. She had a cozy little apartment in Boston.
A. uncomfortable B. warm C. lazy D. dirty
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part needs correction in each of the
following questions
60. It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to
pass the exam.
61. Chicago’s Sears Tower, now the tallest building in the world, rises 1,522 feet from the
ground to the top of it antenna.
A. now B. rises C. feet D. it
62. This is very _______! Can’t you practise your violin somewhere else?
A. convenient B. conveniently C. inconvenient D. convenience
63. We are here to provide you _______ the best service possible.
A. of B. with C. to D. for
64. No sooner had we left the house _______ it started snowing.
A. and B. than C. when D. that
65. Several cars, _______ owners had parked them under the trees, were damaged.
A. their B. of which C. whom D. whose
66. The young should _______ themselves in social activities.
A. determine B. serve C. involve D. promote
67. Please cut my hair _______ the style in this magazine.
A. the same length as B. the same length like
68. I prefer _______ jobs because I don’t like keep on moving and changing all the time.
A. demanding B. challenging C. steady D. secure
69. _______ anyone object, the plan will be reconsidered.
A. If B. Should C. Do D. Might
70. When they _______ for the beach the sun was shining, but by the time they arrived it had
clouded over.
A. went out B. went off C. set off D. left out
71. I’m really sleepy today. I wish I _______ Bob to the airport late last night.
A. weren’t taking B. didn’t have to take
C. didn’t take D. hadn’t had to take
72. He left the country _______ arrest if he returned.
A. in fear that B. with fear that C. with threat of D. under threat of
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74. “Can I try your new camera?” – “_______”
A. I’m sorry I can’t. Let’s go now. B. Sure. I’d love to.
C. Sure. But please be careful with it. D. I’m sorry. I’m home late.
75. “How well do you play?” – “_______”
A. Yes, I used to play tennis. B. I don’t play very often.
C. No, I don’t play very well. D. Pretty well, I think.
76. David drove so fast; it was very dangerous.
A. David drove so fast, which was very dangerous.
B. David drove so fast and was very dangerous.
C. David drove so fast, then was very dangerous.
D. David drove so fast that was very dangerous.
77. The children couldn’t go swimming because the sea was too rough.
A. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea.
B. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in.
C. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming.
D. The sea was too rough to the children’s swimming.
78. “Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!” shouted the lady to the man.
A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
B. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.
D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.
79. The girl didn’t have any friends. Therefore, she left lonely.
A. Having many friends, the girl felt lonely.
B. Deprived of friends, the girl felt lonely.
C. Not having friends, they made the girl feel lonely.
D. Having no friends, the girl felt lonely.
A. The novel was so interesting that I stayed up all night to finish it.
B. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
C. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.
D. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
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35.
SCHOOL LUNCH
Research has shown that over half the children in Britain who take their own lunches to
school do not eat (31) _______ in the middle of the day. In Britain, schools have to provide
meals at lunchtime. Children can choose to bring their own food or have lunch at the school
canteen.
One shocking (32) _______ of this research is that school meals are much healthier than
lunches prepared by parents. There are strict standards for the preparation of school meals, which
have to include one portion of fruit and one of vegetables, as well as meat, a dairy item and
starchy food like bread or pasta. Lunchboxes (33) _______ by researchers contained sweet
drinks, crisps and chocolate bars. Children (34) _______ twice as much sugar as they should at
lunchtime.
The research will provide a better understanding of why the percentage of overweight
students in Britain has increased in the last decade. Unfortunately, the government cannot
instruct parents, but can remind them of the (35) _______ value of milk, fruit and vegetables.
Children can easily develop bad eating habits at this age, and parents are the only ones who can
prevent it.
81. A. approximately B. properly C. probably D. possibly
82. A. finding B. number C. figure D. factor
83. A. examined B. found C. taken D. looked
84. A. take B. contain C. consume D. consist
85. A. nutritional B. healthy C. positive D. good
Most, languages have several levels of vocabulary that may be used by the same speakers.
In English, at least three have been identified and described.
Standard usage includes those words and expressions understood, used, and accepted by a
majority of the speakers of a language in any situation regardless of the level formality. As such,
these words and expressions are well defined and listed in standard dictionaries. Colloquialisms,
on the other hand, are familiar words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a
language and used in informal speech or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal
situations. Almost all idiomatic expressions are colloquial language. Slang, however, refers to
words and expressions understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as
appropriate formal usage by the majority. Colloquial expressions and even slang may be found
in standard dictionaries but will be so identified. Both colloquial usage and slang are more
common in speech than in writing.
Colloquial speech often passes into standard speech. Some slang also passes into standard
speech, but other slang expressions enjoy momentary popularity followed by obscurity. In some
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cases, the majority never accepts certain slang phrases but nevertheless retains them in their
collective memories. Every generation seems to require its own set of words to describe familiar
objects and events.
It has been pointed out by a number of linguists that three cultural conditions are necessary
for the creation of a large body of slang expressions. First, the introduction and acceptance of
new objects and situations in the society; second, a diverse population with a large number of
subgroups; third, association among the subgroups and the majority population.
Finally, it is worth noting that the terms “standard”, “colloquial”, and “slang” exist only as
abstract levels for scholars who study language. Only a tiny number of the speakers of any
language will be aware that they are using colloquial or slang expressions. Most speakers of
English will, during appropriate situations, select and use all three types of expressions.
86. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. Standard speech B. Idiomatic phrases
C. Dictionary usage D. Different types of vocabulary
87. The word “appropriate” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. old B. correct C. important D. large
88. The word “obscurity” could best be replaced by _______.
A. qualification B. disappearance C. influence D. tolerance
89. The word “them” refers to _______.
A. slang phrases B. words C. the majority D. memories
90. Where in the passage does the author explain where colloquial language and slang are
most commonly used?
A. The last sentences of paragraph 2.
B. The last sentences of paragraph 3.
C. The first two sentences of paragraph 2.
D. The last two sentences of paragraph 5.
91. The author mentions all of the following as requirements for slang expressions to be
created EXCEPT _______.
A. a number of linguists B. a new generation
C. interaction among diverse groups D. new situations
92. It can be inferred from the passage that the author _______.
A. does not approve of colloquial usage in writing
B. approve of slang and colloquial speech in appropriate situations
C. does not approve of either slang or colloquial speech in any situation
D. approves of colloquial speech in some situations, but not slang
At 7 pm on a dark, cold November evening, thousands of people are making their way
across a vast car park. They’re not here to see a film, or the ballet, or even the circus. They are
all here for what is, bizarrely, a global phenomenon: they are here to see Holiday on Ice. Given
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that most people don’t seem to be acquainted with anyone who’s ever been, the show’s statistics
are extraordinary: nearly 300 million people have seen Holiday on Ice since it began in 1943; it
is the most popular live entertainment in the world.
But what does the production involve? And why are so many people prepared to spend
their lives travelling round Europe in caravans in order to appear in it? It can’t be glamorous, and
it’s undoubtedly hard work. The backstage atmosphere is an odd mix of gym class and
workplace. A curtained-off section at the back of the arena is laughably referred to as the girls’
dressing room, but is more accurately described as a corridor, with beige, cracked walls and
cheap temporary tables set up along the length of it. Each girl has a small area littered with pots
of orange make-up, tubes of mascara and long false eyelashes.
As a place to work, it must rank pretty low down the scale: the area round the ice-rink is
gray and mucky with rows of dirty blue and brown plastic seating and red carpet tiles. It’s an
unimpressive picture, but the show itself is an unquestionably vast, polished global enterprise:
the lights come from a firm in Texas, the people who make the audio system are in California,
but Montreal supplies the smoke effects; former British Olympic skater Robin Cousins is now
creative director for the company and conducts a vast master class to make sure they’re ready for
the show’s next performance.
The next day, as the music blares out from the sound system, the case start to go through
their routines under Cousins’ direction. Cousins says, ‘The aim is to make sure they’re all still
getting to exactly the right place on the ice at the right time-largely because the banks of lights in
the ceiling are set to those places, and if the skaters are all half a metre out they’ll be illuminating
empty ice. Our challenge,’ he continues, ‘is to produce something they can sell in a number of
countries at the same time. My theory is that you take those things that people want to see and
you give it to them, but not in the way they except to see it. You try to twist it. And you have to
find music that is challenging to the skaters, because they have to do it every night.’
‘The only place you’ll see certain skating moves is an ice show,’ he says, ‘because you’re
not allowed to do them in competition. It’s not in the rules. So the ice show world has things to
offer which the competitive world just doesn’t. cousins knows what he’s talking about because
he skated for the show himself when he stopped competing-he was financially unable to retire.
He learnt the hard way that you can’t put on an Olympic performance every night. I’d be
thinking, these people have paid their money, now do your stuff, and I suddenly thought, “I
really can’t cope. I’m not enjoying it”.’ The solution, he realized, was to give 75 per cent every
night, rather than striving for the sort of twice-a-year excellence which won him medals.
To be honest, for those of us whose only experience of ice-skating is watching top-class
Olympic skaters, some of the movements can look a bit amateurish, but then, who are we to
judge? Equally, it’s impossible not to be swept up in the whole thing; well, you’d have to try
pretty hard not to enjoy it.
(Source TOEFL reading)
93. What surprises the writer about the popularity of Holiday on Ice?
A. Few people know someone who has been it.
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B. The show has not changed since it started.
C. Ice-skating is not generally a popular hobby.
D. People often say they prefer other types of show.
94. The word blares out in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. seeps out B. sounds beautifully
C. resounds loudly D. rings
95. What does the writer highlight about the show in the third paragraph?
A. the variety of places in which the show has been staged
B. the range of companies involved in the production
C. the need for a higher level of professional support
D. the difficulty of finding suitable equipment
96. The word them in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. things that people want to see
B. skating moves
C. the skaters
D. skating competitions
97. For Robin Cousins, the key point when rehearsing skating routines is
A. filling all available space on the ice
B. the movement of the lights
C. keeping in time with the music
D. the skaters’ positions on the ice
98. Cousins believes that he can meet the challenge of producing shows for different
audiences
A. by varying the routines each night
B. by selecting music that local audiences will respond to
C. by adapting movements to suit local tastes
D. by presenting familiar material in an unexpected way
99. What does Cousins suggest in paragraph 5 about skating in shows?
A. It can be as competitive as other forms of skating
B. It enables skaters to visit a variety of places
C. It is particularly well paid
D. It allows skaters to try out a range of ideas
100. What conclusion does the writer draw about Holiday on Ice?
A. It is hard to know who really enjoys it.
B. It is more enjoyable to watch than formal ice-skating.
C. It requires as much skill as Olympic ice-skating.
D. It is difficult to dislike it.
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51. A. amount B. country C. counter D. around
52. A. education B. document C. endangered D. secondary
53. A. interviewer B. inhabitant C. solidify D. relationship
54. A. enter B. comment C. chemist D. proceed
A. expansion B. beginning C. continuation D. outcome
56. Roget’s Thesaurus, a collection of English words and phrases, was originally arranged by
the ideas they express rather than by alphabetical order.
A. regardless of B. as well as C. unless D. instead of
57. She was disgusted at the way they treat their children.
A. allergic to B. delighted at C. displeased with D. angry at
58. All of the students are obliged to pass the entrance examination in order to attend the
university.
A. forced B. impelled C. required D. optional
59. Measles have not yet been eradicated because of the controversy concerning
immunization.
A. have not B. yet C. because of D. concerning
60. With the discovery of Pluto’s moon, Charon, astronomy now think that Pluto is the
smallest planet in the solar system.
A. with B. astronomy C. the smallest D. solar system
61. For more than 450 years, Mexico City has been the economic, culture and political centre
of Mexican people.
A. more than B. has been C. culture D. Mexican people
questions.
62. When Mr. Spendthrift ran out of money, he _______ his mother for help.
A. fell back on B. fell upon C. fell behind D. fell in with
63. It’s funny you should say that. I’ve just had the _______ thought.
A. like B. identical C. alike D. likely
64. _______, I decided to stop trading with them.
A. Despite of the fact that they were the biggest dealer
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B. Though being the biggest dealer
C. Being the biggest dealer
D. Even though they were the biggest dealer
65. He used to do well at school _______ having his early education disrupted by illness.
A. apart from B. in spite of C. in addition to D. because of
66. I refuse to believe a word of it; it’s a cock-and-_______ story.
A. hen B. goose C. bull D. duck
67. Why don’t you _______ a go? It’s not difficult!
A. make B. have C. do D. set
68. How many means of _______ do you use on a regular basis?
A. communication B. communicating
C. communicator D. communicative
69. Students use the library’s computers to get access _______ the Internet.
A. for B. to C. with D. by
70. If you can’t remember his phone number, you can always _______ it _______ in the
phone book.
A. take/ down B. look/ up C. find/ out D. bring/ about
71. Researchers have _______ to the conclusion that your personality is affected by your
genes.
A. come B. got C. reached D. arrived
72. You should _______ a professional to check your house for earthquake damage.
A. have B. get C. make D. take
73. Many of the people who attended Mr. David’s funeral _______ him for many years.
A. didn’t see B. wouldn’t see C. haven’t seen D. hadn’t seen
MICHAEL FARADAY
During the last 400 years, most scientists have based on mathematics in their development
of their inventions or discoveries. However, one great British scientist, Michael Faraday, did not
make (24) _______ of mathematics. Faraday, the son of a poor blacksmith, was born in London
in 1791 and had no (25) _______ beyond reading and writing.
In 1812 Faraday was hired as a bottle washer by the great chemist Humphry Davy. Later,
Faraday became a greater scientist than Davy, making the last years of Davy’s life embittered
with jealousy. Faraday made the first (26) _______ motor in 1821, a device that used electricity
to produce movement. Then Faraday became interested in the relationship between electricity
and magnetism. In 1831 he discovered that when a magnet is moved near a wire, electricity
flows in the wire. With this discovery he produced a machine for making electricity called a
dynamo. Faraday then went on to show how electricity affects chemical (27) _______.
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Because Faraday believed that money should be given to the poor, when he grew old, he
was destitute. (28) _______, Queen Victoria rewarded him for his discoveries by giving him a
stipend and a house. He died in 1867.
74. A. usage B. advantage C. use D. utilization
75. A. instruction B. knowledge C. training D. schooling
76. A. electric B. electronics C. electricity D. electrician
77. A. matters B. substances C. materials D. equations
78. A. Still B. So C. However D. Yet
Read the following the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
communicating with a group or an individual, and specialized communication through
the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person’s tone may
indicate unsureness or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect
ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the speaker’s tone
can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or
interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are usually discernible by the
its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and/ or gesture. The motivation derived from
the text, and it the case of signing, the music, in combination with the performer’s skills,
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person’s self-image, perception of others,
behind an overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the listener’s receptiveness, interest, or
A. The function of the voice in performance
B. The connection between voice and personality
C. Communication styles
D. The production of speech
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80. What does the author mean by stating that “At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect
ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen”?
A. Feeling is expressed with different words than ideas are.
B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
81. The word “Here” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. interpersonal interactions B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen
82. The word “derived” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. discussed B. prepared C. registered D. obtained
83. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice, may be an indication of a person’s
_______.
A. general physical health B. personality
C. ability to communicate D. vocal quality
84. According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide _______.
A. hostility B. shyness C. friendliness D. strength
85. The word “drastically” in line paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. frequently B. exactly C. severely D. easily
As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States
increased. The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and
cities. Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new
emphasis upon credentials and expertise to make schooling increasingly important for economic
and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were viewed as the most important means of
integrating immigrants into American society.
The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the
century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920
schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was
greatly lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational
education and counseling extended the influence of public school over the lives of students,
many of whom in the larger industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult
immigrants were sponsored by public schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses,
and other agencies.
Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the
needs of specific populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried to
educate young women so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy,
and one place many educators considered appropriate for women was the home.
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Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American
education gave homemaking a new definition. In pre-industrial economies, homemaking had
meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly included income-
producing activities both inside and outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-
twentieth-century United States, however, overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a
problem. Thus, the ideal American homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a
producer. Schools trained women to be consumer homemakers: cooking, shopping, decorating,
and caring for children “efficiently” in their own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as
employees in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions soom quite out-
of-date.
86. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance
of education in the United States was _______.
A. the growing number of schools in frontier communities
B. an increase in the number of trained teachers
C. the expanding economic problems of schools
D. the increased urbanization of the entire country
87. The word “means” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. advantages B. probability C. method D. qualifications
88. The phrase “coincided with” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. was influenced by B. happened at the same time as
C. began to grow rapidly D. ensured the success of
89. According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the 1920’s
was that _______.
A. most places required children to attend school
B. the amount of time spent on formal education was limited
C. new regulations were imposed on nontraditional education
D. adults and children studied in the same classes
90. Vacation schools and extracurricular activities are mentioned to illustrate _______.
A. alternatives to formal education provided by public schools
B. the importance of educational changes
C. activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs
D. the increased impact of public schools on students
91. According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers believed that
_______.
A. different groups needed different kinds of education
B. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them
C. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress
D. more women should be involved in education and industry
A. consumption B. production C. homemaking D. education
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93. Women were trained to be consumer homemakers as a result of _______.
A. overproduction in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
B. scarcity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
C. economic necessity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
D. income-producing activities in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century
United States
Mark the letter A, B or C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following
exchanges.
94. “_______” – “No, I can manage. Thank you.”
A. Can you give me a hand with this please?
B. Do you need their support?
C. Can you manage the job?
D. Let me carry the bag for you.
95. Tom. “I don’t have my glasses. I can’t read the menu.” – Jane. “_______”
A. I am going to read it to you B. I will read it to you
C. I have read it to you D. I will be reading it to you
96. Although Christopher was the stronger of the two, his attacker soon overpowered him.
A. Despite his superior strength, Christopher was soon overpowered by his attacker.
B. Christopher was stronger, but he overpowered his attacker after a while.
C. Christopher lost because he was stronger than his attacker.
D. Christopher was too strong to be overpowered by his attacker.
97. He could have gone by bus and so saved a lot of money.
A. He wouldn’t have saved much money if he had taken the bus.
B. He would have gone by bus if he had saved money for the fare.
C. He traveled by bus, and it didn’t cost him much.
D. He would have spent less money if he had traveled by bus.
98. I have every intention of finding out who is responsible for the graffiti.
A. I fully intend to find out who is responsible for the graffiti.
B. I have all the intention to find out who is responsible for the graffiti.
C. Who is responsible for the graffiti is one of my concerns.
D. I am intentional to find out who is responsible for the graffiti.
99. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. Therefore, he opened the window.
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100. No one but the excepts were able to realize that the painting was an
imitation. It greatly resembled the original.
successfully.
B. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one,
but no for the experts.
C. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic,
D. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it
wasn’t genuine.
51. A. apologize B. agree C. algebra D. aggressive
52. A. likes B. tightens C. heaps D. coughs
53. A. celebrate B. occupy C. determine D. atmosphere
54. A. sensitive B. allowance C. consultant D. location
55. I had to pay through the nose to get my car repaired at a service station in the middle of
the desert.
A. spend less money than usual B. cost a lot of money
C. pay too much for something D. make a lot of money
56. In the United States there are only a few deaths annually from rattlesnakes, with a
mortality rate of less than 2 percent of those attacked.
A. percentage B. illness C. death D. deliberate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
58. These techniques to stop desert expansion are just temporary.
A. parallel B. constant C. permanent D. deliberate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined that needs correction in each of the
59. Proteins are made up of folded irregularly chains, the links of which are amino acids.
A. made up of B. folded irregularly
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C. the links D. which
60. Little he knows about the surprise that awaited him.
A. he knows B. about C. that D. awaited
61. The astronomy is the oldest science, but it continues to be at the forefront of scientific
thought.
A. the astronomy B. science C. continues D. at
questions.
62. It was so quiet; you could have heard a _______ drop.
A. pin B. feather C. leaf D. sigh
63. _______ is not clear to researchers.
A. Why did dinosaurs become extinct B. Why dinosaurs became extinct
C. Did dinosaurs become extinct D. Dinosaurs became extinct
64. If a machine stops moving or working normally, you can say that it has _______.
A. cut off B. wiped out C. seized up D. go off
65. Drinking water _______ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled
effect on the enamel of teeth.
A. containing B. including C. made up of D. composed of
66. Newspaper publishers in the States have estimated _______ reads a newspaper every day.
A. nearly 80 percentage of the adult population who
B. it is nearly 80 percent of the adult population
C. that it is nearly 80 percentage of the adult population
D. that nearly 80 percent of the adult population
67. The Artificial Intelligence expert wanted to have his assistant _______ the newly made
robot.
A. activate B. activated C. activating D. to activate
68. Many materials have been used for _______ teeth, including wood.
A. artificial B. false C. hand-made D. natural
69. A lot of residents had to _______ from the unexpected hurricane last month.
A. protect B. recover C. suffer D. save
70. Each form of mass media has an important _______ on society.
A. impact B. pressure C. affection D. role
71. Many people _______ television as their main source of information and entertainment.
A. rely on B. try on C. put on D. hold on
72. A flat in the centre of the city might _______ you an arm and a leg.
A. spend B. lose C. cost D. require
73. The promoters called the concert _______ because the singer had a sore throat.
A. away B. up C. off D. with
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Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night
but can’t find the energy to get out of bed (24) _______ for school? According to a new report,
today’s generations of children are in danger of getting so little sleep that they are putting their
mental and physical health at (25) _______. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours’
sleep a night, (26) _______ teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts,
one in five youngsters gets anything between two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their
parents did at their age.
This (27) _______ serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children’s
ability to concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory,
impaired reaction time and poor concentration is well established. Research has shown that
losing as little as half an hour’s sleep a night can have profound effects on how children perform
the next day. A good night’s sleep is also crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep
that they release a hormone that is essential for their ‘growth spurt’ (the period during teenage
years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It’s true that they can, to some (28) _______, catch
up on sleep at weekends, but that won’t help them when they are dropping off to sleep in class on
a Friday afternoon.
74. A. behind time B. about time C. in time D. at times
75. A. jeopardy B. threat C. risk D. danger
76. A. or B. because C. whereas D. so
77. A. raises B. rises C. results D. comes
78. A. rate B. extent C. level D. point
Psychologists have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it the
ability to do outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say that it
is simply something a person is born with. Others, however, argue that the potential for great
achievement can be developed. The truth lies somewhere between these two extremes.
It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will
increase a child’s ability to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the
right upbringing and opportunities. As one psychologist says, “To have a fast car, you need
both a good engine and fuel.”
Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of
identical twins that were separated shortly after birth and brought up by different parents. They
found that achievement was based on intelligence, and later influenced by the child’s
environment.
One case involving very intelligent twins was quoted. One of the twins received a normal
upbringing, and performed well. The other twin, however, was brought up by extremely
supportive parents and given every possible opportunity to develop its abilities. That twin,
though starting out with the same degree of intelligence as the other, performed even better.
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This case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the
environment, the more a child’s intelligence and ability are developed. However, there is no link
between intelligence and the socioeconomic level of a child’s family. In other words, it does not
matter how poor or how rich a family is, as this does not affect intelligence.
Gifted people cannot be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them.
One professor of music said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years earlier
than ordinary performers, often because their parents had recognized their ability. These
musicians then needed at least ten years’ hard work and training in order to reach the level they
were capable of attaining.
People who want to have very gifted children are given the following advice.
 Marry an intelligent person.
 Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.
 Start a child’s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.
 Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instruments is essential for
a child who wants to become an outstanding musician.
79. The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires _______.
A. an expensive education B. good musical instruments
C. parental support and encouragement D. wealthy and loving parents
80. The word “others” used in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. other people B. other scientists C. other children D. other geniuses
81. How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their development?
A. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nurtured.
B. They practiced playing their instruments for many years.
C. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of other areas.
D. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic.
82. When encouraging their gifted children, parents should avoid _______.
A. pushing their children too hard
B. letting them play their own way
C. permitting them to follow their own interests
D. starting their education at an early age
83. The remark. “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.” In the passage
means that in order to become a genius.
A. you need to have good health and good nourishment
B. you need intelligence and you need to develop it
C. you should try to move quickly and efficiently
D. you must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard
84. The word “favorable” in the paragraph 5 mostly means _______.
A. “good for someone and making him/ her likely to be successful”
B. “helping somebody to be more intelligent compared to other people”
C. “of high quality or an acceptable standard”
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D. “under the control or in the power of somebody else”
85. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT _______.
A. educational development depends completely on economic well-being
B. a child’s intelligence is influenced by that of his/ her parents
C. to become successful, a child needs both native intelligence and development
D. studying different twins is a useful scientific procedure
Europe, recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new
time. The motto of the recycling movement is “Reduce. Reuse, Recycle”.
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs,
boxes and expensive wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of
packaging: usually paper, a box, and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People
reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low quality appliances break, many
example, if a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the
manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a product
with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufactures. To reduce
garbage, the throwaway must stop.
collect the bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make
new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common
practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from
throwaway bottles.
The third step is being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be
energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people
collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world’s precious
resources.
B. what people often understand about the term ‘recycle’
87. Which is described as one of the most industrialized areas?
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88. What does the world ‘sensitive’ in the phrase ‘sensitive to the environment’ in paragraph
1 mean?
89. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT _______.
A. buy high-quality product B. buy simply-wrapped things
C. reuse cups D. buy fewer hamburgers
90. The word “motto” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
91. What best describes the process of the reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
C. The bottles are washed, returned, filled again and collected.
D. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed.
92. The garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because
_______.
C. not many bottle are made of glass or plastic
D. each returned bottle is paid
93. The word ‘practice’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
exchanges
94. Brown. ‘_______’ – Smith. ‘Thanks, I’ll write to you as soon as I arrive in Paris.’
A. God bless you! B. Have a go!
C. Better luck next time! D. Have a nice trip!
95. James. ‘Do you mind if I open the window?’ – Carol. ‘_______’
A. I’d rather you didn’t B. Yeah, of course
C. Please, don’t worry D. Yes, it is, isn’t it?
96. I remember telling you about the due day of the exam paper.
A. I remember to tell you when the exam paper was due.
B. I think I have told you about the exam paper’s due.
C. I think I have told you when you sit for the exam.
D. I remember I have told you when the exam paper is due.
97. Friendly though he may seem, he’s not very trusted.
A. However he seems friendly, he’s not to be trusted.
B. However friendly he seems, he’s not to be trusted.
C. He may have friends, but he’s not to be trusted.
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D. He’s too friendly to be trusted.
99. We know that animals need vitamins for growth and development. Plants need them, too.
A. Plants are known to need the same vitamins for growth and development as do
animals.
B. In order to grow and develop, plants are known to need the vitamins that are produced
by animals.
C. Animals need vitamins to grow and develop whereas plants need its growth and
development.
D. What we are that both animals and plants can produce vitamins for growth and
development.
100. We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather
very inconvenient.
night.
51. A. merchant B. sergeant C. commercial D. term
53. A. imagine B. inhabit C. continue D. disappear
54. A. popularity B. politician C. documentary D. laboratory
55. “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the
back”, the teacher said.
A. visible B. audible C. edible D. eligible
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56. On the second thought, I believe I will go with you to the theater.
A. Upon reflection B. After discussing with my life
C. For this time only D. For the second time
57. He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
58. Children must sit on a parent’s lap unless an empty seat is available.
A. occupied B. booked C. disused D. abandoned
59. A paragraph is a portion of a text consist of one or more sentences related to the same
idea.
A. a paragraph B. consist C. sentences D. related to
60. The train to Ho Chi Minh City left at precisely 7 o’clock as usually, but the train to Ha
Noi capital left at half past six o’clock, which was exactly 20 minutes late.
A. precisely B. as usually C. which D. exactly
61. Whether life in the countryside is better than that in the city depend on each individual’s
point of view.
A. whether B. that C. depend on D. point of view
questions.
62. British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as
different as _______.
A. cats and dogs B. salt and pepper
C. chalk and cheese D. here and there
63. A washing machine of this type will certainly _______ normal domestic use.
A. stand up for B. come up with C. get on to D. take down with
64. Half of the children were away from school last week because of _______ of influenza.
A. a break-out B. a breakthrough C. an outburst D. an outbreak
65. It’s a formal occasion so we’ll have to _______ to the nines- no jeans and pullovers this
time!
A. hitch up B. put on C. wear in D. get dressed up
66. There seems to be a large _______ between the number of people employed in service
industries, and those employed in the primary sectors.
A. discrimination B. discretion C. discrepancy D. extinction
67. All students must hand _______ their homework the day after it is assigned.
A. out B. on C. to D. in
68. I’m not surprised that Tom is ill. He’s been _______ for a long time. It was bound to
affect his health sooner or later.
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A. having his cake and eating it B. burning the candles at both hands
C. playing with fire D. going to town
69. The climber _______ into difficulties when there was a sudden storm.
A. came B. met C. had D. got
70. I picked up the wrong bag by _______.
A. mistake B. purpose C. luck D. fault
71. Most scientists believe that the day robots will become a part of our lives will come
_______.
A. from time to time B. more and less C. sooner and later D. later than never
72. The mass media are _______ of communication, such as books, newspapers, recordings,
radio, movies, television, mobile phones and the Internet.
A. models B. modes C. parts D. types
73. If there are aliens out there, do you think they are much more _______ advanced than we
are?
A. technological B. technologically C. technology D. technologies
Imagine you are studying English at a small college in the Midwestern United States. The
local newspaper rarely has news about your native country. (24) _______, it prints very little
foreign news, but this does not bother you at all. You sit comfortably in your apartment, turn on
your (25) _______ computer, and ask for the foreign news. The screen is immediately (26)
_______ with news from (27) _______ the world.
Computers have (28) _______ an information “superhighway”. Today, computers can
work together – they can network with each other. The worldwide computer network is called
the Internet. Using the Internet, you can find all kinds of information and news from people and
countries around the world.
74. A. Despite B. In fact C. Because D. Although
75. A. person B. personified C. personally D. personal
76. A. filled B. full C. made D. taken
77. A. in B. on C. all above D. all over
78. A. written B. created C. composed D. invented
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with
care. View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a
living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference
between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an
attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your
choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
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Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want
to begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes,
hobbies, and surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would
you like to travel? Do you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or
cooperative work?” There are no right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to
you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones
you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you.
The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk
all day. If not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent –
that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern,
and employment in some fields is concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally
be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law
education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country. If a high salary is important to
you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers
relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience,
additional training, promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke
positive or negative associations. The travelling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous,
while that of a plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be a
first, and may have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long,
grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors.
Another point to consider is that as you get mature, you will likely to develop new interests and
skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your
final one.
A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs
80. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by _______.
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
81. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who
does not want to live in a bog city?
A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
82. It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that _______.
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid
B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion
D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career
83. In paragraph 4, the author suggest that _______.
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully
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D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future
84. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber
B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception
C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen
D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant
85. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. To make a lot of number, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight
attendant.
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikes-you’re-out, batter out on a caught ball. Three
outs per inning, a nine-man team. The “New York Game” spread rapidly, replacing earlier
needs of an increasingly urban-industrial society. At its inception it was played by and for
wealthy gentlemen. A club might consist of 40 members. The president would appoint two
captains who would choose teams from among the numbers. Games were played on Monday and
Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainment for the
winners.
During the 1850-70 period the game was changing; however, with increasing
commercialism (charging admission), under-the-table payments to exceptional players, and
professional ten, an amateur first-nine, and their “muffins” (the gentlemanly duffers who once
ran the game). Beginning with the first openly all-salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking
Club) in 1869, the 1870-1890 period saw the complete professionalization of baseball, including
League of Professional Base Ball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business-minded investors
in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s “Golden
Age”. Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132,
a weekly periodical “The Sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck
peanuts. In 1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of the Midwest proclaimed
itself the American League.
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86. What is the passage mainly about?
B. the commercialization of baseball
C. the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball
D. The development of baseball in the nineteenth century
87. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, alter needed to find another
recreational opportunity if they did not want to mix others or become a “muffin”
B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism
and commercialism that developed in baseball
C. the “New York Game” spread rapidly because it was better formalized
D. business-minded investors were only interested in profits
88. The word “inception” in paragraph 1 is closest meaning to _______.
A. requirements B. beginning C. insistence D. rules
89. The word “lavish” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. prolonged B. very generous C. grand D. extensive
90. According to the second paragraph, all of the following are true EXCEPT _______.
91. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “Golden Age”?
D. profits soared
92. The word “somewhat” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. to a significant extant B. to a minor extent
C. to not the same extent D. to some extent
93. The word “itself” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. the Western League B. growing cities
C. the Midwest D. the American League
94. Ben. “_______”. Jane. “Never mind.”
A. Congratulations! How wonderful! B. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have
it cleaned.
C. Thank you for being honest with me. D. Would you mind going to dinner next
Sunday?
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95. Peter. – “All right. Keep your receipt. If something comes up, you can show it to us, and
we’ll give you a refund.”
Tom. “_______.”
A. OK. I won’t use it. B. Thanks. I’ll put it in a safe place.
C. You’re welcome. See you later. D. Thanks you. I’ll keep it for you.
96. The staff couldn’t have worked any harder, and they could not even finish half of the
order all the week.
A. Had the staff worked a little harder, they might finished all the order by the end of the
week.
B. Throughout the week, the staff could only complete half of the order, which how they
did not work as hard as they should have.
C. The staff, who only completed half of the order all week, could not have worked as
hard as they claimed they did.
D. Throughout the week, less than half of the order could be produced, although the staff
worked as hard as they could.
97. You needn’t have taken so many warm clothes there.
A. It’s not necessary for you to take so many warm clothes there.
B. You have taken so many warm clothes there that I don’t need.
C. There’s no need for you to take so many warm clothes there.
D. You took lots of warm clothes there but it turned out not necessary.
98. My sister would love to be involved in the organization of the event, so would I.
A. My sister is so much like me, since she too takes part in organizing events voluntarily.
B. My sister was so keen to take part in the organization of the event, that I encouraged
her.
C. Both my sister and I would be very happy to take part in organizing the event.
D. I would like my sister to volunteer to take part in organizing the event.
99. Companies spend millions of dollars of advertising. They want to increase their sales.
A. Companies spend millions of dollars of advertising so that they want to increase their
sales.
B. Companies spend millions of dollars of advertising, but they want to increase their
sales.
C. Companies spend millions of dollars of advertising with the aim of increasing their
sales.
D. In order that they want to increase their sales, companies spend millions of dollars of
advertising.
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100. I had two job offers upon graduation. Neither of them was
appropriate for my qualifications.
A. Both of the job offers I had prior to my graduation were appropriate for my
qualifications.
B. Though I wasn’t qualified enough, two jobs were offered to me upon graduation.
C. The two jobs offered to me after I graduated were inappropriate for my qualifications.
D. I was offered two jobs soon after my graduation, both of which were suitable for my
qualifications.
51. A. building B. suitable C. suit D. recruitment
52. A. courtship B. courgette C. sour D. courtyard
53. A. license B. concert C. conserve D. lantern
54. A. intelligent B. architecture C. biography D. thermometer
55. Those who were engaged in the scandal will have to resign.
A. connected B. joined C. involved D. related
56. He annoys me by asking me stupid questions while I am working.
A. quarrels B. disturbs C. interferes D. damages
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
57. The number of wild animals has been dwindling in many parts of the world.
A. developing B. insignificant C. increasing D. declining
58. There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.
A. disregard B. attraction C, consideration D. speculation
59. Never before has so many people in the United States been interested in soccer.
A. has B. so many C. in D. interested
60. None two butterflies have exactly the same design on their wings.
A. none B. exactly C. design on D. wings
61. Dr. Fields received so large bill when he checked out of the hotel that he did not have
enough money to pay for a taxi to the airport.
A. so large bill B. checked out C. that D. enough money
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questions.
62. There was no _______ in waiting longer than half an hour so we left.
A. use B. good C. worth D. point
63. It was so foggy that the driver couldn’t _______ the traffic signs.
A. make out B. break out C. keep out D. take out
64. It was a joke! I was pulling your _______.
A. thumb B. hair C. toe D. leg
65. The teacher hoped to _______ a positive, not a negative reply from his student.
A. respond B. donate C. elicit D. preface
66. She made the _______ mistake of forgetting to put the s” on the verb in the third person
singular.
A. classic B. important C. classical D. famous
67. I had a long _______ with my neighbor yesterday. We talked for hours.
A. explanation B. protest C. conversation D. accusation
68. Mrs. Marie told her little boy to put all his toys _______ before coming to dinner.
A. out B. off C. away D. in
69. The old astronomer patiently made his _______ and wrote down what he saw.
A. observation B. observatory C. observe D. observer
70. We were both very excited about the visit, as we _______ each other for ages.
A. never saw B. didn’t see C. hadn’t seen D. haven’t seen
71. Why don’t you _______ you when you install this new electric gadget?
A. get Aaron help B. have Aaron help
C. have Aaron helped D. have got Aaron help
72. Only in the last few years _______ to use home computers.
A. have begun people B. when people begun
C. have people begun D. people have begun
73. “I’m really sleepy today” I wish I _______ Bob to the airport late last night.
A. didn’t have to take B. weren’t taking
C. hadn’t had to take D. didn’t take
LEARNING TO MAKE A PERFECT PIZZA
According to the European Pizza-Makers’ Association, making a good pizza is not a
straightforward skill to learn. The ingredients seem very (24) _______: flour, yeast, water and a
bit of salt. But water and flour can easily make glue and anyone who has eaten a (25) _______
quality will know how bad it can make your stomach feel.
‘In Italy, 70% of pizza makers could improve on their product, not to (26) _______ all the
pizza makers around the world who serve uneatable meals,’ says Antonio Primiceri, the
Association’s founder. He has now started a pizza school in an attempt to save the reputation of
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this traditional dish. As part of a/ an (27) _______ course, the students at Mr. Primiceri’s school
are taught to avoid common mistakes, produce a good basic mixture, add a tasty topping and
cook the pizza properly. ‘Test the finished pizza by breaking the crust, advises Mr. Primiceri: ‘If
the soft part inside the pizza is white, clean and dry, it’s a good pizza. If it not like this, the pizza
will upset your stomach. You will feel (28) _______ full and also thirsty’.
In Italy alone, the pizza industry has an annual turnover of more than $12 billion. Mr.
Primiceri estimated that there are 10,000 jobs in pizza restaurants waiting to be filled by those
with real skills. ‘If you are a good pizza cook, you will never be without a job,’ he says.
74. A. simple B. primary C. pure D. regular
75. A. sad B. poor C. short D. weak
76. A. state B. mention C. remark D. fell
77. A. defensive B. extreme C. intensive D. intentional
78. A. hardly B. tightly C. uncomfortably D. heavily
Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short
amount of time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the
information get there in the first place? Information that makes its way to the short term memory
(STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain has a filter which only allows stimuli that
is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the working memory.
There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most
accepted theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that
humans can remember approximately seven chunks of information. A chunk is defined as a
meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather than just a letter or number.
Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the short term memory by
chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing information, one can
optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being passed on to long term storage.
When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam,
many people engage in “rote rehearsal”. By repeating something over and over again, one is able
to keep a memory alive. Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there
are no interruptions. As soon as a person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to
disappear. When a pen and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone
number by repeating it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person
has the opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly. Therefore,
rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from the short term to long term
memory. A better way is to practice “elaborate rehearsal”. This involves assigning semantic
meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along with other pre-existing long term
memories. For example, a reader engages in elaborate rehearsal when he brings prior knowledge
of a subject to a text.
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Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information
can be done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the
long term memory and used often; however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it may
eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more cues a person is given (such as pictures), the
more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is why multiple choice tests are often used for
subjects that require a lot of memorization.
79. According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?
A. They revert from the long term memory.
B. They are filtered from the sensory storage area.
C. They get chunked when they enter the brain.
D. They enter via the nervous system.
80. The word “elapses” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. passes B. adds up C. appears D. continues
81. The word “cues” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. questions B. clues C. images D. tests
82. How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?
A. By organizing it B. By repeating it
C. By giving it a name D. By drawing it
83. The author believes that rote rotation is _______.
A. the best way to remember something
B. more efficient than chunking
C. ineffective in the long run
D. an unnecessary interruption
84. The word ‘it’ in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. encoding B. STM C. semantics D. information
85. Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?
A. The working memory is the same as the short term memory.
B. A memory is kept alive through constant repetition.
C. Cues help people to recognize information.
D. Multiple choice exams are the most difficult.
Perhaps it was his own lack of adequate schooling that inspired Horace Mann to work so
hard for the important reforms in education that he accomplished. While he was still a boy, his
father and older brother died, and he became responsible for supporting his family. Like most of
the children in his town, he attended school only two or three months a year. Later, with the help
of several teachers, he was able to study law and became a member of the Massachusetts bar, but
he never forgot those early struggles.
While serving in Massachusetts legislature, he signed a historic education bill that set up a
state board of education. Without regret, he gave up his successful legal practice and political
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career to become the first secretary of the board. There he exercised an enormous influence
during the critical period of reconstruction that brought into existence the American graded
elementary school as substitute for the older distinct school system. Under his leadership, the
curriculum was restructured, the school year was increased to a minimum of six months, and
mandatory schooling was extended to age sixteen. Other important reforms included the
establishment of state normal schools for teacher training, institutes for in-service teacher
education, and lyceums for adult education. He was also instrument in improving salaries for
teachers and creating school libraries.
Mann’s ideas about school reform were developed and distributed in twelve annual reports
to the state of Massachusetts that he wrote during his tenure as secretary of education.
Considered quite radical at the time, the Massachusetts reforms later served as a model for the
nation. Mann was recognized as the father of public education.
86. Which of the following titles would best express the main topic of the passage?
A. The Father of American Public Education
B. Philosophy of Education
C. The Massachusetts State Board of Education
D. Politics of Education Institutions
87. Which of the following describes Horace Mann’s early life?
A. He attended school six months a year
B. He had to study alone, without help
C. He supported his family after his father died
D. He was an only child
88. The word “struggles” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by _______.
A. valuable experience B. happy situations
C. influential people D. difficult times
89. What did Horace Mann advocate?
A. The state board school system B. The district school system
C. The substitute school system D. The graded school system
90. The word “mandatory” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. required B. equal C. excellent D. basic
91. How were Mann’s educational reforms distributed?
A. In twelve annual reports to the state of Massachusetts
B. In reports that he wrote for national distribution
C. In speeches that he made throughout the country
D. In books that could be found in school libraries
92. Among Mann’s school reforms, which of the following is NOT mentioned?
A. Restructuring curriculum B. Schools for teacher training
C. Lyceums for adult education D. Creating museums
93. Which of the following statements best represents Mann’s philosophy?
A. Think in a new way B. Help others
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C. Study very hard D. Work hard
exchanges.
94. – ‘Let me do that for you’ – ‘_______.’
A. Don’t worry yourself B. Please, don’t bother
C. It’s not for you D. Make yourself at home
95. – ‘Do you have a minute, Dr. Keith?’ – ‘_______’
A. Well, I’m not sure when B. Good, I hope so
C. Sure, what’s the problem? D. Sorry, I haven’t got it here
96. Without skillful surgery, he would not have survived the operation.
A. He survived the operation thanks to skillful surgery.
B. It wasn’t thanks to skillful surgery that he survived the operation.
C. If there weren’t skillful surgery, he would not have survived the operation.
D. But for skillful surgery, he would have survived the operation.
97. There’s no point in phoning Caroline – she’s away.
A. Don’t waste your time if you phone Caroline.
B. It would be a waste of time phoning Caroline.
C. Don’t save your time to phone Caroline because she’s away.
D. It isn’t a waste of time to phone Caroline.
98. Only final-year students are allowed to use the main college car park.
A. The main college car park is restricted to final-year students.
B. The use of the main college car park was not used by final-year students.
C. Final-year students weren’t restricted to use the main college car park.
D. The use of the main college car park isn’t restricted to final-year students
99. Mr. Baker is very interested in our plan. I spoke to him on the phone last night.
A. Mr. Baker, to whom I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan.
B. Mr. Baker who I spoke on the phone last night is very interested in our plan.
C. Mr. Baker, who is very interested in our plan, I spoke to on the phone last night.
D. Mr. Baker is very interested in our plan to whom I spoke to on the phone last night.
100. I did not dare to turn on the television. I was afraid of walking the
baby up.
A. I did not dare to turn on the television for fear of walking the baby up.
B. Walking up the baby, I could not continue watching the television.
C. I decided not to turn on the television in order to wake the baby up.
D. I decided to turn the television down to avoid walking the baby up.
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
51. A. create B. creature C. easy D. increase

52. A. needed B. played C. rained D. followed
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
53. A. considerate B. continental C. territorial D. economic

54. A. satisfaction B. presentation C. probability D. continuous
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in
55. The student apologized to his teacher for submitting the essay late.
A. handing in B. dropping out of
C. carrying out D. bringing in
56. I wonder when I’m finally going to receive news Joe.
A. to hear of B. to hear from
C. to get in touch with D. turn away from
57. We run a very tight ship here, and we expect all our employees to be at their by eight o’clock
and take good care of their own business.
A. manage an inflexible B. have a good voyage
C. run faster than others D. organize things inefficiently
58. He usually stays in peace in stressful situations but this time he really lost his head.
A. kept calm B. excited
C. took leave of his sense D. lost touch
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
59. It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to pass the
exam.
60. The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power and it is very cruel.
A. the B. long C. a D. it is very cruel
61. Everyone ought to know the basic steps that following in case of an emergency.
A. everyone B. that following
C. in case of D. an
62. The doctor who is _______ tonight in the general hospital is Mr. Brown.
A. in turn B. on tour C. on call D. at work
63. You _______ wonderful! Is that a new perfume you’re wearing?
A. are smelling B. smell C. will smell D. have been smelling
64. She has been very interested in doing research on _______.
A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically
65. _______ of the United States grown during a Republican administration.
A. Rarely the federal government has
B. Rarely has the federal government
C. has the federal government rarely
D. The federal government has rarely
66. It took me 10 years to _______ enough money to travel around the country.
A. set out B. put away C. put by D. save aside
67. Had I known that you were ill last week, _______.
A. I would have gone to see you B. I would go to see you
C. I will go to see you D. I shall have gone to see you
68. It is widely believed that _______ human being are descended from common ancestor.
69. Travel can _______ the mind, and exchange visits give young people experience of a _______
way of life as well as a different language.
A. broadly/ different B. broaden/ different
C. broad/ differently D. broaden/ differ
70. I think I should have _______ your mother while I was passing.
A. dropped in on . come up with C. got on with D. run into
71. Mr. Dawson was given the award in _______ of his services to the hospital.
A. spite B. charge C. recognition D. sight
72. They thought they could deceive me but they were wrong. I could _______.
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A. see them off B. see off them
C. see through D. see them through
73. The rumors go that Jack will be arrested. He is said _______ a bloody robbery.
A. to have taken B. to have joined in
C. to join in D. to take part in
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response the following exchanges.
74. – Joan: “ Our friends are coming. _______, Mike?”

- Mike: “I’m sorry. I can’t do it now.”
A. Why don’t we cook some coffee
B. Shall I make you lie some coffee
C. Shall you make some coffee, please
D. Would you mind making some coffee
75. “Would you like to have dinner with me?” “_______”
A. Yes, it is B. Yes, so do I
C. I’m very happy D. Yes, I’d love to
76. The scene is set in Normandy, but most of the characters in this novel are Londoners.
A. In the novel, the action moves backwards and forwards between Normandy and London.
B. The main characters in the novel are Londoners on a sightseeing holiday in Normandy.
C. In this novel, the story takes place in Normandy but the majority of the characters are from
London.
D. The story is about Normandy, but the leading characters are all Londoners.
77. The airline requested a confirmation call to ensure a seat on my flight back home.
A. The airline made sure I got a seat on m flight home.
B. I secured a seat on my flight home.
C. The airline confirm a seat on my flight home.
D. It was necessary to confirm swat on my flight back home.
78. Mary should never have been allowed to try to swim in the sea alone.
A. When Mary let to swim in the sea alone, she said new what she was doing.
B. It would probably be wrong to let Mary swims in the sea on her own.
C. No one could have stopped Mary from trying to swim in the sea by herself.
D. Someone ought to have stopped Mary from attempting to swim in the sea on her own.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
79. He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.
A. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me.
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B. He cannot lend me the boo until he has finished reading it.
C. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.
D. As long as he cannot finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.
80. I did not arrive in time. I was not able to see her off.
A. She had left because I was not on time.
B. I did not go there, so I could not see her off.
C. I was not early enough to see her off.
D. I arrive very late so say goodbye to her.
Read the following passage ad mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Postsecondary institutions and private schools are corporations under U.S law. They are approved
to operate as non-profit, for-profit, or public corporations (31)_____ education and training.
Increasingly, state authorities are requiring approved educational providers to apply for and receive
accreditation as a condition of final and continued approval.
As corporate entities, U.S institutions are internally self-governing and are (32)_____ to make
property, facilities, equipment, and utilities transactions; make their own personnel decisions; decide
whom to admit to study and to graduate; (33)_____ their own funds from outside sources, enter into
contracts and compete for grants; and do most of the other things that corporations do. Institutions
compete (34)_____ one another for students, research funding, faculty, and other benefits. Public
institutions may compete within the same state or territory for budget appropriations. It is the corporate
nature of institutions and the competition within the system tat (35)_____ Americans to refer to the
concept of the educational or academic marketplace – an important distinctive element of the way U.S
education is organized.
81. A. provide B. provision C. provide D. providing

82. A. capable B. able C. probable D. possible
83. A. rise B. raise C. call D. lend
84. A. with B. to C. for D. at
85. A. lets B. cause C. prevents D. makes
I read with interest the article on American families. In general, I agree with it, but there are some
important things it left out. It didn’t tell me the reader much about the life of a househusband. It’s not
any easy life. I know, because I’m now a househusband myself. A househusband has to change many
of his ideas and his ways.
First of all, he has to change to way h thinks about time. Before I was a househusband, I worked
full-time for the New York Time. I was a reporter, and time was always important. We had to finish our
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articles quickly and give them to the editor. Everyone was always in a hurry. This is the way, many
other men work too. Businessmen lawyers, bankers, and doctors all have to work quickly.
At home it’s different. The househusband cannot be in a hurry all the time. If you rush around,
you will make everyone unhappy! The children will be unhappy because they don’t understand. For
them, time is not important. Your wife will be unhappy because the children are unhappy. You will be
unhappy, too, because they are all unhappy. So you have to learn to slow down. That is the first and
most important rule for a househusband.
There is something else the househusband must learn. You must learn to show how you feel
about things. At work, men usually do not talk about feelings. If they do, people think they are strange.
So, many men are not used to telling anyone about their feelings. They do not know how to talk about
their anger, worries, or love. But children need to know how you feel. They need to know how much
you love them. If you are angry, they need to know why. Your wife also needs o now about your
feelings. If you do not say anything, your family may get the wrong idea. Then there may be serious
problem.
People talk a lot about househusbands these days. Usually they talk about men doing the
housework, the cooking, cleaning, and shopping. But in my opinion, these are the easiest things to
learn. It was much harder for me to change the way I think and the way I act with my family. I think,
other men will also find this harder, but, like me, will find it necessary if they want to have a happy
family.
86. What is this article is mainly about?

A. fathers and children B. life as a househusband
C. ideas about time D. American families
87. At work, most people _____.
A. have to hurry B. take their time
C. have lots of time D. have to slow down
88. The word rush in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____
A. to do things more slowly B. move about hurriedly
C. shout loudly and angrily D. spend time idly
89. What does the househusband have to learn?
A. to do things more slowly. B. to do things more quickly.
C. the important of time. D. how to understand his work.
90. According to the passage, children _____
A. are usually unhappy. B. are always in a hurry.
C. usually don’t think time is important. D. don’t know how to show their feelings.
91. What does the word they in paragraph 4 refers to?
A. strange people at work B. men who talk about feelings
C. men as househusband D. men who do not talk about feelings
92. It can be inferred from the passage that Ted think _____
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A. learning about housework is easy.
B. learning about housework is problem.
C. cooking is the easiest thing to learn.
D. being a househusband is easy.
According to some accounts, the first optical telescope was accidentally invented in the 1600s by
children who put two lenses together while playing with them in a Dutch optical shop. The owner of
the hop, Hans Lippershey, looked through the lenses and was amazed by the way they made the nearby
church look so much larger. Soon after that, he invented a device that he called a “looker”, a long thin
tube where light passed in straight from the front lens to the viewing at the other and of the tube. In
1608 he tried to sell his invention unsuccessfully. In the same year, someone described the “looker” to
the Italian scientist Galileo, who made his own version of the device. In 1610 Galileo used his verso to
make observation of the Moon, the planet Jupiter, and the Milky Way. In April of 1611, Galileo shoed
his device to guests at a banquet in his honor. One of the guests suggested a name for the device:
telescope.
When Isaac Newton began using Galileo’s telescope more than a century later, he noticed a
problem. The type of telescope that Galileo designed is call a refractor because the front lens bends, or
refracts the light. However, the curved front lens also caused the light to be separated into colors. This
meant that when Newton looked through the refracting telescope, the images of bright objects appeared
with a ring of colors around them. This sometimes interfered with viewing. He solved this problem by
designing a new type of telescope that used a curved mirror. This mirror concentrated the light and
reflected of light to the eyepiece at the other end of the telescope. Because Newton used a mirror, has
telescope was called a reflector.
Very much larger optical telescopes can now be found in many parts of the world, built on hills
and mountains far from city lights. the world’s largest refracting telescope is located at the Yerkes
Observatory in Williams Bay, Wisconsin. Another telescope stand on Mount Palomar in California.
This huge reflecting telescope was for many years the largest reflecting telescope in the world until an
even larger reflecting telescope was built in the Caucasus Mountains. A fourth famous reflector
telescope, the Keck Telescope situated on a mountain in Hawaii, does not use a single large mirror to
collect the light. Instead, the Keck uses the combined light that falls in thirty-six mirrors.
Radio telescopes, like optical telescopes, allow astronomers to collect data from outer space, but
they are different in important ways. First of all, they look very different because instead of light
waves, they collect radio waves. Thus, I the place of lenses or mirrors, radio telescopes employ bowl-
shaped disks that resemble huge TV satellite dishes. Also, apart from their distinctive appearance, radio
telescopes and optical telescopes use different methods to record the information they collect. Optical
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telescopes use cameras to take photographs of visible object, while radio telescopes use receivers to
record radio waves from distant objects in space.
93. What can be inferred about the first optical telescope?

A. It was bought by children. B. It was invented in America.
C. It was sold by a shop owner. D. It was invented by accident.
94. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Hans Lippershey?
A. He owned a shop. B. He was Dutch.
C. He sold his invention in 1608. D. He got his idea of the telescope from the kids in his
shop.
95. When was Galileo’s invention called “telescope”?
A. in 1611 B. in 1610 C. in 1608 D. in 1600
96. What did Newton notice about Galileo’s telescope when he used it?
97. What did Newton do with Galileo’s telescope?
A. He called it reflector. B. He sent it back to Galileo.
C. He improved it. D. He stopped using it after his notice.
98. When did Newton start to use Galileo’s telescope?
99. Where does the largest reflecting telescope stand?
100. Which of the following can both optical and radio telescope do?
A. Taking photographs of visible objects. B. Allowing a collection of data from outer space.
C. Collecting radio waves. D. Collecting light waves.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in each of the following questions.
51. A. reside B. conserve C. resume D. preserve

52. A. ploughs B. photographs C. gas D. laughs
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three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following question.
53. A. phenomenon B. military C. exhibit D. curriculum
54. A. powerful B. substance C. basement D. celestial
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the two questions.
55. The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer’s behavior.
56. The newspaper reporters bear out what the Minister told yesterday.
A. define B. confirm C. support D. complain
meaning to underlined word(s) in each of the two questions.
57. Unless you have been very lucky, you have undoubtedly experienced events in your life that
made you cry.
A. certainly B. questionably C. absolutely D. definitely
58. His boss has enough of his impudence and doesn’t want to hire him anymore.
A. respect B. rudeness C. obedience D. agreement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
59. Exploration of the Solar System is continuing, and at the present rate of progress all the planets
will have been contacted within the near 50 years.
A. continuing B. progress C. within D. near
60. Thanks to new techniques, canning goods now have a much longer shelf life.
A. Thanks to B. techniques C. canning goods D. a much longer
61. Florence Sabin is recognized not only for her theoretical research in anatomy and physiology
and for her work in public health.
A. recognized B. for C. anatomy D. and
62. It never ______ his mind that his dishonesty would be discovered.
A. crossed B. came C. spunk D. passed
63. The more ______ you look, the better impression you will make on your interviewer.
A. confine B. confident C. confidently D. confidence
64. I can’t decide if I ______ you till I ______ when they ______.
A. will join – will know – will leave B. will join – know – leave
C. join – will know – leave C. join – will know – will leave
65. ______ broken into when we were away on holiday.
A. It was our house B. We had our house
C. Thieves had our house D. Our house had
66. Could not ______ the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.
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A. hold on B. make off C. get along D. take in
67. There is now much ______ water in the lake than there was last year.
A. less B. lesser C. fewer D. smaller
68. Hurry up if you want to buy something because there is ______ left.
A. hardly anything B. a great deal C. hardly little D. hardly something
69. Elderly people, ______, require constant attention.
A. a large number’s depending on government aid.
B. and many of them depend on the government to finance them
C. who are dependent many of them on the financing from the government
D. many of them who are financially dependent on the government
70. Coming unexpectedly in to the room, ______.
A. so she made the intruder get surprise
B. he appearance took the intruder by surprise
C. it surprise the intruder with her appearance
D. she took the intruder by surprise
71. I’m sorry I offended you. I ______ what I said.
A. take back B. get back C. come back D. get away
72. The following day she left ______ well to go to work.
A. suffice B. sufficient C. sufficiently D. sufficiency
73. In one year’s time, she ______ in this company for 15 years.
A. will be working B. will have been working
C. will work D. has worked
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following
exchanges.
74. – Dad: “I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!” – Son: “______”
A. Have a nice day! B. The same to you!
C. What a lovely toy! Thanks. D. What a pity!
75. “When can you get it at all done? – “______”
A. How does next Monday sound? B. Two hours ago.
C. I used to do it on Monday. D. How much time to I need
76. Both English and Vietnamese use Roman scripts, but the latter is a tonal language.
A. Later both Vietnamese and English use Roman scripts.
B. English has tones nut Vietnamese does not, although they both use Roman scripts.
C. Although English and Vietnamese are both Roman scripts, the former is not a tonal
language while the latter is.
D. Vietnamese and English which use Roman scripts later become tonal languages.
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77. If I had known about their wedding plan earlier I would have been able to make time to attend
the reception party.
A. I knew their wedding would be planned earlier so I made some time to attend the
morning reception.
B. I wish I had known their wedding plan sooner so that I could arrange time to attend the
morning reception.
C. I don’t know their wedding plan earlier so I can’t make time to attend their morning
reception.
D. When I knew their wedding party, it was too late to attend the morning reception.
78. “You did a great job! I’m proud of your achievement” said the woman to her grandchild.
A. The woman said that her grandchild’s job was great and she was so proud of his work
achievement.
B. The woman told her grandchild that she was proud of his achievement at work.
C. The woman told her grandchild to do a great job so that she could be proud of his
achievement.
D. The woman complimented her grandchild on his achievement.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combine each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
79. I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books. I don’t get muddled up.
A. Having two separate books at home and at work helps me avoid getting muddled up.
B. I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books so that I don’t get muddled up.
C. I do not get muddled up sue to the separate between homework and schoolwork.
D. I would get muddled up if I did not separate homework from schoolwork.
80. Some economists argue that new technology cause unemployment. Others feel that it allows
A. Some economists argue that new technology cause unemployment, so others fell that it
B. Arguing that new technology cause unemployment, other economists feel that it allows
C. Beside the argument that new technology cause unemployment, some economists feel
D. Some economists argue that new technology cause unemployment, whereas others feel
Read the following passage and make the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blank from 31 to 35.
In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816
million pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If
(31)______ end to end, the empty cereal boxes from one year’s consumption would (32)______ to the
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moon and back. One point three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American
television every year at a(n) (33)______ of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile manufacturers
spend more money on television advertising than makers of breakfast cereal.
(34)______ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and some
contain more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many
cereals appear much healthier than they really are by “fortifying” them with vitamins and minerals. Oh,
(35)______- you now have vitamin-fortifies sugar!
Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how high sugar appears on the
ingredient list. Then check the “Nutrition facts” panel.
81. A. laying B. lay C. laid D. to lay

82. A. prolong B. stretch C. contact D. reach
83. A. cot B. charge C. average D. expense
84. A. Mostly B. Furthermost C. Most D. Almost
85. A. beautiful B. gorgeous C. lovely D. charming
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate to
Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an astronomer, he was
a scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also deeply
interested in exploring the unknown depths of the ocean. One of his lesser-known accomplishments
that were quite remarkable was his design for a diving the bell that facilitated exploration of the watery
depths.
The diving bell that Halley design had a major advantage over the diving bells were in use prior
to his Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so divers had
to surface when the air inside the bell ran low. Halley’s bell was an improvement in that its design
allowed for an additional supply of fresh air that enable a crew of divers to remain underwater for
several hours.
The diving contraption that Halley designed was the shape of a bell that measured three feet cross
the top and five feet across the bottom and could hold several divers comfortable: it was open at the
bottom so that divers could swim in and out at will. The bell was built of wood, which was first heavily
tarred to make it water repellent an was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make the bell
heavy enough to sink in water. The bell shape held air inside for the divers to breathe as the bell sank to
the bottom.
The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this
improvement that made Halley’s bells superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in the
bell, air was also supplied to the divers from a lea barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor close to the
bell itself. Air flowed through a leather pipe from the lead barrel on the ocean floor to the bell. The
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diver could breathe the air from a position inside the bell, or he could move around outside the bell
wearing a diving suit that consisted of a lead bell-shape helmet with a glass viewing window and a
leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying fresh air from the diving bell to the helmet.
86. Which of the following best expresses the subject of this passage?
A. Halley’s work as an astronomer
B. Halley’s many different interests
C. Halley’ invention of a contraption for diving
D. Halley’s experiences as a diver
87. Halley’s bell was better than its predecessors because it ______.
A. was bigger B. provided more air
C. weighed less D. could rise more quickly
88. The expression ‘ran low’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. move slowly B. had been replenished
C. sank to the bottom D. was almost exhausted
89. How long could divers stay underwater in Halley’s bell?
A. Just a few seconds B. Only a few minutes
C. For hours at a time D. For days on end
90. It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley’s bell _______.
A. was wider at the top than at the bottom
B. was made of tarred wood
C. was completely enclosed
D. could hold one than one diver
91. The expression “at will” in paragraph 3 could best replaces by _______.
A. in the future B. as they wanted
C. with great speed D. upside down
92. It can be inferred from the passage that, were Halley’s bell not covered with lead, it would
_______.
A. float B. get wet
C. trap the divers D. suffocate the divers
Read the following passage an mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each question from 43 to 50.
The Timber rattlesnakes, one widespread throughout the eastern United States, is now on the
endangered species list and is extinct in two eastern state in which it once thrived. Compared to its
Western cousins, the Timber rattlesnakes may be especially vulnerable because of certain behaviors
adapted for coping with the cold climate in which it live.
Rattlesnakes are generally found in warm climates because, like all reptiles, they cannot generate
or regulate their own body temperature internally and must rely on the sun’s warmth for heat. But
Timber rattlesnakes migrated into colder northern areas about 8,000 years ago when glaciers retreated.
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In these northern regions, the snakes developed a number of adaptive strategies to survive, but
ultimately these behaviors make them more vulnerable to human predation, their main threat.
One survival strategy the snakes have developed is hibernation. For approximately eight months
of the year, the rattlers remain motionless in deep frost-free crevices, with their body temperature
dropping as low as 40 degrees. In the spring, when they emerge, they must warm their chilled bodies
by sunning for three or four days on rocks in the open. this behavior coupled with the fact that Timber
rattlesnakes tend to concentrate in large numbers at their wintering sites, make them easy prey.
Gestating females are particularly vulnerable because they spend much of their time basking in the sun
in order to producing live young only every three to five years. If a frost or cold spell comes late in the
year, the entire litter of 6 to 12 young may die.
Efforts are underway to protect the Timber rattlesnakes and its habitats from further human
depredation, but in many states it is already too late.

A. Why Timber rattlesnakes hibernate
B. How Timber rattlesnakes are surviving
C. How Timber rattlesnakes adapted to northern climates
D. Why Timber rattlesnakes are endangered
94. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the world “vulnerable” in the first paragraph?
A. Unprotected B. Impervious C. Insensitive . Deprived
95. Which of the following in the true about Timber rattlesnakes?
A. They migrated to eastern states
B. They migrated northern during a warming climate
C. They migrated to escape a cold climate
D. They migrated to the South to seek a warmer climate
96. Which of the following best replace the word “emerge” in the third paragraph?
A. Come out B. Set off C. Get up D. See through
97. In which of the following places might a person be most likely to find Timber rattlesnakes the
spring?
A. In the woods B. I meadows C. In bushy areas D. In canyons
98. The phrase “easy prey” in the third paragraph could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. Relaxed B. Protecting C. Victims D. Sociable
99. Which of the following word can bet replace the word “basking” in the third paragraph?
A. Washing B. Eating C. Sleeping D. Lying
100. Which of the following does NOT contribute to the rattlesnakes being an
endangered animal?
A. Hibernating for eight months B. Basking in the sun
C. Congregating together D. Having long intervals between births
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NĂM 2021 - ĐỀ SỐ 41
other three in pronunciation in each of the following passage.
51. A. broad B. load C. road D. boat

52. A. exercise B. exempt C. execute D. exclamation
53. A. diverse B. current C. justice D. series

54. A. contrary B. interview C. document D. attendance
55. You never really know where you are with her as she just blows hot and cold.
A. keeps talking B. keeps talking things
C. keeps changing her mood D. keeps testing
56. Variations in the color of the seawater from blue to green seem to be caused by high or
low concentrations of salt.
A. changes B. descriptions C. measures D. clarity

57. The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the
sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war.
A. happiness B. worry and sadness
C. pain and sorrow D. loss Giaoandethitienganh.info
58. Nowadays, young children often appreciate picture stories.
A. devalue B. estimate C. value D. enjoy
59. Unlike other architects of the early modern movement, Alva Alto stressed informality,
personal expression, romantic, and regionality in his work.
A. unlike B. other architects C. informality D. romantic
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60. It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high-rise
apartment block in Kuala Lumpur last week.
A. it announced B. would be held C. high-rise D. block
61. It is important that you turned off the heater every morning before you leave for class.
A. it B. turned off C. before D. leave for
questions.
62. I’m sorry! I didn’t break that vase on _______.

A. my mind B. time C. purpose D. intention
63. The success of the party was mainly due to the presence of several _______.
A. celebrations B. celebrities C. celebrates D. celebrated
64. Hieroglyphics _______ on the walls of caves provide scientists with important details on
prehistoric man.
A. painted B. were painted C. have been painted D. that they painted
65. _______ to school by bus as they are not old enough to ride motorbikes.
A. many the students go B. Many a student goes
C. Many of the students goes D. Much students go
66. He has been given work as a window cleaner even though he has no _______.
A. head B. skill C. ability D. balance
67. Her new novel is _______ out next month.
A. bringing B. going C. coming D. taking
68. Make sure you book a ticket in _______.
A. ahead B. advance C. forward D. before
69. I’m in two _______ about whether to go to the wedding or not.
A. brains B. minds C. thoughts D. heads
70. I can’t help _______ that Charlotte would look better if she lost some weight.
A. to thinking B. to think C. thinking D. think
71. I hope I can _______ you to be there if I need any help.
A. let know B. make out C. get through D. count on
72. The explanation _______ for the problems didn’t satisfy anybody.
A. giving B. which gave C. given D. having given
73. It’s about time you _______ ourselves a job.
A. got B. get C. will get D. had got
phrase best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The expression on your face can usually dramatically alter your feelings and perceptions,
and it has been proved that deliberately smiling or frowning can create corresponding emotional
responses. The idea was first (24) _______ by a French physiologist, Israel Waynbaum, in 1906.
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He believed that different facial (25) _______ affected the flow of blood to the brain, and that
this could create positive or negative feelings. A happy smile or irrepressible laughter increased
the blood flow and contributed to joyful feelings. But sad, angry expressions decreased the flow
of oxygen-carrying blood, and created a vicious (26) _______ of gloom and depression by
effectively starving the brain of essential fuel.
Psychologist Robert Zajone rediscovered this early subject, and suggests that the
temperature of the brain could affect the production and synthesis of neurotransmitters, which
definitely influence our moods and energy levels. He argues that an impaired blood flow could
not only deprive the brain of oxygen, but also create further chemical imbalance (27) _______
inhibiting these vital hormonal messages. Zajone goes on to propose that our brains remember
smiling associated with being happy, and that by deliberately smiling through your tears you can
(28) _______ your brain to release uplifting neurotransmitters replacing a depression condition
with a happier one. People suffering from psychosomatic ailment, depression and anxiety states
could benefit from simply exercising their zygomatic muscles, which pull the corners of the
mouth up and back to form a smile several times an hour.
74. A. put off B. put down C. put by D. put forward

75. A. aspects B. looks C. expressions D. appearances
76. A. cycle B. spiral C. circle D. ring
77. A. by B. without C. when D. from
78. A. make B. persuade C. allow D. decide
The concept of obtaining fresh water from iceberg that are towed to populated areas and
arid religions of the world was once treated as a joke more appropriate to cartoons than real life.
But now it is being considered quite seriously by many nations, especially since scientists have
warned that the human race will outgrow its fresh water supply faster than it runs out of food.
Glaciers are a possible source of fresh water that have been overlooked until recently.
Three-quarters of the Earth’s fresh water supply is still tied up in glacial ice, a reservoir of
untapped fresh water so immense that it could sustain all the rivers of the world for 1,000 years.
Floating on the oceans every year are 7,659 trillion metric tons of ice encased in 10,000 icebergs
that break away from the polar ice caps, more than ninety percent of them from Antarctica.
Huge glaciers that stretch over the shallow continental shelf give birth to icebergs
throughout the year. Icebergs are not like sea ice, which is formed when the sea itself freezes;
rather, they are formed entirely on land, breaking off when glaciers spread over the sea. As they
drift away from the polar region, icebergs sometimes move mysteriously in a direction opposite
to the wind, pulled by subsurface currents. Because they melt more slowly than smaller pieces
of ice, icebergs have been known to drift as far north as 35 degrees south of the equator in the
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Atlantic Ocean. To corral them and steer them to parts of the world where they are needed would
not be too difficult.
The difficulty arises in other technical matters, such as the prevention of rapid melting in
warmer climates and the funneling of fresh water to shore in great volume. But even if the
icebergs lots half of their volume in towing, the water they could provide would be far cheaper
than that produced by desalination, or removing salt from water.

A. The movement of glaciers B. Icebergs as a source of fresh water
C. Future water shortages D. The future of the world’s rivers
80. The word “appropriate” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. proper B. enjoyable C. suitable D. deccent
81. According to the author, most of the world’s fresh water is to be found in _______.
A. oceans B. rivers C. glaciers D. reservoirs
82. The word “currents” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. pulls B. waves C. weather D. flows of water
83. How are icebergs formed?
A. They break off from glaciers B. Seawater freezers
C. Rivers freeze D. Small pieces of floating ice converge
84. With which of the following ideas would the author be likely to agree?
A. Towing icebergs to dry areas is economically possible.
B. Desalination of water is the best way to obtain drinking water.
C. Using water from icebergs is a very short-term solution to water shortages.
D. Icebergs could not be towed very far before they would melt.
85. The word “that” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. the volume B. the water C. the iceberg D. the towing
In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew when I started as a
counselor and professor 25 years ago. College has always been demanding both academically
and socially. But students now are less mature and often not ready for the responsibility of being
in college.
It is really too easy to point the finger at parents who protect their children from life’s
obstacles. Parents, who handle every difficulty and every other responsibility for their children
from writing admission essays to picking college courses, certainly may contribute to their
children’s lack of coping strategies. But we can look even more broadly to the social trends of
today.
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How many people do you know who are on medication to prevent anxiety or depression?
The number of students who arrive at college already medicated for unwanted emotions has
increased dramatically in the past 10 years. We, as a society, don’t want to “feel” anything
unpleasant and we certainly don’t want our children to :suffer”.
The resulting problem is that by not experiencing negative emotions, one does not learn the
necessary skills to tolerate and negotiate adversity. As a psychologist, I am well aware of the fact
some individuals suffer from depression and anxiety and can benefit from treatment, but I
question the growing number of medicated adolescents today.
Our world is more stressful in general because of the current economic and political
realities, but I don’t believe that the college experience itself is more intense today than that of
the past 10 years. What I do think is that many students are often not prepared to be young
“adults” with all the responsibilities of life.
What does this mean for college faculty and staff? We are required to assist in the basic
parenting of these students – the student who complains that her professor didn’t remind her of
the due date for an assignment that was clearly listed on the syllabus and the student who cheats
on an assignment in spite of careful instructions about plagiarism.
As college professors, we have to explain what it means to be an independent college

student before we can even begin to teach. As parents and teachers we should expect young
people to meet challenges. To encourage them in this direction, we have to step back and let
them fail and pick themselves up and move forward. This approach needs to begin at an early
age so that college can actually be a passage to independent adulthood.
86. According to the writer, students today are different from those she knew in that they are
_______.
A. not so academic B. responsible for their work
C. too ready for college D. not as mature
87. The word “handle” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. point at B. deal with C. lend a hand to D. gain benefits from
88. According to the writer, students’ difficulties to cope with college life are partly due to
_______.
A. the lack of financial support
B. the over-parenting from parents
C. the absence of parents’ protection
D. the lack of parental support
89. The phrase “on medication” in paragraph 3 is similar in meaning to _______.
A. receiving medical treatment
B. suffering anxiety or depression
C. doing medical research
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D. studying medicine at college
90. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. The college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years.
B. Our world is more stressful because of the current economic and political situation.
C. College faculty and staff are required to help in the parenting of problematic students.
D. Our society certainly doesn’t want our children to experience unpleasant things.
A. college professors B. young people
C. teachers D. parents
92. According to the writer, failure in life and less support from parents will _______.
A. defeat students from the very beginning
B. help students to learn to stand on their own feet
C. discourage students and let them down forever
D. allow students to learn the first lesson in their lives
93. What is probably the writer’s attitude in the passage?
A. indifferent B. praising C. critical D. humorous
exchanges.
94. Thanks a lot for a lovely dinner. Bye! - _______

A. You will be welcome! B. Never mind!
C. Safe and sound! D. You must come again!
95. “Do you find it interesting to go to the cinema on your own?” – “_______”
A. No, not at all. B. What a pity!
C. Never mind. D. You’re welcome.
96. As long as you stay calm, you have nothing to fear from the interview.
A. You have remained calm for a long time in spite of your fear of the interview.
B. Interviews are only intimidating for people who are not extremely calm.
C. Provided you do not get nervous, the interview won’t go badly for you.
D. Even if you are afraid of the interview, it is important not to let it show.
97. “I will let you know the answer by the end of this week,” Tim said to Jane.
A. Tim suggested giving Jane the answer by the end of the week.
B. Tim promised to give Jane the answer by the end of the week.
C. Tim insisted on letting Jane know the answer by the end of the week.
D. Tim offered to give Jane the answer by the end of the week.
98. The friends promised to stand by each other through thick and thin.
A. The friends promised to stand together all their life.
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B. The friends promised to work together in spite of all difficulties.
C. The friends promised to stand by each other whatever happened.
D. The friends promised to hold on together if possible.
99. He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.
D. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
100. She buys a lot of new dresses every month. She always dresses
shabbily.
A. However a lot of new dresses she buys every month, she always dresses shabbily.
B. Many as new dresses she buys every month, she always dresses shabbily.
C. She always dresses shabbily although she buys a lot of new dresses every month.
D. However many new dresses she buys every month, she always dresses shabbily.
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ANH NĂM 2021 - ĐỀ SỐ 42
51. A. acronym B. agency C. became D. aviation
52. A. crescent B. event C. recent D. decent
53. A. environmental B. conservatively C. approximately D. considerably
54. A. bamboo B. cactus C. camel D. hummock
55. Early poverty has taught Sam to stand on his own feet.
A. be independent B. resort to burglary
C. be dependent on others D. be a good farmer
56. The goalkeeper can also be ejected for twenty seconds if a major foul is committed.
A. advanced B. sprinted C. played D. excluded
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57. Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection, but for
physicists it bordered on the miracle.
A. adjustment B. agility C. flexibility D. inflexibility
58. I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.
A. cleverly B. reasonably C. gently D. brutally
60. I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs.
A. object the idea B. the final year C. working D. jobs.
61. It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking.
A. it is believed B. in the near future
C. be used to doing D. such as
questions.
62. I’m sorry that I giggled so much. I was in rather a silly _______.
A. temper B. mood C. feeling D. outlook
63. The U.S. postal service policy for check approval includes a requirement that two pieces
of identification _______.
A. be presented B. presented C. must presented D. for presentation
64. Mr. Brown _______ in the army from 1960 to 1980.
A. had served B. has served C. had been serving D. served
65. Such _______ that we all felt num.
A. a cold weather was B. was a cold weather
C. cold the weather D. was cold weather
66. I know his name, but I can’t recall it at the moment. It’s on the tip of _______.
A. tongue B. brain C. mind D. memory
67. I don’t know what we are going to _______ if I lose this job.
A. get by B. live on C. give away D. grow up
68. That necklace is wonderful! It must have _______ you a fortune!
A. done B. spent C. charged D. cost
69. In Britain, most shops close at 6 pm, _______ in other countries they often open in the
evening, too.
A. despite B. moreover C. nevertheless D. whereas
70. Rarely _______ designer labels at affordable prices.
A. you find B. do you find C. find you D. are you find
71. I’m afraid I’m a little short _______ money this month, so I can’t lend you any.
A. of B. from C. with D. for
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72. Local residents _______ to the new power station in their area.
A. objection B. objective C. object D. objectivity
73. I know we had an argument, but now I’d quite like to _______.
Rural America is diverse in many ways. As we have seen, no one industry dominates the
rural economy, no single pattern of population decline or growth exists for all rural areas, and no
statement about improvements and gaps in well-being holds true for all rural people.
Many of these differences are regional in nature. That is, rural areas within a particular
geographic region of the country often tend to be similar (24) _______ each other and different
from areas in another region. Some industries, for example, are (25) _______ with different
regions – logging and sawmills in the Pacific Northwest and New England, manufacturing in the
Southeast and Midwest, and farming in the Great Plains. Persistent poverty also has a regional
pattern, concentrated primarily in the Southeast. Other differences follow no regional pattern.
Areas that rely heavily on the services industry are located throughout rural America, as are rural
areas that have little access to advanced telecommunications services. Many of these differences,
regional and non-regional, are the result of a (26) _______ of factors including the availability of
natural (27) _______; distance from and access to major metropolitan areas and the information
and services found there; transportation and shipping facilities; political history and structure;
and the racial, ethnic, and (28) _______ makeup of the population.
74. A. of B. with C. to D. from
75. A. added B. associated C. compared D. related
76. A. cooperation B. combination C. link D. connection
77. A. resources B. habitats C. sources D. materials
78. A. cultured B. culturally C. cultural D. culture
Most of us know a little about how babies learn to talk. From the time infants are born,
they hear language because their parents talk to them all the time. Between the agees of seven
and ten months, most infants begin to make sounds. They repeat the same sounds over and over
again. This is called babbling. When babies babble, they are practicing their language.
What happens, though, to children who cannot hear? How do deaf children learn to
communicate? Recently, doctors have learned that deaf babies with their hands. Laura Ann
Petitto, a psychologist, observed three hearing infants with English-speaking parents and two
deaf infants with deaf parents using American Sign Language (ASL) to communicate. Dr. Petitto
studied the babies three times: at 10, 12, and 14 months. During this time, children really begin
to develop their language skills.
After watching and videotaping the children for several hundred hours, the psychologist
and her assistants made many important observations. For example, they saw that the hearing
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children made varied motions with their hands. However, there appeared to be no pattern to these
motions. The deaf babies also made different movements with their hands, but these movements
were more consistent and deliberate. The deaf babies seemed to make the same hand movements
over and over again. During the four-month period, the deaf babies’ hand motions started to
resemble some basic hand-shapes used in ASL. The children also seemed to prefer certain hand-
shapes.
Hearing infants start first with simple syllable babbling, then put more syllables together to
sound like real sentences and questions. Apparently, deaf babies follow this same pattern, too.
first, they repeat simple hand-shapes. Next. They form some simple hand signs and use these
movements together to resemble ASL sentences.
Linguists believe that our ability for language is innate. In other words, humans are born
with the capacity for language: It does not matter if we are physically able to speak or not.
Language can be expressed in different ways – for instance, by speech or by sign. Dr. Petitto
believes this theory and wants to prove it. She plans to study hearing children who have one deaf
parent and one hearing parent. She wants to see what happens when babies have the opportunity
to learn both sign language and speech. Does the human brain prefer speech? Some of these
studies of hearing babies who have one deaf parent and one hearing parent show that the babies
babble equally with their hands and their voices. They also produce their first words, both
spoken and signed, at about the same time. More studies in the future may prove that the sign
system of the deaf is the physical equivalent of speech.
79. According to the paragraph 1, babies begin to babble _______.
A. at their first moment after birth B. at their first experience of language
C. when they are more than 6 months old D. when they first hear their parents talk to
them
80. The phrase “the babies” in paragraph 2 refers to _______ in the study.
A. the hearing infants B. the deaf infants
C. the hearing and deaf infants D. the disabled infants
81. It is stated in paragraph 3 that both the deaf and the hearing children made movements
with their hands, but _______.
A. only the hearing children made different movements
B. the deaf children made less consistent hand movements
C. the hearing children only repeated the same hand motions
D. only the deaf children repeated the same hand motions
82. According to paragraph 4, hearing infants learn to talk first by _______.
A. hand-shapes B. babbling C. hand motions D. original
83. The word “real” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
A. meaningful B. formal C. general D. original
84. It is mentioned in the last paragraph that Dr. Petitto plans to study _______.
A. what happens when babies have the opportunity to learn both speech and sign
language
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B. whether all children speak and make motions with their hands at the same time
C. the assumption that the human brain prefers sign language to speech
D. whether the sign system of the deal is the physical equivalent of speech
85. Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Education for Deaf Children B. How do Children Master Language?
C. Language: Is It Always Spoken? D. American Sign Language
Ranked as the number one beverage consumed worldwide, tea takes the lead over coffee in
both popularity and production with 5 million metric tons of tea produced annually. Although
much of this tea is consumed in Asian, European and African countries, the United States drinks
its fair share. According to estimates by the Tea Council of the United States, tea is enjoyed by
no less than half of the U.S. population on any given day. Black tea or green tea – iced, spiced,
or instant – tea drinking has spurred a billion-dollar business with major tea producer in Africa
and South America and thoughtout Asia.
Tea is made from the leaves of an evergreen plant, Camellia saneness, which grows tall
and lush in tropical region. On tea plantation, the plant is kept trimmed to approximately four
feet high and as new buds called flush appear, they are plucked off by hand. Event in today’s
world of modern agricultural machinery, hand harvesting continues to be the preferred method.
Ideally, only the top two leaves and a bud should be picked. This new growth produces the
highest quality tea.
After being harvested, tea leaves are laid out on long drying racks, called withering racks,
for 18 to 20 hours. During this process, the tea softens and become limp. Next, dependent on the
type of tea being product, the leaves may be crushed or chopped to release flavor, and then
fermented under controlled condition of heat and humidity. For green tea, the whole leaves are
often steamed to retain their green color, and the fermentation process is skipped. Producing
black teas requires fermentation during which the tea leaves begin darken. After fermentation,
black tea is dried in vast to produce its rich brown or black color.
No one knows when or how tea became popular, but legend has it that tea as a beverage
was discovered in 2737B.C. by Emperor Shen Nung of China when leaves from camellia
dropped into his drinking water as it was boiling over the fire. As the story goes, Emperor Shen
Nung drank the resulting liquid and proclaimed the drink to be most nourishing and refreshing.
Though this account cannot be documented, it is thought that tea drinking probably originated in
China and spread to other part is of Asia, then Europe, and ultimately to America colonies
around 1650.
With about half the caffeine content of coffee, tea is often chosen by those who want to
reduce, but not necessarily eliminate their caffeine intake. Some people find that tea is less
acidic than coffee and therefore easier on the stomach. Others have become interested in tea
drinking since the National Cancer Institute publishes its finding on the antioxidant properties of
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tea. But whether tea is enjoyed for it perceived health benefit, its flavor, or as a social drink,
teacups continue to be filled daily with the world’ most popular beverage.
86. Based on the passage, what is implied about tea harvesting?
A. It is totally done with the assistance of modern agricultural machinery.
B. It is longer done in China.
C. The method has remained nearly the same for a long time.
D. The method involves trimming the uppermost branches of the plant.
87. What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 of the passage refer to ?
A. tea pickers’ B. new buds C. evergreen plant D. tropical region
88. Which of the following is NOT true about the tea production process?
A. Black tea develops its dark color during fermentation and final drying.
B. Green tea requires a long fermentation process.
C. Green tea in often steamed to keep its color.
D. Black tea goes thought two drink phases during production.
89. The word “documented” in paragraph 4 could be best replace by which of following
word?
A. ignored B. proved C. stored D. kept
90. According to the passage, what is true about origin of tea drinking?
A. It began during the Shen Nung dynasty.
B. It may begun some time around 1950.
C. It is unknown when tea first become popular.
D. It was originally produced from Camilla plants in Europe.
91. The word “eliminate” in paragraph 5 could be best replace by which of following word?
A. decrease B. increase C. reduce D. remove
92. According to the passage, which may be the reason why someone would choose to drink
tea instead of coffee?
A. Because it’s easier to digest than coffee.
B. Because it has higher nutritional content than coffee.
C. Because it helps prevent cancer.
D. Because it has more caffeine coffee.
93. What best describes the topic of this passage?
A. Tea consumption and production.
B. The two most popular types of tea.
C. The benefits of tea consumption worldwide.
D. How tea is produced and brewed.
exchanges.
94. ‘I think the teacher should give us more exercise.’ – ‘_______’
A. Yes, let’s. B. OK.
C. That’s rubbish. D. That’s just what I was thinking.
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95. ‘What’s up with you?’ – ‘_______’
A. Nothing to say. B. I have a sore throat.
C. Yes, I want to see you. D. No trouble.
96. Tom has the ability to be a professional musician, but he’s too lazy to practice.
A. Tom is able to practice music lessons professionally though he is lazy.
B. As a professional musician, Tom is not lazy to practice music lessons.
C. Tom is talented but he’ll never be a professional musician as he doesn’t practice.
D. Though practicing lazily, Tom is a professional musician.
97. Being just on the point of closing the shop, the shop assistant was not happy with the
arrival of a late customer.
A. The assistant closed the shop very late because a customer turned up at the last
moment and he had to deal with her.
B. Although the shop assistant wasn’t pleased to have a customer as he was closing the
shop, he gave his service away.
C. The shop assistant was hurrying to close the shop, but just then, a customer arrived.
D. The shop assistant didn’t like it when a customer arrived just as he was closing the
shop.
98. Sue is such a good pianist that I’m surprised she didn’t go into music professionally.
A. Sue is so a good pianist that I’m surprised she didn’t go into music professionally.
B. So good is Sue that I’m surprised she didn’t go into music professionally.
C. Sue plays piano so good that I’m surprised she didn’t go into music professionally.
D. Sue plays the piano so well that I’m surprised she didn’t go into music professionally.
99. The man wore the gloves. He didn’t want to leave any fingerprints.
A. The man wore the gloves in order that his fingerprints would be taken.
B. His fingerprints would not be left unless the man wore the gloves.
C. The man wore the gloves so as not to leave any fingerprints.
D. In order to leave some fingerprints, the man wore the gloves.
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51. A. account B. amount C. mourning D. trout
52. A. resource B. resist C. resistance D. recycle
53. A. application B. advisable C. denial D. adventure
54. A. volunteer B. competition C. advantage D. capability
55. Aren’t you glad that we decided to eat at a restaurant tonight? This food is great!
A. to eat in B. to take out C. to eat out D. to go out
56. The potatoes have burned and stuck to the bottom of the pan.
A. the lowest inside surface B. the shortest below surface
C. the lowest beneath surface D. the shortest under surface
57. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
A. explicit B. implicit C. obscure D. odd
58. The council demolished the old town hall to make room for a new one.
A. made B. did C. started D. constructed
59. Many people found it is moving to see a nine-year-old Japanese boy desperately
searching for his family lost in the quake and tsunami of March 11, 2011.
A. it is moving B. a nine-year-old
C. desperately searching D. lost
60. She is among the few who wants to quit smoking instead of cutting down.
A. among B. wants C. smoking D. cutting down
61. Digital clocks, however precise, they cannot be perfectly accurate because the earth’s
rotation changes slightly over years.
A. they B. perfectly C. the D. slightly
62. The football match tomorrow evening will be broadcast _______ on TV and radio.
A. simultaneously B. communally
C. uniformly D. jointly
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63. The choir stood in four rows according to their _______ heights.
A. respected B. respective C. respectable D. respectful
64. Mr. Pike _______ English at our school for 20 years before he retired last year.
A. is teaching B. was teaching
C. has been teaching D. had been teaching
65. All work and no play _______.
A. makes Jack a dull boy B. makes a dull boy Jack
C. make Jack a dull boy D. make a dull boy Jack
66. Having been asked to speak at the conference, _______.
A. some notes were prepared for Dr. Clark
B. some notes were prepared by Dr. Clark
C. Dr. Clark prepared some notes
D. audiences were pleased to hear Dr. Clark
67. In front of the gate _______ the guard.
A. did B. does C. did stand D. stood
68. _______ an emergency arise, call 911.
A. Can B. Should C. Does D. Will
69. I can’t bear thinking back of that time. I’d rather _______ equally.
A. treat B. be treated C. have treated D. have been treated
70. Boys! Put your toys _______. It is time to go to bed. Don’t stay _______ late.
A. off/ an B. away/ up C. down/ off D. around/ for
71. We had a long way to go so we _______ off very early.
A. made B. set C. put D had
72. A relief _______ has been set up to help earthquake victims.
A. fund B. donation C. treasury D. collection
73. Make exercise part of your daily _______.
A. regularity B. chore C. routine D. frequency
74. Peter: “I’ve been awarded a scholarship to study in America.”
Kate: “Uh, really? _______!”
A. Take care of yourself B. Congratulations
C. You are always lucky D. Lucky as you are
75. A: “_______” – B: “Oh, that’s a good idea.”
A. How much time does it take? B. How many I help you?
C. How about going for a walk? D. How long will it last?
76. The writer Kate Millett was forced to stay in a psychiatric hospital by her family.
A. Problems with her family made the writer Kate Millett go to a psychiatric hospital.
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B. Together with her family, the writer Kate Millett was made to go into a psychiatric
hospital.
C. The writer Kate Millett’s family made her stay in a psychiatric hospital.
D. The family of the writer Kate Millett convinced her to remain in a psychiatric hospital.
77. Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test.
A. If she had read the reference books. She could finish the test.
B. Not having read the reference books, she couldn’t finish the test.
C. Although she didn’t read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.
D. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.
78. After Einstein’s theory of relativity, people began to perceive the universe in a different
way.
A. Einstein’s theory of relativity confirmed many ideas about how the universe began.
B. Until Einstein’s theory of relativity, people knew hardly anything about the universe.
C. Following Einstein’s theory of relativity, people realized that the universe was
changing constantly.
D. Einstein’s theory of relativity introduced people to a new manner of seeing the
universe.
79. We arrived at the airport. We realized all our passports were still at home.
A. It was until we arrived at the airport that we realized our passports were still at home.
B. We arrived at the airport and realized that our passports are still at home.
C. Not until had we arrived at the airport, we realized at our passports were still at home.
D. Not until we arrived at the airport did we realize that our passports were still at home.
80. The fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames, the building burned down
completely.
A. Since the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames, the building burned
down completely.
B. Had it not been for the fire-fighters’ every effort, the building would have burned
down completely.
C. Making every effort to put off the flames, the fire-fighters completely burned down the
building.
D. The building burned down completely though the fire-fighters made every effort to put
off the flames.
35.
There are several changes in the procedure for employees who wish to apply for vacant
positions within the company. These changes make it much easier for in-house employees to fill
vacancies that occur.
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First, the most important difference is that employees will now be notified of all available
positions are (31) _______ for the general public. Accordingly, all in-house candidates will be
interviewed (32) _______ we see any outside candidates. We will offer the job to outside
candidates only if no current employees are able to fill the position. (33) _______, under the new
procedure, in-house employees can be hired even if they don’t (34) _______ all job
requirements. Under our old policy, in-house employees had to meet all job qualifications in
order to obtain the vacant position. Now, however, employees who have proven (35) _______
dedicated to the company will be hired for a vacant position even if they are lacking some minor
qualifications; training will be provided. A third change involves recommendations. From now
on, employees do not need to be recommended for an in-house position before they apply.
81. A. taken B. given C. made D. advertised
82. A. before B. after C. then D. the same
83. A. When B. Second C. Finally D. Firstly
84. A. request B. hold C. meet D. fail
85. A. itself B. themselves C. their own D. employers
Hydrogen is the most common element in the universe and was perhaps the first to form. It
is among the ten most common elements on Earth as well and one of the most useful for
industrial purposes. Under normal conditions of temperature, hydrogen is a gas. Designated as H,
hydrogen is the first element in the periodic table because it contains only one proton. Hydrogen
can combine with a large number of other elements, forming more compounds than any of the
others. Pure hydrogen seldom occurs naturally, but it exists in most organic compounds, that is,
compounds that contain carbon, which account for a very large number of compounds.
Moreover, hydrogen is found in inorganic compounds. For example, when hydrogen burns in the
presence of oxygen, it forms water.
The lightest and simplest of the elements, hydrogen has several properties that make it
valuable for any industries. It releases more heat per unit of weight than any other fuel. In rocket
engines, tons of hydrogen and oxygen are burned, and hydrogen is used with oxygen for welding
torches that produce temperatures as high as 4,000 degrees F and can be used in cutting steel.
Fuel cells to generate electricity operate on hydrogen and oxygen.
Hydrogen also serves to prevent metals from tarnishing during heat treatments by
removing the oxygen from them. Although it would be difficult to remove the oxygen by itself,
hydrogen readily combines with oxygen to form water, which can be heated to steam and easily
removed. Furthermore, hydrogen is one of the coolest refrigerants. It does not become a liquid
until it reaches temperatures of -425 degrees F. Pure hydrogen gas is used in large electric
generators to cool the coils.
Future uses of hydrogen include fuel for cars, boats, planes, and other forms of
transportation that currently require petroleum products. These fuels would be lighter, a distinct
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advantage in the aerospace industry, and they would also cleaner, thereby reducing pollution in
the atmosphere.
Hydrogen is also useful in the food industry for a process known as hydrogenation.
Products such as margarine and cooking oils are changed from liquids to semisolids by adding
hydrogen to their molecules. Soap manufactures also use hydrogen for this purpose. In
hydrogenation, hydrogen is added to a product. In addition, in the chemical industry, hydrogen is
used to produce ammonia, gasoline, methyl alcohol, and many other important products.
86. What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?
A. To explain the industrial uses of Hydrogen.
B. To describe the origin of hydrogen in the universe.
C. To discuss the process of hydrogenation.
D. To give examples of how hydrogen and oxygen combine.
87. How can hydrogen be used to cut steel?
A. By cooling the steel to a very low temperature
B. By cooling the hydrogen with oxygen to a very low temperature
C. By heating the steel to a very high temperature
D. By heating the hydrogen with oxygen to a very high temperature
88. The word readily in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by
A. completely B. slowly C. usually D. easily
89. What does the word them refers to?
A. hydrogen B. heat treatment C. metals D. fuel cells
90. Which paragraph explains why hydrogen is used as a refrigerant?
91. The author mentions all of the following as uses for hydrogen EXCEPT
A. to remove tarnish from metals
B. to produce fuels such as gasoline and methyl alcohol
C. to operate fuel cells that generate electricity
D. to change solid foods to liquids
92. It can be inferred from the passage that hydrogen
A. is too dangerous to be used for industrial purposes
B. has many purposes in a variety of industries
C. has limited industrial uses of its dangerous properties
D. is used in many industries for basically the same purpose
Mickey Mantle was one of the greatest baseball players of all time. He played for the New
York Yankees in their years of glory. From the time Mantle began to play professionally in 1951
to his last year in 1968, baseball was the most popular game in the United States. For many
people, Mantle symbolized the hope, prosperity, and confidence of America at the time.
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Mantle was a fast and powerful player, a “switch-hitter” who could bat both right-handed
and left-handed. He won game after game, one World Series championship after another, for his
team. He was a wonderful athlete, but this alone cannot explain American’s fascination with
him.
Perhaps it was because he was a handsome, red-haired country boy, the son of a poor
miner from Oklahoma. His career, from the led mines of the West to the heights of success and
fame, was a fairy-tale version of the American dream. Of perhaps it was because America
always lives a “natural” : a person who wins without seeming to try, whose talent appears to
come from an inner grace. That was Mickey Mantle.
But like many celebrities, Mickey Mantle had a private life that was full of problems. He
played without complaint despite constant pain from injures. He lived to fulfill his father’s
dreams and drank to forget his father’s early death.
It was a terrible addiction that finally destroyed his body. It gave him cirrhosis of the liver
and accelerated the advance of liver cancer. Even when Mickey Mantle had turned away from
his old life and warned young people not to follow his example, the destructive process could not
be stopped. Despite a liver transplant operation that had all those who loved and admired him
hoping for a recovery, Mickey Mantle died of cancer at the age of 63.
A. Mickey Mantle as the greatest baseball player of all time.
B. Mickey Mantle’s success and private life full of problems.
C. Mickey Mantle and his career as a baseball player.
D. Mickey Mantle and the history of baseball.
94. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that Mantle _______.
A. played for New York Yankees all his life
B. had to try hard to be a professional player
C. earned a lot of money from baseball
D. introduced baseball into the US
95. According to the passage, Mantle could _______.
A. hit with the bat on either side of his body
B. bat better with his left hand than with his right hand
C. hit the ball to score from a long distance
D. give the most powerful hit in his team
96. The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Mantle’s being a fast and powerful player
B. Mantle’s being a wonderful athlete
C. Mantle’s being fascinated by many people
D. Mantle’s being a “switch-hitter”
97. It can be inferred from the passage that for most Americans _______.
A. success in Mantle’s career was difficult to believe
B. success in Mantle’s career was unnatural
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C. Mantle had to be trained hard to become a good player
D. Mantle had a lot of difficult achieving fame and success
98. The word “fulfill” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
A. do something in the way that you have been told
B. achieve what is hoped for, wished for, or expected
C. do what you have promised or agreed to do
D. get closer to something that you are chasing
99. We can see from paragraph 5 that after his father’s death, Mantle _______.
A. played even better B. forgot his father’s dream
C. led a happier life D. suffered a lot of pain
100. Which of the following is mentioned as the main cause of the
destruction of Mantle’s body?
A. His loneliness B. His way of life
C. His liver transplant operation D. His own dream

51. A. delete B. demonstrate C. devalue D. degrade
52. A. sound B. touchy C. outdated D. account
53. A. repetitious B. curriculum C. historical D. grammatical
54. A. architectural B. engineering C. maturity D. comprehension
55. I see John boasting again. I’ve heard him telling everyone he’s the best tennis player in
the County.
A. holding his tongue B. speaking too much
C. blowing his own trumpet D. pulling my leg
56. The venom of coral snakes is especially potent and the mortality rate among humans who
have been bitten is high.
A. contagious B. impure C. powerful D. abundant
57. It is quite incredible that he is unaware of such basic facts.
A. unbelievable B. difficult C. disappointed D. imaginable
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58. Designers could move away from conservative styles and promote the swimsuits that
revealed a body’s physical attributes.
A. hid B. distorted C. blocked D. disrupted
59. The first special park creating was at Ranthambhore where the government had to move
nearly 1000 people so the land could be handed back to the nature.
A. creating B. at C. where D. handed
60. With the development of information technology, we can now hold long-distance
meetings which the participants can see each other on a screen.
A. information technology B. long-distance
C. which D. can see
61. Why are you standing in the doors? Come in and make oneself at home.
A. are you standing B. in
C. make D. oneself
62. Bill Gates is probably the best known and most successful _______ in computer
software.
A. pioneer B. navigator C. generator D. volunteer
63. We need _______ information before we can decide.
A. further B. farther C. far D. furthest
64. It is the imperativeness that anyone of us _______ how to behave properly in different
cultures. – “When in Rome do as Roman do”, goes an English saying.
A. will learn B. learns C. learn D. must learn
65. The students were not satisfied _______.
A. because of the teacher’s not informing them of the coming test
B. because the teacher not inform them of the coming test
C. as the teacher’s not informing them about the coming test
D. since the teacher’s no information about the coming test
66. “Is it far to Stamford?” “Not at all. It’s only a _______ from here.”
A. step in the right direction B. bird’s eye view
C. short cut D. stone’s throw
67. Economic reforms began in the Soviet Union in June 985 by the Soviet leader Mikhail
Gorbachev to _______ the Soviet economy.
A. repair B. reproduce C. reply D. restructure
68. Can you see anybody in that classroom? – Yes. There _______ a teacher and fifty
students there?
A. is B. are C. has been D. have been
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69. Not only _______ among the largest animal that ever lived, but they are also among the
more intelligent.
A. are whales B. they are whales C. some whales D. whales
70. Many people like the _______ of life in the countryside.
A. step B. pace C. speed D. space
71. She is attending the seminar with a view to _______ more qualifications.
A. acquire B. having acquired
C. have acquired D. acquiring
72. I don’t know how you _______ up with Carl’s complaining all the time.
A. put B. do C. get D. make
73. The strike was _______ owing to a last-minute agreement with the management.
A. called off B. broken up C. set back D. put down
74. “Could you tell me how to get to the post office?” – “_______”
A. Yes, I could
B. Excuse me. Is it easy to get there?
C. It’s at the end of this street, opposite the church
D. Sorry, it’s not very far
75. Bill: “Let’s stop for a drink.” – Bruce: “_______”
A. Nice to meet you. B. You’re welcome.
C. Long time no see. D. Sorry, we’ve got little time.
76. We want him to represent us in talks with our Japanese clients.
A. He talks to us on the behalf of our Japanese customers.
B. Our Japanese clients send him to talk to us.
C. We represent him to deal with our Japanese clients.
D. We want him to talk to our Japanese clients on our behalf.
77. My impression of him was that he was a very capable person.
A. I struck him with the impression that he was very capable.
B. It struck me as an impression that he was a very capable person.
C. He struck me when I was impressed by his capability.
D. He struck me as being a very capable person.
78. “John, why don’t you go on a picnic with me next weekend?” said Janet.
A. Janet suggested John went on a picnic with her the nest weekend.
B. Janet suggested John go on a picnic with her the next weekend.
C. Janet suggested John should go on a picnic with her next weekend.
D. Janet suggested John to go on a picnic with her next weekend.
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79. The police issued a warning on the radio. A dangerous man had escaped from the prison.
A. The police issued a warning on the radio so that a dangerous man escaped from the
prison.
B. The police issued a warning on the radio, namely a dangerous man had escaped from
the prison.
C. A dangerous man had escaped from the prison so the police issued a warning on the
radio.
D. Escaping from the prison, the dangerous man made the police issue a warning on the
radio.
80. I think I should have cooked more food. There’s nothing left now.
A. I should not have cooked so much food.
B. I regret cooking too much food now.
C. I did not cook much food and I think it is ok now.
D. I did not cook much food and I think it was a mistake.
35.
If your reservations are booked far enough (31) _______ of time, the airline may offer to
mail your tickets to you. However, if you don’t receive the tickets and the airline’s records show
that they mailed them, you may have to go through lost-ticket procedures. It is safer to check the
telephone (32) _______ for a conveniently located travel agency. You can also call an airline
ticket office and buy your tickets there. As soon as you receive your ticket, make sure all the
information on it is correct, especially the airports (if any of the cities have more than one) and
the flight dates. You should have any necessary corrections (33) _______ immediately.
It’s a good idea to reconfirm your reservations before you start your trip; flight schedules
sometimes change. On international trips, most airlines require that you reconfirm your onward
or return reservations at (34) _______ 72 hours before each flight. If you don’t, your reservations
may be canceled. Check your tickets as you board each flight to ensure that only the correct
coupon has been removed (35) _______ the airline agent.
81. A. ahead B. in front C. in advance D. because
82. A. box B. company C. shop D. directory
83. A. writing B. save C. made D. booked
84. A. last B. no C. least D. booking
85. A. to B. for C. from D. by
Commuting is the practice of travelling a long distance to a town or city to work each day,
and then travelling home again in the evening. The word commuting comes from communication
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ticket, a US rail ticket for repeated journeys, called a season ticket in Britain. Regular travelers
are called commuters.
The US has many commuters. A few, mostly on the East Coast, commute by train or
subway, but most depend on the car. Some leave home very early to avoid the traffic jams, and
sleep in their cars until their office opens. Many people accept a long trip to work so that they
can live in quiet bedroom communicates away from the city, but another reason is ‘white flight’.
In the 1960s most cities began to desegregate their schools, so that there were no longer separate
schools for white and black children. Many white families did not want to send their children to
desegregated schools, so they moved to the suburbs, which have their own schools, and where,
for various reasons, few black people live.
Millions of people in Britain commute by car or train. Some spend two or three hours a day
travelling, so that they and their families can live in suburbia or in the countryside. Cities are
surrounded by commuter belts. Part of the commuter belt around London is called the
stockbroker belt because it contains houses where rich business people live. Some places are
becoming dormitory towns, because people sleep there but take little part in local activities.
Most commutes travel to and from work at the same time, causing the morning and
evening rush hours, when buses and trains are crowed and there are traffic jams on the roads.
Commuters on trains rarely talk to each other and spend their journey reading, sleeping or using
their mobile phones, though this is not popular with other passengers. Increasing numbers of
people now work at home some days of the week, linked to their offices by computer, a practice
called telecommuting.
Cities in both Britain and the US are trying to reduce the number of cars coming into town
each day. Some companies encourage car-pooling (called car sharing in Britain), an arrangement
for people who live and work near each other to travel together. Some US cities have a public
service that helps such people to contact each other, and traffic lanes are reserved for car-pool
vehicles. But cars and petrol/ gas are cheap in the US, and many people prefer to drive alone
because it gives them more freedom. In Britain many cities have park-and-ride schemes, car
parks on the edge of the city from which buses take drivers into the centre.
86. Which of the following definitions of commuting would the author of this passage most
probably agree with?
A. Travelling to work and then home again in a day within a rural district.
B. Travelling for hours from a town or city to work in the countryside every day.
C. Regularly travelling a long distance between one’s place of work and one’s home.
D. Using a commutation ticket for special journeys in all seasons of the year.
87. The word “repeated” in paragraph 1 most probably means _______.
A. buying a season ticket again B. happening again and again
C. saying something again D. doing something once again
88. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. The US has considerably more commuters than Britain.
B. Commuting helps people in the US and Britain save a lot of time.
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C. Britain has considerably more commuters than the US.
D. Both the US and Britain have a great number of commuters.
89. It can be inferred from the passage that dormitory towns in Britain are places where
people _______.
A. stay for the night B. contribute to the local community
C. are employed locally D. take part in local activities
90. The phrase “linked to” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. shared with B. satisfied with C. connected to D. related to
91. All of the following are measures to reduce the number of cars coming into town each
day in the US and/ or Britain EXCEPT _______.
A. traffic lanes for car pooling B. free car parks in the city centre
C. park-and-ride schemes D. car pooling/ sharing
92. The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. Travelling together B. car pool
C. driving alone D. petrol/ gas
Real estate sales agents work on behalf of property owners and earn a commission, or
percentage of the sale or rental of property. Agents are employed by real estate agencies that sell
or rent property as well as manage, appraise, or develop real estate. Some agencies combine their
real estate business with an insurance agency or law practice. Most real estate agents sell private
homes. Some specialize in commercial property such as factories, apartment buildings, stores
and office buildings. Others specialize in undeveloped land sites for commercial or residential
use or go into agricultural real estate.
Real estate agents work from a file of listings of property that is for sale or rent. A listing is
an agreement, using in the form of a contract, between the owners of the property and the agent.
The owners agree to pay the agent a percentage of the selling price. Real estate agents obtain
new listings for their agency by locating property owners interested in selling. For example, they
may call home owners who are trying to sell their houses privately through newspaper want ads.
Real estate agents visit newly listed properties so that they can familiarize themselves with the
features of the property before bringing prospective buyers to see it.
In any sale, the agents have to negotiate with both the seller and the buyer. Many sellers
begin by asking more for their property but buyers are not willing to pay for it. Agents must be
able to convince sellers to set a realistic price. Most of the agents’ efforts focus on the buyer,
however. Agents try to learn what will motivate the buyers to make a purchase. Agents must be
able to convince them that the property suits their needs and is a good buy. Buyers generally
offer less for a property than the seller asks. Agents help to negotiate the final price. They
usually help buyers arrange bank loans and are generally present at closing, when final contracts
of sale are signed.
93. The phrase “specialize in” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
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A. write about B. approve of C. concentrate on D. refer to
94. A listing is a contract between property owner, and real estate agents in which the owners
A. try to sell their houses privately
B. agree to pay the agent a percentage of the selling price
C. obtain new listings for their property
D. arrange to meet with the agent at a convenient time
95. The word “prospective” is paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. potential B. progressive C. former D. wealthy
A. sellers B. agents C. buyers D. owners
97. It can be inferred that negotiating the final price of a property involves
A. calling an insurance agency
B. having the seller and the buyer agree on what is realistic
C. finding a similar property that has a realistic price
D. motivating the buyer visit the property
98. In paragraph 3, the author implies that _______.
A. agents must understand the desires and needs of the buyer
B. agents are sometimes immoral in their practices
C. buyers usually pay the price asked by the seller
D. agents spend more tunes with sellers than with buyers
99. According to the passage, real estate agents
A. begin by asking more for a property than buyers are willing to pay
B. have a college education
C. own a lot commercial property
D. are usually present when final sales contracts are signed
100. Where in the passage does the author discuss different types of real
estate?

51. A. fungus B. rubbish C. function D. furious
52. A. contain B. entertain C. certain D. campaign
53. A. preciseness B. passenger C. chaotic D. withdrawal
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54. A. sympathetic B. unbelievable C. advantageous D. circumstance
55. Alberto has faith in his own ability to succeed in his new business enterprise.
A. is in charge of B. carries out C. believes in D. in favour of
56. When smog does not disperse, inhabitants in the area, particularly the young, the elderly,
and chronically ill, are warned to stay indoors and avoid physical stress.
A. patients B. residents C. pedestrians D. customers
57. This kind of dress is becoming outmoded so you shouldn’t dress it up at the party.
A. realistic B. incompetent C. fashionable D. unattractive
58. It was inevitable that there would be job losses.
A. evident B. avoidable C. reliable D. sure
59. William Randolph Hearst built a chain of newspapers that included 25 dailies and 11
Sunday editions at their peak in 1937.
A. built B. that C. dailies D. their
60. Admiral Grace Hopper created the computer language COBOL, which is used primary
for scientific purposes.
A. created B. computer C. primary D. purposes
61. In some states, the law allows drivers to turn right at a red light, but in other states, the
law does not leave them do it.
A. some B. to turn C. other D. leave
62. In my opinion, it’s only common _______ to wear a seat belt in a car.
A. judgment B. sense C. intelligence D. wit
63. You can leave your money with him. He’s totally _______.
A. trusting B. trusty C. trustful D. trustworthy
64. He _______ in trouble with the police now if he had listened to me in the first place.
A. isn’t B. won’t be C. wouldn’t be D. wouldn’t have been
65. _______ with her boyfriend yesterday, she doesn’t want to answer his phone call.
A. Having quarreled B. Because having quarreled
C. Because of she quarreled D. Had quarreled
66. I feel terrible; I didn’t sleep _______ last night.
A. a jot B. a wink C. an inch D. an eye
67. I can’t understand this song. It doesn’t make any _______.
A. meaning B. effort C. sense D. realization
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68. What if I _______ you that there’s a good chance I can get tickets for the concert?
A. were to tell B. were telling C. have told D. would to tell
69. The manager requested that all staff _______ present at the meeting.
A. have been B. be C. are being D. being
70. “Are you still taking your exams?” – “Yes, but by this time next week _______ my last
one!”
A. I’m finishing B. I’ll finish
C. I’ll have finished D. I’ll have been finishing
71. It seems that the thief took _______ of the open window and got inside that way.
A. occasion B. opportunity C. chance D. advantage
72. The program _______ a lot of disc space so there wasn’t much room for anything else.
A. took up B. backed up C. set up D. put up
73. Come _______, children! Get your coats on or you’ll be late for school.
A. along B. to C. across D. over
74. “I really like your hair.” – “_______”
A. Do you think so? B. I’m glad you like it.
C. Thank you. I had it cut yesterday. D. All are correct.
75. “Hi! Brain. How have you been?” – “_______”
A. Badly. And how are you? B. Oh, I’ve done a lot of things.
C. Oh, pretty good. And you? D. I’ve been to Beijing recently.
76. The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked.
A. It was not until the mistake in the accounts was noticed that the figures were re-
checked.
B. Once re-checking the figures, the mistake in the accounts was noticed.
C. The mistake in the accounts only came to light when the figures were re-checked.
D. When the figures were re-checked they came to light the mistake in the accounts.
77. But for his father’s early retirement, Richard would not have taken over the family’s
business.
A. Richard only took over the family’s business because his father decided to retire early.
B. Richard didn’t take over the family’s business because his father decided to retire.
C. His father retired early, but he ran the family’s business.
D. Richard’s father didn’t want him to take over the family’s business despite his
retirement.
78. This conference wouldn’t have been possible without your organization.
A. If you didn’t organize, this conference wouldn’t have been possible.
B. Your organization made it possible for this conference to take place.
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C. If it hadn’t been for your organization, this conference wouldn’t have been possible.
D. It’s possible that your organization made this conference impossible.
79. Most scientists know him well. Very few ordinary people have heard of him.
A. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public.
B. Not only the scientists but also the general public know him as a big name.
C. Although he is well-known to scientists, he is little known to the general public.
D. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.
80. The man is very old. He can’t take such a long trip.
A. The old man has refused to take such a long trip.
B. The trip is not too long for the old man to take.
C. The man in young enough to take such a long trip.
D. The man is too old to take such a long trip.
35.
When it is finally here; the day of the big test, you should set your alarm early enough to
allow plenty of time to get to the testing center. You should also eat a good breakfast and (31)
_______ eating anything that’s really high in sugar, such as donuts. A sugar high turns into a
sugar low after an hour or so. Cereal and toast, or anything with complex carbohydrates is a good
choice. You should eat only moderate amounts if you don’t want to take a test feeling stuffed!
Your body will channel its energy to your digestive system (32) _______ your brain! Remember
to pack a high-energy snack to take with you.
You may have a break sometime during the test when you can grab a quick snack. Bananas
are great. They have a moderate amount of sugar and plenty of brain nutrients. Most proctors
won’t (33) _______ you to eat s snack while you’re testing, but a peppermint shouldn’t pose a
problem. Peppermints are like smelling salts for your brain. If you lose your concentration or
suffer from a momentary mental block, a peppermint can get you back on track.
You should leave early enough so you have plenty of time to get to the test center. Allow a
few minutes for (34) _______ traffic. When you arrive, locate the restroom and use it. Then find
your seat and make sure it is comfortable. If it isn’t, tell the proctor and ask to move to
something more suitable. Now relax and think positively! Before you know it, the test will be
over, and you’ll walk away knowing you’ve done as (35) _______ as you can.
81. A. finish B. keep C. avoid D. try
82. A. instead of B. for C. to D. and
83. A. ask B. let C. allow D. make
84. A. light B. late C. unexpected D. taking
85. A. well B. good C. quickly D. long
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Few men have influenced the development of American English to the extent that Noah
Webster did. Born in West Hartford, Connecticut, in 1758, his name has become synonymous
with American dictionaries. Graduated from Yale in 1778, he was admitted to the bar in 1781
and thereafter began to practice law in Hartford. Later, when he turned to teaching, he discovered
how inadequate the available schoolbooks were for the children of a new and independent
nation.
In response to the need for truly American textbooks, Webster published A Grammatical
Institute of the English Language, a three-volume work that consisted of a speller, a grammar,
and a reader. The first volume, which was generally known as The American Spelling Book, was
so popular that eventually it sold more than 80 million copies and provided him with a
considerable income for the rest of his life. While teaching, Webster began work on the
Compendious Dictionary of the English Language, which was published in 1806.
In 1807, Noah Webster began his greatest work, An American Dictionary of the English
Language. In preparing the manuscript, he devoted ten years to the study of English and its
relationship to other languages, and seven more years to the writing itself. Published in two
volumes in 1828, An American Dictionary of the English Language has become the recognized
authority for usage in the United States. Webster’s purpose in writing it was to demonstrate that
the American language was developing distinct meanings, pronunciations and spellings from
those of British English. He is responsible for advancing simplified spelling forms, develop
instead of the British form develope; theater and center instead of theatre and centre; color and
honor instead of colour and honour.
86. Which of the following would be the best for the passage?
A. Webster’s Work B. Webster’s Dictionaries
C. Webster’s School D. Webster’s Life
87. The word “inadequate” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by _______.
A. unavailable B. expensive C. difficult D. unsatisfactory
88. From which publication did Webster earn a lifetime income?
A. Compendious Dictionary of the English Language
B. An American Dictionary of the English Language
C. An American Dictionary of the English Language: Second Edition
D. The American Spelling Book
89. When was An American Dictionary of the English Language published?
A. 1817 B. 1807 C. 1828 D. 1824
90. According to the author, what was Webster’s purpose in writing An American
Dictionary of the English Language?
A. To respond to the need for new schoolbooks
B. To demonstrate the distinct development of the English language in American
C. To promote spelling forms based upon British models
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D. To influence the pronunciation of the English language
A. language B. usage C. authority D. dictionary
92. The word “distinct” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. new B. simple C. different D. exact
Fertilizer is any substance that can be added to the soil to provide chemical elements
essential for plant nutrition so that the yield can be increased. Natural substances such as animal
droppings, ashes from wood fires, and straw have been used as fertilizers in fields for thousands
of years, and lime has been used since the Romans introduced it during the Empire. It was not
until the nineteenth century, however, that chemical fertilizers became widely accepted as
normal agricultural practice. Today, both natural and synthetic fertilizers are available in a
variety of forms.
A complete fertilizer is usually marked with a formula consisting of three numbers, such as
4-8-2 or 6-6-4, which designate the percentage of content of nitrogen, phosphoric acid, and
potash in the order stated. Synthetic fertilizers, produced by factories, are available in either solid
or liquid form. Solids, in the shape of chemical granules, are in demand because they are not
only easy to store but also easy to apply. Recently, liquids have shown an increase in popularity,
accounting for about 20 percent of the nitrogen fertilizers used throughout the world. 10B.
Formerly, powers were also used, but they were found to be less convenient than either solids or
liquids.
Fertilizers have no harmful effects on the soil, the crop, or the consumers as long as they
are used according to recommendations based on the results of local research. Occasionally,
however, farmers may use more fertilizer than necessary, in which case the plants do not need,
and therefore do not absorb, the total amount of fertilizer applied to the soil. Furthermore,
fertilizer that is not used in the production of a healthy plants is leached into the water table. Too
much fertilizer on grass can cause digestive disorders in cattle and in infants who drink cow’s
milk. Fertilizer must be used with great attention to responsible use or it can harm the
environment.
93. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. Local research and harmful effects of fertilizer.
B. Content, form, and effects of fertilizers.
C. A formula for the production of fertilizer.
D. Advantages and disadvantages of liquid fertilizer.
94. The word “essential” in line 1 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. required B. preferred C. limited D. anticipated
95. Which of the following has the smallest percentage content in the formula 4-8-2?
A. Acid B. Phosphorus C. Potash D. Nitrogen
96. The word “designate” in paragraph 2 could be replaced by _______.
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A. specify B. modify C. limit D. increase
97. Which of the following statements about fertilizers is TRUE?
A. Powers are more popular than ever.
B. Solids are difficult to store.
C. Liquids are increasing in popularity.
D. Chemical granules are difficult to apply.
A. solids B. powders C. liquids D. fertilizer
99. The word “convenient” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. effective B. plentiful
C. cheap to produce D. easy to use
100. The word “harm” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by
_______.
A. damage B. accelerate C. leach D. disturb

51. A. measure B. pleasure C. threat D. treat
52. A. theatre B. therefore C. throughout D. thunder
53. A. establish B. intimidate C. inheritance D. illustrate
54. A. educator B. humorous C. organism D. documentary
55. A clever politician will take advantage of every speaking engagement to campaign for the
next election.
A. rash B. intrepid C. crude D. shrewd
56. I will think over your plan and give you an answer next week.
A. anticipate B. consider C. promenade D. review
57. I was surprised that he should consent to his daughter travelling aboard alone.
A. endorse B. disapprove of C. accept D. agree with
58. He resembles his father in appearance very much.
A. differ from B. distinguish C. takes after D. calls away
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59. Unless one subscribes to a large metropolitan newspaper such as the “Wall Street
Journal”, or the “Washington Post”, one will find very few news from abroad.
A. one B. such as C, one D. few news
60. All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and the
technological institutions if they are to preserve the environment.
A. have to make B. changes in
C. the technological institutions D. to preserve
61. It’s not that I don’t like her, but I object to be called that by her. I am not her “buddy”, am
I?
A. not that B. to be called C. that by D. am I
62. The company has just got a big order and the workers are working around the _______.
A. night B. day C. hour D. clock
63. Designers are experimenting with a new material _______ flexibly with lightness.
A. is combining B. combining C. combines D. combination of
64. Everyone in both cars _______ injured in the accident last night, _______?
A. were/ weren’t they B. was/ weren’t they
C. was/ wasn’t he D. were/ were they
65. I will recommend _______ to the director.
A. the student to speak B. that the student speaks
C. that the student speak D. that the student speaking
66. Quite soon, the world is going to _______ energy resources.
A. get into B. run out of C. keep up with D. come up against
67. Calculations which used to take ages can now be _______ in a few seconds.
A. worked out B. turned out C. taken out D. run out
68. Every man and woman _______ the right to vote?
A. have B. has C. are D. is
69. Have you heard about all the complaints? It _______ have been a pleasant holiday for
them.
A. can’t B. mustn’t C. shouldn’t D. mayn’t
70. Today, household chores have been made much easier by electrical _______.
A. instruments B. applications C. appliances D. utilities
71. We decided to take a late flight _______ we could spend more time with our family.
A. in order B. so that C. so as to D. in order to
72. _______ one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of
dance and mime performed to music.
A. Being considering B. Considering
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C. Considered D. To consider
73. Little _______ that I knew his secret.
A. did John know B. John did know C. was John know D. John knew
74. “How often do the buses run?” – “_______”
A. From that bus stop over there. B. Much often.
C. Twice or three times. D. Every hour.
75. “Thanks for the nice gift you brought to us!” – “_______”
A. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it.
B. Welcome! It’s very nice of you.
C. All right. Do you know how much it cost?
D. Not at all. Don’t mention it.
76. Despite his early retirement, he found no peace in life.
A. Although he retired early, but he found no peace in life.
B. His early retirement has brought him peace in life.
C. He found no peace in life because he retired early.
D. Early as he retired, he found no peace in life.
77. It is her father who is Italian.
A. She has half blood of Italian by her father.
B. She is half-Italian thanks to her father.
C. She is half-Italian on her father’s side.
D. Her father has half of an Italian to her.
78. He is such a slow speaker that his students get bored.
A. He speaks so slowly that his students get bored.
B. His students got bored because he spoke so slowly.
C. If he hadn’t spoken so slowly, his students wouldn’t got bored.
D. When the speaker is slow, his students get bored.
79. I’d suggest that we avoid telling any scary stories with Janet around. She’s a bit unstable
and could get hysterical.
C. It is no fun to tell frightening stories to Janet, who is not very stable mentally, because
she only laughs instead of getting scared.
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80. She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.
A. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
B. If she had wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.
C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.
D. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.
35.
Traffic congestion is now a problem in practically every major city in the world but
nobody has yet found a workable (31) _______ to the practically inevitable chaos. A metro
system is sadly impractical in most cities (32) _______ geographical reasons. Tram systems are
unworkable in old cities where narrow, (33) _______ streets make the installation of overhead
cables a practical impossibility. Many local governments find the business of coaxing people into
buses and (34) _______ them from using their cars easier said than done. And yet it is
misconception that the situation should be allowed to exist as it is. The arguments in favor of
direct action will now be irrefutable if we are ever to prevent unprecedented (35) _______ of
pollution and economic chaos.
81. A. solution B. answer C. appeal D. contribution
82. A. with B. by C. in D. for
83. A. curling B. winding C. twisting D. curving
84. A. banning B. distracting C. refraining D. discouraging
85. A. levels B. scales C. degrees D. ranks
are nature’s way of keeping the Earth in balance. But sometimes they spread very quickly and
called pandemics.
flight. In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu
First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily. Second, while
they may kill many people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A good example of
this would be the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is an extremely infectious disease. In
addition, it is deadly. About 70-80% of all the people who get the Marburg virus die from the
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disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because most people die within
three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not have enough time to spread
to a large number of people. The flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generally took about a
week to ten days to kill its victims, so it had more time to spread.
86. This passage is mainly about _______.
87. According to paragraph 1, how are disease a natural part of life on Earth?
C. They help the world grow quickly.
88. Based on the information in the passage the term pandemics can best be explained as
_______.
A. diseases with no cure
B. a deadly kind of flu
C. diseases that spread quickly and kill large numbers of people
D. new diseases like SARS or the Marburg virus
89. According to the passage, all of the following are true of the 1918 flu pandemic EXCEPT
that _______.
90. The word it in the passage refers to _______.
A. disease B. flu virus C. pandemics D. bodies
91. Which of the following is mentioned as a common feature of all pandemic disease?
A. They spread from people to people very slowly.
B. They may kill many people very quickly.
C. They do not kill people quickly.
D. They kill all the victims.
92. The word monitor in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. fight B. prevent C. watch D. avoid
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In the decade of the 1970s, the United Nations organised several important meetings on the
human environment to study a very serious problem. We humans are destroying the world
around us. We are using up all of our natural resources. We must learn to converse them, or life
will be very bad for our children and our grandchildren.
There are several major parts to this problem.
Population. Most problems of the environment come from population growth. In 1700,
there were 625 million people in the world. In 1900, there were 1.6 billion; in 1950, 2.5 billion
and in 1980, 4.4 billion. In the year 2010, there will be well over 6 billion. More people need
more water, more food, more wood, and more petroleum.
Distribution. Scientists say there is enough water in the world for everyone, but some
countries have a lot of water and some have only a little. Some areas get all their rain during one
season. The rest of the year is dry. There are huge forests in the Amazon area of Brazil. In other
parts of the world there is only desert.
Petroleum. We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use it in our cars and to heat our
buildings in winter.
Farmers use petrochemicals to make the soil rich. They also use petrochemicals to kill
insects that eat plants. These chemicals go into rivers and lakes and kill the fish there. Thousands
of people also die from these chemicals every year. Chemicals also go into the air and pollute it.
Winds carry this polluted air from countries to other countries and even other continents.
Poverty. Poor farmers use the same land over and over. The land needs a rest so it will be
better next year. However, the farmer must have food this year. Poor people cut down trees for
firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land becomes desert. However, people need
wood to cook their food now. Poor people cannot save the environment for the future. We now
have the information and the ability to solve these huge problems. However, this is not a problem
for one country or one area of the world. It is problem for all humans. The people and the nations
of the world must work together to conserve the world’s resources. No one controls the future,
but we all help make it.
93. Our natural resources are _______.
A. running out B. being disused
C. being destroyed D. being wasted
94. The phrase ‘using up’ is closest in meaning to _______.
A. using it to increase the amount of B. using all of it
C. using it for a short time D. trying to preserve
95. Most environmental problems come from _______.
A. forests B. too much rain
C. population growth D. poor distribution
96. The world them in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. our children and grandchildren B. the United Nations
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C. our natural resources D. human beings
97. Good distribution means _______.
A. having things in the right place at the right time
B. cutting down forests and selling them to other countries
C. building water systems to carry water to farms
D. conserving our natural resources
98. According to the passage, petrochemicals help farmers to _______.
A. enrich the soil B. kill insects and plants
C. kill fish in rivers and lakes D. pollute the air in many countries
99. Which of the following is not mentioned as a major cause of the problem?
A. population growth B. distribution of natural resources
C. use of petroleum D. lack of rain in certain areas
100. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. People must work together to save the environment.
B. We have the ability to solve environmental problems.
C. We control the future.
D. We help make the future.

51. A. merchant B. term C. commercial D. sergeant
52. A. honesty B. hydrogen C. horrible D. harmful
53. A. specific B. coincide C. inventive D. regardless
54. A. gallery B. satellite C. different D. cathedral
55. Just drop me a line in order to know when you are coming.
A. give me a ring B. write to me C. call me D. drop in me
57. The design of wildlife refugees is still a meter of considerable controversy.
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A. significance B. debate C. agreement D. concern
58. New members will be issued with a temporary identity card.
A. of a short time B. of a long time
C. of a prime importance D. of great attempt
59. Nobody had known before the presentation that Sue and her sister will receive the awards
for outstanding scholarships.
A. had known B. the C. will receive D. the
60. Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group.
A. neither B. arresting C. would reveal D. his group
61. Students suppose to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to them.
A. suppose to B. all the questions C. out D. them
62. Helen is _______ seafood, so she never tries these delicious dishes.
A. allergic to B. tired of C. keen on D. preferable to
63. By raising their weapons the men showed their _______ to continue the fight.
A. ready B. readiness C. were ready D. readily
64. Several of my friends are _______ reporters.
A. newspaper B. newspapers C. newspaper’s D. newspapers’
65. _______ have made communication faster and easier through the use of email and the
Internet is widely recognized.
A. It is that computers B. That computers
C. Computers that D. That it’s computers
66. Remember to appreciate what your friends do for you. You shouldn’t take them _______.
A. as a rule B. as usual C. out of habit D. for granted
67. Under no circumstances _______ in areas where poisonous snakes are known to live.
C. should one climbs rocks D. should be climbing rocks
68. Hardly _______ the captain of the team when he had to face the problems.
A. did he appoint B. was he appointing
C. had he been appointed D. was he being appointed
69. We are considering having _______ for the coming New Year.
A. redecorated our flat B. to redecorate our flat
C. our flat to be redecorated D. our flat redecorated
70. Laser disc provide images of _______ either television signals or video tapes.
A. better than B. better quality than
C. better quality than those of D. better quality than that
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71. My sister told me to pack some trousers and shirts for the trip, but _______, not to forget
my toothbrush.
A. after all B. more or less C. before long D. above all
72. The bank won’t lend you the money without some _______ that you will pay it back.
A. profit B. interest C. charge D. guarantee
73. Tony is so _______ that his friends tend to tell him all their problems.
A. confidential B. sympathetic C. critical D. optimistic
74. ‘Would you like beer or wine?’ – ‘_______’
A. Yes, I’d love to. B. I couldn’t agree more.
C. No, I have no choice. D. I’d prefer beer, please.
75. ‘It’s time for lunch.’ – ‘_______’
A. Oh good! B. One hour.
C. Half past twelve. D. What is it?
76. “You should have returned the book to me before I asked you to”, the girl said to her
younger brother.
A. The girl blamed her younger brother for returning the book late.
B. The girl advised her younger brother to return the book early.
C. The girl told her younger brother to return the book early.
D. The girl wanted to have to book returned to her younger brother soon.
77. The likelihood of suffering a heart attack rises as one becomes increasingly obese.
A. Anyone who is obese is likely to experience a heart attack at any time.
B. Obesity results in only a slight increase in the probability of having a heart attack.
C. The more obese one is, the higher the chances for a heart attack become.
D. Heart attacks are happening more and more often, and most of the sufferers are obese.
78. I have learnt never to take sides in any arguments between my close friends.
A. If I support one side in arguments, the other will be upset.
B. I support neither side in my close friends’ arguments.
C. I don’t encourage my close friends to argue.
D. I don’t support any of my close friends.
79. My uncle was elected as the mayor of the city in 2004. He remained in office until 2014.
A. My uncle was elected as the mayor of the city twice: 2004 and 2014.
B. Elected as the mayor of the city in 2010, my uncle held the post for 10 years.
C. Although elected as the mayor of the city, my uncle took office in 2014.
D. Ten years after serving as he mayor of the city, my uncle resigned in 2004.
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80. He tried many times. He never succeeded in kicking the ball into the goal.
A. Although he tried many times, he ever succeeded in kicking the ball into the goal.
B. However hard he tried, he didn’t succeed in scoring a goal for his team.
C. No matter how many times he tried, he didn’t ever succeed in kicking the ball into the
goal.
D. Hard as he tried, he has never been successful in football career.
35.
world. When the water is warm, the (31) _______ of rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding
regions decreases. Australia could even experience a drought in many parts. On the other hand,
Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for (32) _______ rainstorms. In Pakistan
and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker and makes the area
much drier.
This happening is called El Nino and is used by weather forecasters to make long-range
weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will (33) _______ unusually heavy rains to the
southwestern part of the United States and make the central part of the country drier at the same
time.
El Nino itself used to be (34) _______. It would occur every two or seven years. But now,
this weather pattern is becoming more frequent. We cannot say when and how often tornadoes or
cyclones occur. Scientists are unsure of the reason for this (35) _______ on a global scale either.
81. A. deal B. figure C. number D. amount
82. A. angry B. strict C. severe D. cruel
83. A. bring B. fetch C. carry D. take
84. A. incredible B. predictable C. remarkable D. notable
85. A. shift B. transfer C. change D. transformation
nearby planes are moving. The basic principle of radar is exemplified by what happens when one
shouts in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person determine the size of
the cave. With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio waves
travel at the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. Radar sends out a short burst
of radio waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off the objects. By
determining the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can
determine the distance between the radar set and the objects. The word ‘radar’, in fact, gets its
name from the term ‘radio detection and ranging’. ‘Ranging’ is the term for detection of the
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distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being of critical importance to pilots, radar
is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and
storms.
87. The word ‘dense’ could be replaced by _______.
A. cold B. thick C. wet D. dark
88. The word ‘it’ refers to _______.
A. a radar set B. a short burst C. a radio wave D. light
89. Which types of waves does radar use?
90. The word ‘critical’ is closest meaning to _______.
A. serious B. severe C. heavy D. crucial
91. The way radar works is compared to _______.
A. a burst of the river banks B. the depth of a cave
C. the echo of sound against the walls D. the eyesight in dense fog
92. What mind be inferred about radar?
A. It makes the place of a radio.
B. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane.
C. It developed from a study of sound waves.
D. It has improved navigational safety.
In the West, cartoons are used chiefly to make people laugh. The important feature of all
these cartoons is the joke and the element of surprise which is contained. Even though it is very
funny, a good cartoon is always based on close observation of a particular feather of life and
usually has a serious purpose.
Cartoons in the West have been associated with political and social matters for many years.
In wartime, for example, the proved to be an excellent way of spreading propaganda. Nowadays
cartoons are often used to make short, sharp comments on politics and governments as well as on
a variety of social matters. In this way, the modern cartoon has become a very powerful force in
influencing people in Europe and the United States.
Unlike most American and European cartoons, however, many Chinese cartoon drawings
in the past have also attempted to educate people, especially those who could not read and write.
Such cartoons about the lives and saying of great men in China have proved extremely useful in
bringing education to illiterate and semi-literate people throughout China. Confucius, Mencius
and Laozi have all appeared in very interesting stories presented in the form of cartoons. The
cartoons themselves have thus served to illustrate the teachings of the Chinese sages in a very
attractive way.
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In this sense, many Chinese cartoons are different from Western cartoons in so far as they
do not depend chiefly on telling jokes. Often, there is nothing to laugh at when you see Chinese
cartoons. This is not their primary aim. In addition to commenting on serious political and social
matters, Chinese cartoons have aimed at spreading the traditional Chinese thoughts and culture
as widely as possible among the people.
Today, however, Chinese cartoons have an added part to play in spreading knowledge.
They offer a very attractive and useful way of reaching people throughout the world, regardless
of the particular country in which they live. Thus, through cartoons, the thoughts and teachings
of the old Chinese philosophers and sages can now reach people who live in such countries as
Britain, France, America, Japan, Malaysia or Australia and who are unfamiliar with the Chinese
culture.
93. Which of the following clearly characterizes Western cartoons?
A. Enjoyment, liveliness, and carefulness.
B. Originality, freshness, and astonishment.
C. Seriousness, propaganda, and attractiveness.
D. Humour, unexpectedness, and criticism.
94. Chinese cartoons have been useful as an important means of _______.
A. educating ordinary people B. spreading Western ideas
C. political propaganda in wartime D. amusing people all the time
95. The major differences between Chinese cartoons and Western cartoons come from their
_______.
A. purposes B. styles C. nationalities D. values
96. The pronoun ‘this’ in paragraph 4 mostly refers to _______.
A. a propaganda campaign B. a funny element
C. an educational purpose D. a piece of art
97. The passage is intended to present _______.
A. a description of cartoons of all kinds the world over
B. an outline of Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons
C. a contrast between Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons
D. an opinion about how cartoons entertain people
98. Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. A Very Powerful Force in Influencing People.
B. Chinese Cartoons and Western Cartoons.
C. Cartoons as a Way of Educating People.
D. An Excellent Way of Spreading Propaganda.
99. In general, Chinese cartoons are now aiming at _______.
A. disseminating traditional practices in China and throughout the world
B. spreading the Chinese ideas and cultural values throughout the world
C. bringing education to illiterate and semi-literate people in the world
D. illustrating the truth of Chinese great men’s famous sayings
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100. Which of the following is most likely the traditional subject of
Chinese cartoons?
A. Jokes and other kinds of humour in political and social matters.
B. The stories and features of the lives of great men the world over.
C. The illiterate and semi-illiterate people throughout China.
D. The philosophies and sayings of ancient Chinese thinkers.

51. A. south B. southern C. scout D. drought
52. A. dome B. comb C. home D. tomb
53. A. spontaneous B. secondary C. honesty D. monarchy
54. A. pollution B. contaminant C. atmosphere D. researcher
55. The twins look so much alike that no one can tell them apart.
A. distinguish between them B. point out with them
C. spoil them D. pick them out
56. Pitchforks were once carved entirely from wood, but today the have steel tines and
wooden handle.
A. sometimes B. formerly C. in one area D. in the meantime
57. James could not tell his parents about his many animal friends in the forest and the
exciting things that he saw, but he found another way to express himself.
A. speak with voice B. communicate
C. keep silent D. write his thoughts
58. This new magazine is known for its comprehensive coverage of news.
A. casual B. indifferent C. inadequate D. superficial
Mark the letter A, B, C or D sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
59. After driving for twenty miles, he suddenly realized that he has been driving in the wrong
direction.
A. after driving B. suddenly realized
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C. has been driving D. in the wrong direction
60. I think she will be suitable for the work because she has been working like a teacher for a
long time.
A. will be B. for
C. has been working D. like
61. Passengers are required to arrive to the gate fifteen minutes before departure time.
A. are required B. to arrive to C. before D. departure time
62. Larry never spoke to anyone, and kept himself _______.
A. outside B. withdrawn C. superior D. aloof
63. _______ of transportation has given someone the idea for a new type of toy.
A. Mostly forms B. Most every form
C. Almost forms D. Almost every form
64. It gets on my nerves that way that Carol _______ about her job.
A. forever boasts B. is forever boasting
C. never boasts D. is never boasting
65. _______, Mozart was an accomplished composer while still a child.
A. Whatever it seems remarkable how
B. No matter how seems it remarkable
C. No matter how it seems remarkable
D. No matter how remarkable it seems
66. Many young people travel all over the world, and then do all kinds of jobs before they
_______.
A. touch down B. settle down C. put down D. go down
67. The question of late payment of the bill was _______ again at the meeting.
A. raised B. risen C. brought D. taken
68. The manual coming with the appliance says “_______ any problem with merchandise,
contact your local dealer.”
A. You should have B. Had you have
C. Do you have D. Should you have
69. “Let me stay up late any longer, _______?”
A. do you B. won’t you C. will you D. should you
70. For me, _______ is not important.
A. what a person wearing B. what does a person wear
C. what a person wears D. what will a person wear
71. Hope you won’t take _______ if I tell you the truth.
A. annoyance B. resentment C. irritation D. offence
72. _______, copper is one of the earliest known metals.
A. Over 2,000 years ago mined B. Mined 2,000 years over ago
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C. Mining over 2,000 years ago D. Mined over 2,000 years ago
73. I walked away as calmly as I could _______ they thought I was the thief.
A. to avoid B. or else C. owing to D. in case
74. “Thank you for the lift” – “_______.”
A. Nonsense B. All right C. No problems D. you are welcome
75. “Will you be able to come to the meeting?” – “_______.”
A. I’m afraid not B. Of course you will
C. You must be kidding D. I’m sorry not
76. Had I known more about computer programming, I would have worked for a computer
company.
A. I didn’t know much about computer programming so I didn’t work for a computer
company.
B. A better knowledge of computer programming will help me find a job in a computer
company.
C. I wish I knew more about computer programming and could work for a computer
company.
D. Knowing more about computer programming, I would find a job in a computer
company.
77. The newspaper reports that James was awarded the first prize.
A. It’s reported that James wins the first prize.
B. It’s reported that James to be awarded the first prize.
C. James is reported to have been awarded the first prize.
D. The first prize is reported to award to James.
79. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment. Others feel that it
A. Arguing that new technology causes unemployment, other economists feel that it
B. Besides the argument that new technology causes unemployment, some economists
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C. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment, whereas others
D. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment, so others feel that
it allows more jobs to be created.
80. Travelers are advised to take out insurance. Their luggage may go astray.
A. Travelers are advised to take out insurance if their luggage may go astray.
B. Travelers are advised to take out insurance, so their luggage may go astray.
C. Travelers had better buy insurance as a precaution against their luggage may go astray.
D. Travelers are advised to take out insurance in case their luggage goes astray.
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
One of the most important (31) _______ of a standardized test is time. You’ll be allowed a
certain number of minutes for each section, so it is very important that you use your time (32)
_______. The most important time strategy is pacing yourself. Before you begin, take just a few
seconds to survey the test, noting the number of questions and the sections that looks easier than
the rest. Then, make a rough time schedule based on the amount of time (33) _______ to you.
Mark the halfway point on your test and make a note beside that mark of the time when the
testing period is half over.
Once you begin the test, keep moving. If you work slowly in an attempt to make fewer
mistakes, your mind will become bored and begin to wander. You’ll end up making far more
mistakes if you’re not concentrating. If you take too long to answer questions that stump you,
you may end up (34) _______ out of time before you finish. So don’t stop for difficult questions.
Skip them and move on. You can come back to them later if you have time. A question that takes
you live seconds to answer counts as much as one that takes you several-minutes, so pick up the
easy points first. (35) _______, answering the easier questions first helps build your confidence
and gets you in the testing groove.
81. A. factors B. issue C. concern D. information
82. A. quickly B. fast C. wisely D. hardly
83. A. close B. similar C. available D. suitable
84. A. short B. running C. moving D. cutting
85. A. Therefore B. However C. So D. Besides
Carbohydrates, which are sugars, are an essential part of a healthy diet. They provide the
main source of energy for the body, and they also function to flavor and sweeten foods.
Carbohydrates range from simple sugars like glucose to complex sugar such as amylase and
amylopectin. Nutritionists estimate that carbohydrates should make up about one-firth to one-
fifth of a person’s diet. This translates to about 75-100 grams of carbohydrates per day.
A diet that is deficient in carbohydrates can have an adverse effect on a person’s health.
When the body lacks a sufficient amount of carbohydrates, it must then use its protein supplies
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for energy, a process called gluconeogenesis. However, this result in a lack of necessary protein,
and further health difficulties may occur. A lack of carbohydrates can also lead to ketosis, a
build-up of ketones in the body that causes fatigue, lethargy, and bad breath.
86. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Carbohydrates are needed for good health.
B. Carbohydrates prevent a build-up of proteins.
C. Carbohydrates can lead to ketosis.
D. Carbohydrates are an expendable part of a good diet.
87. The word “function” as used in the first paragraph refers to which of the following?
A. neglect B. serve C. dissolve D. digest
88. According to the passage, what do most nutritionists suggest?
A. Sufficient carbohydrates will prevent gluconeogenesis.
B. Carbohydrates are simple sugars called glucose.
C. Carbohydrates should make up about a quarter of a person’s daily diet.
D. Carbohydrates should be eaten in very small quantities.
89. Which of the following do carbohydrates NOT do?
A. Prevent ketosis B. Cause gluconegenesis
C. Provide energy for the body D. Flavor and sweeten food
90. Which of the following words could best replace “deficient” as used in the second
paragraph?
A. outstanding B. abundant C. insufficient D. unequal
91. What does the word “this” refers to in the second paragraph?
A. Using protein supplies for energy.
B. Converting carbohydrates to energy.
C. Having a deficiency in carbohydrates.
D. Having an insufficient amount of protein.
92. According to the paragraph, which of the following does NOT describe carbohydrates?
A. A protein supply B. A necessity
C. A range of sugars D. An energy source
Many people are unaware of how many of the products we use every day comes from
petroleum and natural gas. In the United States each family of four uses more than two tons of
petroleum products annually. That’s almost 1200 lb of chemicals each year for every man,
woman, and child in the United States – a staggering total of 225 billion pounds of chemicals
from petroleum, and to a lesser extent, natural gas.
Of the vast amount of petroleum and natural gas we consume, more than 90 percent is
burned as fuels. Only about 5.5 percent is used for the manufacture of petrochemicals by the
chemical industry. These petrochemicals vary widely in their functions and include such
products as drugs, detergents, rubber, paints, fertilizers, dyes, perfumes, explosives, food
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preservatives, artificial sweeteners, and agricultural chemicals. Finally, about 1.5 percent of the
oil and natural gas is used as raw material for plastics. This small percentage translates into the
production of billions of pounds of polymers that yield many different and useful products.
In Post-world War II years, the United States was flooded with domestic and imported
items of extremely low cost, low quality, and limited lifetime. This led to the image of “cheap
plastics” with low durability. Today, however, the image of plastics has changed. Plastics
perform an extremely broad range of functions, from heart valves and artificial kidneys to ski
boots, non-stick surfaces, superglues, and spacecraft parts, and they compete with natural
products in durability. No other materials except plastics could perform all these different
functions.
Plastics are replacing more and more parts of your car. The use of 1 lb of plastic can
replace an average of 3.5 lb of metal in an automobile. An automobile with 400 lb of plastic
substance for metal will weigh about 1000 lb less, which increases its gas mileage by about 3
mi/gal. the fuel savings are estimated to be about 160 million barrels of oil annually. That’s more
than the total amount used by the chemical industry as raw materials to make the polymers. As
another example, synthetic polymer fibers are commonly used in fabrics, for both economical
and practical reasons. If the world’s synthetic fibers were replaced by cotton, this would require
an additional 40 million acres of farmland.
A. Production of petroleum and natural gas.
B. The versatility of petrochemicals.
C. New uses of plastic in automobile.
D. Plastics and plastic products
94. According to the passage, the percentage of petroleum and natural gas that is used in the
production of plastics is _______.
A. large B. tiny C. extravagant D. efficient
95. The word “yield” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. gain B. surrender C. produce D. require
96. The word “flooded” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. inundated B. damaged C. promoted D. in need of
97. It can be inferred from the passage that after World War II plastic products in the U.S.
were all of the following EXCEPT _______.
A. inexpensive B. plentiful C. mediocre D. long-lasting
98. The word “This” refers to _______.
A. the end of World War II B. the appearance of large quantities of inferior
goods
C. the limited lifetime of the goods D. the use of imported rather than domestic goods
99. In paragraph 4, the author supports the use of plastics in cars and polymer fibers in
fabrics because they are _______.
A. economical B. fashionable
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C. easily manufactured D. costly
100. Where in the passage does the author mention the products made of
petro-chemicals?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4

51. A. accountant B. country C. count D. fountain
52. A. clubs B. books C. hats D. stamps
53. A. paragraph B. aviation C. confidential D. supersonic
54. A. preference B. concept C. furious D. romance
55. Some land is best used if two or more different kinds of crops are grown on it alternately;
on the other hand, it is better to grow the same crop continuously.
A. time after time B. slowly but surely
C. one after another D. for many years
56. I have a thorough knowledge of the history of arts.
A. practical B. scientific C. complete D. wonderful
57. His policies were beneficial to the economy as a whole.
A. harmless B. crude C. detrimental D. innocent
58. We all locked up to these fire fighters who put out the terrible fire in our town last night.
A. respected B. looked down on
C. looked forward D. admired
59. In summer, warm southern air carries moist north to the eastern and central United States.
A. in B. air carries C. moist D. central
60. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of
another.
A. there are B. of comparing C. those D. another
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61. The people in Europe are now using the common unit of money called Euro, although the
economies in those countries are not exact the same.
A. are now using B. called C. although D. exact
62. After Jill had realized that the new computer was not what she really wanted, she
_______ it in for an other one.
A. dropped B. traded C. turned down D. bought
63. In fact the criminals _______ into because the front door was wide open and so they just
walked in.
A. needn’t have broken B. didn’t need break
C. didn’t need to break D. needn’t to have broken
64. We need to think of _______ our products to meet the need of potential customers.
A. diversify B. diversification
C. diversifying D. diverse
65. _______ that he had no choice but no leave early.
A. In such a situation he did find himself
B. In such a situation he found himself
C. He found himself in a situation where
D. He found himself in so embarrassing a situation
66. When Helen agreed to run the school play, she got more than she _______.
A. came down to B. bargained for
C. faced up to D. got round to
67. I am angry because you didn’t tell me the truth. I don’t like _______.
68. Sound comes in waves and the higher the frequency, _______.
A. higher is the pitch B. the pitch is higher
C. the higher the pitch D. pitch is higher
69. The newspaper is owned by the Mearson Group, _______ chairman is Sir James Bex.
A. which B. that C. whom D. whose
70. In order to avoid boredom, the most important thing is to keep oneself _______.
A. occupation B. occupied C. occupant D. occupational
71. One condition of this job is that you must be _______ to work at weekends.
A. acceptable B. available C. accessible D. capable
72. It is vital that we _______ a change in people’s attitude.
A. bring down B. bring back C. bring about D. bring away
73. You _______ the washing up, I could have done it to you.
A. hadn’t to do B. needn’t have done
C. couldn’t have done D. mustn’t have done
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74. ‘I hate shopping.’ – ‘_______’
A. So do I. B. Certainly.
C. That’s alright. D. I didn’t, too.
75. ‘It’s very hot here.’ – ‘_______’
A. Do you feel cold? B. I’ll turn on the heating.
C. Let’s go outside then. D. Put on your sweater then.
76. His plan was that the company would be making a profit in two years.
A. He was determined to make profit for the company in two years.
B. His plan was made to gain profit for the company in two years.
C. He set a target of two years for the company to make a profit.
D. His plan was set up in two years to make a profit for the company.
77. His behaviour is beginning to annoy me more and more.
A. He is beginning to behave more and more annoying.
B. He is annoying me more and more with his behavious.
C. He is always behaving in an annoying way to me.
D. I am beginning to get more and more annoyed by his behavious.
78. It is believed that the murderer escaped in a stolen car.
A. The murderer is believed to escape in a stolen car.
B. They believed the man to escape in a stolen car.
C. The murderer is believed to have escaped in a stolen car.
D. They believed that the murderer stole the car.
79. Alan gave me some advice. I was saved from bankcruptcy.
A. I was saved from bankcruptcy although Alan gave me some advice.
B. It was Alan’s advice that saved me from bankcruptcy.
C. If it weren’t for Alan’s advice, I would go bankcruptcy.
D. Had it not been for Alan’s advice, I would have been bankcruptcy.
80. They drove fifteen miles off the main road. They had nothing to eat for the day.
A. Not only did they drive fifteen miles off the main road, they also had nothing to eat for
the day.
B. Driving fifteen miles off the main road, they eventually had something to eat for the
day.
C. They neither drove fifteen miles off the main road nor had anything to eat for the day.
D. They drove fifteen miles off the main road until they had something to eat for the day.
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35.
We know what happens when we don’t have water – we die. We use water, other animals
use it, plants use it ... but the world never loses it. Basically, the (31) _______ of water on, above
and within the planet never changes.
Our use of it is part of an immense (32) _______, known simply enough as the water cycle.
The cycle can happen because water is one of the few substances that exists naturally, and at
temperatures which people can tolerate, as a liquid, a gas and a solid.
We all know something about the water cycle; it is part of our daily scene. Water (33)
_______ from lakes and oceans and from the leaves of plants. From there it forms clouds which
come back to earth (34) _______ rain, ice or snow. That water soaks into the ground or runs off.
And the cycle continues with rivers running into the sea, plants transpiring and so on. Animals
like us use it on the way through the cycle.
For millions of years, changes in the water cycle were slow, but now, with the (35)
_______ increase in the number of people on earth and the development of technology, we are
having a dramatic impact on the way the water cycle behaves and on the quality of the water
itself.
81. A. amount B. number C. sum D. figure
82. A. method B. process C. procedure D. route
83. A. steams B. evaporates C. dissolves D. disperses
84. A. like B. similar C. for D. as
85. A. quick B. abrupt C. rapid D. hasty
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will
cause a disaster. According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the
biggest mistakes which ambitious parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of
what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic parental expectations can cause great damage
to children.
However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but
are ambitious in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the
parents are very supportive of their child.
Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by
taking him to concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive
him 50 kilometers twice a week for violin lessons. Michael’s mother knows very little about
music, but his father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael
enter music competitions if he is unwilling.
Winston Smith, Michael’s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents successful
musicians, and they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful
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as they are and so they enter him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when
he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always
seems quiet and unhappy.
86. One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to _______.
A. push their child into trying too much
B. make their child become a musician
C. neglect their child’s education
D. help their child to become a genius
87. Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?
A. Educational psychologists. B. Unrealistic parents.
C. Their children. D. Successful musicians.
88. The phrase “crazy about” in the passage mostly means _______.
A. surprised at B. completely unaware of
C. confused about D. extremely interested in
89. Winston’s parents push their son so much and he _______.
A. cannot learn much music from them
B. is afraid to disappoint them
C. has won a lot of piano competitions
D. has become a good musician
90. The word “they” in the passage refers to _______.
A. violin lessons B. parents in general
C. Michael’s parents D. concerts
91. All of the following people are musical EXCEPT _______.
A. Michael’s father B. Winston’s father
C. Winston’s mother D. Michael’s mother
92. The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that _______.
A. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants
B. successful parents always have intelligent children
C. successful parents often have unsuccessful children
D. parents should spend more money on the child’s education
THE GOLDEN GATE BRIDGE
The Golden Gate Bridge is one of the symbols of the United States of America. it is
located in San Francisco, California, and spans the Golden Gate Strait- a mile-wide strait that
connects the Pacific Ocean to the San Francisco Bay.
It is surely one of the most beautiful bridges in the world, and also one of the tallest (the
height of a bridge is the height of the towers). The bridge, as it is today, was designed by
architects Irving and Gertrude Morrow. However, their art deco project was not the first Golden
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Gate Bridge. The original plans for the bridge were drawn in 1916, but they were of a very
complicated and ugly structure, certainly not something America could ever be proud of.
The bridge was a true experiment in its time; such a long suspension bridge had never been
tried before. It had the highest towers, the thickest cables and the largest underwater foundations
ever built. The foundations were a real problem, because they had to be cast in a depth of more
than 100 feet. Extreme depth wasn’t the sole problem. The real challenge lay in the sinking of
the piers in the violent waves of the open sea, which was thought to be almost impossible. The
construction began in 1933, and was finished in 1937, when the bridge opened to pedestrians. (It
was opened to cars one year later). The bridge was finished ahead of schedule and cost much less
than was estimated. Today, the Golden Gate Bridge has a main span of 4,2000 feet (almost a
mile) and a total length of 8,981 feet. The towers supporting the huge cables rise 746 feet above
the water. Each steel cable is 7,650 feet long and has a diameter of 36 inches.
‘International orange’ is the color the bridge has always been painted. The architects chose
it because it blends well with the span’s natural setting’. However, if the Navy had had its way,
the bridge would have been painted black with yellow stripes – in favor of greater visibility for
passing ships. There are fog horns to let passing ships know where the bridge is, and aircraft
beacons on the tops of the towers to prevent planes from crashing into them.
93. The Golden Gate Bridge _______.
A. spans the San Francisco Bay B. is the best-known symbol of the United States
C. spans the Golden Gate Strait D. is painted gold and has a gold-plated gate at each
end
94. The first plans of the bridge _______.
A. were designed by Irving and Gertrude Morrow in 1916
B. were something America could be proud of
C. were designed by Irving Morrow but were too complicated
D. were not designed in art deco style
95. The construction of the foundations was very complicated because _______.
A. it was thought to be almost impossible
B. the piers had to be sunk in the open sea through violent waves
C. they had to be the largest ones ever built
D. they had to be cast by teams of drivers, which was very expensive
96. Which one is true?
A. The construction of the Golden Gate Bridge took four years.
B. The bridge was opened to car traffic in 1939.
C. People were allowed to cross the bridge in 1939.
D. The construction of the bridge began exactly seventeen years after the first plans were
made.
97. The word ‘cast’ is closest in meaning to _______.
A. measured B. exposed C. expanded D. thrown
98. The word ‘blends’ is closest in meaning to _______.
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A. approves B. fixes C. is suitable D. is outstanding
99. What is NOT TRUE about the Golden Gate Bridge?
A. The towers supporting the huge cables rise 746 feet.
B. The bridge was first painted black with yellow stripes.
C. If you travel by boat, it may be the first sight you see.
D. The bridge had been expected to cost more than it really was.
100. How can passing ships know where the bridge is?
A. due to the color decided by the Navy
B. because there are beacons on the top of the towers
C. because the bridge is international orange
D. thanks to the fog horns

51. A. advance B. ancient C. cancer D. annual
52. A. devotion B. congestion C. suggestion D. question
the other three the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
53. A. abundance B. acceptance C. accountant D. applicant
54. A. reference B. volunteer C. refugee D. referee
55. A. we decided to pay for the furniture on the installment plan.
56. Teletext is continuously sent out at all times when regular television programs are
broadcast.
A. transmitted B. electrified C. automated D. aired
57. Any student who neglects his or her homework is unlikely to do well at school.
A. puts off B. looks for C. attends to D. approves of
58. Many political radicals advocated that women should not be discriminated on the basic of
their sex.
A. openly criticized B. rightly claimed
C. publicly said D. protested
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59. He made it clear once more that the missed books were to be received and brought to
him.
A. made B. clear C. the missed D. to be received
60. Every day in summer, but especially at the weekends, all kinds of vehicles bring crowds
of people to enjoy the various attraction.
A. at B. bring
C. crowds of people D. attraction
61. The federal government recommends that all expectant women will not only refrain from
smoking but also avoid places where other people smoke.
A. recommends that B. expectant
C. will not only refrain D. smoke
62. Instead of being excited about the good news, Ted seemed to be _______.
A. ignorant B. indifferent C. unlikely D. unexpected
63. I don’t like John. His _______ complaints make me angry.
A. continual B. continuous C. continuation D. continuously
64. My old friend and college, John, _______ married.
A. have just got B. has just got C. just have got D. just has got
65. Having opened the bottle, _______ for everyone.
A. The drink was poured B. Mike poured the drink
C. Mike pouring the drink D. The drink was being poured
66. Poor management brought the company to _______ of collapse.
A. the edge B. the foot C. the ring D. the brink
67. The chairman requested that _______.
A. the member study the problem carefully
B. with more carefulness the problem could be studied
C. the problem was more carefully studied
D. the members studied more careful the problem
68. _______ seemed a miracle to us.
A. His recover after so soon B. That he recovered so soon
C. His being recovered so soon D. When he had recovered so soon
69. Learners of English as a foreign language often fail to _______ between unfamiliar
sounds in that language.
A. separate B. differ C. distinguish D. solve
70. I haven’t received the letter. It _______ to the wrong address.
A. must send B. might have been sent
C. is sent D. have been sent
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71. My sister bought a red jacket, but she would rather _______ a blue one.
A. bought B. had bought C. have bought D. buy
72. My first job was to arrange the files into _______ order from the oldest to the most
recent.
A. alphabetical B. chronological C. numerical D. historical
73. As a result of his father’s death; he _______ a lot of money.
A. came into B. came over C. came to D. came through
74. “Let’s walk to the park!” – “_______.”
A. All right B. I think so C. I’m sorry D. OK. How can we go
there?
75. “Do you like visiting museums?” – “_______.”
A. No, I’d love to B. No, I haven’t C. Not really D. Many times
76. ‘John shouldn’t have behaved so badly’, said Janet.
A. Janet doesn’t like John’s behaviour.
B. Janet objected to John’s bad behaviour.
C. Janet dislikes John.
D. Janet was angry with John.
77. It wasn’t clear to us at the time how serious the problem was.
A. We were not sure about how serious the problem was at the time.
B. That the problem was serious was not made clear to us.
C. Little did we know anything about the seriousness of the problem.
D. Little did we realise at the time how serious the problem was.
78. He’ll know if he’s got the position or not sometime before 5 o’clock today.
A. If they decide to accept him for the position, they’ll contact him around 5 o’clock.
B. Although it seems certain that he will be accepted, the decision won’t be made known
to him until 5 o’clock.
C. If he has been accepted for the position, he will receive the confirmation at around 5
pm today.
D. by 5 pm today he’ll be informed about whether he’s been accepted for the position.
79. He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
A. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
B. I was almost not surprised by his strange behavior.
C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.
D. His behavior was a very strange thing, that surprised me a lot.
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80. The man jumped out of the boat. He was bitten by a shark.
A. Bitten by a shark, the man jumped out of the boat.
B. After jumping out of the boat, the man was bitten by a shark.
C. After bitten, the shark jumped out of the boat.
D. After jumping out of the boat, the shark bit the man.
35.
The pig was the last animal to be fully domesticated by the farmer. Unlike the cow and the
sheep, it is not a grass-eater. Its ancient home was the forest, where it searched for different kinds
of food, such as nuts, roots and dead animals, and found in the bushes (31) _______ for its
almost hairless body from extremes of sun and cold. For many centuries the farmer allowed it to
continue there, leaving his pigs to look after themselves most of the time. As the woodlands
began to shrink, the pig slowly began to be kept on the farm itself. But it did not finally come
into a shed, where it was (32) _______ on waste food from the farm and the house, until the
eighteenth century.
The pig, then, became a farm animal in the (33) _______ of agricultural improvement in
Britain in the eighteenth century, but it was given little attention by special animal breeders, for
the major farmers of the time preferred to develop the larger kinds of animal. There were,
however, various less well-known farmers interested in pigs and they (34) _______ their
improvements on new types of pigs from overseas. These were the Chinese pig, and its various
relatives, including the Neapolitan pig, which were descended from Chinese pigs that had found
their (35) _______ to the Mediterranean in ancient times.
81. A. protection B. guard C. intention D. defence
82. A. sustained B. supported C. grown D. fed
83. A. age B. mark C. point D. pass
84. A. put B. based C. launched D. fitted
85. A. course B. direction C. tendency D. way
The Singapore Science Center is located on a six-hectare site in Jurong. At the center we
can discover the wonder of science and technology in a fun way. Clap your hands and colorful
bulbs will light up. Starts a wheel spinning and it will set off a fan churning. It is a place to
answer our curiosity and capture our imagination.
The center features over four hundred exhibits covering topics like solar radiation,
communications, electronics, mathematics, nuclear energy and evolution. It aims to arose
interest in science and technology among us and the general public. The center is the first science
center to be established in South East Asia. It was opened in 1977 and it now receives an average
of one thousand, two hundred visitors a day. The exhibits can be found in four exhibition
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galleries. They are the Lobby, Physical Sciences, Life Science, and Aviation. These exhibits are
renewed annually so as to encourage visitors to make return visits to the center.
Instead of the usual “Hand off” notices found in exhibition halls, visitors are invited to
touch and feel the exhibits, push the buttons, turn the cranks or pedals. This is an interesting way
to learn science even if you hate the subject. A Discovery Center was built for children between
the ages of three and twelve. This new exhibition gallery was completed in 1985. Lately this year
a stone-age exhibit was built. It shows us about the animals and people which are extinct.
86. What can be the best title of the passage?
A. Singapore Science Center B. Discovery Center
C. Physical Sciences D. Science Center
87. What does “Hand off” in paragraph 3 mean?
A. touch B. don’t stand on C. don’t touch D. keep away
A. the center B. the general public
C. solar radiation D. evolution
89. It is stated in paragraph 2 that _______.
A. the Singapore Science Center makes people interested in science and technology
B. only students can visit the center
C. there are only several exhibits in the science center
D. visitors don’t want to come back to the center
90. It is indicated in paragraph 3 that _______.
A. it is impossible for visitors to touch and feel the objects in the center
B. if you hate science you will never learn the subject even you visit the center
C. children under 3 are not allowed to visit the center
D. the “Hand off” notices is not found in the center
91. It is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 that _______.
A. the exhibits in the center cover a wide range of topics
B. The Singapore Science Center is the first center established in the world
C. the center was not opened until 1977
D. visitors are encouraged to return to the center
92. What is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The center is located in Jurong.
B. There are four exhibition galleries in the center.
C. The exhibits are renewed every year.
D. The Singapore Science Center is the biggest in Asia.
Traditionally in America, helping the poor was a matter for private charities or local
governments. Arriving immigrants depended mainly on predecessors from their homeland to
help them start a new life. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, several European nations
778
instituted public-welfare programs. But such a movement was slow to take hold in the United
States because the rapid pace of industrialization and the real availability of farmland seemed to
confirm the belief that anyone who was willing to work could find a job.
Most of the programs started during the Depression era were temporary relief measures,
but one of the programs – Social Security – has become an American institution. Paid for by
deductions from the paychecks of working people, Social Security ensures that retired persons
receive a modest monthly income and also provides unemployment insurance, disability
insurance, and other assistance to those who need it. Social Security payments to retired persons
can start at age 62, but many wait until age 65, when the payments are slightly higher. Recently,
there has been concern that the Social Security fund may not have enough money to fulfill its
obligations in the 21st century, when the population of elderly Americans is expected to increase
dramatically. Policy makers have proposed various ways to make up the anticipated deficit, but a
long-term solution is still being debated.
In the years since Roosevelt, other American presidents have established assistance
programs. These include Medicaid and Medicare, food stamps, certificates that people can use to
purchase food; and public housing which is built at federal expense and made available to
persons on low incomes.
93. New immigrants to the U.S. could seek help from _______.
A. the people who came earlier B. the US government agencies
C. only charity organizations D. volunteer organizations
94. It took welfare programs a long time to gain a foothold in the U.S. due to the fast growth
of _______.
A. industrialization B. modernization
C. urbanization D. population
95. The word “instituted” in the first paragraph mostly means _______.
A. executed B. studied C. introduced D. enforced
96. The Social Security program has become possible thanks to _______.
A. deduction from wages B. people’s willingness to work
C. donations from companies D. enforcement laws
97. That Social Security payments will be a burden comes from the concern that _______.
A. elderly people ask for more money
B. the program discourages working people
C. the number of elderly people is growing
D. younger people do not want to work
98. Persons on low incomes can access public housing through _______.
A. low rents B. state spending
C. donations D. federal expenditure
99. Americans on low incomes can seek help from _______.
A. federal government B. government agencies
C. state governments D. non-government agencies
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100. The passage mainly discusses _______.
A. public assistance in America B. immigration into America
C. funding agencies in America D. ways of fund-raising in America
part
Question 5: Sirius, the Dog Star, is the most brightest star in the sky with an absolute
magnitude
A B
about twenty-three times that of the sun.
C D
A B C D
A B C D
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D. afforestation B. deforestation C. forestry D. reforestation

D. going B. go C. gone D. went

D. No longer has B. No sooner had C. Not until had D. Hardly had

D. that she is resting B. her resting C. that she rest D. her to rest
D. economical B. economy C. economic D. economics

D. overtone B. overcharge C. overtime D. oversight

D. send B. write C. rent D. turn

D. whether B. no matter C. because D. although

781
-“________”
environment?”
- Laura: “_______”.
D. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange

D. effects B. symptoms C. hints D. demonstration

D. failed to pay B. paid in full

D. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal

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country.
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35.
However objective we believe ourselves to be, most of us do not judge a product solely on its
merits, considering quality, value and style before making a decision. (31) ________, we are
There is nothing (32) _______ with this. It is probably a smarter way to make decisions than
relying on only our own opinions. But it does make life hard for companies. They have long
Research in Finland recently found overwhelming evidence that neighbours have a big influence
on buying decisions. When one of a person’s ten nearest neighbours bought a car, the chances
that person would buy a car of the same brand during the next week. The researchers argued that
it was not just a (35) ________ of envy. Used cars seemed to attract neighbours even more than
new cars.
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storms.
D. the nature of radar B. types of ranging

D. size B. weight C. speed D. shape

D. argumentative B. imaginative C. explanatory D. humorous

following?
D. an attachment B. a discharge C. a stream D. a ray

D. a radar set B. a short burst

D. sound B. heat C. radio D. light

D. other uses of radar B. uses of sonar technology

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M. effects of interviewing on job applicants

N. adequacy of interviewing job applicants
O. judgments of interviewers concerning job applicants
P. techniques that interviewers use for judging job applicants
D. encouragement B. assistance C. obstacle D. light

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D. judgments B. applicants C. interviewers D. characteristics
M. stands out as the worst judgmental error

N. takes effect only when a candidate is well dressed
O. exemplifies how one good characteristic colors perceptions
P. helps the interviewer’s capability to judge real ability
D. verify B. conclude C. recollect D. misrepresent

M. can easily be altered

N. is the one that stays with the interviewer
O. is unrelated to the interviewer’s prejudices
P. has been repeatedly demonstrated unrelated to the applicant’s ability
D. biases B. opposes C. improves D. distinguishes

D. devise personnel selection B. measure cognitive ability

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A B C
musician.
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A B
C D
A B C D
M. having B. making C. doing D. taking

D. on B. to C. from D. in
D. each of which B. hence each C. they each D. each of that

Question 11: It is very important for a firm or a company to keep _______ the changes in the
market.
D. pace of B. track about C. touch with D. up with

D. not as much B. not so much as C. less as D. not so many as

Question 13: The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil fuel will have _______
by 2015.
D. taken over B. caught up C. used off D. run out

D. you will know B. you know C. do you know D. will you know
D. with B. from C. in D. to
D. it easy to live B. it easy live

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broken down.
D. but B. instead of C. than D. unless

D. on B. off
C. over D. up
-“________.”
- Helen: “_______”.
D. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s B. It’s up to you

D. reasonable B. acceptable C. pretty high D. wonderful

D. hopeless B. hopeful C. successful D. unsuccessful

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D. look down on B. put up with
D. unplanned B. deliberate C. accidental D. unintentional

A. Janet has trouble keeping her emotions under control, especially when she is told frightening
stories.
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B. Since Janet is somewhat unbalanced, the only way to make her laugh is by telling stories, but
we should avoid scary ones as they might cause her to panic.
C. It is no fun to tell frightening stories to Janet, who is not very stable mentally , because she
only laughs instead of getting scared .

inconvenient.
35.
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was passed.
D. explicated B. exposed C. guaranteed D. granted

_______.
793
D. music and plays B. paintings and maps

M. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody
N. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
O. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images
P. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and characters
M. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their
students.
N. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters without permission.
O. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which they wrote the music and the lyrics.
P. It is illegal to make photographs when sightseeing or traveling.
following?
D. A law against theft B. A law against smoking

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M. To urge readers to cooperate more often

N. To offer a brief definition of cooperation
O. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict
P. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes
D. defined B. agreed on C. prized D. set up

D. explore B. unite C. evolve D. react

M. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to

cooperate.
N. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and
writing skills.
O. It is an ideal that can never be achieved.
P. It was confined to prehistoric times.
cooperation?
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M. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation
N. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds
O. To get rewards for themselves
P. To defeat a common enemy
M. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades.
N. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow.
O. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party.
P. A new business attempts to take customers away from an established company.
D. Tertiary cooperation B. Antagonistic cooperation

N. The author presents the points of view of three experts on the same topic.
O. The author compares and contrasts two types of human relations.
P. The author describes a concept by analyzing its three forms.
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A B
of fatty acids.
C D
A B C D
small planet.
A B
C D
D. were checked our homework B. had our homework checked

D. as long as B. as far as C. as soon as D. as well as

bell.
D. have been working B. be working

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D. too B. such C. enough D. so
D. passes B. would pass C. passed D. pass

D. would finish what I did B. finished what I did

D. because B. whereas
D. the same length like B. the same length as

ten years.
D. For a number of tigers B. The number of tigers

D. how B. when C. why D. where

one.
M. do up B. do in
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-“________.”
Question 21: -“______.”
D. I’ve broken your precious vase. B. I have a lot on my mind.

Question 22: Carpets from countries such as Persia and Afghanistan often fetch high prices in
the United States.
D. Artifacts B. Pottery C. Rugs D. Textiles

D. accidents B. misunderstandings
D. soak B. permanent
D. expensive B. complicated
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B. They failed to go on the holiday like they had planned because a strike took place at the
airport.
800
35.
them to read.
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needs.
weekly?
D. No time B. Once or twice C. Three D. Four

M. Virtual reality B. Teacher

M. Monitor the time the students learn.

N. Design materials for the students.
O. Find out the best activities for the students.
P. Identify weaknesses of the students.
M. Students can stay at home to learn.

N. Students can learn at times that suit their schedule.
O. Students’ learning time won’t be monitored.
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P. Students’ weak achievement can be identified.
N. Because they had high arousal levels.

O. It is a natural reaction which guards them against the effects of accidents.
P. Because they had taken drugs which led to the production of these two hormones.
dangerous sports?
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M. A lack of common sense, and a high level of arousal.
N. A low level of arousal, and an inborn desire for adventure.
O. The pleasure that results from the production of nor adrenaline, and a low level of
arousal.
P. A desire to show off, and a lack of common sense.
M. A high temperature. B. A low temperature.

danger?
N. Because they are more aware of the dangers involved.

O. Because they already have enough of the two hormones, adrenaline and nor adrenaline.
P. Because they would not be able to cope with accidents.
M. It shows that you have a high level of arousal if no saliva is produced.

N. It indicates your level of arousal by amount of saliva that is produced.
O. It can indicate whether your saliva is more acidic or more alkaline.
P. It is a good test of your sense of taste.
M. Subatomic particles.
N. Minerals.
O. Vitamins.
P. Hormones.
M. Adrenaline.
N. Nor adrenaline.
O. Lemon juice.
P. Manganese dioxide.
M. It weakens the muscles.

N. It makes people afraid.
O. It makes the heart beat more quickly.
P. It makes the heart beat more slowly.
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D. On an airplane B. In the air

situations?
N. People who have a low hormone content.

O. People who normally have a low level of arousal.
P. People who normally have a high level of arousal.
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A B C D
A B
C D
A B C
D. overestimated B. underestimated C. understated D. undercharged

D. get B. turn C. fall D. bend

D. clothing B. clothes C. garment D. clothe

D. higher B. high C. the higher D. The high

D. is there a mistake B. there a mistake is

D. came up with B. came up to

D. many-floored B. many story
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D. had conquered B. would conquer

D. ring a bell B. break the ice C. foot the bill D. fall into place
tragedy.
D. some other B. some others C. another D. the other

D. unpleasant B. unnecessary C. unusual D. unsatisfactory

Question 20: -“_________.”
- “_________.”
D. Yes, it’s really good B. No ,it’s very kind of you

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D. disgusted B. puzzled C. angry D. upset

D. wasn’t happy B. didn’t want to see

D. remake B. empty
C. refill D. repeat
banned.
D. clear B. obvious
808
A. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully.
B. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic, though
the experts could judge it quite easily.
C. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it was
not genuine .
D. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one, but not
for the experts.
35.
From the seeds themselves to the machinery, fertilizers and pesticides - The Green Revolution
regimen depend heavily on technology. One (31) ________ , however, depends much less on
technology - organic farming. Many organic farmers use machinery, but (32) _______ chemical
fertilizers or pesticides. Instead of chemical soil enrichers, they use animal manure and plant
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parts not used as food -natural, organic fertilizers that are clearly a renewable (33) ________.
Organic farmers also use alternatives to pesticides; for example they may rely on natural
predators of certain insect pests. (34) ________ the need arises, they can buy the eggs and larvae
of these natural predators and introduce them into their crop fields. They use other techniques to
control pests as well, like planting certain crops together because one crop repels the other's
pests. Organic farmers do not need a lot of land; in fact of organic farming is perfectly (35)
________ to small farms and is relatively inexpensive. Finally, many organic farmers' average
yields compare favorably with other farmers' yields.
giant.
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D. A computer company B. A software company
D. American Online B. Cyber-cockroach

D. AOL B. Pizza Hut

M. They think it is a Cyber-Cockroach

N. They think it is for experts
O. They think it is a movie and magazine company
P. They feel superior to its users
M. It used to make video games

N. It is innovative
O. It makes money
P. It has joined with another company
D. Advertisements on the Internet B. Advertisements on TV

D. It will do well B. It will do badly

811
the fashion of their fans who wish to imitate them. Another undeniable influence on what
fashion is "cool" is technology. Technology that can be worn is now and will become an ever
more important part of the "look" of fashionable young people. There are many other trends,
among them retro or vintage fashion, and so-called disposable fashion.
jeans.
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the future.
M. to explain why certain fashions are popular internationally

N. to show the best fashions to wear in order to look "cool"
O. to inform us about current and future fashion trends
P. to explain the history of certain fashion trends
D. fans B. choices C. genres D. stars

D. grunge B. hip-hop C. retro D. business casual

M. Hip-hop clothes are now sold by big-name designers and are less baggy.
N. Boots used to be popular, but now kicks are worn.
O. Hip-hop moved from other countries to the United States.
P. The baggy hip-hop look has replaced tighter jeans and polo shirts.
D. hip-hop B. wearable technology

D. hip-hop B. wearable technology

M. Because disposable fashion is cheap.

N. Because grunge is from Seattle.
O. Because disposable fashion is often brightly colored.
P. Because the grunge music craze ended in the '90s.
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M. Wearable technology will involve smaller devices.
N. Hip-hop will become exclusive to the United States.
O. Retro fashions will go out of style.
P. Disposable fashions will increase in price.
A B C D
A B C D
A B C D
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university.
D. does B. will do C. do D. must do

D. affluently B. abnormally
D. tolerated B. tolerable C. tolerant D. tolerantly

D. to sleep the desire B. to desire to sleep is

D. gets B. makes C. lets D. has

D. man B. the man

D. were unparalleled B. unparalleled

D. Many Olympic athletes B. Many Olympic athletes who

live.
D. one should not climb rocks B. one should be climbing rocks

815
D. the more you achieve B. you achieve the more

D. overlived B. outlived C. lived longer D. underlived

-“__________.”
- “_________.”
D. Yes, you could B. Yes, you can

M. come without knowing what they will see

N. come in large numbers
O. come out of boredom
P. come by plane
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D. record B. shine C. categorize D. diversity
D. uncomfortable B. warm
C. lazy D. dirty
D. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding

817
35.
Packet sugar from the supermarket is extracted from either sugar cane or sugar beet. These (31)
________ are mixed with hot water, which dissolves their natural sugar. Sugar is also found in
fruit some of which such as dates and grapes, (32) ________ very high amounts of sugar. To be a
little more scientific, sugar should be called sucrose. Sucrose is made up of two substances,
immediately.”

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EXCEPT________.
M. the different system of supervision

N. the lack of interaction with a group
O. the fact that the work space is in the home
P. the opportunities for advancement
M. Fewer than estimated in USA Today

N. More than 8 million
O. Fewer than last year
P. More than predicted in Business Week
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M. the manager of a group of telecommuters

N. a reporter
O. a statistician
P. a telecommuter
D. participation B. alteration C. opposition D. consideration

M. A definition of telecommuting
N. The advantages of telecommuting
O. An overview of telecommuting
P. The failure of telecommuting
substitute eggs. These egg substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs
when they are cooked. They have the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and they can be
820
M. To convince people to eat "designer" eggs and egg substitutes

N. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten
O. To inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol
P. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level
D. minerals B. cholesterol C. canola oil D. vitamins

D. in fact B. a little C. a lot D. indefinitely

M. increasing price
N. dietary changes in hens
O. decreased production
P. concerns about cholesterol
D. 2/3 B. 3/4 C. 1/2 D. 1/3

D. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described

D. reverse B. support C. advance D. block

M. The results are a composite of things

N. The results are inconclusive
O. The results are mingled together
P. The results are blended
M. poached
N. fried
O. boiled
P. scrambled
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M. increasing egg intake but not fat intake
N. reducing egg intake but not fat intake
O. increasing egg intake and fat intake
P. decreasing egg intake and fat intake
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2021 - 56
A B C D
machine.
A B C D
A B C
at home.
822
D
D. I’ll have been lying B. I will lie

D. could be selected B. should elect

D. If she were studying more B. If she had studied more

and billiards.
D. considered B. required
D. world’s most useful B. useful most word’s

D. remembered B. regarded C. reminded D. recommended

D. turned down B. went out

D. on account of B. in regard to
823
D. Had B. Should C. Did D. Were

receive the money.
D. between B. off C. beyond D. out

D. most B. all C. any D. these

_ Pete: “_________.”
_Maria: ”________.”
M. Oh, I don’t think of him

N. Oh, they are not having the choice
O. Although they appeared reserved at first, they are very sociable
P. No, it’s very kind of them to have an outgoing personality
824
D. exposes B. unrelated C. invisible D. phenomenal
D. available B. clear C. legitimate D. understandable

D. nonexistent B. sufficient
C. rich D. useful
D. publicly said B. openly criticized

staying away.
A. Mary is the only one in our class who isn’t taking part in a research on the environment.
825
C. We couldn’t go to Hawaii in the end because we forgot to make arrangements for the flight in
advance.
mountain.
few home truths.
B. I listened to Joe patiently until he started insulting me, in this case I told him a few home
truths.
D. I listened to Joe patiently until he started insulting me, at which point I told him a few
home truths.
35.
The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather patterns that strongly affect the world.
When the water is warm, the (31) ________ of rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding regions
decreases. Australia could (32) ________ experience a drought in many parts. On (33) ________
hand, Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for (34) ________ rainstorms. In
Pakistan and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker and makes
the area much drier. This happening is called El Nino and is used by weather forecasters to make
826
long-range weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will (35) ________ unusually
heavy rains to the southwestern part of the United States and make the central part of the country
drier at the same time.
C. number D. amount

827
M. Human ancestors became predominantly right-handed when they began to use tools.
N. It is difficult to interpret the significance of anthropological evidence concerning tool use.
O. Humans and their ancestors have been predominantly right-handed for over a
million years.
P. Human ancestors were more skilled at using both hands than modern humans.
M. Some are not very old.

N. It is unusual to see such paintings.
O. Many were made by children.
P. The artists were mostly right-handed.
M. written
N. portrayed
O. referred
P. mentioned
to________.
D. the form of crane B. the form of the body

because ________.
M. the relationship between handedness and scratches on fossil human teeth can be
verified
N. it emphasizes the differences between contemporary humans and their ancestors
828
O. the scratch patterns produced by stone knives vary significantly from patterns produced
by modern knives
P. it demonstrates that ancient humans were not skilled at using tools
D. differences B. sides C. activities D. studies

EXCEPT _________.
M. ancient artwork
N. asymmetrical skulls
O. studies of tool use
P. fossilized hand bones

829
government occurs.
the one in power.
M. Political parties in Canada

N. The Canadian election process
O. The Canadian system of government
P. The powers of parliament in Canada
M. When the governor-general decides to appoint a new government.

N. When the voters do not return majority support for the government in a general
election.
O. When the prime minister advises the governor-general to appoint a new government.
P. When the House of Commons votes for a new government.
D. approved B. evaluated C. recognized D. dismissed

M. little
N. different
O. good
P. steady
M. Whereas Canada has a constitutional form of government; Great Britain has a parliament
system.
N. Canada and Great Britain both have model systems of government.
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O. Great Britain and Canada have very similar systems of government.
P. Canada’s parliament has adopted Great Britain’s constitution.
D. Until they become powerful, they are not legally recognized.

M. the official head of parliament

N. the head of government
O. the queen’s representative in Canada
P. the official who appoints the Senate
M. choose the prime minister and the cabinet

N. do not usually vote in general elections
O. allow their representative to vote on their behalf
P. determine when a charge of government should occur
Question 2: A. child B. chicken C. machine D. church
Question 3: A. open B. happen C. offer D. begin
Question 4: A. maximum B. determine C. marvelous D. compliment
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Question 5: My father used to give me a good advice whenever I had a problem.
A B C D
A B C
at home.
Question 7: Each of the nurses report to the operating room when his or her name is called.
A B C D
Question 9: They are having their house ________ by a construction company.
B. to paint B. painted C. being painted D. painting

Question 10: The police have begun an ________ into the accident which happened this
afternoon.
B. investigation B. investigating C. investigatory D. investigate

Question 11: Parts of the country are suffering water ________ after the unusually dry summer.
B. thirst B. shortage C. supply D. hunger

Question 12: Her main ________ in the family is to wash the dishes.
B. responsible B. response C. responsibly D. responsibility

Question 13: I am very _______ in the information you have given me.
B. concerned B. surprised C. interesting D. interested

Question 14: Thanks for bringing us a present. It was very ________ of you.
A. adorable B. grateful C. thoughtful D. careful
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Question 15: Jason told me that he ________his best in the exam the ______ day.
B. had done / following B. will do / previous

C. would do / following D. was going / previous
Question 16: Education ________ to be the most important element to develop a country.
B. often be considered B. can often consider

C. can often considered D. can often be considered
Question 17: He went to a seaside resort because he was ________ of windsurfing.
A. fond B. interested C. keen D. enjoyed
Question 18: I’ve learned to put ______ all the noise.
B. up with B. out C. on D. off

Question 19: I’ve known him ________ I left college.
B. when B. during C. until D. since

Question 20: _ Peter: “Thanks a lot for your wonderful gift.”
_ Mary: “_______.”
E. You are welcome

F. Thank you
G. Cheers
H. Have a good day
Question 21: -Tim: “________.”
-Jeycy: “Certainly.”
E. Welcome back!
F. What are you doing there?
G. I’m sorry I am late
H. May I borrow a pencil, please?
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B. withdraw some money fran B. put some money into

C. give some money out D. leave some money aside
Question 23: “He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of the crime”.
B. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange

Question 24: Jenny was afraid because the dog sounded fierce.
B. cruel B. gentle C. untamed D. malevolent

Question 25: This kind of dress is becoming outmoded. If I were you, I wouldn’t dress it up at
the party.
A. fashionable B. realistic C. unfashionable D. attractive
Question 26: John has not had his hair cut for over six months.
A. It is over six months since John has not had his hair cut.
B. It is over six months since John last had his hair cut.
C. John has not had his hair cut since over six months.
D. The last six months was John has not had his hair cut.
Question 27: “Don’t come home late, Jenny, it’s dangerous!” her father said.
A. Jenny’s father told her not go home late and it was dangerous.
B. Jenny’s father told her not to go home late because it was dangerous.
C. Jenny’s father advised her go home early.
D. Jenny’s father asked her against being home late because it may be dangerous.
Question 28: Even if Richard had arrived on time, it’s doubtful if he could have found
somewhere to park his car.
A. If Richard had arrived on time, he could have found a place to park his car.
834
B. Richard didn’t arrive on time; otherwise he would definitely have found somewhere to
park his car.
C. I think Richard could hardly have found any place to park his car even if he
arrived on time.
D. Because Richard had arrived on time, he could have found a place to park his car.
Question 29: The President is not to attend the meeting. Nor are secretaries.
A. Either the President nor his secretaries are to attend the meeting.
B. Both the President and his secretaries didn’t attend the meeting.
C. Neither the President nor his secretaries are to attend the meeting.
D. The President and his secretaries are able to attend the meeting.
Question 30: She was careless. A fire broke out in the kitchen.
A. If she were careless, a fire broke out in the kitchen.
B. If she had been careful, a fire broke out in the kitchen.
C. If she had been careless, a fire would not have broken out in the kitchen.
D. If she had been careful, a fire would not have broken out in the kitchen.
35.
It is relatively easy for computers to speak. A computer that says “please” and “thank
you” in the right places is (31) ________ miracle of science, but recognizing the words that
make up normal, continuous human speech is another (32) _______.
Not until now have computers been programmed to (33) _______ to a range of spoken
commands. Until recently it was thought that computers would have to be programmed to the
accent and speech habits of each user, and only then would be able to respond (34) ________ to
their master’s or mistress’s voice. Now rapid progress is being made (35) _______ systems
programmed to adapt easily to each new speaker.
835
Question 31: A. no B. not C. nothing D. none
Question 32: A. problem B. topic C. matter D. theme
Question 33: A. talk B. answer C. communicate D. react
Question 34: A. truly B. completely C. accurately D. right
Question 35: A. with B. for C. within D. as
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the
contribution of women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed
United States. Lacking the right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not
considered an important force in history. Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the
seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren produced the best contemporary history of the
American Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters showing she exercised great
political influence over her husband, John, the second President of the United States. But little or
no notice was taken of these contributions. During these centuries, women remained invisible in
history books.
Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of female
authors writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were amateur
historians. Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their selection
and use of sources.
During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history
by keeping records of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local
women’s organizations compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper
clippings, and souvenirs were saved and stored. These sources form the core of the two greatest
collections of women’s history in the United States – one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger
Library at Radcliffe College, and the other the Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College. Such
sources have provided valuable materials for later generations of historians.
Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth
century, most of the writing about women conformed to the “great women” theory of history,
just as much of mainstream American history concentrated on “great men”. To demonstrate that
women were making significant contributions to American life, female authors singled out
women leaders and wrote biographies, or else important women produced their autobiographies.
Most of these leaders were involved in public life as reformers, activists working for women’s
836
right to vote, or authors, and were not representative at all of the great mass of ordinary women.
The lives of ordinary people continued, generally, to be untold in the American histories being
published.
E. The role of literature in early American histories.

F. The place of American women in written histories.
G. The keen sense of history shown by American women.
H. The “great women” approach to history used by American historians.
Question 37: The word “contemporary” in the first paragraph means that the history was _____.
E. informative
F. thoughtful
G. written at that time
H. faultfinding
Question 38: The word “celebratory” in the second passage means that the writings referred to
______.
E. related to parties
F. religious
G. serious
H. full of praise
Question 39: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to ________.
E. efforts
F. authors
G. counterparts
H. sources
Question 40: In the second paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the
author point out?
E. They put too much emphasis on daily activities.

F. They left out discussion of the influence on money on politics
G. The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate.
H. They were printed on poor quality paper.
Question 41: What use was made of the nineteenth-century women’s history materials in the
Schlesinger Library and the Sophia Smith Collection?
E. They were combined and published in a multivolume encyclopedia

F. They formed the basis of college courses in the nineteenth-century
G. They provided valuable information for twentieth century historical researchers
837
H. They were shared among women’s colleges throughout the United States
Question 42: In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of
nineteenth-century “great women” EXCEPT ________.
E. authors
F. reformers
G. activists for women’s rights
H. politicians
The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid
material such as silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures. Also,
some substances such as salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when molten or when dissolved in
water. The ability of metals to conduct electricity is due to how their atoms bond together. In
order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least one of their outermost electrons. This leaves
the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now strictly ions. The lost electrons are free
to move in what are known as a sea of electrons. Since the electrons are negatively charged they
attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure together.
An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are
free to move they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy such
as a battery is connected to the metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing through the
wire, and this is what makes metals such good conductors of electricity. The only other common
solid conducting material that pencil users are likely to encounter is graphite (what the ‘lead’ of a
pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and again the carbon atoms bond in such a
way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an electric current. Likewise, if
we have an ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions flow to create a
current but only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or
dissolved in water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its
charged ions cannot flow.
Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because they
contain no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily.
Water itself is a poor conductor or electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully
charged particles (the ends of a water molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is
neutral). However, most water we encounter does contain dissolved charged particles, so it will
be more conductive than pure water. Many of the problems that occur when touching electrical
devices with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that is left on our skin through
perspiration and it dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.
838
Question 43: Electrical conductivity is ________.
E. one of the most important properties of metals

F. one of the key properties of most solid materials
G. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water
H. completely impossible for silicon
Question 44: According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to ________.
E. the absence of free electrons

F. its atoms with a positive charge
G. the way its atoms bond together
H. the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms
Question 45: The word “outermost” in the first paragraph mostly means _______.
E. the lightest
F. nearest to the inside
G. furthest from the inside
H. the heaviest
Question 46: The atoms of a metal can bond together because ________.
E. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons

F. electrons can flow in a single direction
G. they lose all of electrons
H. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions
Question 47: Slat in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because ________.
E. it has free electrons

F. its charged ions can flow easily
G. it cannot create any charge ions
H. it charged ions are not free to move
Question 48: The word “they” in the third paragraph refers to ________.
E. charged ions
F. electric currents
G. charged particles
H. electrical insulator
Question 49: Water is a poor conductor because it contains ________.
E. no positive or negative electric charge

F. only a small amount of fully charged particles
G. only a positive electric charge
H. only a negative electric charge
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Question 50: We can have problems when touching electrical devices with wet hands because
_________.
E. the eater itself is a good conductor of electricity

F. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive
G. the water contains too many neutral molecules
H. the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part
Question 1: He was not a good father. He neglected his children
B. blamed B. took care of C. disregarded D. punished
Question 2: Mr. Armstrong is said to be a fairly well-to-do man
B. big B. important C. wealthy D. poor
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSET in
Question 3: This is a difficult topic. Please explain it in plain language
B. easy B. new C. different D. detailed
Question 4: He claimed that the car belonged to him
B. knew B. thought C. suspected D. declared
Because geologists have long indicated that fossil fuels will not last indefinitely, the U.S
government finally acknowledged that sooner or later other energy sources would be needed and,
as a result, turned its attention to nuclear power. It was anticipated that nuclear power plants
could supply electricity in such large amounts and so inexpensively that they would be integrated
into an economy in which electricity would take over virtually all fuel-generating functions at
nominal cost. Thus, the government subsidized the promotion of commercial nuclear power
plants and authorized their construction by utility companies. In the 1960s and early 1970s, the
public accepted the notion of electricity being generated by nuclear power plants in or near
residential areas. By 1975, 54 plants were fully operational, supplying 11 percent of the nation’s
electricity, and another 167 plants were at various stages of planning and construction. Officials
estimated that by 1990 hundreds of plants would be on line, and by the turn of the century as
many as 1000 plants would be in working order.
Since 1975, this outlook and this estimation have changed drastically, and many utilizes
have cancelled existing orders. In some cases, construction was terminated even after billions of
dollars had already been invested. After being completed and licensed at a cost of almost $6
billion, the Shoreham Power Plant on Long Island was turned over to the state of New York to
840
be dismantled without ever having generated electric power. The reason was that residents and
state authorities deemed that there was no possibility of evacuating residents from the area
should an accident occur.
Just 68 of those plants under way in 1975 have been completed, and another 3 are still under
construction. Therefore, it appears that in the mid 1990s 124 nuclear power plants in the nation
will be in operation, generating about 18 percent of the nation’s electricity, a figure that will
undoubtedly decline as relatively outdated plants are shut down
Question 5: What was initially planned for the nation’s fuel supply in the 1950s and in the
early 1960s?
E. Expansion and renovation of existing fuel-generating plants
F. Creation of additional storage capacities for fossil fuels
G. Conversion of the industry and the economy to nuclear power
H. Development of an array of alternative fuel and power sources
Question 6: How does the author describe the attitude of the population in regard to nuclear
power as fuel in the early to mid 1970s?
E. Apprehensive
F. Ambivalent
G. Receptive
H. Resentful
Question 7: In line 5, the word “nominal” is closet in meaning to _____
B. so-called B. minimal C. exorbitant D. inflated
Question 8: In line 7, the word “notion” is closet in meaning to _____
B. nonsense B. notice C. idea D. consequence
Question 9: In line 13, the phrase “this outlook” refers to _____
E. the number of operating nuclear plants
F. the expectation for increase in the number of nuclear plants
G. the possibility of generating electricity at nuclear installations
H. the forecast for the capacity of the nuclear plants
Question 10: It can be inferred from the passage that government officials made a critical
error in judgment by ____
E. disregarding the low utility of nuclear power plants
F. relying on inferior materials and faulty plant design
G. overlooking the possibility of a meltdown, however remote
H. locating installation in densely wooded areas
Question 11: In line 14, the word “terminated” is closet in meaning to ______
B. delayed B. stopped C. kept going D. conserved
Question 12: The author of the passage implies that the construction of new nuclear power
plants____
E. is continuing on a smaller scale
841
F. is being geared for greater safety
G. has been completely halted for fear of disaster
H. has been decelerated but not terminated
Question 13: Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
E. The exposition of the public opinion polls on nuclear power
F. A narration of power source deliberation in nuclear power plants
G. Causal connections in the government’s position on nuclear power
H. Point and counterpoint in the nuclear power debate
Question 14: The author of the passage implies that the issue of finding adequate sources of
fuel and power for the future ______
E. has long been ignored by shortsighted government authorities
F. may be condoned by vacillating officials
G. has lost its pertinence in light of new discoveries
H. has not yet been satisfactorily resolved
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions
Question 15: An eccentric is by definition someone whose behavior is ____, someone who
refuses to conform to the accepted norms of his society
B. abnormally B. abnormality
C. abnormalities D. abnormal
Question 16: The cook made ____ that some people were not served
A. too little B. so little
C. so few food D. so much food
Question 17: Can I ___ our brain for a moment? I can’t do this crossword by myself
A. use B. have C. mind D. pick
Question 18: It’s recommended that he _____ this course
A. take B. taking C. took D. takes
Question 19: The sign said that unauthorized persons were prohibited _____
A. entering B. to enter C. from entering D. not to enter
Question 20: I have been saving money because I _____ buy a computer
A. shall B. will C. am going to D. would
Question 21: We are in good time; there’s _____ to hurry
A. no purpose B. no need C. unnecessary D. impossible
Question 22: Customer :”Can I have a look at the pullover, please?” Salesgirl:”
______”
A. It’s much cheaper B. Which one? This one?
C. Sorry, it’s out of stock D. Can I help you?
Question 23: Mr. Smith is a ___ person. If he says he will do something, you know that
he will do
842
A. dependent B. independent
C. depending D. dependable
Question 24: All his plans for starting his own business fell ___
A. in B. through C. down D. away
Question 25: The ___ of the family home following the divorce was a great shock to the
children
A. break-down B. break-in C. break-up D. break-out
Question 26: I can’t quite _____ out what the sign says
A. make B. get C. read D. carry
Question 27: Because of the Aleuts’ constant exposure to cold weather, they have long
recognized ______
A. and body needs to be fat B. body needs the fat
C. how fat the body needs D. the body’s needs for fat
Question 28: Essentially, a theory is an abstract, symbolic representation of ____ reality
A. what it is conceived B. that is conceived
C. what is conceived D. that is being conceived of
Question 29: “Congratulations! You performed so well in the contest” “_____”
A. Thanks. But it’s just a matter of luck
B. Oh, it was nothing great
C. It’s my pleasure
D. Thanks. I’m glad you could make of it
Question 30: Children are now coming under the influence of emotions ___ than their
parents did
A. far earlier B. farther early
C. more far early D. further early
Question 31: He went with a group of people, ___ were correctly equipped for such a
climb
A. few of which B. few of whom
C. few of them D. which few of them
Question 32: It was not until recently _____ how truthful he was
A. did we realize B. that we realized
C. which we realized D. when we realized
Question 33: “Good morning, could I speak to Mr. Brown, please?” “_____”
A. He’s in a meeting. Can I take a message?
B. Probably by Monday next week
C. I’ll have to ask the person you want to ring first
D. Certainly. Would two o’clock be OK?
Question 34: Next summer, we’d like to ____ in Perugia
A. do an Italian course B. enter an Italian course
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C. make an Italian course D. perform an Italian course
Question 35: It is gravity ____ objects towards the earth
A. pulling B. to pull C. what pulls D. that pulls
We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the
contrary, both their knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many
disadvantages in streaming pupils. It does not take into account the fact that children
develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on both the bright and the not-so-bright
child. After all, it can be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of the top grade!
Besides, it is rather unread to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This
is only one aspect of their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all
our pupils to the full, not just their academic ability. We also value personal qualities and
social skills, and we fine that mixed-ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of
learning
In our classrooms, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups: this gives
them the opportunity to learn to co-operate to share, and to develop leadership skills. They
also learn how to cope with personal problems as well as learning how to think, to make
decisions, to analyze and evaluate, and to communicate effectively. The pupils learn from
each other as well as from the teachers.
Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes they work on individual tasks and
assignments, and they can do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class
teaching when this is appropriate. We encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach
them the skills they need in order to do this effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced
work; it does not matter what age the child is. We expect our pupils to do their best, not their
least, and give them every encouragement to attain this goal.
Question 36: In the passage, the author’s attitude towards “mixed ability teaching” is
A. objective B. questioning C. approving D critical
Question 37: The words “held back” means ______
A. forced to study in lower classes
B. prevented from advancing
C. made to lag behind in study
D. made to remain in the same classes
Question 38: The author argues that a teacher’s chief concern should be the development
of the pupils’ ______
A. learning ability and communicative skills
B. intellectual abilities
C. personal and social skills
D. total personality
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Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Group work provides the pupils with the opportunity to learn to be capable organizers
B. Pupils also learn to develop their reasoning ability
C. Group work gives pupils the opportunity to learn to work together with others
D. Pupils also learn how to participate in teaching activities
Question 40: The author’s purpose of writing this passage is to ____
A. recommend pair work and group work classroom activities
B. argue for teaching bright and not-so-bright pupils in the same class
C. offer advice on the proper use of the school library
D. emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching
A. Pupils can not develop in the best way if they are streamed into classes of different
intellectual abilities
B. There is no fixed method in teaching pupils to develop themselves to the full
C. It’s not good for a bright child to find out that he performs worst in a mixed-ability
class
D. Development of pupils as individuals is not the aim of group work
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is an advantage of mixed-
ability teaching?
A. Formal class teaching is the important way to give the pupils essential skills such as
those to be used in the library
B. A pupil can be at the bottom of a class
C. Pupils can be hindered from an all-round development
D. Pupils as individuals always have the opportunities to work on their way
Question 43: Which of the following statements can be best summaries the main idea of
the passage?
A. Children, in general, develop at different rates
B. Bright children do benefit from mixed-class teaching
C. Various ways of teaching should be encouraged in class
D. The aim of education is to find out how to teach the bright and not-so-bright pupils
Question 44: According to the passage, “streaming pupils” _____
A. is quite discouraging
B. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience
C. is the act of putting pupils into classes according to their academic abilities
D. will help the pupils learn best
Question 45: According to the author, mixed-ability teaching is more preferable because
A. it doesn’t have disadvantages as in streaming pupils
B. it aims at developing the children’s total personality
C. children can learn to work with each other to solve personal problems
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D. formal class teaching is appropriate
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Question 46: The most substances expand in volume when they are heated
A. The most B. expand in volume C. when D. are heated
Question 47: As inevitably as human culture has changed with the passing of time, so
does the environment
A. human culture B. changed C. the passing D. does
Question 48: A significant proportions of the plants and animals of Hawaii exists
nowhere else in the World
A. proportions B. of C. nowhere else D. World
Question 49: Mass advertising is employed when person-to-person selling in impractical,
impossible, or simply inefficiency
A. employed B. selling C. simply D. inefficiency
Question 50: The first United States citizen to become a professional sculptor was
Patience Lovell Wright, which works were executed in wax
A. to become B. professional C. which D. in wax
GREENPEACE
Greenpeace is an independent organization that campaigns to protect the environment. It
has approximately 4.5 million members worldwide in 158 countries, 300,000 of these in the
United Kingdom. (51)____ in North America in 1971, it has since opened offices round the
world. As (52)_____ as its campaigning (53)_____, it also has a charitable trust which
(54)____ scientific research and (55)_____ educational projects on environmental issues.
Greenpeace (56)____ in non-violent direct action. Activists (57)____ public attention to
serious threats to the environment. (58)____ issues on which the organization is campaigning
include the atmosphere (global warming), the (59)_____ of the rainforests and toxic
(60)_____ being emitted from factories
Question 51: A. Built B. Produced C. Invented D. Formed
Question 52: A. long B. well C. good D. far
Question 53: A. work B. job C. occupation D. position
Question 54: A. pays B. funds C. rewards D. earns
Question 55: A. undertakes B. engages C. commits D. enters
Question 56: A. accepts B. believes C. holds D. depends
Question 57: A. get B. pay C. draw D. take
Question 58: A. Current B. Recent C. Immediate D. Next
Question 59: A. ruin B. extinction C. destruction D. downfall
Question 60: A. leftover B. litter C. rubbish D. waste
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Question 61:
A. mutual B. responsible C. accelerate D. accessible
Question 62:
A. accumulate B. accurate C. accuracy D. adequate
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs in
the pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 63: A. seizure B. measure C. confusion D. tension
Question 64: A. whole B. whoop C. whose D. white
Question 1: The sailor is suffering from a deficiency of Vitamin C
A. lack B. short C. shortage D. lacking
Question 2: The nurse told her that she would have to wait for a few days for the
outcome of the medical check-up
A. putting B. payment C. result D. coming
Question 3: The policemen broke up the fight between the two teenagers
A. started B. stopped off C. called off D. canceled
Question 4: He has a good memory to retain facts easily
A. remember B. forget C. understand D. know
each of the following questions from 5-35
Question 5: Coffee is the second most valuable _____ after oil
A. ware B. production C. producing D. commodity
Question 6: We _____ on the beach now if we hadn’t missed the plane
A. might have lain B. would lie
C. could be lying D. would have lain
Question 7: “Your dress is lovely. I like it” “______”
A. Oh, it’s just an old dress
B. Thanks anyway. I think it makes me look older
C. You must be kidding. I think it’s terrible
D. Thank you. That’s a nice compliment
Question 8: The noise from the nearby factory kept me _____
A. awake B. awakened C. waking D. woken
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Question 9: Make sure you ____ us a visit when you are in town again
A. pay B. have C. give D. do
Question 10: I used to run a mile before breakfast but now I am ____
A. not used to it B. no longer practice it
C. out of practice D. out of the habit
Question 11: The government is determined to ____ terrorism
A. put the stop to B. put stop to
C. put stops to D. put a stop to
Question 12: Americans rarely shake hands to say goodbye except ___ business
occasions
A. on B. during C. at D. for
Question 13: We will talk about those ___ problems are related to psychology
A. of which B. of that C. whose D. who
Question 14: Out ___ for a walk after she finished doing her homework
A. did Mary go B. Mary went C. Mary did go D. went Mary
Question 15: The room ___ cool in summer and warm in winter
A. feels B. is felt C. finds D. is found
Question 16: By 8 o’clock yesterday, the spaceship ____ 20 hours around the earth
A. will travel B. has been traveling
C. had been traveling D. will have been traveling
Question 17: The manager, as well as his assistants, ______ yet
A. haven’t arrive B. hadn’t arrived
C hasn’t arrived D. isn’t arriving
Question 18: “Happy Christmas” “______”
A. The same to you! B. Happy Christmas!
C. You are the same! D. Same for you!
Question 19: Lucia was surprised when her guests ____ late for the party
A. came up B. turned up C. looked up D. put up
Question 20: Show me how to ___ the phone line to my computer so I can use the
Internet
A. connect B. fasten C. apply D. join
Question 21: You ____ so fast or you might have an accident
A. don’t have to drive B. shouldn’t have driven
C. had better not drive D. mustn’t have driven
Question 22: Liquid milk is usually pasteurized in order to kill bacteria for a longer ____
A. expectancy B. production C. living D. shelf life
Question 23: The majority of people accept that modern drugs are the most effective way
to cure a(n) ______
A. sicken B. illness C. symptom D. treatment
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Question 24: ____ the price is high, we can’t afford to buy a new car
A. Now that B. Although C. Whereas D. As long as
Question 25: You have gone to the doctor’s to have a check-u. You ____. You just had
your check-up last week
A. didn’t need to go B. needn’t have gone
C. needn’t go D. don’t need to go
In the explosion of the linguistic life cycle, it is apparent that it is much more difficult to
learn a second language in adulthood than a first language in childhood. Most adults never
completely master a foreign language, especially in Phonology – hence the ubiquitous foreign
accent. Their development often “fossilizes” into permanent error patterns that no teaching or
correction can undo. Of course, there are great individual differences, which depend on effort,
attitudes, amount of exposure, quality of teaching and plain talent, but there seems to be a cap
for the best adults in the best circumstances
Many explanations have been advanced for children’s superiority; they exploit Motherese
(the simplified, repetitive conversation between parents and children), make errors unself-
consciously, are more motivated to communicate, like to conform, are not set in their ways, and
have not first language to interfere. But some of these accounts are unlikely, based on what is
known about how language acquisition works. Recent evidence is calling these social and
motivation explanations into doubt. Holding every other factor constant, a key factor stands out:
sheer age
Systematic evidence comes from the psychologist Elissa Newport and her colleagues.
They tested Korean and Chinese – born students at the University of Illinois who had spent a
least ten years in the United States. The immigrants were give a list of 276 simple English
sentences, half of them containing some grammatical error. The immigrants who came to the
United States between the age of 3 and 7 performed identically to American – born students.
Those who arrived between ages 8 and 15 did worse the latter they arrived, and those who
arrived between 17 and 39 did the worst of all, and showed huge variability unrelated to their
age of arrival
Question 26: The passage mainly discussed
A. adult differences in learning a foreign language
B. children’s ability to learn a language
C. the age factor in learning languages fast
D. research into language acquisition
Question 27: From the passage, it can be inferred that “Phonology” is the study of ____
A. he grammar of language
B. the rules of a language
C the vocabulary of a language
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D. the sound system of a language
Question 28: The word “cap” in paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to _____
A. prize B. limit C. covering D. level
Question 29: According to the passage, young children learn languages quickly for all of
the following reasons EXCEPT
A. they make many mistakes B. they want to talk
C. their approach is flexible D. they frequently repeat words
Question 30: The word “set” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ____
A. fixed B. changed C. stable D. formed
Question 31: The word “unrelated” in paragraph 3 is closet in meaning to ___
A. unconnected B. unfamiliar
C. unclassified D. unidentified
Question 32: In the experiment in the passage, the Psychologists discovered _____
A. most students had lived in the U.S for more that 10 years
B. older students were unable to learn English
C. young students learned English best
D. students who arrived late were worst of all
Question 33: The word “who” in paragraph 3 refers to _____
A. Elissa Newport B. Koreans C. students D. colleagues
Question 34: According to the passage, what was the purpose of examining a sample
number of immigrants?
A. To compare different age groups
B. To detect differences in nationalities
C. To confirm different language characteristics
D. To measure the use of grammar
Question 35: Where in the passage does the author mention that children acquire their
own languages easily?
A. Line 1-2 B. Lines 10-14
C. Lines 14-16 D. Lines 17-18
The time when human crossed the Arctic land bridge from Siberia to Alaska seems
remote to us today, but actually represents a late stage in the prehistory of humans, an era when
polished stone implements and bows and arrows were already being used and dogs had already
been domesticated
When these early migrants arrived in North America, they found the woods and plains
dominated by three types of American mammoths. These elephants were distinguished from
today’s elephants mainly by their thick, shaggy coats and their huge, upward-curving tusks. They
had arrived on the continent hundreds of thousands of years before their followers. The woody
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mammoth in the North, the Columbian mammoth in middle North America, and the imperial
mammoth of the South, together with their distant cousins the mastodons, dominated the land.
Here, as in the Old World, there is evidence that humans hunted these elephants, as shown by
numerous spear points found with mammoth remains
Then, at the end of the Ice Age, when the last glaciers had retreated, there was a relatively
sudden and widespread extinction of elephants. In the New World, both mammoths and
mastodons disappeared. In the Old World, only Indian and African elephants survived.
Why did the huge, seemingly successful mammoths disappear? Were humans connected
with their extinction? Perhaps, but at that time, although they were cunning hunters, humans
were still widely settled and not very numerous. It is difficult to see how they could have
prevailed over the mammoth to such an extent
Question 36: With which of the following is the passage primarily concerned?
A. Migration from Siberia to Alaska
B. Techniques used to hunt mammoths
C. The prehistory of humans
D. The relationship between man and mammoth in the New World
Question 37: The word “implements” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____
A. tools B. ornaments C. houses D. carvings
Question 38: The phrase “these early migrants” in paragraph 2 refers to ____
A. mammoths B. humans C. dogs D. mastodons
Question 39: Where were the imperial mammoths the dominant type of mammoth?
A. Alaska
B. the central portion of North America
C. the southern part of North America
D. South America
Question 40: It can be inferred that when humans crossed into the New World, they ____
A. had previously hunted mammoths in Siberia
B. had never seen mammoth before
C. brought mammoths with them from the Old World
D. soon learned to use dogs to hunt mammoths
Question 41: Which of the following could be best substitute for the word “remains” in
paragraph 2?
A. bones B. drawings C. footprints D. spear points
Question 42: The passage supports which of the following conclusions about mammoth
A. Humans hunted them to extinction
B. The freezing temperatures of the Ice Age destroyed their food supply
C. The cause of their extinction is not definitely known
D. Competition with mastodons caused them to become extinct
Question 43: The word “cunning” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____
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A. clever B. determined C. efficient D. cautious
Question 44: Which of the following is NOT true about prehistoric humans at the time
of the mammoths’ extinction?
A. They were relatively few in numbers
B. They know how to use bows and arrows
C. They were concentrated in a small area
D. They were skilled hunters
Question 45: Which of the following types of elephants does the author discuss in the
most detail in the passage?
A. the mastodon B. the mammoth
C. the Indian elephant D. the African elephant
Question 46:
A. documentary B. occurrence C. competition D. individual
Question 47:
A. relationship B. arrangement C. challenging D. eliminate
Question 48:
A. machine B. suggestion C. shouting D. emotion
Question 49:
A. broadened B. used to C. cried D. smiled
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Question 50: It would be both noticed and appreciating if you could finish the work
before you leave
A. both B. the work C. leave D. appreciating
Question 51: A calorie is the quantity of heat required to rise on gallon of water on
degree centigrade at one atmospheric pressure
A. to rise B. A calorie C. quantity D. required
Question 52: Harry, alike his colleagues, is trying hard to finish hart work early
A. alike B. hard C. is trying D. early
Question 53: The sun supplies the light and the warmth that permit life on Earth existing
A. life B. the sun C. existing D. the warmth
Question 54: Ann finds her present job really boring. She wants to look for something
more challenge
A. look for B. finds C. challenge D. boring
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INTELLIGENCE TEST
Schools exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of tests we take. They find out how
much knowledge we have (55) ____. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all,
isn’t it a (56)____ that some people who are very successful academically don’t have any
(57)____ sense? Intelligence is the speed at which we can understand and (58)____ to new
situations and it is usually tested by logic puzzles. Although scientists are now preparing
advanced computer technology that will be able to “read” our brains, (59)____ tests are still the
most popular ways of measuring intelligence. A person’s IQ is their intelligence (60)____ it is
measured by a special test. The most common IQ tests are run by Mensa, an organization that
was founded in England in 1946. By 1976 it had 1300 members in Britain. Today there are
44000 in Britain and 100000 worldwide, (61)____ in the US. People taking the tests are judged
in relation to an average score of 100, and those score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This
(62)___ at 2% of the population. Anyone from the age of six can take the tests. All the questions
are straightforward and most people can answer them if (63)____ enough time. But that’s the
problems – the whole (64)____ of the tests is that they’re against the clock
Question 55:
A. fetched B. gained C. attached D. caught
Question 56:
A. case B. fact C. circumstance D. truth
Question 57:
A. natural B. bright C. sharp D. common
Question 58:
A. accord B. react C. answer D. alter
Question 59:
A. at this age B. for the present C. at the same time D. now and then
Question 60:
A. how B. that C. as D. so
Question 61:
A. largely B. enormously C. highly D. considerably
Question 62:
A. adds up B. turns to C. comes up D. works out
Question 63:
A. allowed B. spared C. let D. provided
Question 64:
A. reason B. point C. matter D. question
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Question 1: He was sacked from his job after the manager discovered that he had stolen
some money from his colleagues
A. dismissed B. dropped C. ejected D. evicted
Question 2: Your failure is the consequence of not studying hard enough for the test
A. cause B. motive C. result D. status
Question 3: The detective was asked to probe into the mysterious disappearance of the
painting
A. investigate B. procure C. recover D. relinquish
Question 4: Anne was not ___ to think that the test was too difficult
A. who B. the one who C. the only one D. among the people
Question 5: Over 20 years ___ but I never forgot the time we first met each other
A. have gone down B. have gone up
C. has gone by D. has gone out
Question 6: “Would you like a Coke?” “_____”
A. Yes, I’d like B. Yes, please C. Yes, I do D. Yes, I like
Question 7: The surgeon tried to save the man but unluckily the ___ was not successful
A. salvation B. operation C. generation D. solution
Question 8: The teacher at this school ____ with flu one after the other
A. went down B. went off C. went out D. went under
Question 9: ___ are unpleasant, but it will be nice when we get in to the new house
A. Movements B. Removals C. Removements D. Moves
Question 10: “Would you like to meet Mrs. Bruce?” “Yes, ____”
A. I can make an appointment with her
B. I’d love to
C. I find it very interesting
D. I don’t know where she living
Question 11: Please accept this cheque as a ____ of the service
A. recognisement B. recognizing
C. recognition D. reorganization
Question 12: A: ”Do you mind if I schedule the meeting for 11 o’clock”?
B: “Well, actually, I ____ earlier”
A. will prefer it B. would prefer it to be
C. am preferring it to be D. should prefer it will be
Question 13: I have English classes ___ day --- Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays
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A. each other B. this and the other C. all other D. every other
Question 14: Please cut my hair ____ the style in this magazine
A. the same long as B. the same long like
C. the same length like D. the same length as
Question 15: The child kept the present that she ___
A. has been given B. had been given C. had given D. has given
Question 16: The house is too dark. You’d better need ___ a bright color
A. to be painted B. painting it
C. to have it painted D. to have it paint
Question 17: The boss would rather Ann ____ listen to music at work
A. doesn’t B. didn’t C. hadn’t D. mustn’t
Question 18: It’s time the authorities ___ people ____ safety helmets
A. have/ wear B. had/ wear C. had/ to wear D. have/ worn
Question 19: When I enquired about the time of trains, I was given a _____
A. schedule B. timetable C. itinerary D. programme
Question 20: My music teacher suggested ___ for an hour before breakfast
A. practising B. to practise C. having practised D. to practising
Question 21: The new manager explained to the staff that she hoped to ___ new
procedures to save time and money
A. manufacture B. establish C. control D. restore
Question 22: It’s an awful ___ your wife couldn’t come. I was looking forward to
meeting her
A. harm B. sorrow C. shame D. shock
Question 23: Nobody says a word about the incident, ___?
A. does he B. doesn’t he C. do they D. don’t they
Not so long ago almost any students who successfully completed a university degree or
diploma course could find a good career quite easily. Companies toured the academic
institutions, competing with each other to recruit graduates. However, those days are gone, even
in Hong Kong, and nowadays graduates often face strong competition in the search for jobs.
Most careers organization highlight three stages for graduates to follow in the process of
securing a suitable career: recognizing abilities, matching these to available vacancies and
presenting them well to prospective employers
Job seekers have to make a careful assessment of their own abilities. One area of
assessment should be of their academic qualifications, which would include special skills within
their subject area. Graduates should also consider their own personal values and attitudes, or the
relative importance to themselves of such matters as money, security, leadership and caring or
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others. An honest assessment of personal interests and abilities such as creative or scientific
skills acquired from work experience should also be give careful thought
The second stage is to study the opportunities available for employment and to think
about how the general employment situation is likely to develop in the future. To do this,
graduates can study job vacancies and information in newspapers or the can visit a career office,
write to possible employers for information or contact friends or relatives who may already be
involved in a particular profession. After studying all various options, they should be in a
position to make informed comparisons between various careers
Good personal presentation is essential in the search for a good career. Job application
forms and letters should, of course, be filled in carefully and correctly, without grammar or
spelling errors. Where additional information is asked for, job seekers should describe their
abilities and work experience in more depth, with example if possible. They should try to
balance their own abilities with the employer’s needs, explain why they are interested in a career
with the particular company and try to show that they already know something about the
company and its activities
When graduates are asked to attend for the interview, they should prepare properly by
finding out all they can about the prospective employer. Dressing suitably and arriving for the
interview on time are also obviously important. Interviewees should try to give positive and
helpful answers and should not be afraid to ask questions about anything they are unsure about.
This is much better than pretending to understand a question and giving an unsuitable answer
There will always be good career opportunities for people with ability, skills, and
determination; the secret to securing a good job is to be one of them
Question 24: In paragraph 1, “those days are gone, even in Hong Kong”. Suggests that
____
A. in the past, finding a good career was easier in Hong Kong than elsewhere
B. nowadays, everyone in Hong Kong has an equal chance of finding a good job
C. it used to be harder to find a good job in Hong Kong than in other countries
D. even in Hong Kong companies tour the universities trying to recruit graduates
Question 25: The word “prospective” in paragraph 2 is closed in meaning to ____
A. generous B. reasonable C. future D. ambitious
Question 26: According to paragraph 3, job seekers should:
A. aim to give a balanced account of what the employer needs
B. divide the time equally between listening to the interviewer and speaking
C. discuss their own abilities in relation to what the employer is looking for
D. attempt to show the employer is looking for
A. only consider careers which are suited to them as people
B. include information about personal attitudes and values in their job application
C. consider how lucky they are to be able to find careers that provide such things
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D. consider the values of their parents and families as well their own wishes
Question 28: The advice given in the first sentences of paragraph 4 is to___
A. find out what jobs are available and the opportunities for future promotion
B. examine the careers available and how these will be affected in the future
C. look at the information on, and probably future location of, various careers
D. study the opportunities and the kinds of training that will be available
A. find a good position and then compare it with other careers
B. ask friends or relatives to secure them a good job
C. get information about a number of careers before making comparisons
D. find out as much as possible and inform employers of the complaints they want
Question 30: Which of the following does “this” in paragraph 6 refers to?
A. Not being afraid to be unsure
B. Giving positive and helpful answers to the questions
C. Being prepared to ask questions about things they don’t understand
D. Being unsure about the questions
Question 31: In paragraph 6, the writer seems to suggest that ____
A. interviewees should ask question if they can’t think of an answer
B. pretending to understand a question is better than giving a suitable answer
C. it is better for interviewees to be honest than to pretend to understand
D. it is not a good idea for interviewees to be completely honest in their answers
Question 32: Which of the following sentences is closest in meaning to the final
paragraph?
A. Graduates should develop at least one of these areas to find a suitable career
B. Determined, skilled and able people can easily find a good career
C. The secret to a good career is to possess skills, determination or ability
D. People with the right qualities should always be able to find a good career
A. Until recently it was quite ways for graduates to get a good job in Hong Kong
B. Job seekers should consider as many possible of the factors involved
C. Businesses used to visit the universities in Hong Kong to recruit graduates
D. Graduates sometimes have to take part in competitions to secure a good career
Social parasitism involves one species relying on another to raise its young. Among
vertebrates, the best known social parasites are such birds as cuckoos and cowbirds; the female
lays egg in a nest belonging to another species and leaves it for the host to rear
The dulotic species of ants, however, are the supreme social parasites. Consider, for
example, the unusual behavior of ants belonging to the genus Polyergus. All species of this ant
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have lost the ability to care for themselves. The workers do not forage for food, feed their brood
or queen, or even clean their own nest. To compensate for these deficits, Polyergus has become
specialized at obtaining workers from the related genus Formica to do these chores
In a raid, several thousand Polyergus workers will travel up to 500 feet in search of a
Formica nest, penetrate it, drive off the queen and her workers, capture the pupal brood, and
transport it back to their nest. The captured brood is then reared by the resident Formica workers
until the developing pupae emerge to add to the Formica population, which maintains the
mixed-species nest. The Formica workers forage for food and give it to colony members of both
species. They also remove wastes and excavate new chambers as the population increases
The true extent of the Polyergus and dependence on the Formica becomes apparent when
the worker population grows too large for existing nest. Formica scouts locate a new nesting
site, return to the mixed-species colony, and recruit additional Formica nest mates. During a
period that may last seven days, the Formica workers carry to the new nest all the Polyergus
eggs, larvae, and pupae, every Polyergus adult, and even the Polyergus queen
Of the approximately 8000 species of ants in the world, all 5 species of Polyergus and
some 200 species in other genera have evolved some degree of parasitic relationship with other
ants
Question 34: Which of the following statements best represents the main idea of the
passage?
A. Ants belonging to the genus Formica are incapable of performing certain tasks
B. The genus Polyergus is quite similar to the genus Formica
C. Ants belonging to the genus Polyergus have an unusual relationship with ants
belonging to the genus Formica
D. Polyergus ants frequently leave their nests to build new colonies
Question 35: The word “raise” is closest in meaning to _____
A. rear B. lift C. collect D. increase
Question 36: The author mentions cuckoos and cowbirds because they _____
A. share their nests with each other B. are closely related species
C. raise the young of their birds D. are social parasites
Question 37: The word “it” refers to ______
A. species B. nest C. egg D. female
Question 38: What does the author mean by stating that “The dulotic species of ants,
however, are the supreme social parasites”
A. The Polyergus are more highly developed than the Formica
B. The Formica have developed specialized roles
C. The Polyergus are heavily dependent on the Formica
D. The Formica do not reproduce rapidly enough to care for themselves
Question 39: Which of the following is a task that an ant of the genus Polyergus might
do?
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A. Look for food B. Raid another nest
C. Care for the young D. Clean its own nest
Question 40: The word “excavate” is closest in meaning to _____
A. find B. clean C. repair D. dig
Question 41: The word “recruit” is closest in meaning to _____
A. create B. enlist C. endure D. capture
Question 42: What happened when a mixed colony of Polyergus and Formica ants
becomes too large?
A. The Polyergus workers enlarge the existing nest
B. The captured Formica workers return to their original test
C. The Polyergus and the Formica build separate nests
D. The Polyergus and the Formica move to a new nest
Question 43: According to the information in the passage, all of the following terms refer
to ants beginning to the genus Formica EXCEPT ______
A. dulotic B. captured brood
C. developing pupae D. worker population
Question 44:
A. deception B. recipient C. receding D. recipe
Question 45:
A. arrival B. technical C. proposal D. approval
Question 46:
A. failure B. pleasure C. leisure D. measure
Question 47:
A. increase B. meant C. flea D. lease
need correction
Question 48: Psychological experiment indicate that people remember more math
problems that they can’t solve than those they are able to solve
A. those B. solve C. to solve D. experiment
Question 49: Salmon lay their eggs, and die in freshwater although they live in salt water
when most of their adults lives
A. although B. lay C. adult lives D. when
Question 50: Neither the mathematics department nor the biology department at State
University requires that the students must write a thesis in order to graduate with a master’s
degree
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A. requires B. must write C. to graduate D. master’s degree
Question 51: In order to survive, trees rely to the amount of annual rainfall they receive
as well as the seasonal distribution of the rain
A. of B. rely to C. as well D. seasonal
Question 52: The oldest and most widespread celebrations are that connected with he
harvesting of the first fruit
A. that B. most widespread C. first fruit D. harvesting
One of the most beautiful parts of Britain is the Lake District. The Lake District is
situated in the north-west of England and consists of high hills, mountains and, of course, lakes.
(53)_____ there are 16 lakes, of (54)_____ the largest is Lake Windermere. Over the years many
writers have been (55)_____ with this region but there can be no (56)_____ that the most famous
of all was William Wordsworth (1770-1850), who was born and lived almost the whole of his
life there. He had (57)______ connections with the village of Grasmere, where he lived for
(58)_____ thirteen years. He loved this particular part of England and many of his poems of the
joy he felt when surrounded by beautiful countryside
Every year more than 14 million people from Britain and abroad visit the Lake District to
enjoy the fresh air and the (59)____. Some go to walk in the mountains (60)_____ others sail
boats on the lakes or simply sit admiring the (61)_____ views. Unfortunately, the region is
becoming a victim of its own success in attracting visitors. (62)____ come to the Lake District
that they threaten to destroy the peace and quite which many are searching for there
Question 53:
A. Of all B. In all C. At all D. With all
Question 54:
A. all B. them C. which D. those
Question 55:
A. associated B. connected C. bound D. linked
Question 56:
A. thought B. evidence C. supposition D. doubt
Question 57:
A. tight B. firm C. steady D. close
Question 58:
A. so B. more C. some D. such
Question 59:
A. scene B. scenery C. sight D. sighting
Question 60:
A. but B. and C. when D. while
Question 61:
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A. principal B. magnificent C. effective D. significant
Question 62:
A. Such many people B. So few people C. So many people D. Such people
Question 63: The piece of work is urgent and must be done without delay
A. gradually B. immediately C. efficiency D. previously
Question 64: These machines are older models and have to be operated by hand
A. mechanically B. manually
C. automatically D. spiritually

Question 1: The soil must be kept damp at all times or the plant will die
A. bright B. arid C. sober D. moist
Question 2: It is obvious that Shawn is in love with her
A. cynical B. doubtful C. evident D. obscure
Question 3: It doesn’t matter ____ Sue tried , she still can’t pass the driving test
A. how far B. how hard C. _____ D. how good
Question 4: It’s sometimes tiring to live ___ the expectations of your loved ones
A. up to B. far away C. according to D. above
Question 5: They had hardly arrived at the airport ____ Glenda realized that she left her
passport at home
A. soon B. but C. when D. then
Question 6: George won 5 gold medals at the competition. His parents ____ very proud
of him
A. can’t be B. can’t have
C. must have been D. could have been
Question 7: Being too tired after a long hard working day, the secretarial staff ____ to
work after hours
A. refused B. admitted C. agreed D. denied
Question 8: ____ of patience, no one can beat Allison
A. Regardless B. In terms C. In spite D. In front
Question 9: “It’s high time the children ____ to bed”
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A. should go B. go C. went D. would rather go
Question 10: Bob has left home and is independent ___ his parents
A. on B. of C. with D. in
Question 11: The last man _____ the office is always Mr. Smith
A. left B. to be leaving C. to leave D. leaves
Question 12: If you don’t know when that important football match takes place, look it
___ in the World Cup timetable
A. into B. out C. up D. after
Question 13: “Can you ____ me a favor, Bill?” Peter said
A. put B. do C. make D. get
Question 14: “Didn’t you go to the cinema last night?” “____”
A. Yes, I lost the ticket B. No. It was too cold to go out
C. Ok. That was a good idea D. Yes, I stayed at home
Question 15: He managed to keep his job ____ the manager had threatened to sack him
A. despite B. although C. therefore D. unless
Question 16: You should make a(n) ____ to overcome this problem
A. impression B. effort C. trial D. apology
Question 17: All of us won’t go camping ____ the weather stays fine
A. unless B. so C. but D. however
Question 18: Don’t touch that wire or you ill get an electric _____
A. fire B. shock C. current D. charge
Question 19: That pipe ____ for ages-we must get it mended
A. has been leaking B. is leaking
C. leaks D. had been leaking
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Question 20: “Today is my 18 birthday” “______”
A. Many happy returns! B. I don’t understand
C. Take care D. Have a good time
Question 21: Julie bought herself a complete new ____ for winter
A. wear B. cloth C. clothing D. outfit
Question 22: I was so tired that I ____ had to take a nap
A. quite B. utterly C. simply D. by no means
Question 23: Don’t you think it was rather ____ of you not to let us know that you
weren’t coming?
A. mean B. unkind C. unsympathetic D. thoughtless
A. I appreciate it B. You’ve done a good job
C. Well done D. Yes, of course
Question 25: His business tactics outraged the ___ of the UK establishment
A. stiffs B. hardness C. solidity D. stability
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Question 26: Many wheat farmers have begun to ____ into other forms of agriculture
A. vary B. diverge C. diversify D. move away
Question 27: Alcohol abuse is a problem that can lead to ill health, loss of employment
and ____
A. breaking up one’s family B. one’s family can break up
C. the family is broken up D. the break-up of one’s family
According to airline industry statistics, almost 90% of airline accidents are survivable or
partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and
following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen to safety instructions before
take-off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on
your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how the release mechanism
of your belt operates. During take-offs and landings, you are advised to keep your feed flat on
the floor. Before take-off you should locate the nearest exit and an alternative exit and count the
rows of seats between you and the exits so that you can find them in the dark if necessary
In the event that you are forewarned of a possible accident, you should put your hands on
your ankles and keep your head down until the plane comes to a complete stop. If smoke is
present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkin, towels or
clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as
quickly as possible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings with you. Do
not jump on escape slides before they’re fully inflated, and when you jump, do so with your
arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away
from the plane as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage
A. Airline industry accident statistics
B. Procedures for evacuating aircraft
C. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival
D. Safety instruction in air travel
Question 29: Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions
_____
A. in an emergency B. before locating the exits
C. if smoke is in the cabin D. before take-off
Question 30: According to the passage, when should you keep your feet flat on the floor?
A. throughout the flight B. during take-offs and landings
C. especially during landings D. only if an accident is possible
Question 31: According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate
before take-off”
A. The ones that can be found in the dark
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B. The two closest to the passenger’s seat
C. The nearest one
D. The ones with counted rows of seats between them
Question 32: The word “them” in the last line of the first paragraph refers to ___
A. rows B. feet C. seats D. exits
Question 33: It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely to survive
fires in aircraft if they ____
A. keep their heads low
B. war a safety belt
C. don’t smoke in or near a plane
D. read airline safety statistics
Question 34: Airline passengers are advised to do all of the following EXCEPT ____
A. locate the nearest exits
B. ask questions about safety
C. fasten their seat belts before take-off
D. carry personal belongings in an emergency
Question 35: The word “evacuate” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
____
A. evade B. vacate C. escape D. maintain
Question 36: The word “inflated” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ___
A. lifted B. expanded C. increased D. assembled
Question 37: Where does the author mention what to do if you don’t understand the
instructions?
A. Experts say ………… uncertainties
B. According to airline industry ………… on the floor
C. In the event that ………….. a complete stop
D. To evacuate ………….. with you
Franklin D. Roosevelt, the 32nd President of the United States, was from a wealthy well-
known family. As a child, he attended private school, had private tutors, and traveled with his
parents to Europe. He attended Harvard University, and afterward studied law. At age 39,
Roosevelt suddenly developed polio, a disease that left him without the full use of his legs for the
rest of his life. Even though the worst of his illness, however, he continued his life in politics. In
1942 he appeared at the Democratic National Convention to nominate Al Smith for president,
and eight years after that he himself was nominated for the same office. Roosevelt was elected to
the presidency during the Great Depression of the 1930s, at a time when more than 5,000 banks
had failed and thousands of people were out of work. Roosevelt took action. First he declared a
bank holiday that closed all the banks so no more could fail; then he reopened the banks little by
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little with government support. Roosevelt believed in using the full power of government to help
what he called the “forgotten people”. And it was these workers, the wage earners, who felt the
strongest affection toward Roosevelt. There were others, however, who felt that Roosevelt’s
policies were destroying the American system of government, and they opposed him in the same
intense way that others admired him
In 1940 the Democrats nominated Roosevelt for an unprecedented third term. No
president in American history had ever served three terms, but Roosevelt felt an obligation not to
quit while the United States’ entry into World War II was looming in the future. He accepted the
nomination and went on to an easy victory
A. political aspects of Roosevelt’s life
B. problems during the Great Depression
C. Roosevelt’s upbringing
D. criticisms of Roosevelt’s action
Question 39: Which on of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Roosevelt was elected during the Great Depression
B. Roosevelt voted for Al Smith
C. Roosevelt had difficulty walking during his presidency
D. Roosevelt supported strong government powers
Question 40: The phrase “took action” in the first paragraph is used to illustrate the idea
that Roosevelt _______
A. performed admirably B. exerted himself physically
C. responded immediately D. got assistance
Question 41: As used in the passage, the phrase “little by little” means that Roosevelt
____
A. opened the smaller banks first
B. opened the banks for minimal services
C. opened the banks a few at a time
D. opened the bank for a short time
Question 42: The word “full” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of
the following?
A. packed B. loaded C. overflowing D. complete
Question 43: Where in the passage does the author discuss Roosevelt’s response to the
Great Depression?
A. Franklin D. Roosevelt … for the rest of his life
B. Even though the worst ….. for the same office
C. Roosevelt was elected ……. The “forgotten people”
D. And it was these ……. Others admired him
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Question 44: The word “affection” could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. fascination B. fondness C. lure D. appeal
Question 45: The word “unprecedented” in the second paragraph could be best
replaced by which of the following?
A. unimportant B. unheard of C. unjustified D. unhampered
Question 46: It can be inferred from the passage that the people who liked Roosevelt
best were ________
A. poor people B. bankers C. rich people D. average workers
Question 47: In the second paragraph, the author uses the word “looming” to indicate a
feeling of _____
A. reservation B. determination C. regret D. threat
Question 48:
A. important B. informal C. intention D. impolite
Question 49:
A. demand B. desert C. decide D. defend
Mark the letter A, B, C, D to show the underlined part that needs correction
Question 50: The student realized with disappointment that he had learned new nothing
in the lecture
A. with B. that C. new nothing D. in
Question 51: Mrs. Steven, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to
attend the festivities
A. with B. her cousins from C. are D. to attend
Question 52: The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power, and it is very cruel
A. The B. long C. a D. it is very cruel
Question 53: Although business practices have been applied successfully to agriculture,
farming is different other industries
A. applied B. successfully C. farming D. different
Question 54: The function of pain is to warn the individual of danger so he can take
action to avoid more serious damage
A. to warn B. so C. he D. serious
All men should study, we have to study to (55) _____ our knowledge and develop our
intelligence. An uneducated man can only utilize his (56)____ strength to work and live. An
educated man, (57)____ this strength, still has the faculty of his intelligent brain and good
inflection. This intelligence and thought enable him to help his physical strength to act more
quickly (58)_____ cleverly
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In a same profession or work, the educated man differs (59)_____ the uneducated
considerably. Therefore, intellectual workers have to study, this is a matter of course but
(60)____ workers must also (61)_____ an education
In civilized countries compulsory education has been applied. (62)_____ must spend
seven or eight years studying. From ploughmen to laborers in these (63)_____, no one is
(64)____ to read a book or a paper fluently
Question 55:
A. wide B. widely C. widen D. broad
Question 56:
A. body B. bodily C. power D. brain
Question 57:
A. with B. without C. no D. none
Question 58:
A. and B. but C. yet D. or
Question 59:
A. than B. with C. from D. apart
Question 60:
A. simple B. easy C. hard D. manual
Question 61:
A. learn B. study C. acquire D. know
Question 62:
A. Man B. One C. Human D. Mankind
Question 63:
A. parts B. regions C. fields D. nations
Question 64:
A. able B. unable C. not D. never

Question 1: Although the prank was meant in fun, the man became very angry
A. remark B. praise C. trick D. game
Question 2: It was impossible to know how precarious the situation was
A. hazardous B. ludicrous C. facetious D. marvelous
Question 3: I used my calculator; otherwise it _____ longer
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A. will take B. would take C. took D. would have taken
Question 4: The capacity for growth is inherent ____ all people
A. from B. in C. at D. on
Question 5: Not only ____ in the field of psychology but animal behavior is examined as
well
A. is studied human behavior B. human behavior
C. is human behavior studied D. human behavior studied
Question 6: I had to look up the number in the telephone ____
A. directors B. directly C. direction D. directory
Question 7: There are a few things I didn’t like about Professor Chung’s math class, but
____ I enjoyed it
A. large and by B. by and large C. big and large D. far and large
Question 8: These days almost everybody _____ the dangers of smoking
A. is aware about B. know of C. is aware of D. are aware of
Question 9: A: “____?” – B: “Yes. I want to send some flowers to my wife in Italy”
A. Can you help me B. Do you like flowers
C. Can I help you D. What do you like
Question 10: Only if I had known the difference ____ the more expensive car
A. would I bought B. would I have bought
C. would I buy D. I would have bought
Question 11: How many musical notes of the 11,000 tones that the human ear can
distinguish ____ in the musical scale?
A. is it B. it is C. are there D. there are
Question 12: You ____ to our conversation. It was private
A. haven’t been listening
B. shouldn’t have been listening
C. couldn’t have been listening
D. hadn’t been listening
Question 13: The bank is on ____ side of the street
A. another B. other C. the other D. the next
Question 14: The smaller the room is, ____ furniture it needs
A. less B. little C. the less D. the fewer
Question 15: What he says makes no _______ to me
A. reason B. truth C. sense D. matter
Question 16: In the 1960s ____ was concerned about pollution
A. hardly everyone B. hardly anyone
C. rarely anyone D. rarely everyone
Question 17: I hope I haven’t go ____ luggage
A. so many B. so much C. too much D. too many
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Question 18: ____ ghost exists in the world. That’s your illusion
A. No such a thing B. No such a thing as a
C. No such thing as a D. No such thing as
Question 19: Clothing made of plastic fibers has certain advantage over made of natural
A. one B. the one C. that D. what
Question 20: I am _____ of the two children in our family
A. the tallest B. the taller C. tall D. taller
Question 21: He impressed ____ his mind the words his father said to him that day
A. in B. on C. at D. of
Question 22: “I think golf really great” “______”
A. Do you? I think it’s boring B. Neither do I
C. Almost everyday D. Don’t you believe so
Question 23: “_______” “Oh, but it’s boring”
A. Would you prefer news to films?
B. I often watch the news at night
C. Don’t you like the news
D. I think you should watch the news
Question 24: Bit by bit, a child makes the necessary changes to make his language _____
A. as other people B. as other people’s
C. like other people D. like other people’s
Question 25: GDP is the abbreviation for “_______”
A. Growth Domestic Products
B. Global Domestic Products
C. General Domestic Productivity
D. Gross Domestic Product
According to some accounts, the first optical telescope was accidentally invented in the
1600s by children who put two glass lenses together while playing with them in a Dutch optical
shop. The owner of the shop, Hans Lippershey, looked through the lenses and was amazed by the
way they made the nearby church look so much larger. Soon after that, he invented a device that
he called a “looker”, a long thin tube where light passed in a straight line from the front lens to
the viewing lens at the other end of the tube. In 1608 he tried to sell his invention unsuccessfully.
In the same year, someone described the “looker” to the Italian scientists Galileo, who made his
own version of the device. In 1610 Galileo used his version to make observations of the Moon,
the planet Jupiter, and the Milky Way. In April of 1611, Galileo showed his device to guests at a
banquet in his honor. One of guests suggested a name for the device: telescope
When Isaac Newton began using Galileo’s telescope more than a century later, he noticed
a problem. The type of telescope that Galileo designed is called a refractor because the front lens
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bends, or refracts, the light. However, the curved front lens also caused the light to the separated
into colors. This meant that when Newton looked through the refracting telescope, the images of
bright objects appeared with a ring of colors around them. This sometimes interfered with
viewing. He solved this problem by designing a new type of telescope that used a curved mirror.
This mirror concentrated the light and reflected a beam of light to the eyepiece at the other end of
the telescope. Because Newton used a mirror, his telescope was called a reflector
Very much larger optical telescopes can now be found in many parts of the world, built
on hills and mountains far from city lights. The world’s largest refracting telescope is located at
the Yerkes Observatory in Williams Bay, Wisconsin. Another telescope stands on Mount
Palomar in California. This huge reflecting telescope was for many years the largest reflecting
telescope in the world until an even larger reflecting telescope was built in the Caucasus
Mountains. A fourth famous reflector telescope, the Keck Telescope situated on a mountain in
Hawaii, does not use a single large mirror to collect the light. Instead, the Keck uses the
combined light that falls on thirty-six mirrors
Radio telescopes, like optical telescopes allow astronomers to collect data from outer
space, but they are different in important ways. First of all, they look very different because
instead of light waves, they collect radio waves. Thus, in the place of lenses or mirror, radio
telescopes employ bowl-shaped disks that resemble huge TV satellite dished. Also, apart from
their distinctive appearance, radio telescope and optical telescopes use different methods to
record the information they collect. Optical telescopes use cameras to take photographs of visible
objects, while radio telescopes use radio receivers to record radio waves from distant object in
space
Question 26: What can be inferred about the first optical telescope?
A. It was bought by children B. It was invented in America
C. It was sold by a shop owner D. It was invented by accident
Question 27: Which of the following is NOT true about Hans Lippershey?
A. He owned a shop
B. He was a Dutch
C. He sold his invention in 1608
D. He got his idea of a telescope from the kids in his shop
Question 28: When was Galileo’s invention called “telescope”?
A. in 1611 B. in 1610 C. in 1608 D. in 1600
Question 29: What did Newton notice about Galileo’s telescope when he used it?
Question 30: What did Newton do with Galileo’s telescope?
A. He called it reflector B. He sent it back to Galileo
C. He improved it D. He stopped using it after his notice
Question 31: When did Newton start to use Galileo’s telescope?
870
Question 32: Where does the largest reflecting telescope stand?
Question 33: Which of the following can both optical and radio telescope do?
A. Taking photographs of visible objects
B. Allowing a collection of data from outer space
C. Collecting radio waves
D. Collecting light waves
Question 34: Which of the following True about optical and radio telescope?
A. They use similar ways to collect data
B. They contain at least a mirror
C. They look different
D. They have similar appearance
Question 35: How many types of telescope are mentioned in the passage?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
The miracle therapy of blood transfusion was invented by and English doctor, James
Blundell. In 1818, he performed the first transfusion, on a patient said to be incurable. Using a
syringe, he successfully injected blood taken from one of his students. In 1829, he saved a
woman suffering from a severe hemorrhage. About 1900 Dr. Karl Landsteiner of Vienna found
that some people’s blood was not compatible with others’ and that these blood variations could
be classified into groups. When portable transfusion apparatus was invented, direct transfusion
between persons of the same blood type could be performed on the battlefield. In 1914 the
discovery of anticoagulants made possible the storage of the blood future use
But to save lives, the right blood had to be in the right place at the right time. The first
blood service was established by the British Red Cross in 1921. During the War World II, Red
Cross blood banks saved countless lives. Now the Red Cross engages in transfusion work in
sixty-eight countries. It recruits donors, collects, stores, and distributes blood, determines blood
groups and prepares blood derivatives
Question 36: In his first blood transfusion the donor was _____
A. Dr. James Blundell B. a laboratory animal
C. a student D. a Red Cross volunteer
Question 37: The substance used in this transfusion was _____
A. an anticoagulant B. whole blood
C. blood serum D. blood plasma
Question 38: Blood could not be stored for emergency use until _____
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A. 1818 B. 1914 C. 1921 D. 1900
Question 39: The word “compatible” as used in the first paragraph is closest in meaning
to ______
A. comparable B. possible
C. well-matched D. well-prepared
Question 40: Portable transfusion apparatus was invented by _____
A. Dr. James Blundell B. Dr. Karl Landsteiner
C. the Red Cross D. a person not identified in the article
Question 41: The invention made it possible to ______
A. give any type of blood to any person
B. save lives right on the battlefield
C. prepare blood derivations
D. store blood for emergencies
Question 42: Blood must be classified into groups because ______
A. some types will not mix
B. some people have blue blood
C. disease attacks certain groups
D. the donor’s age makes a difference
Question 43: The first Red Cross blood bank was established in _____
A. 1829 B. 1900 C. 1914 D. 1921
Question 44: The Red Cross’s role in transfusion service is _____
A. storage and distribution B. laboratory testing
C. recruiting of volunteers D. all of the above
Question 45: The word “it” in the last sentence refers to _____
A. The Red Cross B. The British Red Cross
C. a blood bank D. blood service
Question 46:
A. superman B. synthetic C. conversion D. professor
Question 47:
A. forests B. singing C. concerning D. burning
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined word
that differs from the rest in the pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 48:
A. goalie B. archive C. signal D. advertisement
Question 49:
A. trustworthy B. theory C. theses D. width
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needs correction
Question 50: Is it important that the secretary finishes the typing today
A. Is it B. that C. finishes D. typing
Question 51: Most country music songs are deeply personal and deal with themes of
love, lonely, and separation
A. country music B. deeply personal C. deal with D. lonely
Question 52: All almost the electricity for industrial use comes from large generators
driven by steam turbines
A. All almost B. industrial use C. from D. driven by
Question 53: If a glass lizard loses its tails, a new one grows to replace it
A. If B. tails C. new one D. to replace it
Question 54: Viet Nam Airlines regrets informing passengers that flight VN 251 to
Hanoi is postponed due to bad weather
A. informing B. to C. postponed D. due to
indicate the correct word (s) for each of the blanks from 55 – 64
We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use (55)_____ in our cars and to heat our
building in winter
Farmers use petrochemicals to (56)_____ the soil rich. They use them to kill insects
(57)_____ plants. These chemicals go (58)_____ rivers and lakes and kill the fish there.
Thousands of pollutants also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this (59)_____ air to other
countries and other continents.
Poor farmers use the same land over and (60)____. The land needs a rest so it will be
better next year. However the farmers must have food this year. Poor people cut down forests
(61)_______ firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land (62) ______ desert. Poor
people can’t save the environment for the (63)_____
This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. It is a problem for all
humans. The people and the nations of the world must work together to (64)_____ the world’s
resources
Question 55:
A. it B. them C. that D. those
Question 56:
A. enrich B. change C. make D. let
Question 57:
A. eat B. eaten C. eating D. ate
Question 58:
A. to B. toward C. at D. into
Question 59:
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A. pollute B. polluting C. polluted D. pollution
Question 60:
A. over B. again C. repeated D. repeating
Question 61:
A. of B. for C. with D. at
Question 62:
A. gets B. changes C. turns D. comes
Question 63:
A. future B. time C. times D. period
Question 64:
A. recycle B. preserve C. keep D. use
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2021 - ĐỀ SỐ 63 – ĐÁP ÁN
(Thời gian làm bài: 90’)
Question 1: The predominant art forms created by Africans inhabiting areas south of
the Sahara are masks and figures
A. phenomenal B. sporadic C. principal D. exquisite
Question 2: Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and
animals
A. irrefutable B. imminent C. formidable D. absolute
Question 3: Can you tell me where ___ all morning?
A. you have been B. you were C. have you been D. were you
Question 4: We regret to tell you that materials you order are out of _____
A. work B. stock C. reach D. practice
Question 5: They intended to ____ with the old computers as soon as they could afford
some new ones
A. do away B. do up C. do over D. do down
Question 6: Sales ___ are paid a salary but they may also get commissions on sales
A. representations B. presenters
C. presentations D. representatives
Question 7: A report by the police four months ago indicated that alcohol was a
connection between young people ___ in offence of violence
A. involved B. to be involved C. involving D. involve
Question 8: I have bad toothache today. I ____ to the dentist yesterday when it started
hurting
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A. should go B. should be
C. should have gone D. should have been
Question 9: I want to ____ this old car for a Ferrari but I don’t have enough money now
A. change B. exchange C. sell D. replace
Question 10: Those students do not like to read novels ____ text books
A. in any case B. leaving out of the question
C. forgetting about D. much less
Question 11: It’s hard to _____ on less than a million a month
A. make ends meet B. make a fuss
C. make up your mind D. make a mess
Question 12: I’m sure the answer to my letter ____ before next Friday evening
A. will arrive B. will have arrived C. arrives D. is arriving
Question 13: It’s English phrasal verbs ___ puzzle learners most
A. which B. that C. who D. O
Question 14: “It’s kind of you to help me tidy the room” “____”
A. Really B. You’re welcome
C. That’s alright D. It doesn’t matter
Question 15: ____ the double, she took the victim to the hospital
A. To B. For C. On D. With
Question 16: “Which of the two boys is a boy Scout?” “___ of them is”
A. All B. None C. Neither D. Either
Question 17: Thanks to modern irrigation, crops now grow abundantly in areas where
once ___ cacti and sagebrush could live
A. nor B. not the C. none other D. nothing but
Question 18: That flowers are ___ everywhere is a sign of spring
A. coming out B. breaking out C. taking over D. going over
Question 19: Art critics do not agrees on what ___ a painting great
A. qualities to make B. qualities make
C. are qualities to make D. do qualities make
Question 20: The house still remains in ___ after the hurricane
A. a good condition B. good condition
C. good conditions D. the good condition
Question 21: He read it quickly so as to get the ____ of it before settling down to a
thorough study
A. detail B. run C. core D. gist
Question 22: This is ___ the most challenging task I have ever done
A. by far B. by all means C. by the way D. by rights
Question 23: Peter was born and brought up in Cornwall and he knows the place like the
____
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A. nose on his face B. back of his hand
C. hairs on his head D. tip of his tongue
Question 24: His aunt bought him some books on astronomy and football, ____ he had
interest in
A. neither of whom B. neither of which
C. neither of what D. neither of them
Question 25: Mercury differs from other industrial metals ____ it is a liquid
A. whereas B. in that C. because of D. consequently
A. Appreciate it B. Well-done
C. Yes, of course D. You’ve done a good job
Question 27: Many difficulties have ___ as a result of the changeover to a new type of
fuel
A. raised B. been raised C. risen D. arisen
Dissociative identity disorder is a psychological condition in which a person’s identity
dissociates, or fragments, thereby creating distinct independent identities within one individual.
Each separate personality can be distinct from the other personalities in a number of ways,
including posture, manner of moving, tone and pitch of voice, gestures, facial expressions, and
use of language. A person suffering from dissociative identity disorder may have a large number
of independent personalities or perhaps only two or three
Two stories of actual women suffering from dissociative identity disorder have been
extensively recounted in books and films that are familiar to the public. One of them is the story
of a woman with 22 separate personalities known as Eve. In the 1950s, a book by Corbert
Thigpen and a motion picture starring Joanne Woodward, each of which was titled The three
faces of Eve, presented her story; the title referred to 3 faces, when the woman known as Eve
actually experienced 22 different personalities, because only 3 of the personalities could exists at
one time. Two decades later, Carolyn Sizemore, Eve’s 22nd personality, wrote about her
experiences in a book entitled I’m Eve. The second well-known story of a woman suffering from
dissociative identity disorder is the story of Sybil, a woman whose 16 distinct personalities
emerged over a period of 40 years. A book describing Sybil’s experience was written by Flora
Rheta Schreiber and was published in 1973; a motion picture based on the book and starring
Sally Field followed
Question 28: It is NOT stated in paragraph 1 that someone suffering from dissociative
identity disorder has ____
A. a psychological condition
B. a fragmented identity
C. a number of independent identities
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D. some violent and some nonviolent identities
Question 29: It is indicated in paragraph 1 that distinct personalities can differ in all of
the following ways EXCEPT ___
A. manner of dressing B. manner of moving
C. manner of speaking D. manner of gesturing
Question 30: The word “recounted” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____
A. told about B. counted again
C. explained clearly D. illustrated
Question 31: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to ____
A. the two women suffering from dissociative identity disorder
B. the two stories of actual women suffering from dissociative identity disorder
C. the book and film about the women
D. the personalities that the two women have
Question 32: It is indicated in paragraph 2 that it is NOT true that Eve
A. suffered from dissociative identity disorder
B. starred in the movie about her life
C. had 22 distinct personalities
D. had only 3 distinct personalities at any one time
Question 33: It is NOT stated in paragraph 2 that the Three Faces of Eve
A. was based on the life of a real woman
B. was the title of a book
C. was the title of a movie
D. was made into a movie in 1950
Question 34: All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about Carolyn Sizemore
EXCEPT that she _____
A. wrote I’m Eve
B. was one of Eve’s personalities
C. wrote a book in the 1970s
D. was familiar with all 22 personalities
Question 35: According to paragraph 2, it is NOT true that Sybil
A. was a real person
B. suffered from dissociative identity disorder
C. developed all her personalities over 16 years
D. developed 16 distinctive personalities over a long period of time
Question 36: It is NOT indicated in paragraph 2 that the book describing Sybil’s
experiences
A. took 40 years to write
B. was written by Flora Rheta Schreiber
C. appeared in the 1970s
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D. was made into a movie
Question 37: Which of the following is true about Eve and Sybil?
A. One of them wrote a book about their own experiences during one of their many
personalities
B. I’m Eve is a book written about Sybil’s story
C. All the books about Eve’s and Sybil’s stories were made into films
D. They were the only two women who suffered from dissociative identity disorder
Europe, recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practising it, and discovering new
time. The motto of recycling movement is “reduce, reuse and recycle”
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stories, a shopper has to buy products in blister
packs, boxes and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in
lots of packaging: usually paper, a box, and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People
reduce waste is to buy high – quality products. When low – quality appliances break, many
example, if a customer buys a high – quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the
manufacturer receives and important message. IN the same way, if a customer chooses a product
with less packaging, that customer sends and important message to the manufacturers. To reduce
garbage, the throwaway must stop
collect the bottles, wash them and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new
bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In
those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throwaway bottles
The third step in being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be
energy to make on aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world’s precious
resources
B. what people often understand about the term “recycle”
Question 39: Which is described as one of the most industrialized areas?
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Question 40: What does the word “sensitive” in the phrase “sensitive to the
environment” mean?
Question 41: People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT _______
A. buy high-quality product B. reuse cups
C. buy simply-wrapped things D. buy fewer hamburgers
Question 42: Why is it a waste when customers buy low-quality products?
A. Because people will soon throw them away
B. Because they have to be repaired many times
C. Because customers change their ideas all the time
D. Because they produce less energy
Question 43: What does it mean “Customers can vote with their wallets”?
A. they can choose the cheapest products
B. they can cast a lot to praise a producer
C. they can ask people to choose products with less packaging
D. they can tell the producers which products are good for environment by buying them
Question 44: The word “motto” is closest in meaning to ______
Question 45: What best describes the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again
B. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed
C. The bottles are washed, returned, filled again and collected
D. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed
Question 46: The garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic
because
C. not many bottles are made of glass or plastic
D. each returned bottles is paid
Question 47: The word “practice” is closest in meaning to _____
Mark the letter to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the
main stress
Question 48:
A. information B. decoration C. considerate D. confidential
Question 49:
A. ensure B. result C. museum D. follow
needs correction
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Question 50: A paragraph is a portion of text consists of some sentences related to the
same idea
A. A paragraph B. a portion C. consists of D. related to
Question 51: The measurement unit known as a “foot” has originally based on the size of
the human foot
A. measurement B. has C. size D. foot
Question 52: She achieved world famous through her studies of child-rearing,
personality and culture
A. famous B. studies C. child-rearing D. culture
Question 53: Some plants in this garden require very little sunlight but this one needs
much more sunlight than others
A. require B. little C. one D. others
Question 54: Many animals have become extinction due to the interference of human
beings
A. have B. extinction C. due to D. human beings
Reading is Fun
More and more people are discovering that sharing and talking about their favorite books
with others can be as rewarding as the act of reading (55)____. For people who feel that they are
too busy to sit down with a book, a book club helps them schedule time to read, others have
gained self-confidence by (56)____ in or leading a discussion. And most people enjoy the chance
to (57)_____ new friends
A successful book club should have a group that is small enough so even the quiet people
can be heard but also big enough for many different (58)____. The best arrangement is a
(59)____ of ages, sexes, and backgrounds for more reading variety and livelier discussions
The book club could (60)_____ in one subject or type of book, like mysteries, science
fiction, or biographies. Or the members could read books of all types, as long as the book is
highly recommended by someone who thinks it would be (61)____ discussing
Some book clubs meet in places like bookstores, public libraries, or restaurants, but most
have their meetings in members’ homes. The approach simply (62)______ more privacy and
time for longer meetings
To make the meeting go smoothly, a leader should be (63)_____. The leader will usually
start the discussion by asking what the author’s main idea was. Book club members should never
be afraid to offer their opinions, even if they don’t like a book. They just need to be prepared to
explain (64)_____
Question 55:
A. oneself B. itself C. themselves D. it
Question 56:
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A. sitting B. talking C. participating D. taking
Question 57:
A. do B. form C. gather D. make
Question 58:
A. attitudes B. opinions C. issues D. characters
Question 59:
A. mixture B. lot C. range D. number
Question 60:
A. talk B. focus C. concentrate D. specialize
Question 61:
A. worth B. useful C. valuable D. busy
Question 62:
A. takes B. offers C. supplies D. encourage
Question 63:
A. named B. appointed C. suggested D. called
Question 64:
A. why B. where C. what D. how
Question 1: “Thanks a lot for you help” “______”
A. Don’t mention it B. Oh, that’s too bad
C. Oh, I’m sorry to hear that D. Of course
Question 2: Up ____ when it saw its master
A. jumped the dog B. did the dog jump
C. the dog jumped D. does the dog jump
Question 3: I’m sure it’s not my fault that Peter found out what we were planning. I
don’t remember ___ anyone about it
A. to tell B. being told C. having told D. to be told
Question 4: I think the most ___ idea is to go by car
A. sensible B. sensitive C. senseless D. sensational
Question 5: He couldn’t afford to ___ his car repaired
A. pay B. make C. do D. get
Question 6: “Do you think it’s going to rain?” “_____”
A. I hope not B. I don’t hope
C. I don’t hope that D. I don’t hope so
Question 7: “Can you give me some information?” “______”
A. No, thanks B. Yes, I can
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C. Certainly, sir D. I’d love to
Question 8: Nobody answered the door, ____?
A. weren’t they B. were they C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 9: I have told her that I am not going to go ahead with my plans ___ she may
think
A. whether B. despite C. however D. whatever
Question 10: It’s about time we ____ something to stop road accidents
A. do B. did C. had done D. have done
Question 11: It is widely believed that ____ human beings are descended from one
common ancestor
Question 12: The more you talk about the matter, ______
A. the situation seems worse B. the worse seems the situation
C. the worse the situation seems D. the situation seems the worse
Question 13: John can speak two languages. One is English, ____ is French
A. Other B. The other C. Another D. Others
Question 14: The blue curtain began to ___ after they had been hanging in the sun for
two months
A. melt B. die C. dissolve D. fade
Question 15: I couldn’t tell what time it was because workmen had removed the ____ of
the clock
A. hands B. pointers C. arms D. fingers
Question 16: ____ he would have been able to pass the exam
A. If he studied more B. If he were studying to a greater degree
C. Studying more D. Had the studied more
Question 17: Marine reptiles are among the few creatures that are known to have a
possible life span greater than _____
A. man B. the man’s C. the one of man’s D. that of man
Question 18: Suppose flights ___ on that day – which other day could we go?
A. are fully booked B. will be fully booked
C. would be fully booked D. have been fully booked
Question 19: I really regret making my mistake. It was the one I ____
A. had not to make B. ought not to have
C. should have not make D. mustn’t make
Question 20: He doesn’t _____ his fellow – workers and there are often disagreements
between them
A. get on with B. take to
C. put up with D. go on with
Question 21: Nobody can fool me. I am never ____ in
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A. taken B. taking C. given D. giving
Question 22: Today’s newspaper has ___ interesting article on space travel
A. quite an B. nearly C. so D. such
Question 23: The spotted owl is in danger of soon becoming ____
A. extincted B. extinction C. extinct D. extinctive
Question 24: Everyone approved of the scheme but when we asked for volunteers they
all hung ____
A. back B. on C. about D. up
Question 25: The greatest number of Native America Indians is Navajos, one sixth ____
still live in traditional one-room houses called Hogans
A. for which B. in which C. with whom D. of whom
indicate the correct answer
Until recently, growth hormone could only be obtained from the pituitary glands of dead
people. This substance is used to treat children who did not produce enough of their own growth
hormone and who could, therefore, grow up as dwarfs. The natural product was taken off the
market after it was linked to a brain disease which attacked some of the children undergoing
treatment with it. But now, a new synthetic growth hormone has been developed which, it is
claimed, has no dangerous side effects. The new drug is called “Somatrem” and can be produced
in unlimited quantities
For children who are deficient in their own growth hormone, Somatrem is an important
medical advance. The problem is that the drug may be abused by people who are not medically
in need of benefits. For example, athletes may take the drug in the belief that it will improve their
physique and physical performance. Parents may want to obtain the drug for their children who
are only marginally under average height. For such reasons , experts are recommending that
registers be kept of Somatrem recipients. The implication of the use of Somatrem must be
thoroughly understood before widespread distribution of the drug is undertaken
Question 26: What is this passage mainly about?
A. The side effects of growth drugs
B. A medical breakthrough in growth hormone
C. The abuse of growth hormone
D. The problems of growth hormone-deficient children
Question 27: The people who couldn’t benefit from this drug are short because of ____
A. lack of a hormone B. hereditary diseases
C. sever accidents D. birth defects
Question 28: The phrase “linked to” is closest in meaning to ____
A. subjected to B. caused by
C. inhibited by D. connected to
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Question 29: According to the passage natural growth hormone is not marketed now
because _______
A. it may have caused a brain disease
B. people were killed by it
C. it failed to make people grow
D. not enough pituitary glands were available
Question 30: Why does the author claim that Somatrem is an advance on natural growth
hormone?
A. I can be used by athletes
B. It is not necessary to use pituitary glands from dead people
C. It cannot be abused by people
D. It doesn’t have an adverse side effects
Question 31: The direct benefits of Somatrem will be gained by ______
A. professional athletes B. undersized children
C. medical experts D. concerned parents
Question 32: The word “people” refers to _______
A. children deficient in growth hormone
B. experts in the medical field
C. possible drug abuses
D. dead people
Question 33: The word “it” refers to _______
A. Somatrem B. natural growth hormone
C. drug abuse D. physical performance
Question 34: One might expect that Somatrem will be _____
A. in short supply B. forgotten soon
C. in demand D. taken off the market
Question 35: The word “recipients” is closest in meaning to ____
A. abuses B. receives C. salespersons D. test subjects
Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really more sophisticated
than that of a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a variety of points of view
have all concluded that there is a great deal more stored in your minds than has been generally
supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgeon, proved that by stimulating their brains
electrically, he could elicit the total recall of specific events in his subjects’ lives. Even drams
and other minor events supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in detail
The memory trace is the term for whatever is the internal representation of the specific
information about the event stored in the memory. Assumed to have been made by structural
changes in the brain, the memory trace is not subject to direct observation but is rather a
884
theoretical construct that we use to speculate about how information presented at a particular
time can cause performance at a later time. Most theories include the strength of the memory
trace as a variable in the degree of learning, retention, and retrieval possible for a memory. One
theory is that the fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is the result of an almost unlimited
combination of interconnections between brain cells, stimulated by patterns of activity. Repeated
references to the same information support recall. Or, to say that another way, improved
performance is the result of strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory
Question 36: With what topic is the passage mainly concerned?
A. Wilder Penfield B. Neurosurgery
C. Human memory D. Chemical reactions
Question 37: The word “Formerly” in line 1 could best be replaced by _____
A. in the past B. from time to time
C. in general D. by chance
Question 38: Compared with a computer, human memory is _____
A. more complex B. more limited
C. less dependable D. less durable
Question 39: The word “that” in the line 2 refers to ____
A. the computer B. the efficiency
C. the sophistication D. the memory
Question 40: According to the passage, researchers have concluded that _____
A. the mind has a much greater capacity for memory than was previously believed
B. the physical basis for memory is clear
C. different points of views are valuable
D. human memory is inefficient
Question 41: How did Penfield stimulate drams and other minor events form the past?
A. By surgery B. By electric stimulation
C. By repetition D. By chemical stimulation
Question 42: The word “elicit” in line 4 is closest in meaning to ____
A. prove B. prevent C. cause D. reject
Question 43: According to the passage, the capacity for storage in the brain _____
A. can be understood by examining the physiology
B. is stimulated by patterns of activity
C. has a limited combination of relationships
D. is not influenced by repetition
Question 44: The word “bonds” in line 13 means _______
A. promises B. agreements
C. connections D. responsibilities
Question 45: All of the following are true of a memory trace except that ______
A. it is probably made by structural changes in the brains
885
B. it is able to be observed
C. it is a theoretical constructs
D. it is related to the degree of recall
Question 46:
A. economy B. accompany C. presentation D. successfully
Question 47:
A. romantic B. popular C. financial D. reduction
needs correction
Question 48: Up to World War II almost all important research in physics had been
made in universities, with only university funds for support
A. almost all B. research C. made D. for support
Question 49: It is well-known fact that camels can go for extended periods without water
A. is well-known B. that C. go D. without
Question 50: It’s important that he need to operate. His illness seems worse
A. It’s B. that C. need D. operate
Question 51: Most of the production like fruits and vegetables that you find in this
supermarket has been imported
A. production B. fruits and vegetables
C. in this supermarket D. imported
Question 52: Not only the inflation rate was rising but unemployment, always a specter
since the 1930s, was on the increase as well
A. the inflation rate was B. but
C. the 1930s D. on the increase
Education
The basic features of the British educational system are the same (53)______ they are
anywhere else in Europe: (54)_______ education is compulsory up to the middle teenage years;
the academic year begins at the end of summer; compulsory education is free of (55)_______,
but parents may spend money (56)_________ educating their children privately if they want to.
There are three (57)_______ stages, with children moving from the first stage (primary) to the
second stage (secondary) (58)_______ around the age of eleven or twelve. The third (tertiary)
stage is “further” education at university or college. However, there is quite a lot which
(59)______ education in Britain from the way it works in other countries
The British government attached (60)_____ importance to education until the end of the
nineteenth century. It was one of the last governments in Europe to organize education for
886
everybody. Britain was leading the world (61)_______ industry and commerce, so, it was felt,
education must somehow be taking care of itself. Today, (62)__________, education is one of
the most frequent subjects for public debate in the country
Question 53:
A. like B. alike C. as D. with
Question 54:
A. full-time B. full-times C. fully-timed D. full-time’s
Question 55:
A. money B. charge C. cost D. expense
Question 56:
A. on B. in C. at D. to
Question 57:
A. recognize B. recognizing C. recognizes D. recognized
Question 58:
A. on B. at C. in D. by
Question 59:
A. distinguishes B. divides C. identifies D. differs
Question 60:
A. little B. few C. any D. much
Question 61:
A. on B. in C. at D. with
Question 62:
A. therefore B. as a result C. however D. that’s why
Question 63: Despite its reputation, the concert hall suffered from several detrimental
renovations over the years
A. dangerous B. significant C. extreme D. harmful
Question 64: With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions
on Earth may be unique in the solar system was strengthened
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64 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

Question 17: “Buy me a newspaper on your way back, ______ ?”

Question 13: Lenses, ________, are used to correct imperfections in eyesight.

1. A. heavy B. head C. weather D. easy

31. A. rules B. reasons C. ways D. tests

COLORS AND EMOTIONS

36. What is the main idea of the passage?

1. A. create B. creature C. easy D. increase

3. A. considerate B. continental C. territorial D. economic

24. – Joan: “ Our friends are coming. _______, Mike?”

31. A. provide B. provision C. provide D. providing

36. What is this article is mainly about?

43. What can be inferred about the first optical telescope?

C. in Hawaii D. in Caucasus Mountains

1. A. reside B. conserve C. resume D. preserve

31. A. laying B. lay C. laid D. to lay

43. What is the main topic of the passage?

1. A. broad B. load C. road D. boat

3. A. diverse B. current C. justice D. series

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the

7. The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the

12. I’m sorry! I didn’t break that vase on _______.

24. A. put off B. put down C. put by D. put forward

29. What is the main topic of the passage?

As college professors, we have to explain what it means to be an independent college

44. Thanks a lot for a lovely dinner. Bye! - _______

Question 1: A. final B. writer C. ivory D. widow

Question 2: A. passed B. managed C. cleared D. threatened

Question 3: A. apply B. persuade C. reduce D. offer

Question 4: A. preservative B. congratulate

about twenty-three times that of the sun.

each of the following questions.

Question 8: There should be an international law against ______.

B. afforestation B. deforestation C. forestry D. reforestation

B. going B. go C. gone D. went

A. another B. other C. others D. the other

B. No longer has B. No sooner had C. Not until had D. Hardly had

B. economical B. economy C. economic D. economics

B. overtone B. overcharge C. overtime D. oversight

B. send B. write C. rent D. turn

A. is studying B. has been studying

A. must have gone B. should have gone

C. couldn’t go D. didn’t have to go

Question 18: I won’t change my mind _____ what you say.

B. whether B. no matter C. because D. although

A. not playing B. do not play

C. not to play D. not to have played

Question 20: -“Mum, I’ve got 600 on the TOEFL test.”

meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

B. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange

B. effects B. symptoms C. hints D. demonstration

B. failed to pay B. paid in full

B. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal

A. Motorists are not careful and there are many accidents.

B. Motorists are careful and yet there are many accidents.

D. Motorists are careful and there are few accidents.

A. No sooner had he left the office than the phone rang.

B. No sooner he had left the office than the phone rang.

C. No sooner he had left the office when the phone rang.

D. No sooner he did left the office than the phone rang.

B. The less time my boss has, he works better.

C. The less time my boss has, the better he works.

D. The less time my boss has, he works the better.