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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024

MOCK CLAT - 23
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Duration : 120 Minutes Candidate Name : _____________
Max. Marks : 150 Batch : _____________
Centre Name : __________ Contact No.
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INSTRUCTIONS TO2Htr-
CANDIDATES
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1.
2.
3.
4.
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No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
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There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions.
There is negative marking of 0.25 for every incorrect answer. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are
150
You have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a BALL PEN
(BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the Taj Mahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The student has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below:
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method 8R 2U Wrong Methods
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5. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered incorrect and
no marks will be awarded for the same.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
7. Do not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and, in the spaces, provided for.
8. You are not required to submit the OMR Answer Sheet and Test Paper after the test.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the student, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal prosecution.
SECTION-A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.30): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): Prolixity is not alien to us in India. We are able to talk at some length. Krishna Menon’s
record of the longest speech ever delivered at the United Nations (nine hours non-stop), established half a century
ago (when Menon was leading the Indian delegation), has not been equaled by anyone from anywhere. Other
peaks of loquaciousness have been scaled by other Indians. We do like to speak. This is not a new habit. The
ancient Sanskrit epics, the Ramayana and the Mahabharata, which are frequently compared with the Iliad and
the Odyssey, are colossally longer than the works that the modest Homer could manage. Indeed, the Mahabharata
alone is about seven times as long as the Iliad and the Odyssey put together.
The Ramayana and the Mahabharata are certainly great epics: I recall with much joy how my own life was vastly
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enriched when I encountered them first as a restless youngster looking for intellectual stimulation as well as
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sheer entertainment. But they proceed from stories to stories woven around their principal tales, and are
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engagingly full of dialogues, dilemmas and alternative perspectives. And we encounter masses of arguments and
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counterarguments spread over incessant debates and disputations. The arguments are also, often enough, quite
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substantive. For example, the famous Bhagavad Gita, which is one small section of the Mahabharata, presents a
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tussle between two contrary moral positions —Krishna’s emphasis on doing one’s duty, on one side, and
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Arjuna’s focus on avoiding bad consequences (and generating good ones), on the other. The debate occurs on
the eve of the great war that is a central event in the Mahabharata. Watching the two armies readying for war,
profound doubts about the correctness of what they are doing are raised by Arjuna, the peerless and invincible
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warrior in the army of the just and honourable royal family (the Pandavas) who are about to fight the unjust
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usurpers (the Kauravas). These arguments remain thoroughly relevant in the contemporary world. The case for
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doing what one sees as one’s duty must be strong, but how can we be indifferent to the consequences that may
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follow from our doing what we take to betr-our just duty?
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As
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world (from terrorism, wars and violence to epidemics, insecurity and gruelling poverty), or on India’s special
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concerns (such as economic development, nuclear confrontation or regional peace), it is important to take on
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board Arjuna’s consequential analysis, in addition to considering Krishna’s arguments for doing one’s duty.
[Source, with edits and changes: Amartya Sen, The Argumentative Indian, Writings on Indian Culture, History
and Identity, Allen Lane]
1. Which of the following best describes the central point of the passage which is emphasized by the statements?
(a) There has always been a tussle between two opposing forces in the Indian historical landscape.
(b) Indians have been known to be quite verbose and full of arguments in their general disposition as evidenced
from historical events and literature.
(c) Indians have the ability to write considerable lengthy literature which are not matched by other persons
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around thetr-5U 3O1L5Q0U8R
world.
(d) The art of general arguments and debating is core to the personality of Indian authors who like making long
speeches and writing long literature.
2. The meaning of the word ‘Prolixity’ as inferred from the passage is?
(a) To be adept at the art of debating.
(b) To use very difficult words while making an argument.
(c) To use too many words in talks or write at tedious lengths.
(d) To be really evasive while making a point.
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 44
3. Which of the following will be consistent with the author’s description of Indian literature and speeches in the
passage above?
(a) Creating world class speeches and written works in Indian language.
(b) Being equal to or better than western writers in creating complex literature and speeches.
(c) Better at depicting the fight between the good and the evil than western writers while using lengthy
arguments.
(d) Very skilled in the use of excessive words to create a record in the length of speeches and writings.
4. Which of the following best describes the reasons for the author to label Indians as adept in lengthy arguments?
(a) The use of long debates on two opposing positions in the ethical scenario leading to works of historical
importance.
(b) The evidence of very long speeches and historical works written decades or centuries ago which equal or
surpass the excellent works of western writers.
writers.
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(c) The proclivity of Indians for long talks and discovery of written work which far exceeds any contemporary
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(d) Their general disposition to keep talking and debate unnecessary issues whenever there is a possibility in
5.
such aspects.
The author describes the point about the Gita to demonstrate:
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(a) There are arguments and counterarguments on even small issues in the Indian epics.
(b) The Indian epics debate about moral positions to depict the ethical dilemma of the protagonist in avoiding
war and unnecessary violence.
arguments to resolve complex issues.
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(c) Moral issue conflicts are dealt with in detail in Indian epics to highlight the importance of debating and
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(d) India has created an excellent literature on guidelines to lead pure and pious life which has been discussed
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Passage (Q.6-Q.10): From the traditional understanding of nationalism as being bounded by ideas like culture
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and territory, the discourse now needs to shift to more complex ideas and reflections of nationalism. Nationalism
that is dependent on the identification and demonization of an “other”, be it another country or another
community, is obviously divisive and helps to foment a culture of violence. There have been many scholars who
have tried to define the term. Benedict Anderson for instance defines nationalism as a bond between people that
comes to exist when the members of a nation recognize themselves and their compatriots to be part of a nation.
Earnest Geller believed that a nation is formed “if and when the members of a category firmly recognize certain
mutual rights and duties to each other in virtue of their shared membership.” Indian nationalism grew in the wake
of our struggle for independence against the British Raj. The tone of that sort of nationalism was naturally
emancipatory since it would be the rhetoric upon which the Republic of India would be founded. If we look back
into our own tr-
history, 0U8R2U
there
5U3O1L5Q have been those who have provided us with alternative narratives that warn against
an egregious understanding of nationalism. Such caution can be found in the works of Rabindranath Tagore,
whose conceptualization and understanding of nationalism is worth revisiting. Tagore was aware of the dangers
of a nationalism that was rooted in the Western concept of a nation state. He had observed European forms of
nationalism and concluded that the West had turned chauvinistic. In Europe, nationalism was a sentiment that
was being promoted in order for a nation to become more powerful, especially commercially. Tagore’s brand of
nationalism sought to caution against this. His thoughts on nationalism developed from his inquiry on what it
meant to be human. It was rooted not in the power that commerce could bring to Western political civilizations
but in human agency and its traditions that emphasized tolerance that Indian civilizations used to be characterized
by. Tagore saw Japan as a symbol of hope as well as caution. Japan being an Asian nation had reinvented itself
to become a force to reckon with. It became an example for other Asian nations and broke the myth that only
Western nations were capable of modernization. However, Tagore also expressed a note of caution saying that
the method by which Japan achieved this transformation was similar to that of other Western nations that
followed a form of aggressive nationalism which he believed was corrosive and characteristic of nationalism in
the 20th century.
[Source: https://www.epw.in/engage/article/what-kind-nationalism-do-we-need-today-exploring as assessed on
2nd May 2023]
6. According to the author, what was the major drawback of the western nationalism which was pointed out by
Tagore?
(a) The western nationalism was promoted as an emotion in which there was widespread chase of universal
supremacy.
(b) Western nationalism had become single-minded and focused much on gaining enough influence by the use
of state machinery.
(c) Western nationalism had become jingoistic by promoting excessive use of emotions and pursuit of monetary
hegemony.
7.
(d) Western nationalism neglected human resources and kept political power over everything else.
c o m
Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the author’s central argument about the disadvantages of
western nationalism?
s .
(a) Western countries have invested much in human resources and keep the individual interest above any wider
concern about the nation.
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of nationalism apart from monetary aspect.
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(b) Many western countries have famous authors who have presented an understanding of considering all aspects
(c) Western countries view nationalism from the lens of their individual citizens with a minimum guarantee for
humanity.
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(d) Western countries have marketed their products by using nationalism as a tool to aggressively promote such
goods.
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8. Which of the following can be inferred about Japan from the passage?
(a) Japan is an eastern nation which has prospered as per expectation after using western model of nationalism.
nationalism.
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(b) Japan is a western nation which has gained much from implementing the western style of nationalism.
(c) Japan is an Asian nation which has lost much of its eastern roots by emulating the west in its example of
(d) Japan is an eastern nation which has renovated against expectation by using western model of nationalism
but it is destructive in its nature.
9. Which of the following correctly represents Tagore’s personal views regarding nationalism as per the passage?
(a) That nationalism should be gentle and put the nation as a cultural entity with much to offer as a soft power.
(b) That nationalism needs to be based on the concept of human rights with a minimum guarantee for each
person. tr-5U3O1L5Q0U8R2U
(c) That nationalism needs to be based on human values with broadmindedness as its central tenet.
(d) That nationalism needs to be based on the central premise of human beings capable of committing mistakes
and their fallibility.
10. What is meant by the phrase “egregious understanding of nationalism” as per the passage?
(a) Narrow minded understanding of the concept of nationalism.
(b) Twisted and poor understanding of nationalism.
(c) Shockingly bad understanding of the concept of nationalism.
(d) Extremely faulty understanding of the concept of nationalism.
Passage (Q.11-Q.15): What is the gun lobby’s response to the horrific curse of mass shootings? Any hope that
harsher punishment—the preferred alternative to gun control—would deter aspiring killers is nonsensical, given
the already draconian penalty a mass shooter will face, not to mention the high rate at which they die on the
scene, gunned down by police or felled by suicide. The gun lobby has a counterintuitive (and self-serving)
suggestion for dealing with the proliferation of assault weapons and high-capacity magazines: more gun sales
and more gun carrying, so that “a good guy with a gun” can kill a mass shooter. Unfortunately, the best empirical
evidence suggests that this will be a self-defeating policy, because the proliferation of guns will lead to more
gun violence, resulting from increased gun thefts, more road-rage violence, and diminished police effectiveness.
Other countries have shown what is possible with decisive federal action. Australia had a worse mass-shooting
problem per capita than the United States before 1996, when a horrific mass shooting led the conservative
government to act. It greatly curtailed the problem by enacting a stringent restriction on semiautomatic rifles,
enforced with a mandated gun buyback. Australia did not have to contend with a domestic gun industry as
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corrosively powerful as America’s, which enabled it to adopt more potent legislation than President Bill Clinton
was able to secure with the assault-weapons ban in 1994. Any approach that doesn’t include a federal assault-
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weapons ban with accompanying restrictions on high-capacity magazines will be inadequate. State bans on
assault weapons and high-capacity magazines have helped, but killers have circumvented them, buying their
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weapons in neighboring gun-friendly states. The social harms will only grow as technology increases firearm
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lethality, so greater restrictions are needed, backed by a far more searching governmental screening process and
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concerted efforts by parents and the public, to keep such weaponry away from obviously dangerous individuals.
Source: https://www.theatlantic.com/ideas/archive/2023/04/mass-shootings-violence-assault-weapons-gun-
11.
control-lobby/673242/]
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Which of the following best describes the central point of the passage which is emphasized by the statements?
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(a) There is a need for full ban on the sale of weapons to prevent anyone from causing massive damage in public
shootings.
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(b) The gun control law needs to be madetr-keeping whole country in its purview and more restrictions on the
buyers of such weapons.
shootings.
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(c) There is a need to have a federal law to fully shut down the weapon industry massively reducing random
(d) The laws of Australia are much better in curbing gun violence than United States which presents a better
example for the world.
12. The meaning of the word ‘proliferation’ as inferred from the passage is?
(a) Promotion by the acts of government agencies.
(b) Massive increase in the number of some things.
(c) Increasing their numbers by corporate lobbying
(d) Rising in their quality by
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much effort.
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13. Which of the following represents the writing style of the author of the passage?
(a) Persuasive (b) Creative (c) Narrative (d) Expository
14. Which of the following best describes the reasons for the author to regard existing measures as insufficient in
dealing with mass shootings?
(a) The persons responsible for shootings have low regard for punishment and the gun lobby wants to keep
increasing sales for assault weapons.
(b) The shooters have very easy access to most weapons and high powered magazines due to the gun lobby in
the United States Senate.
(c) The shooters are oblivious about the consequences of their acts and their antecedents as problematic
individuals is not verified by sellers as well as their parents which enable cases of mass shootings.
(d) The shooters are able to buy weapons from different states without restrictions imposed and there is no
screening process for not selling weapons to dangerous individuals.
15. The author makes the point about the legal measures in Australia to demonstrate:
(a) That there has been strict measures in another country where a countrywide law has succeeded in curbing
gun violence.
(b) There has been better legal measures in Australia by the conservative government which have not been able
to be achieved by the Democratic government in United States.
(c) Australia leads the world in curbing gun violence by their stringent law on gun control which should be
emulated by the United States.
(d) The measures in Australia have been able to put in place because the gun industry there was much smaller
as compared to the United States.
Passage (Q.16-Q.20): Germany did itself and Europe a favor by managing to avert an energy-shortage recession
this winter, and now we know how they did it: supposedly evil coal. Data released Thursday show coal’s role in
electricity generation growing in Germany for the second year running.
c o m
Coal accounted for 33.3% of electricity production in 2022, according to the Federal Statistical Office, up from
.
30.2% in 2021. This is partly because coal picked up some of the slack from natural gas—whose share of
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electricity production dropped to 11.4% from 12.6%—as a halt of gas imports from Russia forced Germany to
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use other fuels. But coal’s resurgence started in 2020, before the Ukraine war triggered fears of a gas crisis.
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Blame renewables and the politicians who love them. The renewable share of Germany’s electricity generation
grew to 46.3% from 42.3% in 2022, the data point Berlin will want to highlight. But wind and solar don’t work
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when the winds are still or the skies are cloudy. Utilities require cheap and easy alternative sources of power to
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match supply with demand in an advanced industrial economy when the weather doesn’t cooperate. Cheap and
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easy means coal, which is why coal’s share of German electricity increased even as the overall share of
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Another explanation for coal’s resurgence is the political hostility of Germany’s green left to nuclear power,
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whose share of electricity production fell to 6.4% from 12.6% as three reactors were shut, leaving only three left
to limp along this spring. Germany could tap its shale-gas reserves for a cleaner-burning alternative to coal, but
that option is politically toxic too. So in an hilarious green ______, coal is keeping the lights on.
Berlin still plans to ban coal by 2030. Maybe before that day arrives politicians in Berlin will catch up to what
the market already knows: Fossil fuels remain indispensable for powering modern economies.
16. Which of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
(a) Germany's push towards renewable energy has resulted in a decrease in coal usage, leading to an energy
shortage recession 2U
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(b) The political hostility towards nuclear power in Germany has led to an increased reliance on coal for
electricity generation.
(c) The use of coal in electricity generation has increased in Germany for the second year running, partly due to
the halt of gas imports from Russia, and partly due to the unreliability of renewables.
(d) Germany plans to ban the use of coal by 2030, despite its continued necessity for powering modern
economies.
17. What can be inferred from the passage about Germany's approach towards energy production?
(a) Germany's reliance on coal for electricity production is only temporary and will decrease in the future.
(b) The unreliability of renewables in adverse weather conditions has highlighted the need for a more diversified
approach to energy production in Germany.
(c) Germany's political climate has hindered the adoption of alternative, cleaner-burning fuels such as shale gas.
(d) The use of nuclear power in Germany is being phased out due to the perceived risks associated with it.
18. Which figure of speech is used in the sentence "So in an hilarious green _____, coal is keeping the lights on."?
(a) Metaphor (b) Simile (c) Hyperbole (d) Irony
19. Which of the following categories best describes the tone of this piece of writing?
(a) Angry (b) Ironic (c) Sarcastic (d) Dispassionate
20.
c o m
"Utilities require cheap and easy alternative sources of power to match supply with demand in an advanced
industrial economy when the weather doesn’t cooperate. Cheap and easy means coal, which is why coal’s share
of German electricity increased." Which of the following options best explains the above sentence?
(a) The German government is purposely increasing coal usage for economic gain.
s .
(b) The country is running low on natural gas reserves, forcing utilities to use coal as an alternative source of
power.
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demands.
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(c) Germany's push towards renewable energy has proven to be unreliable in meeting the country's electricity
(d) The increase in coal usage is part of Germany's effort to reduce carbon emissions and transition away from
nuclear power.
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Passage (Q.21-Q.25): The Stoic school was founded around 300 BCE by Zeno of Citium, a voracious reader of
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Academy and the Megarian School. The Stoa competed with the school founded only a little before in Athens
by Epicurus, and Stoic and Epicurean views are often compared and contrasted. Zeno was succeeded in the
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leadership of the Stoa first by Cleanthes of Assos and then by Chrysippus of Soli, who headed the school from
around 230 until 206 BCE and was by all accounts its foremost theorist and systematizer. Following Chrysippus,
the position of “scholarch” passed to his former students, the last of which being Diogenes of Babylon in the
middle of the 2nd century BCE.
Some scholars see this moment as marking a shift in the Stoic school, from the so-called “Old Stoa” to “Middle
Stoicism”, though the relevance and accuracy of this nomenclature is debated (see Inwood 2022). The latter term
is nonetheless frequently used to encompass the work of Stoic philosophers in the second and first centuries
BCE. A significant feature of the second century is the sharp and powerful attacks against Stoic views formulated
by the Academic Carneades,
tr-5U3O 1L5Q0U8R2Uto which Antipater of Tarsus, Diogenes’ successor, responded at length. Diogenes
and Antipater also heralded increased engagement with Platonic (Sedley 2003; Reydams-Schils 1999) and
possibly Aristotelian doctrine, arguably peaking with Panaetius in the second half of 2nd century BCE and his
student Posidonius in the first century BCE. For developments from Antipater onwards, see Inwood 2022; for
the contributions of Panaetius and Posidonius and their relation to previous thinkers, see Tieleman 2007.
Stoicism became particularly fashionable in the Roman period. Although never identifying as a Stoic himself,
Cicero, who studied philosophy in Athens and endeavored to popularize it at Rome, engaged extensively with
Stoic theory in his philosophical works and modeled his On Proper Functions (De Officiis) on Panaetius’ treatise
of the same name. During the Imperial era, several prominent public figures were associated with the Stoic
school. Appointed to the court of Emperor Augustus in the late 1st century BCE was the Stoic philosopher Arius
Didymus, and a generation later Seneca served as advisor to Nero. Epictetus, a former slave, was expelled from
Rome by Domitian along with other philosophers in 93 CE, and his works, recorded by his student Arrian,
heavily influenced Marcus Aurelius, Roman Emperor from 161–180 CE. Also active in the second century CE
was the Stoic philosopher Hierocles, whose detailed treatise on psychology and ethical theory, The Elements of
Ethics, is partially extant (see Ramelli 2009).
Over this remarkable span of time during which the Stoic school operated in some form or another, evolutions
in views and shifts in focus unsurprisingly took place. The nature and extent of these intra-school developments
and disagreements – some of which we will consider below – remains the subject of ongoing scholarly debate.
21. Which of the following represents the correct chronology of leaders within the Stoic school?
(a) Zeno of Citium, Chrysippus of Soli, Cleanthes of Assos, Diogenes of Babylon
(b) Zeno of Citium, Cleanthes of Assos, Chrysippus of Soli, Diogenes of Babylon
(c) Chrysippus of Soli, Zeno of Citium, Cleanthes of Assos, Diogenes of Babylon
(d) Cleanthes of Assos, Zeno of Citium, Chrysippus of Soli, Diogenes of Babylon
22.
(a) The Stoics and Epicureans held very similar views on ethics and metaphysics.
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(b) The Stoics and Epicureans had fundamentally different views on ethics and metaphysics.
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Which of the following best describes the relationship between the Stoic and Epicurean schools?
s .
(c) The Stoics and Epicureans shared some similar views on ethics, but differed on metaphysical questions.
(d) The Stoics and Epicureans shared some similar views on metaphysics, but differed on ethical questions.
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23. Which of the following best captures the main theme of the passage?
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(a) The historical evolution and development of the Stoic school from its founding to its influence in the Roman
period.
metaphysics.
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(b) A comparison and contrast between the Stoic and Epicurean schools and their respective views on ethics and
a
(c) The contributions of key figures within the Stoic school and their influence on subsequent philosophical
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(d) Ongoing scholarly debates about the nature and extent of intra-school developments and disagreements
within the Stoic school.
24.
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According to the passage, which of the following best describes the nature of evolutions and disagreements
within the Stoic school of philosophy?
(a) The disagreements within the Stoic school were primarily focused on the rejection of Platonic and
Aristotelian doctrines, leading to significant changes in their philosophical approach.
(b) Intra-school disagreements in the Stoic school were largely absent, as the school maintained a consistent
philosophical outlook throughout its existence.
(c) The Stoic school experienced evolutions in views and shifts in focus over time, with the nature and extent of
these intra-school developments and disagreements remaining a subject of ongoing scholarly debate.
(d) The Stoictr-school 0U8R2U evolved due to external influences and pressure from competing philosophical
primarily
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schools, which led to increased engagement with other doctrines.
25. Which of the following is not true about the concept of the "wise person" as described in the passage?
(a) The "wise person" is central to Stoic philosophy and represents an ideal state of moral and intellectual
perfection.
(b) The "wise person" possesses virtues such as wisdom, courage, justice, and self-control to a degree that allows
them to live a virtuous life.
(c) The concept of the "wise person" was introduced by Zeno of Citium, the founder of the Stoic school.
(d) The "wise person" is viewed by the Stoics as an unattainable ideal that serves as a guide for moral and
intellectual development.
Passage (Q.26-Q.30): That the vampire epidemics caused great concern within European society in the Early
Modern period, there is no doubt. As Rousseau (Masson, 1914) noted “for some time now the public news has
been concerned with nothing but vampires… yet show me a single man of sense in Europe who believes [in
them]”.
Whether vampires were real or not was not the main issue, clearly something was going on, it was how best to
explain this that so occupied the scientific community. The French philosopher Jean-Baptiste de Boyer (1738)
argued that it was not blood that covered the alleged vampires, but rather nitrous particles in the soil that were
being heated by the sun and then mixing with the bodily fluids leaking from the corpse. Furthermore, during the
natural decomposition process of a dead body, “the body swells… discoloured natural fluids and liquefied tissues
are made frothy by gas and some exude from the natural orifices, forced out by the increasing pressure in the
body cavities” (Evans, 1963).
It is more likely that the suspected vampires were themselves victims of a disease or plague, and indeed
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pneumonic plague would cause the sufferer to cough up blood from the lungs. This illness could be passed on to
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family members, who in turn could pass it on to fellow villagers. In this manner, the suspected vampire is the
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cause of the deaths, but not through the consumption of their blood. The horrid stench of the vampire-corpse
.
also suggests disease, as “foul smells were commonly associated with disease, also as a cause… [therefore people
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believed] bad smells must be a cause of disease and death. Typically, by way of combating such smells, people
introduced good-smelling (or strong-smelling) substances” (Barber, 1988, 8).
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This was why From bold was so surprised to find there was no horrid smell associated with the corpse of
Plogojowitz. Furthermore, Tournefort’s account reported how incense was burned during the autopsy to combat
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the horrid stench. Barber (1988) has suggested that human logic would come into affect in these cases,
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particularly when little or no medical knowledge is known, so that an exhumed corpse discovered gorged and
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bloated and with blood around the mouth is believed to have consumed quantities of blood.
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That their family members are seen to be tr- 5G3F1D5H0K
suffering, weakening and dying then creates the illusion that they are
T o
in fact, the (unwilling) donors of the consumed blood. The fact that some family members claimed to have seen
the deceased could simply be due to grief, or hallucinations brought on by illness, or indeed a combination of
the two. Further suggestions for the cause of vampirism include rabies, porphyria (where sufferers have a
sensitivity to sunlight) and anaemia.
Unlike our pale-skinned modern versions, the vampires of the Early Modern period were commonly described
as being “florid, or of a healthy color [sic], or dark, and this may be attributed to his habit of drinking blood”
(Barber, 1988, 41). Almost all contemporary accounts depict them as being gorged and bloated, as if full of
blood consumed from their victims. In the present, we can go a long way to understand the vampire epidemics
of this period by adopting a medical stance, but for the people at the time, the horror was very real indeed.
As Frayling and3OWokler 8R(1982,
2U 118) have pointed out “we must have oricolourly been frugivores… but
tr-5U 1L5Q0U
civilisation has made us carnivores with an appetite for conquest and blood in addition to food”. What the
vampire being does is encapsulate that appetite, albeit metaphorically rather than literally.
26. Which of the following is correct about the differences between the explanations provided by Jean-Baptiste de
Boyer and contemporary medical stances for the appearance of vampires?
(a) Jean-Baptiste de Boyer attributed vampiric appearances to blood consumption, while contemporary medical
stances suggest decomposition processes.
(b) Jean-Baptiste de Boyer believed vampires were real supernatural beings, whereas contemporary medical
stances focus on disease and psychological factors.
(c) Contemporary medical stances focus on nitrous particles and bodily fluids, while Jean-Baptiste de Boyer
suggested the cause was pneumonic plague.
(d) Jean-Baptiste de Boyer explained vampire appearances through nitrous particles and decomposition
processes, while contemporary medical stances consider disease, psychological factors, and alternative
medical conditions.
27. What is the most accurate description of the role of disease in the vampire epidemics according to the passage?
(a) Disease directly caused the appearance of vampires, as contagious illnesses created the illusion of vampirism
in affected communities.
(b) The vampire epidemics were a result of a specific disease, pneumonic plague, which caused the sufferer to
cough up blood and was mistaken for vampirism.
(c) Diseases like rabies, porphyria, and anemia were the primary causes of the vampire epidemics, as they were
common and presented similar symptoms to vampirism.
(d) Disease played a part in the vampire epidemics by contributing to the appearance of vampire-like corpses
and reinforcing the belief in vampirism through the spread of illness.
28. According to the passage, what is the most accurate description of the relationship between vampirism and the
human appetite for conquest and blood?
blood as part of their nature.
c m
(a) Vampirism directly represents the human appetite for conquest and blood, as vampires physically consume
o
(b) Vampirism is solely a metaphor for the human appetite for conquest and blood, symbolizing the
transformation from frugivores to carnivores.
s .
(c) Vampirism indirectly embodies the human appetite for conquest and blood, symbolizing the darker aspects
of human nature that have developed alongside civilization.
r
destruction who bring disease and death to communities.
k e
(d) Vampirism demonstrates the human appetite for conquest and blood by depicting vampires as agents of
29.
(a) Vampirism, conquest, supernatural beings, folklore
r a n
Which of the following set of words best represents the main theme of the passage?
(b) Decomposition, nitrous particles, psychological factors, anemia
p
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(c) Early Modern Europe, vampire epidemics, scientific
8B2Htr-5U3O1L5Q0U disease
explanations,
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
o
(d) Grief, hallucinations, pneumonic plague, rabies
30.
T
Which of the following best explains the possible reasons behind family members claiming to have seen the
deceased during the vampire epidemics in the Early Modern period, as discussed in the passage?
(a) The claims were a result of mass hysteria caused by the fear of vampires, which led to vivid hallucinations
and false sightings of the deceased.
(b) Family members experienced grief and illness-induced hallucinations, which caused them to believe they
had seen their deceased relatives.
(c) The sightings were a consequence of supernatural occurrences, proving the existence of vampires who
returned to prey upon their family members.
(d) Family members made up these sightings as a coping mechanism to deal with the loss of their loved ones,
unconsciously 1L5Q0U8R2U the cause to vampires.
tr-5U3Oattributing
SECTION-B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.31–Q.65): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.31-Q.37): The Israeli military said its forces attacked targets in Syria early on April 9, 2023 after
six rockets were launched from Syrian territory in two batches toward Israel in a rare attack from Israel’s
northeastern neighbor.
After the second barrage of three rockets, Israel initially said it responded with artillery fire into the area in Syria
from where the rockets were fired.
Later, the military said Israeli fighter jets attacked Syrian army sites, including a compound of Syria’s 4th
Division and radar and artillery posts.
o m
The rocket firings came after days of escalating violence on multiple fronts over tension in Jerusalem and an
Israeli police raid on the city’s most sensitive holy site.
c
s .
In the second barrage, which was launched early Sunday, two of the rockets crossed the border into Israel, with
r
one being intercepted and the second landing in an open area, the Israeli military said.
k e
In the first attack, on Saturday, one rocket landed in a field in the Israeli-annexed Golan Heights. Fragments of
another destroyed missile fell into Jordanian territory near the Syrian border, Jordan’s military reported.
There were no reports of casualties.
r a n
A Damascus-based Palestinian group loyal to the Syrian regime claimed responsibility for launching the three
p
0U8R2U
missiles Saturday, reported Beirut-based Al-Mayadeen 2Htr-5U3O1L5Q
8BTV.
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
o
The Hindu
31.
T
Why situation in Israel and its neighboring countries is tense from last few months?
(a) Because NATO has deployed its more forces in Israel’s border
(b) Because ultra nationalist government is in power now
(c) Because of change in Iran’s foreign policy
(d) Because of new accord between Iran and Russia regarding setting up of military weapons manufacturing
unit
32. Which city is home to the Al-Aqsa Mosque, which has recently been at the center of tensions in the Middle East?
(a) Cairo (b) Baghdad (c) Jerusalem (d) Riyadh
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33. What is the main reason behind the rivalry between Israel and Iran?
(a) Control over the Red Sea
(b) Border disputes over the Golan Heights
(c) Religious differences between Shia and Sunni Muslims
(d) Strategic interests and regional influence in the Middle East
34. 2 persons were killed in West Bank after Israel strikes in Lebanon in April 2023. With which of the following
countries Lebanon is sharing its border?
(a) Syria (b) Jordan (c) Egypt (d) Both a and c
35. Which of the following statements is true regarding India's position on the Israel-Iran conflict?
(a) India has openly supported Israel in the conflict and has cut off all diplomatic ties with Iran.
(b) India has openly supported Iran in the conflict and has cut off all diplomatic ties with Israel.
(c) India maintains good relations with both Israel and Iran.
(d) None of the above
36. Which of the following individuals is the current Prime Minister of Israel as of 2023?
(a) Benjamin Netanyahu (b) Naftali Bennett
(c) Avigdor Lieberman (d) Benny Gantz
37. Which country passed the Golan Heights Law in 1981, extending its jurisdiction to the area?
(a) Syria (b) Lebanon (c) Jordan (d) Israel
o m
Passage (Q.38-Q.44): The Supreme Court on Wednesday said that a [1] report of the Justice Ranganath Mishra
c
Commission for Religious and Linguistic Minorities, is not all that “perfunctory”, adding that the government
may need to “re-check” its stance on the report.
r s .
The oral observation by Justice Ahsanuddin Amanullah, a member of a three-judge Bench headed by Justice
prepared within the “four walls of a room”.
k e
S.K. Kaul, comes a few months after the government discredited the 2007 report as “myopic”, and something
a n
“Nothing was gone into by the Ranganath Mishra Commission. There was no comparative analysis, no empirical
data, no field study,” Additional Solicitor General K.M. Nataraj, for the Centre, submitted.
r
p
8R2U
3O1L5Q0U You are making a generalised statement
“Are you sure? You probably need to re-check. It is not8Bthat
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
perfunctory.
2Htr-5U
on this report,” Justice Amanullah responded.
T o
Rejecting the Mishra report, the government had recently constituted a new Commission headed by a former
Chief Justice of India K.G. Balakrishnan, giving it two years to prepare a report on the question of granting SC
status to “new persons who have historically belonged to the Scheduled Castes
The Hindu
38. Which of the following has been replaced by [1] in the passage?
(a) 2000 (b) 2005 (c) 2007 (d) 2011
39. Which commission was recently constituted by the Indian government to investigate the question of granting
Scheduled Caste status
1L5Q0U 2U
to8Rindividuals who have converted to religions other than Hinduism, Buddhism, and
tr-5U3O
Sikhism?
(a) The Mishra Commission
(b) The Balakrishnan Commission
(c) The Mandal Commission
(d) The Sachar Commission
40. Who among the following is current chairperson of National Commission for Minorities (NCM)?
(a) Syed Ghayorul Hasan Rizvi (b) Iqbal Singh Lalpura
(c) Tariq Ansari (d) D Masthan
41. Which of the following South Indian states was not ranked at the top in diversity in the justice system according
to the India Justice Report 2022?
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka
42. Which of the following is a key highlight of the Ranganath Report?

(a) Recommendation of Scheduled Tribe reservation for Dalit converts to Christianity and Islam
(b) Suggestion to abolish reservations for Scheduled Castes in education and employment
(c) Recognition of the exclusion of Dalit converts to Christianity and Islam from the SC category as
constitutional
(d) Assertion that denial of SC status to Dalit converts to Christianity and Islam is a violation of the constitutional
guarantee of equality
43. Which organization is responsible for conducting and analyzing demographic surveys in India?
(a) Department of Public Affairs (b) Census Commission
(c) Registrar General of India (d) Election Commission
44. First SECC was conducted in which of the following year?

(a) 2001 (b) 2006 (c) 2011 (d) 2013
c o m
.
Passage (Q.45-Q.51): Human-wildlife conflicts across the world are a major challenge to conservation of
s
species and an ongoing global conference aims to address the problem by facilitating collaboration between
sectors and disciplines.
r
k e
The International Conference on Human-Wildlife Conflict and Coexistence being held in [1] from March 30-
April 1, 2023 has brought together hundreds of representatives from conservation organisations, academia,
discuss solutions.
r a n
governments, businesses and indigenous as well as local communities from six continents and 70 countries to
p
0U 8R2U
It will provide a platform for experts fromtr-5G
the3F1D
fields of2H
5H0K8B “ecology,
tr-5U3O1L5Qanimal behaviour, psychology, law, conflict
o
analysis, mediation, peacebuilding, international development, economics, anthropology and others, to
understand human-wildlife conflict through various viewpoints, learn from each other, and build new links and
T
collaborations”, according to IUCN.
Effective management of human-wildlife interactions to minimise for coexistence across countries will be the
fulcrum of the discussions. It was prescribed in Target 4 of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity
Framework
Down-to-earth
45. Which of the following can be redacted by [1]?

(a) USA (b) California (c) UK (d) Spain
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tr-5U3O1L5Q0U
46. Which of the following is not an organizer of this conference?
(a) IUCN (b) FAO (c) UNDP (d) WWF
47. What percentage of the world's wild cat species are affected by conflict-related killing, according to the United
Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)?
(a) 50% (b) 75% (c) 90% (d) 100%
48. Effective management of Human animal conflict is according to Target 4 of the Kunming-Montreal Global
Biodiversity Framework. In which of the following COP, framework was adopted?
(a) COP7 (b) COP12 (c) COP15 (d) COP20
49. According to the fifth cycle of the All-India Tiger Estimation (2022), which region of India recorded a significant
decline in the tiger population?
(a) Central India (b) North India (c) Western Ghats (d) Eastern India
50. What is the concern raised by experts and activists regarding the increase in tiger population in India?
(a) Tigers are becoming more aggressive and attacking humans.
(b) The increase in tiger population could lead to a decrease in prey population.
(c) The number of Human-Wildlife Conflict cases may rise due to tigers venturing into human-populated areas.
(d) The increase in tiger population may result in the loss of forest cover.
51. The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is headquartered in ________.
(a) Gland (b) Bern (c) Nairobi (d) Davos
o m
Passage (Q.52-Q.58): On the morning of April 2, 2023, the Indian Space Research Organisation and its partners
c
successfully demonstrated a precise landing experiment for a Reusable Launch Vehicle at the Aeronautical Test
Range (ATR), Chitradurga, [1].
r s .
The Reusable Launch Vehicle Autonomous Landing Mission (RLV LEX) test was the second of five tests that
are a part of ISRO’s efforts to develop RLVs, or space planes/shuttles,
k e
“RLV performed approach and landing maneuvers using the Integrated Navigation, Guidance, and control
a n
system and completed an autonomous landing on the ATR airstrip at 7:40 AM IST. With that, ISRO successfully
achieved the autonomous landing of a space vehicle,” ISRO announced on Sunday morning.
r
p
1L5Q0U 8R2U
“In the future, this vehicle will be scaled uptr-to become 8B
5G3F1D5H0K
the2Hfirst stage
tr-5U3O of India’s reusable two-stage orbital (TSTO)
launch vehicle,” according to ISRO.
tails.
T o
ISRO’s RLV-TD looks like an aircraft. It consists of a fuselage, a nose cap, double delta wings, and twin vertical
The 2016 experiment involved sending a winged spacecraft on a rocket powered by a conventional solid booster
(HS9) engine used by ISRO into space. The spacecraft traveled at a speed of Mach 5 (five times the speed of
sound) when re-entering the earth’s orbit and traveled a distance of 450 km before splashdown in the Bay of
Bengal.
Indian Express

(a) Tamil Nadu 2U
(b)8RKarnataka (c) Kerala (d) Andhra Pradesh
tr-5U3O1L5Q0U
53. When was the first successful experiment of an RLV conducted by ISRO and what was the name of the mission?
(a) May 23, 2016, RLV LEX
(b) May 23, 2016, RLV-TD (HEX)
(c) May 23, 2017, RLV-TD (HEX)
(d) May 23, 2018, RLV LEX
54. The RLV-TD will be used to develop technologies like LEX. What is LEX?
(a) Scramjet Propulsion landing
(b) Autonomous landing
(c) Hypersonic flight
(d) Return flight experiment
55. Which was the first reusable launch vehicle developed in the world?
(a) Space Shuttle (b) Soyuz (c) Dragon 23 (d) Long March 2F
56. Which private space launch services provider demonstrated partially reusable launch systems with its Falcon 9
and Falcon Heavy rockets since 2017 and is working on a fully reusable launch vehicle system called Starship?
(a) NASA (b) SpaceX (c) Blue Origin (d) Boeing
57. What is the main focus of the new Indian Space Policy released on April 20, 2023?
(a) To increase the number of operational space systems manufactured by ISRO
(b) To outsource space technology development to other countries
(c) To transition ISRO from manufacturing operational space systems to focusing on research and development
in advanced technologies
(d) Manufacturing and operating space systems will continue to be a priority for ISRO, with a renewed focus on
58.
commercial partnerships for revenue generation.
c o m
What is the Test Vehicle Project related to the Gaganyaan mission which is in the pipeline for this year?
(a) A satellite for earth observation
(b) A new launch vehicle developed by ISRO
(c) A project to study the effects of space radiation on humans
r s .
(d) A mission to demonstrate crew abort and recovery capability
k e
Passage (Q.59-Q.65): Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina on
a n
Saturday jointly inaugurated Rs. 377 crores India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline (IBFP) to transport diesel
from India to northern Bangladesh, cutting costs and reducing carbon footprint.
r
p
8R2U
3O1L5Q0U Mr Modi said after inaugurating the first
"The pipeline will start a new chapter in India-Bangladesh
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
relations,"
8B2Htr-5U
o
cross-border energy pipeline between the two neighbours via virtual mode.
Mr Modi said that connectivity projects and electricity supply initiatives bind the two nations on their path to
progress.
T
Currently, diesel is supplied to Bangladesh through a 512 km rail route. The 131.5 km pipeline will supply up to
[X] of diesel per year from [1] in Assam to Bangladesh.
"When many countries across the world are on the verge of a fuel crisis due to the Russia-Ukraine war, at that
time this pipeline will play a vital role in ensuring the fuel security of our people," Ms Hasina said.
In a statement, New Delhi said: "Bangladesh is India’s top-most development partner and its largest trade partner
in the region. The operationalisation of the Friendship Pipeline will enhance ongoing energy cooperation
2U
between the two 3O1L5Q0U8Rand will further growth in Bangladesh, particularly in the agriculture sector."
tr-5Ucountries
Deccan Herald
59. What is the capacity of the pipeline transporting High-Speed Diesel from India to Bangladesh?
(a) 1,000 Metric Ton Per Annum (MMTPA)
(b) 10,000 Metric Ton Per Annum (MMTPA)
(c) 100,000 Metric Ton Per Annum (MMTPA)
(d) 1 million Metric Ton Per Annum (MMTPA)

(a) Dibrugarh (b) Darjeeling (c) Numaligarh (d) Dispur
61. The cooperation between Bangladesh and India in the power industry began in ________.
(a) 2010 (b) 2011 (c) 2013 (d) 2018
62. Which of the following is railway service between India and Bangladesh?
(a) Maitree Express (b) Bangla Express
(c) Dosti Express (d) Tagore Express
63. What recent agreement was signed between Bhutan and Bangladesh to enhance their economic ties?
(a) The agreement allows Bangladesh to use Bhutan's ports for conducting trade with other countries.
(b) The partnership between Bhutan and Bangladesh is driven by shared national interests and cultural ties.
(c) Agreement on movement of traffic-in-transit and protocol
(d) Agreement on the exchange of military personnel
64. Who among the following is current minister of North East Region?
(a) G Kishan Reddy (b) Kiren Rijiju
65.
(c) Himanta Biswa Sarma (d) Narendra Singh Tomar
Which of the following day is celebrated as Bangladesh Independence Day?
c o m
(a) 26th March (b) 18th April (c) 21st May (d) 16th December
r s .
k e
r a n
p
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8B2Htr-5U3O1L
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
T o
8R2U
tr-5U3O1L5Q0U
SECTION - C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions(Q.66-Q.105): Read the comprehension and answer the questions:
Passage (Q.66-Q.71): Menstrual leave

If employers allow their women employees to get necessary rest during their menstruation cycle, it will result in
an increase in their productivity levels and enable them to focus well on professional assignments. From an
optical standpoint, formulation and implementation of such accommodative policies and beneficial provisions
will also facilitate employee retention and will assure employees that their concerns are positively addressed by
their employers.
Pursuant to a notification/order issued by the Government of Bihar in 1992, the State Government grants 2
consecutive days of “special '' leave per month to female employees working in connection with organisations
m
under the aegis of State Government. Based on our informal discussions with the Bihar Government officials in
o
this regard, we understand that grant of such leaves continues to be in practice. The Human Resource Manual
c
implemented by Bihar Vikas Mission (a body formed by the State Government for implementation of various
.
schemes) also makes reference to such special leave for female employees. Aside from the above, more than a
s
century ago, in 1912, a government school in Kerala provided menstrual leave to its students during their annual
r
examinations and permitted them to attempt the same at a later stage. In 2017, a private member’s Bill was
e
introduced before the Parliament of India, Lok Sabha by Mr Ninong Ering (a former Lok Sabha Member of
Parliament from Arunachal Pradesh) to inter alia provide 4 days’ paid menstruation leave per month to women
k
employees in any establishment registered with the appropriate Government.
a n
While there is no law governing menstrual leave in India, organizations are free to unilaterally take a decision
r
and contractually extend more beneficial terms of employment than those provided under the applicable legal
p
provisions. Accordingly, several industry tr-
players in India 5U3O
are
8B2Htr- 1L5Q0U8R2U
beginning to formulate specific internal protocols
5G3F1D5H0K
o
as regards employee wellness and extending benefits including menstrual leaves for their employees. A Mumbai-
based media company announced a policy of offering leave to women on the first day of their period.
66.
T
[Extract taken with edits from SCC Online- Looking Beyond the Law: The Case of Menstrual Leave in India
Mar 7, 2023 Looking Beyond the Law: The Case of Menstrual Leave in India | SCC Blog (scconline.com)]
E is a menstruating woman working at a law firm in Mumbai. The firm is registered with the State Government.
Every month she will be entitled to take 3 days of paid leave which may be treated as period leave. A few
hardworking generous employees of the firm, who were all non-menstruating men challenged the presence of
such a provision in the contract because there is no law in place to govern the period leave in India; therefore
they argued it was illegal on the part of the firm to provide period leave to women employees. Decide.
(a) Challenge is valid; it goes against the equality principle to grant leave to women for a natural biological
process. tr-5U3O1L5Q0U8R2U
(b) Challenge is valid; there is no law that requires period leave to be granted.
(c) Challenge is invalid; law firms are required to honour their contracts.
(d) Challenge is invalid; though it is a natural biological process, it can bring immense hardships that will affect
the productivity and well-being of the menstruating person.
67. E is a menstruating woman working at a law firm in Bihar. It is actually an LLP (Limited Liability Partnership)
named Spectacle Light Williams Wheely Bonett (SLWWB). While joining the firm, E was informally told that
she will be getting 7 days of period leave every month, of which 3 days as paid leave while the remaining as
unpaid leave. E applied for the leave, but she did not receive approval from the Managing Partner, Mr Louis
Light. She approached the Board meeting and claimed she had been betrayed. Decide the outcome of her
complaint in the light of 1992 law passed by Bihar Government.
(a) It is the prerogative of the companies not to grant period leave since no law governs the same.
(b) SLWWB has to provide her 2 days of period leave as per the 1992 law enforced in Bihar.
(c) SLWWB had an oral contract with E, hence 7 days of period leave will be provided.
(d) Menstruation generally lasts for 5 days, there is no requirement for following a contract that promises 7 days
of leave.
68.
c o m
E is a menstruating woman working with the Public Prosecutor’s office in Patna as Assistant Public Prosecutor
(AsPO) which is under the Law Ministry of the State. She was informally told she will receive 7 days of period
leave every month, of which 3 days will be unpaid and the remaining 4 days will be paid. When she applied for
.
the leave, she was denied the leave. She raised her complaint to the requisite authority. Decide.
s
(a) It is the prerogative of the Public Prosecutor’s Office to grant or not grant period leave.
(b) There was an oral contract which mandated the office grant her 7 days' leave.
r
office.
k e
(c) She will be given leave as per the 1992 Bihar Law for seven days because she is an employee in a government
(d) She will be given leave because she is an employee in Bihar in a government office for two days.
69.
a n
E is a menstruating woman working with an MNC, and no contract was written or oral regarding period leave.
r
She applied for the leave anyways. Decide whether she will get a period leave, and if yes, for how many days.
p
(a) E will not get a period leave as she is working in a8Bprivate 1L5Q0U8R2U
2Htr-5U3Ocompany.
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
o
(b) E will get a period leave of 2 days.
(c) E will get a period leave of 7 days.
70.
T
(d) E will not get a period leave as a company can decide for giving a period leave or not through a contract.
E is a menstruating woman working in a Public Sector Utility based in Kerala. She applied for period leave.
Which of the following outcomes will happen?
(a) The PSU will grant her period leave based on the 1992 law.
(b) The PSU will grant her period leave based on the 1912 Kerala Law.
(c) The PSU will grant her period leave if the same is mentioned in her contract.
(d) The PSU will not grant her period leave as it is a Government employer therefore, it cannot grant period
leave based on a contract.
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71. Let’s assume the Bill proposed, as discussed in the passage, gets the Presidential assent and becomes a law, what
change will happen for Ms Donna Paulson, the legal secretary for Mr Harway Spectacle at the SLWWB LLP
(refer to question 2 of the passage), provided it is registered with the State Government.
(a) Donna will start receiving period leave for 4 days, unlike before, when no period leave was granted.
(b) Donna will start receiving period leave for 4 days, unlike before, when she used to get only 2 days of period
leave.
(c) Donna will start receiving period leave for 4 days, unlike before when she used to get 7 days of period leave.
(d) Donna will not receive period leave even now because SLWWB though registered with the State
Government, is a private entity and, therefore can have its own contractual terms for period leave.
Passage (Q.72-Q.76): In the wake of murder of a young doctor at a government hospital in Kerala’s Kollam
district, the state government brought an ordinance that would make punishments for acts of violence against
healthcare workers more stringent. The ordinance to amend the Kerala Healthcare Service Persons and
Healthcare Service Institutions (Prevention of Violence and Damage to Property) Act, 2012 proposes that anyone
who commits, attempts to commit, incites or inspires an act of violence against a health worker be given a
minimum of six months and a maximum of five years imprisonment. A fine of a minimum of Rs 50,000 and a
maximum of Rs 2 lakh will also be levied from the offender. Under the existing Act, the punishment for such
crimes included imprisonment for a maximum period of three years and a maximum fine of Rs 50,000. In case
an act of violence on a healthcare worker causes grievous bodily harm, the ordinance proposes imprisonment for
a minimum of one year and a maximum of seven years. The fine in such cases will be a minimum of Rs 1 lakh
and a maximum of Rs 5 lakh. Approved at a Cabinet meeting, the ordinance also extends protection under the
Act to paramedical students, security guards, managerial staff, ambulance drivers, helpers and other health
m
workers notified by the government. The existing Act already covers registered medical practitioners, registered
o
nurses, medical students, and paramedical staff working at healthcare institutions. As per the ordinance, cases
c
registered under the amended Act would be investigated by an officer of the rank of inspector, and the
.
investigation would be completed within 60 days. A court in every district would be assigned as a fast-track
s
court for the trial of such cases. The ordinance came amid a clamour from the medical fraternity in Kerala to
r
ensure the safety of healthcare workers in the state following the murder of Dr Vandana Das. The 23-year-old
k e
was stabbed to death in the government taluk hospital at Kottarakkara in Kollam district by school teacher S
Sandeep, who was brought to the hospital by police for treatment of an injury he had sustained earlier. The man
was an alcoholic and was under the influence of alcohol at the time, police had said. The Indian Medical
n
Association and the Kerala Government Medical Officers Association had highlighted that under the existing
a
Act, those committing violence against healthcare workers were not getting deterrent punishment.
r
(Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/kerala/doctor-murder-kerala-cabinet-ordinance-amend-
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healthcare-service-law-8614254/ ) 8B2Htr-5U3O1L
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72.
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Based on the passage, which of the following statements is not true about the proposed ordinance to amend the
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Kerala Healthcare Service Persons and Healthcare Service Institutions (Prevention of Violence and Damage to
Property) Act, 2012?
(a) The ordinance aims to make punishments for acts of violence against healthcare workers more stringent.
(b) The proposed ordinance increases the maximum imprisonment period for acts of violence against healthcare
workers.
(c) The fine for committing acts of violence against healthcare workers will be increased under the proposed
ordinance.
(d) The ordinance extends protection under the Act to registered medical practitioners, registered nurses, and
medical students.
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73. T received an urgent call asking him to send his team to Prime Glory, an apartment complex in Kollam district,
where a patient needed immediate medical assistance. K became agitated as he drove because the ambulance
was blocking the road. He repeatedly blew the horn before getting out of the car and verbally abusing T. He also
pushed him to the side of the road before driving off in his car. Ascertain whether K is subject to any
consequences.
(a) Given that K was in an emergency when he stopped the ambulance, he is not subject to punishment.
(b) K is accountable for using violence against a healthcare worker and needs to face the repercussions.
(c) K cannot be held accountable if the healthcare worker is not injured.
(d) As soon as T noticed that K was continuously honking the horn, he had the opportunity to move the
ambulance to the side. As a result, T should be held accountable.
74. Covid 19 was prevalent across the entire nation. The majority of the populace were infected by it and were
subsequently admitted to the hospital. Additionally, hospital beds were full, so Kerala City hospital was unable
to take in any more patients. P, who had just had a heart attack, arrived at the hospital in the interim, in pain.
Since there were no available rooms, he was not given one. Along with the pain he was experiencing, his rage
increased, and he began tossing things at the nurse and the doctor. Identify P's liability.
(a) P shall not be held liable because he had no malicious intent to harm any healthcare worker.
(b) P will be held accountable because he forced the hospital administration to admit him despite the fact that
no additional accommodations were available.
(c) P shall not be held liable because he was in an emergency and should have been admitted to the hospital.
(d) P will be held accountable because he committed a violent act against the hospital staff.
75. ABC was a mental health facility in Kollam that cared for mentally ill patients. They had to keep the doors
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locked at all times in case a patient tried to escape. As a result, M was hired as the hospital's security guard. G,
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who was not mentally ill, came to see one of his relatives in the hospital. He was refused entry because he arrived
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at a time when entry was not permitted. Infuriated, he swung his pistol at the security guard, broke the latch, and
(a) G will be held accountable because he used violence against the security guard.
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went inside. As a result, a few mentally ill patients fled the hospital. Comment on G's accountability.
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(b) G should be held accountable because his actions resulted in the escape of mentally ill patients from the
hospital.
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(c) G should not be held liable if it can be demonstrated that the security guard was not injured.
(d) G should not be held liable because security guards are not covered by the Kerala Healthcare Service Persons
76.
and Healthcare Service Institutions Act, 2012.
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G was the terrorist organization's leader. When he was caught, he was found to be in excruciating pain because
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his right hand had been severed. He was admitted to the
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hospital
8B2H away. One day, the other members of the
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organization planned a rescue mission for their leader G. They stormed the hospital in the middle of the night,
armed with machine guns and bombs. One nurse caught them while they were rescuing G and alerted everyone.
employed.
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The gang members fired in the air to scare the staff members. They eventually succeeded in rescuing G. They
were ultimately arrested, and an investigation was initiated against them. Determine the procedure to be
(a) The investigation should not have taken shape in the first place because no workers were harmed.
(b) The investigation in such cases should be made by an inspector rank officer and completed in no more than
sixty days.
(c) The CBI should conduct the investigation because such cases fall under their purview.
(d) The passage contains no information about the investigation that is taking place in such cases.
Passage (Q.77-Q.82): 0U8R2Uthe following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow the same.
tr-5U3O1L5QRead
According to the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) amendment Act, 2006, once a child is
separated from his biological parents as per law and becomes a legitimate child of his adoptive parents, he gets
all the rights that are related to his adoptive parents. If a Foreigner wants to adopt an Indian child, then he has to
approach the court under the Guardian and Wards Act 1890, and if they want to take the Indian Child out of the
Country, the adoption should be done as per Foreign Laws. A married or unmarried male, a married or unmarried
female, NRI may adopt a child. Any male or female Hindu having a sound mind, a major, and is eligible for
adopting a child can adopt a child. If the male Hindu is married and wants to adopt a child, he has to take the
consent of his wife as well before adoption, and the consent should be free. When a Hindu male or a Female
wants to adopt a son, they should not have a son living, whether legitimate or illegitimate, at the time of adoption.
When a male or a Female Hindu wants to adopt a daughter, they should not have any child living at the time of
adoption. If a male wants to adopt a daughter, he should be at least 21 years older than the adoptive daughter.
[Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/adopting-child-hindu-law/ ]
77. Samaira was a little girl who went on a trip with her parents, Mayank and Moira. On the trip, they decided to go
to a hilltop, where Samaira got separated from their parents, and soon the parents realized this, and they started
to look for her, but they could not find her. Samaira was found by a young, newly married couple. They asked
her about her parents, and she said that they got separated. The couple decided to go ahead and adopt Samaira.
Can they do so? Samaira is Hindu, and so is the new couple.
(a) No, because they needed permission from the birth parents.
(b) No, because Samaira was not legally separated from her birth parents.
(c) Yes, they can after approaching a relevant court.
(d) Yes, as both of them are Hindus, they can adopt her after going through court proceedings.
78. Kartik and Anushka were married for thirteen years. They loved each other and had a son as well. They were
happy until they weren't, and soon they started fighting a lot. After a while, they decided to live separately. After
a while, they got a divorce, and officially, Anushka got custody of the son, and Kartik was left alone. One day
m
Kartik went to an orphanage and decided to go ahead with adopting a young boy he saw there. All of them,
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Kartik, Anushka, their son and the new Child Kartik wanted to adopt, are Hindu. Can Kartik adopt the Child?
(a) No, because a male alone cannot adopt a child.
c
.
(b) No, the age difference has to be twenty-one years for Kartik to be able to adopt the Child.
s
(c) No, because Kartik already has a son living, and so he is not eligible for this adoption.
(d) Yes, because Anushka had custody of the son.
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79.
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Kriti and Lakshya were married for a long time, almost two decades. They did not, however, have a child
together, and this was a cause of a lot of altercations. Lakshya wanted to adopt a son to inherit their property.
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Kriti, however, was not very keen on this idea; she wanted to have her own bloodline. But Lakshya was very
a
coercive, so Kriti agreed to adopt a son. They went to a nearby local orphanage and then saw a little young boy
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and decided to adopt him. Is the adoption legal here?
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(a) No, because they could have their owntr-Child and not 5U3O1L5Q0U
adopt.
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(b) Yes, because Lakshya had the consent of Kriti to adopt a son.
(c) Yes, they both mutually decided to own a child and so adopted one.
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(d) No, because Kriti's consent was not free at all, and so it is not a valid adoption.
Karan and Karuna were high-school lovers. They were always only with each other, and once they graduated
from the same college, they also got a job in the same company, and then they eventually moved in as well.
Soon, they decided to have children. Karuna gave birth to a baby girl, and they lived happily. But one day, due
to some argument, Karan left them and got married to someone else. Then he wanted to adopt a daughter with
his current wife. Can Karan be allowed to adopt a child? Assume all the people mentioned here are Hindus.
(a) Yes, but only after Karan's wife consents to adopt a child, then only.
(b) Yes, as he can legally have a child by adopting the same.
(c) No, because
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already
3O1L had a living child at the time of adoption, so he cannot.
(d) Yes, because the girl he had with Karuna was not a legitimate child.
81. Jacob and his girlfriend Jessica were together for two years; they were still in college and had already, however,
decided to get married and live together. One day, suddenly, however, their happy paradise was put to debris as
a car ran over the pregnant Jessica, and she died along with her died, baby. Jacob was very sad and traumatized.
He wanted to adopt a baby girl and name her Jessica to honour his dead girlfriend. He went to an adoption agency
and told them he wanted to have a baby girl. He is 20 years old; can he adopt so? Assume they are Hindus.
(a) No, because he is barely an adult himself, he cannot be responsible for a child.
(b) No, because he can still have a child of his own rather than adopting one.
(c) Yes, because he is a Hindu male and can adapt.
(d) No, because he is only twenty and the age requirement does not fit here.
82. Angelina and Drake was a married couple. They were residing in Australia and were also very inclined towards
travelling a lot. They had travelled to a lot of countries, and they wanted to visit India as they had heard a lot
about India. Angelina had an accident, and she lost her uterus. So, they decided to adopt a child together. They
came to India and went to an orphanage and found a young boy they wanted to adopt. They also wanted to take
him back to Australia. Can they legally take the child with them?
(a) No, because to adopt a child in India, they have to reside in India.
(b) No, because that would take the Child away from the culture that he is used to.
(c) Yes, but they will have to take the Child via Australian adoption laws.
(d) Yes, because even foreigners and NRIs are allowed to adopt children here in India.
Passage (Q.83-Q.87): Nuisance as a tort refers to illegal interference with a person’s use or amusement of land,
or a few rights over land, or something about it. The interference can be in any way, e.g., noise, vibration, water,
smoke, smell, gas, etc. For an act to represent nuisance it should be prima facie wrongful or it ought to be an
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illegal interference with someone or his property. Firstly, it must create an inconvenience that the law considers
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actual damage. Every interference isn't always a nuisance. To represent a nuisance, the interference ought to be
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unreasonable. Thus someone simply can’t deliver action for the inconvenience made by the traffic noise if his/her
.
house is near a road, nor can someone sue his neighbor for playing or listening to normal music. The interference
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must be unreasonable. An interference that is not authorized with the use of the property of another person
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through some object either tangible or intangible, which causes injury to the property, is actionable as nuisance.
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The interference may be through water, smoke, fumes, branches of trees, etc. Secondly, injury to comfort or
health is actionable as a nuisance. The standard of comfort varies from place to place and from time to time. The
test of discomfort isn't done keeping in mind of a selected person however the test is how a median man residing
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within the same space would take it. Thirdly, actual damage is required to be proved in an action for nuisance.
a
The prescription can legalize an act of Nuisance in the case of Private Nuisance i.e. doing same activity causing
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nuisance for 20 years or more. When an act is carried out following the law, it is a complete defence. The
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remedies available to nuisance are generally in monetary
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form.
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under certain conditions. An abatement order requires a business operating out of compliance to take specific
actions or to shut down its operation. This is a severe remedy normally reserved for serious and repeated
83.
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violators. An injunction is a court order requiring a person to do or cease doing a specific action.
[Source: https://www.northeastlawjournal.com/post/a-complete-guide-to-the-tort-of-nuisance ]
Tom and Jerry are next-door neighbors who have been living peacefully for years until Tom decided to start
playing loud music late at night. This has become a nuisance for Jerry, who cannot sleep or concentrate on his
work. Jerry tries to talk to Tom about the loud music, but Tom dismisses his concerns and tells him to mind his
own business. Despite Jerry's repeated requests, Tom continues to play loud music, which is affecting Jerry's
health and well-being. Frustrated with the situation, Jerry decides to file a complaint with the local authorities,
who conduct an investigation and find that Tom's music is indeed too loud and disturbing the peace. Tom is
issued a warning and
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asked
1L5Q to keep the noise levels down, but he continues to play loud music. This time, he
even starts hosting parties that go on until the early hours of the morning, which further adds to the disturbance.
Eventually, Jerry decides to take legal action against Tom and files a lawsuit for nuisance. Decide the outcome
of the case based on the passage:
(a) Jerry will not succeed because playing music is reasonable interference with his rights over his house.
(b) Jerry will succeed because his health and comfort is affected causing him damage.
(c) Jerry will not succeed because Tom is playing the music for many years which makes it valid.
(d) Jerry will succeed because it is unreasonable interference with his rights affecting his health resulting in
damage.
84. Misha owns a small grocery store in a bustling downtown area. One day, she notices that a new nightclub has
opened up next door. At first, she doesn’t think much of it, but as the weeks go by, she begins to realize that the
nightclub is causing a lot of noise and disruption in her store. The loud music and crowds of people are scaring
away her regular customers, and her employees are having a hard time concentrating on their work. She is mostly
uncomfortable in her store and gets anxious very soon. She tries to talk to the nightclub owners, but they refuse
to make any changes or take responsibility for the noise. She files a lawsuit against the nightclub owners for the
tort of nuisance. Who will win the case in their favour?
(a) Misha will win the case in her favor because there was unreasonable interference with her rights over her
land, injury to her health and damage to her business.
(b) The nightclub will win the case in their favour because they have a right to operate their business as they see
fit.
(c) Misha will win the case in her favor because her rights over her land were unreasonably interfered with
leading to discomfort of an average person and damage to her business.
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(d) The nightclub will win the case in their favor because they had opened the club in a business area with
authority under law to create reasonable interference with nearby places.
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85.
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Reena lives in a quiet residential neighborhood and her next-door neighbor decides to open a commercial
business in their home. They start running a daycare center with dozens of children coming and going every day,
making noise, and creating a lot of activity in the otherwise peaceful street. The noise and commotion from the
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daycare are constant and make it difficult for Reena to work from home, sleep at night, or even relax in her own
backyard. Reena talks to her neighbor and explain her concerns, but they refuse to do anything about it, insisting
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that they have a right to run their business from their home. Reena decides to take legal action and file a nuisance
a
lawsuit against her neighbor. She presents evidence of the noise and activity caused by the daycare, as well as
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testimony from other neighbors who are similarly affected. Assuming she succeeds, what are the possible
remedies which will be awarded in this case?
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(a) The Court can award Reena monetarytr-5G 3F1D5H0K8B for her trouble which will be decided as per various
compensation
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factors like her discomfort, duration of interference etc.
(b) The Court will award an abatement order against the daycare under which they will have to self-regulate the
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noise levels, children in daycare etc or shut down their operation
(c) The Court will issue an injunction ordering Misha’s neighbor to limit the number of children in their daycare,
reduce the noise level, and take other measures to reduce the impact on the neighborhood along with
monetary damages.
(d) The Court will ask the daycare to move elsewhere in a business area and vacate the residential premises of
the neighborhood.
86. Lokesh moves in a quiet suburban neighborhood with his wife and children. After some days, a neighbouring
family’s, who had been living there for fifteen years, behavior becomes unbearable for them. The family often
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played loud music
tr-5U3Olate night, have loud parties, and their guests park their cars on Lokesh's lawn. Lokesh tries
to talk to his neighbors and politely asks them to keep the noise down and to not park on his lawn, but they refuse
to listen and continue to behave inconsiderately. Lokesh is frustrated and begins to feel like he can't enjoy his
own home anymore. To make matters worse, the family also has a large dog that barks incessantly throughout
the day and night, disturbing not only Lokesh but the entire neighborhood for years. Despite numerous
complaints from other neighbors and visits from animal control, the family refuses to address the issue. Lokesh
files a nuisance case against them. Will he succeed and why?
(a) He will not succeed because they are saved by prescription i.e. they have been doing this activity for many
years before Lokesh shifted.
(b) He will succeed because there was unreasonable interference with discomfort of an average man resulting in
damages.
(c) He will not succeed because the family is reasonably interfering with his rights and animals cannot be
controlled.
(d) He will succeed and family will be forced to pay damages and stop their disruptive behavior.
87. Mahesh moves in a densely populated neighborhood in Mumbai. He discovers that his neighbor runs a loud and
smelly manufacturing plant that operates 24 hours a day. The plant has been in operation from more than the
past two decades. The noise and pollution from the plant are so severe that it disrupts his sleep and causes health
problems for him and his family. He asks his neighbours who also state that they are annoyed by it too. Despite
his repeated requests to his neighbor to reduce the noise and pollution, they continue to operate the plant without
regard for the impact on his quality of life. He then decides to take legal action against his neighbor for the
nuisance they are causing him. Decide as per the passage:
(a) Mahesh will succeed because there is unreasonable interference with his rights resulting in discomfort for an
average person and damage.
(b) Mahesh will not succeed because he has just moved in the neighbourhood and the duration is not sufficient
for him to claim nuisance.
(c) Mahesh will succeed because it is causing public nuisance which is punished severely in the Indian Penal
Code.
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(d) Mahesh will not succeed because the plant had been in operation for two decades making it as valid.
Passage (Q.88-Q.92): Section 13 of the Indian Contract Act (ICA) defines consent as the meeting of minds of
c
.
the parties i.e. consensus ad idem (when they are in agreement on the same thing in the same sense). Section 14
s
further qualifies consent as an important ingredient of a valid binding contract as has been mentioned in Section
10 by stating that “Consent is free unless it is caused by Coercion (Section 15), Undue Influence (Section 16),
Fraud (Section 17), Misrepresentation (s 18) or Mistake of fact (s 20-22).
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Section 16 of ICA states that ‘a contract is said to be induced by undue influence where the will of the party
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consenting is able to be dominated by the other party due to the existence of the relation subsisting between
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them’. One party influence the other while the contract is formed to get an unfair advantage over the other. It
a
further qualifies that a person is able to dominate the will of the other if he:
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1. Has a real or apparent authority arising out of fiduciary relations (relationship of trust) between them, or
2. Forms the contract with a related person whose mental capacity, due to illness or age or due to mental distress
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is temporarily or permanently affected.tr-5G3F1D5H
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- He mis-uses his relation; o
When all the following three conditions are fulfilled then only the situation is considered as an undue influence:
- One person is in a relation to dominate the will of other; the relation is of trust, not just natural/biological;
- He obtains an unfair advantage.

The burden of proof to prove that the contract was not affected from undue influence lies with the defendant i.e.
the person who was in a position to dominate the will of the other.
Under Section 19A of the Contract Act, an agreement induced by undue influence is voidable at the option of
that party whose consent was taken by influencing him/her. Performance of such agreements may be avoided
absolutely or on prescribing certain terms and conditions.
[Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/undue-influence-contract/]
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88. John is a struggling
tr-5U3O1Lartist who has been trying to make a name for himself in the art world. He is under much
worry due to years of not succeeding and breaks down frequently. One day, he meets a wealthy art collector
named Robert at an art gallery. Robert expresses great admiration for John’s work and offers him an opportunity
of a lifetime. Robert proposes a contract where he promises to promote John’s art extensively, provide him with
a lavish studio space, and financially support his artistic career. In return, Robert asks for exclusive rights to all
of John’s future artwork and a significant percentage of any sales or royalties for five years. Excited by the
prospect of finally receiving recognition and financial stability, John accepts the contract without question. After
six months of the contract, there are many sales of his artwork which unduly makes Robert much richer
accentuating his wealth. John wants to get out of the contract and become independent. He files a case of undue
influence on Robert. What will be its likely outcome? Who will bear the burden of proof in light of the passage?
(a) The case will succeed and John will have burden of proof.
(b) The case will not succeed but John will have burden of proof.
(c) The case will succeed and Robert will have burden of proof.
(d) The case will not succeed but Robert will have burden of proof.
89. Meena, a wealthy businessman, owns a successful construction company. He has been planning to expand his
business into a new market and is looking for a suitable property to set up his operations. He contacts Sarah, his
real estate agent for years, who informs him about a prime commercial property that would be perfect for his
needs. Sarah sees an opportunity to benefit financially by prompting Meena’s decision-making process. She
convinces Meena that the property she is recommending is the only suitable option available and exaggerates its
potential profitability. She also subtly downplays any concerns or risks associated with the property. Eventually,
Meena signs a contract to purchase the property with Mark. The terms of the contract heavily favor Mark’s
construction company, including higher fees for services and restrictive clauses that limit Meena’s future
business opportunities. Meena later realizes this and challenges the contract under undue influence. What will
be the likely outcome of the case and why?
(a) The contract will be set aside because there was undue influence.
(b) The contract will not be set aside because there was no undue influence.
m
(c) The contract can either be set aside or altered in terms and conditions because there was undue influence.
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(d) The contact cannot either be set aside or altered in terms and conditions because there was no undue
influence.
c
90. Choose an option which is correct in light of the passage above:
r s .
(a) There must be an understanding between the parties that the same thing must be understood in a different
sense subjective to the parties.
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(b) Free consent is something which is not caused by undue influence, coercion, fraud, misrepresentation or
mistake of law.
biological.
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(c) There has to be some relationship between the parties in the case of undue influence, not necessarily
a
(d) The contact made by undue influence must necessarily be set aside absolutely with expediency.
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91. A small business owner named Meera owns a successful bakery. One day, Meera receives a visit from her
grandfather Mr. Johnson, who expresses interest in investing in her bakery and turning it into a franchise. During
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their meeting, Mr. Johnson lavishes Meera with compliments, praising her baking skills and business acumen.
He talks about the immense potential her bakery has and how it could become a nationwide brand with his help.
He promises her access to his extensive network of contacts, marketing expertise, and a significant financial
investment. However, as their discussions progress, Meera begins to feel overwhelmed. Mr. Johnson constantly
reiterates that his investment is contingent on her signing a contract that grants him a substantial share of her
business and control over key decision-making processes. She signs the contract thinking her grandfather will
be fair to her. Later, she wants to challenge the contract on undue influence because she hardly gets any profit.
Will she succeed and why?
(a) No, she will not succeed because there was no domination of will and its misuse to gain unfair advantage.
(b) Yes, she tr-
will succeed 2U
1L5Q0U8Rbecause there was relation to dominate the will which was misused to gain unfair
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advantage.
(c) No, she will not succeed because there was no relationship of trust but a natural relationship.
(d) Yes, she will succeed because there was domination of will to gain unfair advantage.
92. A wealthy and influential businessman named Richard owns multiple businesses and properties. Richard is
known for his shrewd business practices and knack for getting what he wants. In this town, there is a struggling
local farmer named John aged seventy, who is barely making ends meet due to a drought that has affected his
crops. He seasonally works in Richard’s office as an office peon. Richard approaches John one day and expresses
interest in buying a piece of land that John owns. John is initially reluctant to sell, as the land has been in his
family for generations. Richard invites John to his luxurious mansion and lavishes him with expensive medicines,
gadgets to alleviate his knee pain and promises of financial assistance. John, being desperate for financial relief,
begins to feel indebted to Richard and believes that he has no other option but to sell the land and thereby enters
into the contract. The contract is heavily skewed in Richard's favor, with unfavorable terms and conditions that
put John at a significant detriment in terms of price. However, Richard convinces John that signing the contract
is the only way to secure his healthy future in this stage of his life. John signs the contract but wants to get out
of it later. Decide in light of the passage:
m
(a) He cannot get out of the contract because there was no relation leading to domination of his will.
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(b) He can get out of the contract because there was relation which dominated his will due to his mental illness.
(c) He can get out of the contract because there was relation which dominated his will due to his age.
c
.
(d) He cannot get out of the contract because there was no relation to dominate his will and its misuse to gain
s
unfairly.
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Passage (Q.93-Q.96): On March 14, 2023, a U.S. drone crashed into the Black Sea after an encounter with
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Russian aircraft. According to the U.S. version of events, the unarmed MQ-9 surveillance drone was flying in
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international airspace when two Russian fighter jets dumped fuel on the drone before colliding with it in violation
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of international law.
operate on the high seas includes the freedom
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Under Article 87 of the U.N. Convention on the Law of the Seas, the high seas – basically, waters that are not
any country’s territorial sea or exclusive economic zone – are open to
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all states. And the right of a country to
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The convention also states that the freedoms “shall be exercised by all states with due regard for the interests of
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other states in their exercise of the freedom of the high seas.”
The United States is not a party to the convention, which was signed in 1982 and currently has 168 parties,
including Russia. Nevertheless, the U.S. recognizes many of its provisions as customary law; indeed, a key U.S.
naval handbook recognizes that “the aircraft of all states are free to operate in international airspace without
interference by other states.”
Russia appears to be taking the position that it was entitled to set up boundaries for its “special military operation”
in Ukraine and that the United States disregarded those boundaries. Russia may be referring here to a “maritime
exclusion zone” that Russia set up in February 2022 to prohibit navigation in the northwest portion of the Black
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In general, the United States considers such zones to be lawful if their purpose is to direct neutral ships and
aircraft away from conflict areas – they can play an important role in reducing the risk that such vessels are
mistakenly attacked. The United States itself established a “maritime safety zone” in the Mediterranean Sea in
2003 in connection with its invasion of Iraq.
However, neutral ships and aircraft do not become lawful targets merely because they enter such zones. Russia
would only have had a reasonable claim to use force against, or interfere with, the U.S. drone if it posed an
imminent threat of an armed attack or was otherwise a legitimate military target during an armed conflict. For
this to be the case, the U.S. drone would have had to be taking direct part in hostilities, and it is known that the
MQ-9 was unarmed.
[Source:
https://theconversation.com/downing-of-us-drone-in-russian-jet-encounter-prompts-counterclaims-of-
violations-in-the-sky-an-international-law-expert-explores-the-arguments-201857 ]
93. Which of the following is an accurate explanation of liability of neutral aircrafts and ships under the “maritime
exclusion zone”?
(a) The unarmed ships and aircrafts are unprotected if there is absence of near danger specifically related to
armed attack or military conflict.
(b) The armed aircrafts and ships are protected if there is presence of near danger particularly related to armed
attack or military conflict.
(c) The unarmed ships and aircrafts are protected if there is absence of near danger specifically related to armed
(d) The armed aircraft and ships are not protected if there is absence of near danger particularly related to armed
94. Kina is a country which has much sympathy for Mikraine in a war wherein the opposite party is Krussia. United
m
States of Melting Pot (USMP) is against Krussia with cold rivalry over decades. Kina and USMP want to aid
o
Mikraine in the war but they do not want to seem aiding the war in front of international regime. They use drones
c
and submarines in water bodies unclaimed by any nations to put the area under surveillance in 2021. It goes on
.
unnoticed for one year and this surveillance insight has led to many favourable outcomes for Mikraine indirectly.
s
One of the drones which had combative military capabilities is intercepted by Krussia and destroyed while
r
leaving the airspace above North West Black Sea (NWBS). It had much data regarding strategic war tactics of
k e
Krussia and it infuriates USMP and Kina. They allege violation of international law for destruction of drone in
(NWBS) as per Article 87 of the Law of Sea Convention both of which are parties to it along with the other
nations involved. Decide in light of the passage:
n
(a) There is no violation of international law because there was a maritime exclusion zone in the area (NWBS).
a
(b) There is no violation of international law because the there was no maritime exclusion zone in such area
(NWBS).
r
p
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(c) There is violation of international law tr-because it was
8B2Han 3O1L5Q0U8R
tr-5Uunarmed neutral aircraft with no imminent danger.
5G3F1D5H0K
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(d) There is no violation of international law because it was a combative aircraft with imminent danger.
95.
T
Choose a statement that accurately captures the essence of the paragraph:
(a) The presence of maritime security zone in an area prohibits non-neutral aircrafts and ships from navigation.
(b) High Seas offer an unrestricted right of passage to all nations but a presence of maritime security zone
prevents navigation by impartial parties.
(c) The general rule is that High Seas will allow right of passage to all nations but warfare has led to creation of
maritime security zones where only unarmed neutral aircrafts and ships will be allowed passage.
(d) The general rule is that High Seas will allow right of passage to all nations but warfare has led to creation of
maritime security zones where only armed neutral aircrafts and ships will be allowed passage.
96. Pick the statement 8R2U

tr-5U3Ofrom the
1L5Q0U choices below with which the author is most likely to disagree with:
(a) The freedom to traverse in the High Seas is absolute and unqualified under the Law of the Sea combined
with International Customary law.
(b) Direct participation in hostilities in an armed attack makes an aircraft or ship liable to be attacked.
(c) The air space above High Seas can be used by all nations since it can be used without undue interruption
from other states.
(d) The maritime exclusion zone is synonymous with maritime safety zone as both had a purpose of steering
neutral aircrafts and ships away from the conflict zone.
Passage (Q.97-Q.100): The Supreme Court recently ruled that before an accused is subjected to a trial for
offences under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 (SC/ST Act),
the utterances made by him in public view must be outlined either in the First Information Report (FIR) or the
charge-sheet [Ramesh Chandra Vaishya v. State of Uttar Pradesh and Another].
A Division Bench of Justices S Ravindra Bhat and Dipankar Datta highlighted that the same is necessary so as
to enable courts to ascertain whether the chargesheet makes out a case of an offence under the SC/ST Act or not,
prior to taking cognizance of the offence.
"It is desirable that before an accused is subjected to a trial for alleged commission of offence under section
3(1)(x), the utterances made by him in any place within public view are outlined, if not in the F.I.R. (which is
not required to be an encyclopaedia of all facts and events), but at least in the charge-sheet (which is prepared
based either on statements of witnesses recorded in course of investigation or otherwise) so as to enable the court
m
to ascertain whether the charge sheet makes out a case of an offence under the SC/ST Act having been committed
o
for forming a proper opinion in the conspectus of the situation before it, prior to taking cognizance of the
c
offence," the judgment stated. In its analysis, the top court noted that the FIR registered against the appellant is
.
silent about the place of occurrence and who was present when the appellant was alleged to have hurled caste-
s
related abuses at the complainant. It was then highlighted by the Court that to prove an offence under the SC/ST
r
Act, the requirement is that an accused must be major, posses sound mind and must have hurled caste-related
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abuses specifically at the complainant with the intent to humiliate him within public view. Public view requires
more than two members of the society (not the family members of the complainant) to witness the incident.
Public view does not include a private conversation between two individuals. However, in the instant case, the
n
Court noted that the three witnesses relied upon by the complainant are his own family members. Further, neither
a
the FIR nor charge sheet refers to any member of the public present at the scene of the incident.
r
[Source, with edits and revisions: https://www.barandbench.com/news/litigation/public-utterances-accused-
p
5Q0U8R2U
8B2Htr-5U3O1L
must-show-fir-chargesheet-before-trial-sc-st-act-offences-supreme-court]
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
97.
o
One day, a young post-graduate SC/ST woman named Meera, who is a dedicated social worker and an advocate
T
for SC rights, decides to organize a peaceful protest in Ashoka village to raise awareness about the atrocities by
the upper-caste communities. She hopes that by bringing attention to the issue, she can initiate a dialogue and
foster change in the community. However, news of Meera's protest spreads quickly and reaches the influential
members of the upper-caste community. They see the protest as a challenge to their power and status, and they
conspire to manage it using various means. A public awareness rally of Meera is disrupted by them and the
person leading the stoppage shouts: “Let the educated witch be damned!” Meera files a case against him under
SC/ST Prevention of Atrocities Act. The FIR mentions the statement of the accused. Decide in light of the
passage:
(a) The case will succeed because there was public humiliation of Meera for a Dalit rally.
(b) The case will not
tr-5U3O 0U8R2U because there was no humiliation by the disrupter.
succeed
1L5Q
(c) The case will succeed because there was intent to humiliate in public view.
(d) The case will not succeed because the requirements of the offence are not met.
98. Choose a statement that provides for a correct statement in the light of the passage:
(a) FIR must contain a comprehensive account of all facts and events of the case.
(b) Charge-sheet contains the statements of witnesses during the course of investigation only.
(c) The Court will examine FIR or Charge sheet after taking cognizance of any case under the SC/ST Act as per
the Supreme Court.
(d) There have to be statements by members of the public at the scene regarding the complainant for making the
accused liable.
99. In a small village named Shanti Nagar, there has been a long-standing history of caste-based discrimination
against the SC/ST community. The village is primarily inhabited by individuals belonging to higher castes, who
have been exploiting and mistreating the SC/ST residents for years. Kamal is a SC man who serves food at his
family dhaba on the outskirts of Shanti Nagar. One day a large contingent arrives from a nearby town and sit
down for food. They have their food and ask for sweets to be supplied. One of them overhears a conversation
between the other visitors named Mahesh and Ramesh where the former is saying “We consumed food served
by such lowly people as Kamal. May God help us!” It is told by him to the whole contingent. The contingent
refuses to pay for the food when Kamal serves them and leaves the dhaba immediately. One of the members of
the group, Angry Lomesh while leaving muttered-, “To hell with this dhaba, shitty low classes and their food!”
Kamal overhears this and files an FIR against Mahesh and Lomesh under SC ST Act. There is mention of the
statements in the charge sheet along with statements of his family members who were the dhaba owners as
witnesses. Will Mahesh and Lomesh be liable in a joint trial? Decide in light of the passage:
m
(a) They will be liable because they made caste-based abuse with intent to humiliate in public view.
o
(b) They will not be liable because there was no intent to humiliate Kamal from the statement.
c
(c) They will be liable because caste-based abuse was intended to humiliate Kamal in public view.
the public view.
r s .
(d) They will not be liable because none of the statements made by Mahesh and Lomesh respectively were in
k e
100. A woman named Gauri is given an assignment to teach students in a village. She is a SC/ST in her caste status.
She is very enthusiastic in her teaching methods and want to bring innovation to the classroom. One of her class
5 student comes from an upper caste house and gets to know of her dalit status from his parents who denigrate
n
her from her surname while conversing in front of him. He remarks in class the next day: “Madam, you have no
a
right to teach us. You are a bloody low-class.” She files a case against him under the SC ST Act. Is the student
liable?
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5Q0U8R2U
(a) The student is not liable because he did 8B2Htr-5U3O1Labuse to humiliate her in public view.
not hurl caste-based
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
o
(b) The student is liable because he hurled caste-based abuse at her with intent to humiliate in public view.
(c) The student is not liable because the requirements of the offence are not being met.
follow.
T
(d) The student is liable because the requirements of the offence are being met.
Passage (Q.101-Q.105): Read the following passage and in the light of the same answer the questions that
Plea bargaining refers to a person charged with a criminal offence negotiating with the prosecution for a lesser
punishment than what is provided in law by pleading guilty to a less serious offence. It primarily involves pre-
trial negotiations between the accused and the prosecutor. It may involve bargaining on the charge or in the
quantum of sentence. Cases for which the practice is allowed are limited. Chapter XXI A was inserted in the
Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005.Plea Bargaining is mainly of
three types: Charge 5Q0U8R2U
tr-5U3O1Lbargaining, Sentence bargaining and Fact bargaining. Prevalent in Criminal cases, Charge
Bargaining is when the defendant agrees to plead guilty to a lesser charge in exchange for the dismissal of more
severe charges, e.g., pleading guilty for aggravated assault rather than attempting to murder with the primary
intent of getting a lesser sentence. This is also the purpose of Sentence Bargaining; however, here, the defendant
agrees to plead guilty to all the stated charges for consideration of a lighter sentence. The third sort of plea and
least frequently utilized is fact bargaining, in which specific facts are admitted, doing away with the need for the
prosecutor to prove them in exchange for an agreement not to bring up other facts. It may be noted that this
judgment is final and no appeal lies apart from a writ petition to the State High Court under Articles 226 and 227
of the Constitution or a special leave petition to the Supreme Court under Article 136 of the Constitution. Under
the CrPC, plea bargaining is available for offences that are punishable by up to seven years imprisonment. This
instrument also cannot be used in offences that affect the socio-economic condition of the country (for example
offences affecting health & safety of the general public etc.) or where the offence is committed against a woman
or a child below 14 years of age.
101. Hamid was accused of selling expired packaged ghee in his stores and was held liable under section 5 of the food
adulteration act whereby the punishment prescribed was of 5 years of imprisonment. Before the trial, Hamid
files an application for Plea Bargaining in the court .In the given situation, which of the following statements is
true?
(a) Plea Bargaining is applicable here since punishment is less than 7 years.
(b) Plea bargaining is applicable here since the offence committed is not of grave nature.
(c) Plea bargaining is not applicable here as the offence committed is against the safety of general public in
nature.
(d) Plea bargaining is not applicable here since the application should be applied after the trial.
102. Ramesh was accused of theft under IPC for which the prescribed punishment was simple imprisonment of three
years and a fine of rupees 20 thousand. He applies for an application of plea bargaining after which his
application was accepted by the court and the prosecutor and him made an agreement for a selective presentation
(a) The above situation is of Sentence bargaining since the prosecutor did not bring some facts.
c m
of facts in return for a plea of guilty. In the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
o
(b) The above situation is of Fact bargaining since the prosecutor promised to dismiss certain charges against
him.
s .
(c) The above situation is of Sentence bargaining since the prosecutor bargained to a less severe punishment.
r
(d) The above situation is of Fact bargaining since there was a selective representation of facts.
k e
103. Amit and Sumit entered into a contract with each other whereby Amit had to deliver 20 boxes of handmade paper
to Sumit by 25th September, 2022. Amit failed to perform his part of the contract due to his medical conditions
n
and was liable for breach of contract. He was asked to pay damages of rupees 50,000. He filed an application in
a
the civil court for plea bargaining. In the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
r
(a) The application will fail since breach of contract affects the socio-economic condition of the country.
p
1L5Q 0U8R2U
(b) The application will be successful since 2Htr-5U3O
he did not8Bbreach the contract intentionally.
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
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(c) The application will be successful since the punishment was only fine and not imprisonment.
(d) The application will fail since plea bargaining is not applicable in breach of contract.
T
104. Smiti was accused of cheating and theft under the IPC. She filed an application of plea bargaining in the sessions
court after which she bargained with the prosecution for a reduction in the punishment. Not satisfied with the
judgement of the sessions court, she filed an appeal in the High court. Will her appeal by accepted by the court?
Decide.
(a) Yes, since anybody who is not satisfied with the decision of sessions court can approach the High court.
(b) Yes, since an appeal if equal to writ petition.
(c) No, since the judgement after plea bargaining is final.
(d) No, since her punishment was already reduced.
8R2U
tr-5U3O1L5Q0U
105. Komal was accused of cruelty by her daughter-in-law Smita under section 498A of the IPC the prescribed
punishment for which is three years. Komal, to reduce her punishment, applied for an application of plea
bargaining in the court before the trial. In the given situation, will her application be accepted by the court?
(a) Yes, since the punishment was within the time span of 7 years.
(b) Yes, since the offence was not committed against the woman by a man.
(c) No, since the offence was committed against a woman.
(d) No, since the offence committed is not of grave nature.
SECTION - D: LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.106-Q.135): Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow-
Passage (Q.106 – Q.111): One more glass ceiling has been shattered. Another summit has been scaled. The
women have done it. Their feat in the inaugural version of the Women’s Premier League has reaffirmed my
faith, as that of millions in the country, that our women have it in them to chart their own course in sports history
on the world stage. So, whether it is the world boxing championship or competing in the most glamorous and
professional cricketing extravaganza in the world, they are second to none.
I distinctly recall the Women’s T20 exhibition matches played at the Sawai Mansingh stadium in Jaipur in May
2019, when the BCCI, under the stewardship of the Committee of Administrators, fielded three teams. The final,
played to a packed stadium, between teams led by Mithali Raj and Harmanpreet Kaur, had the crowd on its toes.
m
The match was decided on the last ball. The women had announced their entry on the big stage. Further matches
o
conducted by the BCCI — even in the UAE — had cricketing enthusiasts rooting for more. The BCCI has
c
provided the cricketers with a well-deserved opportunity to showcase their talent, professionalism and big-match
temperament.
r s .
The final of the inaugural WPL, played to a capacity crowd in the Brabourne stadium, showcased their
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professionalism yet again. The five-team WPL, which had drawn great interest among franchises, and during
player auctions, has etched its place in the cricketing history of India. Mumbai Indians established their
supremacy against the Delhi Capitals in a match which had all the thrills of an IPL men’s game. The athleticism
n
on the field, tactics of a batting or fielding side and that dominating feature of any competition at the world stage,
a
nerves, were on full display. A low-scoring match in which the side batting second was hoping to best the total
r
set for them to score a win, nearly became a non-achievable task. The match saw all the ups and downs of a T20
p
3O1L5Q0U 8R2U
game, with the numbers eight and 11 batters swinging
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
the
8B2H willow
tr-5U with gay abandon to score sixes and fours.
o
Shikha Yadav, who finds her place in the team as a fast bowler, slammed one six and three boundaries in an
over.
T
Soon, it was the turn of the Mumbai team. They were chasing a total which appeared easy. But there were twists
and turns of fate as the innings unfolded. At 23 for two, they found themselves in trouble. It was then for the
champions to show their class when Harmanpreet Kaur and Katherine Sciver-Brunt, unfazed by the tense
moments, went about chasing the winning score. The thrill did not cease: With 36 to get off 24 balls, Kaur was
run out. This had the cricket-loving crowd on its toes. The Mumbai team romped home with three balls to spare.
What a game. The crowd in the stadium and those watching on TV around the globe were treated to a riveting
final in which the cricketers demonstrated their class. Whether it was hitting boundaries, or diving for catches or
the long run-up to deliver quick in-swingers, the cricketers demonstrated their skill.
8R2U
tr-5U3O1L5Q0U
106. What was the result of the final match of the Women's Premier League?
(a) Mumbai Indians won against Delhi Capitals in a low-scoring match.
(b) Mumbai Indians lost to Delhi Capitals in a high-scoring match.
(c) Mumbai Indians won against Chennai Super Kings in a high-scoring match.
(d) Delhi Capitals won against Mumbai Indians in a low-scoring match.
107. Which of the following would strengthen the author's argument about the success of the Women's Premier
League?
(a) The Women's Premier League has received criticism from some who argue that women's sports are not as
exciting as men's sports.
(b) The Mumbai Indians team won the Women's Premier League by a large margin, proving that they were far
superior to the other teams.
(c) The Women's Premier League drew great interest among franchises and fans, and has etched its place in the
cricketing history of India.
(d) The Women's Premier League was played in small, poorly-maintained stadiums, which detracted from the
experience for players and fans.
108. Which of the following weakens the author's argument about the Women's Premier League?
(a) The Women's Premier League matches had poor attendance.
o m
(b) The Women's Premier League cricket players lack the necessary skills to compete at the world stage.
c
(c) The Women's Premier League cricket matches are not as entertaining as the Indian Premier League.
(d) The Women's Premier League cricket teams are not representative of the entire country.
109. What can be inferred about the author's view on women's cricket from the passage?
r s .
world stage.
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(a) The author believes that women's cricket has immense potential and can compete with men's cricket on the
(b) The author thinks that women's cricket is still not as popular as men's cricket and needs more support from
the cricketing fraternity.
a n
(c) The author believes that women's cricket is a new and exciting development but needs more time to develop
fully.
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(d) The author suggests that women's cricket is not as tr-5U3O1L5Q0U
interesting
8B2H as men's cricket and is unlikely to become
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
o
popular in the near future.
T
110. Which of the following is the author most likely to disagree with, based on the passage?
(a) Women's cricket is not as glamorous as men's cricket.
(b) The BCCI has provided women cricketers with a well-deserved opportunity to showcase their talent.
(c) The Women's Premier League (WPL) has etched its place in the cricketing history of India.
(d) The Indian Premier League has a history that remains unchallenged.
111. Which of the following can be concluded from the information presented in the passage?
(a) The Women’s Premier League is the only women's cricket tournament in India.
(b) The Mumbai team won the final match of the Women’s Premier League by a big margin.
(c) The Women’str-5U3OT20 exhibition
1L5Q0U 8R2U matches played in Jaipur in 2019 were the first women's cricket matches held
in India.
(d) The Women’s Premier League has proved to be a successful platform for women cricketers to showcase
their talent.
Passage (Q.112 – Q.117): Pakistan stands on the brink of default even as it remains engaged with IMF at the
end of a three-year programme. While its economic woes are rooted in its own inept policies, IMF has escaped
scrutiny of its stabilisation programmes that have failed to put Pakistan on a sustainable path in 22 attempts and
certainly needing another programme.
Throughout its development experience, irresponsible expenditures led to chronic fiscal deficits, mounting debt
and rising interest payments, contributing to excessive domestic demand spilling into external imbalances and
loss of reserves. With scant attention to competitiveness, export performance remained weak. Hence, Pakistan
experienced foreign exchange crises. Each time, IMF programmes-built reserves with borrowed funds, paying
previous debts with new loans. Programmes were approved if creditors could be repaid, not if Pakistan would
be able to stand on its feet.
But crises re-emerged soon because the fun¬damental issue of increasing foreign exchange earnings remai-ned
c o m
unaddressed. It failed to recognise that competitiveness is more than the real effective exchange rate.
Further, in its narrow focus on reducing fiscal imbalances through revenue measures, paid little heed to the
.
impact of tax measures on investment, resource allocation, economic activity, export promotion and income
s
distribution. As a result, exports remained stagnant, investment rates low and small and medium enterprises
r
collapsed with rampant unemployment. Increasing allocations for income support programmes is not a substitute
e
for policies supporting growth of enterprises and agriculture.
k
During the current programme, Pakistan has largely followed the IMF programme but like many governments
n
living and spending in the present while ignoring the medium-term consequences of accumulating expensive
a
debt, failed to contain expenditures, which exceeded 20% of GDP.
Consequently, as governments failed to achieve
p r
With a blind eye towards expenditure growth, IMF insisted on complex
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
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tax measures, detrimental to growth.
revenue targets, IMF forced stifling tax measures. Growth has
o
slumped below 2%, exports are declining, aggravating the foreign exchange crisis, and inflation has increased
to 40%.
T
IMF’s dogmatic reliance on higher interest-rates to contain inflation has proved unsuccessful. High interest rates
have crippled industry and increased the budget’s burden; Post 2008 financial crisis, countries have been keeping
interest rates low in response to debt accumulation, IMF has prescribed ever-increasing interest rates, which have
risen from 11% to 20%, contributing to increased public debt.
Inflation has steadily risen, raising the cost of doing business, and dampened investment and exports. The IMF
prescription to protect interest incomes of banks and creditors from the erosion of inflation has rewarded the rich
but failed to protect the poor because an increase in sales tax is a burden borne by the poor.
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tr-5U3O1L5Q0U
Even if Pakistan reaches an agreement with IMF to avoid an imminent default, the economic crisis will only be
postponed, not overcome. And this would have been achieved through severe import controls that have left
containers stranded in ports, closed down industry and reduced exports, created shortages of essentials. Looking
ahead, Pakistan will need another IMF programme, but it must be a stronger homegrown adjustment programme
or restructuring its debt.
112. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with:
(a) Despite various programmes of the IMF, the economic condition of Pakistan is far from good.
(b) The ruling dispensation has a role in the current economic situation of Pakistan for it is due to their ill-framed
policies that debt has multiplied to such extreme levels.
(c) Pakistan is trying to get another programme from IMF to avert the otherwise imminent economic collapse.
(d) All of the above.
113. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?

(a) The dismal condition that Pakistan finds itself in is a result of its own ill-crafted policies and IMF has only
sought to attenuate it.
(b) While the policies of the government have had a part for the Pakistan’s pathetic economic condition, IMF
cannot be absolved either.
(c) It is the IMF which is to be blamed entirely for the current economic crisis in Pakistan.
(d) IMF has been the saviour of Pakistan by bailing it out twenty-two times.
114. Which of the following can be an appropriate title for the passage?
(a) IMF: The sole reason for Pakistan economic woes
(b) IMF and the Pakistani debacle
(c) IMF shares part of the blame for the economic mess in Pakistan
(d) IMF in cahoots with Pakistan
115. Which of the following weakens the author’s contention?
c o m
root cause for the current economic crisis in Pakistan.
r .
(a) Despite the best efforts from the side of the government, the crippling measures imposed by the IMF are the
s
(b) IMF has time and again facilitated Pakistan with relief measures, but it is solely due to the indolence of the
ruling dispensation that Pakistan is in such an economic state.
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
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a n
116. What are the points used by the author to highlight the role of IMF in accentuating the economic crisis in
Pakistan?
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2Htr-5U 3O1L5Q0U8R
(a) While other countries kept the interesttr-5G
rates
3F1Dlow, IMF
5H0K8B continued to impose crippling interest rates to keep
o
inflation in control has proved to be futile.
(b) The focus of IMF’s programmes has been to try to repay the debts and not to make Pakistan able enough to
handle its economics.
(d) All of the above.

T
(c) IMF programmes have unjustly benefitted one class over the other.
117. Which of the following is the role of the statement- “With a blind eye towards expenditure growth, IMF insisted
on complex tax measures, detrimental to growth.”
(a) It is an assumption.
(b) It is a weakens the author’s viewpoint. .
(c) It strengthens the author’s viewpoint.
(d) It is the main idea
1L5Qof 8R2Upassage.
0Uthe
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Passage (Q.118 – Q.123): A tiger, sitting quietly among trees observing something in the distance, roars and
darts towards its target. It’s a leopard that jumps down from a tree. The confrontation ends with the leopard
taking a submissive stance. This video led one social-media user to ask: as tigers, leopards and snow leopards
bear the brunt of climate change, is it possible that their habitats will overlap in the future, pushing them into
direct competition?
There’s no easy answer, conservationists said. “We don’t have enough research to answer the question clearly,”
a conservationist said. “But we have seen that whenever the habitats of big cats overlap, they tend to avoid each
other, and the stronger one displaces the weaker.”
Conservationists have traditionally considered “endangered” tigers, the apex predators of Nepal’s southern
plains; “vulnerable” leopards as reigning in the country’s hill region; and “vulnerable” snow leopards lording it
further north in the mountains. But various studies have shown that climate change is increasingly pushing tigers
and leopards further north in search of suitable habitat, encroaching on the territory of snow leopards.
There’s already an overlap, especially at higher elevations. Camera traps have recorded tigers at an elevation of
more than 3,000m in eastern Nepal – well inside snow leopard land. In India and Bhutan, they’ve been
photographed even at roughly 3,600 and 4,000m respectively. Leopards, have been photographed at altitudes as
high as 5,400m. Snow leopards live at an altitude of 3,000m-5,000m.
In a head-to-head between leopards and tigers, tigers have been known to displace leopards. “Both have a similar
prey base,” a conservationist told. “They also face habitat losses and other anthropogenic pressures and are being
forced to the margins of protected areas, where they become likely to get into conflicts with local people.”
Little is known about how tigers interact with snow leopards, as there’s not as much overlap between their ranges.
“However, we can say that as the snow leopard is weaker than the tiger, itis likely to displace snow leopards if
o m
they share a common habitat,” he said. He added it would be the same scenario for leopards and snow leopards:
the odds are stacked in favour of leopards because they’re a more generalist species, Shrestha said.
c
.
A conservationist who studied the potential impact of climate change on the habitat and distribution of leopards,
s
said interactions between them and snow leopards could become more common in a warmer world. “Our study
r
shows that the common leopards could be moving north as previously unsuitable habitats at higher altitudes
become suitable due to warming.”
k e
Shrestha’s research shows that snow leopards are also moving uphill as their current range warms up. But with
space.
r a n
limited room to move into, their habitat will effectively shrink, even as they compete with leopards for this scant
p
8R2U
3O1L5Q0U that tigers may prefer living at higher
Researchers studying tigers say there’s no evidence8Byet
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
suggesting
2Htr-5U
altitudes. Conservationist, Kanchan Thapa, believes this is unlikely. “I believe that most of the tigers we have
o
found in high altitudes are transient tigers that are exploring the habitat after separating from their mothers,”
T
“The grasslands in the south are going to be the home for the core population.”
Whatever the interaction between the cats may look like in the future, it’s likely to be influenced by another actor
– humans. “The other interesting bit is that human settlements are also moving north,” Shrestha said. “Due to
climate change, lower altitudes are getting hotter and higher altitudes are becoming suitable for human
settlement.”
And history has shown that, in confrontations between big cats and humans, the latter always prevail.
118. Which of the following does not weaken the viewpoint presented in the passage:
(a) A recent study
tr-5U3Ohas 0U8R2U
1L5Qunearthed some startling revelations. Contrary to common belief, it is the snow leopards
that are the strongest of the three.
(b) A conservationist, after years of research has concluded that as a result of global warming tigers will adapt
to living at higher altitudes and shall inhabit those regions.
(c) In a recent study, conservationists have observed that there will not be any influence of humans on the big
cats.
(d) There is a research by conservationists that states that tigers will prevail over snow leopards in the long run
existing in a common area.
119. Which of the following is a valid inference from the passage?

(a) In a spat which involves a tiger, tiger emerges as a winner.
(b) Climate change has led to a decrease in the habitat of tigers and leopards.
(c) Tigers prefer to live at higher altitudes rather than living at lower altitudes.
(d) Snow leopards are equal in strength in comparison to tigers.
120. Identify the incorrect deduction:

(a) In a confrontation between tigers and leopards, leopards have to submit.
(b) In a confrontation between tigers and snow leopards, the latter is more likely to submit.
(c) In a confrontation between tigers and humans, former has to submit.
(d) In a confrontation between big cats and humans, the latter has to submit.
121. Which of the following could be a suitable title for the passage:
(a) Climate change and shrinking habitats: A study on the habitats of tigers, leopards and snow leopards
(b) Humans: The conquerors
(c) Tiger: The most valiant specie
(d) Climate change and its ill effects
m
122. Which of the following is an invalid assumption in the following line- “However, we can say that as the snow
o
leopard is weaker than the tiger, it is likely to displace snow leopards if they share a common habitat”?
(a) It is understood that the stronger is likely to displace the weaker.
c
stronger than snow leopards.
(c) There will not be any places where tiger will co-exist with snow leopard.
r .
(b) Since, leopards are weaker than tigers, and snow leopards are weaker than leopards therefore, tigers are
s
(d) Displacement of weaker by the stronger is likely in a shared habitat.
k e
123. Which of the following cannot be concluded from the following line- “And history has shown that, in
n
confrontations between big cats and humans, the latter always prevail.”
a
(a) If humans decide to settle in the habitats of the big cats, the latter shall be forced to retreat.
r
(b) Whenever humans and big cats have been in conflict, humans have had their way.
p
1L5Q 0U8R2U
(c) Humans had been at the receiving endtr-in5Gsome 0K8B2Htr-5U3O
3F1D5Hconfrontations with big cats.
o
(d) There are examples in history where humans have always overcome big cats.
T
Passage (Q.124–Q.129): Now, the academic fraternity on a global scale is reeling under challenging times,
considering the reckless use of technologies in academic probes. Needless to say, for conducting a scientific
inquiry of something, research skills along with technologies are required to expedite the process of research.
Research skills are the capability to explore an answer to a question or a solution to a problem. They can be one’s
ability to collect information about a topic, review that information and analyse and interpret the details in a way
to support a solution or answer. Suffice it to say, technologies have a bearing on the process and output of
research.
The advent of ChatGPT and its unbridled use in research, for an instance, has drawn the attention of many.
However, some 2U
0U8RChatGPT
tr-5Uargue
3O1L5Qthat is just a storm in a teacup. At the same time, this AI tool has been the bone
of contention. OpenAI, a technology company based in San Francisco, California, recently released the chatbot
as a free-to-use tool in November, prompting publishers to scramble to develop guidelines for its use. ChatGPT,
is an LLM that can produce natural-sounding text by emulating the linguistic patterns found in a massive
collection of Internet-sourced text. Already the bot is causing waves of change across industries, including higher
education, where it is casting doubt on the long-term viability of student essays and faculty-led research.
ChatGPT can enable the students’ essays, summarize research papers, answer questions to qualify for medical
exams and create helpful computer code.
It can produce research abstracts good enough that scientists found it hard to spot that a computer had written
them through AI tools. ChatGPT has potentially invited shortcomings. Many researchers are vehemently against
having Chat GPT listed as an author on their papers. Some academic journals worldwide have banned their
authors from using the advanced chatbot or Chat GPT. Academic publishers are bothered that inaccurate or
plagiarised work could enter the world of academic literature.
Chat GPT is unable to do justice in fetching the integrity of scientific papers. Chat GPT and similar AIs do not
meet the criteria for a study author because they cannot take responsibility for the content and integrity of
scientific papers. However, at the same time, some publishers argue that artificial intelligence should be given
credit for its work on papers in places other than the author list. Chat GPT does not meet the standard for
authorship.
An attribution of authorship carries with its accountability for the work which cannot be effectively applied to
large language models (LLMs). Some argue that authors who make use of LLMs in any capacity during the
development of a paper include appropriate documentation of their use in the paper's methods or
acknowledgements sections. Others assert that the AI will provide varying responses to the same question if
asked multiple times.
Now people without domain expertise would be able to try to write scientific papers. One requirement for a co-
m
author is that they make a "significant scholarly contribution" to the article, which could be accomplished with
o
the help of collaborative software like Chat GPT. However, it also needs to be mature enough to accept the role
of co-author and take ownership of a study.
c
s .
124. Which of the following best describes the opinion of academic publishers towards the use of Chat GPT in
research?
r
e
(a) Academic publishers strongly recommend the use of Chat GPT in research as it expedites the process of
research.
plagiarized work entering academic literature.
a k
(b) Academic publishers have banned their authors from using Chat GPT due to the fear of inaccurate or
n
(c) Academic publishers believe that Chat GPT should be given credit as an author of research papers.
125. What is the impact of ChatGPT on academic
p r
(d) Academic publishers are indifferent towards the use of Chat GPT in research.
3F1D5H0K
tr-5Gresearch?
8B2Htr-5U3O1L
5Q0U8R2U
o
(a) ChatGPT is hailed as a game-changer for academic research, as it can expedite the research process and
produce high-quality research output.
T
(b) ChatGPT is causing controversy in the academic world, with some researchers objecting to the use of AI in
research and some publishers concerned about the potential for inaccurate or plagiarized work.
(c) ChatGPT is a relatively minor development in academic research, with limited potential for impact.
(d) ChatGPT is a valuable tool for students, but not for academic researchers.
126. Which of the following is the author of the passage most likely to agree with?
(a) ChatGPT should be credited as an author on scientific papers.
(b) ChatGPT should not be listed as an author on scientific papers.
(c) The use of ChatGPT in research should be encouraged.
(d) The use oftr-5U
ChatGPT 8R2U
3O1L5Q0Uin research should be banned.
127. Which of the following can be concluded from the information present in the passage?
(a) ChatGPT is a threat to the integrity of scientific papers
(b) OpenAI is a company based in San Francisco, California
(c) ChatGPT cannot be listed as an author on scientific papers
(d) AI tools are not useful in the process and output of research
128. Which of the following is the author most likely to disagree with?
(a) ChatGPT is an AI tool that can expedite the research process.
(b) ChatGPT is a bone of contention in the academic world.
(c) AI tools like ChatGPT should be given credit for their work on papers.
(d) ChatGPT meets the standard for authorship.
129. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author's arguments?
(a) ChatGPT can assist researchers in saving time and effort in conducting their studies.
(b) Some academic journals have banned the use of ChatGPT by their authors.
(c) ChatGPT can produce research abstracts that are difficult to distinguish from those written by humans.
(d) ChatGPT has been widely accepted as an author in scientific papers.
Passage (Q.130 – Q.135): Humans would not be here but for pregnancy and childbirth. It is true for each of us
and, more importantly, true for all of us, collectively. These uncomfortable, protracted and wonderful challenges
not only shepherd us into the world, but also shape our behaviour, social structure and the trajectory of our
evolution itself. The surprising part is that, while pregnancy and childbirth are fundamental and defining traits
of mammals, they have driven us humans to be very un-mammalian indeed.
m
Popular notion often has it that natural selection works by seizing on fundamental traits and processes, and
optimising them with each new beat of the generations and species. But that’s not always true. Instead of
.c o
functioning as a refining, perfecting tool, evolution in the real world is all about trade-offs: life has limitations,
and big changes in one area often mean sacrifices in others. We humans are the smartest, most complex animals
s
on the planet, but we do not have the best or most optimised biology by any stretch, especially not when it comes
r
to reproduction.
k e
Witnessing our fellow mammals give birth, experiencing the rawness of sight, smell and sound, lays bare the
biology before us. On the one hand is the disgust born of our evolutionary predilection to avoid blood and fluids
of other animals – a necessary impulse in pre-sanitary times. No matter one’s willingness to embrace a positive
n
view of bodily function, the stomach requires training against the mind when any human, for example a doctor,
a
engages this evolutionary apparatus. The shame and avoidance we feel with all forms of bodily discharge are a
sound and healthy part of our subconscious.
r
p
5Q0U8R2U
8B2Htr-5U3O1L
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
There is, however, a deeper discomfort that arises from watching our fellow mammals give birth – one notices
o
a nonchalance compared with our own elaborate, painful and sacramental experience. A cow moos and lows in
T
mild discomfort, as one might when feeling full after a good meal, but it does not compare with the suffering of
a birthing human mother. The calf is birthed quickly, practically dropping to the ground after a short push –
nothing compared with our day or more of arduous labour. For our survival, and the core of our family happiness,
our species must endure pain and risk. We are alone in this, and it troubles us.
We are alone because, though we are a mammal like the cow, and like our nearest cousins the chimps and other
apes, we do not act like a mammal, hardly ever. Our blood is warm, our skin has hair, our brain is well-integrated
across its hemispheres – and there the similarities end. For a mammal, we live too long, we are too smart for our
size, and we are too faithful to our partners. In these particulars, we are decidedly not alone – but, rather, alone
in our class. 0U8R2U
tr-5U3O1L5Q
The other post-reptilian, warm-blooded, big-brained class of animals – only distantly related to us – share far
more of what makes us human than do our hairy near-cousins. To understand humans – and our reproduction –
we have to start with birds.
130. What is the main idea of the passage regarding human reproduction and its comparison to other mammals?
(a) Human reproduction is an optimized and refined process due to natural selection, making us superior to other
mammals in terms of biological efficiency.
(b) Humans share more similarities in reproduction and behavior with birds than with other mammals, making
our reproductive processes quite distinct from our mammalian relatives.
(c) Human reproductive processes are more painful and complex due to our unique social structures and a desire
for long-term relationships.
(d) The passage argues that humans are not mammals at all, and instead are more closely related to birds in terms
of reproduction, behavior, and social structure.
131. What is the tone used by the author throughout the passage?
(a) Condescending, as the author belittles the reproductive processes of other mammals compared to humans.
(b) Humorous, as the author uses witty language and jokes to make light of the subject matter.
(c) Analytical, as the author presents a well-reasoned and thought-provoking exploration of human reproduction
and its evolutionary implications.
(d) Alarmist, as the author exaggerates the dangers and difficulties of human reproduction to elicit an emotional
response from the reader.
132. Based on the following sentence from the passage, "The shame and avoidance we feel with all forms of bodily
discharge are a sound and healthy part of our subconscious," what is the author implying about our reaction to
bodily discharges?
(a) The author suggests that our aversion to bodily discharges is irrational and should be overcome.
evolutionary past.
c m
(b) The author implies that our reactions to bodily discharges are a learned behavior, unrelated to our
o
(c) The author asserts that our natural repulsion to bodily discharges is a necessary part of our psychological
makeup, linked to our evolutionary history.
s .
(d) The author believes that humans should actively try to suppress their feelings of shame and avoidance
regarding bodily discharges.
r
k e
133. Based on the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the study of human reproduction?
(a) Studying human reproduction requires focusing solely on our mammalian relatives to understand our shared
characteristics.
a n
(b) Human reproduction is best understood when examined alongside other mammals, completely disregarding
the study of birds.
r
p
5Q0U8R2U
2Htr-5U3O1Lvaluable
(c) The passage implies that studying tr-birds could8Bprovide
5G3F1D5H0K
insights into understanding human
o
reproduction and our distinct evolutionary traits.
(d) The author suggests that the study of human reproduction should exclude any comparison to other animals,
reproduction?
T
as humans are unique in their reproductive processes.
134. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true about the role of evolution in human
(a) Evolution has optimized human reproduction, making it the best among all mammals.
(b) Evolution has focused on refining and perfecting human reproductive traits without any trade-offs.
(c) Evolution has resulted in trade-offs for human reproduction, making it less optimized than other mammals.
(d) Evolution has made human reproduction painless and efficient, similar to other mammals.
135. Based on the tr-

passage, 0U8R2Uof the following can be inferred about the author's view on the human reproductive
which
5U3O1L5Q
process?
(a) The author believes human reproduction is a testament to our superiority over other mammals.
(b) The author views human reproduction as a process fraught with pain and risks unique to our species.
(c) The author considers human reproduction to be an insignificant aspect of our evolutionary journey.
(d) The author thinks human reproduction is a straightforward and efficient process.
SECTION - E: QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Direction (Q.136 – Q.140): Answer the question based on the information given below
Five friend Pankaj, Gourav, Amitabh, Shekhar and Dinesh have Rupees 2100 among themselves. The amount
with Pankaj is as much less than that with Shekhar as it more than that with Dinesh. The amount with Amitabh
is 300 less than that with Pankaj, whereas Gourav has twice that of Pankaj. It is also known that difference
between amount with Shekhar and amount with Dinesh is 50.
136. The amount with how many of them is more than the average amount with them?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) Can’t be determined
137. The amount with Amitabh is?

(a) 115 (b) 105 (c) 100 (d) 125
138. The ratio of the amount with Amitabh and Gourav is?
(a) 1:9 (b) 2:7 (c) 1:5 (d) 1:8
c o m
139. The amount with Shekhar is?
(a) 425 (b) 225 (c) 195
r s .
(d) 145
(a) 12.50% (b) 5.50% (c) 7.75%
k
140. Amount with Dinesh is what % more or less than the amount with Pankaj?
(d) 6.25%
e
a n
Direction (Q.141 – Q.145): Petrol and Diesel is extracted from petroleum. Line graph given below shows the
r
percent of quantity of petrol extracted out of total quantity of petroleum and quantity of diesel (in litres) extracted
p
5Q0U8R2U
at five different oil refineries. 8B2Htr-5U3O1L
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
o
Note: Quantity of petroleum = Quantity of petrol + Quantity of diesel
300
250
200
T 200
280
150 150
8R2U120
100
tr- 5U3O1L5Q0U
70 80
50
50
60 40
30
0
A B C D E
Quantity of petrol extracted as percent of quantity of petroleum

Quantity of diesel extracted
141. What is the difference between total quantity of diesel extracted from refinery B and total quantity of petrol
extracted from refinery E?
(a) 10 L (b) 12 L (c) 16 L (d) 18 L
142. Total quantity of diesel extracted from refineries A and E together is what percent of total quantity of petroleum
at those two refineries?
(a) 36% (b) 32% (c) 24% (d) 30%
143. Find the ratio of total quantity of petrol extracted from refineries B to that from C?
(a) 7: 3 (b) 5: 2 (c) 7: 4 (d) 8: 5
144. Find the total quantity of petroleum at refineries A, B, and C together?

(a) 1000 L (b) 900 L (c) 800 L (d) 1200 L
145. Find the difference between of quantity of diesel and petrol extracted from refinery B.
(a) 150 L (b) 250 L (c) 180 L (d) 200 L
o m
Direction (Q.146 – Q.150): There are two sports clubs (A and B). The number of men in sports club A is 180
c
and it is 20% more than the number of women in sports club B. The average number of children in sports club
.
A and B together is 120. The number of women in sports club A is 25 more than the number of men in sports
s
club B. The ratio of the number of men to number of children in sports club B is 5:4 respectively and the average
number of people in sports club B is 170.
r
146. Find the total number of people in sports club A.
(a) 510 (b) 450 (c) 485
k e (d) 475
a n
147. If 20 men from sports club B shift to sports club A, then find the ratio of the number of men in sports club A to
the number of women in sports club B.
r
p
8R2U
(a) 3:2 (b) 7:5 (c) 6:5 8B2Htr-5U3O1L5Q0U (d) 4:3
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
(a) 50%
T
(b) 40%
o
148. By what percent is the number of women in sports club A more than the number of women in sports club B?
(c) 60% (d) 75%
149. Find the difference between the total number of men in sports club A and B together and the total number of
women in the same halls together.
(a) 15 (b) 10 (c) 25 (d) 5
150. What is the average number of men and children together in sports club B.
(a) 180 (b) 130 (c) 155 (d) 120
8R2U
tr-5U3O1L5Q0U
Notes:-
c o m
r s .
k e
r a n
p
5Q0U8R2U
8B2Htr-5U3O1L
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
T o
8R2U
tr-5U3O1L5Q0U
Notes:-
c o m
r s .
k e
r a n
p
5Q0U8R2U
8B2Htr-5U3O1L
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
T o
8R2U
tr-5U3O1L5Q0U
Notes:-
c o m
r s .
k e
r a n
p
5Q0U8R2U
8B2Htr-5U3O1L
tr-5G3F1D5H0K
T o
8R2U
tr-5U3O1L5Q0U

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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024

SECTION-A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE

The author describes the point about the Gita to demonstrate:

arguments to resolve complex issues.

blood as part of their nature.

(b) Decomposition, nitrous particles, psychological factors, anemia

SECTION-B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

There were no reports of casualties.

prepared within the “four walls of a room”.

42. Which of the following is a key highlight of the Ranganath Report?

44. First SECC was conducted in which of the following year?

45. Which of the following can be redacted by [1]?

52. Which of the following can be redacted by [1]?

60. Which of the following can be redacted by [1]?

Which of the following day is celebrated as Bangladesh Independence Day?

SECTION - C: LEGAL REASONING

Directions(Q.66-Q.105): Read the comprehension and answer the questions:

Passage (Q.66-Q.71): Menstrual leave

- He obtains an unfair advantage.

operate on the high seas includes the freedom

96. Pick the statement 8R2U

the public view.

SECTION - D: LOGICAL REASONING

Consequently, as governments failed to achieve

113. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?

115. Which of the following weakens the author’s contention?

(d) All of the above.

119. Which of the following is a valid inference from the passage?

120. Identify the incorrect deduction:

plagiarized work entering academic literature.

125. What is the impact of ChatGPT on academic

135. Based on the tr-

SECTION - E: QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

137. The amount with Amitabh is?

(a) 12.50% (b) 5.50% (c) 7.75%

Quantity of petrol extracted as percent of quantity of petroleum

144. Find the total quantity of petroleum at refineries A, B, and C together?

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