Topic Wise Distribution of Questions

Chapter Topic No of Questions

Making of the Constitution Constituent Assembly 4
Adoption 1
Fundamental Duties Fundamental Duties 3
Fundamental Rights Article 14 2
Article 21 2
Article 12 1
Article 30 2
Article 32 3
Article 13 1
Article 17 1
Article 18 1
Article 20 2
Articles 25-28 1
Article 19 1
Philosophy 2
Salient Features of Indian Federal System 2
Constitution Republic 2
Sources of Indian Constitution 2
Parliamentary System 3
Democracy 1
Secularism 1
Socialism 1
Parliamentary Sovereignty 1
Misc Chronological order of events 1
Lok Sabha Secretariat 1
Departments 1
Article 326 1
Article 300 1
Misc 18
Administrative Tribunals 1
Union Executive 1
Constitutional Amendment Constitutional Amendment 2
Union & Its Territory States formation 1
Preamble Preamble 3
Historical Background The Indian Councils Act, 1861 2
Government of India Act, 1919 1
Regulating Act 1773 1
Charter Act 1793 1
Charter Act 1813 1
DPSP 4
 Directive Principles of State Gandhian 1
Policy
Schedules 2nd Schedule 1
6th Schedule 1
10th Schedule 1
5th Schedule 1
8th Schedule 1
9th Schedule 1
Governor Article 200 1
Mixed 1
Supreme Court Court of Record 1
Ad-hoc judge 1
Benches 1
NALSA 1
Original Jurisdiction 1
Judicial Review 1
Article 348 1
Parliament Sessions of Parliament 1
Union Council of Ministers 1
Money Bill 1
Status of a bill 1
Parliamentary proceedings 1
Lok Sabha member qualification 1
Chairman of Rajya Sabha 1
Disqualification of an MP 1
Leader of Opposition 1
Speaker 2
Cabinet 1
President’s Rule 1
Motions 3
Cabinet Secretary 1
Whip 1
Grants 1
Cabinet Committees 1
Pro-tem speaker 2
Finance Bill 1
Accountability 1
Cabinet Secretariat 1
Parliamentary Committees Committee on Public Accounts 1
Joint Committee on Offices of profit 2
Departmentally Related Standing 1
Committee
President Election 2
Ordinance 1
Tenure 1
Immunities 1

AMIGOS IAS 2
 Pardoning Powers 1
Veto 1
Functions 1
Oath 1
State Legislature State Legislative Council 2
Dissolution of State Legislative 1
Assembly
Emergency Financial Emergency 1
National Emergency 1
Subordinate Courts District Courts 1
Gram Nyayalaya 1
Citizenship Citizenship 3
Vice-President of India Removal 1
Judicial Activism PIL 1
Basic Structure of Indian Basic Structure 1
Constitution
High Court Judges 1
Oath 1
TOTAL 150

AMIGOS IAS 3
 APPSC GR-2 MAINS TEST 4 (11-05-24)

INDIAN CONSTITUTION

1. The Election Commission of India administers account in any scheme of reorganisation of

elections to the:
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. State Legislative Assemblies in India
D. The office of the President
E. The office of Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(1) A, B and C (2) A, B, C and D
(3) A and C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 The Election Commission of India is an
autonomous constitutional authority
responsible for administering Union and
State election processes in India. The body
administers elections to the Lok Sabha,
Rajya Sabha and State Legislative
Assemblies in India, and the offices of the
President and Vice President in the
country.
2. Arrange the following events in correct
chronological order:
A. Formation of state of Himachal Pradesh
B. Formation of state of Gujrat
C. Formation of state of Arunachal Pradesh
D. Formation of state of Sikkim
Select the correct answer using the code given
below
(1) B-D-A-C (2) A-B-D-C
(3) B-A-D-C (4) B-A-C-D
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
• Gujrat was the 15th state of Indian Union
(1960)
• Himachal Pradesh: 17th state (1971)
• Sikkim: 22nd state (1974)
• Arunachal Pradesh: 24th state (1987)
3. What were the factors identified by the Fazl
Ali commission that can be taken into
states?
A. Financial, Economic and Administrative.
B. Planning and promotion of social welfare.
C. Linguistic and cultural homogeneity.
D. Preservation and the strengthening of
unity and security of the nation.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(1) A and C (2) A and D
(3) B, C and D (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
Fazl Ali commission identified four major
factors that can be taken into account in any
scheme of reorganisation of states:
(a) Preservation and strengthening of the
unity and security of the country.
(b) Linguistic and cultural homogeneity.
(c) Financial, economic and administrative
considerations
 Planning and promotion of the welfare of
the people in each state as well as of the
nation as a whole.
4. Consider the following statements:
A. Zonal Councils are constitutional bodies.
B. Prime Minister acts as a common
chairman of Zonal Councils
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
 Zonal Councils are Statutory bodies, not
constitutional bodies. They are
established by an Act of the Parliament
that is, States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
The Home Minister acts as a common
chairman of Zonal Councils.

AMIGOS IAS 4
5. Consider the following statements:
A. The Chairman and members of a state
public service commission are appointed
and removed by the Governor of the state.
B. The chairman and members of the Joint
State Public Service Commission are
appointed by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 The Chairman and members of a state
public service commission, though
appointed by the governor of the state,
can be removed only by the President.
 The Parliament can establish a Joint State
Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two
or more states on the request of the state
legislatures concerned. The chairman and
members of the JSPSC are appointed by
the president.
6. Which of the following are members of the
appointment committee of the Director of
Central Bureau of Investigation?
A. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
B. The Prime Minister
C. The union minister of home affairs
D. The Union minister of Law and Justice
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(1) A and B (2) A, B and C
(3) A, B and D (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 The CBI is headed by a Director. He is
assisted by a special director or an
additional director. The Central
Government shall appoint the Director of
CBI on the recommendation of a three-
member committee consisting of
• The Prime Minister as Chairperson
• The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
• The Chief Justice of India or Judge of the
Supreme Court nominated by him
AMIGOS IAS
7. Consider the following statements about the
powers given to Gram Sabha under
Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas
(PESA) Act:
A. It promotes participatory democracy
through Gram Sabha.
B. Gram Sabha has the power of
management of River Basins in that
particular area.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 One of its objectives is to have village
governance with participatory democracy
and to make the gram Sabha a nucleus of
all activities.
Powers given to Gram Sabha/ Panchayats at
appropriate level under PESA Act:
• Right to mandatory consultation in land
acquisition, resettlement and
rehabilitation of displaced persons,
• planning and management of minor water
bodies
• mandatory recommendations for
prospective licenses/lease for mines and
concession for the exploitation of minor
minerals
• Ownership of minor forest produces etc.
8. Which among the below mentioned
provision(s) ensures the independent and
impartial functioning of the Election
Commission
A. The chief election commissioner is
provided with the security of tenure. He
cannot be removed from his office except
in the same manner and on the same
grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court
B. The service conditions of the chief election
commissioner cannot be varied to his
disadvantage after his appointment
C. Any other election commissioner or a
regional commissioner cannot be
removed from office except on the
recommendation of the chief election
commissioner
2
 Choose the correct answers using the code
given below
(1) A and C (2) A and B
(3) Only C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
 The chief election commissioner is
provided with the security of tenure. He
cannot be removed from his office except
in same manner and on the same grounds
as a judge of the Supreme Court. In other
words, he can be removed by the
president on the basis of a resolution
passed to that effect by both the Houses
of Parliament with special majority, either
on the ground of proved misbehaviour or
incapacity. Thus, he does not hold his
office till the pleasure of the president,
though he is appointed by him.
 Article 324 of the Constitution to ensure
the independent and impartial
functioning of the Election commission
has made the following provisions: The
service conditions of the chief election
commissioner cannot be varied to his
disadvantage after his appointment.2.
Any other election commissioner or a
regional commissioner cannot be
removed from office except on the
recommendation of the chief election
commissioner. Though the constitution
has sought to safeguard and ensure the
independence and impartiality of the
Election Commission, some flaws can be
noted, viz., 1. The Constitution has not
prescribed the qualifications (legal,
educational, administrative or judicial) of
the members of the Election Commission.
2. The Constitution has not specified the
term of the members of the Election
Commission. 3. The Constitution has not
debarred the retiring election
commissioners from any further
appointment by the government
9. Consider the following statements about the
National Legal Services Authority (NALSA):
A. It is in consonance with the Directive
Principles of State Policy.
B. It has been created under the executive
order of the Government of India.
AMIGOS IAS
C. Organizing the Lok Adalats comes under
the ambit of this authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) A and C
(3) Only B (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 Article 39A of the Constitution of India
provides for free legal aid to the poor and
weaker sections of the society and
ensures justice for all. It is one of the
objectives of NALSA.
 The National Legal Services Authority
(NALSA) has been constituted under the
Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to
monitor and evaluate implementation of
legal aid programmes and to lay down
policies and principles for making legal
services available under the Act.
 NALSA lays down policies, principles,
guidelines and frames effective and
economical schemes for the State Legal
Services Authorities to implement the
Legal Services Programmes throughout
the country. Primarily, the State Legal
Services Authorities, District Legal
Services Authorities, Taluk Legal Services
Committees, etc. have been asked to
discharge the following main functions on
a regular basis : 1. To provide free and
competent legal services to the eligible
persons. 2. To organize Lok Adalats for
amicable settlement of disputes. 3. To
organize legal awareness camps in the
rural areas.
10. Consider the following statements about the
73rd amendment act of 1992:
A. It gave a practical shape to the provision
of the Directive Principles of the State
Policy.
B. It provides for a three-tier system of
Panchayati raj in every state.
C. It provided for the reservation of not less
than one-third of the total number of
seats for women.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) A and C
(3) B and C (4) All of the above
3
 ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION: 12. Consider the following statements regarding
 The act has given a practical shape to Delimitation Commission in India:
Article 40 of the Constitution which says A. The orders issued by the Delimitation
that, ―The State shall take steps to Commission can be challenged only in
organise village panchayats and endow supreme court.
them with such powers and authority as B. The copies of its orders are laid before
may be necessary to enable them to both the house of parliament and the
function as units of self-government. This State Legislative Assembly concerned.
article forms a part of the Directive Which of the statements given above is/are
Principles of State Policy. correct?
 The act provides for a three-tier system of (1) Only A (2) Only B
Panchayati raj in every state, that is, (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
panchayats at the village, intermediate, ANSWER: 4
and district levels. Thus, the act brings
EXPLANATION:
about uniformity in the structure of
Panchayati raj throughout the country.  Delimitation literally means the act or
However, a state having a population not process of fixing limits or boundaries of
exceeding 20 lakh may not constitute territorial constituencies in a country or a
panchayats at the intermediate level. province having a legislative body. The job
of delimitation is assigned to a high-power
 The act provides for the reservation of not
body. The Delimitation Commission in
less than one-third of the total number of
India is a high-power body whose orders
seats for women (including the number of
have the force of law and cannot be called
seats reserved for women belonging the
in question before any court.
SCs and STs). Further, not less than one-
third of the total number of offices of  The copies of its orders are laid before the
chairpersons in the panchayats at each House of the People and the State
level shall be reserved for women. Legislative Assembly concerned, but no
modifications are permissible therein by
11. Consider the following commissions
them.
A. National Commission for Women
13. Consider the following pairs with reference
B. National Commission for Minorities to special status with respect to some states:
C. National Human Rights Commission Article State
D. National Commission for Protection of A. 371 A Nagaland
Child Rights
B. 371 B Arunachal Pradesh
Which among the commissions given above
C. 371 C Assam
is/are formed via a statute?
D. 371 D Manipur
(1) Only A (2) B and C
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
(3) A, C and D (4) All of the above
matched?
ANSWER: 4
(1) Only A (2) A, B and D
EXPLANATION:
(3) B and C (4) All of the above
 The national commissions like the
ANSWER: 1
National Commission for Women (1992),
EXPLANATION:
the National Commission for Minorities
(1993), the National Commission for  Article 371 A: Nagaland
Backward Classes (1993), the National  Article 371 B: Assam
Human Rights Commission (1993) and the  Article 371 C: Manipur
National Commission for Protection of  Article 371 D: Andhra Pradesh
Child Rights (2007) are statutory bodies in 14. Consider the following statements about the
the sense that they are established by acts Advocate General of the State:
of the Parliament.
AMIGOS IAS 4
 A. He is appointed by a specially constituted
committee headed by the Chief Minister.
B. He has the right to vote in the proceedings
of both the houses of state legislature.
Which of the following statements given
above is/are incorrect?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 The advocate general is appointed by the
governor. He must be a person who is
qualified to be appointed a judge of a high
court. In other words, he must be a citizen
of India and must have held a judicial
office for ten years or been an advocate of
a high court for ten years.
 The term of office of the advocate general
is not fixed by the Constitution. Further,
the Constitution does not contain the
procedure and grounds for his removal.
He holds office during the pleasure of the
16.
governor. This means that he may be
removed by the governor at any time.
 He has the right to speak and to take part
in the proceedings of both the Houses of
the state legislature or any committee of
the state legislature of which he may be
named a member, but without a right to
vote. He enjoys all the privileges and
immunities that are available to a member
of the state legislature.
15. Consider the following statements about the
Joint State Public Service Commission
(JSPSC):
A. It is a constitutional body created by the
President on the request of the state
legislatures concerned.
B. A JSPSC presents its annual performance
report to the each of the concerned state
governors.
C. The Chairman and its members can be
removed by the UPSC.
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?
(1) Only A (2) B and C
(3) A and C (4) A and B
ANSWER: 3
17.
EXPLANATION:
AMIGOS IAS
 The Constitution makes a provision for the
establishment of a Joint State Public
Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or
more states. While the UPSC and the SPSC
are created directly by the Constitution, a
JSPSC can be created by an act of
Parliament on the request of the state
legislatures concerned. Thus, a JSPSC is a
statutory and not a constitutional body.
 A JSPSC presents its annual performance
report to each of the concerned state
governors. Each governor places the
report before the state legislature.
 The chairman and members of a JSPSC are
appointed by the president. They hold
office for a term of six years or until they
attain the age of 62 years, whichever is
earlier. They can be suspended or
removed by the president. They can also
resign from their offices at any time by
submitting their resignation letters to the
president.
Consider the following statements about the
Union Public Service Commission:
A. The conditions of service of the chairman
and other members of the commission is
determined by the Parliament.
B. Half of the members of the Commission
should be persons who have held office
for at least ten years under the
Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 The Constitution authorises the President
to determine the conditions of service of
the chairman and other members of the
Union Public Service Commission.
 No qualifications are prescribed for the
Commission‘s membership except that
onehalf of the members of the
Commission should be such persons who
have held office for at least ten years
either under the Government of India or
under the government of a state.
Consider the following statements about the
National Integration Council:
5
 A. It was constituted during the process of
integration of princely states in 1948.
B. The union Home minister is the Chairman
of this council.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
 The National Integration Council (NIC) was
constituted in 1961, following a decision
taken at a national conference on ‗unity
in diversity‘, convened by the Central
government, at New Delhi. It consisted of
the prime minister as chairman, central
home minister, chief ministers of states,
seven leaders of political parties, the
chairman of the UGC, two educationists,
the commissioner for SCs and STs and
seven other persons nominated by the
prime minister.
18. Consider the following statements about the
Attorney General of India:
A. He must be a person who is qualified to be
appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.
B. His term of office and remuneration is
fixed by the Constitution of India.
C. As he is a Government servant, he is
debarred from private legal practice.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) B and C
(3) Only B (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 The Constitution (Article 76) has provided
for the office of the Attorney General for
India. He is the highest law officer in the
country. The Attorney General (AG) is
appointed by the president. He must be a
person who is qualified to be appointed a
judge of the Supreme Court.
 The term of office of the AG is not fixed by
the Constitution. Further, the Constitution
does not contain the procedure and
grounds for his removal. He holds office
during the pleasure of the president. This
means that he may be removed by the
AMIGOS IAS
president at any time. The remuneration
of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution.
He receives such remuneration as the
president may determine.
 The Attorney General is not a full-time
counsel for the Government. He does not
fall in the category of government
servants. Further, he is not debarred from
private legal practice.
19. Consider the following statements about the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India:
A. She/he has equal freedom with regard to
both the audit of expenditure and also the
audit of receipts, stores and stock.
B. She/he can conduct the propriety audit.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 The CAG has more freedom with regard to
audit of expenditure than with regard to
audit of receipts, stores and stock.
 In addition to this legal and regulatory
audit, the CAG can also conduct the
propriety audit, that is, he can look into
the ‘wisdom, faithfulness and economy‘ of
government expenditure and comment
on the wastefulness and extravagance of
such expenditure.
20. Consider the following statements about the
Finance Commission:
A. It is a quasi-judicial body.
B. It is constituted by the Union Finance
Minister.
C. Parliament determines the qualifications
of members of the commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) A and C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 Article 280 of the Constitution of India
provides for a Finance Commission as a
quasi-judicial body.
6
  It is constituted by the president of India
every fifth year or at such earlier time as
he considers necessary
 The Constitution authorises the
Parliament to determine the qualifications
of members of the commission and the
manner in which they should be selected.
21. Which of the committee/commission
recommended the deletion of Article 356?
(1) Sarkari Commission
(2) Rajmannar Committee
(3) Administrative Reform Commission
(4) MM Punchhi
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 The Rajamannar Committee (1971)
recommended the deletion of Articles 356
and 357 from the Constitution of India.
The committee also recommended that
the governor should not consider himself
as an agent of the Centre, but instead play
his role as the constitutional head of the
state.
22. Consider the following statements with
respect to National Commission on Backward
Classes (NCBC):
A. 102nd Constitutional amendment
provided NCBC constitutional status.
B. Tenure and service conditions of the
members will be determined by the
parliament.
Which of the statement above is/are correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 102nd constitutional amendment act
granted constitutional status to NCBC and
entrusted with the powers to examine the
matters backword classes.
 Under the Constitution Amendment Bill,
the NCBC will comprise of five members
appointed by the President. Their tenure
and conditions of service will also be
decided by the President through rules.
23. Consider the following statements about the
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities:
A. She/he is appointed by the Ministry of
Minority Affairs.
AMIGOS IAS
B. The tenure, salaries and allowances are
specified in the Constitution of India.
C. She/he submits the annual reports to the
President through the Union Minority
Affairs Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) B and C
(3) Only C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 She/he is to be appointed by the President
of India. It must be noted here that the
Constitution does not specify the
qualifications, tenure, salaries and
allowances, service conditions and
procedure for removal of the Special
Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
 At the Central level, the Commissioner
falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
Hence, he submits the annual reports or
other reports to the President through the
Union Minority Affairs Minister.
24. Consider the following statements about the
National Commission for STs:
A. It is created under an executive act of the
Central Government.
B. The Chairperson of this Commission is
appointed by the President.
C. Both the Central the state governments
are required to consult the Commission on
all major policy matters affecting the STs.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) B and C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 The National Commission for Scheduled
Tribes (STs) is also a constitutional body in
the sense that it is directly established by
Article 338-A of the Constitution. The
National Commission for SCs and STs
came into being consequent upon passing
of the 65th Constitutional Amendment
Act of 1990.
 It consists of a chairperson, a vice-
chairperson and three other members.
They are appointed by the President by
7
 warrant under his hand and seal. Their
conditions of service and tenure of office
are also determined by the President.
 The Central government and the state
governments are required to consult the
Commission on all major policy matters
affecting the STs.
25. Consider the following statements about the
salient features of the 74th amendment act
of 1992:
A. Members of a municipality shall be
elected directly by the people of the
municipal area.
B. The conduct of all elections to the
municipalities shall be vested in the state
election commission.
C. The Governor may make provision with
respect to the composition and territorial
area of a wards committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) A and B
(3) Only C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 All the members of a municipality shall be
elected directly by the people of the
municipal area. For this purpose, each
municipal area shall be divided into
territorial constituencies to be known as
wards. The state legislature may provide
the manner of election of the chairperson
of a municipality.
 The superintendence, direction and
control of the preparation of electoral
rolls and the conduct of all elections to the
municipalities shall be vested in the state
election commission. The state legislature
may make provision with respect to all
matters relating to elections to the
municipalities.
 There shall be constituted a wards
committee, consisting of one or more
wards, within the territorial area of a
municipality having population of three
lakh or more. The state legislature may
make provision with respect to the
composition and the territorial area of a
wards committee and the manner in
which the seats in a wards committee
AMIGOS IAS
shall be filled. It may also make any
provision for the constitution of
committees in addition to the wards
committees.
26. Consider the following statements about the
National Human Rights Commission:
A. It is a statutory body.
B. Only a person having judicial background
can be the Chairman of this Commission.
C. It has all the powers of a civil court and its
proceedings have a judicial character.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) A and B
(3) B and C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
 The National Human Rights Commission is
a statutory (and not a constitutional)
body. It was established in 1993 under a
legislation enacted by the Parliament,
namely, the Protection of Human Rights
Act, 1993. This Act was amended in 2006.
 The commission is a multi-member body
consisting of a chairman and four
members. The chairman should be a
retired chief justice of India, and members
should be serving or retired judges of the
Supreme Court, a serving or retired chief
justice of a high court and two persons
having knowledge or practical experience
with respect to human rights.
 It is vested with the power to regulate its
own procedure. It has all the powers of a
civil court and its proceedings have a
judicial character. It may call for
information or report from the Central
and state governments or any other
authority subordinate thereto.
27. Consider the following statements about the
Central Information Commission:
A. It is an attached office to the Ministry of
Information and Broadcasting.
B. The Commission does have suo-motu
power.
C. The Commission submits its annual report
to the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
8
 (1) Only A (2) B and C
(3) Only B (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 The Central Information Commission is a
high-powered independent body which
inter alia looks into the complaints made
to it and decide the appeals. It entertains
complaints and appeals pertaining to
offices, financial institutions, public sector
undertakings, etc., under the Central
Government and the Union Territories.
 On the powers and functions of the
Central Information Commission is that it
the Commission can order inquiry into any
matter if there are reasonable grounds
(suomoto power).
 The Commission submits an annual report
to the Central Government on the
implementation of the provisions of this
Act. The Central Government places this
report before each House of Parliament.
28. Consider the following statements about the
Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):
A. It is a non-statutory and non-
constitutional body.
B. It was set up by the Government on the
recommendations of the K. Santhanam
Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
C. It is consulted by the Central Government
on disciplinary matters relating to the
members of All-India Services.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) B and C
(3) Only C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is
the main agency for preventing corruption
in the Central government. It was
established in 1964 by an executive
resolution of the Central government.
Originally the CVC was neither a
constitutional body nor a statutory body.
Later, in 2003, the Parliament enacted a
law conferring statutory status on the
CVC.
AMIGOS IAS
 The Central Vigilance Commission was set
up by the Government in February,1964
on the recommendations of the
Committee on Prevention of Corruption,
headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise
and guide Central Government agencies in
the field of vigilance.
 The Central Government is required to
consult the CVC in making rules and
regulations governing the vigilance and
disciplinary matters relating to the
members of Central Services and All-India
Services
29. Consider the following statements regarding
Union-State Relations during Emergencies.
A. During a national emergency centre takes
full control of state government but they
are not suspended.
B. During a financial emergency, the
governor of the state can give direction for
the reduction of salaries of the high court
judges.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 During the operation of a national
emergency (under Article 352), the Centre
becomes entitled to give executive
directions to a state on ‘any’ matter. Thus,
the state governments are brought under
the complete control of the Centre,
though they are not suspended.
 During the operation of a financial
emergency (under Article 360), the Centre
can direct the states to observe canons of
financial propriety and the President can
give other necessary directions including
the reduction of salaries of persons
serving in the state and the high court
judges
30. In the context of administration of Union
Territories, which of the following
statements is not correct?
(1) Administrator of Union Territory is an
agent of the President and not head of
state
9
 (2) Puducherry and Delhi assemblies are
empowered to make laws on State List but
not on Central List and Concurrent List
(3) Constitutional provisions for
administration of Union Territories also
apply to acquired territories
(4) There is no uniformity in the
administrative system of Union Territories
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 Articles 239 to 241 of the Constitution
deal with the Union territories. Even
though all the Union territories belong to
one category, there is no uniformity in
their administrative system.
 Every union territory is administered by
the President acting through an
administrator appointed by him. An
administrator of a union territory is n
agent of the President and not head of
state like Governors.
 The Parliament can make laws on any
subject of the three lists (Union list,
Concurrent list and State List) for the
Union territories. This power of
Parliament also extends to Puducherry
and Delhi, which have their own local
legislatures. This means that, the
legislative power of Parliament for the
union territories on subjects of State List
remain unaffected even after the
establishing a local legislature for them.
But, the legislative assembly of
Puducherry can also make laws on any
subject of the State list and concurrent
list. Similarly, the legislative assembly of
Delhi can make laws on any subject of the
State List (except public order, police and
land) and the Concurrent List.
31. With respect to National Capital Territory of
Delhi, which of the following statements is
correct?
(1) Strength of the legislative assembly of
Delhi is 70 and the maximum size of
council of ministers is 10
(2) Lt. governor needs President’s permission
only for an ordinance’s promulgation but
not withdrawal
(3) In case of a difference of opinion between
the ministers, the Lt. Governor must refer
AMIGOS IAS
the matter to President and seek
directions and act accordingly
(4) The union territories of Delhi and
Chandigarh share same High Court
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 The 69th Constitutional amendment act of
1991provided a special status to the
Union Territory of Delhi, and redesignated
it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi
and designated the administrator of Delhi
as the lieutenant Governor. The strength
of the assembly is fixed at 70 members,
directly elected by the people.
 The strength of the council of ministers is
fixed at ten percent of the total strength
of the assembly, that is, seven- one chief
minister and six other ministers.
 The council of ministers headed by the
chief minister aid and advises the it
governor in the exercise of his functions
except in so far as he is required to act in
his discretion. In the case of difference of
opinion between the
 It governor and his ministers, the it
governor is to refer the matter to the
President for decision and act accordingly.
32. Which of the following ministries is the nodal
ministry for all matters of Union Territories?
(1) Ministry of Home Affairs
(2) Ministry of Personnel and Public
Administration
(3) Ministry of Urban Development
(4) Ministry of Defence
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 The Union territories division in Ministry
of Home Affairs deals with all legislative
and constitutional matters relating to
Union territories, including National
Capital Territory of Delhi. It also functions
as the cadre controlling authority of the
Arunachal Pradesh-Goa-Mizoram-Union
Territories (AGMUT) cadre of the Indian
Administrative Service (IAS), the Indian
Forest Service (IFS/IFoS), and the Indian
Police Service (IPS) as also Delhi, Andaman
and Nicobar Islands Civil Service
(DANICS)/Delhi, Andaman and Nicobar
Islands Police Service (DANIPS). Besides, it
10
 is responsible for overseeing the crime
and law and order situation in UTs.
33. Which among the following is/are voluntary
provision(s) with regard to Local Self
Governments?
A. Devolution of powers and responsibilities
upon Panchayats to perform some or all of
the 29 functions listed in XI Schedule of
the Constitution
B. Granting powers and authority to
panchayats to enable them to function as
institutions of self-government
C. Providing reservation of l/3rd of seats for
women in Panchayats at all three levels
D. Indirect elections to the post of
Chairperson of Panchayats at
intermediate and district levels
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below
(1) B and D (2) A and D
(3) A, B and D (4) A and B
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
 Devolution of powers and responsibilities
upon panchayats to prepare plans for
economic development and social justice;
and to perform some or all of the 29
functions listed in the Eleventh Schedule
of the Constitution.
 Giving representation to members of the
Parliament (both the Houses) and the
state legislature (both the Houses) in the
panchayats at different levels falling
within their constituencies. Providing
reservation of seats (both members and
chairpersons) for backward classes in
panchayats at any level.
 Granting financial powers to the
panchayats, i.e. authorizing them to levy,
collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls
and fees.
34. Under which list of the VII schedule of the
Constitution, the subject of ‘Local
Government’ is placed?
(1) Central List (2) State List
(3) Concurrent List (4) None of the above
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
AMIGOS IAS
 Entry 5 in State List: Local government,
that is to say, the constitution and powers
of municipal corporations, improvement
trusts, district boards, mining settlement
authorities and other local authorities for
the purpose of local self-government or
village administration.
35. “This type of urban government is
established by the large public enterprises to
provide civic amenities to its staff and
workers living in housing colonies built near
the plant.”
The above statement defines what type of
Local Government?
(1) Township
(2) Town Area Committee
(3) Notified Area Committee
(4) Port Trust
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 Township - PSUs are set up by the govt,
and housing colonies have been set up
around them for the staff and workers.
These draw people from rural as well as
urban areas and this develops into a kind
of a very small town, therefore it is named
as a Township. These townships are
administered by the Municipal
corporation or Municipality under which it
falls which appoints a Town Administrator
for this area who is assisted by a few
engineers and technicians that handle
functions like water, electricity, roads,
drainage, markets, parks, etc. The
expenditure on such townships are shared
equally by the urban local govt, as well as
the respective Industry.
 Town Area Committee - It is a semi
municipal authority constituted for small
towns, and it exists in several states out of
which Uttar Pradesh has the largest
number. The members may be partly
elected and partly nominated by the state
govt, or wholly nominated or wholly
elected. It is assigned a number of
functions like street lighting, drainage,
roads, conservancy, etc. The District
Collector in some states has been given
powers of surveillance and control over
the TAC.
11
  Notified Area Committee - In urban
planning, a Notified area is any land area
earmarked by legal provision for future
development.
36. Which among the following is not an area
based urban body?
(1) Cantonment Board
(2) Port Trust
(3) Industrial Corridor Board
(4) Special Purpose Agency
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
 The states have set up Special Purpose
Agencies to undertake designated
activities or specific functions. These
functions actually belong to the domain of
municipal corporations or municipalities
or other local urban governments. Thus,
these are function-based agencies and are
known as 'single purpose', 'uni-purpose'
or 'special purpose' agencies or 'functional
local bodies'.
Some of them are –
1. Town improvement trusts.
2. Urban development authorities.
3. Water supply and sewerage boards.
4. Housing boards.
5. Pollution control boards.
6. Electricity supply boards.
7. City transport boards.
37. Which of the following is correct regarding
State Finance Commissions?
(1) It is constituted by the President of India
every five years on recommendation of
the Governor of a State
(2) It lays down the principles that should
govern the distribution of net proceeds of
taxes, duties etc., between the centre,
states and panchayats
(3) The state legislature provides for the
composition of the commission and
qualification of its members
(4) It must take recommendations from
Central Finance Commission to augment
the consolidated fund of a state
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 Article 2431 of the Indian Constitution
prescribes that the Governor of a State
AMIGOS IAS
shall, as soon as may be within one year
from the commencement of the
Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment)
Act, 1992, and thereafter at the expiration
of every fifth year, constitute a Finance
Commission to review the financial
position of the Panchayats and to make
recommendations to the Governor as to
A. The principles which should govern
1. The distribution between the State and
the Panchayats of the net proceeds of the
taxes, duties, tolls and fees leviable by the
State, which may be divided between
them under this Part and the allocation
between the Panchayats at all levels of
their respective shares of such proceeds;
2. The determination of the taxes, duties,
tolls and fees which may be assigned as, or
appropriated by, the Panchayats;
3. The grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from
the Consolidated Fund of the State
B. The measures needed to improve the
financial position of the Panchayats;
C. Any other matter referred to the Finance
Commission by the Governor in the
interests of sound finance of the
Panchayats.
38. In which of the following areas, the PESA Act,
1996 is implemented?
(1) Fifth Schedule Areas
(2) Sixth Schedule Areas
(3) Both a and b
(4) Tribal-majority states only
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 The Provisions of the Panchayats
(Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
or PESA is a law enacted by the
Government of India for ensuring self-
governance through traditional Gram
Sabhas for people living in the Scheduled
Areas of India. Scheduled Areas are areas
identified by the Fifth Schedule of the
Constitution of India. Scheduled Areas are
found in ten states of India which have
predominant population of tribal
communities.
 The Scheduled Areas, were not covered by
the 73rd Constitutional Amendment or
Panchayati Raj Act of the Indian
12
 Constitution as provided in the Part IX of
the Constitution. PESA was enacted on 24
December 1996 to extend the provisions
of Part IX of the Constitution to Scheduled
Areas, with certain exceptions and
modifications.
39. Which of the following statements is correct
regarding Local Self Government in India?
(1) Elections to Panchayats are conducted by
the Election Commission of India
(2) The gram Sabha consists of persons only
registered in the electoral rolls of a village
within the panchayat
(3) Panchayats cannot be dissolved before it
completes 5-year term
(4) The Panchayati raj system eliminates
representative democracy to provide
participatory democracy
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 "Gram Sabha" means a body consisting of
persons registered in the electoral rolls
relating to a village comprised within the
area of Panchayat at the village level.
 Panchayats shall have a uniform five-year
term and elections to constitute new
bodies shall be completed before the
expiry of term. In the event of dissolution,
election will be compulsorily held within
six months. A Panchayat constituted upon
the dissolution of a Panchayat before the
expiration of its duration shall continue
only for the remainder of the period for
which the dissolved Panchayat would
have continued. A person who is
disqualified under any law, election to the
legislature of the state or under any of the
state will not be entitled to become a
member of a panchayat.
 Independent election commission will be
established in the state to
superintendence, direction, and control of
the electoral process and preparation of
electoral rolls. Specific responsibilities will
be entrusted to the panchayats to prepare
plans for economic development and
social justice in respect of matters listed in
XI Schedule.
AMIGOS IAS
40. Who among the following has powers to
declare an area to be scheduled area?
(1) The President
(2) Ministry of Home Affairs
(3) The Governor
(4) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 As per the Constitutional provision under
Article 244 (1) of the Constitution of India,
the 'Scheduled Areas' are defined as 'such
areas as the President may by order
declare to be Scheduled Areas' -as per
paragraph 6(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the
Constitution of India. The specification of
"Scheduled Areas" in relation to a State is
by a notified order of the President, after
consultation with the Governor of that
State.
 In accordance with the provisions of
paragraph 6(2) of the Fifth Schedule of the
Constitution of India, the President may
increase the area of any Scheduled Area in
a State after consultation with the
Governor of that State; and make fresh
orders redefining the areas which are to
be Scheduled Areas in relation to any
State. The same applies in the case of any
alteration, increase, decrease,
incorporation of new areas, or rescinding
any Orders relating to "Scheduled Areas"
 At present, Scheduled Areas have been
declared in the States of Andhra Pradesh
(including Telangana), Chhattisgarh,
Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand,
Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha
and Rajasthan
41. Which of the following is correct regarding
provisions related to Languages in Indian
Constitution?
(1) The official languages of the Union are
Hindi, Urdu and English
(2) Originally English and Urdu language was
provided for 25 years from the
commencement of the Constitution
(3) The President has the power to direct a
state to make a language to be officially
recognised in that state
13
 (4) Choice for official language of a State is
limited to the languages in Eighth
Schedule of the Constitution
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
Official Language of the Union:
 The official language of the Union shall be
Hindi in Devanagari script. The form of
numerals to be used for the official
purposes of the Union shall be the
international form of Indian numerals.
Notwithstanding anything, for a period of
fifteen years from the commencement of
this Constitution, the English language
shall continue to be used for all the official
purposes of the Union for which it was
being used immediately before such
commencement: Provided that the
President may, during the mentioned
period, by order authorise the use of the
Hindi language in addition to the English
language and of the Devanagari form of
numerals in addition to the international
form of Indian numerals for any of the
official purposes of the Union.
Notwithstanding anything in this article,
Parliament may by law provide for the
use, after the said period of fifteen years,
of the English language, or the Devanagari
form of numerals, for such purposes as
may be specified in the law.
 Official Language or Languages of a State:
Subject to the provisions of articles 346
and 347, the Legislature of a State may by
law adopt any one or more of the
languages in use in the State or Hindi as
the language or languages to be used for
all or any of the official purposes of that
State: Provided that, until the Legislature
of the State otherwise provides by law,
the English language shall continue to be
used for those official purposes within the
State for which it was being used
immediately before the commencement
of this Constitution.
42. Central Information Commissioners are
appointed by which of the following
authorities?
(1) President
(2) Appointments Committee of Cabinet
AMIGOS IAS
(3) Supreme Court
(4) Rajya Sabha
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 The Central Information Commission has
been constituted with effect from 12-10-
2005 under the Right to Information Act,
2005. The jurisdiction of the Commission
extends over all Central Public Authorities.
The Commission has certain powers and
functions mentioned in sections 18, 19, 20
and 25 of the RTI Act, 2005.These broadly
relate to adjudication in second appeal for
giving information; direction for record
keeping, suo moto disclosures receiving
and enquiring into a complaint on inability
to file RTI etc; imposition of penalties and
Monitoring and Reporting including
preparation of an Annual Report. The
decisions of the Commission are final and
binding. The Commission includes 1 Chief
Information Commissioner (CIC) and not
more than 10 Information Commissioners
(IC) who are appointed by the President of
India.
43. Consider the following statements with
reference to the administration of tribal
areas:
A. The President is empowered to organize
and reorganise the autonomous districts
constituted in the tribal areas.
B. The autonomous districts do not fall
outside the executive authority of the
state concerned
Which of the statements given above is/ are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
• The Sixth Schedule of the constitution
provides special provisions for the
administration of the tribal areas in
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
The provisions of the schedule are as
follows:
• It provides for autonomous districts and
autonomous regions. But they do not fall
outside the executive authority of the
state concerned.
14
 • The governor can increase, decrease, re-
organise or alter the boundary of these
districts.
• If there are different scheduled tribes in
an autonomous district, the governor may
divide the area or areas inhabited by them
into autonomous regions.
• Each autonomous district has a district
council consisting of not more than thirty
members, of whom not more than four
persons shall be nominated by the
governor and the rest shall be elected on
the basis of adult suffrage. The elected
members of the district council hold office
for a term of five years and nominated
member hold office at the pleasure of the
governor.
• The district and the regional councils can
make laws on matters such as land,
forests, canal water, Jhum cultivation,
local administration, inheritance of
property etc.
• The district and the regional councils may
constitute village councils or courts for the
trial of suits and cases between the parties
all of whom belong to Scheduled Tribes
within such areas.
• The district council can establish,
construct, or manage primary schools,
dispensaries, markets, ferries, fisheries,
roads, road transport and waterways in
the district.
• A district fund for each autonomous
district, and a regional fund for each
autonomous region is constituted to
which money received respectively by the
district council
• The district and the regional councils have
powers to assess and collect land revenue
and to impose certain taxes.
• The district council is empowered to make
regulations for the Control of money-
lending and trading by non-tribals
• Estimated receipts and expenditure
pertaining to autonomous districts has to
be shown separately in the annual
financial statement of the state.
• An act of parliament or of the legislature
of the state does not apply to a
autonomous districts and autonomous
AMIGOS IAS
regions or apply with specified exceptions
and modifications.
• If at any time the Governor is satisfied that
an act or resolution of a district or a
regional council is likely to endanger the
safety of India he may suspend such an act
or resolution and take such steps.
44. Division of subject of legislation under three
legislation list is provided in:
(1) Schedule 3 (2) Schedule 6
(3) Schedule 7 (4) Schedule 9
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 The Seventh Schedule of the Indian
Constitution is one of 12 schedules that
regulate the relationship between the
Union and State governments. It specifies
the division of powers and functions
between the two.
45. Who among the following is the chairman of
the standing committee of the Inter-State
Council?
(1) The President of India
(2) The Prime Minister
(3) Union Home Minister
(4) The Vice President of India
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 The Government has reconstituted the
Inter State Council (ISC) and the Standing
Committee of the Inter State Council
under Clause 2 of the Inter State Council
order,1990
 The standing committee consists Union
Home minister as Chairman, 5 members
of Cabinet rank and 9 members Chief
Ministers of state
The Standing Committee will:
(i) have continuous consultation and process
matters for consideration of the Council
(ii) Process all matters pertaining to Centre
State Relations before they are taken up
for consideration in the inter-State
Council
(iii) Monitor the implementation of decisions
taken on the recommendations of the
Council and
(iv) Consider any other matter referred to it by
the Chairman/Council.
15
 (v) The Standing Committee may, if
necessary, invite experts and persons
eminent in specific fields to have the
benefit of their views while deliberation
upon the related subjects
46. Consider the following statements with
reference to Tribal Advisory Council:
A. It will be established on the direction of
the President only in a states having
scheduled areas.
B. The council have only advisory powers to
the state government.
C. The three-fourths of the members of the
council must be representatives of
Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the statements given above is/ are
correct?
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) A and C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 Para 4 of the Fifth Schedule provides for
establishment of a Tribes Advisory Council
(TAC) in any State having Scheduled Areas.
If the President so directs, there will be
established a TAC in a State having
Scheduled tribes but not Scheduled Areas
therein, consisting of not more than
twenty members of whom, three-fourths
shall be the representatives of the
Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative
Assembly of the State. If the number of
representatives of the STs in the
Legislative Assembly of the State is less
than the number of seats in the TAC to be
filled by such representatives, the
remaining seats shall be filled by other
members of those Tribes
 The TAC shall advise on such matters
pertaining to the welfare and the
advancement of the STs in the State as
may be referred to them by the Governor.
 The Governor may make rules prescribing
or regulating
• The number of members of the Council,
the mode of their appointment and the
appointment of the Chairman of the
Council and of the officers and servants
thereof,
AMIGOS IAS
• the conduct of its meetings and its
procedure in general; and
• all other incidental matters.
47. The institution of Lokayukta was established
first in which among the following states?
(1) Rajasthan (2) Kerala
(3) West Bengal (4) Maharashtra
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
 Maharashtra was the first state to
introduce the institution of Lokayukta
through The Lokayukta and Upa-
Lokayuktas Act in 1971.This was followed
by similar acts that were enacted by the
states of Odisha, Rajasthan, Bihar, Uttar
Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh,
Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Kerala, Tamil
Nadu and the union territory of Delhi.
48. Which one of the following states is the first
state in India to operationalise a social audit
law?
(1) Meghalaya (2) Maharashtra
(3) Telangana (4) Kerala
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 Meghalaya became the first state in India
to operationalise a law that makes social
audit of government programmes and
schemes a part of government practice
49. Consider the following statements with
reference to State Flag:
A. There is no prohibition in the constitution
for state to have its own flag.
B. The manner in which the state flag is
hoisted should be always below the
national flag
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 Under the Constitution, a flag is not
enumerated in the Seventh Schedule.
However, Article 51A ordains that every
citizen shall abide by the Constitution and
respect its ideals and institutions, the
national flag, and the national anthem.
There is no other provision regulating
16
 hoisting of flags, either by the States or by
the public. It is clear that there is no
prohibition under the Constitution to
hoist any flag other than the national flag.
 Even the Flag Code of India, 2002 does not
impose prohibitions on a State flag. On the
contrary, in the provisions regarding
hoisting of the national flag by the general
public, private organisations, educational
institutions, etc., the Code expressly
authorises the flying of other flags under
the condition that they should not be
hoisted from the same masthead as the
national flag or placed higher than it.
50. Which of the following types of urban
government established by the Act of
Parliament?
A. Notified Area Committee
B. Cantonment board
C. Township
D. Special purpose agency
E. Port Trust
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below
(1) A, B and D (2) B and E
(3) A, C and D (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 A notified area committee is created for
the administration of two types of areas—
a fast developing town due to
industrialisation and a town which does
not yet fulfill all the conditions necessary
for the constitution of a municipality, but
which otherwise are considered
important by the state government. Since
it is established by a notification in the
government gazette, it called as notified
area committee. Though It functions
within the framework of the State
Municipal Act, only these provision of the
Act apply to it which are notified in the
government gazette by which it is created.
It may also be entrusted to exercise
powers under any other act.
 A cantonment board is established for
municipal administration for civilian
population in the cantonment area. It is a
delimited area where the military forces
and troops are permanently stationed. It
AMIGOS IAS
is set up under the Cantonments Act of
1924—a legislation enacted by the Central
Government.
 In addition to the area- based urban
bodies (or multipurpose agencies, that is,
municipal corporations, municipalities,
notified area committees, town area
committees, cantonment boards,
townships and port trusts), the state
governments have set up certain agencies
to undertake designated activities or
specific functions which legitimately,
belong to the domain of municipal
corporations or municipalities or other
local urban governments.
 A port trust is created by an Act of
Parliament. It consists of both elected and
nominated members. Its chairman is an
official. Its civic functions are more or less
similar to those of a Municipality.
51. The institution of Panchayati Raj was
inaugurated by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on
Rajasthan.
(1) 14th July, 1961 (2) 23rd April, 1965
(3) 2nd October, 1959 (4) 17th June, 1960
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 Panchayat Raj system or local self-
governing institutions were inaugurated
by Jawaharlal Nehru on 2 October 1959 at
Nagaur in Rajasthan.
52. Consider the following statements with
reference to official languages:
A. The Part XVI of the constitution of India
deals with the official languages.
B. Parliament has not made any provision for
the use of Hindi in the Supreme Court.
C. The constitution imposes a duty upon the
centre to promote the spread and
development of Hindi language.
Which of the statements given above is/ are
correct?
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) Only C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 The official language of the Union shall be
Hindi in Devanagari script. The form of
numerals to be used for the official
17
 purposes of the Union shall be the
international form of Indian numerals.
 Notwithstanding anything, for a period of
fifteen years from the commencement of
this Constitution, the English language
shall continue to be used for all the official
purposes of the Union for which it was
being used immediately before such
commencement: Provided that the
President may, during the mentioned
period, by order authorise the use of the
Hindi language in addition to the English
language and of the Devanagari form of
numerals in addition to the international
form of Indian numerals for any of the
official purposes of the Union
 Notwithstanding anything in this article,
Parliament may by law provide for the
use, after the said period of fifteen years,
of the English language, or the Devanagari
form of numerals, for such purposes as
may be specified in the law.
 The Parliament has not made any law
prescribing Hindi to be used as a language
of Supreme Court, and hence the sole
language of Supreme Court has been
English. Incidents have occurred in the
past, wherein a petition in Hindi was
rejected by Supreme Court on the ground
that the language of court was English and
allowing Hindi would be unconstitutional.
53. Which of the following persons may be
represented in the municipality?
A. Persons having special knowledge in
municipal administration.
B. Members of Lok Sabha and state
legislature assembly representing the
constituencies that comprise the
municipal area.
C. Members of Rajya Sabha and the state
legislative councils registered as electors
within the municipal area.
D. The chair persons of the committees’
other than ward committee.
Select the correct answer by using the codes
given below:
(1) A and D (2) A, B and D
(3) B and C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
AMIGOS IAS
Persons having special knowledge in municipal
administration.
• Members of Lok Sabha and state
legislature assembly representing the
constituencies that comprise the
municipal area.
• Members of Rajya Sabha and the state
legislative councils registered as electors
within the municipal area.
• The chair persons of the committees'
other than wards committee.
• Through nominated members and special
invitees officers of district administration
as well as members of the Central and
State legislatures find representation in
the DPC. Special invitees or permanent
invitees generally include local MPs and
MLAs, district administration officials also
representatives from line agencies like
District Cooperative Bank / Land
Development Banks. These invitees do not
have voting rights in the DPC but
participate in its deliberations.
54. Under which of the following ministries does
the Department of Official Language (Raj
Bhasha Vibhag) come?
(1) Ministry of Culture
(2) Ministry of Human resource Development
(3) Ministry of Home Affairs
(4) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 The Department of Official Language (Raj
Bhasha Vibhag) comes under the Ministry
of Home Affairs. It was established in June
1975 as an independent department of
the Ministry of Home Affairs. The
department issues the annual Programme
and Reports, which are used by Regional
Offices and NVS Hqrs to inspect the official
language of Regional Offices and JNVs,
respectively.
55. Consider the following statements about the
Concurrent list:
A. If any provision of law made by the State
Legislature is inconsistent with law made
by the Parliament, then the law made by
the Parliament shall prevail and the law
made by the State Legislature, to the
extent of inconsistency, shall be void.
18
 B. If any provision of law made by the State
Legislature is inconsistent with law made
by the Parliament, then the law made by
the State Legislature shall prevail, despite
the inconsistency, if after been reserved
for consideration of the President, has
received his assent.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
Article 254: Inconsistency between laws made
by Parliament and laws made by the
Legislatures of States
(1) If any provision of a law made by the
Legislature of a State is repugnant to any
provision of a law made by Parliament
which Parliament is competent to enact,
or to any provision of an existing law with
respect to one of the matters enumerated
in the Concurrent List, then, subject to the
provisions of clause (2), the law made by
Parliament, whether passed before or
after the law made by the Legislature of
such State; shall prevail and the law made
by the Legislature of the State shall, to the
extent of the repugnancy, be void.
(2) Where a law made by the Legislature of a
State with respect to one of the matters
enumerated in the Concurrent List
contains any provision repugnant to the
provisions of an earlier law made by
Parliament or an existing law with respect
to that matter, then , the law so made by
the Legislature of such State shall, if it has
been reserved for the consideration of the
President and has received his assent,
prevail in that State:
56. Which of the following Committees and their
recommendations is/are correctly matched?
A. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee -
Recommended the establishment of the
scheme of ‘democratic decentralisation’.
B. G.V.K. Rao Committee- Recommended for
official participation of political parties at
all levels of panchayat elections.
AMIGOS IAS
C. Thungon Committee – Recommended
that the Panchayati Raj bodies should be
constitutionally recognized.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(1) A and C (2) Only B
(3) B and C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
recommended the establishment of the
scheme of ‘democratic decentralisation’,
which ultimately came to be known as
Panchayati Raj.
 Ashok Mehta Committee recommended
that there should be an official
participation of political parties at all
levels of panchayat elections.
 Thungon Committee recommended that
the Panchayati Raj bodies should be
constitutionally recognized.
57. Which of the statements given below is
incorrect with respect to Advocate General of
the State?
(1) He holds office during the pleasure of the
Governor.
(2) His remuneration is not fixed by the
Constitution.
(3) He can quit his office by submitting his
resignation to the President.
(4) None of the above
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 The term of office of the advocate general
is not fixed by the Constitution. Further,
the Constitution does not contain the
procedure and grounds for his removal.
He holds office during the pleasure of the
governor. This means that he may be
removed by the governor at any time. He
may also quit his office by submitting his
resignation to the governor.
Conventionally, he resigns when the
government (council of ministers) resigns
or is replaced, as he is appointed on its
advice. The remuneration of the advocate
general is not fixed by the Constitution. He
receives such remuneration as the
governor may determine.
19
58. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
matched?
A. Indirect elections to the post of
Chairperson of panchayats at the
intermediate and district levels. –
Voluntary provision
B. Giving representation to the members of
the Parliament and the State Legislature in
the panchayats – Compulsory provision
C. Providing reservation of seats for
SC/ST/backward classes in panchayats at
any level. – Compulsory provision
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(1) A and B (2) Only B
(3) All of the above (4) None of the above
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
Provisions of the 73rd Amendment Act are:
• Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or
group of villages.
• Establishment of panchayats at the
village, intermediate and district levels.
• Direct elections to all seats in panchayats
at the village, intermediate and district
levels.
• Indirect elections to the post of
Chairperson of panchayats at the
intermediate and district levels.
• 21 years to be the minimum age for
contesting elections to panchayats.
• Reservation of seats (both members and
Chairpersons) for SCs and STs in
panchayats at all the three levels.
• Reservation of one-third seats (both
members and Chairpersons) for women in
panchayats at all the three levels.
• Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats
at all levels and holding fresh elections
within six months in the event of
supersession of any panchayat.
• Establishment of a State Election
Commission for conducting elections to
the panchayats.
• Constitution of a State Finance
Commission after every five years to
review the financial position of the
panchayats.
AMIGOS IAS
59. Which of the following is/are the source(s) of
revenue for the urban local bodies?
A. Entertainment tax
B. Taxes on animals
C. Rent on municipal properties
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(1) A and C (2) Only C
(3) All of the above (4) None of the above
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
Sources of Municipal revenue are:
 Tax Revenue: The revenue from the local
taxes include property tax, entertainment
tax, taxes on advertisements, professional
tax, water tax, tax on animals, lighting tax,
pilgrim tax, market tax, toll on new
bridges, octroi and so on. In addition, the
municipal bodies impose various cesses
like library cess, education cess, beggary
cess and so on. Octroi (i.e., taxes on the
entry of goods into a local area for
consumption, use or sale therein) has
been abolished in most of the states.
Property tax is the most important tax
revenue.
 Non-Tax Revenue: This source includes
rent on municipal properties, fees and
fines, royalty, profits and dividends,
interest, user charges and miscellaneous
receipts. The user charges (i.e., payment
for public utilities) include water charges,
sanitation charges, sewerage charges and
so on.
60. Consider the following statements about
Metropolitan Planning Committee (MPC):
A. Metropolitan Planning Committee are
constitutional bodies.
B. Two-thirds of the members of a
metropolitan planning committee should
be elected by the elected members of the
municipalities and chairpersons of the
panchayats in the metropolitan area from
amongst themselves.
C. The plans prepared by Metropolitan
Planning Committee have to be
necessarily enforced by the District
Administration.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
20
 (1) Only A (2) A and B
(3) B and C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 243ZE. Committee for Metropolitan
planning. -(I) There shall be constituted in
every Metropolitan area a Metropolitan
Planning Committee to prepare a draft
development plan for the Metropolitan
area as a whole. Thus, it is a constitutional
body. The act lays down that two-thirds of
the members of a metropolitan planning
committee should be elected by the
elected members of the municipalities
and chairpersons of the panchayats in the
metropolitan area from amongst
themselves. The representation of these
members in the committee should be in
proportion to the ratio between the
population of the municipalities and the
panchayats in that metropolitan area. The
chairpersons of such committees shall
forward the development plan to the
state government. It is for the state
government to implement the plans so
prepared by MPC.
61. Consider the following statements:
A. District Planning Committee is formed
under the 73rd Amendment Act.
B. According to 73rd amendment act, all
states are to have a three-tiered
panchayati raj structure.
Which of the statements given above is/are
not correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 The superintendence, direction and
control of the preparation of electoral
rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections
to the Panchayats shall be vested in a
State Election Commission consisting of a
State Election Commissioner to be
appointed by the Governor. Thus, the
elections to panchayats use a separate
electoral roll which is prepared by State
election commission. This electoral roll is
separate from the one used in General
and State Legislative Elections which is
AMIGOS IAS
prepared by Election Commission of India.
District Planning committees are formed
under the provisions of 74th Amendment
Act.
 There shall be constituted in every State,
Panchayats at the village, intermediate
and district levels in accordance with the
provisions of this Part. (2)
Notwithstanding anything in clause (1),
Panchayats at the intermediate level may
not be constituted in a State having a
population not exceeding twenty lakhs.
Thus, few states which have population
below twenty lakhs do not have
intermediate level of Panchayat.
Arunachal Pradesh recently removed the
intermediate level of Panchayat.
62. Which of the following Commissions
was/were set up to recommend changes in
the Centre-State relations?
A. Verma Commission
B. U.C. Banerjee Commission
C. Kothari Commission
D. Sarkaria Commission
Choose the correct code:
(1) Only D (2) A, B and D
(3) B, C and D (4) A, B and C
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 The Sarkaria Commission, also known as
the "Commission on Centre-State
Relations", was established in 1983 by the
Indian government. The commission's
purpose was to examine the balance of
power between the central and state
governments and suggest changes to the
Constitution of India.
63. Which one of the following statements
relating to the Comptroller and Auditor
General (CAG) of India is/are correct?
A. The CAG can attend the sittings of the
Committee on Public Accounts.
B. The CAG can attend the sittings of Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
C. The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive
with powers of the Union Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(1) Only A (2) B and C
21
 (3) A and B (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 He acts as a guide, friend and philosopher
of the Public Accounts Committee of the
Parliament. CAG cannot attend the
sittings of Parliament; it is only attorney
General of India a non-Parliamentarian
who is allowed to sit in both houses of the
Parliament but cannot vote.
 The power of CAG is restricted to auditing
of accounts unlike the Government’s,
which is responsible from drafting a law to
its execution at the ground level.
64. The Election Commission recognises a
political party as a national party if
A. It secures at least six percent of the total
valid votes polled in four or more States in
a general election to the Lok Sabha or to
the State Legislative Assemblies.
B. If it is recognised as a state party in four
states.
C. If it wins two percent of seats in the Lok
Sabha at a general election and these
candidates are elected from four states.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(1) Only A (2) A and C
(3) A and B (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 3
• A party is recognised as a national party if
any of the following conditions is fulfilled:
• If it secures six per cent of the valid votes
polled in any four or more states at a
general election the Lok Sabha or to the
legislative assembly; and, in addition, it
wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from any
state or states.
• If it wins two per cent of seats in the Lok
Sabha at a general election; and these
candidates are elected from three states;
or
• If it is recognised as a state party in four
states.
65. Which among the following is the only Article
in the Indian Constitution that deals with the
office of Advocate general of the state?
(1) 165 (2) 182
(3) 147 (4) 195
AMIGOS IAS
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 Article 165 of Chapter 2 (The Executive) in
Part VI (The States) of the Constitution
deals with the office of the advocate
general of the state. This is the only article
dealing with this office.
 Article 76 of Chapter 1 (The Executive) in
Part V (The Union) of the Constitution
deals with the office of the Attorney
General of India. This is the only Article
dealing with this office.
66. Consider the following statements about
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
A. While dealing with the audit and
accounting of government companies,
CAG has certain judicial powers for
prosecuting those who violate the law.
B. He audits the accounts related to all
expenditure from the Consolidated Fund
of India, consolidated fund of all states but
not union territories with legislature.
C. He ascertains and certifies the net
proceeds of any tax or duty, which is final.
D. He audits the accounts of any other
authority when requested by the
President or Governor
Which of the following statements given
above is/are incorrect?
(1) Only B (2) A and B
(3) Only C (4) A, B and D
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
• CAG audits the accounts related to all
expenditure from the Consolidated Fund
of India, Consolidated fund of each state
and consolidated fund of each union
territory having a Legislative Assembly.
• CAG is responsible to Parliament only and
he is conferred no Judicial powers to
prosecute anyone.
• CAG audits the accounts of any other
authority when requested by the
President or Governor.
• He ascertains and certifies the net
proceeds of any tax or duty (Art 279). The
net proceeds means the proceeds of a tax
or a duty minus the cost of collection.
22
67. Which of the following statements
concerning the Election Commission’s Model
Code of Conduct is/are not correct?
A. The Model Code of Conduct has been
provided by the Constitution of India.
B. The Model Code of Conduct emerged out
of a voluntary decision by political parties
in 1968 to abide by certain norms of
electoral campaign.
C. In case of the violation of the Model Code
of Conduct, the Supreme Court of India
can step in on its own accord.
D. The election Commission of India has the
power to regulate electoral competition
by enforcing the Model Code of Conduct
from the day the dates of the election are
announced.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(1) A and C (2) Only A
(3) C and D (4) B and D
ANSWER: 1
 During the election campaign, the political
parties and contesting candidates are
expected to abide by a Model Code of
Conduct evolved by the Election
Commission on the basis of a consensus
among political parties.
 The commission normally announces the
schedule of elections in major press
conference a few weeks before the formal
process is set in motion. The Model Code
of Conduct for guidance of candidates and
political parties comes immediately into
effect after such announcement.
 In case of the violation of the Model Code
of Conduct, the Supreme Court of India
cannot step in on its own accord.
68. Which one among the following statements
about the functioning of political parties in a
democracy is not correct?
(1) Political parties give political education to
the people
(2) Political parties serve as a link between
the government and the people
(3) Political parties fight elections and try to
get the maximum number of their
candidates elected
(4) None of the above
AMIGOS IAS
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
• Parties form and run governments. The
big policy decisions are taken by political
executive that comes from the political
parties. Parties recruit leaders, train them
and then make them ministers to run the
government in the way they want.
• Parties shape public opinion. They raise
and highlight issues. Parties have lakhs of
members and activists spread all over the
country.
• Parties provide people access to
government machinery and welfare
schemes implemented by governments.
For an ordinary citizen it is easy to
approach a local party leader than a
government officer.
69. Which of the following statements are true of
the Indian Electoral System?
A. The electoral contest is based on the First
Past the Post system, which ensures
proportionality of representation.
B. The Parliament of India has the power to
make laws for the conduct of elections.
C. There is a bar to interference by Courts in
electoral matters and no election to the
Parliament and State Legislatures may be
questioned except by an election petition.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(1) A, B and C (2) All of the above
(3) B and C (4) A and C
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 First Past the Post electoral system
doesn’t ensure the proportionality of
representation i.e., it does not ensure the
due representation of all minority sections
in the society
 Article 329 of the Constitution of India,
1950, bars courts from interfering in
electoral matters. This means that the
validity of laws relating to the allotment of
seats to constituencies, or the
delimitation of constituencies, cannot be
questioned in court. Additionally, no
election to either House of Parliament or
to the House or either House of the
23
 Legislature of a State can be questioned
except by an election petition.
 The Parliament can make laws for
elections to both houses of Parliament
and the state legislature. This includes the
preparation of electoral rolls.
70. Andhra Pradesh Lokayukta Act came into
force on
(1) 1st November, 1983
(2) 2nd October, 1986
(3) 5th July, 1991
(4) 10th January, 1988
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 In Andhra Pradesh, the A.P. Lokayukta Act
11 of 1983 came into force with effect
from 1-11-1983 and this Institution
started functioning from 15-11-1983 and
since then this Institution has been able to
march forward as an effective instrument
in the hands of the public for curbing the
evil of corruption and maladministration.
71. Which one of the following statements
regarding disqualification of MPs and MLAs
on grounds of defection is not correct?
(1) These provisions are listed in the Tenth
Schedules od the Constitution of India.
(2) A member of either House of Parliament
belonging to any political party who is
disqualified on the ground of defection
shall also be disqualified to be appointed
as a minister.
(3) Disqualification on grounds of defection
does not apply in case of merger.
(4) All question regarding disqualification on
grounds of defection are referred to the
presiding officer of the house, whose
decision is final.
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
 Any question regarding disqualification
arising out of defection is to be decided by
the presiding officer of the House.
Originally, the act provided that the
decision of the presiding officer is final and
cannot be questioned in any court.
However, in Kihoto Hollohan case (1993),
AMIGOS IAS
the Supreme Court declared this provision
as unconstitutional on the ground that it
seeks to take away the jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court and the high courts. It held
that the presiding officer, while deciding a
question under the Tenth Schedule,
function as a tribunal. Hence, his decision
like that of any other tribunal, is subject to
judicial review on the grounds of mala
fides, perversity, etc. But, the court
rejected the contention that the vesting of
adjudicatory powers in the presiding
officer is by itself invalid on the ground of
political bias.
72. Consider the following statements with
regard to North Eastern Council:
A. It was constituted in 1971 by an Act of
Parliament.
B. It consists of seven states.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 The North Eastern Council is the nodal
agency for the economic and social
development of the North Eastern Region
which consists of the eight States of
Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur,
Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim
and Tripura. The North Eastern Council
was constituted in 1971 by an Act of
Parliament.
73. Consider the following statements with
regard to the Law Commission of India?
A. The first Law Commission in India was
established under the Charter Act of 1813
under the Chairmanship of Lord
Macaulay.
B. After India attaining Independence, its
status was upgraded to a Constitutional
body with M.C Setalvad as its first
chairman.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
24
  First Law Commission was established in
1834 under the Charter Act of 1833 under
the Chairmanship of Lord Macaulay which
recommended codification of the Penal
code, the Criminal Procedure Code and a
few other matters. Thereafter, the
second, third and fourth Law Commissions
were constituted in 1853, 1861 and 1879
respectively. The first chairman of the Law
Commission of India was M. C. Setalvad,
who served from 1955–1958. Setalvad
was also the first Attorney-General of
India.
 Law Commission of India is not a
constitutional body The first chairman of
the Law Commission of India was M. C.
Setalvad, who served from 1955–1958.
Setalvad was also the first Attorney-
General of India.
74. The Dinesh Goswami Committee
recommended
(1) The constitution of state-level election
commissioners
(2) List System of election to the Lok Sabha
(3) Governmental funding of parliamentary
elections
(4) A ban on the candidature of independent
candidates in the parliamentary elections.
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
• In 1990, Dinesh Goswami Headed a
committee made the following
recommendations;
• The ordering of re-poll or countermanding
should be not only be on the report of the
returning officer, but also otherwise and,
also to give the Election Commission the
requisite powers to appoint investigating
agencies, prosecuting agencies and
constitution of special courts.
• There is a need for an amendment to the
anti-defection law to restrict
disqualification only to those cases, where
an elected member voluntarily gives up
his membership of the political party, or
when he votes or abstain from voting
contrary to party whips, directions etc.
only in respect of motion of vote of
confidence. The question of
disqualification of members should not be
AMIGOS IAS
decided by the speaker or the Chairman of
the concerned House.
• Changes in the voting pattern and shift to
proportional representation of the list
system, instead of present voting system
should be made (However, this matter
was to be further discussed amongst
exports)
• There should be fresh delimitation on the
basis of 1981 census and there should be
a provision for rotation of reserved seats
for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes.
• No candidates should be allowed to
contest an election from more than two
constituencies. The age of Candidates for
assembly seats should be reduced to 21
and for the Council to 25.
• To discourage non-serious candidates, the
security deposit for Lok Sabha should be
increased to Rs. 5000 and for Assembly it
should be increased to Rs. 2500. The
amount should be forfeited if the
candidate fails to secure one fourth of the
total votes. The member of proposals to
nomination should also be increased.
• A model code of conduct be framed which
would include issues relating to-the use of
official machinery, transport, media,
funds etc.
• There should be a ban on transfer of
officials and staff concerned with the
elections. The Commission and the
Central Government should continue the
periodic revision of election expenses in
consulta¬tion with the Election
Commission. There should be a six month
time limit for holding bye-elections.
• Army and Para-military personnel,
diplomats and others placed outside India
should be allowed proxy voting.
• Extensive restructuring of the accounting
of election expenses is needed.
• Monitoring of expenses should be
undertaken by the Election Commission,
and a speedy trial of election disputes
through the help of adhoc judges should
be ensured
• There should be provision to punish plying
mechanically-propelled vehicles, carrying
25
 lethal weapons and fire arms or
distributing liquor on, the polling day.
• Electronic voting machines should be used
to put an end to manipulating and
tempering
• Governmental funding of parliamentary
elections
75. Who among the following was the first
advocate general of Andhra Pradesh after the
formation of the state in 1956?
(1) E Manohar
(2) V.R. Reddy
(3) S. Ramachandra Rao
(4) D. Narasa Raju
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
 D. Narasa Raju was the first advocate
general of Andhra Pradesh after the
formation of the state in 1956
 Venu Gopal P after the bifurcation of
Andhra Pradesh in 2015.
76. Arrange the following committees on
Panchayati Raj in chronological order.
A. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
B. Ashok Mehta Committee
C. LM Singhvi Committee
D. GVK Rao Committee
Choose the correct code:
(1) A-B-C-D (2) B-C-A-D
(3) A-B-D-C (4) C-D-A-B
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 Balwant Rai Mehta Committee: 1957
 Ashok Mehta Committee: 1977
 G V K Rao Committee: 1985
 L M Singhvi Committee: 1986
77. Consider the following statements about
Indian elections:
A. The Constitution provides that elections
to the House of the People and the
Legislative Assemblies of States are to be
held on the basis of Universal Adult
suffrage.
B. The Constitution stipulates that there will
be separate electoral rolls for
Parliamentary and State Assembly
elections.
AMIGOS IAS
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 A common electoral roll is prepared by
Election Commission of India for
conducting elections to both Parliament
and State Legislatures. However, it is only
for the local body elections in each state
where a separate electoral roll is prepared
by respective State Election Commission
constituted.
 Under Article 326 of the Indian
Constitution, elections to the Lok Sabha
and state assemblies to be on the basis of
adult suffrage.
78. Consider the following statements about the
Counting and Declaration of electoral result
in India
A. The returning officer is responsible for the
counting of votes and declaration of result
of an election.
B. After the results of all Parliamentary
constituencies, the President will
constitute the new Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 According to Sec. 64 of the R. P. Act, 1951,
votes are counted by or under the
supervision / direction of the Returning
Officer of the Constituency. When the
counting is completed, the Returning
officer declares the result as per
provisions of Sec. 66 of R. P. Act, 1951.
 According to Sec. 73 of the R. P. Act, 1951,
after the results of all Parliamentary
constituencies are declared, the Election
Commission will constitute the new Lok
Sabha by notifying in the official gazette,
the names of the elected members.
79. How many subjects were transferred to
Panchayats by the 73rd Constitutional
Amendment in the Eleventh Schedule?
26
 (1) 21 (2) 32
(3) 29 (4) 25
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 The 11th Schedule of the Indian
Constitution was added in 1992 by the
73rd Constitution Amendment Act. This
schedule contains 29 subjects. This
schedule covers important topics such as
Panchayat's powers, rural development,
poverty alleviation, market, roads and
drinking water, etc.
80. Consider the following statements with
regard to National Human Rights
Commission:
A. It can suo motu inquire into any violation
of human rights.
B. It can look into a matter only within one
year of its occurrence.
C. It can punish a violator of human rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) All of the above (4) None of the above
ANSWER: 1
 Its functions are mainly recommendary in
nature. It has not power to punish the
violators of human rights, nor to award
any relief including monetary relief to the
victim. Notably, its recommendations are
not binding on the concerned government
or authority.
 The commission is not empowered to
inquire into any matter after the expiry of
one year from the date on which the act
constituting violation of human rights is
alleged to have been committed. In other
words, it can look into matter within one
year of its occurrence.
 It can inquire into any violation of human
rights or negligence in the prevention of
such violation by a public servant, either
suo motu or on a petition presented to it
or on an order of a court.
81. With respect to the Bar Council of India,
Consider the following statements:
A. It is a statutory body.
B. Attorney General of India is the ex-officio
member of the Council.
AMIGOS IAS
C. It lays down standards for legal education
in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only C (2) B and C
(3) All of the above (4) Only A
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 The Bar Council of India is a statutory body
created by Parliament to regulate and
represent the Indian bar.
 It performs the regulatory function by
prescribing standards of professional
conduct and etiquette and by exercising
disciplinary jurisdiction over the bar. They
also set standards for legal education and
grants recognition to universities whose
degree in law will serve as qualification for
enrolment as an advocate.
 Bar Council of India consists of members
elected from each State Bar Council, and
the Attorney General of India and the
Solicitor General of India are ex-officio
members.
82. With reference to ‘None of the above’
(NOTA) option on electronic voting machines
and ballot paper, consider the followings
statements:
A. Electors were provided the option of
NOTA in electing both houses of the
Parliament.
B. In an election if NOTA gets the highest
votes, then the election will be conducted
again.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
 The voters polled against the NOTA option
are not taken into account for calculating
the total valid voters polled by the
contesting candidates for the purpose of
return of security deposits to candidates.
Even if the number of electors opting for
NOTA options is more than the number of
votes polled by any of the candidates, the
candidate who secures the largest
27
 number of votes has to be declared
elected.
 NOTA is not applicable to elections
conducted for Rajya Sabha and Legislative
Councils.
83. Under which of the following articles does
the Rajya Sabha have special powers to
legislate a ‘state list' in the national interest?
(1) Article 249 (2) Article 250
(3) Article 252 (4) Article 253
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 The correct answer is Article 249.
According to article 249, the Rajya Sabha
has the power to declare that the
Parliament has the power to make laws
with respect to any matter listed in the
State List in the national interest.
84. Which of the following are grounds for
disqualification of a member of Union Public
Service Commission?
A. If he is adjudged an insolvent.
B. If he engages, during his term of office, in
any paid employment outside the duties
of his office.
C. It he is concerned or interested in any
contract or agreement made by the
Government of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(3) B and C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 4
 The President can remove the chairman or
any other member of UPSC from the office
under the following circumstances:
(a) If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has
gone bankrupt);
(b) If he engages, during his term of office, in
any paid employment outside the duties
of his office; or
(c) If he is, in the opinion of the president,
unfit to continue in office by reason of
infirmity of mind or body.
85. The jurisdiction of the Union Public Service
Commission can be extended by
(1) An act made by the Parliament
(2) An executive order of the President
AMIGOS IAS
(3) The Prime Minister in consultation with
Chief Minsters of the states.
(4) None of the above.
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 The additional functions relating to the
services of the Union can be conferred on
UPSC by the Parliament. It can also place
the personnel system of any authority,
corporate body or public institution within
the jurisdiction of the UPSC. Hence the
jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by an
act made by the Parliament.
86. The jurisdiction of Central Vigilance
Commission (CVC) extends to who among the
following?
A. Group A officers of Central Government
B. Officers in Grade D and above in Reserve
Bank of India
C. Members of All India Services
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(1) Only A (2) A and B
(3) B and C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
The jurisdiction of the CVC extends to the
following:
A. Members of All India services serving in
connection with the affairs of the Union
and Group A officers of the Central
Government.
B. Officers of the rank of Scale V and above
in the Public Sector Banks.
C. Officers in Grade D and above in Reserve
Bank of India, NABARD and SIDBI.
87. Which of the following is not a member of the
Governing Council of NITI Aayog?
(1) Chief Minster of National Capital Territory
of Delhi
(2) Lieutenant Governor of NCT of Delhi
(3) Lieutenant Governor of Andaman and
Nicobar Islands
(4) Chief Minister of Puducherry
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
The composition of the NITI Aayog is as
follows:
(a) Chairperson: The Prime Minister of India
28
 (b) Governing Council: It comprises the Chief
Ministers of all the State, Chief Ministers
of Union Territories with Legislatures (i.e,
Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu and
Kashmir) and Lt. Governors of other Union
Territories.
88. Consider the following statements:
A. Report of the Administrative Reforms
Commission, headed by late Morarji
Desai, recommended the establishment
of Lokpal and Lokayukta institutions.
B. Lokpal is the highest institution in India to
investigate Corruption at higher places in
Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 The Administrative Reforms Commission
(ARC) headed by Morarji Desai submitted
an interim report on "Problems of
Redressal of Citizen's Grievances" in 1966.
In this report, ARC recommended the
creation of two special authorities
designated as 'Lokpal' and 'Lokayukta' for
redress of citizens' grievances.
 The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013,
commonly known as The Lokpal Act, is an
anti-corruption Act of Indian Parliament in
India which "seeks to provide for the
establishment of the institution of Lokpal
to inquire into allegations of corruption
against certain important public
functionaries including the Prime Minister
89. Consider the following statements about
Central Bureau of investigation:
A. Drawing its powers from Delhi Special
Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, its
primary jurisdiction is confined to Delhi
and Union Territories.
B. The withdrawal of consent to CBI by state
governments applies prospectively.
C. When Supreme Court or High Court
directs that a particular investigation be
handed over to the CBI, there is no need
for any consent under the Delhi Special
Police Establishment (DSPE) Act.
AMIGOS IAS
Which of the following statements given
above is/are correct?
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(3) Only A (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
 CBI’s primary jurisdiction is confined to
Delhi and Union territories. It draws its
power from the Delhi Special Police
Establishment (DSPE) Act. The Home
Ministry, through a resolution, set up the
agency in April 1963. Under Section 5 of
the Act, the Central government can
extend its powers and jurisdictions to the
states, for investigation of specified
offences.
 The withdrawal of general consent
restricts the CBI from instituting new
cases in the State concerned. However, as
decided by the Supreme Court in Kazi
Lhendup Dorji (1994) the withdrawal of
consent applies prospectively and
therefore, existing cases will be allowed to
reach their logical conclusion.
 The Supreme Court made it clear that
when it or a High Court directs that a
particular investigation be handed over to
the CBI, there is no need for any consent
under the DSPE Act.
90. The National Investigation Agency is
mandated to investigate and prosecute
offences under the various Acts mentioned in
the Schedule of the NIA Act. In this context its
jurisdiction includes investigating cases
against which of the following.
A. Offences related to human trafficking.
B. Counterfeit currency or bank notes.
C. Cyber-terrorism.
D. Manufacture or sale of prohibited arms.
Choose the correct code:
(1) A, B and C (2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
 The NIA is empowered to probe terror
attacks including bomb blasts, hijacking of
aircrafts and ships, attacks on nuclear
installations and use of weapons of mass
destruction.
29
  In 2019, the jurisdiction of the NIA was
extended. Consequently, the NIA is also
empowered to probe the offences relating
to human trafficking, counterfeit currency
or bank notes, manufacture or sale of
prohibited arms, cyber-terrorism and
explosive substances.
91. Consider the following statements about
National Disaster Management Authority
A. It consists of a chairperson and other
members, not exceeding nine.
B. The vice-chairperson has the status of a
cabinet minister while the other members
have the status of a Minister of State.
Which of the following statements given
above is/are correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 The NDMA consists of a chairperson and
other members, not exceeding nine. The
Prime Minister is the ex-officio
chairperson of the NDMA. The other
members are nominated by the
chairperson of the NDMA. The
chairperson of the NDMA designates one
of the members as the vice-chairperson of
the NDMA. The vicechairperson has the
status of a Cabinet Minister while the
other members have the status of a
Minister of State.
92. The abolition of IAS and the I.P.S has been
recommended by the
(1) Dhebar Commission
(2) Kalekar Commission
(3) Kher Commission
(4) Rajamannar Commission
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
• Rajmannar Commission was set up by the
then DMK Government of Tamil Nadu in
1969 under the Chairmanship of Dr P.V.
Rajamanar. It was appointed to look into
the question regarding the relationship
that should subsist between the Centre
and the States in a federal set-up. It
submitted its report in 1971. It demanded
readjustment of the VII schedule and
AMIGOS IAS
residuary power to the states. Its other
important recommendations are given in
the following:
• The setting of an Inter-State council
immediately
• Finance commission to be made a
permanent body
• Deletion of Articles 356, 357, and 365
which dealt with the President’s rule
• Abolition of All-India Services (lAS, IPS, and
IFS)
• Planning Commission to be replaced by a
statutory body
• The Central government completely
ignored its recommendations.
93. Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the commencement of the election
process in India?
(1) The recommendation for election is made
by the government and the notification
for election is issued by the Election
Commission
(2) The recommendation for election is made
by the Election Commission and the
notification for election is issued by the
Home Ministry at the Centre and Home
Departments in the States
(3) The recommendation for election is made
by the Election Commission and the
notification for election is issued by the
President and Governors of the States
concerned.
(4) Both the exercises of making a
recommendation for election and that of
issuing a notification in respect of it are
done by Election Commission
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
• The recommendation for election is made
by the Election Commission and the
notification for election is issued by the
President and Governors of the States
concerned.
94. Which one of the following statements
regarding ‘Exit Poll’ is/ correct?
A. Exit poll is a term used to denote a post-
election survey of voters regarding the
candidate in whose favour they had
exercised their franchise.
30
 B. Exit poll and opinion poll are one and the (1) Only A (2) Only B
same. (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
Which of the statements given above is/are ANSWER: 3
correct? EXPLANATION:
(1) Only A (2) Only B  A party should secure at least six per cent
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B of valid votes polled in an election to the
ANSWER: 1 state legislative assembly and win at least
EXPLANATION: two seats in that state assembly. A party
 An election exit poll is a poll of voters should secure at least six per cent of valid
taken immediately after they have exited votes polled in an election to Lok Sabha
the polling stations. Unlike an opinion poll, and win at least one seat in Lok Sabha.
which asks for whom the voter plans to 97. Consider the following statements with
vote, or some similar formulation, an exit regard to Discretionary Grants
poll asks for whom the voter actually A. Article 282 empowers both the Centre and
voted. the states to make any grants for any
95. Consider the following statements: public purpose.
A. A Gram Sabha may exercise such powers B. They can only be issued by the Centre and
and perform such functions at the village states for purposes within their legislative
level as the Legislature of a State, may, by competence.
law, provide. Which of the statements given above is/are
B. Parliament may, by law, make provisions correct?
with respect to maintenance of accounts (1) Only A (2) Only B
by Panchayats. (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
Which of the statements given above is/are ANSWER: 1
correct? EXPLANATION:
(1) Only A (2) Only B  Article 282 empowers both the Centre and
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B the states to make any grants for any
ANSWER: 1 public purpose, even if it is not within their
EXPLANATION: respective legislative competence. Under
 Gram Sabha may exercise such powers this provision, the Centre makes grants to
and perform such functions at the village the states.
level as the legislature of a State 98. Which of the following are the factors for the
determines. rise of Regional parties in India?
 The State legislature may make provisions A. cultural and ethnic pluralism of the Indian
with respect to the maintenance of society
accounts by the panchayats and the B. failure of national politics to meet the
auditing of such accounts. regional aspirations
96. Which of the following are the conditions for C. absence of a strong opposition party at
recognition as a state party the Central level
A. A party should secure at least six per cent D. alienation and discontentment among the
of valid votes polled in an election to the tribal groups
state legislative assembly and win at least Choose the correct code:
two seats in that state assembly. (1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D
B. A party should secure at least six per cent (3) A, B and D (4) All of the above
of valid votes polled in an election to Lok ANSWER: 4
Sabha and win at least one seat in Lok EXPLANATION:
Sabha.
Other reasons for the rise of regional parties
Which of the statements given above is/are are:
correct?

AMIGOS IAS 31
 - economic disparities and regional post inferior to that of a District Judge. The
imbalances in the development constitutional provision enables creation
- desire of certain areas to maintain of the AIJS at District Judge level.
separate identity due to historical factors 101. Who among the following was the first
- self-interest of the deposed maharajas Attorney General of India?
and dispossessed Zamindars (1) G.V. Mavalankar
- reorganization of States on the basis of (2) K.K Venugopal
language (3) M.C. Setalvad
- charismatic personality of the regional (4) None of the above
leaders ANSWER: 3
- factional fights within the larger parties EXPLANATION:
- centralizing tendencies of the Congress • Motilal Chimanlal Setalvad (c. 1884 –
Party 1974) was an eminent Indian jurist, who
- role of caste and religion in the political became the first and longest serving
process Attorney General for India (1950–1963).
99. Consider the following statements regarding 102. Who was the chairman of the first official
the Human Rights Courts language commission?
A. The protection of human rights act, 1993 (1) BG Kher (2) HN Kunzru
provides for the establishment of Human (3) Rajendra Prasad (4) KM Munshi
Rights Court in every district ANSWER: 1
B. They can be set up by the state EXPLANATION:
government only with the concurrence of
• B. G. Kher was the first chairman of the
the chief justice of the high court of that
Official Language Commission, which was
state
established in 1955. Kher was also the first
C. The state government specifies a public chief minister of Bombay after India's
prosecutor or appoints an advocate as a independence.
special public prosecutor for every human
103. How many Lok Sabha seats are reserved for
right court
Scheduled Tribes, as on 26 January 2019?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(1) 47 (2) 54
correct?
(3) 38 (4) 32
(1) A and B (2) A and C
ANSWER: 1
(3) B and C (4) All of the above
EXPLANATION:
ANSWER: 4
• As of January 26, 2019, 47 seats in the Lok
EXPLANATION:
Sabha were reserved for Scheduled
 The human rights courts are set up in Tribes. The Lok Sabha has a total of 131
every district by the state government reserved seats, 84 for Scheduled Castes
only with the concurrence of the chief and 47 for Scheduled Tribes.
justice of the high court of that state for
104. Which of the following subjects is included in
the speedy trial of violation of human the Concurrent List in the Indian
rights.
Constitution?
100. Creation of an All India ‘Services’ is provided A. Forests
in:
B. Banking
(1) Article 324 (2) Article 312
Choose the correct code:
(3) Article 326 (4) Article 310
(1) Only A (2) Only B
ANSWER: 2
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
EXPLANATION:
ANSWER: 1
• Article 312 of the Constitution provides
 The Concurrent List is a list of 47 subjects
for the establishment of All India Judicial
that both the Union and State legislatures
Service (AIJS), which shall not include any

AMIGOS IAS 32
 have jurisdiction over. The Concurrent List
includes subjects of common interest,
such as:
- Criminal law
- Criminal procedure
- Preventive detention
- Education
- Forests
- Weights and measures
- Protection of wildlife and birds
- Administration of justice
• Banking is included in the Union List of the
Seventh Schedule of the Indian
Constitution.
105. As per Section 30 of the Protection of Human
Rights Act, 1993 for the purpose of providing
speedy trail of offences arising out of
violation of Human Rights, the State
Government may, with the concurrence of
the Chief Justice of the High Court, by
notification specify for each district a
________ to be a Human Rights Court to try
the said offences.
(1) Judicial Magistrate Court
(2) Civil Court
(3) Family Court
(4) Court of Session
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
• Section 30 of the Protection of Human
Rights Act, 1993 states that a state
107.
government can designate a Court of
Session as a Human Rights Court (HRC) for
each district in the state to provide a
speedy trial for offenses that arise from
human rights violations. The state
government must get the Chief Justice of
the High Court's concurrence to do this.
106. Which one of the following criteria is not
recommended by the ‘Sarkaria Commission’
about the appointment of Governor?
(1) He should be eminent in some walk of life
(2) He should be a person from outside the
State
(3) He should not be an active politician
(4) Appointment of Governor should be
entrusted to a committee comprising the
Prime Minister, Home Minister, Speaker
AMIGOS IAS
of Lok Sabha and Chief Minister of the
State concerned.
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
Recommendations with respect to the
Appointment of the Governor:
- There should be a procedure of consulting
the Chief Minister of the State, the Vice-
President of India and the Speaker of the
Lok Sabha in the process of appointing a
Governor.
- The State governments must be involved
in the appointment of the governor along
with the formation of panels.
- Governors must be allowed to complete
five years of their term in office.
- The individual is required to be an
eminent person.
- It is recommended that an individual
appointed as the Governor must be from
outside the state of appointment.
- A detached person who has never
indulged in active or local politics will be
eligible for the post of governor.
- The governor, after demitting office, shall
not be considered eligible for any other
appointment or Office of Profit under the
government.
- Post-retirement benefits must be ensured
to the person who held the position of
governor.
Which one of the following is not identified
as objective of the Panchayat Extension to
Scheduled Area (PESA) Act?
(1) To provide self-governance
(2) To preserve traditional rights
(3) To create autonomous regions in tribal
areas
(4) To make gram Sabha a nucleus of all
activities
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
The objectives of the Panchayats (Extension to
the Scheduled Areas) PESA Act are as follows:
- To extend the provisions of Part IX of the
Constitution relating to Panchayats to the
Scheduled Areas with certain
modifications.
33
 - To provide self-rule for the bulk of the • Article 243Q of the Constitution of India
tribal population. deals with the constitution of
- To have village governance with municipalities. It gives the Governor the
participatory democracy and to make the power to include or exclude any area, and
Gram Sabha the nucleus of all activities. to constitute a Nagar Panchayat, a
- To evolve a suitable administrative Municipal Council, or a Municipal
framework consistent with traditional Corporation.
practices. 109. Identify the following incorrect pairs about
- To safeguard and preserve the traditions the Election Reform Committee of India and
and customs of tribal communities. its year of establishment:
- To empower Panchayats at the Committee Year
appropriate levels with specific powers A. Santhanam Committee 1964
conducive to tribal requirements. B. Wanchoo Committee 1971
- To prevent Panchayats at the higher level C. Dinesh Goswami Committee 1990
from assuming the powers and authority D. Tarkunde Committee 1974
of Panchayats at the lower level of the Choose the correct code:
Gram Sabha. (1) A and B (2) B and C
108. Consider the following pairs: (3) C and D (4) A and C
Article Provision ANSWER: 1
A. 243 ZE Committee for metropolitan EXPLANATION:
planning • Santhanam – 1962
B. 243 ZD Constitution of Municipalities • Wanchoo – 1970
C. 243 Q Committee for district • Dinesh Goswami – 1990
planning • Tarkunde Committee – 1974
D. 243 ZA Elections to the municipalities 110. The Attorney General of India can appear on
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? behalf of the Government of India in which of
(1) A and B (2) B and C the following cases in the Supreme Court?
(3) A and D (4) B and D (1) Civil and revenue cases only
ANSWER: 3 (2) Criminal cases only
EXPLANATION: (3) Civil and criminal cases only
• Article 243ZD of the Constitution of India (4) Civil, revenue and criminal cases
establishes a District Planning Committee ANSWER: 4
at the district level in every state. The EXPLANATION:
committee's responsibilities include:
• The Constitution (Article 76) has provided
Consolidating plans from the Panchayats
for the office of the Attorney General for
and Municipalities in the district Preparing
India. He is the highest law officer in the
a draft development plan for the district
country.
• Article 243ZA of the Constitution of India
• The President has assigned the following
gives the State Election Commission the
duties to the Attorney General of India:
power to supervise, direct, and control the
1. To appear on behalf of the Government of
preparation of electoral rolls and the
India in all cases in the Supreme Court in
conduct of all elections to the
which the Government of India is
Municipalities.
concerned.
• Article 243 ZE mandates the constitution
2. To represent the Government of India in
of a Metropolitan Planning Committee
any reference made by the President to
(MPC), for preparing a draft development
the Supreme Court under Article 143 of
plan for metropolitan areas in India that
the Constitution.
have a population of more than 10 lakhs.

AMIGOS IAS 34
 3. To appear (when required by the
Government of India) in any High Court in
any case in which the Government of India
is concerned.
111. Consider the following statements about the
recommendations of the Ashok Mehta
Committee:
A. The Panchayati Raj Institutions should
have compulsory powers of taxation to
mobilise their own financial resources.
B. The Nyaya Panchayats should be kept as
separate bodies from that of the
Development panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
• In 1977, the Janata Government
appointed a committee on the Panchayati
Raj Institutions, under the chairmanship
of Ashok Mehta. It submitted its report in
1978 and made many recommendations
to revive and strengthen the declining
Panchayati Raj system in the country. Its
main recommendations were:
• The three-tier system of Panchayati Raj
should be replaced by the two-tier system,
that is, Zila Parishad at the district level,
and below it, the Mandal Panchayat
consisting of a group of villages with a
total population of 15,000 to 20,000.
• A district should be the first point for
decentralisation under popular
supervision below the state level.
• The Zila Parishad should be the executive
body and made responsible for planning
at the district level.
• There should be an official participation of
political parties at all levels of the
Panchayat elections.
• The Panchayati Raj Institutions should
have compulsory powers of taxation to
mobilise their own financial resources.
• There should be a regular social audit by a
district level agency and by a committee of
legislators to check whether the funds
allotted for the
AMIGOS IAS
112. Which of the following Commission/
Committees has recommended for the
formation of the post of a Special Officer for
Linguistic Minorities?
(1) The First Administrative Reforms
Commission.
(2) The Sarkaria Commission.
(3) The States Reorganization Commission.
(4) The Yugandhar Committee.
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
• Originally, the Constitution of India did not
make any provision with respect to the
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
Later, the States Reorganization
Commission (1953-55) made a
recommendation in this regard.
Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional
Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new
Article 350-B in Part XVII of the
Constitution.
This Article contains the following provisions:
1. There should be a Special Officer for
Linguistic Minorities. He is to be appointed
by the President of India.
2. It would be the duty of the Special Officer
to investigate all matters relating to the
safeguards provided for linguistic
minorities under the Constitution.
3. He would report to the President upon
those matters, at such intervals, as the
President may direct. The President
should place all such reports before each
House of the Parliament and send to the
governments of the states concerned.
• It must be noted here that the
Constitution does not specify the
qualifications, tenure, salaries and
allowances, service conditions and
procedure for the removal of the Special
Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
113. The Paris Principles are related to which of
the following bodies:
(1) The Reserve Bank of India
(2) The Parliament
(3) The Supreme Court of India
(4) The National Human Rights Commission
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
35
 • The United Nations Paris Principles
provide the international benchmarks
against which the National Human Rights
Institutions (NHRIs) can be accredited by
the Global Alliance of National Human
Rights Institutions (GANHRI).
The Paris Principles set out six main criteria
that NHRIs require to meet:
• Mandate and competence: a broad
mandate, based on universal human rights
norms and standards;
• Autonomy from Government;
• Independence guaranteed by statute or
Constitution;
• Pluralism;
• Adequate resources; and
• Adequate powers of investigation.
114. Who among the following was the first
Comptroller and Auditor general of India?
(1) A.K Chanda (2) V. Narahari Rao
(3) C.K. Daphtary (4) None of the above
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
116.
• V. Narahari Rao was the first Comptroller
and Auditor General (CAG) of India,
serving from 1948 to 1954. Rao was a civil
servant in the Indian Audit and Accounts
Service (IA&AS). In 1954, the Government
of India awarded him the Padma Bhushan,
the third highest civilian honour, for his
contributions to civil service.
115. Consider the following statements about the
Goods and Services Tax Council (GST Council):
A. The Union Minister of State in charge of
Revenue or Finance is a permanent
member of the GST Council.
B. The Vice-Chairman of the GST Council is
chosen by the members of the GST Council
from one amongst themselves.
C. All decisions in the GST Council shall be
taken by a simple majority of the weighted
votes of the members present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) A and B
(3) B and C (4) A and C
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
AMIGOS IAS
The Goods and Services Tax Council shall
consist of the following members:
The Union Finance Minister: Chairperson
• The Union Minister of State in-charge of
Revenue or Finance: Member
• The Minister in-charge of Finance or
Taxation or any other Minister nominated
by each State Government: Member
• The Members of the GST Council shall
choose one amongst themselves to be the
Vice-Chairperson of the Council for such
period as they may decide.
• Every decision of the GST Council shall be
taken at a meeting, by a majority of not
less than ¾ of the weighted votes of the
members present and voting, in
accordance with the following principles:
• Vote of the Central Government shall have
a weightage of one-third of the total votes
cast; and
• Votes of all the State Governments taken
together shall have a weightage of 2/3rd
of the total vote cast.
Consider the following statements with
regard to Advocate General of the state:
A. In the performance of his official duties,
the advocate general is entitled to appear
before any court of law within the state.
B. He has the right to speak and to take part
in the proceedings of both the Houses of
the state legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
• In the performance of his official duties,
the advocate general is entitled to appear
before any court of law within the state.
Further, he has the right to speak and to
take part in the proceedings of both the
Houses of the state legislature or any
committee of the state legislature of
which he may be named a member, but
without a right to vote. He enjoys all the
privileges and immunities that are
available to a member of the state
legislature.
36
117. Who among the following was the first Chief
Election Commissioner of India?
(1) Nagendra Singh
(2) Sukumar Sen
(3) Kalayan Sundaram
(4) S.L Shakdhar
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
• Sukumar Sen (2 January 1898 – 13 May
1963) was an Indian civil servant who was
the 1st Chief Election Commissioner of
India, serving from 21 March 1950 to 19
December 1958.
118. Article 76 of the Indian Constitution deals
with which of the following offices?
A. Attorney General of India
B. Solicitor General of India
C. Additional Solicitor General of India
Choose the correct code:
(1) A and C (2) A and B
(3) B and C (4) Only A
ANSWER: 4 121.
EXPLANATION:
 In addition to the AG, there are other law
officers of the Government of India. They
are the solicitor general of India and
additional solicitor general of India. They
assist the AG in the fulfilment of his official
responsibilities. It should be noted here
that only the office of the AG is created by
the Constitution. In other words, Article
76 does not mention about the solicitor
general and additional solicitor general.
119. The office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is
based on which one of the following?
(1) Parliamentary Commissioner of UK
(2) Ombudsman in Scandinavia
(3) Procurator General of Russia
(4) Council of State in France
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 The office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India
is based on the ombudsman. The Lokpal
and Lokayukta Act of 2013 established the 122.
Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for the
states.
120. Which of the following reasons was cited by
the Ashok Mehta Committee for the decline
of Panchayati Raj Institutions in India?
A. Role of Bureaucracy
B. Lack of Political Will
C. Lack of conceptual clarity
D. Lack of gender parity
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(1) A and D (2) B and C
(3) A, B and C (4) B, C and D
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
The committee cited the following reasons:
• Role of Bureaucracy
• Lack of political will
• Lack of conceptual clarity
• Haphazard programs
• Non-performance
• Rise of vested interests
• Lack of adequate financial resources
Information under the RTI Act, 2005 can be
provided in respect of
(1) National Security Council Secretariat
(2) Assam Rifles
(3) Border Road Development Board
(4) Border Road Organisation
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION;
 The Border Roads Development Board
(BRDB) is listed in Schedule II of the RTI
Act, 2005. However, the Border Roads
Organisation (BRO) is not listed and is
considered exempt from the RTI Act,
2005.
 There are 26 intelligence and security
organisations established by the Central
government such as the Intelligence
Bureau, Research and Analysis Wing,
Directorate of Enforcement, National
Technical Research Organisation, National
Security Council Secretariat that are
exempt under RTI.
73rd Constitutional Amendment is not
applicable to which among the following
states?
A. Meghalaya
B. Mizoram

AMIGOS IAS 37
 C. Nagaland  Communist Party of India- Marxist was
Choose the correct code: formed in 1964.
(1) A and B (2) B and C 125. Which one of the following is NOT a classified
(3) A and C (4) A, B and C category of political parties as outlined by the
ANSWER: 4 Election Commission of India?
EXPLANATION: (1) National Parties
 The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (2) State Recognised Parties
does not apply to the states of Nagaland, (3) Regional Parties
Meghalaya and Mizoram and certain (4) Registered Unrecognised Parties
other areas. The other areas include, (a) ANSWER: 3
the scheduled areas and the tribal areas in EXPLANATION:
the states; (b) the hill areas of Manipur for  Classification of political parties – (1) For
which district councils exist; and (c) the purposes of this Order and for such
Darjeeling district of West Bengal for other purposes as the Commission may
which Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council specify as and when necessity therefor
exists. arises, political parties are either
123. In which year "None of the above" (NOTA) recognised political parties or
button was introduced in Electronic Voting unrecognised political parties. (2) A
Machines recognised political party shall either be a
(1) 2009 (2) 2014 National party or a State party.
(3) 2011 (4) 2013 126. A constitutional government by definition is
ANSWER: 4 a
EXPLANATION: (1) Government by legislature
 Election Commission of India had (2) Popular government
introduced ‘NOTA’ – ‘None of the Above’ (3) Multi-party government
option on ballot papers displayed on (4) Limited Government
EVMs and all other ballot papers with ANSWER: 4
effect from 11th October, 2013, pursuant EXPLANATION:
to Supreme Court’s Order dated 27th
 Constitutional government is by definition
September, 2013.
limited government. It means government
124. Consider the following pairs with regard to conducted according to rules and
formation of political parties in India: principles, which are binding on all
Political Party Year of formation political actors, and which therefore help
A. All India Trinamool to constrain the unfettered exercise of
Congress 1998 power by separating or dividing it.
B. Bahujan Samaj Party 1984 127. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of
C. Communist Party of India can the transfer of tribal land to private
India – Marxist 1964 parties for mining be declared null and void?
Choose the correct code: (1) Third Schedule (2) Fifth Schedule
(1) A and C (2) B and C (3) Ninth Schedule (4) Twelfth Schedule
(3) A and B (4) All of the above ANSWER: 2
ANSWER: 4 EXPLANATION:
EXPLANATION:  According to the Samatha v. State of
 All India Trinamool Congress (AITC): Andhra Pradesh & Ors (1997) judgment
Launched on 1st January 1998 under the where the Supreme Court declared that
leadership of Mamata Banerjee. the transfer of tribal land to private
parties for mining was null and void under
 Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP): Formed in
the Fifth Schedule.
1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram.

AMIGOS IAS 38
128. M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-State
Relations has recommended the disposal of a
bill reserved for the consideration of the
Union Executive within
(1) Four months (2) Six months
(3) Eight months (4) Five months
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 The M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-
State Relations made a recommendation
regarding the disposal of a bill reserved for
the consideration of the Union Executive.
This means that according to the
recommendation made by the Punchhi
Commission, the Union Executive should
dispose of a bill within a period of six
months.
129. Consider the following statements
A. The election commission is assisted by
Deputy Election Commissioners who are
drawn from Civil Service and appointed by
the commission with tenure system
B. At the state level, the election commission
is assisted by the Chief Electoral Officer
who is appointed by the president
C. At the district level, the collector acts as
the district returning officer
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) A and C (2) B and C
(3) A and B (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 1
 The election commission is assisted by
Deputy Election Commissioners who are
drawn from Civil Service and appointed by
the commission with tenure system. They
are assisted, in turn, by the secretaries,
joint secretaries, deputy secretaries and
undersecretaries posted in the secretariat
of the commission
 At the state level, the election commission
is assisted by the Chief Electoral Officer
who is appointed by the Chief Election
Commissioner in consultation with the
state government.
 At the district level, the collector acts as
the district returning officer. He appoints
the returning officer for every
constituency in the district and presiding
officer for every polling booth in the
constituency.
130. Which among the following articles need to
be amended for conducting simultaneous
elections to Parliament and State Legislative
Assemblies in India?
A. Article 172 B. Article 83
C. Article 356 D. Article 87
E. Article 174
Choose the correct code:
(1) A, C and E (2) B, D and E
(3) A, B, C and E (4) A, B and E
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 Following articles need to be amended for
conducting simultaneous elections to
Parliament and State Legislative
Assemblies in India -
 Article 83 – Duration of Houses of
Parliament.
 Article 85 – Dissolution of the House of the
People by the President.
 Article 172 – Duration of the State
Legislatures.
 Article 174 – Dissolution of the State
Legislatures.
 Article 356 – Imposition of the President’s
rule in the States.
131. Consider the following statements with
regard to Electoral Bonds Scheme 2018:
A. Only those political parties registered
under section 29A of the Representation
of People Act, 1951 and secured not less
than one per cent of the votes polled in
the last General Election to the House of
the People or the Legislative Assembly are
eligible to receive funds through electoral
bonds.
B. They will be valid for a period of fifteen
days from the date of issue.
C. All transactions involving an electoral
bond will take place through the verified
account that the Election Commission of
India (ECI) will assign to the party.
D. The donor’s name will not appear on the
electoral bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) A, B and D (2) B, C and D

AMIGOS IAS 39
 (3) B and C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
 Any party that has obtained at least 1% of
the votes cast in the most recent general
election or assembly election and is
registered under section 29A of the
Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951
(43 of 1951), is eligible to receive electoral
bonds. All transactions involving an
electoral bond will take place through the
verified account that the Election
Commission of India (ECI) will assign to the
party.
 The donor’s name will not appear on the
electoral bonds. Therefore, it’s possible
that the political party is unaware of the
participant’s identity.
 The Electoral Bonds shall be valid for
Fifteen Calendar Days from the Date of
Issue ie: An Electoral Bond issued on 1st
March 2018 will be valid upto 15thMarch
2018.
 The Electoral Bonds can be redeemed only
by an eligible Political Party by depositing
the same in their Designated Bank
Account maintained with Authorised
Bank.
132. Which one of the following is not a level in
the Panchayati Raj structure in India?
(1) Gram Panchayat
(2) Block Samiti
(3) Mandal Committee
(4) Zila Parishad
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
The Panchayati Raj system in India has three
levels:
• Village level: Gram Panchayat
• Block level: Panchayat Samiti or Janpad
Panchayat
• District level: District Parishad
133. Which one of the following Commissions has
not examined the issue of removal of the
Governor of a State?
(1) Sarkaria Commission
(2) Thakkar Commission
(3) Venkatachailiah Commission
AMIGOS IAS
(4) Punchhi Commission
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 The Justice Thakkar Commission of Inquiry
was established to investigate the
circumstances leading to the assassination
of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. The
commission was led by Justice Manharlal
Pranlal Thakkar. The report recommended
a separate investigation into the
conspiracy angle behind the assassination.
134. Under the RTI Act, 2005, an applicant making
request for information shall be required to
give:
A. His contact details
B. His personal details
C. Reasons for requesting the information
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(1) Only A (2) B and C
(3) A and B (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
 According to the Right to Information Act,
2005, an applicant requesting information
is only required to provide their contact
details. They are not required to provide
any other personal details or reasons for
requesting the information.
135. The Judgment of the Supreme Court in
Peoples' Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of
India 2004 is related to which of the
following?
(1) Right to shelter
(2) Right against custodial violence
(3) Right to Information
(4) Right to speedy trail
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
 The Court observed that “the right to hold
a telephone conversation in the privacy of
one's home or office without interference
can certainly be claimed as 'right to
privacy'” and held that telephone-tapping
would violate Article 21 unless it was
permitted under a “procedure established
by law”.
136. Which of the following Amendment Acts
lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok
40
 Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of
States from 21 years to 18 years?
(1) The 58th Constitutional Amendment Act
(2) The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act
(3) The 63rd Constitutional Amendment Act
(4) The 71st Constitutional Amendment Act
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 The Sixty-first Amendment of the
Constitution of India, officially known as
The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment)
Act, 1988, lowered the voting age of
elections to the Lok Sabha and to the
Legislative Assemblies of States from 21
years to 18 years. This was done by
amending Article 326 of the Constitution,
which concerns elections to the Lok Sabha
and the Assemblies.
137. Who among the following was the chairman
of the first finance commission appointed in
1951?
(1) A.K Chanda (2) K.C. Neogy
(3) K. Santhanam (4) Y.B Chavan
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 K.C. Neogy was the chairman of the first
Finance Commission of India, which was
appointed in 1951. The commission was
established by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the
then law minister, to address imbalances
between the Centre and the States. The
commission's term was from 1952–1957.
138. Who among the following were members of
Sixteenth Finance Commission?
A. Anni Goerge Mathew
B. Niranjan Rajadhyaksha
C. Arvind Panagariya
Choose the correct code:
(1) A and C (2) C only
(3) B and C (4) All of the above
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
 The Sixteenth Finance Commission was
constituted on 31.12.2023 with Shri
Arvind Panagariya, former Vice-Chairman,
NITI Aayog as its Chairman.
Other full time members include-
AMIGOS IAS
• Shri. Ajay Narayan Jha, former member,
15th Finance Commission and former
Secretary, Expenditure
• Smt. Annie George Mathew, former
Special Secretary, Expenditure
• Dr. Niranjan Rajadhyaksha, Executive
Director, Artha Global
• Dr. Soumya Kanti Ghosh, Group Chief
Economic Advisor, State Bank of India
139. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals
with Finance Commission of India?
(1) 260 (2) 280
(3) 255 (4) 244
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
 Article 280 of the Constitution of India
establishes the Finance Commission. The
President is responsible for appointing the
Commission. The Commission's purpose is
to provide recommendations on the
distribution of tax revenues between the
Union and the States, and among the
States themselves.
140. ‘Community Development Programme’ was
started in which of the following years in
India?
(1) 1955 (2) 1952
(3) 1956 (4) 1948
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
• Community development in India was
initiated by Government of India through
Community Development Programme
(CDP) in 1952. The focus of CDP was on
rural communities. But, professionally
trained social workers concentrated their
practice in urban areas.
141. Consider the following statements with
regard to statutory grants:
A. Article 275 empowers the Parliament to
make grants to the states which are in
need of financial assistance.
B. They are charged on the consolidated
fund of India every year.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 3
41
 EXPLANATION:
• Article 275 empowers the Parliament to
make grants to the states which are in
need of financial assistance and not to
every state. Also, different sums may be
fixed for different states. These sums are
charged on the Consolidated Fund of India
every year. Apart from this general
provision, the Constitution also provides
for specific grants for promoting the
welfare of the scheduled tribes in a state
or for raising the level of administration of
the scheduled areas in a state including
the State of Assam. The statutory grants
under Article 275 (both general and
specific) are given to the states on the
recommendation of the Finance
Commission.
142. Consider the following statements:
A. A state cannot raise any loan without the
consent of the Centre, if there is still
outstanding any part of a loan made to the
state by the Centre.
B. The Central government can make loans
to any state or give guarantees in respect
of loans raised by any state.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
• The Central government can make loans
to any state or give guarantees in respect
of loans raised by any state. Any sums
required for the purpose of making such
loans are to be charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India.
• A state cannot raise any loan without the
consent of the Centre, if there is still
outstanding any part of a loan made to the
state by the Centre or in respect of which
a guarantee has been given by the Centre.
143. Who among the following was the chairman
of the 2nd Administrative Reforms
Commission?
(1) Shri Veerappa Moily
(2) Moraji Desai
(3) K Hanumanthayya
(4) M.C. Setalvad
AMIGOS IAS
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
• The Second Administrative Reforms
Commission (ARC) was constituted on
31.08,2005, as a Commission of Inquiry,
under the Chairmanship of Shri Veerappa
Moily for preparing a detailed blueprint
for revamping the public administrative
system.
144. Which among the following is the first inter-
state water disputes tribunal formed in
India?
(1) Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal
(2) Narmada Water Disputes Tribunal
(3) Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal
(4) Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal - I
ANSWER: 4
EXPLANATION:
• The Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal
(KWDT) was the first inter-state water
disputes tribunal in India, established in
1969. The tribunal was chaired by R.S.
Bachawat and involved the states of
Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and
Maharashtra.
145. Which of the items below does not fall in the
State list?
(1) Higher education
(2) Public health
(3) Agriculture
(4) Land and water
ANSWER: 1
EXPLANATION:
• Higher education in India is a joint
responsibility of the states and the central
government. The Indian constitution's
Seventh Schedule includes three lists:
Union, State, and Concurrent. Before
1976, education was the sole subject of
the states, with the central government
only concerned with standards and
coordination of higher and technical
education. The 42nd amendment to the
Constitution of India in 1976 placed
education in the Concurrent list, allowing
the central government to legislate on it.
146. Which one among the following political
parties came second in terms of seats won in
the first Lok Sabha election in India?
42
 (1) Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party C. Southern Zonal Council Chennai
(2) Communist Party of India D. Eastern Zonal Council Kolkata
(3) People’s Democratic Front Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
(4) Socialist Party matched?
ANSWER: 2 (1) A and D (2) A, B and C
EXPLANATION: (3) A, C and D (4) All of the above
• The Indian National Congress (INC) won ANSWER: 4
364 seats. They were followed by EXPLANATION:
Independents, winning a total of 37 seats.
The Communist Party of India (CPI) and
the Socialist Party (India) followed with 16
and 12 seats respectively.
147. First democratically elected communist party
government formed in which of the following
states in India?
(1) Tamil Nadu (2) Manipur
(3) Kerala (4) West Bengal
ANSWER: 3
EXPLANATION:
• The first democratically elected
communist government in India was 150. Who among the following is the chairman of
formed in Kerala in 1957, when the North Eastern Council?
Communist Party of India (CPI) won the (1) Minister of Development of North Eastern
state elections. The CPI became the Region
largest opposition party in the general
(2) President
elections of 1957, and E. M. S.
(3) Union Home Minister
Namboodiripad became the first chief
minister of Kerala. The government was (4) Prime Minister
formed with the support of five ANSWER: 3
independent legislators, but was unable EXPLANATION:
to complete its full five-year term. • The Union Home Minister is ex-Officio
148. Article 356 was used for the first time in Chairman and the Minister DoNER is the
which of the following states? ex-Officio Vice-Chairman of the NEC.
(1) Tamil Nadu (2) Pubjab
(3) Karnataka (4) Assam
ANSWER: 2
EXPLANATION:
• The state of Punjab was the first state to
have a state emergency declared in 1951.
The state emergency was declared under
Article 356, also known as President's
Rule. The article allows the president to
impose presidential rule in any state
under the recommendation of the state's
governor.
149. Consider the following pairs:
Zonal Council Headquarters
A. Central Zonal Council Allahabad
B. Western Zonal Council Mumbai

AMIGOS IAS 43