Pediatrics Miscellaneous topics

All PYQ before 2020 (4th + 6th year)

1) What isn’t a cause of hypokelmia:

a) CF
b) +Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Note: 95% of CAH cases are caused by 21-OH def., 2/3 of which are
salt-wasting associated with: Hyperkalemia, Hyponatremia and
metabolic acidosis.

2) What is the most dangerous electrolyte disturbance

a) +Hyperkalemia

3) What is the feared side effect of loop diuretics

a) +Hypokalemia

4) Isn’t a complication (or side effect) of steroids

a) Hypertension
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Short stature
d) +all are true

5) Cornerstone treatment in snake bite:

a) +Anti-venom
b) Incision and drainage
c) Antibiotics

6) A 6 months old boy developed weepy, crusted dermatitis around his

nose, mouth, perianal area and to some extent to his hands & foot
about 4 weeks after being weaned from breast milk to infant
formula. Recently had diarrhea and stopped gaining weight. Most
consistent with deficiency of
a) copper
b) vitamin A
c) niacin (pellagra)
d) +Zinc
e) essential fatty acid
7) Long term use corticosteroid effect except:
a) avasclar necrosis of femoral head
b) hypertension
c) +hypoglycemia
d) glaucoma/cataract

8) Concentration-dependent drug:
a) imipenem
b) +amikacin

Note: CONCENTRATION dependent drugs: Fluoroquinolones,

Aminoglycosides.

9) Lowering potassium:
a) salbutamol
b) +Kayexalate
c) Glucose and insulin
d) NaCHO3
e) Ca-gluconate

Note: Kayexalate the only one that actually lowers K level,, Ca

gluconate cardio-protective,, the other shift K to the intracellular
compartment.

10) Atopic dermatitis except:

a) in extensor areas & face
b) pruritus
c) family history
d) will have eczema until adult

answer: looks like all true??

Note: the distribution in infancy is mostly at the face, scalp &
extensors. In long standing disease in adults it is more at the flexural
aspects. And often have remission in adults but skin left prone to
itching and inflammation when exposed to irritants.

11) You manage snake bite by :

a) Analgesia
b) +Anti venom
c) Fasciotomy
12) What is the rate of cardiopulmonary resuscitation CPR ?
a) 5:1
b) 15:2

Note: CPR rate:

Newborn = 3:1. Infant & small child = 5:1. Child: 15:2. Universal = 30:2

13) All are associated with metabolic alkalosis except :

a) +Septicemia
b) +Diarrhea
c) c) Vomiting

Note: Both associated with metabolic acidosis.

14) A case of abdominal cramps , on ECG prolonged P-R interval and

hyperacute T-wave ( all suggestive of hyperkalemia) what is the
best initial step in treatment :
a) +Calcium gluconate injection

15) A case of wasp bite ( Thept has tachycardia , tachypnea and

hypotension) , immediate tt is :
a) +Epinephrine IM
b) Intubation
c) Fluid hydration

16) Which of the following drugs is concentration dependent :

a) +Vancomycin

Note: CONCENTRATION dependent: Fluroquinolone, Amiglycosides

17) A question about bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa , one is

true :
a) +Anorexia is associated with > 15% wt decrease
b) b) Anorexia pts are usually active

18) Skin acne treated by:

a) +Benzol and Vit. A

19) For screening, you need a test that has high :

 a) +Sensitivity
b) Specifity
c) Positive predictive value
d) Negative predictive value

20) A child with eye pain upon movement and affection of

movement, swelling and redness above the orbit , what is urDx :
a) Periorbital cellulitis
b) +Orbital cellulitis

Note: please read carefully and make sure to master the special
antibiotics now and forever; there are huge antibiotics games on
the way:

1: Anti-Atypical pneumonia:
1) Macrolides: Erythromycin, Azithromycin & Clarithromycin.
2) Tetracyclines: Tetracycline and her sisters.

2: Anti-Clostridium defficile:
1) Vancomycin
2) Metronidazole

3: Anti-MRSA:
1) Glycopeptides: Vancomycin & Teicoplanin
2) Clindamycin: special advantage by hunting toxins released in 3)
Staphylococcus Scalded Skin Syndrome.
3) 5th Gen Cephalosporin: Ceftroline
4) Trimethoprim-Sulfamethaxole
5) Linezolid
6) Doxycycline

4: Anti-Anaerobes:
1) Metronidazole
2) Clindamycin
3) Carbapenems
4) Penicillins: Ticarcillin, Ampicillin, Pipercillin.
5) Beta-lactamase inhibitors: Clavulanic acid, Sulbactum,
Tazobactam
 5: Anti-Pseudomonal:
1) Ureidopenicillins: Pipercillin, Carbenicillin, Ticarcillin.
2) One 3rd gen Cephalosporin: Ceftazidime.
2) One 4th gen Cephalosporin: Cefepime.
4) Carbapenems: Meropenem & her sisters. except: Ertapenem!
5) Aminogycosides
6) Flouroguinolones: Ciprofloxacin

6: Anti-Actinobacter: Colistin

21) A drug that is a 3rd generation cephalosporins and has

antipseudomonal effect:
a) +Ceftazidime
b) Ceftaxime
c) Cefepime
d) Cefdinin

22) A drug that is not given below the age of 12 Years:

a) +Ciprofloxacin
b) Tobramycin

23) A case of paracetamole poisoning, what to do:

a) +N-acytel cysteine

24) ABGs: PO2 62, PCO2 50, HCO3 .., pH 7.29

a) +Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
b) Respiratory acidosis
c) Metabolic acidosis

25) Not a complication of exchange transfusion:

a) +Hypokalemia
Note: Exchange transfusion S/E: -Fluid overload.. –NEC.. –
Thrombocytopenia.. –Hyperviscosity.. - Rebound hypoglycemia.. -
Hypothermia.. -Hypo/HTN.. HyperKalemia

26) A case of falling down or syncope in school after nausea and

feeling something funny n head, while with choral on stage:
a) +Vasovagal attack
b) Panic attack
 c) Seizure disorder
27) Used in pediatrics emergency:
a) +100% O2
b) Adrenaline not used endotrachially
c) NaHCO3 immediately

28) All can be seen in shock, except:

a) +Urine output 2.5 ml/kg/hr

Note: less than 0.5 ml/kg/hr

29) O2 shift to the right, one is true:

a) Increased O2 affinity
b) +Increased O2 diffusion
c) Tissue..

30) 30-A case of pin worms, what to do:

a) +Mebendazole for the patient and the family

31) How can you differentiate between compensated and non-

compensated shock:
a) +Blood pressure
b) Mental state
c) Urine output
d) Capillary refill

32) Which of the followings is a correct combination:

a) +Vancomycin – red man syndrome
b) Ampicillin – neuropathy

Note: Vancomycin S/E:

-Hypotension.. –Flushing.. –Stomatitis.. -Bitter taste

33) What is the metabolic abnormality in this ABGs: pH 7.2, CO2: 60 ,

PO2: 60, HCO3 18
a) +Metabolic and respiratory acidosis

34) One of the following drugs is not used in ER to treat severe HTN:
a) B-Blocker
b) +Nitroprusside
 c) Hydraazine
d) Diazoxide
e) Labetolol

35) True about NSAIDs:

a) +Decrease PG synthesis

36) 36-Paracetamol toxicity is mainly on:

a) +Liver
b) Kidneys
c) GIT

37) A patient presented with abdominal pain, on ECG: hyperacute T

waves and wide QRS complexes. The best initial step in
management is:
a) +IV Cagluconate
b) Insulin and glucose
c) Salbutamol
d) Resin

38) A child with HR: 260, RR: 60, BP: 53/30, moderate respiratory
distress, poor capillary refill. The best management is:
a) +DC shock (synchronized cardioversion)
b) Dopamine
c) Digoxin
d) Verapamil

39) Vancomycin is used in meningitis to:

a) +Cover resistant strept pneumonia

40) To decrease staph aureus infections:

a) +Wash hands
b) Mask and gown
c) Quarantine if positive culture

41) Furesmide causes :

a) +Hypocalcemia

42) Which is mismatched(false) :

a) +enalapril + hypokalemia
 b) furesmide + nephrocalcinosis
43) A child had brain surgery 3 days ago , no apparent edema but his
weight increased 2 kg during his illness ( 3 days ) , the cause is :
a) Acute renal failure
b) +SIADH
c) Overhydration

44) A child has red congested throat , difficulty in feeding and

drinking , the cause is:
a) +6-mercaptopurine

45) Vancomycin is given because :

a) +Strep. Resistance to penicillin

46) Child has cyanosis releaved by crying , What to do :

a) +Thin cut CT scan
Note: it is a case of choanal atresia

47) Mismatch :
a) +Organophosphate antidote is adrenaline

48) Antipseudomonal effect:

a) +Cefepime

49) A patient has leukemia , came with fever , decreased WBCs ,

central line cath. , what to give :
a) +Cefepime and vancomycin
b) Ceftriaxone and vancomycin

50) Definition of positive predictive value

a) +is the proportion of subjects with positive test results who are
correctly diagnosed

51) A question about antibiotics :

a) +MIC should be increased for concentration dependent drug.

52) Not an essential investigation for a child with HTN

a) +IVU
b) Echo
c) BUN
 d) Renal US
53) A 5 year old child complaining of fever for 3 weeks during which
history, examination and basic investigations didn't reveal the
cause. The least likely cause is:
a) +Pyelonephritis
b) Bacterial endocarditis
c) Salmonella enteritis
d) Lymphoma
e) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

54) A child presenting with weakness and palpitations. K:8, Cr:350,

HCO 3:5, BUN: 25. The best next step is:
a) +IV Cagluconate
b) Dialysis
c) NaHCO3
d) Glucose and insulin infusion
e) B2 agonist

55) In a 12 year old boy with chronic hypertension of 145/105

mmHg, which of the followings goes with secondary cause:
a) Creatinine clearance of 90 ml/min
b) +24 hr urine collection of 1.5 g protein
c) Higher blood pressure in the lower limbs
d) K:3.9 meq/L
e) Evidence of LVH on ECG

56) The positive predictive value of a test mostly depends on:

a) Low false positive
b) Low false negative
c) +The prevalence of the disease the test detects in the population
d) accuracy of the test
e) The sample tested

57) A 15 year old boy presenting with decreased level of

consciousness, weakness, flushing, meiosis, and bradycardia. One of
the followings should be his initial management:
a) Naloxone
b) +Atropine
c) Glucagone
d) Flumazenil
58) A 2 Year old child brought to the ER because of altered level of
consciousness, he was found with an open bottle of chewable
aspirin. He had one episode of vomiting. He is tachypnic and
tachycardic. pH: 7.45, CO2:25, HCO3:18 and salycilate level is
pending. Management is:
a) +Activated charcoal
b) IV bicarbonate
c) Monitor in ER
d) Level of salysilate after 6 hrs
e) Ipecac

59) A child with kerosene ingestion. Management is:

a) +Check oxygenation
b) Induce vomiting
c) Oral steroids
d) Monitor in ICU without doing anything
e) Gastric lavage

60) Which of the following complications of poisons and its antidote

is wrong:
a) Organophosphate – atropine
b) CN poisoning – Na nitrate
c) +Methimazole – flumazinil
d) Paracetamole – N-acetylcystiene
e) CO – 100% O2

61) A child with alkaline ingestion (chlorex). What do you counsel

the parents:
a) +Risk of esophageal stricture

62) One of the following combinations of drugs and its side effect s
wrong:
a) Enalapril – hyperkalemia
b) Theophiline – seizures
c) +Furosemide – hypercalcemia
d) Hydralazine – Lupus-like syndrome

63) One of the followings is not a cause of normal anion gap

metabolic acidosis:
a) Diarrhea
 b) Uretral diversion
c) +Proprionic academia (DKA in the other form)
d) Hypoaldestronism

Note: causes of normal AG metabolic acidosis:

1-RTA , 2- diarreha 3-acetazolmide amphotercin 4-hyperalimenation ,
saline 5-pancreatic fistula Wide Anion Gap (WAG): MUDPILES: M:
Methanol.. U: Uremia.. D: DKA.. P: Paraldehyde.. I: Infx (sepsis).. L:
Lactic acidosis.. E: Ethanol.. S: Salicylate acis

64) In treating pharyngitis, one of the following pharmacodynamic

properties is important in selecting antibiotic used:
a) The drug can reach the pharynx
b) +The organism suspected has good susceptibility to the antibiotic
c) Is not metabolized in the body
d) Route of excretion
e) Minimal 1st hepatic pass

65) One is used for MRSA:

a) +Teicoplanin

Note: Vancomycin and teicoplanin are glycopeptide antibiotics used

to treat MRSA infections.

66) Concentration dependent drug

a) +Azithromycin

67) Mismatch between toxin and antitode

a) Methanol – ethanol
b) Iron – deferoxamine
c) Warfarin – FFP
d) +Ibuprofen – protamine

68) Not a cause of miosis

a) +Atropine
b) Diazepam
c) Opioids
d) Organophosphate
69) Bradycardia , confused , hypothermia, lacrimation , salivation ,
miosis
a) +Give atropine

Note: case of organophosphate toxicity .. Organophosphate S/E:

DUMBELLS
D: Diarrhea.. U: Urination.. M: Miosis.. B: Bradycardia.. E: Emesis.. L:
Lacrimation.. L: Lethargy.. S: Salivation

70) You do not do screening test in:

a) +Expensive test
b) Easy to treat
c) Very common
d) Treatment has very good prognosis

71) A male with firm mobile unilateral mass solid below nipple :
a) Gynecomastia
b) +Fibrocystic change
c) Lobular cancer
d) Ductal cancer

72) A child with acetaminophen poisoning for 1 hr , one is true :

a) +Only one pack doesn’t cause poisoning
b) Vomiting means irreversible liver damage
c) Activated charcoal is contraindicated
d) You wait on antidote until getting other info

Drugs and Antidotes:

Digoxin = Digiband or Digifab
Adenosine = Theophyline
Theophyline = B-blockers
CCB = CaCl2
Iron = Deferoxamine mesylate
Organophosphate = Atropine / Pralidoxime
Cynide = Nitrite (Na & Amyl) or Thiosulfate
Methanol = Ethanol
Benzodiazepine = Flumazenil
CO poisoning = 100% O2
Opioid = Naloxone hydrochloride
Paracetamol (acetamenophene) = N-acetylcystine
 Oral hypoglycemic agent = Octreotide
Heparin = Protamine sulfate
Warfarin = FFP and Vit-K
Isoniazide (INH) = Pyridoxine (Vit-B6)
Anti-cholinergic = Physostigmine sulfate
Methotreaxe = Leucovorin and Folic acid resque
CCB and Beta blockers overdose = Glucagon and Insuline

73) All of the following in septic pt expect:

a) +pulse 70
b) Bp 70/50
c) capillary refill 4 second
d) acidosis

74) Fever and chemotherapy-induced neutropeia all drugs should be

given empirically pending blood cuture results except:
a) Merpenem
b) cefipim
c) Ticarcillin/clavulanate
d) Piperacillin/tazobactam
e) +Cefetaxime

75) Question about hand washing. Which is incorrect?

a) before and after entering the pt room
b) all parts of the hand must be washed ( between fingers , under
the nail)
c) use the soap and water
d) +used only to prevent bacterial infection

76) Whats true?

a) +negative direct coomb test role it out
b) IVIG can be given
c) doesn't happen in first 24 hour
d) doesnt happen in first pregnancy

77) Drug that cause gingival and teeth discoloration ?

a) +Tetracycline
78) how to avoid vancomycin flushing side effect:
a) +decrease infusion rate
b) pre- medication anti histamine
c) stop the medication

79) Penicillins are used in treatment of all of the following except:

a) Treponema Pallidum
b) Strep pneumonia
c) Staph. aureus
d) +H.Influenza

80) Pertussis tt in neonates?

a) +Azithromycoin

81) Case of organophosphate toxicity?

a) +Atropine

82) Kerosene ingestion, cough, tachypnea, what to do?

a) +Admission for observation

83) In organophosphates poisoning; all of the following findings are

expected to be seen except:
a) Increased lacrimation
b) Increased Salivation
c) +Mydriasis
d) Bronchospasm
e) Bradycardia

84) A picture of penicillin allergy and the question was which drug to
give safely instead :
a) oxacillin
b) +clindamycin
c) cephalosporins

85) Which drug you do not give to <12 yrs?

a) +Fluoroquinolones
86) In which of the following cases you don't give anti-
pseudomonals (something like that):
a) +Community acquired meningitis
b) Diabetic with greenish sputum
c) Cystic fibrosis exacerbation
d) Otitis externa

87) Most common cause of sepsis:

a) +GBS
b) staph. Aureus
c) meningococcal

88) Giemsa stain..Neutrophils:

a) +Benign pustular menlanosis

89) Conjunctivitis and his brother had unilater eye ... and was asking
about the most caustive agent :
a) +S.pnemonia
b) m.pnemonia

90) Which of the following is the most common presentation of cat

scratch fever?
a) Fever of unknown origin
b) +Swollen regional lymph nodes
c) Fever, vomiting and

91) Which of the following antibiotics doesn’t cover Pseudomonas

Aeruginosa?
a) +Ceftriaxone
b) Meropenem
c) Ceftazidime
d) Cefepime

92) A young patient presents with soft tissue infection in his lower
limbs. Tissue cultures are positive for MRSA. The patient is stable.
Which of the following agents can be used in his treatment?
a) +Clindamycin
b) Other choices included antibiotics with no MRSA coverage
93) A 7 year old patient presents with sore throat and fever for the
last few days. On examination he has palpable cervical nodes and
small amount of exudates on his tonsils. His rapid antigen detection
test for Strep is positive. On a previous occasion, his mother reports
that her child had a skin rash and swelling of his lips after
administration of amoxicillin. Which of the following is true
regarding management of this patient?
a) Give the patient amoxicillin
b) +Give the patient azithromycin
c) There is no need for any antibiotics
d) Give the patient cefuroxime

94) A patient with a central line infection is started on vancomycin.

You suspect that he is developing red man’s syndrome. Which of
the following could have prevented this adverse reaction?
a) +Increasing infusion time and premedication with antihistamine
b) Decreasing the dose of vancomycin
c) Measurement of trough doses of vancomycin

95) One is true about a drug and it's side effect :

a) +Bleomycin.... Pulmonary fibrosis.

96) The most common mode of transmission of brucellosis among

the veterinarians:
a) conjunctival spread
b) +subcutaneous injection
c) placental products

97) WHICH of these is the most important in the antibiotics:

a) +wide therapeutic index
b) active metabolites
c) high bioavailability
d) renal excretion

98) Most effective third generation cephalosporin against

streptococcus infection
a) +ceftriaxone
b) ceftazidime
99) A case of meningitis and gram stain gram positive diplococi what
to give:
a) vancomycin and acyclovir
b) +vancomycin and ceftriaxone
c) IM penicillin G and steroid.

100) 9 years old Patient with fever , persistent vomiting , crepitation

,RR>30 what to do
a) +admit him and give iv AB
b) Discharge and reassure
c) discharge and give vancomycin

101) About screening test, which is wrong

a) low false negative
b) rapid response
c) +no effective TT for the disease

102) Contraindicated to do LP
a) +Platelet 15000
b) Wbc 200

103) All the following causes miosis except:

a) +Atropine
b) Benzodiazepines
c) Organophosphates

104) Not pharmacokinetics of antibiotics: Metabolism of antibiotics

a) +MAC
b) Volume of distribution

105) All the following regarding newborn examination are true EXCEPT:
a) 10% of infants have different degrees of congenital anomalies
b) +In healthy newborns, the mother should be present during
examination
c) A more detailed examination should be performed in the first 24
hours
d) High risk deliveries should be examined in the delivery room
106) Newborn child had a heart rate of 40 and poor respiratory effort
and gasping after stimulation and drying. What is your immediate
next step:
a) Administer medication
b) Chest compressions
c) Oxygen through nasal cannula
d) +Endotracheal intubation
e) Face mask ventilation

Note: if HR <40 do the following:

1) Intubate if not already done
2) Chest compressions
3) Coordinate with PPV (positive pressor ventilation)
4) 100% O2
5) ECG Monitor
6) Consider emergency UVC (umbilical venous catheter)

107) Which of the following should be admitted:

a) +2 week old neonate with fever

108) The mother is consulting you about neural tube defects. Which of
the following is your recommendation to her
a) Give B12 and folate
b) +Give folate before conception
c) Give folate during first trimester

109) All of the following cause advanced bone age except

a) Thyrotoxicosis
b) +Constitutional growth delay
c) Simple Obesity

110) All of the following are abnormal except

a) +Babinski’s sign at 6 months

111) Most common cause of gross hematuria

a) +UTI
b) Trauma
c) Glomerulonephritis
112) A child born to a mother was diagnosed with vertebral, renal, and
a large VSD. Which of the following is the most likely?
a) +Alcohol consumption by mother
b) CMV

113) All are risk factors for neonatal jaundice weeks newborn except:
a) ABO incompatibility
b) +Exclusive bottle feeding
c) Jaundice at the first day
d) Age 35-36 weeks
e) History of phototherapy in his brother

114) Which of the following should be admitted

a) +2 week old neonate with fever

115) Which of the following antibiotics cover Pseudomonas , Staph

aureus, E. Coli:
a) Ceftazidime
b) +Cefepime
c) Ceftriaxone

116) All of the following are correctly matched poison and antidote
EXCEPT:
a) +Benzodiazepines and flumazenil
b) Ibuprofen and protamine
c) Warfarin and vitamin K

117) A patient presented with miosis, bradycardia…. What is the

appropriate antidote to give:
a) +Atropine

118) All of the following can cause erythema nodosum EXCEPT:

a) Primary TB
b) Rheumatological diseases
c) Sarcoidosis
d) Yersinia enterocolitica
e) +Typhoid fever

119) Which of the following is true about brucellosis

a) +Nonspecific signs and symptoms
120) Staph. aureus causes all of the following except
a) Endocarditis
b) +UTI
c) Pneumonia
d) Septic arthritis
e) Cellulitis

121) Mechanism of action for cephalosporins:

a) +binds to penicillin binding proteins & inhibits cell wall synthesis
b) bind to 30s ribosomal subunit
c) bind to 50s ribosomal subunit

122) 41) One of the following cannot be used to treat MRSA:

a) +meropenem
b) linezolid
c) vancomycin
d) trimethoprim sulfa
e) clindamycin

123) For paracetamol toxicity, what would you give:

a) +N-acetyl cysteine
b) calcium channel blocker
c) naloxone

124) A patient is having stereotyped movements and speech delay.

Which of the following is true?
a) +behavioral therapy is needed
b) this condition tends to resolve spontaneously
c) typical dysmorphic features are expected
d) anti-convulsants can be beneficial

Note: it was a history going with autism

125) All of the following occur in a patient with horner syndrome post
cardiac surgery except:
a) Miosis
b) Anhydrosis
c) ptosis
 d) +mydriasis

126) All of the following poisoning causes mydriasis except:

a) cyanide
b) ropineAt
c) Cocaine
d) +Benzodiazepine
e) Carbon Monoxide

127) Most common poisoning deaths in children due to:

a) Salicylates
b) Organophosphate
c) +Iron

128) Not anti MRSA drug:

a) Meropenem

129) A patient on Vancomycin developed redness and itching,

management:
a) +slow the infusion rate and antihistamines

130) Horner syndrome component except:

a) Ptosis
b) Anhydrosis
c) Miosis
d) +Mydriasis

131) All following could be caused by E.coli, except:

a) pyelonephritis
b) Cystitis
c) +osteomyelitis or arthritis

132) Pt come bcz of snake bite, what you will not do?
a) Reassure the patient
b) Firm bandage
c) Cannula on the other hand
d) Incision and sucking
e) +Immobilization of affected limb

133) Not in chronic lead poisoning:

 a) proteinuria
b) basophilic stippling of red blood ceacid
c) increased amino levulinic acid
d) Increased coproporphyrin in urine

Note: according to different sources, all of them happen!

134) enterococcus not covered by:

a) vancomycin
b) +Ceftriaxone

135) Ampicillin not used to cover;

a) +p. aeruginosa

136) A CASE OF SALYCALATE poisoning , which of the following is false ?

a) Tinnitus
b) +Hypothermia
c) Respiratory alkalosis
d) Convusion

137) False about red man syndrome :

a) Not type 1 hypersensivity reaction; so it doesn't need to label the
patient as vancomycin allergy.
b) +it induced by mast cell
c) prevented by slow infusion
d) can be curable and preventable

138) Early onset neonatal sepsis :

a) +aminoglycoside + ampicillin

139) empirical therapy in meningitis

a) +vancomycin + ceftriaxone

140) all have excellent coverage for anaerobe except:

a) +ceftriaxone
b) meropenem
c) ertapenem
d) ampicillin sulbactam
e) amoxicillin clavulanate
141) Wrong about kerosene poisoning:
a) gastric lavage needed urgently
b) can develop bacterial infection in 48 hours
c) can develop chemical pneumonitis
d) lungs can produce carbons (something like that)

142) Wrong about paracetamol poisoning:

a) Elevated INR indicates bad prognosis
b) +Fulminant liver disease within 48h
c) Can give N-acetylcysteine after 24h
d) Kidney injury

143) Which is wrong about AML:

a) AML M7 is associated with CD33
b) AML M3 has t(15;17)
c) +Something else

144) A few months old baby who is lethargic and hypotonic. He has
wide anterior fontanelle, and umbilical hernia. He has constipation
and has coarse cry. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) +Congenital hypothyroidism

145) A few months old baby who is lethargic and hypotonic. He has
wide anterior fontanelle, and umbilical hernia. He has constipatin
and has coarse cry. The test that will reveal the diagnosis is:
a) +TSH
Note: we use T4 for screening, TFT in diagnosing.

146) A neonate presenting with lethargy and weakness. His sister died
at similar age and had cataract and E.coli sepsis. The mode of
inheritance in their disease is:
a) +AR
b) AD
c) New mutation
Note: Galactosemia

147) One is wrong about infantile colic:

a) +Is caused by cow’s milk allergy
 b) 2 weeks to 3 months of age

c) Note: it's caused by lactose intolerance

148) on which age the birth weight will be double?

a) +5 months
Done by: Cilmi Faradheere