Cell and Molecular Biology Binder Ready Version Concepts and Experiments 8th Edition Karp Test Bank instant download all chapter

Cell and Molecular Biology Binder
Ready Version Concepts and

Experiments 8th Edition Karp Test Bank
Go to download the full and correct content document:
https://testbankdeal.com/product/cell-and-molecular-biology-binder-ready-version-con
cepts-and-experiments-8th-edition-karp-test-bank/
More products digital (pdf, epub, mobi) instant
download maybe you interests ...
Cell and Molecular Biology Concepts and Experiments 7th

Edition Karp Test Bank
https://testbankdeal.com/product/cell-and-molecular-biology-
concepts-and-experiments-7th-edition-karp-test-bank/
Cell and Molecular Biology Concepts and Experiments 7th

Edition Karp Solutions Manual
https://testbankdeal.com/product/cell-and-molecular-biology-
concepts-and-experiments-7th-edition-karp-solutions-manual/
Molecular Cell Biology 8th Edition Lodish Solutions

Manual
https://testbankdeal.com/product/molecular-cell-biology-8th-
edition-lodish-solutions-manual/
Molecular Cell Biology 7th Edition Lodish Test Bank
https://testbankdeal.com/product/molecular-cell-biology-7th-
edition-lodish-test-bank/
Molecular Biology of The Cell 5th edition Alberts Test
Bank
https://testbankdeal.com/product/molecular-biology-of-the-
cell-5th-edition-alberts-test-bank/
Molecular Biology of the Cell 6th Edition Bruce Alberts

Test Bank
https://testbankdeal.com/product/molecular-biology-of-the-
cell-6th-edition-bruce-alberts-test-bank/
Campbell Biology Concepts and Connections 8th Edition

Reece Test Bank
https://testbankdeal.com/product/campbell-biology-concepts-and-
connections-8th-edition-reece-test-bank/
Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 8th Edition

Johnson Test Bank
https://testbankdeal.com/product/human-biology-concepts-and-
current-issues-8th-edition-johnson-test-bank/
Essential Cell Biology 4th edition Alberts Test Bank
https://testbankdeal.com/product/essential-cell-biology-4th-
edition-alberts-test-bank/
Package Title: Test Bank
Course Title: Karp8e
Chapter Number: 8
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) When electron micrographs were first taken of the cell interior, what kinds of membranous structures were seen?
a) membrane-bound vesicles of varying diameter, containing material of different electron density

b) long channels bounded by membranes and radiating through the cytoplasm
c) an interconnected network of canals
d) stacks of flattened, membrane-bound sacs called cisternae
e) All of these are correct.
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 8.1 Compare and contrast the biosynthetic pathway with the endocytic pathway, listing their
components. Section Reference: Section 8.1 An Overview of the Endomembrane System
2) What is the name for a brief incubation of a tissue with radioactivity during which labeled amino acids are
incorporated into protein?
a) chase
b) pulse
c) pulse-chase
d) labelard
e) statin
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 8.2 Describe five approaches used to study the endomembrane system. Section Reference: Section
8.2 A Few Approaches to the Study of Endomembranes
3) A tissue has been briefly labeled with radiolabeled amino acids. It is then transferred to a medium containing
unlabeled amino acids. This can be done several times with different tissue samples for varying periods of time.
What is the entire procedure called?
a) chase
b) pulse
c) pulse-chase
d) labelard
e) statin
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
4) In a pulse-chase procedure, if the chase is longer, which statement below correctly describes the location of the
radioactively labeled proteins in the cell?
a) closer to the synthesis site

b) farther from the nucleus
c) farther from the synthesis site
d) closer to the nucleus
e) farther from the mitonchondria
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
5) Which procedure below would lead to the visualization of the dynamic movements of specific proteins as they move
through a single living cell? The proteins can be seen through the microscope eyepiece and the cells do not have to be
killed for the protein to be detected.
a) pulse-chase
b) fusion of the green fluorescent protein gene to the protein that is to be tracked through the cell
c) fusion of the green fluorescent protein gene to the gene encoding the protein to be tracked through the cell
d) pulse-chase using fluorescent antibodies
e) all of these are correct
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
6) Cells are infected with a vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV) strain in which a viral gene (VSVG) is fused to the green
fluorescent protein gene. When the chimeric protein is synthesized, what pathway does it follow from synthesis until it
leaves the cell?
a) RER, Golgi complex, plasma membrane, viral envelopes

b) RER, Golgi complex, viral envelopes, plasma membrane
c) Golgi complex, RER, plasma membrane, viral envelopes
d) RER, Golgi complex, mitochondria, plasma membrane, viral envelopes
e) RER, mitochondria, Golgi complex, plasma membrane, viral envelopes
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
7) Cells are infected with a virus carrying a temperature-sensitive mutant VSVG gene that encodes a protein that cannot
leave the ER of infected cells grown at restrictive temperatures. Thus, at higher temperatures, ______________.
a) VSVG protein heads immediately for the Golgi complex.

b) VSVG protein cannot leave the ER.
c) VSVG protein leaves the ER immediately.
d) All of the manufactured VSVG protein leaves the ER synchronously.
e) VSVG protein is degraded rapidly and never passes to the Golgi complex.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard
8) TB 8.008 Elevated temperatures at which temperature-sensitive mutants do not work are called ________
temperatures.
a) restrictive
b) permissive
c) temperature-sensitive
d) frame-shift
e) point
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
9) When cells are homogenized, the cytomembrane system is broken into fragments, the ends of which can fuse to form
small membranous spheres called ________.
a) vacuoles
b) victuals
c) vesicles
d) nuclei
e) endosomes
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
10) The separation of organelles or vesicles derived from different organelles is called ______.
a) cell division
b) mitosis
c) meiosis
d) subcellular fractionation
e) cell ostentation
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
11) The endomembrane system when homogenized is broken up into vesicles, which are heterogeneous but similar in
size. These vesicles can be purified and, after purification, often retain their biological activity. They are collectively
referred to as _________.
a) endosomes
b) microsomes
c) ribosomes
d) minisomes
e) lysosomes
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
12) Enzymes can be purified from the microsomal fraction. They can then be used as antigens to make antibodies.
The antibodies can then be exposed to cells and later visualized in the electron microscope. What allows them to be
seen in the electron microscope?
a) attachment of amino acids to the antibody

b) attachment of gold particles to the antibodies
c) attachment of nonradioactive amino acids to the antibodies
d) degradation of the antibodies
e) shrinkage of the antibodies
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 8.9 Explain the evidence supporting the cisternal maturation model and the vesicular transport
model of Golgi function. Section Reference: Section 8.9 The Golgi Complex
13) Studies of cell physiology that occur in test tubes that do not contain whole cells are called ______.
a) in vivo systems
b) cell-free systems
c) test tube systems
d) onsite systems
e) cellonic systems
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 8.2 Discuss the laboratory methods used to detect proteins found in the cell.
Section Reference: Section 8.2 A Few Approaches to the Study of Endomembranes
14) Why are yeast cells often used to study eukaryotic gene mutations affecting secretion and other cytomembrane
processes?
a) They have only a few genes.

b) They are small and single-celled and can be cultured easily.
c) They can be grown as haploid organisms so mutants are easily seen.
d) Deficiencies in yeast cells caused by mutants are easily detected.
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
15) You incubate liposomes with a series of purified proteins normally found in the coats of cell transport vesicles.
After adding one of them to the liposome mixture, budding of vesicles from the liposomes began. What does this
mean?
a) Liposomes cause the protein to denature.

b) The protein is involved in the initiation of vesicle formation.
c) The protein is involved in liposome denaturation.
d) The protein triggers protein synthesis.
e) The protein causes the entry of water into the liposomes.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard
16) What is the effect on a yeast cell of the presence of a mutant gene involved in vesicle fusion?
a) The ER shrank.
b) The nucleus became swollen.
c) The Golgi complex expanded greatly.
d) Cells accumulated expanded ER cisternae.
e) Cells amassed an excess number of unfused vesicles.
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
17) A cellular phenomenon called _________ is a process in which cells produce small RNAs that bind to specific
mRNAs and inhibit the translation of these mRNAs into proteins.
a) RNAi
b) cRNAs
c) RNAi and RNA interference
d) RNA interference
e) RNAa
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
18) A cellular phenomenon called RNA interference is a process in which cells produce small RNAs called _______ that
bind to specific mRNAs and inhibit the translation of these mRNAs into proteins.
a) snRNAs
b) isRNAs
c) mRNAs
d) RNAsi
e) siRNAs
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
19) A control cell that is synthesizing a GFP-labeled version of mannosidase II has fluorescence localized in the
numerous Golgi complexes of the cell. Normally, this enzyme is synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum and moves
via transport vesicles to the Golgi complex, where it takes up residence. What would an experimental cell look like if it
contained an siRNA that led to the absence of one of the proteins involved in the transport of the enzyme from the ER to
the Golgi complex?
1) Fluorescent label is not found in the Golgi complex.
2) The GFP-mannosidase II is denatured so there is no fluorescent label anywhere in the cell.
3) Fluorescent label still translocates the Golgi complex completely.
4) Fluorescent label is found only in the endoplasmic reticulum.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 3 and 4
e) 1 and 4
Answer: e
Difficulty: Hard
20) A control cell that is synthesizing a GFP-labeled version of mannosidase II has fluorescence localized in the
numerous Golgi complexes of the cell. Normally, this enzyme is synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum and moves
via transport vesicles to the Golgi complex, where it takes up residence. If an experimental cell contains an siRNA that
leads to the fluorescence being restricted to the endoplasmic reticulum, with what would the siRNA be likely to
interfere?
a) an mRNA that codes for a protein involved in the transport of the enzyme from the ER to the Golgi complex
b) an rRNA that synthesizes the enzyme
c) the synthesis of mannosidase II from its mRNA
d) an mRNA that codes for a protein involved in the transport of the enzyme from the Golgi complex to the ER
e) an mRNA that codes for the enzyme
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
21) Why is RNAi now used as a strategy for investigating the effect of a missing protein more often than generating an
organism that possesses a mutant gene?
a) It is easier to generate an organism that possesses a mutant gene than to synthesize a small RNA.
b) Small RNAs are less stable than organisms.
c) Mutant genes are much easier to synthesize.
d) It is easier to synthesize a small RNA than to generate an organism that possesses a mutant gene.
e) Small RNAs are much more sensitive.
Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard
22) What accounts for the differences in function between the types of ER?
1) the location of the ER
2) the proximity of the ER to the nucleus
3) the protein content of the ER
4) the shape of its component lipids
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 1 and 2
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 8.3 List the major structural and functional differences between the smooth ER and the rough ER.
Section Reference: Section 8.3 The Endoplasmic Reticulum
23) With what structure is the RER often seen to be continuous, as seen by its association with ribosomes?
a) the inner membrane of the nuclear envelope

b) the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope
c) the outer mitochondrial membrane
d) the outer chloroplast membrane
e) the Golgi complex
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
24) What allows smooth and rough vesicles (microsomes) to be readily separated by density gradient centrifugation?
a) their size differences

b) their differences in lipid composition
c) their differences in color
d) their differences in density
e) their differences in water content
Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard
25) Which type of cells below is not known for its extensively developed SER?
a) skin cells
b) kidney tubule cells
c) skeletal muscle cells
d) steroid-producing endocrine cells
e) both skeletal muscle cells and kidney tubule cells
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
26) What determines the function of a cell's smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
a) its lipid content

b) its polynucleotide content
c) its carbohydrate content
d) its protein content
e) its age
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
27) Which of the following is a function associated with the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in at least some cells?
a) synthesis of steroid hormones

b) detoxification of many organic compounds, like barbiturates and ethanol
c) release of glucose into the bloodstream
d) sequestration of calcium Ca2+ ions within the cisternal space
e) All of these are correct
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
28) What is one problem created by the detoxifying enzymes of the SER?
a) They often create compounds that cause excessive weight gain.

b) They often create compounds that cause excessive weight loss.
c) They can cause a compound to be converted into a carcinogen.
d) They can cause the denaturation of an essential enzyme or protein.
e) They can lead to addiction.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
29) hich of the following are enzymes that are involved in detoxification of organic compounds in the SER of liver cells?
1) oxygen-transferring enzymes
2) oxygenases
3) members of the cytochrome P450 family
4) oxidases
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
30) What specific cellular responses are known to be triggered by the regulated release of Ca2+ ions from the SER?
a) skeletal muscle cell contraction
b) secretory vesicle fusion with the plasma membrane
c) release of neurotransmitters from nerve cells
d) release of the contents of the acrosome from the head of a sperm
e) skeletal muscle cell contraction
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
31) What is the arrangement of organelles in a secretory cell from the basal end to the apical end, an arrangement that
reflects the flow of secretory products from synthesis to discharge?
a) nucleus and RER – SER – Golgi complex – secretory vesicles

b) Golgi complex – nucleus and RER – SER – secretory vesicles
c) nucleus and RER – Golgi complex – SER – secretory vesicles
d) SER – nucleus and RER – Golgi complex – secretory vesicles
e) secretory vesicles – nucleus and RER – SER – Golgi complex
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
32) What are the two sites within a cell at which protein synthesis is generally thought to occur?
a) cytosolic surface of RER and cisternal surface of RER

b) cytosolic surface of RER and free ribosomes
c) cisternal surface of RER and free ribosomes
d) free ribosomes and cytosolic surface of SER
e) cytosolic surface of RER and cytosolic surface of SER
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 8.4 Describe the role of the rough ER in the synthesis of secreted proteins, lysosomal proteins, and
integral membrane proteins. Section Reference: Section 8.4 Functions of the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
33) Blöbel, Sabatini and Dobberstein proposed that the site of protein synthesis is determined by information contained
in the N-terminal portion of the protein, the first part to emerge from the ribosome. What did they call their proposal?
a) the Chemiosmotic Hypothesis

b) the Posttranslational Hypothesis
c) the SRP Hypothesis
d) the Signal Hypothesis
e) the Cotranslational Hypothesis
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
34) What happens to yeast cells that cannot transport proteins into the ER lumen cotranslationally?
a) The die.
b) They hibernate.
c) They survive, but grow more slowly than normal yeast cells.
d) They divide more frequently.
e) Their lifespans are lengthened.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
35) What are the differences between ribosomes that make secretory proteins and those that make proteins intended for
the cytosol?
a) The ribosomes that make secretory proteins are smaller.

b) The ribosomes that make cytosolic proteins are larger.
c) There are no differences between them.
d) The ribosomes that make secretory proteins are denser.
e) The ribosomes that secretory proteins have extra subunits.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
36) What effect does the binding of the SRP to the growing polypeptide chain and the ribosome have on protein
synthesis?
a) Protein synthesis accelerates.

b) Protein synthesis ceases temporarily.
c) Protein synthesis ceases permanently.
d) Protein synthesis is terminated.
e) The ribosome dissociates.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
38) What appears to be the purpose of molecular chaperones like BiP?
a) They recognize and bind to unfolded or misfolded proteins and help them attain their native structure.
b) They recognize and bind to unfolded or misfolded DNAs and help them attain their native structure.
c) They recognize and bind to unfolded or misfolded RNAs and help them attain their native structure.
d) They recognize and bind unfolded or misfolded carbohydrates and help them lose their native shape.
e) They transport secretory proteins into secretory vesicles.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
39) Why is the ER so well-suited and ideally constructed for its role as a port of entry for secretory proteins?
1) It has a large surface area allowing the attachment of many ribosomes.
2) The ER cisternae lumen favors unfolding and disassembly of proteins.
3) The RER can segregate secretory, lysosomal and cytoplasmic proteins from other newly made proteins, allowing their
modification, and sends them to their final destination.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1 and 3
e) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
40) How are integral membrane proteins thought to enter the lipid bilayer?
a) They insert into the membrane from the RER lumen after their synthesis is complete.
b) The aqueous translocon channel seems to have a gate that continuously opens and closes, giving each nascent
polypeptide segment a chance to partition itself into the lipid bilayer's hydrophobic core.
c) They insert into the membrane from the cytosol after their synthesis is complete.
d) It is thought that they burrow into the lipid bilayer.
e) It is thought that they are enzymatically implanted in the lipid bilayer.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
41) How is the orientation of membrane proteins in the membrane thought to be accomplished?
a) After synthesis, an enzyme orients the protein properly.

b) During synthesis, the translocon inner lining orients the nascent polypeptide so the more positive end faces the
cytosol.
c) During synthesis, the translocon inner lining orients the nascent polypeptide so the more negative end faces the
cytosol.
d) During synthesis, the translocon inner lining orients the nascent polypeptide so the more positive end faces the
mitochondrial intermembrane space.
e) After synthesis, the translocon inner lining orients the nascent polypeptide so the more positive end faces the cytosol.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard
42) What evidence suggests that the translocon, by itself, can properly orient transmembrane segments?
a) Studies performed with purified components in cell-free systems show that the translocon, by itself, is capable of
properly orienting transmembrane segments.
b) Reconstituted translocons properly oriented membrane proteins in a natural membrane.
c) Translocons orient proteins in red blood cells when exposed to them.
d) Translocons bind to proteins in vitro.
e) When translocons are missing, membrane proteins are not appropriately oriented.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
43) How and where is the asymmetry of the phospholipid bilayers initially established?
a) It is initially established in the Golgi complex during lipid and protein modification.
b) It is initially established in the ER during lipid and protein synthesis.
c) It is initially established in the secretory vesicles during lipid and protein modification
d) It is initially established in the mitochondria by random insertion into the membranes.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 8.5 Describe the role of the endoplasmic reticulum in membrane biosynthesis. Section Reference:
Section 8.5 Membrane Biosynthesis in the Endoplasmic Reticulum
44) Phospholipids are made by integral ER membrane enzymes whose active sites face the cytosol and they are inserted
into the outer (cytoplasmic) leaflet of the ER membrane. How then do lipids destined for the luminal leaflet of the ER
membrane get there?
a) They diffuse freely into the luminal leaflet.

b) There are enzymes called flippases that flip these lipids later into the opposite leaflet.
c) They are disassembled on the cytoplasmic side and reassembled on the luminal side.
d) They move to the cytoplasmic leaflet by osmosis.
e) There are enzymes called translocases that flip these lipids later into the opposite leaflet.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 8.5 Describe the role of the endoplasmic reticulum in membrane biosynthesis. Section Reference:
Section 8.5 Membrane Biosynthesis in the Endoplasmic Reticulum
45) Which of the proteins below is(are) not made on the membrane-bound ribosomes of the RER?
a) peripheral proteins of the inner surface of the plasma membrane

b) soluble lysosomal proteins
c) vacuolar enzymes
d) proteins of the extracellular matrix
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
46) What always serves as the donor of a sugar to the growing oligosaccharide chain of a glycoprotein?
a) a sugared nucleotide
b) a nucleotide peptide
c) a nucleotide sugar
d) a sugar
e) ATP
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 8.6 Explain the function of glycosylation of proteins produced in the ER. Section Reference:
Section 8.6 Glycosylation in the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
47) What enzyme transfers a block of sugars to asparagine residues of a polypeptide as it enters the RER?
a) glycosyltransferase
b) acid phosphatase
c) oligosaccharyltransferase
d) cellulose
e) glycolase
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
48) To what residue of a polypeptide are N-linked oligosaccharide chains attached as that poypeptide enters the RER
lumen through the translocon?
a) arginine
b) asparagine
c) serine
d) threonine
e) ninhydrin
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
49) What is responsible for adding sugars to dolichol phosphate?
a) membrane-bound glycosyltransferases
b) membrane-bound oligosaccharyltransferase
c) membrane-bound gangliosidase
d) glycosylsynthetase
e) peptidyltransferase
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
50) CDG1b results from a deficiency in what enzyme?

a) phosphomannose phosphatase
b) phosphotungstate isomerase
c) phosphomannose isomerase
d) phosphatase
e) phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
51) What is the effect of CDG1b on cell physiology and what is the treatment that has shown some promise of being
effective?
a) Mannose is unavailable for incorporation into oligosaccharides; oral supplements of mannose are the treatment.
b) Mannose is available for incorporation into oligosaccharides; oral supplements of mannose are the treatment.
c) Mannose is unavailable for incorporation into oligosaccharides; a diet free of mannose is the treatment.
d) Mannose is available for incorporation into oligosaccharides; a diet free of mannose is the treatment.
e) Fructose is unavailable for incorporation into oligosaccharides; oral supplements of fructose are the treatment.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
52) The oligosaccharide block that is added to secretory proteins after they enter the ER lumen goes through a number of
modifications after its attachment. What is the first modification that occurs?
a) addition of more sugars

b) addition of glucose
c) trimming of some sugars from the oligosaccharide block
d) chemical modification of the sugars on the oligosaccharide chain
e) both addition of more sugars and addition of glucose
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
53) What happens to a newly synthesized glycoprotein after the binding of calnexin or calreticulin to help the protein
correctly complete its folding?
a) When the glycoprotein's folding is correctly completed, the remaining glucose on its oligosaccharide chain is
eventually reduced and the glycoprotein is released from the chaperone.
b) The oligosaccharide chain is totally degraded.
c) Nothing happens.
d) When the glycoprotein's folding is correctly completed, the remaining glucose on its oligosaccharide chain is
eventually removed enzymatically and the glycoprotein is released from the chaperone.
e) The oligosaccharide chain is totally degraded.
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
54) What does the conformation-sensing enzyme UGGT do if it binds to a misfolded or incompletely folded
glycoprotein?
a) It degrades the oligosaccharide chain.

b) It adds a single mannose back to one of the glucose residues at the exposed end of the recently trimmed
oligosaccharide.
c) It adds a single glucose back to one of the mannose residues at the exposed end of the recently trimmed
oligosaccharide.
d) It degrades the protein.
e) It refolds the protein on its own.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
55) How does UGGT recognize incompletely folded or misfolded proteins that have been recently synthesized?
a) Such proteins display exposed hydrophilic residues that are absent from properly folded proteins.
b) Five histidine residues are exposed on the protein's surface when it is improperly folded.
c) Such proteins display exposed hydrophobic residues that are absent from properly folded proteins.
d) Six arginine residues are exposed on the protein's surface when it is improperly folded.
e) Such proteins display numerous carboxyl groups on their surfaces, which decreases their solubility.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
56) What do studies suggest governs the "decision" to destroy a defective protein that has been unable to fold correctly
and has been in the ER for an extended period of time?
a) a fast-acting ER enzyme that trims a mannose residue from an exposed end of the oligosaccharide of a protein
b) a slow-acting ER enzyme that trims a mannose residue from an exposed end of the oligosaccharide of a protein
c) a fast-acting cytoplasmic enzyme that trims a mannose residue from an exposed end of the oligosaccharide of a
protein
d) a slow-acting nuclear enzyme that trims a mannose residue from an exposed end of the oligosaccharide of a protein
e) a slow-acting cytoplasmic enzyme that trims a mannose residue from an exposed end of the oligosaccharide of a
protein
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
57) What is the fate of a misfolded or incompletely folded protein in the ER once one or more of its mannose residues
has been removed from its oligosaccharide chain(s)?
1) The protein can no longer be recycled.
2) The protein is recycled.
3) The protein is sentenced to degradation.
4) The protein continues to be refolded.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 1 and 3
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
58) Where are misfolded secretory proteins eventually destroyed?
a) in the RER
b) in the SER
c) in the Golgi complex
d) in the cytosol (cytoplasm)
e) in the nucleus
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 8.7 List the potential fates of misfolded proteins in the cell. Section Reference: Section 8.7
Mechanisms that Ensure the Destruction of Misfolded Proteins
59) How do misfolded proteins get to the cytoplasm to be destroyed?
a) They diffuse freely through the lipid bilayer.

b) A process called reverse transcription takes proteins back through the translocons they passed through on their way
into the ER lumen.
c) They diffuse through gap junctions.
d) An enzyme flips them through the hydrophobic part of the lipid bilayer.
e) Proteins are transported back to the cytosol through the translocon that brought them into the ER lumen or through a
separate dislocation channel of uncertain identity.
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
60) What is responsible for degrading misfolded proteins in the cytoplasm?
a) polysomes
b) polyribosomes
c) peroxisomes
d) proteasomes
e) spliceosome
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
61) Why does the cell use proteasomes to destroy misfolded proteins?
a) Destruction of misfolded proteins assures that aberrant proteins are not sent to other parts of the cell.
b) These proteins can be degraded into components that can be used to make polynucleotides.
c) These proteins are degraded into components that can be used to make polysaccharides.
d) These proteins are degraded into components that are used to make lipids.
e) Destruction of misfolded proteins prevents the dissolution of the plasma membrane.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
62) What happens if misfolded proteins are generated in the ER at a faster rate than they can be exported to the
cytoplasm?
a) They are degraded in the ER.

b) They are inserted into the ER membrane.
c) They are resynthesized in the ER.
d) They accumulate in the ER.
e) They accumulate in the Golgi complex.
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
63) The accumulation of misfolded proteins in the ER is a potentially lethal situation and thus causes the triggering of
what process?
a) the unfolded protein response (UPR)

b) the posttranscriptional response
c) the polysomal response
d) the proteasomal response
e) the intracellular protein response
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
64) The ER reportedly contains sensors that monitor the concentration of unfolded or misfolded proteins in the lumen.
One proposal suggests that the sensors are normally kept in an inactive state by ______, particularly ______.
a) molecular chaperones, ribosomes

b) proteasomes, BiP
c) molecular chaperones, BiP
d) enzymes, ER
e) molecular chaperones, Rubisco
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
65) What happens if the UPR is unsuccessful in relieving the stressful conditions in the cell?
a) The cell grows.

b) The cell divides.
c) The cell-death pathway is triggered and the cell is destroyed.
d) The cell shrinks.
e) The cell's temperature is raised.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
66) The movement of vesicular-tubular carriers (VTCs) farther away from the ER and toward the Golgi complex occurs
along tracks composed of what material?
a) RNA
b) DNA
c) microtubules
d) microfilaments
e) intermediate filaments
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 8.8 Describe the movement of vesicles from the ER to the Golgi complex. Section Reference:
Section 8.8 The First Step in Vesicular Transport
68) Which part of the Golgi complex is thought to function primarily as a sorting station that distinguishes between
proteins to be shipped back to the ER and those that are allowed to proceed to the next Golgi station?
a) the cis cisternae

b) the CGN
c) the medial cisternae
d) the trans cisternae
e) the trans-Golgi network
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
69) What kind(s) of modifications are made in proteins as they move through the Golgi complex?
a) The protein's carbohydrates are modified by a series of stepwise enzymatic reactions.

b) Amino acids can be added to either end of the polypeptide chain.
c) Amino acids in the proteins may be chemically altered into nucleic acids.
d) Small segments of amino acids can be added into the center of an existing protein.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
70) Which of the following carbohydrates is not synthesized in the Golgi complex?
a) glycosaminoglycans in the animal extracellular matrix

b) plant cell wall polysaccharides like pectin and hemicellulose
c) the carbohydrates of glycolipids
d) the carbohydrates of glycoproteins
e) glycogen
Answer: e
Difficulty: Hard
71) What enzymes are responsible for determining the sequence of sugars added to growing oligosaccharide chains of
membrane proteins or secretory proteins as they travel through the Golgi complex?
a) glycosaminocosidases
b) peptidyltransferases
c) glycosyltransferase
d) amylases
e) Rubisco
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
72) What sugar is usually removed from the N-linked core oligosaccharide chains on proteins in the Golgi complex as
opposed to the glucose residues trimmed off in the ER?
a) glucose
b) galactose
c) mannose
d) sialic acid
e) fucose
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
73) What determines the sequence of sugar addition to glycoproteins traveling through the Golgi complex?
a) Nothing - the sequence is random.

b) the spatial arrangement of specific glycosyltransferases that contact proteins as they pass through the Golgi complex
c) the concentration of sugars in the Golgi complex
d) the concentration of sugars in the Golgi complex
e) the sequence of nucleotides in the Golgi complex
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
74) Which of the models below suggests that the Golgi cisternae are transient structures that form at the cis face of the
stack by fusion of membranous carriers from the ER and ERGIC and that each cisterna travels through the Golgi
complex from the cis to the trans end of the stack, changing in composition as it progresses?
a) the cisternal maturation model

b) the cargo carrying model
c) the vesicular transport model
d) the secretory transport model
e) the chemiosmotic model
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
75) Which model of Golgi complex formation suggests that the cisternae of a Golgi stack remain in place as stable
compartments held together by a protein scaffold, while the cargo is shuttled through the Golgi via vesicles that bud from
one compartment and fuse with a neighboring one?
a) the cisternal maturation model

b) the cargo carrying model
c) the vesicular transport model
d) the secretory transport model
e) the chemiosmotic model
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
76) Vesicles that move through the Golgi complex from a trans-donor to a cis-acceptor membrane are said to move in
a(n) __________ direction.
a) astrograde
b) anterograde
c) retrograde
d) awful grade
e) verigrade
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
77) Most vesicles budding from the Golgi body have a fuzzy, electron-dense coat on their ______ surface. The coat
appears to be made of _______.
a) luminal, protein
b) cytosolic, protein
c) luminal, lipid
d) cytosolic, carbohydrate
e) cytosolic, lipid
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 8.10 Contrast the roles of COPI- and COPII-coated vesicles in protein trafficking. Section
Reference: Section 8.10 Types of Vesicle Transport
78) What components below are selected for transport by vesicles originating in the Golgi complex?
a) secretory proteins
b) lysosomal proteins
c) proteins required to dock the vesicle to an acceptor membrane
d) proteins required to target the vesicle to an acceptor membrane
e) All of these components.
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
79) How do protein coats select the cargo molecules to be carried by the vesicles they help to form?
a) They electromagnetically attract the correct cargo proteins.

b) The protein coats have a specific affinity for the cytosolic tails of integral membrane proteins that reside in the donor
membrane.
c) The coats have a specific affinity for the luminal tails of integral membrane proteins that reside in the donor
membrane.
d) The coat proteins directly attach to the cargo proteins in the lumen of the forming vesicles.
e) The coat proteins attach to the extracellular matrix.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
80) The coat of vesicles that transport materials around the cell interior ___________.
a) is composed of two distinct protein layers

b) possesses an outer cage or scaffolding that forms the framework for the coat
c) possesses adaptors that are able to select specific cargo molecules
d) possesses an inner layer of adaptors that serves primarily to bind the vesicle's cargo
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
81) Which coated vesicles move materials in a retrograde direction from the ERGIC and Golgi stack backwards toward
the ER?
a) COPII-coated vesicles
b) COPI-coated vesicles
c) clathrin-coated vesicles
d) cadmium-coated vesicles
e) both COPII-coated vesicles and COPI-coated vesicles
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
82) What mediates the interaction between integral membrane proteins to be transported in COPII-coated vesicles and
the COPII-coat?
a) ER export signals in the luminal tails of integral ER membrane proteins

b) ER export signals in the cytosolic tails of integral ER membrane proteins
c) ER export signals in ER phospholipids that interact with the membrane proteins
d) ER export signals in carbohydrates on the cytosolic tails of integral ER membrane proteins
e) ER export signals in carbohydrates on the luminal tails of integral ER membrane proteins
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
83) What GTP-binding protein plays a regulatory role by initiating vesicle formation and by regulating the assembly of
the vesicle's COPII coat?
a) Sar1
b) Gar1
c) ARF1 (adenosylation ribose factor)
d) Ras
e) Src
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
84) To what site does Sar1 bind after it binds to GTP?
a) the luminal leaflet of the ER membrane

b) the luminal leaflet of the ER membrane
c) the cytosolic leaflet of the ER bilayer
d) the luminal leaflet of the Golgi membrane
e) the cytosolic leaflet of the plasma membrane
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
85) Which protein(s) below is(are) recruited to the COPII coat by Sar1-GTP?
a) ARF1
b) Sec23
c) Sec32
d) Sec24
e) both Sec23 and Sec24
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
86) Sec23 and Sec24 bind together to form a "banana-shaped" dimer. What is the purpose of this dimer
a) Because of its linear shape, it firms up the membrane.

b) Because of its curved shape, the dimer puts pressure on the membrane surface to help it further bend into a curved
bud.
c) Because of its curved shape, the dimer puts pressure on the membrane surface to help it disintegrate.
d) The dimer stabilizes the Golgi complex membrane.
e) The dimer joins with other dimers to form a remarkably stable cage.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
87) What is the primary adaptor protein of the COPII coat that interacts specifically with the ER export signals in the
cytosolic tails of membrane proteins that are destined to traffic on to the Golgi complex?
a) ARF1
b) Sec23
c) Sec24
d) Sec31
e) Sec13
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
88) What subunit(s) of the COPII coat bind(s) to the vesicle membrane to form the outer structural cage of the protein
coat?
a) Sec31
b) Sec24
c) Sec23
d) Sec13
e) both Sec31and Sec13
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
89) What allows the interface between the Sec13-Sec31 subunits to form cages of varying diameter, thus accommodating
vesicles of varying size?
a) a degree of flexibility built into the interface between the Sec13-Sec31 subunits
b) a degree of rigidity built into the interface between the Sec13-Sec31 subunits
c) a degree of extensibility built into the interface between the Sec13-Sec31 subunits
d) a protein between Sec13 and Sec31 that allows free rotation
e) Sec24, which provides a cushion between the Sec13 and Sec31 subunits
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
90) What happened to COPI-coated vesicles within the cell when the cell was treated with GTP analogues that could not
be hydrolyzed?
a) They accumulated in the nucleus.

b) They accumulated in the cytoplasm.
c) They fused into one giant vesicle that was seen in the cytoplasm.
d) They decreased substantially in number in the nucleus.
e) They decreased substantially in number in the cytoplasm.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard
92) What GTP-binding protein is associated with the formation of the COPI coat on COPI-coated vesicles?
a) Sar1
b) Arf Arf
d) Ras
e) Src
Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard
93) What is usually the retrieval signal for ER integral membrane proteins, like the SRP receptor?
a) KKXX at the C-terminus of the protein

b) KDEL at the C-terminus of the protein
c) KDEL at the N-terminus of the protein
d) KKXX at the N-terminus of the protein
e) KXEL at the C-terminus of the protein
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
94) Where in the Golgi complex does most protein sorting occur?
a) the medial cisternae

b) the TGN
c) the CGN
d) the cis network
e) the pre-Golgi network
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 8.11 Describe the steps that determine whether a protein will be targeted to a lysosome or to a
secretory vesicle. Section Reference: Section 8.11 Beyond the Golgi Complex: Sorting Proteins at the TGN
95) What are the recognition signals for lysosomal enzymes that allow them to be localized correctly in lysosomes?
a) Lysosomal enzymes possess sulfated mannose residues on N-linked carbohydrate chains.

b) Lysosomal enzymes possess phosphorylated mannose residues on N-linked carbohydrate chains.
c) Lysosomal enzymes possess phosphorylated mannose residues on O-linked carbohydrate chains.
d) Lysosomal enzymes possess sulfated mannose residues on O-linked carbohydrate chains.
e) Lysosomal enzymes possess phosphorylated glucose residues on N-linked carbohydrate chains.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
96) What would happen if the enzyme that adds phosphate groups to the appropriate mannose residues on the
carbohydrate chains of lysosomal enzymes were defective?
a) Lysosomal enzymes would be localized to lysosomes.

b) Lysosomal enzymes would be localized to peroxisomes.
c) Lysosomal enzymes would continue through the Golgi complex to secretory vesicles and would eventually be
secreted.
d) Lysosomal enzymes would be degraded.
e) Lysosomal enzymes would be degraded.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard
97) What is responsible for recognizing lysosomal enzymes and localizing them to the lysosomes?
1) mannose 6-phosphate receptors
2) MPRs
3) integral membrane proteins that span the TGN membranes
4) intraGolgi receptors that reside in the TGN lumen
a) 1
b) 1, 2, and 4
c) 3
d) 4
e) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
98) What is the general name for a molecule that physically links two different types of materials?
a) enzymes
b) adaptors
c) structural proteins
d) receptors
e) polynucleotides
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
99) Lysosomal enzymes are transported from the TGN in vesicles coated with what protein?
a) clathrin
b) lysozyme
c) dynamin
d) acid phosphatase
e) COPII
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
100) Which GTP-binding protein is associated with clathrin-coated vesicles and helps to initiate the formation of the
coat?
a) Sar1
b) Raf Raf
d) Ras
e) Src
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
101) What happens to the clathrin coat once the vesicle has budded from the Golgi body?
a) It is lost.
b) It is strengthened.
c) It is rearranged.
d) It is thickened.
e) It swells.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
102) What is thought to direct the movement of vesicles through the cytoplasm to their final destination?
a) microfilaments
b) microtubules
c) intermediate filaments
d) collagen
e) keratin
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 8.13 Explain the role of SNARE proteins between the stages of vesicle budding and vesicle fusion.
Section Reference: Section 8.13 Targeting Vesicles to a Particular Compartment
103) What would happen to the movement of vesicles toward their eventual target if a microtubule inhibitor like
colchicine were added to the cells?
a) The vesicles would disintegrate.

b) The vesicles would move faster.
c) Vesicle movement would slow or stop.
d) Vesicles will shrink.
e) Vesicles will swell.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard
104) What appears to be an early step in the process of vesicle fusion to its target compartment?
a) swelling of the vesicle

b) shrinkage of the vesicle
c) tethering of vesicles to the target compartment by extended, fibrous proteins
d) a change in charge at the vesicle surface
e) dissociation of many lipids from the vesicle membrane
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
105) How do Rabs appear to associate with membranes?
a) via microtubules
b) via a lipid anchor
c) via intermediate filaments
d) via vimentin filaments
e) via filaments
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
106) When Rabs have bound to GTP, what do they do?
a) They fuse membranes directly.

b) They pass through the membrane.
c) They recruit specific cytosolic tethering proteins to specific membrane surfaces.
d) They denature specific membrane proteins.
e) They fuse to the nuclear membrane.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
107) What circumstantial evidence supports the proposed role of the Rabs in recruiting cytosolic tethering proteins to
specific membrane surfaces?
a) With over 60 Rab genes identified in humans, Rabs constitute the most diverse group of proteins involved in
membrane trafficking.
b) Rabs have the potential of giving each cell compartment a unique surface identity.
c) Different Rabs have been found to be associated with different membrane compartments.
d) The preferential localization of Rabs allows them to recruit the proteins involved in targeting specificity.
e) All of these are correct statements that support the proposed role of the Rabs.
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
108) In addition to their key role in vesicle targeting by recruiting specific cytosolic tethering proteins to specific
membrane surfaces, Rabs also play a key role in ________.
1) regulating the activities of numerous proteins involved in other aspects of membrane trafficking
2) regulating the aspects of motor proteins that move membranous vesicles through the cytoplasm
3) regulating metabolic processes
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1 and 2
e) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
109) The interaction between the membranes of vesicles and their target compartment is mediated by which proteins
below?
a) ARF1s
b) SNAREs
c) SNARFs
d) Sar1s
e) Rafs
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
110) SNAREs vary in structure quite a bit, but all of them contain a common domain. Where is this domain located, of
what is it composed and what is it called?
a) in the lumen, 60 – 70 amino acids that form a complex with another SNARE motif
b) in the lumen, 60 – 70 nucleotides that form a complex with another SNARE motif
c) in the cytosol, 60 – 70 amino acids that form a complex with another SNARE motif
d) in the cytosol, 60 – 70 amino acids forming a complex with another SNARE coil
e) in the cytosol, 60 – 70 carbohydrates forming a complex with another SNARE motif
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
111) What are the two functional categories of SNAREs?
a) v-SNAREs and g-SNAREs

b) t-SNAREs and g-SNAREs
c) v-SNAREs and t-SNAREs
d) v-SNAREs and er-SNAREs
e) er-SNAREs and g-SNAREs
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
112) Where are v-SNAREs and t-SNARES found, respectively?
a) incorporated into transport vesicle membranes during budding, in target compartment membranes
b) in target compartment membranes, incorporated into transport vesicle membranes during budding
c) in target compartment membranes, in target compartment membranes
d) incorporated into transport vesicle membranes during fusion, in target compartment membranes
e) in target compartment membranes, incorporated into transport vesicle membranes during fusion
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
113) What is thought to dissociate the 4-stranded SNARE complex by attaching to the SNARE bundle and, using energy
from ATP hydrolysis, twisting it apart?
a) a doughnut-shaped, cytosolic protein called NSF

b) a doughnut-shaped, cytosolic protein called ARF1
c) a doughnut-shaped, cytosolic protein called Rab
d) a cylindrical, cytosolic protein called NSF
e) a cylindrical, cytosolic protein called ARF1
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
114) What determines the specificity of vesicle fusion to a target membrane?
a) interactions between tethering proteins alone

b) interactions between Rabs alone
c) interactions between specific combinations of interacting proteins, including tethering proteins, Rabs and SNAREs
assembled at that site in the cell
d) interactions between SNAREs alone
e) a single protein in the membrane of the particular vesicle and target membrane
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
115) The process of membrane fusion and subsequent content discharge is called ______ and is usually triggered by a
release of ______.
a) exocytosis, K+ ions
b) exocytosis, Ca2+ ions
c) endocytosis, Ca2+ ions
d) endocytosis, K+ ions
e) secretion, K+ ions
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 8.14 Describe the process of exocytosis. Section Reference: Section 8.14 Exocytosis
116) Synaptic vesicle fusion to the presynaptic membrane in a neuron is regulated by what calcium-binding protein
found in the membrane of the synaptic vesicle?
a) synaptin
b) synaptogenin
c) calmodulin
d) calcitonin
e) synaptotagmin
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
117) Based on what is known about the involvement of calcium ions in exocytosis, what should happen if Ca2+ ions are
injected into a cell?
a) Secretion stops.
b) Wholesale exocytosis of secretory product occurs.
c) Wholesale endocytosis of secretory product occurs
d) Wholesale exocytosis of nuclear contents occurs.
e) Endocytosis rates are accelerated.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard
118) Which of the following enzymes are typically found in lysosomes?
a) hydrolytic enzymes (acid hydrolases)

b) oxidoreductases
c) transferases
d) lyases
e) ligases
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 8.15 Explain the functions of lysosomes. Section Reference: Section 8.15 Lysosomes
119) Which pH below would be most likely to favor the operation of a lysosomal enzyme?
a) 8.5
b) 7.6
c) 4.5
d) 11.3
e) 6.5
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
120) What is thought to shield lysosomal membranes against attack by their enclosed enzymes?
a) DNA
b) basic RNA
c) carbohydrate chains attached to integral membrane proteins
d) carbohydrate chains attached to peripheral membrane proteins
e) the lipid bilayer itself
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
121) What happens to the breakdown products of materials brought into many single-celled organisms from the
extracellular environment?
a) They are used as nutrients and are released to the extracellular space.
b) They are used as nutrients and are released into the cytoplasm.
c) Peptides produced during digestion are posted on the cell surface.
d) They are used to build the nuclear envelope and are released into the cytoplasm.
e) They are maintained within the lysosome and used for building new lysosomes.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
122) What happens to the breakdown products of bacteria brought into mammalian phagocytic cells (like macrophages
and neutrophils) from the extracellular environment?
a) They are used as nutrients and are released to the extracellular space.
b) They are used as nutrients and are kept in the lysosome.
c) Peptides produced during digestion are posted on the phagocytic cell's surface.
d) They are used to build the nuclear envelope and are released into the cytoplasm.
e) They are maintained within the lysosome and used for building new lysosomes.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
123) What is it about lysosomes that initially deactivates most ingested bacteria?
a) low pH
b) high pH
c) neutral pH
d) lysosomal carbohydrate content
e) lysosomal lipid content
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
125) What process is responsible for organelle turnover in the cell and carries out the regulated destruction of the cell's
own organelles for the purpose of recycling the components of which they are made?
a) autolysis
b) autophagolysosome
c) apoptosis
d) autophagy
e) autonomy
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
126) Once an organelle to be destroyed, like a mitochondrion, has been surrounded with a double membrane, what is the
name of the structure that has been produced?
a) autophagolysosome
b) phagolysosome
c) bacteriophage
d) phagosome
e) autophagosome
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
127) You are working on a project in which you block autophagy in a particular portion of the brain of a laboratory
animal. What happens to these animals?
1) Nothing happens since nerve cells are so long-lived.
2) That region of the nervous system experiences a massive loss of nerve cells.
3) There is slight, but not dangerous damage, to the organelles and proteins of the nerve cells.
4) There is continuous damage to the proteins and organelles of these long-lived cells.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 2 and 4
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
128) Once the digestive process in an autophagolysosome is completed, the organelle is called a(n) _____. If its
contents are not eliminated from the cell by exocytosis and are instead retained within the cytoplasm indefinitely, it is
called a(n) _______.
a) lipofuscin granule, residual body

b) residual body, autophagosome
c) residual body, lipofuscin granule
d) lipofuscin granule, autophagosome
e) autophagosome, lipofuscin granule
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
129) Which of the following are proposed functions of autophagy?
a) It plays a role in organelle turnover.

b) It is used to cannibalize organelles when a cell is deprived of nutrients.
c) It protects organisms against intracellular threats like abnormal protein aggregates and invading bacteria.
d) It plays a role in the regulated destruction of the cell's own organelles and their replacement.
e) All of the other answers are correct.
Answer: e
130) Which of the following is not a function of plant cell vacuoles?
1) a temporary storehouse for many cell solutes and macromolecules
2) distributes toxic compounds to cytoplasm
3) generates high turgor pressure that pushes outward against the cell wall and maintains cell shape
4) site of intracellular digestion in a plant cell
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 2 and 4
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 8.16 List the functions of plant cell vacuoles. Section Reference: Section 8.16 Plant Cell Vacuoles
131) The two separate (basic) categories of uptake of extracellular materials into cytoplasmic vesicles are ______ and
______.
a) phagocytosis, exocytosis
b) pinocytosis, exocytosis
c) phagocytosis, endocytosis
d) pinocytosis, endocytosis
e) exocytosis, endocytosis
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 8.17 Describe receptor-mediated endocytosis, including the roles of clathrin and
phosphoinositides. Section Reference: Section 8.17 Endocytosis
132) The uptake of relatively large particulate matter into the cell is called _________.
a) endocytosis
b) phagocytosis
c) autophagy
d) exocytosis
e) pinocytosis
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 8.20 List the major steps of phagocytosis. Section Reference: Section 8.20 Phagocytosis
133) The vesicle containing material taken into the cell by phagocytosis is called a(n) _________.
a) phagocytosome
b) vacuolosome
c) phagosome
d) phagolysosome
e) exosome
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
134) What drives the engulfment of particulate material by phagocytosis?
a) contractile activities of the actin-containing microfilaments that underlie the plasma membrane
b) contractile activities of the tubulin-containing microtubules that underlie the plasma membrane
c) contractile activities of the actin-containing microfilaments that underlie the mitochondrial membrane
d) contractile activities of the myosin-containing microfilaments that underlie the plasma membrane
e) contractile activities of the tubulin-containing microtubules that underlie the mitochondrial membrane
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
136) If you treated a macrophage with colchicine (a microtubular inhibitor), what would be likely to happen to the rate of
phagocytosis? What would be likely to happen to the rate of phagocytosis if you treated the macrophage with an
inhibitor of microfilament contractile activities?
a) Nothing would happen after colchicine exposure. The rate would rise after cytochalasin B exposure
b) The rate would drop after colchicine exposure. Nothing would happen after cytochalasin B exposure.
c) Nothing would happen after colchicine exposure. The rate would drop after cytochalasin B exposure.
d) The rate would rise after colchicine exposure. Nothing would happen after cytochalasin B exposure.
e) Nothing would happen after treatment with either inhibitor.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard
137) Which of the following strategies is used by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacterium responsible for
tuberculosis, to avoid being destroyed by phagocytosis?
a) The bacterium crystallizes the enzymes in the phagolysosome.

b) The bacterium inhibits fusion of the phagosome with a lysosome.
c) The bacterium allows fusion with the lysosome, but neither the acidic pH nor the lysosomal enzymes can destroy it.
d) The bacterium produces proteins that destroy lysosomal membrane integrity so that the bacterium can escape into the
cell cytosol.
e) The bacterium neutralizes the enzymes in the lysosome.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
138) Which of the following is a difference between the coats of COPII- and clathrin-coated vesicles?
a) The inner layer of adaptor proteins of COPII-coated vesicles overlap extensively, while those of clathrin-coated
vesicles do not overlap.
b) The outer scaffold subunits of the clathrin lattice of coated vesicles overlap extensively, while those of the COPII
lattice of coated vesicles do not overlap.
c) The outer scaffold subunits of the COPII lattice of coated vesicles overlap extensively, while those of the clathrin
lattice of coated vesicles do not overlap.
d) The clathrin-coated vesicles have three distinct layers, while the COPII-coated vesicles have two distinct layers.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
139) Which of the following strategies is used by Listeria monocytogenes, a bacterium that causes meningitis, to avoid
being destroyed by a lysosome's fusion with the phagosome in which it was ingested?
a) The bacterium allows fusion with the lysosome, but the acidic pH cannot destroy it.
b) The bacterium inhibits fusion of the phagosome with a lysosome.
c) The bacterium allows fusion with the lysosome, but the lysosomal enzymes cannot destroy it.
d) The bacterium produces proteins that destroy lysosomal membrane integrity so that the bacterium can escape into the
cell cytosol.
e) The bacterium neutralizes the enzymes in the lysosome.
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
140) What types of molecules below can a cell internalize by receptor-mediated endocytosis?
a) hormones and growth factors

b) enzymes
c) bloode-borne proteins carrying certain nutrients
d) hormones and growth factors and enzymes
e) All of these are correct
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
141) Substances that enter the cell by receptor-mediated endocytosis bind receptors that collect in specialized domains of
the plasma membrane called ______.
a) coated vesicles
b) coated pits
c) RME pits
d) gap junctions
e) tight junctions
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
142) The three-legged assembly of protein chains that makes up a clathrin molecule and that can assemble into a network
of polygons resembling a honeycomb is called a(n) _____.
a) trigeminy
b) triskeleton
c) trigellium
d) triskelion
e) triskellium
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
143) The best-studied adaptors that participate in the formation of the coated pits and coated vesicles of
clathrin-mediated endocytosis are the _____ adaptors.
a) COPII
b) GGA
c) AP2
d) clathrin
e) COPI
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
144) What molecules do the AP2 adaptors of the clathrin coat connect?
a) GGA adaptors and clathrin molecules
b) the cytoplasmic tails of specific membrane receptors and clathrin molecules
c) the luminal tails of specific membrane receptors and clathrin molecules
d) the clathrin molecules and cargo molecules
e) cargo molecules and the cytoplasmic tails of specific membrane receptors
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
145) Which molecule below is a GTP-binding protein that is required for the release of a clathrin-coated vesicle from the
membrane on which it was formed?
a) AP2
b) GGA
c) clathrin
d) dynamin
e) opsonin
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
146) Which of the following has not been identified as a phosphoinositide?
a) PI(3)P
b) PI(4)P
c) PI(5)P
d) PI(6)P
e) PI(3,4)P2
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
147) The phosphorylated rings of phosphoinositides are recognized and bound by particular proteins. Where are the
phosphorylated rings located?
a) They reside in the membrane interior.

b) They are found in lysosomes.
c) They reside at the membrane surface.
d) They reside inside the clathrin coat.
e) They reside inside the COPII-coat.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
148) The phosphorylated rings of phosphoinositides are recognized and bound by particular proteins. Where are the
phosphorylated rings located?
a) They reside in the membrane interior.

b) They are found in lysosomes.
c) They reside at the membrane surface.
d) They reside inside the clathrin coat.
e) They reside inside the COPII-coat.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
149) What helps to give different membrane compartments their own unique surface identity?
a) the different proteins contained within them

b) the different surface nucleotides in each one
c) the different shapes of the different membrane compartments
d) the degree of concentration of the contents of the membrane compartments
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
150) The inner leaflet of the plasma membrane contains elevated levels of _____, which plays an important role in the
recruitment of proteins involved in clathrin-mediated endocytosis, like dynamin and AP2.
a) PI(4,5)P2
b) PI(4)P
c) PI(3,5)P2
d) PI(3,4)P2
e) PI(5)P
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
151) The inner leaflet of the plasma membrane contains elevated levels of PI(4,5)P2, which plays an important role in the
recruitment of proteins involved in clathrin-mediated endocytosis, like ______ and ______?
a) AP3, dynamin
b) AP2, dynamin
c) TGN, dynamin
d) TGN, dynamin
e) clathrin, dynamin
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
152) Lipid species like the phosphoinositides can have a dynamic regulatory role because _______.
a) it can be rapidly formed by enzymes localized at particular places within the cell
b) it can be rapidly formed by enzymes localized at particular times within the cell
c) it can be rapidly destroyed by enzymes localized at particular places within the cell
d) it can be rapidly destroyed by enzymes localized at particular times within the cell
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
153) About what time does PI(4,5)P2 disappear from a site of endocytosis?
a) about the time the coated pit forms

b) about the time the coated vesicle is pinched away from the plasma membrane
c) when the ligand binds to the receptors
d) well after the vesicle has pinched away from the plasma membrane
e) as the coated pit rounds into a larger coated pit
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
154) Which phosphoinositide is localized at the TGN, secretory granules and synaptic vesicles?
a) PI(4,5)P2
b) PI(4)P
c) PI(3,5)P2
d) PI(3)P
e) PI(5)P
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
155) Which phosphoinositide is localized at the late endosome boundary membrane?
a) PI(4,5)P2
b) PI(4)P
c) PI(3,5)P2
d) PI(3)P
e) PI(5)P
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
156) Typically, receptors for hormones or growth factors are destroyed during endocytosis, leading to a reduction in the
cell's sensitivity to further stimulation by that particular hormone or growth factor. This is a mechanism by which cells
regulate their ability to respond to extracellular messengers. What is it called?
a) receptor annihilation
b) receptor down-regulation
c) super-signaling
d) endocytotic assignation
e) receptor up-regulation
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 8.19 Differentiate between housekeeping receptors and signaling receptors, explaining how LDL
receptors exemplify the former. Section Reference: Section 8.19 The Endocytic Pathway
157) Signaling receptors are usually marked for endocytosis and subsequent destruction by the covalent attachment of a
"tag" to the cytoplasmic tail of the receptor while it resides at the cell surface. What is the name of the "tag"?
a) ubiquitin
b) transferrin
c) opsonin
d) chaperonin
e) complexin
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
158) Which endosomes are typically located near the peripheral region of the cell?
a) late endosomes
b) early endosomes
c) medial lysosomes
d) medial endosomes
e) intellosomes
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
159) Which endosomes are typically located in the more interior part of the cell, near the nucleus?
a) late endosomes
b) early endosomes
c) medial lysosomes
d) medial endosomes
e) intellosomes
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
160) What are the differences between early and late endosomes?
a) Early endosomes exchange their Rab5 proteins for Rab7 proteins as they transform into late endosomes.
b) Late endosomes have a population of vesicles crowding their interior; early endosomes do not.
c) Late endosomes exhibit a lower pH than early endosomes.
d) In late endosomes, the outer boundary membrane has budded inward on its lumenal surface creating a group of
vesicles.
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
161) Late endosomes are also referred to as _______.
a) multivertiginous bodies
b) multivesicular bodies
c) MVBs
d) multivesicular bodies and MVBs
e) lateosomes
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
162) What recognizes ubiquitinated signaling receptors and sorts them into the membranes that give rise to the internal
vesicles of the late endosomes?
a) ESCRT complexes
b) CREST complexes
c) ESCORT complexes
d) RESCT complexes
e) lysosomes
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
163) What leads to the degradation of the contents of late endosomes by lysosomal enzymes?
a) secretion of lysosomal enzymes into late endosomes

b) transport of lysosomal enzymes into late endosomes through specialized pore complexes
c) fusion of late endosomes containing intralumenal vesicles with a lysosome.
d) fusion of early endosomes with lysosomes; late endosomes lowering their internal pH activating the enzymes
e) late endosomes synthesizing lysosomal enzymes that then degrade the contents
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
164) People with Niemann-Pick type C disease suffer from what defect?
a) They lack one of two lysosomal enzymes.

b) They cannot degrade HDL particles.
c) They cannot degrade LDL particles.
d) They lack one of the proteins needed to transport cholesterol out of lysosomes.
e) Their LDL receptors are nonfunctional.
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
165) Drugs that lower blood LDL levels are referred to as _______.
a) olefins
b) statins
c) ancestrins
d) cholestrins
e) cholestrans
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
166) The drugs that lower LDL concentration in the blood function by ________.
a) blocking a key cholesterol-degrading enzyme, HMG CoA reductase

b) activating a key cholesterol-degrading enzyme, HMG CoA reductase
c) blocking a key cholesterol synthesis enzyme, HMG CoA reductase
d) activating a key cholesterol synthesis enzyme, HMG CoA reductase
e) blocking a key cholesterol synthesis enzyme, HMG CoA oxidase
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
167) What protein is associated with HDL particles?
a) Large LDL particle B-100

b) LDLenin
c) apolipoprotein B-100
d) statin
e) apolipoprotein A-1
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
168) Which of the following organelles imports proteins through one or more outer boundary membranes?
a) the nucleus
b) mitochondria
c) chloroplasts
d) peroxisomes
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 8.21 Describe the processes by which proteins are taken up by mitochondria, chloroplasts, and
peroxisomes. Section Reference: Section 8.21 Posttranslational Uptake of Proteins by Peroxisomes, Mitochondria, and
Chloroplasts
169) How many subcompartments do peroxisomes have into which an imported protein can be placed?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 3 or 4
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Chloroplasts
170) Proteins destined for the peroxisomal matrix possess a(n) ________.
1) peroxisomal targeting signal
2) PTS
3) mPTS
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1, 2, and 3
e) 1 and 2
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
Chloroplasts
171) Where does the PTS receptor bind to peroxisome-destined proteins?
a) in the nucleus
b) in the cytoplasm (cytosol)
c) in the mitochondrion
d) in the peroxisome
e) in the RER
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Chloroplasts
172) Which of the following organelles imports proteins in their native, folded conformation?
a) mitochondria
b) chloroplasts
c) peroxisomes
d) nuclei
e) lysosomes
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Chloroplasts
173) How many mitochondrial subcompartments exist into which proteins can be delivered?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Chloroplasts
174) Which of the following is a mitochondrial subcompartment into which proteins can be delivered?
a) outer mitochondrial membrane (OMM)

b) inner mitochondrial membrane (IMM)
c) intermembrane space
d) matrix
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
Chloroplasts
175) The targeting sequence of mitochondrial-matrix proteins is found at the molecule's N-terminus and includes a
number of positively charged residues. What is this targeting sequence called?
a) PTS
b) mPTS
c) signal peptide
d) presequence
e) mitochondrial targeting signal
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Chloroplasts
176) The N-terminal targeting sequence of mitochondrial-matrix proteins is ultimately removed by _______ following
import into the matrix.
a) signal peptidase
b) mitochondrial processing peptidase
c) mitochondrial processing lipase
d) mitochodrial signal peptidase
e) mitochondrial signalase
Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard
Chloroplasts
177) What kind of molecule has been implicated in preparing polypeptides for mitochondrial uptake, including those that
specifically direct mitochondrial proteins to the cytosolic surface of the outer mitochondrial membrane?
a) proteases
b) aggregases
c) molecular chaperones
d) carbohydratase
e) pronases
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Chloroplasts
179) Proteins destined for the inner mitochondrial membrane or the mitochondrial matrix must pass through the
_________.
a) TOM complex
b) TIM complex
c) at least one protein-lined channel
d) intermembrane space
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
Chloroplasts
180) The _______ binds integral proteins of the inner mitochondrial membrane and inserts them into lipid bilayer and
the ______ binds matrix proteins and translocates them completely through the inner mitochondrial membrane into the
aqueous matrix compartment.
a) TIM complex, TOM complex

b) TOM complex, TIM complex
c) TIM22 complex, TIM23 complex
d) TIM23 complex, TIM22 complex
e) TOM complex, TIM23 complex
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Chloroplasts
181) What powers the movement of proteins into the mitochondrial matrix?
a) electric potential across the inner mitochondrial membrane acting on the positively-charged targeting signal
b) electric potential across the outer mitochondrial membrane acting on the positively-charged targeting signal
c) ATP
d) GTP
e) electric potential across the inner mitochondrial membrane acting on the negatively-charged targeting signal
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Chloroplasts
182) When a mitochondrial chaperone helps a mitochondrial matrix protein into the matrix by biased diffusion, the
chaperone is said to be acting as a(n) ______.
a) Brownian motion
b) biased diffuser
c) Brownian ratchet
d) misratchet
e) unbiased diffuser
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Chloroplasts
183) How many subcompartments are there in chloroplasts into which proteins can be delivered?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 6
d) 4
e) 5
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Chloroplasts
184) Which list below names the compartments into which chloroplast proteins must be imported?
a) inner and outer chloroplast membranes, the intermembrane space, the stroma, thylakoid membranes, thylakoid lumen
b) inner and outer chloroplast membranes, the intercristal space, the stroma, thylakoid membranes, thylakoid lumen
c) inner and outer chloroplast membranes, the intermembrane space, the cytoplasm, thylakoid membranes, thylakoid
lumen
d) inner and medial chloroplast membranes, the intermembrane space, the stroma, thylakoid membranes, thylakoid
lumen
e) inner and outer chloroplast membranes, the intermembrane space, the stroma, cristae membranes, thylakoid lumen
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
Chloroplasts
185) The outer and inner chloroplast membranes contain distinct translocation complexes named ________, respectively,
that work together during protein import.
a) Toc and Tic complexes
b) Tic and Toc complexes
c) Tick and Tock complexes
d) Tock and Tick complexes
e) Tock and Tic complexes
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Chloroplasts
186) Most proteins destined for the chloroplast are synthesized with a removable ________ called the ______.
a) N-terminal sequence, signal peptide

b) C-terminal sequence, transit peptide
c) N-terminal sequence, transit peptide
d) C-terminal sequence, signal peptide
e) mid-chain sequence, transit peptide
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Section 8.9 Posttranslational Uptake of Proteins by Peroxisomes, Mitochondria, and Chloroplasts
Section Reference: LO 8.9 Explain how proteins are inserted into the membranes and lumen of cellular organelles.
187) Proteins that are destined to be translocated through the chloroplast envelope into the stroma must have a transit
peptide including _______.
a) a thylakoid transfer domain

b) a thylakoid lumen domain
c) a transit peptidase
d) a stroma-targeting domain
e) a matrix-targeting domain
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Chloroplasts
188) What removes the stroma-targeting domain and where does the removal occur?
a) a processing peptide synthase, stroma

b) a processing peptidase, stroma
c) a processing peptidase, thylakoid membrane
d) a processing peptidase, thylakoid lumen
e) a stromase, stroma
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Chloroplasts
189) Many of the proteins that reside within the thylakoid membrane are encoded by chloroplast genes and synthesized
on __________.
a) ribosomes floating in the stroma

b) ribosomes bound to the outer surface of the thylakoid membrane
c) ribosomes bound to the inner chloroplast membrane
d) ribosomes inside the thylakoid disks
e) cytoplasmic ribosomes
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Chloroplasts
190) What acts as an address directing lysosomal enzymes to lysosomes?
a) a lysosomal peptide
b) mannose-6-sulfate residues on the enzyme
c) mannose-6-phosphate residues on the enzyme
d) a signal peptide on the enzyme
e) a stroma transfer peptide on the enzyme
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
191) I-cell disease is typified by __________.
a) lysosomes bloated with undegraded materials

b) the production of normal levels of lysosomal enzymes without the mannose 6-phosphate residues normally present
c) lysosomal enzymes being secreted by the cell because they have not been targeted to lysosomes
d) a deficiency in N-acetylglucosamine phosphotransferase
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 8.12 Describe the cause, pathology, treatment, and prognosis for lysosomal storage disorders.
Section Reference: Section 8.12 The Human Perspective: Disorders Resulting from Defects in Lysosomal Function
192) In general, diseases that result from a deficiency of a single lysosomal enzyme are called ________.
a) lysosomal dissociation disorders

b) Tay-Sachs Disease
c) lysosomal storage disorders
d) ancestral disorders
e) ancestral lysosomal disorders
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
193) Why does glucocerebrosidase taken into macrophages by receptor-mediated endocytosis end up in lysosomes?
a) The enzyme travels through the cytoplasm to get to lysosomes.

b) The enzyme denatures and then goes through a channel into lysosomes.
c) Lysosomes are the natural target of enzymes taken into macrophages by endocytosis.
d) Lysosomes adsorb glucocerebrosidase to their surfaces.
e) Lysosomes pick up the enzyme from mitochondria.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard
194) Why does targeting glucocerebrosidase to lysosomes in macrophages serve as a treatment for Gaucher's disease?
a) Glucocerebrosidase is normally denatured in the lysosomes.

b) Glucocerebrosidase is delivered to the precise sites in the cell where the deficiency is manifested, thus correcting the
deficit.
c) Glucocerebrosidase denatures the cytoplasm from its location in the lysosomes correcting the deficit.
d) Glucocerebrosidase binds to the outer lysosome surface and breaks down glycogen in the cytoplasm.
e) Glucocerbrosidase is supposed to digest most of the enzymes in the lysosome.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard
195) Treatment of lysosomal storage diseases with enzyme replacement therapy involves _______.
a) targeting functional copies of the missing enzyme to the precise cell sites where the deficiency is manifested
b) targeting mutant copies of the missing enzyme to the cell sites where the deficiency is manifested
c) targeting functional copies of another enzyme to the cell sites where the deficiency is manifested
d) administration of small molecular weight drugs to inhibit the synthesis of substances that accumulate in the disease
e) administration of large molecular weight drugs to inhibit the synthesis of substances that accumulate in the disease
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
196) Treatment of lysosomal storage disorders with substrate reduction therapy involves _______.
a) targeting functional copies of the missing enzyme to the cell sites where the deficiency is manifested
b) targeting mutant copies of the missing enzyme to the cell sites where the deficiency is manifested
c) targeting functional copies of another enzyme to the cell sites where the deficiency is manifested
d) administration of small molecular weight drugs to inhibit the synthesis of the substances that accumulate in the
disease
e) administration of large molecular weight drugs to inhibit the synthesis of the substances that accumulate in the disease
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Question Type: Essay
197) Explain how lysosomes become bloated in patients who suffer from I-cell disease.
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: Lysosomal enzymes in I-cell patients lack the mannose 6-phosphate residues that are needed to target them to
lysosomes. Thus, lysosomal enzymes are synthesized at normal levels, but they are secreted instead of being targeted
to lysosomes. When molecules that are usually broken down in the lysosomes get there, they are not degraded because
the enzymes are missing from the lysosome. As a result, these molecules build up in the lysosomes since they are not
degraded, causing them to become bloated with undegraded materials.
198) What is responsible for the deficiency in I-cell disease patients in which the lysosomal enzymes do not carry the
normal mannose phosphate residues that target them to lysosomes?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: These patients possess a deficiency in the enzyme, N-acetylglucosamine phosphotransferase, which adds
phosphate groups to mannose residues on lysosomal enzymes, while they are being processed in the Golgi complex.
199) What is a lysosomal storage disease?

Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: A lysosomal storage disease arises when an enzyme usually found in the lysosomes is absent or is mutated so
that it does not function properly. The substrate that it usually degrades builds up in the lysosomes, causing the
organelle to swell and leading to irreversible cell and tissue damage. Over 40 such diseases have been described, and
each is characterized by the deficiency of a single lysosomal enzyme and the corresponding accumulation of undegraded
substrate.
200) You wish to target a purified enzyme to the lysosomes of macrophages. How might you accomplish this?
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Solution: If you treat the oligosaccharides of the enzyme with glycosidases so that mannose residues are exposed as
terminal sugars, they may be recognized by receptors on macrophage surfaces. If they are recognized, they will be
ingested by receptor-mediated endocytosis. Since the natural target site of materials brought into the cell by
endocytosis is the lysosomes, the enzymes might be delivered efficiently to lysosomes, thus correcting the deficiency.
This form of enzyme replacement therapy has actually been used successfully in many cases.
201) Approaches other than enzyme replacement therapy for treatment of lysosomal storage diseases have shown some
promise. What are they and how do they work?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: It is unfortunate that many lysosomal storage diseases affect the central nervous system. The cells of the
central nervous system are unable to take up circulating enzymes because of the blood-brain barrier. Thus, enzyme
replacement therapy is not effective in the central nervous system.
202) You are observing a cell process in which small vesicles continually merge with the cell membrane. A number of
different treatments known to influence the secretion of specific materials seems to have no effect on the process. What
type of secretion appears to be occurring?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 8.1 Compare and contrast the biosynthetic pathway with the endocytic pathway, listing their
components. Section Reference: Section 8.1 An Overview of the Endomembrane System
Solution: It looks like constitutive secretion since known regulatory treatments have little effect.
203) A tissue that secretes a number of proteins is exposed in culture to radiolabeled amino acids for a very short period
of time and then fixed immediately and prepared for autoradiography. What is seen after the autoradiograms are
prepared?
Answer:
Difficulty: Easy
Solution: Exposed silver grains are seen over the rough ER where the amino acids are incorporated into proteins.
204) What recently developed technique allows scientists to follow with their own eyes the dynamic movements of
specific proteins as they occur within the living cell?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: Green fluorescent protein (GFP) is a small protein from a certain jellyfish, which emits a green fluorescent
light. The DNA encoding GFP can be fused to the gene to be studied. The resultant composite DNA can be
introduced into cells and once there, the chimeric (composite) protein consisting of GFP fused to the end of the protein to
be studied can be expressed. Generally, the GFP fused to the protein to be studied functions normally as does the
protein to which it is attached. Furthermore, the movement of the studied protein through the cell is unaffected as well.
Wherever the protein is transported through the cell, it can be visualized via the attached GFP.
205) You homogenize a liver cell and isolate from it vesicles derived from the endoplasmic reticulum. When their
biochemistry is analyzed, they are found to contain oxygenases. From what type of ER are they derived?
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Solution: They contain oxygenases, suggesting that they may be derived from liver SER, which carries out detoxification
of organic compounds like ethanol and barbiturates.
206) In carrying out a pulse-chase experiment, radiolabel appears first over the ER in the basal portion of the cell. It
moves next to the Golgi apparatus located centrally. Next, the radiolabel appears in the cell's apical region near a
number of small cytoplasmic vesicles. What kind of cell is this?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: It is a secretory cell.
207) You homogenize a cell and isolate from it vesicles derived from the endoplasmic reticulum. When their
biochemistry is analyzed, they are found to have the ability to synthesize testosterone. From what type of ER are they
derived?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: They are derived from SER, since they are capable of synthesizing a steroid like testosterone, a job often
identified with SER.
208) What is the name of a cellular phenomenon in which cells produce small RNAs that bind to specific mRNAs and
inhibit their translation into proteins? What are the small RNAs that bind to these specific mRNAs called?
Answer:
Difficulty: Easy
Solution: It is called RNA interference or RNAi. siRNAs bind to them.

209) What information does the use of siRNAs provide?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: They can be used to determine and identify which genes are involved in a particular cellular process. If an
siRNA interferes with a process like a step in the secretory pathway, the protein product of the inhibited mRNA (and the
gene to which it is complementary) is likely to be involved in that step.
210) The mRNA for a well-known secretory protein is isolated and placed in a test tube in the presence of all the
substances required for in vitro protein synthesis. The sequence of the protein produced in vitro is then compared to the
sequence of the purified secretory protein. The sequences of the two proteins are not the same. What is the
explanation?
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Solution: A short expanse of hydrophobic amino acids (the signal peptide) was removed from the N-terminal end of the
polypeptide in the intact cell.
211) A scientist isolates two specific mRNAs. One codes for the enzyme fowlase, an enzyme that is involved in
digestion in chickadees; the other codes for the quail enzyme quailase that is involved in cellular carbohydrate
metabolism. Both mRNAs are placed in a test tube with RER vesicles stripped of their ribosomes, free ribosomes and
precursors for protein synthesis. When the protein synthesis reaction is complete, fowlase is found inside the vesicles;
quailase is found in the liquid portion of the test tube outside the vesicles. What can one conclude about the two
proteins?
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Solution: Fowlase is a secretory protein; quailase is a domestic protein that is not secreted and stays in the cell
cytoplasm.
212) Radioactive phospholipid precursors are exposed to growing cells in a brief pulse. After a chase with nonlabeled
phospholipid precursors, it is clear that the label appears first over the endoplasmic reticulum. Some time later, the
label appears in the cell membrane after being seen in the Golgi complex and cytoplasmic vesicles. To what conclusion
do the data lead you?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: Membrane lipids appear to be synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum, after which they move to the Golgi
apparatus and then to vesicles, which contribute the phospholipids to the membrane upon exocytosis.
213) You have isolated from a cell vesicles that are shown to be derived from the Golgi apparatus. They take up a large
amount of osmium tetroxide when stained and contain little nucleotide diphosphatase activity. These vesicles also
contain a few proteins typical of the endoplasmic reticulum. Is it possible to determine where in the Golgi body these
vesicles originated? Explain your answer.
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: Since the Golgi apparatus is not uniform in composition, such a determination should be possible. Cis Golgi
membranes typically take up osmium tetroxide better than other parts of the Golgi, but should contain little or no
nucleotide diphosphatase, since this enzyme is normally found at the trans face. The presence of a few ER proteins also
suggests that the vesicles are probably from the cis Golgi since some ER proteins can be taken there from the ER. They
will, however, be recycled back to the ER before they get to the trans face.
214) A scientist is studying the movement of vesicles between different cellular compartments. She starts by treating
the cells with a number of known inhibitors of cellular activities. One of them greatly increases the number of
fuzzy-coated vesicles. What is a possible explanation? The effect of the inhibitor can be reversed if intracellular GTP
is added in large amounts. What might explain this?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: The inhibitor could inhibit some action of the adenosylation ribose factor (ARF), like binding or hydrolysis of
GTP. This could allow the formation of fuzzy-coated vesicles, but prevent their disassembly at the appropriate time.
If increased intracellular GTP can reverse the inhibition, it suggests that the inhibitor might be a GTP analog that binds
to ARF and thus a competitive inhibitor of this process. Increasing the concentration of GTP (the normal ligand)
reverses this competitive inhibition.
215) A protein that is normally secreted is genetically engineered by altering the gene that encodes it. The part of the
gene encoding the KDEL sequence is removed from the C-terminus and two stop-transfer sequences are inserted in the
middle of its gene. When the altered gene is reinserted into the cells, what happens?
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Solution: The protein is no longer found in the cisternal space. Instead, it is found in the membrane since the
stop-transfer sequences prevent it from passing completely through the channel into the cisternae. It will also travel via
the biosynthetic pathway to the cell membrane if it lacks the KKXX sequence that restricts such proteins to the ER
membranes.
216) An organelle whose interior exhibits a low pH is identified. It is irregularly shaped and contains acid phosphatase.
What is it most likely to be?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: A lysosome
217) You are studying the effects of a number of treatments on the nervous system of a particular species of lab animal.
One of the treatments is able to block the process of autophagy and it can be administered with enough precision to
localize the treatment to a particular portion of the brain. What effect does such a treatment have on the animal's brain
and what do the results suggest?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: When treated in this fashion, the specific region of the nervous system receiving the treatment experiences a
massive loss of nerve cells. This exhibits the importance of autophagy in protecting brain cells from the continuous
damage to proteins and organelles that is experienced by these long-lived cells.
218) Plant cells are exposed to an inhibitor of H+-ATPase in the tonoplast membrane. What will the immediate effect
be?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 8.16 List the functions of plant cell vacuoles. Section Reference: Section 8.16 Plant Cell Vacuoles
Solution: Since the enzyme pumps H+ ions into the plant's large, central vacuole, disabling it will be likely to raise the
pH inside the vacuole
219) If amoebae are treated with cytochalasin B, an inhibitor of actin polymerization, phagocytosis stops. Why is this
so?
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Solution: The process of phagocytosis is driven by microfilaments, which are made up of actin. Cytochalasin B inhibits
their polymerization and thus phagocytosis as well.
220) An infant, who is unable to acquire antibodies properly from his mother's breast milk, is born. Tests determine
that he makes receptors for the antibodies and that they efficiently bind the antibodies, yet they are not exactly like
normal receptors. What is a possible explanation for the inability to take up the antibodies?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: It is possible that while the antibody receptors can bind their ligand, they are unable to localize to the coated
pits to facilitate internalization.
221) What is thought to mediate the initial contacts between a transport vesicle and its target membrane, like a Golgi
cisterna? Describe the two groups of tethering proteins.
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: The initial contacts between a transport vesicle and its target membrane are thought to be mediated by so-called
tethering proteins. One group of tethering proteins is characterized by rod-shaped, fibrous proteins that are capable of
forming a molecular bridge between the two membranes over a considerable distance (50 – 200 nm). The second group
is composed of large multiprotein complexes that appear to hold the two membranes in closer proximity.
223) How are signaling receptors typically marked for endocytosis and subsequent destruction? What evidence
demonstrates ubiquitin's role in the internalization of membrane proteins?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: Signaling receptors are typically marked for endocytosis and subsequent destruction by the covalent attachment
of a tag to the cytoplasmic tail of the receptor while it resides at the cell surface. The tag is a small protein called
ubiquitin. Membrane proteins that are not normally subjected to endocytosis become internalized if they are made to
carry an added ubiquitin.
224) How do early endosomes mature into late endosomes? How is this population of vesicles formed? What name is
often given to late endosomes because of the population of vesicles located inside the endosome?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: They do so progressively. The transformation from an early to a late endosome is apparently characterized by
a decrease in pH, an exchange of Rab proteins (from Rab5 to Rab7) and a major change in the internal morphology of
the structures in which a population of vesicles is created that crowds the interior of the late endosome. The outer
boundary membrane of the endosome forms buds on its lumenal surface that invaginate inward. Multivesicular bodies
(or MVBs).
225) What are the functions of housekeeping receptors in the endocytic pathway? What is the function of signaling
receptors in the endocytic pathway? How do the fates of housekeeping and signaling receptors generally differ?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: Housekeeping receptors in the endocytic pathway are responsible for the uptake of materials that will be used
by the cell, like transferrin and LDL receptors, which mediate the delivery to cells of iron and cholesterol, respectively.
Signaling receptors are responsible for binding extracellular ligands that carry messages that change the activities of the
cell, like hormones (e.g., insulin) and growth factors (e.g., EGF). These ligands bind to the surface receptor and signal
a physiologic response inside the cell. Housekeeping receptors typically deliver their bound materials to the cell and then
return to the cell surface for additional rounds of uptake. Endocytosis of the signaling receptors often results in the
destruction of the receptor, a process called receptor down-regulation. This leads to a reduction in the sensitivity of the
cell to further stimulation by the hormone or growth factor. Receptor down-regulation is a mechanism by which cells
regulate their ability to respond to extracellular messengers.
Another random document with
no related content on Scribd:
majorities for the Democratic Presidential electors, the Whigs drew
off. In 1845, at the April election in New York, the natives were
defeated, and the new party disappeared there. As a result of the
autumn election of 1844, the 29th Congress, which organized in
December, 1845, had six Native Representatives; four from New
York and two from Pennsylvania. In the 30th Congress, Pennsylvania
had one. Thereafter for some years, with the exception of a small
vote in Pennsylvania and New York, Nativism disappeared. An able
writer of that day—Hon. A. H. H. Stuart, of Virginia—published
under the nom-de-plume of “Madison” several letters in vindication
of the American party (revived in 1852,) in which he said: “The vital
principle of the American party is Americanism—developing itself in
a deep-rooted attachment to our own country—its constitution, its
union, and its laws—to American men, and American measures, and
American interests—or, in other words, a fervent patriotism—which,
rejecting the transcendental philanthropy of abolitionists, and that
kindred batch of wild enthusiasts, who would seek to embroil us with
foreign countries, in righting the wrongs of Ireland, or Hungary, or
Cuba—would guard with vestal vigilance American institutions and
American interests against the baneful effects of foreign influence.”
About 1852, when the question of slavery in the territories, and its
extension or its abolition in the States, was agitated and causing
sectional differences in the country, many Whigs and Democrats
forsook their parties, and took sides on the questions of the day. This
was aggravated by the large number of alien naturalized citizens
constantly added to the ranks of voters, who took sides with the
Democrats and against the Whigs. Nativism then re-appeared, but in
a new form—that of a secret fraternity. Its real name and objects
were not revealed—even to its members, until they reached a high
degree in the order; and the answer of members on being questioned
on these subjects was, “I don’t know”—which gave it the popular
name, by which it is yet known, of “Know-nothing.” Its moving
causes were the growing power and designs of the Roman Catholic
Church in America; the sudden influx of aliens; and the greed and
incapacity of naturalized citizens for office. Its cardinal principle
was: “Americans must rule America”; and its countersign was the
order of General Washington on a critical occasion during the war:
“Put none but Americans on guard to-night.” Its early nominations
were not made public, but were made by select committees and
conventions of delegates. At first these nominations were confined to
selections of the best Whig or best Democrat on the respective
tickets; and the choice not being made known, but quietly voted for
by all the members of the order, the effect was only visible after
election, and threw all calculation into chaos. For a while it was really
the arbiter of elections.
On February 8, 1853, a bill passed the House of Representatives
providing a territorial government for Nebraska, embracing all of
what is now Kansas and Nebraska. It was silent on the subject of the
repeal of the Missouri Compromise. The bill was tabled in the
Senate; to be revived at the following session. In the Senate it was
amended, on motion of Mr. Douglas, to read: “That so much of the
8th section of an act approved March 6, 1820, (the Missouri
compromise) *** which, being inconsistent with the principles of
non-intervention by Congress with slavery in the States and
Territories, as recognized by the legislature of 1850, commonly called
the Compromise measures, is hereby declared inoperative and void;
it being the true intent and meaning of this act not to legislate slavery
into any Territory or State, nor to exclude it therefrom, but to leave
the people thereof perfectly free to form and regulate their domestic
institutions in their own way, subject only to the Constitution of the
United States.” It was further amended, on motion of Senator
Clayton, to prohibit “alien suffrage.” In the House this amendment
was not agreed to; and the bill finally passed without it, on the 25th
May, 1854.
So far as Nebraska was concerned, no excitement of any kind
marked the initiation of her territorial existence. The persons who
emigrated there seemed to regard the pursuits of business as of more
interest than the discussion of slavery. Kansas was less fortunate.
Her territory became at once the battle-field of a fierce political
conflict between the advocates of slavery, and the free soil men from
the North who went there to resist the establishment of that
institution in the territory. Differences arose between the Legislature
and the Governor, brought about by antagonisms between the Pro-
slavery party and the Free State party; and the condition of affairs in
Kansas assumed so frightful a mien in January, 1856, that the
President sent a special message to Congress on the subject, January
24, 1856; followed by a Proclamation, February 11, 1856, “warning all
unlawful combinations (in the territory) to retire peaceably to their
respective abodes, or he would use the power of the local militia, and
the available forces of the United States to disperse them.”
Several applications were made to Congress for several successive
years, for the admission of Kansas as a state in the Union; upon the
basis of three separate and distinct constitutions, all differing as to
the main questions at issue between the contending factions. The
name of Kansas was for some years synonymous with all that is
lawless and anarchical. Elections became mere farces, and the
officers thus fraudulently placed in power, used their authority only
for their own or their party’s interest. The party opposed to slavery at
length triumphed; a constitution excluding slavery was adopted in
1859, and Kansas was admitted into the Union January 29, 1861.
Under the fugitive slave law, which was passed by Congress at the
session of 1850, as one of the Compromise measures, introduced by
Mr. Clay, a long and exciting litigation occurred to test the validity
and constitutionality of the act, and the several laws on which it
depended. The suit was instituted by Dred Scott, a negro slave, in the
Circuit Court of the United States for the District of Missouri, in
April Term, 1854, against John F. A. Sanford, his alleged owner, for
trespass vi et armis, in holding the plaintiff and his wife and
daughters in slavery in said District of Missouri, where by law slavery
was prohibited; they having been previously lawfully held in slavery
by a former owner—Dr. Emerson—in the State of Illinois, from
whence they were taken by him to Missouri, and sold to the
defendant, Sanford. The case went up on appeal to the Supreme
Court of the United States, and was clearly and elaborately argued.
The majority opinion, delivered by Chief Justice Taney, as also the
dissenting opinions, are reported in full in Howard’s U. S. Supreme
Court Reports, Volume 19, page 393. In respect to the territories the
Constitution grants to Congress the power “to make all needful rules
and regulations concerning the territory and other property
belonging to the United States.” The Court was of opinion that the
clause of the Constitution applies only to the territory within the
original States at the time the Constitution was adopted, and that it
did not apply to future territory acquired by treaty or conquest from
foreign nations. They were also of opinion that the power of Congress
over such future territorial acquisitions was not unlimited, that the
citizens of the States migrating to a territory were not to be regarded
as colonists, subject to absolute power in Congress, but as citizens of
the United States, with all the rights of citizenship guarantied by the
Constitution, and that no legislation was constitutional which
attempted to deprive a citizen of his property on his becoming a
resident of a territory. This question in the case arose under the act
of Congress prohibiting slavery in the territory of upper Louisiana,
(acquired from France, afterwards the State), and of which the
territory of Missouri was formed. Any obscurity as to what
constitutes citizenship, will be removed by attending to the
distinction between local rights of citizenship of the United States
according to the Constitution. Citizenship at large in the sense of the
Constitution can be conferred on a foreigner only by the
naturalization laws of Congress. But each State, in the exercise of its
local and reserved sovereignty, may place foreigners or other persons
on a footing with its own citizens, as to political rights and privileges
to be enjoyed within its own dominion. But State regulations of this
character do not make the persons on whom such rights are
conferred citizens of the United States or entitle them to the
privileges and immunities of citizens in another State. See 5
Wheaton, (U. S. Supreme Court Reports), page 49.
The Court said in The Dred Scott case, above referred to, that:
—“The right of property in a slave is distinctly and expressly affirmed
in the Constitution. The right to traffic in it like the ordinary article
of merchandise and property was guarantied to the citizens of the
United States, in every State that might desire it for twenty years,
and the government in express terms is pledged to protect it in all
future time if the slave escapes from his owner. This is done in plain
words—too plain to be misunderstood, and no word can be found in
the Constitution which gives Congress a greater power over slave
property, or which entitles property of that kind to less protection
than the property of any other description. The only power conferred
is the power coupled with the duty of guarding and protecting the
owner in his rights. Upon these considerations, it is the opinion of
the Court that the Act of Congress which prohibited a citizen from
holding and owning property of this kind in the territory of the
United States north of the line therein mentioned, is not warranted
by the Constitution and is therefore void; and that neither Dred Scott
himself, nor any of his family were made free by being carried into
this territory; even if they had been carried there by the owner with
the intention of becoming a permanent resident.” The abolition of
slavery by the 13th amendment to the Constitution of the United
States ratified and adopted December 18, 1865, has put an end to
these discussions formerly so numerous.
As early as 1854, the Kansas-Nebraska controversy on the
territorial government bill, resulted in a division of the Whig party in
the North. Those not sufficiently opposed to slavery to enter the new
Republican party, then in its incipiency, allied themselves with the
Know-Nothing order, which now accepting the name of American
party established a separate and independent political existence. The
party had no hold in the West; it was entirely Middle State at this
time, and polled a large vote in Massachusetts, Delaware and New
York. In the State elections of 1855 the American party made a stride
Southward. In 1855, the absence of naturalized citizens was universal
in the South, and even so late as 1881 the proportion of foreign born
population in the Southern States, with the exception of Florida,
Louisiana, and Texas was under two per cent. At the early date—1855
—the nativist feeling among the Whigs of that section, made it easy
to transfer them to the American party, which thus secured in both
the Eastern and Southern States, the election of Governor and
Legislature in the States of New Hampshire, Massachusetts, Rhode
Island, Connecticut, New York, California and Kentucky; and also
elected part of its State ticket in Maryland, and Texas; and only lost
the States of Virginia, Alabama, Mississippi, Louisiana, and Texas, by
small majorities against it.
The order began preparations for a campaign as a National party,
in 1856. It aimed to introduce opposition to aliens and Roman
Catholicism as a national question. On the 21st of February, 1856,
the National Council held a session at Philadelphia, and proceeded to
formulate a declaration of principles, and make a platform, which
were as follows:
“An humble acknowledgement to the Supreme Being, for his
protecting care vouchsafed to our fathers in their successful
Revolutionary struggle, and hitherto manifested to us, their
descendants, in the preservation of the liberties, the independence,
and the union of these States.
2d. The perpetuation of the Federal Union, as the palladium of our
civil and religious liberties, and the only sure Bulwark of American
independence.
3d. Americans must rule America, and to this end, native-born
citizens should be selected for all state, federal, and municipal offices
or government employment, in preference to all others; nevertheless,
4th. Persons born of American parents residing temporarily
abroad, should be entitled to all the rights of native-born citizens;
but,
5th. No person shall be selected for political station (whether of
native or foreign birth), who recognizes any allegiance or obligation,
of any description, to any foreign prince, potentate, or power, or who
refuses to recognize the Federal and State constitutions (each within
its sphere) as paramount to all other laws, as rules of political action.
6th. The unqualified recognition and maintenance of the reserved
rights of the several States, and the cultivation of harmony and
fraternal good will, between the citizens of the several States, and to
this end, non-interference by congress with questions appertaining
solely to the individual States, and non-intervention by each State
with the affairs of any other State.
7th. The recognition of the right of the native-born and naturalized
citizens of the United States, permanently residing in any territory
thereof, to frame their constitution and laws, and to regulate their
domestic and social affairs in their own mode, subject only to the
provisions of the Federal Constitution, with the privilege of
admission into the Union, whenever they have the requisite
population for one representative in Congress.—Provided always,
that none but those who are citizens of the United States, under the
Constitution and laws thereof, and who have a fixed residence in any
such territory, ought to participate in the formation of the
Constitution, or in the enactment of laws for said Territory or State.
8th. An enforcement of the principle that no State or Territory
ought to admit others than citizens of the United States to the right
of suffrage, or of holding political office.
9th. A change in the laws of naturalization, making a continued
residence of twenty-one years, of all not hereinbefore provided for,
an indispensable requisite for citizenship hereafter, and excluding all
paupers, and persons convicted of crime, from landing upon our
shores; but no interference with the vested rights of foreigners.
10th. Opposition to any union between Church and State; no
interference with religious faith, or worship, and no test oaths for
office.
11th. Free and thorough investigation into any and all alleged
abuses of public functionaries, and a strict economy in public
expenditures.
12th. The maintenance and enforcement of all laws
constitutionally enacted, until said laws shall be repealed, or shall be
declared null and void by competent judicial authority.
The American Ritual, or Constitution, rules, regulations, and
ordinances of the Order were as follows:—
AMERICAN RITUAL.
Constitution of the National Council of the United States of North
America.
Art. 1st. This organization shall be known by the name and title of
The National Council of the United States of North America,
and its jurisdiction and power shall extend to all the states, districts,
and territories of the United States of North America.
Art. 2d. The object of this organization shall be to protect every
American citizen in the legal and proper exercise of all his civil and
religious rights and privileges; to resist the insidious policy of the
Church of Rome, and all other foreign influence against our
republican institutions in all lawful ways; to place in all offices of
honor, trust, or profit, in the gift of the people, or by appointment,
none but native-born Protestant citizens, and to protect, preserve,
and uphold the union of these states and the constitution of the
same.
Art. 3d. Sec. 1.—A person to become a member of any subordinate
council must be twenty-one years of age; he must believe in the
existence of a Supreme Being as the Creator and preserver of the
universe. He must be a native-born citizen; a Protestant, either born
of Protestant parents, or reared under Protestant influence; and not
united in marriage with a Roman Catholic; provided, nevertheless,
that in this last respect, the state, district, or territorial councils shall
be authorized to so construct their respective constitutions as shall
best promote the interests of the American cause in their several
jurisdictions; and provided, moreover, that no member who may
have a Roman Catholic wife shall be eligible to office in this order;
and provided, further, should any state, district, or territorial council
prefer the words “Roman Catholic” as a disqualification to
membership, in place of “Protestant” as a qualification, they may so
consider this constitution and govern their action accordingly.
Sec. 2.—There shall be an interval of three weeks between the
conferring of the first and second degrees; and of three months
between the conferring of the second and third degrees—provided,
that this restriction shall not apply to those who may have received
the second degree previous to the first day of December next; and
provided, further, that the presidents of state, district, and territorial
councils may grant dispensations for initiating in all the degrees,
officers of new councils.
Sec. 3.—The national council shall hold its annual meetings on the
first Tuesday in the month of June, at such place as may be
designated by the national council at the previous annual meeting,
and it may adjourn from time to time. Special meetings may be
called by the President, on the written request of five delegations
representing five state councils; provided, that sixty days’ notice shall
be given to the state councils previous to said meeting.
Sec. 4.—The national council shall be composed of seven delegates
from each state, to be chosen by the state councils; and each district
or territory where a district or territorial council shall exist, shall be
entitled to send two delegates, to be chosen from said council—
provided that in the nomination of candidates for President and
Vice-President of the United States, and each state shall be entitled
to cast the same number of votes as they shall have members in both
houses of Congress. In all sessions of the national council, thirty-two
delegates, representing thirteen states, territories, or districts, shall
constitute a quorum for the transaction of business.
Sec. 5.—The national council shall be vested with the following
powers and privileges:
It shall be the head of the organization for the United States of
North America, and shall fix and establish all signs, grips, pass-
words, and such other secret work, as may seem to it necessary.
It shall have the power to decide all matters appertaining to
national politics.
It shall have the power to exact from the state councils, quarterly
or annual statements as to the number of members under their
jurisdictions, and in relation to all other matters necessary for its
information.
It shall have the power to form state, territorial, or district
councils, and to grant dispensations for the formation of such bodies,
when five subordinate councils shall have been put in operation in
any state, territory, or district, and application made.
It shall have the power to determine upon a mode of punishment
in case of any dereliction of duty on the part of its members or
officers.
It shall have the power to adopt cabalistic characters for the
purpose of writing or telegraphing. Said characters to be
communicated to the presidents of the state councils, and by them to
the presidents of the subordinate councils.
It shall have the power to adopt any and every measure it may
deem necessary to secure the success of the organization; provided
that nothing shall be done by the said national council in violation of
the constitution; and provided further, that in all political matters,
its members may be instructed by the state councils, and if so
instructed, shall carry out such instructions of the state councils
which they represent until overruled by a majority of the national
council.
Art. 4. The President shall always preside over the national council
when present, and in his absence the Vice-President shall preside,
and in the absence of both the national council shall appoint a
president pro tempore; and the presiding officers may at all times
call a member to the chair, but such appointment shall not extend
beyond one sitting of the national council.
Art. 5. Sec. 1.—The officers of the National Council shall be a
President, Vice-President, Chaplain, Corresponding Secretary,
Recording Secretary, Treasurer, and two Sentinels, with such other
officers as the national council may see fit to appoint from time to
time; and the secretaries and sentinels may receive such
compensation as the national council shall determine.
Sec. 2.—The duties of the several officers created by this
constitution shall be such as the work of this organization prescribes.
Art. 6. Sec. 1.—All officers provided for by this constitution, except
the sentinels, shall be elected annually by ballot. The president may
appoint sentinels from time to time.
Sec. 2.—A majority of all the votes cast shall be requisite to an
election for an office.
Sec. 3.—All officers and delegates of this council, and of all state,
district, territorial, and subordinate councils, must be invested with
all the degrees of this order.
Sec. 4.—All vacancies in the elective offices shall be filled by a vote
of the national council, and only for the unexpired term of the said
vacancy.
Art. 7. Sec. 1.—The national council shall entertain and decide all
cases of appeal, and it shall establish a form of appeal.
Sec. 2.—The national council shall levy a tax upon the state,
district, or territorial councils, for the support of the national council,
to be paid in such manner and at such times as the national council
shall determine.
Art. 8.—This national council may alter and amend this
constitution at its regular annual meeting in June next, by a vote of
the majority of the whole number of the members present.
(Cincinnati, Nov. 24, 1854.)
RULES AND REGULATIONS.
Rule 1.—Each State, District, or Territory, in which there may exist

five or more subordinate councils working under dispensations from
the National Council of the United States of North America, or under
regular dispensations from some State, District, or Territory, are
duly empowered to establish themselves into a State, District, or
Territorial council, and when so established, to form for themselves
constitutions and by-laws for their government, in pursuance of, and
in consonance with the Constitution of the National Council of the
United States; provided, however, that all State, District, or
Territorial constitutions shall be subject to the approval of the
National Council of the United States. (June, 1854.)
Rule 2.—All State, District, or Territorial councils, when
established, shall have full power and authority to establish all
subordinate councils within their respective limits; and the
constitutions and by-laws of all such subordinate councils must be
approved by their respective State, District, or Territorial councils.
(June, 1854.)
Rule 3.—All State, District, or Territorial councils, when
established and until the formation of constitutions, shall work
under the constitution of the National Council of the United States.
(June, 1854.)
Rule 4.—In all cases where, for the convenience of the
organization, two State or Territorial councils may be established,
the two councils together shall be entitled to but thirteen delegates[3]
in the National Council of the United States—the proportioned
number of delegates to depend on the number of members in the
organizations; provided, that no State shall be allowed to have more
than one State council, without the consent of the National Council
of the United States. (June, 1854.)
Rule 5.—In any State, District, or Territory, where there may be
more than one organization working on the same basis, (to wit, the
lodges and “councils,”) the same shall be required to combine; the
officers of each organization shall resign and new officers be elected;
and thereafter these bodies shall be known as State councils, and
subordinate councils, and new charters shall be granted to them by
the national council. (June, 1854.)
Rule 6.—It shall be considered a penal offence for any brother not
an officer of a subordinate council, to make use of the sign or
summons adopted for public notification, except by direction of the
President; or for officers of a council to post the same at any other
time than from midnight to one hour before daybreak, and this rule
shall be incorporated into the by-laws of the State, District, and
Territorial councils. (June, 1854.)
Rule 7.—The determination of the necessity and mode of issuing
the posters for public notification shall be intrusted to the State,
District, or Territorial councils. (June, 1854.)
Rule 8.—The respective State, District, or Territorial councils shall
be required to make statements of the number of members within
their respective limits, at the next meeting of this national council,
and annually thereafter, at the regular annual meeting. (June, 1854.)
Rule 9.—The delegates to the National Council of the United States
of North America shall be entitled to three dollars per day for their
attendance upon the national council, and for each day that may be
necessary in going and returning from the same; and five cents per
mile for every mile they may necessarily travel in going to, and
returning from the place of meeting of the national council; to be
computed by the nearest mail route: which shall be paid out of the
treasury of the national council. (November, 1854.)
Rule 10.—Each State, District, or Territorial council shall be taxed
four cents per annum for every member in good standing belonging
to each subordinate council under its jurisdiction on the first day of
April, which shall be reported to the national council, and paid into
the national treasury, on or before the first day of the annual session,
to be held in June; and on the same day in each succeeding year. And
the first fiscal year shall be considered as commencing on the first
day of December, 1854, and ending on the fifteenth day of May, 1855.
(November, 1854.)
Rule 11.—The following shall be the key to determine and ascertain
the purport of any communication that may be addressed to the
President of a State, District, or Territorial council by the President
of the national council, who is hereby instructed to communicate a
knowledge of the same to said officers:
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
1 7 13 19 25 2 8 14 20 26 3 9 15
N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
21 4 10 16 22 5 11 17 23 6 12 18 24
Rule 12.—The clause of the article of the constitution relative to

belief in the Supreme Being is obligatory upon every State and
subordinate council, as well as upon each individual member. (June,
1854.)
Rule 13.—The following shall be the compensation of the officers of
this council:
1st. The Corresponding Secretary shall be paid two thousand
dollars per annum, from the 17th day of June, 1854.
2d. The Treasurer shall be paid five hundred dollars per annum,
from the 17th day of June, 1854.
3d. The Sentinels shall be paid five dollars for every day they may
be in attendance on the sittings of the national council.
4th. The Chaplain shall be paid one hundred dollars per annum,
from the 17th day of June, 1854.
5th. The Recording Secretary shall be paid five hundred dollars per
annum, from the 17th day of June, 1854.
6th. The Assistant Secretary shall be paid five dollars per day, for
every day he may be in attendance on the sitting of the national
council. All of which is to be paid out of the national treasury, on the
draft of the President. (November, 1854.)
SPECIAL VOTING.
Vote 1st.—This national council hereby grants to the State of

Virginia two State councils, the one to be located in Eastern and the
other in Western Virginia, the Blue Ridge Mountains being the
geographical line between the two jurisdictions. (June, 1854.)
Vote 2d.—The President shall have power, till the next session of
the national council, to grant dispensations for the formation of
State, District, or Territorial councils, in form most agreeable to his
own discretion, upon proper application being made. (June, 1854.)
Vote 3d.—The seats of all delegates to and members of the present
national council shall be vacated on the first Tuesday in June, 1855,
at the hour of six o’clock in the forenoon; and the national council
convening in annual session upon that day, shall be composed
exclusively of delegates elected under and in accordance with the
provisions of the constitution, as amended at the present session of
this national council; provided, that this resolution shall not apply to
the officers of the national council. (November, 1854.)
Vote 4th.—The Corresponding Secretary of this council is
authorized to have printed the names of the delegates to this national
council; also, those of the Presidents of the several State, District,
and Territorial councils, together with their address, and to forward
a copy of the same to each person named; and further, the
Corresponding Secretaries of each State, District, and Territory are
requested to forward a copy of their several constitutions to each
other. (November, 1854.)
Vote 5th.—In the publication of the constitution and the ritual,
under the direction of the committee—brothers Deshler, Damrell,
and Stephens—the name, signs, grips, and pass-words of the order
shall be indicated by [* * *], and a copy of the same shall be
furnished to each State, District, and Territorial council, and to each
member of that body. (November, 1854.)
Vote 6th.—A copy of the constitution of each State, District, and
Territorial council, shall be submitted to this council for
examination. (November, 1854.)
Vote 7th.—It shall be the duty of the Treasurer, at each annual
meeting of this body, to make a report of all moneys received or
expended in the interval. (November, 1854.)
Vote 8th.—Messrs. Gifford of Pa., Barker of N. Y., Deshler of N. J.,
Williamson of Va., and Stephens of Md., are appointed a committee
to confer with similar committees that have been appointed for the
purpose of consolidating the various American orders, with power to
make the necessary arrangement for such consolidation—subject to
the approval of this national council, at its next session. (November,
1854.)
Vote 9th.—On receipt of the new ritual by the members of this
national council who have received the third degree, they or any of
them may, and they are hereby empowered to, confer the third
degree upon members of this body in their respective states,
districts, and territories, and upon the presidents and other officers
of their state, district, and territorial councils. And further, the
presidents of the state, district, and territorial councils shall in the
first instance confer the third degree upon as many of the presidents
and officers of their subordinate councils as can be assembled
together in their respective localities; and afterwards the same may
be conferred upon officers of other subordinate councils, by any
presiding officer of a council who shall have previously received it
under the provisions of the constitution. (November, 1854.)
Vote 10th.—To entitle any delegate to a seat in this national
council, at its annual session in June next, he must present a
properly authenticated certificate that he was duly elected as a
delegate to the same, or appointed a substitute in accordance with
the requirements of the constitutions of state, territorial, or district
councils. And no delegate shall be received from any state, district, or
territorial council which has not adopted the constitution and ritual
of this national council. (November, 1854.)
Vote 11th.—The committee on printing the constitution and ritual
is authorized to have a sufficient number of the same printed for the
use of the order. And no state, district, or territorial council shall be
allowed to reprint the same. (November, 1854.)
Vote 12th.—The right to establish all subordinate councils in any of
the states, districts, and territories represented in this national
council, shall be confined to the state, district, and territorial
councils which they represent. (November, 1854.)
Constitution for the Government of Subordinate Councils.
Art. I. Sec. 1.—Each subordinate council shall be composed of not

less than thirteen members, all of whom shall have received all the
degrees of the order, and shall be known and recognised as ——
Council, No. ——, of the —— of the county of ——, and State of North
Carolina.
Sec. 2.—No person shall be a member of any subordinate council
in this state, unless he possesses all the qualifications, and comes up
to all the requirements laid down in the constitution of the national
council, and whose wife (if he has one), is not a Roman Catholic.
Sec. 3. No application for membership shall be received and acted
on from a person residing out of the state, or resides in a county
where there is a council in existence, unless upon special cause to be
stated to the council, to be judged of by the same; and such person, if
the reasons be considered sufficient, may be initiated the same night
he is proposed, provided he resides five miles or more from the place
where the council is located. But no person can vote in any council,
except the one of which he is a member.
Sec. 4. Every person applying for membership, shall be voted for
by ballot, in open council, if a ballot is requested by a single member.
If one-third of the votes cast be against the applicant, he shall be
rejected. If any applicant be rejected, he shall not be again proposed
within six months thereafter. Nothing herein contained shall be
construed to prevent the initiation of applicants privately, by those
empowered to do so, in localities where there are no councils within
a convenient distance.
Sec. 5. Any member of one subordinate council wishing to change
his membership to another council, shall apply to the council to
which he belongs, either in writing or orally through another
member, and the question shall be decided by the council. If a
majority are in favor of granting him an honorable dismission, he
shall receive the same in writing, to be signed by the president and
countersigned by the secretary. But until a member thus receiving an
honorable dismission has actually been admitted to membership in
another council, he shall be held subject to the discipline of the
council from which he has received the dismission, to be dealt with
by the same, for any violation of the requirements of the order.
Before being received in the council to which he wishes to transfer
his membership, he shall present said certificate of honorable
dismission, and shall be received as new members are.
Sec. 6. Applications for the second degree shall not be received
except in second degree councils, and voted on by second and third
degree members only, and applications for the third degree shall be
received in third degree councils, and voted on by third degree
members only.
Art. II.—Each subordinate council shall fix on its own time and
place for meeting: and shall meet at least once a month, but where
not very inconvenient, it is recommended that they meet once a
week. Thirteen members shall form a quorum for the transaction of
business. Special meetings may be called by the president at any
time, at the request of four members of the order.
Art. III.—Sec. 1. The members of each subordinate council shall
consist of a president, vice-president, instructor, secretary, treasurer,
marshal, inside and outside sentinel, and shall hold their offices for
the term of six months, or until their successors are elected and
installed.
Sec. 2. The officers of each subordinate council (except the
sentinels, who shall be appointed by the president), shall be elected
at the first regular meetings in January and July, separately, and by
ballot; and each shall receive a majority of all the votes cast to entitle
him to an election. No member shall be elected to any office, unless
he be present and signify his assent thereto at the time of his
election. Any vacancy which may occur by death, resignation, or
otherwise, shall be filled at the next meeting thereafter, in the
manner and form above described.
Sec. 3. The President.—It shall be the duty of the president of each
subordinate council, to preside in the council, and enforce a due
observance of the constitution and rules of the order, and a proper
respect for the state council and the national council; to have sole
and exclusive charge of the charter and the constitution and ritual of
the order, which he must always have with him when his council is in
session, to see that all officers perform their respective duties; to
announce all ballotings to the council; to decide all questions of
order; to give the casting vote in all cases of a tie; to convene special
meetings when deemed expedient; to draw warrants on the treasurer
for all sums, the payment of which is ordered by the council; and to
perform such other duties as are demanded of him by the
Constitutions and ritual of the order.
Sec. 4. The vice-president of each subordinate council shall assist
the president in the discharge of his duties, whilst his council is in
session; and, in his absence, shall perform all the duties of the
president.
Sec. 5. The instructor shall perform the duties of the president in
the absence of the president and vice-president, and shall, under the
direction of the president, perform such duties as may be assigned to
him by the ritual.
Sec. 6. The secretary shall keep an accurate record of the
proceedings of the council. He shall write all communications, fill all
notices, attest all warrants drawn by the president for the payment of
money; he shall keep a correct roll of all the members of the council,
together with their age, residence, and occupation, in the order in
which they have been admitted; he shall, at the expiration of every
three months, make out a report of all work done during that time,
which report he shall forward to the secretary of the state council;
and when superseded in his office shall deliver all books, papers, &c.,
in his hands to his successor.
Sec. 7. The treasurer shall hold all moneys raised exclusively for
the use of the state council, which he shall pay over to the secretary
of the state council at its regular sessions, or whenever called upon
by the president of the state council. He shall receive all moneys for
the use of the subordinate council, and pay all amounts drawn for on
him, by the president of the subordinate council, if attested by the
secretary.
Sec. 8. The marshal shall perform such duties, under the direction
of the president, as may be required of him by the ritual.
Sec. 9. The inside sentinel shall have charge of the inner door, and
act under the directions of the president. He shall admit no person,
unless he can prove himself a member of this order, and of the same
degree in which the council is opened, or by order of the president,
or is satisfactorily vouched for.
Sec. 10. The outside sentinel shall have charge of the outer door,
and act in accordance with the orders of the president. He shall
permit no person to enter the outer door unless he give the pass-
word of the degree in which the council is at work, or is properly
vouched for.
Sec. 11. The secretary, treasurer, and sentinels, shall receive such
compensation as the subordinate councils may each conclude to
allow.
Sec. 12. Each subordinate council may levy its own fees for
initiation, to raise a fund to pay its dues to the state council, and to
defray its own expenses. Each council may, also, at its discretion,
initiate without charging the usual fee, those it considers unable to
pay the same.
Sec. 13. The president shall keep in his possession the constitution
and ritual of the order. He shall not suffer the same to go out of his
possession under any pretence whatever, unless in case of absence,
when he may put them in the hands of the vice-president or
instructor, or whilst the council is in session, for the information of a
member wishing to see it, for the purpose of initiation, or conferring
of degrees.
Art. IV. Each subordinate council shall have power to adopt such
by-laws, rules, and regulations, for its own government, as it may
think proper, not inconsistent with the constitutions of the national
and state councils.
Form of Application for a Charter to Organize a new Council.
Post Office —— county,

Date ——.
To ——
President of the State Council of North Carolina:—
We, the undersigned, members of the Third Degree, being
desirous of extending the influence and usefulness of our
organization, do hereby ask for a warrant of dispensation, instituting
and organizing us as a subordinate branch of the order, under the
jurisdiction of the State Council of the State of North Carolina, to be
known and hailed as Council No. ——, and to be located at ——, in
the county of ——, State of North Carolina.
And we do hereby pledge ourselves to be governed by the
Constitution of the State Council of the State of North Carolina, and
of the Grand Council of the U. S. N. A., and that we will in all things
conform to the rules and usages of the order.
Names. Residences.
FORM OF DISMISSION FROM ONE COUNCIL TO

ANOTHER.
This is to certify that Brother ——, a member of —— Council, No.

——, having made an application to change his membership from
this council to that of —— Council, No. ——, at ——, in the county of
——, I do hereby declare, that said brother has received an honorable
dismission from this council, and is hereby recommended for
membership in —— Council, No. ——, in the county of ——, N. C.;
provided, however, that until Brother —— has been admitted to
membership in said council, he is to be considered subject to the
discipline of this council, to be dealt with by the same for any
violation of the requirements of the order. This the —— day of ——,
185—, and the —— year of American Independence.
—— President, —— Council,
No. ——.
—— Secretary.
FORM OF CERTIFICATE FOR DELEGATES TO THE STATE

COUNCIL.

Cell and Molecular Biology Binder Ready Version Concepts and Experiments 8th Edition Karp Test Bank instant download all chapter

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Cell and Molecular Biology Binder Ready Version Concepts and Experiments 8th Edition Karp Test Bank instant download all chapter

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Cell and Molecular Biology Binder

Ready Version Concepts and

Cell and Molecular Biology Concepts and Experiments 7th

Cell and Molecular Biology Concepts and Experiments 7th

Molecular Cell Biology 8th Edition Lodish Solutions

Molecular Cell Biology 7th Edition Lodish Test Bank

Molecular Biology of the Cell 6th Edition Bruce Alberts

Campbell Biology Concepts and Connections 8th Edition

Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 8th Edition

Essential Cell Biology 4th edition Alberts Test Bank

Question Type: Multiple Choice

a) membrane-bound vesicles of varying diameter, containing material of different electron density

a) closer to the synthesis site

a) RER, Golgi complex, plasma membrane, viral envelopes

a) VSVG protein heads immediately for the Golgi complex.

a) attachment of amino acids to the antibody

a) They have only a few genes.

a) Liposomes cause the protein to denature.

a) the inner membrane of the nuclear envelope

a) their size differences

26) What determines the function of a cell's smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

a) its lipid content

a) synthesis of steroid hormones

a) They often create compounds that cause excessive weight gain.

a) nucleus and RER – SER – Golgi complex – secretory vesicles

a) cytosolic surface of RER and cisternal surface of RER

a) the Chemiosmotic Hypothesis

a) The ribosomes that make secretory proteins are smaller.

a) Protein synthesis accelerates.

38) What appears to be the purpose of molecular chaperones like BiP?

a) After synthesis, an enzyme orients the protein properly.

a) They diffuse freely into the luminal leaflet.

a) peripheral proteins of the inner surface of the plasma membrane

49) What is responsible for adding sugars to dolichol phosphate?

50) CDG1b results from a deficiency in what enzyme?

a) addition of more sugars

a) It degrades the oligosaccharide chain.

58) Where are misfolded secretory proteins eventually destroyed?

59) How do misfolded proteins get to the cytoplasm to be destroyed?

a) They diffuse freely through the lipid bilayer.

60) What is responsible for degrading misfolded proteins in the cytoplasm?

a) They are degraded in the ER.

a) the unfolded protein response (UPR)

a) molecular chaperones, ribosomes

a) The cell grows.

a) the cis cisternae

a) The protein's carbohydrates are modified by a series of stepwise enzymatic reactions.

a) glycosaminoglycans in the animal extracellular matrix

a) Nothing - the sequence is random.

a) the cisternal maturation model

a) the cisternal maturation model

a) They electromagnetically attract the correct cargo proteins.

a) is composed of two distinct protein layers

a) ER export signals in the luminal tails of integral ER membrane proteins

84) To what site does Sar1 bind after it binds to GTP?

a) the luminal leaflet of the ER membrane

a) Because of its linear shape, it firms up the membrane.

a) They accumulated in the nucleus.

a) KKXX at the C-terminus of the protein

a) the medial cisternae

a) Lysosomal enzymes possess sulfated mannose residues on N-linked carbohydrate chains.

a) Lysosomal enzymes would be localized to lysosomes.

a) The vesicles would disintegrate.

a) swelling of the vesicle