(1015CMD30336|230062) Test Pattern

ALLEN CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

CAREER INSTITUYE MINOR
KOTA RAJASTHAN)N (Academic Session : 2023-2024) 14-08-2023

PRE-MEDICAL: ENTHUSIAST ADVANCE COURSE PHASE- MEG-I (B)

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Your Target is tosecure GoodRank in Pre-Medical 2024

 ALLEN® 2
English
Topic : MAGNETISM, TEMPERATURE SCALE, CALORIMETRY, KTG,
:RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
THERMODYNAMICS [BACK UNIT)

SECTION-A (PHYSICS ) Rank the value of de for the closed paths

1. In the given figure, What is the magnetic field at shown in figure from the smallest to largest :
the point '0'?

() (2) Wol (1) a, b, c, d 23 a, c, d, b

4Tr 2r 4r
(3) a, d, c, b (4) a, c, b, d
(3) (4) +
4r 4Tr 4r 2Tr 5. Figure shows the croos-sectional view of the
2. A very long solenoid having 'n' turns per unit hollow cylindrical conductor with inner radius
length as shown in the figure. The magnetic field 'R' and outer radius "2R'. Cylinder is carrying
at point P is : uniformly distributed current along it's axis. The
3R
magnetic induction at point 'P' at a distance 2
from the axis of the cylinder will be :
R
14
R
(1) Lonl (2) Zero
2R
lonl Monl
(3) (4)
2v2 2

3. (1) Zero (2) (3) 7uoi (4)

Current T is flowing in a conductor shaped as
shown in the figure. The radius of the curved
part is r and the length of straight portion is very
large. The value of the magnetic field at the
centre O will be :
72R 18TR 36TR
6. Two particles A and B of masses mA and mp
respectively and having the same charge are
moving in a plane. A uniform magnetic field
exists perpendicular to this plane. The speeds of
the particles are vA and Vg respectively, and the
trajectories are as shownin the figure, Then

(1)

(2)
4r \2 (-9) (1) m VA< MgVB

(3) ol 3 (2) maVA mgVB

4Tr 2 +1) (3) mA < Mp and VA< VB
(4) uol/37
4nr (4) mA = mp and VA = VB
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 English

When a charged particle enters in a uniform 12. A beam of electrons passes undeflected through
magnetic field its kinetic energy :
mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic
(1) remains constant (2Y increases fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the
(3) decreases same magnetic field is maintained, the electrons
(4) becomes zero
8. move :
A proton and a deutron both having the same
kinetic energy, enter Yalongastraight line
uniform magnetic field
perpendicularly into a
B. For motion of proton (2) in an elliptical orbit
and deutron on circular path of
radius R, and Ra (3) in a circular orbit
respectively, the correct statement is :
(4) along a parabolic path
(1) Rq =V2R, (2) Rg= Rp/v2
13. A magnet of magnetic moment 'M is laying in a
(3) R=Rp (4) R=2Rp uniform magnetic field 'B. W, is the work done
A positive charged particle enters in magnetic in turning it from 0° to 60° and W, is the
work
field as shown in figure from boundry XY, find done in turning it from 30° to 90º. Then :
it's total angular deviation when it
exits from
same boundry X-Y: (1) W, =M
2
(2) W= 2Wi
W m
X
9irb3) W=W;
X

X
A clock hung on a wall has marks instead of
numbers on its dial. On the opposite wall there is
X
a mirror, and the image of the clock in the mirror
if read, indicates the time as 8.20. What the
(2) 2a
time in the clock.
(3) I - 0 (4) (2n - 2a)
(1) 3:40 s2s4:40
10. Find magnetic field at point '0':
(3) 5:20 (4) 4:20
M= magnetic moment
M N 15. The focal length of a concave mirror is 50 cm
where an object be placed so that its image is
two times magnified, real and inverted. -
M (1) 0.75 m (2) 0.72 m o- 2
(1) 3uo M (2) 2Ho M
(3) 0.63 m (4) 0.5 cm
4T 3 4 3 16. If a prism having refractive index 3 has angle
Mo M
(3) (4) Zero of minimum deviation equal to the refracting
4n 3
11. The length of a steel wire is L and its magnetic angle of the prism, then the refracting angle of
moment is M. On bending it into the shape of a the prism is :
semicircle, its' magnetic moment will be : (1) 30° (2) 45° m?
(1) M (2) 2M/n (3) M/n (4) MI (3) 60° (4) 90°_2)
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 ALLEN® 4
English
21. Aglass slab of width t', refractive index
17. Figure shows the graph of angle of deviation & ' is
versus angle of incidence ifor alight ray striking placed as shown in the figure. If the point objcct
aprism. The prism angle is moves with a speed 2 cm/s towards the slah the
speed observered will be :

30
2cm/s

60°
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 60° (4) 75°
(1) 2 cm/s
18. A plan0-convex lens of focal length 20 cm
(2) less than 2 cm/s
silvered at the plane surface will behave as a
(3) greater than 2 cm/s
convergent mirror of focal length :
(1) 20 cm (4) dependent on the refractive index of
length surrounding medium
(2) 30cm
A plano 22. A person uses spectacles of power +2D. Find
(3) 40cm
Cenvex lens. nearest position where he can see clearly withòut
(4) 10cm spectacles :
19. A convex lens has a focal length f. It is cut into (1) 25 cm (2) 50 cm
two parts along the dotted line as shown in the (3) 75 cm (4) 100.cm
figure. The focal length of each part will be :
23. An object is kept at a distance 40 cm from the
pole of a convex mirror. A plane mirror is placed
at a distance 30 cm from the object and in a way
that it covers the lower half of the convex mirror.
If the image formed by the mirrors have no gap,
then focal length of convex mirror is:

(1) (2) f (3) (4) 2f (1) 40 cm (2) 50cm

20. Dispersive powers of lens of an achromatic (3) 30 cm (4) 25 cm

combination are 0.02 & 0.03 and this 24. The M.P. of ice on a thermometer is marked as
combination behaves like a concave lens of focal
-20°C and boiling point as 130°, the 34°C will
length of 30 cm. Then focal length of each lens be read on this termometer :
of combination will be :
(1) 31° (2) S1° (3) 20° (4) 60°
(1) 10cm, 15cm
25. On which of the following scales of temperature,
(2) Scm, 20cm
the temperature is never negative ?
(3) 15cm, Scm (1) Celsius (2) Fahrenheit
(4) -30cm, 5cm (3) Reaumur (Y Kelvin
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Bnisti
English
5 clu
26. ALLE
cl. 10litres of aliquid with specific heat 0.2 cal/gm-°C 31.
has the same thermal capacity as that of 20
Ratio of gram specific heat and molar specific
litres of heat for a body :
liquid with specific heat 0.3 cal gm°C, find the ratio Co m)
of their densities : is a universal constant

(1) 3: I (2) depends on mass of body

(2) 1:3
(3) 1:6 (3) depends on molecular weight of body
(4) 6: 1
27. A bullet (4) is dimensionless
moving with speed 400 m/s. strike a
target and energy. Then calculate rise of 32. At what temperature is the root mean square
temperature of bullet. Assuming all the lose in velocity of the gaseous hydrogen molecule equal
kinetic energy is converted into heat energy of to that of oxygen molecules at 47°C:
bullet if its specific heat is 500J/kg°C.
T 32 y20K (2) 80 K (3) -73 K (4) 3K
(1) 100 °C
2 33. Three identical adiabatic containerA and C
(2) 120 °C contain helium, neon and Oxygen respectively at
Tix2 equal pressure. The gases are pushed to half their
(3) 160 °C 203
32 original volumes
(4) 140 °C
(i) The final temperatures in the three containers
28. If 290 cal heat is supplied to a block of ice of will be the same
mass 10 gm at -10°C then find out mass of (i1) The final pressures in the three containers
water obtained, will be the same
10gmat ofi) The pressures of helium and neon will be the
(1) 4 gm (2) 10gm
same but that of Oxygen will be different
(3) 3 gm (4) 2gm (iv) The temperatures of helium and neon will be
29. 2kg ice at - 20°C is mixed with 5 kg water at same but that of oxygen will be different

20°C. Then final amount of water in the mixture (1) (1), (i) (2) (ii), (ii)
would be: (3) (iii), (iv) (4) (1),(iv)
Given specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal/g°C, 34. If work is (done on the system/in an(adiabatic)
Specific heat of water = 1cal/g°C, process then :
Latent heat of fusion for ice = 80 cal/g. (1) T,<T;
(1) 6 kg (2) 5 kg (2) T=T;
(3) 4 kg (4) 2kg
30. A rigid tank contains 35 kg of nitrogen at 6 atm. (4) Information is insufficient
Sufficient quantity of oxygen is supplied to 35. A carnot engine operates with source at 127°C
increase pressure to 9 atm while temp remain
constant. Amount of oxygen supplied to the tank and sink at 27°C. If the source supplies 40 kJ of
is : heat energy,the work done by the engine is :
(1) 5 kg (2) 10 kg () 30 kJ (2) 10 kJ
Wa

(3) 20 kg (4) 40 kg uco (3) 4 kJ (4) 1kJ

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1015CMD303361230062
 ALLEN®

SECTION-B(PHYSICS ) 39. A conducting loop English

carrying a current I is placed
in a uniform
36. The magnetic field at C is : magnetic field pointing into the
plane of the paper as shown. The
a tendency to :
loop will have

R
x

(1) Contract
(2) Hoi
(3) o (4)
37.
2tR 2R 4R es Expand
Figure shows the path of an
of uniform electron in a region (3) Move towards +ve X-axis
magnetic field. The path consists of
two straight sections, each (4) Move towards -ve x-axis
between a pair of
uniformly charged plates and two half-circles. 40. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform
The plates are named 1, 2, 3 & 4 magnetic field in four different orientations,I. II
then :
III & IV. Arrange them in the decreasing order
of potential energy :

(1) 1and 3 at higher (positive)

potential and 2 II. +B
and 4 at lower (negative) B
potential
(2) 1 and 3at lower
potential and 2 and 4 at
higher potential
III. B IV.
(3) 1and 4 at higher potential and 2 and 3 at ’B
lower potential
(4) 1and 4 at lower potential and 2 and 3 at (1) I>III >I|> IV
higher potential (2) I>I|>II> IV
38. In the given figure, the loop is fixed but straight (3) I>IV >II>II
wire can move. The straight wire will;
(4) III >> IV>|>II
41. A plane mirror is placed at origin parallel to
y-axis,
facing the positive X-axis. An object starts from
(2m, 0, 0) with a velocity
(i +25)
m/s. The
relative velocity of image with respect to object is
along :
(1) Remain stationary (1) positive x-axis
(2) Move towards the loop (2) negative x-axis
9 Move away from the loop (3) positive y-axis
(4) Rotate about the axis (4) negative y-axis
PHASE - MEG
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 English 7 ALLEN)
42. A ray of light passes from glass, having a 47. Figure shows the isotherms of fixcd mass of an
refractive index of 1.6, to air. The angle of ideal gas at three temperatures Ta Ty and T:
incidence for which the angle of refraction is then:
twice the angle of incidence is
B
(1) sin (2) sin )
(3) sin
) (4) sin
()
43. In a compound microscope the objective and p
eye-piece have focal lengths of 0.95 cm and (1) T >Tg> Tç
5 cm respectively, and are kept at a
distance
of 20 cm. The last image is formed at a
T<TH< Te
distance of 25 cm from eye-piece. What is (3) T¡=Tg= Tç
the total magnification of the
microscope ?
(1) 95 (2) 94 48. An ideal gas has a volume of 3V at 2 atmosphere
(3) 94/6 (4) None of these pressure. Keeping the temperature constant, its
44. An air bubble in sphere having 4 cm pressure is doubled. Find the new volume of the
diameter
appears 1cm from surface nearest to eye when gas :

looked along diameter. If u,= 1.5, the distance (1) 6V

of bubble from refracting surface is (3) 1.5 V
va4) 1V
(1) 1.2 cm (2) 3.2 cm 49. 10 mole of an ideal gas at constant
temperature
(3) 2.8 cm (4) 1.6 cm 500 K is compressed from 50 L to 5 L. Work

45. A5.0D lens forms a virtual image which is four

done in the process is :
times the object placed perpendicular on the (given, R =8.31 J -mol K)
principal axis of the lens. Find the distance of the (1) - 1.2 x 10 J
in)
object from the lens :
(2) - 2.4 x 10 J 125XDx23
3

(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) - 4.8 x 10 J
3
(3) 15 cm (4) 20 cm
A-9.6 x 10 J
46. Two tanks A & B contain water at 30°C & 80°C
50. Find the amount of work done to increase the
respectively. The amount of water that must be
temperature of one mole of an ideal gas by
taken from A & B to prepare 40 kg water at
30°C, if it is expanding under condition where R
50°C: 1S gas constant V xT x23

(1) 24 kg, 16 kg (1) 32 R

(2) 16 kg, 24 kg (2) 15 R
(3) 20 kg, 20 kg (3) 20 R
(4) 30kg, 10 kg (4) 25 R
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 53 the(mesocompound
Identify52.
MEG
2023 PHASE - Tonic
GOC-I
ALLEN®
-CH, () isomers(3)
its WhatPosition (Y are (3) (3)
gauche related H H Find
-OH,
-0H H Homomer
Enantiomer Y (TILLFROM :
can Geometrical N-N H the
(CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A
relation
form be as COMPLETED).
EACTOR
the CH; ÇH,
H H :
is 'X CH, -Me -Me
more isomers 3 between
and &
HO) NOT
-CH,-H -OH,(2)
(4) -CH, stable Homomer
'Y (4) (2) H (4) Meso(4)
Diastereomer(2) REDOX
given AFFECTING
in IN=NI HO
H form?
than
anti givenDiastereomers Br H
compound REACTION
COOH CH4
compound CH-CH, H ÇH,
EQUATTON
-CH; -OH
[BACK
if
62. 1. 58.
CONSTANT
Average60. S8.
20 UNIT]:
) (3) Most -NH(3) Which (4) (3) CH3CH,(1) Most
1/()
5 +7’(3)+3 (1KMnO4 In () XO, ()Identify
l(1)en
I How Na,S4O6
s wilbeH,C=CH,(3)Nucleophile?Which
SOLUTION
mole NH, -NH -CH, -NH3 -CH)CH,-F CH) stable
+7 acidic NH, strong CH, (TILL
many of
of shows of the the -CH) -CH
’ medium Oxidation carbocations LAST
5/(23)ferrous moles t4 the species +I following
the group - -CH,
following OH
following the CLASS),
Oxalate of flectrophiliclin 1s -CH;
oxidation state (2) (4) is is
(1/3)3 KMnO, (4) (3) 6 H,0(2) (4Altheseof -cO0°(4) -I
yNO, group ISOMERISM A
2 in +7 change -0 All
acidic sulphurof will of
are number these ?
’ not nature
)5 reduced
(43/medium +5 (4) 4 H,nithen ein
of act
Mn
in as
- by in
n neul e
 English
ALLEN®
63. Which is the best description of the behaviour of (69.) The pH of two solutions are 5 and 3
respectively.
bromine in the reaction given below : What will be the pH of the solution made by
Hz0+ Br,’ HOBr +HB mixing the equal volumes of the above solutions
67
(1) Both oxidized and reduced (1), 5.3 (2) 4.3 (3) 3.3 (4) 4.0
Oxidizedonly 70, Which of the following salt undergops-anionic
(3) Reduced only hydrolysis -
(4) Proton acceptor only (1) CuSO4 (2) NH,CI
2 mole of PC1, were heated in a closed vessel of (3) AICl,
2litre capacity. At equilibrium, 40% of PCl, is 71 The pH of 0.001 M NaOH,.n) Solution is -
dissociated into PCla and Cl,. The value of
equilibrium constant is :- Plr 2LtnA2m e (1) 8.5 (2) 3 (3) 9

0.266 (2) 0.53 (3) 2.66 (4) 5.3

2 : Which is having minimum pH 600|
(1) KCI (2) Ma,CO,
aA bB +t cc[AH=-x Kcal. sxolhen m
If high pressure and low temperature are the 5 NH,cI (4) CH,COONa 9i
favourable condition) for the formation of the (73.) Atany temperature of pK, of water is 13.4. Find [OH:
product in above reaction, hence :
(1) 6.7 (2) 2.5 x 107
(2) a<b+c (3) 2x 10-7 (4) 6x 10-5
(3) a =btc (4) None of them lo-1344
74. Which is anacid salt
In the reaction : A +BC+D (a) HCOOK (b) NaH,P0,
the initial concentration of A is double of the (c) NH,HCO, (d) (NH),SO,
initial concentration of B. At equilibrium, the
(1) b, c, d
concentration of B was found to be one third of
Otrbg
the concentration of C. The value of equilibrium (3) Only c (4) c,d
constant is - 3. H ion concentration of water does not change
(1) 1.8 (2) 1.008 by adding :
(3) 0.0028 (4) 0.08 (1) CH;COONa eY NaNO,
4moles of X are mixed with 4 moles of Y. If (3) NaCN (4) Na,CO,
2 moles of P are formed at equilibrium then 76.The pH of 10 Maqueous solution of HCI is :
Kçfor the reaction 8 (2) -8
X+Y P+Q
(1) 4 (2) V4 (3 (4) 3 9 k etwen 6and 7 (4) betvween 7 and 8

68. 7 lonization constant of ammonium hydroxide

A monoprotic acid in a 0.1 M solution ionizes to
1.77 x 10 at 298 K. Hydrolysis
0.001%. Its ionization constant is
ammonium chloride is :
10-3 (2) 1.0 x 10-6
5.65x 10-10 (2) 6.5 x 10 12
(3) 1.0x 10 8 (4) 1.0 x 10-!
(3) 5.65 x 10-13 (4) 5.65 x 10-12
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 Ka 2 3.5x1
ALLEN® 10 | Engllsh

78. What is [H]in 0.4 M solution of HOCÝ hàving 85. At acertain temperature, 50% HI is dissociated at
K, =3.5 x 109 equilibrium for reaction 2HI(g) H,(g) + IL(g).
Then equilibriunm constant will be:
10-8 M (2) 1.2 x 10 M
aoh () 14x (3) 1
(1) 0.5 (2) 3
(3) 1.9 x 10M e3.7 x10-4M
SECTION-B (CHEMISTRY) ? 0.3 *1a-3
The pH value of decinormal NH,OH which is
20% ionised will be : 2x6Whick 3 X14,
86 of the following pair are diastereomers?
NoU (1) 13.3 (2) 14.7 (3) 12.3 (4) 12.95
H
80. For equimolar HCOÔNa (), HÇOÐH (I), 0.

CH,COONH, (II) NaOH (IV), HCI(V) pH will (1) &

be in order : C! H CI

IV> III>>II>V
H H
(2) IV>I> III> II>V H
(2)
H C!
(3) II> I>>KV
(4) V>l > II>> CH; CH;
-H H Br
81. Br
What will be pH of ammonium formate ? (3) &
Br H H -Br
(Given :pK, -3.8 andpky 4.8)
H3 H;
(1) 7.5 (2) 3.4 (3) 6.5 (4) 10.2
CH; CH,
82. On increasing pressure H,Ois) H,0) H -OH H -OH
(4) &
(1) more ice is formed H -OH HO -H

(2) more liquid is formed

CH; H,
87. Which of the following is not an example of
(3) No change
homolytic fission?
(4) None of these
(1) H-0-0-H hv
& For reaction 2SO,(g) + O,(g) 2S0,(g)
[SO,j is defined
(2) H-Br+ÖH +H,0 + Br
reaction quotient (Q) =
(So,T'[O.1
The reaction willproceed from right to left is: (3) H,C=CH,+ H ’ H-CH,
(1) Q=0 (2) Q= K (3) Q< Ks4) Q> K
NHO-No,OH +GO,
84. Kw &) is suitable for 88. Incorrect order of -IPower?
C
(1) -F>-Cl> -Br >-I
(1)
Nag,NH,CI (2) -F>-OH> -NH,
(2)
CHçoONA. NaCN
(3) -NO, >-CN >-CHO
(3) CH,CÓONa, (NH),S0,
-CN >- NO, >- CHO

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11 ALLEN®
89. Which is not ambident nucleophile 95.
Aqueous solution pH
(1) NH,-OH (2) N (A) 10 M HCI (i 12

(B) 10-2 M NaOH| (ii)

YROH (4) H-Ç-CH, (C) 10 M HCI (iii)|7 to 8
(90. In the given compound
(D)| 10 MNaOH|(iv)6to 7
Y (1) (A) - i, (B) -ii, (C) -ii, (D) -iv
X -C (2) (A) - ii, (B) -iii, (C) -i, (D) -iv
D
IfEN()=1.8, EN (B)=2.5, EN(Y=3.5, EN (C)=3.5, (3) (A) - i, (B) -i, (C) -iv, (D) -iii
EN (D) =3.0, then oxidation no. of B' is: (4) (A) - iv, (B) ii, (C) -i, (D) -ii
(1) 0 (2) -2 (3) +4 (4) -4 96. Which pair will show common ion effect ?
For the reaction (1) BaCl, + Ba(NO3), (2) NaCl + HCI
N(g) +3H,(g) 2NH,(g); AH=-93.6 kJ mol (3) NH,OH + NH,CI (4) AgCN + KCN
the number of moles of H, at equilibrium will
97. Which of the following salts will give highest
increase if: pH in water :

YVolume is increased (1) Na,CO, (2) CuSO4

(2) Volume is decreased (3) KCI (4) NaCI
(3) Argon gas is added at constant volume 98. A solution has pH = 5, it is diluted 1000 times
then it will become:
(4) NH, is removed
(1) Neutral (2) Basic
92. At 250°C, the observed vapour density of PC1, is
3 Less acidic (4) More acidic
75. The degree of dissociation of PC1, would be:
[mol. wt. of PCls = 210] : 99 For pure water :

(1) 75% (2) 40% (3) 52.5% (4) 70% (1) pH increase while pOH decrease with
temperature increase
93. The correct increasing order of basic character of (2) pH decrease while pOH increase with
the following compounds is : temperature increase.
(I) CH,NH, pky = 3.4 (3Y Both pH and pOH
temperature rise
decrease with

(I) NH3, pk, = 4.74 increase with

(4) Both pH and pOH
(I) PhNH,, pk, 9.37 temperature rise
(1) III <II <I (2) I<III <II 108. For which case product formation is favoured by
(3) III <|<II (4) III I|<I decreased pressure,?
ae0>g) + C(s)2C0(g); AH° =+172.5 kJ
94. What is the concentration of [H]in 0.003 M (b) N2(g)+3H2(g) 2NH;(g); AH° =-91.8 kJ
CH,COOH (K, =3 x 10) A(C) N2g) +0(g)
2NO(g); AH° = 181 kJ
(1) 6 x 10 4 (2) 9 x J0 10 (ay2H,O(g) 2H,(g) + O,(g) ; AH° =484.6 kJ
(4) 3 x 10-3 (2) c, d (3) b, d a, d
(3) 3x 10-5 () b, c

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Topic : English
BIOTECHNOLOGY (COMPLETE), DNA FINGER PRINTING. H.G.P., MORPHOLOGY AND ANATOMY
[BACK UNIT]: LIFE CYCLE OF ANGIOSPERM AND REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISM
SECTION-A (BIOLOGY-I) 106. Which of the following types of embryosac is
mostly found in Angiosperm
101 The great plant embryologist of india who wrote
the famous book "An introduction to the (1) Bisporic polygonum type
embryology of angiosperm" is :
(2) Tetrasporic type
(1) G.B. Amici (2) Winkler
(3) Monosporic - Onagrad type
3 P. Maheshwari (4) Hanstein
. a Monosporic -polygonum type
102. Dehiscence of anther in mesophytes is caused by :
107. Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of :
(1) hydration of anthers ( dehydration of anthers
(Y'Solidstyle
(3) mechanical injury 4 None of these
(2) Dry stigma
103. Consider the following statements and find
correct
set with respect to pollen grain (3) Wet stigma
a. Asymmetric spindle is characteristic of first mitosis
(4) Hollow style
of microspore
b. Pollen grain'sexine has prominent 108. Choose the correct sequence of development of
apertures called
germ pores, where sporopollenin is absent female gametophyte :
c. Pollen grain measures about 25-50 um in diameter
mMegaspore mother cell (MMC)
a, b &c (2) Only a &c Megaspore tetrad - Megaspore - Nucellus -
(3) Only a (4) Only a & b Female gametophyte.
104. Pollen grains of many species cause severe (2) Nucellus - MMC - Megaspore tetrad -
allergies and bronchial afflictions in some Megaspore - Female gametophyte
people, often leading to chronic respiratory (3) Megaspore tetrad - MMC - Megaspore
disorders like asthma, bronchitis, hay fever etc. Nucellus - Female gametophyte
These allergic pollen grains suspended in air are
known as aeroallergens. One of the aeroallergen (4) Megaspore-MMC-Megaspore tetrad
plant came to India with some food grains and nucellus-Female gametophyte
ubiquitous in occurrence and has become 109.) Find out the correct match from the following
problematic weed in India, this plant is : table :
(1) Lantana eY Eicchornia Column I ColumnII Column II
(3) Ambrosia (4) Parthenium Double Discovered by In Lilium and
105. Which one of the following pairs of plant structures fertilization Nawaschin Fritillaria
True Discovered by
has haploid number of chromosomes ? In Monotropa
fertilization Strasburger
() Nudehus and antipodal cells
iii Pollen tube Discovered by In Portulaca
(2) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus Hanstein plant

(3) Megaspot mother celland antipodalcells (1) ionly (2) iand ii

-(4 Egg celland antipodal cells (3) iiionly (4) ii and iii
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110. Select the number of organisms from given dist 13.) Assertion :- Formation of gametophyte directly
that show triple fusion, : from sporophyte without meiosis is called
Ficus Marcipktia, Coconut, Bean, apospory.
Castor, Sweet potato. Reason :- In apospory gametophyte always
remain haploid.
(1) Four
(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason
(2) Six is a correct explanation of the assertion.
3Y Five (2)) Both assertion & reason are true but reason
(4) Three is not a correct explanation of the assertion.

111. Statement - I: In geitonogamy transfer of pollen (3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
grain from anther to stigma of same flower of (4) Both assertion & reason are false
same plant. X 114. How many meiosis are needed for the formation
Statement - I : Only small proportion of plants of 400 embryosac in most of the angiosperm
use abiotic agent.
plants ?
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are (2) 800
400
incorrect.
(3) 200 (4) 100
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect. 115. Which of the following is an annçal plant ?

(3Y Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is Bamboo (2) Agave

correct. (3 Mango (4) Maize
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are (16J An octaploid male plant crossed with diploid
correct. female plant, then find the ploidy level of
112. In figure below, find out coleoptile, shoot apex secondary nucleus andembryo respectively :
and epiblast respectively. (1) 2n and Sn (2) &n and 5n

A (3) ón and 8n (4) 6n and 3n

(Leophile 117. Match the following : (life span) :

-B
Column -I Column-I
C
(A) Dog (0) 200 -300 yr.

(B) Butterfly (ii)20 yr.

7stesnhiy

(C) Rice plant ii) |1-2 week

yeolee
(D) Bangan Tree () 4 month

(1) A, B and C YA- II, B II, C - IV, D-I

2B.C and D (2) A- II, BA, C- IV, DI
(3) D, F and G (3) A - II, B III, C - I, D- IV
(4) E, F and G (4) A- III, B y, C- I,D - I
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118. Dioecious plants (papaya, date palm) prevent : 124: In the E.Coli cloning vector PBR322, the
(1) Autogarny but not geitonogamy number of selectable marker gene is:
(2) Geitonogamy but not autogamy (2) 1

3YBoth autogamy and geitonogamy (4) 3

(4) Neither autogamy nor geitonogamy 125. Strategy used to prevent nematode infection of
tobacco roots is :
119. Microspores of angiosperm are formed by the
process of (1) Use of agrochemicals
(1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis (2) Bttoxin gene

(3) Amitosis . Y Both 1 & 3 (3) Gene mutation

120. How many chromosome will be present in,root 4) RNAinterference

and (egg cell in a grafted plant respectively if 126. The crop engineered for glyphosate are
stock is having 40 chromosome & scion resistant/tolerant to :
have 30 chromnosome
(1) Bacteria
(1) 40 and 30 (2) 30 & 15
(2) Insect
(3Y 40 and 15 (4) 20& 15
3Herbicides
121. Extrachromosomnal DNA used as vector in gene
(4) Fungi
cloning is:
127. Which of the following vector is used
(1) Transposon (2) Intron
extensively for genetic engineering in animals?
(3) Exon 4 Plasmid
(1) E.coli
122. A typical bioreactor has
(2) Ti plasmid
(a) An agitator system
(b) An oxygen delivery system (3) Bacillus thuriengenensis
(c) Afoam control systemw (4Y Retrovirus (disarmed)
(d) A tenmperature control system 128. Mark the correct statement :
(e) ApH control system
() Sampling ports (1) The normal E. coli cells carry resistance
against kanamycin antibiotics.
(1) a, b and c (2) a, b, cand d
(2) In pBR-322, rop sequence codes for
(3) a, b, c, d and e a, b, c, d, eand f proteins involved in the replicatiðn of
123. Which of the following technique is used for plasmid.
separation and isolation of DNA fragment ?
3) In pBR-322, Bam HI restriction site is
(1) RFLP located in ampicillin antibiotic resistance
gene sequence.
2YGEL clectrophoresis
(4) In pBR-322, Pvu-I-restriction site is located
(3) PCR-technique
in tetracycline antibiotic resistance gene
(4) Cloning sequence.
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129. EcoR I cuts the DNA between the
same two 132. In the following diagram represents :
bases on the opposite strands when
following
sequence is present in the DNA? peptide (21 annino acid)

(1) si GAATTG 3
B peptide (30 amino acid)
3' CTTAA,Cs (1) Proinsulin (2) Mature insulin
s'GAATTc 3 (3) Functional insulin 4 Both 2 and 3
3'cTTAA,Gs 133. Genetically modified organisms (GMO) have
been useful in many ways. Which is incorrect
(3) s'c'cc GGG 3' about genetic modification ?
3' GGG CcC$
(1) They made crops more tolerant to drought.
(4) s'G'GATCc 3 (2) They enhance the nutritionalvalue of food.
3'cCTAG,Gs (3) They reduce the post harvest losses.
130. Trangenic Hirudin is obtained from
4Y They enhance reliance on chemical pesticides.
(1) Ocimum sanctum
134. Some of the steps involved in the production of
Brassica napus humulin are given below. Choose the correct
(3) Potato sequence.
(1)Purification of humulin.
(4) Tomato
(2) Extraction of recombinant gene product from
131. Which of the following is wrongly matched in E.coli.

the given table ? (3) Culturing recombinant E.coli in bioreactors.

(4) Introduction of recombinant plasmid into E.coli.
Golden Transgenic Vitamin A
(1) (5) Synthesis of gene for human insulin artificialy.
rice rice enriched (6) Insertion of human insulin gene into plasmid.
Flavr Transgenic Delayed (1) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 6 (2) 1,3, 5, 6, 2, 4
)
savr tobacco ripening Y5, 6, 4, 3, 2, 1 (4) 3,5, 2, 1, 6, 4
Bt Transgenic Bacterial and 135. At present about How many recombinant
(iii therapeutics have been approved for human use
cotton cotton viral resistance
the world over :
Milk contained
Transgenic (2) 30 (3) 27 (4) 40
i)Rosie human alpha
COW SECTION-B (BIOLOGY-I)
antitrypsin
136. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is
(1) iand ii
attached to the :
.(2Y i, iiand iv (1) anther (2) connective
(3) Only ii and iii
(3) placenta (4 halamus or petal
(4) Only ii
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137. Assertion :- From one English
functional megaspore 7 celled 140.
and 8 nucleated embryo sac is developed Statement I:Removal of anthers from the flower bud
Reason - Fomation of megaspores from during the anther dehisces is called
the emasculation.
Staternent II : If the female parent produces
megaspore mother cell is called unisexual
megasporonogenesis. flowers., there is no need for
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are
True and the
emasculation.
(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are true
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false
(2Y Both Assertion & Reason are True
but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the (3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (4)Statement-I and statement-II both are false
(4) Both Assertion & 141. Which oldest seed is excavated from
Reason are False. Arctic
138. Identify the plants parts Tundra?
labelled A, B, C, D and
E in the figure given below and (1) Lupinus arcticus
select the right
option. (2) Phoenix dactylifera
(3) Solanum nigrum
D t
(4) Raphanus sativus
E<
142. Find out the correct match from the following
table :

B Column
>A Column I Column II
A B C D

Male A type of third

Vegetative Central
Litchi Aril
gametes nucleus cell Egg Synergid
integument
Generative Male Central
(2) Synergid Egg Remnant of
nucleus cell
gamete Castor Perisperm
Male Vegetative Central
nucellus
(3 Synergid
nucleus Egg
gametes cell
iii Cuscuta Translator Helps in seed
(4)
VegetativeMale Central
apparatus germination
nucleus gamete
Synergid cell
Egg

139. Given below are two statements :

(1) ionly (Yiand ii
Statement-I :- Cleistogamous flower naturally (3) ii only (4) ii and iii
exhibit both autogamy and geitonogamy. 143. One sepal is enlarged and becomes bright yellow
Statement-II :- Chasmogamous flower can not coloured and attractive which is called
exhibit autogamy. "Advertising flag" in :
(1) Statement-I and II both are correct. (1) Neem
(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect. (2) Bamboo

(3) Only Statement-1 is correct. (3) Dianthus

(4) Only Statement-Il is correct. 4 Mussacnda

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144. Choose the Correct option for given 146. Insect tolerant gene from Bacillus thuringiensis
diagrams (a-e): is introduced using Tiplasmid of
(1) Escherchia coli
(a) (b)
s2 Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(3) Haemophilus influenzae
(4) Arabidopsis thaliana
(c) (d) 147. If the plasmid in bacteria does not have any
insert then in the presence or chromogenic
substrate it gives:
(Y Blue coloured colonies
(2) Colourless colonies
(e)
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Insertional inactivation of B-galactosidase
(1) a-Root tuber, b-Corm, c-Bulb, d-Stem buds enzyme
of Bryophyllum, e-Stolon
(2) a-stem tuber, b-rhizome, c-bulbil of 148. After 4 PCR cycles how many DNA molecules
onion, d-leaf buds of Bryophyllum, e-offset are formed from one DNA template molecule :
of water hyacinth
(1) 4
, (3Ya-Potato tuber, b-rhizome of ginger, c-Bulbil
of Agave, d-leaf buds of Bryophyllum, e (2) 32
offset of water hyacinth
(4) a-Potato tuber, b-rhizome of garlic, c-bulbil
(4) 8
of ginger, d-Bryophyllum leaf buds, e-offset
of terror of bengal 149. Which of the following genes were introduced in
145. Find the corect match. cotton to protect it fromcotton bollworms?
Column-A Column-B
(1) cry IIAc and cry IAb
(Name of (Chromosome number in
(2) Bt Ac and Bt Ab
organisms) meiocytes)
1. House fly (a 1260 cry IAc and cry lIIAb

2. Dog (b) 78 (4) Nif genes

(c) 12
3. Ophioglossum 150. The process of separation and purification of
4. Rice (d) 24 expressed protein before marketing is called

(1) 1-a, 2-b, 34-d ( Downstreamprocessing

(2) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c (2) Bioprocessing
(3) 1-a, 2-b, . 4-c (3) Postproduction processing

(4Y 1-. 2-b, 3-4, 4d (4) Upstream processing

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Topic : BIOTECHNOLOGY (COMPLETE), DNA
FINGER PRINTING, H.GP. MORPHOLOGY AND
BACK UNIT]:LIFE CYCLEOF ANGIOSPERM AND ANATOMY
IN REPRODUCTION ORGANISM
SECTION-A (BIOLOGY-I ) 155. HGP was closely
associated with the rapid
151. Statement-I: The protein encoded by gene cry development of a new area in biology called
LAc and cry II Ab control cotton ball worm (1) Biotechnology Bioinformaties
Statement-II: Most Bt toxins are insect group (3) Bioremediation (4) Biostatics
specific
156. Thermal cycle takes place in which technique.
w Statement-I& Statement-IIboth are correct. (1) Gelelectrophoresis
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is 2Y PCR-technique
incorrect.
(3) Centrifugation
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & (4) Southern blotting
Statement-II is
Correct.
157. Bt-Cotton is resistant for :
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-Ilis incorrect. (1) Round-worm (2) Fluke-worm
152. A is the term used to refer to the use of
bio (3Y Boll-worm (4) Pin-worm
resources by multinational companies and other
organisations without proper authorisation from 158. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive
the countries and people concerned without molecule is called :
Compensatory payment, then find out correct (1) Clone (2) Plasmid
option w.r.t. to_A.
(1) Ethical issues (3) Vector y Probe
159. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel
e Biopiracy
can be visualised after staining with :
(3) Downstream processing
(|) Acetocarmine (2) Aniline blue
(4) Vaccine processing
YEthidium bromide (4) Bromophenol blue
153. Arrange the following in correct order of
160. Select the incorrectly matched
sequence for DNA fingerprinting process.
(a) Blotting (b) Autoradiography (1) Tap root system - Dicots
(c) Gel electrophorosis (d) Hybridization
(2) Fibrous root system - Wheat plant
(e) Restriction digestion (f) lsolation of DNA
B Pneumatophores - Rhizobium
f, e, c, a, d, b (2) a, c d, b, e, f
(4) Adventitious roots - Monstera
(3) b, c, a, d, f, e (4) c, a, b, d, f, c
161. The stems of maize and sugarcane have
154. Transferring the DNA segments from agarose
gel to nitrocellulose membrane is reffered as :
Supporting roots coming out of the lower nodes
of the stem are called
(1) Eastern blotting (1) Prop roots
(2) Western blotting Stilt roots
3Y Southern blotting (3) Tap roots
(4) Northern blotting (4) Pneumatophores
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162. Which ot the followmy
slatemCnt is 0ot correc? 167, Whch one ix hot Corrcctly matched:
) When the
enlet's fom a letwvork, thc () Zygoophic flower - Pca and casta
venatiOn is temed as reticulate.
(2) When the (2) Aconorphic llower Mustard and Datura
vens runs parallel to cach other
within lamina, the venation is (3) Hypogynous lower - China rosc and Brinjal/
termed as
parallel.
YPerigynous tlower -Plum, Petunia and rose
(3) Leaves of dicotyledons plants generally 168. Statement-I: Calyx and corolla arc acccssory
possess reticulate venation. organs while androecium, and gynoccium are
In dicotyledons, the leaf base reproductive organs.
expands into
a sheath
covering the stem partially or Statement-II: The flower is the reproductive unit
wholly. in both gymnosperms and angiosperms.
163. Photosynthetic, green & expended petiole is (1) Both Statement Iand Statement II are incorrect.
found in :
23 Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) Opuntia (2) Euphorbia
incorrect.

(3) Both 1& 2 .4 (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is

Australian acacia correct
164. When stamens are attached to the
petals, they are
(4) Both Statement I and Statement I are correct.
() Epiphyllous (2) Epitepellous
169. Which one is not correctly matched ?
(3Epipetalous (4) Gamopetalous
() Polyandrous - Stamens free
165. Drupe develop from -
(2) Staminode - Sterile stamen
) Monocarpellary inferior ovaries
(3Y Epiphyllous -Stamen attached to petal
3YMonocarpellary superior ovaries (4) Polyadelphous - more than two bundles of
(3) Multicarpellary inferior ovaries stamens

(4) Multicarpellary superior ovaries 170. Which one of the following diagrams represents
166. Match the column-I with column-l! theplacentation of Argemone ?
Column-I Column-I
(2)
(A) Stem tendr1l (l Colocasia

(B) Underground em ) Grapevines (4)

( Thorns W Opuntia
171. How many plants in the list given below have
(D) Flattencd stG) y Bougainvillea
epIgynous flower.
) AIV. BII DI Soyafeun, Irtom, Seshtaia, ANe. Aspuragus.
2) AI, B 1 IV DI
Pealia, (jytrls, Gusí. GNnosha, Cueríimher.
r AII, B1,CV, D 1| iS.Sypower
(4) 12
(4) A-1, B-|1,CI, D|V (2) 6

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172. ldentify the correct statements English
175. The presence of vessels is a characteristics
(a) In hypogynous flower the gynoecium
feature of -
occupies the highest position while the other
parts are situated below it w (1) Gymnosperms 2 Angiosperms
(b) Flowers with bracts-reduced leaf found of the
base of the pedicel are called bracteate. (3) Both 1and 2 (4) Pteridophytes
(c) Based on the position of calyx corolla and
176. Sieve tubes and companion cells are absent in
gynoecium in respect of the ovary on thalamus,
the flowers are (1) Gymnosperms (2) Angiosperms
described
perigynous and epigynous.
as hypogynous,

(d) A flower is asymmetric if it cannot be (3) Pteridophytes .(4Y Both I and 3

divided into two similar halves by any vertical
plane passing through the centre.
(e) Each flower normally has four floral whorles
calyx, Carolla, androecium and gynoecuium.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
177. Statement-I: Stomata are structures present in
the epidermis of leaves
Statement-II : Stomata regulate the process of
transpiration and gaseous exchange.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

() (a). bA ) and (e) only (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is

incorrect.
(2) . (sand k) only
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement I is
(3Y ká), (b) (d) and (e) only correct
(4) (a), (bx «, (d) and (e)
(4Y Both Statement I and StatementII are correct.
.173. Assertion: The meristems which occurs at the
tips of roots and shoots and 178. Which one is incorrect about trichomes
produce primary
tissues are called apical meristems. (1) They help in preventing water loss due to
Reason: Root apical meristem occupies the tip transpiration
of a root while the shoot apical meristem
(2) They may even be secretory
occupies the distant most region of the stem axis.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
3 They are usually unicellular
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion. (4) They may be branched or unbranched and
soft or stiff.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
179. Match the column I with column II.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Column-I Column-I
Assertion and Reason are true and
Provide mechanical
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. P. Parenchyma I.
support
174. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ? Q. Collenchyma II. Storage of food
(1) Tissue-group of cells having common R. Sclerenchyma III. Photosynthesis
origin and function.
S. Sclereids IV.Highly thicked dead cells
(2) Meristem-Specialised region of active cell
division. (1) P-I, Q - II, R-III, S -IV

(3) Anatomy-Study of internal structure of plants (2) P-IV, Q - I, R-II, S - III

Primary meristems-Both apical meristems . (3YP-II, Q-II, R-I,S -IV

and inter-fascicular cambium.
(4) P - III, Q - II, R - I, S - IV
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180, ldentity the incorrect statement -
184. Consider the following statements:
Tcheid's are clongated or tube like cells with () Epidermis is covered with a thin layer of
thick and ligniticd walls and tapering cnds
cuticle.
is long cylindrical tube like (I) Epidermis may bear trichomes) and a few
structure
made up of many cells called vessel members stomata./
(3) Sieve tube elements are long (|I) Multiple layers between epidermis and
tube like
structures arranged longitudinally and are pericycle constitute the cortex
associated with the companion cells. s (1V) Hypodermis consists of a few layers of
(4) Vessel members are collenchymatous cells.
interconnected through (V) The cells of he endodermis are rich in starch
pits in their common walls.
181. Match list-l with list-|| grains.
These statements are correct for which of the
List-I List-II
(a) | Dicot stem
anatomical structures?
(Open vascular bundle
(b) Monocot stem (1) Dicot Root (2) Monocot Root
Closed vascular bundle
(c) Root ii) Radial vascular bundle YDicot Stem (4) Monocot stem
(d) | Stem and leaves t ) Conjoint vascular bundle 185. Presence of casparian strips is the characteristic
? feature of -
Choose the correct answer from the option given Endodermis
(1) Hypodermis
below :
(3) Pericycle (4) Epidermis
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1)(ii)(iv)()
SECTION-B (BIOLOGY-I)
(ii)
(ii)() (iv) (iii) 186. Which vector is used to introduce ADA cDNA

(ii) (iii) (iv) into the human lymphocytes in case of adenosine

deaminase (ADA) deficitncy?
(4)() (ii) (ii) (iv)
(1) -phage Retrovirus
182. Which one is not correctly matched ?
(3) BA (4) YAC
(1) Spring wood - Lower density
187. The genetic defect-adenosine deaminase (ADA)
(2) Autumn wood - Higher density deficiency may be cured permanently by :
(3) Spring wood - Large no. of xylary elements (1) Periodic infusion of genetically

(9Y Autumn wood - Light coloured engineered lymphocytes having functional

ADA CDNA.
183. The innermost layer of the cortex is called -
(2) Enzyme replacement therapy
yEndodermis (3) Administering adenosine deaminase activators.
(2) Epidermis
4) Isolating gene from marrow cells producing
(3) Hypodermis ADA is introduced into cells at early
(4) Pericycle embryonic stages.
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 ALLEN 22 English
188. The Indian Government has set up organisation 193. Assertion : A leaf is said to be simple when its
which willmake decisions regarding the validity
lamina is entire or when incised the incisions do
of GM rescarch and the safety of introducing
not touch the midrib.
GM-organisms for public services :
Reason : When the incisions of the lamina reach
YGEAC (2) GEAO
upto the midrib breaking it into a number of leaf
(3) GMO (4) GMRI lets, the leaf is called compound.
189. DNA finger printing profile will be exactly same (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
of : is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(a) Sibling (b) Monozygotic twins (2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(c) Offsprings (d) Dizygotic twins
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only
Y Both Assertion and Reason are true and
rbonly (4) b and d only Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B
190. 194. Select the corectly matched about aestivation.
(1YValvate - Tulip
(2) Twisted -Gloriosa
The above given diagram show the arrangement (3) Vexillary - Petunia X
of DNA ragment during electrophorosis. In
which lane A is of sample and another four is the (4) Imbricate -Belladonn
lane of suspect. which lane is the lane of the 195. Gynoecium tricarpellary, Syncarpous, Ovary
criminal in above diagram : superior, trilocular with many ovules, and axile
(1) D (2) B (3) C E placentation is found in

191. The sequence that controls the copy number of () Mustarfa (2) Asparagus
the linked DNA in the vector, is termed :
(Y Petunia (4) Lupin
(1) Recognition site 196. Which tissue forms the major component with in
(2) Selectable marker organs ?

3Y Ori site mParenchyma

(4) Palindromic sequence (2) Collenchyma
192. In which the lateral branches originate from the (3) Sclerenchyma
basal and underground portion of the main stem, (4) Xylem
grow horizontally beneath the soil and then come
197. Which one is not correct about sclereids ?
out obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots ?
H Banana and mint Sun
(1) Spherical,oval or cylindrical shaped
(2) Highly thickened dead,cells
(2) Pineapple and Banana
(3) Very narrow cavities (lumen)
(3) Pineapple and Jasmine
(4) Strawberry and Chrysanthemum
4) Cell wall pectocellulosic

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 23 ALLEN
198. Open vascular bundles are
found in 200. VWhich one is not correctly
(1) Dicot stem (2) Dicot root
matched about monocot
stem ?

Both 1and 2
Monocot
Cot stem (1) Vascular bundles - Conjoint and closed type
199. Read the following
statements about the dicot root: (2) Bundle sheath -
Parenchymatous
(a) The cortex consists of several
layers of thin (3)
walled parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces. Hypodermis - Sclerenchymatous
(6) Endodermis is composed of single (4) Ground tisse-Large, Conspicuous 246
layer of barrel
shaped cells without intercellular spaces.
(c)The pith is snall or
(d) The parenchymatousinconspicuous
cells which lie between the
xylem and the phloem are called
(e) There are usually medullary rays.
two to four xylem and phloem
patches.

(1) (a), (c) and (e) are only

2-6.8
correct o.
2.
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (e) are
only correct
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) are
correct
(4) (b), (c), (d) and (e) are only correct

|.2
R
QUESTIONS BREAK-UP CHART FOR MINOR TEST
ALLEN
CAREER INSTITUTE
FROM CURRENT & PREVIOUS UNITS
KOTA RAJASTHAN Session: 2023 -2024)
ENTHUSE ADV. COURSE:MEG
MINOR
CURRENT
TEST NO. PREVIOUS UNIT (cOMPLETE TOPIC)
UNIT
& DATE

AVAVE OPTICS AND U&D, ERROR

3da’ hodathodaran Oh
SYLLABUS
COVERED FROM
07 16-08-2023 C WELECTROCHEMISTRY
10-09-2023
TO
09-09-2023

B KECOLOGY

PHASE- MEG 14-08-2023

1015CMD303361230062